PHARMACOLOGY

1. Selective accumulation of aminoglycosides take place in the

a. inner ear
b. renal cortex
c. skin
d. none of the answers above is correct
e. answers A and B are correct

2. Indications for oral cephalosporins are

a. respiratory infections
b. urinary infections
c. skin infections caused by e,g, Staphylococcus
d. all of the answers above are correct
e. none of the answer above is correct

3. Resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics may result from

a. insensitivity of penicillin-binding protein
b. secretion of beta-lactamase
c. changes in cell membrane
d. all of the above
e. none of the answer above is correct

4. The eradicative treatment plan for Helicobacter Pylori comprises the follow models
a. IPP + clarithomycin + amoxicillin
b. IPP + clarithomycin + metronidazole
c. IPP + bismuth salts + tetracyclin + metronidazole
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

5. Angiotensin receptor type 1 blockers include

a. losartan
b. candesartan
c. irbesartan
d. valsartan
e. all above are correct

6. Calcium channel blockers include

a. verapamil
b. nifedipine
c. flunarizinum
d. cinnarizinum
e. all above are correct

7. Proton pump inhibitors should be taken always

a. before the meal
b. during the meal
c. after the meal
d. with the fatty food
e. food is of no importance
 PHARMACOLOGY

8. Mark the proper answer

a. Acetylcysteine may be used as an expectorant
b. Acetylcysteine may be used as an antitussive
c. Acetylcysteine is an antidote in management of paracetamol poisoning
d. Paracetamol is an antidote in management of Acetylcysteine poisoning
e. Answers A and C are correct

9. The adverse effect of insulin therapy is not

a. Lipodystrophy at the injection site
b. Hypoglycaemia upon overdosage
c. Allergic reaction
d. Production of insulin antibodies
e. Metallic taste in the mouth

10. Choose the correct answer regarding non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

a. inhibition of cyclooxygenase 1 leads to erosions and ulceration of the alimentary tract
b. inhibition of cyclooxygenase 2 leads to erosions and ulceration of the alimentary tract
c. resulting from inhibition of cyclooxygenase 1 NSAIDs show the analgetic effect
d. resulting from inhibition of cyclooxygenase 2 NSAIDs show the analgetic effect
e. Answers A and D are correct

11. A b-adrenergic receptor blocker showing mixed antiarrhythmic effect (class II and III) is
a. bisoprolol (II)
b. cardevidol (III)
c. sotalol (II and III)
d. metoprolol (II)
e. none of the above

12. First generation quinolones are used only in infections of

a. bones and joints
b. urinary tracts
c. organs of the pelvis minor
d. central nervous system
e. alimentary tract

13. Which is false about the proton pump inhibitors

a. they are pro-drugs
b. the active form of the drug is formed in alkaline environment
c. they are given in the form insoluble in the stomach
d. they enhance eradication of Helicobacter Pylori
e. they may be administered orally or iv

14. A typical contraindication for aminophylline is not

a. recent myocardial infarction
b. stomach and duodenal ulcers
c. gastroesophageal reflux
d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
e. hypersensitivity to theophylline
 PHARMACOLOGY

15. Which of the following medications does not belong to atypical neuroleptics
a. olanzapine
b. risperidon
c. quetiapine
d. chloropromazone
e. Sulpiride

16. Medications that inhibit blood platelets activation and aggregation through ADP are
a. Anagrelid and acetylsalicylic acid
b. Ticlopidine and clopidogrel
c. Abciksinmab and acetylsalicylic acid
d. enoxaparin and dalteparin
e. acenocumarol and ticlopidine

17. Which medication you will NOT use to eradicate H. Pylori in accordance with the valid
guidelines
a. metronidazole
b. clarithromucin
c. bizmuth citrate
d. proton pump inhibitor
e. ranitidine

18. Basic medication in the treatment of Addison-Biermer disease is

a. vitamin B12
b. folic acid
c. iron
d. pegifilgrastim
e. erythropoietin

19. The side effects of neuroleptics include

a. extrapyramidal disorders
b. cholinolytic effect
c. sedative effect
d. the answers B and C are correct
e. the answers A, B and C are correct

20. Idiosyncrasy:
a. congenital allergy to a drug
b. decreased sensitivity to medication due to genetically conditioned faster biotransformation
of a drug
c. genetically conditioned increases sensitivity to a medication
d. elevated sensitivity to medication due to impaired absorption
e. decreased systemic response to subsequent toxic dose of the drug
 PHARMACOLOGY

21. The post antibiotic effect means

a. severe persistent diarrheas
b. impairment of immunological resistance
c. prolonged antibacterial effect despite withdrawal of medication
d. extensive damage to parenchymatous organs
e. fungal infection following administration of antibiotics

22. The mechanism of action of theophylline is

a. blockage of leukotriene receptors
b. blockage of phosphodiesterase
c. stimulation of beta 2 receptors
d. inhibition of histamine release from mast cells
e. blockage of muscarinic receptors

23. Local anesthetics include

1. lidocaine 2. bupivacaine 3. midazolam 4. ropivacaine 5. propofol 6. sufentanil
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 5, 6
c. 5, 6
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 2, 4, 6

24. Calcitonin may be applied in the treatment of

a. hypocalcemia
b. rickets
c. adrenal insufficiency
d. osteoporosis
e. tetanus

25. In the use of novel oral anticoagulants dabigatran, it is recommended to monitor

a. APTT
b. INR
c. bleeding time
d. no monitoring of such treatment is needed
e. serum creatinine

26. Medication of choice in recurrent tonsillitis is

a. cefactor
b. doxycycline
c. kotrimoksazole
d. clindamycin
e. erythromycin
27. Aggravation of symptoms in a patient with bronchial asthma (cough, breathlessness) requires
the first line drugs which are
a. antihistaminic agents
b. short effect b 2 adrenergic agonists
c. methylxamthenes
d. antilekorineses
 PHARMACOLOGY

28. Propofol is
a. beta adrenolytic
b. intravenous anesthetic
c. barbitruate
d. benzodiazepine
e. skeletal muscle relaxant

29. Which of the following may be used to treat seizure?

a. diazepam
b. phenytoin
c. phenobarbital
d. valeric acid
e. A, B and C

30. Which is false about paracetamol

a. it shows trong hepatotoxic effect
b. it is excreted through the kidneys along with the gluvuronic acid
c. it shows anti-inflammatory, analgesic and antipyretic affects
d. it shows the ceiling effect, e.g. at dose above 1g the effect is not elevated
e. it has 2-4 h biological half-life

31. Glargine is a: long acting, no peak, onset 1-4hrs, duration 20-24 hrs
a. short acting insulin with the peak activity reached 2 hours after subcutaneous injection
b. fast acting insulin, aspat analogue with the starting point of activity 10-20 minutes after
subcutaneous injection
c. peakless profile long acting insulin analogue, with the starting point of activit 2 hours after
subcutaneous injection
d. long acting insulin with peak activity reached 8-24 hours after subcutaneous injection
e. long acting insulin with peak activity reached 12-18 hours after subcutaneous injection

32. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

a. increase endogenous acetylcholine concentration in the neighborhood of cholinergic
receptors
b. some irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used as pesticides often are used to
treat glaucoma e.g. physostigmine, ekotiopat
c. are used in management of the Alzheimer’s disease e.g. Donepezil, Rivastigmine
d. A and C
e. A, B and C

33. Digoxin shows positive …. effect

1. inotropic 2. dromotropic 3. chronotropic 4. tonotropic 5. bathmotropic

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 4, 5
d. 1, 3, 5
e. 1, 2, 5
 PHARMACOLOGY

34. Which of the groups of drugs listed below are not used in treatment gastric ulcerative disease?
a. proton pump inhibitors
b. H2 receptor antagonists
c. selective cholinolytic drug
d. nonselective cholinolucid drug
e. antacids

35. HIV integrase inhibitors are

a. raltegravir
b. acyclovir
c. polymixin B
d. idoxuidine
e. triclosan

36. Drugs which are not contraindicated in pregnancy include

a. doxycylinum
b. vancomycin
c. gentamicin
d. anoxycillinum
e. C and D

37. Selective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase 2 is

a. celecoxib
b. ibuprofen
c. metamizol
d. acetylsalicylic acid
e. allopurinol

38. Anti-cancer drugs include

1. Alkylating agent 2. Antimetabolites 3. Topoisomerase inhibitors 4. PPAR alpha and gamma
inhibitors 5. Poisons of the mitotic spindle
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 4, 5
c. 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 5

39. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs that are derivatives of phenylpropionic acid includes
a. diclofenac
b. ketoprofen
c. naproxen
d. B and C

40. The non selective actions of the block include

a. bronchospasm
b. increase in vascular resistance
c. adverse effect carbohydrate metabolism
d. adverse effect on the lipid metabolism
e. all correct answers
 PHARMACOLOGY

41. Please indicate the true sentence

a. amiodarone exists for parenteral administration
b. for amiodarone undesirable effects, hyperthyroidism should be used
c. amiodarone is applicable only in ventricular
d. for intravenous administration - amiodarone should be dissolved in
e. all answers correct

42. The major antibacterial effect of aztreonam is that concerning:

a. Staphylococci
b. Streptococci
c. Gram (-) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Serratia
d. Helicobacter pylori
e. Mycoplasma, Chlamydias

43. Sulfasalazine belongs to:

a. Sulphonamides
b. Penicillins
c. Cephalosporins
d. Quinolones
e. Aminoglycoside antibiotics

44. Which of the following does NOT belong to aminoglycoside antibiotics:

a. Streptomycin
b. Kanamycin
c. Amikacin
d. Tobramycin
e. Trimetoprim

45. Phenylpyruvic acid derivatives are

a. Naproxen
b. Ibuprofen
c. Ketoprofen
d. All of the above are correct
e. None of the above answers is correct

46. Morphine poisoning symptoms are NOT:

a. Bradycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Shallow breathing
d. Dilated pupils
e. Drowsiness
 PHARMACOLOGY

47. A drug included in the group of beta-andrenergic receptor blockers (beta-blockers), showing
additional vasodilatatory effect, is:
a. metoprolol
b. bisoprolol
c. carvedilol
d. omeprazole
e. acebutolol
48. The most clinically effective mycobacterial first choice drugs include:

1. izoniazid 2. fluoroquinolones 3. rifampin (rifampicin) 4. Ethambutol.

The correct answer is:

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,2,4
c. 2,3,4
d. 1,3,4
e. none of the above is correct

49. An asymptomatic patient with plasma potassium 3.4 mmol/l should firstly be ordered:
a. increased potassium ingestion
b. withdrawal of spirolactone
c. starting of treatment with oral furosemidum
d. starting of treatment with oral tiazide diuretic
e. withdrawal of angiotensin convertase inhibitors
(Hypocalemia – 3.4)

50. Which of the following statements concerning the effects of metformin is true?
a. inhibition of glucogenesis and glycogenesis in the liver
b. increase of cellular sensitivity to insulin
c. inhibition of intestinal absorption of glucose
d. a and b are true
e. a,b and c are true

51. β-lactam antibiotics do NOT include:

a. penicilins
b. glycopeptides
c. cephalosporines
d. carbapenems
e. monobactams

52. The following are NOT macrolide antibiotics

a. erythromycin
b. Clarithromycin
c. roxithromycin
d. streptomycin
e. all of the named above are macrolids
 PHARMACOLOGY

53. The potential side effects of glucocorticoids is/are NOT:

a. anemia
b. diabetes
c. cataract, glaucoma
d. increase in arterial blood pressure
e. lipid disorders (iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome)

54. Cotrimoxazole:
a. is a combination of sulfadiazine and trimethoprim
b. has a dosage of 960 mg every 12 hours for children -for adults not children
c. is effective for the treatment of infection of the urinary tract, prostate gland inflammation,
typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever
d. can be used for 3 weeks in all kinds of infections due to its mild side effects
e. seldom causes megaloblastic anemia, leucopenia and granulocytopenia

55. The mechanism of action of sulfonamides consists of:

a. suppressing/blocking dehydrogenase of dihydrofolic acid – ( trimetropin )
b. suppressing/blocking topoisomerase IV and gyrase
c. an antagonizing action to para aminobenzoic acid
d. damaging bacterial DNA through the products of acetylation – ( fluoroquinoles )
e. suppressing/blocking the synthesis of bacterial protein by binding the 50S ribosome
subunit – ( macrolide )

56. The diuretic(s) that conserve(s) potassium is/are:

a. Spironolactone
b. Eplerenone
c. Amiloride
d. correct a and b
e. correct a, b and c

57. The antagonist of angiotensin receptor AT1 is/are:

a. Losartan
b. Candesartan
c. Valsartan
d. Eprosartan
e. All of the named above

58. The drug(s) used for the elimination of S.aureus from the nasal cavity and for the local
treatment of minor dermititis is/are:
a. Mupirocin
b. Bacitracin
c. Vankomycin
d. Teicoplanin
e. Linezolid
 PHARMACOLOGY

59. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity and curariform action are side effects of :

a. Vankomicin
b. Gentamicin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. b and c
e. a, b, c

60. Suppression of cell wall synthesis through binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala end of the newly formed
penta-peptide by suppressing transglycosylase and cross-binding is the mechanism of action of
a. Fosfomycin
b. Bacitracin
c. Vancomycin – all glycopeptides
d. b and c
e. a, b and c

61. Please select the FALSE statement concerning metronidazole:

a. It has an antiprotozoal effect and is effective in the treatment of infections caused by
anaerobic bacteria
b. Is effective in the treatment of colitis caused by Clostridium difficile and in eradication of
Helicobacter pylori
c. Weakly penetrates into cerebrospinal fluid
d. Causes disulfiram reaction if used together with alcohol
e. All of the above statements are true/correct

62. Buprenorphine is:

A. a partial agonist of mu receptors and an antagonist of kappa receptors
B. a partial agonist of mu receptors and an antagonist of delta receptors
C. an agonist of delta and kappa receptors
D. an agonist of mu and delta receptors
E. an agonist of mu and kappa receptors

63. Which of the following drugs NOT be effective in asthma attack?

A. Disodium bromide
B. Theophylline
C. Ipratropium bromide
D. Salbutamol
E. All of the above are effective

64. Mechanism of action of loperamid consists of:

A. stimulation of opioid receptors
B. blocking opioid receptors
C. stimulation of 5-HT4 receptors
D. blocking 5-HT4 receptors
E. blocking 5-HT3 receptors
 PHARMACOLOGY

65. Contraindications for the use of spironolactone is/are

A. hirsutism
B. hiperaldosteronism
C. heart failure
D. Hyperkalemia
E. liver failure

66. Which of the diuretics decreases calcium excretion in urine?

a. Furosemide - increase the calcium
b. Torasemide
c. Acetazolamide
d. Hydrochlorothiazide
e. Spironolactone
67. Which of the following statements concerns atropine?
A. it stimulates acetylcholinesterase
B. it suppresses Ach release from cholinergic nerve terminals
C. it suppresses transduction in the neuromuscular plate
D. it suppresses transduction in autonomic ganglia
E. it blocks peripheral and central muscarinic effect of Ach

68. Beta-adrenolytic drugs:

1. decrease left ventricle ejection fraction
2. are used as antihypertensive medication
3. may cause bronchospasm in patients with asthma
4. are used as antiarrhythmic medication
Correct answers:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 4
e. E. 1, 2, 3, 4

69. Atropin-like drugs are contraindicated in:

1. gastroesophageal reflux 2. glaucoma 3. Parkinson’s disease 4. urine retention

Correct answers:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
 PHARMACOLOGY

70. Which of the following drugs is characterized by significant selectivity towards beta2-
adrenergic receptor in the bronchi?

1. salbutamol 2. isoprenaline 3. terbutaline 4. noradrenaline

Correct answers:
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 4
D. 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4

71. The specific antidote used in the treatment of paracetamol intoxication is:
A. Glucagon – beta/ calcium
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Penicillamine - lead poisoning
D. Naloxone - antidote used in opiod poisoning
E. Flumazenil

72. The reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in AIDS therapy and HIV infections is/are:
A. zidovudine
B. mepacrine
C. nevirapine
D. b and c
E. a and c

73. The drugs that disrupt bone growth are:

A. tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones
B. penicillin and cephalosporins
C. tetracycline and macrolides
D. carbapenems and cephalosporins
E. sulfonamides

74. The representative of fluoroquinolones is NOT:

A. gatifloxacin
B. qinupristin
C. norfloxacin
D. ciprofloxacin
E. ofloxacin

75. Absolute contraindications for the use of adrenolytic beta-blockers include:

A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. schizophrenia
C. second degree atrioventricular block
D. atrial hypertension
E. ischemic heart disease
 PHARMACOLOGY

76. Increasing the potential action of drugs administered together, where the effect is greater
than the sum of action of the individual components is called:
A. functional antagonism
B. hyperadditive synergism
C. tachyphylaxis
D. additive synergism
E. idiosyncrasy

77. The mechanism of action of linezolid consists of:

A. Blocking transpeptidase which leads to the suppression of bacterial wall synthesis – beta
lactams
B. Suppression of the introduction of triphosphate deoxynucleotides into the DNA of the
Herpes simplex virus - aceclovirus
C. Stabilization of the gyrase-DNA complex, which leads to the suppression of DNA
replication – fluoroquinoloes
D. Suppression of the synthesis of bacterial protein by binding to the bacterial ribosome
E. Suppression of folic acid synthesis by bacteria – trimetoprim
78. Depression of the respiratory centre due to a toxic dose of morphine can be reversed by the
administration of:
A. nalorphine
B. naloxone
C. fentanyl
D. a and b
E. a, b and c

79. Which of the following are given in the case of neuroleptic malignant syndrome:
A. biperiden and amantadine
B. dantrolene and bromocriptine
C. dantrolene and atropine
D. diazepam and biperiden
E. amantadine and atropine

80. Post-exposure management when there is a suspected risk of hepatitis C infection consists of:
A. administration of the vaccine and, if needed, immunoglobulin
B. administration of interferon up to 72 hours after exposure to the infectious material
C. administration of ribavirin and interferon up to 48 hours after exposure to the infectious
material
D. observation
E. administration of ribavirin up to 72 hours after exposure to the infectious material

81. Neuropathy caused by deficit of pyridoxine is a side effect of:

A. isoniazid
B. rifampicin
C. fluoroquinolones
D. ethambutol
E. streptomycin
 PHARMACOLOGY

82. Aminoglycosides show a bactericidal synergetic effect in combination with:

A. tetracyclines
B. vancomycin
C. β-lactams
D. correct a and b
E. correct b and c

83. The first choice drug in the treatment of Erythema migrant (Lyme disease) is:
A. doxycycline, which belongs to the aminoglycosides
B. ceftriaxone, which belongs to cephalosporins
C. erythromycin, which belongs to macrolides
D. erythromycin, which belongs to aminoglycosides
E. doxycycline, which belongs to tetracyclines

84. With the use of Diazepam, you can observe the following effects:
A. miorelaxing, anticonvulsant, anxiolytic
B. anticonvulsant, sedative, antiemetic
C. hypnotic, analgetic, sedative
D. anxiolytic, antipsychotic, analgetic
E. anticonvulsant, antipsychotic, sedative

85. A patient in anaphylactic shock should have which of following administered to them:
A. adrenalin 0,5 mg intramuscularly, oxygen 3 l/min, clemastine 200 mg i.v.
B. adrenalin 0,3 mg, oxygen 10 l/min, antazoline 200 mg i.v.
C. noradrenalin 0,5 mg intramuscularly, antazoline 200 mg i.v., ranitidine 15 mg i.v.
D. adrenalin 1 mg i.v., oxygen 5 l/min, antazoline 2 mg i.v.
E. adrenalin 0,5 mg i.v., clemastine 2 mg i.v., ranitidine 150 mg orally

86. The first-choice drug in the treatment of asystolic cardiac arrest is :

A. atropine 3 mg i.v.
B. adrenalin 1 mg i.v.
C. amiodarone 300 mg i.v.
D. lidocaine 300 mg i.v.
E. digoxin 0,1 mg i.v.

87. The antiplatelet effect of acetylsalicylic acid is maintained for:

A. 1 day
B. 2 – 3 days
C. 72 hours
D. 6 – 12 hours
E. About 7 days

88. The drug of choice in the treatment of pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia is:
A. Neomycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Nafcillin
D. Cloxacillin
E. Vancomycin
 PHARMACOLOGY

89. Postantibiotic effect (PAE) means:

A. Persisting adverse side effects after discontinuation of its use
B. Persisting bacterial flora disturbances despite discontinuation of the antibiotic
C. Persisting antibacterial effect of the drug/preparation following the decrease of active
substance concentration below MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) value
D. Persisting of blood coagulation disorders following antibiotic use
E. None of the above is correct

90. What is the atropine effect upon the heart ?

A. chronotropic (-)
B. chronotropic (+)
C. tonotropic (-)
D. inotropic (+)
E. none of the above is correct

91. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Tetracyclines are deposited in bones, dentine, enamel, imparting brown discoloration
B. Expired tertyracyclines may yield symptoms resembling the Fanconi syndrome
C. Some tetracyclines cause photodermatoses
D. Orally administered tetracyclines preserve the intestinal bacterial flora

92. The antagonist of postsynaptic peripheral α1 receptors is:

A. Prazosin
B. Aminophylline
C. Ketanseryne
D. Forskolin
E. Bromostygmine

93. Which of the following does not belong to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs):
a. Diclofenac
b. Acetylsalicylic acid
c. Ibuprofen
d. Paracetamol
e. Indomethacin

94. The use of oral antidiabetic drugs is indicated only if:

a. Type I diabetes has been ruled out
b. Damage of insular apparatus has occurred
c. Insulin ceased to act
d. Diet is ineffective
e. a and d are correct

95. Which of the following are NOT among the adverse effects of lincosamides:
a. Clostridium difficile superinfection
b. Pseudomembranous enteritis
c. Allergic skin reactions
d. Liver injury
e. Hearing impairment
 PHARMACOLOGY

96. Angiotensin receptor AT1 blockers include:

a. Losartan
b. Kandesartan
c. Irbesartan
d. Walsartan
e. All the answers above are correct

97. Drugs used in treatment of migraine headaches do NOT include:

a. Acetylsalicylic acid and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
b. Acetylsalicylic acid combined with caffeine
c. Ergot alkaloids
d. Sumatriptan
e. Metronidazol

98. The major side effects of glycocorticosteroids are:

a. oedema
b. tendency to haemorrhages
c. impaired body response to infection
d. Cushing’s syndrome
e. all of the above are correct

99. The first line drugs used in treatment of tuberculosis do NOT include:
a. Isoniazid
b. Streptomycin
c. Ethionamide
d. Ethambutol
e. Rifampicil

100. Which of the following beta-blockers are NOT cardioselective?

a. Sotalol
b. Metoprolol
c. Atenolol
d. Bisoprolol
e. all of the above are cardioselective

101. Contraindications for angiotensin convertase inhibitors are:

a. unilateral renal artery stenosis
b. pregnancy and breastfeeding
c. history of angioedema
d. all of the above are correct
e. b and c are correct

102. Which of the listed below is NOT a characteristic effect of morphine?

a. inhibition of uterine contraction, which prolongs the time of labour
b. strong dilation of the pupils
c. lowering of seizure threshold
d. lowering resistance of the respiratory system to partial CO2 pressure
 PHARMACOLOGY

e. contraction of the sphincter of the common bile duct, which results in elevated pressure in
the bile ducts

103. Which is NOT a prokinetic agent:

a. Metoklopramide
b. Domperidone
c. Cizapride
d. Tegaserod
e. Loperamide

104. Lost drug sensitivity as a result of frequent usage, typical of indirect pharmacodynamic
mechanism, is presented as:
a. tolerance
b. tachyphylaxis
c. idiosyncracies
d. cumulation
e. hypersensitivity to a drug

105. Which of the drugs specified below may cause hyperglycemia:

a. thiazide diuretics
b. metfomin
c. glucocorticosteroids
d. A and C is correct
e. all the answers are correct

106. Loop diuretics include:

a. Furosemide, Spironolactone
b. Acetazolamide, Furosemide
c. Hydrochlorothiazide, Indamamide
d. Furosemide, Etacrynic acid
e. Eplerenone , Furosemide

107. Chose the correct sentence:

a. Amiodarone is provided only in the parenteral form
b. Side effects of Amiodarone include hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism
c. Amiodarone is to be used only to treat atrial fibrillation
d. to be administered intravenously, Amiodarone needs to be dissolved in 0.9 % NaCl solution
e. all the answers are correct

108. The most important regimen in ventricular fibrillation is:

a. Amiodarone
b. resuscitation and defibrillation
c. adrenaline administration
d. administration of naloxone
e. lidocaine administration
 PHARMACOLOGY

109. Which of the following should be used in a 3 year old child with enterobiasis:
A. Mebendazole B. Albendazole C. Amoxicillin D. Erythromycin E. Pyrantel
a. A, B, C
b. A, C, D
c. A, B, E
d. C, D, E
e. B, C, E

110. Which of the following is used to treat pseudomembranous colitis

a. Clindamycin
b. Vankomycin
c. metronidazole
d. a and c are correct
e. b and c are correct

111. Which of the following is used to treat herpes zoster

a. Oseltamivir
b. Abakiwir
c. Nevirapine
d. Ribavirin
e. Acyclovir

112. Benzodiazepines have the … effects.

a. somniferous -> tendency to induce sleep
b. anticonvulsant
c. pain relieving
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b, c are correct

113. The symptoms of atropine poisoning are:

a. dilated pupils, tachycardia, hypothermia
b. tachycardia, miosis, hyperthermia
c. dryness and redness of the skin, dilated pupils, hyperthermia
d. hallucinations, dilated pupils, bradycardia
e. dryness and redness of the skin, miosis, hypothermia

114. In acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma the first line therapy is based on:

A. beta 2 mimetic B. oxygen therapy C. Glucocorticosteroids iv D. beta-antagonists

E. aminophylline in nebulization

a. A, B, E
b. A, B, C
c. B, C, D
d. A, B, C, E
e. B, C, D, E
 PHARMACOLOGY

115. Which of the listed below is NOT a phase II reaction ?

a. acetylation
b. methylation
c. glutamine conjugation
d. hydroxylation
e. glycine conjugation

116. Thrombocyte aggregation inhibitors include: 1. acetylsalicylic acid 2. Ticlopidine 3.

Clopidogrel 4. Acenocoumarol 5. unfractionated heparyn The correct answer is:
a. 1,2
b. 1,3
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 3, 4, 5
e. 2, 3, 5

117. Which of the following requires no laboratory tests to monitor anticoagulation?

a. acenocoumarol
b. warfarin
c. unfractionated heparin
d. low-molecular-weight heparin
e. all of them require monitoring

118. The following should be used in bronchial asthma exacerbation:

a. inhalation od short acting beta2-mimetic
b. oral application of short acting muscarinic receptor antagonist
c. aluminium sulphate i.v.
d. correct are a and b
e. none of the above is correct

119. Which of H2-blockers may cause potency disorders, oligospermia and gynecomastia, due
to the dose dependent antiandrogenic effect:
a. ranitidine
b. cimetidine
c. famotidine
d. nizatidine
e. spironolactone

120. True about echinocandins are: 1. they inhibit synthesis of 1.3- β-D-glucan, important part
of the fungi cell wall. 2. they are not absorbed in their active form from the alimentary tract. 3.
they are absorbed in their active form from the alimentary tract. 4. caspofungin is the first
semi-synthetic representative of this class of anti-fungal drugs. 5. nystatin is the first semi-
synthetic representative of this class of anti-fungal drugs.
a. 1,3,4
b. 1,2,4
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,5
e. 1,3,5
 PHARMACOLOGY

121. Fluoroquinolones and their analogues:

a. are inhibitors of subunit A of DNA gyrase
b. are bactericidal
c. are bacteriostatic
d. A and C are true
e. A and B are true

122. The adverse effects of aminoglycosides include:

a. cardiotoxicity
b. ototoxicity
c. nephrotoxicity
d. B and C are true
e. all of the above are true

123. Which is true about the effect of paracetamol?

a. contrary to NSAID, the anti-inflammatory action of paracetamol is substantially weak
b. contrary to NSAID, the anti-inflammatory action of paracetamol is stronger
c. the hepatotoxic effects appears first among paracetamol poisonings
d. A and C are true
e. A and B are true

124. The potential side effects of opioids is/are: 1. depression of the respiration centre 2.
decrease in arterial blood pressure 3. increase in arterial blood pressure 4. constipation 5.
diarrhea Correct are:
a. 1,3,5
b. 1,2,4
c. 1,2,5
d. 2,5
e. 3.5

125. Metoclopramide (select the FALSE statement):

a. is used as antiemetic and prokinetic drug
b. the mechanism of action consists of suppression of H2 receptors and due to that it is used for
the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux
c. causes motion disturbance, tremor, gynecomastia and impotence
d. is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, phaeochromocytoma
e. increases tension of lower esophageal sphincter and improves stomach emptying, but has no
effect on small intestine and colonic motility

126. Neomycin:
a. is often administered orally in cases of endocarditis
b. easily permeates/penetrates the blood-brain barrier
c. germicidal - binds to the 50 s ribosome particle
d. is not absorbed through the digestive system (or absorbed in a small amount)
e. is not very nephro- and ototoxic
 PHARMACOLOGY

127. The potential side effect(s) of drugs that nonselectively block beta adrenergic receptors
is/are:
a. bronchospasm
b. bradycardia
c. negative effect on carbohydrate metabolism
d. negative effect on lipid metabolism
e. all the above

128. The group of anti-hypertensive drugs characterized by the smallest amount of side-effects
(at the placebo level) are:
a. ngiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
b. angiotensin receptor blockers
c. calcium channel blockers
d. diuretics
e. beta blockers

129. Indications for the use of N-acetylcysteine is/are:

a. cystic fibrosis
b. pneumonia
c. paracetamol intoxication
d. sinusitis
e. All of the above

130. Morphine can be used in: a. myocardial infarction b. lung edema c. neoplastic diseases d.
colic in the course of gallstone disease e. wounds of the chest with trauma to the pleura The
correct answers:
a. a, b, c, d, e
b. a, c, d
c. c
d. a, b, c, e
e. b, e

131. According to the resuscitation guidelines, during circulatory arrest in the mechanism of
ventricular fibrillation, adrenalin is used in dosage:
a. 3 mg iv once
b. 3 mg c every 1 min Sc
c. 1 mg every 3-5 min iv
d. 0,5 mg every 1 min iv
e. It is not used at all

132. Select the symptoms of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation 1. negative

chronotropism 2. constriction of the pupil 3. increased gastric juice secretion 4. relaxation of
sphincters Correct answers:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
 PHARMACOLOGY

133. The specific antidote used in overdose of opioids (e.g. morphine) is:
a. Naloxone
b. Obidoxime
c. Vitamin K
d. Methylene blue
e. Physostigmine

134. Which is NOT a selective inhibitor that binds serotonin:

a. fluoxetine
b. sertraline
c. amitriptyline
d. fluvoxamine
e. paroxetine

135. Phenylpyruvic acid derviates are:

a. Naproxen
b. ibuprofen
c. ketoprofen
d. all of the above correct
e. None of the above is correct

136. P2Y12 inhibitors do not include

A. Ticagrelor
B. Prasugrel
C. Clopidogrel (and Cangrelor)
D. Dabigatran
E. All medications mentioned above belong to P2Y12 inhibitors

137. Ankle edema is a characteristic adverse effect following administration of

A. diuretics
B. ACE-inhibitors
C. calcium channel blockers
D. beta-blockers
E. methyldopa

138. Which of the listed drugs may cause hypokalemia:

1. Angiotensin convertase inhibitors (ACE-1) 2. loop diuretics 3. aldosterone antagonist 4.

thiazide diuretics 5. indapamide

A. 1, 3
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
 PHARMACOLOGY

139. Therapeutic index shows:

a. growth in percentage of the therapeutic dose which proves effective for a given share of cases
b. quotient of the maximum therapeutic dose and the minimal tolerated dose
c. quotient of the maximum tolerated dose and the minimal therapeutic dose
d. quotient of the maximum therapeutic dose and the minimal tolerated dose
e. quotient of the minimal therapeutic dose and the maximum tolerated dose

140. HIV intergrase inhibitors are:

a. raltegravir
b. acyclovir
c. polymixin B
d. idoxuidine
e. triclosan

141. The symptoms of atropine intoxication are :

a. mydriasis, tachycardia and hypothermia
b. tachycardia, moisis, hyperthemia
c. dryness and redness of the skin, mydriasis and hyperthermia
d. hallucinations, mydriasis, bradycardia
e. dryness and redness of the skin, miosis, hypothermia

142. Which of the following does not belong to fluoroquinolones?

a. qutifloxacine
b. quinupristin
c. oflovacinum
d. ciprofloxacin
e. ofloxacin

143. Neuropathy caused by pyridoxine insufficiency is an adverse effect of:

a. Isoniazid
b. rifampicinum
c. fluoroquinolones
d. ethambutol
e. streptomycin

144. Which of the following is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

a. Fluoxetine
b. sertraline
c. amitriptyline
d. fluvoxamine
e. paroxetine

145. The strict contraindications for beta-adrenolytic agents are:

A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. schizophrenia
C. atrio-ventricular block II degree
D. arterial hypertension
 PHARMACOLOGY

E. ischemic heart disease

146. Respiratory depression after morphine administration can be reversed with:

A. Propranolol
B. naloxone
C. fentanyl
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

147. Depression of the respitarory centre due to a toxic dose morphine can be reversed by the
adminstration of:
a. nalorphine
b. b.naloxone
c. fentanyl
d. A and B
e.
148. Which of the following is carbapenem?
A. Meropenem
B. Cefuroxime
C. Ampiciline
D. Mezlocyline
E. Clarithromycin

149. Drug used in treatment of migraine headaches do NOT include

A. Acetylsalicylic acid and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B. Acetylsalicylic acid combined with caffeine
C. Ergot alkaloids
D. Sumatriptan
E. Metreonidazol

150. Which is ineffective in asthma attacks ?

a. disodium cromoglycate (preventror)
b. theophlline
c. ipratropium bromide
d. salbutamol
e. none of the answers above is correct

151. In the symptomatic treatment of hyperkalemia if:

1. calcium gluconolactobionate i,v 2. 0.9% Naci i.v 3. furosemid i.v (-) 4. hydrochlorothiazide p.o
5. calcytonine i.v

the correct answer is:

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 4, 5
C. 1, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 5
E. 1, 3, 4
 PHARMACOLOGY

152. In the patient with serum potassium - 2.4 mmol/ l without any symptoms in the first order
-------:
A. increased potassium intake
B. discontinuation of spironolactone
C. initiation of treatment with furosemide administered –
D. starting treatment with a diuretic –
E. cessation of taking a drug from the angiotensin inhibitor group

153. For adverse effects of chloramphenicol:

A. damage to the bone marrow
B. anaphylactic shock
C. disorder of the digestive system
D. in neonates can lead to the occurrence of ‘gray’ syndrome
E. hearing impairment

154. Do not belong to macrolides

A. Streptomycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Josamycin
D. Clarithromycin
E. Spiramycin

155. Indicate a real sentence about depression

A. is a 5-HT receptor antagonist
B. finds use with zaparchest and peptic ulcer disease
C. increase the secretion of acetylcholine and intestinal ptoors of the gastrointestinal tract
D. is an agonist on muscarinic nicotinic receptors
E. is a very well to tolerated lesion causing undesirable effects

156. A specific antidote for api overdose

A. Naloxon (Narcan)
B. Obidoksym (Toxogonin)
C. vitamin K
D. Methylbenzene
E. Fizostigmine

157. The patient was found unconscious. In the study .. 40 /min, at the ECG at the
echocardiogram III. Poisoning:
A. Atropine
B. Werapamil (Isoptin
C. Metoprolol
D. Theophylline
E. B and C

158. Proceeding in myocardial infarction, other applications:

A. acetylsalicylic acid, clopidogrel, ketoprofen
B. clopidogrel, nitroglycerin, oxygen
C. acetylsalicylic acid, amiodarone, morphine
 PHARMACOLOGY

D. amiodarone, morphine, prasugrel

E. clopidogrel, oxygen, morphine

159. The contraindication of using fibrous drugs is not:

A. pregnancy
B. ischemic strole last week
C. bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract during the last two weeks
D. brain tumor
E. hemorrhagic diathesis

160. Adjust the medicine and the characteristic side effect:

a.rifampicin 1. extragalytic neuritis increase
b. isoniazid 2. peripheral neuropathy
c. ethambutol 3. cytotoxicity
d. streptomycin 4. a reddish coloration thesis
A. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
B. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
C. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
D. a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
E. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

161. The use of hydroxymethylglutaryl - CoA reductase inhibitors is contraindicated:

A. in liver diseases
B. after myopathies
C. during pregnancy and breastfeeding
D. A i B
E. a, b and c

162. The use of which drug does not require laboratory anticoagulant monitoring?
A. acenocoumarol
B. warfarin
C. unfractionated heparin
D. low molecular weight heparin
E. The use of each of the above-mentioned drugs requires monitoring

163. In the asthma exacerbation you will see:

A. beta 2? mimetics with short duration of inhalation
B. muscarinic receptor with short duration of action orally
C.
D. A I B
E. none of the above

164. The listed drugs work the longest:

A. entantanyl
B. Fentanyl
C. Alfentanil
D.
E. all perate equally
 PHARMACOLOGY

165. For calcium channel blockers

A. Werapamil
B. Nifedipine
C. Flunarizine
D. Cinnarizine
E. All correct answers

166. Loop diuretic drugs should not be

A. furosemide
B. ethacrynic acid
C. Torsemide
D. bumetanide
E. spironolactone

167. Side effects of aldosterone antagonists are

A. exacerbation of heart failure, adulterative reactions
B. Hyperkalemia and gynecomastia, impotence
C. Hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, agranulocytosis
D. SIADH syndrome, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia
E. diarrhea, renal dysfunction, hyponatremia

168. Examples of the first-line drugs in monotherapy for hypertension are the following sets:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide, Doxazosin, Nifedipine
B. Amitriptyline, Valsartan, Amilorid
C. Verapaml, Doxozosin, Pentoxifylline
D. Amilodypina, Telmisartan, Metylodopa

169. A contraindication to the use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are:

A. peptic ulcer disease, pregnancy, unilateral renal artery stenosis
B. ciaza, hyperkalemia, hyperthyroidism
C. Breast-feeding period, bilateral renal stenosis, Quinke’s edema
D. malignant hypertension, ischemic heart disease, hypertrophy of the prostate gland
E. Concomitant use of angiotensin receptor antagonists due to antihypertensive effect.

170. Which of the following antidepressants does not belong to the SSRI group?
A. fluoxetine
B. escitalopram
C. venlafaxine
D. paroxetine
E. sertraline

171. Leukotriene receptor antagonist is NOT:

A. Zafirlucast
B. Monelucast
C. Cinalucast
D. Zileuton
E.
 PHARMACOLOGY

172. Which of the listed below is NOT characteristic for thyroid hormones?
A. increased body temperature
B. heat intolerance
C. lowered blood free fatty acids
D. tremor
E. weight gaining
F.
173. Absolute contraindication for thrombolytic drugs do NOT include:
A. myocardial infarction
B. TIA a week before
C. GI hemorrhage during the last two weeks
D. brain tumour
E. purpura