NTSE PATTERN PART TEST -02 (NPT-02)

CLASS –X (PHASE-I)
MENTAL APTITUDE TEST (MAT)

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE

Time : 2 Hrs. Date : Max. Marks : 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.
2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help
of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
3. The question paper contains 100 questions. Each carries one mark.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in
any form is not allowed.
5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
6. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.
7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.
8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : …………………………………………………………ROLL NO. : ………………………..…

I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number

and shall abide by them of the candidate.

------------------------- -------------------------

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Straight Objective
This section contains 100 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which
ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In a certain code HEATER is written as KBDQHO how will you encode COOLER ?
(A) ALRIHV (B) FLRIHO (C) FLIRHO (D) None of these

2. DISTRIBUTION is written as IRTSIDNOITUB then how is SUBSTITUTION written in that code ?

(A) ITSBUSNOITUT (B) XCRKDVNITUB (C) XDCRKDUNITUB (D) BITSIDTNOITU
3. If RAT = 42 and CAT = 57, then BOX = ?
(A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 64 (D) 74
4. In a certain code, 98602 is coded as MANGO, 0139867 as GERMANY, then how is 9868013 coded
as
(A) MANEGER (B) MENEGER (C) MENAGAR (D) MANAGER
5. In a certain language, Tom Kun Sud means Dogs are barking, Kun Jo Mop means Dogs and
horse and Mut Tom Ko means Donkeys are mad. Which word in that language means barking ?
(A) Sud (B) Kun (C) Jo (D) Tom

Directions : (6) Column I contains five capital letters while column II contains five digits. Each letter
corresponds to a single digit but not necessarily in that order.

(column) I (column) II
BEIKL 61520
PNBTK 34568
XLPBE 57401
KNIXV 27396
XBNPE 45713

6. What is the value of BITE – KITE ?

(A) 386 (B) 1000 (C) –1000 (D) None of these

Direction : (7 to 14) Find the missing term.

7. 137, 248, 359, 470, ?

(A) 582 (B) 581 (C) 571 (D) 481
8. 2, 5, 7, 12, 19, 31, ?
(A) 41 (B) 50 (C) 60 (D) 71
9. 151, 158, 172, 182, ?
(A) 210 (B) 193 (C) 197 (D) 203
10. 1, 2, 9, 4, 25, 6, ?
(A) 51 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) 47
11. 10, 17, 20, 37, 50, ?, 150
(A) 65 (B) 64 (C) 63 (D) 62
12. –15, 2, 21, 42, ?
(A) 62 (B) 84 (C) 65 (D) 66

13. BYCXA, EVFUD, HSIRG, KPLOJ, ?

(A) MNLOL (B) NMOLM (C) QJRIP (D) PKQJO

14. UTRQU, QPNMT, MLJIS, IHFER, ?

(A) EDCAQ (B) EDBAQ (C) IHFGP (D) KJHGP

Direction : (15) Find the wrong term.

15. 7, 9, 16, 25, 41, 68, 107, 173

(A) 16 (B) 41 (C) 68 (D) 107

Direction : (16 to 18) Find the missing term.

16. AN, OB, CP, QD, ?
(A) ER (B) ES (C) FR (D) EQ
17. F3X, H7U, J15R, L31O, ?
(A) M63L (B) N63L (C) N61L (D) N65K
18.

7 3 8 3 9 4
26 ? 39

5 4 3

(A) 28 (B) 25 (C) 35 (D) 48

Direction (19 to 20) In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing, which are
given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.

19. kk__kklllI__mm__mm__n__nn
(A) lknmn (B) lkmnn (C) llmmn (D) klmnn

20. ab_ab_ababb_b_ab
(A) baaa (B) abbb (C) aaab (D) baab

Direction : (21) Find the missing number in the figure.

93 27 79 38 67 16

21. 63 37 42

3 4 ?

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9

Direction (22 to 23) In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing, which are
given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.

22. pq_r _q_r_qrr

(A) rppp (B) rprp (C) rpqr (D) rppr

23. b_a_ab_baa_b
(A) abba (B) bbaa (C) abab (D) baba

Direction : (24 to 26) Find the missing term.

5 4 8 36 ? 66

24.

21 28 34

(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 6 (D) 10

4 7
5 1
3
64
25. 27 ?
8 8
11 2

(A) 125 (B) 8 (C) 0 (D) 216

 9 8 5

26. 103 ? 19

14 10 6
(A) 62 (B) 102 (C) 84 (D) 74

Directions (27 ) : For the following questions.

 means “ bigger than”
 means “ smaller than”
+ means “ equal to”
× means ‘ addition”
= means “subtraction”

27. If a  c and b × d + c, then

(A) d  a (B) a + d (C) b  c (D) d  a

Direction : (28 to 29) Find the missing term.

5 8 7

28. 3 25 2 7 ? 1 5 27 1

4 4 3

(A) 28 (B) 40 (C) 39 (D) 42

29.

(A) 26 (B) 28 (C) 0 (D) 19

Directions (30) : A rectangular table has one chair each on its smaller sides and two chairs each on its
longer sides. Six persons Anup, Bunty, Charles, Deepak, Eshwar, and Fazal, sit on the six chairs around the
table for a board meeting to prepare the budget for college day silver jubilee celebrations. Bunty sits to the
immediate left of Deepak and opposite to Eshwar. Charles and Fazal sit opposite each other and Deepak
sits alone on one side.

30. Who is sitting opposite Deepak?

(A) Anup (B) Bunty (C) Charles (D) Eshwar

31. If ‘–’ means ‘ multiplied by’, ‘×’ means ‘plus’, ‘+’ means ‘ divided by’ and ‘÷’ means ‘ minus’ then
14 – 10 × 4 ÷ 16 + 8 = ?
(A) 142 (B) 134 (C) 6 (D) 5
32. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’ means ‘÷’, ‘ ×’ means ‘+’ and ‘÷’ means ‘–’ then (18 + 10 × 20) – 8 ÷ 6= ?
(A) 92 (B) 35 (C) 19 (D) 26

33. Which one of the four interchanges in signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?
4 × 6 + 3 = 18
(A) + and ×, 3 and 4 (B) + and × , 1 and 6
(C) + and ×, 4 and 6 (D) None of these

34. If 23 * 52 = 48, and 51 * 81 = 69 then 43 * 35 = ?

(A) 78 (B) 98 (C) 96 (D) 69

35. If 20 * 3 = 180 and 4 * 5 = 100, then what is the value of 7 * 7 ?

(A) 21 (B) 49 (C) 343 (D) 7

36. B is to the South-West of A, C is to the east of B and South east of A, and D is to the North of C in line
with B and A. In which direction of A is D located ?
(A) North (B) East (C) South-East (D) North-East

37. While facing east you turned to your left and walk 10 m, then turned to your left and walk 10 m and
now you turn 45º towards your right and go straight to cover 25 m. Now in which direction are you
from your starting point ?
(A) North-East (B) South-West (C) South-East (D) North-West

38. A and B start walking from the same point. A goes North and covers 3 kms, then turns right and
covers 4 kms. B goes West and covers 5 kms, then turns right and covers 3 kms. How far apart are
they from each other ?
(A) 10 kms (B) 9 kms (C) 8 kms (D) 5 kms

39. A boy rode his bicycle northwards, then turned left and rode one km and again turned left and rode 2
km. He found himself exactly one km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northwards initially
(A) 1 km (B) 2 km (C) 3 km (D) 5 km

40. Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is sitting next to
B who is sitting on the extreme left and Q is sitting next to R.
Who are sitting adjacent to V ?
(A) R and Q (B) B and M (C) K and R (D) M and K

41. 'A' travelled Westwards 5 km, turned left and travelled 3 km, turned right and travelled 9 km. He then
travelled North 3 km. How far was 'A' from the starting point now ?
(A) 3 km (B) 5 km (C) 10 km (D) 14 km

Directions : (42 to 43) Six Persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a circle facing one another front to
front. P is sitting in front of Q, Q is sitting to the immediate right of T and immediate left of R, P is to the
left of U and right of S.

42. Who is sitting opposite to R ?

(A) P (B) Q (C) S (D) U

43. Who is sitting opposite to S ?

(A) U (B) T (C) R (D) Q
Directions (44 to 45) : Eight friends, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, are sitting at eight faces of an octagonal or
octagon-shaped table facing the centre. H and E are sitting opposite to each other. B is sitting in the second
position to the right of H, while A is sitting in between E and D. F is sitting close to H and opposite to C.

44. If B wants to occupy the position to the immediate right of H, with whome should B interchange?
(A) A (B) E (C) D (D) G

45. How many people are sitting between B and A, in the clockwise direction from B to A ?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 2

46. Sita, Mary, Jenny, Rahima, Rohini and Hamida go on a trecking expedition. At the start, Hamida leads
the expedition. After every two kilometers, they change the leadership in the alphabetical order. Who

takes over the leadership at the end of the 16th km?

(A) Jenny (B) Mary (C) Rahima (D) Rohini

47. Rohan is ranked 11th from the top and 27th from the bottom among the students who passed the
annual examination in a class. If the number of students who failed in the examination was 12, how
many students did appear for the examination ?
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) Cannot be
determined

48. Amit is ranked 12th from the top and Ravi is ranked 15th from the bottom in a class of 35 students.
How many students are there between Amit and Ravi ?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 6 (D) 7
49. Ajay is positioned 8th from the left and Amit is positioned 9th from the right in a row of 15 students.
How many students are between Ajay and Amit ?
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 5 (D) 0

50. How many even numbers are there in the following series of numbers , each of which is immediately
preceded by an odd number, but not immediately followed by an even number ?
5 3 4 8 9 7 1 6 5 3 2 9 8 7 3 5
(A) Nil (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Direction (51 to 52): A table of words and their codes is given below. Analyze the pattern of transformation
of code into words and answer questions based on them.
ETG PIG
TTE TIP
KSY CAN
ESKP PACE
TBE TOP
DPY HEN
CPY KEY
HBG DOG
DBT HOT
SOAPYT ABSENT
51. How many alphabets have not been used a codes for each other ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

52. Which of the following words can be successfully coded using the pattern based on the table?
(A) EXPLODE (B) DISASTER (C) HINTED (D) SOLITARY

53. In a certain code, BOXER is written as AQWGQ. How VISIT is written in that code:
(A) UKRKU (B) UKRKS (C) WKRKU (D) None of these
54. In a certain code, PRODUCTS is written as NPMBSARQ. How is COMPREHENSION written in that
code:
(A) AMKNPCFCLOMLQ (B) AMKNPCFCLQGML
(C) AMKNPCFCLQGNL (D) None of these

55. If MOON is coded as 19 and RED is coded as 9, how would you code SISA in the same code
language ?
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 13 (D) 18

56. If KOLKATA is 7, 3, 6, 7, 8, 7, 8, BANGALORE will be

(A) 7, 8, 4, 2, 8, 6, 3, 9, 4 (B) 7, 8, 4, 2, 8, 3, 6, 9, 4
(C) 7, 4, 8, 2, 8, 6, 3, 9, 4 (D) 7, 8, 4, 2, 8, 6, 9, 3, 4

Directions : (57 to 68) Find the missing term.

57. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A) 35 (B) 36 (C) 48 (D) 49

58. 2, 5, 9, ?, 20, 27
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 24
59. 10, 30, ?, 350, 1342
(A) 210 (B) 130 (C) 178 (D) 190

60. 7, 13, ?, 49, 97

(A) 27 (B) 25 (C) 23 (D) 29

61. 2, 15, 4, 47, 7, 118, 11, ?, ?

(A) 210, 15 (B) 262, 16 (C) 200, 17 (D) 267, 16

62. 1, 5, 21, 57, 121, ?

(A) 150 (B) 176 (C) 200 (D) 221
63. X, A, D, G, J, ?
(A) M (B) O (C) N (D) P

64. 4E, 8I, 13N, 19T, ?

(A) 26U (B) 26A (C) 26Z (D) None of these

65. 1, 2, 2, 4, 8, ?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 16 (D) 32
66. a, r, c, s, e, t, g, ?, ?
(A) x, y (B) u, i (C) w, y (D) v, b

67. flp, ins, lpv, ?

(A) vxz (B) svw (C) vxy (D) ory

7 10 11
? 28 3
68. 13 1 14
(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 15 (D) 6

Directions (69 to 70) : Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will
complete the given letter series ?
69. – bcb – a – a –
(A) acab (B) acca (C) accb (D) caab
70. aa – bbb – ccaaab – bc – c
(A) bbcc (B) bacc (C) ccab (D) acbc

Direction : (71) Find the missing term.

12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27
71.

6 8 ?
(A) 18 (B) 12 (C) 9 (D) 6

Directions : (72 to 73) Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will
complete the given letter series ?
72. l – nm – o – op – pq :
(A) mopq (B) mnno (C) mmno (D) mnop

73. p – qrqr – p – pp – :
(A) qrrq (B) rqqr (C) pqrr (D) qrrp

Direction : (74 to76) Find the missing term.

5 9 8
74. 7 3 4 8 ? 4 9 2 4
3 3 3
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 5

2 4 3 9 1 5

75.
20 90 ?
(A) 75 (B) 26 (C) 25 (D) 20
16 14 4
76.
15 34 ?
3 16 15
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 14

77. If + is x,– is +, x is  and  is –, then what is the value of given equation

21 ÷ 8 + 2 – 12 × 3 = ?
(A) 14 (B) 9 (C) 13.5 (D) 11

Direction : (78 to 79) Find the missing term.

1 3 4

78. 4 30 2 6 86 4 3 78 ?

3 5 2
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

6 2 3
1 5 2 0 5 3

79. 131 248 ?

2 4 4 8 7 1
3 6 9
(A) 262 (B) 274 (C) 320 (D) 132

80. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C. A is between E and
D, F is to the left of D, who is between A and F ?
(A) B (B) C (C) A (D) D
Directions : (81 to 82) If > denote +, < denotes –, + denotes ,÷ denotes ×, – denotes =, x denotes >
and = denotes <, choose the correct statement in each of the following questions.

81. (A) 14 > 18 + 9 = 16 + 4 > 1 (B) 4 > 3 ÷ 8 < 1 – 6 + 2 > 24

(C) 3 < 6 4 > 25 = 8 + 4 > 1 (D) 12 < 9 ÷ 3 < 6 × 25 + 5 > 6

82. (A) 7 > 7 < 7 + 7 = 14 (B) 7 ÷ 7 > 7 + 7 – 7 ÷ 7 > 1

(C) 7 < 7 + 7= 6 (D) 7 + 7 > 7= 6

Directions : (83) In the following questions, which of the following interchanges of sign/signs and numerals
would make the following equation correct ?
83. 6×4–8=6÷3
(A) – and × (B) × and ÷ (C) – and ÷ (D) = and ×

84. If 4 # 2 @ 3 = 6, 18 # 6 @ 4 = 12, then what will be the value to 24 # 3 @ 7 ?

(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 72 (D) 56
85. If x stands for 'add', y stands for ‘subtract', z stands for ‘divide', and p stands for 'multiply,' then what
is the value of (7 p 3) y 6 x 5 ?
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
86. ‘X’ started walking straight towards South. He walked a distance of 5 m and then took a left turn and
walked a distance of 3 m. Then he took a right turn and walked a distance of 5 m again. ‘X’ is facing
which direction, now
(A) North-East (B) South (C) North (D) South-West

87. A person starts towards South direction. Which of the following orders of directions will lead him to
East direction
(A) Right, Right, Right (B) Left, Left, Left
(C) Left, Right, Right (D) Right, Left, Right

88. Amit starts from a point A and walks 5 m towards North-East direction and reaches point B. From
here he travels 8 m in East direction and reaches point C. From C he travels towards South-West
direction and reaches point D after travelling a distance equal to AB. At last, he turns towards West
direction and reaches point A. How much distance has been covered by Amit and which geometrical
figure has been formed by the path travelled by him
(A) 26 m, square (B) 26 m, parallelogram
(C) 26 m, trapezium (D) 16 m, parallelogram

89. Amar travels one km due East ; then 5 km due south, then 2 km due East and finally 9 km due
North. How far is from the starting point ?
(A) 16 kms. (B) 8 kms. (C) 6 kms. (D) 5 kms.

90. The time on the watch is quarter to three. If the minute-hand points to North-East, in which direction
does the hour hand point ?
(A) South-West (B) South-East (C) North-West (D) North-East
91. A man was facing East. He took Three paces forward, turned right, walked another two paces and
then turned right again, took three paces and turned about. Which direction was he last facing ?
(A) East (B) North (C) South (D) None of these
Directions : (92 to 93) Some friends are sitting on a bench; Sunil is sitting next to Sunita and Bindu is next
to Sanjay, Bindu is not sitting with Sumit. Sumit is on the left end of the bench and Sanjay is on
second position from right hand side. Sunil is on the right side of Sunita and Sunita is to the right of
Sumit, Sunil and Sanjay are sitting together. Based on the above seating arrangements, answer the
following questions :
92. Sunil is sitting between :
(A) Sunita and Bindu (B) Sumit and Bindu (C) Sunita and Sanjay (D) Sanjay and Sumit
93. Who is sitting in the centre?
(A) Sumit (B) Sunil (C) Bindu (D) Sanjay
94. There are 5 different houses A to E in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C and right of
A. B is the right of D. Which of the House is in the middle ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
95. Five persons were playing cards game sitting in a circle all facing the centre. Mukund was to the left
of Rajesh, Vijay was to the right of Anil and between Anil and Nagesh. Who was to the right of
Nagesh ?
(A) Vijay (B) Rajesh (C) Anil (D) Mukund

96. Manik is fourteenth from the right end in a row of 40 boys. What is his position from the left end ?
(A) 24th (B) 25th (C) 26th (D) 27th

97. How many 9's are there in the following number series which are immediately preceded by 3 and
followed by 6 ?
39693939396363956956939639
(A) Nil (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4

Directions : (98) Study the following information to answer the given questions :
(1) In a class of boys and girls, Amar’s rank is 12th and Meeta’s rank is 8th.
(2) Amar’s rank among the boys is 6th and Meeta’s rank among girls is 3rd.
(3) In the class Meeta’s rank is 52nd from the other end.
(4) From the other end, Amar’s rank among the boys is 26th.
98. How many boys are there in the class ?
(A) 31 (B) 28 (C) 29 (D) Can’t be determined

99. How many such 6's are there in the following number series which are followed by an even number
and preceded by any odd number ?
364576354364564163963456
(A) zero (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

100. In a queue, A is eighteenth from the front while B is sixteenth from the back. If C is twenty-fifth from
the front and is exactly in the middle of A and B, then how many persons are there in the queue ?
(A) 45 (B) 46 (C) 47 (D) 48
 NTSE PATTERN PART TEST -02 (NPT-02)

CLASS –X (PHASE – I)

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE

Time : 2 Hrs. Date : 02-06-2019 Max. Marks : 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.
2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help
of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
3. The question paper contains 100 questions, 40 Qu estions from Science (1-40 )
(Physics-1-13, Chemistry-14-26, Biolog y-27-40) , 20 Question s from Mathematics(41-
60),
40 Question from Social Science (61-100), each carries one mark.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in
any form is not allowed.
5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
6. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.
7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.
8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : …………………………………………………………ROLL NO. : ………………………..…

I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number

and shall abide by them of the candidate.

------------------------- -------------------------

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

SCIENCE
Straight Objective
This section contains 40 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Distance between any two stars does not change when viewed from earth becuase:
(A) They are stationary
(B) They are very far away from us
(C) They first receed and then come towards the earth
(D) None of these
2. A particle with a charge of 1.5 coulombs is taken from a point A at a potential of 50 V to another
point B at a potential of 120 V. The work done is:
(A) 105 J. (B) 110 J. (C) 120 J (D) 100 J

3. The amount of charge passing through a cell in one minute is 360 C. What is the current supplied by
the cell?
(A)360 A (B) 10A. (C) 6A (D) 5A

4. Which of the following scientist was first for his theory of evolution:
(A) Aristotle (B) Charles Darwin
(C) Alexander Oparin (D) Louis Pasteur

5. Two lamps rated 100 W and 60 W respectively are connected in parallel to a 220 V supply. The
current drawn from the supply line is:
(A) 0.45 A. (B) 0.27 A. (C) 0.72 A. (D) 0.18 A.

6. Two coils have a combined resistance of 25 ohm when connected in series and 4 ohm when
connected in parallel. The ratio of individual resistance is:
(A) 4:1 (B) 5:1 (C) 2:1 (D) 3:1

7. Alloys are usually used in electrical heating devices because :

(A) Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of constituent elements
(B) Alloys do not oxidize readily at high temperature
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

8. The value of equivalent resistance between the point A and B in the given circuit, will be(all
resistance are in ohm) :
4 4
A

4 4

B
4 4

(A) 6  (B)12  (C)11 (D) 15

9. The direction of magnetic lines of force produced by passing a current in a conductor is :

(A) perpendicular to the conductor and coming outwards
(B) parallel to conductor
(C) surrounding the conductor and of circular nature
(D) perpendicular to the conductor & coming inwards
10. The direction of magnetic lines of a bar magnet is :
(A) from south pole to north pole
(B) from north pole to south pole
(C) across the bar magnet
(D) from the south pole to the north pole inside the magnet and from north pole to south pole outside
the magnet

11. The magnetic lines of force:

(A) intersect at the neutral point
(B) intersect near north and south poles.
(C) cannot intersect at all
(D) depend upon the position of the magnet

12. Magnetic lines of force determines:

(A) the shape of the magnetic field (B) only the direction of the magnetic field
(C) only the relative strength of the magnetic field
(D) both the direction and the relative strength of the magnetic field
13. A bar magnet has been cut equally lengthwise and widthwise to give four equal pieces. The pole
strength of each piece as compared to the pole strength of original bar magnet is :
1 1 1
(A) same (B) (C) (D)
8 4 2
14. Dobereiner’s classified elements in group of 3 called as Triads. The elements of one of
the Dobernier's Triad are
(A) He,Ne,Ar (B) C,Si,Pb (C) Cu,Ag Au (D) Cl,Br,I

15. Elements in the same vertical group of the periodic table have same -
(A) Number of electrons (B) atomic number
(C) Number of valence electrons (D) electronic configurations

16. The radii of F, F–, O and O2– are in the order -

(A) O2– > F– > O > F (B) O2– > F– > F > O (C) F– > O2– >F > O (D) O2– > O > F– > F

17. Increasing order of electron affinity of halogens is -

(A) Cl < Br <  < F (B)  < Br < F < Cl (C) F < Cl < Br <  (D) Br < F <  < Cl

18. According to Newlands’ law of octaves 3rd element will resemble in its properties to -
(A) Ninth element (B) Eighth element (C) tenth element (D) Eleventh element

19. Base gives -

(A) H+ in water (B) OH– in water (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

20. The hydronium ions are formed in the soution of an acid because
(A) acids contain hydrogen atom. (B) Acids are highly reactive.
(C) Hydronium ions is more stable (D) H- is not posssible

21. In the reaction

Mg + Cl2  MgCl2
Chlorine may be regarded as-
(A) An oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent
(C) A catalyst (D) providing an inert medium

22. When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide mix in the presence of water, the reaction is
SO2 + 2H2S  2H2O + 3S
Here hydrogen sulphide is acting as -
(A) An oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a dehydrating agent (D) a catalyst

23. Container made of Copper metal on exposure to air for longtime turns green. The green layer is due
to
(A) CuO (B) CuCO3.Cu (OH) 2 (C) CuSO4.3Cu (OH)2 (D) All of the above

24. Name the scientist who proposed acid- base theory

(A) Arrhenius (B) Newton (C) Dalton (D) Einstein

25. Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is used in -

(A) Plastics (B) Dyes (C) Antacids (D) White washing

26. Zinc and HCl react to form

(A) H2 (B) N2 (C) CO2 (D) He

27. From which one of the following chambers of human heart oxygenated blood is pumped into aorta?
(A) Right atrium (B) Right ventricle (C) Left atrium (D) Left ventricle
28. Pulmonary artery carries –
(A) Pure blood from lungs (B) Pure blood to lungs
(C) Impure blood to lungs (D) impure blood from lungs

29. Where does the impulse of heart beat originate?

(A) S.A.node (B) A.V.node (C) Vagus nerve (D) Cardiac nerve

30. Which of the following veins does not carry deoxygenated blood ?
(A) Hepatic vein (B) Hepatic portal vein (C) Renal vein (D) Pulmonary vein

31. The left side of heart is responsible for pumping –

(A) Oxygenated blood to the body (B) Oxygenated blood to the lungs
(C) Deoxygenated blood to the body (D) Deoxygenated blood to the lungs

32. The roots absorb water through –

(A) Epidermal hairs (B) Root hairs (C) Root xylem (D) root phloem

33. Maximum amount of water from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in –

(A) Proximal convoluted tubule (B) Descending limbs of loop of Henle
(C) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (D) Distal convolunted tubule

34. In humans, urea is formed in –

(A) ureter (B) liver (C) spleen (D) kidney

35. The basic functional unit of human kidney is –

(A) Henle’s loop (B) Nephron (C) Nephridia (D) Pyramid

36. Under normal conditions which one is completely reabsorbed in the renal tubule ?
(A) urea (B) uric acid (C) Salts (D) glucose

37. Columns of Bertin are found in –

(A) Testes (B) Oravies (C) Kidney (D) Liver

38. In five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is –

(A) Structure of nucleus (B) Structure of cell membrane
(C) Mode of nutrition (D) Asexual reproducion

39. Cyperinus and parthenium are type of –

(A) Disease (B) Pesticides (C) Weeds (D) Pathogen

40. Which is not a timber yielding plant in the following –

(A) Teak (B) Sheesham (C) Saal (D) Arjuna

MATHEMATICS
Straight Objective
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. Zeroes of which quadratic polynomial are 4 and 3.

(A) x2 + 7x + 12 (B) x2 – 7x + 12 (C) x2 + 7x – 12 (D) x2 – 7x – 12

42. The value of ‘a’ for which the lines x = 1, y = 2 and a 2x + 2y – 20 = 0 are concurrent is
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) –1 (D) –2
43. If two zeroes of the polynomial x4 + x3 – 9x2 – 3x + 18 are 3 and – 3 , then the other zeroes are
(A) –3, 2 (B) –3,–2 (C) 3,2 (D) –2,3

44. The quadratic equations x2 – 5x + 3 = 0 has :

(A) no real roots (B) two distinct real roots
(C) two equal real roots (D) more than two real roots

45. If one zero of the polynomial f(x) = (k2 + 4) x2 + 13x + 4k is reciprocal of the other, then k is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) – 2 (D) – 4

4 3
46. The length of the sides of a triangle are 3x + 2y, 4x + y and 3(x + 1) + (y – 1). If the triangle is
3 2
equilateral, then its side is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 16

47. The distance of the point (3, 5) from X-axis is :

(A) 34 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) None of these

48. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 100x2 + 500x + 99 are

(A) both negative (B) both positive
(C) one positive one negative (D) can’t say

49. The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically represents lines which are
(A) parallel (B) intersecting at (b, a) (C) coincident (D) intersecting at (a, b)
2x x
50. Solve equation : +1= + 3, then x = ...............
5 3
(A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 30 (D) 15

51. Which of the following is the solution set for the simultaneous equation ?
2x – 1 y6 3x – y
= =
3 5 7
(A) x = 2; y = –1 (B) x = 3; y = –1 (C) x = –1; y = 2 (D) x = 4; y = 1

52. If the roots of (b – c)x2 + (c – a)x + (a – b) = 0 are equal, then kb = a + c. Then k is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
53. Vidya and Vandana solved a quadratic equation. In solving it, Vidya made a mistake in the constant
term and got the roots as 6 and 2, while Vandana made a mistake in the coefficient of x only and
obtained the roots as –7 and –1. The correct roots of the equation are :
(A) 6, –1 (B) –7, 2 (C) –6, –2 (D) 1, 7
1 5
54. If is a root of the equation x2 + kx – = 0, then find the value of k
2 4
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 2
55. For the line corresponding to inequality x -2 > 0, following statement is true:
(A) Parallel to x – axis (B) parallel to y – axis
(C) divides y – axis (D) passes through origin
56. Which of the following equations has the sum of its roots as 2.
2
(A) 5x2 – x – 3 = 0 (B) x2 – 2x – 5 = 0 (C) 2x2 – 2x + 1 = 0 (D) 3x2 – 2x + 7 = 0
5

57. If the HCF of P(x) = x 2  9 ,Q(x) = x3  27 is x  3 , then LCM of P(x) and Q(x) is
(A) x+3 (B) (x2  9)(x3  27) (C) (x 2  9)(x 2  9  3x) (D) (x 2  9)(x2  9  6x)
58. Which of the following expression is not polynomials:
x3  x 2  x
(A) x 2  x  7 (B) x 2  7 x  9 (C) (D) x 2 / 3  x 2  x
x
59. If (2a+14,5a+15) lies on Y axis , then find the value of a
(A) 7 (B) –7 (C) 3 (D) –3
60. The value of (s – a)3 + (s – b)3 + (s – c)3 – 3(s – a) (s – b) (s – c), when 3s = a + b + c, is ______
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

SOCIAL SCIENCE
Straight Objective
This section contains 40 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Henry Ford developed his new car plant at

(A) Detroit. (B) Las Vegas. (C) Cleveland. (D) Pittsburg.

62. In 1885, to demarcate their respective territories in Africa, the European powers met in
(A) London. (B) Berlin. (C) Paris. (D) Washington.

63. Tariff means –

(A) Any kind of tax on any product inside the country.
(B) Tax imposed on a country’s imports levied at the point of entry, i.e., border or airport
(C) A tax imposed on income
(D) A tax imposed on exports

64. The “Bretton Woods” twins are –

(A) The USA and Soviet Russia
(B) The two international banks – The IMF and the World Bank – set up to finance post-war
reconstruction
(C) The framework agreed upon by the United International.
(D) All the above

65. Maximilian Robespierre was convicted by a court and executed by guillotine in

(A) July 1791. (B) July 1792. (C) July 1793. (D) July 1794.

66. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Jacobian Club?
1. Members belong to less prosperous sections of society.
2. They wore long striped trousers.
3. These were known as the sans-culottes.
4. They established directory rule.
(A) 1, 3 (B) 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

67. The Jacobins stormed the Palace of the Tuileries on

(A) August 10, 1792 (B) August 10, 1794. (C) August 10, 1793. (D) August 10, 1791.

68. The National Anthem of France the Marseillaise was composed by

(A) Macabru. (B) Peire Vidal. (C) Roget de L’Isle. (D) Raimbaut de
Vaqueiras.

69. The Russian army began to break up due to :

(A) First world war (B) Communist Government
(C) Redistribution of lands (D) Collectivisation of lands

70. Who led the procession of workers to the event ‘Bloody Sunday’ in Russia?
(A) Gapon (B) Kerensky (C) Lenin (D) Stalin
71. Hitler’s racism borrowed from thinkers like
(A) Charles Darwin and Herbert Spencer. (B) John Dewey and Thomas Huxley.
(C) Karl Marx and Robert Owen. (D) Rousseau and Montesquieu.

72. The main cause of hyperinflation in Germany was–

(A) Germany was unable to pay war reparations (B) French occupation on Ruhr coal area
(C) Excessive printing of German currency (D) Crop failure

73. The ‘November Criminals’ were

(A) the supporters of Weimar Republic. (B) the rich in Germany.
(C) the opponents of Weimar Republic. (D) the common men in Germany.

74. Which of the following statement is/are correct ?

(a) A British administrator, George Yule, killed 400 tigers
(b) In 1600, approximately one-sixth of India’s landmass was under cultivation
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) (C) Both of these (D) None of these

75. Match the following :

1. Herbs & roots a. Tea, rubber, coffee
2. Plantations b. Jute, sugar, wheat, cotton
3. Commercial crops c. Yokes & ploughs
4. Wood d. Medicinal purpose
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b (C) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c (D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

76. The aboriginal group Ngarrindjeri belongs to which country?

(A) South Africa (B) Uganda (C) Australia (D) China

77. Match the following:

1. A dry forest area (a) Bugyals
2. Vast meadows in the high mountains (b) Bhabar
3. Lower ends of ground stalk (c) Dhandi
Left in the grounds after harvesting
4. Settlements of Maru-Raikas (c) Stubbles
(A) 1–c, 2–a, 3–b, 4–d (B) 1–c, 2–d, 3–a, 4–b
(C) 1–a, 2–b, 3–c, 4–d (D) 1–b, 2–a, 3–d, 4–c

78. Which one of the following taxes in colonial India had the most severed effect on pastoralists?
(A) Land revenue (B) Pass or permit tax (C) Tax on houses (D) Grazing Tax

79. Scholars who study the history of community is known as:

(A) Archaeologist (B) Genealogist (C) Sociologists (D) Philosophers

80. In the sixteenth century, rich farmers in England began building enclosures because:
(A) They wanted to expand their land
(B) They wanted to cultivate more cereals in fields
(C) They wanted to improve the soil
(D) They wanted to rear more sheeps as wool prices in world market had gone up

81. In the second half of the 19th century increase in food grain production was made possible by–
(A) Bringing more land under housing (B) Innovation in agricultural technology
(C) Innovation in transport technology (D) Increasing manpower in agriculture
82. The peasants in the 19th century were unwilling to cultivate opium in India because–
(A) the money was in plenty (B) the cultivators were poor
(C) the price paid by the government was very low (D) the plant was delicate

83. In which city of India, the east India company established its permanent trading hub in?
(A) Bombay (B) Kochin (C) Calcutta (D) Surat

84. The Congress passed the resolution of “ Purna Swaraj” under the leadership of-
(A) Motitlal Nehru (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru (C) C.R. Das (D) Badruddin Taiyabji

85. Zollverine, formed by Prussia & joined by many of the German states was a.
(A) German army (B) German Police (C) Trade union (D) Custom Union

86. Who was Count Cavour?

(A) The chief minister of Italy (B) Revolutionary of Germany
(C) A catholic missionary (D) The chancellor of Germany

87. Read the following statements

(A) 70% of the fresh water occurs as ice sheets & glaciers in Antarctica, Green Land & the
Mountanious regions in the world.
(B) The total renewable water resource of India are estimated at 1897 sq km per annum.
(A) Both A & B are true (B) Both A & B are false (C) B is true A is false (D) A is true & B is false

88. The availability of water resource varies over space & time due to
(A) over exploitation (B) variation in seasonal and annual
precipitation
(C) excessive use & unequal access to water (D) all of the above

89. The ecologists and the environmentalists are against big dams and multi purpose projects as it
(A) produces hydroelectricity.
(B) produces more vegetation and soil.
(C) easy for the aquatic fauna to migrate.
(D) affects their natural flow causing excessive sedimentation on the river beds resulting in poor
habitat for the rivers’ aquatic life.

90. Read the following statements

(A) Bamboo drip irrigation is a 200 year old system.
(B) 18-20 litres of water enter the Bamboo pipe system and transported over hundreds of metres.
(A) A is corret, B is false (B) Both A & B are correct
(C) A is false, B is correct (D) Both A and B are false

91. The Australian Athlete who supported African American in the Mexico Olympics medal ceremony
was (A) Peter Clayton. (B) Peter Norman. (C) Peter Farrelly.
(D) Peter Marino.

92. King Martin Luther Jr.was influenced by

(A) John Carlos. (B) Abraham Lincoln. (C) Jawaharlal Nehru. (D) Mahatma
Gandhi.
93. Catholics and Protestants have had conflicts in Northern Ireland, while they do not do so in the
Netherlands–
(A) Because class and region overlap with each other in N. Ireland
(B) Because class and region cross cut each other in N.Ireland.
(C) Because class and religion don’t matter in N.Ireland .
(D) Cross cutting social differences are difficult to accommodate.

94. Mark the correct objective of Civil Rights Movement in the U.S.A.?
(A) Use of the violent means to end corruption.
(B) Abolition of legal racial discrimination against African-Americans.
(C) To allow arbitrary use of power by the blacks.
(D) Fight for the rights of the women.

95. The spirit of social equality is the major characteristics of which from of democracy?
(A) Political democracy (B) Social democracy (C) Economic democracy (D) Ethical
democracy

96. Which of the following organs of the government protects fundamental rights of the citizens?
(A) Legislature (B) Judiciary (C) Executive (D) Media

97. The head of the executive of the Indian Union is called the:
(A) Prime Minister (B) Vice President (C) President (D) Chief Justice of India

98. Supreme Court of India is situated at:

(A) Calcutta (B) Mumbai (C) Chennai (D) Delhi

99. Which of the following states have two house of state assembly?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Bihar (C) Maharashtra (D) All of these

100. The Judges of Supreme court can assume office till the age of:
(A) 58 yrs. (B) 65 yrs. (C) 55 yrs. (D) 50 yrs.
SAT ANSWERKEY

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Ans. B A C B C A C C C D C D D D C

Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. A B C B C A B B A D A D C A D

Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

Ans. A B A B B D C C C D B B A B A

Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. C C A D C A A D D B B C D B A

Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

Ans. A B B B D C A C C A A C A A C

Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

Ans. C D D B D B C D B D A A B D B

Ques. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. B D A B B B C D D B
MAT ANSWER-KEY

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Ans. B A B D A C B B B B A C B B C

Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. A B A D A D B D D D A D B A A

Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

Ans. A C C C C D D B B D D D B D A

Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. B B A D D A C B B B A B A B B

Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

Ans. D D A B D B D B C D C B A A B

Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

Ans. A B B A D B B C D D B A B D A

Ques. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. A C B A D D B A D C