ACADEMIC SESSION: 2021-22

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

PIE STUDENTS MOVING IN CLASS- VIII

DURATION: 2 HOURS MAX. MARKS: 240

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. it contains 80 questions of Mental Ability ( 1- 20), Physics (21 to 35),
Chemistry (36- to 50), Biology ( 51 to 65), Mathematics (66 to 80).
2. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any form
are not allowed to be used.
3. Write your Name & Mobile Number in the space provided in the first page of this booklet.
4. No rough sheets will be provided by the invigilators. All the rough work is to be done in the blank space
provided in the question paper.
5. No query related to question paper of any type is to be put to the invigilator.

MARKING CRITERIA
Marks
Q.No. Subject Nature of Questions
Correct Wrong Blank
1 to 20 Mental Ability Single Choice Questions (SCQ) +3 –1 0

21 to 35 Physics Single Choice Questions (SCQ) +3 –1 0

36 to 50 Chemistry Single Choice Questions (SCQ) +3 –1 0

51 to 65 Biology Single Choice Questions (SCQ) +3 –1 0

66 to 80 Mathematics Single Choice Questions (SCQ) +3 –1 0

NAME : __________________________________ MOBILE NUMBER : __________________________________

SHIKHAR EDUCARE PVT. LTD

Registered Office: Meena Complex, Vijaya Nagar, Chetakpuri, Gwalior (M.P.)- 474001
7489964628, 7389169198
Website: junior.shikharclasses.in |E-mail : [email protected]
INSTRUCTIONS FOR OPTICAL REPONSE SHEET (ORS)
 Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.

 The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.

 Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.

 Write your name, Application form number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the
space provided for this purpose on the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the
appropriate bubble under each digit of your roll number.

 Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the Objective Response
Sheet (ORS).

 Do not forget to mention your paper code and Application Form Number neatly and cleaiiy in the blank space
provided in the Objective Response Sheet (ORS) / Answer Sheet.

 Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.

 Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

 Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.

 The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here

 There is NO way to erase or “un-darkened bubble.

SHIKHAR EDUCARE PVT. LTD

Registered Office: Meena Complex, Vijaya Nagar, Chetakpuri, Gwalior (M.P.)- 474001
7489964628, 7389169198
Website: junior.shikharclasses.in |E-mail : [email protected]
SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
PART – I : MENTAL ABILITY
SECTION – I (Single Correct Choice Type)

This Section contains 20 Single choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Marking Scheme:
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer, -1 for wrong answer and zero if Question is left un-attempted.

1. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’ means ‘’, ‘×’ means ‘–’ and ‘’ means ‘+’, then what will be the value of 16 64 – 8 × 4 + 2 = ?
(A) 18 (B) 14 (C) 24 (D) 16
2. Refer to the given diagram and answer the following question :Who are intelligent and lethargic but non-creative persons ?

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

3. Select a figure from the options which will complete Fig. (X).

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
4. Find the missing number.

(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 18

5. Study the following character sequence :
P9sQT6Sb5DNgza4F#GU2M*Y
If the last ten characters are written in reverse order, what will be the 7th character to the right of 17th character from
the right ?
(A) D (B) a (C) U (D) Y
6. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

(A) 1,5, 7; 2, 4, 6; 3, 9, 8 (B) 1,5, 7; 2, 4, 8; 3, 6, 9

(C) 1,5, 7; 4, 9, 8; 2, 3, 6 (D) 1,5, 7; 3, 8, 9; 2, 4, 6
7. The given figure shows the net of a cube. The cube is placed on the table with face "D" on the top of the cube. Which
face is at the bottom of the cube ?

(A) C (B) A (C) E (D) F

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
8. Ankit is taller than Mohit, Garima is taller than Megha but shorter than Latika. Mohit is shorter than Megha and
Megha is taller than Ankit. Who is the shortest ?
(A) Ankit (B) Mohit (C) Megha (D) Latika
9. In the given number series, how many 5's are there which are preceded by a prime number but not followed by a
prime number ?
35942638543253648345392375347564653587
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
10. Find the missing character in the number pattern given below.

(A) 117 (B) 100 (C) 78 (D) 63

11. If 'FULFNHW is the code for 'CRICKET', then 'EULGH' is the code for which word ?
(A) PRIDE (B) BRIDE (C) BLADE (D) BLIND
12. A mountaineer starts from Camp A and proceeds East to Camp B which is 4 km away. From Camp B he proceeds to
Camp C, 5 km to the South. From there, he returns and proceeds 12 km to Camp 'D' via Camps B and A. How far is
he away from Camp A ?
(A) 3 km (B) 6 km (C) 5 km (D) 12 km
13. In the matrix given below, the value of A, B and C are

(A) A = 13, B = 11, C = 9 (B) A = 13, B = 9, C = 11

(C) A = 9, B = 11, C = 13 (D) A = 9, B = 13, C = 11
14. Which letters in the word CYBERMETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English alphabet ?
(A) B (B) I (C) C (D) T

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
15. If L denotes , M denotes ×, P denotes + and Q denotes –, then which of the following statements is true ?
3 173
(A) 32P8L16Q42   (B) 6 M 18 Q 26 L 13 P 7 
2 13
38
(C) 11 M 34 L 17 Q 8 L 3  (D) 9 P 9 L 9 Q 9 M 9 = –71
3

Direction (Q. 16 to Q. 18) : Study the following information and answer the questions that follow :
There are 5 boys A, B, C, D and E in a group. A weighs twice as much as D, B weighs four and half times as much as C. C
weighs half as much as D. D weighs half as much as E. E weighs less than 'B' but more than C
16. Who is lightest?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
17. Who is heaviest ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
18. E is heavier than which of the following two boys ?
(A) A and C (B) B and C (C) D and A (D) C and D
19. A and B are children of D. Who is the father of A ?
To answer this question which of the following statement(s) (1) & (2) is/are necessary ?
1. C is the brother of A and the son of E.
2. F is the mother of B.
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) (C) Either (1) or (2) (D) Both (1) and (2)
20. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, ?
(A) 32 (B) 64 (C) 81 (D) 256

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
PART – II : PHYSICS
SECTION – I (Single Correct Choice Type)

This Section contains 15 Single choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Marking Scheme:
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer, -1 for wrong answer and zero if Question is left un-attempted.

21. A pot full of water is put to boil on the stove. Which one of the graphs below shows the correct change in
temperature over time?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

22. Amit found that a glass P was stuck inside another glass Q. What could he do to separate the two glasses?
(A) Pour hot water into glass P and put glass Q in hot water
(B) Pour hot water into glass P and put glass Q in cold water
(C) Pour cold water into glass P and put glass Q in cold water
(D) Pour cold water into glass P and put glass Q in hot water
23. Mercury is used as a thermometer substances because
(A) It is very costly (B) It expands less than glass
(C) It does not wet the wall of the glass tube (D) None of the above
24. Which of the following one is correct relation between ºC and ºF?
5 5 F 5 5
(A) ºC = (ºF – 32) (B) ºC = (º32 – ºF) (C) ºC = + (D) ºC = ºF × 32 +
9 9 32 9 9
25. Air exerts pressure in
(A) Downwards direction only (B) Upward direction only
(C) Sideways only (D) All directions
26. During the formation of rain, when water vapour changes back to liquid in the form of rain drops
(A) Heat is absorbed (B) Heat is released
(C) Heat is first absorbed and then released (D) There is no exchange of heat

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
27. A tornado is
(A) Uneven heating between two region (B) A violent, twisting funnel of wind
(C) Strong circulatory winds in the tropical region (D) None of these
28. In circular motion the
(A) Direction of motion is fixed (B) Direction of motion changes continuously
(C) Acceleration is zero (D) Velocity is constant
29. When a drill bores a hole in a piece of wood, it describes
(i) Rotatory motion (ii) Translatory motion (iii) Curvillinear motion (iv) Oscillatory motion
(A) (iii) & (iv) (B) (i) & (ii) (C) (i) & (iii) (D) (i) & (iv)
30. Ahmad looked up at the night sky and observed the things he could see. From the things he could see, he made a
list of the sources of light in night sky. What should he write down on his list ?
(i) Moon (ii) Stars (iii) Cloud
(A) (i) only (B) (iii) only (C) (i) & (ii) (D) (ii) & (iii)
31. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Shadows cannot be formed when an object allows some light to pass through it
(B) Shadows are always formed on the opposite side of the light sources
(C) A shadow has a similar shape to the object that forms the shadow
(D) An object can form as many shadows as there are light sources around it.
32. In which of the following circuits will the bulb glow?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

33. In the given diagram, compasses are used to plot the magnetic field around a bar magnet with poles marked N
(North) and S (South). Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the expected field pattern?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
34. Four different nails (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) were stroked with a magnet. Which of them will become magnets?
(i) Iron nail (ii) Steel nail (iii) Copper nail (iv) Aluminium nail
(A) (i) & (ii) (B) (iii) & (iv) (C) (i), (ii) & (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
35. Look at the classification table below.

Which of the following correctly describes X, Y and Z ?

X Y Z

(A) Metals can sink can float

(B) Metals Can be magnetised cannot be magnetised

(C) Metals cannot be attracted by magnet can be attracted by magnets

(D) Metals can allow electricity to pass through cannot allow electricity to pass through

(A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (C) (D) (D)

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
PART – III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION – I (Single Correct Choice Type)

This Section contains 15 Single choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Marking Scheme:
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer, -1 for wrong answer and zero if Question is left un-attempted.
36. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Acids are sour in taste while bases are bitter in taste.
Statement 2 : Baking soda does not taste sour
(A) Both statements 1 & 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 & 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
37. Acid rain can cause damage to buildings, soil and plants. What do you think the acids come from?
(A) Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide dissolve in rain water to produce acids
(B) Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide dissolve in rain water to produce acids.
(C) Sulphuric acid and carbon monoxide dissolve in rain water to produce acids.
(D) Chlorine and fluorine gases dissolve in rain water to produce acids.
38. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Water is neutral.
Statement 2 : Water turns red litmus blue
(A) Both statements 1 & 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 & 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
(D) Both Statements (1) & (2) are false.
39. Classification is useful because
(A) It makes things look neat and tidy. (B) It makes studying the properties of things much easier.
(C) It help us in the kitchen. (D) It help us in the school library.

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
40. Which property is common to all matter?
(A) Matter takes up space and has no mass. (B) Matter can be seen and has some mass.
(C) Matter takes up space and has mass. (D) Matter takes up space and may of may not have mass.
41. The charge and mass of the proton present in the nucleus of helium atom are respectively
(A) + 2, 4 u (B) + 1, 1 u (C) +2, 1 u (D) +2, 2 u
42. Which of the following is not matter?
(A) water (B) air (C) sound (D) fruit
43. Which of the following is the second most abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
(A) Copper (B) Aluminium (C) Iron (D) Zinc
44. A mixture of oil and water is an example of __________ .
(A) Compound (B) Two elements (C) Mixture (D) True solution
45. Isobars do not differ in the number of
(A) protons (B) electrons (C) neutrons (D) nucleons
46. Bond which exist between two non metals is
(A) Ionic bond (B) Covalent bond (C) Metallic bond (D) None of these
47. Which of these is not an animal fibre?
(A) Wool (B) Silk (C) Jute (D) Angora
48. Complete the correlation :
Silk worm : Cocoon, Wool : ______
(A) Hair of rabbit (B) Cotton plant (C) Skin of sheep (D) Jute of hemp
49. Weak bases are
(A) Sparingly soluble in water (B) Insoluble in water
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
50. The sharp pain caused by the sting of brown ants, nettles leaves and bees is due to
(A) Acetic acid (B) Tartaric acid (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Formic acid

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
PART – IV : BIOLOGY
SECTION – I (Single Correct Choice Type)

This Section contains 15 Single choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Marking Scheme:
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer, -1 for wrong answer and zero if Question is left un-attempted.
51. Study the experiment shown below and select the correct option regarding the observations.

(A) The flower will remain white

(B) The flower will turn blue
(C) One half of the flower will turn pink and the other half will turn blue
(D) The flower will turn pink

52. The given figure shows a bone with a part labelled as ‘X’. Select the incorrect statement regarding ‘X’.

(A) Blood cells are formed in ‘X’

(B) ‘X’ is the flexible tissue in the hollow interior of bones
(C) Leukemia is a type of cancer of the blood that generally start in ‘X’
(D) All of the above

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
53. Identify the figures (W - Z) and select the incorrect statement.

(A) W is a modified tuberous root which serves as a storage organ

(B) Edible part of X is same as edible part of potato
(C) Y is a fruit which is eaten as a vegetable
(D) Edible part of Z is same as in broccoli.
54. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Ovary (i) Lowermost swollen part of pistil
(b) Filament (ii) Slender stalk of the stamen
(c) Style (iii) Small bead like structure
(d) Ovule (iv) knob like structure on the top of stamen
(e) Anther (v) Elongated tube connecting ovary and stigma
(A) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv), (e) - (v) (B) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (v), (d) - (iii), (e) - (iv)
(C) (a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii), (e) - (i) (D) (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i), (e) - (iv)
55. Which of the following is the stomach part in which herbivores store? The grass which is swallowed quickly
(A) Lumen (B) Pyloric (C) Rumen (D) Iileum
56. Which of the following kills the organisms in the soil?
(A) metallic substances (B) Earthern pots
(C) Polythene bags and plastics (D) Glass ware
57. The Eggs of silkworm are stored in
(A) Wooden Box (B) Metal Box (C) Strips of cloth (D) Plastic Box
58. _______ & ______ soils are suitable for growing cereals like wheat and gram.
(A) Clayey and Loamy (B) Sandy and Clayey (C) Sandy and Loamy (D) Silt and Sandy
59. Match the following
(a) Incisors (i) Grinding teeth
(b) Canines (ii) Cracking teeth
(c) Premolars (iii) Cutting teeth
(d) Molars (iv) Tearing teeth
(A) (a) - (ii), (b), (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) (B) (a) - (ii), (b), (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(C) (a) - (iii), (b), (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) (D) (a) - (iii), (b), (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
60. Match the following with correct answers:
(a) Toucan bird (i) Modified teeth
(b) Siberian bird (ii) Silver white mane
(c) Tusks of elephant (iii) Long beak
(d) Macaque (iv) Migrate to India during winter
(A) (a) - (iii) (b) - (i) (c) - (ii) (d) - (iv) (B) (a) - (iii) (b) - (iv) (c) - (i) (d) - (ii)
(C) (a) - (i) (b) - (ii) (c) - (iii) (d) - (iv) (D) (a) - (iv) (b) - (iii) (c) - (ii) (d) - (i)
61. Plants give out water through the pores present under their leaves. The plants living in deserts need to reduce the
loss of water because water is very scarce in deserts. Which of the following is an adaptation developed by the
desert plants to manage the above situation?
(A) They have lots of branches and leaves
(B) They do not shed leaves in the summer
(C) They develop roots which come above the ground
(D) Their leaves are modified into spines
62. Lenticels are found in
(A) the stem in which secondary growth has taken place
(B) the root where secondary growth has occurred
(C) the roots as well as the stem where secondary growth has occurred
(D) none of the above
63. What mineral is needed for a plant to make Protein?
(A) Potassium (B) Phosphate (C) calcium (D) Nitrate
64. Which of the following provides cushioning between bones?
(A) Tendons (B) Cartilages (C) Ligaments (D) Flexor Muscles
65. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) In Protozoans, & animals no specific excretory organs are present
(B) In Echinoderms and cnidarians, no specific excretory organs are present
(C) In cnidarians & insects no specific excretory organs are present
(D) In protozoans and flat worms no specific excretory organs are present

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
PART – V : MATHS
SECTION – I (Single Correct Choice Type)

This Section contains 15 Single choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Marking Scheme:
You will be awarded 3 marks for correct answer, -1 for wrong answer and zero if Question is left un-attempted.
2A  2 4B  4 6C  8
66. If    16 then A  B  C  10 is a
2 4 8
(A) Composite number (B) Prime number (C) Even prime number (D) Odd number
1 7
67. x  1 , then the value of 2x  is
1 4
1
1
1
1
1
2
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Comprehension for (Q. 68) :
If X = 5.55, Y = 0.0024 and Z = 6.005
68. Fractional value of X +Y is
55024 50524 55524 50024
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10000 10000 10000 10000
abc
69. If -1 1
is simplified, then the answer is
a b  b 1c 1  c 1a 1
(A) a+bc (B) abc (C) 2abc (D) 2(a+b+c)
a+5 2a 4 3a
70. If (4) (16) (32) = (16) , then a = _____
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 24 (D) 20
1 1
71. If 2y    & 2y   m, , then  2  m2  _____
2y 2y
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 0

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
72. The angle A of a triangle ABC is equal to the sum of the other two angles. Also the ratio of the angle B to the angle C
is 2 : 3, then three angles are
(A) 90º,36º,54º (B) 95º,49º,36º (C) 95º,31º,54º (D) 90º,60º,30º
73. In the given figure COE and BOD are right angles. If the measure of BOC is four times the measure of COD,
which is the measure of AOB?

(A) 16º (B) 17º (C) 18º (D) 19º

74. At National Public School, 200 students were asked to name a career they would like to pursue. The results are
shown in the table below.
Career Number of Students
Actor/Actress 30
Athlete 40
Business –
Executive 70
Pilot 20
Politician 10
Musician 22
Teacher 8
Which of the following statements is supported by the data in the table?
(A) More than 25% of the students would like to pursue a career in acting or music.
(B) The least number of students choose teaching because of the college preparation required.
(C) The mode of the data is 30.
(D) Exactly 10% of the student would like to pursue a carrier in politics.
75. A circular grass plot 40m in radius is surrounded by a path. If the area of the grass plot is twice the area of the path,
the width of the path in meters would be

 2   2   3   3 
(A) 401  (B) 401  (C) 40  1 (D) 40  1
 3   3   2   2 
     

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 SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
76. How many faces does the given solid have?

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

1
77. When a train started from station A, there were certain number of passengers in it. On the next station, of these
11
passengers got down and 20% of these got down passengers got into the train. Now if the number of passengers on
the train is 510, how many passengers were there at station A initially?

(A) 600 (B) 580 (C) 560 (D) 550

78. S1, S2, S3 are three sums of money such that S2 is the simple interest on S1 and S3 is the simple interest on S2 for the
same rate and same period. Then

(A) S12  S 2S3 (B) S32  S1S2 (C) S22  S1S3 (D) S1S2S3  1

45  45  45  45 65  65  65  65  65  65
79. If   8n then , n is
25  25 35  55  35

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

80. At the end of the year 2002, Ram was half old as his grandpa. The sum of the years in which they were born is 3854.
Age of Ram at the end of year 2003 is

(A) 50 (B) 35 (C) 51 (D) 36

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER : PIE
ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
D D D B D B C B C C B A A B D C A D B B
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
A D C A D B B B B C A D D A B B B C B B
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
D C C C D B C C A D C D D B C C C A D B
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
D A D B B A C C B A B A C A C A D C D C

Rough Work

SHIKHAR JUNIOR: Meena Complex, Vijaya Nagar, Chetakpuri, Gwalior 474001 16

 Test ID StudejTtJp
I •• i
2 OOOO
OOOOOOOOOO
OOOOOOOOOO
Shikhar
PRE FOUNDATION DIVISION
3 OOOO OOOOOOOOOO SAMPLE PAPER OMR SHEET
4 OOOO OOOOOOOOOO
5 OOOO Student Name:.
OOOOOOOOOO
6 OOOO OOOOOOOOOO Fathers Name:.
7 OOOO OOOOOOOOOO
8 OOOO OOOOOOOOOO
9 OOOO OOOOOOOOOO
o OOOO OOOOOOOOOO
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 OOOO 21 OOOO 41 OOOO 61 OOOO
2 OOOO 22 OOOO 42 OOOO 62 OOOO
3 OOOO 23 OOOO 43 OOOO 63 OOOO
4 OOOO 24 OOOO 44 OOOO 64 OOOO
5 OOOO 25 OOOO 45 OOOO 65 OOOO
6 OOOO 26 OOOO 46 OOOO 66 OOOO
7 OOOO 27 OOOO 47 OOOO 67 OOOO
8 OOOO 28 OOOO 48 OOOO 68 OOOO
9 OOOO 29 OOOO 49 OOOO 69 OOOO
10 OOOO 30 OOOO 50 OOOO 70 OOOO
n OOOO 31 OOOO 51 OOOO 71 OOOO
12 OOOO 32 OOOO 52 OOOO 72 OOOO
13 OOOO 33 OOOO 53 OOOO 73 OOOO
14 OOOO 34 OOOO 54 OOOO 74 OOOO
15 OOOO 35 OOOO 55 OOOO 75 OOOO
16 OOOO 36 OOOO 56 OOOO 76 OOOO
"OOOO 37 OOOO 57 OOOO 77 OOOO
18 OOOO 38 OOOO 58 OOOO 78 OOOO
19 OOOO 39 OOOO 59 OOOO 79 OOOO
20 OOOO 40 OOOO 600000 80 OOOO