128 Great PMP Exam Questions Final 11.11.19

128 GREAT PMP QUESTION PLUS 5 STUDY HACKS
Study Hack
CONTENTS
INITIATING PROCESS GROUP
- 19 Questions & Answers
- Study Hack #1
PLANNING PROCESS GROUP

- Study Hack #2
EXECUTING PROCESS GROUP

- Study Hack #3
MONITORING & CONTROLLING PROCESS GROUP

- Study Hack #4
CLOSING PROCESS GROUP

- Study Hack #5
PMP SCORING SHEET

- ARE YOU READY FOR THE PMP?
Study Hack
HOW TO USE
THIS BOOK
For those who don't know me yet, my name is Scott
Payne. I am the author of two acclaimed PMP books:
"PMP Exam Master Prep" and "EVM Made "...
Those two books decode the PMP and EVM concepts in a way that you can
understand and use to excel on the exam. They have helped thousands of
students successfully PASS the PMP.
While these books transform how students understand PMP concepts, the
best students push further by challenging themselves to master the
situational questions that fill the PMP exam.
WHAT THIS BOOK WILL and WILL NOT DO FOR YOU

This book is going to give you a strong taste of the difficult situational
questions you will face on the exam AND it will EXPOSE your weaknesses
(that is a good thing).
This book does not go into the details you need to eliminate those
weaknesses, you can easily do that by reading my other two books and using
the awesome study tools I created in the PMP Super Simulator.
HOW TO GET THE MOST OUT OF THIS BOOK

Use this book to test HOW READY YOU ACTUALLY ARE for the PMP exam!
Take the 128 questions and score your results (end of the book). Take those
results and use the Super Simulator to focus your study / practice until you
are consistently scoring above 80%! When you can do that. You are READY!
Study Hack
INITIATING
PROCESS GROUP
Questions related to the Initiating Process Group account for
13% of the entire PMP exam.
From a big-picture perspective, the Initiating

Process Group achieves 3 key objectives:
1. Define the Project

2. Obtain Project Approval
3. Identify and Start to Understand the
Stakeholders
The questions in the Initiating Process Group are drawn

from only 2 processes: Develop Project Charter and Identify
Stakeholders.
INITIATING QUESTIONS
1. The project charter has been approved, and the core team members have begun identifying project
stakeholders. What kind of information about stakeholders does stakeholder analysis identify and relate
to the purpose of the project?
a) Requirements, influence, and functional department

b) Interests, requirements, and functional roles
c) Requirements, expectations, and influence
d) Interests, expectations, and influence
2. You are a newly hired project manager working in the quality division of a large power generation
company. During your first week, your senior manager provided you with a presentation deck he
prepared detailing a proposed project that included a description of the project, the cost-benefit
analysis, a high-level Gantt chart listing activities, and a summary of potential team members. He
recommended that you start working on the project immediately in order to make a good impression
upon the organization. What is the most appropriate action to take next?
a) Gather a project team from relevant departments and execute the project
b) Procure the needed resources first to achieve the benefits of the project
c) Translate the information provided onto a charter and complete the analysis to finalize the charter.
Once completed, submit it to sponsor for approval, before beginning any project work.
d) Obtain the funds for the project from the sponsor or senior management and hold a kickoff meeting
3. Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these
phases known as?
a) Complete project phase

b) Project life
c) Project life cycle
d) Project cycle
4. In the last quarter of each fiscal year, your company requires that all future projects be evaluated prior to
starting the chartering process. The evaluation process requires the submission of a summary of
projected cost-benefit analysis and a potential impact on customer satisfaction. As you prepare to
submit the information for your next project, what is the name of the document that you will submit to
validate from a business standpoint whether your project is worth the required investment?
a) Business case
b) Cost baseline
c) Cost management plan
d) Schedule management plan
5. One of the stakeholders on your project has been identified as having high power, low urgency, and
appropriate legitimacy (involvement in the project). Which classification method did you use?
a) Power-interest grid
b) Power-influence grid
c) Influence-impact grid
d) Salience model
6. You have been assigned as project manager for a human resources process improvement project. While
performing stakeholder analysis, you identified one stakeholder who is an expert in the domain
knowledge that has been marked as high risk for the project. Additionally, you learn that while this
stakeholder has high-interest in the project, he has low influence due to the fact that his position in the
organization does not have direct involvement with your project. Which would be the best approach in
managing this stakeholder?
a) Manage this stakeholder closely

b) Keep him satisfied by sending him regular project performance reports
c) Keep him informed and solicit his feedback on risks and issues
d) Monitor him so that he could be managed closely if he becomes influential
7. As projects evolve, the Identify Stakeholder process must be continually assessed to ensure that the
stakeholder register contains an accurate and comprehensive list of stakeholders. After the initial time
that the process is utilized, which of the following is a key input that will often initiate the need to utilize
the Identify Stakeholders process?
a) Plan Quality Management

b) Collect Requirements
c) Plan Procurement Management
d) Change log
8. The Project Management Office recommended that you utilize a salience model to complete stakeholder
analysis and classify stakeholders. Using this model, by which three characteristics are you evaluating
each stakeholder?
a) Power, urgency, and legitimacy

b) Urgency, interest, and power
c) Impact, interest, and urgency
d) Interest, influence, and legitimacy
9. As an experienced project manager, you understand the importance of developing a detailed
stakeholder register. Your team has started populating the stakeholder register using the approved
charter and business case document and have provided the initial draft of the register to you for your
review. After questioning the team on the process that they used to develop the initial draft, you remind
them that they forgot to utilize one key document to find potential stakeholders. Which document did
your team forget to analyze to find potential stakeholders?
a) Analyze the project management plan

b) Analyze the corporate organizational chart
c) Analyze the benefits management plan
d) Analyze the lessons learned register
10. Having recently obtained approval from the Project Sponsor for your project charter, you schedule a 2-
hour session with core members of your project team. Your intention in the session is to facilitate the
team in identifying and categorizing the individuals and groups that will be impacted both positively and
negatively from the delivery of the outcomes of the project. Which process is being performed?
a) Develop project charter

b) Identify stakeholders
c) Project team assignments
d) Close project or phase
11. You work for a large airline manufacturer that is attempting to initiate a project that will utilize recent
technological advances to upgrade the safety of the electrical system on their newest line of aircraft. The
Director of Engineering captured the projected benefits of the project in the business case document
and tasked you in drafting the project charter. After submitting the charter for review, you are informed
that the boundaries described in the charter and the business case are unaligned. What is the most
appropriate action to take next?
a) Analyze both the business case and literature describing the technological advancements driving the
project, then recreate the business case and charter.
b) Study the merits of the technological breakthrough and alter either the business or the project charter
as required
c) Alter the business case to align with the charter
d) Alter the charter to align with the business case
12. The project management office published the list of projects that have been sponsored for the
upcoming year. Which of the following are valid reasons to initiate a project?
a) Requirements to meet regulation

b) Stakeholder requests or needs
c) The need to fix products, processes, or services
d) All of the above
13. Early in a project, you realize that the number of stakeholders listed on your stakeholder register is
significantly smaller than other projects of similar size and scope that you have completed in your
company. Which of the following documents could be most helpful in identifying new project
stakeholders?
a) Change log
b) Assumption log
c) Resource calendar
d) Project calendar
14. You are part of a large team in the early stage of a project to redesign a commercial HVAC system to
meet the expansion of a corporate headquarters building. You are facilitating a session to document the
high-level business needs of the project and to define the product that is intended to satisfy those
requirements. Which process are you and the team performing?
a) Develop Project Management Plan

b) Develop Project Charter
c) Direct and Manage Project Work
d) Collect Requirements
15. As part of the yearly strategic planning meeting, the department leadership team has developed a list of
15 potential projects. Each project brings the opportunity of delivering unique value propositions for the
organization. By what means should the leadership team evaluate, prioritize, and select the projects to
charter?
a) Flow charting
b) Earned value analysis
c) Cost-benefit analysis
d) Pareto analysis
16. Which of the following is not an example of a project?
a) Create a new company website by the end of the year

b) Enhance the production process to achieve 10% savings
c) Manage a production process within defined specifications
d) Design a new product to capture additional market share
17. Due to a recent merger, your company has increased its headcount by 25%. The influx of new individuals
makes the process of stakeholder identification more difficult. Which of the following activity should the
team not engage in while completing stakeholder analysis?
a) Identifying all potential project stakeholders

b) Analyzing the communication requirements of stakeholders
c) Identifying the potential impact each stakeholder could generate
d) Classifying stakeholders to define an approach strategy
18. The influence-impact grid is one of multiple data representation tools and techniques used to display
and group stakeholders visually. The information deduced from this grid helps to inform and create
which key output of the Identify Stakeholder process?
a) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

b) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
c) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
d) Stakeholder register
19. You are working on creating the project charter for a standard PC image development project. You have
identified that the image must be ready for deployment by the end of the year, and the project must be
executed with internal resources only. Which section within the charter will you capture these conditions?
a) Assumptions
b) Scope of work
c) Constraints
d) Deliverables
Study #1 Hack
Don't waste time

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Study the
Process FLOWS
instead.
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that 's what matters MOST
INITIATING ANSWERS
1. D. Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and
qualitative information to determine whose interest should be taken into account throughout the
project. It identifies the interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them
to the purpose of the project.
2. C. The cost-benefit analysis and other information provided is ideal information to use in a project
charter. The charter must be completed and approved by the sponsor before the project is
authorized to commence. The starting point for all project activities is the approval of the project
and the authorization to use organizational resources (option C) through a project charter.
3. C. A project life cycle is the series of phases that a project passes through from its initiation to its
closure.
4. A. The business case or similar document describes the necessary information from a business
standpoint to determine whether or not the project is worth the required investment.
5. D. The salience model classifies stakeholders on the basis of their power, urgency, and legitimacy.
6. C. Since he is highly interested, he should be kept informed on project progress; and because he is
an expert in domain knowledge, he should be solicited for opinion and feedback on estimation,
planning, risks, and issues. Due to his low influence, this stakeholder does not need to be managed
closely. Sending only the regular project reports will satisfy his high interest, but will not benefit the
project.
7. D. The change log is an input to Identify Stakeholders, as it may introduce new stakeholders or
change the nature of an existing stakeholder's relationship with the project.
8. A. The salience model describes classes of stakeholders based on assessments of their power (level
of authority or ability to influence the outcomes of the project), urgency (need for immediate
attention), and legitimacy (the appropriateness of their involvement).
9. C. The benefits management plan describes the expected plan for realizing the benefits claimed in
the business case. It may identify the individuals and groups that will benefit from the delivery of
the outcomes of the project and are thus considered as stakeholders.
10. B. The process of identifying stakeholders is being performed.
11. D. The business case provides the justification for the project and hence all documents further
created depend on the business case. The project charter must be altered.
12. D. A project may be initiated as a result of anyone of the following general factors: To meet
regulatory, legal, or social requirements; to satisfy stakeholder requests or needs; to implement or
change business or technological strategies; to create, improve, or fix products, processes, or
services.
13. A. It is important to understand and include the stakeholders affected by your project. Referencing
the change log may help identify groups and individuals that are impacted by the project. The
reason for this is that the change log often highlights unanticipated issues or opportunities. These
issues and opportunities will often identify stakeholder previously not included or considered.
14. B. The Develop Project Charter is the process of developing a document that formally authorizes the
existence of a project. Among other information, the high-level project purpose, measurable
objectives, and requirements are defined in the project charter.
15. C. An organization's business needs may be based on market demand, technological advance, legal
requirements, government relations, or environmental considerations. Typically, the business needs
and cost-benefit analysis are contained in the business case to justify the project.
16. C. Managing production should be a part of ongoing operations. The other choices are projects
because they describe a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or
result.
17. B. Analyzing the communication requirements of stakeholders is not a part of stakeholder analysis.
This will be done as part of developing the communication management plan.
18. D. The influence-impact grid is an example of a data representation tool used in the Identify
Stakeholders process to map stakeholders. The information deduced from using this tool helps to
inform the creation and update of the stakeholder register document.
19. C. These are constraints on the project; in other words, they set boundaries for the project. These
cannot be called scope of work or deliverables, but do provide a boundary of when and how work
or deliverables are to be completed. These are not assumptions, since they are not unknowns being
taken as reality.
Record Your Score In This Process Group!

# Correct / Total # of Questions = Process Group Score
/ 19 = %
Study Hack
PLANNING
PROCESS GROUP
Questions related to the Planning Process Group account for
When planning a project, the project manager

must answer the following questions:
1. Where are we going?

2. How do we get there?
3. Do we have enough of the right resources?
4. What might deter us?
The Planning Process Group is the home of 24 of the 49 total

processes.
The nucleus of all the outputs produced by these processes is

the project management plan. 12 subsidiary plans and 4
project baselines make up the project management plan.
Every knowledge area (except integration mgt.) generates a
subsidiary plan.
PLANNING QUESTIONS
1. The project deliverables and project work are currently defined at a level that is too large for the team to
clearly understand how they will efficiently manage their completion. What action should the Project
Manager take to help his team?
a) Assign individual team members to manage each requirement

b) Lead the team in subdividing project deliverables work into smaller, more manageable components
c) Reassess the project scope and adjust the scope baseline
d) Conduct a requirements collection session to redefine the requirements
2. Your project team is aggregating the estimated costs of individual work packages to produce the
project's cost baseline. In which process is your team completing work?
a) Determine Budget
b) Plan Cost Management
c) Control Costs
d) Estimate Costs
3. A new project manager was unsure which technique she should use to come up with a cost estimate for her
project. She reviewed the company's estimation guidelines and decided that parametric estimating is the
best choice. Which of the following represents the technique utilized?
a) Lessons learned from a previous project

b) Project cost summed up from activity estimates
c) $300 per day for expert resource
d) Project cost distributed down to each activity
4. While leading a large multi-phased project involving resources in four countries, your company has
completed an acquisition to acquire a competitor. The integration of the acquired company has added new
two divisions that you believe may be impacted by the output of your project. You believe that one of the
divisions will be heavily impacted while the other will have registered minimal impact. Your team has
recently completed the gate check of phase two and has commenced phase three of the project. Given the
changes to the corporate environment, what would be the appropriate next step that must be conducted?
a) Perform an analysis of the stakeholder landscape to identify new and prioritize new stakeholders
b) Task the team with identifying and prioritize any new risks that may be related to the merger acquisition
c) Follow the normal project plan and place a distinct focus on monitoring the engagement levels of
existing stakeholders
d) The changes in the corporate landscape, while significant, should not be factored into the project as the
project has been baselined. Continue performing project work.
5. A project manager has just started a new project and is leading an initial meeting with the sponsor and other
key stakeholders. The vice president of marketing is a key stakeholder and wants to know when the project
will be completed and how much it will cost. The team has not finalized the scope, cost, or schedule
baselines. When pressed for an answer, the project manager provides an estimate while providing a range
of potential outcomes. Which technique did the project manager use to provide the estimate request?
a) Analogous estimate
b) Rough order of magnitude
c) Parametric estimate
d) Bottom-up estimate
6. The project team is finalizing the creation of the requirements documentation and requirements traceability
matrix. What is the next process that the team should complete?
a) Control Scope
b) Conduct Procurements
c) Create WBS
d) Define Scope
7. The last step your team is completing in the determine budget process is the establishment of the periodic
funding requirements. From which component should your team derive the funding requirement schedule?
a) Funding limit reconciliation

b) Scope baseline
c) Activity cost estimate
d) Cost baseline
8. A work package was scheduled to cost $10,000 to complete and should have been finished by today. As of
today, the actual expenditure is $12,000 and half of the work has been completed. What is the cost
variance?
a) -7000
b) -2000
c) 2000
d) 5000
9. In an effort to deliver your project faster you have decided to crash multiple critical path activities. Giving
this decision, what action must be taken?
a) Add the details of the decision to the lessons learned register

b) Submit a change request
c) Incorporate the additional cost of resources into the cost estimate
d) Perform a Monte Carlo analysis
10. Under which contract type is the seller reimbursed for all allowable costs and potentially receives a fee
based on achieving performance objectives?
a) Cost-plus incentive fee (CPIF)

b) Cost-plus fixed fee (CPFF)
c) Fixed-price incentive fee (FPIF)
d) Time and material (T and M)
11. Which of the following is an example of a cost of nonconformance?
a) Rework
b) Inspection
c) Training
d) Testing
12. The team has decided to use a mathematical modeling approach to select the best of several alternative
courses of actions related to risk. Which technique is the team utilizing?
a) Brainstorming
b) Strategies for opportunities
c) Decision tree analysis
d) Risk data quality assessment
13. After defining the activities required to complete the work defined in the scope baseline your team
promptly began sequencing activities. What critical output must they produce from this process?
a) Responsibility assignment matrix

b) Work breakdown structure
c) Project schedule network diagram
d) Mandatory dependencies list
14. Your sponsor has informed you that the project you have been assigned has a significant amount of
uncertainty and that you must be able to adjust the schedule and project plan to adjust as the project
develops. Given this information, which tool or technique would you use in the Define Activities process to
allow for the flexibility in planning needed?
a) Rolling wave planning

b) Decomposition
c) Alternatives analysis
d) Parametric estimating
15. Your customer has confirmed that the deliverables produced meet the acceptance criteria. What is the next
step that the project manager should take?
a) Confirm that all issues in the issue log are satisfied

b) Begin developing the project's final report
c) Turn over the final product to the customer
d) Release the team members from the project
16. You have assigned a junior team member with the responsibility of tracking the condition of all
requirements across the project life cycle. Which document should this individual use to record this
information?
a) Requirements traceability matrix

b) Requirements management plan
c) Project charter
d) Work breakdown structure
17. What is the lowest level of the WBS at which the cost and activity estimates for the work can be reliably
estimated and managed?
a) Work product
b) Work package
c) Project deliverable
d) Scope baseline
18. You are a project manager and have just finished decomposing the work package. What should you do next?
a) Define the scope

b) Estimate activity resources
c) Define the activities
d) Level the schedule
19. In the rush to complete project planning, the project team discovered a situation that if realized, could
severely impact the project's ability to meet the projected completion date. As a result, the team is
developing an alternative activity sequences to be implemented if the situation materializes. This is an
example of:
a) Contingency planning
b) Risk transfer
c) Risk identification
d) Risk aversion
20. A colleague is confused as to the difference between the WBS and activity list and approaches you for
assistance. What response should you provided to describe the difference?
a) A WBS is focused on deliverables, while activities are focused on the work required to create those
deliverables
b) They are essentially the same
c) A WBS is focused on project scope, while activities are focused in product scope
d) A WBS describes mandatory work, while activities are optional
21. Although your project is progressing well on the cost front, the project is facing delays that are impacting
the project's end date. You decide to shorten the schedule. Which of the following activities would you not
perform while crashing the schedule?
a) Reallocating resources from a non-critical to a critical activity

b) Increasing the productivity on a project activity
c) Assigning additional resources to the project
d) Reducing the duration estimates
22. You are a project manager leading your team through the process of evaluating and classifying the current
engagement levels of each stakeholder. You have identified a stakeholder who is aware of the project but is
unsupportive of the work or outcomes of the project. Within which engagement category should you advise
your team to classify this stakeholder?
a) Unaware
b) Resistant
c) Neutral
d) Supportive
23. Which estimating technique, in which estimates of individual lower-level activities are aggregated, requires
significant resources and time, but can also be very accurate?
a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) Bottom-up estimating
d) Three-point estimating
24. You have recently taken over a project that is in the planning process group. You learn that all subsidiary
plans have been developed and the team is currently in the process of subdividing project deliverables and
project work into smaller, more manageable components. Which process is the team currently conducting?
a) Collect Requirements
b) Define Scope
c) Create WBS
d) Validate Scope
25. In completing the Estimate Activity Resource process, you lead your team in evaluating the impacts of
utilizing full-time vs. part-time employees. Which type of analysis is being conducted?
a) Alternatives analysis
b) Resource analysis
c) Scope analysis
d) Schedule analysis
26. Your project management office is involved in tailoring project management processes to fit the
organization’s unique needs. Which of the following best describes the activities that the team will perform
while customizing the integration management processes?
a) Determine how lessons learned will be made available for future projects; determine when and how
benefits should be reported, and determine how will knowledge be managed
b) Determine how requirements will be reused; determine how the schedule will be controlled, and
determine who manages issues
c) Determine how changes will be controlled; determine how quality will be achieved, and determine who
approves the budget
d) Determine how will knowledge be managed; determine how will configurations be monitored; and
determine who approves the project budget
27. In an attempt to find ways to improve your project, you develop the idea of selectively integrating the use of
virtual teams. Despite your enthusiasm for the idea, your sponsor believes that virtual teams offer little to
no value to the project. Additionally, your sponsor admits that he has never seen a virtual team in practice
and requests that you submit a short report detailing the projected benefits that the project will receive.
Which of the following would you not include in your report to convince the sponsor?
a) Virtual teams increase the opportunity to include people with mobility limitations or disabilities into the
team
b) Virtual teams offer the ability to reduce travel expenses
c) Virtual teams offer the ability to add special expertise to the project from other geographical areas
d) Virtual teams will reduce the schedule and expedite project completion
28. After drafting the initial draft of the project schedule network diagram, your team began refining the
document to include the lead and lag relationships between activities. Which of the following best
describes the different visual impact that lead and lag have on the diagram?
a) Lead moves a predecessor right, lag moves it left

b) Lead moves a predecessor left, lag moves it right
c) Lead moves a successor left, lag moves it right
d) Lead moves a successor right, lag moves it left
29. Due to the success of the first phase of your project, the four-phase construction project that you are
leading has been authorized additional engineering support. This addition in support has increased your
team from the original six team members during the requirement gathering phase to eleven in the design
phase. How many additional channels of communication were added in the design phase?
a) 15
b) 55
c) 40
d) 25
30. After completing the first round of cost estimates, you share the results with a group of engineers who have
experience in completing similar projects. While you hoped that the engineers would confirm the estimates,
you are shocked when they provide you a lengthy written response detailing multiple issues. These issues
highlight fundamental facts that stand in conflict with what your team used to calculate the costs. What is
the most appropriate action that you should take next?
a) Disregard the response, your team has invested significant effort in creating the costs. Any changes
would potentially cause cost overruns.
b) Submit a change request to modify the cost estimates
c) Add the feedback provided to the assumption log, lessons learned register, and risk register. Then
monitor the actual costs as the project proceeds.
d) Have your team evaluate the response provided against the basis of estimates and assumption log.
Then update each document and recalculate the cost estimates.
31. You are a new project manager and have been assigned to estimate a project's costs. You go to a senior
project manager who has been working in the company for 10 years and ask for his advice. He tells you to
increase your cost estimate by 25% because the management always cuts a project's budget by 25% before
approving the project. Given the advice provided, what action should you take?
a) Present the actual cost estimate along with a brief explanation of the impact of a budget cut on the
project
b) Present the actual cost estimate along with a note that you will not manage the project if the budget is
not approved as is
c) Inflate task cost estimates by 25%
d) Add a contingency reserve equal to 25% of the costs
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PLANNING ANSWERS
1. B. The requirements and project work must be decomposed into smaller and more manageable
parts. This process should be conducted until the work is defined at a level at which the cost and
duration can be effectively managed.
2. A. Once the costs have been estimated, the Determine Budget process aggregates the estimated
costs of individual work packages. The total cost of the project is established and budget approval is
requested after adding contingency and management reserves to it.
3. C. In parametric estimation, you use statistical relationships between historical data and other
factors to come up with an estimate. So, $300 per day for expert resources would be the use of
parametric estimating. Using project cost summed up from each activity's estimate is bottom-up
estimating. Using project cost distributed down to each activity is top-down estimating. Using
lessons learned from a previous project is analogous estimating.
4. A. Since there has been movement / changes in the stakeholder community, it is best to identify
and prioritize stakeholders and their engagement needs to maintain optimum support for the
project. The risk outlook for the project may also have changed. It would be prudent to follow the
identification of new stakeholders with an analysis of risk as well.
5. B. At this stage, he can only provide a rough order of magnitude estimate, also known as ballpark
estimate. It is a very high-level and rough estimate. As the estimation process is completed and the
budget is fully defined the project manager will be able to provide a more specific estimate. The
rough order of magnitude will be become tighter.
6. D. The creation of the requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix occurs in
the Collect Requirements process. The next process to complete is the Define Scope process. It is
in this process that the extensive list of requirements developed in Collect Requirements are pruned
to define the list to define the list of essential requirements that the team will deliver.
7. D. Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from the cost
baseline. The cost baseline will include projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities. Funding
often occurs in incremental amounts that are not continuous and may not be evenly distributed.
8. A. Cost variance is calculated using the equation: Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual
Cost (AC). In this example, CV = 5,000 - 12,000 = -7,000. The Actual Cost (AC) is provided ($12,000),
but the Earned Value must be inferred from the statement within the question. By stating that half
of the work has been completed, you can infer that the EV is $5,000. Remember, EV is the value of
the work that "is done". The total value of all of the work is $10,000, therefore half of that would be
equal to $5,000.
9. C. By crashing the project, you are adding additional resources to complete project work. The costs
of these resources must be incorporated into the cost estimate.
10. A. In a cost-plus-incentive-fee contract, the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for
performing the contract work and receives a predetermined incentive fee based on achieving
certain performance objectives as set forth in the contract.
11. A. Cost of quality shows the cost of nonconformance as rework, scrap, liabilities, warranty work, and
lost business.
12. C. Expected monetary value analysis is a statistical concept to calculate the average outcome when
the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. A common use of this type of analysis is
a decision tree analysis.
13. C. The team is completing the sequence activity process. The key output of this process is the
project schedule network diagram, which is a graphical representation of the logical relationships,
or dependencies, between project schedule activities.
14. A. Rolling wave planning is an iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in
the near-term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level. It is a
form of progressive elaboration. Therefore, work can exist at various levels of detail depending on
where it is in the project life cycle.
15. B. After completing the Validate Scope and obtaining customer approval that all deliverables meet
the acceptance criteria that project manager should then start the Close Project or Phase process.
In starting this process the manager should begin creating the final project report. In developing
this report, the project manager will confirm that all work is complete, that all approved change
requests have been implemented, and that a full summary of the project is complete.
16. A. The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to
the deliverables that satisfy them. The requirements traceability matrix provides a means to track
requirements throughout the project life cycle, helping to ensure that requirements approved in the
requirements documentation are delivered at the end of the project.
17. B. The work package is the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which costs and duration
can be estimated and managed.
18. C. Defining the activities is the next step once the work packages have been decomposed.
19. A. A contingency plan (or fallback plan) can be developed for implementation if the selected
strategy turns out not to be fully effective or if an accepted risk occurs. Here the team has planned
an alternative sequence of activities as a contingency.
20. A. A WBS is a hierarchical representation of the deliverables that a project must produce to realize
its stated benefits. The activity list documents the tasks that must be performed to create those
deliverables. Both the activity list and the WBS pertain to the project's scope and are mandatorily
accomplished.
21. Crashing is a way to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding
resources. Crashing increases the cost to be incurred (trading cost performance for improvement in
schedule performance). Reducing duration estimates does not comprise crashing.
22. B. Resistant stakeholders are aware of the project but resistant to any changes that may occur as a
result of the work or outcomes.
23. C. Bottom-up estimating aggregates estimates of individual lower-level activities, starting at the
work package level, to create estimates for each component of the WBS.
24. C. There are four scope management processes within the planning process group. The Create WBS
process is designed to subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more
manageable components.
25. A. Alternative analysis weights the impact of competing options to select the optimal option for the
project.
26. A. While tailoring integration management processes you would need to consider how lessons
learned will be made available for future projects, when and how benefits should be reported and
how knowledge is to be managed.
27. D. Working with virtual teams does not offer the possibility of reducing the schedule. In fact, there
could be a possibility of investing additional time in planning and controlling activities for teams
spread across different geographies. All other options are valid benefits of virtual teams.
28. C. Lead and lag define the start time of each activity in reference to the activities that occur directly
before (predecessor) and after (successor), respectively. Lead is the amount of time a successor
activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor. Lag is the amount of time a successor
activity can be delayed to a predecessor.
29. C. The formula to determine the number of communication channels is: Number of channels = N
(N-1)/2, where N is the number of stakeholders. To solve this question, first calculate the
communication channels that existed when the team consisted of six team members, Number of
Original Channels = 6(6-1)/2 = 15 channels. The next step is to calculate the communication
channels for a team of eleven team members, Number of Final Channels = 11(11-1)/2 = 55
channels. Taking the difference between the two valued determines the total increase in the number
of communication channels. # of Channels that have been added = (55-11) = 40. Remember that
the communication channel calculation includes the Project Manager in the N value.
30. D. The feedback from the engineers highlights potential issues in the logical foundations used to
create the cost estimates. These fundamental facts should be included in the basis of estimates and
assumption log. The proper action is for the team to evaluate the validity of the responses and
make the appropriate changes to the cost estimates.
31. A. Inflating task estimates is a bad practice as it hides the actual estimate and thus weakens the
control. Threatening that you will not manage the project will likely result in your removal from the
project and maybe even from the company. The purpose of a contingency reserve is to provide
funds for known risks. A high reserve will raise eyebrows and unnecessary questions, and must be
justified. With a 25% of budget added to contingency, it will be extremely difficult to justify. The
actual cost estimate should be presented with an explanation of what the impact on the project will
be if the budget is cut.

/ 31 = %
Study Hack
EXECUTING
PROCESS GROUP
Questions related to the Executing Process Group account for
Executing is iterative, and its results MAY lead

to project updates and re-baselining.
The Executing Process Group is the stage when deliverables

are produced and most of the project's budget is consumed.
In this process group the focus is on "doing". For this

reason the project manager leads the team in completing the
work, producing deliverables, assuring quality, and
engaging stakeholders through the appropriate
communication channels.
EXECUTING QUESTIONS
1. You are managing a corporate training system project. Each month, you have to present a project
performance review to the senior management stakeholders, including the project sponsor. Which of the
following will not be part of the information presented?
a) Forecast of when the project will be completed

b) Superior performance by the project team and the results
c) Issues that need management attention
d) Team member performance issues
2. The project manager of a large web development project is using a pull-based / on-demand scheduling
technique to define the features to be built and the necessary activities to be performed to execute the
work. The team is completing a sprint to complete a collection of activities related to the user interface of
the site. During execution, a programmer developed a great idea for an additional feature that the team
believes will dramatically improve the functionality of the site. Your team is eager to implement the
upgrade. What is the most appropriate action for the project manager to take?
a) Integrate the upgrade into the existing schedule

b) Add the features to the backlog to be evaluated for inclusion in the next iteration of work.
c) Obtain an additional resource and complete the upgrade immediately
d) Add the upgrade to the existing work in this iteration and focus on finding ways to schedule compress
the existing work
3. The project team meetings have historically been chaotic, undisciplined, and unsuccessful in delivering the
value the project manager needs. In the previous meeting, the team demonstrated disrespect in the form of
talking over each other, showing up late, and not paying attention to the information presented. Which of
the following rules could the project manager leverage to help rectify this situation?
a) Demonstrate courtesy and consideration of each other, and control who is allowed to speak
b) Create and publish an agenda and a set of rules for controlling the meeting
c) Have a purpose for the meeting, with the right people in attendance
d) Schedule meetings in advance
4. Within which process contained in the Executing process group are the risk responses that were selected
during Plan Risk Responses put into action to achieve the risk response result?
a) Implement risk responses

b) Monitor Risks
c) Plan Risk Management
d) Identify risks
5. Project stakeholders are concerned that the risk related to currency fluctuations could potentially erase all
potential project benefits. Which of the following risk types are the stakeholders concerned with?
a) Individual project risk

b) Overall project risk
c) Unknown risks
d) Impact of the most severe risk
6. A member of the project team, who is a risk owner for an identified risk, has successfully initiated and
implemented risk responses. The team member remains vigilant and aims to identify new risks that may
have arisen due to the responses implemented. Which of the following would best assist in this effort?
a) Utilizing the risk management plan to identify risks

b) Utilizing a prompt list to identify risks
c) Assessing the risk register to identify risks
d) Using expert judgment and experience
7. A project manager prepared the statement of work and developed the procurement management plan. She
also has the bid package ready for distribution to the sellers. Which process does she go through next?
a) Control Procurements
b) Procure Seller
c) Plan Procurement Management
d) Conduct Procurements
8. What is the most appropriate tool used during the Conduct Procurement process to evaluate the
reasonableness of submitted proposals?
a) Bottom-up estimating
b) Bidder conference
c) Independent estimate
d) Procurement audit
9. After reviewing the bid submitted, the project team deliberated over which sellers to award the contract.
One member recommended a seller who is highly reputed in the industry, another member recommended a
seller that has worked for the company several times in the past, and a third member insists that the seller
who has the lowest bid should be awarded the contract. What action should the project manager take in
order to select the seller to award the contract?
a) Verify seller reputation in the market

b) Contact the project managers who have worked with the sellers in the past and ask their opinion
c) Review the seller selection criteria
d) Select the vendor who has a history of success with the organization
10. You are managing a project as seller's project manager. The team has alerted you that additional work is
required to complete the project. You evaluate the suggestion from your team and determine that they are
correct in their assertion. Before you assign the tasks to be completed you know that you must receive
authorization from the buyer. Which type of communication is the optimum choice for communicating this
request?
a) Formal written communication

b) Formal verbal communication
c) Informal written communication
d) Instant messaging communication
11. A project manager established a time and material contract with a vendor to supply two resources to
complete engineering design work. The two resources were projected to work for 12 months at a total cost
of $180,000. However, due to delays, requirement modifications, and rework caused by poor quality, the
project took longer than originally projected. At project completion, the two resources have been on the
project for 18 months with a total cost of $250,000. What action could the project manager have taken to
eliminate the risk of the cost overage incurred on this contract?
a) Established a maximum spend and/or contract duration for the given contract
b) Selected a more competent contractor
c) Structured a performance incentive into the contract
d) Establish a cost-plus fee contract
12. You are managing procurement for a project in a small firm. Your CEO has asked you to arrange a vendor
conference. Which of the following activities would it be inappropriate to conduct during the vendor
conference?
a) An explanation of why particular terms and conditions are in the contract

b) Working with the bidders to determine alternative solutions for the project
c) A request for bidders to offer their thoughts on problems with the scope of the work
d) A walkthrough of the project scope
13. You are the project manager of a network replacement project for a 40-floor office building. You plan to hire
a contractor to replace the cables. The work has to be completed in such a way to have minimum to zero
disruption to the tenant organizations during business hours. Due to the complexity and risk inherent in this
constraint, you believe it necessary that a firm with significant experience and a track record of success be
contracted. You contacted the procurement department to develop a list of firms that have the capability to
do the work. What should the procurement department do next?
a) Negotiate a contract with an experienced firm

b) Prepare the list of qualified sellers
c) Develop the evaluation criteria
d) Prepare a solicitation package to be sent out to prospective sellers
14. After obtaining sponsor support for the charter, identifying the project stakeholders, and planning for the
project you held a project kick-off meeting. The meeting was attended by both key stakeholders and the
project team and lead by both the Project Sponsor and yourself. You were pleased with the enthusiasm that
the Project Sponsor was able to generate in speaking directly to the group and emphasizing the importance
that the project would play in the growth of the company. In the days after the meeting you acknowledge
that maintaining high-levels of support from the stakeholders is paramount to the project's success. Which
of the following processes will you use throughout the project's lifecycle maintain the current level of
support?
a) Implement risk responses

b) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
c) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
d) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
15. You are the project manager of a non-profit housing project. You have worked with most of the
stakeholders before. During the last project, one stakeholder submitted a large number of change requests
that were deemed irrelevant and not approved. Which of the following is the best approach to manage this
stakeholder?
a) Set the expectations at the start of the project that stakeholders who submit excessive amounts of
change requests will be removed from the project
b) Involve the stakeholder actively from the start of the project
c) Check if this stakeholder can be removed from the list of stakeholders
d) Discuss with the stakeholder in an informal verbal manner the negative issue that changes cause
16. Which written document monitors the responsible party for resolving specific problems and concerns by a
target date?
a) Project plan
b) Responsibility matrix
c) Issue log
d) RACI chart
17. Mid-execution, senior stakeholders were involved in a heated debate, which concluded in the decision to
approve a change request to reduce the quantity of work to be performed. It is generally believed that
while the nature of the product features will be reduced the overall impact as perceived by the customer
will suffer minimal negative deterioration. You have also deduced that the conditions that the deliverable
meets have not been modified. As the project leader, you have been instructed to update the scope
statement to reflect the changes. Which of the following components would you update?
a) Scope description and deliverables

b) Scope description, deliverables and the acceptance criteria
c) Deliverables, scope description and project exclusions
d) Scope description, deliverables, acceptance criteria, and project exclusions
18. You have requested the project coordinator assure that the project work being completed is in aligned with
the WBS structure. Critical to that analysis is the determination that the required work is complete and that
no superfluous work is executed. Which is the proper technique that was used to decompose the project
work for each project deliverable initially?
a) The law of diminishing returns

b) Parkinson’s Law
c) The 100% rule
d) The rule of seven
19. While leading a large multi-phased project involving resources in four countries, your company has
completed an acquisition to acquire a competitor. The integration of the acquired company has added new
two divisions that you believe may be impacted by the output of your project. You believe that one of the
divisions will be heavily impacted while the other will have register minimal impact. Your team has recently
completed the gate check of phase two and has commenced phase three of the project. Given the changes
to the corporate environment, what would be the appropriate next step that must be conducted?
e) Perform an analysis of the stakeholder landscape to identify new and prioritize new stakeholders
f) Task the team with identifying and prioritize any new risks that may be related to the merger acquisition
g) Follow the normal project plan and place distinct focus on monitoring the engagement levels of existing
stakeholders
h) The changes in the corporate landscape, while significant, should not be factored into the project as the
project has been baselined. Continue performing project work.
20. As a new project manager, you have been surprised by the volume of change requests submitted and
approved. Additionally, you have become adept at explaining the flow of change requests through the
project processes. For what reason are change requests an output of 4.3 Direct and Manage Project work
and approved change requests are an input?
a) Once an approved change request is completed is exits the direct and manage project work process as a
change request output
b) It is in the direct and manage project work process that approved change requests are implemented by
the team. Additionally, in executing project work the team often uncovers issues that initiate the
creation of change requests.
c) Change request are submitted from all stakeholders directly to the direct and manage project work
process for approval by the project team. Additionally, the project team often initiates change requests
that must then be evaluated as inputs to the process.
d) The terms approved change request and change request are synonymous. Change requests pass
through the direct and manage project work process.
21. Donald is currently leading his project team in the completion of the implementation phase of a project to
upgrade a manufacturing plant with new equipment. Despite his efforts to influence spending decisions, he
laments that the project may miss its defined deadline due to the fact that he does not have control over
the allocation and management of his project's budget. In which of the following organizational structures is
Donald working?
a) Strong matrix
b) Functional
c) Project-oriented
d) PMO
22. The change control board has rendered decisions on four key change requests that have significant impact
to the schedule and cost baselines. Upon receiving the approved change requests, you update the
appropriate project documents and plans and provide a status update to stakeholders. You have most
recently directed your project team to begin the process of implementing the changes that have been
approved. Within which process is your team now performing these actions?
a) Executing process
b) Direct and Manage Project Work process
c) Perform Integrated Change Control process
d) Manage Team process
23. You are currently leading your team in the third of four phases of a large industrial machinery installation
process. In your most recent meeting with the sponsor she remarked that the team has shown significant
improvement in their ability to accomplish the work activities in the face of intense schedule and cost
pressure. The sponsor then asks you to provide insight into what the improvements can be attributed to.
You respond that the team has placed a significant focus on documenting the facts surrounding scenarios
that caused issues early in the project and now references the document religiously when similar situations
present themselves. During your response to the sponsor which of the following is the documents did you
refer?
a) Iterative project plan

b) Change log
c) Scope management plan
d) Lessons learned register
24. In creating the quality management plan for your project your team defined the need for multiple quality
audits to ensure that the high-quality standards have been maintained. Which of the following statements
best describes the characteristics of a proper quality audit?
a) Independent and informal

b) Internal and informal
c) Independent and structured
d) Internal and punitive
25. Despite your efforts to diligently follow the quality management plan established, a significant defect was
discovered by the customer in the product your team created. Unfortunately, the defect was discovered
after full production was initiated and the product distributed globally for three months and the company
was forced to recall the existing products. Which type of cost of quality is the recall cost classified as?
a) Cost of nonconformance
b) Cost of conformance
c) Defect cost
d) Inspection cost
26. A project manager has used the affinity diagram method to review and group a large number of errors being
reported on the project. He is planning to analyze further and identify the root cause of errors. Within which
process is the project manager?
a) Monitor and Control Project Work

b) Plan Quality Management
c) Control Quality
d) Manage Quality
27. Your company has assigned you to lead a project to develop a line of high-quality construction tools to be
used by industrial pipefitters. Due to an increase in the cost of transportation your company has mandated
that all materials be sourced from companies within the state. Following this mandate, you establish a
contract with a local firm to provide steel for the project. While the cost is well below what was originally
projected, the company is unable to guarantee that the steel they provide will meet the high-quality
standard 100% of the time. Given this reality, what type of cost should you expect to increase?
a) Cost of conformance
b) Cost of nonconformance
c) Cost of inspection
d) Cost of quality audits
28. In which of the following stages of team development do the team members begin to work together and
adjust their behaviors and work styles?
a) Storming
b) Norming
c) Performing
d) Adjusting
29. A project manager finds two of her team members in disagreement over the proper testing approach. As a
servant leader committed to solving conflict using a problem-solving approach, which of the following would
be the most appropriate action to take?
a) Inform the two that their argument is moot as you are the only individual who can make sure a decision
b) Advise the two to have their discussion in private, as their disagreement is damaging to team morale
c) Dictate that each person create a change request so that a formal decision can be made
d) Facilitate the discussion between the two to help understand what is causing the disagreement so that a
shared solution can be developed
30. Leveraging the resource management plan and the project schedule your team is involved in the Acquire
Resources process. Due to the nature of the organization and the project at hand, this involves negotiating
with functional managers to obtain access to the team members necessary to complete the project. You
have been unable to obtain full access to any specific resource. Instead, each team member has distinct
times, shifts, and days when which they are available. On which document will your team record these
limitations to resource availability?
a) Resource breakdown structure

b) Project schedule
c) Resource calendar
d) Project management plan
31. When managing a project, which of the following best describes the best method by which to help positively
address conflict between individual team members?
a) Early, in private, using a direct and collaborative approach

b) Early, in public, using an indirect and collaborative approach
c) Early, in private, using an indirect and cooperative approach
d) As late as possible, in public, using a direct and confrontational approach
32. A member of your team has completed a deliverable and has marked it for review. While reviewing the
deliverable, you notice that it has a number of mistakes. What is the next best thing to do?
a) Discuss the issues with the team member

b) Discuss the issues with the team member and his manager
c) Correct the deliverable and perform a quality audit of team member work
d) Put in a change request for the issue to be resolved
33. A learning and development consultant advises the project manager to capture team knowledge, as it will
provide value to future projects. He recommends that the project manager use multiple methods of to
ensure that a more complete picture of the team's knowledge is retained. Seeing the recommendations too
time-consuming to implement in practice, the project manager creates a solitary link to on an online
collaboration tool where people can post their comments. Over the course of the project the team provides
comments, but the project manager is not satisfied with the usefulness of the responses. Which of the
following could best explain the reason for unsatisfactory responses?
a) The team finds it difficult to express knowledge in the form of beliefs, insights, experience, and know-
how on an online tool
b) The team finds it tedious to use the collaboration tool
c) The team knows that the project manager would not value their contributions
d) The project manager did not provide sufficient writing space on the collaboration tool
34. The project team is currently being audited to confirm that they are following the established processes
required to produce outputs that meet the specified requirements and expectations. During which process
is this activity being performed?
a) Plan Quality Management

b) Manage Quality
c) Control Quality
d) Define Scope
35. Which of the following terms defines the tool and technique that involves creating a shared workspace to
improve a team's communication and performance levels?
a) Team building activity

b) Virtual teams
c) Recognition and rewards
d) Colocation
36. You been given control of a medical research project that will have distinct teams completing work across
two regions. You are nearly finished with calculating the approximate amount of physical and human
resources the project will require in each region. Which Project Resource Management process will you
complete next?
a) Estimate Activity Resources

b) Acquire Resources
c) Develop Team
d) Manage Team
37. In your first meeting with your project team you inform them that you operate with a hands-off leadership
style. You ensure the team that you are always available for advice, but otherwise you allow the team to
make their own decisions. Which leadership style are you utilizing?
a) Laissez-faire
b) Transactional
c) Servant Leadership
d) Transformational
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EXECUTING ANSWERS
1. D. If there is an issue with a team member's performance, it will be discussed in private with the
relevant manager or leader but definitely not in a status review meeting with executive stakeholders.
2. B. The question states usage of on-demand / pull-based scheduling. On-demand scheduling does
not rely on a schedule that was developed previously for the development of the product or
product increments but rather pulls work from a backlog or intermediate queue of work to be done
immediately as resources become available. Regardless, of how valuable the upgrade is the correct
decision is to place the upgrade into the backlog. The feature can be evaluated and selected to be
completed in the next iteration of work.
3. B. Lack of participation and decorum indicate that rules for meeting management have not been
established. Many topics being discussed also indicate that an agenda for the meeting has not been
set.
4. A. The implement risk responses process is designed to implement the approved risk responses
when needed.
5. A. Individual project risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or
negative effect on one or more project objectives. Project Risk Management aims to exploit or
enhance positive risks (opportunities) while avoiding or mitigating negative risks (threats).
6. B. A prompt list is a predetermined list of risk categories that might give rise to individual project
risks and that could also act as sources of overall project risk. The prompt list can be used as a
framework to aid the project team in idea generation when using risk identification techniques. The
risk categories in the lowest level of the risk breakdown structure can be used as a prompt list for
individual project risks.
7. D. Plan Procurement Management is the process in which the procurement management plan is
developed and the bid package is prepared. After that, in the Conduct Procurements process,
sellers' responses are solicited, a seller is selected, and the contract is awarded.
8. B. Independent estimates provide a cost estimate that can be used to compare prospective sellers'
cost estimate. Since it is independent, it is expected to be free from bias.
9. C. The seller selection criteria should be reviewed to select the seller to whom to award the contract.
The other three choices can be considered if one or all of these are part of the seller selection
criteria.
10. A. Once the scope baseline is defined, any modifications to the scope requires a change request to
be processed and approved; therefore, such communication should be formal written. Instant
messaging is an informal written communication, so it cannot be considered for the purpose of a
change request. Formal or informal verbal communication and informal written communication are
inappropriate in this situation.
11. A. In order to have a better control on the time and material contract, a maximum amount and time
limit should be put in the contract. If that was the case, there would not have been such an overrun,
assuming the limits were below 18 months and $250,000.
12. B. Solutions are only worked out when the bidding process is complete. The bidder, or vendor,
conference is held to ensure that all bidders have the same, common understanding of the project's
details and requirements.
13. B. The next appropriate action that the procurement department should take is to create a list of
qualified sellers. This is a shortlist of all sellers who have the capability to perform the work. Inviting
only sellers with the capability to perform the work helps to reduce the amount of time to complete
the Conduct Procurements process. It is only after the select has been selected that a contract is
negotiated. The evaluation criteria are established before a list of firms is to be created based on
those criteria. Solicitation packages will be sent out after the list is available.
14. C. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is designed to use communication to foster the
appropriate stakeholder involvement. Additionally, this process is used to adjust stakeholder
engagement based on previous interactions with them, as well as implement the plans for
approaching stakeholders that the team in yet to engage.
15. B. A stakeholder is someone who is impacted by the project or can influence the project, so the
stakeholder cannot be removed from the project. The best approach is to involve the stakeholder
actively from the start of the project in an effort to ensure the stakeholder understands the objective
and plan for the project. This inclusion may reduce the amount of irrelevant change requests
submitted.
16. C. Managing stakeholder engagement may result in the development of an issue log, which is
updated as new issues are identified and current issues are resolved.
17. C. The project scope statement comprises the scope description, description of deliverables, the
acceptance criteria and project exclusions. Changes to scope, and in this case, a reduction in scope
generally impacts the scope description (reducing the scope), description of deliverables (reducing
the number of deliverables), and the project exclusions (adding previously in-scope items to this list
of exclusions). The detail that the conditions that the deliverable must meet have not been modified
informs you that the acceptance criteria wouldn’t undergo change.
18. C. Each project deliverable is decomposed into its most fundamental components with the lowest
level being the work package. The total of the work at the lowest levels of a WBS should roll up to
the higher levels so that nothing is left out and no extra work is performed. The method of
assessing if this was a completed assessment is called the 100 percent rule.
19. A. Since there has been movement / changes in the stakeholder community, it is best to identify
and prioritize stakeholders and their engagement needs to maintain optimum support for the
project. The risk outlook for the project may also have changed. It would be prudent to follow the
identification of new stakeholders with an analysis of risk as well.
20. B. Change requests can be generated by any stakeholder. Change requests are often identified and
developed by the project team in the Direct and Manage Project Work process. The change
requests are evaluated in the Perform Integrated Change Control process. Those approved flow
directly to the Direct and Manage Project Work process as inputs to be implemented.
21. B. The project manager has high levels of authority in strong matrix, project-oriented, and PMO
type structures. Functional managers have the highest authority in a functional structure; hence,
project managers are not responsible for the project's budget in a functional structure.
22. B. Changes may arise during performing any process. While the process Perform Integrated Change
Control approves, rejects, or defers change requests, it is the Direct and Manage Project Work
process that implements approved changes. Executing is a process group in the PMBOK framework.
23. D. The question states that the unit has improved over the years. This means that the team has
improved processes and delivery capabilities. Such improvements can only be made when
deficiencies in current practices are identified and improved upon (learning lessons and taking steps
to implement the learning). The lessons learned register is the document that is used to record the
information related to scenarios that caused issues on the project.
24. C. The proper approach to ensure that a quality audit is effective is to ensure that the audit is
conducted by individuals independent of the project and that the criteria by which they use to
evaluate the project is well-defined.
25. A. The cost of nonconformance is related to any money spent during or after the project to fix
failures.
26. D. Since the project manager is reviewing a large number of errors and trying to find their root
causes, he is performing the Manage Quality process, where root causes are identified not just by
looking at quality control measurements but also at the quality plan, policies, and procedures.
27. B. The cost of nonconformance will likely rise due to the fact that the use of lower quality materials
will cause higher defect rates. The cost to fix customer complaints and defects is considered a cost
of nonconformance.
28. D. The focus of the project manager should be on helping to develop a productive decision
that resolves the issue for both parties. Facilitating the discussion shows respect for the team
members different opinions and helps to guide the two to finding a solution.
29. C. Resource calendars document the time periods that each project team member is available to
work on the project.
30. A. If conflict escalates, it is the project manager's responsibility to facilitate a satisfactory resolution
to the issue. The most appropriate approach to take is to address the issue early and usually in
private. This allows the opportunity for the parties involved to work through their issues without the
interference or pressure of external factors or other team members. Additionally, the Manager
should use an approach that is both direct and collaborative approach. This helps to create the
conditions where common ground can be found and a positive work relationship can be fostered.
31. A. It is best to follow a sequential approach before escalating the matter. Discussing the issue with
the team member may bring out the reasons for these mistakes. It could even reveal a faulty
understanding on the project manager's part. The issue, if indeed is a mistake by the team member,
must be escalated only if it is of a reasonably high severity. Audits may be initiated when such issues
frequently arise and the integrity of the work delivered is in question.
32. A. There is no mention of the tool being tedious to use or the project manager being a person who
does not value the team's contributions. The collaboration tool could have limitations, but those
aren't specified in the question. Instead it has been mentioned that users can post as many
comments as they like. The only seemingly correct answer could be option A. Knowledge resides in
people's minds in two forms: tacit and explicit. And while explicit knowledge can readily be captured
and shared, tacit knowledge in the form of beliefs, insights, experience, and know-how may be
difficult to report and express.
33. B. Auditing processes is an activity performed as part of Manage Quality process.
34. D. Colocation refers to creating a shared work space to breakdown barriers that inhibit better
communication and team work.
35. B. You are currently completing the Estimate Activity Resources process in the Planning Process
Group. Once completed, the next Resource Management process to complete is the Acquire
Resources process. It is in this process that you use the approved budget to obtain the necessary
resources to complete the project by the project schedule defined.
36. A. Leadership that embody the laissez-faire style allow their team to make decisions and establish
their own goals.

/ 36 = %
Study Hack
MONITORING &
CONTROLLING
PROCESS GROUP
Questions related to the Monitoring & Controlling Process
Group account for 25% of the entire PMP exam.
In this group the project manager must identify

changes that "might" occur or have occurred and
proactively or reactively attempt to control them.
The processes in this group deal with collecting information,

inspecting, compiling, analyzing, and influencing the factors
that cause change.
Subsequently, the project manager takes control by

applying cost and schedule reserves, and following
procedures established by the various components of the
project management plan.
MONITORING AND CONTROLLING QUESTIONS
1. You are in the steering committee meeting presenting your project's latest performance report. You just
presented that the CPI is 1.1 and the SPI is 0.87. Which of the following is the next logical piece of
information you should share?
a) Current status of risks

b) Outstanding issues
c) Work completed during the reporting period
d) Forecasted project completion metrics
2. You are the project manager of a fertilizer plant extension project, and you are reviewing the schedule
developed for your project. Your goal is to determine the project end date based on schedule analysis of the
least flexible activities. Which tool are you using to perform this analysis?
a) Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

b) Three-point estimating
c) Ishikawa diagram
d) Critical path method
3. Your project is behind schedule, over-budget, and has firm contractual requirements regarding milestone
deadlines and the total project expenditure level. Failure to meet the schedule or cost requirements will
result in a significant penalty. Your sponsor has implored you that your team must meet the requirements
or that your position may be in jeopardy. You have gathered your team to evaluate all potential solutions.
Which of the following cannot be a solution to this problem?
a) Crashing the schedule

b) Fast-tracking the schedule
c) Removing an activity from the critical path
d) Performing resource leveling
4. The project team is using numerous methods to gather requirements and define the project scope. In an
effort to simplify the process, the project manager would like to utilize a standard methodology to manage
the scope. What should the project manager do next?
a) Create a scope control document

b) Create a scope management plan
c) Process all changes to scope and requirements through the Change Control process
d) Set ground rules for the team
5. In a recent stakeholder meeting it was asked if the project's performance had improved, deteriorated, or
remained constant over time. The team was not able to provide a satisfactory answer. After leaving the
meeting what action should project manager take?
a) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis

b) Conduct a variance analysis
c) Con Conduct a stakeholder analysis
d) Conduct a reserve analysis
6. The project team has completed all deliverables defined in the statement of work. Despite your strong belief
that the deliverables produce meet the unambiguous statement of work and well-defined deliverables, the
buyer expresses displeasure and states that he is unhappy with the product. How should the contract be
treated in such a case?
a) The contract should be treated as canceled

b) The contract should be treated as pending
c) The contract should be treated as complete
d) The contract should be treated as if the work was still to be done
7. Your team has calculated that your project has a TCPI value of 1.45. Given this realization, what is the most
appropriate action for you to take?
a) Analyze project expenditures to identify misallocation of costs

b) Identify the team member with the worst performance and provide coaching
c) Eliminate all future overtime
d) Analyze the future work and identify opportunities for improvement in performance
8. The project manager has been unable to resolve a dispute with a seller over compensation related to a
scope modification. The seller believes that the scope is extra work and not part of the signed contract.
What action could the project manager take next to rectify the issue?
a) If the seller does not agree, then the buyer can go to court
b) Alternative dispute resolution techniques should be used
c) The contract can be terminated
d) The contract can be changed to resolve the dispute
9. Your team has identified that a key stakeholder has an engagement level below the desired level defined in
the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix. The team is unsure of the reasons why the stakeholder
engagement plan established is not having the desired impact. Which data analysis technique would you
suggest that the team use in this situation?
a) Alternative analysis
b) Root cause analysis
c) Stakeholder analysis
d) Cost-benefit analysis
10. The project team is uncertain as to the total project scope. You have recommended that they start by
analyzing the scope statement. Which of the following information will the team not find in the scope
statement?
a) Definition of the project work packages

b) List of project deliverables
c) Definition of what is in and out of scope
d) Project acceptance criteria
11. Recent technology advances have presented an opportunity in the market that your company aims to
capitalize. As the project manager of the key product development project in this effort, you feel significant
pressure to deliver positive results. Your sponsor has stated that his primary concern is to beat all
competitors to market and reap the reward of the first-mover advantage. Your team has worked seven days
a week to finalize the scope and schedule and is projected to finish fully estimating costs within two weeks.
Your sponsor has questioned you multiple times as to why your team has not started project work. He is
now demanding that you take two resources off the cost estimating process and start executing project
activities, as the total cost of the project is not of primary importance to him. What action should you take?
a) Follow the sponsor's direction by starting the work

b) Explain to the sponsor that it is inappropriate to start project work until the cost baseline is established
c) Send a formal letter to the sponsor stating that you will resign if forced to start the project work before
cost estimation is complete
d) Put the cost estimation and baseline processes on hold and focus all efforts on work activities
12. Which of the following is not an objective of the Control Cost process?
a) Establishing the cost baseline by including estimates

b) Monitoring the completion of work and the money spent
c) Understanding cost variances from the baseline cost
d) Informing relevant stakeholders of all costs including change-related cost
13. Your project has identified resource allocation issues that require corrective actions. A subject matter expert
on your team recommends that prompt action must be taken or there will be an 80% risk that the project
will miss a key schedule milestone. What is the appropriate action to take?
a) Direct all resources to implement the corrective action

b) Create a change request and submit it to the Integrated Control process
c) Contact the project sponsor and gain approval to make the changes
d) Disregard the warning and take no action, continue following the project plan
14. Your company is the seller on a fixed price contract. Which of the following would you keep a close watch on
and prevent changes during the project?
a) Scope
b) The contract
c) The RFP
d) Stakeholder register
15. Your team is using the critical path methodology to help optimize the schedule efficiency of the required
activities. Which of the following options defines a limitation of the critical path method that must be
considered?
a) It is used only for cost estimation purposes

b) It does not consider activity sequences
c) It does not consider activity duration
d) It does not consider resource availability
16. Your senior manager has just presented a status report that all of his projects have a positive cost variance
(CV). This surprises you due to the fact that you have submitted summaries to your Senior Manager over
the last three reporting periods that show that your project has a negative CV. While the cost variance
number is identical the negative sign has been omitted. This occurrence has repeated for consecutive
months. You have spoken to your Senior Manager and she has replied that "the reports don't entirely
matter, as long as the project comes in on budget at completion." Given these facts, what would be the
most appropriate action to take?
a) Do nothing regarding the reports and push your team harder to finish the project under budget
b) Offer to review all combined status reports before your senior manager presents them
c) Notify the appropriate management immediately
d) Ask your manager again to report the correct CV value
17. A project implemented several steps to improve customer satisfaction results. The team was surprised to
learn that, despite the actions taken, the results from the next customer satisfaction survey did not change.
Which of the following technique should the team utilize to analyze the survey results to find out why the
steps implemented failed to generate the expected improvement?
a) Use root cause analysis to find what is still causing customer dissatisfaction
b) Perform a quality audit to verify quality measurements
c) Draw a control chart to see how many survey results are outside limits
d) Create a Pareto chart to see what is the biggest dissatisfaction of the customer
A root cause analysis should be done to find why the customer is still dissatisfied. Verifying quality
measurements alone does not provide the reasons for continued customer dissatisfaction. Identifying how
many survey results are outside limits only tells the severity of dissatisfaction and not the reasons. A Pareto
chart can be built only once the reasons for dissatisfaction are unraveled. Root cause analysis can help with
that.
18. In the creation of the communications management plan, your team defined a requirement that monthly
updates be provided to key stakeholders that detail the expected cost to finish all of the remaining project
work. Which of the following variables should the team calculate in order to meet the reporting
requirements established?
a) BAC
b) EAC
c) ETC
WBS
ETC, or estimate to complete, is the value that projects that total amount of money that will need to be
spent in order to complete the project. The estimate to complete is calculated by utilizing the equation; ETC
= EAC - AC.
19. Which of the following statements defines the primary purpose of the Validate Scope process?
a) It ensures that the project completes on time and within budget

b) It is concerned with completion of change requests
c) It is concerned with the acceptance of completed project deliverables
d) It is concerned with meeting requirements to deliver business benefits
20. After finalizing the schedule baseline your company initiated a labor force reduction initiative which
eliminated 10% of the engineering, product development, and quality staff. Your team has informed you
that the level of engineering staff planned for in your project now exceeds the available capacity and that
there is no slack associated with the activities in question. Which of the following approach should you
follow to solve this issue?
a) Apply resource smoothing

b) Apply resources leveling
c) Conduct a monte carlo simulation to find opportunities reduce the schedule
d) Conduct buffer management
21. You are the project manager of a project to widen a 10-mile section of freeway. The approved budget is $50
million and the approved schedule is 40 weeks. After 22 weeks, your team has completed 6 miles of freeway
and $32 million has been spent. What is the estimate to complete (ETC)?
a) $20.25 million
b) $21.33 million
c) $23.33 million
d) $53.33 million
22. Your project has completed half of its deliverables and is in the middle of the executing process group. You
created a stakeholder register during the initiating process group which was then used to create a
stakeholder management strategy. During the Monitor Stakeholder process you become aware of a highly
influential stakeholder that has not been identified in the stakeholder register. What is the best course of
action?
a) Send a request to senior management asking for direction

b) Inform the stakeholder that it is too late for him to be involved in the project as the stakeholder register
was completed during project initiation
c) Ask the project sponsor if this person should be included in the stakeholder register
d) Update the stakeholder register and stakeholder management strategy with the new information
23. You are preparing to present your project's status during the monthly project review meeting. As of today,
your project has an earned value (EV) of $127,200, a planned value (PV) of $143,000, and an actual cost (AC)
of $138,000. How will you explain the project's current schedule performance?
a) Ahead of schedule
b) Exactly on schedule
c) Behind schedule
d) The schedule performance is within an acceptable range
24. A project has a cost performance index of 0.6. All activities were completed on-time, except one large and
very important work package. This work package has experienced significant delays due the fact that the
expert resource requested have been unavailable. While waiting for access to this resource, the project
manager utilized less experienced personnel to start the tasks. The experienced resources have become
available and have started working on the defined tasks. Which of the following assumptions should the
project manager use when calculating the estimate to complete for the remaining project work?
a) Use the current rate of progress

b) Create a totally new estimate
c) Use the original planned rate of progress
d) Use the current rate of progress for the design work package and the planned rate of progress for the
rest of the work
25. In projects using an agile methodology, which tools and technique visually shows the amount of work
completed and the amount that remains over-time?
a) Earned value analysis

b) Iteration burndown chart
c) Trend analysis
d) What-if scenario analysis
26. A project has a budget of $800,000 and is expected to complete in 2 years. The project is now 20 percent
complete and is operating with a CPI of 1.2. Assuming the current level of cost efficiency is maintained,
what is the project's Estimate at Completion (EAC)?
a) $666,666
b) $960,000
c) $800,000
d) $1,000,000
27. Which of the following documents are you least likely to update after implementing a change request to
alter the project scope?
a) Scope management plan

b) Cost baseline
c) Performance measurement baseline
d) Requirement management plan
28. Your management has asked you to review a troubled project and suggest actions to improve the project's
schedule performance. The project is expected to deliver an internal rate of return of 15%, is currently four
weeks behind schedule, and has performed with a CPI of 1.13. In analyzing the activities remaining, you
determine that these activities can be classified as low risk and that there are a large number of the
discretionary dependencies defined between activities. Management has also informed you that there is no
budget to obtain additional resources. What activity should you suggest the current project manager
conduct in order to improve schedule performance?
a) Move resources from non-important activities to major activities

b) Fast-track the schedule
c) Change discretionary dependencies to lags
d) Remove a few non-critical activities to reduce the schedule
29. During project execution, of a $100,000 project, the client asks for a small change that could be
accomplished with little effort. What is the appropriate response that the project manager should provide?
a) Assure the client the team will make the change right away
b) Deny the request, as it poses a risk to the project scope
c) Assess the request and advise the client to follow the change control process
d) Place the request in the project risk register
30. During the first four months of your project your team registered a CPI of .75. Realizing the need to
improve their performance, over the next three months, the team implemented multiple improvements
in the way in which they complete their work and have seen the project CPI improve to 1.1. Your project
sponsor is proud of the improvement but has questioned what the projected total project cost will be.
Which value should the team calculate to provide the sponsor a total cost estimate that considers the
improved cost efficiency?
a) BAC
b) EAC
c) ETC
d) WBS
31. A newly hired project manager has asked you to explain if the difference between inspection and audit as
they are used as tools and techniques during the Control Procurement process. What is the most
appropriate response?
a) There is no difference between inspections and audits

b) An inspection is a structured review of the work being performed, while an audit is a structured review
of the procurement process
c) An audit is a structured review of the work being performed, while an inspection is a structured review
of the procurement process
d) An inspection is focused on the quality of the work completed, while the audit is the formal checklist
used
32. Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work
to meet a specified management goal?
a) Estimate at completion
b) Cost performance
c) Schedule performance
d) To-complete performance index (TCPI)
Study #4 Hack
Cut your study

time by 15%
Use tools that ELIMINATE
the time you spend
constantly flipping through
the PMBOK to find
definitions.
The time you waste searching,

is BETTER spent STUDYING
MONITORING AND CONTROLLING ANSWERS
1. D. The cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI) show the project's
progress against the plan. The next logical piece of information should be the estimate to complete
(ETC) and estimate at completion (EAC).
2. D. Least-flexible activities in a schedule are the activities on the critical path. These are non-flexible
activities, because any change in these activities will change the end date of the schedule. Therefore,
you are using the critical path method. PDM in itself does not show flexibility of activities without
critical path information; it shows the relationship between activities. PERT analysis uses three
estimates to find the duration of each activity, and it does not show which activities are least
flexible.
3. A.Crashing the project is not an option as it requires adding resources to reduce project duration.
4. B. The creation of a scope management plan will clearly define the standards that will be followed in
establishing, managing, and controlling the scope.
5. B. Variance analysis is a technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the
baseline and actual performance.
6. C. .Since the work was completed as specified and the deliverables were provided, the work should
be considered complete. The level of customer satisfaction cannot impact the completion and
closure of a contract. It is too late to cancel or put the contract on hold, as the work is already
complete.
7. D. The TCPI value of 1.45 indicates that the performance of all future project work must significantly
improve for the project to achieve the originally defined management goal. The most appropriate
action would be for the team to analyze all future work and define methods by which they can
achieve improved performance.
8. B. The best option to resolve any dispute with the seller is to go through alternative dispute
resolution. These techniques are negotiation, mediation, arbitration, and litigation.
9. B. Root cause analysis can be used to determine the basic underlying reason that a stakeholder
engagement plan is not having the planned impact.
10. A. The scope statement defines clear boundaries for the project. In defining these, the scope
statement highlights the product characteristics (product scope), the verifiable products, results, and
capabilities to be produced (product scope); and the criteria that must be met before deliverables
are accepted (acceptance criteria). The project scope statement does not contain information
related to the work packages within the project. Work packages will be defined later when creating
the work breakdown structure in the Create WBS process.
11. A. The haste to be the first to market does not trump the need to establish a cost baseline. Cost
estimating is a critical step in the process of developing a cost baseline. The appropriate action is to
explain the necessity of completing the cost estimating and baselining activities before starting
project work.
12. B. The proper action is to create a change request and submit it through the Integrated Change
Control process.
13. A. Since the price is fixed for the initially agreed scope of work, no changes are allowed to the scope
of the project. Changes to the scope, if any, must be accompanied by changes in the schedule and
cost.
14. D. The critical path method (CPM) is used to estimate the minimum project duration and to
determine the amount of schedule flexibility that exists within the logical network paths of the
schedule model. This method considers activity sequences and durations in the process, but does
not consider resource availability.
15. C. Honesty is a mandatory standard. As practitioners in the global project management community,
we require the following of ourselves and our fellow practitioners: We do not engage in or condone
behavior that is designed to deceive others, including making misleading or false statements,
stating half-truth, providing information out of context or withholding information that if known
would render our statement as misleading or incomplete.
16. A. A root cause analysis should be done to find why the customer is still dissatisfied. Verifying
quality measurements alone does not provide the reasons for continued customer dissatisfaction.
Identifying how many survey results are outside limits only tells the severity of dissatisfaction, and
not the reasons. A Pareto chart can be built only once the reasons for dissatisfaction are unraveled.
Root cause analysis can help with that.
17. C. ETC, or estimate to complete, is the value that projects that total amount of money that will need
to be spent in order to complete the project. The estimate to complete is calculated by utilizing the
equation; ETC = EAC - AC.
18. C. Validate Scope does not ensure the project completes on time and within budget. It also does
not differentiate between change request work and other deliverables. Though it is concerned with
meeting business requirements, it is definitely not involved with realizing business benefits.
19. B. Resource leveling is a technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource
constraints with the goal of balancing the demand for resources with the available supply. While
smoothing works to reduce overallocation within available slack (float), levelling is performed
irrespective of slack availability. Resource levelling, hence, may change the project's critical path.
20. D. Calculating the Estimate to Complete (ETC) is accomplished using the equation, ETC = EAC - AC.
The Actual Cost of $32 million is given in the problem statement, however the EAC must be
calculated using the equation, EAC = BAC / CPI. The Budget at Completion is provided ($50
million), but the CPI must be calculated using the equation CPI = EV / AC. The EV is inferred from
the problem statement. EV defined the amount of work that is Actually Complete. The project states
that the team has completed 6 of the 10 miles of the freeway. Using this statement, it is determined
that EV = (6/10) * BAC = (6/10) * $50M = $30 Million. Now that the EV is calculated, all equations
can be completed to calculate the ETC.
CPI = EV / AC = $30 Million / $32 Million = 0.9375

EAC = BAC / CPI + $50 Million / 0.9375 = $53.33 Million
ETC = EAC - AC = $53.33 - $32 = $21.33 Million
This question can be solved in a very logical and easy manner by utilizing the Custom EVM template
provided in the PM Master Prep Manual. Also check out my new book, EVM Made Easy!!!
21. D. At any point during a project, once a new stakeholder has been identified, the stakeholder
register and stakeholder management strategy should be updated.
22. C. In terms of schedule performance, schedule variance (SV) is the difference between earned value
(EV) and planned value (PV). SV = EV - PV = 127,200 - 143,000 = - 15,800 (a negative value means
the project is behind schedule).
23. C. Using the current rate of progress is incorrect because the resource shortage issue which had
affected current performance is gone. A totally new estimate will be wasted effort since whatever
has been the main reason affecting performance has been fixed. The current rate of progress for
design work cannot be used, as the resource is available now. Therefore, the best choice is to use
the original planned rate of progress to calculate the estimate to complete.
24. B. The iteration burndown chart tracks the work remaining on the iteration backlog.
25. A. The equation for calculating the Estimate at Completion (EAC) is: EAC = BAC / CPI. The
question provides you the budget at completion (BAC = $700,000) and the Cost Performance Index
(CPI = 1.15). The assumption that the historical cost efficiency will be maintained cements the fact
that the question is asking you to utilize the CPI of 1.15 in the EAC = BAC / CPI equation. The
solution for the question is: EAC = $800,000 / 1.2 = $666,666.
26. D. You are least likely to update the requirements management plan, since there is no mention of
changes being made to the requirements. Updates are usually made to the performance
measurement baseline and cost baseline in response to approved changes in scope, schedule
performance, or cost estimates. Similarly, the scope management plan may be updated to reflect a
change in how the scope is managed.
27. B. Since there is no budget to obtain additional resources, the schedule cannot be crashed. The
existence of discretionary dependencies, meaning not mandatory, between activities indicates that
the schedule can be fast-tracked. To fast-track, the schedule will be modified to perform certain
activities from in-sequence to parallel.
28. C. No matter how small or large, all changes must follow the Integrated Change Control process.
29. C. Estimate at Completion is the value that forecasts the total cost of the project at its full
completion. Calculating this value utilizes the cost efficiency of the project. Given that the project
team has made improvements that have improved the cost efficiency of their work the estimate at
completion should be recalculated.
30. B. While both are structured reviews, an audit focuses the attention on evaluating the procurement
process, and the inspection focuses on the work being performed by the contractor.
31. D. The to-complete performance index is a measure of the cost performance that is required to be
achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specific management goal, expressed as
the ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget.

/ 31 = %
Study Hack
CLOSING
PROCESS GROUP
Questions related to the Executing Process Group account for
The objective of the Closing Process Group is to:
1. Successfully transfer ownership of the final

product, service or result to the customer!
The Closing Process Group brings closure to all activities

across all processes. The closing process represents the formal
completion of the project.
In completing this, the project manager must also ensure all

product documents are updated and archived, all resources
are released, and that lessons learned are obtained and
recorded.
CLOSING QUESTIONS
1. You have met weekly with a junior project manager in your organization to provide assistance as she
executes her first project. In this week's meeting the project manager excitingly informes that you that she
can close the project as the team recently completed the last feature of the software program they are
developing. Which critical project closure activity must you remind her to complete before she formally
closes the project?
a) Confirm customer acceptance of all deliverables

b) Ensure all change requests are processed
c) Update the project management plan
d) Dismiss the entire team
2. To complete the Close Project or Phase process the customer must formally confirm that the final
deliverables were transferred to his/her ownership. During which process did the customer accept that the
deliverables met the acceptance criteria?
a) Control Quality
b) Validate scope
c) Control scope
d) Direct and manager project work
3. The PMO advised you that a critical output of the Close Project process is the completion and archive of the
Lessons Learned register. Why is ensuring that the register is updated and archived important?
a) To create a means of identifying individuals that can assist in future projects

b) To identify and make easily available improvement ideas that can be used on comparable projects in the
future.
c) The project cannot be formally closed until every output is produced
d) To highlight the largest risks and opportunities that were overcome during the project
4. During the process of completing the Close Project process, you lead your team in analyzing what was
planned versus what the results were in the project. The aim of your analysis is to define methods to
improve future projects. What data analysis technique are you utilizing?
a) Document analysis
b) Regression analysis
c) Trend analysis
d) Variance analysis
5. Due to a company reorganization, the project sponsor was recently terminated and the project was
canceled. What action should the project manager take first upon being informed of this?
a) Release project resources

b) Conduct lessons learned
c) Update the project management plan
d) Update the risk register
6. While closing the phase of a project, you struggle to ensure that you have completed all of the work that
was defined for the phase. In which of the following can you find the activities, events, and dependencies of
the project work within the phase?
a) WBS
b) Activity list
c) Sequence activities
d) Network diagram
7. Which term is used to describe project deliverables after they have been inspected and approved by the
customer as having met the acceptance criteria?
a) Accepted deliverables
b) Final products or services
c) Document updates
d) Work performance information
8. During the Close Project process, your team is studying the interrelationships between project variables in
an effort to identify and document ideas that could be used to improve future the performance of future
projects. What type of data analysis is your team conducting?
a) Document analysis
b) Regression analysis
c) Trend analysis
d) Variance analysis
9. What documentation should be used to convey acceptance of the project from the project sponsor?
a) Formal acceptance documentation

b) Finalized charter
c) Completed business requirements document
d) Signed statement of work
10. Which output of the Close Project process provides a formal summary of the project performance and
includes descriptions of each phase, reasons for variances in performance, and evidence that the completion
criteria were met?
a) Project document updates

b) Final product transitions
c) OPA updates
d) Final report
11. In executing the Close Project process you have created a final project report, transferred the final product
to the ownership of the customer, and dismissed your project team. You believe that you can now formally
close the project. What activity have you forgotten to complete?
a) Obtain approval from the project sponsor

b) Formally acknowledge the success of the team
c) Close the charter document
d) Complete and archive the lessons learned register and all other project documents
Study #5 Hack
Get laser focused!
Follow a Study Plan

with a...
defined end date
results driven process
PROVEN success rate
Set a date. Follow the plan.

Get the PMP you deserve!
CLOSING ANSWERS
1. A. The customer must formally accept the receipt of the deliverables before the project can be
closed. This may include approved product specifications, delivery receipts, and work performance
documents. Partial or interim deliverables may also be included for phased or cancelled projects.
2. B. It is during the Validate Scope process that the verified deliverables produced by the Control
Quality process are validated as Accepted Deliverables.
3. B. Finalizing that lessons learned register is critical in that it helps catalogue key methods to
improve future projects. Archiving the lessons learned register ensures that the information is
readily available to future project managers.
4. D. Variance analysis is one of four data analysis techniques commonly used during the Close Project
process. As the name suggests the analysis is focused on evaluating planned versus actual results to
identify opportunities for future improvement
5. B. Regardless of if a project is completed fully or terminated before completion, lessons learned

must be captured and recorded. These lessons learned help to inform future projects.
6. D. A project schedule network diagram is a graphical representation of the logical relationships, also
referred to as dependencies, among the project schedule activities. This document will contain the
information that defines the work included in the phase.
7. A. The approval of the deliverables as meeting acceptance criteria transfers the verified deliverables
to accepted deliverables. Accepted deliverables may include approved product specifications,
delivery receipts, and work performance documents.
8. B. Regression analysis is one of the four data analysis techniques used in the close project process
that is focused on determining the interrelationship between project variables to find opportunities
for future improvement.
9. A. To complete a project, formal acceptance document confirming the sponsor's approval must be
obtained from the sponsor.
10. D. The final report is the output of the Close Project process that summarizes the detailed project
information generated into a condensed and digestible form.
11. D. To fully complete the Close Project process, you must ensure that all project documents are
updated, marked as final versions, and archived.

/ 11 = %
Study
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SCORING SHEET
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INITIATING
0 to 11 12 to 15 16 to 19
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PLANNING
0 to 19 20 to 25 26 to 31
of 31
EXECUTING
0 to 22 23 to 29 30 to 36
of 36
M/C
0 to 19 20 to 25 26 to 31
of 31
CLOSING
0 to 7 8 to 9 10 to 11
of 11
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128 GREAT PMP QUESTION PLUS 5 STUDY HACKS

PLANNING PROCESS GROUP

EXECUTING PROCESS GROUP

MONITORING & CONTROLLING PROCESS GROUP

CLOSING PROCESS GROUP

PMP SCORING SHEET

WHAT THIS BOOK WILL and WILL NOT DO FOR YOU

HOW TO GET THE MOST OUT OF THIS BOOK

From a big-picture perspective, the Initiating

1. Define the Project

The questions in the Initiating Process Group are drawn

a) Requirements, influence, and functional department

a) Complete project phase

a) Manage this stakeholder closely

a) Plan Quality Management

a) Power, urgency, and legitimacy

a) Analyze the project management plan

a) Develop project charter

a) Requirements to meet regulation

a) Develop Project Management Plan

16. Which of the following is not an example of a project?

a) Create a new company website by the end of the year

a) Identifying all potential project stakeholders

a) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Don't waste time

Learn the linkages between processes,

10. B. The process of identifying stakeholders is being performed.

Record Your Score In This Process Group!

When planning a project, the project manager

1. Where are we going?

The Planning Process Group is the home of 24 of the 49 total

The nucleus of all the outputs produced by these processes is

a) Assign individual team members to manage each requirement

a) Lessons learned from a previous project

a) Funding limit reconciliation

a) Add the details of the decision to the lessons learned register

a) Cost-plus incentive fee (CPIF)

11. Which of the following is an example of a cost of nonconformance?

a) Responsibility assignment matrix

a) Rolling wave planning

a) Confirm that all issues in the issue log are satisfied

a) Requirements traceability matrix

a) Define the scope

a) Reallocating resources from a non-critical to a critical activity

a) Lead moves a predecessor right, lag moves it left

Stop waiting until the end

Record Your Score In This Process Group!

Executing is iterative, and its results MAY lead

The Executing Process Group is the stage when deliverables

In this process group the focus is on "doing". For this

a) Forecast of when the project will be completed

a) Integrate the upgrade into the existing schedule

a) Implement risk responses

a) Individual project risk

a) Utilizing the risk management plan to identify risks

a) Verify seller reputation in the market

a) Formal written communication

a) An explanation of why particular terms and conditions are in the contract

a) Negotiate a contract with an experienced firm