CDC 01 2022 DILR

Directions for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Wankhede Stadium is an oval shaped cricket ground in Mumbai. The final match of the One Day International (ODI) Cricket World Cup
was once played between India and Sri Lanka at this stadium. There were four stands - Kapil, Gavaskar, Tendulkar and Ganguly - to the
East, West, North and South of the ground respectively. People bought tickets for these stands and watched the match at the stadium.
Some other information is given below:
(i) The seats in each stand were in rows. Row 2 was behind row 1, row 3 was behind row 2 … and so on in each stand.
(ii) The number of rows in Kapil, Gavaskar, Tendulkar and Ganguly stands were 20, 12, 15 and 10 respectively.
(iii) Each row of a particular stand had an equal number of seats.
(iv) The seat numbers of row 1 of a particular stand were 1, 2, 3, ..., n, where n was the total number of seats in row 1, the seat numbers
of row 2 were n + 1, n + 2, n + 3, ... , 2n, the seat numbers of row 3 were 2n + 1, 2n + 2, 2n + 3, ..., 3n, and so on.
(v) The occupancy of Kapil, Gavaskar, Tendulkar and Ganguly stands were 55.55…%, 60%, 57.14…% and 53.84…% respectively.
(vi) Due to Covid-19 pandemic no two consecutive seats could be occupied in any row of all the stands.
Q 1.   What was the total number of seats occupied in the North stand?

 
 

 
 

Q 2.   If the cost per ticket for Ganguly stand was Rs 2,500 , then what was the total revenue (in Rs. lakh) from Ganguly stand?

1)  1.75

2)  1.5

3)  2.75

4)  2.25

Q 3.   Which of the following seats cannot be occupied in the West stand, if after every 5 seats in each row there was a commuting
path? (The seats adjacent to the commuting path are not considered as adjacent seats and hence both can be occupied.)
1)  23

2)  38

3)  101

4)  74

Q 4.   If the Sports Minister of the Government of India watched the match sitting in the middle of row 5 of the East Stand, then in
which of the following seats did the Sports Minister sit?
1)  39

2)  41

3)  40

4)  43

 
Directions for questions 5 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Six employees – A, B, C, D, E and F - completed their annual appraisals for the year 2021-22. The appraisal had two parts - compulsory
and optional. The compulsory part consisted of self, peer and mentor appraisals. After the ratings were received in these three
compulsory appraisals, the employees aspiring for promotions or change of profile had options to be appraised individually by the HR
head, HODs of other departments and Chairman: also for each of these any employee had a choice to be appraised or not to be
appraised. In case of Non-Appraisal, NA is mentioned in place of the ratings in the table of optional appraisal ratings given below. For
each of these appraisals an employee could get a rating from 1 to 5, based on their performance during the year. The ratings given are as
follows:

Further, it is also known that:

(i) A, B and E had the same total ratings after the compulsory appraisals were over. A had a lesser self rating than peer rating, B had a
lesser peer rating than self rating and E had a lesser mentor rating than self rating.
(ii) C and F gave equal self ratings and received equal peer ratings whereas F got double the mentor rating of C.
(iii) The total ratings received by A, C, D and F were distinct prime numbers between 10 and 20 in no specific order whereas the
remaining employees received ratings of 25 and 28.
(iv) None of the employees got an Unsatisfactory rating.
(v) The existing salaries of all the employees are whole numbers and the increments received by the employees after the appraisals were
as follows:
No increment for ratings less than or equal to 10. Increment of 5% for ratings between 11 and 15, 10% for ratings between 16 and 20,
15% for ratings between 21 and 25; 20% for ratings between 26 and 30.
Q 5.   Which of the following is the sum of self-ratings of A, B and E?
1)  12

2)  13

3)  14
4)  15

Q 6.   What was the sum of the ratings received by D in compulsory part of the appraisal?
1)  12

2)  13

3)  14

4)  Less than 12

 
Q 7.   What was the mentor rating for the employee with the lowest total rating?
1)  4
2)  5

3)  3

4)  2

Q 8.   If D had the maximum rating only in his self appraisal, then which of the following statements is definitely true for D?
I. His ratings in the remaining appraisals were equal.
II. The rating in one of his appraisals was 3.
III. The ratings in 2 out of his 4 appraisals were equal.
1)  Only I

2)  Only III

3)  Both II and III

4)  Both I and II

Q 9.   Which of the following employees can get an increased salary of Rs.1.5 lakh in the new financial year?
1)  B

2)  C

3)  E

4)  A

Q 10.   If the existing salaries of A and F are equal to Rs.75,000, then what is the difference (in Rs.) between their increased salaries for
the new financial year?
 
 
 
 
 

Directions for questions 11 to 14: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Aamir is travelling to four countries – P, Q, R and S which have four different currencies – A, B, C and D in any order. He visits a currency
exchange outlet and uses the local currency Rupees (Rs.) to sell and buy the international currencies. The bar graph below gives the
exchange rate of currencies for different countries Aamir is visiting provided by the currency exchange outlet. For Aamir, the buying price
of a unit of any currency is certain percentage more than the base price and selling price is certain percentage less than the base price
of that currency. These percentages may differ from country to country.
For example, Aamir can buy 1 unit of currency A with Rs. 220 and sell 1 unit of currency and get back Rs. 190.
The following facts are known about the exchange made by the Aamir for his pre and post trip:
(i) The units of currencies A, B, C and D bought by Aamir are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 5 : 4 and the units of currencies sold by Aamir post trip are
in the ratio 2 : 1 : 2 : 4. Aamir doesn’t keep any currency post trip.
(ii) The difference between the money spent by Aamir on buying currency B and selling currency D was Rs. 1,02,400.
(iii) If Aamir would have received the base price as selling price for currency C, then he would have received Rs. 1,200 more.
(iv) The currencies for countries P and Q were bought 10% above the corresponding base exchange rates, and their selling exchange
rates are 5% below their corresponding base exchange rates. For country R, the currency was bought 12% above the corresponding base
exchange rates which is less than the selling exchange rate of the currency of country S. All base prices of every currency were integers.
Q 11.   The currency for country R were sold by Aamir at the exchange rate ________% below their corresponding base exchange rates.
1)  3

2)  4

3)  5
4)  8

Q 12.   How many units of currency S did Aamir spent on the trip?

 
 

 
 

Q 13.   Maximum how much money (in Rs.) Aamir could have received more if he sold the currency of country P at the base exchange
rate?

1)  2400

2)  3600

3)  4000

4)  4200

Q 14.   If Aamir bought currency D at p% above the corresponding base exchange rate and sold currency D at (p – 5)% below the
corresponding base exchange rate, then what is the value of p?
1)  10

2)  15

3)  25
4)  20

Directions for questions 15 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A certain number of cyclists participated in the ‘Road Cycle Race’ held at Greater Noida. They all started the race at the same time and
each of them finished in different positions. Out of these, eight cyclists were from eight different cities - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. These
eight cyclists were assigned unique numbers from 1 to 8, not necessarily in the same order. These eight cyclists finished the race in
unique positions from 1 to 12.
Some other information about the above mentioned eight cyclists is given below.
(i) Cyclist 8 was from city G.
(ii) Only three cyclists finished the race in even numbered positions.
(iii) Among the eight participants, Cyclist 4 finished first, which was an even numbered position.
(iv) Cyclist 5’s position number was twice that of Cyclist 3.
(v) The cyclist from city C finished the race last among the eight cyclists.
(vi) Cyclist 7 finished the race in an even numbered position.
(vii) Cyclist 1 from city D finished the race before Cyclist 3.
(viii) Cyclist 6 finished the race before Cyclist 8 but after Cyclist 2.
Q 15.   The number assigned to the cyclist from city C was __________.
 

 
 

Q 16.   What was the 3rd last position number among the eight cyclists?
 

 
 

Q 17.   How many cyclists had both their assigned number and the position number either even or odd?

1)  2

2)  3

3)  4

4)  5

Q 18.   From which city was the cyclist who finished his race in 2nd last position?

1)  C
2)  D
3)  G

4)  H

Q 19.   If the cyclists from cities E and H had consecutive numbers and the cyclist from city B finished the race before the cyclist from
city A but after the cyclist from city F, then at which of the following position numbers the cyclist from city F could not finish the race?

1)  2

2)  5

3)  7

4)  9

Q 20.   If the cyclists from cities A and B did not finish the race at odd numbered positions and H finished the race before both E and F,
then which of the following statements is definitely TRUE?

1)  The cyclist from city F finished the race in position 7.

2)  The cyclist from city H finished the race in position 5.

3)  The cyclist 4 was from city B.

4)  The cyclist 6 was from city E.