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1. State Bank of India (SBI) launched and inaugurated India's first start-up focussed
bank branch called as
(1) SBI Startup
(2) SBI InCube
(3) SBI Progressive
(4) SBI Venture

2. For the first time since 1950, a foreign army contingent marched down the Rajpath
during the Republic Day parade on January, 2016. To which country did this
army troop belong ?
(1) China
( 2 ) France
(3) Germany
(4) Denmark

3. Odisha Government announced a new scheme 'Anwesha'. According to this scheme

(1) SC and ST women would be enrolled into various employment schemes of the
State.
(2) SC and ST elderly people would be given pension.
(3) SC and ST children would annually be enrolled into Standard I in leading
private schools in urban areas of the State.
(4) SC and ST youth would annually be enrolled into leading private companies in
urban areas of the State.

4. Consider the following statements regarding Shrikant Bahulkar :

a. He is the recipient of the Bhasha Samman Award of Sahitya Akademi.
b. He is the Honorary Secretary and Scholar at Bhandarkar Oriental Research
Institute.
c. He has made valuable contribution in the area of Dogri literature.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a andc
(4) a, band c

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5. Consider the following statements regarding Serena Williams :
a. She is an American professional tennis player who is ranked No. 01 in women's
singles tennis.
b. She became the world No. 01 for the first time on July 8,2002.
c. She has won four Olympic gold medals.
d. In December 2015, she was named Sportperson of the Year by the Sports
Illustrated magazine.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) a a n d b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a, b, c and d

6. Consider the following statements :

a. Three Urban Development Schemes, viz., AMRUT, Smart Cities Mission and
Housing far All (Urban) have been launched.
b. AMRUT Scheme aims to develop civic infrastructure in 500 cities and towns
having population of one lakh and above.
c. Smart Cities Mission has an aim to build 100 smart cities; each selected city
would get Central assistance o f f 100 crore per year for five years.
Which of the above statements isfare correct ?
(1) Only a
(2) a and b
(3) a and c
(4) All the above

7. Which one of the following statements about BRAHMOS is not correct ?

(1) It is a short range supersonic cruise missile.
(2) It is a joint venture between India and France.
(3) It can be launched from ships, aircraft or land.
(4) It has a maximum range of 290 km.
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8. Recently, which of the following has been declared unconstitutional by the Supreme
Court of India ?
(1) National Judicial Appointments Commission

(2) National Green Tribunal

(3) NIT1 Aayog
(4) Collegium System

9. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) Vidya Devi Bhandari was elected as Nepal's first woman President by the
Parliament.
(2) 54-year-old Bhandari secured 327 votes against 214 votes of her rival
Kul Bahadur Gumng.

(3) She was the President of CPN-UML (Communist Party of Nepal-Unified

Marxist Leninist).

(4) She succeeded incumbent Ram Baran Yadav who was elected as the c o u n t d s
first President in 2008.

10. Consider the following statements :

a. The United Nations reached an agreement on a new 'Sustainable Development
Agenda'.
b. This agenda is for the next 25 years.
c. The draR agreement outlines 17 goals with 169 specific targets.
d. The agreement calls for eradicating poverty and hunger, achieving gender
equality and taking urgent action to combat climate change.
Which of the statements given above isfare false ?

(3) c a n d d

(4) None of the above

- -

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11. Select the minimum number of colours that are sufficient for colouring the areas of
the accompanying image such that there would not be same colour on the two sides
of any curve.

("a

12. A statement is given and a and b are assumptions related to it. Select the option that
is true with respect to the given statements.

The king has decided to levy 3% tax on the amount payable for funding drought
relief programmes.
a. The king does not have sufficient money to fund drought relief programmes.
b. The amount collected by way of surcharge may be adequate to fund these
drought relief programmes.
(1) Only a implies
(2) Both a and b imply
(3) Only b implies
(4) Neither a nor b implies

13. Which letter replaces the question mark ?

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A 7

14. Which alphabet will replace the question mark ?

15. Which number does not belong to the group ?

(a) 83 (b) 73 (c) 46 (d) 38

16. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in
27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The
ratio of their speeds is
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 1: 3
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 :3
- - - - -

17. Which figure will replace the question mark ?

(4) None of these

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18. How many single-coloured triangles are present i n the accompanying diagram ?

19. Select the option in which frame a is embedded.

20. Ani and Kuni decided to meet a t a museum that is towards south of their housing
society. Ani started at 12:OO noon at the speed of 60 kph. Kuni starts her journey
after 15 minutes with the speed of 65 kph. Select the time at which they will meet.
(1) 3:00 pm
(2) 3:10 pm

21. Which one of the following statements about 'Secular State' is not correct ?
(1) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion.
(2) The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
(3) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely
profess, practice and propagate any religion.
(4) All persons shall have the right to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice.

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22. Match the following :
a. Right to Constitutional Remedies I. Article 24

b. Abolition of untouchability 11. Article 21

c. Protection of life and personal liberty 111. Article 17

d. Prohibition of employment of children i n factories N. Article 32

(3) I11 N I I1

(4) N I11 I1 I

23. Which of the following idare included in the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
a. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
b. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks
and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b

24. The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of

(1) Members of Parliament and State Legislature
(2) Elected members of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative
Assemblies
(3) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies
(4) None of the above
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25. What is correct about State Legislative Council ?
a. Its tenure is 6 years.
b. The tenure of its members is 6 years.
1
c. - members are elected by local institutions.
6
1
d. - members are elected by Legislative Assembly.
6
1
e. - members are nominated by the Governor.
12

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) b, d and e
(3) a and b
(4) b only

26. GIs stands for

(1) Geographical Information System
(2) Graphical Information System
(3) Graphic Investigation System
(4) Geographical Investigation System

27. In IPv6, the field in the base header restricts the life time of a datagram.
(1) version
(2) next-header
(3) hop limit
(4) payload length

28. "Puna jani", one of the media lab Asia projects is a/an
(1) Ontology building and management tool
(2) Web portal for empowering the disabled
(3) Assessment tool for mentally retarded children
(4) None of the above

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29. XML stands for
(1) Extensible Markup Language
(2) Extra Markup Language
(3) Extensible Markup Link
(4) Extra Markup Link

30. According to IT Act, 2000, Clause 65, punishment for tampering with computer
source documents under observation is
(1) imprisonment up to 3 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh
rupees, or both.
(2) Imprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 3 lakh
rupees, or both.
(3) imprisonment up to 1 year, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh
rupees, or both.
(4) imprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to one lakh
rupees, or both.

31. What is not included in 'Information' under the RTI Act, 2005 ?
(1) Opinion
(2) Data Material
(3) File Noting
(4) Contracts

32. Consider the following statements :

a. State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 7 years
and shall be eligible for reappointment.
b. State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office till he attains the age of
70 (seventy) years.

(1) Both a and b are correct

(2) Both a and b are wrong
(3) a is correct b is wrong
(4) b is correct a is wrong

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33. A complaint is liable to be received by the Statelcentral Information Commission
from a person
a. who has been refused the information that was requested.
b. who has not submitted an information request to PIO.
c. who thinks that thefees charged are unreasonable.

Which of the statements given above isfare correct ?

(1) b only

(2) a and b only

(3) aandconly

(4) a, band c
-

34. Where the Central or State Information Commission is of the opinion that the P I 0
has given incorrect, incomplete or misleading information knowingly, then it shall
impose a penalty the total amount of which shall not exceed
(1) t 30,000 (thirty thousand)

(2) t 50,000 (fifty thousand)

(3) B 2.50,000 (2 lacs fifty thousand)

(4) f 25,000 (twenty-five thousand)

35. From amongst the following which statement(s) isfare correct about the Right to
Information A d ?
a. This Act does not create any offence on the part of citizens.

b. I t rather created the wilful failure on the part of the Public Information Officer
a punishable offence.

(1) Only a

(2) Only b

(3) Both a and b

(4) Neither a nor b
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36. To whom does the State Hurnan Rights Commission submit an annual report ?
(1) Governor of the State (2) President of India
(3) State Legislature (4) State Government

37. Which of the following is not a political Right ?

(1) Right to vote (2) Right to criticize the Government
(3) Right t o own property (4) Right to file petition

38. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, the person can be pupished for
enforcing social disabilities on the ground of untouchability with regard to
a. access to any shop, public restaurant, hotel or place of entertainment.
b. the practising of any profession or carrying on of any occupation, trade or
business or employment in any job.
c. the use or access to any private conveyance.
d. the use of jewellery and finery.
Which of the statements given above islare correct :
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only a, b and d
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) Only b

39. According to the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act,
1986, a child is a person who has not completed
(1) 16 years of age (2) 18 years of age
(3) 14 years of age (4) 21 years of age

40. Which kind of property of certain persons can be ordered to be forfeited by special
courts under S.C.and S.T.(Protection of Atrocities) Act, 1989 ?
(1) Any movable or immovable property belonging to that person.
(2) Any movable or immovable property or both belonging to the family of that
person.
(3) Any movable or immovable property or both belonging to that person which has
been used for the commission of that offence.
(4) Any movable property belonging to that person which has been used for the
commission of that offence.
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LO7 14

41. The correct IUPAC name for the given structure is

42. Which of the following is the best method for preparation of common detergent
sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate (C) ?

'12~2,
Anhy. AICI,, HCl
,(A) Oleum
-------A
NaOH
(B) -(C)

Oleum NaOH
n

(31 @a (A) - C12H24

Anhy. AlCl,
NaOH
(8) ----r(C,

(4)
Oleum
(A) -
NaOH
(B)
C~,H,6
Anhy. AICI,, HCI
(C)

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43. In the periodic table, to which period and group, does the non-metallic element
which exists in liquid state a t room temperature belong ?

(I) 2nd period - lstgroup

(2) 4th period - 1 7 group
~ ~

(3) 2ndperiod - 1 6 group

~

(4) 5th period - 1 ' 7 ~group

44. The correct order of increasing stability of carbonium ion is

(1) tertiary > secondary > primary

(2) primary > secondary > tertiary

(3) secondary > tertiary > primary

(4) primary > tertiary > secondary

45. Match the columns :

Group I Group II

a. Surfadants I. Alkylaryl sulphonates

b. Dye intermediates 11. Benzene

c. Lacquers III. Cellulose acetate

d. Solvents IV. Ethyl acetate

V. Anthracene

a b c d
(1) I, III v 111, IV I, 11, IV
(2) I 11, v 111 11, IV
(3) I IV 111, rv 11, IV
(4) I, 111 v I11 11, IV
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46. A compound X C7Hs0 is insoluble in water, dil HCI and aqueous NaHC03 but
dissolves in dil NaOH. When X is treated with bromine water, it is converted rapidly
into a compound of formula C7H50Br3. The structure of X is

47. Three flasks A, B and C respectively contain 0.1 M, 0.1 m and 0.1 N aqueous HC1
solutions, prepared a t 40°C. Considering the density of water = 1 &rn3 at 4"C,
which of the following statements idare correct ?

a. Concentration of all three solutions is exactly the same.

b. Concentration of HCL in flask A and flask C is exactly the same.

c. Concentration of HCL in flask B is lesser than concentration of HCL in flasks A

and C.

d. No two flasks have HCl of exactly the same concentration.

(1) a only

(2) Both band c

(3) c only

(4) d only

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48. What is the major product in the following reaction ?

(2) CH, - CH2 - CH - Br

I

(4) CH, - CH, - CH, - CH, - Br

49. The correct IUPAC name for the following compound is

50. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their UV absorption
maxima :
a. Ethylene b. Naphthalene
c. Anthracene d. 1, 3-Butadiene
Choose the correct order.
(1) a < b < c < d (2) a<d<c<b
(3) c < d < a < b (4) d < c < b < a
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51. The most susceptible to oxidation in a protein molecule are the SH groups of which
amino acid ?
(1) Cysteine (2) Valine
(3) Threonine (4) Glycine

62. The most susceptible mineral lost during cooking of food on the basis of presence as
free ions is
(1) Calcium (2) Iron
(3) Potassium (4) None of the above

53. The most common adulterant used in coffee is

(1) Chicory (2) Tamarind
(3) Date seed powder (4) All of the above

64. Parabens, a s a group of microbial preservatives, are ineffective especially against

one of the following microorganisms :
(1) Gram-negative bacteria (2) Gram-positive bacteria
(3) Molds (4) Yeasts

55. Which of the prepackaging treatments is recommended for potatoes, sweet potatoes,
onions and garlic prior to storage or marketing ?
(1) Precooling (2) Curing
(3) Waxing (4) Degreening

66. A food product process condition coined by contamination, mixing and processing
under uncontrolled conditions, and rendering it unfit for consumption is referred as
(1) Fortification (2) Adulteration
(3) Enrichment (4) None of the above

57. An article of food shall be deemed t o be non-adulterated if

(1) any natural constituent is removed therefrom.
(2) any artificial colour is added thereto more than permissible limits.
(3) it contains any prohibited preservative.
(4) two or more articles of food (primary) are mixed together.

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58. Which of the following are not conjugated proteins ?
(1) Glycoproteins (2) Scleroproteins
(3) Phosphoproteins (4) Haemoglobins

59. Among the biological hazards, which of the bacteria in food causes infection and not
intoxication ?
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Clostridiurn botulinum
(3) Staphylococcus aureus (4) Clostridiurn perfnngens

60. Which one of the following acids is used to detect vanaspati adulteration in pure
ghee ?
(1) Concentrated sulphuric acid
(2) Dilute sulphuric acid
(3) Concentrated hydrochloric acid
(4) Dilute hydrochloric acid

61. Fruits and vegetables based soups and sauces are categorized as
(1) low acid foods (2) medium acid foods
(3) acid foods (4) high acid foods

62. The post harvest transportation and storage of banana for distant marketing with
minimum chilling injury is carried out a t what temperatures ?
(1) 1-7°C (2) 8 - 10 "C
(3) 11 - 13 "C (4) 14 - 17 "C

63. The difference in UHT pasteurized milk and extended shelf life treated pasteurized
milk is of
(1) Temperature of heating (2) Holding time
(3) Microbial filtration (4) None of the above

64. Which one of the following is not a physical hurdle used in preservation of foods ?
(1) Electromagnetic energy (2) Modified atmospheric storage
(3) Ultrasonication (4) Smoking

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65. The critical electric field strength in Pulsed Electric Field processing for cell wall
rupture of E. coli should be
(1) 1-2kVlcm (2) 10 14 kV1cm
-

(3) 15 - 20 kV/m (4) . 24 - 28 kV/cm

66. In the risk analysis of food additives, the JECFA secretariat should normally give
first priority to compounds
(1) that have been assigned a temporary AD1 or equivalent.
(2) food additives or groups of additives that have previously beeen evaluated and
for which an AD1 or equivalent has been assigned.
(3) food additives that have not been previously evaluated.
(4) None of the above.

67. India has been a member of the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) since the
year

68. The core function of the National Codex Committee of India is

(1) maximizing the opportunities for development of industry and expansion of
international trade.
(2) co-operation with joint FAOIWHO food standard programme.
(3) to study codex documents.
(4) to co-operate with other 1ocaVregional or foreign organizations dealing with
activities relating to food standardization.

69. What is the function of Shadow Committee of NCC-India ?

(1) To advise the NCCP/NCC on the implications of various food standardization,
food quality and safety issues
(2) To follow the codex agenda of the relevant subsidiary body and provide inputs
to the government to assist in ensuring quality and safety of food to the
consumer
(3) Both (1)and (2)
(4) None of the above

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70. CAC standards notified safe moisture content of quality grape raisins is

71. The genetically modified (GM) food crops available i n the international market are
designed to have the
(1) Resistance to insect damage

(2) Resistance to viral damage

(3) Tolerance to certain herbicides

(4) All of the above

72. Organic fruit ripening is authenticated by the stimulatory action of one of the
following gaseous hormones :

(1) Ethylene (2) Nitrogen

(3) Acetylene (4) None of the above

73. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) though insists that GM foods are safe,
but studies have shown that these are linked with

(1) Increased food allergens

(2) Increased gastrointestinal problems

(3) Both (1)and (2)

(4) None of the above

74. The Ministry of Consumer ARairs made it mandatory to label packaged food from
one of the following cut-off date as

(1) 1 January, 2013

(2) 26 January, 2013

(3) 1February, 2013

(4) 15 February, 2013

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75. The irradiation dose recommended for sprout inhibition in bulbs and tubers is
(1) Less than 1 kGy
(2) 1 - 10kGy
(3) More than 10 kGy
(4) None of the above
-- - - -

76. Which one of the following processes records uniform heating to stabilize texture of
food products ?
(1) Contact freeze drying
(2) Accelerated freeze drying
(3) Radiant freeze drying
(4) All of the above
-

77. Which one is the poorest method of food freezing ?

(1) Freezing in cold air blast
(2) Freezing with liquid air, Nz or COz
(3) Freezing in still air
(4) Freezing by direct immersion of food in a cooling medium

78. Which one of the following functional ingredients improves gastrointestinal health
and also calcium absorption ?
(1) Fmcto-oligosaccharides
(2) Daidzein
(3) Sterols
(4) PUFA

79. Which one of the following foods is not the functional food ?
(1) Dietary fiber
(2) Probiotics
(3) Omega9 polyunsaturated fatty acids
(4) Pills or capsules or sachets of foods as a part of everyday diet

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80. Which one of the following nanotechnology applications justifies the bubbling
potential in food corporate sector ?
(1) Nanoencapsulation
(2) Nanccomposites and food packaging
(3) Nanosensors and nanosieves
(4) All of the above

81. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India shall consist of a chairperson and
expert members up to
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 22
(4) 24

82. Which one of the following Sections of FSSA is empowered to issue prohibition
order ?

83. Which one is not the function of Commissioner of Food Safety of the State ?
(1) To ensure an efficient and uniform implementation of standards of food safety
(2) To sanction prosecution for offences punishable with imprisonment
(3) To prohibit sale of any article of food for one year
(4) To appoint Food Safety Officer

84. Which one of the following ex-officio members is designated as Chairman of Central
Committee for Food Standards ?
(1) The Director General, Health Services, Ministry of Health
(2) The Director General, ICAR, New Delhi
(3) The Director, Central Food Laboratory
(4) None of the above
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85. The penalty for possessing an adulterant which is injurious to health of consumers is
(1) C l L a k h
(2) C 2Lakh
(3) C 5Lakh
(4) 810 Lakh
- - - - - - - - - - -

86. The microbial hazard caused by Listeria monocytogenes is categorized as

(1) Severe hazard
(2) Modcrate hazard
(3) Low hazard
(4) None of the above

87. A step at which control can be applied and is essential to prevent or eliminate a food
safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level is called as
(1) Control measure
(2) Corrective action
(3) Critical Control Point
(4) Critical limit

88. Which one of the following is not a constituent part of the cleaning programme ?
(1) Specifying areas, items of equipments and utensils to be cleaned
(2) Specifying method and frequency of cleaning
(3) Specifying monitoring arrangements
(4) Removing gross debris from equipments

89. Which one is not the food safety HACCP based principle standard operating
procedure developed by National Food Service Management Institute in conjunction
with USDA and FDA ?
(1) Cleaning and sanitizing of food contact surfaces
(2) Controlling of time and temperature during food preparation
(3) Maintenance of personal hygiene
(4) Keeping of record

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90. Which one of the International Organization for Standardization (IS01 driven
systems is adopted by BIS as such ?

(4) None of the above

91. Which clause of IS0 9001 : 2000 covers the requirements of the organization to
actually set up a quality management system, and broadly sets out the activities
associated with this ?

(1) Clause 4.1

(2) Clause 4.2

(3) Clause 5.1

(4) Clause 5.2

92. Which one of the effective record keeping documentation systems compensates with
HACCP ?

(1) Records of hazards and their control methods

(2) Records of monitoring of safety requirements

(3) Records of action taken to correct potential problems

(4) All of the above

93. What does I S 0 22000 bring to the HACCP method ?

(1) Prerequisite programmes and Operational prerequisite programmes

(2) Critical Control Points

(3) Validation

(4) All of the above

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94. Which one of the following processes reduces contaminating bacterial load to human
health safety level ?

(1) Cleaning

(2) Disinfection

(3) Sterilization

(4) Sanitization

95. The prerequisite programmes in the food industry include

(1) Good Manufacturing Practices

(2) Good Hygienic Practices

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

96. The State Consumer Protection Councils established as per the Consumer Protection
Act shall meet as and when necessary but not less than meetings shall be
held every year.

97. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted during the year

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A 27

08. Match the following :

a. Food Additives Sectional Committee I. FAD-15

b. Fish and Fisheries Products Sectional 11. FAD - 18

Committee
c. Food Hygiene, Safety Management and other 111. FAD - 8
Systems Sectional Committee
d. Slaughter House and Meat Industry Sectional IV. FAD - 12
Committee

W. The Central Government has powers under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 to
control

(1) Production of food

(2) Supply of food

(3) Distribution of food

(4) All of the above

100. The Section 3 of ECA, 1955 empowers the Government to

(1) Control production, supply, distribution, trade and commerce of essential
commodities.

(2) Control distribution, trade and commerce of essential food commodities only.

(3) Control production and supply of non-food essential commodities.

(4) None of the above

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Pick out the correct word to fill in the blank :
Q. No. 201. I congratulate you your grand success.
(1) for (2) at
(3) on (4) about
P+I 4~ jm "(3) on" d 4.
AT@ 4 3~ "(3)" *,
T
~ n n ~ ~ ; . 2 0 1" ~~ 3' X' $- ~~ K o f g d l
4.

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