1.
The Principle of the Golden Mean suggests that moral virtue lies between two
a) Extremes
b) Opposites
c) Options
d) Perspectives
Answer: a) Extremes
2. The Categorical Imperative states that what is right for one is right for
a) Everyone
b) No one
c) Some
d) Certain circumstances
Answer: a) Everyone
3. The Principle of Utility focuses on maximizing the overall benefit for the greatest
a) Individual
b) Group
c) Number
d) Impact
Answer: c) Number
4. The Veil of Ignorance suggests that justice emerges when everyone is treated without
a) Bias
b) Knowledge
c) Differences
d) Understanding
Answer: c) Differences
5. The Principle of Self-Determination emphasizes treating people as
a) Equals
b) Tools
c) Means
d) Objects
Answer: a) Equals
6. The Principle of the Golden Mean encourages finding a ___________ approach in ethical
dilemmas.
a) Balanced
b) Radical
c) Extreme
d) Arbitrary
Answer: a) Balanced
(Note: The following questions are based on the provided options in the previous text.)
7. Immanuel Kant is associated with the formulation of the
a) Principle of the Golden Mean
b) Categorical Imperative
c) Principle of Utility
d) Veil of Ignorance
Answer: b) Categorical Imperative
8. The Principle of Utility involves calculating the consequences and choosing the option that
maximizes
a) Good
b) Evil
c) Pleasure
d) Harm
Answer: a) Good
9. The Veil of Ignorance suggests treating all participants as
a) Superior
b) Inferior
c) Equals
d) Nonexistent
Answer: c) Equals
10. The Principle of Self-Determination asserts that human beings have unconditional
a) Rights
b) Value
c) Obligations
d) Influence
Answer: b) Value
(Note: The remaining questions will be based on the provided options in the previous text.)
11. Aristotle is often linked to the Principle of the
a) Golden Mean
b) Categorical Imperative
c) Principle of Utility
d) Veil of Ignorance
Answer: a) Golden Mean
12. The Categorical Imperative emphasizes the role of
a) Consequences
b) Universal rules
c) Happiness
d) Personal conscience
Answer: b) Universal rules
13. The Principle of Utility considers the ratio of good to
a) Evil
b) Bad
c) Pleasure
d) Harm
Answer: b) Bad
14. The Veil of Ignorance promotes equal treatment and protection of
a) Select individuals
b) Powerful members
c) Vulnerable members
d) Influential people
Answer: c) Vulnerable members
15. The Principle of Self-Determination advocates not treating people as
a) Equals
b) Objects
c) Resources
d) Inferior
Answer: b) Objects
(Note: The remaining questions will be based on the provided options in the previous text.)
16. The Principle of the Golden Mean suggests moderation and
a) avoiding extremes
17. Immanuel Kant's formulation emphasizes
b) conscience
18. The Principle of Utility involves evaluating the consequences of different
a) options
19. The Veil of Ignorance urges consideration of the
c) most vulnerable
20. The Principle of Self-Determination respects others'
a) rights
21. The Principle of the Golden Mean suggests avoiding extremes and finding the
b) balanced path
22. The Categorical Imperative emphasizes the role of
b) universal rules
23. The Principle of Utility seeks to maximize
a) value
24. The Veil of Ignorance highlights the importance of treating all individuals
d) equally
25. The Principle of Self-Determination acknowledges the inherent
a) dignity
26. The Principle of the Golden Mean encourages
a) moderation
27. The Categorical Imperative stresses the
c) universal
28. The Principle of Utility involves weighing the
a) consequences
29. The Veil of Ignorance calls for fair treatment of individuals regardless of their
b) social status
30. The Principle of Self-Determination emphasizes
c) autonomy and respect for others' rights
1. In 1975, the Associated Press Managing Editors (APME) adopted a code that discussed
responsibility, accuracy, integrity, and independence. Revised in 1995, the APME code covers issues
such as ___________ and ___________.
Answer: plagiarism, diversity
2. The Gannett Company became the first newspaper chain to spell out ethical principles for its
papers in ___________.
Answer: late 1999
3. The National Association of Broadcasters (NAB) Code of Good Practice, which first appeared in
___________, was divided into two parts: advertising and general program practices.
Answer: 1929
4. In 1982, a court ruled that the NAB Code of Good Practice placed undue limitations on
___________, leading to the suspension of its advertising part.
Answer: advertising
5. In 1990, the NAB issued voluntary programming principles addressing areas such as children's TV,
___________, violence, and drug and substance abuse.
Answer: indecency
6. The NAB's new guidelines on violence state that it should only be portrayed in a ___________
manner and should not be used exploitatively.
Answer: responsible
7. Attempts to resurrect a code for broadcasters have been made by politicians, including the
introduction of bills in ___________ that would urge the development of a voluntary code of
conduct.
Answer: 1997
8. The Radio and Television News Directors Association has an ___________-part code that covers
everything from cameras in the courtroom to invasion of privacy.
Answer: 11
9. The V-Chip represents an example of the government pressuring the video industry to adopt
voluntary guidelines for ___________ programming.
Answer: categorizing
10. The motion picture industry invited Will Hays to head the Motion Picture Producers and
Distributors of America (MPPDA) in ___________.
Answer: 1920s
11. The Motion Picture Production Code was adopted by the MPPDA in ___________.
Answer: 1930
12. The Motion Picture Production Code described what should be avoided to get movies past
existing ___________ boards and listed topics that should be handled carefully.
Answer: censorship
13. The Production Code Administration's seal of approval was required for film distribution or
release, and violating this rule could result in a ___________ fine.
Answer: $25,000
14. Changes in the motion picture industry during the late 1940s led to the scuttling of the
Production Code, including the end of producer-distributor control of theaters in ___________.
Answer: 1948
15. In 1968, the Production Code seal of approval was dropped, and a new motion picture rating
system, commonly referred to as the ___________ rating system, was established.
Answer: MPAA
16. The MPAA rating system categorizes films into ___________ categories, including G, PG, PG-13, R,
and NC-17.
Answer: five
17. The MPAA rating system allows producers to include scenes of their choice as long as they
understand that it may restrict the ___________ of their potential audience.
Answer: size
18. Producers perceive G-rated films as primarily for children and may release fewer films in this
category to attract a more ___________ audience.
Answer: mature
19. In 2002, 65 percent of the top 20 moneymaking films were rated ___________, while the
remaining 35 percent were rated G or PG.
Answer: PG-13
1. One problem that crops up periodically is called ___________, a pro-community philosophy that
sometimes causes not-so-good news to go unreported.
Answer: boosterism
2. Owners and publishers can exert editorial control over news policy by hiring only those people
who agree with their ___________ views.
Answer: editorial
3. Some newspapers and other media organizations have employed an ___________ to handle
complaints from audience members and criticize the organization's performance.
Answer: ombudsperson
4. The National Advertising Review Council was formed in ___________ to sustain high standards of
truth and accuracy in advertising.
Answer: 1971
5. When a complaint about an ad is made, it goes first to the ___________ for evaluation.
Answer: NAD (National Advertising Division)
6. The NAD can dismiss a complaint if it is unfounded or trivial, or it can ask the advertiser for an
explanation or further ___________.
Answer: substantiation
7. If the NAD is not satisfied with the advertiser's explanation, the case can go to the ___________,
which functions as a court of appeals.
Answer: NARB (National Advertising Review Board)
8. The NARB may call attention to a case to the ___________ if an acceptable solution is not reached.
Answer: FTC (Federal Trade Commission)
9. The Distilled Spirits Council of the United States lifted its self-imposed ban on advertising distilled
liquor on television and radio in ___________.
Answer: 1996
10. The loss of revenue can be an important consideration in controlling what gets filmed, published,
or ___________ in commercial media.
Answer: broadcast
11. Advertisers have limited influence over motion picture content, while newspapers and magazines
depend on advertising for a significant portion of their ___________.
Answer: income
12. In the print media, newspapers depend on advertising for about ___________ percent of their
income.
Answer: 75
13. Radio and television depend on ads for almost all their ___________.
Answer: income
14. The actual amount of control that an advertiser has over media content and behavior is difficult
to ___________.
Answer: determine
15. Occasionally, examples of pressure from advertisers influencing media content can be found,
such as Esquire modifying a story due to concerns from the ___________ Corporation.
Answer: Chrysler
16. Some media organizations have faced pressure when critical columns were written about
companies that were big ___________ in the newspaper.
Answer: advertisers
17. The larger context that surrounds a media organization often contains factors such as economics,
pressure groups, press councils, and ___________.
Answer: education
18. Money is a potent influence on media gatekeepers, and economic controls can be brought by
advertisers, the industry's economic structure, and ___________ groups.
Answer: consumer
19. The recording industry earns little money from advertisers and is generally immune to their
___________.
Answer: pressures
20. The actual amount of control that advertisers have over motion picture content is ___________
compared to their influence on print media.
Answer: modest
1. Mothers Against Drunk Driving fought against NBC's decision to air hard liquor ads, and eventually,
NBC reversed itself and decided not to carry the ___________.
Answer: ads
2. The Center for Media Education monitors how well local stations follow the FCC's regulations
concerning ___________ broadcasting.
Answer: children's
3. Citizen group involvement with media organizations has increased the feedback between audience
and the media industry, making some organizations more responsive to community needs and
sensitive to the problems of minorities and other ___________ groups.
Answer: disadvantaged
4. Press councils, also called press ombudsman, monitor the performance of the media and examine
complaints from the public about erroneous or deficient ___________ coverage.
Answer: press
5. Press councils have no enforcement powers, but if they find an example of poor performance, they
issue a report to that effect and rely on ___________ publicity as a sanction.
Answer: unfavorable
6. The idea of a press council has not been popular in the United States, although there are a few
local news councils in operation, with the most active one being in ___________.
Answer: Minnesota
7. Education exerts informal control over the media, and topics like ethics and professionalism are
gaining more attention in colleges and universities, with about 40 percent of schools offering a
special ___________ course.
Answer: ethics
8. Workshops and conferences on how to teach ethics were held during the 1990s to promote a
systematic way of thinking about ethics and help individuals consider issues and arrive at
___________.
Answer: decisions
9. The Jayson Blair episode at the New York Times increased the emphasis on ethics training, and it is
likely that the focus on ethics will ___________ even more.
Answer: increase
