T & T.V.

SARVAJANIK HIGH SCHOOL NANPURA,

SURAT
[HIGHER SECONDARY SCIENCE SECTION]

SUBJECT: PHYSICS STD: XII

PHYSICS QUESTION BANK

By ANITHA PILLAI
 T & T.V. SARVAJANIK HIGH SCHOOL
SUBJECT: PHYSICS STD:12TH
QUESTION BANK BY: Mrs. ANITHA PILLAI

Chapter 1
Electric charges and fields
I. MCQ type questions
1. The surface considered for Gauss’s law is called
(a) Closed surface (c) Gaussian surface
(b) Spherical surface (d) Plane surface
2. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it
(a) gains electrons from silk. (c) gains protons from silk.
(b) gives electrons to silk. (d) gives protons to silk.
3. In general, metallic ropes are suspended on the carriers taking inflammable materials.
The reason is
(a) to control the speed of the carrier.
(b) to keep the center of gravity of the carrier nearer to the earth.
(c) to keep the body of the carrier in contact with the earth.
(d) none of these.
4. Two similar spheres having +Q and -Q charges are kept at a certain distance. F force acts
between the two. If at the middle of two spheres, another similar sphere having +Q
charge is kept, then it experiences a force in magnitude and direction as
(a) zero having no direction (c) 8F towards -Q charge.
(b) 8F towards +Q charge. (d) 4F towards +Q charge.
5. A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q – q. If the coulomb repulsion between
them when they are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of Q/q should be
(a) 2:1 (c) 4:1
(b) ½ (d) ¼
6. Four equal charges q are placed at the four comers A, B, C, D of a square of length a. The
magnitude of the force on the charge at B will be

7. Two charges of equal magnitudes kept at a distance r exert a force F on each other. If the
charges are halved and distance between them is doubled, then the new force acting on each
charge is

8. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is
(a) zero.
(b) constant, less than zero.
(c) directly proportional to the distance from the center.
(d) none of the these
9. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the
cylinder axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by
10. Electric field at a point varies as r° for
(a) an electric dipole (c) a plane infinite sheet of charge
(b) a point charge (d) a line charge of infinite length
11. The electric field intensity due to an infinite cylinder of radius R and having charge q per unit
length at a distance r is (r > R) from its axis is
(a) directly proportional to r² (c) inversely proportional to r
(b) directly proportional to r3 (d) inversely proportional to r²
12.An electric charge q is placed at the center of a cube of side a. The electric flux on one of its
faces will be

13. Total electric flux coming out of a unit positive charge kept in air is
14. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of electric field E due to a hollow
spherical conductor of radius R as a function of distance from the center of the sphere?

15. The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, an electron placed in it would
experience an electrical force equal to its weight is given by
(a) mge
(b) mg/e
(c) e/mg
(d) e²g/m
16. SI unit of permittivity of free space is
(a) Farad (c) C2N-1m-2
(b) Weber (d) C2N-1m-2
17 A point charge +q is placed at a distance d from an isolated conducting plane. The field at a
point P on the other side of the plane is
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane
(b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the plane
(c) directed radially away from the point charge
(d) directed radially towards the point charge
17. A charge Q is placed at the center of the line joining two-point charges +q and +q as shown
in the figure. The ratio of charges Q and q is

(a) 4 (c) -4
(b) ¼ (d) -1/4
18.Which of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a single negative
charge?

19 Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the total charge is zero.
At points outside the region
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.
(c) the dominant electric field is inversely proportional to r3, for large r (distance from origin).
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the region will not
be zero.
20. The total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length if a charge q is placed at
corner A of the cube is
21. Four charges are arranged at the comers of a square ABCD, as shown. The force on the
charge kept at the center O is

(a) zero
(b) along the diagonal AC
(c) along the diagonal BD
(d) perpendicular to side AB
22. The surface considered for Gauss’s law is called
(a) Closed surface (c) Gaussian surface
(b) Spherical surface (d) Plane surface
23.The SI unit of electric flux is
(a) N C-1 m-2 (c) N C-2 m2
(b) N C m-2 (d) N C-1 m
24. In Fig. (i) two positive charges q2 and q3 fixed along the y-axis, exert a net electric force in
the +x direction on a charge q1 fixed along the x-axis. If a positive charge Q is added at (x, 0) in
figure (ii), the force on q1 is
 (a) shall increase along the positive x-axis
(b) shall decrease along the positive x-axis
(c) shall point along the negative x-axis
(d) shall increase but the direction changes because of the intersection of Q with q2 and q3
25. Electric field lines provide information about
(a) field strength (c) nature of charge
(b) direction (d) all of these

II. Answer the following questions in short (2 marks)

1. what is the law of conservation of charge. Give one example.
2. What is quantization of charge? What is the reason of quantization?
3. Write Coulombs law and explain its scalar form.
4. Explain vector form of Coulombs law and its importance.
5. Explain the superposition principle for static electric forces and write its general equation.
6. Explain electric field and also electric field point charge.
7. Mention characteristics of electric field.
8. Obtain the equation of electric field at a point by system of n point charges.
9. Give physical meaning of electric field.
10. Give characteristics of electric field lines
11. What is electric dipole? Write its SI unit.
12. Obtain the expression of torque acting on electric dipole in uniform external electric field.
13. Explain the force acting on electric dipole when it is placed parallel or anti parallel to electric
field.
14.Obtain Gauss’s law from the flux associated with sphere of radius ‘r’ and charge ‘q’ at center.
15.Obtain the expression of electric field by a straight wire of infinite length and with linear
charge density λ
16.Obtain the expression of electric field by a plane of infinite size and with uniform charge
distribution.
17. Obtain the expression of electric field by thin spherical shell with uniform charge distribution
at a point outside it.
18. Obtain the expression of electric field by thin spherical shell with uniform charge distribution
at a point inside it.
19. Obtain the expression of electric field by charged spherical shell on a point outside it
20. Obtain Coulomb’s law from Gauss’s law.
21. What is the force between two small charged spheres having
charges of 2 × 10–7C and 3 × 10–7C placed 30 cm apart in air?
22. A point charge of 2.0 μC is at the center of a cubic Gaussian Surface 9.0 cm on edge. What is
the net electric flux through the Surface?
23. An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 × 104N/C at a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the
linear charge density.

III. Answer the following questions (3 marks)

1. Obtain the equation of electric field by dipole at a point on axis of dipole.
2. Obtain the equation of electric field by dipole at a point on equator of dipole.
3. The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge 0.4 μC due to
another small sphere of charge –0.8 μC in air is 0.2 N. (a) What is
the distance between the two spheres? (b) What is the force on the
second sphere due to the first?
4. Check that the ratio ke2/G memp is dimensionless. Determine the value of this ratio. What
does the ratio signify?
5. (a) Explain the meaning of the statement ‘electric charge of a body
is quantized’.
(b) Why can one ignore quantization of electric charge when dealing
with macroscopic i.e., large scale charges?
6. Four-point charges qA = 2μC, qB = –5μC, qC = 2μC, and qD = –5μC are
located at the corners of a square ABCD of side 10 cm. What is the
force on a charge of 1μC placed at the center of the square?
7. (a) An electrostatic field line is a continuous curve. That is, a field
line cannot have sudden breaks. Why not?
(b) Explain why two field lines never cross each other at any point?
8. Two-point charges qA = 3μC and qB = –3μC are located 20 cm apart
in vacuum.
(a) What is the electric field at the midpoint O of the line AB joining
the two charges?
(b) If a negative test charge of magnitude 1.5 × 10–9 C is placed at
this point, what is the force experienced by the test charge?
9. A system has two charges qA = 2.5 × 10–7 C and qB = –2.5 × 10–7 C
located at points A: (0, 0, –15 cm) and B: (0,0, +15 cm), respectively.
What are the total charge and electric dipole moment of the system?
10. An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10–9 C m is aligned at 30°
with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude 5 × 104
NC–1. Calculate the magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole.
11. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative
charge of 3 × 10–7 C.(a) Estimate the number of electrons transferred (from which to
which? (b) Is there a transfer of mass from wool to polythene?
12. Figure 1.33 shows tracks of three charged particles in a uniform
electrostatic field. Give the signs of the three charges. Which particle
has the highest charge to mass ratio?

13. Consider a uniform electric field E = 3 × 103 î N/C. (a) What is the flux of this field through
a square of 10 cm on a side whose plane is to the yz plane? (b) What is the flux through the same
square if the normal to its plane makes a 60° angle with the x-axis?
14. Careful measurement of the electric field at the surface of a black box indicates that the net
outward flux through the surface of the box is 8.0 × 103 Nm2/C. (a) What is the net charge inside
the box? (b) If the net outward flux through the surface of the box were zero, could you conclude
that there were no charges inside the box? Why or Why not?
15. A point charge +10 μC is a distance 5 cm directly above the center
of a square of side 10 cm, as shown in Fig. 1.34. What is the
magnitude of the electric flux through the square? (Hint: Think of
the square as one face of a cube with edge 10 cm.)
16. A point charge causes an electric flux of –1.0 × 103 Nm2/C to pass Through a spherical
Gaussian surface of 10.0 cm radius centered on the charge. (a) If the radius of the Gaussian
surface were doubled, how much flux would pass through the surface? (b) What is the value of
the point charge?
17. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has an unknown charge. If The electric field 20 cm
from the center of the sphere is 1.5 × 103 N/C And points radially inward, what is the net charge
on the sphere?
18. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.4 m diameter has a Surface charge density of
80.0 μC/m2. (a) Find the charge on the sphere. (b) What is the total electric flux leaving the
surface of the sphere?
19. Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their inner faces, the
plates have surface charge densities of opposite signs and of magnitude 17.0 × 10–22 C/m2. What
is E: (a) in the outer Region of the first plate, (b) in the outer region of the second plate, and (c)
between the plates?

IV. Answer the following questions (4 marks)

1. (a) Two insulated charged copper spheres A and B have their centers separated by a distance
of 50 cm. What is the mutual force of electrostatic repulsion if the charge on each is 6.5 × 10–7
C? The radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation. (b) What is the
force of repulsion if each sphere is charged double the above amount, and the distance between
them is halved? Suppose the spheres A and B have identical sizes. A third sphere of the same
size but uncharged is brought in contact with the first, then brought in contact with the second,
and finally removed from both. What is the new force of repulsion between A and B?
2. An electron falls through a distance of 1.5cm in a uniform electric field of magnitude
2.0×104NC-1. (figure a) The direction of the field is reversed keeping its magnitude unchanged
and a proton falls through the same distance (figure b). Compute the time of fall in each case
contrast the situation with that of free fall under gravity.

-e +e

a b
 Chapter 2
Electrostatic potential and capacitance
I. MCQ type questions
1. A positively charged particle is released from rest in a uniform electric field. The electric
potential energy of the charge
(a) remains a constant because the electric field is uniform.
(b) increases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(c) decreases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(d) decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field.
2. Figures show some equipotential lines distributed in space. A charged object is moved
from point A to point B.

(a) The work done in Fig. (i) is the greatest.

(b) The work done in Fig. (ii) is least.
(c) The work done is the same in Fig. (i), Fig.(ii) and Fig. (iii).
(d) The work done in Fig. (iii) is greater than Fig. (ii) but equal to that in Fig. (i).

3. Equipotential at a great distance from a collection of charges whose total sum is not zero
are approximately
(a) spheres (c) paraboloids
(b) planes (d) ellipsoids
4. Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are placed r meter apart. If one of the spheres is
taken around the other one in a circular path of radius r, the work done will be equal to
(a) force between them × r (c) force between them/2πr
(b) force between them × 2πr (d) zero
5.The electric potential V at any point O ((x, y, z) all in meters) in space is given by V = 4x² volt.
The electric field at the point (1 m, 0, 2 m) in volt/meter is
(a) 8 along negative x-axis (c) 16 along negative x-axis
(b) 8 along positive x-axis (d) 16 along positive z-axis
6. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another over an equipotential surface, then
(a) work is done on the charge (c) work done is constant
(b) work is done by the charge (d) no work is done
7. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged so that the potential on its surface is 10 V.
The potential at the center of the sphere is
(a) 0 V (c) Same as at point 5 cm away from the surface
(b) 10 V (d) Same as at point 25 cm away from the surface
8. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having
a charge Q and area A, is
(a) proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.
(b) linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.
(c) independent of the distance between the plates.
(d) inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
9. The figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric field
at A and B are EA and EB respectively and if the displacement between A and B is r then

(a) EA > EB (c) EA = EB/r

(b) EA < EB (d) EA = EB/r
10. A conductor with a positive charge
(a) is always at +ve potential. (c) is always at negative potential.
(b) is always at zero potential. (d) may be at +ve, zero or -ve potential
11. Which of the following options are correct? If a conductor has a potential 4.0V and there are
no charges anywhere else outside, then
(a) there must not be charges on the surface or inside itself.
(b) there cannot be any charge in the body of the conductor.
(c) there must be charges only on the surface.
(d) there must be charges inside the surface.
12. Which of the following options is correct? In a region of constant potential
(a) the electric field is uniform.
(b) the electric field is zero.
(c) there can be charge inside the region.
(d) the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region.
13. 64 drops each having the capacity C and potential V are combined to form a big drop. If the
charge on the small drop is q, then the charge on the big drop will be
(a) 2q (c) 16q
(b) 4q (d) 64q
14. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l as
shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal to

(a)-q (c)Zero
(b) +q (d) –q2
15. Two metal plates form a parallel plate capacitor. The distance between the plates is d. A
metal sheet of thickness d/2 and of the same area is introduced between the plates. What is the
ratio of the capacitance in the two cases?
 (a) 2:1 (c) 2:1
(b) 3:1 (d) 5:1
16. A capacitor of 4 pF is connected as shown in the circuit. The internal resistance of the battery
is 0.5 Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates will be

(a) 0 (c) 16 μC
(b) 4μC (d) 8 μC
17. 1 volt is equivalent to

18. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinite distance to a point at distance
x from a positive charge Q is W. Then the potential at that point is
(a) WQ/x (b) W
(b) W/x (d) WQ
19. Consider a uniform electric field in the z-direction. The potential is a constant
(a) for any x for a given z (c) on the x-y plane for a given z
(b) for any y for a given z (d) all of these
20. A test charge is moved from lower potential point to a higher potential point. The potential
energy of test charge will
(a) remain the same (c) decrease
(b) increase (d) become zero
21. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E. Then
(i) the torque on the dipole is p ×E
(ii) the potential energy of the system is p. E
(iii) the resultant force on the dipole is zero. Choose the correct option.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is wrong
(c) only (i) is correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct and (iii) is wrong
22. Dielectric constant for a metal is
(a) zero (c) 1
(b) infinite (d) 10
23. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel, charged to a potential V, separated and then
connected in series, the positive plate of one is connected to the negative of the other. Which of
the following is true?
(a) The charges on the free plated connected together are destroyed.
(b) The energy stored in the system increases.
(c) The potential difference between the free plates is 2V.
(d) The potential difference remains constant.
24. Two spherical conductors each of capacitance C are charged to potential V and -V. These are
then connected by means of a fine wire. The loss of energy is
(a) zero (c) CV2
(b) 1/2CV2 (d) 2CV2
25. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After
disconnecting the charging battery, the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased
using an insulating handle. As a result, the potential difference between the plates
(a) increases (c) does not change
(b) decreases (d) becomes zero

I. Answer the following questions in short, each question carries 2 marks.

1. Define Electric potential and explain it. Write its SI unit and give its other units.
2. Derive an expression for the electric potential in an electric field of positive point charge at
distance r.
3. Derive the formula for the electric potential due to an electric dipole at a point from it.
4. Derive an expression for electric potential at a point due to a system of N charges.
5. Obtain the relation between electric field and electric potential.
6. Derive the formula for the electric potential energy of system of two charges.
7. Derive the formula for the electric potential energy of system of three charges.
8. Obtain the equation of electric potential energy of a system of two electric charges in external
electric field.
9. Derive equation of potential energy of an electric dipole in a uniform electric field.
10. Write the types of dielectric and explain them. Give some examples of dielectric substance.
11. How does the polarized dielectric modify the original external field inside it?
12. What is capacitor? And explain capacitance. Give its SI unit.
13. A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 µC at each of its vertices. Calculate the
potential at the center of the hexagon.
14. Explain the effect of dielectric on capacitance of parallel plate capacitor and obtain the
formula of dielectric constant.
15. What is a series connection of capacitors? Obtain the formula for the effective capacitance in
the series combination of two different capacitors.
16. What is a parallel connection of capacitor? Obtain the formula for the effective capacitance
in the parallel combination of 2 different capacitors.
17. Write the difference between capacitors in series and parallel connections.
18. How does a capacitor store energy? And obtain the formula for the energy stored in the
capacitor?
19. Obtain the expression for the energy stored per unit volume in a charged capacitor.
20. A 12pF capacitor is connected to a 50V battery. How much Electrostatic energy is stored in
the capacitor?

II. Answer the following questions. (3 marks)

1. Two charges 5 × 10–8 C and –3 × 10–8 C are located 16 cm apart. At what point(s) on the line
joining the two charges is the electric potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero.
2. (a) Calculate the potential at point p due to a charge 4×10-7 C located at 9cm away.
(b) Hence obtain the work done to bring a charge of 2×10-9C from infinity to the point p. Does
the answer depend on the path along which the charge if brought?
3. Two charges 2 µC and –2 µC are placed at points A and B 6 cm apart.
 (a) Identify an equipotential surface of the system.
(b) What is the direction of the electric field at every point on this surface?
4. A spherical conductor of radius 12 cm has a charge of 1.6 × 10–7C distributed uniformly on its
surface. What is the electric field?
(a) Inside the sphere
(b) Just outside the sphere
(c) at a point 18 cm from the center of the sphere?
5. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8pF (1pF = 10–12 F).
What will be the capacitance if the distance between the plates is reduced by half, and the space
between them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant 6?
6. Three capacitors each of capacitance 9pF are connected in series.
(a) What is the total capacitance of the combination?
(b) What is the potential difference across each capacitor if the combination is connected to a
120 V supply?
7. Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF and 4 pF are connected in parallel.
(a) What is the total capacitance of the combination?
(b) Determine the charge on each capacitor if the combination is connected to a 100 V
supply.
8. A 600pF capacitor is charged by a 200V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is
connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the
process?
9. What is an equipotential surface? Draw an equipotential surfaces for a (1) single point charge
(2) charge +q and -q at few distance(dipole) (3) two +q charges at few distance(4) uniform
electric field.
10. What is parallel plate capacitor? Obtain the formula for the capacitance of such a parallel
plate capacitor and on which factors does the value of capacitance depend?

III. Answer the following questions. (4 marks)

1) In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10–3 m2
and the distance between the plates is 3 mm. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor. If this
capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, what is the charge on each plate of the capacitor?
Explain what would happen if in the capacitor, a 3 mm thick mica sheet (of dielectric constant =
6) were inserted between the plates.
(a) While the voltage supply remained connected.
(b) After the supply was disconnected.
 2. Two charges 3 × 10–8C and -2 × 10–8C are located 15cm apart. At what point on the line
joining the two charges is the electric potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero.

3. A network of four 10μF capacitors is connected to a 500V supply, as shown in fig. Determine (a) the
equivalent capacitance of the network and (b) the charge on each capacitor. (Note, the charge on a
capacitor is the charge on the place with higher potential, equal and opposite to the charge on the plate with
lower potential).

500V

Chapter 3
Current Electricity
1. Consider a current carrying wire current I in the shape of a circle. Note that as the current
progresses along the wire, the direction of j (current density) changes in an exact manner, while
die current/remain unaffected. The agent that is essentially responsible for is
(a) source of emf.
(b) electric field produced by charges accumulated on the surface of wire.
(c) the charges just behind a given segment of wire which push them just the right way by
repulsion.
(d) the charges ahead.

2. Two batteries of ε1 and ε2 (ε2 > ε1) and internal resistance r1 and r2 respectively are connected
in parallel.

(a) The equivalent emf εeq of the two cells is between ε1 and ε2 i.e., ε1 < εeq < ε2.

(b) The equivalent emf εeq is smaller than ε1.

(c)The εeq is given by εeq= ε1 + ε2 always.

(d) ε eq is independent of internal resistances r1 and r2.

3. A resistance R is to be measured using a meter bridge. Student chooses the standard resistance
S to be 100 Ω He finds the null point at l1 = 2.9 cm. He is told to attempt to improve the
accuracy. Which of the following is a useful way?
(a) He should measure l1 more accurately.
(b) He should change S to 1000 Ω and repeat the experiment.
(c) He should change S to 3 Ω and repeat the experiment.
(d) He should give up hope of a more accurate measurement with a meter bridge.
4. Two cells of emf’s approximately 5 V and 10 V are to be accurately compared using a
potentiometer of length 400 cm.
(a) The battery that runs the potentiometer should have voltage of 8 V.
(b) The battery of potentiometer can have a voltage of 15 V and R adjusted so that the potential
drop across the wire slightly exceeds 10 V.
(c) The first portion of 50 cm of wire itself should have a potential drop of 10 V.
(d) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing resistances and not voltages.
5. Consider a simple circuit shown in figure stands for a variable resistance R’. R’ can vary from
R0 to infinity, r is internal resistance of the battery (r << R << R0).

(a) Potential drop across AB is not constant as R0 is varied.

(b) Current through R’ is nearly a constant as R’ is varied.
(c) Current I depends sensitively on R’.
(d) I ≥ Vr+R always.
6. In a meter bridge, the point D is a neutral point (figure).

(a) The meter bridge can have other neutral point for this set of resistances.
(b) When the jockey contacts a point on meter wire left of D, current flows to B from the wire.
(c) When the jockey contacts a point on the meter wire to the right of D, current flows from B to
the wire through galvanometer.
(d) When R is increased, the neutral point shifts to left.
7. Which of the following is wrong? Resistivity of a conductor is
(a) independent of temperature. (c) independent of dimensions of conductor.
(b) inversely proportional to temperature. (d) less than resistivity of a semiconductor.
8. Drift velocity vd varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation
(a) vd ∝ E (c) vd = constant
(b) vd ∝ 1E (d) vd ∝ E²
9. For measurement of potential difference, a potentiometer is preferred over voltmeter because
(a) potentiometer is more sensitive than voltmeter.
(b) the resistance of potentiometer is less than voltmeter.
(c) potentiometer is cheaper than voltmeter.
(d) potentiometer does not take current from the circuit.
10. For a cell, the graph between the potential difference (V) across the terminals of the cell and
the current (I) drawn from the cell is shown in the figure.
The e.m.f. and the internal resistance of the cell are

(a) 2V, 0.5 Ω (c) > 2V, 0.5 Ω

(b) 2V, 0.4 Ω (d) > 2V, 0.4 Ω
11. A Daniel cell is balanced on 125 cm length of a potentiometer wire. Now the cell is short-
circuited by a resistance 2 Ω and the balance is obtained at 100 cm. The internal resistance of the
Daniel cell is
(a) 0.5 Ω (c) 1.25 Ω
(b) 1.5 Ω (d) 4/5 Ω
12. When there is an electric current through a conducting wire along its length, then an electric
field must exist
(a) outside the wire but normal to it. (c) inside the wire but parallel to it.
(b) outside the wire but parallel to it. (d) inside the wire but normal to it.
13. Three resistors each of 2Ω are connected together in a triangular shape. The resistance
between any two vertices will be

(a) 4/3 Ω (c) 3 Ω

(b) ¾ Ω (d) 6 Ω
14. From the graph between current I and voltage V shown below, identify the portion
corresponding to negative resistance
(a) AB (c) CD
(b) BC (d) DE
15. A battery consists of a variable number V of identical cells having internal resistances
connected in series. The terminals of battery are short circuited and the current I is measured.
Which of the graph below shows the relationship between I and n?

16. A charge is moving across a junction, then

(a) momentum will be conserved.
(b) momentum will not be conserved.
(c) at some places momentum will be conserved and at some other places momentum will not be
conserved.
(d) none of these.
17. Which of the following I-V graph represents Ohmic conductors?
18. The I-V characteristics shown in figure represents

(a) Ohmic conductors (c) insulators

(b) non-ohmic conductors (d) superconductors
19. The resistivity of alloy manganin is
(a) Nearly independent of temperature (c) Decreases with increase in temperature
(b) Increases rapidly with increase in temperature (d) Increases rapidly with decrease in
temperature
20. An electric heater is connected to the voltage supply. After few seconds, current gets its
steady value then its initial current will be
(a) equal to its steady current (c) slightly less than its steady current
(b) slightly higher than its steady current (d) zero
21. In the series combination of two or more than two resistances
(a) the current through each resistance is same.
(b) the voltage through each resistance is same.
(c) neither current nor voltage through each resistance is same.
(d) both current and voltage through each resistance are same
22. Combine three resistors 5Ω, 4.5 Ω and 3 Ω in such a way that the total resistance of this
combination is maximum
(a) 12.5 Ω (c) 14.5 Ω
(b) 13.5 Ω (d) 16.5 Ω
23. In parallel combination of n cells, we obtain
(a) more voltage (c) less voltage
(b) more current (d) less current
24. In a Wheatstone bridge if the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then the deflection
in galvanometer will
(a) change in previous direction (c) change in opposite direction
(b) not change (d) none of these
25. When a metal conductor connected to left gap of a meter bridge is heated, the balancing point
(a) shifts towards right (c) remains unchanged
(b) shifts towards left (d) remains at zero

I. Answer the following questions in short (2 marks)

1. what is electrical resistance? On which factor resistance value depend? Explain how resistance
of conductor depend on its dimension property of a conductor due to which it opposes motion of
charge through it is called electrical resistance?
2. What is current density? Derive Ohm’s law in form of current density.
3. Explain drift of electron and drift velocity. Derive equation of current in term of cross section
of conductor.
4.Derive relation between drift velocity and current density.
5. Why resistivity of metal decreases with increase in temperature or conductivity decrease with
increase in temperature.
6.Explain mobility of conductor and derive equation of mobility
7. Derive equation of mobility in terms of electric current.
8.Derive equation of mobility in terms of relaxation time.
9.Write limitations of Ohm’s law.
10. For 3 resistors of different value connected in series obtain equation of equivalent resistance.
From this write equation of n resistors connected in series.
11. What is meant by parallel connection of resistors? Derive equation of parallel resistance.
12. What is Wheatstone bridge? Explain its principle.
13. Explain construction of meter bridge used in laboratory.
14. What is potentiometer? Explain principle of potentiometer.
15. Explain comparison of emf of two cells by using potentiometer with necessary diagram.
16. Explain method to measure internal resistance of cell by using potentiometer.
17. The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V. If the internal rresistance of the battery is 0.4
Ω, what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery?
18. A negligibly small current is passed through a wire of length 15 m and uniform cross-section
6.0 × 10–7 m2, and its resistance is measured to be 5.0 Ω. What is the resistivity of the material at
the temperature of the experiment?
19. A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 Ω at 27.5 °C, and a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100 °C.
Determine the temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver.
20. In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.25 V gives a balance point at 35.0 cm length
of the wire. If the cell is replaced by another cell and the balance point shifts to 63.0 cm, what is
the emf of the second cell?

II. Answer the following Questions (3 marks)

1) A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 3 Ω is connected to a resistor. If the current in
the circuit is 0.5 A, what is the resistance of the resistor? What is the terminal voltage of the
battery when the circuit is closed?
2) (a) Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, and 3 Ω are combined in series. What is the total resistance of the
combination?
(b) If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 12 V and negligible internal
resistance, obtain the potential drop across each resistor.
3) (a) Three resistors 2 Ω, 4 Ω and 5 Ω are combined in parallel. What is the total resistance of
the combination?
(c) If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 20 V and negligible internal
resistance, determine the current through each resistor, and the total current drawn from
the battery.
4) At room temperature (27.0 °C) the resistance of a heating element is 100 Ω. What is the
temperature of the element if the resistance is found to be 117 Ω, given that the temperature
coefficient of the material of the resistor is 1.70 × 10–4 °C–1.
5) A heating element using nichrome connected to a 230 V supply draws an initial current of 3.2
A which settles after a few seconds to a steady value of 2.8 A. What is the steady temperature of
the heating element if the room temperature is 27.0 °C? Temperature coefficient of resistance of
nichrome averaged over the temperature range involved is 1.70 × 10–4 °C–1.
6) Determine the current in each branch of the network shown in Fig. 3.30
7) A storage battery of emf 8.0 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is being charged by a 120 V dc
supply using a series resistor of 15.5 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the battery during
charging? What is the purpose of having a series resistor in the charging circuit?
8) The number density of free electrons in a copper conductor is 8.5 × 1028 m–3. How long does
an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0 m long to its other end? The area of cross-
section of the wire is 2.0 × 10–6 m2 and it is carrying a current of 3.0 A.
IV. Answer the following questions (4 marks)

1. Estimate the average drift speed of conduction electrons in a copper wire of cross-sectional
area 1.0×10−7m2 carrying a current of 1.5 A. Assume that each copper atom contributes roughly one
conduction electron. The density of copper is 9.0×103kgm−3 and its atomic mass is 63.5 amu. (b)
Compare the drift speed obtained with (i) thermal speeds of copper atoms at ordinary temperatures (ii)
speed of propagation of electric field along the conductor which causes the drift motion.
2. Determine the current in each branch of the network shown in figure.

3. The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge figure have the following resistances: AB = 100Ω,
BC=10Ω, CD=10Ω, DA=60Ω.
 A galvanometer of 15Ω is connected across BD. Calculate the current through the galvanometer
when a potential difference of 10V is maintained across AC.
B

C
A

Chapter 4
Moving Charges and Magnetism
I. MCQ type questions
1. Two charged particles traverse identical helical paths in a completely opposite sense in a
uniform magnetic field B = B0k^.
(a) They have equal z-components of momenta.
(b) They must have equal charges.
(c) They necessarily represent a particle- antiparticle pair.
(d) The charge to mass ratio satisfies: (e/m)1+(e/m)2=0
2. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity v) produce a magnetic field B
such that
(a) B ⊥ v.
(b) B || v.
(c) it obeys inverse cube law.
(d) it is along the line joining the electron and point of observation
3. A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in the x-y plane with center at the origin.
Half of the loop with x > 0 is now bent so that it now lies in the y – z plane.
(a) The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes.
(b) The magnetic moment does not change.
(c) The magnitude of B at (0.0.z), z >> R increases.
(d) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z >> R is unchanged
4. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying long
solenoid. Which of the following is true?
(a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.
(b) The electron path will be circular about the axis.
(c) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence execute a helical path.
(d) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid
5. In a cyclotron, a charged particle
(a) undergoes acceleration all the time.
(b) speeds up between the dees because of the magnetic field.
(c) speeds up in a dee.
(d) slows down within a dee and speeds up between dees
6. A circular current loop of magnetic moment Mis in an arbitrary orientation in an external
magnetic field B. The work done to rotate the loop by 30° about an axis perpendicular to its
plane is:
(a) MB (c) MB/2
(b) √3/2MB (d) zero
7. A rectangular loop carrying a current I is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is
parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I is
established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will

(a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire. (c) move towards the wire.
(b) move away from the wire or towards right. (d) none of the above
8. A circular coil of radius 4 cm and of 20 turns carries a current of 3 amperes. It is placed in a
magnetic field of intensity of 0.5 weber/m². The magnetic dipole moment of the coil is
(a) 0.15 ampere-m² (c) 0.45 ampere-m²
(b) 0.3 ampere-m² (d) 0.6 ampere-m²
9. A cubical region of space is filled with some uniform electric and magnetic fields. An electron
enters the cube across one of its faces with velocity v and a positron enters via opposite face with
velocity -v. At this instant,
(a) the electric forces on both the particles cause identical accelerations.
(b) the magnetic forces on both the particles cause equal accelerations.
(c) Only electron gains or loses energy.
(d) the motion of the center of mass (CM) is determined by E alone
10. Consider a wire carrying a steady current I, placed in a uniform magnetic field B
perpendicular to its length. Consider the charges inside the wire. It is known that magnetic forces
do not work. This implies that,
(a) motion of charges inside the conductor is unaffected by B, since they do not absorb energy.
(b) Some charges inside the wire move to the surface as a result of B.
(c) if the wire moves under the influence of B, no work is done by the force.
(d) If the wire moves under the influence of B, no work is done by the electric force on the ions,
assumed fixed within the wire.
11. Two identical current carrying coaxial loops, carry current I in an opposite sense. A simple
amperian loop passes through both of them once. Calling the loop as C,
(a) ∮B. dl = ± 2µ0I.
(b) the value of ∮B. dl is independent of sense of C.
(c) there may be a point on C where, B and dl are parallel.
(d) B vanishes everywhere on C.
12. The strength of magnetic field at the center of circular coil is
13. If a charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to it
(a) both momentum and energy of particle change.
(b) momentum as well as energy are constant.
(c) energy is constant but momentum changes.
(d) momentum is constant but energy changes.
14. A current carrying closed loop of an irregular shape lying in more than one plane when
placed in uniform magnetic field, the force acting on it
(a) will be more in the plane where its larger position is covered. (c) is infinite.
(b) is zero. (d) may or may not be zero.
15. The maximum current that can be measured by a galvanometer of resistance 40 Ω is 10 mA.
It is converted into voltmeter that can read up to 50 V. The resistance to be connected in series
with the galvanometer is
(a) 2010 Ω (c) 5040 Ω
(b) 4050 Ω (d) 4960 Ω
16. A current loop placed in a non-uniform magnetic field experience
(a) a force of repulsion. (c) a torque but not force.
(b) a force of attraction. (d) a force and a torque.
17. What is the net force on the rectangular coil?

(a) 25 × 10-7 N towards wire. (c) 35 × 10-7 N towards wire.

(b) 25 × 10-7 N away from wire. (d) 35 × 10-7 N away from wire
18. If the beams of electrons and protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then
they
(a) attract each other. (c) no relation.
(b) repel each other. (d) neither attract nor repel.
19. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current I. It is placed in a uniform
magnetic field B, such that B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting
on the loop is
(a) rIB. (c) zero
(b) 2πrIB (d) πrIB
20. The gyro-magnetic ratio of an electron in an H-atom, according to Bohr model, is
(a) independent of which orbit it is in. (c) positive
(b) neutral (d) increases with the quantum number n.
21. An electron is projected along the axis of a circular conductor carrying the same current.
Electron will experience
(а) a force along the axis. (c) a force at an angle of 45° with axis.
(б) a force perpendicular to the axis. (d) no force experienced.
22. Three long, straight parallel wires, carrying current are arranged as shown in the figure. The
force experienced by a 25 cm length of wire C is

(a) 10-3 N (c) zero

(b) 2.5 × 10-3 N (d) 1.5 × 3 N
23. In a circular coil of radius r, the magnetic field at the center is proportional to
(a) r² (c) 1/r
(b) r (d) 1/r2
24. A positive charge enters in a magnetic field and travels parallel to but opposite the field. It
experiences
(a) an upward force. (c) an accelerated force.
(b) a downward force. (d) no force.
25. When a magnetic compass needle is carried nearby to a straight wire carrying current, then
(I) the straight wire causes a noticeable deflection in the compass needle.
(II) the alignment of the needle is tangential to an imaginary circle with straight wire as its center
and has a plane perpendicular to the wire
(a) (I) is correct (c) both (I) and (II) are correct
(b) (II) is correct (d) neither (I) nor (II) is correct

Answer the following questions in short (2 marks)

1. Derived force on moving charge in uniform magnetic field with velocity Vd
2. What is Lorentz force? Write an expression for it.
3. Discuss the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field with initial velocity
perpendicular to the magnetic field. Or Explain principle of Cyclotron.
4. Explain velocity of charge in combined electric and magnetic field in reference to velocity
selector.
5. What is cyclotron? Discuss the principle of cyclotron
6. Explain working of cyclotron.
7. Write uses of cyclotron
8. State and explain Biot- Savart law for the magnetic field produced by a current element. Give
the direction of magnetic field and define the unit of it.
9. Explain Ampere’s circuital law.
10. What is solenoid? Give information of magnetic field by qualitative discussion.
11. Derive equation of magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid.
12. What is toroid? Obtain formula for the magnitude of magnetic field due to current carrying
toroid.
13. Obtain equation for force between two parallel current carrying wire.
14. Find the magnetic field due to current carrying loop as magnetic dipole on its axial point.
15. Obtain an expression for orbital magnetic moment of an electron rotating about the nucleus
in an atom and Gyromagnetic ratio.
16. What is shunt?? Explain its function in circuit.
17. Obtain the formula for shunt.
18. What is voltage sensitivity? Obtain the equation.
19. Explain:” Increasing the current sensitivity may not necessarily increase the voltage
sensitivity.
20. A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm ccarries a current of
0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the center of the coil?
21. A long straight wire carries a current of 35 A. What is the magnitude of the field B at a point
20 cm from the wire?

II. Answer the following questions (3 marks)

1. Apply Biot-savart law to find the magnetic field due to the circular current carrying loop at the
point on the axis of the loop.
2. Derive an expression for the torque acting on a current carrying loop suspended in a uniform
magnetic field.
3. What is magnetic dipole moment for a coil? Write its SI unit and dimensional formula and
explain its stable equilibrium and unstable equilibrium.
4. A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in north to south
direction. Give the magnitude and direction of B at a point 2.5 m east of the wire.
5. A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 A in east to west direction. What is
the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5 m below the line?
6. What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length on a wire carrying a current of 8 A
and making an angle of 30º with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T?
7. A 3.0 cm wire carrying a current of 10 A is placed inside a solenoid perpendicular to its axis.
The magnetic field inside the solenoid is given to be 0.27 T. What is the magnetic force on the
wire?
8. Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same
direction are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm section of wire A.
9. A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of windings of 400 turns each. The
diameter of the solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A, estimate the magnitude of B
inside the solenoid near its center.
10. A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and carries a current of 12 A. The coil is
suspended vertically and the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 30º with the
direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of
torque experienced by the coil?
11. Two moving coil meters, M1 and M2 have the following particulars:
R1 = 10 Ω, N1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 × 10–3 m2, B1 = 0.25 T
R2 = 14 Ω, N2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 × 10–3 m2, B2 = 0.50 T
(The spring constants are identical for the two meters). Determine the ratio of (a) current
sensitivity and (b) voltage sensitivity of M2 and M1.
12. In a chamber, a uniform magnetic field of 6.5 G (1 G = 10–4 T) is maintained. An electron is
shot into the field with a speed of 4.8 × 106 m s–1 normal to the field. Explain why the path of
the electron is a circle. Determine the radius of the circular orbit.(e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, me =
9.1×10–31 kg)
13. (a) A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8.0 cm carrying a current of 6.0 A is suspended
vertically in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The field lines make an
angle of 60º with the normal of the coil. Calculate the magnitude of the counter torque that must
be applied to prevent the coil from turning.
(b) Would your answer change, if the circular coil in (a) were replaced by a planar coil of some
irregular shape that encloses the same area? (All other particulars are also unaltered.
Answer the following questions (4 marks)
1. For a circular coil of radius R and N turns carrying current I, the magnitude of the magnetic
field at a point on its axis at a distance x from its center is given by
B=μ0IR2N/2(x2+R2)3/2
a) Show that this reduces to the familiar result for field at the center of the coil.
(b) Consider two parallel coaxial circular coils of equal radius R, and number of turns N,
carrying equal currents in the same direction, and separated by a distance R. Show that the field
on the axis around the mid-point between the coils is uniform over a distance that is small as
compared to R and is given by
B=0⋅72μ0NI/R approximately.
Such as arrangement to produce a nearly uniform magnetic field over a small region is known as
Helmholtz coils.
2. (a) A magnetic field that varies in magnitude from point to point but has a constant direction
(east to west) is set up in a chamber. A charged particle enters the chamber and travels
undeflected along a straight path with constant speed. What can you say about the initial velocity
of the particle?
(b) A charged particle enters an environment of a strong and non-uniform magnetic field varying
from point to point both in magnitude and direction and comes out of it following a complicated
trajectory. Would its final speed equal the initial speed if it suffered no collisions with the
environment?
(c) An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform electrostatic field in a
north to south direction. Specify the direction in which a uniform magnetic field should be set up
to prevent the electron from deflecting from its straight-line path.

Chapter 5
Magnetism and Matter
I. MCQ type questions
1. A toroid of n turns, mean radius R and cross-sectional radius a carries current I. It is placed on
a horizontal table taken as x-y plane. Its magnetic moment m
(a) is non-zero and points in the z-direction by symmetry.
(b) points along the axis of the toroid (m = mΦ).
(c) is zero, otherwise there would be a field falling as 1/r3 at large distances outside the toroid.
(d) is pointing radially outwards.
2. The magnetic field of Earth can be modelled by that of a point dipole placed at the center of
the Earth. The dipole axis makes an angle of 11.3° with the axis of Earth. At Mumbai,
‘declination is nearly zero. Then,
(a) the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E.
(b) the least declination is 0°.
(c) the plane defined by dipole axis and Earth axis passes through Greenwich.
(d) declination averaged over Earth must be always negative.
3. In a permanent magnet at room temperature
(a) magnetic moment of each molecule is zero.
(b) the individual molecules have non-zero magnetic moment which are all perfectly aligned.
(c) domains are partially aligned.
(d) domains are all perfectly aligned.
4. Consider the two idealized systems:
(i) a parallel plate capacitor with large plates and small separation and (ii) a long solenoid of
length L >> R, radius of cross-section. In (i) E is ideally treated as a constant between plates and
zero outside. In (ii) magnetic field is constant inside the solenoid and zero outside. These
idealized assumptions, however, contradict fundamental laws as below:
(a) case (i) contradicts Gauss’s law for electrostatic fields.
(b) case (ii) contradicts Gauss’s law for magnetic fields.
(c) case (i) agrees with ∫ E.dl = 0
(d) case (ii) contradicts ∫ H.dl = Ien
5. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetization of 8 Am-1 when placed in an external
magnetic field of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4K. When the same sample is placed in an external
magnetic field of 0.2 T at a temperature of 16 K, the magnetization will be
(a) 323 Am-1 (c) 6 Am-1
(b) 23 Am-1 (d) 2.4 Am-1
6. S is the surface of a lump of magnetic material.
(a) Lines of B are not necessarily continuous across S.
(b) Some lines of B must be discontinuous across S.
(c) Lines of H are necessarily continuous across S.
(d) Lines of H cannot all be continuous across S.
7. The primary origin(s) of magnetism lies in
(a) Pauli exclusion principle. (c) intrinsic spin of electron.
(b) polar nature of molecules. (d) None of these.
8. A long solenoid has 1000 turns per meter and carries a current of 1 A. It has a soft iron core of
μr = 1000. The core is heated beyond the Curie temperature, Tc .
(a) The H field in the solenoid is (nearly) unchanged but the B field decreases drastically.
(b) The H and B fields in the solenoid are nearly unchanged.
(c) The magnetization in the core reverses direction.
(d) The magnetization in the core does not diminishes.
9. Essential difference between electrostatic shielding by a conducting shell and magnetostatic
shielding is due to
(a) electrostatic field lines cannot end on charges and conductors do not have free charges.
(b) lines of B can also end but conductors cannot end them.
(c) lines of B cannot end. On any material and perfect shielding is not possible.
(d) shells of high permeability materials cannot be used to divert lines of B from the interior
region.
10. Let the magnetic field on earth be modelled by that of a point magnetic dipole at the center of
earth. The angle of dip at a point on the geographical equator
(a) is always zero. (c) cannot be positive or negative.
(b) can be zero at specific points. (d) is not bounded
11. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences
(a) a torque but not a force. (c) a force and a torque.
(b) neither a force nor a torque. (d) a force but not a torque.
12. A 25 cm long solenoid has radius 2 cm and 500 total number of turns. It carries a current of
15 A. If it is equivalent to a magnet of the same size and magnetization M, then |M| is
(a) 3 π Am-1 (c) 300 Am-1
(b) 30000 π Am-1 (d) 30000 Am-1
13. Three needles N1 N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic
substance respectively. A magnet, when brought close to them, will
(а) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly.
(b) attract all three of them.
(c) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3.
(d) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly.
14. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.
(b) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
(c) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
(d) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic.
15. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have
(a) high retentivity and high coercivity. (c) high retentivity and low coercivity.
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity. (d) low retentivity and high coercivity.
16. Curie law χ T = constant, relating magnetic susceptibility (χ) and absolute temperature (T) of
magnetic substance is obeyed by
(a) all magnetic substances. (c) diamagnetic substances.
(b) paramagnetic substances. (d) ferromagnetic substances
17.Magnetization for vacuum is_________.
(a) negative (c) zero
(b) positive (d)infinite
18. Angle of dip is 90° at
(a) poles. (c) both at equator and poles.
(b) equator (d) tropic of cancer.
19. Lines of force, due to earth’s horizontal magnetic field, are
(a) elliptical (c) concentric circles
(b) curved lines (d) parallel and straight
20. If the magnetizing field on a ferromagnetic material is increased, its permeability.
(a) is decreased (c) is unaffected
(b) is increased (d) may be increased or decreased.
21.When a freely suspended bar magnet is heated, its magnetic dipole moment decreases by
36%, then its periodic time would be______.
(a) increases by 36% (c) increases by 25%
(b) decreases by 25% (d) decreases by 64%
22. The magnetic susceptibility of an ideal diamagnetic substance is
(a) +1 (c) -1
(b) 0 (d) ∞
23. The best material for the ore of a transformer is
(a) stainless steel (c) hard steel
(b) mild steel (d) soft iron
24. Domain formation is the necessary feature of
(a) diamagnetism (c) ferromagnetism
(b) Para magnetism (d) all of these
25. The variation of magnetic susceptibility with the temperature of a ferromagnetic material can
be plotted as

II. Answer the following questions in short (2 marks)

1. Give the characteristics of magnetic field lines.
2. Calculate the axial field of a finite solenoid.
3. What is pole strength of a bar magnetic? Show the magnetic dipole moment in terms of pole
strength.
4. Derive the equation of torque on a magnetic needle in a uniform magnetic field.
5. Write the equation of torque on the needle placed in a uniform magnetic field and obtain the
equation of its periodic time T=2𝜋√I/MB
6. Deduce the expression for the potential energy of a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field
and discuss special cases.
7. Give the explanation of Gauss’s law for magnetic field.
8. Give information about Earth’s magnetism.
9. Explain geographic meridian and magnetic meridian.
10. What are the Earth magnetic elements? And which are they?
11. Explain magnetic declination.
12. Obtain the relation between magnetization and magnetic intensity for a solenoid.
13. Explain the magnetic susceptibility of material. From it explain relative magnetic
permeability of material and magnetic permeability of material. Obtain the relation between
them.
14. What is magnetic substance? Write its types.
15. Explain diamagnetism and diamagnetic substance.
16 Explain Para magnetism and paramagnetic substance.
17. Explain Curie’s law.
18. Explain ferromagnetism and ferromagnetic substance.
19. Explain Curie temperature.
20. What are permanent magnets? Give the ways for preparing them.
21. Write short note on electromagnets.
II. Answer the following questions (3 marks)
1. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30º with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.25 T
experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 × 10–2 J. What is the magnitude of magnetic
moment of the magnet?
2. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment m = 0.32 JT–1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field
of 0.15 T. If the bar is free to rotate in the plane of the field, which orientation would correspond
to its (a) stable, and (b) unstable equilibrium? What is the potential energy of the magnet in each
case?
3. A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 × 10–4 m2 carries a
current of 3.0 A. Explain the sense in which the solenoid acts like a bar magnet. What is its
associated magnetic moment?
4. If the solenoid in question 3 is free to turn about the vertical direction and a uniform horizontal
magnetic field of 0.25 T is applied, What is the magnitude of torque on the solenoid when its
axis makes an angle of 30° with the direction of applied field?
5. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J T–1 lies aligned with the direction of a uniform
magnetic field of 0.22 T.
(a) What is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn the magnet so as to
align its magnetic moment: (i) normal to the field direction, (ii) opposite to the field
direction?
(b) What is the torque on the magnet in cases (i) and (ii)?
6. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 × 10–4 m2, carrying a
current of 4.0 A, is suspended through its center allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane.
(a) What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?
 (b) What is the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 7.5
× 10–2 T is set up at an angle of 30º with the axis of the solenoid?
7. A circular coil of 16 turns and radius 10 cm carrying a current of 0.75 A rests with its plane
normal to an external field of magnitude 5.0 × 10–2 T. The coil is free to turn about an axis in its
plane perpendicular to the field direction. When the coil is turned slightly and released, it
oscillates about its stable equilibrium with a Frequency of 2.0 s–1. What is the moment of inertia
of the coil about its axis of rotation?
8. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its
north tip pointing down at 22º with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.35 G. Determine the magnitude of the Earth’s
magnetic field at the place.
9. At a certain location in Africa, a compass points 12º west of the geographic north. The north
tip of the magnetic needle of a dip circle placed in the plane of magnetic meridian points 60º
above the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s field is measured to be 0.16 G.
Specify the direction and magnitude of the earth’s field at the location.
10. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48 J T–1. Give the direction and magnitude
of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of 10 cm from the center of the
magnet on (a) the axis, b) The equatorial lines (normal bisector) of the magnet.
11. A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its axis aligned along the magnetic north-
south direction. Null points are found on the axis of the magnet at 14 cm from the center of the
magnet. The Earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.36 G and the angle of dip is Zero. What is
the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of the magnet at the same distance as the null–
point (i.e., 14 cm) from the center of the magnet? (At null points, field due to a magnet is equal
and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.)
12. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 5.25 × 10–2 J T–1 is placed with its axis
perpendicular to the earth’s field direction. At what distance from the center of the magnet, the
resultant field is inclined at 45º with earth’s field on (a) its normal bisector and (b) its axis.
Magnitude of the earth’s field at the place is given to be 0.42 G. Ignore the length of the magnet
in comparison to the distances involved.
III. Answer the following questions (4 marks)
1 Answer the following questions regarding earth’s magnetism:
(a) A vector needs three quantities for its specification. Name the three independent
quantities conventionally used to specify the earth’s magnetic field.
(b) The angle of dip at a location in southern India is about 18º. Would you expect a greater
or smaller dip angle in Britain?
(c) If you made a map of magnetic field lines at Melbourne in Australia, would the lines
seem to go into the ground or come out of the ground?
 (d) In which direction would a compass free to move in the vertical plane point to, if located
right on the geomagnetic north or south pole?
(e) The earth’s field, it is claimed, roughly approximates the field due to a dipole of
magnetic moment 8 × 1022 J T–1 located at its center. Check the order of magnitude of
this number in some way.
(f) Geologists claim that besides the main magnetic N-S poles, there are several local poles
on the earth’s surface oriented in different directions. How is such a thing possible at all?
2 Answer the following questions:
(a) The earth’s magnetic field varies from point to point in space. Does it also change with
time? If so, on what time scale does it change appreciably?
(b) The earth’s core is known to contain iron. Yet geologists do not regard this as a source of
the earth’s magnetism. Why?
(c) The charged currents in the outer conducting regions of the earth’s core are thought to be
responsible for earth’s magnetism. What might be the ‘battery’ (i.e., the source of energy)
to sustain these currents?
(d) The earth may have even reversed the direction of its field several times during its history
of 4 to 5 billion years. How can geologists know about the earth’s field in such distant
past?
(e) The earth’s field departs from its dipole shape substantially at large distances (greater
than about 30,000 km). What agencies may be responsible for this distortion?
(f) Interstellar space has an extremely weak magnetic field of the order of 10–12 T. Can such
a weak field be of any significant consequence? Explain.
3. A solenoid has a core of a material with relative permeability 400. The windings of the
solenoid are insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A. If the number of turns is 1000 per
meter, calculate (a) H, (b) M, (c)B and (d) the magnetizing current Im.

Chapter 6
Electromagnetic Induction
1. The coupling co-efficient of the perfectly coupled coils is:
(a) Zero (c) slightly more than 1
(b) 1 (d) infinite
2. 1 henry is equal to:
(a) weber ampere (c) weber/ampere
(b) weber Volt (d) None of these
3. The magnetic field is parallel to a surface, then the magnetic flux through the surface is :
(a) zero (c) infinite
(b) small but not zero (d) large but not infinite
4. In the expression e = –d∅/dt, the negative sign signifies:
(a) The induced emf is produced only when magnetic flux decreases
(b) The induced emf opposes the change in the magnetic flux
(c) The induced emf is opposite to the direction of the flux
(d) None of these
5. An e– and a p– are moving parallel to each other in a magnetic field. The magnetic force
acting on the p+ is:
(a) 1840 times that on e– (c) same as that of e–
(b) less than that of e– (d) slightly more than that of e–
6. Which of the following is not equal to a henry?
(a) Volt second ampere (c) Volt2 second Coulomb
(b) Volt second /Coulomb2 (d) Joule second/Coulomb2
7. A transformer is used to light 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current
is 0.5 A. Then the efficiency of the transformer is:
(a) 11% (c) 80%
(b) 50% (d) 90%
8. The magnetic flux (∅) linked with a coil is related to the number of turns (N) of the coil as:
(a) ∅∝ N (c) ∅∝ N2
(b) ∅ ∝ N-1 (d) ∅∝ N-2
9. The magnetic flux (∅) lined with a coil is related to its area (s) as:
(a) ∅ ∝ s (c) ∅ ∝ s1/2
(b) ∅ ∝ s² (d) ∅ ∝ s-1/2
10. If the magnetic flux linked with a coil through which a current of ampere is set up is ∅, then
the coefficient of self-inductance of the coil is:
(a) l/∅ (c) ∅l
(b) ∅/l (d) None of these
11. A D.C. motor working on 200V have initial current of 5A but when it attained maximum
velocity, the current obtained is 3A. What will be its Back emf?
(a) 0V (c)120V
(b)80V (d)200V
12. The role of inductance is equivalent to:
(a) inertia (c) energy
(b) force (d) momentum
13. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular velocity 5
rad s-. If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetism is 2 × 10-5 T, then e.m.f. developed
between the two ends of the conductor is:
(a) 5 µV (c) 5 mV
(b) 50 µV (d) 50 mV
14. Coil of L = 8.4 mH and R = 6 Ω is connected to a 12 V battery. The current in the coil is 1.0
A at approx. time of:
(a) 500 s (c) 35 ms
(b) 20 s (d) 1 ms
15. If I current is flowing inductance L, then the dimension of 32 LI² is equivalent to:
(a) charge (c) momentum
(b) force (d) energy
16. The phase difference between the flux linkage and the emf in a rotating coil in a uniform
magnetic field is:
(a) zero (c) π4
(b) π2 (d) π
17. A choke is used as a resistance in:
(a) dc circuits (c) both ac and dc circuits
(b) ac circuits (d) neither (a) nor (b)
18. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:
(a) T (c) Wb
(b) Tm-2 (d) Wbm-2
19. For purely capacitive circuits, power factor is:
(a) 0 (c) 1
(b) -1 (d) infinity
20. The magnetic flux linked with a coil is inversely proportional to the____.
(a) magnetic field (c) number of turns
(b) area of cross section (d) none of these
21. When the magnetic field is parallel to a surface, then the magnetic flux through the surface
is:
(a) infinite (c) small but not zero
(b) zero (d) large but not infinite.
22. The energy stored in a 50 mH inductor carrying a current of 4 A is:
(a) 0.1 J (c) 0.04 J
(b) 0.4 J (d) 0.01 J
23. The flux linked with a coif at any instant t is given by ∅ = 10t² – 50t + 250. The induced emf
at t = 3s is:
(a) 10 V (c) -190 V
(b) 190 V (d) -10 V
24. Two coils of self-inductance 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective
flux in one coil is completely linked with other. The mutual inductance between these coils is:
(a) 4 mH (c) 10 mH
(b) 16 mH (d) 6 mH
25. The core of a transformer is laminated because:
(a) rusting of core may be prevented
(b) ratio of voltage in primary and secondary may be increased.
(c) energy losses due to eddy current may be minimized
(d) The weight of transformer may be reduced

I. Answer the following questions in short (2 marks)

1. Discuss Faraday’s experiment of bar magnet and coil for generation of electric current in coil.
2. Explain the concept of magnetic flux.
3. State and explain Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
4. Prove that the Lenz’s law is a specific representation of the law of conservation of energy and
state Lenz law.
5. Derive the equation E = -Blv of a motional emf with the help of suitable example.
6. Prove that mechanical power which needed to move the rod in a uniform magnetic field is
converted into electrical power.
7. Derive relation between induced charge and change in magnetic flux
8. Explain eddy current with suitable example. What should be done to decrease the effects of
eddy current.
9. Discuss practical applications of eddy current.
10. Define inductance, give its unit and write factors on which its value depends.
11.Explain mutual inductance and derive equation of induced emf.
12. Give two definitions of mutual inductance, give its units and write factors on which its value
depends.
13. Explain self-induction and obtain equation of self-induced emf in a coil.

14. Write the help of 𝐿 = 𝑁∅⁄𝐼 and 𝜀 = −𝐿 𝑑𝑡 give two definitions of self inductance.
𝑑𝐼

1
15. Define an inductor. Derive equation of energy U= 2 L𝐼 2 stored in inductor.

16. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V induced,
give an estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit.
17. A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil changes
from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?

II. Answer the following questions (3 marks)

1. A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside the
solenoid normal to its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2.0 A to
4.0 A in 0.1 s, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing?
2. A 1.0 m long metallic rod is rotated with an angular frequency of 400 rad s–1 about an axis
normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact with a
circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to the axis exists
everywhere. Calculate the emf developed between the center and the ring.
3. A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is rotated about its vertical diameter with an
angular speed of 50 rad s–1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 × 10–2 T.
Obtain the maximum and average emf induced in the coil. If the coil forms a closed loop of
resistance 10 Ω, calculate the maximum value of current in the coil. Calculate the average power
loss due to Joule heating. Where does this power come from?
4. A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0
m s–1, at right angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field, 0.30 × 10–4 Wb
m–2.
(a) What is the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire?
(b) What is the direction of the emf?
(c) Which end of the wire is at the higher electrical potential?
5. A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 km/h. What is the voltage difference
developed between the ends of the wing having a span of 25 m, if the Earth’s magnetic field at
the location has a magnitude of 5 × 10–4 T and the dip angle is 30
6. A circular coil of radius 10cm, 500 turns and resistance 2Ω is placed with its plane
perpendicular to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field. It is rotated about its
vertical diameter through 180° in 0.25 s. Estimate the magnitudes of the emf and current induced
in the coil. Horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is 3×10-5 T
III. Answer the following questions (4 marks)
1. A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 2 cm with a small cut is moving out of a region of
uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the loop. What is the emf
developed across the cut if the velocity of the loop is 1 cm s–1 in a direction normal to the
(a) Longer side, (b) shorter side of the loop? For how long does the induced voltage last in
each case?
2. Discuss principle and construction of an ac generator (dynamo). Derive formula of induced
emf in AC generator.
(b) a. Discuss principle and construction of an ac generator.
(c) b. Draw schematic diagram of AC generator and derive formula of induced emf in AC
generator.
3. (a) Obtain the expression for the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of magnetic
field B, area A, and length l of the solenoid.
(b) How does the magnetic field compare with the electrostatic energy stored in a capacitor?

Chapter 7
Alternating Current
I. MCQ type questions
1.In an Ac circuit in 1s current reduces to 0 value 120 times. Hence the frequency of A.C. current
is________ Hz.
(a) 50 (c) 60
(b) 100 (d) 120
2. Power factor of an ac circuit is a measure of:
(a) virtual power (c) mean power
(b) power lost in the circuit (d) all the above
3. The dimensional formula of L/R is similar to that of:
(a) frequency (c) length
(b) time (d) none of these
4. Which of the following has dimensions different from the rest?
(a) L/R (c) √LC
(b) 1/RC (d) RC
5. The dimensional formula of impedance is;
(a) [ML2T-2A-2] (c) [ML2T-2A-1]
(b) [ML2T-3A-2] (d) [ML2T-2A-3]
6. Energy dissipates in LCR circuit in:
(a) L only (c) R only
(b) C only (d) All of the above
7. An iron core transformer with a turn’s ratio of 8:1 has 120 V applied across the primary. The
voltage across the secondary
(a) 15 V (c) 180 V
(b) 120 V (d) 960 V
8. What is the ratio of inductive and capacitance reactance in an ac circuit?
(a) 1 (c) ω²LC
(b) ω²L (d) l
9. An acceptor circuit is:
(a) series resonant circuit (c) LCR circuit
(b) parallel resonant circuit (d) None of these
10. A broadcast circuit broadcasts at 300 m band. A condenser of capacitance 2.4µF is available.
The value of the inductance required for resonant circuit is:
(a) 10-4 H (c) 10-6 H
(b) 10-8 H (d) 10-2 H
11. In series resonant circuit:
(a) reactance is zero (c) voltage is zero
(b) current is zero (d) None of these
12. In parallel resonant circuit:
(a) impedance is very high (c) voltage is very high
(b) current is very high (d) None of these
13. The no. of turns in the primary coil of a transformer is 200 and the no. of turns in the
secondary is 10. If 240 V a.c. is applied to primary, the output from the secondary
(a) 6 V (c) 24 V
(b) 12 V (d) 48 V
14. Transformer works on the principle of:
(a) convertor (c) mutual induction
(b) invertor (d) self-induction
15. Which of the following effects is not shown in alternating current?
(a) Chemical effect (c) Heating current
(b) Magnetic effect (d) All of these
16. An ac ammeter connected in series in an ac circuit reads 5A. The peak value of current:
(a) 5 A (c) 5√5 A
(b) 5√2A (d) zero
17. The force constant corresponding to_______ in electric quantity.
(a) resistance (c) capacitance
(b) inductance (d) inverse of capacitance
18. In a series L-C-R circuit R=1000Ω, L=1H and C = 1µF. the half power bandwidth is___.
(a) 100 (c) 10
(b) 0.1 (d) 0.01
19. In a circuit, the value of alternating current is measured by hot wire ammeter as 10A. What
will be its peak value?
(a) 10A (c) 20A
(b) 14.14A (d) 7.07A
20. The natural frequency of an L -C-Circuit is equal to:
(a) 2π √LC
(b) (1/2π) √LC
(c) (1/3π) √LC
(d) 2π/ √LC
21. In the series L-C-R circuit, the voltmeter and ammeter readings are:

(a) V = 100 Volts, I = 2A (c) V = 1000 Volts, I = 2A

(b) V = 100 Volts, I = 5A (d) V = 300 Volts, I = 1A
22. The power factor of A.C. circuit of resistance 12 Ω and impedance 15Ω is____ .
(a) 1.25 (c) 125
(b) 0
23. The output power in step-up transformer used in practice is_______ .
(a) greater than the input power (c) equal to the input power
(b) less than the input power (d) none of these
24. The inductive reactance of an inductor coil of 1H at 50 Hz is:
(a) 50π Ω (c) 100 Ω
(b) π/50 Ω (d) 50 Ω
25. In pure inductive circuit current
(a) lags behind emf by π/2 (c) lags behind emf by π
(b) leads the emf by π/2 (d) leads the emf by π
II. Answer the following questions (2 marks)
1. Explain AC circuit for circuit with only resistor.
2. Obtain an equation of current for AC voltage applied to an inductor and draw a graph for V
and I.
3. Discuss the power in AC circuit with only an inductor.
4.Explain AC circuit with only capacitor.
5. Discuss power in AC circuit containing only capacitor.
6. Obtain the relation of phase between instantaneous current and voltage with the help of phase
diagram for series LCR circuit.
7. Obtain an analytical solution for the relation of phase between instantaneous current and
voltage for an LCR series AC circuit.
8. Explain resonance for L-C-R series circuit and write its uses. In what kind of circuit will it
possible?
9. What is sharpness of resonance? Derive equation of Q factor.
III. Answer the following questions (3 marks)
1. Define the power for AC circuit. Obtain an equation of average power for L-C-R series AC
circuit.
2. Obtain the differential equation for a LC circuit.
3. Solve the differential equation od LC circuit and obtain the expression of current.
4. What is transformer? Write its principle and write its construction and working.
5. A 100 Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply.
(a) What is the rms value of current in the circuit?
(b) What is the net power consumed over a full cycle?
6. (a) The peak voltage of an ac supply is 300 V. What is the rms voltage?
(b)The rms value of current in an ac circuit is 10 A. What is the peak current?
7. (a)A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of the
current in the circuit.(b) A 60μF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz ac supply. Determine
the rms value of the current in the circuit. (c) In (a) and (b), what is the net power absorbed by
each circuit over a complete cycle. Explain your answer.
8. Obtain the resonant frequency ωr of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0H, C = 32μF and R = 10
Ω. What is the Q-value of this circuit? 7.7 A charged 30μF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH
inductor. What is the angular frequency of free oscillations of the circuit?
9. A series LCR circuit with R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H and C = 35μF is connected to a variable-
frequency 200 V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural frequency of the
circuit, what is the average power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle?
10. A radio can tune over the frequency range of a portion of MW Broadcast band: (800 kHz to
1200 kHz). If its LC circuit has an effective inductance of 200μH, what must be the range of its
variable capacitor? [Hint: For tuning, the natural frequency i.e., the frequency of free oscillations
of the LC circuit should be equal to the frequency of the Radio wave.]
IV. Answer the following questions (4 marks)
1. Figure 7.21 shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L =

5.0 H, C = 80μF, R = 40 Ω.
(a) Determine the source frequency which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating
frequency.
(c) Determine the rms potential drops across the three elements of the circuit. Show that the
potential drop across the LC combination is zero at the resonating frequency.
2. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283V and frequency 50Hz is applied to a series LCR
circuit in which R = 3 Ω, L = 25.48mH, C = 7960μF. Find (a) the impedance of the circuit (b) the
phase difference between the voltage across the source and the current (c) power dissipated in
the circuit (d) power factor

3. A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480nF, R = 23 Ω is connected to a 230 V variable frequency
supply. (a) What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum. Obtain this maximum
value. (b) What is the source frequency for which average power absorbed by the circuit is maximum.
Obtain the value of this maximum power. (c) For which frequencies of the source is the power transferred
to the circuit half the power at resonant frequency? What is the current amplitude at these frequencies?
(d) What is the Q-factor of the given circuit?
4. Show that in the free oscillation of an LC circuit, the sum of the energies stored in the capacitor and
inductor is constant in time.

Chapter 8
Electromagnetic Waves
I. MCQ type questions
1. The dimensional formula of E⃗ is:
(a)[MLT-2A-1] (c) [MLT-2A-2]
(b) [MLT-3A-1] (d) None of these
2. Maxwell’s equations describe fundamental laws of______
(a) only electricity (c) only magnetism
(b) only mechanics (d) both a and b
3. Electromagnetic waves possess___
(a) only energy not momentum (c) only momentum not energy
(b) both energy and momentum (d) none of the above
4. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the
intensity if an EM wave is_____
(a) c:1 (c) c2:1
(b) 1:1 (d) √c:1
5. Energy of 1 photon of radiant energy is 15keV. Then this radiation belongs to ____ part of the
electromagnetic waves.
(a) ultraviolet (c) gamma
(b) x-rays (d) infrared
6. The dimensions of E⃗. dl→ are identical to that of:
(a) potential (c) current
(b) charge (d) None of these
7. Which of the following laws was modified by Maxwell by introducing the displacement
current?
(a) Gauss’s law (c) Biot-Savart’s law
(b) Ampere’s law (d)None of these
8. Choose the wave relevant to telecommunication:
(a) ultraviolet (c) microwave
(b) infrared (d) visible light
9. Electromagnetic waves have a speed of
(a) 3 × 105 kms-1 (c) 3 × 107 kms-1
(b)3 × 106 kms-1 (d) 3 × 108 kms-1
10. Which of the following EMW has highest wavelength?
(a) X-ray (c) infrared rays
(b) ultraviolet rays (d) microwaves
11. Displacement current is due to:
(a) the flow of electrons (c) the ionization of atmosphere
(b) the Varying electric field (d) the flow of protons
12. Displacement current is always:
(a) equal to conduction current (c) greater than conduction current
(b) less than conduction current (d) the sum of current due to flow of +ve and negative ions
13. EMW are produced by:
(a) charge in uniform motion only (c) accelerated or decelerated charge only
(b) charge at rest only (d) all of the above
14. Who first demonstrated the existence of em waves?
(a) Hertz (c) Ampere
(b) Maxwell (d) Faraday
15. If B⃗ is the magnetic field vector and E⃗ is the electric field vector in an em wave, then which
of the following relations is correct? Here c is the speed of fight:
(a) c = EB (c) c = BE
(b) c = BE (d) c = 1EB
16. The dimensions of E/Bare same as that of:
(a) charge (c) velocity
(b) current (d) acceleration
17. Name the law which states that a varying electric field produces a magnetic field:
(a) Biot-Savart’s law (c) Modified Ampere’s law
(b) Faraday’s law (d) None of these
18. The existence of EMW was experimentally established by:
(a) Sir S. C. Bose (c) Marconi
(b) Maxwell (d) Hertz
19. An EMW of v = 3 MHz passes from vacuum into dielectric medium with permittivity Er = 4,
then:
(a) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
(b) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency become half
(c) Wavelength is halved and the frequency remains unchanged
(d) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
20. Frequency of a wave is 6 × 1015. Hz. The wave is:
(a) Radio wave (c) X-ray
(b) Microwave (d) Ultra violet
21. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Electromagnetic waves are transverse
(b) Electromagnetic waves travel with the speed of light in free space
(c) Electromagnetic waves are produced by accelerating charges
(d) Electromagnetic waves travel with the same speed in all media
22. If ue and um arc the electric and magnetic field densities in an electromagnetic wave, then (c
is the speed of light):
(a) ue=um (c) ue = um×c
(b) ue= c/um (d) None of these
23. Solar radiation is:
(a) transverse EMW (c) both (a) and (b)
(b) longitudinal EMW (d) None of these
24. Ampere’s circuital law was modified by:
(a) Laplace (c) Maxwell
(b) Gauss (d) Hertz
25. Light Year is the unit of:
(a) distance (c) energy
(b) time (d) intensity of light

II. Answer the following questions (2 marks)

1. What are Maxwell’s equation? Write the equations.
2. Explain “Changing electric field produces magnetic field”. Explain importance of this
statement.
3. How electromagnetic waves are produced?
4. Write information regarding electromagnetic waves in short.
5. write source of radio waves, types and uses.
6. Write source of microwaves and their uses
7. Write source of infrared waves. Also write their uses.
8. Write sources of visible rays and its uses.
9. Write source of ultraviolet rays and uses.
10. Write source and uses of gamma rays.
11. What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10–10 m, red light of wavelength
6800 Å and radio-waves of wavelength 500m?

III. Answer the following questions (3 marks)

1. Figure 8.6 shows a capacitor made of two circular plates each of radius 12cm, and separated
by 5.0cm. The capacitor is being charged by an external source (not shown in the figure). The
charging current is constant and equal to 0.15A.
(a) Calculate the capacitance and the rate of charge of potential difference between the
plates.
(b) Obtain the displacement current across the plates.
(c) Is Kirchhoff’s first rule (junction rule) valid at each plate of the capacitor? Explain.
2. A parallel plate capacitor (Fig. 8.7) made of circular plates each of radius R = 6.0 cm has a
capacitance C = 100pF. The capacitor is connected to a 230 V ac supply with a (angular)
frequency of 300 rad s–1. (a) What is the rms value of the conduction current? (b) Is the
conduction current equal to the displacement current? (c) Determine the amplitude of B at a
point 3.0 cm from the axis between the plates.

3. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say about
the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz,
what is its wavelength?
4. A radio can tune in to any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz band. What is the corresponding
wavelength band?
5. A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz.
What is the frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillator?
6. The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is B0
= 510nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave?
7. Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is E0 = 120 N/C and that
its frequency is ν = 50.0 MHz (a) Determine, B0, ω, k, and λ. (b) Find expressions for E and B.
8. The terminology of different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum is given in the text. Use the
formula E = hν (for energy of a quantum of radiation: photon) and obtain the photon energy in
units of eV for different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. In what way are the different
scales of photon energies that you obtain related to the sources of electromagnetic radiation?
9. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0
× 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m–1.
 (a) What is the wavelength of the wave?
(b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field?
(c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average energy density of
the B field. [c = 3 × 108 ms–1.]
Chapter 9
Ray Optics and Optical instruments
I. MCQ type questions
1. Which of-the following is not a property of light?
(a) It can travel through vacuum (c) It requires a material medium for its propagation
(b) It has a finite speed (d) It involve transportation energy
2. A ray of light incident at an angle 𝜃 on a refracting face of a prism emerges from the other
face normally. If the angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is made up of a material of refractive
index 1.5 the angle of incidence is _________.
(a) 7.5° (c) 15°
(b) 5° (d)2.5°
3. A passenger in an aeroplane shall
(a) never see a rainbow
(b) may see a primary and secondary rainbow as concentric circles
(c ) may see a primary and secondary rainbow as concentric arcs
(d) shall never see a secondary rainbow
4. The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If the refractive
index of the material of the lens be 1.5, it will
(a) act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its curved side
(b) act as a concave lens only for the objects that lie on its curved side
© act as convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies
(d) act as a concave lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies
5. The phenomena involved in the reflection of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to
(a) reflection of light by a plane mirror
(b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
© dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow
(d) scattering of light by particles of air
6. For _____ mirror, height of the image is always _____ than height of object.
(a) convex, less (c) concave, less
(b) convex, more (d) concave, more
7. If a mirror is approaching you at a speed of 10 ms^1, the speed with which your image
approach you is:
(a) 10 ms-1 (c) 20 ms-1
(b) 5 ms-1 (d) 15 ms-1
8. The refractive indices (R.I.) of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively.
The R.I. of glass w.r.t water is:
(a) 8/9 (c) 7/6
(b) 9/8 (d) 2
9. The angle of minimum deviation for an equilateral glass prism is 30°. Refractive index of the
prism is:
(a) 1/√3 (c) 1
(b) √2 (d) can’t be determined
10. A ray is incident at an angle 38° with a mirror. The angle between normal and reflected ray is
(a) 52° (c) 90°
(b) 38° (d) 70°
11. A concave mirror of focal length f produces an image n times the size of the object. If the
image is real then the distance of the object is:
(a) (n – 1) f (c) (n+1/n) f
(b) (n + 1) f (d) (n-1/n) f
12. A convergent lens will become less convergent in:
(a) oil (c) both of (a) and (b)
(b) water (d) none of these
13. A thin glass (RI = 3/2) lens has optical power of – 5D in air. Its optical power in a liquid
medium with RI = 1.6 will be:
(a) -2.5 D (c) -1D
(b) 25 D (d) 0.625 D
14. An observer stand on the bank of a lake finds fish at the depth 12 cm in water. At what height
is the image of fish found raised?
(a) 9cm (c) 3cm
(b) 12cm (d) 3.8cm
15. The radius of curvature of plano-convex lens is 10cm. If its focal length is 30 cm then its
refractive index will be
(a)1.1 (c)1.33
(b)1.22 (d)1.66
16. When light travels from one medium to another, which of the following does not change?
(a) frequency (c) velocity
(b) refractive index (d) wavelength
17. Two lens of power -15 D and +5 D are placed in contact co-axially. The focal length of
equivalent lens is:
(a) -10 cm (c) +10 cm
(b) -20 cm (d) None
18. Refractive index of water and glass are 4/3 and 5/3. A light ray is going to water from glass.
Then, its critical angle will be:
(a)𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 4/5 (c) 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 9/15
(b) 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 5/6 (d) 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 2/1
19. The air bubble inside water shines due to:
(a) Reflection (c) Total internal reflection.
(b) Refraction (d) None of these
20. When a ray of light (white) enters a lens, undergoes a change is:
(a) wavelength (c) frequency
(b) velocity (d) both velocity and wavelength
21. Magnifying power of objective of compound microscope is 5. If magnifying power of
compound microscope is 30 then magnifying power eyepiece will be
(a)1 (c) 6
(b)3 (d) 9
22. Refractive index of a prism id √2. One side of prism is polished if ray incidences at ___ then
it will return back to its original path. The refraction angle is 30°
(a)0° (c) 45°
(b)30° (d) 60°
23. The RI. Of the material of a prism is √2 and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the refracting
surfaces of the prism is made a mirror. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from
the other face retraces its path, after reflection from mirror surface. The angle of incidence on
prism is:
(a) 0° (c) 45°
(b) 30° (d) 60°
24. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of 1 km
from two objects. The minimum distance between these two objects, which can be resolved by
the telescope, when seen in the light of mean λ = 5000 A is of the order of:
(a) 5 mm (c) 0.5 m
(b) 5 cm (d) 5 m
25. A plane mirror produces a magnification of
(a)0 (c) -1
(b)infinite (d) +1

II. Answer the following questions (2 marks)

1. What is reflection of light? Explain laws of reflection.
2. Give relation between focal length and radius of curvature for spherical mirror.
3. Obtain mirror equation for the real image obtained buy concave mirror.
4. What is linear magnification? Obtain equation of linear magnification for concave mirror.
5. Explain lateral shift for the refraction from rectangular glass slab.
6. Obtain the relation between the real depth and apparent depth of bottom of tank filled with
water when observed from air.
7. Explain internal reflection and total internal reflection.
8. Explain principle, construction and working of optical fiber.
9. Obtain the relative between object distance and image distance in terms of refractive index of
medium and radius of curvature for spherically curved surface.
10. Explain how the image is formed by thin convex lens and derive
1 1 1 1
− 𝑢 + 𝑣 = (𝑛21 − 1)(𝑅 + 𝑅 )
1 2

11. Define power of lens, obtain its equation and write its SI unit.
12. Obtain the equivalent focal length of combination of thin lenses placed in contact.
13. Obtain the equation of magnification of combination of lenses.
14. Obtain the relation between incidence angle, emergence angle, prism angle and deviation
angle for refraction through prism.
15. Write equation of refractive index of refraction through prism.
16. What is scattering of light? And on which does the scattering depend?
17. What is simple microscope? Obtain the equation of magnification for image formed at
normal vision distance.
18. Obtain the magnification for the image formed at infinity for simple microscope.
19. What is compound microscope? Explain by figure of its construction.
20. Explain the construction of refracting telescope by figure and obtain the equation of its
magnification.
21. What is the focal length of a convex lens of focal length 30cm in contact with a concave lens
of focal length 20cm? Is the system a converging or a diverging lens? Ignore thickness of the
lenses.
III. Answer the following questions (3 marks)
1. A small candle, 2.5 cm in size is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of
curvature 36 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a
sharp image? Describe the nature and size of the image. If the candle is moved closer to the
mirror, how would the screen have to be moved?
2. A 4.5 cm needle is placed 12 cm away from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Give the
location of the image and the magnification. Describe what happens as the needle is moved
farther from the mirror.
3. A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The apparent depth of a needle lying at the
bottom of the tank is measured by a microscope to be 9.4 cm. What is the refractive index of
water? If water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index 1.63 up to the same height, by what
distance would the microscope have to be moved to focus on the needle again?
4. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 80cm. What is the
area of the surface of water through which light from the bulb can emerge out? Refractive index
of water is 1.33. (Consider the bulb to be a point source.)
5. A prism is made of glass of unknown refractive index. A parallel beam of light is incident on a
face of the prism. The angle of minimum deviation is measured to be 40°. What is the refractive
index of the material of the prism? The refracting angle of the prism is 60°. If the prism is placed
in water (refractive index 1.33), predict the new angle of minimum deviation of a parallel beam
of light.
6. Double-convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55, with both
faces of the same radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature required if the focal length
is to be 20cm?
7. A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is placed in the path of the convergent
beam 12cm from P. At what point does the beam converge if the lens is (a) a convex lens of
focal length 20cm, and (b) a concave lens of focal length 16cm?
8. An object of size 3.0cm is placed 14cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 21cm.
Describe the image produced by the lens. What happens if the object is moved further away from
the lens?
9. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0cm and an eyepiece
of focal length 6.25cm separated by a distance of 15cm. How far from the objective should an
object be placed in order to obtain the final image at (a) the least distance of distinct vision
(25cm), and (b) at infinity? What is the magnifying power of the microscope in each case?
10. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 144cm and an eyepiece of focal length
6.0cm. What is the magnifying power of the telescope? What is the separation between the
objective and the eyepiece?
11. (a) A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length 15m. If
an eyepiece of focal length 1.0cm is used, what is the angular magnification of the telescope?
(b) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the moon
formed by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 106m, and the radius of lunar
orbit is 3.8 × 108m.
12. A small pin fixed on a table top is viewed from above from a distance of 50cm. By what
distance would the pin appear to be raised if it is viewed from the same point through a 15cm
thick glass slab held parallel to the table? Refractive index of glass = 1.5. Does the answer
depend on the location of the slab?
13. The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the wall of a room is to be obtained on the
opposite wall 3m away by means of a large convex lens. What is the maximum possible focal
length of the lens required for the purpose?
14. A screen is placed 90cm from an object. The image of the object on the screen is formed by a
convex lens at two different locations separated by 20cm. Determine the focal length of the
lens.22. At what angle should a ray of light be incident on the face of a prism of refracting angle
60° so that it just suffers total internal reflection at the other face? The refractive index of the
material of the prism is 1.524.
IV. Answer the following questions (4 marks)
1. Use the mirror equation to deduce that: (a) an object placed between f and 2f of a concave
mirror produces a real image beyond 2f.
(b) a convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of the object.
(c) the virtual image produced by a convex mirror is always diminished in size and is located
between the focus and the pole.
(d)An object placed between the pole and focus of a concave mirror produces a virtual and
enlarged image.
2. Answer the following questions:
(a) You have learnt that plane and convex mirrors produce virtual images of objects. Can
they produce real images under some circumstances? Explain.
(b) A virtual image, we always say, cannot be caught on a screen. Yet when we ‘see’ a
virtual image, we are obviously bringing it on to the ‘screen’ (i.e., the retina) of our eye.
Is there a contradiction?
(c) A diver under water, looks obliquely at a fisherman standing on the bank of a lake.
Would the fisherman look taller or shorter to the diver than what he actually is?
(d) Does the apparent depth of a tank of water change if viewed obliquely? If so, does the
apparent depth increase or decrease?
(e) The refractive index of diamond is much greater than that of ordinary glass. Is this fact of
some use to a diamond cutter?
3. (a) If f=0.55 m for a glass lens, what is the power of the lens
(b) The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. Its focal
length is 12 cm. What is the refractive index of the glass.
© a convex lens has 20 cm focal length in air. What is focal length in water? (R.I of air-
water=1.33, R.I of air-glass is 1.5)
Chapter 10
WAVE OPTICS
I. MCQ Type questions
1. The idea of secondary wavelets for the. Propagation of a wave was first given by
(a) Newton (c) Maxwell
(b) Huygens (d) Fresnel
2. Light propagates rectilinearly, due to
(a) wave nature (c) velocity
(b) wavelengths (d) frequency
3. Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width 104 Å. The image seen through the slit shall
(a) be a fine sharp slit white in color at the center
(b)a bright slit white at the center diffusing to 0 intensities at the edges
(c) bright slit bright at the center diffusing to region of different colors
(d) only be a diffused slit white in color
4. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for light waves of λ = 6000 Å in vacuum. Its wavelength in
glass is
(a) 2000 Å
(b) 4000 Å
(c) 1000 Å
(d) 3000 Å
5. The phenomena which is not explained by Huygens’s construction of wavefront
(a) reflection (c) refraction
(b) diffraction (d) origin of spectra
6. In young’s experiment, dark fringe of 5th order is obtained at point P on the screen so path
difference at point P on the screen will be
(a) 10λ/2 (c) 9λ/2
(b) 11λ/2 (d) 12λ/2
7. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81 :1. The ratio of the
amplitudes of light waves is
(a) 3 :1 (c) 9 :1
(b) 3: 2 (d) 6:1
8. When interference of light takes place
(a) energy is created in the region of maximum intensity
(b) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum intensity
(c) conservation of energy holds good and energy is redistributed
(d) conservation of energy does not hold good
9. In a double slit interference pattern, the first maxima for infrared light would be
(a) at the same place as the first maxima for green light
(b) closer to the center than the first maxima for green light
(c) farther from the center than the first maxima for green light
(d) infrared light does not produce an interference pattern
10. To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle
(a) should be X/2, where X is the wavelength.
(b) should be of the order of wavelength.
(c) has no relation to wavelength.
(d) should be much larger than the wavelength.
11. Ratio of sine of diffraction angle corresponding to first order maxima and second order
maxima will be
(a) 3/5 (c)6/5
(b) 5/3 (d) 5/6
12. The velocity of light in air is 3 × 108 m𝑠 −1 and that in water is 2.2 × 108 m𝑠 −1 . The
polarizing angle of incidence is
(a) 45°
(b) 50°
(c) 53.74°
(d) 63
13. An optically active compound
(a) rotates the plane of polarised light
(b) changes the direction of polarised light
(c) does not allow plane polarised light to pass through
(d) none of these
14. which of the following phenomenon is not common for light and sound
(a) interference (c) diffraction
(b) refraction (d) polarisation
15. The ratio of intensities of two waves are given by 4:1. Then the ration of the amplitudes of
the two waves is
(a) 2:1 (c) 4:1
(b)1:2 (d)1:4
16. The colors appearing on a thin soap film and on soap bubbles due to the phenomena of
(a) refraction (b) dispersion
© interference (d) diffraction
17. In young’s double slit experiment if the width of the 4th bright fringe is 2 × 10−2 cm, then the
width of 6th bright fringe will be
(a) 3 × 10−2 cm (c) 10−2 cm
(b) 2 × 10−2 cm (d) 1.5 × 10−2 cm
18. If the wavelength of light is 4000 A° then the number of waves in 1mm length will be
(a) 25 (b) 250 (c) 2500 (d)25000
19. Ratio of amplitude of two waves is 3:5, then the ratio of maximum and minimum intensity
will be
(a) 25:16 (c) 16:1
(b) 5:3 (d) 25:9
20. What is the Brewster angle for air to glass transition? (R.I of glass =1.5)
(a) 53.6° (c) 56.3°
(b) 35.3° (d) 36.5°
B. Answer the following questions (2 marks):
1. Explain the wavefront and its types.
2. Explain the use of wavefront to understand wave propagation. Or write Huygen’s principle
and explain it.
3. Derive the laws of refraction from the concept of the wavefront.
4. Explain plane wave refraction from denser to rarer medium using Huygen’s principle.
5. Explain the reflection of a plane wave using Huygen’s principle.
6. What is called a doppler effect for light? And get the formula of doppler shift.
7. Obtain the conditions for the constructive interference and destructive interference.
8. Obtain the formula of intensity if the path difference at a point from two sources is ∅.
9. Explain the intensity of the point of superposition of the waves emanating from it by
explaining the coherent and incoherent sources.
10. Explain diffraction by single slit.
11. Write the difference between the interference pattern and diffraction pattern.
12. Obtain the formulas angular width and linear width of central maximum.
13. Explain resolving power for optical instruments and explain resolving power of telescopes.
14. Explain the resolving power of microscope.
15. Explain linearly polarized waves and give its definition.
16. Define unpolarized light and polarized light.
17. Explain Malus law and write it.
18. Show the when the unpolarized light passes through polariser then the intensity of emergency
light is half that of the intensity of the incident light.
19. Explain polarization by scattering.
20. Explain polarisation of light by reflection and write the Brewster’s law and get the formula.
21. Estimate the distance for which ray optics is good approximation for an aperture of 4 mm and
wavelength 400 nm.
C. Answer the following questions (3 marks):
1. Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is incident from air on a water surface. What are
the wavelength, frequency and speed of
(a) Reflected, and (b) refracted light? Refractive index of water is 1.33.
2. What is the shape of the wavefront in each of the following cases:
(a) Light diverging from a point source.
(b) Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus.
(c) The portion of the wavefront of light from a distant star intercepted by the Earth.
3. (a) The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the speed of light in glass? (Speed of light in
vacuum is 3.0 × 108 𝑚𝑠 −1 )
(b) Is the speed of light in glass independent of the colour of light? If not, which of the two
colors red and violet travels slower in a glass prism?
4. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.28 mm and the screen is
placed 1.4 m away. The distance between the central bright fringe and the fourth bright fringe is
measured to be 1.2 cm. Determine the wavelength of light used in the experiment.
5. In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity
of light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. What is the intensity of
light at a point where path difference is λ/3?
6. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm,is used to obtain
interference fringes in a Young’s double-slit experiment.
(a) Find the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen from the central maximum for
wavelength 650 nm.
(b) What is the least distance from the central maximum where the bright fringes due to both
the wavelengths coincide?
7. In a double-slit experiment the angular width of a fringe is found to be 0.2° on a screen placed
1 m away. The wavelength of light used is 600 nm. What will be the angular width of the fringe
if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? Take refractive index of water to be
4/3.
8. Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a plane reflecting surface. What are the wavelength and
frequency of the reflected light? For what angle of incidence is the reflected ray normal to the
incident ray?

Chapter 11
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
I. MCQ type questions:
1. The minimum energy required for the electron emission from the metal surface can be
supplied to the free electrons by which of the following physical processes?
(a) Thermionic emission (c) Photoelectric emission
(b) Field emission (d) All of these
2. The phenomenon of photoelectric emission was discovered in 1887 by
(a) Albert Einstein (c) Wilhelm Hallwachs
(b) Heinrich Hertz (d) Philipp Lenard
3. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de-Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function
of height is proportional to _____
(a) H (c) H0
(b) H1/2 (d) H-1/2
4. The wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton from a nucleus which is bound to the
nucleus with 1MeV energy is nearly______
(a) 1.2nm (c) 1.2×10-3nm
(b) 1.2×10-6nm (d) 1.2×101nm
5. A metal surface ejects electrons when hit by green light but nothing when hit by yellow light.
The electrons will be ejected when the surface is hit by
(a) blue light (c) infrared light
(b) heat rays (d) red light
6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the photoelectric experiment?
(a) The photocurrent increases with intensity of light.
(b) Stopping potential increases with increase in intensity of incident light.
(c) The photocurrent increases with increase in frequency.
(d) All of these
7. In photoelectric effect, the photocurrent
(a) depends both on intensity and frequency of the incident light.
(b) does not depend on the frequency of incident light but depends on the intensity of the
incident light.
(c) decreases with increase in frequency of incident light.
(d) increases with increase in frequency of incident light.
8. The maximum value of photoelectric current is called
(a) base current (c) collector current
(b) saturation current (d) emitter current
9. In photoelectric effect, the photoelectric current is independent of
(a) intensity of incident light (c) the nature of emitter material
(b) potential difference applied between the two electrodes (d) frequency of incident light
10. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on
(a) frequency of incident light (c) intensity of incident light
(b) nature of the emitter material (d) both (a) and (b)
11. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the graph of kinetic energy of the
photoelectron emitted from the metal versus the frequency of the incident radiation gives a
straight-line graph, whose slope
(a) depends on the intensity of the incident radiation.
(b) depends on the nature of the metal and also on the intensity of incident radiation.
(c) is same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the incident radiation.
(d) depends on the nature of the metal.
12. If ratio of threshold frequencies of two metals is 1:3, ratio of their work functions is____
(a) 1:3 (c) 3:1
(b) 4:16 (d) 16:4
13. Which phenomenon best supports the theory that matter has a wave nature?
(a) Electron momentum (c) Photon momentum
(b) Electron diffraction (d) Photon diffraction
14. de-Broglie wavelength of electrons in the Bohr’s nth orbit is _______
(a) (2πr/n) Å (c) 2πrn Å
(b) (1/n) Å (d) n Å
15. When a piece of sodium or potassium are exposed to sunlight________
(a) they will become negatively charged (c) they will become positively charged
(b) will remain neutral (d) will emit proton
16. If h is Plank’s constant, the momentum of a photon of wavelength 0.01 Å is ______Ns.
(a) 10-2h (c) h
(b) 102h (d) 1012h
17. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron at 927°𝐶 is λ. What will be its wavelength at 27°𝐶?
(a) λ/2 (c) λ/4
(b) 4 λ (d) 2 λ
18.A photon, an electron and a uranium nucleus all have the same wavelength. The one with
most energy_______
(a) is the photon (c) is the uranium
(b) is the electron (d) depends upon the wavelength of particle
19. Four photon of λ > λ0 are incident on metal surface _______ photoelectron will be emitted.
(a) zero (c) two
(b) one (d) four
20. When velocity of electron is increased then its de-Broglie wavelength will ______.
(a) increase (c) decrease
(b) unchanged (d) double
II. Answer the following questions (2 marks)
1. Write and explain methods to obtain emission of electron from metal.
2. What is photoelectric effect?
3. Define threshold frequency and on which factor threshold frequency depend?
4. Explain effect of variation of intensity of incident radiation on photoelectric current.
5. Write characteristics of photoelectric effect.
6. Show that wave theory cannot explain fundamental characteristics of photoelectric effect.
7. Write Einstein’s explanation of photoelectric effect and derive Einstein’s equation. (3 marks)
8. Write characteristic of photon.
9. Write de-Broglie hypothesis and derive equation of de-Broglie wavelength.
10. Explain Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
11. Explain method of Davisson and Germer experiment and its results.
12. Find the
(a) Maximum frequency, and
(b) Minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV electrons
13. Show that the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de Broglie wavelength
of its quantum (photon).
14. What is the de Broglie wavelength of a nitrogen molecule in air at 300 K? Assume that the
molecule is moving with the root-mean-square speed of molecules at this temperature. (Atomic
mass of Nitrogen = 14.0076 u)

III. Answer the following questions (3 marks)

1. The work function of cesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6 ×1014Hz is incident
on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the
(a) Maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons,
(b) Stopping potential, and
(c) maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons?
2. The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is the maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?
3. Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is produced by a helium-neon laser. The power
emitted is 9.42mW.
(a) Find the energy and momentum of each photon in the light beam,
(b) How many photons per second, on the average, arrive at a target irradiated by this beam?
(Assume the beam to have uniform cross-section which is less than the target area), and
(c) How fast does a hydrogen atom have to travel in order to have the same momentum as
that of the photon?
4. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388 × 103 W/m2. How many
photons (nearly) per square metre are incident on the Earth per second? Assume that the photons
in the sunlight have an average wavelength of 550 nm.
5. In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of the cut-off voltage versus frequency of
incident light is found to be 4.12 × 10–15 V s. Calculate the value of Planck’s constant.
6. A 100W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in all directions.The lamp is located at the
center of a large sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is incident on it. The wavelength
of the sodium light is 589 nm. (a) What is the energy per photon associated with the sodium
light? (b) At what rate are the photons delivered to the sphere?
7. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014
Hz is incident on the metal, predict the cut-Off voltage for the photoelectric emission.
8. Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface.Electrons with a maximum
speed of 6.0 × 105m/s are ejected from the surface. What is the threshold frequency for
photoemission of electrons?
9. Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon laser which is used in the photoelectric
effect. When light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the stopping (cut-off)
potential of Photoelectrons is 0.38 V. Find the work function of the material from which the
emitter is made.
10. Calculate the (a) Momentum, and (b)De Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated
through a potential difference of 56 V.
11. The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of sodium is 589 nm. Find the kinetic
energy at which
(a) An electron, and
(b) A neutron, would have the same de Broglie wavelength.

12. (a) For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated de Broglie wavelength be 1.40 ×
10–10m? (a) Also find the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron, in thermal equilibrium with
matter, having an average kinetic energy of (3/2) k T at 300 K.
IV. Answer the following questions (4 marks)
1. What is the
(a) Momentum,
(b) Speed, and
(c) de Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
2. What is the de Broglie wavelength of
(a) A bullet of mass 0.040 kg travelling at the speed of 1.0 km/s,
(b) A ball of mass 0.060 kg moving at a speed of 1.0 m/s, and
(c) a dust particle of mass 1.0 × 10–9 kg drifting with a speed of 2.2 m/s?
3. An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1.00 nm. Find
(a) Their momenta,
(b) The energy of the photon, and the kinetic energy of electron.

Chapter 12
Atoms
I. MCQ type questions
1. The first model of atom in 1898 was proposed by
(a) Ernst Rutherford (c) J.J. Thomson
(b) Albert Einstein (d) Niels Bohr
2. In Geiger-Marsden scattering experiment, the trajectory traced by an a-particle depends on
(a) number of collision (c) impact parameter
(b) number of scattered a-particles (d) none of these
3. In the Geiger-Marsden scattering experiment the number of scattered particles detected are
maximum and minimum at the scattering angles respectively at
(a) 0° and 180° (c) 90° and 180°
(b) 180° and 0° (d) 45° and 90°
4. In the Geiger-Marsden scattering experiment, is case of head-on collision the impact
parameter should be
(a) maximum (c) infinite
(b) minimum (d) zero
5. Rutherford’s experiments suggested that the size of the nucleus is about
(a) 10-14 m to 10-12 m (c) 10-15 m to 10-14 m
(b) 10-15 m to 10-13 m (d) 10-15 m to 10-12 m
6. Which of the following spectral series falls within the visible range of electromagnetic
radiation?
(a) Lyman series (c) Paschen series
(b) Balmer series (d) Pfund series
7. The first spectral series was discovered by
(a) Balmer (c) Paschen
(b) Lyman (d) Pfund
8. Which of the following postulates of the Bohr model led to the quantization of energy of the
hydrogen atom?
(a) The electron goes around the nucleus in circular orbits.
(b) The angular momentum of the electron can only be an integral multiple of h/2π.
(c) The magnitude of the linear momentum of the electron is quantized.
(d) Quantization of energy is itself a postulate of the Bohr model.
9. The Bohr model of atoms
(a) assumes that the angular momentum of electrons is quantized.
(b) uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
(c) predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms.
(d) predicts the same emission spectra for all types of atoms.
10. Taking the Bohr radius as a0 = 53pm, the radius of Li++ ion in its ground state, on the basis of
Bohr model will be about_________.
(a) 53pm (c) 27pm
(b) 18pm (d) 13pm
11. If the radius of inner most electronic orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3×10-2nm, then the radii of
n = 2 orbits is
(a) 1.12 Å (c) 3.22 Å
(b) 2.12 Å (d) 4.54 Å
12. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?
(a) I (c) III
(b) II (d) IV
13. In a hydrogen atom, the radius of nth Bohr orbit is rn. The graph between log(rn/r1) and log n
will be

14. The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to calculate the energy levels of an atom
with many electrons. This is because
(a) of the electrons not being subject to a central force
(b) of the electrons colliding with each other
(c) of screening effects
(d) the force between the nucleus and an electron will no longer be given by Coulomb’s law
15. The angular velocity of electron in nth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is proportional to which
of the following?
(a) n (c) 1/n
(b) n3 (d) 1/n3
16.The linear velocity of electron in nth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is proportional to which of
the following?
(a) n (c) 1/n
(b) n3 (d) 1/n3
17. The energy of fast-moving neutron released in the nuclear fission process is almost?
(a) 2MeV (c) 10MeV
(b) 2KeV (d) 20MeV
18. The ratio of areas of the electron orbits for the first excited state and the ground state for the
hydrogen atom is________.
(a) 16:1 (c) 2:1
(b) 4:1 (d) 8:1
19. The potential energy of the orbital electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is E, what is
its kinetic energy?
(a) E/4 (c) E/2
(b) 2E (d) 4E
20. What will be the angular momentum in 4th orbit, if L is the angular momentum of electron in
the second orbit of hydrogen atom?
(a) 2L (c) 3/2L
(b) 2/3 L (d) L/2
II. Answer the following questions (2 marks)
1. State the limitations of plum pudding model of the atom.
2. Explain Rutherford’s argument for scattered 𝛼particles.
3. Explain the formulas of energy of electron in atom revolving around the nucleus in different
orbits.
4. Explain emission line spectra and absorption spectra.
5. Name the different series obtained in hydrogen spectrum and give formulas for finding the
wave number.
6. Explain the Rutherford atomic model and its limitation.
7. Explain Bohr’s atomic model.
8. Using Bohr’s atomic model, derive an equation of the radius of the nth orbit of an electron.
𝑛2 ℎ2 ∈0
9. Using the formula for the radius of 𝑛𝑡ℎ orbit 𝑟𝑛 = derive an expression for the total
𝜋𝑚𝑍𝑒 2
energy of electron in 𝑛𝑡ℎ Bohr’s orbit.
10. Explain emission lines and absorption lines.
11. Explain the quantization of angular momentum to behave an electron as wave in an atom.

II. Answer the following questions (3 marks)

1. Suppose you are given a chance to repeat the alpha-particle scattering experiment using a thin
sheet of solid hydrogen in place of the gold foil. (Hydrogen is a solid at temperatures below 14
K) What results do you expect?
2. What is the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral lines?
3. A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of
radiation emitted when the atom makes a transition from the upper level to the lower level?
4. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. What are the Kinetic and potential
energies of the electron in this state?
5. The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3×10–11 m. What are the
radii of the n = 2 and n =3 orbits?
6. In accordance with the Bohr’s model, find the quantum number that characterizes the earth’s
revolution around the sun in an orbit of radius 1.5 × 1011 m with orbital speed 3 × 104 m/s.
(Mass of earth= 6.0 × 1024 kg.)
7. A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon, which excites it to the n = 4
level. Determine the wavelength and frequency of photon.

IV. Answer the following questions (4 marks)

1. (a) Using the Bohr’s model calculate the speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom in the n = 1,
2, and 3 levels. (b) Calculate the orbital period in each of these levels.
2. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. What
series of wavelengths will be emitted?
3. Explain Bohr model of an atom and using it derive an equation of the radius of nth orbit of
electron.

Chapter 13
Nucleus
I. MCQ type questions
1. An element A decays into an element C by a two-step process A → B+ 42He and B → C + 2e–.
Then,
(a) A and C are isotopes (c) B and C are isotopes
(b) A and C are isobars (d) A and B are isobars
2. The equation 4 11H+ → 24He2+ + 2e– + 26 MeV Represents_______
(a) β-decay (c) fusion
(b) γ-decay (d) fission
3. Light energy emitted by star is due to
(a) breaking of nuclei (c) burning of nuclei
(b) joining of nuclei (d) reflection of solar light
4. In nuclear reaction, there is conservation of
(a) mass only (c) momentum only
(b) energy only (d) mass, energy and momentum
5. In nuclear reactors, the control rods are made of
(a) cadmium (c) krypton
(b) graphite (d) plutonium
6. The set which represent the isotope, isobar, and isotone respectively is

7. The mass number of iron nucleus is 56 the nuclear density is

(a) 2.29 × 1016 kgm-3 (c) 2.29 × 1018 kgm-3
(b) 2.29 × 1017 kgm-3 (d) 2.29 × 1015 kgm-3
8. Order of magnitude of density of uranium nucleus is
(a) 1020 kgm-3 (c) 1014 kgm-3
(b) 1017 kgm-3 (d) 1011 kgm-3
9. The radius of a spherical nucleus as measured by electron scattering is 3.6 fm. What is the
mass number of the nucleus most likely to be?
(a) 27 (c) 56
(b) 40 (d) 120
10. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 days. What is the time taken to disintegrate to
3/4th of its original mass?
(a) 30 days (c) 60 days
(b) 15 days (d) 90 days
11. The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha
particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an
(a) isomer of parent (c) isotope of parent
(b) isotone of parent (d) isobar of parent
12. During negative β-decay, an antineutrino is also emitted along with the emitted electron.
Then,
(a) only linear momentum will be conserved
(b) total linear momentum and total angular momentum but not total energy will be conserved
(c) total linear momentum, and total energy but not total angular momentum will be conserved
(d) total linear momentum, total angular momentum and total energy will be conserved
13. An electron emitted in beta radiation originates from
(a) inner orbits of atom (c) decay of a neutron in a nucleus
(b) free electrons existing in the nuclei (d) photon escaping from the nucleus
14. Complete the series 6He → e– + 6Li +
(a) neutrino (c) proton
(b) antineutrino (d) neutron
15. In a stable atom of 37Rb87 _______ neutron is more compared to electron.
(a) 124 (c) 13
(b) 50 (d) 10
16. Two radioactive substance have decay constants 15x and 13x. If they have the same number
of nuclei initially, the ratio of number of nuclei after a time 1/(6x) is _______.
(a) 1/e2 (c) 1/e4
(b) e/2 (d) e2
17. Slope of graph dN/dt N is _____.
(a) λ (c) 1/ λ
(b) λ dt (d) – λ
18. A radioactive substance disintegrates 1/64 of initial value in 15 hour, then how many hours is
half time of this substance?
(a) 5 (c) 2.5
(b) 2 (d) 4
19. If R1 and R2 are the radii of nucleus 64 30 Zn and 2713 Al respectively, then R1/R2 = ___
(a) 64/27 (c) 3/4
(b) 4/3 (d) 27/64
20. If the half life of a radioactive element is 10 hr. Its average life = _______ hr.
(a) 1.4 (c) 6.93
(b) 14.4 (d) 0.693

II. Answer the following questions (2 marks)

1. Write the unit of mass and its definition.
2. How the radius of the nucleus is estimated? Write its relation to radius and atomic mass
number.
3. Derive the formula for binding of the nucleus by explaining the mass defect of the nucleus and
write the formula explaining the binding energy per nucleon.
4. Describe the nuclear force and its characteristics.
5. Write and derive the law of radioactivity decay.
6. Explain decay constant and write down its definition.
7. Define the disintegration rate or radioactivity of a sample and obtain the relation R=𝜆N and
define its different units.
8. Write the definition of half-life of radioactive substance and obtain its relation to decay
constant.
9. Define the average life of a radioactive sample and obtain its relation to decay constant and
half-life.
10. Explain the 𝛼 decay process and give its appropriate examples.
11. Explain the 𝛽 decay and how does a radioactive nucleus emit 𝛽 particles in the nucleus? Here
why does radioactive nuclide not change during beta emission?
12. What is gamma decay? Explain by proper example.
13. What is nuclear chain reaction? Explain the difficulties and their removal in its success.
14.What is nuclear fusion? Explain giving its nuclear equations and write down the definition of
thermonuclear fusion.
15. Explain the process of thermonuclear fusion as a source of energy in the Sun and stars.
II. Answer the following questions (3 marks)
1. (a) Two stable isotopes of lithium 63Li and 73Li have respective abundance of 7.5% and 92.5%.
These isotopes have masses 6.01512 u and 7.01600 u respectively. Find the atomic mass of
lithium (b) Boron has 2 stable isotopes 105B and 115B, their respective masses are 10.01294 u and
11.00931 u and the atomic masses of boron is 10.811 u. Find the abundances of 105B and 115B.
2. Obtain the binding energy in MeV of a nitrogen nucleus (147N) given m (147N) = 14.00307 u.
3. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. How long will it take for the activity to reduce
to (a) 3.125% (b) 1% of its original value.
4. Obtain the amount of 6027Co necessary to provide a radioactive source of 8.0mCi strength. The
half-life of 6027Co is 5.3 years.
5. The half-life of 9038Sr is 28 years. What is the disintegration rate of 15mg of this isotope?
6. Find the Q value and the kinetic energy of the emitted 𝛼 particle in the 𝛼 decay of (a)22688Ra
(b) 22086Rn
Given m (22688Ra) = 226.02540 u, m (22286Rn) = 222.01750 u,
m (22286Ra) = 220.01137 u, m (21684Po) = 216.00189 u,

IV. Answer the following questions (4 marks)

1. Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei 5626Fe and 20983Bi in units of MeV from the following
data:
m(5626Fe) = 55.934939 u m (20983Bi)= 208.980388 u
2. A given coin has a mass of 3.0gm, calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to
separate al the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin is
entirely made of 6323Cu atoms (of mass 62.92960 u)
3. A 1000 MW fission reactor half of its fuel in 5.00 y. How much 23592U did it contain initially.
Assume that the reactor operators 80% of the time that all the energy arises from the fission of
235
92U and that this nuclide is consumed by the fission process
4. How long can an electric lamp of 100W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0kg of deuterium?
Take the fusion reaction as 21H + 21H  32He +n + 3.27 MeV.

Chapter 14
Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
I. MCQ type questions
1. Region without free electrons and holes in a p-n junction is
(a) n-region (c) depletion region
(b) p-region (d) none of these
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the depletion region of a diode?
(a) There the mobile charges exist.
(b) Equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the region neutral.
(c) Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
(d) None of these
3. Potential barrier developed in a junction diode opposes the flow of
(a) minority carrier in both regions only (c) electrons in p region
(b) majority carriers only (d) holes in p region
4. The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode is more likely to occur due to
(a) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is small
(b) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is large
(c) strong electric field in a depletion region if the doping concentration is small
(d) none of these
5. What happens during regulation action of a Zener diode?
(a) The current through the series resistance (Rs) changes.
(b) The resistance offered by the Zener changes.
(c) The Zener resistance is constant.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
6. A Zener diode is specified as having a breakdown voltage of 9.1 V, with a maximum power
dissipation of 364 mW. What is the maximum current the diode can handle?
(a) 40 mA (c) 50 mA
(b) 60 mA (d) 45 mA
7. In a half wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamental
frequency in the ripple would be
(a) 25 Hz (c) 70.7 Hz
(b) 50 Hz (d) 100 Hz
8. In the circuit shown if current for the diode is 20μA, the potential difference across the diode
is

(a) 2 V (c) 4 V
(b) 4.5 V (d) 2.5 V
9. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are characterized by
valence and conduction bands separated by energy band gap respectively equal to (Eg)C, (Eg)Si
and (Eg)Ge. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)C (c) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge
(b) (Eg)C< (Eg)Ge < (Eg)Si (d) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge
10. If the energy of a photon of sodium light (A = 589 nm) equals the band gap of
semiconductor, the minimum energy required to create hole electron pair
(a) 1.1 eV (c) 3.2 eV
(b) 2.1 eV (d) 1.5 eV
11. If in a n-type semiconductor when all donor states are filled, then the net charge density in
the donor states becomes
(a) 1 (c) < 1, but not zero
(b) > 1 (d) zero
12. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing
in the circuit?

(a) 2.0 A (c) 1.73 A

(b) 1.33 A (d) 2.31 A
13. At absolute zero, Si acts as a
(a) metal (c) insulator
(b) semiconductor (d) none of these
14. In good conductors of electricity the type of bonding that exist is
(a) Van der Walls (c) ionic
(b) covalent (d) metallic
15. The manifestation of band structure in solids is due to
(a) Heisenberg uncertainty principle (c) Bohr’s correspondence principle
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle (d) Boltzmann law
16. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction band of an intrinsic semiconductor
of finite temperature
(a) increases exponentially with increasing band gap
(b) decreases exponentially with increasing band gap
(c) decreases with increasing temperature.
(d) is independent of the temperature and band gap
17. In an n-type silicon, which of the following statements is true.
(a) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants’
(b) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(d) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
18. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
(a) its resistance is increased (c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the
semiconductor
(b) it becomes a p-type semiconductor (d) none of these.
19. The dominant mechanism for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon
p-n junction are
(a) drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias
(b) diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
(c) diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
(d) drift in both forward and reverse bias
20. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region because
(a) free electrons in the n-region attract them
(b) they move across the junction by the potential difference
(c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to u-region.
(d) all of these
21. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resultant circuit is
(a) NOT gate (c) OR gate
(b) AND gate (d) None of the above

22. The universal gate is _________.

(a) NAND gate (c) AND gate
(b) OR gate (d) None of the above

23. In an n-type silicon which of the following statement is true?

(a) electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
(b) electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants
(c) holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants
(d) holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants

24. In an unbiased p-n junction holes diffuse from the p region to the n region because
(a) free electrons from the n region attract to them
(b) they move across the junction by potential difference
(c) hole concentration in p region is more compared to the n region
(d) all of the above

25. When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction it__

(a) raises the potential bar (c) lowers the potential barrier
(b) reduces the majority carrier current to 0 (d) none of the above

II. Answer the following questions (2 marks)

1. Explain the concept of hole in the semiconductor?
2. Explain the change in the band with the temperature of the intrinsic semiconductor by drawing
figure.
3. Write briefly on n-type semiconductor.
4. Write briefly on p-type semiconductor.
5. Write 4 points in distinguishing between p type semiconductor and n type semiconductor.
6. Write the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductor.
7. Write short on semiconductor diode.
8. State the methods of connection of p-n junction.
 9. When and why the p-n unction is called a forward bias? And describe the changes at such bias.
10. When is the p-n junction called reverse bias and explain the change in p-n junction from this
type of connection.
11. What is rectification and rectifier? Why p-n junction diode is used as a rectifier?
12. Write short note on Zener diode.
13. Explain the use of Zener diode as a voltage regulator by drawing circuit diagram.
14. Explain construction and working of photodiode.
15. Explain the design, working, uses and benefits of light emitting diode.
16. Describe construction, working and use of the solar cell.
17. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV. Can it detect a
wavelength of 6000nm?
III. Answer the following questions (3 marks)

1.

2.

3.
4.