Test Your Preparation For NEET 2021: Anand Prakash
Test Your Preparation For NEET 2021: Anand Prakash
Test Your Preparation For NEET 2021: Anand Prakash
Anand Prakash
Co-Founder, Vedantu
NEET Results 2020
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Solution: Sequence of different components of woody dicot stem from outerside to inner side is:
Solution: Fibrous joint are immovable joints where two bones are connected with the help of fibrous connective tissue.
4. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as :
(1) Epiblast
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Scatellum
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(4) Coleoptile
8. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to :
(1) Deuteromycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Phycomcetes
(4) Ascomycetes
Solution: Deuteromycetes - Imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling.
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9. Match the columns and identify the correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) Thylakoids (i) Disc-Shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(b) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of DNA
(c) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
(d) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria
11. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by:
(1) Leghaemoglobin
(2) Xanthophyll
(3) Carotene
(4) Cytochrome
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Solution: During Biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by pink coloured oxygen
scavenger pigment leghaemogolobin.
12. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere termed as :
(1) Keystone
(2) Alien
(3) Endemic
(4) Rare
Solution: The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as Endemic.
13. Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism?
(1) Cortisone
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Insulin
(4) Glucagon
Solution: Mineralocorticoid (Aldosterone) has no role in sugar metabolism. It helps in salt metabolism.
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16. Which one is a wrong statement?
(1) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms
(2) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
(3) Haploid endoperm is typical feature of gymnosperms
(4) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c, and fucoxanthin
17. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this techniques is :
(1) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
(2) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(3) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
(4) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
Solution: The wings of a bird and an insect are analogous structure which differ in structure and origin but perform similar
functions and represent convergent evolution.
19. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of :
(1) Vitamin B
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Omega 3
(4) Vitamin A
Solution: Golden rice is nutritionally enriched rich and is meant for biosynthesis of vitamin A.
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(3) Is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression
(4) Expose harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
21. Which one of the following hormones though synthesised elsewhere, is stored and release by the master gland?
(1) Antidiuretic hormone
(2) Luteinizing hormone
(3) Prolactin
(4) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
Solution: Antidiuretic hormone is synthesized by the neurons of hypothalamus and stored in axon endings of posterior lobe of
pituitary and released into the blood by posterior pituitary.
22. An association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having functional interections is:
(1) Ecological niche
(2) Biotic community
(3) Ecosystem
(4) Population
Solution: Populations of different species occurring in a habitat comprise the biotic community
Solution: Sulphur and phosphorus are found on earth crust in the form of rocks
24. Identify the correct order of organization of genetic material from largest to smallest :
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(1) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(2) Genome, chromosomes, nucleotide, gene
(3) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(4) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
25. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to the ocean is :
(1) Eptatretus
(2) Myxine
(3) Neomyxine
(4) Petromyzon
Solution: Petromyzon (Lamprey) is a migratory marine water jawless fish which shows anadromous migration. It spawns in fresh
water, stops feeding and dies. Its larva (Ammocoetes) after metamorphosis will return to ocean.
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Answer Key: (3)
Solution: In coelenterates, metagenesis is alternation of generation between polyp and medusa. Polyp reproduces asexually by
budding to form medusa and medusa reproduces sexually to form polyp.
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32. Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
(1) IgD
(2) IgM
(3) IgA
(4) IgG
Solution: IgA is present in external body secretion including colostrum and milk. They provide naturally acquired passive immunity
to child.
33. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of :
(1) Sensory impulses
(2) Voluntary motor impulses
(3) Commissural impulses
(4) Integrating impulses
Solution: Anterior horn cells are ventral horn cells of spinal cord which consists of motor neurons.
34. The cutting of DNA at specific location became possible with the discovery of :
(1) Restriction enzymes
(2) Probes
(3) Selectable markers
(4) Ligases
Solution: The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of restriction enzymes called molecular
scissors or knife.
35. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represents the affected individuals. Identify the type of given
pedigree.
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(4) X-linked dominant
36. A colour blind man marries a women with normal sight who has no history of colour blindness in her family. What is the
probability of their grandson being colour blind?
(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) Nil
(4) 0.25
Solution:
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(1) Sunflower
(2) Pistia
(3) Pea
(4) Wheat
Solution: Balbiani rings are the large chromosome puff of polytene chromosomes. These are the sites of RNA and protein
synthesis.
Solution:
Mode of Example
Reproduction
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Answer Key: (2)
Solution: Any extra uterine pregnancy is ectopic pregnancy. Implantation can occur in the wall of abdominal cavity, ovaries but 90-
95% of ectopic pregnancies are tubal pregnancy where implantation occurs in fallopian tube.
Solution: Morels and truffles are edible fungi belong to class ascomycetes.
Solution: Gap junctions are communicating junctions in animals which facilitates communication between two adjoining cells by
protein bridges for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and large molecules.
Solution: The number of ovules are arranged on central axis in multilocular ovary.
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Answer Key: (2)
46. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use :
(1) Seed colour
(2) Pod length
(3) Seed shape
(4) Flower position
Solution: Mendel did not selected Pod length as a character for study
Solution: Ecological succession involves gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area.
48. The body cells in cockroach discharges their nitrogenous waste in the Haemolymph mainly in the form of :
(1) Ammonia
(2) Potassium urate
(3) Urea
(4) Calcium carbonate
Solution: Malpighian tubules keep floating in haemolymph from where potassium waste diffuses into the tubule. Urate crystals
are crystals of uric acid.
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50. The UN conference Parties in climate change in the year 2012 was held at :
(1) Durban
(2) Doha
(3) Lima
(4) Warsaw
Solution: The United Nations Climate change conferences are yearly conferences and are known as Conference of
the Parties (COP).
Solution: As various ions from the soil are actively transported into the vascular tissues of the roots, water follows and increases
the pressure inside the xylem i.e., root pressure (positive pressure).
53. Which one of the following animals has two separate circulatory pathways?
(1) Frog
(2) Lizard
(3) Whale
(4) Shark
Solution: Whale is a mammal which has 4 chambered heart, so has complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
Whale have double circulatory pathways: Systemic and pulmonary circulation.
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54. Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?
(1) Decrease in estradiol
(2) Full development of Graafian follicle
(3) Release of secondary oocyte
(4) LH surge
Solution: In 28 days reproductive cycle, ovulation occurs on 14th day due to LH surge. In the mid cycle, the level of FSH and
estrogen are also high. The female gamete is released from the ovary in secondary oocyte stage after completing meiosis I.
Solution: Detritivores are an important aspect of many ecosystem. They can live on any soil with organic component, including
marine ecosystem.
56. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you like for confirmation
evidence?
(1) Fibrinogen in plasma
(2) Serum albumins
(3) Haemocytes
(4) Serum globulins
Solution: Antibodies are present in serum. They are glycoproteins and also called gammaglobulins synthesized in lymph nodes.
57. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissue are :
(1) Rhizoids
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Mesosomes
(4) Holdfast.
Solution: Fimbriae - Hollow tubular surface appendages, present in bacterial cell, which help in attachment to rocks and / or host
tissues.
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58. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as :
(1) Biomagnification
(2) Biodeterioration
(3) Biotransformation
(4) Biogeochemical cycling
59. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect development are the
characteristics of phylum:
(1) Coelenterata
(2) Porifera
(3) Mollusca
(4) Protozoa
Solution: In poriferans, the body is loose aggregate of cells (meshwork of cells). Internal cavities and canals are lined with food
filtering flagellated cells i.e. choanocyte/collar cell. Choanocytes help in filter feeding.
60. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of the following pairs of elements is
involved in this reaction?
(1) Manganese and chlorine
(2) Manganese and Potassium
(3) Magnesium and Molybdenum
(4) Magnesium and Chlorine
Solution: Manganese, chlorine and calcium help in photolysis of water during light reaction of photosynthesis.
61. The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the following type of teeth :
(1) Canine
(2) Premolars
(3) Molars
(4) Incisors
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2102
Dental formula of child (primary dentition) = 2102
So premolars and third molar (last molar) are absent in primary dentition.
Solution: Zona pellucida is non-cellular membrane made up of glycoproteins. It is secreted by secondary oocyte in Graafian follicle.
Solution: When Agrobacterium tumifaciens infects the host plant, it will transfer a part of DNA called t-DNA without any human
interference so called natural genetic engineer.
65. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin lapping shells which fit together
(1) Chrysophytes
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Slime moulds
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Solution: Chrysophytes are photosynthetic protists. They have overlapping cell wall like soap box.
Solution: Tubular secretion maintains the pH and ionic balance of body fluids in which hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the
filterate and bicarbonate ions are reabsorbed.
Solution: Light-independent reactions or Dark reactions occur in stroma/ stromal matrix. During these reactions carbon dioxide is
reduced to carbohydrates.
68. In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the center of the visual field, where :
(1) High density of cones occur, but has no rods
(2) The optic nerve leaves the eye
(3) Only rods are present
(4) More rods than cones are found
Solution: Fovea has highest visual acuity which has only cone cells and no rod cells.
69. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called :
(1) Transformer
(2) Vector
(3) Template
(4) Carrier
Solution: The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called vector.
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70. Pick up the wrong statement :
(1) Cell wall is absent in Animalia
(2) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition
(3) Some fungi are edible
(4) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera
Solution: The members of kingdom-Monera are prokaryotes they lack nuclear membrane.
71. Among China rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many plants have superior ovary?
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Three
(4) Four
Solution: Superior ovary is found in plants i.e. china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, onion and tulip.
72. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage
in the alveolar walls.
(1) Pleurisy
(2) Emphysema
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Asthama
Solution: Emphysema is mainly due to cigarette smoking in which the walls of alveoli are damaged that leads to reduction in
surface area for gaseous exchange.
73. A column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees does not break under its weight because of :
(1) Dissolved sugars in water
(2) Tensile strength of water
(3) Lignification of xylem vessels
(4) Positive root pressure
Solution: The column of water within Xylem vessel of tall trees does not break under its weight due to high tensile strength of
water. Tensile strength is the ability to resist pulling forces.
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74. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric concentration of :
(1) SO2 and NO2
(2) SO3 and SO
(3) CO2 and CO
(4) O3 and dust
Solution: During rainfall, 𝑆𝑂2 and 𝑁𝑂2 can decrease the pH of rain water.
Solution: Succus entericus is intestinal juice contains maltase, lipase, nucleosidase. Nucleases are the enzymes of pancreatic juice.
76. In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?
(1) Competition
(2) Predation
(3) Parasitism
(4) Mutualism
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Solution:
Microbes Importance
(1) Sacharomyces – Commercial production of erevisiae ethanol.
80. Which of the following are most suitable indicators of 𝑆𝑂2 Pollution in the environment?
(1) Lichens
(2) Conifers
(3) Algae
(4) Fungi
Solution: Lichens do not grow in 𝑆𝑂2 polluted regions therefore they indicate SO2 pollution in air. Phycobionts of lichen are
sensitive to 𝑆𝑂2 .
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(4) Innate immune response
Solution: Formation of fruit without fertilisation is called parthenocarpy. Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit therefore seedless.
Solution: Babesiosis is a disease caused by a protozoan, Babesia bigemina. The vector is tick, so disease is also called tick fever in
cattle.
Solution: In human females, meiosis II is completed after the entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of secondary oocyte at the time of
fertilisation leading to the formation of ovum and IInd polar body.
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Solution: In angiosperms, pollen grain is first male gametophyte. Pollen grain divides into generative cell and vegetative cell.
Generative cell further divides into two sperms.
86. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when :
(1) AV valves open up
(2) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
(3) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
(4) AV node receives signal from SA node
Solution: Second heart sound is 'DUP' which is produced during early ventricular diastole due to the sharp closure of semilunar
valves.
Solution: Satellite DNA are the repetitive DNA which do not code for any protein. They show high degree of polymorphism and
form basis of DNA fingerprinting.
Since DNA from every tissue from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism, they become very useful identification
tool in forensic applications.
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Answer Key: (4)
Solution: Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria are membrane bound organelles.
90. Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing of fishes is mainly due to non-availability of:
(1) Food
(2) Light
(3) Essential Minerals
(4) Oxygen
Solution: During eutrophication of water bodies, BOD level increases due to rapid growth of microbes.
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Physics
91. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the
liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is :
VR2
(1) n2 r2
VR2
(2) nr2
VR2
(3) n3 r2
V2 R
(4) nr
Solution: (2)
𝜋𝑅 2 𝑉 𝑉𝑅 2
𝜋𝑅 2 𝑉 = 𝑛𝜋𝑟 2 ⇒ 𝑣= =
𝑛𝜋𝑟 2 𝑛𝑟 2
92. Point masses 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 are placed at the opposite ends of rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass. The rod is to be set
rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this rod through which the axis should pass so that
the work required to set the rod rotating with angular velocity 𝜔0 is minimum, is given by:
1 𝑚 𝐿
(1) 𝑥 = 𝑚 +𝑚
! 2
𝑚
(2) 𝑥 = 𝑚1 𝐿
2
𝑚
(3) 𝑥 = 𝑚2 𝐿
1
𝑚1 𝐿
(4) 𝑥 =
𝑚1 +𝑚2
Solution: (4)
1
K. E. = I ω2
2
I is min. about the centre of mass
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93. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, moving at right angles to the field B. if the
radius of circular orbits for both the particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the energy
acquired by the alpha particle will be:
(1) 4 MeV
Solution: (4)
mV √2m(kE)
R= =
qB qB
q2
Since R is same so KE ∝ m
(2)2
So KE of α particle will be = same = 1 MeV
4
94. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of inclination with thehorizontal
reaches 30o , the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0 s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction
between the box and the plank will be, respectively:
Solution: (2)
1
μs = tan 30o = = 0.5
√3
μs = 0.57 = 0.6
1
S = ut + at 2
2
1 1
4 = a(4)2 ⇒ a = = 0.5
2 2
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a = g sinθ − μk (g)cosθ
0.9
⇒ μK = = 0.5
√3
95. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by means of several processes. Which of the process results in the
maximum work done on the gas?
(1) Adiabatic
(2) Isobaric
(3) Isochoric
(4) Isothermal
Solution: (1)
Since area under the curve is max for adiabatic process so work done on the gas will be max for adiabatic process.
96. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v0 . It collides with the ground, loses 50
percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v0 is: (Take g = 10 ms −2 )
(1) 14 ms −1
(2) 20 ms −1
(3) 28 ms−1
(4) 10 ms−1
Solution: (2)
KEf 1
=
KEi 2
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Vf 1
=
Vi √2
√2gh 1
=
√V02 + 2gh √2
V0 = 20 m/sec
97. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest wavelength in the
Balmer series is:
4
(1) 9
9
(2)
4
27
(3) 5
5
(4) 27
Solution: (4)
1 1 1
= Re ( 2 − 2)
λ1 1 2
1 1 1
= Re ( 2 − 2)
λ2 2 3
λ1 5
=
λ2 27
98. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are located at some distance from each other.
The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms−1 at an angle of 60o with the source observer line as shown in the figure.
The observer is at rest. The apparent frequency observed by the observer (velocity of sound in air 330 ms −1 ), is:
(1) 100 Hz
(2) 103 Hz
(3) 106 Hz
(4) 97 Hz
Solution: (2)
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v−v
t 1 = f0 ( )
v − vs
v−0
f 1 = 100 ( )
v − (+9.7)
v
f 1 = 100
9.7
v (1 − v )
3.7
f 1 = 100 (1 + ) = 103Hz
330
99. If dimensions of critical velocity vc of a liquid flowing through a tube are expressed as [ηx ρy r z ], where η, ρ and r are the
coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid and radius of the tube respectively, then the values of x, y and z are given by:
(1) 1, −1, −1
(2) −1, −1, 1
(3) −1, −1, −1
(4) 1, 1, 1
Solution: (1)
Vc = ηx ρy r z
𝑅𝜂
Critical velocity is given by 𝑉𝑐 = 2𝜌𝑟
So, 𝑥 = 1
𝑦 = −1
𝑧 = −1
100. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 liters at NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is 5.0 JK −1 mol−1 . If the
speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 ms−1, then the heat capacity at constant pressure is
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(4) 8.5 JK −1 mol−1
Solution: (1)
⃗A = cos wt î + sin wt ĵ
wt wt
⃗B = cos î + sin ĵ
2 2
for ⃗A . B
⃗ =0
wt wt
⃗ .B
A ⃗ = 0 = cos wt. cos + sin wt. sin
2 2
wt wt
= cos (wt − ) = cos ( )
2 2
wt π π
So 2
= 2
⇒ t=w
102. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R = 100 Ω and an e.m.f. of 3.5 V. If the barrier
potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V, the current in the circuit will be:
(1) 30 mA
(2) 40 mA
(3) 20 mA
(4) 35 mA
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Solution: (1)
(3.5 − 0.5)
Current = A
100
3
= A = 30 mA
100
103. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as V(x, y, z) = 6xy − y + 2yz, the electric field (in N/C) at point (1, 1, 0) is:
(1) −(3î + 5ĵ + 3k̂)
(2) −(6î + 5ĵ + 2k̂)
(3) −(2î + 3ĵ + k̂)
(4) −(6î + 9ĵ + k̂)
Solution: (2)
V = 6xy − y + 24z
∂V ∂V ∂V
⃗E = ( î + ĵ k̂)
∂x ∂y ∂z
⃗ = [(6y)î + (6x − 1 + 2z)ĵ + (2y)k̂]
E
104. A remote-sensing satellite of earth revolves in a circular orbit at a height of 0.25 × 106 m above the surface of earth. If
earth’s radius is 6.38 × 106 m and g = 9.8 ms−2, then the orbital speed of the satellite is:
(1) 7.76 km s −1
(2) 8.56 km s −1
(3) 9.13 km s −1
(4) 6.67 km s −1
Solution: (1)
GM GM R2
V0 = √ =√ 2 .
r R r
9.8×6.38×6.38
=√ = √60 × 106 m/sec
6.63×106
= 7.76 km/sec
105. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If v1 and v2 are the conductivities of the metal wires
respectively, the effective conductivity if the combination is:
2 σ1 σ2
(1) σ1 +σ2
σ1 +σ2
(2) 2 σ1 σ2
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σ1 +σ2
(3) σ1 σ2
σ1 σ2
(4) σ1 +σ2
Solution: (1)
ℓ ℓ ℓeq
R ec = + =
σ1 A σ1 A σeq Aeq
𝟐ℓ ℓ σ1 + σ2
= ( )
σeq A A σ1 σ2
2σ1 σ2
σeq =
σ1 σ2
106. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small compared to the mass of
the earth. Then,
(1) The angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude remains constant
(2) The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time
(3) The linear momentum of S remains constant is magnitude
(4) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth
Solution: (4)
The gravitation force on the satellite will be aiming toward the centre of earth so acceleration of the satellite will also be aiming
toward the centre of earth.
107. Two particles A and B move with constant velocities ⃗v1 and v ⃗ 2 . At the initial moment their position vectors r1 and r2
respectively. The condition for particles A and B for their collision is:
r⃗1 −r⃗2 ⃗v −v
⃗
(1) |r⃗1 −r⃗2 |
= |v⃗2 −v⃗1 |
2 1
⃗ 1 = r2 ∙ v
(2) r1 ∙ v ⃗2
(3) r1 × v ⃗ 1 = r2 × v⃗2
(4) r1 − r2 = v ⃗1 −v ⃗2
Solution: (1)
For two particles to collide, the direction of the relative velocity of one with respect to other should be directed towards
the relative position of the other particle
r⃗ −r⃗
i.e. |r⃗1 −r⃗2 | → direction of relative position of 1 w.r.t..2.
1 2
⃗v2 −v⃗1
& |v
⃗ 2 |−v⃗1
→ direction of velocity of 2 w.r.t.1
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So for collision of A & B
r1 − r2 ⃗2−v
v ⃗1
=
|r1 − r2 | |v
⃗2−v⃗ 1|
r
108. Two stones of masses ma and 2 m are whirled in horizontal circles, the heavier one in a radius 2 and the lighter one in
radius r. the tangential speed of lighter stone is n times that of the value of heavier stone when they experience same
centripetal forces. The value of n is:
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
Solution: (1)
So V1 = 2V2
109. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity ‘C’, distance of separation between plates is ‘d’ and potential difference ‘V’ is
applied between the plates. Force of attraction between the plates of the parallel plate air capacitor is:
C2 V2
(1) 2d
CV2
(2) 2d
CV2
(3)
d
C2 V2
(4) 2 d2
Solution: (2)
q2 ε0 A
F = 2Aε where q − CV and C = d
0
C 2 V 2 CV 2
F= =
2Cd 2d
Solution: (3)
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x = 45 m 2πt,
y = 4 cos(2π t)
Squiring and adding
⇒ Circular motion
V = ω = (2π)(4) = 8π
111. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage source. Consider two situations:
i. When capacitor is air filled.
ii. When capacitor is mica filled.
(1) Va < Vb
(2) Va > Vb
(3) ia > ib
(4) Va = Vb
Solution: (2)
v
i=
2
√R2 + ( 1 )
cω
v 1
VC = ×( )
2 cω
√R2 + ( 1 )
cω
V
VC =
√(Rcω)2 + 1
C ↑⇒ VC ↓
112. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and
315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequency for this string is:
(1) 155 Hz
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(2) 205 Hz
(3) 10.5 Hz
(4) 105 Hz
Solution: (4)
Two consecutive resonant frequencies for a string fixed at both ends will be
nv (n + 1)v
and
2ℓ 2ℓ
(n + 1)v nv
⇒ − = 420 − 315
2ℓ 2ℓ
v
= 105 Hz
2ℓ
Which is the minimum resonant frequency.
113. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the temperature inside freezer is −20o C, the temperature of the
surrounding to which is rejects heat is:
(1) 31o C
(2) 41o C
(3) 11o C
(4) 21o C
Solution: (1)
q1 q2 Tc
cop = = = =5
w q1 − q2 TH − TC
TC = 5TH − 5Tc
6Tc = 5TH
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6
TH = × 253k = 303.6k = 30.6o C = 31o C
5
𝜆
114. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength 𝜆 and . If the maximum kinetic
2
energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function of the surface of
the material is:
Solution: (1)
ℎ𝑐
𝑘1 = − 𝜓
𝜆
2ℎ𝑐 3ℎ𝑐
𝑘2 = 3𝑘1 = −𝜓 = − 3𝜓
𝜆 𝜆
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
So 2 𝜓 = 𝜆
So 𝜓 = 2𝜆
115. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a straight black line of the length L is drawn on inside part of objective
lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is I. The magnification of the telescope is:
L
(1) I
+ 1
L
(2) I
− 1
L+I
(3) L−I
L
(4) I
Solution: (4)
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Magnification by eyepiece
f
m = f+u
I fe
− =
L fe + (−(f0 + fe )
I fe
⇒ =
L f0
f0 L
m. p. = =
fe I
116. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio 1 : 25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in the
I
interference pattern, Imax is:
min
9
(1) 4
121
(2) 49
49
(3) 121
4
(4) 9
Solution: (1)
I1 25 A1 5
= ⇒ =
I2 1 A2 1
Amax 5 + 1 6 3
= = =
Amin 5 − 1 4 2
Imax 3 2 9
=( ) =
Imin 2 4
117. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature, the pressure of a being twice that of B.
Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be 1.5 times the density if B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is:
2
(1) 3
3
(2) 4
(3) 2
1
(4)
2
Solution: (2)
ρ A MA ρ B MB 3 PA ρ A MA MA 3
PA = , PB = = ⇒ = =2 =
RT RT 2 PB ρ B MB MB 2
MA 3
So, MB
=4
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118. A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 v and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in series. If the ammeter has coil
of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will be:
(1) 0.5 A
(2) 0.25 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 1 A
Solution: (1)
480×20
Resistance of ammeter = 480+20 = 19.2Ω
30
i= = 0.5 A
40.8 + 19.2
119. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 5 × 10−4 K −1 . The fractional change in the density of glycerin
for a rise of 40o C in its temperature is:
(1) 0.015
(2) 0.020
(3) 0.025
(4) 0.010
Solution: (2)
ρ = ρ0 (1 − γ∆t)
∆ρ
= γ∆T = (5 × 10−4 )(40) = 0.02
ρ0
120. The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood through the arteries per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of mercury. If the
density of mercury be 13.6 × 103 kg⁄m3 and g = 10 m⁄s 2 then the power of heart in watt is:
(1) 1.70
(2) 2.35
(3) 3.0
(4) 1.50
Solution: (1)
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⃗ .V
Power = F ⃗ = PAV
⃗ = ρgh AV
(1) Separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
(2) Separate all the three colours from one another
(3) Not separate the three colours at all
(4) Separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
Solution: (4)
122. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic
field of strength 0.2 Weber⁄m2. The coil carries a current of 2A. if the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of 30o with
the direction of the field, the torque required to keep coil in stable equilibrium will be:
(1) 0.15 Nm
(2) 0.20 Nm
(3) 0.24 Nm
(4) 0.12 Nm
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Solution: (2)
√3
50 × 2 × 0.12 × 0.1 × 0.2 ×
2
= 12√3 × 10−2 Nm = 0.20748 Nm
123. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of electron. What will be the
direction of current, if any, induced in the coil?
(1) abcd
(2) adcb
(3) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
(4) No current induced
Solution: (3)
124. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then:
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(1) The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
(2) The helium nucleus has less momentum then the thorium nucleus
(3) The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus
(4) The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
Solution: (1)
U → Th + α
P2 P2
KETh = , KEα =
2mTh 2mα
Since mα is less so KEα will be mone.
⃗ = αî + 3ĵ + 6k̂ is acting at a point r = 2î − 6ĵ − 12k̂. The value of α for which angular momentum about origin
125. A force F
is conserved is:
(1) -1
(2) 2
(3) Zero
(4) 1
Solution: (1)
If ⃗L = constant then τ⃗ = 0
α 3 6
So r × ⃗F = 0 ⇒ F
⃗ should be parallel to r so coefficient should be in same ratio. So = =
2 −6 −12
So α = −1
126. Water rises to a height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than ‘h’,
then:
(1) Water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like a fountain
(2) Water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing
(3) Water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays there
(4) Water does not rise at all
Solution: (2)
Water will not overflow but will change its radius of curvature.
127. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its maximum acceleration is α and maximum velocity is β. Then, its time
period of vibration will be:
β2
(1) α2
α
(2) β
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β2
(3) α
2πβ
(4) α
Solution: (4)
ω2 A = α
ωA = β
α
⇒ω=
β
2π 2πβ
⇒T= =
ω α
128. The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it belong?
(1) X-rays
(2) Infra-red rays
(3) Ultraviolet rays
(4) γ-rays
Solution: (1)
So it is X-ray
129. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with work function 2.258 eV. The de Broglie wavelength of the emitted
electron is:
(1) < 2.8 × 10−10 m
(2) < 2.8 × 10−9 m
(3) ≥ 2.8 × 10−9 m
(4) ≤ 2.8 × 10−12 m
Solution: (3)
hc
KEmax = −Ψ
λ
1240
KEmax = − 2.82
500
KEmax = 2.48 − 2.28 = 0.2 eV
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20
h × 10−34
λmin = = 3
√2m(KE)max √2 × 9 × 10−31 × 0.2 × 1.6 × 10−19
25
λmin = × 10−9 = 2.80 × 10−9 nm
9
So λ ≥ 2.8 × 10−9 m
130. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference between
the Huygen’s wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is:
π
(1) radian
4
π
(2) 2
radian
(3) π radian
π
(4) 8 radian
Solution: (3)
AP − BP = λ
λ
AP − MP =
2
2π λ
So phase difference = λ
×2 =π
131. On a frictionless surfaces, a block of mass M moving at speed v collides elastically with another block of same mass M
v
which is initially at rest. After collision the first block moves at an angle θ to its initial direction and has a speed . The
3
second block’s speed after the collision is:
2√2
(1) 3
v
3
(2) v
4
3
(3) v
√2
√3
(4) 2
v
Solution: (1)
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⃗⃗i = P
P ⃗⃗⃗f
V 2
⇒ |Pi | = |Pf | ⇒ √(m ) + (mV2 )2
3
2√2
V2 = V
3
132. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a battery of e.m.f. E0 and a resistance r1 .
An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length l of the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by:
LE0 r
(1) l r1
E0 r l
(2) .
(r+r1 ) L
E0 l
(3) L
LE0 r
(4) (r+r1 )l
Solution: (2)
0E r 1
K = potential gradient = (r+r )L
1
0 E rℓ
So E = Kℓ = (r+r
1 )L
133. The Young’s modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of same length and of same area of cross section, one of
steel and another of brass are suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same
level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires must be in the ration of:
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 1
Solution: (2)
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W ℓ
Y= ∙
A Δℓ
Wℓ
So Δℓ = AY
w1 ℓ w2 ℓ
Δe1 = Δe2 AY1
= AY2
w1 Y1
= =2
w2 Y2
π
134. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos (15t + 3 ). The corresponding output
signal will be:
π
(1) 300 cos (15t + 3 )
2π
(2) 75 cos (15t + 3
)
5π
(3) 2 cos (15t + 6 )
4π
(4) 300 cos (15t + 3 )
Solution: (4)
π
CE amplifier causes phase difference of π(= 180o ) so Vout = 300 cos (15t + 3 + π)
135. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54 km h−1. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the moment of inertia
of the wheel about its axis of rotation is 3 kg m2 . If the vehicle is brought to rest in 15s, the magnitude of average torque
transmitted by its brakes to the wheel is:
(1) 6.66 kg m2 s−2
(2) 8.58 kg m2 s−2
(3) 10.86 kg m2 s−2
(4) 2.86 kg m2 s−2
Solution: (1)
15 100
ωi = = ωf = 0
0.45 3
ωf = ωi + αt
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100
0= + (−α)(15)
3
100
α=
45
100
τ = (I)(α) = 3 × = 6.66 N. M
45
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Chemistry
136. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?
i. Hybridization of NH3 [σ = 3, lp = 1]
sp3 geometry : Tetrahedral
Structure of PCl+
4 is tetrahedral.
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137. Which one of the following esters gets hydrolyzed most easily under alkaline conditions?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: (2)
Solution: EWG (Electron withdrawing group) increases reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction. −NO2 is strong
electron withdrawing group.
138. Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one of the following
functional group?
(1) – CHO
(2) – CH2 Cl
(3) – COOH
(4) −CHCl2
Solution: (1)
139. Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides?
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Anhyd.ZnCl2
I. CH3 CH2 OH + HCl →
II. CH3 CH2 OH + HCl ⟶
III. (CH3 )3 COH + HCl ⟶
Anhyd.ZnCl2
IV. (CH3 )2 CHOH + HCl →
(1) III and IV only
(2) I, III and IV only
(3) I and II only
(4) IV only
Solution: (2)
I and IV can be used due to presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 (III) gives alkyl halide due to formation of more stable carbocation.
Solution: (3)
SN 1 reaction gives racemic mixture with slight predominance of that isomer which corresponds to inversion because SN 1 also
depends upon the degree of 'shielding' of the front side of the reacting carbon.
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: (3)
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142. On heating which of the following releases CO2 most easily?
(1) CaCO3
(2) K 2 CO3
(3) Na2 CO3
(4) MgCO3
Solution: (4)
143. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule, to give a product 1-chloro-1-
methylcyclohexane. The possible reaction alkene is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
and
(4)
Solution: (3)
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144. Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Cl will be: (en = ethylene diamine)
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Solution: (4)
[Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Cl
Possible isomers
(ii) In trans form plane of symmetry present, so trans form is optically inactive but cis is optically active.
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145. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at:
(1) Low temperatures and low pressures
(2) High temperatures and low pressures
(3) Low temperatures and high pressures
(4) High temperatures and high pressures
Solution: (2)
Real gases show ideal gas behaviour at high temperatures and low pressures.
146. If Avogadro number NA , is changed from 6.022 × 1023 mol−1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol−1, this would change:
(1) The ratio of elements to each other in compound.
(2) The definition of mass in units of grams
(3) The mass of one mole of carbon
(4) The ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation.
Solution: (3)
If Avogadro Number (NA ) is changed then mass of 1 mol (6.022 × 1020 atom) of carbon
12 × 6.022 × 1020
= = 12 × 10−3 g
6.022 × 1023
147. Gadolinium belongs of 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of
gadolinium?
(1) [Xe]4f 7 5d1 6s2
(2) [Xe]4f 8 6d2
(3) [Xe]4f 9 5s1
(4) [Xe]4f 7 5d1 6s2
Solution: (4)
2
64 Gd = 54 [Xe]6s 4f 7 5d1
148. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1 m NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed?
(1) 1.04
(2) 12.65
(3) 2.0
(4) 7.0
Solution: (2)
N1 V1 − N2 V2 = N. V.
0.1 × 1 − 0.01 × 1 = N × 2
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09
[OH − ] = NR = 0. = 0.045 N
2
Solution: (2)
Given species: O2 , O− + 2−
2 , O2 , O2
O2 ⟶ 16e−
O−
2 ⟶ 17e
−
O+
2 ⟶ 15e
−
O2−
2 ⟶ 18e
−
O+2 O2 O−
2 O2−
2
Bond order 2.5 2 1.5 1
Stability × Bond order
Solution: (4)
Solution: (2) Reason: Nucleophiles are electron rich species so act as Lewis base.
152. The hybridization involved in complex [Ni(CN)4 ]2− is: (Atomic number of Ni = 28)
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(1) d2 sp3
(2) dsp2
(3) sp3
(4) d2 sp2
Solution: (2)
[Ni(CN)4 ]2−
Oxidation state of Ni is +2
x−4=2
x = +2
153. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and TI increases in the sequence:
(1) In < TI < Ga < Al
(2) Ga < In < Al < TI
(3) Al < Ga < In < TI
(4) TI < In < Ga < Al
Solution: (3)
Stability of +1 oxidation state due to inert pair effect TI < In < Ga < Al.
154. The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of metal M in the complex [M(en)2 (C2 O4 )]Cl (Where en is
ethylenediamine) is:
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 7
Solution: (2)
[M(en)2 (C2 O4 )]Cl
Oxidation state of M = +3
Coordination number of M = 6
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Solution: (1)
ii. OF2 is a fluoride of oxygen not oxide of fluorine because EN of fluorine is more than oxygen.
OF2 = Oxygen difluoride
iii. Cl2 O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid.
Δ,−H2 O
2HClO4 → Cl2 O7
156. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with:
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Iron (II) sulphide
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Copper (I) sulphide
Solution: (4)
Self reduction
157. Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an acidic buffer?
(1) H3 PO4 and Na3 PO4
(2) HClO4 and NaClO4
(3) CH3 COOH and CH3 COONa
(4) H2 CO3 and Na2 CO3
Solution: (2)
Strong acid with its salt can not form buffer solution. HClO4 and NaClO4 cannot act as an acidic buffer.
158. Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the least amount of acidified
KMnO4 for complete oxidation?
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(1) Fe(NO2 )2
(2) FeSO4
(3) FeSO3
(4) FeSO3
Solution: (2)
MnO−
4 ⟶ Mn
2+
; Change in oxidation no. = 5
In option,
i. Fe2+ ⟶ Fe3+
Change in oxidation no. = 1
SO2− 2−
3 ⟶ SO4
=1+2=3
C2 O2−
4 ⟶ 2CO2
=1+2=3
iv. Fe2+ ⟶ Fe3+
Change in oxidation no. = 1
2NO− −
2 ⟶ 2NO3
=1+4=5
159. The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3 H9 N is:
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2
Solution: (2)
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CH3 − CH2 − NH − CH3 } 2o amine
160. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What
will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample?
(Atomic weight: Mg = 24)
(1) 84
(2) 75
(3) 96
(4) 60
Solution: (1)
161. Two possible stereo-structures of CH3 CHOH ∙ COOH, which are optically active, are called:
(1) Mesomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Atropisomers
(4) Enantiomers
Solution: (4)
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Both are enantiomers.
162. The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is -393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon
and oxygen gas is:
(1) −3.15 kJ
(2) −315 kJ
(3) +315 kJ
(4) −630 kJ
Solution: (2) Formation of CO2 from carbon and dioxygen gas can be represented as
(1 mole = 44 g)
= −393.5 kJ mol−1
−393.5 kJ mol−1
= × 35.2 g
44 g
= −315 kJ
163. The rate constant of the reaction A ⟶ B is 0.6 × 10−3 mole per second. If the concentration of A is 5M, then
concentration of B after 20 minutes is:
(1) 0.72 M
(2) 1.08 M
(3) 3.60 M
(4) 0.36 M
Solution: (1)
x=K∙t
= 0.6 × 10−3 × 20 × 60
x = 0.72 M
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164. The formation of the oxide ion, O2− (g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as
shown in below:
Thus process of formation of O2− in gas phase is unfavourable though O2− is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that,
Solution: (2)
165. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl
solution?
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
(1) 14 g
(2) 28 g
(3) 3.5 g
(4) 7 g
= 0.049 × 143.5 g
= 7 g AgCl
166. Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium?
(Atomic No. Z = 22)
(1) 3s 3p 4s 3d
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(2) 3s 4s 3p 3d
(3) 4s 3s 3p 3d
(4) 3s 3p 3s 4d
Order of energy is 3s 3p 4s 3d
167. Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by
elimination of water. The reagent is:
(1) Sodium hydrogen sulphite
(2) A Grignard reagent
(3) Hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
(4) Hydrocyanic acid
Solution: (3) With Ammonia derivation carbonyl compounds give addition followed by elimination reaction. Slightly acidic
medium will generate a nucleophilic centre for weak base like ammonia derivatives.
168. The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl. What explains the higher
boiling point of hydrogen fluoride?
(1) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarizes the HF molecule.
(2) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the group.
(3) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules.
(4) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides.
Solution: (3)
Solution: (1)
[Fe(CN)6 ]3−
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(1) Potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution.
(2) Hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic solution
(3) Degradation of benzamide with bromine in alkaline solution
(4) Reduction of nitrobenzene with H2 ⁄Pd in ethanol
Solution: (1)
∴ K ′ = √K
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Presence of one –OH group and two P – H bonds.
173. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by heating which of the following compounds with a strong acid?
(1) (CH3 )2 CH − CH2 − CH = CH2
(2) D
174. Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current?
(1) Fructose, C6 H12 O6
(2) Acetic acid, C2 H4 O2
(3) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(4) Ammonia, NH3
Solution: (3) Aqueous solution of HCl is the best conductor of electric current because HCl is strong acid, so it dissociates
completely into ions.
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Solution: (1) Packing efficiency in bcc lattice = 68%
(1) 0.0177
(2) 0.177
(3) 1.770
(4) 0.0354
Solution: (1)
Solution: (3)
Solution: (2)
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179. The following reaction
Solution: (1)
Solution: (1)
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