Origin of Bioelectric Signals

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Origin of
Bioelectric Signals”.

1. Source of Bioelectric potential is ____________ in nature.

a) electronic
b) electric
c) ionic
d) mechanical
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bioelectric potentials are generated at cellular level and the source of these potentials is ionic
in nature. The prominent ions are K+, Na+, and Cl–. Electronic potential is seen in commonly used cells for
example the Galvanic cell. Mechanical potential is found nowhere. Electrical potential is found in electricity.

2. Palsied muscles mean _____________

a) paralyzed muscles
b) active muscles
c) voluntary muscles
d) involuntary muscles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Palsied is an adjective that means paralyzed. It is used to describe a muscle on which an
individual has lost all control (cannot move). Voluntary muscles are the muscles on which the individual has
complete control. Involuntary muscles are the ones on which the individual has no control for example
heart wall muscles.

3. The principal ion that is not involved with the phenomena of producing cell potentials is ______________
a) sodium
b) potassium
c) chlorine
d) hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sodium (Na+), Potassium (K+), and Chlorine (Cl–) are the principal ions involved with the
phenomena of producing cell potentials. Na+ is present outside the cell membrane and creates a positively
charged environment outside the cell membrane. Cl– is present inside the cell membrane and is
responsible for the negative environment inside the cell membrane

4. What is the relatively static membrane potential of quiescent cells called?

a) half-cell potential
b) action potential
c) resting membrane potential
d) cell potential
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Resting membrane potential or the resting potential is the relative static membrane potential
of quiescent cell. That is if the resting membrane potential of a neuron is about -70 mV (mV=millivolt) it
means that the inside of the neuron is 70 mV less than the outside of the neuron. An action potential
occurs when the potential of the membrane of a given axonal position increases and decreases rapidly.
This depolarization causes depolarization of adjacent positions in a similar way.

5. The variation of the electrical potential associated with the passage of a pulse along the membrane of a
muscle cell or a nerve cell is called __________
a) muscle potential
b) action potential
c) resting potential
d) half cell potential
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An action potential occurs when the potential of the membrane of a given axonal position
increases and decreases rapidly. This depolarization causes depolarization of adjacent positions in a similar
way. Resting membrane potential or the resting potential is the relative static membrane potential of a
quiescent cell.

6. Cells depolarize and action potential in generated as soon as a stimulus is applied.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This statement is False. This is because unless a stimulus above a certain minimum value is
applied, the cell will not be depolarized and no action potential will be generated. This value of potential
above which the depolarizes and an action potential is generated is known as the stimulus threshold.

7. After a cell is stimulated, a finite period of time is required for the cell to return to its pre-stimulus state.
This period is known as ____________
a) restoration period
b) refactory period
c) regain period
d) regenerative period
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After a cell is stimulated, a finite period of time is required for the cell to return to its pre-
stimulus state. This is because the energy associated with the action potential is developed from metabolic
process within the cell which takes time for completion. This time period is called refactory period.

8. Electrooculography (EOG/E.O.G.) is a technique for measuring what?

a) abnormal function of the retina
b) heart rate
c) respiration rate
d) cornea-retinal standing potential
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrooculography (EOG / E.O.G) is a technique for measuring the potential of the corneal
retinal standing potential that exists between the front and back of the human eye. The resulting signal is
called electrooculogram. The main applications are in the diagnosis of ophthalmology and the recording of
eye movements.

9. EKG stands for _________________

a) Electrocardiography
b) Electroencephalography
c) Electromyography
d) Electrtokinetcography
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrocardiography (ECG or EKG) is the way toward recording the electrical action of the heart
over some stretch of time utilizing anodes put on the skin. It could simply be understood as the electrical
representation of heart beat. Electroencephalography is the electrical recording of brain.

10. Phonocardiography is listening to __________

a) arm muscle sound
b) lungs sound
c) heart sound
d) respiratory tract sound
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A phonocardiogram (or PCG) is a record high-constancy recording of sounds and mumble
made by the heart with the assistance of the machine called phonocardiography. Consequently,
phonocardiography is the chronicle of the considerable number of sounds made by the heart amid a heart
cycle. Mostly stethoscope is used phonocardiography.

Recording Electrodes
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Recording
Electrodes”.

1. Electrodes make a transfer from the __________ in the tissue to the electronic conduction which is
necessary to make measurements.
a) electronic conduction
b) ionic conduction
c) electric conduction
d) impulsive conduction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electrodes make an exchange from the ionic conduction in the tissue to the electronic
conduction which is important to make measurements. An electrolytic paste is applied between the
electrodes and the skin to reduce skin contact impedance. The electrolyte also facilitates ionic conduction
from the skin to the electrodes.

2. Surface electrodes damage the living tissues.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The surface electrodes pick up the potential difference from the tissue surface when placed
over it without damaging the living tissues. They are placed above the skin and cause no harm to the living
tissues. They capture the electrical activities of bunch of tissues together.

3. Deep-seated electrodes indicates the electric potential difference arising ________ the living tissues or
cells.
a) inside
b) outside
c) around
d) adjacent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deep-seated electrodes indicate the electric potential difference arising inside the living tissues
or cells. Surface electrodes indicates the electric potentials arising outside the living tissues that is on the
surface of the skin. Needle electrodes are example of deep seated electrodes

4. Impedance pneumography is a commonly-used technique to monitor a person’s _______

a) respiration rate
b) heart rate
c) pulse rate
d) skin impedance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Impedance pneumography is a commonly-used technique to monitor a person’s respiration
rate, or breathing rate. It is implemented by using two electrodes or four electrodes. Skin impedance is the
resistance between the skin and the electrode. Heart rate measurement is called ECG.

5. Electrode paste ____________

a) increases contact impedance
b) equates contact impedance
c) reduces contact impedance
d) absorbs contact impedance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to obtain a clearly established contact (low contact impedance) an electrolyte or
electrode paste is usually employed as an interface between the electrode and the surface of the source of
the event. It is placed between the skin and the electrode. It helps to get better signal acquisition.

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6. All electrode potentials are measured with respect to which reference electrode?
a) hydrogen electrode
b) platinum electrode
c) calomel electrode
d) hydrogen absorbed on platinum electrode
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All electrode potentials are measured with respect to a reference electrode, usually that of
hydrogen absorbed on platinum black. Thus, considering potential of hydrogen absorbed on platinum
electrode to be zero, other all have positive of negative potentials.

7. What is the frequency range of ECG?

a) 70-120 Hz
b) 0.05-120 Hz
c) 5-120 Hz
d) 12-120 Hz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Primary signal characteristics of ECG are:
Frequency range: 0.05-120 Hz.
Signal amplitude: 0.1-5 mV.
Typical signal: 1mV.

8. What is the signal amplitude of EEG?

a) 2-200 µV
b) 2-200mV
c) 2-2000 µV
d) 2-2000mV
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The signal amplitude of EEG is between 2-200 µV. It is very small and requires special type of
electrodes namely scalp electrodes. EEGs are difficult to capture because its signal range in very small and
motion artifacts are much greater.

9. Needle electrode is used to measure ____________

a) EKG
b) EEG
c) EOG
d) EMG
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: EMG stands of Electromyogram. For recording action potential for individual motor units of
muscle fiber, needle electrodes are used for better diagnostic information. These electrodes fall in the
category of deep seated electrodes.

10. From equipment point of view, the respiratory system in the human body is a _________ system.
a) hydraulic
b) pneumatic
c) mechanical
d) electrical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Respiratory system is a pneumatic system in which an air pump (diaphragm) alternately
creates negative and positive pressures in a sealed chamber (thoracic cavity) and causes air to be sucked
into and forced out of a pair of elastic bags (lungs). Blood circulatory system is related to hydraulic system.

11. Off-set potential is _____________

a) difference in half-cell potentials between two electrodes
b) sum of half-cell potentials between two electrodes
c) average of half-cell potentials between two electrodes
d) complement of half-cell potentials between two electrodes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The difference in half cell potential that exists between two electrodes is called off-set
potential. The differential amplifies used to measure potentials between two electrodes are generally
designed to cancel the electrode offset potential so that only the signals of interest are recorded.

12. Which of the following is not preferred for electrode making?

a) Ag-AgCl
b) Copper
c) Stainless-steel
d) Gold
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stainless steel in contact with a saline electrolyte produce a potential difference of 10 mV
between the electrodes which is much more than the limit (i.e 2.5 mV). Ad-AgCl electrodes give almost noise
free characteristics. They are also found to be acceptable from the point of view of long term drift.

13. Which of the following statement is false about polarizable electrodes?

a) they are made using stainless steel
b) used for recording resting ECG
c) retain a residual charge when exposed to large pulse of energy
d) can transmit small bioelectric signals even after getting exposed to large pulse of energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Polarizable electrodes usually employ stainless steel and are used for resting ECG or other
situations where there is small likelihood that the electrode would be exposed to a large pulse of energy
(such as defibrillation discharge) in which case they would retain a residual charge, become polarized, and
will no longer transmit the relatively small bioelectric signals, thus become useless.

14. Which electrodes can work even after being induced to large electric discharge such as defibrillation?
a) polarizing electrodes
b) magnetic electrodes
c) non-polarizing electrodes
d) electrolytic electrodes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Non-polarizing electrodes are designed to rapidly dissipate any charge imbalance induced by
powerful electric discharges such as a defibrillation procedure. Rapid depolarization enables the immediate
reappearance of bioelectric signals on the monitor after defibrillation. For this reason, non-polarizing
electrodes have become the electrodes of choice for monitoring in the intensive care units and stress
testing procedures

Silver-Silver Chloride Electrodes

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Silver-Silver Chloride
Electrodes”.

1. On increasing the chloride deposit the Ag-AgCl electrode ______________

a) increases the impedance
b) reduces impedance
c) has no effect on impedance
d) cannot be determined
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Studies have shown that the impedance of the electrode was different layers of chloride. There
is an optimum chloriding, which gives the lowest impedance. Above and below that value the impedance is
high.

2. Ag-AgCl electrodes are ___________

a) polarized
b) non-polarized
c) partially polarized
d) cannot be said
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most important and desirable property of the electrodes designed to pick up signals from
biological objects is that they should not polarize. This means that the electrodes potential must not vary
considerably even when current passes through it. Electrodes made of Ag-AgCl yield acceptable standards
of performance.

3. Silver -Silver Chloride electrodes are prepared by the process of ____________

a) centrifugation
b) etching
c) manually
d) electrolysis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Silver-Silver Chloride electrodes are normally prepared by electrolysis. Two silver discs are
suspended in a saline solution. The positive pole of dc supply is connected to the disc to be chloride and the
negative pole goes to the other disc.

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4. Electrocardiography was invented by ___________

a) Willem Einthoven
b) Robert Koch
c) Werner Forssmann
d) Gertrude B.Elion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Willem Einthoven a Dutch physician and physiologist. He invented the first Electrocardiogram
(ECG or ECG) in 1903. He received the Nobel Prize for Medicine in 1924 for it.
5. MRI stands for ____________
a) Mechanical Resonance Imaging
b) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
c) Mutually Related Imaging
d) Magnetic Resultant Imaging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging. The MRI is a diagnostic technique that uses
magnetic fields and radio waves to produce a detailed picture of soft tissues and body bones. An MR
mirrors the spine using a magnet crossing the body to excite hydrogen atoms.

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6. The interior of the neuron is at a potential of about _____ mV relative to the exterior.
a) -70
b) +70
c) -170
d) +170
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The neurons, like the other cells of the body, are electrically polarized at rest. The interior of
the neuron is at a potential of about -70 mV relative to the exterior. When a neuron is exposed to a
stimulus above a certain threshold, a nerve impulse, seen as a change in membrane potential, is generated
which spreads in the cell resulting in the depolarization of the cell.

7. Tricuspid valve is also called _______________

a) Left Atrio-ventricular valve
b) Right Atrio-ventricular valve
c) Pulmonary valve
d) Cardiac valve
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It’s placed between right atrium and ventricle. It consists of three flaps or cusps. It prevents
backward flow of blood from right ventricle to the right atrium.

8. From instruments point of view, heart is a ______ system.

a) pneumatic
b) electric
c) electronic
d) hydraulic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heart pumps blood. It is analogous to water. Thus heart can be considered as a hydraulic
system.

9. The basic functional unit of nervous system is ____________

a) nerves
b) axon
c) neuron
d) dendrite
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The basic functional unit of the nervous system is a neuron. A typical neuron consists of a
nucleated cell body and has several processes and branches. The dendrites normally conduct impulses
towards the cell body and the axon conducts away from it

Electrodes for ECG

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Electrodes
for ECG”.

1. The material used in limb surface electrode is ___________

a) German silver
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Platinum
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The most common type of electrode most routinely used for recording ECG are rectangular or
circular surface limb electrodes. The material used in them is German silver, nickel silver or nickel plated
steel. They are applied to the surface of the body with electrode jelly.

2. Welsh cup electrodes have __________

a) low contact impedance
b) negligible contact impedance
c) high contact impedance
d) zero contact impedance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Welsh cup electrodes or suction electrodes is a metallic cup shaped electrode which is used for
recording ECG from various positions from the chest. It has a high contact impedance as only the rim of the
electrode is in contact with the skin. It is commonly used to record the unipolar chest leads.

3. In floating electrodes metal electrode does not make direct contact with the skin.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In floating electrode the metal electrode does not make direct contact with the skin. The
electrode consists of a light weighted metalled screen or plate held away from the subject by a flat washer
which is connected to the skin. Floating electrodes can be recharged, i.e. the jelly in the electrodes can be
replenished if desired.

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4. The main design feature of pregelled disposable electrodes which helps to reduce the possibility of
artefacts, drift and baseline wandering is _____________
a) low absorbency buffer layer with isotonic electrolyte
b) high absorbency buffer layer with isotonic electrolyte
c) high absorbency buffer layer without isotonic electrolyte
d) low absorbency buffer layer without isotonic electrolyte
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main design feature of pregelled disposable electrode that helps in reducing the
possibility of artefacts, drift and baseline wandering is the provision of high absorbency buffer layers with
isotonic electrolyte. This layer absorbs the effects of movement of the electrode in relationship to the skin
and attempts to maintain the polarization associated with the half-cell potential constant.

5. Recording electrical activities associated with heart is known as ____________

a) EEG
b) EOG
c) EMG
d) ECG
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The recording of the electrical activities associated with the functioning of the heart is known
as electrocardiogram. ECG is a quasi-periodical, rhythmically repeating signals synchronized by the function
of the heart, which acts as a generator of bioelectric events. This generated signals can be described by the
means of a simple electric dipole.

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6. Which of the following is considered to be the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a) sino-atrial node
b) atrio-ventricular node
c) purkinje fibres
d) bundle of his
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Located in the top right atrium near the entry of the vena cava, are a group of cells known as
the sino-atrial node (SA node) that initiates the heart activity. Because this is also considered as the primary
pacemaker of the heart. The SA node is 25 to 30 mm in length and 2 to 5 mm in thickness.

7. Atrio ventricular node is located at __________

a) upper part of the heart wall between the two atrial
b) lower part of the heart wall above the two atrial
c) lower part of the heart wall between the two atrial
d) upper part of the heart wall above the two atrial
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The AV node is located in the lower part of the wall between the two atria. The AV node delays
the spread of excitation for about 0.12s, due to the presence of a fibrous barrier of non-excitable cells that
effectively prevent its propagation from continuing beyond the limits of stria.

8. Buffer amplifier converts ____________

a) low impedance signals to high impedance signals
b) high impedance signals to low impedance signals
c) ac impedance signals to dc impedance signals
d) dc impedance signals to ac impedance signals
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise is typically generated from motion artefacts and power line interference. A common
solution used to suppress noise in dry electrode signals is a buffer amplifier. A buffer amplifies is essentially
an impedance converter, that converts high impedance signals to low impedance signals.

9. Which of the following is a wireless ECG acquiring system?

a) pregelled disposable electrodes
b) limb electrodes
c) pasteless electrodes
d) smart pad
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Smart pad is a system that displays patients electrocardiogram signals without adhesive pads,
wires or active intervention from a clinician. The system automatically selects three electrodes from an
array of Cu/Ni fabric based electrodes patterned on a thin pad on which the patient lies. The selected
electrodes are used to provide a differential 3 lead measurement of the patient’s ECG, which is then
transmitted wirelessly and displayed on a laptop computer.

10. Before placing the electrodes the skin should be __________

a) wet
b) dry
c) hairy
d) oily
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The skin should be dry. Poor skin prep prompts undesirable curio and not putting the
terminals where they ought to be can change the morphology (shape) of the waveforms the specialist will
decipher. The purpose of decent skin prep is to expel soil, dead skin cells, oils, skin cream, counterfeit tan,
body powder, sweat and so forth. These sources can prompt poor contact with the sensors and ancient
rarity

Electrodes for EMG

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Electrodes
for EMG”.

1. Which of the following is a preferred electrode for measuring EMG?

a) surface electrodes
b) needle electrodes
c) pregelled electrodes
d) scalp electrodes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electrodes for EMG work are usually of the needle type. Needle electrodes are used in clinical
EMG, neurography and other electrophysiological measurements of the muscle tissues underneath the
skin. Surface electrodes are preferred to measure ECG. Scalp electrodes for EEG.

2. Generally what is the material of needle electrodes?

a) stainless steel
b) copper
c) lead
d) iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The material of the needle electrode is generally stainless steel. In spite of the face that
stainless steel is unfavorable electrode material from the point of view of noise, it is preferred in EMG work.
It is due to its mechanical solidity and low price.

3. Monopolar needle electrodes are having coatings of which material over the stainless steel wires which
are bare only at the tips?
a) carbon
b) calcium
c) sodium
d) teflon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The monopolar needle electrode consists of a teflon coated stainless steel wire. The wire is
bare only at the tip. It is found that after the needle has been used a number of times, the teflon coating
will recede, increasing the tip area. The needle should be discarded when this happens.

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4. Which electrode can be used to pick up signals from individual fibers of muscle tissues?
a) biopolar needle electrode
b) concentric core needle electrode
c) multi-element needle electrode
d) monopolar needle electrode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Multi-element needle electrodes are used to pick up the signals from individual fibers of
muscle tissue. Special needles are available using 25-micron diameter electrode surfaces. They have up to
14 pickup surfaces down the side of one needle.

5. _______________ instrument is used to hold patients head and guide the placement of electrodes.
a) Monotaxic
b) Stereotonic
c) Stereotaxic
d) Monotonic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For measurement of potential from specific part of the brain, longer needles are inserted
inside the head. The needles are precisely located by means of a map or atlas of the brain. A special
instrument called stereotaxic instrument is used to hold the subject’s head and guide the placement of the
electrodes.

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6. Number of cloud deployment models that are recognized are _________

a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 3 recognized cloud deployment models. They are – Private cloud, Public cloud and
Hybrid cloud.

7. The ground electrode is usually positioned over which body structures?

a) bony
b) hairy
c) fleshy
d) sweaty
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ground electrode is usually positioned over bony structures rather than over large muscle
masses, in the vicinity of the recording and stimulating electrodes, and where possible, equidistant from
them. Hairy areas don’t transmit proper signals. It increases impedance of the skin.

8. When intramuscular EMG is required to look into the electrical activities of deeper or overlaid muscles,
________ electrodes are used.
a) plate shape electrodes
b) surface electrodes
c) thin thread electrodes
d) fine wire electrodes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When intramuscular EMG is required to look into the electrical activities of deeper or overlaid
muscles, thin and flexible fine wire electrodes are used. These electrodes are inserted into the muscle site
of interest. The needle or steel cannula is removed, and the electrode wires are connected to the steel
spring adapters to minimize movement artefacts.

9. The contraction of the skeletal muscles results in the generation of action potential in the individual
muscle fibers. Record of this action potential is called ______________
a) ECG
b) EMG
c) EEG
d) EKG
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The contraction of the skeletal muscles results in the generation of action potential in the
individual muscle fibers, a record of such action potential is known as electromyogram (EMG). The activity is
similar to that observed in the cardiac muscles (ECG or EKG), but in the skeletal muscles, repolarization
takes place much more rapidly. The action potential lasts for only few milliseconds.

10. In voluntary contraction of the skeletal muscles, the muscle potential ranges from ________
a) 50 uV – 5 mV
b) 50 mV – 5 V
c) 0.05 uV – 2 mV
d) 50 mV – 500 mV
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In voluntary contraction of the skeletal muscles, the muscle potential ranges from 50 uV – 5
mV and duration from 2 to 15 ms. The values vary with the anatomic position of the muscle and the size
and location of the electrode. In a relaxed muscle there are no action potentials

Electrodes for EEG

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Electrodes
for EEG”.

1. Electrodes to measure EEG are placed on ________

a) forehead
b) scalp
c) cheek
d) ears
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electrode to measure EEG are placed on the scalp. The position of each electrode is specified
using the International 10/20 system. Each electrode site is labeled with a letter and a number.

2. According to the international 10/20 system to measure EEG, even number denotes which side of the
brain?
a) left
b) top
c) bottom
d) right
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The position of each electrode is specified using the International 10/20 system. Each
electrode site is labeled with a letter and a number. Even number denotes the right side of the head.

3. Letter F in the EEG electrode placement system denotes?

a) front
b) face
c) frontal lobe
d) fast
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: F denotes frontal lobe of the head. The position of each electrode is specified using the
International 10/20 system. Each electrode site is labeled with a letter and a number.

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4. Normal EEG frequency range is _______

a) 50-500Hz
b) 0.5-50HZ
c) 0.05-5Hz
d) 1-200Hz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The frequency varies greatly with different behavioral states. The normal EEG frequency
content ranges from 0.5 to 50Hz. The nature of the wave varies over the different parts of the scalp.

5. The letter T in the EEG electrode placement system denotes?

a) temporal lope
b) temper lobe
c) trace
d) timpanic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: T denotes temporal lobe of the head. The position of each electrode is specified using the
International 10/20 system. Each electrode site is labeled with a letter and a number.

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6. According to the international 10/20 system to measure EEG, odd number denotes which side of the
brain?
a) left
b) right
c) top
d) front
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The position of each electrode is specified using the International 10/20 system. Each
electrode site is labeled with a letter and a number. Odd number denotes the left side of the head.

7. The delta wave in EEG ranges from ___________

a) 0.5-4Hz
b) 4-8Hz
c) 8-13Hz
d) 13-22Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The delta wave in EEG ranges from 0.5-4Hz. The theta wave in EEG ranges from 4-8Hz. The
alpha wave in EEG ranges from 8-13Hz and beta from 13-22Hz.

8. Disturbance in the EEG pattern resulting from the external stimuli is called ________
a) provoked response
b) ckoored response
c) evoked response
d) impulse response
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Disturbance in the EEG pattern resulting from the external stimuli is called evoked response.
The stimuli could be a flash light or a click of sound. The stimuli can be repeated and the EEG waveform can
be observed to find the activities occurring because of the stimuli.

9. The peak to peak amplitude of the waves that can be picked from the scalp is ______________
a) 100mV
b) 100V
c) 100uV
d) 10mV
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The EEG signal can be picked up with electrodes either from the scalp or directly from the
cerebral cortex. The peak to peak amplitude of the waves that can be picked up from the scalp is normally
100uV. The frequency varies greatly with different behavioral states.

10. Which rhythm is the principal component of the EEG that indicates the alertness of the brain?
a) theta rhythm
b) gamma rhythm
c) beta rhythm
d) alpha rhythm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The alpha rhythm is the principal component of the EEG and is an indicator of the state of
alertness of the brain. It serves as an indicator of the depth of anesthesia in the operating room. The
frequency of the EEG seems to be affected by the mental activity of a person

Microelectrodes
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Microelectrodes”.

1. Which type of electrodes are employed to study the electrical activities of individual cells?
a) milli-electrodes
b) micro-electrodes
c) surface-electrodes
d) pre-jelled electrodes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To study the electrical activities of individual cells, micro electrodes are employed. This type of
electrode is small enough with respect to the size of the cells. Typical micro electrodes have tip dimensions
ranging from 0.5-5 microns.

2. Glass micro-capillaries are a type of micro electrode.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two types of micro electrodes are generally used: metallic and glass microcapillaries. Metallic
electrodes are formed from a fine needle of suitable metal drawn for a fine tip. Glass electrodes are drawn
from Pyrex glass of special grade.

3. Glass microcapillaries are preferred over metallic electrodes because of the former _______
a) polarizes with input current
b) does not have sustainable current carrying capacity
c) has less contact surface area
d) has sustainable current carrying capacity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Metallic electrodes polarize with smaller amplifier input currents. Hence, they tend to develop
unstable electrode offset potential and are therefore not preferred for steady state potential measurement.
On the other hand, in case of glass micro electrodes have a sustainable current carrying capacity because
of the large surface area between the metal and the electrolyte.

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4. Do metallic micro electrodes exist.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two types of micro electrodes are generally used: metallic and glass microcapillaries. Metallic
electrodes are formed from a fine needle of suitable metal drawn for a fine tip. Glass electrodes are drawn
from Pyrex glass of special grade.

5. Metallic micro electrodes have impedance ________ compared to conventional electrodes?

a) equal
b) smaller
c) high
d) very high
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The very high impedance of the metal micro-electrodes is due to the characteristics of the
small area metal-electrolyte interface. Because of very high impedance of micro electrodes, amplifiers with
extremely high input impedance are required to avoid loading the circuit and to minimize the effects of
small change in interface impedance.

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6. Which of the following electrode is manufactured by circumferential application of heat to a small area of
glass tubing and pulling the glass when it gets soft?
a) macro metallic electrodes
b) micro metallic electrodes
c) micro pipette
d) surface electrodes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most commonly used method for making small tip micropipette consists of the
circumferential application of heat to a small area of glass tubing which is placed under some initial
tension. When the glass softens, the tension is increased very rapidly and the heat is turned off. Proper
timing, controlled adjustment of the amount of heat as well as the initial and final tensions and cooling
results in the production of microcapillaries with control dimensions.

7. Which of the following metal is preferred for manufacturing micro electrodes?

a) Stainless steel
b) Tungsten
c) Iron
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tungsten is preferred for constructing micro-electrodes due to its mechanical strength and its
apparent inertness. Although tungsten itself is reactive, a surface layer of tungsten oxide will, in most
situations, protect the metal against corrosion.
8. ________________ are devices which convert one form of energy into another.
a) transducers
b) electrodes
c) impulses
d) opamp
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transducers are devices which convert one form of energy into another. A number of factors
decide the choice of a particular transducer to be used for the study of a specific phenomenon. Many
physical, chemical and optical properties and principles can be applied to construct transducers for
applications in the medical field.

Classification of Transducers
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Classification of Transducers”.

1. Which type of transducer requires energy to be put into it in order to translate changes due to the
measurand?
a) active transducers
b) passive transducers
c) powered transducers
d) local transducers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Passive transducers are transducers that require energy to translate changes due to the
measurand. Active transducers convert one form of energy directly into another. For example photovolatic
cell in which light energy is converted into electrical energy.

2. Active transducers work on the principle of ________

a) energy conversion
b) mass conversion
c) energy alteration
d) volume conversion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Active transducers work on the principle of energy conversion. They convert one form of
energy to another. They don’t require any power to operate.

3. Accuracy is ______
a) ability of the transducer or sensor to see small differences in reading
b) ability of the transducer or sensor to see small differences in reading
c) algebraic difference between the indicated value and the true or theoretical value of the measurand
d) total operating range of the transducer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Accuracy describes the algebraic difference between the indicated value and the true or
theoretical value of the measurand. Resolution is the ability of the transducer or sensor to see small
differences in reading. Precision refers to the degree of repeatability of a measurant.

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4. The smallest change in measurant that will result in a measurable change in the transducer output is
called _______
a) offset
b) linearity
c) resolution
d) threshold
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The threshold of the transducer is the smallest change in measurant that will result in a
measurable change in the transducer output. Offset is the output that will exist when it should be zero.
Linearity shows closeness of a transducer’s calibration curve to a specific straight line with in a given
percentage of full scale output.

5. Unwanted signal at the output due either to internal sources or to interference is called ________
a) offset
b) noise
c) drift
d) threshold
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise is the unwanted signal at the output due either to internal sources or to interference.
Offset is the output that will exist when it should be zero. The threshold of the transducer is the smallest
change in measurant that will result in a measurable change in the transducer output.

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6. The ability of the sensor to see small differences in reading is called ______
a) resolution
b) drift
c) offset
d) linearity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ability of the sensor to see small differences in reading is called the resolution of the
sensor. Offset is the output that will exist when it should be zero. Linearity shows closeness os a
transducer’s calibration curve to a specific straight line with in a given percentage of full scale output.

7. Change is signal over long period of time is called _______

a) noise
b) offset
c) hysteresis
d) drift
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Drift indicated a change of base line or of sensitivity with time, temperature etc. Drift is
basically the change in a signal over long period of time. Noise is the unwanted signal at the output due
either to internal sources or to interference. Offset is the output that will exist when it should be zero.

8. Linearity of transducer is ___________

a) Closeness of the transducer’s calibration curve to a special curved line within a given percentage of full
scale output
b) Closeness of the transducer’s calibration curve to a special straight line within a given percentage of full
scale output
c) Closeness of the transducer’s calibration curve to a special straight line within a given percentage of half
scale output
d) Closeness of the transducer’s calibration curve to a special curved within a given percentage of half scale
output
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Linearity of transducer is closeness of the transducer’s calibration curve to a special straight
line within a given percentage of full scale output. Basically, it reflects that the output is in some way
proportional to the input. A linear sensor produces an output value which is directly proportional to the
input.

Performance Characteristics of Transducers

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Performance Characteristics of Transducers”.

1. The minimum input of physical parameter that will create a detectable out change is called __________
a) threshold
b) sensitivity
c) span
d) precision
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The sensitivity of the sensor is defined as the slope of the output characteristic curve. In simple
words The minimum input of physical parameter that will create a detectable out change is called
sensitivity. Total operating range of the transducer is called its span.

2. The total operating range of the transducer is called __________

a) span
b) threshold
c) offset
d) drift
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total operating range of the transducer is called span of the transducer. Offset is the
output that will exist when it should be zero. Drift is basically the change in a signal over long period of
time.

3. Hysteresis is no change in output with the same value of input.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hysteresis is change in output with the same value of input but with a different history of input
variation. Hysteresis is observed when the input/output characteristics for a transducer are different for
increasing inputs than for decreasing outputs. It results when some of the energy applied for increasing
inputs is not recovered when the input decreases.

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4. The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called _________
a) input range
b) threshold
c) offset
d) saturation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called saturation.
The threshold of the transducer is the smallest change in measurant that will result in a measurable change
in the transducer output. Offset is the output that will exist when it should be zero.

5. Ability of the sensor to repeat a measurement when put back in the same environment is called ______
a) conformance
b) saturation
c) repeatability
d) threshold
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ability of the sensor to repeat a measurement when put back in the same environment is
called repeatability. The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called
saturation. The threshold of the transducer is the smallest change in measurant that will result in a
measurable change in the transducer output.

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6. Closeness of a calibration curve to a specified curve for an inherently non linear transducer is called
___________
a) conformance
b) linearity
c) saturation
d) hysteresis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Conformance indicates the closeness of a calibration curve to a specified curve for an
inherently non linear transducer. Hysteresis is change in output with the same value of input but with a
different history of input variation. The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input
is called saturation.

7. The range between the maximum and minimum values is applied to a parameter which can be
measured is ___________
a) repeatability
b) span
c) input range
d) output range
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Input range is the range between the max and min values is applied parameter which can be
measured . Ability of the sensor to repeat a measurement when put back in the same environment is called
repeatability. The total operating range of the transducer is called span of the transducer.

8. Which of the following is not a static property?

a) repeatability
b) hysteresis
c) frequency response
d) saturation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Frequency response is the change of transfer function with frequency, both in magnitude and
in phase. It is a dynamic property. Ability of the sensor to repeat a measurement when put back in the
same environment is called repeatability. The region in which the output does not changes with increase in
input is called saturation.

9. Time for the sensor to reach a stable output once it is turned on is called _________
a) frequency response
b) span
c) response time
d) settling time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Settling time is the time for the sensor to reach a stable output once it is turned on. Frequency
response is the change of transfer function with frequency, both in magnitude and in phase. The total
operating range of the transducer is called span of the transducer.

10. Which of the following is not a dynamic property?

a) frequency response
b) saturation
c) settling time
d) response time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called saturation. It
is a static property of the transducer. Settling time is the time for the sensor to reach a stable output once it
is turned on. Frequency response is the change of transfer function with frequency, both in magnitude and
in phase.

Displacement, Position and Motion Transducers

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Displacement,
Position and Motion Transducers”.

1. Potentiometer works on which of the following principle?

a) variable resistance
b) variable inductance
c) variable capacitance
d) variable electromagnet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Potentiometer works on the principle of variable resistance. The resistance between two
terminals of this device is related to the linear or angular displacement of a sliding tape along a resistance
element. When the fixed terminals of the potentiometer are connected to the power supply. Either ac or dc,
output voltage at the wiper varies with the displacement of the object.

2. On increasing the distance between the plates of a variable capacitor, the displacement- capacitance
characteristics changes _______
a) proportionally
b) linearly
c) exceptionally
d) hyperbolically
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By moving one plate of the capacitor with respect to the other, the capacitance will vary
inversely with respect to the plate separation. This will give a hyperbolic displacement capacitance
characteristic. This is how variable capacitance is employed as displacement transducers.

3. Lateral displacement of capacitance plates with respect to each other gives linear displacement
capacitance characteristics.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true that lateral displacement of capacitance plates with respect to each other gives linear
displacement capacitance characteristics. C = 0.0885*k*(A/d).
k = dielectric constant of the medium separating the two plates.
C = capacitance in micro farads
A = area of each identical plate in cm2
d = distance between the plates in cm2.
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4. LVDT stands for _________

a) Linear Virtual Double Transformer
b) Linear Virtual Differential Transducer
c) Linear Variable Differential Transducer
d) Linear Variable Differential Transformer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: LVDT stands for Linear Variable Differential Transformer. These transducers are conventionally
used for measurement of physiological pressure. They generally work in conjunction with carrier amplifiers.

5. LVDT works on the principle of ________

a) variable resistance
b) variable inductance
c) variable capacitance
d) variable pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LVDT works on the principle of variable inductance. It has three coils namely the primary coil
which is the center coil. The other two are called the secondary coils so connected that their outputs are
equal in magnitude but opposite in phase.

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6. In LVDT the secondary coils are energized with sine wave oscillator.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The center coil is the energizing or primary coil connected to a sine wave oscillator. The
secondary coils so connected that their outputs are equal in magnitude but opposite in phase. LVDT works
on the principle of variable inductance.

7. How many coils are required to make LVDT?

a) 4
b) 6
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Total 3 coils are required in LVDT. One centered coil which is the energizing or primary coil
connected to the sine wave oscillator. The other two coils are the secondary coils so connected that their
outputs are equal in magnitude but opposite in phase.

8. LVTD is a _______ transducer.

a) displacement
b) photoelectric
c) thermal
d) chemical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LVDT is a displacement transducer. It works on the principle of variable inductance. The shift in
the ferromagnetic core from the centre position induces voltage in the second coil which can be calibrated
to determine the linear displacement.
9. Which of the following is a displacement transducer?
a) Thermistor
b) LVDT
c) Strain gauge
d) Thermocouple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LVDT is a displacement transducer. Thermocouple and thermistor are temperature
transducers. Strain gauge is a pressure transducer.

10. Linear encoders gives ___________ output.

a) angular
b) analog
c) digital
d) unstable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Linear encoders give output in digital form. These transducers are basically encoded disks or
rulers with digital pattern photographically etched on glass plate. These patterns are decoded using a light
source and an array of photodetectors

Pressure Transducers
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Pressure
Transducers”.

1. Which of the following is not a piezo-electric material?

a) quartz
b) rochelle salt
c) aluminium
d) barium titanate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aluminium is not a piezo-electric material. Quartz is the most stable natural crystal with high
mechanical and thermal stability and has voulme resistivity higher than 10 4 ohm-cm and small internal
electric loss. Barium titanate ceramic is a ferroelectric crystal and has small voltage output.

2. Piezo-electricity is ______________
a) sound electricity
b) pressure electricity
c) temperature electricity
d) photo electricity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Piezo-electricity is pressure electricity. The piezo electric effect is a property of natural
crystalline substance to develop electric potential along a crystallographic axis in response to the
movement of charge as a result of mechanical deformation.

3. On applying electricity to piezo-electric material mechanical deformation occurs in the material.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, on applying electricity to the piezo-electric material mechanical deformation occurs in the
material. The piezo electric effect is a property of natural crystalline substance to develop electric potential
along a crystallographic axis in response to the movement of charge as a result of mechanical deformation.
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4. Which of the following is a material employed making diaphragm to measure pressure?

a) tourmaline
b) barium titanate
c) phosphor bronze
d) zirconate titanate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Phosphor bronze is used to make diaphragm to measure pressure. The motion of diaphragm
is measured in terms of electric signals. Tourmaline , barium titanate and zirconate titanate are piezo
electric materials.

5. Principle behind strain gauge is _____________

a) variable resistance
b) variable inductance
c) variable capacitance
d) variable contact area
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The principle behind strain gaude is the variable resistance. The transducer is based upon the
changed in resistance of a wire produced due to small mechanical displacement. A linear relation exists
between the deformation and electrical resistance of a suitable selected gauge over a specified range.

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6. On applying pressure to piezo-electric crystal, electricity is not generated.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On applying pressure to piezo-electric crystal, electricity is generated. The piezo electric effect
is a property of natural crystalline substance to develop electric potential along a crystallographic axis in
response to the movement of charge as a result of mechanical deformation. Thus, piezo-electricity is
pressure electricity.

7. The figure of merit which describes the overall behaviour of the wire under stress is determined from?
a) elastic modulus
b) gauge factor
c) elastic factor
d) gauge resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The figure of merit which describes the overall behaviour of the wire under stress is
determined from the gauge factor of the wire. Gauge factor gives information on the expected resistance
change or output signal at maximum permissible elongation.the gauge factor determines to a large extent
the sensitivity of the wire when it is made into a practical strain gauge.

8. Gauge factor is defined as _______________

a) (incremental change in resistance due to stress/resistance of an unstretched wire)*(unstretched length of
wire/incremental change in length)
b) (incremental change in resistance due to strain/resistance of an unstretched wire)*(unstretched length of
wire/incremental change in length)
c) (incremental change in resistance due to stress/resistance of an unstretched wire)*(incremental change
in length/unstretched length of wire)
d) (resistance of an unstretched wire/incremental change in resistance due to stress)*(unstretched length
of wire/incremental change in length)l
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gauge factor is defined as (incremental change in resistance due to stress/resistance of an
unstretched wire)*(unstretched length of wire/incremental change in length). Gauge factor gives
information on the expected resistance change or output signal at maximum permissible elongation.the
gauge factor determines to a large extent the sensitivity of the wire when it is made into a practical strain
gauge.

9. Compensation for temperature variation in the leads can be provided by using ________ lead method.
a) six
b) four
c) three
d) two
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Compensation for temperature variation in the leads can be provided by using three lead
method. In this method two of the leads are in the adjacent legs of the bridge which cancels their resistance
changes and does not disturb the bridge balance. The third lead is in series with the power supply and is
therefore independent of bridge balance.

10. Strain gauge is used to measure ______________

a) temperature
b) pressure
c) height
d) displacement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain gauge is used to measure pressure. Its working principle is change in resistance. There
are two type of strain gauges. Bounded strain gauge and unbounded strain gauge. Mostly used to measure
the arterial and venous blood pressure in the body.

Transducers for Body Temperature Measurement

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Transducers for Body Temperature Measurement”.

1. Sudden involuntary drop in body core temperature below 35*C (95*F) is called __________
a) Accidental hyperthermia
b) Accidental misothermia
c) Accidental exothermia
d) Accidental hypothermia
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sudden involuntary drop in body core temperature below 35*C (95*F) is called Accidental
hypothermia. In this, the body temperature drops very quickly. If not treated on time can lead to patients
death.

2. Which of the following has the widest range of temperature measurement?

a) RTD
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermistor
d) Mercury thermometer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermocouple has the widest range of temperature measurement from -1840C to +23000C.
RTD has a range of -2000C to +8500C. Thermistor has a range of 00C to 1000C where as conventional
mercury thermometers range is -370C to +3560C.

3. The junction at a higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The junction at a higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction. The
junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple is called the reference temperature. The cold junction is
usually kept at 00C.

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4. When two wires of different material are joined together at either end, forming two junctions which are
maintained at a different temperature, a thermo-motive force is generated causing a current to flow
around the circuit. This arrangement is called ___________
a) thermal pair
b) thermistor
c) thermocouple
d) thermostat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This arrangement is called thermocouple. The junction at a higher temperature in
thermocouple is termed as measuring junction. The junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple is
called the reference temperature.

5. When two wires of different material are joined together at either end, forming two junctions which are
maintained at a different temperature, a _________ force is generated.
a) thermo-motive
b) electro-motive
c) chemical reactive
d) mechanical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When two wires of different material are joined together at either end, forming two junctions
which are maintained at a different temperature, a thermo-motive force is generated causing a current to
flow around the circuit. This arrangement is called thermocouple. The junction at higher temperature in
thermocouple is termed as measuring junction. The junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple is
called the reference temperature.

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6. The junction at a lower temperature in the thermocouple called measuring junction.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction at a lower temperature in the thermocouple is called the reference temperature.
The cold junction is usually kept at 00C. The junction at a higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as
measuring junction.

7. The lower temperature junction in thermocouple is maintained at ________

a) -273 K
b) 0 K
c) -327 K
d) 273 K
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The lower temperature junction in thermocouple is maintained at 273 K (00C). The junction at
lower temperature in the thermocouple is called the reference temperature. The junction at higher
temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction.

8. The resistance Rt of a metallic conductor at any temperature t is given by ___________

a) Rt = Ro(1+ɑt)
b) Rt = Ro(1-ɑt)
c) Rt = Ro(ɑt-1)
d) Rt = Ro(10+ɑt)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The resistance Rt of a metallic conductor at any temperature t is given by Rt = Ro(1+ɑt). Ro is
the resistance at 0*C. ɑ is temperature coefficient of resistivity.

9. RTD stands for ________

a) resistance temperature device
b) resistance temperature detector
c) reluctance thermal device
d) resistive thermal detector
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RTD stands for Resistance Temperature Device. It is a passive sensor and requires current
excitation to produce an output voltage. RTD has very low temperature coefficient. Voltage drop across RTD
is much larger than thermocouple output voltage.

10. Thermister is used to measure _____________

a) temperature
b) pressure
c) height
d) displacement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermistor is used to measure temperature. It is a temperature transducer. With a change in
temperature its resistance changes. Thus its working principle is variable resistance. Thermistors are the
oxides of certain metals like manganese, cobalt and nickel which have large negative temperature
coefficient, i.e. resistance decreases with increase in temperature

Photoelectric Transducers
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Photoelectric Transducers”.

1. What is the principle behind photoelectric transducers?

a) conversion of wind energy to electrical energy
b) conversion of light energy to electrical energy
c) conversion of mechanical energy to electrical energy
d) conversion of electrical energy to light energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Photoelectric transducers are based on the principle of conversion of light energy into
electrical energy. This is done by causing the radiation to fall on a photosensitive element and measuring
the electrical current so generated with a sensitive galvanometer directly or after suitable amplification.
2. Which of the following material is used to build photovoltaic cells?
a) selenium
b) celenuim
c) silicon
d) iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photovoltaic or barrier layer cells usually consist of a semiconducting substance, which is
generally selenium deposited on a metal base which may be iron and which acts as one of the electrodes.
The semiconducting substance is covered with a thin layer of silver or gold deposited by cathodic
deposition in a vacuum. This layer acts as a collecting electrode.

3. Selenium cells are sensitive to almost the entire range of wavelengths of the spectrum.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Selenium cells are sensitive to almost the entire range of wavelengths of the spectrum.
However, their sensitivity is greater within the visible spectrum and highest in the zones near the yellow
wavelengths.

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4. Which of the following is not a photoemissive cell?

a) high vacuum photocells
b) barrier layer cell
c) gas-filled photocell
d) photomultiplier tubes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Barrier layer cells are photovoltaic cells. They consist of a semiconducting substance, which is
generally selenium deposited on a metal base which may be iron and which acts as one of the electrodes.
Photovoltaic cells are very robust in construction, need no external electrical supply and produce a
photocurrent sometimes stronger than other photosensitive elements.

5. Photo-diodes work in _________

a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) independent of forward and reverse biasing
d) any configuration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The photodiode is a P-N junction semiconductor diode. It always operated in the reversed
biased condition. The light is always focused through a glass lens on the junction of the photo diode.

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6. Photovoltaic cells need an external electrical supply to function.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
7. The instruments which give a direct reading of the temperature at the thermistor position are known as
_________
a) thermistor
b) telethermometers
c) rtd
d) tempothermometer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The instruments which give a direct reading of the temperature at the thermistor position are
known by the name telethermometers. This is because of their ability to use leads which are hundreds of
feet long without a significant decrease in accuracy. The continuous signal is also suitable for recording
without amplification.

8. Which of the following is a photoemissive cell?

a) photomultiplier tubes
b) barrier layer cell
c) galvanic cell
d) rochell-salt cell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photomultiplier tubes are photoemissive cells. These type to cells do require an external
power supply to provide a sufficient potential difference between the electrodes to facilitate the flow of
electrons generated at the photosensitive cathode surface. Also, amplifier circuits are invariably employed
for the amplification of this current.

9. Cesium-silver oxide cells are sensitive to the near infrared wavelengths.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cesium-silver oxide cells are sensitive to the near infrared wavelengths. Potassium silver oxide
and cesium-antimony cells have maximum sensitivity in the visible and ultraviolet regions. The spectral
response also depends partly on the transparency to different wavelengths of the medium to be traversed
by the light before reaching the cathode.

10. Thermister is used to measure ____________

a) temperature
b) pressure
c) height
d) displacement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermistor is used to measure temperature. It is a temperature transducer. With a change in
temperature its resistance changes. Thus its working principle is variable resistance. Thermistors are the
oxides of certain metals like manganese, cobalt and nickel which have large negative temperature
coefficient, i.e. resistance decreases with increase in temperature.

Optical Fiber Sensors

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Optical
Fiber Sensors”.

1. Optical fiber sensors are electrically ____________

a) active
b) passive
c) active as well as passive
d) cannot be determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical fiber sensors are electrically passive and consequently immune to electromagnetic
disturbances. They are geometrically flexible and corrosion resistant. They can be miniaturized and are
most suitable for telemetry applications.

2. Optical fibers are not immune to ________

a) electronic disturbances
b) magnetic disturbances
c) ambient light interference
d) electromagnetic disturbances
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical fibre sensors are non-electrical and hence are free from electrical interference usually
associated with electronically based sensors. Ambient light can interfere. Consequently, the sensor has to
be applied in a dark environment or must be optically isolated.

3. Optical fiber sensors are not immune to electromagnetic disturbances.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical fiber sensors are electrically passive and consequently immune to electromagnetic
disturbances. They are geometrically flexible and corrosion resistant. They can be miniaturized and are
most suitable for telemetry applications.

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4. In which of the following optic fiber sensor the fiber is simply used to carry light to and from an external
optical device where the sensing takes place?
a) extrinsic fiber optic sensor
b) energized fiber optic sensor
c) all fibers are used to simply carry light to and from the external optical devices
d) intrinsic fiber optic sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an extrinsic fiber optic sensor fiber is simply used to carry light to and from an external
optical device where the sensing takes place. In an intrinsic fiber optic sensor, one or more of the physical
properties of the fiber undergo a change.

5. On the bases of application of optic fiber sensor, which of the following is not considered to be the
classification of fiber optic sensor?
a) biomedical/photometric sensors
b) physical sensors
c) thermal sensors
d) chemical sensors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The variations in the returning light are sensed using a photodetector. Such sensors monitor
variations either in the amplitude or frequency of the reflected light. Two of the most important physical
parameters that can be advantageously measured using fibre optics are temperature and pressure.

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6. The type of sensor that detects the analyte species directly through their characteristic spectral
properties is called _____________
a) chemical sensor
b) thermal sensor
c) light sensor
d) spectroscopic Sensors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Spectroscopic Sensors is the one that detects the analyte species directly through their
characteristic spectral properties. In these sensors, the optical fibre functions only as a light guide,
conveying light from the source to the sampling area and from the sample to the detector. Here, the light
interacts with the species being sensed.

7. How many coils are required to make LVDT?

a) 4
b) 6
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Total 3 coils are required in LVDT. One centered coil which is the energizing or primary coil
connected to the sine wave oscillator. The other two coils are the secondary coils so connected that their
outputs are equal in magnitude but opposite in phase.

8. A chemical transduction system is interfaced to the optical fibre at its end. This type of sensor is called?
a) chemical sensor
b) thermal sensor
c) photoelectric sensor
d) light sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the chemical sensors, a chemical transduction system is interfaced to the optical fibre at its
end. In operation, interaction with analyte leads to a change in optical properties of the reagent phase,
which is probed and detected through the fibre optic. The optical property measured can be absorbance,
reflectance or luminescence.

Biosensors
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Biosensors”.

1. Doppler velocimetry works on the principle of __________

a) frequency measurement of fiber optic sensor
b) amplitude measurement of fiber optic sensor
c) phase measurement of fiber optic sensor
d) time shift measurement of fiber optic sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Doppler velocimetry works on the principle of frequency measurement of fiber optic sensor. In
this method, light from a laser, normally helium/neon, is sent via a fibre onto the skin surface. The moving
red blood cells scatter the light and produce a Doppler frequency shift because of their movement.

2. Fluoroptic temperature sensors work on the principle of _______

a) thermistor
b) thermocouple
c) optical fiber
d) rtd
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fluoroptic temperature sensors work on the principle of optical fiber sensors. They contain a
rare earth phosphor which is illuminated by a white light along a short length of large core optical fibre. The
light excites the phosphor which emits a number of lines. By using filters, two of these lines at 540 and 630
nm are selected, and the ratio of their intensities is a single valued function of the temperature of the
phosphor.

3. Monopolar needle electrode have a coating of which material over the stainless steel wires which are
bare only at the tips?
a) carbon
b) calcium
c) sodium
d) teflon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The monopolar needle electrode consists of a teflon coated stainless steel wire. The wire is
bare only at the tip. It is found that after the needle has been used a number of times, the teflon coating
will recede, increasing the tip area. The needle should be discarded when this happens.

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4. Endoscopic imaging uses ___________

a) thermal sensors
b) chemical sensors
c) optic fiber sensors
d) pressure sensors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optic sensors are used for endoscopic imaging. Optical fibre sensors are non-electrical and
hence are free from electrical interference usually associated with electronically based sensors. They are
suitable for telemetry applications as the bulk of the instrumentation can be at a reasonable distance from
the patient.

5. _______________ converts biochemical events into measurable signals.

a) amplifier
b) opamp
c) rectifier
d) transducer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Transducers convert biochemical events into measurable signals. They provide the means for
detecting the biochemical changes inside the body. Particularly biosensors are employed for this purpose.

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6. The biological response of the biosensor is determined by ______

a) biocatalytic membrane
b) physio-chemical membrane
c) chemical membrane
d) artificial membrane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The biological response of the biosensor is determined by biocatalytic membrane. The
biocatalytic membrane accomplishes the conversion of reactant to product. The product of the reaction
diffuses to the transducer. This then causes the electrical response.

7. Home blood glucose sensor works on which principle?

a) electro-physiological
b) electrochemical
c) physio-chemical
d) chemical
View Answer
8. The chemical reaction of glucose with oxygen is catalyzed in the presence of ________
a) glucose oxidase
b) monoglucose carbodase
c) glusoce dioxidase
d) biglucose oxidase
View Answer
9. Home blood glucose measurement devices measure the glucose level through non-invasive method.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Home blood glucose measurement devices measure the glucose level through invasive
method. There is a small needle at the tip of the machine that pierces the skin to take blood sample. This
blood is then undergoes electrochemical reactions and the glucose level is determined.

10. Blood glucose level measurement device uses a biosensor works on the principle of electrochemical.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Home blood glucose detection sensor works on the principle of electrochemical. The
biosensor in this instrument relies upon enzymes that recognize and catalyze reactions of glucose with the
generation of redox – active species that are detected electrochemically.

Smart Sensors
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Smart
Sensors”.

1. Which of the following is not a fundamental block in recording systems?

a) electrodes and transducers
b) signal conditioner
c) analysis for the output
d) writing system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analysis of the output is not a fundamental block on the recording system. First, the signals
are collected from the host. Then they are sent for signal conditioning where they are amplified to the
desirable range and then the writing system prints the signals.

2. In medical recorders, the signal of interest is of the order of _______

a) nanovolts
b) microvolts
c) megavolts
d) volts
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The signals of interest in medical recorders are in the range of micro volts. They are captured
by the help of sensitive electrodes and transducers and then amplified to a certain higher level. After the
amplification further processing is carried out.

3. In medical devices, the amplifiers that are used for the amplification purpose of the input signal must
have ___________
a) low frequency response
b) high frequency response
c) average frequency response
d) frequency response has no role to play in it
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bioelectric signals in medical science contains components of extremely low frequency.
Thus the amplifiers must also have a low frequency response. The response should be down to less than
one hertz which is a very frequent requirement.

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4. To achieve the low frequency response for medical applications, the amplifier configuration must
contain?
a) higher resistance
b) higher capacitance
c) lower resistance
d) lower capacitance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To achieve the low frequency response required for medical applications, the amplifier must
have large values of coupling capacitance. In all RC-coupled amplifiers, low frequency response is limited by
the reluctance of the coupling capacitors. The response should be down to less than one hertz which is a
very frequent requirement.

5. Filter that amplifies frequency above a certain value is called?

a) low pass filter
b) high pass filter
c) band pass filter
d) band stop filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: High pass filter amplifies signal above a certain frequency. Low pass filter amplifies signals
below a certain frequency. Band pass filter amplifies frequencies within a certain band. Band stop filter
amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band.

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6. ________________ amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band.

a) high pass filter
b) low pass filter
c) band pass filter
d) band stop filter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Band stop filter amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band. High pass filter
amplifies signal above a certain frequency. Low pass filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency. Band
pass filter amplifies frequencies within a certain band.

7. Active filters use opamps in addition to passive components in order to obtain better performance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: True. Active filters use opamps in addition to passive components in order to obtain better
performance. Operational amplifiers are frequently used as the gain blocks in active filters. Passive
components are resistors capacitors and inductors.
8. Which of the following component is not a part of the passive filter?
a) resistor
b) operational amplifier
c) capacitor
d) inductor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Operational amplifier is not a part of passive filters. It is a part of an active filter. Passive
components are resistors capacitors and inductors. Active filters use opamps in addition to passive
components in order to obtain better performance.

General Considerations for Signal Conditioners

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “General
Considerations for Signal Conditioners”.

1. The filter used to reject the 50Hz noise picked up from power lines or machinery is called?
a) band reject filter
b) band stop filter
c) notch filter
d) all reject filter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Such filters are called notch filters. Almost all measuring and recording applications are
subjected to some degree of 50Hz noise picked up from the power lines or machinery. Therefore, most
signal conditioners include low pass filter designed specifically to provide maximum rejection of 50 Hz
noise.

2. Devices that pass the signal from its source to the measurement device without a physical or galvanic
connection by using transformer, optical or capacitive coupling technique are called?
a) filters
b) rectifiers
c) bridges
d) isolaters
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Such devices are called isolaters. Improper grounding of the system is one of the most
common causes of measurement problem and noise. Signal conditioners with isolation can prevent these
problems. Besides breaking ground loops, isolation blocks high voltage surges and rejects high common
mode voltages.

3. Which of the following technique is not employed in isolation devices?

a) resistance
b) optical
c) inductance
d) capacitance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance technique is not employed in making isolation devices. The isolation devices pass
the signal from its source to the measurement device without a physical or galvanic connection by using
transformer, optical or capacitive coupling technique.

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4. Besides breaking ground loops, isolation blocks high voltage surges and rejects high common mode
voltages.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true. Besides breaking ground loops, isolation blocks high voltage surges and rejects high
common mode voltages. The isolation devices pass the signal from its source to the measurement device
without a physical or galvanic connection by using transformer, optical or capacitive coupling technique.

5. Strain gauges are resistance devices in a Wheat stone bridge configuration _________
a) which does not require bridge completion circuitry and an excitation source
b) which requires bridge completion circuitry and an excitation source
c) which neither requires bridge completion circuitry nor an excitation source
d) which requires bridge completion circuitry but does not an excitation source
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain gauges are resistance devices in a Wheat stone bridge configuration which requires
bridge completion circuitry and an excitation source. These devices require external voltage or current
excitation. Signal conditioning part of the measurement system usually provides the excitation signals.

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6. Which of the following voltage regulator IC gives a variable positive voltage?

a) LM317
b) LM337
c) 7805
d) 7812
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LM317 is a variable positive voltage regulator IC. It is capable of drawing current up to 1.5A
and voltage range from 1.25V- 30V ideally. LM337 is a variable negative voltage regulator IC. 7805 and 7812
are fixed voltage regulator IC that give output voltage as 5V and 12V respectively.

7. ________ IC is a variable negative voltage regulator.

a) 7912
b) 7905
c) LM337
d) LM317
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM337 is a variable negative voltage regulator IC. It is capable of drawing current up to 1.5A
and voltage range from (-1.25V) – (-30V) ideally. LM317 is a variable positive voltage regulator IC. 7905 and
7912 are fixed voltage regulator IC that give output voltage as -5V and -12V respectively.

8. Digital filters are sensitive to temperature as compared with analog filters.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: False. Digital filters are insensitive to temperature as compared with analog filters. They are
also insensitive to ageing, voltage drift and external interference as compared to analog filters. Their
response is completely reproducible and predictable, and software simulations can exactly reflect product
performance.

9. Signal conditioning is not of much importance in the measuring and recording system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Signal conditioning is of great importance in measuring and recording system. They determine
the range, accuracy and resolution of the system. Signal conditioning includes either hardware based or
software based linearization routines for this purpose.

Preamplifiers
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Preamplifiers”.

1. Which amplifier will reject any common mode signal that appears simultaneously at both amplifier input
terminal and amplifies only the voltage difference that appears across its input terminals?
a) ac coupled amplifiers
b) differential amplifiers
c) carrier amplifiers
d) dc amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Differential amplifier is one which will reject any common mode signal that appears
simultaneously at both amplifier input terminals and amplifies only the voltage difference that appears
across its input terminals. Most of the amplifiers used for measuring bioelectric signals are of the
differential type. AC amplifiers have a limited frequency response and are, therefore, used only for special
medical applications such as electrocardiograph machine.

2. Which amplifier has a limited frequency response?

a) differential amplifier
b) dc amplifiers
c) ac coupled amplifiers
d) carrier amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: AC amplifiers have a limited frequency response and are, therefore, used only for special
medical applications such as electrocardiograph machine. For electrocardiograms, an ac amplifier with
sensitivity, giving 0.5 mV/cm, and a frequency response up to 1 kHz and an input impedance of 2 to 5 MW is
used. For such applications as retinography, EEG and EMG, more sensitive ac amplifiers are required, giving
a chart sensitivity of say 50 mV/cm with a high input impedance of over 10 MW.

3. ______________ are used with transducers which require an external source of excitation.
a) carrier amplifiers
b) dc amplifiers
c) ac coupled amplifiers
d) differential amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Carrier amplifiers are used with transducers which require an external source of excitation.
They are characterized by high gain, negligible drift, extremely low noise and the ability to operate with
resistive, inductive or capacitive type transducers. They essentially contain a carrier oscillator, a bridge
balance and calibration circuit, a high gain ac amplifier, a phase-sensitive detector and a dc output
amplifier.

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4. DC amplifiers are employed with _______ feedback type.
a) positive
b) negative
c) depends on the application
d) can be any positive or negative does’t matter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DC amplifiers are generally of the negative feedback type. They are used for medium gain
applications down to about 1 mV signal levels for full scale. They are not practical for very low level
applications because of dc drift and poor common-mode rejection capabilities.

5. DC amplifiers are mostly used for very low level applications because they offer very less dc drift and
high common mode rejection capabilities.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DC amplifiers are not practical for very low level applications because of dc drift and poor
common-mode rejection capabilities. They are usually employed as pen drive amplifiers in direct writing
recorders. They are used for medium gain applications down to about 1 mV signal levels for full scale.

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6. Chopper stabilized dc amplifiers are complex amplifiers having ________ amplifiers incorporated in the
module.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chopper stabilized dc amplifiers are used for low level but preferably wideband applications
such as oscilloscopes, tape recorders and light beam oscilloscope recorders. These are complex amplifiers
having three amplifiers incorporated in the module. This includes an ac amplifier for signals above about 20
Hz, a dc chopper input amplifier for signals from about 20 Hz down to dc plus wideband feedback stabilized
dc amplifier.

7. Which of the following amplifier is employed with resistive transducers which require an external source
of excitation?
a) differential amplifier
b) ac coupled amplifier
c) carrier amplifier
d) dc bridge amplifier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DC bridge amplifiersare employed with resistive transducers which require an external source
of excitation. Essentially, the amplifier comprises of a stable dc excitation source, a bridge balance and
calibration unit, a high gain differential dc amplifier and a dc output amplifier. They can be used as
conventional dc high gain amplifiers and offer operating simplicity and high frequency response.

8. Chopper input dc amplifiersare preferred for low level inputs to instrumentation systems because of
their high sensitivity, negligible drift and excellent common mode rejection capability.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: True. Chopper input dc amplifiersare preferred for low level inputs to instrumentation systems
because of their high sensitivity, negligible drift and excellent common mode rejection capability. Their high
frequency response is limited to about one half of the input chopper frequency.

Sources of Noise in Low Level Measurements

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses
on “Sources of Noise in Low Level Measurements”.

1. Bio potential amplifiers have ____________ input terminals.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bio potential has three input terminals. Out of the three one is arranges at the reference
potential. The other two are live terminals. Bio potential amplifiers are also known as differential amplifiers.
The differential amplifier is employed when it is necessary to measure the voltage difference between two
points, both of them varying in amplitude at different rates and in different patterns.

2. The ability of the amplifier to reject common voltages on its two input leads is known as ________
a) common mode rejection rate
b) coupled mode rejection rate
c) common mode rejection ratio
d) coupled mode rejection ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ability of the amplifier to reject common voltages on its two input leads is known as
common-mode rejection. It is specified as the ratio of common-mode input to differential input to elicit the
same response. It is abbreviated as CMRR (Common-mode rejection ratio).

3. CMRR is measured in ____________

a) V/s
b) dB
c) dB/s
d) dB/ms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CMRR is an important specification referred to the differential amplifier and is normally
expressed as decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject common voltages on its two input leads is known
as common-mode rejection. It is specified as the ratio of common-mode input to differential input to elicit
the same response.

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4. CMRR of the preamplifiers should be as high as possible.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
5. The common mode rejection for most op-amps is typically between __________
a) 10-50dB
b) 20-40dB
c) 60-90dB
d) 100-120dB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The common mode rejection for most op-amps is typically between 60 dB and 90 dB. This may
not be sufficient to reject common mode noise generally encountered in biomedical measurements. Also,
the input impedance is not very high to handle signals from high impedance sources.

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6. The output of differential gain is given by _________

a) (difference of the two input voltage)*(feedback resistance/input resistance)
b) (sum of the two input voltage)*(feedback resistance/input resistance)
c) (difference of the two input voltage)*(input resistance/feedback resistance)
d) (sum of the two input voltage)*(input resistance/feedback resistance)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The output of differential gain is given by (difference of the two input voltage)*(feedback
resistance/input resistance). gain is given by (feedback resistance/input resistance). The input resistances of
but the inputs are the same.

7. In order to be able to minimize the effects of changes occurring in the electrode impedances, it is
necessary to employ a preamplifier having a high input impedance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: True. In order to be able to minimize the effects of changes occurring in the electrode
impedances, it is necessary to employ a preamplifier having a high input impedance. It has been found that
a low value of input impedance gives rise to considerable distortion of the recordings.

8. The impedance of the input should be ________ in order to obtain high CMRR in the differential amplifier.
a) low
b) High
c) Does not matter
d) Very low
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This shows that high input impedance is very necessary in order to obtain a high CMRR. Also,
the electrode skin resistance should be low and as nearly equal as possible. In order to be able to minimize
the effects of changes occurring in the electrode impedances, it is necessary to employ a preamplifier
having a high input impedance

Biomedical Signal Analysis and Processing Techniques

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Biomedical Signal Analysis and Processing Techniques”.

1. Which of the following statement is true for an instrumentational amplifier?

a) the input resistance of both the inputs is very high and does not change as the gain is varied
b) the input resistance of both the inputs is very low and does not change as the gain is varied
c) the input resistance of both the inputs is very high and does change as the gain is varied
d) the input resistance of both the inputs is very low and does change as the gain is varied
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The input resistance of both the inputs is very high and does not change as the gain is varied
in and instrumentational amplifier. Voltage gain from differential input (V1–V2) to single ended output, is
set by one resistor. V0 does not depend on common-mode voltage, but only on their difference.
2. Which of the following is not the property of the instrumentational amplifier?
a) Extremely high input impedance
b) Low bias and offset currents
c) High slew rate
d) Very low CMRR
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Instrumentational amplifiers have very high CMRR. The instrumentation amplifier offers the
following advantages for its applications in the biomedical field. Some of them are like extremely high input
impedance, low bias and offset currents, high slew rate.

3. CMRR is measured in ___________

a) v/s
b) dB
c) dB/s
d) dB/ms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CMRR is an important specification referred to the differential amplifier and is normally
expressed as decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject common voltages on its two input leads is known
as common-mode rejection. It is specified as the ratio of common-mode input to differential input to elicit
the same response.

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4. The carrier amplifier consists of an oscillator and a capacitance coupled amplifier.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The carrier amplifier consists of an oscillator and a capacitance coupled amplifier. The
oscillator is used to energize the transducer with an alternating carrier voltage. The transducers, which
require ac excitation, are those whose impedance is not purely resistive.

5. Electromagnetic coupling cannot be reduced by ___________

a) shielding
b) wire twisting
c) multiple grounding
d) common grounding
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Having multiple grounds in a single circuit increases the electromagnetic coupling effect by
producing ground loop which may generate so much noise that it may completely obscure the useful
signal. Thus, the electromagnetic coupling is reduced by shielding, wire twisting and proper grounding
which provide a balanced signal pair with satisfactory noise rejection characteristics.

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6. Which on the following is not a type of isolation amplifier?

a) capactively coupled isolation amplifiers
b) optically isolated isolation amplifiers
c) resistive coupled isolation amplifiers
d) transformer type isolation amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is nothing such as the resistive coupled isolation amplifiers. All the other three types are
in common use, though the transformer isolation amplifier is more popular. Opto-coupled amplifier uses a
minimum number of components and is cost effective, followed by the transformer coupled amplifier. The
capacitor coupled amplifier is the most expensive.

7. The isolation includes different supply voltage sources and different grounds on each side of the isolation
barrier.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The isolation includes different supply voltage sources and different grounds on each side of
the isolation barrier. Three methods are used in the design of isolation amplifiers: (i) transformer isolation
(ii) optical isolation (iii) capacitive isolation. Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for providing protection
against leakage currents.

8. _________ are commonly used for providing protection against leakage currents.
a) Isolation amplifiers
b) Differential amplifiers
c) Instrumentational amplifiers
d) Inverting amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isolation amplifiers are commonly used for providing protection against leakage currents. They
break the ohmic continuity of electric signals between the input and output of the amplifier. The isolation
includes different supply voltage sources and different grounds on each side of the isolation barrier.

The Main Amplifier and Driver Stage

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This set of Basic Biomedical Instrumentation Questions and Answers focuses on “The Main Amplifier and
Driver Stage”.

1. The term ___________ is used when referring to the frequency content of a signal.
a) angular momentum
b) spectrum
c) scope
d) bandwidth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The term spectrum is used when referring to the frequency content of a signal. The basic
motivation for developing frequency analysis tools is to provide a mathematical and pictorial
representation for the frequency components that are contained in any given signal. Most biomedical
signals of practical interest can be decomposed into a sum of sinusoidal signal components.

2. The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is known as
_______________
a) time domain analysis
b) mathematical analysis
c) spectral analysis
d) pseudo analysis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is
known as frequency or spectral analysis. The term spectrum is used when referring to the frequency
content of a signal. Most biomedical signals of practical interest can be decomposed into a sum of
sinusoidal signal components.
3. Most biomedical signals of practical interest can be decomposed into a sum of sinusoidal signal
components. For the class of periodic signals, such a decomposition is called a _______ series.
a) fourier
b) discontinuous
c) continuous
d) frequency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is called a Fourier series. The term spectrum is used when referring to the frequency content
of a signal. The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is
known as a frequency or spectral analysis.

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4. Most biomedical signals of practical interest can be decomposed into a sum of sinusoidal signal
components. For the class of finite energy signals, the decomposition is called the ____________
a) Fourier series
b) Fourier transform
c) Laplace transform
d) Laplace series
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For the class of finite energy signals, the decomposition is called the Fourier transform. For the
class of periodic signals, such decomposition is called a Fourier series. The process of obtaining the
spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is known as a frequency or spectral analysis.

5. The ratio of response to a stimulus is called the transfer function.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of response to a stimulus is called the transfer function.
H(f) = R(f)/S(f)
The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is known as a
frequency or spectral analysis.

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6. Each component in the FFT series can then be represented as A cos (wt) + iB sin (f) where ______________
a) A = The phase angle of the component
b) f = An FFT coefficient
c) t = temperature
d) w = Angular frequency of the component
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: w = Angular frequency of the component is the correct answer. Other all are the incorrect
explanation of the variables. A = An FFT coefficient
f = The phase angle of the component and t = time.

7. Which of the following transform is best suited for spatial filtering, edge detection, feature extraction,
data compression, pattern recognition, speech recognition, image compression and texture analysis?
a) wavelet transform
b) laplace transform
c) fourier transform
d) short time fourier transform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The wavelet transform has very good time resolution at high frequencies and good frequency
resolution at low frequencies. In biomedical engineering, wavelet transform have been widely used in many
research areas including spatial filtering, edge detection, feature extraction, data compression, pattern
recognition, speech recognition, image compression and texture analysis. Wavelets are a relatively new
signal processing method. A wavelet transform is almost always implemented as a bank of filters that
decompose a signal into multiple signal bands. It separates and retains the signal features in one or a few
of these bands

Writing System
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Writing
System”.

1. For faithful reproduction of the input signal linearity over the required range of signal, amplitudes must
be satisfied by the individual parts of the system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For faithful reproduction of the input signal, three basic conditions must be satisfied by the
individual parts of the system. These requirements are linearity over the required range of signal
amplitudes and an adequate passband for the frequencies involved without producing any phase shift
between the input and recorded signal.

2. CRO stands for _______

a) Common Ray Oscilloscope
b) Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
c) Cathode Ray Oscillator
d) Common Ray Oscillator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cathode ray oscilloscopes are widely used for the display of waveforms encountered in the
medical field. These waveforms can be recorded from the CRO screen by running a photographic film
through a recording camera fixed in front of the screen. Recorders are either of the single channel type or
of the type which record several channels simultaneously.

3. Which of the following is not a passive transducer?

a) Strain gauge
b) Ultrasonic transducer
c) IR sensor
d) Doppler effect transducer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Strain gauge transducer is an active transducer. Its working principle is based on a change in
resistance. Ultrasonic transducers need power to operate. So do the IR sensors and doppler effect
transducers.

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4. _____________ refers to the degree of repeatability of a measurant.

a) accuracy
b) precision
c) resolution
d) sensitivity.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Precision refers to the degree of repeatability of a measurant. Accuracy describes the algebraic
difference between the indicated value and the true or theoretical value of the measurand. Resolution is
the ability of the transducer or sensor to see small differences in reading.

5. ____________ filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency.

a) band stop filter
b) high pass filter
c) band pass filter
d) low pass filter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Low pass filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency. Band pass filter amplifies
frequencies with in a certain band. Band stop filter amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain
band. High pass filter amplifies signal above a certain frequency.

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6. Which of the following filter amplifies frequencies with a certain band?

a) band pass filter
b) band stop filter
c) low pass filter
d) high pass filter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Band pass filter amplifies frequencies within a certain band. Band stop filter amplifies all the
frequencies except those in a certain band. High pass filter amplifies signal above a certain frequency. Low
pass filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency.

7. AAMI stands for ____________________

a) American Association of Medical Instrumentation
b) Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation
c) Association of American Medical Instrumentation
d) American Association of Measurement Instruments
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation, USA is an association for
propelling the advancement, and protected and powerful utilization of restorative innovation established in
1965 by Robert D. Corridor, Jr. what’s more, Robert J. Allen, President and Vice President individually of
Tech/Reps, Inc. AAMI is an intentional association, and in spite of the fact that its suggested practices and
gauges once in a while reverberate other social insurance rules, consistency with these models isn’t really
required by administrative associations that review medicinal services offices.

8. A wavelet transform is almost always implemented as a bank of filters that decompose a signal into
multiple signal bands.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true. A wavelet transform is almost always implemented as a bank of filters that
decompose a signal into multiple signal bands. Wavelets are a relatively new signal processing method.
Thus, one of the biggest advantages of using the wavelet transform is that signal features can be easily
extracted. In many cases, a wavelet transform outperforms the conventional FFT when it comes to feature
extraction and noise reduction. predictable, and software simulations can exactly reflect product
performance.
 Direct Writing Recorders
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Direct
Writing Recorders”.

1. How many kidneys does a human have?

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The human body has two kidneys which lie in the back of the abdominal cavity just below the
diaphragm, one on each side of the vertebral column. Each kidney consists of about a million individual
units, all similar in structure and function. The main function of the kidneys is to form urine out of blood
plasma.

2. The removal of waste products from blood plasma is performed by ___________

a) kidney
b) liver
c) heart
d) lungs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of the kidneys is to form urine out of blood plasma, which basically consists
of two processes: (i) the removal of waste products from blood plasma, and (ii) the regulation of the
composition of blood plasma. The human body has two kidneys which lie in the back of the abdominal
cavity just below the diaphragm, one on each side of the vertebral column.

3. The regulation of the composition of blood plasma is done by which of the following organ?
a) skin
b) heart
c) kidney
d) lung
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The human body has two kidneys which lie in the back of the abdominal cavity just below the
diaphragm, one on each side of the vertebral column. The main function of the kidneys is to form urine out
of blood plasma, which basically consists of two processes: (i) the removal of waste products from blood
plasma, and (ii) the regulation of the composition of blood plasma.

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4. Each kidney consists of about a million individual units, all similar in structure and function. These tiny
units are called __________
a) nerves
b) neurons
c) capillaries
d) nephrons
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Each kidney consists of about a million individual units, all similar in structure and function.
These tiny units are called nephrons. A nephron is composed of two parts—a cluster of capillary loops
called the glomerulus and a tubule.
5. Which of the following is the correct anatomical position of the kidney?
a) front of the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm
b) back of the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm
c) back of the abdominal cavity just above the diaphragm
d) front of the abdominal cavity just above the diaphragm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The human body has two kidneys which lie in the back of the abdominal cavity just below the
diaphragm, one on each side of the vertebral column. Each kidney consists of about a million individual
units, all similar in structure and function. These tiny units are called nephrons.

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6. Each kidney consists _______ number of nephrons.

a) thousands
b) millions
c) billions
d) trillions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Each kidney consists of millions number of nephrons. A nephron is composed of two parts—a
cluster of capillary loops called the glomerulus and a tubule. The tubule runs a tortuous course and
ultimately drains via a collecting duct into the funnel-shaped expansion of the upper end of the ureter, i.e.
the tube which conveys urine from the kidney to the bladder.

7. The kidneys work only on plasma.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The kidneys work only on plasma. The erythrocytes supply oxygen to the kidneys but serve no
other function in urine formation. Each substance in plasma is handled in a characteristic manner by the
nephron, involving particular combinations of filtration, reabsorption and secretion.

8. The ___________ carry blood at very high pressure from the aorta into the glomerular capillary.
a) renal arteries
b) russal arteries
c) pulmonary arteries
d) fenal arteries
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The renal arteries carry blood at very high pressure from the aorta into the glomerular
capillary tuft. The blood pressure within the glomerular capillaries is 70–90 mm of mercury. The blood flow
through the capillary tuft is controlled by the state of contraction of the muscle of the arteriole leading to
the tuft.

The Inkjet Recorders

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Inkjet
Recorders”.

1. The total amount of glomerular filtrate is about ____________ per day.

a) 180 liters
b) 18 liters
c) 18 ml
d) 180 ml
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total amount of glomerular filtrate is about 180 litres per day, whereas the amount of
urine formed from it is only 1–1.5l. This means that very large amounts of water, and other substances, are
re-absorbed by the kidney tubules.

2. The amount of urine formed by an average kidney in one day is ________

a) 10-10.5 L
b) 10-15 ml
c) 1-1.5 L
d) 5 L
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The amount of urine formed by an average kidney in one day is 1-1.5 L. The total amount of
glomerular filtrate is about 180 litres per day. Very large amounts of water and other substances are re-
absorbed by the kidney tubules.

3. Which hormone of the pituitary gland helps to automatically reabsorb water from the kidney?
a) Anti-diuretic hormone
b) Diuretic hormone
c) Pro-diuretic hormone
d) Pseudo-diuretic hormone
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The re-absorption is partly an automatic process because the absorption of water is accurately
controlled by the anti-diuretic hormone of the pituitary gland, in relation to the body’s need for water. The
absorption of electrolytes such as sodium and potassium is partly controlled by the supra-renal gland and
the concentration of others, like chloride and bicarbonate, is related to the acid-base balance.

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4. The total blood flow through the kidneys is about _____________

a) 120 ml/min
b) 1200 ml/min
c) 200 ml/min
d) 10 ml/min
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total blood flow through the kidneys is about 1200 ml/min. The absorption of electrolytes
such as sodium and potassium is partly controlled by the supra-renal gland and the concentration of
others, like chloride and bicarbonate, is related to the acid-base balance. Some of the re-absorption from
the glomerular filtrate is also a passive, automatic process of diffusion depending upon pressure gradients.

5. The total extra-cellular fluid amounts to about _________

a) 1 litres
b) 15 milli-litres
c) 15 litres
d) 150 litres
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total extra-cellular fluid amounts to about 15 litres. Some of the re-absorption from the
glomerular filtrate is also a passive, automatic process of diffusion depending upon pressure gradients. The
total blood flow through the kidneys is about 1200 ml/min.

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6. Kidneys has no role maintaining the acid-base balance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is false. Kidney plays an important role in maintaining the acid-base balance. The water and
electrolyte content of the blood plasma and, therefore, indirectly of the extra-cellular fluid are closely
controlled by the kidneys. The blood plasma and the extra-cellular fluid are in equilibrium with each other
and, therefore, an amount of blood equivalent to all the extra-cellular fluid can pass through the kidneys
once every 15 minutes.

7. The symptoms and signs of profound renal malfunction are known as uremia.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The symptoms and signs of profound renal malfunction are known as uremia, meaning urine
in the blood. Since most urinary contents are water-soluble, they reach high concentrations in blood and
result in deranged body parts and their physiology.

8. Chronic renal failure results in changes in the body fluids which occur due to a _____________
a) progressive increase in the number of functioning nephrons
b) progressive decrease in the number of functioning nephrons
c) progressive decrease in the number of functioning neurons
d) progressive increase in the number of functioning neurons
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chronic renal failure results in changes in the body fluids which occur due to a progressive
decrease in the number of functioning nephrons. With the decrease in functional nephrons, the clearance
of urea, creatinine and other metabolic waste products will decrease proportionally. In consequence, the
plasma concentrations of these substances will rise

Potentiometric Recorder
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Potentiometric Recorder”.

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) movement of waste product molecules from the dialysate to the blood results in cleaning of the blood
b) movement of waste product molecules from the blood to the dialysate results in cleaning of the blood
c) movement of waste product molecules from the blood to the dialysate results in impuring of the blood
d) movement of waste product molecules from the dialysate to the blood results in cleaning of the blood
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Movement of waste product molecules from the blood to the dialysate results in cleaning of
the blood. The dialysate fluid is free of waste product molecules and, therefore, those in the blood would
tend to distribute themselves evenly throughout the blood and the dialysate. All other options are
completely wrong.

2. A positive pressure is applied to the blood compartment or a negative pressure established in the
dialysate compartment. This process in dialyses is called ______________
a) nano filtration
b) mega filtration
c) micro filtration
d) ultra filtration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The volume of body fluid cannot be controlled by dialysis. Instead, ultra-filtration across the
membrane is employed. For this, a positive pressure is applied to the blood compartment or a negative
pressure established in the dialysate compartment. Either way, fluid—both water and electrolytes—will
move from the blood compartment to the dialysate, which is subsequently discarded.

3. Electrode paste ______________

a) increases contact impedance
b) equates contact impedance
c) reduces contact impedance
d) absorbs contact impedance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to obtain a clearly established contact (low contact impedance) an electrolyte or
electrode paste is usually employed as an interface between the electrode and the surface of the source of
the event. It is placed between the skin and the electrode. It helps to get better signal acquisition.

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4. Heart wall is made up of __________ layers.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Heart wall is made up of three layers. First pericardium which is the outer layer of the heart.
Second is the myocardium which is the middle layer of the hear and finally endocardium which is the inner
layer of the heart wall.

5. Uremia is the clinical state resulting from _____________

a) renal failure
b) liver failure
c) kidney failure
d) lung failure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Uremia is the clinical state resulting from renal failure. The signs and symptoms of uremia are
extremely diverse and frequently appear to point to a disease of other organs. Uremia affects every organ
of the body as certain substances that accumulate in uremia are clearly toxic.

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6. Dialysis takes place across a membrane of cellophane.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true. The dialysate is an electrolyte solution of suitable composition and the dialysis takes
place across a membrane of cellophane. The return of the dialyzed blood is by another plastic tube to an
appropriate vein.

7. Blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries is in the range of?

a) 17-19 mmHg
b) 7-9 mmHg
c) 170-190 mmHg
d) 70-90 mmHg
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The blood pressure within the glomerular capillaries is 70–90 mm of mercury. The blood flow
through the capillary tuft is controlled by the state of contraction of the muscle of the arteriole leading to
the tuft. The renal arteries carry blood at very high pressure from the aorta into the glomerular capillary
tuft.

8. The glomerular filtrate consists of blood plasma with proteins.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is false. The glomerular filtrate consists of blood plasma without proteins. The fluid pressure
within the tuft forces some of the fluid part of the blood, by filtration, through the thin walls of the
capillaries into the glomerulus and on into the tubule of the nephron

Digital Recorders
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Digital
Recorders”.

1. The removal of waste products during dialysis is ___________

a) inversely proportional to the concentration gradient across the membrane
b) proportional to the concentration gradient across the membrane
c) proportional to the flow rate across the membrane
d) inversely proportional to the flow rate across the membrane
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The removal of waste products during dialysis is proportional to the concentration gradient
across the membrane. In order to effect the maximum gradient, the concentration of waste products in the
dialysate should be maintained at zero. This is achieved in most currently employed machines by using the
dialysate only once and then discarding it.

2. Counter-current flow through the artificial kidney is used so that the dialysate enters the kidney at the
blood exit-end. Where the blood concentration of waste products is at the lowest level?
a) lowest level
b) very high level
c) high level
d) medium level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Counter-current flow through the artificial kidney is used so that the dialysate enters the
kidney at the blood exit-end where blood concentration of waste products is at the lowest level. The
removal of waste products during dialysis is proportional to the concentration gradient across the
membrane. In order to effect the maximum gradient, the concentration of waste products in the dialysate
should be maintained at zero.

3. Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal resistance. Because of this blood pump is required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal resistance which allows adequate blood flow through
the dialyzer with the patient’s arterial blood pressure, eliminating the need for a blood pump. The dialyzing
surface area of a parallel flow dialyzer is about 1 sq m. At a blood flow rate of 200 ml/min and a dialysate
flow of 500 ml/min, the urea and creatinine clearance is about 80 and 64 ml/min.

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4. KIIL dialyzer is a type of _________

a) coil hemodialyzer
b) hollow fiber dialyzer
c) series flow dialyzer
d) parallel flow dialyzer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The KIIL dialyzer has earlier been the most commonly used form of parallel flow dialyzer. It
consists of three polypropylene boards with dialyzing membranes laid between them. The boards are held
firmly with a frame on the top and bottom and are fastened by a series of bolts on the side.

5. The KIIL dialyzer is not disposable.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true. The KIIL dialyzer is not disposable. It needs to be cleaned and re-built after each
dialysis operation. With this type of dialyzer, a single-pass body temperature dialysate passes through the
dialyzer once before going to the drain to obtain higher operational efficiency and to minimize bacterial
infection.

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6. The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as __________

a) secondary volume
b) quarterly volume
c) priming volume
d) residual volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as priming volume. It is desirable that this
should be minimal. Priming volume of present day dialyzers ranges from 75 to 200 ml, depending on the
membrane area geometry and operating conditions.

7. The ideal membrane should possess __________

a) low permeability to water
b) high permeability to water
c) medium permeability to water
d) high permeability to waste
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ideal membrane should possess high permeability to water, organic metabolites and ions,
and the capability of retaining plasma proteins. The membrane should be of sufficient wet strength to resist
tearing or bursting and non-toxic to blood and all body cells.

8. Which of the following is the commonly used membrane for hemodialysis?

a) Cupraphan
b) Cotton
c) Cellulose
d) calcium
View Answer
9. The delta wave in EEG ranges from _________
a) 0.5-4Hz
b) 4-8Hz
c) 8-13Hz
d) 13-22Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The delta wave in EEG ranges from 0.5-4Hz. The theta wave in EEG ranges from 4-8Hz. The
alpha wave in EEG ranges from 8-13Hz and beta from 13-22Hz.

Video Printers
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Video
Printers”.

1. Any disturbance in the heart’s normal rhythmic contraction is called?

a) Heart stroke
b) Cardiac arrest
c) Arrhythmias
d) Premature contraction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Any disturbance in the heart’s normal rhythmic contraction is called an arrhythmias or cardiac
dysrhythmia. In this arrhythmias heart can’t beat in a regular rhythm. In arrhythmia heart-rate will be
higher than normal rate or will be less than the normal rate.

2. Which diagnostic statement is based on ECG wave shapes that attempt to describe the state of the
working muscle masses?
a) Rhythm statements
b) Morphological statements
c) Morphological-Rhythm statements
d) Rhythm-Morphological statements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Morphological statement-primarily based on ECG wave shapes that attempt to describe the
state of the working muscle masses. The other type of diagnostic statement is Rhythm statement. These
both diagnostic statements are observed from the ECG records.

3. Rhythm statements concerned with the site and rate of the cardiac pacemaker and the propagation of
impulses through the conduction system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rhythm statements concerned with the site and rate of the cardiac pacemaker and the
propagation of impulses through the conduction system is true because the other type of the diagnostic
statements is Morphological statements and it is primarily based on ECG wave shapes that attempt to
describe the state of the working muscle masses.

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4. Which wave from ECG waveforms becomes widened when the self-triggering impulse does not arrive
through the AV node?
a) P wave
b) QRS wave
c) ST wave
d) T wave
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sometimes irritation occurs in the ventricles, the self-triggering impulse does not arrive
through the node and thus travels a different and slower path in spreading over the ventricles. The QRS
wave then becomes widened and is classified as a ventricular ectopic beat.

5. When the self-triggering impulse does not arrive at the AV node and travels a different and slower path
over the ventricles, the QRS becomes widened and is classified as ___________
a) Ectopic beat
b) Ventricular-ectopic beat
c) Ventricular beat
d) Atrio-ventricular beat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sometimes irritation occurs in the ventricles, the self-triggering impulse does not arrive
through the node and thus travels a different and slower path in spreading over the ventricles. The QRS
wave then becomes widened, and is classified as a ventricular ectopic beat. This ectopic beat is classified
from ventricles so it is called as a ventricular ectopic beat.

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6. An ectopic beat, which starts in an abnormal location in the heart and is often premature, therefore also
called _______
a) Pre ventricular contraction
b) Premature ventricular beat
c) Pre ventricular beat
d) Premature ventricular contraction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An ectopic beat is a beat, which starts in an abnormal location in the heart and is often
premature, therefore also called premature ventricular contraction (PVC), i.e. it occurs sooner than the next
expected beat.

7. When the heartbeat is slower than the normal rate of the heart(less than 60), this type of arrhythmias
called _______
a) Bradycardia
b) Tachycardia
c) Arterial contraction
d) Ventricular contraction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 2 types of arrhythmias, i) Bradycardia-when the heart-rate is to slow(less than 60),
ii)Tachycardia-when the heart-rate is to fast(greater than 100). Here the answer is Bradycardia because
heart rate is less than 60.

8. Which of the following are resuscitation techniques?

a) Cepstrum coefficient
b) Prophylactic therapy
c) Transthoracic defibrillation
d) Dynamic time warping
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The necessity for early detection of the arrhythmias led to the establishment of coronary care
units in hospitals for the intensive monitoring and treatment of such patients. The attempt in these units
was to effectively carry out resuscitation techniques such as cardiac massage and transthoracic
defibrillation.
9. If heart rate is x, then which value of x is known as tachycardia?
a) x < 60
b) x > 60
c) 60 < x < 100
d) x > 100
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 2 types of arrhythmias,i)Bradycardia-when the heartrate is to slow(less than 60),
ii)Tachycardia-when the heartrate is to fast(greater than 100).Here the answer is Bradycardia because,heart
rate is less than 60.

10. Photo-diodes work in ___________

a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) independent of forward and reverse biasing
d) any configuration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The photodiode is a P-N junction semiconductor diode. It always operated in the reversed
biased condition. The light is always focused through a glass lens on the junction of the photo diode.

11. Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal resistance. Because of this blood pump is required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
12. CMRR is measured in _______________
a) V/s
b) dB
c) dB/s
d) dB/ms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CMRR is an important specification referred to the differential amplifier and is normally
expressed as decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject common voltages on its two input leads is known
as common-mode rejection. It is specified as the ratio of common-mode input to differential input to elicit
the same response

Electrocardiography
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Electrocardiography”.

1. The frequency range of ECG is ____________

a) 0.05-150 HZ
b) 500-1500 Hz
c) 5-500 kHz
d) 0.5-150 MHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The diagnostically useful frequency range is usually accepted as 0.05 to 150 Hz. Although the
electric field generated by the heart can be best characterized by vector quantities, it is generally
convenient to directly measure only scalar quantities, i.e. a voltage difference of mV order between the
given points of the body.

2. Which of the following amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by the power
supply in the ECG circuit?
a) band pass filters
b) high pass filters
c) notch filters
d) low pass filters
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A notch filter is employed to suppress the hum noise generated by the power supply in the
ECG circuit. CMRR of the order of 100–120 dB with 5 kW unbalance in the leads is a desirable feature of ECG
machines. The instability of the baseline, originating from the changes of the contact impedance, demands
the application of the automatic baseline stabilizing circuit.

3. The branch of medicine that deals with the provision and use of artificial devices such as splints and
braces is _________
a) prosthetics
b) orthotics
c) laproscopic
d) augmentative communication
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The branch of medicine that deals with the provision and use of artificial devices such as
splints and braces are orthotics. A modality-specific appliance that aids the performance of a function or
movement by augmenting or assisting the residual capabilities of that function or movement. An
orthopaedic brace is an orthosis.

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4. The sensitivity of an electrocardiograph is typically set at 10 mm/mV.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true. The sensitivity of an electrocardiograph is typically set at 10 mm/mV. For routine
work, the paper recording speed is 25 mm/s. Amplitude measurements are made vertically in millivolts.
Time measurements and heart rate measurements are made horizontally on the electrocardiogram.

5. The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as ___________

a) secondary volume
b) quarterly volume
c) priming volume
d) residual volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as priming volume. It is desirable that this
should be minimal. Priming volume of present day dialyzers ranges from 75 to 200 ml, depending on the
membrane area geometry and operating conditions.

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6. The ideal membrane should possess ___________ to water.

a) low permeability to water
b) high permeability to water
c) medium permeability to water
d) high permeability to waste
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ideal membrane should possess high permeability to water, organic metabolites and ions,
and the capability of retaining plasma proteins. The membrane should be of sufficient wet strength to resist
tearing or bursting and non-toxic to blood and all body cells.

7. To achieve optimum performance and to enable the relationship of change in resistance with the volume
of the cell to hold good, it is recommended that the ratio of the aperture length to the diameter of the
aperture should be __________
a) 75:1
b) 0.75:100
c) 0.75:1
d) 0.5:10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To achieve optimum performance and to enable the relationship of change in resistance with
volume of the cell to hold good, it is recommended that the ratio of the aperture length to the diameter of
the aperture should be 0.75:1, i.e. for an orifice of 100 m diameter the length should be 75 m. The
instrument based on the Coulter principle works most satisfactorily when the average diameter of the
particles ranges between 2 to 40% of the diameter of the measuring hole.

8. The blood is a poor conductor of electricity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true. Blood is a poor conductor of electricity. This principle is used in Coulter counters to
count the number of RBCs in the blood.

9. In floating electrodes metal electrode does not make direct contact with the skin.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a floating electrode, the metal electrode does not make direct contact with the skin. The
electrode consists of a light weighted metalled screen or plate held away from the subject by a flat washer
which is connected to the skin. Floating electrodes can be recharged, i.e. the jelly in the electrodes can be
replenished if desired.

Spirometry
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Spirometry”.

1. What is the pH range of extracellular fluid?

a) 7.25 to 730
b) 7.30 to 7.35
c) 7.35 to 7.45
d) 7.50 to 7.60
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The normal pH of the extracellular fluid lies in the range of 7.35 to 7.45, indicating that the
body fluid is slightly alkaline. When the pH exceeds 7.45, the body is considered to be in a state of alkalosis.
A body pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. Both acidosis or alkalosis are disease conditions widely
encountered in clinical medicine.

2. What is the pH of Arterial blood?

a) 7.25
b) 7.30
c) 7.35
d) 7.40
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Arterial blood has a pH of approximately 7.40. As venous blood acquires carbon dioxide, forms
carbonic acid and hydrogen ions, the venous blood pH falls to approximately 7.36. This pH drop of 0.04
units occurs when the CO2 enters the tissue capillaries. When CO2 diffuses from the pulmonary capillaries
into the alveoli, the blood pH rises 0.04 units to bring the normal arterial value of 7.40.

3. What is the pH range of intracellular fluid?

a) 7.0 to 7.2
b) 7.3 to 7.35
c) 7.35 to 7.45
d) 7.50 to 7.60
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When CO2 diffuses from the pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli, the blood pH rises 0.04
units to bring the normal arterial value of 7.40. It is quite difficult to measure the pH of fluids inside the
tissue cells, but from estimates based on CO2 and (HCO–3) ion concentration, intracellular pH probably
ranges from 7.0 to 7.2.

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4. What is E0 in given equation?

a) induced emf
b) Faradays Constant
c) pH value deviation from 7
d) standard potential
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The potential (E) of the glass electrode may be written by means of the Nernst
equation:

where, Eo = standard potential R = gas constant T = absolute temperature F = Faraday constant DpH = pH
value deviation from 7.The above relation shows that the emf developed in the electro-chemical pH cell is a
linear function of DpH.

5. What is E in given equation?

a) induced emf
b) Faradays Constant
c) pH value deviation from 7
d) standard potential
View Answer
6. With a 1°C change in temperature, the emf changes by ________ mV.
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.5
d) 0.8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The factor –2.3036 RTF is called the slope factor and is clearly dependent upon the solution
temperature. With a 1°C change in temperature, the emf changes by 0.2 mV. It is also obvious that the
measurement of pH is essentially a measurement of millivolt signals by special methods.

7. The venous blood pH falls to approximately 7.36.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: True, as venous blood acquires carbon dioxide, forms carbonic acid and hydrogen ions, the
venous blood pH falls to approximately 7.36. This pH drop of 0.04 units occurs when the CO2 enters the
tissue capillaries. When CO2 diffuses from the pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli, the blood pH rises 0.04
units to bring the normal arterial value of 7.40.

8. How much amount of capillary blood is required by a micro-electrode for determination of pH?
a) 5 to 10 ml
b) 10 to 12 ml
c) 12 to 18 ml
d) 20 to 25 ml
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A micro-electrode for clinical applications requires only 20–25 ml of capillary blood for the
determination of pH. The electrode is enclosed in a water jacket with circulating water at a constant
temperature of 38°C. The water contains 1% NACI for shielding against static interference.

9. The micro-electrode is enclosed in a water jacket with circulating water at a constant temperature of
___________ °C for determination of pH.
a) 25
b) 34
c) 38
d) 42
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A micro-electrode for clinical applications requires only 20–25 ml of capillary blood for the
determination of pH. The electrode is enclosed in a water jacket with circulating water at a constant
temperature of 38°C. The water contains 1% NACI for shielding against static interference.

10. Internal Reference electrode is of _______

a) gold
b) silver
c) platinum
d) graphite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The internal reference electrode is silver/silver chloride and the calomel reference electrode is
connected to a small pool of saturated KCI, through a porous pin. Accuracy of 0.001 pH can be obtained
with this electrode against a constant buffer.

Electroencephalograph (EEG)
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Electroencephalograph (EEG)”.

1. Pulse oximetry is used to measure the oxygen level in blood & heart rate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pulse oximetry is a technology used to measure the oxygen level in your blood and your heart
rate. A finger pulse oximeter is equipped with technology to rapidly detect changes in your blood oxygen
level.

2. How many wavelengths are used by Pulse Oximeter?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pulse oximetry is based on the concept that arterial oxygen saturation determinations can be
made using two wavelengths, provided the measurements are made on the pulsatile part of the waveform.

3. Light passing through finger will be adsorbed by ___________

(i) Skin Pigments
(ii) Tissue
(iii) Arteries
(iv) Veins
a) (i) & (iii)
b) (ii) & (iv)
c) (i) & (ii)
d) (iii) & (iv)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two wavelengths assume that only two absorbers are present; namely oxyhaemoglobin
(HbO2) and reduced haemoglobin (Hb).Light passing through the ear or finger will be absorbed by skin
pigments, tissue, cartilage, bone, arterial blood, venous blood.

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4. How is the blood flow in arteries and arterioles?

a) plug
b) laminar
c) parabolic
d) pulsatile
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most of the absorbances are fixed and do not change with time. Even blood in the capillaries
and veins under steady state metabolic circumstances is constant in composition and flow, at least over
short periods of time.Only the blood flow in the arteries and arterioles is pulsatile.

5. Law obeyed by Pulse Oximeter is _______

a) Lambert-Bouguer law
b) Beer ‘s law
c) Beer-Lambert law
d) Lamber-Bouguer, Beer’s and Beer-Lambert Law
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Light passing through the ear or finger will be absorbed by skin pigments, tissue, cartilage,
bone, arterial blood, venous blood. The absorbances are additive and obey the Beer-Lambert law. Beer-
Lambert is combination of Lambert-Bouguer and Beer’s Law.
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6. Which oximeter probe is in the picture?

a) Ear
b) Pulse
c) Skin Reflectance
d) Intravascular
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Components of pulse oximeter Probe.

7. How many LED’s are used in Pulse oximeter probe?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This has two LEDs (light emitting diodes), one that transmits infrared light at a wavelength of
approximately 940 nm and the other transmitting light at approximately 660 nm.

8. Oxygen saturation is estimated by _________

a) ratio (R) of pulse-added red absorbance at 660 nm to the pulse-added infrared absorbances at 940 nm
b) ratio (R) of pulse-added red absorbance at 940 nm to the pulse-added infrared absorbances at 660 nm
c) ratio (R) of pulse-added red absorbance at 330 nm to the pulse-added infrared absorbances at 940 nm
d) ratio (R) of pulse-added red absorbance at 940 nm to the pulse-added infrared absorbances at 330 nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Oxygen saturation is estimated from the ratio (R) of pulse-added red absorbance at 660 nm to
the pulse-added infrared absorbances at 940 nm.

9. What gets affected by lower saturation?

a) blood flow
b) translucency
c) accuracy
d) low atmospheric pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An accuracy of 1% or better has been reported for the saturation range of above 80% for most
transmission type pulse oximeters. Usually, the accuracy is less at lower saturation because of non-linear
effects of absorption.

10. What factors has no significant influence on the measurement?

a) skin pigmentation
b) thickness
c) tissue
d) skin pigmentation, thickness and tissue
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The instrument can be empirically calibrated. Subject variability (skin pigmentation, thickness,
tissue, sensor location, etc.) has no significant influence on the measurement.
 Electromyograph (EMG)
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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Electromyograph (EMG)”.

1. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the oxygen saturation level of blood in localized
areas of oxygen?
a) Ear Oximeter
b) Pulse Oximeter
c) Skin reflectance Oximeter
d) Intravascular Oximeter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the measurement of oxygen saturation level of blood in localized areas of oxygen deprived
tissues on the limbs, head and torso, a skin reflectance oximeter can be employed.

2. Skin Reflectance oximeter depends on monitoring backscattered lights in how many wavelengths?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The instrument basically depends on monitoring backscattered light from living tissue in two
wavelengths. The backscattered light data is then used for the in vivo determination of the blood’s relative
oxygen saturation.

3. Who brought out the difficulties in the extraction of useful information from backscattered light intensity
from human tissue?
a) Cohen and Wadsworth
b) Cohen and Logini
c) Cohen
d) Logini
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cohen and Wadsworth (1972) bring out the difficulties in the extraction of useful information
from backscattered light intensity from human tissue. There are vast variations of tissue construction and
optical properties among various subjects and in different locations on the same subject.

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4. Who considered “Human tissues are composed of parallel semi-infinite layers of homogenous materials”.
a) Cohen and Wadsworth
b) Cohen and Logini
c) Cohen
d) Wadsworth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cohen and Longini (1971) suggested a theoretical solution to some of these problems. They
considered human tissues to be composed of parallel semi-infinite layers of homogeneous materials.

5. Who has poorer signal-to-noise ratio?

a) Transmission Pulse Oximeter
b) Reflection Pulse Oximeter
c) Ear Oximeter
d) Pulse Oximeter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: However, in comparison to transmission, the reflection pulse oximeter has poorer signal-to
noiseratio. Mendelson et al (1988) utilized multiple photodiodes around the light source to enhance signal
level.

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6. What was utilized around the light source to enhance the signal?
a) Photodiodes
b) Optical Shied
c) Ceramic Substrate
d) Red and infrared LED’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: However, in comparison to transmission, the reflection pulse oximeter has poorer signal-to
noise ratio. Mendelson et al (1988) utilized multiple photodiodes around the light source to enhance signal
level.

7. What are used as light source in Skin Reflectance Oximeter?

a) Photodiode
b) Red and infrared LED’s
c) Flashtube
d) Arc Lamp
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pair of red and infrared light emitting diodes are used for the light source, with peak
emission wavelengths of 665 nm (red) and 935 nm (infrared). The reflected light from the skin at these two
wavelengths is detected by a silicon diode.

8. The reflected light from the skin at wavelengths of 665nm(red) and 935nm(infrared) is detected by
______________
a) Photo diode
b) Laser diode
c) Silicon diode
d) Zener diode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A pair of red and infrared light emitting diodes are used for the light source, with peak
emission wavelengths of 665 nm (red) and 935 nm (infrared). The reflected light from the skin at these two
wavelengths is detected by a silicon diode.

9. The detected signals are processed in the form of photo – plethysmographs to determine ___________
a) SiO2
b) SO2
c) CO2
d) TiO2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pair of red and infrared light emitting diodes is used for the light source, with peak emission
wavelengths of 665 nm (red) and 935 nm (infrared). The reflected light from the skin at these two
wavelengths is detected by a silicon diode. These detected signals are processed in the form of photo-
plethysmographs to determine So2.

10. What is incorporated in sensor to warm the tissue so as to increase local blood flow?
a) heater
b) heating plate
c) thermostat
d) thermometer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A heater was incorporated in the sensor to warm the tissue so as to increase local blood flow.
Excellent correlation in comparison with the transmission oximeter has been shown from the calf and
thigh.

Other Biomedical Recorders

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This set of Biomedical Instrumentation test focuses on “Other Biomedical Recorders”.

1. How much blood is present in an average adult?

a) 10-12 L
b) 2-3 L
c) 5-6 L
d) 20-25 L
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In an average adult about 5-6 L of blood is present. Blood consists of corpuscles suspended in
a fluid called plasma in the proportion of 45 parts of corpuscles (cells) to 55 parts of plasma. The
percentage of cells in the blood is called the haematocrit value or packed cell volume (PCV).

2. What is the blood percentage of total body weight?

a) 5-10 %
b) 20-30 %
c) 2-3 %
d) 10-15 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The blood constitutes 5–10% of the total body weight and in the average adult, it amounts to
5–6 l. Blood consists of corpuscles suspended in a fluid called plasma in the proportion of 45 parts of
corpuscles (cells) to 55 parts of plasma. The percentage of cells in the blood is called the haematocrit value
or packed cell volume (PCV).

3. Blood consists of corpuscles suspended in a fluid called plasma in the proportion of 45 parts of
____________ to 55 parts of _____________
a) Plasma, corpuscles
b) Corpuscles, plasma
c) Protoplasma, cytozomes
d) Cytozomes, protoplasma
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Blood consists of corpuscles suspended in a fluid called plasma in the proportion of 45 parts
of corpuscles (cells) to 55 parts of plasma. The percentage of cells in the blood is called the haematocrit
value or packed cell volume (PCV). The majority of the corpuscles in the blood are red blood cells
(erythrocytes), others being white blood cells (leucocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes).

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4. The percentage of cells in the blood is called _____________

a) haematocrit value
b) packet corpuscles value
c) packed haematocrit value
d) corpuscles value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The percentage of cells in the blood is called the haematocrit value or packed cell volume
(PCV). The majority of the corpuscles in the blood are red blood cells (erythrocytes), others being white
blood cells (leucocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes).

5. Which of the following blood constituent is in the form of a bi-concave disc?

a) lymphocytes
b) leucocutes
c) neutrophils
d) erythrocytes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Red blood cells have the form of a bi-concave disc with a mean diameter of about 7.5 m and
thickness of about 1.7 m. The mean surface area of the cell is about 134mm 2. There are about 5.5 million of
them in every cubic millimetre of blood in men and nearly 5 million in women.

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6. Diameter of erythrocytes is in the range of ___________

a) nano meters
b) micro meters
c) pico meters
d) femto meters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mean diameter of about 7.5 m and a thickness of about 1.7 m. The mean surface area of the
cell is about 134mm2. There are about 5.5 million of them in every cubic millimetre of blood in men and
nearly 5 million in women.

7. In the whole body, there are about 25 billion erythrocytes and they are constantly being destroyed and
replaced at a rate of about 9000 million per hour.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true. In the whole body, there are about 25 billion erythrocytes and they are constantly
being destroyed and replaced at a rate of about 9000 million per hour. There are about 5.5 million of them
in every cubic millimetre of blood in men and nearly 5 million in women.

8. The normal red cell lasts approximately how many days before it is destroyed?
a) 240
b) 10
c) 12
d) 120
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The normal red cell lasts approximately 120 days before it is destroyed. There are about 5.5
million of them in every cubic millimetre of blood in men and nearly 5 million in women. In the whole body,
there are about 25 billion erythrocytes and they are constantly being destroyed and replaced at a rate of
about 9000 million per hour.

9. The erythrocytes have a nucleus.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The erythrocytes have no nucleus. They are responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to
the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. In the whole body, there are about 25 billion
erythrocytes and they are constantly being destroyed and replaced at a rate of about 9000 million per hour.

10. Anaemia is reduction/increase _________

a) in the carbon dioxide carrying capacity of blood
b) in the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
c) in the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
d) in the carbon dioxide carrying capacity of blood
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Anaemia is a reduction in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. It can develop from a
change in the number, volume or Hb concentration of erythrocytes, caused by bone marrow dysfunction
resulting in the poor production rate of RBCs. Since these changes are specific, the measurement of packed
cell volume (PCV), the number of RBCs and the haemoglobin (Hb) are very important