VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Computer Science and Engineering /
Information Science and Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

2. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

3. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is

a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

4. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

5. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

6. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

7. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

8. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

9. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

10. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

11. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

12. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
VER-A : CS/IS 1 of 10
13. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement
a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

14. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

15. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

16. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

17. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

18. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

19. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

20. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

21. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

22. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

23. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

24. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

25. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

26. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

VER-A : CS/IS 2 of 10
27. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?
a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

28. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

29. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

30. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

31. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

32. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

33. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

34. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

35. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

36. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

37. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

38. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable)?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

VER-A : CS/IS 3 of 10
39. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

40. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

41. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

42. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

43. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

44. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

45. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

46. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

47. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

48. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

49. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

50. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

VER-A : CS/IS 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Computer Science and Engineering /
Information Science and Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. If AB = A then AB is equal to?
a) A b)  c) A d) B

52. Which of the following statements is a proposition?

a) Next month l will pass ETR examination b) Oh, It is awesome
c) The sum of x + 5 is 7 d) 15  321 = 54321

53. The range of the relation R  {( x, x 2 ) x is a prime number less than 13} is
a) 4, 9, 25, 49, 121 b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
c) 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 d) 1, 4, 9, 25, 49, 121

54. In how many ways can 3 or more persons can be selected from 12 persons?
a) 2200 b) 220  12 c) 12  3 d) 4017

55. Let G be a simple graph of order . If the size of G is 56 and size of G is 80 then what is ?
a) 34 b) 17 c) 50-(80/2) = 10 d) 80 – 56 = 24

56. _____ is the process that groups data and procedures into an entity called objects.
a) Object development methodology b) Linear programming
c) Structured programming d) Object oriented system development

57. In the _____ phase the design model is built based on the analysis model.
a) System Design b) Application c) Object design d) Analysis

58. ______ deals with the static process view of a system, from the perspective of a real or
prototype case.
a) Component diagram b) Object diagram
c) Deployment diagram d) State diagram

59. ______ denotes the aspirations of the users and the responsibility of the system to its users.
a) UML b) OOA c) Use-cases d) Association

60. The output of object analysis is a description of the ______ and the user requirements.
a) Problem b) Solution c) Quality assurance d) Use cases

61. If a transmission has packet delays 10ms, 12ms and 9ms in a communication, then what this
indicates in data transmission?
a) Delay b) Throughput c) Jitter d) Efficiency

62. A noisy channel has transmission speed of 2kbps and a bandwidth of 4kHz. What is the
channel Signal to Noise Ration (SNR)
a) 1 2 b) 2  1 c) 1 2 d) None of these

VER-A : CS/IS 5 of 10
63. A network with CSMA/CD has a bandwidth of 10Mbps. If the maximum propagation time is
40sec. What is the maximum frame size?
a) 10 bytes b) 101 bytes c) 100 bytes d) 1 byte

64. Identify the class of IP-address 193.131.80.255.

a) Class C b) Class D c) Class A d) Class E

65. An attacker has captured the login credentials of a Banker by posting fake web page, similar to
the Bank web page. This type of attack is known as:
a) Denial of Service (DoS) b) Packet Mistreat
c) Routing Table Poisoning d) Masquerading

66. A page requested by CPU is not available in the main memory is called.
a) Page hit b) Page fault c) Paging d) TLB

67. The content of base and limit registers are updated in.
a) User mode b) Kernel mode c) Unprivileged mode d) Dual mode

68. High level synchronization construct to solve critical section problem is called.
a) Paging b) Swapping c) Monitors d) Testandset

69. Cooperative concurrent reader and writer processes writing to the standard output file leads to.
a) Race condition b) Output varies on the order of execution of processes
c) Output is unpredictable d) All of these

70. Consider the virtual page reference string 1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 1, 3, 2, 4, 1 on a demand paged virtual
memory system running on a computer system that has main memory size of 3 page frames
which are initially empty. Let LRU, FIFO and OPTIMAL denote the number of page faults
under the corresponding page replacement policy. Then,
a) OPTIMAL < LRU < FIFO b) OPTIMAL < FIFO < LRU
c) OPTIML = LRU = FIFO d) OPTIMAL = FIFO

71. What is the minimum time required to compute power (x, n) is xn in the options given below?
a) O(logn) b) O(n) c) O(log logn) d) O(nlogn)

72. n strings each of length n are given. What is time taken to sort the strings in lexicographic
order using 2 way merging?
a) O(n logn) b) O(n2 logn) c) O(n log logn) d) O(n log2n)

73. Number of spanning tree for complete graph with six nodes is
a) 1296 b) 1398 c) 1354 d) 1366

74. Number of ways of parenthesizing 6 matrices is

a) 36 b) 42 c) 64 d) 78

VER-A : CS/IS 6 of 10
75. For a job assignment problem
J1 J2 J3 J4
10 2 7 8 P1
6 4 3 7 P2
5 8 1 8 P3
7 6 10 4 P4
Total cost of optimal (least cost) assignment is
a) 10 b) 18 c) 13 d) 14

76. In software engineering the most popular term COTS stands for
a) Citation On The System b) Commercials On The System
c) Commercial Off The Shelf System d) Central Operating Trading System

77. Form based requirement specification in software engineering is classified under

a) New Language Specification b) Structured Natural Language
c) Graphical Notations d) Mathematical Specifications

78. Sequence diagrams used in software development are classified under

a) Static model b) Dynamic model
c) Probabilistic model d) Stochastic model

79. In the following software testing method individual program units or object classes are tested
a) Unit testing b) Component testing c) System testing d) All of these

80. Software pricing depends upon

a) Travel cost b) Hardware and software cost
c) Training cost d) All of these

81. What is the post order traversal of following binary tree?

a) A B D C G E H I F b) D B G E H I F C A
c) D B G E F H I C A d) A B C D E F G H I

82. Insertion of an element at the middle of a singly linked list requires the modifications of how
many pointers?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4

83. Which type of traversal of binary search tree outputs the value in sorted order?
a) Pre order b) In order c) Post order d) None

84. The searching operation in an array is done using.

a) Key and Index b) Only key c) Only Index d) None of these

VER-A : CS/IS 7 of 10
85. A binary search tree is generated by inserting in order the following integers (left to right).
50, 15, 62, 5, 20, 58, 91, 3, 8, 37, 60, 24. The number of nodes in the left subtree and right
subtree of the root respectively is.
a) (4, 7) b) (8, 3) c) (7, 4) d) (3, 8)

86. Consider the following processor design characteristics:

I. Register – to – Register arithmetic operation only.
II. Fixed-length instruction format.
III. Hardwired control unit.
Which of the characteristics above are used in the design of a RISC processor?
a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) I, II and III

87. A processor has 40 distinct instruction and 24 general purpose registers. A 32-bit instruction
word has an opcode, two register operands and an immediate operand. The number of bits
available for the immediate operand field is _____
a) 16 bits b) 17-bits c) 18-bits d) 19-bits

88. Consider the following code sequence having five instructions 11 to 15, each of these
instruction has the following format:
OP Ri, Rj, Rk
Where operation OP is performed on contents of register Rj and Rk and the result is stored in
register Ri.
I1 : ADD R1, R2, R3
I2 : MUL R7, R1, R3
I3 : SUB R4, R1, R5
I4 : ADD R3, R2, R4
I5 : MUL R7, R8, R9
Consider the following three statements:
S1 : There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2 and I5
S2 : There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2 and I4
S3 : Within an instruction pipeline an anti-dependence always creates one or more stalls.
Which one of above statements is/are correct?
a) Only S1 is true b) Only S2 is true
c) Only S1 and S3 are true d) Only S2 and S3 are true

89. Consider the following sequence of Micro-Operations

MBR  PC
MAR  X
PC  Y
Memory  MBR
Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence?
a) Instruction fetch b) Operand fetch
c) Conditional fetch d) Initiation of interrupt service

90. Register renaming is done in pipelined processor

a) as an alternative to register allocation at compile time
b) for efficient access to function parameter and local variable
c) to handle certain kinds of hazards
d) as part of address translation
VER-A : CS/IS 8 of 10
91. The relational operator <OP> described below represents the following:
R = P <OP> Q
R  t t  p  t   and
O R  P
a) The difference ‘___’ operator b) The projection ‘’ operator
c) The division ‘’ operator d) None of the above

92. Consider the schema as below,

The query
EMPLOYEE  (ASSIGNED – TO  project# (X))
X = (project# = ‘P1’  project# = ‘P2’) (ASSIGNED-TO) will results in to:
a) Gathering details at all employees.
b) Gathering details at all employees working on project ‘P1’ or project ‘P2’.
c) Gathering details at all employees working on both project ‘P1’ and ‘P2’.
d) None of these.

93. Consider the following schema employees:

Emp# Name DOB Sex
The SQL provision to ensure the attribute ‘sex’ takes the values either ‘M’ or ‘F’ is
a) ensure (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’)) b) insist (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’))
c) check (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’)) d) Need to write stored procedure.

94. Stored procedures are used to:

a) enforce business rules and improve performance
b) to make code easier to maintain.
c) code will be stored once for use by multiple applications
d) All of these

95. To set transaction in read only access mode is through:

a) Setting isolation level in read uncommitted
b) Setting isolation level in read committed
c) Setting isolation level in serializable
d) Setting isolation level in repeatable read mode.

96. Customers arrive at a reception counter at an average interval of 10 minutes and the
receptionist takes an average of 6 minutes for one customer. Determine the average queue
length.
a) 9/10 b) 7/10 c) 11/10 d) 3/10

97. Which of the following statements are not true of simulation?

a) Simulation model cannot prescribe what should be done about a problem.
b) Simulation models can be used to study alternative solutions to a problem.
c) Simulation models the behavior of a system.
d) The equations describing the operating characteristics of the system are known.

VER-A : CS/IS 9 of 10
98. Simulation models can be used to obtain operating characteristics in less time than with real
system using a feature of simulation called.
a) Microseconds b) Warp seed
c) Time compression d) None of the above

99. A multiple-choice test has 20 questions. There are four choices for each question. A student
who has not studied for the test decides to answer all the questions randomly by guessing the
answer for each question. Which of the following probability distributions can be used to
calculate the students chance of getting at least 20 questions right?
a) Binomial Distribution b) Poisson Distribution
c) Exponential Distribution d) Normal Distribution

100. Which of the following are techniques to perform verification of simulation model?
a) By using programming skills to write and debug the program in sub-programs.
b) By tracing the intermediate results and comparing them with observed outcomes.
c) By checking the simulation model output using various input combinations.
d) All of these.

VER-A : CS/IS 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Computer Science and Engineering /
Information Science and Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

2. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

3. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

4. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

5. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

6. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

7. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

8. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

9. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

10. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

11. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

VER-B : CS/IS 1 of 10
12. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to
a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

13. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

14. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

15. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

16. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

17. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

18. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

19. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

20. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

21. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

22. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

23. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

24. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
VER-B : CS/IS 2 of 10
25. Which data is cheaper to collect?
a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

26. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

27. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

28. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

29. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

30. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

31. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

32. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

33. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

34. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

35. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

36. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

37. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

VER-B : CS/IS 3 of 10
38. Narrative literature review method is also known as
a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

39. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

40. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

41. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

42. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

43. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

44. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

45. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

46. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

47. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

48. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

49. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

50. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

VER-B : CS/IS 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Computer Science and Engineering /
Information Science and Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. The relational operator <OP> described below represents the following:
R = P <OP> Q
R  t t  p  t   and
O R  P
a) The difference ‘___’ operator b) The projection ‘’ operator
c) The division ‘’ operator d) None of the above

52. Consider the schema as below,

The query
EMPLOYEE  (ASSIGNED – TO  project# (X))
X = (project# = ‘P1’  project# = ‘P2’) (ASSIGNED-TO) will results in to:
a) Gathering details at all employees.
b) Gathering details at all employees working on project ‘P1’ or project ‘P2’.
c) Gathering details at all employees working on both project ‘P1’ and ‘P2’.
d) None of these.

53. Consider the following schema employees:

Emp# Name DOB Sex
The SQL provision to ensure the attribute ‘sex’ takes the values either ‘M’ or ‘F’ is
a) ensure (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’)) b) insist (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’))
c) check (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’)) d) Need to write stored procedure.

54. Stored procedures are used to:

a) enforce business rules and improve performance
b) to make code easier to maintain.
c) code will be stored once for use by multiple applications
d) All of these

55. To set transaction in read only access mode is through:

a) Setting isolation level in read uncommitted
b) Setting isolation level in read committed
c) Setting isolation level in serializable
d) Setting isolation level in repeatable read mode.

VER-B : CS/IS 5 of 10
56. Customers arrive at a reception counter at an average interval of 10 minutes and the
receptionist takes an average of 6 minutes for one customer. Determine the average queue
length.
a) 9/10 b) 7/10 c) 11/10 d) 3/10

57. Which of the following statements are not true of simulation?

a) Simulation model cannot prescribe what should be done about a problem.
b) Simulation models can be used to study alternative solutions to a problem.
c) Simulation models the behavior of a system.
d) The equations describing the operating characteristics of the system are known.

58. Simulation models can be used to obtain operating characteristics in less time than with real
system using a feature of simulation called.
a) Microseconds b) Warp seed
c) Time compression d) None of the above

59. A multiple-choice test has 20 questions. There are four choices for each question. A student
who has not studied for the test decides to answer all the questions randomly by guessing the
answer for each question. Which of the following probability distributions can be used to
calculate the students chance of getting at least 20 questions right?
a) Binomial Distribution b) Poisson Distribution
c) Exponential Distribution d) Normal Distribution

60. Which of the following are techniques to perform verification of simulation model?
a) By using programming skills to write and debug the program in sub-programs.
b) By tracing the intermediate results and comparing them with observed outcomes.
c) By checking the simulation model output using various input combinations.
d) All of these.

61. What is the post order traversal of following binary tree?

a) A B D C G E H I F b) D B G E H I F C A
c) D B G E F H I C A d) A B C D E F G H I

62. Insertion of an element at the middle of a singly linked list requires the modifications of how
many pointers?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4

63. Which type of traversal of binary search tree outputs the value in sorted order?
a) Pre order b) In order c) Post order d) None

64. The searching operation in an array is done using.

a) Key and Index b) Only key c) Only Index d) None of these

VER-B : CS/IS 6 of 10
65. A binary search tree is generated by inserting in order the following integers (left to right).
50, 15, 62, 5, 20, 58, 91, 3, 8, 37, 60, 24. The number of nodes in the left subtree and right
subtree of the root respectively is.
a) (4, 7) b) (8, 3) c) (7, 4) d) (3, 8)

66. Consider the following processor design characteristics:

I. Register – to – Register arithmetic operation only.
II. Fixed-length instruction format.
III. Hardwired control unit.
Which of the characteristics above are used in the design of a RISC processor?
a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) I, II and III

67. A processor has 40 distinct instruction and 24 general purpose registers. A 32-bit instruction
word has an opcode, two register operands and an immediate operand. The number of bits
available for the immediate operand field is _____
a) 16 bits b) 17-bits c) 18-bits d) 19-bits

68. Consider the following code sequence having five instructions 11 to 15, each of these
instruction has the following format:
OP Ri, Rj, Rk
Where operation OP is performed on contents of register Rj and Rk and the result is stored in
register Ri.
I1 : ADD R1, R2, R3
I2 : MUL R7, R1, R3
I3 : SUB R4, R1, R5
I4 : ADD R3, R2, R4
I5 : MUL R7, R8, R9
Consider the following three statements:
S1 : There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2 and I5
S2 : There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2 and I4
S3 : Within an instruction pipeline an anti-dependence always creates one or more stalls.
Which one of above statements is/are correct?
a) Only S1 is true b) Only S2 is true
c) Only S1 and S3 are true d) Only S2 and S3 are true

69. Consider the following sequence of Micro-Operations

MBR  PC
MAR  X
PC  Y
Memory  MBR
Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence?
a) Instruction fetch b) Operand fetch
c) Conditional fetch d) Initiation of interrupt service

70. Register renaming is done in pipelined processor

a) as an alternative to register allocation at compile time
b) for efficient access to function parameter and local variable
c) to handle certain kinds of hazards
d) as part of address translation

VER-B : CS/IS 7 of 10
71. If a transmission has packet delays 10ms, 12ms and 9ms in a communication, then what this
indicates in data transmission?
a) Delay b) Throughput c) Jitter d) Efficiency

72. A noisy channel has transmission speed of 2kbps and a bandwidth of 4kHz. What is the
channel Signal to Noise Ration (SNR)
a) 1 2 b) 2  1 c) 1 2 d) None of these

73. A network with CSMA/CD has a bandwidth of 10Mbps. If the maximum propagation time is
40sec. What is the maximum frame size?
a) 10 bytes b) 101 bytes c) 100 bytes d) 1 byte

74. Identify the class of IP-address 193.131.80.255.

a) Class C b) Class D c) Class A d) Class E

75. An attacker has captured the login credentials of a Banker by posting fake web page, similar to
the Bank web page. This type of attack is known as:
a) Denial of Service (DoS) b) Packet Mistreat
c) Routing Table Poisoning d) Masquerading

76. A page requested by CPU is not available in the main memory is called.
a) Page hit b) Page fault c) Paging d) TLB

77. The content of base and limit registers are updated in.
a) User mode b) Kernel mode c) Unprivileged mode d) Dual mode

78. High level synchronization construct to solve critical section problem is called.
a) Paging b) Swapping c) Monitors d) Testandset

79. Cooperative concurrent reader and writer processes writing to the standard output file leads to.
a) Race condition b) Output varies on the order of execution of processes
c) Output is unpredictable d) All of these

80. Consider the virtual page reference string 1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 1, 3, 2, 4, 1 on a demand paged virtual
memory system running on a computer system that has main memory size of 3 page frames
which are initially empty. Let LRU, FIFO and OPTIMAL denote the number of page faults
under the corresponding page replacement policy. Then,
a) OPTIMAL < LRU < FIFO b) OPTIMAL < FIFO < LRU
c) OPTIML = LRU = FIFO d) OPTIMAL = FIFO

81. If AB = A then AB is equal to?

a) A b)  c) A d) B

82. Which of the following statements is a proposition?

a) Next month l will pass ETR examination b) Oh, It is awesome
c) The sum of x + 5 is 7 d) 15  321 = 54321

VER-B : CS/IS 8 of 10
83. The range of the relation R  {( x, x 2 ) x is a prime number less than 13} is
a) 4, 9, 25, 49, 121 b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
c) 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 d) 1, 4, 9, 25, 49, 121

84. In how many ways can 3 or more persons can be selected from 12 persons?
a) 2200 b) 220  12 c) 12  3 d) 4017

85. Let G be a simple graph of order . If the size of G is 56 and size of G is 80 then what is ?
a) 34 b) 17 c) 50-(80/2) = 10 d) 80 – 56 = 24

86. _____ is the process that groups data and procedures into an entity called objects.
a) Object development methodology b) Linear programming
c) Structured programming d) Object oriented system development

87. In the _____ phase the design model is built based on the analysis model.
a) System Design b) Application c) Object design d) Analysis

88. ______ deals with the static process view of a system, from the perspective of a real or
prototype case.
a) Component diagram b) Object diagram
c) Deployment diagram d) State diagram

89. ______ denotes the aspirations of the users and the responsibility of the system to its users.
a) UML b) OOA c) Use-cases d) Association

90. The output of object analysis is a description of the ______ and the user requirements.
a) Problem b) Solution c) Quality assurance d) Use cases

91. What is the minimum time required to compute power (x, n) is xn in the options given below?
a) O(logn) b) O(n) c) O(log logn) d) O(nlogn)

92. n strings each of length n are given. What is time taken to sort the strings in lexicographic
order using 2 way merging?
a) O(n logn) b) O(n2 logn) c) O(n log logn) d) O(n log2n)

93. Number of spanning tree for complete graph with six nodes is
a) 1296 b) 1398 c) 1354 d) 1366

94. Number of ways of parenthesizing 6 matrices is

a) 36 b) 42 c) 64 d) 78

95. For a job assignment problem

J1 J2 J3 J4
10 2 7 8 P1
6 4 3 7 P2
5 8 1 8 P3
7 6 10 4 P4
Total cost of optimal (least cost) assignment is
a) 10 b) 18 c) 13 d) 14

VER-B : CS/IS 9 of 10
96. In software engineering the most popular term COTS stands for
a) Citation On The System b) Commercials On The System
c) Commercial Off The Shelf System d) Central Operating Trading System

97. Form based requirement specification in software engineering is classified under

a) New Language Specification b) Structured Natural Language
c) Graphical Notations d) Mathematical Specifications

98. Sequence diagrams used in software development are classified under

a) Static model b) Dynamic model
c) Probabilistic model d) Stochastic model

99. In the following software testing method individual program units or object classes are tested
a) Unit testing b) Component testing c) System testing d) All of these

100. Software pricing depends upon

a) Travel cost b) Hardware and software cost
c) Training cost d) All of these

VER-B : CS/IS 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Computer Science and Engineering /
Information Science and Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?
a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

2. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

3. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

4. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

5. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

6. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

7. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

8. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

9. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

10. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

11. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

VER-C : CS/IS 1 of 10
12. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

13. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

14. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

15. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

16. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

17. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

18. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

19. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

20. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

21. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

22. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

23. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

24. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
VER-C : CS/IS 2 of 10
25. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

26. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

27. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

28. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

29. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

30. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

31. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

32. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

33. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

34. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

35. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

36. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

37. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

VER-C : CS/IS 3 of 10
38. The most repeated value in the series is called as
a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

39. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

40. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

41. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

42. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

43. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

44. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

45. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

46. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

47. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

48. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

49. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

50. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

VER-C : CS/IS 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Computer Science and Engineering /
Information Science and Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. What is the minimum time required to compute power (x, n) is xn in the options given below?
a) O(logn) b) O(n) c) O(log logn) d) O(nlogn)

52. n strings each of length n are given. What is time taken to sort the strings in lexicographic
order using 2 way merging?
a) O(n logn) b) O(n2 logn) c) O(n log logn) d) O(n log2n)

53. Number of spanning tree for complete graph with six nodes is
a) 1296 b) 1398 c) 1354 d) 1366

54. Number of ways of parenthesizing 6 matrices is

a) 36 b) 42 c) 64 d) 78

55. For a job assignment problem

J1 J2 J3 J4
10 2 7 8 P1
6 4 3 7 P2
5 8 1 8 P3
7 6 10 4 P4
Total cost of optimal (least cost) assignment is
a) 10 b) 18 c) 13 d) 14

56. In software engineering the most popular term COTS stands for
a) Citation On The System b) Commercials On The System
c) Commercial Off The Shelf System d) Central Operating Trading System

57. Form based requirement specification in software engineering is classified under

a) New Language Specification b) Structured Natural Language
c) Graphical Notations d) Mathematical Specifications

58. Sequence diagrams used in software development are classified under

a) Static model b) Dynamic model
c) Probabilistic model d) Stochastic model

59. In the following software testing method individual program units or object classes are tested
a) Unit testing b) Component testing c) System testing d) All of these

60. Software pricing depends upon

a) Travel cost b) Hardware and software cost
c) Training cost d) All of these

VER-C : CS/IS 5 of 10
61. The relational operator <OP> described below represents the following:
R = P <OP> Q
R  t t  p  t   and
O R  P
a) The difference ‘___’ operator b) The projection ‘’ operator
c) The division ‘’ operator d) None of the above

62. Consider the schema as below,

The query
EMPLOYEE  (ASSIGNED – TO  project# (X))
X = (project# = ‘P1’  project# = ‘P2’) (ASSIGNED-TO) will results in to:
a) Gathering details at all employees.
b) Gathering details at all employees working on project ‘P1’ or project ‘P2’.
c) Gathering details at all employees working on both project ‘P1’ and ‘P2’.
d) None of these.

63. Consider the following schema employees:

Emp# Name DOB Sex
The SQL provision to ensure the attribute ‘sex’ takes the values either ‘M’ or ‘F’ is
a) ensure (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’)) b) insist (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’))
c) check (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’)) d) Need to write stored procedure.

64. Stored procedures are used to:

a) enforce business rules and improve performance
b) to make code easier to maintain.
c) code will be stored once for use by multiple applications
d) All of these

65. To set transaction in read only access mode is through:

a) Setting isolation level in read uncommitted
b) Setting isolation level in read committed
c) Setting isolation level in serializable
d) Setting isolation level in repeatable read mode.

66. Customers arrive at a reception counter at an average interval of 10 minutes and the
receptionist takes an average of 6 minutes for one customer. Determine the average queue
length.
a) 9/10 b) 7/10 c) 11/10 d) 3/10

VER-C : CS/IS 6 of 10
67. Which of the following statements are not true of simulation?
a) Simulation model cannot prescribe what should be done about a problem.
b) Simulation models can be used to study alternative solutions to a problem.
c) Simulation models the behavior of a system.
d) The equations describing the operating characteristics of the system are known.

68. Simulation models can be used to obtain operating characteristics in less time than with real
system using a feature of simulation called.
a) Microseconds b) Warp seed
c) Time compression d) None of the above

69. A multiple-choice test has 20 questions. There are four choices for each question. A student
who has not studied for the test decides to answer all the questions randomly by guessing the
answer for each question. Which of the following probability distributions can be used to
calculate the students chance of getting at least 20 questions right?
a) Binomial Distribution b) Poisson Distribution
c) Exponential Distribution d) Normal Distribution

70. Which of the following are techniques to perform verification of simulation model?
a) By using programming skills to write and debug the program in sub-programs.
b) By tracing the intermediate results and comparing them with observed outcomes.
c) By checking the simulation model output using various input combinations.
d) All of these.

71. What is the post order traversal of following binary tree?

a) A B D C G E H I F b) D B G E H I F C A
c) D B G E F H I C A d) A B C D E F G H I

72. Insertion of an element at the middle of a singly linked list requires the modifications of how
many pointers?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4

73. Which type of traversal of binary search tree outputs the value in sorted order?
a) Pre order b) In order c) Post order d) None

74. The searching operation in an array is done using.

a) Key and Index b) Only key c) Only Index d) None of these

75. A binary search tree is generated by inserting in order the following integers (left to right).
50, 15, 62, 5, 20, 58, 91, 3, 8, 37, 60, 24. The number of nodes in the left subtree and right
subtree of the root respectively is.
a) (4, 7) b) (8, 3) c) (7, 4) d) (3, 8)

VER-C : CS/IS 7 of 10
76. Consider the following processor design characteristics:
I. Register – to – Register arithmetic operation only.
II. Fixed-length instruction format.
III. Hardwired control unit.
Which of the characteristics above are used in the design of a RISC processor?
a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) I, II and III

77. A processor has 40 distinct instruction and 24 general purpose registers. A 32-bit instruction
word has an opcode, two register operands and an immediate operand. The number of bits
available for the immediate operand field is _____
a) 16 bits b) 17-bits c) 18-bits d) 19-bits

78. Consider the following code sequence having five instructions 11 to 15, each of these
instruction has the following format:
OP Ri, Rj, Rk
Where operation OP is performed on contents of register Rj and Rk and the result is stored in
register Ri.
I1 : ADD R1, R2, R3
I2 : MUL R7, R1, R3
I3 : SUB R4, R1, R5
I4 : ADD R3, R2, R4
I5 : MUL R7, R8, R9
Consider the following three statements:
S1 : There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2 and I5
S2 : There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2 and I4
S3 : Within an instruction pipeline an anti-dependence always creates one or more stalls.
Which one of above statements is/are correct?
a) Only S1 is true b) Only S2 is true
c) Only S1 and S3 are true d) Only S2 and S3 are true

79. Consider the following sequence of Micro-Operations

MBR  PC
MAR  X
PC  Y
Memory  MBR
Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence?
a) Instruction fetch b) Operand fetch
c) Conditional fetch d) Initiation of interrupt service

80. Register renaming is done in pipelined processor

a) as an alternative to register allocation at compile time
b) for efficient access to function parameter and local variable
c) to handle certain kinds of hazards
d) as part of address translation

81. If a transmission has packet delays 10ms, 12ms and 9ms in a communication, then what this
indicates in data transmission?
a) Delay b) Throughput c) Jitter d) Efficiency

VER-C : CS/IS 8 of 10
82. A noisy channel has transmission speed of 2kbps and a bandwidth of 4kHz. What is the
channel Signal to Noise Ration (SNR)
a) 1 2 b) 2  1 c) 1 2 d) None of these

83. A network with CSMA/CD has a bandwidth of 10Mbps. If the maximum propagation time is
40sec. What is the maximum frame size?
a) 10 bytes b) 101 bytes c) 100 bytes d) 1 byte

84. Identify the class of IP-address 193.131.80.255.

a) Class C b) Class D c) Class A d) Class E

85. An attacker has captured the login credentials of a Banker by posting fake web page, similar to
the Bank web page. This type of attack is known as:
a) Denial of Service (DoS) b) Packet Mistreat
c) Routing Table Poisoning d) Masquerading

86. A page requested by CPU is not available in the main memory is called.
a) Page hit b) Page fault c) Paging d) TLB

87. The content of base and limit registers are updated in.
a) User mode b) Kernel mode c) Unprivileged mode d) Dual mode

88. High level synchronization construct to solve critical section problem is called.
a) Paging b) Swapping c) Monitors d) Testandset

89. Cooperative concurrent reader and writer processes writing to the standard output file leads to.
a) Race condition b) Output varies on the order of execution of processes
c) Output is unpredictable d) All of these

90. Consider the virtual page reference string 1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 1, 3, 2, 4, 1 on a demand paged virtual
memory system running on a computer system that has main memory size of 3 page frames
which are initially empty. Let LRU, FIFO and OPTIMAL denote the number of page faults
under the corresponding page replacement policy. Then,
a) OPTIMAL < LRU < FIFO b) OPTIMAL < FIFO < LRU
c) OPTIML = LRU = FIFO d) OPTIMAL = FIFO

91. If AB = A then AB is equal to?

a) A b)  c) A d) B

92. Which of the following statements is a proposition?

a) Next month l will pass ETR examination b) Oh, It is awesome
c) The sum of x + 5 is 7 d) 15  321 = 54321

93. The range of the relation R  {( x, x 2 ) x is a prime number less than 13} is
a) 4, 9, 25, 49, 121 b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
c) 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 d) 1, 4, 9, 25, 49, 121

94. In how many ways can 3 or more persons can be selected from 12 persons?
a) 2200 b) 220  12 c) 12  3 d) 4017

VER-C : CS/IS 9 of 10
95. Let G be a simple graph of order . If the size of G is 56 and size of G is 80 then what is ?
a) 34 b) 17 c) 50-(80/2) = 10 d) 80 – 56 = 24

96. _____ is the process that groups data and procedures into an entity called objects.
a) Object development methodology b) Linear programming
c) Structured programming d) Object oriented system development

97. In the _____ phase the design model is built based on the analysis model.
a) System Design b) Application c) Object design d) Analysis

98. ______ deals with the static process view of a system, from the perspective of a real or
prototype case.
a) Component diagram b) Object diagram
c) Deployment diagram d) State diagram

99. ______ denotes the aspirations of the users and the responsibility of the system to its users.
a) UML b) OOA c) Use-cases d) Association

100. The output of object analysis is a description of the ______ and the user requirements.
a) Problem b) Solution c) Quality assurance d) Use cases

VER-C : CS/IS 10 of 10
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Computer Science and Engineering /
Information Science and Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA
a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

2. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

3. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

4. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

5. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

6. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

7. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

8. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

9. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

10. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

11. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey
VER-D : CS/IS 1 of 10
12. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of
a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

13. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

14. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

15. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

16. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

17. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

18. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

19. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

20. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

21. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

22. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

23. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

24. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
VER-D : CS/IS 2 of 10
25. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

26. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

27. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

28. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

29. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

30. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

31. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

32. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

33. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

34. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

35. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

36. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

37. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

38. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test
VER-D : CS/IS 3 of 10
39. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she
a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

40. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

41. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

42. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

43. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

44. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

45. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

46. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

47. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

48. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

49. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

50. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

VER-D : CS/IS 4 of 10
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Computer Science and Engineering /
Information Science and Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. What is the post order traversal of following binary tree?

a) A B D C G E H I F b) D B G E H I F C A
c) D B G E F H I C A d) A B C D E F G H I

52. Insertion of an element at the middle of a singly linked list requires the modifications of how
many pointers?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4

53. Which type of traversal of binary search tree outputs the value in sorted order?
a) Pre order b) In order c) Post order d) None

54. The searching operation in an array is done using.

a) Key and Index b) Only key c) Only Index d) None of these

55. A binary search tree is generated by inserting in order the following integers (left to right).
50, 15, 62, 5, 20, 58, 91, 3, 8, 37, 60, 24. The number of nodes in the left subtree and right
subtree of the root respectively is.
a) (4, 7) b) (8, 3) c) (7, 4) d) (3, 8)

56. Consider the following processor design characteristics:

I. Register – to – Register arithmetic operation only.
II. Fixed-length instruction format.
III. Hardwired control unit.
Which of the characteristics above are used in the design of a RISC processor?
a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) I, II and III

57. A processor has 40 distinct instruction and 24 general purpose registers. A 32-bit instruction
word has an opcode, two register operands and an immediate operand. The number of bits
available for the immediate operand field is _____
a) 16 bits b) 17-bits c) 18-bits d) 19-bits

VER-D : CS/IS 5 of 10
58. Consider the following code sequence having five instructions 11 to 15, each of these
instruction has the following format:
OP Ri, Rj, Rk
Where operation OP is performed on contents of register Rj and Rk and the result is stored in
register Ri.
I1 : ADD R1, R2, R3
I2 : MUL R7, R1, R3
I3 : SUB R4, R1, R5
I4 : ADD R3, R2, R4
I5 : MUL R7, R8, R9
Consider the following three statements:
S1 : There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2 and I5
S2 : There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2 and I4
S3 : Within an instruction pipeline an anti-dependence always creates one or more stalls.
Which one of above statements is/are correct?
a) Only S1 is true b) Only S2 is true
c) Only S1 and S3 are true d) Only S2 and S3 are true

59. Consider the following sequence of Micro-Operations

MBR  PC
MAR  X
PC  Y
Memory  MBR
Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence?
a) Instruction fetch b) Operand fetch
c) Conditional fetch d) Initiation of interrupt service

60. Register renaming is done in pipelined processor

a) as an alternative to register allocation at compile time
b) for efficient access to function parameter and local variable
c) to handle certain kinds of hazards
d) as part of address translation

61. If AB = A then AB is equal to?

a) A b)  c) A d) B

62. Which of the following statements is a proposition?

a) Next month l will pass ETR examination b) Oh, It is awesome
c) The sum of x + 5 is 7 d) 15  321 = 54321

63. The range of the relation R  {( x, x 2 ) x is a prime number less than 13} is
a) 4, 9, 25, 49, 121 b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
c) 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 d) 1, 4, 9, 25, 49, 121

64. In how many ways can 3 or more persons can be selected from 12 persons?
a) 2200 b) 220  12 c) 12  3 d) 4017

65. Let G be a simple graph of order . If the size of G is 56 and size of G is 80 then what is ?
a) 34 b) 17 c) 50-(80/2) = 10 d) 80 – 56 = 24
VER-D : CS/IS 6 of 10
66. _____ is the process that groups data and procedures into an entity called objects.
a) Object development methodology b) Linear programming
c) Structured programming d) Object oriented system development

67. In the _____ phase the design model is built based on the analysis model.
a) System Design b) Application c) Object design d) Analysis

68. ______ deals with the static process view of a system, from the perspective of a real or
prototype case.
a) Component diagram b) Object diagram
c) Deployment diagram d) State diagram

69. ______ denotes the aspirations of the users and the responsibility of the system to its users.
a) UML b) OOA c) Use-cases d) Association

70. The output of object analysis is a description of the ______ and the user requirements.
a) Problem b) Solution c) Quality assurance d) Use cases

71. The relational operator <OP> described below represents the following:
R = P <OP> Q
R  t t  p  t   and
O R  P
a) The difference ‘___’ operator b) The projection ‘’ operator
c) The division ‘’ operator d) None of the above

72. Consider the schema as below,

The query
EMPLOYEE  (ASSIGNED – TO  project# (X))
X = (project# = ‘P1’  project# = ‘P2’) (ASSIGNED-TO) will results in to:
a) Gathering details at all employees.
b) Gathering details at all employees working on project ‘P1’ or project ‘P2’.
c) Gathering details at all employees working on both project ‘P1’ and ‘P2’.
d) None of these.

73. Consider the following schema employees:

Emp# Name DOB Sex
The SQL provision to ensure the attribute ‘sex’ takes the values either ‘M’ or ‘F’ is
a) ensure (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’)) b) insist (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’))
c) check (sex in (‘M’, ‘F’)) d) Need to write stored procedure.

VER-D : CS/IS 7 of 10
74. Stored procedures are used to:
a) enforce business rules and improve performance
b) to make code easier to maintain.
c) code will be stored once for use by multiple applications
d) All of these

75. To set transaction in read only access mode is through:

a) Setting isolation level in read uncommitted
b) Setting isolation level in read committed
c) Setting isolation level in serializable
d) Setting isolation level in repeatable read mode.

76. Customers arrive at a reception counter at an average interval of 10 minutes and the
receptionist takes an average of 6 minutes for one customer. Determine the average queue
length.
a) 9/10 b) 7/10 c) 11/10 d) 3/10

77. Which of the following statements are not true of simulation?

a) Simulation model cannot prescribe what should be done about a problem.
b) Simulation models can be used to study alternative solutions to a problem.
c) Simulation models the behavior of a system.
d) The equations describing the operating characteristics of the system are known.

78. Simulation models can be used to obtain operating characteristics in less time than with real
system using a feature of simulation called.
a) Microseconds b) Warp seed
c) Time compression d) None of the above

79. A multiple-choice test has 20 questions. There are four choices for each question. A student
who has not studied for the test decides to answer all the questions randomly by guessing the
answer for each question. Which of the following probability distributions can be used to
calculate the students chance of getting at least 20 questions right?
a) Binomial Distribution b) Poisson Distribution
c) Exponential Distribution d) Normal Distribution

80. Which of the following are techniques to perform verification of simulation model?
a) By using programming skills to write and debug the program in sub-programs.
b) By tracing the intermediate results and comparing them with observed outcomes.
c) By checking the simulation model output using various input combinations.
d) All of these.

81. What is the minimum time required to compute power (x, n) is xn in the options given below?
a) O(logn) b) O(n) c) O(log logn) d) O(nlogn)

82. n strings each of length n are given. What is time taken to sort the strings in lexicographic
order using 2 way merging?
a) O(n logn) b) O(n2 logn) c) O(n log logn) d) O(n log2n)

83. Number of spanning tree for complete graph with six nodes is
a) 1296 b) 1398 c) 1354 d) 1366

VER-D : CS/IS 8 of 10
84. Number of ways of parenthesizing 6 matrices is
a) 36 b) 42 c) 64 d) 78

85. For a job assignment problem

J1 J2 J3 J4
10 2 7 8 P1
6 4 3 7 P2
5 8 1 8 P3
7 6 10 4 P4
Total cost of optimal (least cost) assignment is
a) 10 b) 18 c) 13 d) 14

86. In software engineering the most popular term COTS stands for
a) Citation On The System b) Commercials On The System
c) Commercial Off The Shelf System d) Central Operating Trading System

87. Form based requirement specification in software engineering is classified under

a) New Language Specification b) Structured Natural Language
c) Graphical Notations d) Mathematical Specifications

88. Sequence diagrams used in software development are classified under

a) Static model b) Dynamic model
c) Probabilistic model d) Stochastic model

89. In the following software testing method individual program units or object classes are tested
a) Unit testing b) Component testing c) System testing d) All of these

90. Software pricing depends upon

a) Travel cost b) Hardware and software cost
c) Training cost d) All of these

91. If a transmission has packet delays 10ms, 12ms and 9ms in a communication, then what this
indicates in data transmission?
a) Delay b) Throughput c) Jitter d) Efficiency

92. A noisy channel has transmission speed of 2kbps and a bandwidth of 4kHz. What is the
channel Signal to Noise Ration (SNR)
a) 1 2 b) 2  1 c) 1 2 d) None of these

93. A network with CSMA/CD has a bandwidth of 10Mbps. If the maximum propagation time is
40sec. What is the maximum frame size?
a) 10 bytes b) 101 bytes c) 100 bytes d) 1 byte

94. Identify the class of IP-address 193.131.80.255.

a) Class C b) Class D c) Class A d) Class E

95. An attacker has captured the login credentials of a Banker by posting fake web page, similar to
the Bank web page. This type of attack is known as:
a) Denial of Service (DoS) b) Packet Mistreat
c) Routing Table Poisoning d) Masquerading
VER-D : CS/IS 9 of 10
96. A page requested by CPU is not available in the main memory is called.
a) Page hit b) Page fault c) Paging d) TLB

97. The content of base and limit registers are updated in.
a) User mode b) Kernel mode c) Unprivileged mode d) Dual mode

98. High level synchronization construct to solve critical section problem is called.
a) Paging b) Swapping c) Monitors d) Testandset

99. Cooperative concurrent reader and writer processes writing to the standard output file leads to.
a) Race condition b) Output varies on the order of execution of processes
c) Output is unpredictable d) All of these

100. Consider the virtual page reference string 1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 1, 3, 2, 4, 1 on a demand paged virtual
memory system running on a computer system that has main memory size of 3 page frames
which are initially empty. Let LRU, FIFO and OPTIMAL denote the number of page faults
under the corresponding page replacement policy. Then,
a) OPTIMAL < LRU < FIFO b) OPTIMAL < FIFO < LRU
c) OPTIML = LRU = FIFO d) OPTIMAL = FIFO

VER-D : CS/IS 10 of 10