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  TKI Exam

A2

  Airbus A320 TR

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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LeP

 
Chapter Page Issue Rev. Date Chapter Page Issue Rev. Date

  Issue 1 Rev. 1 2022-11-01 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12

  Issue 1 Rev. 1 2022-11-01 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
  Issue 1 Rev. 1 2022-11-01 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
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Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
  Issue 1 Rev. 1 2022-11-01 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
  Issue 1 Rev. 1 2022-11-01 Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12
  Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12 Issue 1 Rev. 1 2022-11-01
  Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12 Issue 1 Rev. 1 2022-11-01
  Issue 1 Rev. 0 2020-11-12 Issue 1 Rev. 1 2022-11-01
 

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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A320 Technical Written Exam No. A2

 

Student Name: ___________________________ Date: _______________________________

 
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  Total No. of questions out of the database: 108

Minimum No. of correct answers to pass 75%

Questions are multiple choice questions: Only 1 answer is correct.

Time limit as per OM/TM for the respective syllabus.

Good luck!

Result: pass / fail Percentage of correct answers: _______________________

SFI | TRI / TKI assigned: Name + License No. (Sign): __________________________________

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Safety

With the EMER EXIT LT switch in the ARM position, light in the emergency exit signs come on if: (01-2)

a. AC essential bus fails.

b. Normal aircraft electrical power system fails or DC SHED ESS BUS fails.

c. DC bus fails.
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d. BAT BUS fails.

Evacuation command button at the forward flight attendant position: (01-5)

a. Can be activated at any time.

b. Can only be activated on ground.

c. Can only be activated by the Captain.

d. Can only be activated, provided the cockpit switch is at the CAPT and PURS position.

How many escape ropes are there in the cockpit? (01-7)

a. 2 escape ropes, 1 over each sliding window. They can be used through the left or right window.

b. 2 escape ropes. Each of them must be used through the window to which it corresponds.

c. 3 escape ropes for the 2 cockpit crew members. The extra one is to be used by some particularly big
person.

d. 3 escape ropes, the 3rd rope can be used through either window.

Indicating and recording

Select the correct statement: (02-1)

a. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 - PFD 2.

b. DMC 1 supplies data to ND 1 - ND 2.

c. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 - ND 1 - E/WDU - S/D.

d. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 - ND 1 - EWD.

What does “Invalid Data” on a DU means? (02-6)

a. Corresponding DU is not energized.

b. DU is operational but corresponding DMC failed.

c. As in answer b, plus it is possible to get an image on again by selecting DMC 3.

d. DU is receiving data from the offside DMC.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Do the CHECK ATT messages appear on both PFDs at the same time? (02-7)

a. Yes, if there is a discrepancy of at least 5 ° between the attitude values, pitch and/or roll.

b. No.

c. Yes, but only for pitch.

d. Yes, if there is a discrepancy of at least 7° between the attitude values, pitch and/or roll.
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The altitude window changes from yellow to amber: (02-9)

a. When A/C goes below MDA.

b. If the aircraft deviates from the FCU-selected altitude or flight level.

c. Both answers are correct.

d. Below 400 feet RA.

Can you read the HDG on the PFD? (02-11)

a. No.

b. Only in flight.

c. Yes.

d. Only in emergency config.

Electrical power

AC ESS bus is normally supplied by: (03-3)

a. AC BUS 1.

b. AC BUS 2.

c. Static inverter.

d. ESS TR.

4. DC BAT BUS can be supplied by: (03-4)

a. DC BUS 1 or batteries.

b. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or batteries.

c. DC BUS or batteries.

d. ESS TR.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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What happens during emer gen test? (03-6)

a. The ram air turbine (RAT) is extended.

b. The blue system is manually pressurized with the override switch and the emergency generator comes on
line.

c. The green system is pressurized and the emergency generator comes on line, supplied by hot bus.

d. The RAT is run by the Blue HYD system. 

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In flight, on batteries only, the AC ESS SHED BUS and the DC ESS SHED BUS are lost: (03-11)

a. True.

b. False.

c. Only if battery voltage is below 20 volts.

d. If IAS is above 140 knots.

With APU available, if one generator fails, the failed generator is replaced by: (03-16)

a. The APU.

b. The other generator.

c. Nothing.

d. The emergency generator.

If AC BUS 1 fails, the AC ESS BUS is supplied by: (03-20)

a. EMER GEN.

b. AC BUS 2.

c. Static inverter.

d. ESS TR.

When the EXT PWR pushbutton green AVAIL is illuminated, it means: (03-25)

a. The EXT PWR is connected to the A/C and the parameters are normal.

b. The A/C network is supplied by external power.

c. External power is supplying the Maintenance Bus.

d. EXT PWR is supplying all normal electrical systems.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Pneumatic

1. With engines and APU running, and the APU BLEED selected ON, choose the correct statement: (04-1)

a. Engine bleed valves open, x bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve closes.

b. Engine bleed valves close, x bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve opens.

c. Engine bleed valves open, x bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens.
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  d. Engine bleed valves close, x bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve closes.

Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by: (04-5)

a. One bleed monitoring computer.

b. Two bleed valve computers.

c. Two bleed monitoring computers.

d. Two pressure regulating valves.

What operates the x-bleed valve? (04-6)

a. Two pneumatic motors.

b. Both.

c. Two BMC's.

d. Two electrical motors.

If the bleed valve is closed electrically, the HP valve: (04-7)

a. Opens automatically.

b. Closes automatically.

c. Goes to half open position.

d. Closes if engine is not running.

When APU bleed is selected the cross bleed valve goes to: (04-9)

a. Open position.

b. Closed position.

c. Is not affected.

d. Auto.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Air conditioning/pressurization/ventilation

Air conditioning system controller, one lane failure will result in: (05-3)

a. The second lane operates as a backup and regulation is not optimized.

b. Pack is lost.

c. The hot air press reg valve and associated trim air valves close.
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d. The second lane takes over.

The hot-air pressure regulating valves: (05-8)

a. Regulate the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs.

b. Is spring loaded open in the absence of air.

c. Opens automatically in case of duct overheat.

d. Always fails closed

The temperature selectors are located in: (05-10)

a. The cockpit.

b. The cabin (FAP).

c. Both.

d. FWD and AFT ATT panel.

Trim air valves are controlled by: (05-15)

a. The air conditioning system controller.

b. The anti-ice valve.

c. The hot air pressure regulating valve.

d. The pack flow controller.

The mixer unit is connected to: (05-16)

a. Packs, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector.

b. Packs, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector.

c. Packs and cabin air.

d. Packs and hot air manifold.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of: (05-20)

a. Engine shutdown, ditching pushbutton released.

b. Bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase.

c. Pack overheating, engine starting, or operation of the fire or ditching pushbutton pressed.

d. De pressurization
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The outflow valve is powered by: (05-25)

a. One of two electric motors.

b. Three electric motors.

c. One of three electric motors.

d. 1 pneumatic or one of 2 electric motors.

During ground operation, the outflow valve is: (05-26)

a. Fully open.

b. Fully closed.

c. Positioned according to FMGS demands.

d. 50% open.

On ECAM cabin press page, the outflow valve indicator changes to amber if: (05-31)

a. Fully closed.

b. The valve opens more than 95% during flight.

c. Fully open on ground.

d. Safety valve operates.

Navigation and auto flight

What does it mean when the ADR fault light illuminates steady on the ADIRS CDU? (06-1)

a. A fault is detected in air data reference system.

b. No present position entry after 10 min.

c. Alignment has been completed.

d. Aircraft has moved during alignment.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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The FMGS consists of the following main components: (06-4)

a. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 FCU control panels.

  b. 2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 FAC - 1 FCU control panel.

c. 1 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 1 FAC - 2 FCU control panels.

  d. 2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 FAC - 2 FWC / ECAM.

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A hold has been entered in the F-PLN. Speed and NAV is managed. You want to leave this hold: (06-8)

a. Use the CLR key.

b. Hold is automatically cancelled when overflying the fix.

c. Activate IMM EXIT prompt.

d. Disconnect AP and fly the aeroplane.

The engagement of both autopilots is possible: (06-11)

a. When LAND illuminates green on FMA.

b. When A/C is stabilized at G/S interception altitude.

c. As soon as the LOC and G/s is armed (blue on FMA).

d. When Approach Phase is activated

The LOC pushbutton on the FCU is pressed to arm LOC mode, this is used for: (06-14)

a. Performing a published localizer approach.

b. Tracking a VOR beam.

c. Performing these non-precision approaches, VOR, NDB and RNAV

d. Holding at a VOR

What does an aural triple click mean during an ILS approach? (06-15)

a. A level 3 warning to the crew.

b. A primary failure occurring, prepare for a go-around.

c. ILS capability downgrade condition.

d. Minima.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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The flight guidance functions are: (06-23)

a. Autopilot, performance and flight plan.

b. Autopilot, flight director, autothrust.

c. Flight management, autopilot, autothrust.

d. Autothrust, FADEC, FAC’s.

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The normal FMGC operation is: (06-27)

a. Only one FMGC can operate at a time.

b. FMGCs operate according to master/slave principle.

c. FMGCs operate independently.

d. Independently but monitoring each other.

With the aircraft in flight, A/THR not engaged, thrust levers in CLB gate, an ALPHA-FLOOR is detected: (06-29)

a. A/THR doesn't get engaged because the engines are already in CLB thrust.

b. A/THR automatically engages and controls the engines with CLB thrust.

c. Pilot must select TOGA and then engage A/THR.

d. A/THR automatically engages and controls the engine with TOGA thrust.

The FAC computes rudder travel limit: (06-30)

a. Only when AP is engaged.

b. Only at low speed.

c. Only above 164 knots.

d. At any time.

ADIRU 3 can supply information to: (06-34)

a. DMC 1 and DMC 2 only.

b. DMC 2 and DMC 3 only.

c. DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3.

d. DMC only.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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In ROSE ILS mode, the ND displays what ILS information? (06-42)

a. G/S and LOC scales.

b. LOC deviation bar and selected course.

c. G/S and LOC deviation bar and DME.

d. LOC deviation bar, selected course and G/S scales.

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In ROSE VOR mode, in the event of VOR receiver failure: (06-44)

a. The associated VOR flag flashes red, then remains steady and the course pointer disappears.

b. The associated VOR flag and the course pointer disappears.

c. The associated VOR flag flashes and the course pointer disappears.

d. The ND screen shows a horizontal bar.

Hydraulics

Normal hydraulic power is provided by: (07-1)

a. Engine driven pumps for all systems.

b. Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, electric pump for blue, electric pump for yellow (ground
operation only).

c. Electric pumps for blue and yellow, engine driven pumps for green.

d. Electric pumps for all system

The yellow system comprises: (07-8)

a. One engine driven pump, one electric pump, one hand pump.

b. One engine driven pump, two electric pumps.

c. One engine driven pump, one hand pump and the RAT.

d. One engine driven pump and one side of the PTU.

In flight the RAT is extended: (07-21)

a. Manually only.

b. Manually or automatically.

c. Automatically only.

d. Automatically only following blue system failure.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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The hydraulic fire shut off valve closes when: (07-24)

a. The master switch is switched to off.

b. The fire pushbutton is released out.

c. Automatically if a fire is detected.

d. An overheat is sensed.
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If yellow system is lost, the flaps are: (07-34)

a. Normal.

b. Slow (half speed).

c. Lost.

d. Locked in position.

In case of single hydraulic system low press: (07-36)

a. The master warn light illuminates.

b. The master caution light illuminates and the single chime sounds.

c. There is no warning.

d. An advisory is triggered.

With the PTU in AUTO, the PTU automatically runs: (07-39)

a. If the blue hydraulic system is lost.

b. When differential pressure between green and yellow system is more than 500 PSI.

c. As soon as a differential pressure between green and yellow system is detected.

d. When the first engine is started

With only the green hydraulic system remaining, the horizontal stabilizer is: (07-40)

a. Available.

b. Lost.

c. Standby.

d. Auto.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Landing gear

Landing gear can be extended by: (08-1)

a. Green or yellow hydraulic system in stand by.

b. Green hydraulic system or mechanical gravity extension.

c. Green system for unlocking, gravity extension and green system for down locking.
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d. Green system for unlocking, gravity extension and yellow system for down locking.

The nose wheel steering is powered by: (08-7)

a. Hydraulic system.

b. Electric system.

c. All of the above.

d. Hydraulically by differential braking.

Nose wheel steering by rudder pedals is limited to: (08-11)

a. 6 degrees under all circumstances.

b. 6 degrees or less depending on A/C speed.

c. 8 degrees always.

d. 7 degrees.

The principle of the anti-skid is: (08-16)

a. Comparing the speed difference between the four wheels.

b. Comparing wheel speed between left and right landing gear.

c. Comparing wheel speed with nose wheel speed.

d. Comparing wheel speed with A/C reference speed.

On the apron with APU running, parking brake set on, a message on ECAM shows PARK BRK: (08-24)

a. In green.

b. Not at all.

c. In yellow (because of accumulator press).

d. In blue (temporary).

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Flight controls

If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed: (09-6)

a. Pitch control is provided by the FACs.

b. Pitch control can only be achieved from the trim wheel.

c. Pitch control is manual.

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d. The elevator and pitch trim are controlled by SEC 1 or 2.

Rudder control is electrical for yaw damping and trim: (09-10)

a. Yes.

b. No.

c. Only for trim.

d. Only in flight.

Which ELAC normally controls the elevators and the stabilizer: (09-14)

a. ELAC 1.

b. ELAC 2.

c. Both in parallel.

d. ELAC 1 with ELAC 2 in standby.

The roll normal law provides combined control of the: (09-21)

a. Ailerons + spoilers 2 to 5 + rudder.

b. Ailerons + spoiler 2 to 5.

c. Ailerons only.

d. Ailerons + spoilers 1 to 4 + rudder.

If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed: (09-22)

a. Roll control is provided by ailerons only.

b. Roll control is provided by ailerons and spoilers.

c. Roll control is provided by spoilers only.

d. Roll control is provided by ailerons and rudder.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Is it possible to select an intermediate position with the flaps and slats selector? (09-27)

a. Yes.

b. Only if THS is outside green band.

c. Only if green hydraulics are serviceable.

d. No
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In alternate law, the change to direct law occurs when: (09-33)

a. Landing gear down or at the selection of flaps 2 (LGCIU 1 + 2 fault).

b. Landing gear down.

c. Passing 50 ft.

d. When land flap selected.

With blue hydraulic system remaining and before landing gear extension, the flight control law is: (09-35)

a. Alternate.

b. Normal.

c. Direct.

d. Mechanical backup.

Fuel

With all fuel pump switches on, are wing tank pumps running while center tank is supplying? (10-3)

a. Yes, wing tank pumps are always running.

b. No, only when center tank is empty.

c. No, not when using fuel from center tank.

d. Only when tank pressure is low.

Where is the vent surge tank located? (10-5)

a. In the outer section of each wing.

b. In the wing tank.

c. In the lower part of the center tank.

d. By the IDG drains.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Amber FAULT light illuminates on tank pump pushbutton when: (10-9)

a. Pump is not energized.

b. Pushbutton at off without failure.

c. Pump high temperature.

d. The delivery fuel pressure drops.

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APU fuel is supplied by: (10-14)

a. Tank fuel pumps only.

b. APU fuel pump only.

c. Either tank or APU fuel pump.

d. Suction.

Suction valves are: (10-16)

a. Always open regardless of pump status.

b. Normally closed by pumps pressure.

c. Open automatically when fuel x-feed is selected on.

d. Opened by pumps pressure.

APU

When the APU master switch is released (set to OFF), a normal APU shutdown occurs: (11-1)

a. Without delay, in all cases.

b. With a delay, in all cases.

c. With a delay if the bleed air was in use.

d. With a delay if the generator was used.

APU master switch selected ON will: (11-5)

a. Illuminate blue ON light, APU system is energized and APU starts. At 60% RPM, APU starter is
deenergized.

b. Illuminates blue ON light, APU system is energized, air intake flap opens and APU starts as soon as start
pushbutton is pressed.

c. Illuminate green AVAIL light and arms for start.

d. Illuminate green AVAIL lights and APU starts.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Power plant CFM 56

The maximum continuous oil temperature limit may be exceeded. What is the limit, and under what conditions? (12-
7)

a. 165°C for less than 15 min.

b. 155°C for less than 15 min.

c. The max cont. oil temp must not be exceeded.

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d. 140° for 5 min

What is the starter operating time for the 4 consecutive cycles? (12-11)

a. 8 min followed by 15 min of no operation.

b. 5 min followed by 20 sec of no operation.

c. Each lasts a maximum of 2 minutes and 20 seconds pause between each attempt.

d. Each lasts a maximum of 4 minutes and 14 seconds pause between each attempt.

Reduced Take-off thrust is not permitted: (12-15)

a. If outside air temp is lower than corrected temp.

b. If outside air temp is higher than Tref (ISA + 15°C).

c. On a wet runway.

d. On contaminated runway.

Dry manual start, cranking on ground may be manually selected by setting: (12-20)

a. The ENG MODE SELECTOR to CRANK and the MASTER switch to ON.

b. With MASTER switch to OFF, the ENG MODE SELECTOR to CRANK, and MAN START pushbutton to
ON.

c. Same as b), with MASTER switch ON.

d. Master switch to IGN/START and PULL IGN C/B.

LVR ASYM amber message (FMA) means? (12-29)

a. The thrust lever are not aligned.

b. Asymmetric power is established due to FADEC malfunction.

c. Asymmetric power is established due to TLA resolver fault.

d. At least one thrust lever is in CLB detent.

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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Fire protection

Where are the engine fire detectors located? (13-2)

a. On the fan and the turbine.

b. On the pylon, the fan and the core.

c. On the core and the gearbox.

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d. In the engine hot section.

The engine and APU fire protection systems include: (13-4)

a. 1 fire agent bottle for each engine - 1 fire agent bottle for the APU.

b. 2 fire agent bottles for the each engine - 2 fire agent bottles for the APU.

c. 2 fire agent bottles for each engine - 1 fire agent bottle for the APU.

d. 4 fire agent bottles for either engine or the APU.

How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished? (13-6)

a. From the APU fire panel.

b. Automatically, 3 seconds after auto shutdown.

c. From the external power panel.

d. By the airport fire services.

7. How can a thermal discharge of the APU fire bottle be detected when no electrical power is connected? (13-7)

a. By the FDU.

b. By the ECAM

c. Absence of the red disc indicator.

d. By extinguishing agent on the tarmac

Ice and rain protection

Probe heating starts automatically when the switch is in AUTO position: (14-4)

a. Not heated on the ground, heats automatically at lift off.

b. Operates in high heat after engine start.

c. If TAT is below 10°C.

d. In low heat after engine start and then high heat after lift off

Theoretical Knowledge Instruction | Progress Test A2

     
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The window heat computer provides two heating levels for the wind shield: (14-6)

a. High level when above 20,000 ft; low level below 20,000 ft.

b. Normal in flight and low level on ground.

c. High level in icing conditions; low level in other conditions.

d. High level for windshields, low for side windows.

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What state will the wing anti-ice valve be in if electrical power is removed? (14-8)

a. Closed.

b. Open.

c. Half open.

d. Failed in current position.

The engine nacelle is anti-iced by: (14-10)

a. Air bleed from low pressure compressor.

b. Electrically.

c. Exhaust air from fan pre-cooler.

d. Air bleed from high pressure compressor

On a dry windshield, rain repellent system: (14-13)

a. May be used as windshield washer.

b. Must not be used.

c. Can be used as bug removal agent.

d. Can be used in diluted mode.

The wing anti-ice shut off valves close automatically in case of: (14-17)

a. Engine failure.

b. Loss of electrical power supply or leak detection.

c. Cross bleed valve fault when wing anti-ice is used.

d. High pack flow.

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Communications

1. If RMP 2 fails: (15-1)

a. The whole system is inoperative.

b. VHF2 and HF 2 frequencies can't be controlled.

c. All com systems can be controlled by the other RMP.

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d. Com systems must be auto-tuned.

You want to erase the CVR recording: (15-4)

a. You push the CVR ERASE pushbutton one time.

b. You push the CVR ERASE pushbutton for 2 sec in flight.

c. With the aircraft on the ground, you push the CVR ERASE pushbutton for more than 2 sec with the parking
brake on.

d. Switch the ground power off, then on.

How do you cancel ON VOICE key green light? (15-6)

a. By pressing the VOICE key.

b. By pressing out the VOR reception pushbutton.

c. Both.

d. Select the OFF VOICE key

Cockpit voice recorder is energized, on ground, as soon as the aircraft electrical network is supplied, but only for 5
min. It starts again as soon as: (15-10)

a. GND CTL is on.

b. One engine is running.

c. A and b is correct.

d. Aircraft is airborne.

On the RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls: (15-11)

a. The power supply to the RMP.

b. Only the STBY NAV function of the RMP.

c. Only the COM function of the RMP.

d. The interphone.

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If, in the cockpit, the master selector of the EVAC command panel is in CAPT position, and the purser presses
his/hers EVAC CMD pushbutton, what will happen? (15-12)

a. EVAC signals are energized in the cabin only.

b. All EVAC signals are energized.

c. EVAC signals are energized in the cockpit for 3 seconds only.

d. All emergency lights will illuminate.

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Oxygen

What happens when the mask is used with the selector in the 100% position? (16-1)

a. Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.

b. Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand.

c. Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow.

d. Mask is supplied with undiluted O2 on demand below cabin alt. 30,000 ft.

A thermal discharge of the crew oxygen bottle is indicated by: (16-2)

a. “Thermal discharge” message on ECAM.

b. Green blow out disc missing on L/H side of the fuselage below the cockpit.

c. Red blow out disc missing.

d. Low bottle pressure on ECAM.

In the passengers oxygen system, a generator, once activated, delivers oxygen for: (16-3)

a. 5 min., if all masks are used.

b. 30 min., if only one mask is in use.

c. Approx. 15 min., same distribution to each mask.

d. As long as cabin alt. > 14,000 ft.

If cabin altitude rises above 14,000 ft, oxygen masks will drop out: (16-4)

a. Only by actuation of a switch on the captain panel.

b. Automatically by cabin pressure altitude.

c. Automatically by aircraft altitude.

d. When activated at Fwd Att panel.

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Aircraft Variants

Which variant does not clear the tail in a 180° turn, if the wingtip clears a close in obstacle? (17-1)

a. A318.

b. A319.

c. A320.
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d. A321.

Which variant shows a tail strike avoidance chevron on the PFD? (17-2)

a. A318.

b. A319 NEO.

c. A319-112.

d. A321.

An A321NEO has a maximum 1+F speed of? (17-3)

a. 215kt.

b. 225kt.

c. 230kt.

d. 187kt.

An A319 has a maximum Flaps FULL speed of? (17-4)

a. 215kt.

b. 225kt.

c. 230kt.

d. 177kt.

What is the Minimum Control Landing speed of an A320? (17-5)

a. 113kt.

b. 200kt.

c. 180kt.

d. 107kt.

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UPR

What are the first 2 immediate flight path corrections and actions to a nose-high upset situation, non stall? (18-1)

a. PF – “Upset I have control”, wings level, nose down pitch input,

b. any pilot – “Upset I have control”, becomes PF and wings level, nose down pitch input.

c. any pilot – “Upset I have control”, becomes PF and nose down pitch input, then wings level once suitable.
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d. PF – “Upset I have control”, nose down pitch input, then wings level once suitable.

If you reduce the g-load / unloading the wing, the actual stall speed will: (18-3)

a. increase up to max. +2,5g then decrease

b. decrease down to 0kts TAS at 0g

c. increase always

d. decrease down to 90kts TAS and then remain constant

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RNP / PBN / RNAV

Refer to Picture / Jeppesen Chart below: What is the lowest insertable minima for the RNP 3D approach on the
MCDU PERF page on A320 considering no Operator increment (i.e. 50ft)? (19-3)

a. 2170’

b. 2082’

c. 2186’
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d. 2181’

Refer to Picture / Jeppesen Chart below: What is the lowest insertable minima for the RNP 2D NAV/FPA approach
on the MCDU PERF page on A320 considering no Operator increment (i.e. 50ft)? (19-4)

a. 2300’

b. 2082’

c. 2186’

d. 2181’

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Use the appropriate remaining side AP / FD in one the following cases: (19-5)

a. GPS PRIMARY LOST on one ND

b. NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on one FMGS

c. Loss of VERTICAL GUIDANCE (VNAV) Before FDP, until 1000Ft AAL. MAY CONTINUE with LNAV
MINIMA

d.all of the above (a-c)

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In which of the following cases, if external visual references are not sufficient to proceed visually, you do NOT have
to discontinue the approach? (19-6)

a. GPS PRIMARY LOST on both NDs

b. NAV ACCUR DOWNGARD on both FMGS

c. NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE on ECAM

d. XTK > 0,1 NM

​What is the required installed and operational equipment in order to fly RNP approaches from FAF to minima?

(19-7)

a. 1 GPS, 2 IRS, 1 MCDU, 1 FD, 1 PFD (PF), 2 FCU ch, 2 NDs

b. 2 GPS, 2 IRS, 1 MCDU, 1 FD, 1 PFD (PF), 2 FCU ch, 2 NDs

c. 1 GPS, 3 IRS, 1 MCDU, 1 FD, 1 PFD (PF), 2 FCU ch, 2 NDs

d. 1 GPS, 2 IRS, 1 MCDU, 1 FD, 1 PFD (PF), 1 FCU ch, 2 NDs

What is name of the scale on the PFD and on what source is the deviation indicated based from on a RNP approach
(refer to image below)? (19-8)

a. GNSS deviation indicator (GDI) base on GNSS (i.e. GPS)

b. RMI deviation indicator (RMI), based on Glide slope signal data from ground antenna
c. Vertical deviation indicator (VDI), based on on-board computed vertical path calculation and deviation.
d. Glide slope deviation indicator, based on data from GNSS only.

END

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