26 June 2022 Shift 2 Memory Based Questions

JEE Main Exam 2022 - Session 1
26 June 2022 - Shift 2 (Memory-Based Questions)
Section A: Physics
Q.1. Dimension of mutual inductance is

A) ML2 T −2A−1
B) ML2 T −2A−2
C) ML2 T −1A−1
D) ML2 T −3A−2
Answer: ML2 T −2A−2
Solution: The formula for mutual inductance is given by, ε = M dI ⇒M = ε

dt ( )
dI
dt
Dimension of emf or voltage is [M L2 T −3 A−1],

Dimension of current is [A],
Dimension of time [T].
Therefore, the dimension of M is

[ML 2 T −3A−1]
M=
[A][T]−1
= [ML T −2A−2]
2
Q.2. Find the ratio of rotational kinetic energy to the total kinetic energy of a rolling solid sphere?
A) 7
5
B) 2
5
C) 2
7
D) 5
7
Answer: 2
7
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Solution: Under pure rolling condition: v = ωR
Translational K. E = 12 mv2
2
Rotational K. E = 12 × 25 mR2( R
v
) = 15 mv2
1 1 7
Total K.E = 2 mv2 + 5 mv2 = 10 mv2
1
mv2
So, Rotational K
Total K E
⋅E = 5
= 2
7
⋅ 7
mv2
10
Q.3. Arrange the EM waves according to increasing order of wavelength
A) λgamma < λX−ray < λmicrowave < λvisible
B) λgamma < λX−ray < λvisible < λmicrowave
C) λX−ray < λmicrowave < λgamma < λvisible
D) λmicrowave < λvisible < λX−ray < λgamma
Answer: λgamma < λX−ray < λvisible < λmicrowave
Solution: hc 1
We know that E = λ ⇒ E ∝ λ . Also,
Egamma > EX−ray > Evisible > Emicrowave

Therefore,
λgamma < λX−ray < λvisible < λmicrowave
Q.4. Which of the following is the relation of Reynolds number when the velocity(v), diameter( d), viscosity( η) and density of the
fluid(ρ) is given?
A) ρvd
η
B) ρηd
v
C) ρηv
d
D) ηvd
ρ
Answer: ρvd
η
Solution: ρvd
Reynolds number is given by, R = η , where, v =flow velocity, d =hydraulic diameter of the pipe, ρ =density of the fluid &
η =coefficient of viscosity of the fluid.
Q.5. Three capacitors 10 μF, 15μF and 20 μF in series connected to 13 V battery. The charge on 15 μF capacitor is:
A) 60 μC
B) 70 μC
C) 80 μC

D) 90 μC
Answer: 60 μC
Solution:
As we know, Q = CV
−1 −1
Ceq = ( 10
1 1
+ 15 1
+ 20 ) = ( 6+4+3
60
) = 60
13
μF
60
Therefore, charge Q = × 13 = 60 μC .
13
As the capacitors are connected in series, charge on each capacitor wil be same.
Q.6. A ball is thrown up with speed 50 m s−1. After 2 second, another ball is thrown up with the same speed, at time when they will
meet, after the first ball thrown.
A) 6 s
B) 2 s
C) 8 s
D) 4 s
Answer: 6 s
Solution:
Distance covered by ball A is h = 50 (2) − 1 × 10 × 22= 100 − 20 = 80 m

2
Now, at time t = 2 s, velocity of A is vA = 50 − 10 × 2 = 30 m s−1
Relative velocity of both balls after 2 s is vrel = 50 − 30 = 20 m s−1
Here, relative displacement xrel = 80 m s−1 and relative accelerationarel = 0.
Time taken t = 80 = 4 s
20
Time at which they will meet is t = 4 + 2 = 6 s
Q.7. Apparent wavelength of a wave received from a planet is 670.7 nm and actual wavelength of the wave is 670 nm. Find the
speed with which planet is moving away?
A) 2. 12 × 105 m s−1
B) 3. 13 × 105 m s−1
C) 4. 14 × 105 m s−1

D) 6 × 105 m s−1
Answer: 3. 13 × 105 m s−1
Solution: The apparent change in the wavelength is given by

Δλ v
λ
= c
3×108×(670.7−670)
⇒ v = c Δλ
λ
= 670
= 3. 13 × 105 m s−1
Hence, velocity of the planet is 3. 13 × 105 m s−1.
Q.8. Two inductors of inductance L1 and L2 are connected as shown. If their mutual inductance is M , find the equivalent
inductance of the combination.
A) L1 + L2 + 2M
B) L1 + L2 − 2M
1
C)
L1
+ L1 + M
2
2
D) L1 + L2
Answer: L1 + L2 − 2M
Solution:
As the inductors connected are in series opposition, hence magnetic flux will be opposing each other. Therefore,
Leq = L1 + L2 − 2M
Q.9. Find the equivalent resistance between point A and B
A) 10
3
Ω
B) 5 Ω
C) 10 Ω
D) 20
3
Ω
Answer: 10
3
Ω
Solution:
(RAS+5) ×5 (5+5) ×5 10
Therefore, RAB = = (5+5)+5 = Ω
(RAS+5)+5 3
Q.10. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 4 μF, if a dielectric plate (K = 3) with width equal to half of the width of the
capacitor is introduced, the value of capacitance will become
A) 6 μF
B) 8 μF
C) 5 μF
D) 3 μF
Answer: 6 μF

Solution:
This parallel plate capacitor can be divided into two capacitors. One with dielectric (C1) and other without dielectric(C2). The
two capacitors will be in series.
ε 0A
Initially C = d = 4 μF
kε 0A 2×3×ε 0A ε 0A 2×ε 0A
Now, C1 = d
= d
= 24 μF and C2 = d
= d
= 8 μF
2 2
C 1C 2 24×8
Finally C ′ = = = 6 μF
C 1+C 2 24+8
Q.11. Batsman hits ball of mass 0. 4 kg in the direction of bowler with the same speed bowler throws it at him, which is 15 m s−1.
Find impulse.
A) 12 N s
B) 14 N s
C) 16 N s
D) 18 N s
Answer: 12 N s
Solution:
Impulse, J = ∫ Fdt =Change in momentum
Therefore,
Impulse, Δp = mv − (−mv) = 2mv = 2 × 0.4 × 15 = 12 N s
Q.12. A point source is kept at the bottom of a lake with a liquid of refractive index 4 at a depth √7 m. If the area of circle through
3
which light comes from is (απ) m2, then value of α is:
A) 9
B) 7
C) 4
D) 3
Answer: 9
Solution: sin 90°

Apply Snell's law, sin C = μ
1 R 3
⇒ sin C = μ
⇒ = 4
√R2+h2
Squaring, 16R2 = 9R2 + 9h2
⇒ 7R2 = 9h2
⇒R= 3 h= 3
× √7 = 3 m
√7 √7
2
The area of the circle is, A = πR2 = π(3) m2 ⇒ α = 9
Q.13. Two parallel wires with magnetic field in which the 5 A current is flowing. The length of one wire is 10 cm and other of infinite
length. Find the distance between them when force between them is 10−5 N.
A) 5 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 6 cm
D) 12 cm
Answer: 5 cm
Solution: Give F = 10−5 N
F μ0i1i2
Force between wires l = 2πd , where, d is separation between them.
10−5 2×10−7×25
⇒ 0.1
= d
⇒ d = 50 × 10−3 m = 5 cm

Q.14. Blocks of mass m1, m2, m3 & m4 are connected with pulley as shown in the figure. Find the relation between respective
accelerations a1, a2, a3 & a4 as marked in the diagram.
A) 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 − a4 = 0
B) 4a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 = 0
C) 4a1 − 2a2 − a3 + a4 = 0
D) 4a1 + a2 − a3 − a4 = 0
Answer: 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 − a4 = 0
Solution:
→ →
∑T ⋅ a = 0
⇒ (4T)a1 + (2T)a2 + Ta3 − Ta4 = 0

⇒ 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 − a4 = 0
Q.15. ∘
A light of wavelength 4500 A causes a photoelectron emission. These electrons are then sent to a magnetic field of 2 mT
perpendicular to the velocity of the electron. The maximum radius in which the electron revolve is 2 mm . Find the work
function of the metal.
A) 2. 3 eV
B) 4. 3 eV
C) 1. 3 eV

D) 3. 2 eV
Answer: 1. 3 eV
Solution: From the Einstein's photoelectric equation K = hc − ϕ ⇒ ϕ = hc − K

λ λ
2 2 2
RBq RBq
Now R = mv ⇒ v = m ⇒ K =
Bq 2m
Therefore,
2
hc R2B2q2 6.63×10−34×3×108 (2×10−3×2×10−3×1.6×10−19)
ϕ= − 2m
= −10
−
λ 4500×10 2×9.1×10−31
−19 2.27
⇒ϕ= (4. 42 − 2. 25) × 10 J = 1.6 eV = 1.3 eV
Q.16. Temperature of cold reservoir was 324 K and heat given by the hot reservoir was 300 J. If heat given to the sink was 180 J,
then find the temperature of hot reservoir.
A) 540 K
B) 440 K
C) 624 K
D) 354 K
Answer: 540 K
Solution:
Q2 T2
Using the relation,
Q1
= T1
180 324 324×300

Or 300 = T ⇒ T1 = 180
= 540 K
1
Q.17. 20 tuning forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency such that every tuning fork produces 4 beats with previous one.
If frequency of last tuning fork is double the first, then the frequency of last tuning fork is?
A) 152 Hz
B) 176 Hz
C) 126 Hz
D) 142 Hz
Answer: 152 Hz

Solution:
Each fork produces 4 beats per second with the previous means each fork has frequency 4 Hz more than the previous.
Using relation, flast = ffirst + (N − 1)x, here, N is the number of tuning fork in series and x is beat frequency between two
successive forks.
2f0 = f0 + (20 − 1)4
⇒ 2f0 = f0 + 76
⇒ f0 = 76 Hz
Frequency of last tuning fork is 152 Hz.
Q.18. Work done in rotating a magnetic dipole of dipole moment M = 14 × 10−5 A m2 in a uniform magnetic field B = 2 × 105 T
by an angle θ = 60° (initially dipole is aligned with the field) is
A) 7 J
B) 14 J
C) 28 J
D) 21 J
Answer: 14 J
Solution: Work done by the external force is equal to the change in the potential energy,
Wext = ΔU = Uf − Ui
⇒ Wext = −M B cos θ 2 + M B cos θ 1
⇒ Wext = M B (cos θ 1 − cos θ 2)
⇒ Wext = 14 × 10−5 × 2 × 105 (cos 0° − cos 60°)
⇒ Wext = 14 × 2 × 12 = 14 J
Q.19. 64 small balls each of radius 2 cm having surface charge density 5 μC m−2 each merged to form a big ball then find the ratio
of surface charge density of big ball by small ball
A) 4:1
B) 2:1
C) 16 : 1
D) 8:1
Answer: 4:1
Total volume will be constant. Therefore, n ( 4π r3) = 4π R3 ⇒ 64 3 r = R ⇒ R = 4r

Solution: 1
3 3
nσ04πr2 64×σ0r2 σ′ 4
Final surface charge density σ′ = = ⇒ = 1
4πR2 16r2 σ0

Q.20. Assertion : As we move from pole to equator magnitude of gravitational acceleration is same and always pointed towards
centre of earth.
Reason: At the equator, the acceleration due to gravity is pointed towards centre of earth.
A) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
B) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true and reason is false
D) Assertion is false and reason is true
Answer: Assertion is false and reason is true
Solution: Value of effective g increases as we move from the equator to pole because on the equator its value is less due to earth's
rotational motion and consequent centrifugal force.
Moreover, the equator of the earth is at a larger distance from the centre of the earth as compared to the poles. This is
another reason why g is greater on the pole than the equator.
At the equator, direction of gravitational pull and centrifugal force are in same line, hence net force is towards the centre of the
Earth.
Q.21. Find the tension between 7th & 8th blocks connected by string placed on a frictionless table as shown in figure below. (Given,
m = 2 kg & g = 10 m s−2).
A) 36 N
B) 38 N
C) 40 N
D) None of these
Answer: 36 N

Solution:
Net pulling force

Acceleration,a =
Total mass
6mg 6g
a= 10m
= 10
= 6 m s−2
Considering block 8, 9 & 10 as system, tension between block 7 & 8 can be written as,
T7,8 = (3m) × a
= 3 × 2 × 6 = 36 N

Section B: Chemistry
Q.1. Which one of the following will not give flame test?
A) Ca
B) Ba
C) Sr
D) Be
Answer: Be
Solution: The electrons in beryllium and magnesium are too strongly bound to get excited by flame. Hence, these elements do not
impart any colour to the flame. The flame test for Ca, Sr and Ba is helpful in their detection in qualitative analysis and
estimation by flame photometry.
Q.2. Which of the following water soluble vitamin cannot be excreted easily?
A) B1
B) B2
C) B6
D) B12
Answer: B12
Solution: B group vitamins and vitamin C are soluble in water, so they are grouped together. Water-soluble vitamins must be supplied
regularly in diet because they are readily excreted in urine and cannot be stored (except vitamin B12) in our body.
Means vitamin B12can not be excreted easily.
Q.3. 6. 1 g of CNG gas is supplied with 208 g of oxygen gas. CO2 and H2O is produced along with a lot of heat. How much CO2
(in grams) gas is produced in gram?
(Consider CNG as methane)
A) 34 g
B) 17 g
C) 6 g
D) 12 g
Answer: 17 g
Solution: CH 4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O + heat

6.1
Moles of CH 4 = = 0. 38
16
208
Moles of O2 = = 6. 5
32
6.1
CH 4 is limiting reagent. So, moles of CO2 formed = 16
Weight of CO2 formed = 6.1 × 44 = 16. 775 ≈ 17 g

16
Q.4. A nucleus has 2 types of radioactive decays. The half life of first is 3 hours and for the seconds is 4.5 hours. Calculate the
overall half life of nucleus in hours..

A) 0. 56 hours
B) 3. 75 hours
C) 2. 23 hours
D) 1. 80 hours
Answer: 1. 80 hours
Solution: 0.693
λ= t1
2
For a parallel reaction.
λ = λ1 + λ2
1 1 1
t1
= +
2 (t 1) (t 1)
2 1 2 2
1 1
= 3
+ 4.5
1 7.5
t1
= 3×4.5
2
9
t1 = 5
2
= 1. 8 hour
Q.5. Select the nitrogen atom having the odd number of electrons.
A) N2O5
B) NO2
C) N 2O
D) N2O4
Answer: NO2

Solution:
As we can see only NO2 is having an odd electron.
Q.6. Number of molecules having two lone pairs on the central atom among the following is:
CH 4, SF4, XeF 4, H2O

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: 2
Solution:
As we can see from the structures XeF 4, H2Oare having two lone pairs on the central atom.
Q.7. The Sum of radial nodes and angular nodes in 4s orbital is:
A) 1
1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4
Answer: 3
Solution: Radial nodes = n − l − 1
Angular nodes = l
So, total nodes = n − 1 = 4 − 1 = 3

There would be only 3 radial nodes in 4s orbital there won't be any angular nodes in this orbital.
Q.8. Which of the following is a metalloid?

A) Bi
B) Sc
C) Te
D) Hg
Answer: Te
Solution: Te
The six commonly recognised metalloids are boron, silicon, germanium, arsenic, antimony, and tellurium.
All other options are metals.
Q.9. 40% HI decomposes in to H2 and I2 at 300 K, calculate the value of ΔG° in Joules
A) 5483
B) 3645
C) 5240
D) 8430
Answer: 5483
Solution: 2HI ⇄ H2 + I2
t=0
α α
t=t 1−α 2 2
α α
[H2][I2] ⋅
Kc = 2
= 2 2
[HI] (1−α) 2
40% decomposition occurs, So, α = 0. 4

0.4 04
2 ⋅ 2
(0.2)2
Kc = 2
= = 0. 11
(1−0.4) (0.6) 2
ΔG° = −2. 303 RT log kC

= −2. 303 × 8. 314 × 300 × log 0. 11 = 5483.3 Joules

Q.10. Which of the following samples of water are polluted:
Sample BOD value

1 4
2 18
3 21
4 3
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Answer: 2, 3
Solution: The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the organic matter present in a certain volume of a sample of
water, is called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). The amount of BOD in the water is a measure of the amount of organic
material in the water, in terms of how much oxygen will be required to break it down biologically. Clean water would have BOD
value of less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value of 17 ppm or more.
Among the given samples, sample number 2 and 3 are polluted.
Q.11. Toluene can be easily converted into benzaldehyde by which of the following reagents?
A) CO, HCl, Anhyd. AlCl3
B) Acetic acid, CS2
C) (i) CCl 4, Chromyl chloride (ii) H3O+
D) H2, Pd / BaSO4
Answer: (i) CCl 4, Chromyl chloride (ii) H3O+
Solution: Toluene is oxidised to benzaldehyde in presence of chromyl chloride. This reaction is called Etard's reaction.
Q.12. Which is not correct with benzenesulfonyl chloride.
A) It is hinsberg's reagent
B) It forms a ppt with secondary amine which is soluble with alkali
C) It is used to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
D) It does not react with tertiary amine.
Answer: It forms a ppt with secondary amine which is soluble with alkali

Solution: Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C 6H5 SO2 Cl), which is also known as Hinsberg's reagent, reacts with primary and secondary
amines to form sulphonamides.
The reaction of benzenesulphonyl chloride with primary amine yields N-ethylbenzenesulphonyl amide.
In the reaction with secondary amine, N, N-diethylbenzenesulphonamide is formed.
Tertiary amines do not react with benzenesulphonyl chloride.
Q.13. Which of the following element is most likely to deviate from +3 oxidation state?
A) La
B) Ce
C) Lu
D) Gd
Answer: Ce
 −4e− 

Solution: 4f 15d16s2 [Xe]
Electronic configuration of Ce = [Xe] −−→
Cerium in +4 oxidation state due to stable xenon configuration. La, Lu and Gd are stable in +3 oxidation state.
Q.14. A solid AxBy has ccp structure. A forms ccp and B is present in all the octahedral voids. If atoms ' A' are removed from two
opposite faces then x will be:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
Answer: 3
Solution: A forms ccp structure that means number of A atoms per unit cell → 4
B atoms per unit cell → 4 (Octahedral voids), as number of octahedral voids will be equal to number of atoms per unit cell.
A removed = 2 × 12 = 1
A left = 4 − 1 = 3
Formula becomes A3B4
x = 3.

Q.15. Match the following:
Enzyme Function
i Invertase a Starch to maltose
ii Maltase b Maltose to glucose
iii Zymase c Sugar to ethanol
iv Diastase d Inversion of cane sugar
A) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
B) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
Answer: i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
Solution: Invertase helps in the conversion of sucrose to glucose and fructose.

Zymase catalyses the conversion of glucose or fructose to ethyl alcohol.
Diastase is a starch hydrolysing enzyme that breaks down the complex carbohydrate (polysaccharides, i.e. starch) into simple
carbohydrates (monosaccharides, i.e. simple sugar like glucose).
Maltase catalyses the conversion of maltose to glucose.
Q.16. 2+
Number of electrons in t2g orbital of compound formed by reacting [Co (H2O)6] with excess NH3 in the presence of air is:
A) 4
B) 6
C) 3
D) 2
Answer: 6
Solution: 2+ air 3+
[Co (H2O)6] + 6NH3 → [Co (NH3)6] + 6H2O + e−
3+
Electronic configuration of [Co (NH3)6] = t62ge0g
Air oxides the Co (II) to Co (III)
Q.17.
Identify 'Z' among the following

A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:
Solution: First step involves the reduction of nitrobenzene to aniline in presence of Sn in HCl. Second step is a diazotization reaction
where aniline is converted to benzenediazonium chloride in presence of nitrous acid, and third step involves the reaction
between benzene diazonium chloride and beta-naphthol to form 1-phenylazo-2-naphthol an orange red dye.

Q.18. Boiling of hard water produces:
A) CaCO 3 and Mg (OH)2
B) Ca (OH)2 and MgCO3
C) CaCO 3 and MgCO3
D) Ca (OH)2 and Mg (OH)2
Answer: CaCO 3 and Mg (OH)2
Solution: During boiling Mg (HCO3)2 is converted to insoluble Mg (OH)2
Heating ⏐
Mg (HCO3)2 −−−→ Mg (OH)2 ⏐
↓ +2 CO2
Heating ⏐
Ca (HCO3)2 −−−→ CaCO 3 ⏐
↓ +H2O + CO2
Ca (HCO3)2 changes to insoluble CaCO 3
Q.19. In an electrochemical cell Eo 2+

A /A
= −0 .33 V, EoB/ = 0 .50 V. Find the value of ΔGo
B 2+
A) −0. 20 F
B) −0. 34 F
C) −0.02 F
D) −0.04 F
Answer: −0. 34 F
Solution: EoB2+/B = −EoB/ = −0. 5 V

B 2+
Eocell = EoA2+/A − EoB2+/B
= −0. 33 − (−0. 50) = 0. 17 V
ΔGo = − nFEocell
ΔGo = Standard gibbs free energy change
n =Number of electrons transferred=2
F =Faraday's constant
ΔGo = − nFEocell
= −2 × F × 0. 17 = −0. 34 F
Q.20.

A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:
Solution:
It is oxymercuration–demercuration reaction. In this an alkene is treated with mercury(II) acetate, and the product is treated
with sodium borohydride. The net result is a Markovnikov addition product without rearrangement.
Q.21. A metal is irradiated with the light of wavelength 6640 Å and its stopping potential is 0.4 V. The threshold frequency (v0) of
the metal is 3. 55 × 10x Hz. The value of x is:
A) 12
B) 14
C) 15
D) 19

Answer: 14
Solution: hc
λ
= hv0 + qV
v0 = Threshold frequency
V = Stopping potential
c = Velocity
λ = wave length
h = planck 's constant.
hc
−qV
v0 =
λ
h
6.626×10−34×3×108
−1.6×10−19×0.4
6640×10−10
v0 =
6.626×10−34
v0 = 3. 55 × 1014 Hz.
Q.22. Identify the major product (P) in the below sequence of reaction.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Answer:
Solution: Butan-2-one undergoes nucleophilic addition reaction with HCN to form a cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms 2-hydroxy-
2methyl butanoic acid which undergoes dehydration to form 2-methyl but-2-enoic acid
Q.23. Which of the following is not a synthetic detergent?
A) Sodium lauryl sulphate
B) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
C) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
D) Sodium stearate
Answer: Sodium stearate
Solution: Synthetic detergents are cleansing agents which have all the properties of soaps, but which actually do not contain any soap.
These can be used both in soft and hard water as they give foam even in hard water. Some of the detergents give foam even
in ice cold water.
Sodium stearate is an example of soap.
Q.24. Find the osmotic pressure (in atm) of a solution in which 2 g of a protein having molar mass 6 kg is present in 2 mL
o
of solution at 27 C
A) 8
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
Answer: 4

Solution: Osmotic pressure (π) = iCRT
2
π=1× 6000
2
× 0. 0821 × 300
1000
π ≈ 4 atm

Section C: Mathematics
Q.1. lim cos(sin x)−cosx

The value of x→0 is equal to
x4
A) 1
5
B) 1
6
C) 1
4
D) 1
2
Answer: 1
6
Solution: lim
( 00 form)
cos(sin x)−cosx
Consider x→0
x4
lim 2sin( sin x+x

2
)⋅sin( x−sin
2
x
)
x→0
x4
) )
= x→0 2 [ sin x+x ] [ x−sin x ] × ( 2 ) × ( 2 ) × x14
lim sin( sin x+x sin( x−sin x
2 2 sin x+x x−sin x
( 2
) ( 2
)
) )
x→0 2 [ ][ ] × ( x −sin4 x )
lim sin( sin x+x
2
sin( x−sin
2
x
2 2
( sin x+x
2
) ( x−sin
2
x
) 4x
lim lim
x→0 2 × ( ) ( 00 form) (∵ t→0 sint t
x2−sin2 x
= 1)
4x4
Applying L'Hospital's Rule,
lim lim 2x−sin 2x

x→0 2 × ( ) = x→0 ( 8x3 ) ( 00 form)
2x−2sin xcosx
4⋅4x3
lim
x→0 ( ) ( 00 form)
2−2cos2x
24x2
1
lim 6
lim
x→0 ( ) x→0 ( )
4sin 2x sin 2x 1
48x
= 2x
= 6
If 40C0 + 41C1 + 42C2 + ⋯ + 60C20 = n × 60C20 where m & n are co-prime, then m + n is equal to
Q.2. m
A) 102
B) 100
C) 104
D) 96
Answer: 102

Solution: We know nCr−1 + nCr =
n+1
Cr
Also 40C0 = 41C0
So 41C0 + 41C1 + 42C2 + … . 60C20
= 42C1 + 42C2 + 43C3. . . . 60C20 = 43C2 + 43C3 + … 60C20
= 60C19 + 60C20 = 61C20
Given 61C20 = n 60C20

m
61 m
⇒ 41
= n ⇒ m + n = 102
cos−1 { 10 cos (tan−1 43 ) + 25 sin (tan−1 43 )} =

Q.3. 3
A) 0
B) π
6
C) π
4
D) π
3
Answer: π
3
Let tan−1 ( ) = θ ⇒ tan θ =

Solution: 4 4
3 3
∴ cos θ = 35 & sin θ = 4

5
So, cos−1 { cos (tan−1 43 ) + 25 sin (tan−1 43 )}

3
10
= cos−1 { 10
3
cos θ + 25 sin θ}
= cos−1 { 10
3
× 35 + 25 × 45 }
= cos−1 { 50
9 8
+ 25 }
= cos−1 12 = π
3
Q.4. x2 y2
Suppose l1 is the tangent to the hyperbola
9
− 4
= 1 and l2 is a straight line passing through (0,0) and perpendicular to l1.
2
If the locus of point of intersection of l1 and l2 is (x2 + y2) = αx2 + βy2, then the value of α + β is equal to
A) 5
B) 7
C) 3

D) 9
Answer: 5
Solution: The equation of tangent to the given hyperbola is y = mx ± √9m2 − 4 . ..(i)
Hence, l1 : y = mx ± √9m2 − 4
Given that, l2 is a straight line passing through origin and perpendicular to l1.
−1 −x
So, l2 : y = m x ⇒ m = y . . . (ii)
On solving equations (i) & (ii), we get
2
√9( −x
√9x2−4y2
y=( y )x ± y ) −4
−x −x2
⇒y= y ± y
2
⇒ (y2 + x2) = 9x2 − 4y2
2
On comparing the above equation with (x2 + y2) = αx2 + βy2, we get α = 9, β = −4
∴ α + β = 5
Q.5. The area bounded by y2 = 8x and y2 = 16 (3 − x) is
A) 16
B) 8
C) 32
D) 64
Answer: 16
Solution: Given curves are y2 = 8x and y2 = 16 (3 − x)
⇒ 8x = 48 − 16x ⇒ x = 2, so y = ±4
Required area = 2 ∫ 0 ((3 − ) − 8 )dy

4 y2 y2
16
y3 4
= 2[3y − 48 − 24 ] = 2 [12 − 64 ] = 16
y3
48
− 64
24
0
Q.6. −2
If p and q are real number such that p + q = 3, p4 + q 4 = 369, then the value of ( p + q )
1 1
is equal to
A) 4
B) 2
3

C) 6
D) 3
Answer: 4
2
Solution: p4 + q 4 = 369 ⇒ (p2 + q 2) − 2(pq)2 = 369
2
⇒ ((p + q) − 2pq) − 2(pq) = 369
2 2
2 2
⇒ (9 − 2pq) − 2(pq) = 369
2
⇒ (pq) − 18 (pq) − 144 = 0 ⇒ pq = 24(rejected), −6
−2 (pq) 2 (pq) 2
Now, ( 1p + 1q ) = = =4
(p+q) 2 9
Q.7. ∣ 2∣
If z2 + z + 1 = 0, z ∈ C , then the value of ∣∑k=1 (zk + )
15 1
∣ is equal to
∣ zk ∣
A) 30
B) 20
C) 40
D) 50
Answer: 30

Solution: Given z2 + z + 1 = 0
1±√1−4 −1±√3i
So z = − ⇒z=
2×1 2
So z roots are ω & ω2
∣ 2∣
Now ∣∑k=1 (zk + )
15 1
∣
∣ zk ∣
2 2 2
= (z1 + 1z ) + (z2 + 1
) ⋯ (z15 + 1
)
z2 z 15
1 1
Now z3k + = ω3k + = 2 as ω3 = 1
z 3k ω3k
2
so (z3k + )
1
z 3k
= 22 = 4
2
∑5k=1 (z3k + 1
) = 4 × 5 = 20 ...equation (i)
z 3k
Now z = ω & 1z = ω2
2
so z + z = ω + ω2 = −1 ⇒ (z + z ) = 1
1 1
2 2
Similarly (z3k−1 + ) = 1 & (z3k−2 + ) =1
1 1
z 3k−1 z 3k−2
2
So ∑k=1 (z3k−1 + )
5 1
= 1 × 5 = 5 ...equation (ii)
z 3k−1
2
And ∑k=1 (z3k−2 + )
5 1
z 3k−2
= 1 × 5 = 5 ....equation (iii)
Final answer will be addition of all equation (i), (ii) & (iii)20 + 5 + 5 = 30
Q.8. x2
If function f (x) = x − 1 and g (x) = , then fog (x) is
x2+1
A) One-one and onto
B) One-one but not onto
C) Onto but not one-one
D) Neither one-one nor onto
Answer: Neither one-one nor onto
f ∘ g (x) = f (g (x)) = f ( )
Solution: x2
x2+1
x2 x2−x2−1 −1
= −1 = =
x2+1 x2+1 x2+1
We know that, 0 ≤ x2 < ∞, ∀x ∈ R
1 −1
⇒ 1 ≤ x2 + 1 < ∞, ∀x ∈ R ⇒ 1 ≥ > 0, ∀x ∈ R ⇒ −1 ≤ < 0, ∀x ∈ R
x2+1 x2+1
So, range of fog (x) is [−1, 0) ⊂ R.
−1 −1
Hence, the function fog (x) is into function and f ∘ g (−x) = f (g (−x)) = = = f (g (x))
(−x) 2+1 x2+1
∴ fog (x) is an even function. So, it is a many one function.
Hence, fog (x) is neither one-one nor onto function.

Q.9. The value of 16 sin 20° sin 40° sin 80° is equal to
A) 2√3
B) 8√3
C) √3
D) 4√3
Answer: 2√3
Solution: We know that sin θ sin (60 − θ) sin (60 + θ) = 1 sin 3θ

4
Now given 16 sin 20° sin 40° sin 80°
Comparing with above formula θ = 20°

1
we get 16 sin 20° sin 40° sin 80° = 16 × × sin (3 × 20°)
4
√3
= 16 × 14 × sin 60° = 4 × 2
= 2√3
Q.10. 24 √2 2−x2
π ∫0 dx =
(2+x2)(√4+x4)
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 1
2
Answer: 3
Solution: 24 √2 2−x2
I= π ∫0 dx
(2+x2)(√4+x4)
24 √2 2−x2
= π ∫0 dx
x2( 2x +x)√( 42 +x2)
x
2
−1
24 √2 x2
= π ∫0 dx
( 2x +x)√( 2x +x) −4
2
Let x + x = t, (− 2 + 1)dx = dt
2 2
x
2√ 2 2√ 2
I = − 24
π ∫∞
dt
= − 12
π ∫∞
2tdt
t√t2−4 t2√t2−4
Let t2 − 4 = z2, 2tdt = 2zdz

2
π ( 2 tan
I = − 12
2 2zdz
= − 24
2 dz
= − 24 1 −1 z )
π ∫∞ z(z 2+4) π ∫∞ (z 2+4) 2 ∞
π (8 − 4) = 3
= − 24 π π
Q.11. dy
If x
dx
+ 2y = xex and y (1) = 0, then the value of local maximum of the function z (x) = x2y (x) − ex; x ∈ R is

A) 4
e −e
B) 4
e +e
C) 2
e −e
D) 2
e +e
Answer: 4
e −e
Solution: dy 2y
dx
+ x = ex
2
I. F. = e∫ x dx = e2lnx = x2
∴ General solution: y (x2) = ∫ ex (x2)dx
We know that
n
∫ exf (x)dx == ex [f (x) − f ′(x) + f ′′ (x) − f ′′′ (x) + ⋯ + (−1) f n (x))] + C
So, y (x2) = ex [x2 − 2x + 2] + C . . . (i)
Given y (1) = 0 ⇒ (0) (1) = e1 [1 − 2 (1) + 2] + C
⇒ C = −e
ex
∴y= [x2 − 2x + 2] − e (from eq (i))
x2
Hence, z(x) = x2 ( ) [x2 − 2x + 2] − e − ex

ex
x2
= ex [x2 − 2x + 2] − e − ex
z (x) = ex [x2 − 2x + 1] − e
z′ (x) = ex (2x − 2) + (x2 − 2x + 1)ex
z′ (x) = ex [x2 − 1]
To find local maxima, put z′ (x) = 0
⇒ ex (x2 − 1) = 0 ⇒ (x − 1) (x + 1) = 0 (∵ ex > 0, ∀x ∈ R)
⇒ x = 1, −1
It is clear from the sign scheme method, z (x) has local maximum value at x = −1 and has local minimum value at x = 1.
∴ The local maximum value is
z (−1) = e−1 [(−1) − 2 (−1) + 1] − e

2
= 1e [1 + 2 + 1] − e = 4
e −e
Q.12. dy
If
dx
+ ex (x2 − 2)y = (x2 − 2x) (x2 − 2)e2x and y (0) = 0, then the value of y (2) is
A) 0
B) 2

C) 1
D) 4
Answer: 0
Solution: Given
dy
dx
+ ex (x2 − 2)y = (x2 − 2x) (x2 − 2)e2x
It is linear differential equation so,

2
IF = e∫ (x −2)e
x dx
2 x 2 x
= ex e −2∫ xe x dx−2e x = ex e −2[xe x −e x ]−2e x
2
IF = e(x −2x)e
x
Now solution is given by

2 2
y × e(x −2x)e = ∫ e(x −2x)e × (x2 − 2x) (x2 − 2)e2x
x x
2
= ∫ e(x −2x)e × (x2 − 2x)ex (x2 − 2)ex
x
Now let (x2 − 2x)ex = t
We get ex (x2 − 2x) + ex (2x − 2)dx = dt
ex (x2 − 2x + 2x − 2)dx = dt
ex (x2 − 2)dx = dt
2
y × e(x −2x)e = ∫ et × t × dt
x
2
y × e(x −2x)e = et (t − 1) + c
x
2 2
y × e(x −2x)e = e(x −2x)e ((x2 − 2x)ex − 1) + c
x x
Now at x = 0 y = 0
0 × e0 = e0 (0xex − 1) + c
0 = −1 + c c = 1
Putting the value of c = 1 we get the equation as
2 2
⇒ y × e(x −2x)e = e(x −2x)e ((x2 − 2x)ex − 1) + 1
x x
Now putting x = 2 in equation we get

2 2
y × e(4−4)e = e(4−4)e ((4 − 4)e2 − 1) + 1
⇒ y × e0 = e0 ((0)e2 − 1) + 1
⇒ y = −1 + 1 = 0
Q.13. ∞ 1 (−1) n
If A = ∑n=1 and B = ∑∞
n=1 , then the value of
A
is equal to
(3+(−1) n)n (3+(−1) n)n B
A) − 11
9
B) − 11
3
C) − 11
6
D) −11
−11
Answer: − 11
9
Solution: A = ∑∞
n=1
1
= 1
2
+ 1
+ 1
+ 1
+⋯
(3+(−1) n)n 42 23 44
1 1
= ( 12 + 1
+ ⋯) + ( 12 + 1
+ ⋯) = 2
+ 16
23 4 44 1− 14 1− 161
2 1 11
= 3
+ 15 = 15
(−1) n
B = ∑∞
n=1 = − 12 + 1
− 1
+ 1
−⋯
(3+(−1) n)n 42 23 44
= − ( 12 + 1
+ ⋯) + ( 12 + 1
+ ⋯)
23 4 44
1 1
=− 2
+ 16
= − 23 + 15
1 9
= − 15
1− 14 1− 161
B 11
Hence, A = − 9
If ∫ x √ dx = g (x) + c, then the value of g ( 2 )

Q.14. 1 1−x 1
1+x
ln (2 − √3) − π6
A)
ln (2 + √3) − π3
B)
ln (2 + √3) − π6
C)
ln (2 − √3) − π3
D)
ln (2 − √3) − π6
Answer:
Let x = sin θ, θ ∈ (0, )

Solution: π
2
dx = cos θdθ
√
1 1−sin θ
=∫ sin θ
cos θdθ
1+sin θ
1−sin θ
=∫ sin θ ⋅cosθ
cos θdθ
= ∫ (cosec θ − 1)dθ
= ln (cosec θ − cot θ) − θ + c
1−√1−x2
Since, x = sin θ ⇒ cosec θ − cotθ = x
= ln ( ) − sin−1 x + c
1−√1−x2
x
g (x) = ln ( ) − sin−1 x
1−√1−x2
x
∴ g ( 12 ) = ln (2 − √3) − π6
Q.15. The sides of a cuboid are given as 2x, 4x, 5x and there is a closed hemisphere of radius r such that the sum of their surface
area is a constant k. The ratio of x : r such that the sum of their volume is maximum is equal to
A) 19
45
B) 45
19
C) 19
24
D) 24
7
Answer: 19
45
Solution: Let sum of surface area
S = 3πr2 + 76x2
dS
∵ S is constant so dx
=0
dr
⇒ 6πr dx + 2 × 76x = 0
dr
⇒ dx = − 76x
3πr
⋯ (1)
2
Now total volume V = πr3 + 40x3
3
dV
For maximum volume
dx
=0
⇒ 2πr2 dx
dr
+ 120x2 = 0 ⋯ (2)
⇒ 2πr2 (− 76x
3πr
) + 120x2 = 0
⇒ 8x [− 19r
3
+ 15x] = 0
19
⇒ xr = 45
Q.16. If the system of equations αx + y + z = 5, x + 2y + 4z = 4 and x + 3y + 5z = β has infinitely many solutions, then the
value of α and β are
A) 0, 9
B) −1, −3
C) −1,3
D) 1, −3
Answer: 0, 9

Solution: For infinitely many solutions, Δ = Δ1 = Δ2 = Δ3 = 0
∣α 1 1∣
Δ = ∣∣ 1 2 4 ∣∣ = 0
∣1 3 5∣
⇒ α (−2) − 1 (1) + 1 (1) = 0 ⇒ α = 0
∣5 1 1∣
∣ ∣
Δ1 = ∣ 4 2 4 ∣ = 0
∣ ∣
∣β 3 5∣
⇒ 5 (−2) − 1 (20 − 4β) + 1 (12 − 2β) = 0
⇒ −10 − 20 + 4β + 12 − 2β = 0
⇒ −18 + 2β = 0
⇒β=9
∴ α = 0, β = 9.
Q.17. If the function f (x) = min {1, 1 + x sin x}, x ∈ [0,π] , then the nature of f (x) is
A) Continuous & differentiable everywhere
π
B) Discontinuous at x =
2
C) π
Continuous but not differentiable at
2
D) None
Answer: Continuous & differentiable everywhere
Solution: Given,
f (x) = min {1, 1 + x sin x}
Now for x ∈ [0, π] x is positive and
sin x is also positive in [0, π]

So, 1 + x sin x ⩾ 1
So, f (x) = min {1, 1 + x sin x} ⇒ f (x) = 1
which is a constant function

So it is Continuous & differentiable everywhere.
Q.18. Let the mean of 50 observations is 15 and the standard deviation is 2. However, one observation was wrongly recorded. The
sum of the correct and incorrect observations is 70. If the mean of the correct set of observations is 16, then the variance of
the correct set is equal to
A) 43
B) 45
C) 47
D) 49
Answer: 43

Solution: ∑ xi
We have, Mean= 50 = 15 ⇒ ∑ xi = 750
∑ x2i
Variance=
50
− 152 = 22 ⇒ ∑ x2i = 11450
∑ xi
⇒ (new) = 50 × 16 = 800
∑ xi
So, (new) − ∑ xi = 800 − 750 = 50
Hence, if wrong observation was x then corrected one is x + 50.

⇒ x + (x + 50) = 70 ⇒ x = 10
Therefore, the correct observation = 60.
∑ xi2
2 2
Now, (new) = 11450 − (10) + (60) = 14950
14950 2
Therefore, variance of the correct set = − (16) = 299 − 256 = 43.
50
Q.19. If a 3 digit number is randomly formed, then the probability that its common divisor with 36 is only 2 is
A) 1
6
B) 1
2
C) 1
3
D) 1
4
Answer: 1
6
Solution: The total 3-digit numbers are 9 × 10 × 10 = 900
Favourable cases = Three-digit even numbers
− Three-digit numbers which are multiples of 4

− Three-digit numbers which are multiples of 6
+ Three-digit numbers which are multiples of 12
= 450 − 225 − 150 + 75 = 150
150 1
Hence, required probability = 990 = 6

26 June 2022 Shift 2 Memory Based Questions

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JEE Main Exam 2022 - Session 1

26 June 2022 - Shift 2 (Memory-Based Questions)

Q.1. Dimension of mutual inductance is

Answer: ML2 T −2A−2

Solution: The formula for mutual inductance is given by, ε = M dI ⇒M = ε

Dimension of emf or voltage is [M L2 T −3 A−1],

Therefore, the dimension of M is

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Q.3. Arrange the EM waves according to increasing order of wavelength

A) λgamma < λX−ray < λmicrowave < λvisible

B) λgamma < λX−ray < λvisible < λmicrowave

C) λX−ray < λmicrowave < λgamma < λvisible

D) λmicrowave < λvisible < λX−ray < λgamma

Answer: λgamma < λX−ray < λvisible < λmicrowave

Egamma > EX−ray > Evisible > Emicrowave

λgamma < λX−ray < λvisible < λmicrowave

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Distance covered by ball A is h = 50 (2) − 1 × 10 × 22= 100 − 20 = 80 m

Now, at time t = 2 s, velocity of A is vA = 50 − 10 × 2 = 30 m s−1

Relative velocity of both balls after 2 s is vrel = 50 − 30 = 20 m s−1

Here, relative displacement xrel = 80 m s−1 and relative accelerationarel = 0.

Time at which they will meet is t = 4 + 2 = 6 s

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Answer: 3. 13 × 105 m s−1

Solution: The apparent change in the wavelength is given by

Hence, velocity of the planet is 3. 13 × 105 m s−1.

Q.9. Find the equivalent resistance between point A and B

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Impulse, J = ∫ Fdt =Change in momentum

Solution: sin 90°

Squaring, 16R2 = 9R2 + 9h2

Solution: Give F = 10−5 N

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Answer: 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 − a4 = 0

⇒ (4T)a1 + (2T)a2 + Ta3 − Ta4 = 0

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Solution: From the Einstein's photoelectric equation K = hc − ϕ ⇒ ϕ = hc − K

180 324 324×300

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2f0 = f0 + (20 − 1)4

⇒ Wext = 14 × 10−5 × 2 × 105 (cos 0° − cos 60°)

Total volume will be constant. Therefore, n ( 4π r3) = 4π R3 ⇒ 64 3 r = R ⇒ R = 4r

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C) Assertion is true and reason is false

D) Assertion is false and reason is true

Answer: Assertion is false and reason is true

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Net pulling force

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Means vitamin B12can not be excreted easily.

Solution: CH 4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O + heat

Weight of CO2 formed = 6.1 × 44 = 16. 775 ≈ 17 g

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For a parallel reaction.

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As we can see only NO2 is having an odd electron.

CH 4, SF4, XeF 4, H2O

Solution: Radial nodes = n − l − 1

So, total nodes = n − 1 = 4 − 1 = 3

Q.8. Which of the following is a metalloid?