احمد فتحى-2

Obstetric & Gynecological nursing
Questions and answers
Prepared by RN/ Ahmed Fathy

Whats: 01117607325
‫‪obstetric nursing questions and answers‬‬
‫مقدمة‪:‬‬
‫بسم هللا الرحمن الرحيم والصالة والسالم على اشرف المرسلين سيدنا‬
‫محمد وعلي آله وصحبه أجمعين ثم اما بعد الحمد هلل حمدا يليق بجالل‬
‫وجهه وعظيم سلطانه والشكر له علي توفيقه وامتنانه تم بحمد هلل جمع‬
‫أكبر قدر ممكن من االسئلة المتوقعه مرفقا بها اإلجابة لمحتوي ‪obstetric‬‬
‫‪ and gynecological nursing‬ولقد الحظت توفيقا عظيما وسهولة ويسرا‬
‫و هو وهللا ما أراه اال مصداقا لقول رسول هللا صلى هللا عليه وسلم وهللا‬
‫في عون العبد ما كان العبد في عون أخيه‬
‫‪RN/ Ahmed Fathy‬‬ ‫‪WhatsApp:01117607326‬‬

obstetric nursing questions and answers
1- Which of the following nutrient’s inadequate intake in

pregnancy will leads to neural tube defects in children?
a. Niacin
b. Riboflavin
c. Folic acid
d. Thiamine
Answers is C
2- What is the most common complication associated with too

rapid delivery in precipitate labor?
a. Pitting edema of the baby’s scalp
b. Dural or subdural tears in fetal brain tissue
c. Premature separation of the placenta
d. Prolonged retention of the placenta
Answers is B
3- A woman spontaneously delivers a baby girl who is

immediately handed to the nurse. Which action is of highest
priority for the nurse?
a. Do an Apgar assessment
b. Check neonatal heart rate
c. Apply identification bracelets
d. Clear the nasopharynx
Answers is D
RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

4- Which of the following is the most important nursing

assessment during the fourth stage of labor?
a. Bonding behaviors
b. Distention of the bladder
c. Ability to relax
d. Knowledge of newborn behavior
Answers is B
5- The nursing care plan for a woman who has placenta

abruptio should include careful assessment for signs and
symptoms of which of the following?
a. Jaundice
b. Hypovolemic shock
c. Impending convulsions
d. Hypertension
Answers is B
6- A woman is admitted with suspected placenta previa. What

test does the nurse expect will be done to confirm the
diagnosis?
a. Internal exam
b. Nonstress test
c. Oxytocin challenge test
d. Ultrasound
Answers is D

7- Magnesium sulfate is ordered for a client who is hospitalized

for pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). What effects
would the nurse expect to see as a result of this
medication?
a. CNS depression
b. Decreased gastric acidity
c. Onset of contractions
d. Decrease in number of bowel movements
Answers is A
8- The nurse is caring for a laboring woman who has a history

of rheumatic heart disease. How should the nurse position
her during labor?
a. Supine
b. Semi-recumbent
c. Side-lying
d. Sitting
Answers is B
9- Which area of health teaching will a new mother be most

responsive to during the taking in phase of the postpartum
period?
a. Family planning
b. Newborn care
c. Community support groups
d. Perineal care
Answers is D

10- Most common malpresentation is?

• Breech
• Foot
• Face
• Cephalic
Answers is breech
11- Exclusive breast feeding is recommended up to?

• 1 year
• 6 months
• 4 months
• 3 months
Answers is 6 months
12- Softening of cervix during pregnancy is known as ?

• Allis Sign
• Goodell's sign
• Labellar sign
• Kerning Sign
Answers is Goodell's Sign
13- A nurse in a labour room should do this measure to prevent

prolonged labour to a patient?
• Assessing maternal and Fetal Vital signs
• Maintaining Partograph
• Be with the patient
• Giving oxytocin
Answers is maintaining partoraph

14- Approximate weight of a placenta at term?

• 1/6th of the weight of the baby
The answers 1/6 of the weight of baby
15- Technique used by a midwife in 2nd stage of labour to

facilitate delivery over an intact perineum?
• Episiotomy
• Fundal pressure
• Ironing out
• Bearing down effort
Answers is Episiotomy
16- In L.O.A and R.O.A fetal positions, the presenting part is ?

• Breach
• Occiput
• Shoulder
• Chin
Answers is occiput
17- The placenta originated from?

• Myocardium
• Decidual Capsilaris
• Chorion Frondosum
• Decidual vera
The answers is chorion frondosum

18- Outer most membrane of placenta?

• Meningitis
• Chorion
• Amnion
• Yolk sac
Answers is chorion
19- Retaining a dead fetus in uterus for few weeks?

• Recurrent abortion
• Missed abortion
• Incomplete abortion
• Complete abortion
Answers is missed abortion
20- Which of the following measure used to manage shoulder

dystocia?
• Lovset Maneuver
• Burns Marshall Maneuver
• Mauriceau-Smellie-Viet Maneuver
• MacRobert’s Maneuver
Answers is MacRobert Maneuver
21- The approximate calories provided by 100 ml of breast milk

to an infant?
• 42
• 66
• 85
• 73
Answers is 66

22- Drug of choice of the management of eclampsia?

• Epsolin
• Diazepam
• Magnesium sulphate
• Labetalol
Answers is Magnesium sulphate
23- The colour of amniotic fluid is ___

a. Clear pale straw colour
b. Dark colour
c. Yellow colour
d. None
Answers is A
24- The white creamy substance on the fetus is called ___
a. White coat
b. Milky patch
c. Vernix caseosa
d. None
Answers is C
25- The appearance of violet blue discoloration of the vaginal

membrane after conception is known as ___
a. Hegar's sign
b. Osiander's sign
c. Quickening
d. Jacquemier's sign
Answers is D

26- The hormone oxytocin is secreted by

a. Uterus
b. Vagina
c. Overy
d. Posterior pituitory gland
Answers is D
27- Side effects of oral contraceptive pills ___

a. Venous thrombosis
b. Htpertension
c. Impaired glucose tolerance
d. All of the above
Answers is D
28- The immunoglobulin that crosses the placental barrier ___

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. None of the above
Answers is A
29- A primigravid client is 39 weeks pregnant. Which of the

following symptoms would the nurse expect the client to
exhibit?
a. Nausea
b. Dysuria
c. Urinary frequency
d. Intermittent diarrhea
Answers is C

30- While performing Leopold's maneuvers on a laboring woman,

the nurse palpates a flat area in the fundal region, a hard
round mass on the left side, a soft round mass on the right
side, and small parts just above the symphysis. The nurse
concludes which of the following?
a. The fetal position is right occiput posterior
b. The fetal attitude is flexed
c. The fetal presentation is scapular
d. The fetal lie is vertical
Answers is C. The fetal presentation is scapular
This is a shoulder presentation
31- A client 12 weeks' pregnant come to the emergency

department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal
bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cm cervical
dilation.The nurse would document these findings as which
of the following?
a. Threatened abortion
b. Imminent abortion
c. Complete abortion
d. Missed abortion
Answers is B
32- Which of the following would be the priority nursing

diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?
a. Risk for infection
b. Pain
c. Knowledge Deficit
d. Anticipatory Grieving
Answers is B

33- Before assessing the postpartum client's uterus for firmness

and position in relation to the umbilicus and midline. which
of the following should the nurse do first?
a. Assess the vital signs
b. Administer analgesia
c. Ambulate her in the hall
d. Assist her to urinate
Answers is D
34- The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client. 4 hours'

postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60; temperature
100.4?F; pulse 100 weak. thready; R 20 per minute. Which
of the following should the nurse do first?
a. Report the temperature to the physician
b. Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff
c. Assess the uterus for firmness and position
d. Determine the amount of lochia
Answers is D
35- The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge

(lochia) on four clients. Which of the following assessments
would warrant notification of the physician?
a. dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client
b. pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum
c. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after
delivery
d. bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
answers is D

36- Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing

practice with the current early postpartum discharge?
a. Promoting comfort and restoration of health
b. Exploring the emotional status of the family
c. Facilitating safe and effective self and newborn care
d. Teaching about the importance of family planning
Answers is C
37- Which of the following actions would be least effective in

maintaining a neutral thermal environment for the
newborn?
a. Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing
b. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing
c. Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing
d. Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette
Answers is C
38- The nurse knows that preeclampsia tends to occur during

what time in a pregnancy?
a. before 20 weeks
b. in the third trimester and postpartum
c. after 20 weeks
d. in the first and second trimester
The answer is C.

39- A patient is currently 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby.

Which findings below could indicate the development of
preeclampsia in this patient that would need to be reported
to the physician? Select all that apply:
a. 1600: blood pressure 144/100, 1700: blood pressure 120/80
b. 3+ dipstick urine protein
c. 1 hour glucose tolerance test 90 mg/dL
d. 0800: blood pressure 142/92, 1230: blood pressure: 144/98
e. <300 mg/dL 24-hour urine protein
The answers are B and D
40- Select all the risk factors below that increases a woman’s
risk for developing preeclampsia:
a. Nulligravida
b. Primigravida
c. BMI 34
d. Pregnant with twins
e. Maternal history of preeclampsia
f. Age: 25-years-old
g. History of Lupus and Diabetes
The answers are: B, C, D, E, and G

41- Your patient is 36 weeks pregnant with severe

preeclampsia. The physician has ordered lab work to assess
for HELLP Syndrome. Which findings on the patient’s lab
results correlate with HELLP Syndrome?
a. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
b. Platelets 90,000 μL
c. ALT 100 IU/L
d. AST 90 IU/L
e. Glucose 350 mg/dL
f. Abnormal RBC peripheral smear
The answers are: B, C, D, and F.
42- Your patient with preeclampsia is started on Magnesium

Sulfate. The nurse knows to have what medication on
standby?
a. Acetylcysteine
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Oxytocin
d. Calcium gluconate
The answer is D: The antidote for Magnesium Sulfate is
Calcium Gluconate

43- A 39 week pregnant patient is in labor. The patient has

preeclampsia. The patient is receiving IV Magnesium
Sulfate. Which finding below indicates Magnesium Sulfate
toxicity and requires you to notify the physician?
a. Deep tendon reflex 4+
b. Respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute
c. Urinary output of 600 mL over 12 hours
d. Clonus presenting in the lower extremities
e. Patient reports flushing or feeling hot
The answer is E
44- A 37 week pregnant patient is admitted with severe

preeclampsia. The patient begins to experiences a tonic-
clonic seizure. Which of the following would the nurse
AVOID during the seizure?
a. Placing the patient in a supine position
b. Holding down the patient’s head to prevent injury
c. Staying with the patient and activating the emergency response
team
d. Timing the seizure
e. Providing 8 to 10 L of oxygen
The answers are A and B.
45- When considering assessment history of a G3 P2 admitted

for preterm labor, which risk factor in the woman’s history
places her at greatest risk for preterm labor?
a. Prepregnancy BMI of 18.5
b. ½ ppd smoker during pregnancy
c. History of preterm labor
d. Previous cesarean delivery
Answers is C
46- A client in the family planning clinic asks the nurse about
the most likely time for her to conceive. The nurse explains
that conception is most likely to occur when:
a. Estrogen levels are low.
b. Luteinizing hormone is high.
c. The endometrial lining is thin.
d. The progesterone level is low.
Answers is B
47- A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice regarding
methods of birth control. Which method of birth control is
most suitable for the client with diabetes?
a. Intrauterine device
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Diaphragm
d. Contraceptive sponge
The answers is C
48- The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic

pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of
ectopic pregnancy?
a. Painless vaginal bleeding
b. Abdominal cramping
c. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant
d. Sudden. stabbing pain in the lower quadrant
Answers is D

49- The client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for

developing:
a. Respiratory alkalosis without dehydration
b. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration
c. Respiratory acidosis without dehydration
d. Metabolic alkalosis with dehydration
Answers is B
50- A client tells the doctor that she is about 20 weeks

pregnant. The most definitive sign of pregnancy is:
a. Elevated human chorionic gonadotropin
b. The presence of fetal heart tones
c. Uterine enlargement
d. Breast enlargement and tenderness
Answers is B
51- The nurse is caring for a neonate whose mother is diabetic.

The nurse will expect the neonate to be:
a. Hypoglycemic. small for gestational age
b. Hyperglycemic. large for gestational age
c. Hypoglycemic. large for gestational age
d. Hyperglycemic. small for gestational age
Answers is C

52- Which of the following instructions should be included in

the nurse's teaching regarding oral contraceptives?
a. Weight gain should be reported to the physician.
b. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking
antibiotics.
c. If the client misses one or more pills. two pills should be taken
per day for 1 week.
d. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the
physician.
Answers is B
53- Before advising a 24-year-old client desiring oral

contraceptives for family planning, the nurse would assess
the client for signs and symptoms of which of the following?
a. Anemia.
b. Hypertension.
c. Dysmenorrhea.
d. Acne vulgaris.
Answer: B

54- A 22-year-old nulligravid client tells the nurse that she and
her husband have been considering using condoms for
family planning. Which of the following instructions would
the nurse include about the use of condoms as a method for
family planning?
a. Using a spermicide with the condom offers added protection
against pregnancy.
b. Natural skin condoms protect against sexually transmitted
diseases.
c. The typical failure rate for couples using condoms is about 25%.
d. Condom users frequently report penile gland sensitivity.
Answer: A
55- Which of the following would the nurse include in the

teaching plan for a 32-year-old female client requesting
information about using a diaphragm for family planning?
a. Douching with an acidic solution after intercourse is
recommended.
b. Diaphragms should not be used if the client develops acute
cervicitis.
c. The diaphragm should be washed in a weak solution of bleach
and water.
d. The diaphragm should be left in place for 2 hours after
intercourse.
Answer: B

56- A 23-year-old nulliparous client visiting the clinic for a

routine examination tells the nurse that she desires to use
the basal body temperature method for family planning. The
nurse should instruct the client to do which of the
following?
a. Check the cervical mucus to see if it is thick and sparse.
b. Take her temperature at the same time every morning.
c. Document ovulation when the temperature decreases at least
1°F.
d. Avoid coitus for 10 days after a slight rise in temperature.
Answer: B
57- The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated blow

breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers
and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Administer oxygen by face mask.
b. Notify the health care provider of the client's symptoms.
c. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.
d. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate.
Answers is C
58- One hour following a normal vaginal delivery, a newborn

infant boy’s axillary temperature is 96° F, his lower lip is
shaking and, when the nurse assesses for a Moro reflex, the
boy’s hands shake. Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
a. Stimulate the infant to cry.
b. Wrap the infant in warm blankets.
c. Feed the infant formula.
d. Obtain a serum glucose level.
Answers is D
59- When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to

occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?
a. Sperm count
b. Sperm motility
c. Sperm maturity
d. Semen volume
Answers is B
60- Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant

woman most frequently experience during the first
trimester?
a. Dysuria
b. Frequency
c. Incontinence
d. Burning
Answers is B
61- Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester,

are most likely the result of which of the following?
a. Increased plasma HCG levels.
b. Decreased intestinal motility.
c. Decreased gastric acidity.
d. Elevated estrogen levels.
Answers is C

62- Which of the following represents the average amount of

weight gained during pregnancy?
a. 12 to 22 lb
b. 15 to 25 lb
c. 24 to 30 lb
d. 25 to 40 lb
Answers is C
Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which

of the following?
A. Diagnostic signs
B. Presumptive signs
C. Probable signs
D. Positive signs
Answers is C
63- Which of the following would the nurse identify as a

presumptive sign of pregnancy?
a. Hegar sign
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Skin pigmentation changes
d. Positive serum pregnancy test
Answers is B

64- Which of the following common emotional reactions to

pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first
trimester?
a. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism.
b. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness.
c. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion.
d. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies.
Answers is D
65- During which of the following would the focus of classes be

mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development,
sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?
a. Prepregnant period
b. First trimester
c. Second trimester
d. Third trimester
Answers is B
66- Which of the following would cause a false-positive result

on a pregnancy test?
a. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion.
b. The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy.
c. The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature.
d. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending.
Answers is A

67- FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which

of the following?
a. 5 weeks gestation
b. 10 weeks gestation
c. 15 weeks gestation
d. 20 weeks gestation
Answers is D
68- A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the
following?
a. January 2
b. March 28
c. April 12
d. October 12
Answers is C
69- Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12

weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?
a. Uterus in the pelvis
b. Uterus at the xiphoid
c. Uterus in the abdomen
d. Uterus at the umbilicus
Answers is A

70- Which of the following danger signs should be reported

promptly during the antepartum period?
a. Constipation
b. Breast tenderness
c. Nasal stuffiness
d. Leaking amniotic fluid
Answers is D
71- Which of the following characteristics of contractions would

the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?
a. Occurring at irregular intervals.
b. Starting mainly in the abdomen.
c. Gradually increasing intervals.
d. Increasing intensity with walking.
Answers is D
72- During which of the following stages of labor would the

nurse assess “crowning”?
a. First stage
b. Second stage
c. Third stage
d. Fourth stage
Answers is B

73- Which of the following nursing interventions would the

nurse perform during the third stage of labor?
a. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.
b. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.
c. Coach for effective client pushing.
d. Promote parent-newborn interaction.
Answers is D
74- Immediately before expulsion, which of the following

cardinal movements occur?
a. Descent
b. Flexion
c. Extension
d. External rotation
Answers is D
75- When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the

following ranges would be considered normal if the
newborn were sleeping?
a. 80 beats per minute
b. 100 beats per minute
c. 120 beats per minute
d. 140 beats per minute
Answers is B

76- Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the

newborn?
a. The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond-
shaped.
b. The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8 to 12
weeks.
c. The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior
fontanel.
d. The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken.
Answers is C
77- Which of the following statements best describes

hyperemesis gravidarum?
a. Severe anemia leading to an electrolyte, metabolic, and
nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.
b. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to an electrolyte, metabolic,
and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical
problems
c. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly results
in dehydration and ultimately decreasing maternal nutrients.
d. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal
irritation and possibly internal bleeding.
Answers is B
78- Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic

sign of PIH?
a. Edema of the feet and ankles
b. Edema of the hands and face
c. Weight gain of 1 lb/week
d. Early morning headache
Answers is B

79- Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as

predisposing a client to placenta previa?
a. Multiple gestation
b. Uterine anomalies
c. Abdominal trauma
d. Renal or vascular disease
Answers is A
80- Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client

experiencing abruptio placenta?
a. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding
b. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
c. Palpable fetal outline
d. Soft and nontender abdomen
Answers is B
81- Which of the following is described as premature separation

of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of
pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?
a. Placenta previa
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Incompetent cervix
d. Abruptio placenta
Answers is D

82- Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes

overstimulated by oxytocin during the induction of labor?
a. Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70 seconds.
b. Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90 seconds.
c. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding.
d. Increased restlessness and anxiety.
Answers is B
83- Which of the following best describes preterm labor?

a. Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks
gestation.
b. 37 weeks gestation
c. Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation and before 28 weeks
gestation.
d. Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation and before 40 weeks
gestation.
Answers is A
84- Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of

dystocia?
a. Nutritional
b. Mechanical
c. Environmental
d. Medical
Answers is D

85- Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when

umbilical cord prolapse occurs?
a. Begin monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR.
b. Place the client in a knee-chest position in bed.
c. Notify the physician and prepare the client for delivery.
d. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the exposed cord.
Answers is B
86- Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth

marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage?
a. More than 200 ml
b. More than 300 ml
c. More than 400 ml
d. More than 500 ml
Answers is D
87- Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?

a. Inflammation and clot formation that result when blood
components combine to form an aggregate body.
b. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become lodged
within the pulmonary blood vessels.
c. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become lodged
within the femoral vein.
d. Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot formation on
the vessel wall.
Answers is D

88- Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse

expect if the client develops DVT?
a. Mid Calf pain, tenderness, and redness along the vein.
b. Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after delivery.
c. Muscle pain, the presence of Homans sign, and swelling in the
affected limb.
d. Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after
delivery.
Answers is C
89- For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse
informs the client about the need to take the pill at the
same time each day to accomplish which of the following?
a. Decrease the incidence of nausea.
b. Maintain hormonal levels.
c. Reduce side effects.
d. Prevent drug interactions.
Answers is B
90- When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the

following would the nurse include as the most effective
method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?
a. Spermicides
b. Diaphragm
c. Condoms
d. Vasectomy
Correct Answer: C

91- For which of the following clients would the nurse expect
that an intrauterine device would not be recommended?
a. Woman over age 35
b. Nulliparous woman
c. Promiscuous young adult
d. Postpartum client
Answers is C
92- When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed

with gestational diabetes, which of the following
instructions would be the priority?
a. Dietary intake
b. Medication
c. Exercise
d. Glucose monitoring
Answers is A
93- A client 12 weeks’ pregnant came to the emergency

department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal
bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cm cervical
dilation.The nurse would document these findings as which
of the following?
a. Threatened abortion
b. Imminent abortion
c. Complete abortion
d. Missed abortion
Answers is B

94- During a prenatal visit at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses the

fetal heart rate. The nurse determines that the fetal heart
rate is normal if which of the following is noted?
a. 80 BPM
b. 100 BPM
c. 150 BPM
d. 180 BPM
Answers is C
95- A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been
told that a pregnancy test is positive. The physician has
documented the presence of a Goodell’s sign. The nurse
determines this sign indicates:
a. A softening of the cervix.
b. A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse
during auscultation of the uterus.
c. The presence of hCG in the urine.
d. The presence of fetal movement.
Answers is A
96- A woman hospitalized with severe preeclampsia is being

treated with hydralazine to control blood pressure. Which of
the following would the lead the nurse to suspect that the
client is having an adverse effect associated with this drug?
a. Gastrointestinal bleeding
b. Blurred vision
c. Tachycardia
d. Sweating
Ans: C

97- The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a

pregnant client. Which one of the following findings would
alert the nurse to the development of HELLP syndrome?
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Elevated platelet count
c. Leukocytosis
d. Elevated liver enzymes
Ans: D
98- The nurse is assessing a pregnant woman with gestational

hypertension. Which of the following would lead the nurse
to suspect that the client has developed severe
preeclampsia?
a. Urine protein 300 mg/24 hours
b. Blood pressure 150/96 mm Hg
c. Mild facial edema
d. Hyperreflexia
Ans: D
99- A nurse suspects that a pregnant client may be experiencing

abruption placenta based on assessment of which of the
following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Dark red vaginal bleeding
b. Insidious onset
c. Absence of pain
d. Rigid uterus
e. Absent fetal heart tones
Ans: A, D, E

100- The cervix is covered with a layer of skin like cells on its
outer surface called the:
a. Ectocervix
b. Vagina
c. The mons cervix
d. The pubis
Answers is A
101- The mons pubis is also known as:

a. The mons genitalia
b. The mons venereal
c. The mons venus
d. The clitoris
Answers is C
102- The vulva's blood supply comes from:

a. Two external pudendal arteries
b. One internal pudendal vein
c. Two internal pudendal arteries
d. Two external pudendal veins
Answers is A
103- The breast lies over a muscle of the chest known as the:
a. Deltoid muscle
b. Trapezius muscle
c. Pectoral muscle
d. Sternum
Answers is C

104- The beginning of the first menstrual cycle during

puberty is:
a. The menopause
b. The oligarche
c. The menarche
d. The adrenarche
The answers is C
105- The follicular phase is the first:

a. 16 days of the cycle
b. 12 days of the cycle
c. 19 days of the cycle
d. 14 days of the cycle
The answers is D
106- Post ovulation is also known as:

a. The luteal phase
b. The lunar phase
c. The follicular phase
d. The zonal phase
Answers is A
107- The posterior pituitary releases two hormones, arriving

directly from the hypothalamus:
a. Insulin and thyroxine
b. Oxytocin and insulin
c. Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Answers is C

108- A nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor

room and notes that the nurse-midwife has documented
that the fetus is at (-1) station. The nurse determines that
the fetal presenting part is:
a. 1 cm above the ischial spine
b. 1 fingerbreadth below the symphysis pubis
c. 1 inch below the coccyx
d. 1 inch below the iliac crest
Answers is A
109- A pregnant client is admitted to the labor room. An

assessment is performed, and the nurse notes that the
client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are low,
indicating anemia. The nurse determines that the client is at
risk for which of the following?
a. A loud mouth
b. Low self-esteem
c. Hemorrhage
d. Postpartum infections
Answers is D
110- A nurse assists in the vaginal delivery of a newborn

infant. After the delivery, the nurse observes the umbilical
cord lengthen and a spurt of blood from the vagina. The
nurse documents these observations as signs of:
a. Hematoma
b. Placenta previa
c. Uterine atony
d. Placental separation
Answers is D

111- A nurse is caring for a client in the second stage of

labor. The client is experiencing uterine contractions every 2
minutes and cries out in pain with each contraction. The
nurse recognizes this behavior as:
a. Exhaustion
b. Valsalva’s maneuver
c. Involuntary grunting
d. Fear of losing control
Answers is D
112- Cardiovascular system changes occur during

pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a
woman in her second trimester?
a. Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2)
b. Increased pulse rate
c. Increased blood pressure
d. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production
The answers is B
113- Which presumptive signs (felt by the woman) or

probable sign (observed by the examiner) of pregnancy is
not matched with another possible cause?
a. Amenorrhea: stress, endocrine problems
b. Quickening: gas, peristalsis
c. Goodell sign: cervical polyps
d. Chadwick sign: pelvic congestion
Answers is C

114- At about what age does menopause typically begin?

a. 40
b. 45
c. 51
d. 55
Answers is C
115- A woman is considered to be in menopause after she

has missed how many menstrual cycles?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
Answers is D
116- What factors can cause premature menopause?

a. Smoking
b. Autoimmune disorders
c. A woman's mother had early menopause
d. All of the above
Answers is D
117- Hot flashes are symptoms of the perimenopausal stage.

How many perimenopausal women have them?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 30%
Answers is B

118- A blood test can help confirm if a woman is beginning

menopause. The test measures the level of which of these?
a. Follicle-stimulating hormone
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Cholesterol
Answers is A
119- What is the most serious adverse effect of menopause?

a. Hot flashes
b. Osteoporosis
c. Heart disease
d. B and C
The correct answer is D. B and C.
120- How much bone loss does a woman have in the first 5
years of menopause?
a. 10% over the 5-year period
b. 5% over the 5-year period
c. About 20% over 5 to 7 years
d. 1% to 2% a year
Answers is C
121- Hormone therapy eases some of the negative effects of

menopause. Which of these hormones is used?
a. Estrogen
b. Estrogen and progesterone
c. Testosterone
d. Prostaglandin
Answers is B
122- If a woman experiences menopause after age 50, how

long should she continue using some form of birth control?
a. She doesn't have to use birth control
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
Answers is D
123- The following are important considerations to teach the

woman who is on a low dose (mini-pill) oral contraceptive
EXCEPT:
a. The pill must be taken every day at the same time
b. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day. she must take 2 pills
for added protection
c. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day. she needs to take
another temporary method until she has consumed the whole
pack
d. If she is breastfeeding. she should discontinue using mini-pill and
use the progestin-only type
Advertisement
Answers is B
124- To determine if the cause of infertility is a blockage of

the fallopian tubes. the test to be done is
a. Huhner’s test
b. Rubin’s test
c. Postcoital test
d. None of the above
Answers is B

125- Infertility can be attributed to male causes such as the

following EXCEPT:
a. Cryptorchidism
b. Orchitis
c. Sperm count of about 20 million per milliliter
d. Premature ejaculation
Answers is C
126- Vasectomy is a procedure done on a male for

sterilization. The organ involved in this procedure is
a. Prostate gland
b. Seminal vesicle
c. Testes
d. Vas deferens
Answers is D
127- Breast self-examination is best done by the woman on

herself every month during
a. The middle of her cycle to ensure that she is ovulating
b. During the menstrual period
c. Right after the menstrual period so that the breast is not being
affected by the increase in hormones particularly estrogen
d. Just before the menstrual period to determine if ovulation has
occurred
Answers is C

128- In assisted reproductive technology (ART). there is a

need to stimulate the ovaries to produce more than one
mature ovA. The drug commonly used for this purpose is:
a. Bromocriptine
b. Clomiphene
c. Provera
d. Estrogen
Answers is B
129- What happens during the follicular phase?

a. The egg matures into a follicle and is released through ovulation
b. The uterine lining is shed through the vagina
c. The uterine lining breaks down
Answers is A
130- WHY won't a woman get her period if she is pregnant?

a. Her vagina reabsorbs the menstrual secretions
b. when she is pregnant
The lining of the uterus
remains to help nourish the growing embryo
c. Her cervix is completely closed off once she is pregnant
Answers is B

131- Eggs are usually fertilized in the ___, and implant in

the.___
a. Ovary; vagina
b. Vagina; uterus
c. Fallopian tubes; uterus
d. Ovary; fallopian tubes
Answers is C
132- Which hormone causes the release of the follicle from

the ovary?
a. FSH
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
Answers is A
133- Ovulation occurs.___

a. Day 1-7
b. Day 7-14
c. Day 14-21
d. Day 21-28
Answers is C

134- During the first trimester, what is the woman's

"normal" psychological response to her pregnancy ?
a. Prepares for birth.
b. Focus on fetus.
c. Focus on self.
Preoccupation with
d. growing fetus.
Answers is C
135- Physiologic anemia of pregnancy is a decrease in

hemoglobin & hematocrit values as a result of dilution of
RBCs by expanded plasma volume.
• True
• False
Answers is True
136- Implantation occurs approximately how soon after

fertilization?
• 2 days
• 6 days
• 10 days
• 14 days
Answers is 6 days

137- Which of the following is true regarding embryonic

period
a. It starts at fertilization and continues through day 48 of fetal
development
b. It starts at the end of implantation and continues through day 48
of fetal development
c. It starts at fertilization and continues through day 56 of fetal
development
d. It starts approximately 7 days after fertilization and proceeds
through day 56 of fetal development
Answers is D
138- Which hormone is secreted by the placenta after 12th

week gestation and is primarily responsible for maintenance
of the pregnancy?
a. Progestrone
b. Prolactin
c. Estrogen
d. BHCG
Answers is A
139- When does the embryonic heart begins to beat?

a. At conception
b. 2 weeks post conception
c. Weeks3-4 post conception
d. Weeks 8-9 post conception
Answers is C

140- Which of the following complications is most likely

responsible for a delayed postpartum hemorrhage?
a. Cervical laceration
b. Clotting deficiency
c. Perineal laceration
d. Uterine subinvolution
Answers is D
141- Which of the following changes best described the

insulin needs of a client with type 1 diabetes who has just
delivered an infant vaginally without complications?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same as before pregnancy
d. Remain the same as during pregnancy
Answers is B
142- On the first PP night. a client requests that her baby be

sent back to the nursery so she can get some sleep. The
client is most likely in which of the following phases?
a. Depression phase
b. Letting-go phase
c. Taking-hold phase
d. Taking-in phase
Answers is D

143- Which of the following physiological responses is

considered normal in the early postpartum period?
a. Urinary urgency and dysuria
b. Rapid diuresis
c. Decrease in blood pressure
d. Increase motility of the GI system
Answers is B


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Obstetric & Gynecological nursing

Questions and answers

Prepared by RN/ Ahmed Fathy

‫‪RN/ Ahmed Fathy‬‬ ‫‪WhatsApp:01117607326‬‬

1- Which of the following nutrient’s inadequate intake in

2- What is the most common complication associated with too

3- A woman spontaneously delivers a baby girl who is

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

4- Which of the following is the most important nursing

5- The nursing care plan for a woman who has placenta

6- A woman is admitted with suspected placenta previa. What

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

7- Magnesium sulfate is ordered for a client who is hospitalized

8- The nurse is caring for a laboring woman who has a history

9- Which area of health teaching will a new mother be most

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

10- Most common malpresentation is?

11- Exclusive breast feeding is recommended up to?

12- Softening of cervix during pregnancy is known as ?

13- A nurse in a labour room should do this measure to prevent

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

14- Approximate weight of a placenta at term?

15- Technique used by a midwife in 2nd stage of labour to

16- In L.O.A and R.O.A fetal positions, the presenting part is ?

17- The placenta originated from?

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

18- Outer most membrane of placenta?

19- Retaining a dead fetus in uterus for few weeks?

20- Which of the following measure used to manage shoulder

21- The approximate calories provided by 100 ml of breast milk

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

22- Drug of choice of the management of eclampsia?

23- The colour of amniotic fluid is ___

25- The appearance of violet blue discoloration of the vaginal

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

26- The hormone oxytocin is secreted by

27- Side effects of oral contraceptive pills ___

28- The immunoglobulin that crosses the placental barrier ___

29- A primigravid client is 39 weeks pregnant. Which of the

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

30- While performing Leopold's maneuvers on a laboring woman,

31- A client 12 weeks' pregnant come to the emergency

32- Which of the following would be the priority nursing

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

33- Before assessing the postpartum client's uterus for firmness

34- The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client. 4 hours'

35- The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

36- Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing

37- Which of the following actions would be least effective in

38- The nurse knows that preeclampsia tends to occur during

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

39- A patient is currently 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby.

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

41- Your patient is 36 weeks pregnant with severe

42- Your patient with preeclampsia is started on Magnesium

RN/ Ahmed Fathy WhatsApp:01117607326

43- A 39 week pregnant patient is in labor. The patient has

44- A 37 week pregnant patient is admitted with severe