t

.me/
Exam_
Sakha_
Off
ici
al
MASTER THE
CERT
for NEET
PHYSICS
VOL 2 (Based on NCERT Class XII)

Digvijay Singh
Atique Hassan

ARIHANT PRAKASHAN (Series), MEERUT

Arihant Prakashan (Series), Meerut
All Rights Reserved

© PUBLISHER
No part of this publication may be re-produced, stored in a retrieval system or
distributed in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying,
recording, scanning, web or otherwise without the written permission of the publisher.
Arihant has obtained all the information in this book from the sources believed to be
reliable and true. However, Arihant or its editors or authors or illustrators don’t take any
responsibility for the absolute accuracy of any information published and the damages
or loss suffered there upon.

All disputes subject to Meerut (UP) jurisdiction only.

Administrative & Production Offices

Regd. Office
‘Ramchhaya’ 4577/15, Agarwal Road, Darya Ganj, New Delhi -110002
Tele: 011- 47630600, 43518550; Fax: 011- 23280316
Head Office
Kalindi, TP Nagar, Meerut (UP) - 250002
Tele: 0121-2401479, 2512970, 4004199; Fax: 0121-2401648

Sales & Support Offices

Agra, Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Bareilly, Chennai, Delhi, Guwahati,
Hyderabad, Jaipur, Jhansi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Meerut, Nagpur & Pune

ISBN : 978-93-13192-25-1

PUBLISHED BY
ARIHANT PUBLICATIONS (INDIA) LTD.
For further information about the books published by Arihant
log on to www.arihantbooks.com or email to [email protected]
/arihantpub /@arihantpub Arihant Publications /arihantpub
 R E AC E

In the present dynamic scenario of competitions, NCERT Books are gaining

importance day by day. On an average about 30% questions asked in various
competitions are from NCERT. Similarly with the incorporation of Board
weightage in competitions the necessity of dual synchronous preparation i.e., to
study NCERT for School Exams and for Competitive Exams, is increasing day by
day. Arihant’s Master the NCERT Series is framed with the philosophy of such
synchronous preparation in mind.
The book consists of 15 chapters in each of which questions are framed on each &
every line of NCERT text. Some special features of Master the NCERT books which
make these books stand apart from other NCERT based books are
— Each chapter has topically divided objective questions based on NCERT text
to cover all the topics of NCERT text.
— Separate section in each chapter having special format questions for NEET
and Other Medical Entrances.
— Complete coverage of NCERT Exemplar objective questions in each chapter.
— Detailed explanations for selected questions.

The variety in types of questions framed will be helpful in analysis of self-

performance, and exposures to face tough problems of competitions. Previous
Years' Medical & Other Entrances Questions have also been incorporated at
appropriate places so that the students get the exposure of type of questions
asked in various competitions on the same topic.
Huge efforts have been made from our side to make this book error less. Any
suggestions for further improvement and pointing out mistakes and misprints in
the book are welcome.

Publisher
CO TENTS
1 Electric Charge and Fields 1-25
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 1-2
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 2-9
Special Format Questions 9-12
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 13-15
Hints and Explanations 16-25

2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 26-55

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 26-27
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 28-36
Special Format Questions 36-40
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 41-42
Hints and Explanations 43-55

3 Current Electricity 56-86

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 56-58
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 58-65
Special Format Questions 66-70
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 70-72
Hints and Explanations 73-86

4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 87-113

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 87-88
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 89-97
Special Format Questions 97-101
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 101-103
Hints and Explanations 103-113

5 Magnetism and Matter 114-143

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 114-115
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 116-125
Special Format Questions 125-129
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 130-131
Hints and Explanations 132-143
6 Electromagnetic Induction 144-180
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 144-145
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 145-157
Special Format Questions 157-163
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 164-165
Hints and Explanations 166-180

7 Alternating Current 181-206

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 181-182
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 182-192
Special Format Questions 192-195
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 196-197
Hints and Explanations 198-206

8 Electromagnetic Waves 207-225

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 207-208
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 208-213
Special Format Questions 213-216
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 217-218
Hints and Explanations 219-225

9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 226-276

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 226-227
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 227-239
Special Format Questions 239-245
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 245-249
Hints and Explanations 250-276

10 Wave Optics 277-316

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 277-278
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 279-288
Special Format Questions 289-294
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 294-296
Hints and Explanations 297-316
11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 317-352
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 317-318
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 318-331
Special Format Questions 331-335
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 335-336
Hints and Explanations 337-352

12 Atoms 353-378
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 353-354
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 354-364
Special Format Questions 364-367
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 368-369
Hints and Explanations 370-378

13 Nuclei 379-400
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 379-380
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 381-387
Special Format Questions 387-391
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 391-392
Hints and Explanations 393-400

14 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices

and Simple Circuits 401-439
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 401-403
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 403-418
Special Format Questions 418-422
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 423-425
Hints and Explanations 426-439

15 Communication System 440-458

A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter 440-441
Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text 441-448
Special Format Questions 449-452
NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions 452-453
Hints and Explanations 454-458

NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018 1-16

 C H A P T E R

1
Electric Charge
and Fields
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Electric charge is quantised. SI unit of charge is i.e., the ratio of permittivity of the medium to the
coulomb (C). The minimum unit of charge, which permittivity of free space is called relative permittivity.
may reside independently is the electronic charge e 4. Superposition principle Resultant force on a point
having a value 1.60 × 10–19 C. Charge on any other charge due to a number of point charges
body is given by q = ± ne, where n is any integer. It F0 = F01 + F02 + F03 + K + F0n
is additive in nature. Charge is conserved, invariant
5. Electric field is the region surrounding an electric
and radiates energy.
charge or a group of charges, in which another charge
2. Coulomb’s law states that if q1 and q 2 are two experiences a force. Its unit isN/C . It is a vector quantity.
stationary point charges in free space separated by
6. Electric field vector E (also known as electric field
a distance r, then force of attraction/repulsion
intensity) at any point is given by
between them is given by
F
qq 1 qq E = lim
F = k 12 2 = ⋅ 12 2 q0 → 0 q
r 4 πε 0 r 0

1 q1q 2 where, q 0 is a small positive test charge which

In vector form, F = ⋅ r experiences a force, F at given point. Electric field at a
4 πε 0 r 3
distance r from a point charge q is given by
where, r = r r$ (vector form) 1 q
E = ⋅
ε 0 = Permittivity of free space and k =
1
= 9 × 109 4 πε 0 r 2
4 πε 0 7. Electric field lines are a way of pictrorially mapping
The value of ε 0 in SI units is 8.854 × 10−12 C 2 N–1m –2 . the electric field around a configuration of charge(s).
These lines start on positive charge and end on
3. The force between two charges q1 and q 2 located at negative charge. The tangent on these lines at any
a distance (r) in a medium is expressed as point gives direction of field at that point.
1 q1q 2
Fmedium = ⋅ 8. Electric flux is a measure of flow of electric field
4 πε r 2
through a surface. Mathematically, electric flux is the
(where, ε = absolute permittivity of the medium) product of an area element d S and normal component
Fvacuum 1 q1q 2 1 q1q 2 ε of E integrated over a surface,
= ⋅ = = εr = K
Fmedium 4 πε 0 r 2 4 πε r 2 ε0 i.e., φE = ∫ E dS cos θ = ∫ E ⋅ d S = ∫ E ⋅ n$ dS
(where, εr = relative permittivity of the medium)
where n$ is the unit vector normal to area element dS.
2 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Electric flux is a scalar having SI unit Nm 2C –1 or Vm. 14. Gauss’ law states that the surface integral of the
Its dimensional formula is [ML3 T –3 A –1 ]. electric field intensity over any closed surface (called
1
9. The arrangement of two equal and opposite point Gaussian surface) in free space is equal to times
charges at a fixed distance is called an electric ε0
dipole. the net charge enclosed within the surface.
1 n q
10. The product of the magnitude of either charge (q) and φE = ∫ E ⋅ d S = Σ qi =
the distance between the charges (2a) is called ε0 i = 1 ε0
electric dipole moment. i =n
where, q = Σ qi is the algebraic sum of all the
p =q ×2a i =1

It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is C-m. charges inside the closed surface.
11. Electric field at a point distant r from centre of dipole 15. Electric field due to an infinitely long straight
along its axial line is given by uniformly charged wire,
E=
1
⋅ 2
2pr λ
E =
4 πε 0 (r − a 2 ) 2 2 πε 0r
(direction of E is same as of p) 16. Electric field due to a thin infinite plane sheet of
12. Electric field at a point distant r from centre of dipole charge,
along its equatorial line is given by σ
E =
E=
1
⋅
p 2 ε0
4 πε 0 (r 2 + a 2 ) 3 / 2 17. Electric field due to a uniformly charged thin
(direction of E is opposite to that of p) spherical shell
13. When a dipole is placed at an angle θ from the (i) Outside the shell,
direction of a uniform electric field E, it experiences a 1 q
E = ⋅
torque given by 4 πε 0 r 2
τ = pE sin θ or τ=p×E (ii) Inside the shell, E = 0

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Electric Charge
1. While taking off synthetic clothes, seeing a spark or 3. In general, metallic ropes are suspended from the
hearing a crackle, are due to carriers to the ground which take inflammable material.
(a) motion of ions through air The reason is
(b) production of shock waves due to motion of electrons (a) their speed is controlled
(c) electric discharge (b) to keep the gravity of the carrier nearer to the earth
(d) cannot be explained (c) to keep the body of the carrier in contact with the earth
(d) nothing should be placed under the carrier
2. Out of gravitational, electromagnetic, van der Waals’,
electrostatic and nuclear forces, which two are able to 4. If a plastic rod rubbed with fur is made to touch two
provide an attractive force between two neutrons? small pith balls suspended nearby, then which figure
(a) Electrostatic and gravitational shows their final configuration?
(b) Electrostatic and nuclear
(c) Gravitational and nuclear (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Some other forces like van der Waals’
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 3

5. For the figure shown, the instrument 12. Two bodies are rubbed and one of them is negatively
Ball (metal knob) charged. For this body, if mi = initial mass, m f =
Rubber mass after charging, then
Metal rod (a) mi = m f (b) mi < m f
Glass bottle (c) mi > m f (d) mi + m f = 2m f
Gold leaves
13. When we touch a pith ball with an electrified plastic
rod, some of the negative charges on the rod are
transferred to the pith ball and it also gets charged.
(a) is used to measure quantity of a fluid Thus, pith ball is charged by
(b) is used to measure wind velocity is called windmeter (a) induction (b) contact
(c) is used to measure viscosity of a fluid (c) repulsion (d) None of these
(d) is used to detect presence of charge on a body, is called
electroscope 14. In charging by induction,
(a) body to be charged must be an insulator
6. When a body is connected to earth, electrons from the (b) body to be charged must be a semiconductor
earth flow into the body. This means the body is …… . (c) body to be charged must be a conductor
(a) unchanged (b) charged positively (d) any type of body can be charged by induction
(c) charged negatively (d) as insulator
15. Charge on a body is q1 and it is used to charge another
7. One metallic sphere A is given positive charge
body by induction. Charge on second body is found to
whereas another identical metallic sphere B of exactly
be q 2 after charging. Then,
same mass as of A is given equal amount of negative
q1 q1 q1 q1
charge. Then, (a) =1 (b) <1 (c) ≤1 (d) ≥1
q2 q2 q2 q2
(a) mass of A and mass of B still remain equal
(b) mass of A increases 16. A body A is being charged by another charged body B
(c) mass of B decreases by induction process. Then, charge acquired by A
(d) mass of B increases depends on
8. A glass rod rubbed with silk is used to charge a gold (a) nature of material of A
leaf electroscope and the leaves are observed to (b) distance between A and B
diverge. The electroscope thus charged is exposed to (c) nature of medium separating A and B
X-rays for a short period. Then, (d) All of the above
(a) the divergence of leaves will not be affected 17. Additive nature of charge means
(b) the leaves will diverge further (a) total charge on a system remains constant
(c) the leaves will collapse (b) total charge on an isolated system is always zero
(d) the leaves will melt (c) charges are of two types positive and negative
9. Electric wiring in our houses has (d) it tells about the scalar nature of charge
(a) only one wire : live 18. Conservation of charge follows from law of
(b) two wires : neutral, earth conservation of mass. Above statement is
(c) three wires, live, neutral, earth (a) correct
(d) no wire (b) incorrect
(c) nothing can be said
10. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its
(d) mass and charge are two different physical quantities
radius following conservation law
(a) decreases
(b) increases 19. Charge of a body is always an integral multiple of
(c) remains unchanged (a) charge present in its one atom
(d) nothing can be predicted as information is insufficient (b) charge present in one mole of material of body
(c) charge present on an electron
11. If two bodies are rubbed and one of them acquires (d) charge of its one nucleus
q1 charge and another acquires q 2 charge, then ratio
q1 : q 2 is 20. The minimum charge on an object is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (a) 1 C (b) 1 stat C
(c) − 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (c) 1.6 × 10−19 C (d) 3.2 × 10−19 C
4 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

21. When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, charge 23. The number of electrons that must be removed from
appears on both. This observation is consistent with an electrically neutral silver dollar to give it a charge
law of conservation of charge as of + 2.4 C is
(a) charge on both causes attraction (a) 2.5 × 1019 (b) 1.5 × 1019
(b) charge on both causes repulsion (c) 1.5 × 10−19 (d) 2.5 × 10−19
(c) charges appearing on both bodies are equal and opposite
(d) charge on first body is more than that of second body 24. An object of mass 1 kg contains 4 × 10 20 atoms. If
22. If a body gives out 10 9 electrons per second, how one electron is removed from every atom of the solid,
much time is required to get a total charge of 1 C the charge gained by the solid of 1 g is
from it? (a) 2.8 C (b) 6.4 × 10−2 C
(a) Around 198 min (b) Around 198 h (c) 3.6 × 10−3 C (d) 9.2 × 10−4 C
(c) Around 198 days (d) Around 198 yr

Topic 2
Force between Two Charges : Coulomb’s Law
25. Magnitude of force between two point charges q1 and 29. Fg and Fe represents gravitational and electrostatic
q 2 which are separated by a distance r is given by force respectively between electron and proton at a
k |q1 q2 | k |q1 q2 | r distance of 10 cm. The ratio of Fg / Fe is of the order
(a) F = (b) F = of
r r2
2 (a) 1042 (b) 10−39 (c) 1 (d) 10−43
 |q q  k |q1 ⋅ q2 |
(c) F = k  1 2  (d) F = 30. For charges q1 and q 2 , if force between them for
 r  r2
some separation in air is F , then force between them
26. Suppose charge on a metallic sphere is q. If the sphere in a medium of permittivity ε will be
is put in contact with an identical uncharged sphere, ε0 ε
(a) F (b) F
the charge will spread over the two spheres. By ε ε0
symmetry charge on each sphere will be …… F
(c) εε 0 F (d)
When distance between two charged spheres is varied ε0 ε
so that it becomes half the initial distance, force
between them will become …… 31. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a
q q common point by two massless strings of lengths l,
(a) , half (b) , four times are initially at a distance d (d < < 1) apart because of
2 2
(c) 2q, half (d) 2q, double
their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak
from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result,
27. Force between two charges q1 and q 2 separated by a the spheres approach each other with a velocity v.
distance r is proportional to q1 q 2 / r 2 . Proportionality Then, v varies as a function of the distance x between
constant is the sphere, as [NEET 2016]
ε0 1 (a) v ∝ x (b) v ∝ x−1 / 2 (c) v ∝ x−1 (d) v ∝ x2
(a) (b) 4 π ε 0 (c) (d) 1
4π 4 π ε0 32. Suppose the spheres A and B with charge 6.5 × 10 −7 C
and distance between centres is 50 cm have identical
28. In the following configuration of charges,
sizes. A third sphere of the same size but uncharged is
force on charge q 2 by q1 is given by brought in contact with the first, then brought in
1 q1 q2 1 q1 q2 contact with the second and finally removed from
(a) F21 = ⋅ r$21 (b) F21 = ( − r$21 )
4 πε 0 r2 4 πε 0 r2 both. What is the new force of repulsion between A
1 q1 q2 1 q1 q2 and B?
(c) F21 = ⋅ r$21 (d) F21 = ⋅ ( − r$21 )
4 πε 0 r3 4 πε 0 r3 (a) 5.7 × 10−3 N (b) 1.5 × 10−2 N
(here, r = r21 = | r2 − r1 ) (c) 0.24 N (d) 0.24 × 10−2 N
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 5

33. The ratio of the forces between two small spheres 38. Two electrically charged particles, having
with constant charge (a) in air (b) in a medium of charges of different magnitudes, when placed at a
dielectric constant K is distance d from each other, experience a force of
(a) 1: K (b) K : 1 (c) 1 : K 2 (d) K 2 : 1 attraction F .
These two particles are put in contact and again
34. Two point charges placed at a certain distance r in air
placed at the same distance from each other.
exert a force F on each other. Then, the distance r ′ at
which these charges will exert the same force in a What is the nature of new force between them?
medium of dielectric constant K is given by (a) Attractive
(a) r (b) r / K (c) r / K (d) r K (b) Repulsive
(c) Attractive or repulsive depending upon magnitude of
35. Two charges, each equal to q,are kept at charges present on them
x = −a and x = a on the X-axis.A particle of mass m (d) Cannot predicted
q
and charge q 0 = − is placed at the origin. If charge 39. Three charges q1 , q 2 and q 3 each of 1 C are at the
2 vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l. Force on a
q 0 is given a ,small displacement ( y << a ) along the charge q = 2µC placed at the centroid of the triangle is
Y -axis, the net force acting on the particle is (a) 3 N (b) 3 µN
proportional to [JEE Main 2013]
(c) zero (d) 3 × 10−2 N
(a) y (b) − y
1 1 40. If charges q, q and −q are placed at vertices of an
(c) (d) −
y y
equilateral triangle of side l. If F1 , F2 and F3 are the
36. Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are forces on the charges respectively, then
suspended by insulating threads of length L from a kq 2
(a) | F1 + F2 + F3 | = 3
hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there l2
is no gravitational effect, then the angle between the (b) | F1 + F2 + F3| = 0
two suspensions and the tension in each will be kq 2
(c) | F1 + F2 + F3 | = 3 2
1 Q2 1 Q2 l2
(a) 180° , (b) 90° ,
4 πε 0 ( 2L )2 4 πε 0 L2 kq 2
(d) | F1 + F2 + F3 | = 2
1 Q2 1 Q2 l2
(c) 180° , (d) 180° ,
4 πε 0 2L2 4 πε 0 L2 41. Four charges q A = 2µC, q B = − 5µC, qC = 2µC and
q D = − 5µC are placed at corners of a square ABCD
37. Force between two charges varies with distance of side 10 cm. What is the force on a charge of 1µC
between them as placed at centre of the square?
F F (a) 10 × 10−7 N (b) 10 × 10−5 N
(c) 10 × 10−3 N (d) Zero
(a) (b)
42. Four charges equal to − Q are placed at the four
r r corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If
F F the system is in equilibrium, the value of q is
Q Q
(c) (d) (a) − (1 + 2 2 ) (b) (1 + 2 2 )
4 4
Q Q
r r (c) − (1 + 2 2 ) (d) (1 + 2 2 )
2 2
Topic 3
Electric Field
43. A force of 2.25 N acts on a chrage of 15 × 10 −4 C. The 48. Three identical point positive charges, as shown are
intensity of electric field at that point is placed at the vertices of an isosceles right angled
(a) 150 NC −1 (b) 15 NC −1 triangle. Which of the numbered vectors coincides in
(c) 1500 NC −1 (d) 1.5 NC −1 direction with the electric field at the mid-point M of
the hypotenuse?
44. Two point charges q1 and q 2 of + 10 −8 C and −10 −8
C, 3
respectively are placed 0.1 m apart. 2
C
4
M
1
0.1 m 0.1 m

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

A
49. Charges q, 2q, 3q and 4q are placed 4q 3q
q1 0.05 m 0.05 m q
2
D C
at the corners A, B , C and D of a
Then, ratio of magnitudes of electric fields at A and C is square as shown in the alongside
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 : 8 figure. The direction of electric O
field at the centre of the square is A B
45. In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and q
along 2q
radius R, the electric field E is plotted as function of (a) AB (b) CB
distance from the centre. The graph which would (c) BD (d) AC
correspond to the above will be [AIEEE 2012]
E E 50. Electric field of a system of charges does not depend on
(a) position of charges forming the system
(a) (b) (b) distance of point (at which field is being observed)
from the charges forming system
(c) value of test charge used to find out the field
R r R r (d) separation of charges forming the system
E E
51. A field line is a space curve, means
(a) field lines are hypothetical curves
(c) (d) (b) field lines are two-dimensional curves
(c) field lines are three-dimensional curves
R r R r (d) field lines are straight lines

46. An electron of mass me initially at rest moves through 52. Two field lines can never cross each other because
a certain distance in a uniform electric field in time t1 . (a) field lines are closed curves
A proton of mass m p also initially at rest takes time t 2 (b) field lines repels each other
to move through an equal distance in this uniform (c) field lines crowded only near the charge
electric field. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the (d) field has a unique direction at each point
ratio of t 2 / t1 is nearly equal to 53. In the diagram shown below,
(a) 1836 (b) ( me / mp ) 1 / 2
P
(c) ( mp / me )1 / 2 (d) 1

47. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially Q

outward and is given by E = Ar. A charge contained
in a sphere of radius a centred at the origin of the field (a) field strength at P is less than field strength at Q
will be given by [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (b) field strength at P and Q are equal
(a) 4 πε 0 Aa 2 (b) Aε 0 a 2 (c) field is more strong at P and less strong at Q
(c) 4 πε0 Aa3 (d) ε0 Aa3 (d) cannot be tell from the figure
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 7

54. A charged particle is free to move in an electric field. At all points in the overlapping region
It will travel [JEE Advanced 2013]
(a) always along a line of force
(b) along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero ρ −ρ
(c) along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in
the direction of an acute angle with the line of force R2
R1
(d) None of the above
55. Two non-conducting solid spheres of radii R1 and R 2 (a) the electrostatic field is zero
and carrying uniform volume charge densities (b) the electrostatic potential is constant
+ρ and − ρ respectively, are placed such that they (c) the electrostatic field is constant in magnitude
partially overlap, as shown in the figure. (d) the electrostatic field has same direction

Topic 4
Electric Flux and Electric Dipole
56. If an area is tilted to direction of field such that normal to 62.
plane of area makes θ angle with the direction of field, Q
then number of field lines passing through the area is
(a) equal to E∆S (b) proportional to E∆S cosθ A O B
(c) equal to E∆S cosθ (d) proportional to E∆S cos θ / r2 –10 µC +10 µC P
57. An area vector is a vector of magnitude equal to the
area and it is directed – +
(a) parallel to area A O B
(b) at an angle of 45° with the plane of area –10 µC +10 µC
(c) at an angle of 90° with the area
In given figures, OP = OQ =15 cm,OA = OB = 2.5 mm
(d) at an angle of 45° with the normal to the area
58. Electric flux φ through an element area ∆S when area Magnitudes of electric field at P and Q are respectively
is placed in region of uniform field E is (a) 2. 6 × 105 NC −1 , 2. 6 × 105 NC −1
(a) E × ∆S (b) E ⋅ ∆S (c) ∆ S × E (d) E ( ∆S ) ⋅ sin θ (b) 1. 3 × 105 NC −1 , 1. 3 × 105 NC −1
59. For the dipole shown, (c) 2 . 6 × 105 NC −1 , 1. 3 × 105 NC −1

q
←^p→ (d) 1. 3 × 105 NC −1 , 2.6 NC −1
q

2a
63. What is the angle between the electric dipole moment
and the electric field strength due to it on the
Dipole moment is given by equatorial line?
1
(a) p = q × 2a$p (b) p = q × 2a$p (a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) None of these
2
64. The ratio of electric fields on the axis and at equator
(c) p = − q × 2a$p (d) p = 4 q × 2a$p
of an electric dipole will be
60. Electric field of a dipole at a distance r is proportional to (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) None of these
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 65. Two electric dipoles of moment p and 64 p are placed
r r2 r3 r4
in opposite direction on a line at a distance of 25 cm.
61. If the centre of mass of positive charge does not The electric field will be zero at point between the
coincide with that of the molecule, then
dipoles whose distance from the dipole of moment p is
(a) molecule is called polar and it have an intrinsic dipole
25 4
moment (a) 5 cm (b) cm (c) 10 cm (d) cm
(b) molecule is called polar but it does not have any dipole 9 13
moment 66. Electric charges q, q,−2q are placed at the corners of
(c) molecule is called non-polar and it has a dipole moment an equilateral ∆ ABC of side l. The magnitude of
of its own
electric dipole moment of the system is
(d) molecule is called non-polar and it has a zero dipole
moment (a) ql (b) 2ql (c) 3 ql (d) 4ql
8 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

67. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric 71. Two small identical electrical Y
A +q
field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such dipoles AB and CD, each of D
that the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with the dipole moment p are kept at an –q 120°
angle of 120° as shown in the X′ X
direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy
of the dipole to be zero when θ = 90° , the torque and the figure. If this system is +q C
potential energy of the dipole will respectively be subjected to electric field ( E) –q B
directed along direction which Y′
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) pE sin θ , − pE cosθ (b) pE sin θ , − 2 pE cosθ makes θ° with XY plane. Then, the magnitude and
(c) pE sin θ , 2 pE cosθ (d) pE cos θ , − pE sin θ direction of the torque acting on this is
(a) pEsin θ, along Z-axis
68. When a dipole is placed in an uniform external field, (b) 2 pEsin θ, along Z-axis
then
3
(a) net force on dipole is zero but torque is non-zero (c) pEsin θ, along Z-axis
(b) torque is zero but net force is non-zero 2
1
(c) torque and net force both are non-zero (d) pEsin θ, along Z-axis
(d) both torque and net force are zero 2

69. If field is non-uniform and a dipole is placed in it. Then, 72. An electric dipole is situated in an electric field of
(a) dipole keeps on rotating uniform intensity E whose dipole moment is p and
(b) dipole shows rotation and translation both as there is moment of inertia is I. If the dipole is displaced
net force on dipole slightly from the equilibrium position, then the
(c) dipole shows only translation angular frequency of its oscillations is
1/ 2 3/ 2
(d) dipole does not show any rotation or translation  pE   pE 
(a)   (b)  
70. When an electric dipole p is placed in a uniform  I   I 
1/ 2 1/ 2
electric field E, then at what angle between p and E  I   p
(c)   (d)  
the value of torque will be maximum?  pE   IE 
(a) 90° (b) 0° (c) 180° (d) 45°

Topic 5
Gauss’ Law
73. Gauss’ law is true only if force due to charges varies as (a) 9.27 × 10−12 C (b) 9.27 × 1012 C
(a) r −1 (b) r − 2 (c) 6.97 × 10−12 C (d) 6.97 × 1012 C
(c) r − 3 (d) r −4
76. It is not convenient to use a spherical Gaussian
74. Consider the charge configuration q2 surface to find the electric field due to an electric
and spherical Gaussian surface as dipole using Gauss’ theorem because
shown in the figure. When +q1
(a) Gauss’ law fails in this case
calculating the flux of the electric – q1 (b) this problem does not have spherical symmetry
field over the spherical surface, the (c) Coulomb’s law is more fundamental than Gauss’ law
electric field will be due to (d) spherical Gaussian surface will after the dipole moment
(a) q2 (b) only the positive charges
(c) all the charges (d) + q1 and − q1 77. Total electric flux coming out of a unit positive
charge put in air is
75. The electric field y
(a) ε 0 (b) ε −0 1 (c) ( 4 pε 0 )−1 (d) 4 πε 0
components in the given
figure are E x = αx 1/ 2 , ^nL
a
^
nR 78. An electric charge + q is placed at the centre of a cube
E y = E z = 0 in which a x of side a. The electric flux on one of its faces will be
α = 800 NC −1 m −1/ 2 . The a
a
(a)
q
(b)
q
z 6ε 0
charge within the cube is ε0 q 2
if net flux through the cube is 1.05 Nm 2C –1 q q
(c) (d)
(assume a = 0.1 m) 4 πε 0 a 2 ε0
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 9

79. For a given surface, the ∫ E ⋅ dS = 0. From this, we can (a) 2π

l
(b) 2π
l
g qE
conclude that g+
(a) E is necessarily zero on the surface m
(b) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point l l
(c) 2π (d) 2π
(c) the total flux through the surface is zero qE 2
g−  qE 
(d) the flux is only going out of the surface g2 +  
m  m
80. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of
the cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric field 85. Charge q 2 of mass m revolves around a stationary
through the surface of the vessel is charge q1 in a circular orbit of radius r. The orbital
q q 2q periodic time of q 2 would be
(a) zero (b) (c) (d)
ε0 2ε 0 ε0  4 π 3 mr2 
1/ 2
 kq q 
1/ 2
(a)   (b)  21 2 2 
81. A cube of side l is placed in a uniform field E, where  kq1 q2   4π mr 
E = E $i . The net electric flux through the cube is  4 π 2 mr4 
1/ 2
 4 π 2 mr3 
1/ 2

(c)   (d)  
(a) zero (b) l 2 E (c) 4 l 2 E (d) 6l 2 E  kq1 q2   kq1 q2 
82. Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e each are
86. A cubical region of side a has its centre at the origin.
placed inside a cube. The total electric flux coming
It encloses three fixed point charges, −q at (0, −a /4,
out of the cube will be
8e 16e e
0), + 3q at (0, 0, 0) and −q at (0, + a /4, 0). Choose
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero the correct option(s). [IIT JEE 2012]
ε0 ε0 ε0 Z
83. Two infinite plane parallel sheets separated by a a
distance d have equal and opposite uniform charge −q
densities σ. Electric field at a point between the sheets −q Y
is 3q
(a) zero
σ X
(b)
ε0 (a) The net electric flux crossing the plane x = + a / 2 is
σ equal to the net electric flux crossing the plane
(c) x = −a / 2
2ε 0
(b) The net electric flux crossing the plane y = + a / 2 is
(d) depends upon the location of the point more than the net electric flux crossing the plane
84. A simple pendulum has a length l and the mass of the y = −a / 2
q
bob is m. The bob is given a charge q coulomb. The (c) The net electric flux crossing the entire region is
pendulum is suspended between the vertical plates of ε0
a charged parallel plate capacitor. If E is the electric (d) The net electric flux crossing the plane z = + a / 2 is
field strength between the plates, the time period of equal to the net electric flux crossing the plane
the pendulum is given by x = +a / 2

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 87. Assertion If a point charge be revolved in a circle
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 87-92) In the following around another charge as the centre of circle, then
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a work done by electric field will be zero.
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following Reason Work done is equal to dot product of force
statements, choose the correct one. and displacement.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is 88. Assertion A positive point charge initially at rest in a
the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
uniform electric field starts moving along electric lines
not the correct explanation of Assertion. of force. (Neglect all other forces except electric forces).
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason A point charge released from rest in an
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. electric field always moves along the line of force.
10 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

89. Assertion When a neutral body acquires positive 96. Statement I A piece of matter having polar
charge, its mass decreases. molecules does not have any net dipole moment in
Reason A body acquires positive charge when it loses ordinary condition.
electrons. Statement II When there is no external field, the
90. Assertion E outside vicinity of a conductor depends polar molecules are randomly oriented due to their
only on the local charge density σ and it is independent thermal energies.
of the other charges present anywhere on the 97. Statement I Polarisation is not possible under action
conductor. of an external field if molecules of matter are
Reason E in outside vicinity of a conductor is given by non-polar.
σ Statement II In presence of an external field , the
.
ε0 polar molecules tend to align with the field and a net
dipole moment results.
91. Assertion Upon displacement of charges within a
closed surface, E at any point on the surface does not
change. Statement Based Questions Type II
Reason The flux crossing through a closed surface is 98. I. When we rub a glass rod with silk, some of electrons
independent of the location of charge within the surface. from the rod are transferred to the silk cloth.
II. Rod gets positively charged and silk gets negatively
92. Assertion If Gaussian surface does not enclose any charged.
charge, then E at any point on the Gaussian surface
III. Only less tightly bound electrons in rod are
must be zero.
transferred to silk by rubbing.
Reason No net charge is enclosed by Gaussian surface,
so net flux passing through the surface is zero. Correct statements are
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
II. Statement Based Questions Type I
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 93-97)
99. I. If a system contains two point charges q1 and q 2 , the
In the following
total charge of the system is obtained simply by
questions, statement I is followed by a corresponding
adding algebraically q1 and q 2 , e.g., (− 2units
statement II. Of the following statements, choose the
charge) + (6 units charge) = 4 units charge.
correct one.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and
II. (− 2units charge) + (6 units charge) = 8 units charge.
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. III. Charge has magnitude but no direction, similar to
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but mass.
Statement II is not the correct explanation of IV. Mass of a body is always positive whereas a charge
Statement I. can be either positive or negative.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Incorrect statement is
(a) only I (b) only III (c) only IV (d) only II
93. Statement I When we produce charge q1 on a body by
100. I. Charge is conserved.
rubbing it against another body which gets a charge q 2
in the process, then q1 + q 2 = 0. II. When bodies are charged by rubbing, there is a
transfer of electrons from one body to other, no new
Statement II Charge on an isolated system remains
charges are created nor destroyed.
constant.
III. Within an isolated system consisting of many charged
94. Statement I SI unit of charge is coulomb, denoted by bodies, due to interaction among the bodies charges
C. One coulomb is the charge flowing through a wire in may get redistributed but it is found that the total
1s, if the current is 1 A. charge of the isolated system is always conserved.
Statement II −1 C has 6 × 1010 electrons. IV. When a neutron turns into a proton and an electron.
The proton and electron thus created have equal and
95. Statement I At macroscopic level, quantisation of opposite charges and the total charge is zero before
charge has no practical consequence and can be and after the creation.
ignored.
Correct statements are
Statement II −1µC charge contains 1013 times (a) I and IV (b) I and II
electronic charge e approximately. (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 11

101. I. The charge q on a body is always given by q = ne, 105. Match the field lines given in Column I with the
where n is any integer, positive or negative. charge configuration due to which field lines exist in
II. By convention, the charge on an electron is taken to be Column II.
negative.
Column I Column II
III. The fact that electric charge is always an integral
multiple of eis termed as quantisation of charge.
IV. The quantisation of charge was experimentally A. O 1.
A pair of equal and
demonstrated by Newton in 1912. opposite charges
Which of the statements is incorrect?
(a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) Only IV (d) Only III
A pair of positive
102. I. Magnitude of electric field at a point decreases B. O 2.
charges
inversely as square of distance of that point from the
charge.
II. E is strong near the charge.
III. Away from the charge field gets weaker and density of
field lines is less, resulting in well separated lines. C. OO 3. A single positive charge

IV. Only a finite number of lines can be drawn from charge.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Only I (b) Only III (c) Only IV (d) Only II
D. O O 4. A single negative charge
III. Matching Type
103. Match the first part of a sentence given in Column I A B C D A B C D
with its second part in Column II, so that sentence is (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
complete meaningful and electrostatically true. (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 4 2 1

Column I Column II
IV. Passage Based Questions
A. Like charges 1. Of two types
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 106-108) These questions are
B. Unlike charges 2. Repel each other
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
C. Charge can be 3. Attract each other
options from those given below.
D. Charges are 4. Neutralised, if they are equal and opposite The nuclear charge (Ze) is ρ(r)
A B C D non-uniformly distributed
within a nucleus of radius R. d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4 The charge density ρ(r )
(c) 4 1 3 2 [charge per unit volume is
(d) 2 3 4 1 dependent only on the radial
distance r from the centre of r
a R
104. Electric field due to
the nucleus as shown in
Column I Column II figure. The electric field is only along the radial
A. Infinite plane sheet of charge 1. 0 direction.
B. Infinite plane sheet of 2. σ 106. The electric field at r = R is
uniform thickness 2 ε0 (a) independent of a
C. Non-conducting charged 3. Rρ (b) directly proportional to a
solid sphere at its surface 3 ε0 (c) directly proportional to a 2
(d) inversely proportional to a
D. Conducting charged solid 4. σ
sphere at its centre ε0 107. For a = 0, the value d (maximum value of ρ as shown
in the figure) is
A B C D A B C D
3Ze2 3Ze 4 Ze Ze
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 2 1 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 4 πR 3
πR 3
3πR 3
3πR 3
12 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

108. The electric field within the nucleus is generally V. More than One Option Correct
observed to be linearly dependent on r. This implies
R
114. Which of these are properties of charge?
(a) a = 0 (b) a = (a) Charges are additive in nature
2
2R (b) Charges are conservative in nature
(c) a = R (d) a = (c) Charges are quantised in nature
3
(d) Charges can be transformed from one type to another
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 109-110) These questions are
115. Dipoles are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
(a) natural
options from those given below.
(b) induced
A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2 . 4 m (c) hypothetical
diameter has a surface charge density of 80.0 µCm −2 . (d) exist only in presence of a strong field.
109. What is the charge on the sphere?
(a) 0.7 × 10−1 C (b) 1.4 × 10−2 C 116. 10 C of charge is given to a conducting spherical shell
−3
(c) 1.4 × 10 C (d) 1.7 × 10 C
4 and a − 3 C point charge is placed inside the shell. For
this arrangement, mark out the correct statement(s).
110. What is the total electric flux leaving the surface of (a) The charge on the inner surface of the shell will be + 3C
the sphere? and it can be distributed uniformly or non-uniformly
(a) 0.8 × 104 Nm2 / C (b) The charge on the inner surface of the shell will be + 3C
(b) 1.6 × 10 Nm / C
4 2 and its distribution would be uniform
(c) The net charge on outer surface of the shell will be + 7C
(c) 0.8 × 108 Nm2 / C and its distribution can be uniform or non-uniform
(d) 1.6 × 108 Nm2 / C (d) The net charge on outer surface of the shell will be + 7C
and its distribution would be uniform
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 111-113) These questions are
117. Consider Gauss’s law,
based on the following situation. Choose the correct q2
q
options from those given below. ∫ E ⋅ dS = ε 0
Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to
Then for the situation shown above q1
each other. On their inner faces, the plates have
surface charge densities of opposite signs and of at the Gaussian surface,
magnitude 17.0 × 10 −22 Cm −2. (a) E due to q2 would be zero.
(b) E due to both q1 and q2 would be non-zero.
111. What is E in the outer region of the first plate? (c) φ due to both q1 and q2 would be non-zero.
(a) 17 × 10−22 N/ C (d) φ due to q2 would be zero.
(b) 1. 5 × 10−15 N/ C
118. For a thin spherical shell of radius R having a surface
(c) 1. 9 × 10−10 N/ C charge density σ, which of these are true?
(d) Zero (a) Field at a distance r from the centre r > R is given by
σ
112. What is E in the outer region of the second plate? E=
ε0
(a) 17 × 10−22 N / C (b) 1. 5 × 10−15 N / C
(b) Field at a distance r from the centre r < R given by
(c) 1. 9 × 10−10 N / C (d) Zero kq
E = 2 , where q = σ ( 4 πR 2 )
113. What is E between the plates? r
(c) Field at a distance r from the centre r > R is given by
(a) 17 × 10−22 N/ C 1 q
E= ⋅ , where q = σ ⋅ 4 πR 2
. × 10−15 N/ C
(b) 15 4 πε 0 r2
. × 10−10 N/ C
(c) 19 σ
(d) Field at surface of shell is given by E =
(d) Zero ε0
 NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
NCERT 125. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have
119. What is the force between two small charged spheres a negative charge of 3 × 10 − 7 C. The number of
−7 −7
having charges of 2 × 10 C and 3 × 10 C placed electrons transferred is
30 cm apart in air? (a) 1. 6 × 109 (b) 1. 8 × 1010
(a) 5 × 10−2 N (b) 6 × 10−3 N (c) 1. 6 × 1011 (d) 1. 8 × 1012
(c) 7 × 10−4 N (d) 8 × 10−4 N
■ Directions (Q. Nos.126-127) These questions are
120. The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge based on the following situation. Choose the correct
0.4 µC due to another small sphere of charge −0 . 8 µC options from those given below.
in air is 0.2 N.What is the distance between the two Two insulated charged copper spheres A and B have
spheres? their centres separated by a distance of 50 cm.
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm (d) 15 cm 126. What is the mutual force of electrostatic repulsion if
. × 10 − 7 C?
the charge on each is 65
■ Directions (Q. Nos.121-122) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct (a) 1. 5 × 10−2 N (b) 3 × 10−3 N
options from those given below. (c) 1. 5 × 10−4 N (d) 3 × 10−5 N
Two point charges q A = 3µC and q B = − 3µC are 127. What is the force of repulsion if each sphere is
located 20 cm apart in vacuum. charged double the above amount and the distance
121. What is the electric field at the mid-point O of the between them is halved?
line AB joining the two charges? (a) 0 (b) 0.12 N (c) 0.24 N (d) 0.48 N
(a) 0 (b) 2. 7 × 10 N/ C
6
128. The given figure shows tracks of three charged
(c) 5. 4 × 106 N/ C (d) 10. 2 × 106 N/ C particles in a uniform electrostatic field. Give the
−9 signs of the three charges. Which particle has the
122. If a negative test charge of magnitude 1.5 × 10 C is highest charge to mass ratio?
placed at this point, what is the force experienced by Y
the test charge? + + + + + + + + 1
(a) 8 × 10−3 N (b) 4 × 10−2 N 2
X
(c) 2 × 10−1 N (d) 0
123. A system has two charges q A = 2.5 × 10 −7 C and – – – – – – – – 3

q B = −2.5 × 10 −7 C located at points A : (0, 0, −15 cm) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) All are equal
and B (0, 0, +15 cm), respectively. ■ Directions (Q. Nos.129-130) These questions are
The total charge and electric dipole moment of the based on the following situation. Choose the correct
system are options from those given below.
(a) 5.0 × 10−7 C, 7.5 ×10-8 C-m Consider a uniform electric field E = 3 × 103 $i N/C.
(b) 2.5 × 10−7 C, 7.5 × 10−8 C-m
129. What is the flux of this field through a square of
(c) 0,0 10 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the
(d) 0, 7.5 × 10−8 C - m YZ- plane?
124. An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10 − 9 C-m is (a) 0 (b) 10 Nm2 / C
aligned at 30° with the direction of a uniform electric (c) 20 Nm2 / C (d) 30 Nm2 / C
field of magnitude 5 × 10 4 N/C. What is the
130. What is the flux through the same square if the
magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole? normal to its plane makes a 60° angle with the
(a) 10−2 Nm (b) 10−3 Nm X-axis?
(c) 10−4 Nm (d) 10−5 Nm (a) 0 (b) 5 Nm2 / C
(c) 10 Nm2 / C (d) 15 Nm2 / C
14 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

131. A point charge +10µC is at a distance 5 cm directly 136. A point positive charge is brought near an isolated
above the centre of a square of side 10 cm, as shown in conducting sphere (figure). The electric field is best3
figure. What is the magnitude of the electric flux given by
through the square?
+q +q
5 cm +q +q

10 cm

10 cm
(a) 0 . × 102 Nm2 / C
(b) 18
. × 104 Nm2 / C
(c) 18 . × 105 Nm2 / C
(d) 18 (a) (b) (c) (d)

. µ C is at the centre of a cubic

132. A point charge of 20 137. The electric flux through the surface
S
Gaussian surface 9.0 cm on edge. What is the net S
electric flux through the surface? S S
(a) 0 (b) 2 × 102 Nm2 / C +q +q
+q
+q
(c) 2 × 10 Nm / C
4 2
(d) 2 × 10 Nm / C
5 2

133. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has an unknown (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
charge. If the electric field 20 cm from the centre of (a) in Fig. (iv) is the largest
. × 10 3 N/C and points radially inwards,
the sphere is 15 (b) in Fig. (iii) is the least
what is the net charge on the sphere? (c) in Fig. (ii) is same as Fig. (iii) but is smaller than Fig. (iv)
(a) 0 (b) 5 × 10−5 C (d) is the same for all the figures
(c) 6 × 10−9 C (d) 8 × 10−10 C 138. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric
dipole P is placed as shown. Which of the following
134. An infinite line charge produces a field of9 × 10 4 N/C at statements is correct?
a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the linear charge density.
(a) 10−5 C/ m (b) 10−6 C/ m
(c) 10−7 C/ m (d) 10−8 C/ m –q P +q

NCERT Exemplar (a) The dipole will not experience any force
(b) The dipole will experience a force towards right
135. In figure two positive charges q 2 and q 3 fixed along
(c) The dipole will experience a force towards left
the Y -axis, exert a net electric force in the positive (d) The dipole will experience a force upwards
X -direction on a charge q1 fixed along the X -axis. If
139. If ∫ E ⋅ d S = 0 over a surface, then
a positive charge Q is added at ( x, 0), the force on q1 s

Y
(a) the electric field inside the surface and on it is zero.
Y
(b) the electric field inside the surface is necessarily
q2 q2 uniform.
Q (c) the number of flux lines entering the surface must be
(i) X (ii) q1 O (x, 0)
X equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.
q1
(d) all charges must necessarily be outside the surface.
q3 q3
140. The electric field at a point is
(a) shall increase along the positive X-axis (a) always continuous
(b) shall decrease along the positive X-axis (b) continuous if there is no charge at that point
(c) shall point along the negative X-axis (c) discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that
(d) shall increase but the direction changes because of the point
intersection of Q with q2 and q3 (d) discontinuous if there is a charge at that point
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 15

141. Consider a region inside in which there are various 144. A metallic spherical shell has an inner radius R1
types of charges but the total charge is zero. At points and outer radius R 2 . A charge Q is placed at the
outside the region, centre of the spherical cavity. What will be surface
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero charge density on the outer surface?
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge −Q Q Q −Q
distribution only (a) (b) (c) (d)
4 πR12 4 πR12 4 πR22 4 πR22
1
(c) the dominant electric field is ∝ , for large r, where r is
r3 145. What will be the total flux through the faces of the
the distance from a origin in this region cube as given in the figure with side of length a if
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed a charge q is placed at B, mid-point of an edge of
path, away from the region will be zero the cube?
142. Refer to the arrangement of charges in figure and a
Gaussian surface of radius R with Q at the centre. Then, C

Gaussian surface D
B
A

R Q R q q
(a) (b)
5Q R/2 8ε 0 3ε 0
–2Q q q
(c) (d) '
4 ε0 2ε 0
−Q 146. Two charges q and − 3q are placed fixed on X -axis
(a) total flux through the surface of the sphere is
ε0 separated by distance d. Where should a third charge
−Q 2q be placed such that it will not experience any
(b) field on the surface of the sphere is
4 πε 0 R 2 force?
d
(c) flux through the surface of sphere due to 5Q is zero (a) (1 + 3 ) to the right of q
(d) field on the surface of sphere due to − 2Q is same 3
everywhere d
(b) (1 + 3 ) to the left of q
3
143. An arbitrary surface encloses a dipole. What is the d
electric flux through this surface? (c) (1 + 3 ) to the left of q
2
(a) q / 10 (b) 2q / 10 d
(c) zero (d) − q / ε 0 (d) (1 + 3 ) to the right of q
2

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24 (b) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (c,d 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (c)
)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (a)
71. (a) 69. (b) 70. (a) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (a)
76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (c) 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (b)
86. (a,c 84. (d) 85. (d) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (d)
)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (a) 105. (d)
106. (a) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (a,b, 115. (a, 116. (b, 117. (b, 118. (c,d 119. (b) 120. (c)
c) b) d) d) )
 Hints and Explanations
q 1C
1. (c) The reason for these experiences is a discharge of 22 (d) 1 coulomb of charge is made of n = =
electric charges which were accumulated due to rubbing of e 1.6 × 10−19 C
insulating surfaces. = 6.25 × 1018 electrons
3. (c) During its motion, body of carrier is charged due to
6.25 × 1018
rubbing with dry air and dust. If spark occurs near ∴ Time required = s
container, then inflammable material may catch fire. So, 109
metallic ropes are suspended so that excess charge flows = 6.25 × 109 s ≈ 198 yr (Q1yr = 317
. × 107 s)
away from carrier, to ground (for earthing).
23. (b) Charge on single electron is e = 1.6 × 10−19 C
4. (b) Each pith ball acquires same charge due to the
conduction (transfer) from plastic rod. So, they repel each Total charge, q = + 2.4 C
other. Then, by quantisation of charge, q = ne
q 2.4 C
7. (d) When a body is negatively charged, more electrons are ∴ Number of electrons, n = = = 1.5 × 1019
given to it, so its mass increases. e 1.6 × 10−19 C
8. (c) X-ray has high ionising power. It will ionise the gas 24. (d) Here, number of electrons removed = number of atoms in 1 g
inside so the gas becomes partially conducting. The charge 4 × 1020
on the leaves will start leaking out to atmosphere and they or n= = 4 × 1017
will collapse gradually. 103
∴Charge, q = ne = 4 × 1017 × 1.6 × 10−19 C = 6.4 × 10−2 C
10. (b) Due to mutual repulsion, surface of a soap
bubble shows expansion. 26. (b) Charges on both spheres will be equal, each q/ 2. When
Negative charges at diametrically opposite ends distance is made half of original, force becomes four times
repel. of original because force varies inversely with square of
11. (c) Due to friction, if one body loses few electrons, other distance.
gains them and so charges appearing on both are equal and 29. (b) The electric force between an electron and proton at a
opposite. distance r apart is
12. (b) A negatively charged body acquires some electrons, so − ke2
Fe = …(i)
its mass is more than its neutral mass. r2
13. (b) When bodies are physically touched to transfer charge where, the negative sign indicates that the force is attractive.
from one body to other body, then this is process of charging The corresponding gravitational force (always attractive) is
by contact or conduction. mp me
FG = − G 2 …(ii)
14. (c) Induction requires shifting of free charge carrier which r
are present only in conductors. where, mp and me are the masses of the proton and electron.
15. (d) – q2 q2 On comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
q2 ⇒ Fe k e2
+ + = = 2.4 × 1039
++ ++
q1 Second q1 FG Gmp me
body
First
⇒ FG / Fe ≈ 10−39
⇒

body
+
++ 30. (a) Force in air,
q1 1 q1 q2
q2 i.e., F=
4 πε 0 r2
q1
Numerically, q1 ≥ q2 ⇒ ≥1
q2 1 q1 q2  ε 
and force in medium, i.e., Fm = Q = εr 
4 πε 0 ε r r2  ε0 
17. (d) If a system contains two point charges q1 and q2 and total
1 q1 q2
charge of the system is obtained simply by adding =
algebraically, i.e., charge add up like real numbers or they are 4 πε r2
scalars like mass of the body. ε 1 q1 q2
= 0⋅
21. (c) Initially, both the glass rod and silk cloth are ε 4 πε 0 r2
electrically neutral. Net charge is zero. Finally, the positive ε
charge on glass rod is exactly equal to the negative charge ⇒ Fm = 0 F
ε
on the silk cloth. So, net charge is again zero.
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 17

31. (b) According to question, two identical charged spheres 33. (b) Relative permittivity ε r is also called dielectric constant.
suspended from a common point by two massless strings of
1 q1 q2 1 q1 q2
length L. Fair = , Fm =
4 πε 0 r 2
4 πε 0 K r2
θ 1 q1 q2
l2
Fair 4 πε 0 r2 K
= =
A q Fm 1 q1 q2 1
q
F B 4 πε 0 K r2
x/2 34. (c) Force exerted between two point charges
θ
X q1 q2
i.e., F =
C mg 4πε 0 r2
F F
Q In ∆ABC, tan θ = or = tan θ …(i) So, force exerted between two point charges in a dielectric
mg mg medium is K i.e., F ′ = q1 q2 / 4 πε 0 K ( r′ )2
Since, the charge begins to leak from both the spheres at a Given, i.e., F = F′
constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other q1 q2 q1 q2
with velocity v. or =
4 πε 0 r 2
4 πε 0 K ( r′ )2
Therefore, Eq. (i) can be rewritten as
1 1
kq 2 x/ 2 ⇒ =
2
= r 2
K ( r′ )2
x mg x2
l2 − ⇒ r2 = K ( r′ )2
4
kq 2 x ⇒ r = K r′
⇒ = or q 2 ∝ x3
x2 mg 2l r
∴ r′ =
K
dq d ( x3 / 2 ) dx
⇒ ∝ ⋅ 35. (a) The situation is shown below.
dt dx dt
dq 1 Y
⇒ ∝ x1 / 2 v ⇒ v ∝ 1 / 2 or v ∝ x−1 / 2
dt x −q/2
F θ θ F
32. (a) When A and C are touched, charge is distributed equally
on them, X
q a a q
q
∴ q A = qC = , q = 6.5 × 10−7 C
2 F sin θ F sin θ
When C is touched with B, total charge of B and C
2F cos θ
3q
= q + q/ 2 =
2 Net force in negative Y -direction,
When B and C are separated, then charge is equally shared Fnet = 2Fcosθ
3q
between them, qB = qC =  q
4 2kq  
 2 y
So, finally we have following situation Fnet = ⋅
( y +a )
2 2 2
y + a2
2
r
 q
A B 2kq   y
q/2 3q/4  2 2kq 2 y
Fnet = ⇒ Fnet =
(y +a ) 2 2 3/ 2
a3
−7 −2
q = 6.5 × 10 C and r = 50 × 10 m
⇒ Fnet ∝ y
∴ Net force of attraction between A and B, i.e.,
36. (a) In space, there is no gravitational force, so
9 × 109 × q A qB
F =
r2 Q
θ = 180° Q
1 3
9 × 109 × × × (6.5 × 10−7 )2
= 2 4 kQQ kQ 2
Tension in each thread, i.e., F = =
(0.5)2 ( 2L ) 2
4L2
−3
= 5.7 × 10 N
18 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

37. (c) According to Coulomb’s law, force between two point 44. (c) The electric field vector E1 at A due to the positive
1
charges, i.e., F ∝ . Therefore, the graph between F and r charge q1 points towards the right and has a magnitude
r2 (9 × 109 Nm2 C−2 ) × (10−8 C)
will be as shown in Fig.(c). E1 = = 3.6 × 104 NC− 1
(0.05 m)2
38. (b) Force of attraction is caused by dissimilar charges. So
initially, The electric field vector E2 at A due to the negative charge
r q2 points towards the right and has a magnitude
+q1 – q2 (9 × 109 Nm−2 C−2 ) × (10−8 C)
E2 = = 3.6 × 104 NC− 1
(0.05 m)2
They are then touched +q1 – q2
Net value of charge q net = | q1 − q2 | The magnitude of the total electric field at A is
When separated, they share same type of charge. E A = E1 + E2 = 7.2 × 104 NC− 1
39. (c) A E A is directed towards the right.
q1
C

q 0.1 m 0.1 m
l l
O
q1 q2
B A
B C
q2 l q3 0.05 m 0.05 m 0.05 m

1 qq1 ^ The magnitude of each electric field vector at point C, due to

Force on q due to q1 = AO charge q1 and q2 is
4 πε 0 AO 2
(9 × 109 Nm2 C− 2 ) × (10− 8 C)
1 qq2 ^ E1 ′ = E2 ′ = = 9 × 103 NC−1
Force on q due to q2 = BO (0.10 m)2
4 πε 0 BO 2
The resultant of these two vectors is
1 qq3 ^
Force q due to q3 = CO π π
4 πε 0 CO 2 EC = E1′ cos + E2′ cos = 9 × 103 NC−1
3 3
qq ^ ^ ^
Total force on q = ( AO + BO + CO ) = 0 EC points towards right
4 πε 0 AO 2
EA 8
∴ =
It is clear by symmetry that the three forces will sum to zero. EC 1
41. (d) While forces acting on OD D (–5 µC) A (2 µC)
45. (c) Electric field inside the uniformly charged sphere varies
and OB are equal and opposite in kQ
nature. Similarly, forces acting linearly, E = ⋅ r,( r ≤ R ), while outside the sphere, it
on OC and OA are equal and
O R3
+q kQ
opposite forces. So, they cancel varies as inverse square of distance, E = ; ( r ≥ R ) which
out each other. r2
C (2 µC) B (–5 µC)
is correctly represented in option (c).
∴ F net = 0
eE
42. (b) At point A, net resultant F 46. (c) For electron acceleration =
F/2
me
force is –Q
F  1 –Q F 1 eEt12
F ′ = 2F + =F  2+  A s = 0( t1 ) +
2  2 F′ 2 me
a
qQ Q2  1 Similarly for proton,
⇒ =  2+  q
 2a 
2
a2  2
–Q s = 0( t 2 ) +
1 eEt 22
  –Q
2 mp
 2 
eE
Q  2 2 + 1 Q For electron, s = × t12
⇒ q=   ⇒ q = ( 2 2 + 1) me
2  2  4
eE
F 2.25 N For proton, s = × t 22
43. (c) Electric field, E = = = 1500 NC−1 mp
q 15 × 10−4 C
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 19

t 22 mp 53. (c) Areas of P-Q are equal but more lines pass through area
∴ =
t12 me at P. So, field is stronger at P as compared to Q.
1/ 2 55. (c,d) According to the question,
t2 mp  mp 
⇒ = = 
t1 me  me  P
ρ −ρ
47. (c) Given, C1 C2
E = Ar …(i) R2
R1

For electrostatic field, EP = E1 + E2

ρ ( −ρ )
= C1 P + C1 P
3ε 0 3ε 0
q a
ρ
= (C1 P + C2 P )
3ε 0
ρ
EP = C1C2
1 q 3ε 0
Here, r= a ⇒ E = ⋅ 2
4 πε 0 a For electrostatic potential. Since, electric field is non-zero so
From Eq. (i), we get it is not equipotential.
1 q 61. (a) If the centre of mass of the positive charge does not
⋅ 2 = Aa ⇒ q = 4 πε 0 Aa 3
4 πε 0 a coincide with that of the negative charge, the molecule has
intrinsic (or permanent) dipole moment. Such molecules are
48. (b) E A = Electric field at M due to charge placed at A. called polar molecules.
EB = Electric field at M due to charge placed at B.
62. (c) Here, a = 2. 5 mm, r = 15 cm = 150 mm
EC = Electric field at M due to charge placed at C.
As, r >> a
A
EC 2p 2 ( 5 × 10−3 × 10 × 10−6 ) × ( 9 × 109 )
EB C Eaxis = =
4 πε 0 r3 (15 × 10−2 )3
M
EA = 2.6 × 105 NC−1
p 1
Eequatorial plane = = Eaxis
B 4 πε 0 r 3 2
As seen from figure | EB | = | E A |, so net electric field at M, =
1
× 2. 6 × 105
E net = EC , in the direction of vector 2. 2
49. (b) E net along CB . × 105 NC −1
= 13
Charges at A,C produce net electric field along OA. Charges 63. (c)
0°

at B, D produce net electric field along OB.

18

Enet
4q 3q
D C
O
p

A B Observing E net and pare in opposite directions, so angle

q 2q
between them is 180°.
So, total electric field is along bisector of angle AOB which Eaxis 2 p / 4 πε 0 r3 2
parallel to CB. 64. (b) As we know, = =
Eequator p / 4 πε 0 r3 1
51. (c) Field lines exist in 3-D
space, we draw field lines on 65. (a) Suppose neutral point N lies at a distance x from dipole
paper but actual they are in q1 q2 of moment por at a distance x2 from dipole of 64 p.
space. p
N 64 p
Field lines are in space around 1 2
line joining q1 and q2 . x1
25 cm
20 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

At N , | Electric field due to dipole (1) | 75. (a) By Gauss’ law,

= |Electric field due to dipole (2)| q
φ=
⇒
1 2p
⋅ =
1
⋅
2 ( 64 p ) ε0
4 πε 0 x 3 4 πε 0 ( 25 − x )3
or q = φε 0 = 1.05 × 8.854 × 10−12 C
1 64
⇒ = ⇒ x = 5 cm = 9.27 × 10−12 C
x3 ( 25 − x )3
77. (b) By Gauss’ law, φ = Electric flux through closed surface
66. (c) A p
+q area
pnet qenclosed
l l = if qenclosed = 1 unit
ε0
p 60° 1
B C ⇒ φ= = ε 0−1
+q l –2q ε0
Net dipole moment, i.e., 78. (a) As, electric charge q is placed at the centre of a cube of
side.
p net = p + p + 2 pp cos 60° = 3 p
2 2

= 3 ql (Q p = ql )
67. (a) Here, torque τ = pEsin θ q

+q As all six faces are symmetrically located with respect to

charge. So, the total flux will be equally divided among 6
θ→E
1 q 
faces of cube, flux through each face =   .
6  ε0 
–q
80. (c)
Potential energy of the dipole
θ +q
U = ∫ τ dθ = ∫π / 2 pE sin θdθ = − pE [cos θ ] θπ / 2
= − pEcosθ
70. (a) Torque, τ = pE sin θn$
| τ | = pE sin θ Flux through the cylinder will be half of the total flux
∴ Torque is maximum, when θ = 90° 1 q q
= =
71. (a) Net dipole moment, p net =
2 2
p1 + p2 + 2 p1 p2 cosθ 2 ε 0 2ε 0
θ = 120° 82. (d) Net charges of one dipole = − e + e = 0
p1 = p = p2 Net charge of 8 dipoles = 8 × 0 = 0
p net = p ⇒ Net charge inside cube = 0 = q
So, τ = pE sin θ and it is along positive Z-axis. By Gauss’ law,
τ is perpendicular to plane along p and E. q 0
Total flux emerging from surface = = =0
ε0 ε0
72. (a) As, torque i.e., τ = pE sin θ = Iα
+ –
pE α pE 83. (b)
For small θ, α = θ ⇒ = E+
I θ I
θ pE
ω= = E–
α I + –
q
74. (c) As flux = enclosed . So, flux is due to only charges + q1 σ
E+ = E− =
ε0 2ε 0
and − q1 that makes a sum zero. But q2 produces its own  σ  σ
flux and net flux linked with sphere is zero. Electric field ⇒ E net = 2   = 
will be due to all the charges.  2ε 0   ε 0 
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 21

84. (d) Time period of simple pendulum in ⇒ I = 1, t = 1 gives q = 1unit

+ –
air. 1
+ – − 1 C has = 6 × 1018 electrons approximately.
When it is suspended between vertical + – . × 10−19
16
plates of a charged parallel plate + –
capacitor, then acceleration due to + – 95. (a) At macroscopic level, we deal with charges of order
+ +q – 10−6
electric field, a =
qE 1µC = 10−6 C, which has = 0.625 × 1013 =1013
m
+ – . × 10−19
16
+ –
This acceleration is acting horizontally E charges. Addition of a few hundred of e charges do not
and acceleration due to gravity is acting vertically. So, make any physically observable effect of attraction
effective acceleration repulsion, so quantisation can be ignored.
2 97. (d) Without an external field, the dipole moment of
 qE 
g ′ = g 2 + a2 = g 2 +   different molecules in a piece of matter are randomly
 m
oriented, so there is no net total dipole moment. In the
l presence of an external field, the polar molecules tend to
Hence, T ′ = 2π
2 align with the field and a net dipole moment results. We say
 qE 
g2 +   that the matter has got polarised. Non-polar molecules
 m develop dipole moment in presence of electric field.
85. (d) Coulomb’s attraction = Centripetal force 104. (a) A→2, B→4, C→3 D→1
4 π 2 mr2 σ
∴
1 q1 q2
= mr ω 2
= A. Infinite plane sheet of charge =
4 πε 0 r2 T2 2ε 0
σ
4 π mr
2 3 B. Infinite plane sheet of uniform thickness =
T2 = ε0
kq1 q2 Rρ
1/ 2 C. Non-conducting charged solid sphere at its surface =
 4 π mr 2 3 3ε 0
⇒ T= 
 kq1 q2  D. Non-conducting charged solid sphere at its centre = 0.
106. (a) Electric field at r = R
86. (a,c) Option (a) is correct due to symmetry,
ρ(r)
Option (b) is wrong again due to symmetry.
Option (c) is correct because as per Gauss’ theorem, net d
q
electric flux passing through any closed surface = in
ε0
Here, qin = 3q − q − q = q r
a R
q
:. Net electric flux = KQ
ε0 E= ; Q = Total charge within the nucleus = Ze
R2
Option (d) is wrong because there is no symmetry in two
KZe
given planes. So, E =
R2
87. (a) Force by electric field will be perpendicular to the
displacement. So, electric field is independent of a..
88. (c) If the field lines are curved, then the charged particle 107. (b) Q = ∫ ρr 4 πr2 dr,
follows the straight line path along the direction of tangent d
d ρ
drawn to electric field lines at its starting point. = r
R R−r ρ(r)
90. (d) E in outside vicinity of conductor’s surface depends on R
σ d
all the charges present in the space, but expression E = . Q = ∫ ( R − r ) 4πr2 dr
ε0 0
R
a R
4 πd  
R R
91. (d) Due to displacement of charge within closed surface E
=  R ∫ r2 dr − ∫ r3 dr
at any point may change. But net flux crossing the surface R  0 
0
will not change.
4 πd  R 4 R 4  πdR 3
92. (d) E at any point on Gaussian surface may be due to =  −  =
outside charges also. R  3 4 3
q
94. (c) Current is the flow of charge per unit time, I = πdR 3
t Q = Ze =
3
⇒ q = It
22 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

108. (c) From the formula of uniformly (volume) charged sphere 113. (c) From the ans. 109, in region II, the electric field
ρr σ σ
E= EII = E A + EB = +
3ε 0 2ε 0 2ε 0
E
σ σ A or σ B 17.0 × 10− 22
= = =
ε0 ε0 8.85 × 10− 12
E = 1.92 × 10− 10 NC −1
114. (a,b,c) Charges are additive, conservative and quantised in
nature.
r
a=R 115. (a,b) Natural occurring molecular dipoles have atoms with
For E ∝ r,ρ should be constant throughout that of nucleus. different electronegativity and so electron cloud is tilted to
This will be possible only when a = R. one side.
2.4 e.g., HCl, H2 O etc. Induced dipoles are formed when a
109. (c) Radius of shpere, r = = 1.2 m neutral atom is placed in a region of strong field.
2
Surface charge density, σ = 80 µC/ m2
= 80 × 10−6 Cm−2 External
Charge
Surface charge density =
Surface area
q 116. (b,d) Due to induction, charge
σ= on various faces are as shown +3 C 10 C – 3 C
4 π r2
alongside in figure.
q = σ × 4 πr2 = 80 × 10−6 × 4 × 3.14 × 1.2 × 1.2
Charge on the inner surface of
q = 1.4 × 10−3 C shell = + 3 C
– 3C

Total charge Net charge on outer surface of

110. (d) Total flux leaving the surface, φ =
ε0 shell = − 3 C + 10 C = + 7 C
q . × 10−3
145 Distribution of charge on inner surface would be uniform
φ= =
ε 0 8.854 × 10−12 117. (b,d) In LHS of Gauss’ law, E is due to all point charges
present in space and φ depends only on the enclosed charges.
φ = 16
. × 108 N-m2 / C q σ
118. (c,d) Einside = 0, Eoutside = k 2 , Esurface =
111. (d) There are two plates A and B having surface charge r ε 0
densities σ A = 17.0 × 10− 22 C/m 2 on A and
119. (b) Using Coulomb’s law, the force between two charges is
σ B = − 17.0 × 10− 22 C/m 2 on B, respectively. given by
A B 1 q1 q2
F = .
II III 4 πε 0 d 2
9 × 109 × 2 × 10− 7 × 3 × 10− 7
+ EA – EA
I δA δB F =
EA EB EB 0.3 × 0.3
EB 9 × 2 × 3 × 10− 5
= = 6 × 10− 3 N (Repulsion)
3 × 3 × 10− 2
According to Gauss’ theorem, if the plates have same 120. (c) We have to find the value of r. Using Coulomb’s law,
surface charge density but having opposite signs, then the the force between two charges is
electric field in region I is zero.
1 q1 q2
σ  σ  F = ⋅
EI = E A + EB = + −  =0 4 πε 0 r2
2ε 0  2ε 0 
1
112. (d) From the ans. 109, the electric field in region III is also Putting the values of F, , q1 and q2 , we get
4 πε 0
zero.
EIII = E A + EB 0.4 × 10− 6 × 0.8 × 10− 6
0.2 = 9 × 109 ×
σ  σ  r2
= + −  =0
2ε 0  2ε 0  r2 = 16 × 9 × 10− 4 ⇒ r = 12 cm
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 23

121. (c) Given, AB = 20 cm 123. (d) Total charge = 2.5 × 10−7 − 2.5 × 10−7 = 0
A 20 cm B Electric dipole moment,
Z
qA = 3 mC O EA EB qB = –3 mC
qB = –2.5 × 10–7 C B (0, 0, +0.15 m)
AO = OB = 10 cm = 0.1m
q A = 3 µC = 3 × 10− 6 C 0

qB = − 3 µC = − 3 × 10− 6 C
qA = +2.5 × 10–7 C A (0, 0, – 0.15 m)
1 q
The electric field at a point due to a charge q is E = . Z′
4 πε 0 r2
p = Either charge × Separation between charges
where, r is the distance between charge and the point.
= 2.5 × 10−7 (0.15 + 0.15) C-m
Electric field due to q A at O is E A .
1 q = 7.5 × 10−8 C-m
EA = . A
4 πε 0 ( AO )2 The direction of dipole moment is from B to A, i. e., along
−6 negative Z-axis.
9 × 10 × 3 × 10
9
27 × 10 3
EA = = = 2.7 × 10−6 N/C 124. (c) Torque applied on a dipole in the electric field,
(0.1) 2
0.1 × 0.1
τ = p × E = pE sin θ
The direction of E A is A to O, i.e., towards O or towards OB
as the electric field is always directed away from positive or τ = 4 × 10− 9 × 5 × 104 sin 30°
charge. 20 × 10− 5
= = 10− 4 Nm
Electric field due to qB at O is EB . 2
1 q
EB = . B The direction of torque is perpendicular to both electric field
4 πε 0 (OB )2 and dipole moment.
9 × 109 × 3 × 10− 6 125. (d) The charge on an object is given by
EB = 2 q = ± ne
(0.1)
The number of electrons transferred
27 × 103 Total charge ( q )
= = 2.7 × 106 N/C n=
0.1 × 0.1 Charge of electron ( e )
The direction of EB is O to B i.e., towards O or towards OB
−3 × 10− 7
as the electric field is always directed towards the negative n= = 1.875 × 1012
charge. − 1.6 × 10− 19
Now, we see that both E A and EB are in same direction. So, 126. (a) From the Coulomb’s law, the force between the two
the resultant electric field at O is E. Hence, spheres is
E = E A + EB = 2.7 × 106 + 2.7 × 106 1 q A qB 9 × 109 × 6.5 × 10− 7 × 6.5 × 10− 7
F = . =
= 5.4 × 106 N/C 4 πε 0 r2 (50 × 10− 2 )2
The direction of E (resultant electric field) will be from O to 9 × 6.5 × 6.5 × 10− 5
B or towards B. = = 1.521 × 10− 2 N(Repulsion)
50 × 50 × 10− 4
122. (a) Let us consider, the charge q is placed at the mid-point
127. (c) According to the question, if the charge is doubled
O. According to the question,
q ′A = 2q A and qB′ = 2qB
q = − 1.5 × 10− 9 C
r
q Distance between them is halved, i.e., r′ =
2
A O B
Now, the force between the two spheres is
F
By the basic definition of electric field, E = 1 q ′A qB′ 1 ( 2 q A ) ( 2 qB )
q F′ = . =
4 πε 0 r′ 4 πε 0 ( r / 2 )2
or F = qE , where E is the net electric field at pointO.
1 4 q A qB 1 q A qB
F = − 1.5 × 10− 9 × 5.4 × 106 = . = 16
4 πε 0 r2 / 4 4 πε 0 r2
= − 8.1 × 10− 3 N
= 16 F = 16 × 1.521 × 10− 2 = 0.24 N
The direction of force is opposite to the direction of field
because the charge q is negatively charged. Thus, the This force is also repulsive in nature because both the
direction of force is from O to A. charges are similar (positive) in nature.
24 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

1 q
128. (c) As the deflection in the path of a charged particle is 133. (c) Electric field, E = .
directly proportional to the charge/mass ratio. 4 πε 0 r2
q
y∝ 20 cm P
m
q E
Here, the deflection in particle 3 is maximum, so the charge
to mass ratio of particle 3 is maximum. 9 × 109 × q
1.5 × 103 =
129. (d) Electric flux, φ = E⋅ S = ES cos θ ( 20 × 10− 2 )2
= ES (Q angle between E and S is 0°) 1.5 × 103 × 20 × 20 × 10− 4
q= = 6.67 × 10− 9 C
φ = 3 × 103 × 10− 2 = 30 Nm 2 C −1 9 × 109
λ
130. (d) The area vector makes an angle of 60° with X-axis. 134. (c) Electric field due to infinite line charge, E =
E = 3 × 103 i$ NC −1 2πε 0 r
2 λ 2λ
S = 100 cm 2 = 10− 2 m2 , θ = 60° E= × =
2 2π ε 0 r 4 π ε 0 r
Using the formula of electric flux, φ = E ⋅ S
Putting the values, we get
φ = ES cos θ = 3 × 103 × 10− 2 cos 60°
2 × 9 × 109 × λ
1 9 × 104 =
= 3 × 10 × = 15 Nm 2 C −1 2 × 10− 2
2
9 × 104 × 2 × 10− 2
131. (d) The total flux enclosed through the cube is λ= = 10− 7 Cm −1
2 × 9 × 10 9

135. (a) The net force on q1 by q2 and q3 is along the

q + X -direction. Hence, q1 is a negative charge. Thus, nature
of force between q1 and newly introduced charge Q
5 cm (positive) is attractive and net force on q1 by (q2 , q3 and Q)
are along the same direction as given in the diagram below.
Y
+q2
10 cm

According to Gauss’ theorem +Q

– q1 X
(x, 0)
q
φ= …(i)
ε0 +q3
Here, q = 10 µC
The flux enclosed by one face, i.e., square is 1/6 of total flux 136. (a) When a positive point charge is brought near an isolated
(because the cube has six square shaped faces). conducting sphere without touching the sphere, then the free
electrons in the sphere are attracted towards the positive
The flux linked with each square
charge. This leaves an excess of positive charge on the far
φ 1 q
φ′ = = . [From Eq. (i)] (right) surface of sphere.
6 6 ε0 Both kinds of charges are bound in the metal sphere and
1 10 × 10− 6 cannot escape. They, therefore, reside on the surface.
φ′ = ×
6 8.854 × 10− 12 Thus, the left surface of Attracted negative
sphere has an excess of charge
= 1.88 × 105 Nm 2 C −1 negative charge and the – +
– +
Thus, the flux linked with the square is 1.88 × 105 Nm 2 C −1 . right surface of sphere –
–
+
+
has an excess of positive +q – +
132. (d) According to Gauss’ theorem, the net electric flux (φ)
charge as given in the
through the surface is figure below
q 2 × 10− 6 An electric field line starts from positive charge and ends at
φ= =
ε 0 8.854 × 10− 12 negative charge (in this case from point positive charge to
negative charge created inside the sphere).
= 2.26 × 105 Nm 2 C −1 Also, electric field line emerges from a positive charge, in
Thus, the net electric flux through the surface is case of single charge and ends at infinity.
2.26 × 105 Nm 2 /C. Here, all these conditions are fulfilled in Fig. (a).
 CHAPTER 1 : Electric Charge and Fields 25

137. (d) Electric flux through a surface doesn’t depend on the 142. (a,c) Total charge inside the surface is = Q − 2Q = − Q
shape, size or area of a surface but it depends on charges −Q
enclosed by the surface. ∴ Total flux through the surface of the sphere =
ε0
138. (c) The space between the electric field lines is increasing,
Charge 5Q lies outside the surface, thus it makes no
here from left to right and its characteristics states that,
contribution to electric flux through the given surface.
strength of electric field decreases with the increase in the
space between electric field lines. As a result force on 144. (c) +Q
R2
charges also decreases from left to right.
Thus, the force on charge − q is greater than force on charge –Q
+ q in turn dipole will experience a force towards left. R1
+Q
139. (c,d) ∫s E ⋅ dS = 0 represents electric flux over the closed
surface.
In general, ∫ E ⋅ dS means the algebraic sum of number of
s −Q
Now, surface charge density on the inner surface =
flux lines entering the surface and number of flux lines 4 πR12
leaving the surface. +Q
When ∫ E ⋅ dS = 0, it means that the number of flux lines surface charge density on the outer surface =
s 4 πR22
entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines
145. (c) When the charge q is placed at B, middle point of an
leaving it.
q edge of the cube, it is being shared equally by 4 cubes.
Now, from Gauss' law, we know that ∫ E ⋅ dS = , where q Therefore, total flux through the faces of the given cube
s ε0
= q / 4 ε0 .
is charge enclosed by the surface. When ∫ E ⋅ dS = 0, q = 0
s 146. (c) Here, let us keep the charge 2q at a distance r from A.
i.e., net charge enclosed by the surface must be zero. p
2q q –3q
Therefore, all other charges must necessarily be outside the
surface. This is because charges outside the surface do not Fby q Fby – 3q
x d
contribute to the electric flux. A B
140. (b,d) The electric field due to a charge Q at a point in space Thus, charge 2q will not experience any force.
may be defined as the force that a unit positive charge would When force of repulsion on it due to q is balanced by force
experience if placed at that point. Thus, electric field due to of attraction on it due to − 3q, at B, where AB = d .
the charge Q will be continuous, if there is no charge at that Thus, force of attraction by − 3q = Force of repulsion by q
point. It will be discontinuous if there is a charge at that 2q × q 2q × 3q
point. ⇒ =
4 πε 0 x 2
4 πε 0 ( x + d )2
141. (c,d) When there are various types of charges in a region,
but the total charge is zero, the region can be supposed to ⇒ ( x + d )2 = 3x2 ⇒ x2 + d 2 + 2xd = 3x2
contain a number of electric dipoles. Therefore, at points ⇒ 2x2 − 2dx − d 2 = 0
outside the region (may be anywhere w.r.t. electric dipoles),
1 d 3d
the dominant electric field ∝ 3 for large r. Further, as x= ±
r 2 2
electric field is conservative, work done to move a charged (Negative sign between q and −3q is unadaptable.)
particle along a closed path, away from the region will be d 3d d
zero. ∴ x=− + = (1 + 3 ) to the left ofq.
2 2 2
 C H A P T E R

2
Electrostatic Potential
and Capacitance
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Electrostatic Potential The electrostatic potential at 5. Electrostatic potential at any point P due to a system
any point in an electric field is given by of n point charges q1, q 2, …, qn whose position vectors
Work done (W ) are r1 , r2 ,K , rn respectively, is given by
V = n
Charge (q)
V =
1
Σ qi
Its SI unit is volt (V) and 1 V = 1 J/C. 4 πε 0 i = 1 |r − r |
i

2. Electrostatic Potential Difference The electrostatic where, r is the position vector of point P w.r.t. the origin.
potential difference between two points in an electric
6. Electrostatic potential due to a thin charged spherical
field is given by
shell carrying charge q and radius R respectively, at
W B
VB − V A = AB = − ∫ E ⋅ d l any point P lying
q0 A
1 q
(i) inside the shell isV = ⋅
where, WAB is work done in taking charge q 0 from A 4πε 0 R
to B against the electrostatic force. 1 q
(ii) on the surface of shell isV = ⋅
3. Electrostatic potential due to a point charge q at any 4πε 0 R
point P lying at a distance r from it is given by 1 q
1 q (iii) outside the shell isV = ⋅ for r > R
V = ⋅ 4πε 0 r
4πε 0 r
where, r is the distance of point P from the centre of
4. Electrostatic potential due to an electric dipole at any the shell.
point P whose position vector is r w.r.t. mid-point of
dipole is given by 7. A surface which have same electrostatic potential at
P every point on it, is known as equipotential surface.
r
8. Relationship between Electric Field and Potential
Gradient
q dV
–q p +q E =−
O dr
2a
where, negative sign indicates that the direction
1 p cos θ 1 p ⋅ r$ of electric field is from higher potential to
V = ⋅ or V = ⋅ 2
4 πε 0 r2 4 πε 0 |r | lower potential, i.e., in the direction of decreasing
where, θ is the angle between r and p. potential.
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 27

9. The work done against electrostatic force gets stored as 19. Potential difference between the plates
potential energy. This is called electrostatic potential qd
V = Ed =
energy. Aε 0
i.e., ∆U = UB – U A = WAB where, d is the distance between the conductor
10. Electrostatic potential energy of a system of two point plates.
charges is given by
20. Capacity of the capacitor in air or vacuum is given
1 qq
U= ⋅ 1 2 by
4 π ε0 r q ε A
C= = 0
where, q1 and q 2 are value of charges and r is V d
separation between the point charges.
21. If the medium between the plates of a capacitor is
Putting the values of charge with their signs. filled with a dielectric, then new capacitance is
11. Potential Energy in an External Field given by
(i) Potential energy of a single charge in external field C = KC 0
Potential energy of a single charge q at a point with
where, C 0 = Capacitance with air
position vector r, in an external field is qV (r ),
where V (r ) is the potential at the point due to external K = dielectric constant of the dielectric.
electric field E . 22. When a dielectric fully occupies the intervening
(ii) Potential energy of a system of two charges in an region between the plates of a capacitor, the
external field dielectric is polarised by the field, the effect is
q1q 2 equivalent to two charged sheets having surface
U = q1V (r1) + q 2V (r2 ) +
4 πε 0 r12 charge densities + σ p and − σp. The electric field
where, q1 and q 2 = two point charges at position in the dielectric is then
vectors r1 and r2, respectively σ − σp
E = .
V (r1) = potential at r1 due to the external field ε0
V (r2 ) = potential at r2 due to the external field
23. For capacitors in series combination, the
12. Potential energy of a dipole in a uniform electric field equivalent capacitance Cs is given by
E = − p⋅E 1 1 1 1
= + + +K
13. The process which involves the making of a region free Cs C1 C 2 C 3
from any electric field is known as electrostatic shielding.
In the parallel combination, the equivalent
14. When a polar or non-polar dielectric develops a net capacitance C p is given by
dipole moment in the presence of an external electric
C p = C1 + C 2 + C 3 + K
field, the dipole moment per unit volume is called
polarisation and is denoted by p. where, C1, C 2, C 3 are individual capacitances.
15. For linear isotropic dielectrics 24. The energy U stored in a capacitor of capacitance
p = χe E C, with charge q and voltage V is
where, χe is a constant characteristic of the dielectric 1 1 q2
U = qV = CV 2 =
and is known as the electric susceptibility of the 2 2 2C
dielectric medium. 25. The electrostatic energy density (energy per unit
16. A combination of two conductors placed close to each volume) in a region with electric field E is
other is called capacitor. 1
Charge q U = ε 0E 2
Capacity of conductor C = = 2
Potential V
26. A van de Graft generator consists of a large
In SI system, the unit of capacity is farad. spherical conducting shell (a few metre in
17. Surface charge density of the plate of a capacitor, diameter).
q
σ= Through a moving belt and suitable brushes,
A
charge is continuously transferred to the shell and
18. Intensity of the electric field between the plates of a potential difference of the order of million volts (6
capacitor or 8 million volts) is built up which can be used to
σ q
E = = accelerate charged particles.
ε 0 Aε 0
 Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Electrostatic Potential
1. Work done by an external force in bringing a unit 6. Work done by external forces in moving a charge q
positive charge from infinity to a point is from R to P as shown in figure is
(a) equal to the electrostatic potential (V ) at that point
R
(b) equal to the negative of work done by electrostatic
forces q
(c) Both (a) and (b) Q P
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) P P
(a) − ∫R FE ⋅ dr (b) ∫R FE ⋅ dr
2. If δW is the work done in bringing a infinitesimal P P FE
small test charge δq from infinity to a point P, then (c) ∫R 2FE ⋅ dr (d) ∫R 2
⋅ dr
potential at point P is
δW δW 7. If a point charge ( + q ) is taken along two different
(a) (b) − paths say AMB (path 1) and ACB (path 2) such that
δq δq
A, M and B lie on the circle and + q (another charge)
(c) δW ⋅ δq (d) None of these
is placed at the centre, then which the given statements
3. To find the value of potential at a point, the external holds true for work done along the two paths.
force at every point of the path is to be equal and A(+q)
opposite to the
(a) work done
(b) electrostatic force on the test charge at that point C
M
+q
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
B
4. For Q < 0, V < 0, work done (by the external force) per
(a) W AMB > W ACB (b) W ACB > W AMB
unit positive test charge in bringing it from infinity to (c) W ACB = W AMB (d) None of these
the point is negative. This is equivalent to
(a) work done by electrostatic force in bringing the unit 8. A uniform electric field E exists between two charged
positive charge from infinity to the point P is positive plates. What would be the work done in moving a
(b) work done by the electrostatic force in bringing the charge q along the closed path ABCDA?
unit positive charge from infinity to the point P is
negative +
+ A B
(c) Both (a) and (b)
+
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
+
5. The electrostatic potential of a uniformly charged thin + D C
spherical shell of charge Q and radius R at a distance r +
from the centre is
(a)
Q
for points outside and
Q
for points inside
(a) ∫ E ⋅ dl (b) − ∫ E ⋅ dl
4 πε 0 r 4 πε 0 R (c) Zero (d) None of these
the shell
Q 9. If 100 J of work has to be done in moving an electric
(b) for both points inside and outside the shell charge 4 C from a place where potential is −10 V to
4 πε 0 r
another place where potential is V volt, find the value
Q of V.
(c) zero for points outside and for points inside the shell
4 πε 0 r (a) 5 V (b) 10 V
(d) zero for both points inside and outside the shell (c) 25 V (d) 15 V
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 29

10. The potential difference between a cloud and the 15. With reference to above question (14), the work done
Earth is 10 7 V. Calculate the amount of energy in bringing a charge of 2 × 10 −9 C from infinity to the
dissipated when the charge of 100 C is transferred point P is
from the cloud to the ground due to lightning bolt. (a) 4 × 10−4 J (b) 6 × 10−4 J
9
(a) zero (b) 10 J (c) 8 × 10−5 J (d) 8 × 105 J
(c) 60 J (d) 107 J
16. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged
11. In the given figure, total work done (W ) by the such that the potential on its surface becomes 80 V.
external force from r ′ = ∞ to r ′ = r is The potential at the centre of the sphere is
P′
(a) 80 V (b) 800 V (c) 8 V (d) zero
r′ ∞
17. A charge 2Q is placed at each corner of a cube of side
r ∆r′ +1 C
P
O a. The potential at the centre of the cube is
Q
8Q 4Q 8Q 2Q
(a) −
Q
(b)
Q (a) (b) (c) (d)
4 πε 0 r 4 πε 0 r πε 0 a 4 πε 0 a 3 πε 0 a πε 0 a

2Q 2Q 18. The potential of a large liquid drop when eight liquid

(c) (d) −
4 πε 0 r 4 πε 0 r drops are combined is 20 V . Then, the potential of
each single drop was
12. In the given figure, work done against this force from (a) 10 V (b) 7.5 V (c) 5 V (d) 2.5 V
r ′ to r ′ – ∆r ′ is
19. As per this diagram, a point charge + q is placed at the
P′
r′ ∞ origin O. Work done in taking another point charge − Q
r P
∆r′ +1 C from the point A [coordinates (0, a )] to another point B
O
Q [coordinate (a,0)] along the straight path AB is
Q 2Q Y
(a) 2
∆ r′ (b) 2
∆ r′
4 πε 0 r′ 4 πε 0 r′
2Q Q A
(c) − ∆ r′ (d) − ∆ r′
4 πε 0 r′ 2 4 πε 0 r′ 2

13. 5
4.5
O X
4 B
3.5  − qQ 
E 3 (a) zero (b)   2a
or 2.5 I  4 πε 0 a 2 
V 2
1.5 II  qQ  a  qQ 1 
(c)  ⋅ (d)   2a
1  4 πε 0 a 2  2  4 πε 0 a 2 
0.5
0
0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 4.5 5 20. With reference to the figure given below, the electric
potential of a dipole is given by
The above figure shows the variation of potential V
P
or electric field with r for a point charge Q. Which of +q
r1
the given curves represent E versus r or V versus r? r
a
(a) I→ E versus r, II→ V versus r p
θ
(b) I→ V versus r, II→ V versus r r2
2a
(c) Both represent E versus r a
(d) None of the above
14. Calculate the potential at a point P due to a charge of –q

4 × 10 −7
C located 9 cm away 2 p⋅ r$ p⋅ r$
(a) (b)
4 πε 0 r2 8πε 0 r2
(a) 8 × 10−5 V (b) 8 × 104 V
1 p⋅ r$ 1 p⋅ r$
(c) 4 × 104 V (d) 4 × 10−4 V (c) (d)
4 πε 0 r2 4 πε 0 r
30 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

21. Two charges 3 × 10 −8 C and − 2 × 10 −8 C located 26. In the above question, the field strength at a point
15 cm apart. At what point on the line joining the two a,where the distance between the surfaces is 4 cm, is
charges is the electric potential zero? (a) 50 Vm −1 (b) 5 Vm −1 (c) 15 Vm −1 (d) 55 Vm −1
(a) 9 cm (b) 45 cm 27. Figure shows equipotential surfaces.
(c) 18 cm (d) Both (a) and (b)
R –30 V
–25 V
22. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is –20 V
surrounded by an uncharged concentric hollow –15 V
–10 V
spherical shell. Let the potential difference between
the surface of the solid sphere and that of the outer
surface of hollow shell be V . What will be the new
potential difference between the same two surfaces if P
the shell is given a charge − 3Q?
What is the direction of electric field E at P and R?
(a) V (b) − 3 V (c) 2 V (d) 4 V
(a) At P, E is to the left. At R , E is upward
23. In the figure given alongside, P
(b) At P , E is to the right. At R , E is downward
O is the centre of line joining (c) At P , E is to downward. At R , E is to the left
AB. Two charges of opposite a (d) At P , E is to upward. At R , E is to the right
nature and same magnitude
are placed at A and B 28. Equipotentials surface between two equal and oppose
respectively.
A
q O –q
B charges passing through the middle point is
(a) a plane (b) curved surface
The potential at point P is 2a
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
2kq
(a) (b) zero
a 2 29. The electric potential at a certain distance from a point
kq charge is 600 V and the electric field is 200 NC −1 . The
(c) (d) cannot be determined
a 2 distance of the point charge (in metres) is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 0
24. For a uniform electric field E, along the X-axis, the
equipotential surfaces 30. In a Millikan drop experiment, a drop of diameter
(a) planes perpendicular to the X-axis 10 − 4 cm with a density of 900 kgm −3 is observed.
(b) planes parallel to the YZ-plane The capacitor plates are 2 cm apart. A potential of
(c) Both (a) and (b) 72 V applied across the plates keeps the drop in
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) balance. How many electronic charges are there on
25. Three equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. the drop?
Which of the following is correct one for the (a) 1 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 2
corresponding field lines? 31. Work done in moving a test charge over an
10 V 8V 6V equipotential surface?
(a) No (b) Yes (c) Constant (d) Zero
32. What is the work done in A B
a 4 cm moving a 2µC point charges (2 µC)
b
from corner A to corner B of a
10 V 8V 6V 8V 6V 10 V square ABCD in figure when a 10 µC
10µC charge exists at the centre
(a) E (b) E of the square?
(a) Zero (b) 5 D C
a a
d b
b (c) 2 (d) 20
d
10 V 8V 6V
33. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has
potential V at a point distant 5 cm from its centre,
(d) None of these
then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the
E
(c) centre will be
a 1 2 3
d b (a) V (b) V (c) V (d) V
3 3 2
Topic 2
Electrostatic Potential Energy
34. R 38. In the figure, proton moves a E

Unit charge (1 C) distance d in a uniform electric

Q P
field E as shown in the figure.
Does the electric field do a P
Potential energy difference between points R and P is positive or negative work on the d
equal to proton? Does the electric potential energy of the
(a) ∆U = − WRP (b) ∆U = WRP proton increase or decrease?
(c) ∆U = 2WRP (d) ∆U = 4 WRP (a) Negative, increase (b) Positive, decrease
35. Consider the following figure as shown below. (c) Negative, decrease (d) Positive, increase
R
39. Work done in moving a charge from one point to
q other inside a uniformly charged conducting sphere is
Q P (a) always zero (b) non-zero
(c) may be zero (d) None of these
Work done by external force in bringing a unit
positive charge from point R to P is 40. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square
ABCD of side d, as shown in the figure. The work
U − U R  U − U P  required to put together this arrangement is
(a) −  P  (b) −  R 
 q   q  +q –q
A B
U − U P  U − U R 
(c)  R  (d)  P 
 2q   q 
q0 d
E
36. The total potential energy of a system of three charges
q1 , q 2 and q 3 located at r1 , r2 and r3 respectively is D C
that –q +q
q3 q2
r23 − q2 − q3
(a) (4 − 2 ) (b) (4 − 2 )
4 πε 0 d 4 πε 0 d
− q4 q2
r13 r12 (c) (4 − 2 ) (d) (4 − 2 )
4 πε 0 d 4 πε 0 d

41. An electric dipole of length 1cm is placed with the

q1
axis making an angle of 30° to an electric field of
1  q1 q2 q1 q3 q2 q3  strength 10 4 N/C. If it experiences a torque of
(a)  + + 
4 πε 0  r12 r13 r23  10 2 Nm, the potential energy of the dipole is
1  q1 q2 q1 q3 q2 q3  (a) 0.245 J (b) 2.45 J (c) 24.5 J (d) 245.0 J
(b)  − + 
4 πε 0  r12 r13 r23 
42. Two charges of equal magnitude q are placed in air at
1  q1 q2 q1 q3 q2 q3  a distance 2a apart and third charge − 2q is placed at
(c)  + − 
4 πε 0  r12 r13 r23  mid-point. The potential energy of the system is
1  q1 q2 q1 q3 q2 q3  (ε 0 = permittivity of free space)
(d)  − − 
4 πε 0  r12 r13 r23  q2 3q 2 5q 2 7q 2
(a) − (b) − (c) − (d) −
+Q 8πε 0 a 8πε 0 a 8πε 0 a 8πε 0 a
37. Three charges are placed at the
vertex of an equilateral triangle 43. Three charges − q, + Q and –q +Q –q
of side l as shown in figure. For − q are placed in a straight x x
what value of Q, the line as shown.
electrostatic potential energy of +q +q
If the total potential energy of the system is zero, then
the system is zero? the ratio q / Q is
(a) − q (b) q/ 2 (c) − 2q (d) − q/ 2 (a) 2 (b) 5.5 (c) 4 (d) 1.5
32 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

q3
44. Two charges q1 and q 2 C 50. A molecule of a substance has a permanent electric
are placed 30 cm apart, dipole moment of magnitude 10 −29 Cm. A mole of this
as shown in the figure. substance is polarised (at low temperature) by
A third charge q 3 is
40 cm applying a strong electrostatic field of magnitude
moved along the arc of 10 6 Vm −1 . The direction of the field is suddenly
a circle of radius 40 cm
q2 changed by an angle of 60°. Estimate the heat released
A D
from C to D. The q1 30 cm B by the substance in aligning its dipoles along the new
change in the potential direction of the field.
q3 (a) − 3 J (b) 3 J (c) − 6 J (d) 6 J
energy of the system is k , where k is
4πε 0 51. An electric dipole, made up of positive and negative
(a) 8q2 (b) 8q1 (c) 6q2 (d) 6q1 charges each of 3.5 µC and placed at a distance 4.2 cm
apart is placed in an electric field of 5.87 × 10 5 NC −1 .
45. Three point charges + q1 , − 2q and − 2q are placed at What will be the maximum torque which the field can
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. The exert on the dipole? Also, obtain the work that must be
work done by some external force to increase their done to turn the dipole from 0° to180°.
separation to 2a will be (a) 85.26 × 10−3 Nm−1 , 1.70 × 10−1 J
1 2q 2 1 q2 1 δq
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero (b) 75.26 × 10−3 Nm−1 , 1.70 × 10−1 J
4 πε 0 a 4 πε 0 2a 4 πε 0 a 2
(c) 85.26 × 10−3 Nm−1 , 3.70 × 10−3 J
46. Suppose an external torque τ ext is applied on dipole (d) 55.26 × 10−3 Nm−1 , 1.70 × 10−3 J
and rotates it in the plane of paper from angle θ 0 to an
52. What happens when a conductor is placed in an
angle θ 1 at an infinitesimal angular speed and without
external electric field?
angular acceleration. The amount of work done by the
(a) The free charge carriers move and charge distribution
external torque will be given by in the conductor adjusts itself in such a way that the
electric field due to induced charge opposes the external
E field within the conductor
(b) In the static situation, the two fields cancel each other
and the electrostatic field in the conductor is zero
– a cos θ θ q (c) Both (a) and (b)
X (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
–q p a cos θ
2a 53. Which of the following is/are the example of
non-polar molecules?
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(a) pE (cos θ1 − cos θ 0 ) (b) − 2 pE (cos θ1 − cos θ 0 )
(c) Nitrogen (d) All (a), (b) and (c)
(c) pE (cos θ 0 − cos θ1 ) (d) − 2 pE (cos θ 0 − cos θ1 )
54. The examples of polar molecules are
47. Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a
(a) HCl (b) H2 O
system consisting of two charges 7µC and − 2µC (and
(c) NH3 (d) All (a), (b) and (c)
with no external field) placed at ( − 9 cm, 0, 0) and
(9 cm, 0, 0), respectively 55. The total dipole moment of dielectric with polar
(a) 0.7 J (b) − 0.7 J molecules in absence of an external electric field is
(c) 70 J (d) − 70 J (a) zero (b) negative
48. According to Q.no. 47, how much work is required to (c) infinite (d) None of these
separate the two charges infinitely away from each 56. The extent of polarisation depends on
other? (a) the dipole potential energy in the external field tending
(a) 7 J (b) − 7 J (c) 0.7 J (d) 70 J to align the dipoles with the field
49. Suppose that the same system of charges is now (b) thermal energy tending to disrupt the alignment
placed in an external electric field (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
E = A (1/ r 2 ); A = 9 × 10 5 cm −2 . What would the
57. For linear isotropic dielectric, the polarisation is
electrostatic energy of the configuration be?
(a) p = χ e E (b) p = − χ e E
(a) 49 J (b) 49.3 J
χ
(c) − 49.3 J (d) 45 J (c) p = 2χ e E (d) p = e
E
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 33

58. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field, the 60. The dielectric constant of helium at 0° C and
electric field inside a dielectric 1 atmospheric pressure is 1.00074. Find the dipole
(a) increases (b) decreases moment induced in each helium atom when the gas is
(c) constant (d) zero in an electric field of intensity 10 Vm −1 .
59. When P is normal to the surface, the polarisation is (a) 2.4 × 1040 C - m
numerically equal to the (b) 2.4 × 10−39 C-m
(a) surface density of the induced charge
(c) 2.6 × 10−39 C-m
(b) dipole moment
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) 1.5 × 1040 C-m
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Topic 3
Capacitance and Van de Graaff Generator
61. The symbols of a capacitor with fixed capacitance 66. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are not exactly
and with variable capacitance is parallel. The surface charge density
, + (a) is lower at the closer end
(a) , (b) , (c) + – , + – (d) – (b) will not uniform
(c) each plate will have the same potential at every point
62. The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium
(d) Both (b) and (c)
of a capacitor can withstand without break down
(of its insulating property) is called its 67. The graph shows the variation of voltage V across the
(a) polarisation (b) capacitance plates of two capacitors A and B versus increase of
(c) dielectric strength (d) None of these charge Q stored in them. Which of the capacitors has
higher capacitance?
63. A parallel-plate capacitor has circular plates of radius
V
8 cm and plate separation 1 mm. What will be the
charge on the plates if a potential difference of 100 V B
VB
is applied?
(a) 1.78 × 10–8 C (b) 1.78 × 10−5 C VA
A
4 −9
(c) 4.3 × 10 C (d) 2 × 10 C
Q
64. Let A be the area of each Surface charge Q
plate and d the separation density, σ I Area A (a) Capacitor A (b) Capacitor B
between them. The two 1
++++++++ (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
plates have charges Q and
− Q. Since, d is much
E d 68. A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance18 µF. If
– – – – – – – –
smaller than the linear 2 the distance between the plates is tripled and a dielectric
dimension of the plates Surface charge II medium is introduced, the capacitance becomes 72 µF.
density, σ The dielectric constant of the medium is
( d 2 << A ), plate 1 has
(a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 2
surface charge density σ = Q / A and plate 2 has a
surface charge density − σ. The electric field in outer 69. If dielectric constant and dielectric strength be denoted
region I (region above the plate 1) by K and X respectively, then a material suitable for use
σ σ 2σ as a dielectric in a capacitor must have
(a) (b) − (c) zero (d)
2ε 0 2ε 0 4 ε0 (a) high K and high X (b) high K and low X
(c) low K and high X (d) low K and low X
65. What is the value of capacitance if the very thin
metallic plate is introduced between two parallel 70. Taking earth to be a metallic spheres. Its capacity will
plates of area A and separated at distance d? approximately be
2ε 0 A 4 ε0 A ε A (a) 6.4 × 106 F (b) 700 F
(a) ε 0 A / d (b) (c) (d) 0
d d 2d (c) 711µF (d) 700 pF
34 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

71. The plates in a parallel plates capacitor are separated 77. A capacitor of 2µF is charged as shown in the figure.
by a distance d with air as the medium between the When the switch S is turned to position 2, the
plates. In order to increase the capacity by 66% a percentage of its stored energy dissipated is
3d [NEET 2016]
dielectric slab of thickness is introduced between 1 2
5
the plates. What is the dielectric constant of the S
dielectric slab?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.66 V 2 µF
8 µF
(c) 3 (d) 5
72. In a parallel plate capacitor the separation between
the plates is 3 mm with air between them. Now, a (a) 20% (b) 75% (c) 80% (d) 0%
dielectric of dielectric constant 2 is introduced 78. A 900 pF capacitor is charged by 100 V battery in the
between the plates due to which the capacity figure. How much electrostatic energy is stored by the
increases. In order to bring its capacity of the original capacitor?
value the separation between the plates must be made +Q –Q
(a) 1.5 mm (b) 2.5 mm
(c) 4 mm (d) 6 mm
73. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air a C
medium is 3µF with the introduction of dielectric 100 V
medium between the plates, the capacitance becomes + –
15 µF. The permittivity of the medium is (a) 45 × 10−6 J (b) 4.5 × 106 J
2 −1 −2
(a) 5C N m (c) 4.5 × 10−6 J (d) 0.45 × 105 J
(b) 15 C2 N−1 m−2 79. Three capacitors each of capacity 4 µF are to the
(c) 0.44 × 10−10 C2 N−1 m−2 connected in such a way that the effective capacitance
(d) 8.845 × 10−11 C2 N−1 m−2 is 6 µF. This can be done by
(a) connecting two in series and one in parallel
74. A capacitor connected to a 10 V battery collects a charge
(b) connecting two in parallel and one in series
of 40 µC with air as dielectric and100 µC with a given
(c) connecting all of them in series
oil as dielectric. The dielectric constant of the oil is (d) connecting all of them in parallel
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
(c) 2.5 (d) 3.0 80. A gang capacitor is formed by interlocking nine
plates with each other. The distance between the
75. Two capacitors C1 and C 2 are charged to 120 V and 200 consecutive plates is 0.885 cm and the overlapping
V respectively. It is found that by connecting them area of the plate is 5 cm 2 . The capacity of the unit is
together the potential on each one can be made zero. (a) 1.06 pF (b) 4 pF
Then, [JEE Main 2013] (c) 6.36 pF (d) 12.72 pF
(a) 5C1 = 3C 2 (b) 3 C1 = 5C 2
(c) 3C1 + 5C 2 = 0 (d) 9 C1 = 4C 2 81. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a 5V battery
and charged. The battery is then disconnected and a
76. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the glass slab is introduced between the plates. Then, the
same area as the plates of a parallel plate capacitor quantities that decrease are
but has a thickness (3/ 4) d, where d is the separation (a) charge and potential difference
of the plates. How is the capacitance changed when (b) charge and capacitance
the slab is inserted between the plates? (c) capacitance and potential difference
4K (d) energy stored and potential difference
(a) C0
K +3
82. When a series combination of two uncharged
K +3
(b) C0 capacitors is connected to a 12 V battery, 173 µJ of
4K energy is drawn from the battery. If one of the
K −3 capacitors has a capacitance of 4µF, the capacitance
(c) C0
4K
of the other capacitor (in µF) is
4K
(d) C0 (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 6
K −3
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 35

83. A parallel plate capacitor has the space between its 87. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential
d difference across the 4.5 µF capacitor is
plates filled by the two slabs of thickness each and 3 µF
2
dielectric constants K1 and K 2 , d is the plate 4.5 µF
separation of the capacitor. The capacity of the
capacitor is
6 µF
2ε 0 d  K 1 + K 2 
(a)   12 V
A  K1K 2 
2ε 0 A  K1K 2  8
(b)   (a) V (b) 4 V (c) 6 V (d) 8 V
d  K1 + K 2  3
2ε 0 A
(c) ( K1 + K 2 ) 88. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value
A
C1 ,is charged by a source of potential difference 4V.
2ε 0 A  K 1 + K 2  When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors,
(d)  
d  K1K 2  each of value C 2 , is charged by a source of potential
difference V , it has the same (total) energy stored in it,
84. Across each of two capacitors of capacitance 1µF, a as the first combination has. The value of C 2 in terms
potential difference of 10 V is applied. Then, positive of C1 is
plate of one is connected to the negative plate of the 2C 1 n1 n2 16 C 1
(a) (b) 16 (c) 2 C1 (d)
other and negative plate of one is connected to the n1 n2 n2 n1 n1 n2
positive plate of the other. After contact
(a) charge on each is zero 89. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular
(b) charge on each is same but non-zero plates separated by a distance of 5 mm and with a
(c) charge on each is different but non-zero dielectric of dielectric constant 2.2 between them.
(d) None of the above When the electric field in the dielectric is
3 × 10 4 V/m, the charge density of the positive plate
85. A network of four 10µF capacitors is connected to a
will be closed to [JEE Main 2014]
500 V supply as shown in figure. Determine the
(a) 6 × 10−7 Cm −2 (b) 3 × 10−7 Cm −2
equivalent capacitance of the network.
−2
+Q –Q (c) 3 × 10 Cm 4
(d) 6 × 104 Cm −2

B C 90. A combination of capacitors is setup as shown in the

C2
figure. The magnitude of the electric field due to a
–Q +Q point charge Q (having a charge equal to the sum of
+Q
C1 C3 –Q the charges on the 4 µF and 9µF capacitors), at a point
C4 distance 30 m from it, would equal to [JEE Main 2016]
A D 3 µF
4 µF
+Q –Q 9 µF
500 V
(a) 12 µF (b) 13.3 µF
2 µF
(c) 11.5 µF (d) 14 µF
86. A number of condensers, each of the capacitance + –
1µF and each one of which gets punctured, if a
potential difference just exceeding 500 V is applied 8V
are provided. (a) 240 N/C (b) 360 N/C
In arrangement suitable for giving capacitance of (c) 420 N/C (d) 480 N/C
2 µF across which 3000 V may be applied requires at
91. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C 0 is
least
(a) 6 component capacitors connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected
(b) 12 component capacitors from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which
(c) 72 component capacitors can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted
(d) 2 component capacitors in it.
36 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Which of the following is incorrect? 95. A small sphere of radius r1 having charge q1 is
(a) The potential difference between the plates decreases K
enclosed by a spherical shell of radius r2 having
times
charge q 2 . Which charge will necessarily flow from
(b) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times
1 the sphere to the shell, when connected
(c) The change in energy C 0V 2 ( K − 1) (a) q1 (b) q2
2
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) May be q2
1 1 
(d) The change in energy C 0V 2  − 1 96. Van de Graaff generator is used to
2  K 
(a) store electrical energy
92. A capacitor is charged by a battery and the energy (b) build up high voltages of few million volts
stored is U . The battery is now removed and the (c) decelerate charged particle like electrons
separation distance between the plates is doubled. The (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
energy stored now is
(a) U / 2 (b) U (c) 2U (d) 4U
93. The potential energy of a charged parallel plate is U 0 . 97. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about
the principle of Van de Graaff generator?
If a slab of dielectric constant K is inserted between
(a) The action of sharp points
the plates, then the new potential energy will be
U0 U0 (b) The charge given to a hollow conductor is transferred to
(a) (b) U 0 K 2 (c) (d) U 02 K outer surface and is distributed uniformly over it
K K2
(c) It is used for accelerating uncharged particle
94. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field (d) Both (a) and (b) are true
(Vm −1 ) in the space between the plates. If the
98. In a Van de Graaff type generator, a spherical metal
distance between the plates is d( m) and area of each
shell is to be at a 1.5 × 10 6 V. The dielectric strength
plate is A( m 2 ) the energy ( joule) stored in the
of the gas surrounding the electrode is 5 × 10 7 Vm −1 .
capacitor, is
1 1 What is minimum radius of the spherical shell
(a) ε0 E 2 (b) ε 0 EAd (c) ε 0 E 2 Ad (d) E 2 Ad / ε 0 required?
2 2
(a) 0.3 cm (b) 0.03 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 3 m

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason Reason For Q < 0, the force on unit positive charge
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 99-108) In the following is attractive, so that the electrostatic force and the
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a displacement (from infinity to P) are in the same
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following direction.
statements, choose the correct one. 100. Assertion A and B are two conducting spheres of
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is same radius. A being solid and B hollow. Both are
the correct explanation of Assertion.
charged to the same potential. Then, charge on A =
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
charge on B.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason Potential on both are same.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
101. Assertion There is no potential difference between
99. Assertion Work done by the electrostatic force in any two points on the equipotential surface.
bringing the unit positive charge from infinity to the Reason No work is required to move a test charge on
point P is positive. the equipotential surface from one point to other.
P′
∞ 102. Assertion The expression of potential energy
r′
1 q1 q 2
r ∆r +1 C U = , is unaltered whatever way the
O P 4πε 0 r12
Q(< 0)
charges are brought to the specified locations.
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 37

Reason Path-independence of work for 109. Statement I For a charged particle moving from point P
electrostatic force. to point Q, the net work done by an electrostatic field on
103. Assertion In the absence of an external electric the particle is independent of the path connecting point P
field, the dipole moment per unit volume of a to point Q.
polar dielectric is zero. Statement II The net work done by a
conservative force on an object moving along a closed
Reason The dipoles of a polar dielectric are
loop is zero.
randomly oriented.
104. Assertion Polar molecules have permanent 110. Statement I A capacitor can be given only a limited
dipole moment. quantity of charge.
Reason In polar molecules, the centre of positive Statement II Charge stored by a capacitor depends upon
and negative charges coincides even when there the shape and size of the plates of capacitor and the
is no external field. surrounding medium.
105. Assertion Charge on all the condensers 111. Statement I Capacity of a parallel plate capacitor
connected in series is the same. increases when distance between the plates is decreased.
Reason Capacitance of capacitor is directly Statement II Capacitance of a capacitor is directly
proportional to charge on it. proportional to distance between them.
106. Assertion An electron moves from a region of 112. Statement I The capacity of a conductor, under given
lower potential to a region of higher potential. circumstance, remains constant irrespective of the charge
present on it.
Reason An electron has a negative charge.
Statement II Capacity depends on size and shape of
107. Assertion A parallel plate capacitor is connected
conductor and also on the medium.
across a battery through a key. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant K is introduced between the 113. Statement I A charged capacitor is disconnected from a
plates. The energy which is stored becomes K battery. Now if its plates are separated further, the
times. potential energy will fall.
Reason The surface density of charge on the Statement II Energy stored in a capacitor is equal to the
plate remains constant or unchanged. work done in charging it.
108. Assertion If three capacitors of capacitances
C1 < C 2 < C 3 are connected in parallel, and in
Statement Based Questions Type II
series then their equivalent capacitances. 114. I. In a metal, the outer (valence) electrons part away from
C p > Cs their atoms and are free to move.
II. The valence electrons are within the metal but not free to
1 1 1 1
Reason = + + leave the metal.
C p C1 C 2 C 3 III. The free electrons form a kind of gas; they collide with each
other and with the ions and move randomly in different
II. Statement Based Questions Type I directions.
(a) I and II are correct, III may be correct
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 109-113) In the following (b) I and III are correct, II may be correct
questions, a statement I is followed by a (c) I, II and III are incorrect
corresponding statement II. Of the following (d) I, II and III are correct
statements, choose the correct one.
115. I. In metals, the positive ions made up of the nuclei and the
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
and Statement II is the correct explanation of bound electrons remain held in their fixed positions.
Statement I. II. In electrolytic conductors, the charge carriers are both
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but positive and negative ions.
Statement II is not the correct explanation of (a) I is correct, II may be correct
Statement I. (b) II is correct, I is incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (c) I and II are incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (d) I and II are correct
38 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

116. I. The molecules of a substance may be polar or non-polar. Column I Column II

II. In a non-polar molecule, the centres of positive and A. Electric field between the plates E0 1. ε0 A / d
negative charge coincide. B. Potential difference V0 2. σ / ε0
III. The non-polar molecule has no permanent C. The capacitance C 0 3. E0 d
(or intrinsic) dipole moment. A B C A B C
(a) I, II are correct, III may be correct (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1
(b) I and III are correct, II may be correct (c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2
(c) II and III are correct, I is incorrect 121. Match the following columns and choose the correct
(d) I, II and III are correct options from code given below. Consider a dielectric
117. I. In an external electric field, the positive and negative inserted between the plates fully occupying the
charges of a non-polar molecule are displaced in intervening region. The surface charge densities on
opposite directions. the charged plates are ± σ.
II. In non-polar molecules displacement stops when the Column I Column II
external force on the constituent charges of the 1. Qd / Aε0 K
A. Electric field E
molecule is balanced by the restoring force.
B. Potential difference across the plates V 2. (σ − σ p ) / ε0
III. The non-polar molecule develops an induced dipole
C. The capacitance C, with dielectric 3. C / C 0
moment.
between the plates
(a) I, II are III are correct
D. Dielectric constant of the substance (K) 4. ε0 KA / d
(b) I, II and III are incorrect
(c) I and II are correct, III is incorrect A B C D A B C D
(d) I and III are correct, II is incorrect (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 2 3 1
118. I. Electrostatic force is conservative.
122. A capacitor C1 of capacitance C is charged to a
II. Van de Graaff generator is a machine that can build potential difference V0 . The terminals of the charged
up high voltages of the order of a few million volts. capacitor are then connected to an uncharged
III. In Van de Graaff generator, electric fields are used to capacitor C 2 of capacitance C /2.
accelerate charged particle to high energies.
Column I Column II
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
A. Final energy of capacitor C 1 1. − (1/ 6) CV02
(a) I and II are correct, III may be correct
(b) I and III are correct, II may be correct B. Final energy of capacitor C 2 2. (1/ 6) CV02
(c) I, II and III are correct C. Final energy of the system 3. (1/ 3) CV02
(d) II and III are correct, I may be correct D. Change in energy on joining 4. (2 / 9) CV02
the capacitors
III. Matching Type 5. (1/ 9) CV02
119. Match the following columns. A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 5 (b) 4 5 3 1
Column I Column II
(c) 5 4 3 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
A. 1 keV 1. 1.6 × 10−7 J
B. 1 MeV 2. 1.6 × 10−10 J 123. Match the entries of
30 V C1 2 µF
C. 1 GeV 3. 1.6 × 10−16 J
Column I with the entries
of Column II and choose
D. 1 TeV 4. 1.6 × 10−13 J S
the correct option from the 60 V C2 3 µF
A B C D codes given below.
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 4 2 1 Column I Column II
(c) 2 3 4 1 A. 108 µC 1. Charge on both the capacitors ( S open)
(d) 1 4 3 2 B. 180 µC 2. Charge on both the capacitors (S closed)
120. Match the following columns and choose the correct C. 60 µC 3. Charge on C 1 (S closed)
options from codes given below. Consider the large D. 240 µC 4. Charge on C 2 (S closed)
plates, each of area A, separated by a distance d. The
charge on the plates is ± Q, corresponding to the A B C D A B C D
charge density ± σ (with σ = Q / A ). (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 2 4
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 39

124. Match the entries of Column I with entries of Column II. 127. If the test charge is moved back to R from P, then
Column I Column II
total work done by electric field is
(a) 3 J (b) zero
A. 1. E inside the (c) Cannot be determined (d) None of these
Hollow conductor is
q neutral zero. ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 128-131) Answer the following
conductor
questions are based on the given figure followed by a
paragraph. Choose the correct option from those given
B. 2. | E | inside the below.
Hollow conductor is
q neutral constant but not Potential difference ( ∆V ) between two points A and B
conductor zero. separated by a distance x, in a uniform electric field E
is given by ∆V = − Ex, where x is measured parallel to
C. 3. | E | inside the the field lines. If a charge q 0 moves from A to B the
Hollow conductor is change in potential energy ( ∆U ) is given as ∆U = q 0 ∆V .
neutral varying.
q1 q2 conductor
A proton is released from rest in uniform electric field
of magnitude 8.0 × 104 Vm −1 directed along the positive
X-axis. The proton undergoes a displacement of 0.50 m
D. 4. Potential inside
Hollow the conductor is in the direction of E.
neutral same as that of Mass of a proton = 1.66 × 10− 27 kg
q1 q2 conductor conductor. and charge on a proton = 1.6 × 10− 19 C
E
5. Potential inside
the conductor is
varying.

A B C D
(a) 1, 4 3, 5 3, 5 3, 5
A B
(b) 4, 1 3, 4 2, 3 4, 2 0.5 m

(c) 1, 4 3, 5 2, 3 3, 4 With the help of the passage given above, choose the
(d) 3, 5 2, 3 4, 1 1, 4 most appropriate alternative for each of the following
questions.
IV. Passage Based Questions 128. As the proton moves from A to B, then
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 125-127) Answer the following (a) the potential energy of proton decreases
questions are based on the given figure followed by a (b) the potential energy of proton increases
paragraph. Choose the correct option from those given (c) the proton loses kinetic energy
below. (d) total energy of the proton increases
A test charge + q is taken from point R to point P 129. The change in electric potential of the proton between
against repulsive electrostatic force by the application the points A and B is
of an extended force Fext as shown figure. (a) 4.0 × 104 V (b) − 4.0 × 104 V
Fext
R (c) 6.4 × 10− 19 V (d) − 6.4 × 10− 19 V

+q 130. The change in electric potential energy of the proton

(+Q) P for displacement from A to B is
(a) − 6.4 × 10− 19 J
125. If the change in potential energy of charge q from R (b) 6.4 × 10− 19 J
to P is 3 J, then work done by electric field is (c) − 6.4 × 10− 15 J
(a) 3 J (b) zero (d) 6.4 × 10− 15 J
(c) − 3 J (d) Cannot be determined
131. The velocity ( v B ) of the proton after it has moved
126. If potential energy at P is 5 J and the change in
0.50 m starting from rest is
potential is 2 J, then the potential energy at R is
(a) 1.6 × 108 ms −1 (b) 2.77 × 106 ms −1
(a) − 3 J (b) + 3 J
(c) zero (d) Cannot be determined (c) 2.77 × 104 ms −1 (d) 1.6 × 106 ms −1
40 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

■ Directions (Q. Nos. 132-136) Answer of the V. More than One Option Correct
following questions are based on the given figure
followed by a paragraph. Choose those correct option 137. The two plates of a parallel plate capacitors charges
from these given below. Q1 and Q2 are given. The capacity of the capacitor is
C. When the switch is closed, mark the correct
The electric field due to a plane sheet of charge having
q statement(s). Assuming both Q1 , Q2 to be positive.
charge q and area A is given by E = . Further,
2 ε0 A Q1 Q2

with usual notation, in case of a parallel-plate capacitor,

q qd ε A
E= ,V = and C = 0
ε0 A ε0 A d
q1 q2
A B

a b c d

(a) The charge flown through switch is zero.

(b) The charge flown through switch is Q1 + Q2
d
Q1
(c) Potential difference across the capacitor plates is .
Let us now consider that the charges given to the two C
plates A and B of a parallel-plate capacitor are (d) The charge of the capacitor is Q1 .
different, i. e., q1 and q 2 as shown in figure.
138. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging
With the help of the paragraph given above, choose
the most appropriate alternative for each of the battery is then disconnected.
following questions. If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart
by means of insulating handles, then which of the
132. The charges on the surfaces a and b of the plate A are following is correct?
q1 + q 2 q1 − q 2 q1 − q 2 q 2 − q1 (a) The charge on the capacitor increases
(a) , (b) ,
2 2 2 2 (b) The voltage across the plates increases
q 1+ q 2 q 1 + q 2 q1 + q 2 q 2 − q1 (c) The capacitance increases
(c) , (d) , (d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor increases
2 2 2 2
133. The charges on the surfaces c and d of the plate B, are 139. A 900 pF capacitor is charged by 100 V battery.
q1 − q 2 q 2 − q1 q 2 − q1 q1 + q 2 (a) The charge on the capacitor is 9 × 10−8 C
(a) , (b) , (b) The energy stored by the capacitor is 4.5 × 10−6 J
2 2 2 2
q1 + q 2 q1 + q 2 q1 + q 2 q 2 − q1 (c) If capacitor is disconnected from the battery and
(c) , (d) , connected to another 900 pF capacitor, then energy
2 2 2 2
stored by the system is 2.25 × 10−6 J
134. The electric field between the two plates A and B, is
(d) None of the above
q1 + q 2 q1 − q 2 q 2 − q1 q1 + q 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A ε0 A 140. If a charged conductor is enclosed by a hollow
charged conducting shell (assumed concentric and
135. The potential difference between the two plates A and spherical in shape), and they are connected by a
B, is conducting wire, then which of the following
(q1 + q 2 ) d (q 2 − q1 ) d
(a) (b) statement (s) would be correct?
2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A (a) Potential difference between two conductors becomes
(q1 − q 2 ) d (q1 + q 2 ) d zero.
(c) (d)
2ε 0 A ε0 A (b) If charge on inner conductor is q and on outer
conductor is 2q, then finally charge on outer conductor
136. The capacitance of the capacitor is given by will be 3q.
ε0 A ε0 A (c) The charge on the inner conductor is not totally
(a) (b)
2d d transferred to the outer conductor.
2 ε0 A 2 ( q 1 + q 2 ) ε0 A (d) If charge on the inner conductor is q and charge on the
(c) (d) outer conductor is zero, then finally charge on each
d (q1 − q 2 ) d conductor will be q/2.
 NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
NCERT 148. A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices.
−8 −8 Determine the potential due to this charge array at the
141. Two charges 5 × 10 C and –3 × 10 C are located
16 cm apart. At what point(s) from +ve charge on the centre of the cube.
line joining the two charges is the electric potential 4 3q 3q 4q
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero
zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero. πε 0 b πε 0 b 3πε 0 b
(a) 6 cm, 30 cm (b) 8 cm, 40 cm
(c) 10 cm, 40 cm (d) 30 cm, 40 cm 149. Two tiny spheres carrying charges 1.5 µC and 2.5 µC
142. A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 µC at are located 30 cm apart. Find the potential at a point
each of its vertices. Calculate the potential at the 10 cm from this mid-point in a plane normal to the
centre of the hexagon. line and passing through the mid-point.
(a) 105 V (b) 2 × 105 V
(a) 3.7 × 10− 6 V
(c) 2 × 108 V (d) zero
(b) 2.7 × 10− 6 V
150. In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton are
(c) 2.7 × 10− 4 V
bound at a distance of about 0.53 Å.
(d) 3.7 × 10− 4 V
What is the potential energy of the system in eV,
143. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates taking the zero of the potential energy at infinite
has a capacitance of 8 pF (1 pF = 10 − 12 F). What will separation of the electron from proton?
be the capacitance, if the distance between the plates (a) + 2716
. eV (b) − 27.16 eV
is reduced by half and the space between them is (c) 13.58 eV (d) − 13.58 eV
filled with a substance of dielectric constant 6?
(a) 24 pF (b) 96 pF (c) 8 pF (d) 12 pF NCERT Exemplar
144. Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pF are 151. A positively charged particle is released from rest in
connected in series. What is the potential difference an uniform electric field. The electric potential energy
across each capacitor, if the combination is connected of the charge
to a 120 V supply? (a) remains a constant because the electric field is uniform
(a) 40 V (b) 60 V (c) 80 V (d) 50 V (b) increases because the charge moves along the electric
field
145. In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the (c) decreases because the charge moves along the electric field
plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10 − 3 m 2 and the (d) decreases because the charge moves opposite to the
distance between the plates is 3 mm. If this capacitor electric field
is connected to a 100 V supply, what is the charge on
152. Figure shows some equipotential lines distributed in
each plate of the capacitor?
space. A charged object is moved from point A to
(a) 1.77 × 10− 9 C (b) 2.77 × 10− 9 C point B.
(c) 1 × 10− 8 C (d) 4.7 × 10− 6 C (a) The work done in Fig. (i) is the greatest
(b) The work done in Fig. (ii) is least
146. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply.
(c) The work done is the same in Fig. (i), Fig.(ii) and Fig. (iii)
Then, it is disconnected from the supply and is
(d) The work done in Fig. (iii) is greater than Fig. (ii) but
connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. equal to that in
How much electrostatic energy is lost in the process? 20 V 40 V 30 V
(a) 12 × 10− 6 J (b) 8 × 10− 6 J
(c) 6 × 10− 6 J (d) 4 × 10− 6 J
A B A B A B
147. A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. Calculate the
work done in taking a small charge of – 2 × 10 − 9 C
from a point P(0, 0, 3) (in cm) to a point Q (0, 4, 0)
(in cm), via a point R (0, 6, 9) (in cm). 10 V 20 V 30 V 40 V 50 V 10 V 30 V 50 V 10 V 20 V 40 V 50 V
(a) 2.4 J (b) 1.2 J (c) 2 J (d) 3.6 J Fig. (i) Fig. (ii) Fig. (iii)
42 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

153. The electrostatic potential on the surface of a charged K1 K2

conducting sphere is 100 V. Two statements are made
in this regard S 1 : at any point inside the sphere,
electric intensity is zero. C1 C2
S 2 : at any point inside the sphere, the electrostatic
potential is 100 V. E
Which of the following is a correct statement?
Then,
(a) S 1 is true but S 2 is false
(a) charge on C1 gets redistributed such thatV1 = V2
(b) Both S 1 and S 2 are false
(b) charge on C1 gets redistributed such that Q1′ = Q2′
(c) S 1 is true, S 2 is also true and S 1 is the cause of S 2
(d) S 1 is true, S 2 is also true but the statements are (c) charge on C1 gets redistributed such that
independant C1V1 + C 2V2 = C1 E
(d) charge on C1 gets redistributed such that Q1′ + Q2′ = Q
154. Equipotentials at a great distance from a collection of
charges whose total sum is not zero are approximately 157. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery as
(a) spheres shown in figure. Consider two situations.
(b) planes K
(c) paraboloids
(d) ellipsoids
155. Equipotential surfaces C
(a) are closer in regions of large electric fields compared to E
regions of lower electric fields
(b) will be more crowded near sharp edges of a conductor
(c) will be more crowded near regions of large charge I. Key K is kept closed and plates of capacitors are moved
densities apart using insulating handle.
(d) will always be equally spaced II. Key K is opened and plates of capacitors are moved
156. In the circuit shown in figure initially key K1 is apart using insulating handle.
Choose the correct option(s).
closed and key K 2 is open. Then, K1 is opened and
(a) In I Q remains same but C changes
K 2 is closed (order is important).
(b) In II V remains same but C changes
[Take Q1′ and Q2′ as charges on C1 and C 2 and V1 and
(c) In I V remains same and hence Q changes
V2 as voltages respectively.] (d) In II Q remains same and hence V changes

Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24 (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d)
46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (b)
76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (c)
106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (a) 110. (a) 111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (c) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. (c) 131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (c)
136. (b) 137. (b,c, 138. (b,d) 139. (a,b, 140. (a,b) 141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (b)
d) c)
 Hints and Explanations
1. (a) Considering potential to be zero at infinity. Work done by q1 q2
F21 = r$ …(i)
an external force in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity 4 πε 0r2
to a point without acceleration
= − Work done by electrostatic forces 2 F21
+q2
= Electrostatic potential (V ) at that point
2. (a) The electrostatic potential (V ) at any point in a region with 1
electrostatic field is the work done in bringing a unit positive +q1 r
charge (without acceleration) from infinity to that point.
Here, F21 is the electrostatic force on 2 due to 1 which along the
3. (b) The external force at every point of the path is to be equal vector r. Also, r is the unit vector along r and r = | r |.
and opposite to the electrostatic force on the test charge at that
point. From Eq. (i), in this case q1 = + Q and q2 = + 1 C
Q ×1
4. (a) Work done by the electrostatic force in bringing the unit ⇒ F= r$ ′ …(ii)
4 πε 0 (r′ )2
positive charge from infinity to the point P is positive.
Total work done (W) by the external force is obtained by
5. (a) If charge on a conducting sphere of radius R is Q, then
integrating Eq. (ii) from r′ = ∞ to r′ = r
potential outside the sphere. r
1 Q r Q Q Q
Vout = ⋅ W =−∫ dr′ = =
4 πε 0 r ∞ 4 πε 0r′ 2 4 πε 0 r′ ∞
4 πε 0r
1 Q 12. (d) Consider a point charge Q at the origin in the figure.
At the surface of sphere, Vs = ⋅ = Vinside
4 πε 0 R ∞
P′
6. (a) Thus, work done by external forces in moving a charge q
∆r′ +1C
from R to P is r′
P P P
W RP = ∫ Fext ⋅ dr = − ∫ FE ⋅ d r r
R R
O
7. (c) Electrostatic force is a conservative force depending only on Q
the initial and the final points and is independent of the path
taken to go from one point to the other. At some intermediate point P ′ on the path, the electrostatic
force on a unit positive charge is
So, W ACB = W AMB
Q ×1
r$ ′ …(i)
8. (c) Electric field is a conservative field, no work is done in 4 πε 0r′ 2
moving the charge q along the closed path ABCDA in a uniform
electric field (as ∫ E ⋅ d I ) = 0. where, r$ ′ is the unit vector along OP′. Work done against this
force from r$ ′ to r$ ′ – ∆r$ ′ is
9. (d) Here, W AB = 100 J, q0 = 4 C ∆W = −
Q
∆r′
VA = − 10 V, VB = V 4 πε 0r′ 2
W 13. (a) 1 2
Since, VB − VA = AB , by external force
q0 S
100 J
V − (− 10V ) = = 25 V
4C V 2 µF
8 µF
or V = 25 V − 10 V = 15 V
10. (b) Here, q = 100 C
Potential difference between the cloud and the Earth, KQ 1 KQ 1
E= ⇒ E∝ 2 ⇒ V = ⇒ V ∝
V = 107 V r2 r r r
Energy dissipated, W = qV = 100 C × 107 V = 109 J So, for 0 < r < 1, the curve E will be above V and for r > 1, the
curve E will be below V at r = 1, E = V
11. (b) P′
1 Q 4 × 10− 7
r′ 14. (c) V = ⋅ = 9 × 109 Nm − 2 C− 2 × C
4 πε 0 r 0.09 m
P
O r = 4 × 104 V
+Q
15. (c) Work done = q (VB − VA ), since VA = 0 (point at infinity)
Electrostatic force between any two positive charges q1 and q2
separated by a distance r is given by ⇒ W = qVB = qV or W = 2 × 10− 9 C × 4 × 104 V = 8 × 10− 5 J
44 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

16. (a) The potential at the centre of the sphere is 80 V because it

remains same at each point under the metallic hollow sphere as If x lies on the extended line OA, the required condition is
on surface. 3 2
− =0
 Q x x − 15
R P  4 πε r ; r > R Which gives x = 45 cm
V (r) =  0
r Q
 ; r≤R Thus, electric potential is zero at 9 cm and 45 cm away from
 4 πε 0R the positive on the side of the negative charge.
Q 1 1
17. (c) Let V1 be the potential at the centre of the cube due to one charge 22. (a) Initially, Vsphere − Vshell =  −  =V
4 πε 0  r1 r2 
1 2Q a 3
V1 = and x = Sphere Shell
4 πε 0 x 2
Potential due to all eight corners of the cube r1
 1 2 Qx2  32 Q 8Q Q
⇒ V = 8 V1 = 8  = =
 4 πε 0 3a  4 πε 0 3 × a a 3πε 0 r2
18. (c) Volume of eight drops = Volume of a big drop
4 3 4
∴  π r  × 8 = π R ⇒ 2r = R
3
…(i) 1  3Q
3  3 V0 = − 
4 πε 0  r2 
According to charge conservation,
8q = Q …(ii) 1  Q
So that now, ′
Vsphere =   + V0
Potential of one small drop (V ′ ) =
q 4 πε 0  r1 
4 πε 0r
1  Q
Q and ′ =
Vshell   + V0
Similarly, potential of big drop (V ) = 4 πε 0  r2 
4 πε 0R
V′ q R Q  1 1
Now, = × Hence, ′
Vsphere − Vshell
′ =  −  =V
V Q r 4 πε 0  r1 r2 
V′ q 2r i. e., if any charge is given to an external shell, the potential
⇒ = × [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
20 8q r difference between sphere and shell will not change.
∴ V′ = 5V 23. (b) P
1 q
19. (a) Potential at A, VA =
4 πε 0 a a√2 a
Y
A B
A +q a –q
 Kq   − Kq
a VP = VA + VB =   +  = zero
 a 2  a 2 
O a X 24. (c) For a uniform electric field E say, along the X -axis, the
B
1 q equipotential surfaces are planes normal to the X-axis, i. e.,
Potential at B , VB = ⋅ planes parallel to the YZ-plane.
4 πε 0 a
Thus, work done in causing a test charge − Q from A to B. 25. (c) The field lines are perpendicular to the equipotential
surfaces.
W = (VA − VB ) × (− Q ) = 0
10 V 8V 6V
1 p⋅ r
20. (c) The electric potential of a dipole is given by ⋅ .
4 πε 0 r2
E
21. (d) O x P A
a
3×10–8 C –2×10–8 C d b
15 cm
26. (a) In the vicinity, Va − Vb ≈ Ed
1  3 × 10− 8 2 × 10− 8 
 − − 2
=0 V − Vb 8V − 6V
4 πε 0  x × 10−2
(15 − x ) × 10  ⇒ E≈ a = = 50 Vm −1
d 4 × 10− 2 m
3 2
where, x in cm, i.e., − =0 27. (a) Electric field lines are perpendicular to the equipotential
x 15 − x
surfaces and point in the direction of decreasing potential. At P,
Which gives x = 9 cm
electric field E is to the left. At R, E is upward.
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 45

28. (a) Equipotential surface between two equal and opposite infinity to r1, no work is required. Next we bring q2 from
charges passing through L middle point will be a plane. On this infinity to r2. As before, work done in this step is
surface potential will be zero on all points on the surface. 1 q1 q2
q2V1 (r2 ) = …(i)
V 4 πε 0 r12
29. (b) As electric field, E =
r The charges q1 and q2 produce a potential, which at any point P
V 600 V is given by
The distance of point charge, r = = =3m
E 200 NC−1 1  q1 q 
V1. 2 =  + 2  …(ii)
30. (b) + + + + + 
4 πε 0  q1p q2p 
FE
d Work done next in bringing q3 from infinity to the point r3 is
mg
q3 V12 times at r3
1  q1 q3 q2 q2 
Q V = Ed ⇒ E = (V / d ) FE q3V12 (r3 ) =  +  …(iii)
4 πε 0  r13 r23 
In equilibrium, FE = mg
⇒ qE = mg ⇒ (ne)E = V × ρg The total work done in assembling the charges at the given
4 locations is obtained by [Eqs. (i) and (iii)]
(ne)E = πr3 × ρ × g mg
3 1  q1 q2 q1 q3 q2 q3 
U =  + +  …(iv)
4 3  4 3  4 πε 0  r12 r13 r23 
 πr ρg  πr ρg
3  3  q3 r23 q2
⇒ n= =
E × (e) (V / d ) × e
3
4  10−6 
× (3.14) ×   × 900 × 10 r13 r12
3  2 
= = 8.17 = 8
3600 × 1.6 × 10−19
31. (d) Potential difference between any two points on an q1
equipotential surface is zero, i.e., ∆V = 0 KQq Kq2 KqQ
37. (d) Potential energy of the system, U = + + =0
Work done in moving the test charge (q0 ) l l l
i.e., W = q0 ∆V = 0 Kq
⇒ × [(Q + q + Q )] = 0 ⇒ Q = − q/2
32. (a) For (VA − VB ) = 0 l
[Potential at A and B due to 10 µC charge are equal] 38. (a) Since, the proton is moving against the direction of electric
Thus, work done W AB = q (VB − VA ) = 0 field, so work is done on the proton against electric field. It
implies that electric field does negative work on the proton.
33. (b) Potential inside the sphere will be same as that on its surface. Again, proton is moving in electric field from low potential
Given, R = 10 cm region to high potential region hence, its potential energy
For inside the sphere, increases.

V1 (r) =
KQ KQ
= =V (for r ≤ R ) …(i) 39. (a) Since, E = 0 inside the conductor and has no tangential
R 10 component on the surface, no work is done in moving a small
For outside the sphere, test charge within the conductor and on its surface.
KQ KQ Kq2 Kq2 q2
V2 (r) = = (for r > R ) …(ii) 40. (a) W = U = − ×4 + ×2= − (4 − 2 )
r 15 d 2d 4 πε 0 d
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 41. (c) As, τ = pE sin θ
V1 (r) 15 3 2 2V
= = or V2 (r) = V1 (r) = ⇒ 10 2 = p × 104 sin θ
V2 (r) 10 2 3 3
As, p = 2 2 × 10−3
34. (b) The potential energy difference, ∆U = U P − U R = W RP
A is U = pE cos θ
35. (d) Work done by external force in bringing a unit positive U = 2 2 × 10−3 × 104 cos 30°
charge from point R to P
∴ Potential energy, U = 24.5 J
U − U R 
= VP − VR =  P  42. (d) Potential energy of the system,
 q 
q –2q q
where, VP and VR are the electrostatic potentials at P and R,
respectively. a a
36. (a) The potential energy of a system of three charges q1 , q2 and 1  q1q2 q1q3 q2q3 
U =  + + 
q3 located at r1 , r2 , and r3 respectively. To bring q1 first from 4 πε 0  r12 r13 r23 
46 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

1  q(−2q) q(−2q) qq 
= + + 48. (c) Work done is change in potential energy in bringing the
4 πε 0  a a 2a  charge from infinity to the present configuration.
1  −2q2 2q2 q2  W =U2 −U1 = 0 −U
=  − +  = 0 − (− 0.7) = 0.7 J
4 πε 0  a a 2a 
49. (b) The mutual interaction of energy of the two charges remains
1  −4 q2 q2  −7q2
=  + = unchanged. In addition, there is the energy of interaction of the
4 πε 0  a 2a  8πε 0 a two charges with the external electric field.
43. (c) Potential energy of the system, In the presence of external electric field, we first find the
potentials at 1 and 2, respectively using
KqQ KQq Kq2
− − + =0
x x 2x
− 4 KqQ + Kq2
⇒ =0
2x (q2 =7 µC) (q1 =–2 µC)
q (–9, 0, 0) O (9, 0, 0)
⇒ Kq2 = 4 KQq ⇒ =4
Q r12
dV
44. (a) When charge q3 is at C, then potential energy of the system is E=−
1  q1 q3 q2 q3  q1q2  dr
UC =  + +  r1 A V1 A
4 πε 0  0.4 0.5  0.3  ⇒ ∫∞ dr = − ∫ dV ⇒ = V1
r 2 0 r1
Similarly, when charge q3 is at D, then
or V1 = A / r1 and V2 = A / r2
 q1 q3 q2 q3  q1 q2 
1
UD =  + +  Total electrostatic energy of system,
 0.4
4 πε 0 0.1  0.3  kq q
= q1V1 + q2V2 + 1 2
Here, change in potential energy r12
q3 1  q2 q3 q2 q3  −9 −12
k=  −   −2 µC  7 µC − 9 × 10 × 7 × 2 × 10
4 πε 0 4 πε 0  0.1 0.5  =A  + A  +
 0.09   0.09  0.18
⇒ k = q2 (10 − 2) = 8 q2 A (5 µC)
= − 0.7 J = 50 J − 0.7 J = 49.3 J
45. (d) Work done in increasing the separation from a to 2a is 0.09
W =U f −Ui 50. (b) Here, the dipole moment of each molecule = 10− 29 C-m
+q +q 1 mole of the substance contains 6 × 1023 molecules. Therefore
total dipole moment of all molecules,
p = 6 × 1023 × 10− 29 C-m = 6 × 10− 6 C-m
a a ⇒ 2a 2a
Initial potential energy,
U = − pE cos θ = − 6 × 10− 6 × 106 cos 60° = − 3 J
–2q a –2q –2q 2a –2q Final potential energy (when θ = 0°),
[finally p and E are aligned in the same direction]
1  q (− 2q) q (− 2q) (− 2q) (− 2q) 
Here, U i = + + U f = − 6 × 10− 6 × 106 cos 0° = − 6 J
4 πε 0  a a a 
Change in potential energy = − 6J − (− 3J) = –3 J
1
= [ − 2q2 − 2q2 + 4 q2 ] = 0 So, there is a loss in potential energy. This must be the energy
4 πε 0
released by the substances in the form of heat in aligning its
Similarly, U f is also zero. dipole. When field is changed in direction the energy of dipole
Hence, W =0 in initial position is enhanced from – 6J to – 3J.
46. (c) The amount of work done by the external torque will be 51. (a) When a dipole is placed in an electric field E, force exerted
given by τ = pE sin θ, where p = dipole moment and θ is the angle which
θ1 θ1 makes dipole with the field.
W =∫ τ ext (θ ) dθ = ∫ pE sin θdθ = pE (cos θ 0 − cos θ 1 )
θ0 θ0 τ max = pE sin 90° , i. e., τ max = pE
⇒ τ max = q × 2l × E = (3.5 × 10− 6 ) × 4.2
47. (b) The electrostatic potential energy due to system of two
Kq q × 10− 2 × 5.8 × 105
charges is given asU = 1 2 −3 −1
r12 = 85.26 × 10 Nm
1 q1 q2 7 × (− 2) × 10− 12 Work done in rotating the dipole from an angle θ 0 to θ,
U = = 9 × 109 × = − 0.7 J θ
4 πε 0 r 0.18 W =∫ pE sin θ dθ = pE [cos θ 0 − cos θ ]
θ0
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 47

W = pE (cos θ ° − cos 180° ) 61. (a) The symbol of a capacitor with fixed capacitance and with
where, θ 0 = 0° and θ = 180° variable capacitance is − | |− and − | |−. For fixed capacitance, the
⇒ W = 2 pE capacitance value (C ) remains same but for variable capacitance
= 2 × q × 2l × E C can be changed as per our requirement within the given range.
= 2 × (3.5 × 10−6 ) × (4.2 × 10−2 ) × 5.8 × 105 62. (c) The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can
−1 withstand without break down (of its insulating property) is
= 176
. × 10 J
called its dielectric strength; for air it is about 3 × 106 Vm −1. For
52. (c) The free charge carriers move and charge distribution in the a separation between conductors of the order of 1 cm or so, this
conductor adjusts itself in such a way that the electric field due field corresponds to a potential difference of 3 × 104 V between
to induced charges opposes the external field within the
conductor. This happens until in the static situation, the two the conductors. Thus, for a capacitor to store a large amount of
fields cancel each other and the net electrostatic field in the charge without leaking, its capacitance should be high enough
conductor is zero. so that the potential difference and hence the electric field do
not exceed the break down limits. Put differently, there is a
53. (d) Oxygen and hydrogen and nitrogen are the examples of limit to the amount of charge can be stored on a given capacitor
non-polar molecules. without significant leaking.
54. (d) HCl and H2O and NH3 are the examples of polar molecules. ε A 8.85 × 10−12 × 3.14 × 0.08 × 0.08
63. (a) C = 0 =
55. (a) In the absence of any external field, the different permanent d 1 × 10−3
dipoles are oriented randomly due to thermal agitation; so the 8.85 × 10−12 × 3.14 × .08 × .08 × 100 V
q = CV =
total dipole moment is zero. When an external field is applied, 1 × 10−3
the individual dipole moment tends to align with the field.
= 1.78 × 10−8 C
56. (c) The extent of polarisation depends on the relative strength of
64. (c) Surface charge
two mutually opposite factors : the dipole potential energy in density, σ I Area A
the external field tending to align the dipoles with the field and
1
thermal energy tending to disrupt the alignment. There may be, ++++++++
in addition, the ‘induced dipole moment’ effect as for non-polar
molecules, but generally the alignment effect is more important E d
for polar molecules. – – – – – – – –
57. (a) For linear isotropic dielectric p = χ eE (Direction of p and E 2
are same). Surface charge II
density, – σ
where, χ e is a constant characteristic of the dielectric and is known
as the electric susceptibility of the dielectric medium and it is The electric field in outer region I (region above the plate 1) is
possible to relate χ e to the molecular properties of the substance. σ σ
E= − =0
58. (b) An electric field (Ei ) is induced inside the dielectric in a 2ε 0 2ε 0
direction opposite to the external field (E0 ) due to polarisation. Outer region II (region below the plate 2),
On account of this, the net electric field (E ) inside the slab is σ σ
E= − =0
less than the external field as E = E0− Ei . 2ε 0 2ε 0
59. (a) When P is normal to the surface, the polarisation is 65. (a) When a metallic slab is inserted between the plates,
numerically equal to the surface density of the induced charge. ε A
capacitance (C ) = 0 . Here, t = 0 as plate is very thin.
60. (b) As P = ε 0χ eE and ε r = 1 + χ e ⇒ P = ε 0 (ε r − 1) E d −t
If n is the number of helium atoms/m 3 and P is the dipole ε A
∴ C = 0
moment per atom, then d
P = np 66. (d) Being a conductor, each plate have the same potential at
P ε (ε − 1) E each point. So, potential gradient will be highest at closest end.
or p = = 0r r …(i) As E ∝ σ , so surface charge density σ is higher at the closer
n n
end.
Since, at NTP, 1 atom (6.02 × 1023 atoms) of a gas occupies a
volume of 22.4 litre (i. e., 22.4 × 10−3 m 3 ). 67. (a) From the given graphs, find the voltages, VA and VB , on
capacitors A and B corresponding to charge Q on each of the
6.02 × 1023
n= = 2.69 × 1025 / m 3 …(ii) capacitors. Clearly,
22.4 × 10−3 m 3 Q Q VB Q /C B C A
VA = and VB = or = =
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get CA CB VA Q /C A C B
(8.85 × 10−12 C2 / Nm 2 (1.000074 − 1) (100 V / m) Since, VB > VA , C A > C B i. e., the capacitor A has the higher
p=
2.69 × 1025 / m 3 capacitance.
−39
= 2.4 × 10 C-m
48 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

ε0A For potential to be made zero after connection, the charge of

68. (c) C0 = = 18 …(i)
d both capacitors are equal.
Kε A ∴ q1 = q2
C = 0 = 72 …(ii)
3d C 1V1 = C 2V2
On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get or 120 C 1 = 200C 2 ⇒ 3C 1 = 5C 2
K 72
= =4 76. (a) Let E0 = V0 / d be the electric field between the plates when
3 18 there is no dielectric and the potential difference is V0. If the
∴ Dielectric constant, K = 12 dielectric is now inserted, the electric field in the dielectric will
be E = E0 / K . The potential difference will be
69. (a) The material suitable for use as dielectric must have high
1  E 3 
dielectric strength X and large dielectric constant K. V = E0  d + 0  d
4  K 4 
6.4 × 106
70. (c) Capacity, C = 4 πε 0R = = 711 µF 1 3  K +3
9 × 109 = E0 d  +  = V0 ⋅
 4 4K  4K
ε A
71. (c) The capacity in air, C = 0
d The potential difference decreases by the factor
The capacity when dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is (K + 3)
while the free charge Q0 on the plates remains
introduced between the plates. 4K
ε0A unchanged. The capacitance thus increases.
C′ =
(d – t + t / k ) Q
C = 0=
4 K Q0
=
4K
C0
C (d – t + t / k ) V K + 3 V0 K + 3
∴ =
C′ d 77. (c) Stored energy in the capacitor can be given as
166 1
Given, C′ = C = CV 2
100 2
100 1 (d – t + t / k ) 3d
⇒ = = ; Putting t = When the switch S is connected to point 2, energy dissipated on
166 K d 5 connected across 8 µF will be
⇒ K =3 1 C C 
=  1 2 V 2
72. (d) Given, initial separation d = 3 mm 2  C 1 + C 2
Let new separation between the plates is d′. 1  2 × 8 2 1 16
=  V = × ×V2
C ′ d′ 2  10  2 10
∴ = Cd
k  1 16 2 
Given, C′ = C  × V × 100
Therefore ,% loss of energy =  2 20  = 80%
⇒ d′ = kd  1 × 2×V2 
⇒ d′ = (2)(3) = 6 mm  2 
ε0A
73. (c) Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air is C = . 78. (c) The charge on the capacitor is
d
q = CV = 900 × 10−12 F × 100 V = 9 × 10−8 C
Capacitance of a same parallel plate capacitor with the
Kε A The energy stored by the capacitor is
introducing of a dielectric medium C ′ = 0
d = (1/ 2) CV 2 = (1/ 2) qV
where, K is the dielectric constant of a medium. = 1/ 2 × 9 × 10−8 C × 100 V = 4.5 × 10−6 J
C′ 15
∴ =K = =5 79. (a) The network of three capacitors is shown below.
C 3
4 µF 4 µF
ε
and K =
ε0 C1 C2
A
or ε = Kε 0 = 5 × 8.854 × 10−12 4 µF
B

= 0.4427 × 10−10 C2 N−1 m −2

C3
74. (c) q = CV , As V is constant, therefore q ∝ C .
Here, C 1 and C 2 are in series and the combination of two is
100
Here, C becomes = 2.5 times in parallel with C 3.
40 C C
∴ K = 2.5 C net = 1 2 + C 3
C1 + C2
75. (b) Two capacitors are given as below
 4 × 4
C1 C2 =  + 4 = 2 + 4 = 6 µF
+ – – +  4 + 4
120 V 200 V
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 49

(ii) The corresponding network is shown in figure. 1  4C 

4 µF ⇒   (12)2 = 173
24 + C
4 µF 4C 2 × 173
C1 ⇒ = = 2.4
4 µF 4+C 144

A C3 B Hence, C = 6 µF
K ε A 2K 1ε 0 A 2K 2ε 0 A
83. (b) C 1 = 1 0 = and C 2 =
d /2 d d
Here, C 1 and C 2 are in parallel and this combination is in 1 1 1 d d d  K 1 + K 2
series with C 3. ∴ = + = + =  
C s C 1 C 2 2K 1ε 0 A 2K 2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A  K 1 K 2 
(C + C 2 ) × C 3 (4 + 4 ) × 4 32 8
So, C net = 1 = = = µF 2ε 0 A  K 1K 2 
(C 1 + C 2 ) + C 3 (4 + 4 ) + 4 12 3 ⇒ Capacity, C s =  
d  K 1 + K 2
(iii) The corresponding network is shown in figure.
4 µF 4 µF 4 µF 84. (a) Each capacitor will have equal + –
charges. When they are joined as
C1 C2 C3 described, they will be in parallel
A B combination. The positive charge will
cancel out negative charge of each other. – +
So, net charge in each capacitor will be
All of three are in series. zero.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 85. (b) In the given network, C 1 , C 2 and C 3 are connected in series.
So, = + + = + + =
C net C 1 C 2 C 3 4 4 4 4 The effective capacitance C ′ of these capacitors is given by
4 1 1 1 1
∴ C = µF = + +
3 C′ C1 C2 C3
(iv) The corresponding network is shown. For C 1 = C 2 = C 3 = 10 µF, C ′ = (10/ 3)µF
4 µF The network has C ′ and C 4 connected in parallel.
Thus, the equivalent capacitance C of the network is
C1
 10 
C = C ′ + C 4 =  + 10 = 13.3 µF
4 µF  3 
A B
3000
C2 86. (c) Minimum number of conductors in each row =6
500
4 µF If C s is capacity of 6 conductors in a row, then
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
C3 = + + + + + =6
Cs 1 1 1 1 1 1
C net = C 1 + C 2 + C 3 = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12 µF
1
80. (b) According to the question, the given arrangement of nine ⇒ Cs = µF
6
plates is equivalent to the parallel combination of 8 capacitors.
Let there be m such rows in parallel.
The capacity of each capacitor,
Total capacity = m × C s
ε A 8.854 × 10−12 × 5 × 10−4
C = 0 = = 0.5 pF 1
d 0.885 × 10−2 2=m×
6
Hence, the capacity of 8 capacitors = 8C = 8 × 0.5 = 4 pF
∴ m = 12
81. (d) The quantities energy stored and potential difference Total number of capacitors = 6 × 12 = 72
1 q2 q
decreases, because U = and V = decreases. On 87. (d) The total capacity of capacitor
2 KC KC
9 × 4.5
inserting a dielectric, the capacitance increase (KC 0 ), where C = = 3µF
C 0 is the capacitance when no glass slab is present and K is 13.5
dielectric constant, As ‘C’ increase, U and V both decreases Charge, q = CV = 3 × 12 = 36 µC
as they are inversely related to C. q is constant here. 36
Potential difference across 4.5 µF, V = = 8V
 4C  4.5
82. (d) As, C S =   µ F (C is capacitance of other capacitor)
4 + C 88. (d) Case I When the capacitors are joined in series,
1 1 C1
and C sV 2 = 173 µJ U series = (4 V )2
2 2 n1
50 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Case II When the capacitors are joined in parallel, 93. (a) The new potential energy will be U 0 / K .
1
U parallel = (n2C 2 )V 2 Q02
2 Q U0 = …(i)
2C 0
Given, U series = U parallel
Q02
1 C1 1 On insertion of dielectric, U new = …(ii)
or (4 V )2 = (n2 C 2 ) V 2 2KC 0
2 n1 2
16 C 1 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get U new = U 0 / K
⇒ C2 = [Q Q0 = constant (considered)]
n1 n2
94. (c) The energy stored in the capacitor,
89. (a) When free space between parallel plates of capacitor,
1 1  Aε   Aε 0 
σ U = CV 2 =  0  (Ed )2 Q C = and V = Ed
E= 2 2 d   d 
ε0
1
When dielectric is introduced between parallel plates of = ε 0 E 2 Ad
σ 2
capacitor, E′ =
Kε 0 95. (a) When connected VA = VB , hence q1 will flow to outer
Electric field inside dielectric surface of B B
σ
= 3 × 104 A
Kε 0
where, K = dielectric constant of medium = 2.2 r1
q1 q2
ε 0 = permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10−12 r2
⇒ σ = 2.2 × 8.85 × 10−12 × 3 × 104
= 6.6 × 8.85 × 10−8 = 5.841 × 10−7 = 6 × 10−7 C/m 2 VB = Potential due to its own charge q2 + potential due to
90. (c) Resultant circuit charge q1 on A
3 µF 1  q2 q1 
=  + 
4 πε 0  r2 r2 
9 µF Potential on the inner sphere A due to its own charge,
4 µF 4 µF 12 µF 3 µF
1 q1
i. e., V1 =
4 πε 0 r1
As, charge on 3 µF = 3 µF × 8 V = 24 µC
∴Charge on 4 µF = Charge on 12 µF = 24 µC As the potential at every point inside charged sphere is the same
Charge on 3 µF = 3 µF × 2 V = 6 µC as that on its surface, the potential on the inner sphere ( A ) due
to charge q2 on sphere B, i. e.,
Charge on 9 µF = 9 µF × 2 V = 18 µC
1 q2
Charge on 4 µF + charge on 9 µF = (24 + 18) µC = 42 µC V2 =
4 πε 0 r2
∴ Electric field at a point distant 30 m
Total potential on the inner sphere A, i. e.,
9 × 109 × 42 × 10−6
= 1  q1 q2 
30 × 30 VA =  + 
= 420N/C 4 πε 0  r1 r2 
1
91. (d) Initial energy, U i = C 0V 2 q1  1 1 
2 Thus, (VA − VB ) =  − 
4 πε 0  r1 r2 
1
Final energy, U f = (KC 0 ) (V / K )2 1 1  1 1
2 As r1 < r2 , > or  −  is positive, further, since q1 is
1 1 2
r1 r2  r1 r2 
or Uf =  C 0V 
K 2  positive, VA > VB
1 Thus, when the two spheres are connected by a wire, charge q1
Change in energy = U f − U i = C 0V 2 (1/ K − 1) on A will flow entirely to B, irrespective of the charge q2
2
already present on B.
92. (c) Energy stored, U = 1/ 2 qV
96. (b) Van de Graaff generator is a machine that can build up high
As the distance d is increased between the two plates. voltage of the order of a few million volts. The resulting large
Now, stored energy, electric fields are used to accelerate charged particle, (electron,
1 1 1 q2d proton ions) to high energies needed for experiments to probe
U ′ = qV ′ = q [ q/C ]= ⇒ U′ ∝ d the small scale structure of matter.
2 2 2 ε0A
Hence, U ′ = 2U 97. (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 51

98. (c) Maximum permissible field strength, E = (1/10) of the 108. (c) Assertion is true as capacitance in parallel is greater than
dielectric strength of the gas capacitance is series. Reason is false as C p = C 1 + C 2 + C 3.
= (1 / 10) (5 × 107 Vm −1 ) = 5 × 106 Vm −1 109. (a) Work done = Potential difference (VB − VA ) × q (the charge)
Potential on the surface of the sphere = 1.5 × 10 V 6 where VA and VB depend only on the initial and final positions and
not on path in figure. Electrostatic force is a conservative force.
In case of charged spherical cell (having a charged) electric field
Since work done in moving charge along a closed loop is zero it is
(E ) and electric potential (V ) at a point on its surface is given by
a conservative force. So, statement I is also correct.
E = K q/ r2 and V = K q/ r
If the loop is completed, no net work is done as the initial and
E = V /r or r = V /E the final potentials are the same.
When E is maximum, r is minimum and as such minimum value
of r is given by
1.5 × 106 V
r= = 0.3 m = 30 cm VA VB
5 × 106 V / m
99. (a) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion. For used path : W = 2∆V = 0 (Q ∆V = 0)
100. (a) A and B are two conducting spheres of same radius. A being 110. (a) The maximum amount of charge we can give to a capacitor
solid and B hollow. Both are charged to the same potential. depends upon on the geometrical factors as well as environmental
Then, charge on A = Charge on B. Because potentials on both factors.
are same. 111. (c) Capacitance is inversely proportional to distance between
101. (a) The proof of this statement is simple. There is no potential the plates.
difference between any two points on the surface and no work 112. (a) Capacitance of a capacitor does not depend upon charge but
is required to move a test charge on the surface because work it depends upon geometrical factors.
done = potential difference × charge.
113. (d) Battery is disconnected from the capacitor,
1 q1 q2
102. (a) The potential energy U = is unaltered whatever So, Q = constant
4 πε 0 r12
Q 2 Q 2d
way the charges are brought to the specified locations, because Energy = = ⇒ Energy ∝ d
of path independence of work for electrostatic force. 2C 2ε 0 A
103. (a) There are polar and non-polar dielectric materials. The 114. (d) In a metal, the outer (valence) electrons part away from their
molecules of a polar dielectric have a permanent dipole moment. atoms and are free to move. These electrons are free within the
However, due to random orientations net dipole moment is zero. metal but not free to leave the metal. The free electrons form a
If there is no external electric field, there is no polarisation. kind of ‘gas’. They collide with each other and with the ions
and move randomly in different directions.
104. (c) The molecules of a substance may be polar or non-polar. In
a non-polar molecule, the centre of positive and negative 115. (d) In metals, the positive ions made up of the nuclei and the
charges coincides. On the other hand, a polar molecule is one is bound electrons remain held in their fixed positions. In
which the centres of positive and negative charges are electrolytic conductors, the charge carriers are both positive and
separated, even when there is no external field. Such molecules negative ions.
have a permanent dipole moment. 116. (d) The molecules of a substance may be polar or non-polar. In
105. (c) Let two capacitors be connected in series. If + q charge is a non-polar molecule, the centres of positive and negative
installed on left plate of the first capacitor, then − q charge is charges coincide. The molecule then has no permanent (or
induced on right plate of this capacitor. This charge comes from intrinsic) dipole moment. Examples of non-polar molecules are
electron drawn from the left plate of second capacitor. Thus, oxygen (O2 ) and hydrogen (H2 ) molecules which, because of
there will be equal charge + q on the left plate of second their symmetry, have no dipole moment.
capacitor and − q charge induced on the right plate of second 117. (a) In an external electric field, the positive and negative
capacitor. Thus, each capacitor has same charge (q) when charges of a non-polar molecule are displaced in opposite
connected in series. Capacitance is quantity dependent on directions. The displacement stops when the external force on the
construction of capacitor and independent of charge. constituent charges of the molecule is balanced by the restoring
106. (a) Electric field is set up from higher potential to lower force (due to internal fields in the molecule). The non-polar
potential. An electron is negatively charged and moves opposite molecule thus develops an induced dipole moment. The
to the direction of electric field, i. e., from lower potential to dielectric is said to be polarised by the external field.
higher potential. 118. (c) Statements I, II and III are correct.
q′ C ′V ′ (KC )V Kq
107. (c) The reason is false as σ′ = = = = = Kσ 119. (b) 1 keV = 103 eV = 1.6 × 10− 16 J, 1 MeV = 106 eV
A A A A
= 1.6 × 10− 13 J, 1 GeV = 109 eV = 1.6 × 10− 10 J
(as C ′ = KC , V ′ = V and CV = q)
and 1 TeV = 1012 eV = 1.6 × 10− 7 J
52 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

2
120. (b) Two large plates, each of area A, separated by a distance d. 2 
 Q
The charge on the plates ± Q, corresponding to the charge Q12  3  2  Q 2  2  C 2V02 
U1 = = =   =  
density ± σ (with σ = Q / A). When there is vacuum between 2C 1 2C 9C  9 C 
the plates, 2
σ = CV02 (as Q = CV0) (A → 4)
E0 = 9
ε0 2
1 
and the potential difference V0 is V0 = E0 d  Q
Q 2
3  1  Q 2 1
Q A (B → 5) U 2 = 2 = =   = CV02
The capacitance C 0 in this case is C 0 = = ε0 2C 2 2(C / 2) 9  C  9
V0 d
1
(C → 3)U final = U 1 + U 2 = CV02
121. (b) Consider a dielectric is inserted between the plates fully 3
occupying the intervening region. The dielectric is polarised by Q 2 (CV0 )2 1
the field, the effect is equivalent to two charged sheets (at the (D → 1) U initial = = = CV02
2C 2C 2
surfaces of the dielectric normal to the field) with surface
1
charge densities σ p and −σ p . The electric field in the dielectric Change in energy, ∆U = − CV0 2

then corresponds to the case when the net surface charge 6

density on the plates is ± (σ − σ p ). i.e., 123. (c) A → 1; B → 4; C → 3; D → 2
σ − σp (i) When S is open, then
E= …(i) C1C2 (2µF) (3µF) 6
ε0 C eq = = = µF
C 1 + C 2 (2µF + 3µF) 5
so that the potential difference across the plates is
σ − σp Charge (q) on both the capacitors will be the same (as
V = Ed = d …(ii) these are in series), i. e.,
ε0
6 
For linear dielectric, we except σ p to be proportional to E0 , i. e., q = C eq V =  µF (30 + 60) V = 108 µC
5 
to σ. Thus, (σ − σ p ) is proportional to σ and we can write
σ (ii) When S is closed, charge on C 1, i. e.,
σ − σp = …(iii) q1 = C 1V1 = (2µ F) (30 VC ) = 60 µC
K
Charge on C 2 , i. e., q2 = C 2 V2 = (3 µF)(60 V) =180 µC
where, K is a constant characteristic of the dielectric. Clearly,
K > 1, then we have Charge on C 1 and C 2 = 60 µC + 180 µC = 240 µC
σd Qd 124. (c) (A) → 1, 4 (B) → 3, 5 (C) → 3, 5 (D) → 3, 5.
V = = …(iv)
ε 0 K Aε 0 K (A) Due to q, charge will be induced on the conductor such that
The capacitance C with dielectric between the plates is net field due to q and induced charge becomes zero at any
Q ε 0 KA point inside the conductor.
C = = …(v) Since, E = 0 everywhere inside the conductor, so potential
V d
is constant inside and same as that of surface of conductor.
The product ε 0K is called the permittivity of the medium and is
(B) Due to q, field and potential both will vary inside.
denoted by ε.
(C) Due to q2, field and potential both will vary inside. Because
ε = ε0 K …(vi) inside charge system has nothing to do with outside system.
For vacuum K = 1and ε = ε 0; ε 0 is called the permittivity of the (D) Same as that of (c).
vacuum. The dimensionless ratio
125. (c) Work done by external force,
ε
K = …(vii) W RP = U P − U R = 3 J
ε0
∴ Work done by electric field = −W RP = −3 J
is called the dielectric constant of the substance. As remarked
(direction of force and displacement opposite)
before, from Eq. (iii), it is clear that K is greater than 1.
A ε KA 126. (b) According to the question,
From equations, (C 0 = ε 0 ) and C = 0 ,
d d UP −UR = 2 ⇒ 5 −UR = 2
C ∴ UR = 3 J
K = …(viii)
C0 127. (b) Electrostatic force is a conservative force. So, work done by
122. (b) A → 4; B → 5; C → 3; D → 1 an electrostatic field in moving a charge from one point to
another depends only on initial and final points and is
Q1 Q2 C  (C / 2) Q
As, = , Q2 =  2  Q1 = Q1 = 1 independent of path. Here, initial and final points are same, so
C1 C2  C 1 C 2 work done will be zero.
Q1 3
Further, as Q = Q1 + Q2 = Q1 + = Q1 128. (a) Potential energy of the proton decreases as it moves in the
2 2 direction of the electric field. In the direction of electric field
2 1
Q1 = Q and Q2 = Q potential decreases, hence, ∆U = q(V f − Vi ) = − ve
3 3 i.e., potential energy decreases.
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 53

129. (b) ∆V = − E∆x = − (8.0 × 104 V / m) (0.50 m) = − 4 × 104 V B will go to earth. – Q1 charge will not go to earth. It will be
bounded to + Q, charge of plate A (see fig.)
130. (c) ∆U = q0∆V = (1.6 × 10−19 C) (− 4.0 × 104 V) = − 6.4 × 10−15 J 0V
−15
131. (b) As, ∆K = − ∆U = 6.4 × 10 J + Q1
(from conservation of energy)
1 2∆K – Q1
∆K = mvB2 or vB = Charge is zero
2 m A B
−15
2(6.4 × 10 J)
= = 2.77 × 106 ms−1
(1.66 × 10−27 kg) Q1 + Q2
So, it is clear that charge goes from 2nd plate to earth.
2
132. (a) At the point p, the electric field due to charge qa is towards Q
Charge of capacitor is Q1 and hence its potential is 1 .
right whereas it will be towards left due to charges qb , qc and qd . C
Since, the resultant electric field at a point inside a conductor is 138. (b, d) Battery is disconnected, hence charge remains conserved.
zero, The plates are pulled apart, so capacity will decrease so there is
q1 q2 increase of voltage. Now, capacity decreases, hence energy will
A B  Q 2
increase as charge is constant.  E = 
a b c d  2c 
Thus, (b) and (d) are correct.
139. (a, b, c)
qa qb qc qd (i) The charge on the capacitor is
P Q
q = CV = 900 × 10−12 F × 100 V = 9 × 10−8 C
d
(ii) The energy stored by the capacitor is
qa q q v 1 1
− b − c − d =0 = CV 2 = QV
2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A 2 2
or qa = qb + qc + qd = (1 / 2) × 9 × 10−8 C × 100 V = 4.5 × 10−6 J
= (q1 − qa ) + (q2 − qd ) + qd = q1 − qa + q2 (iii) In the steady situation, the two capacitors have their
q + q2 positive plates at the same potential and their negative
where, qa = 1 plates at the same potential. Let the common potential
2
q + q2 q1 − q2 difference be V ′. The charge on each capacitor is then
and qb = q1 − qa = q1 − 1 = q′ = CV ′. By charge conservation q ′ = Q /2. This implies
2 2 V ′ = V /2. The total energy of the system is
1 1
133. (b) Since, the electric field at Q is zero. = 2 × Q′ V ′ = QV = 2.25 × 10−6 J
qa q q q 2 2
+ b + c − d =0
2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A 2ε 0 A 140. (a, b) This question is based on the working principal of a
q + q2 van de Graaff generator.
where, qd = 1 and qc = q2 − qd
2 141. (c) 16 cm B
q − q1 A D
∴ qc = 2 q1 (16 – x) C x q2
2
The potential at point C due to charge q1,
134. (b) The charges on the inner surfaces (qb , qc ) which are equal
1 q 9 × 109 × 5 × 10− 8
and opposite are responsible for creating the electric field VA = ⋅ 1 = …(i)
4 πε 0 AC (16 − x ) × 10− 2
between the plates of the capacitor.
σ (q1 − q2 ) The potential at point C due to charge q2,
Thus, E= =
ε0 2ε 0 A 1 q − 9 × 109 × 3 × 10− 8
VB = ⋅ 2 = …(ii)
(q1 − q2 ) 4 πε 0 BC x × 10− 2
135. (c) V = Ed = ×d
2ε 0 A 9 × 109 × 5 × 10− 8  − 9 × 109 × 3 × 10− 8 
⇒ +  =0
 q1 − q2  (16 − x ) × 10− 2  x × 10− 2 
 
qb  2  ε A 5 3
136. (b) Capacitance, C = = = 0 ⇒ − = 0 ⇒ x = 6 cm
V (q1 − q2 ) d d 16 − x x
2ε 0 A ∴ Distance from q1 = 16 − 6 = 10 cm
137. (b, c, d) When we earth plate B, whole of its charge will go to k × 5 × 10− 8 k × 3 × 10− 8
Similarly at point D = ⇒ x1 = 24 cm
earth. Now charge of plate A will induce charge – Q, and + Q1 16 + x1 x1
on inner side and outer side of plate B. Again Q1 charge of plate Distance from q1 = 16 + 24 = 40 cm
54 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

142. (b) E D 147. (b) Charge at origin O is qO = 8 mC = 8 × 10− 3 C

q q
Charge qP at point P = − 2 × 10 − 9 C
O Z R (0, 6, 9)
F C
q q qQ
P
q q (0, 0, 3)
A 10 cm B
i.e., OA = OB = OC = OD = OE = OF = 10 cm qQ
Potential at point O = Sum of potential at centre O due to O
qO Q
Y
individual point charges (0, 4, 0)
 1 q
∴ VO = VA + VB + VC + VD + VE + VF Q V = ⋅ 
 4 πε 0 r 
X
VO = VA × 6 = 2.7 ×10−6 V
Distance OP = rP = 3 cm = 0.03 m
ε A Distance OQ = rQ = 4 cm = 0.04 m
143. (b) C 0 = 0 = 8 pF
d Work done in bringing the charge qP from P to Q
Kε 0 A 6ε 0 A × 2
C = = = 96 pF = qP × Potential difference between P and Q
d′ d
W PQ = qP (VQ − VP )
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
144. (a) = + + = + +  1 q 1 q 
Cs C1 C2 C3 9 9 9 = − 2 × 10− 9  ⋅ O − ⋅ O
1 3  4 πε 0 OQ 4 πε 0 OP 
= ⇒ C s = 3 pF
Cs 9  9 × 109 × 8 × 10− 3 9 × 109 × 8 × 10− 3 
C1 C2 C3 W pq = − 2 × 10− 9  − 
 0.04 0.03 
= 1.2 J
q 148. (c) Length of the main diagonal of the cube

= b2 + b2 + b2 = 3b
120 V
q q
Charge, q = C sV = 3 × 120 = 360 pC
q 360 q
Potential difference across C 1, (V1) = = = 40 V q
C1 9
O
= V2 = V3 q
− 12
q
ε 0 A 8.854 × 10 × 6 × 10− 3
145. (a) C = =
d 3 × 10− 3 q q
− 11
C = 177
. × 10 F
Distance of centre O from each of the vertices is r,
When the capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, charge on
. × 10−11 × 100
each plate of the capacitor q = CV = 177 r=
b 3
2
. × 10− 9 C
q = 177
1 q
146. (c) Given, capacitance of capacitor C 1 = 600 pF = 600 × 10− 12 F Potential at point O due to one charge is V = ⋅
4 πε 0 r
and supply voltage V1 = 200 V
Potential at point O due to all charges placed at the vertices of
C 2 = 600 pF = 600 × 10− 12 F and V2 = 0 the cube,
C 1C 2 (V1 − V2 )2 8 ×1× q
Loss in energy (E ) = V ′ = 8V =
2 (C 1 + C 2 ) 4 πε 0 ⋅ r
600 × 10− 12 × 600 × 10− 12 (200 − 0)2 8q × 2 4q
⇒ E= = =
2 (600 + 600) × 10− 12 4 πε 0 ⋅ b 3 3πε 0b

= 6 × 10− 6 J 149. (b) The distance from point P to point A is equal to the distance
−6
from point P to point B.
Thus, the 6 × 10 J amount of electrostatic energy is lost in the
(BC = AC = 15 cm = 0.15 cm, PC = 10 cm = 0.1 m)
sharing of charges.
 CHAPTER 2 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 55

α potential to low electrostatic potential. Thus, the work is done

by the electric field on the positive charge, hence electrostatic
P
potential energy of the positive charge decreases.
θ θ
152. (c) The work done by a electrostatic force is given by
10 cm W 12 = q (V2 − V1 ). Here initial and final potentials are same in
q1 q2 all three cases and same charge is moved, so work done is same
A C B in all three cases.
15 cm 15 cm
154. (b) In this problem, the collection of charges, whose total sum
∴ PA = PB = (0.10) + (0.15) = 0.18 m
2 2
is not zero, with regard to great distance can be considered as a
Potential at point P point charge.
VP = Potential at point P due to charge q1 Hence, equipotentials will be planes.
+ Potential at point P due to charge q2 155. (a,b,c) The electric field intensity E is inversely proportional to
1 q1 1 q the separation between equipotential surfaces. So, equipotential
VP = ⋅ + ⋅ 2
4 πε 0 PA 4 πε 0 PB surfaces are closer in regions of large electric fields.
 1.5 × 10− 6 2.5 × 10− 6  Since, the electric field intensity is large near sharp edges of
= 9 × 109  +  charged conductor and near regions of large charge densities.
 0.18 0.18 
Therefore, equipotential surfaces are closer at such places.
9 × 109
= × 10− 6 × 4 = 2 × 105 V 156. (a,d) When K 2 is on the charge stored by capacitor C 1 gets
0.18 redistributed between C 1 and C 2 till their potentials become
1 qeqp same, i.e., V2 = V1. By law of conservation of charge, the charge
150. (b)U = ⋅
4 πε 0 r stored in capacitor C 1 when key K 1 is closed and key K 2 is
r = 0.53 Å opened is equal to sum of charges on capacitors C 1 and C 2 when
K 1 is opened and K 2 is closed.
e p
i.e., Q '1 + Q '2 = Q
9 × 109 × 1.6 × 10− 19 × (−1.6) × 10− 19 ε0A
U = 157. (c, d) C = , changes as separation changes, hence
0.53 × 10− 10 d
= 43.47 × 10− 19 J (Q 1 eV = 1.6 × 10− 19 J) q = CV , changes
43.47 × 10− 19 Source is disconnected charge remains same.
= = − 27.16 eV Q
1.6 × 10− 19 ⇒ V =
C
151. (c) E always acts along decreasing potential. ε A
The positively charged particle experiences electrostatic force changes as C = 0 changes
d
along the direction of electric field, i.e., from high electrostatic
 C H A P T E R

3
Current Electricity
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. The directed rate of flow of electric charge through any 5. Drift Velocity It is defined as the average velocity
cross-section of a conductor is known as electric current. with which the free electrons move towards the
q ne positive end of a conductor under the influence of
I= = (Qq = ne)
t t an external electric field applied.
eE
where, n = number of charged particles constitute the ⇒ vd = τ
current m
2. Ohm’s Law At constant temperature, the potential where, τ = relaxation time,
difference V across the ends of a given metallic wire E = electric field,
(conductor) in an circuit (electric) is directly m = mass and e = electron
proportional to the current flowing through it. 6. Electric current in terms of drift velocity I = nea v d
V ∝I where, n = number density of free electrons,
I
The variation of current w.r.t. applied e = electronic charge,
potential difference is shown with the a = cross-sectional area
help of given graph. and v d = drift velocity of an electron
V = IR V 7. Current density at any point of conductor, J = nev d
where, R = resistance of conductor where, J is a vector quantity.
No effect of V and I on R because as V increase, 8. Relationship between resistivity and relaxation time
I increase but R remains the same. m
ρ=
3. Resistance of a Conductor Mathematically, it is the ne 2 τ
ratio of potential difference applied across the ends of where, τ = relaxation time
conductor to the current flowing through it. Specific resistance or resistivity ( ρ) depends on the
V material of conductor, not on the length and
⇒ R=
I cross-sectional area (A) i.e., geometry of
SI unit is ohm (Ω). conductor.
L 9. Conductivity is defined as the reciprocal of
Resistance can also be written as, R = ρ
A resistivity of a conductor.
where, L = length of the conductor, 1
It is expressed as, σ =
A = area of cross-section ρ
and ρ = constant, known as resistivity of the material SI unit is mho per metre (Ω −1 / m).
It depends upon nature of the material.
10. Relationship between current density (J ) , electric
∆I
4. Current density J = or dI = J ⋅ dA field (E ) and conductivity (σ) is
∆A
J = σE
or I = ∫ J ⋅ d A = ∫ JdA cos θ
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 57

11. The ratio of drift velocity of electrons and the applied (ii) Parallel Combination The equivalent emf of
electric field is known as mobility. parallel combination is given by
v qτ E r + E 2 r1
⇒ µ= d = E eq = 1 2
E m r1 + r2
SI unit is [m 2s −1V −1]. and internal resistance of combination
12. Electrical resistivity of substances varies over a very
E1 r1
wide range. Conductors have low resistivity in the
range of 10−8 Ω m to 10−6 Ωm.
Insulators like glass and rubber have 1022 to 1024
E2 r2
times greater resistivity. Semiconductors like Si and
Ge lie roughly in the middle range of resistivity.
13. Temperature Coefficient of resistance is given by I
R I
R 2 − R1
α= r1 r2
R1 (t 2 − t 1) req =
r1 + r2
14. Colour Code of Resistance The colour code on
carbon resistor remains in the form of coaxial rings. (iii) Mixed Grouping It consists of m-rows in parallel
combination such that each row contains n-cells
15. Power loss in a conductor of resistance R carrying a
of each of emf E and internal resistance r, then
current I is
current in the circuit is given by
P = I 2 R = V 2 /R mn E
I=
16. Combination of Resistors mR + nr
(i) Total resistance R of n resistors connected in and maximum current is drawn from the battery,
series is given by when external resistance matches with net internal
R = R1 + R 2 + R 3 + K + Rn resistance, i.e.,
nr nE m nE mE
(ii) Total resistance R of n resistors connected in R= and Imax = = ⇒ Imax =
2  
parallel is given by m nr 2nr 2r
1 1 1 1 m
= + +K+ 19. Kirchhoff’s Rules
R R1 R 2 Rn
(i) Junction rule ( ΣI = 0) At any junction of circuit
17. The relationship between r, R, E and V is
elements, the sum of currents entering the junction
r = R  − 1
E must be equal to the sum of currents leaving it.
…(i)
V 
(ii) Loop rule ( ΣE = ΣIR ) The algebraic sum of
where, r = internal resistance, R = external resistance, changes in potential around any closed loop
E = emf of cell, V = terminal voltage of cell involving resistors and cells in the loop is zero.
 E  20. The wheatstone bridge is an R2 R4
Also, V = E − Ir =  R …(ii) arrangement of four resistances
R + r  G
R1, R 2, R 3 and R 4 .
18. Combination of Cells The null point condition is given by R1 R3
(i) Series Combination The equivalent emf of battery, R1 R 3
=
E = E1 + E 2 R2 R4
Equivalent resistance, req = r1 + r2 Using this, we can determine one unknown resistance,
E1 r1 E2 r2
knowing the other three resistances.
21. Potentiometer is an electrical device which can
(i) measure the potential difference with greater
I accuracy.
R (ii) compare the emfs of two cells.
I
E1 l
i.e., = 1
If polarity of one of the batteries is reversed, then E 2 l2
equivalent emf | E1 − E 2 | and net internal
resistance continue to the same i.e., where, l1 and l2 are the balancing lengths
corresponding to cells of emf E1 and E 2
req = r1 + r2 respectively.
58 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

(iii) measure the emf of a cell. 22. Potential Gradient It is the potential drop per unit
(iv) be used to determine the internal resistance of a length of wire of potentiometer
primary cell. V
l  i.e., K = , where V and l are potential difference
i.e., r = R  1 − 1 l
 l2  applied by driving cell and length of wire of
where, l1 and l2 are balancing lengths and R is applied potentiometer, respectively.
resistance.

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Electric Current, Ohm’s Law and Drift of Electrons
1. Twenty million electrons reaches from point X to 6. In a hydrogen atom, an electron moves in an orbit of
point Y in two micro second as shown in the figure. radius 5.0 × 10 −11 m with a speed of 2.2 × 10 6 ms −1 .
Direction and magnitude of the current is The equivalent current is
e– (a) 11.2 × 10−3 A (b) 1.9 × 10−3 A
Y X (c) 1.12 × 10−3 A (d) 11.2 × 104 A
(a) 1.5 × 10−10 A from X to Y(b) 1.6 × 10−6 A from Y to X 7. In a region 1019 α-particles and 1019 protons move to
−13 −4
(c) 1.5 × 10 A from Y to X (d) 1.6 × 10 A from X to Y the left, while 1019 electrons moves to the right per
second. The current is
2. In which material, electric currents develop when an
(a) 3.2 A towards left (b) 3.2 A towards right
electric field is applied?
(c) 6.4 A towards left (d) 6.4 A towards right
(a) Conductor (b) Wooden piece
(c) Non-conductor (d) Insulator 8. The electron of hydrogen atom is considered to be
revolving round a proton in circular orbit of radius
3. In which conductors, positive and negative charges
both can move? h 2 /me 2 with velocity e 2 / h, where, h = h/2π . The
(a) Non-electrolytic solution (b) Electrolytic solution current i is
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) 4 π 2 me5 4 π 2 me2
(a) (b)
4. The current in a wire varies with time according to h2 h3
the equation i = 4 + 2 t, where i is in ampere and t is in 4 π 2 m2 e2 4 π 2 me5
(c) (d)
second. The quantity of charge which passes through h3 h3
a cross-section of the wire during the time t = 2 s to 9. The amount of charge Q passing at in time t through a
t = 6s is cross-section of a wire is Q = 5 t 2 + 3 t + 1. The value
(a) 40 C (b) 48 C of current at time t = 5 s is
(c) 38 C (d) 43 C (a) 9 A (b) 49 A
5. Two boys A and B are sitting at two points in a field. (c) 53 A (d) None of these
Both boys are sitting near assemblage of charged 10. If we consider a mechanism where, the ends of the
balls each carrying charge + 3e. A throws 100 balls cylinder are supplied with fresh charges to make up
per second towards B while B throws 50 balls per for any charges neutralised by electrons moving
second towards A. Simultaneously, find the current at inside the conductor, in that case
the mid-point of A and B. (a) there will be a steady electric field in the body of the
(a) i = 3.4 × 10−17 A from A to B conductor
(b) i = 2.4 × 10−17 A from A to B (b) there will be in a continuous current rather than a current
for a short period of time
(c) i = 3.4 × 10−17 A from B to A
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 59

Iρ l 19. There are two concentric spheres of radius a and b,

11. In V = , current per unit area, I / A is called
A respectively. If the space between them is filled with
(a) resistivity (ρ ) (b) current density ( J ) medium of resistivity ρ, then the resistance of the
(c) voltage (V ) (d) resistance ( R ) inner gap between the two spheres will be
12. In cosmic rays 0.15 protons cm −2 s −1 are entering the ρ ρ  1 1
(a) (b)  − 
earth’s atmosphere. If the radius of the earth is 4π (b + a ) 4π  b a
6400 km, the current received by the earth in the form ρ  1 1 ρ  1 1
of cosmic rays is nearly (c)  −  (d)  − 
4π  a2 b2  4π  a b
(a) 0.12 A (b) 1.2 A (c) 12 A (d) 120 A
20. Inside solid conductor electrons move randomly and
13. A wire is stretched so as to change its diameter by
keep colliding with fixed ions. If there are N
0.25%. The percentage change in resistance is electrons and the velocity of the ith electron
(a) 4.0% (b) 2.0% (c) 1.0% (d) 0.5%
( i = 1, 2, 3, … , N ) at a given time is v i , then
14. The resistance of a 10 m long wire is 10 Ω. Its length N
1 N
is increased by 25% by stretching the wire uniformly. (a) N ∑ vi > 0 (b)
N
∑ vi = 0
i=1 i=1
The resistance of wire will change to
N
(a) 12.5 Ω (b) 14.5 Ω
(c) 15.6 Ω (d) 16.6 Ω
(c) 2N ∑ vi < 0 (d) None of these
i=1

15. Two plates R and S are in the form of a square and 21. When current flows through copper wire, current
have the same thickness. density J, electric field E and motion of electrons
A side of S is twice the side of R. Compare their have directions such that
resistance. The direction of current is shown by an (a) J and E are in opposite directions
arrow head figure. (b) motion of electrons and E are in opposite directions
R S (c) J and motion of electrons are in same direction
(d) J, E and motion of electrons are in same direction
(a) The resistance of R is twice that of S 22. A potential difference V is applied to a copper wire of
(b) Both have the same resistance length l and diameter d. If V is doubled, then the drift
(c) The resistance of S is four times that of R velocity
(d) The resistance of R is half that of S (a) is doubled (b) is halved
16. All the edges of a block are unequal. Its longest edge (c) remains same (d) becomes zero
is twice its shortest edge, then ratio of the maximum 23. A potential difference of 100 V is applied to the ends
and minimum resistance between parallel faces is of a copper wire one metre long. What is the average
(a) 8 (b) 4 drift velocity of electrons?
(c) 2 (d) None of these (given, σ = 5.81 ×10 7 Ω −1 or nCu = 8.5 × 10 28 m −3 )
17. A wire has resistance of 10 Ω. If it is stretched by
(a) 0.43 ms −1 (b) 0.83 ms −1
1/10th of its length, then its resistance is nearly
(c) 0.52 ms −1 (d) 0.95 ms −1
(a) 9 Ω (b) 10 Ω (c) 11 Ω (d) 12 Ω
24. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of
18. A conductor with rectangular cross-section has non-uniform cross-section. The quantity/quantities
dimensions ( a × 2 a × 4a ) as shown in figure. constant along the length of conductor is/are
Resistance across AB is R1 , across CD is R 2 and (a) current, electric field and drift speed
across EF is R 3 . Then, (b) only drift speed
C F (c) current and drift speed
(d) only current
A 2a 4a B 25. When a current I flows through a wire, the drift
a velocity of the electrons is v. When current 2I flows
through another wire of the same material having
E D double the length and double the area of cross-section,
the drift velocity of the electrons will be
(a) R1 = R2 = R3 (b) R1 > R2 > R3
(a) v/ 8 (b) v/ 4
(c) R2 > R3 > R1 (d) R1 > R3 > R2
(c) v / 2 (d) v
60 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

26. Assume that each atom of copper contributes one free 32. Which of the following circuits is correct for
electron. What is the average drift velocity of verification of Ohm’s law?
conduction electrons in a copper wire of A
cross-sectional area 10 −7 m 2 , carrying a current of
1.5A? (given, density of copper = 9 × 10 3 kgm −3 ; (a) V
atomic mass of copper = 63.5; Avogadro’s number
= 6.023 × 10 23 per gram atom)
A
(a) 1.1 × 10−2 ms −1
(b) 1.1 × 10−3 ms −1 (b) V
(c) 2.2 × 10−2 ms −1
(d) 2.2 × 10−3 ms −1 A

27. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance (c) V

R 0 = 12 Ω. Find the points A and B, as shown in the
figure, at which a current carrying conductor should
be connected so that the resistance R of the sub circuit (d) None of the above
between these points is equal to 8/3 Ω. [NEET 2012] 33. The V - i graph for a good conductor makes angle 40°
l1
with V -axis. Here, V denotes voltage and i denotes
current. The resistance of the conductor will be
A B (a) sin 40° (b) cos 40° (c) tan 40° (d) cot 40°
34. A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1Ω at 27. 5° C and
a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100° C. Determine the
l2
temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver.
l1 5 l1 1 (a) 0.39 / ° C (b) 0.039/ ° C
(a) = (b) = (c) 0.009/ ° C (d) 0.0039/ ° C
l2 8 l2 3
l 3 l 1 35. The temperature dependence of resistances of Cu and
(c) 1 = (d) 1 =
l2 8 l2 2 undoped Si in the temperature range 300-400 K, is best
described by [JEE Main 2016]
28. Large current in solid conductor can be obtained (a) linear increase for Cu, linear increase for Si
because
(b) linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si
(a) drift speed is large
(b) charge on electron is large (c) linear increase for Cu, exponential decrease for Si
(c) electron number density is enormous ~1029 m−3 (d) linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for Si
(d) None of the above 36. If charges moved without collisions through the
. × 10 −8 Ω m and
29. If resistivity of copper conductor is17 conductor, their kinetic energy would also change so
electric field is 100 Vm −1 , then current density will be that the total energy is
(a) 6 × 109 Am−2 (a) changed (b) unchanged
(b) 1.7 × 10−6 Am−2 (c) doubled (d) halved
(c) 1.7 × 10−10 Am−2 37. Resistance of a wire at 20° C is 20 Ω and at 500° C is
(d) 6 × 107 Am−2 60 Ω. At what temperature its resistance is 25 Ω?
29 3 (a) 160° C (b) 250° C (c) 100° C (d) 80° C
30. A conductor wire having 10 free electrons/m
carries a current of 20 A. If the cross-section of wire 38. A resistor has a colour code of green, blue, brown,
is 1 mm 2 , then the drift velocity of electrons will be and silver. What is its resistance?
−3
(a) 6.25 × 10 ms −1 −5
(b) 1.25 × 10 ms −1 (a) 5600 Ω ± 10% (b) 560 Ω ± 5%
(c) 1.25 × 10−3 ms −1 (d) 1.25 × 10−4 ms −1 (c) 560 Ω ± 10% (d) 56 Ω ± 5%
39. Corresponding to the resistance 4.7 × 10 6 Ω ± 5%
31. A copper wire of cross-sectional area 2.0 mm 2
which is order of colour coding on carbon resistors?
resistivity = 1.7 × 10 −8 Ω, carries a current of 1 A.
(a) Yellow, violet, blue, gold
The electric field in the copper wire is (b) Yellow, violet, green, gold
(a) 8.5 × 10−5 Vm−1 (b) 8.5 × 10−4 Vm−1 (c) Orange, blue, green, gold
(c) 8.5 × 10−3 Vm−1 (d) 8.5 × 10−2 Vm−1 (d) Orange, blue, violet, gold
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 61

40. A voltage of 30V is applied across a colour coded 43. What is the safest voltage you can put across a 98 Ω,
carbon resistor with first, second and third rings of 0.5 W resistor?
blue, black and yellow colours. What is the current (a) 14 V (b) 9.5 V (c) 7 V (d) 8.5 V
flowing through the resistor?
44. An electric bulb is marked 100 W, 230 V. If the
(a) 5 × 10−4 A (b) 5 × 104 A
supply voltage drops to 115 V, what is the heat and
(c) 0.5 × 10−4 A (d) 0.5 × 104 A
light energy produced by the bulb in 20 min?
41. The current i and voltage V graph for a given metallic (a) 20000 J (b) 25000 J (c) 30000 J (d) 35000 J
wire at two different temperatures T1 and T2 are 45. The number of electrons moving per second through
shown in the figure. It is concluded that the filament of a lamp of 100 W, operating at 200 V is
(a) 3.1 × 1018 (b) 3.1 × 1019 (c) 4.8 × 1018 (d) 4.8 × 1019
T2
46. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent
i from one city to another city through copper wires.
T1
The fall of potential per km is 8 V and the average
resistance per km is 0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire is
O V [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) T1 > T2 (b) T1 < T2 (a) 19.2 W (b) 19.2 kW
(c) T1 = T2 (d) T1 = 2T2 (c) 19.2 J (d) 12.2 kW
42. A wire of resistance 4 Ω is stretched to twice its 47. An electric motor operating on a 50 V DC supply
original length. The resistance of stretched wire draws a current of 12 A. If the efficiency of the motor
would be [NEET 2013] is 30%, then estimate the resistance of the winding of
(a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω the motor.
(c) 8 Ω (d) 16 Ω (a) 1.5 Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 2.9 Ω (d) 1 Ω

Topic 2
Grouping of Resistors
48. Five resistors are connected as shown in figure. Find 50. Figure shows a network of eight resistors, each equal
the equivalent resistance between the points B and C. to 2 Ω, connected to a 3V battery of negligible
9Ω internal resistance. The current I in the circuit is
A B
3V
10
Ω
3Ω 5Ω
I
7Ω B C
D C A D

70 19
(a) Ω (b) Ω
19 70
16 15 E F
(c) Ω (d) Ω (a) 0.25 A (b) 0.50 A (c) 0.75 A (d) 1.0 A
5 8
49. A wire of uniform cross-section and length l has a 51. Six equal resistances are connected between points
resistance of 16 Ω. It is cut into four equal parts. Each P , Q and R as shown in the figure. Then, the net
part is stretched uniformly to length l and all the resistance will be maximum between
P
stretched parts are connected in parallel. Calculate the
total resistance of the combination so formed. r
(Assume that the stretching of the wire does not cause r r
any change in the density of the material.) r r
(a) 10Ω (b) 12 Ω
Q R
(c) 16 Ω (d) 18 Ω
r
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) P and R (d) R and S
62 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

52. The resistance across P and Q in the figure is 56. What is the equivalent C
A resistance across the points 10 Ω B
A and B in the circuit
given alongside? 10 Ω 16 Ω
(a) 8Ω
r r 12 Ω
r r (b) 12Ω
10 Ω 2.5 Ω
(c) 16Ω A
r D E
(d) 32Ω
P B r C Q 57. Six equal resistances each of 4 Ω are connected to
(a) r/ 3 (b) r/ 2 (c) 2r (d) 6r form a figure. The resistance between two corners A
and B is
53. Two resistances are joined in parallel whose equivalent
A B
resistance is 3/ 5 Ω. One of the resistance wire is broken 4Ω
and the effective resistance becomes 3 Ω. The 4Ω 4Ω
resistance (in ohm) of the wire that got broken was
O
(a) 4 / 3 (b) 2 (c) 6/5 (d) 3/4
4Ω 4Ω
54. Two wires of same metal have the same length but 4Ω
areas of their cross-sections are in the ratio 3 : 1. They D C
are joined in series. The resistance of the thicker wire 4
(a) 4 Ω (b) Ω
is 10 Ω. The total resistance of the combination is 3
(a) 5/ 2 Ω (b) 40 / 2 Ω (c) 40 Ω (d) 100 Ω (c) 12Ω (d) 2Ω
55. The equivalent resistance of n resistors each of same 58. Two resistances R and 2 R are connected in parallel in
resistance when connected in series is R. If the same an electric circuit. The thermal energy developed in R
resistances are connected in parallel, the equivalent and 2R in the ratio
resistances will be (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
2 2 (c) 4 :1 (d) 2 :1
(a) R / n (b) R / n (c) n R (d) nR

Topic 3
Cells EMF and Internal Resistance
59. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a 62. Consider a parallel combination of the cells in the
current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 Ω is figure.
ε1
[NEET 2013]
(a) 0.2 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω I1
r1
I1
εeq
(c) 0.8 Ω (d) 1.0 Ω I I
A B1 ε2 B2 C A I C
60. The cell has an emf of 2V and the internal resistance of I2 req
I2
this cell is 0.1 Ω, it is connected to resistance of 3.9 Ω, r2
the voltage across the cell will be
(a) 1.95 V (b) 1.5 V The potential difference across its terminals B1 and B 2 is
(c) 2 V (d) 1.8 V (a) V = ε eq − Ireq (b) V = ε 2 − Ir2
(c) V = 2ε eq − Ireq (d) V = ε1 − 2Ir1
61. Consider first two cells in series as shown in figure
the potential difference between the terminals A and 63. Is it possible that any battery has some constant
C of the combination is non-zero value of emf but the potential difference
ε1 ε2 εeq between the plates is zero?
I I I I
(a) Not possible
A B C A C (b) Yes, if another identical battery is joined in series
r1 r2 req
(c) Yes, if another identical battery is joined in opposition
(a) V AC = ε1 − Ir1 (b) V AC = ε 2 − Ir2
(d) Yes, possible, if another similar battery is joined in
(c) V AC = ε eq − Ireq (d) V AC = 2ε eq − Ireq
parallel
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 63

R C = 3 µF
64. The maximum power dissipated in an external B G H
resistance R, when connected to a cell of emf E and
R R
internal resistance r will be R R
A F
E2 E2 D
(a) (b)
r 2r
10 V
E2 E2
(c) (d) (a) 12 V (b) 10 V (c) 8 V (d) zero
3r 4r
67. Two resistances 400 Ω and 800 Ω are connected in
65. To draw maximum current from a combination of series with 6 V battery. The potential difference
cells, how should the cells be grouped? measured by voltmeter of10 k Ω across 400 Ω resistor is
(a) Parallel (a) 2 V (b) 1.95 V (c) 3.8 V (d) 4 V
(b) Series
(c) Mixed grouping 68. To get a maximum current through a resistance of
(d) Depends upon the relative values of internal and external 2.5 Ω, one can use m rows of cells each row having n
resistances cells. The internal resistance of each cell is 0.5 Ω.
What are the values of m and n, if the total number of
66. In the circuit shown, the cell is ideal with emf =10 V. cells are 20?
Each resistance is of 2 Ω. The potential difference (a) m = 2, n = 10 (b) m = 4 , n = 5
across the capacitor is (c) m = 5, n = 4 (d) n = 2, m = 10

Topic 4
Kirchhoff ’s Laws (Wheatstone Bridge and Meter Bridge)
69. Five conductors are meeting at a point x as shown in 72. In the circuit given here, the points A, B and C are
the figure. What is the value of current in fifth 70 V, zero, 10 V, respectively. Then,
conductor? B
20Ω
4A
D
x A
5A 3A 10Ω

5A 30Ω C

(a) 3A away from x (b) 1A away from x (a) the point D will be at a potential of 60 V
(c) 4A away from x (d) 1A towards x (b) the point D will be at a potential of 20 V
70. The algebraic sum of changes in potential around (c) currents in the paths AD , DB and DC are in the ratio of
any closed loop involving resistor and cells in the 1: 2 : 3
loop is (d) currents in the paths AD , DB and DC are in the ratio of
3 : 2 :1
(a) more than zero (b) less than zero
(c) zero (d) constant 73. A battery of 10 V and negligible internal resistance is
connected across the diagonally opposite corners of a
71. Two cells having the internal resistance 0.2 Ω and
cubical network consisting of 12 resistors each of
0.4 Ω are connected in parallel. The voltage across the
resistance 1Ω. The equivalence resistance of the
battery terminal is 1.5 V. The emf of first cell is 1.2
network is
V. The emf of second cell is 5 6
(a) 2.7 V (b) 2.1 V (a) R (b) R
6 5
(c) 3 V (d) 4.2 V
(c) 3R (d) 12 R
64 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

74. As the switch S is closed in the circuit shown in 79. In a Wheatstone bridge, P = 90 Ω, Q =110 Ω,
figure, current passed through it is R = 40 Ω and S = 60 Ω and a cell of 4V emf. Then, the
10 V 4Ω 2Ω 5V
potential difference between the diagonal along which
C
a galvanometer is connected is
2Ω B i g)
–

0Ω
(c 2

Ω
90

11
P
Ig Q
S
i1
D
i2 G
A
(a) zero (b) 1 A Ω
Ω 0
(c) 2 A (d) 1.6 A 40 R S 6
i g)
75. The emf of the battery shown in figure is +
C (c
2

2Ω 2Ω 1Ω
(a) − 0.2 V (b) + 0.2 V
(c) − 1 V (d) + 1 V
4Ω 2Ω
E 1Ω
80. If each of the resistance in the network in figure is R,
1A the equivalent resistance between terminals A and B
is
(a) 12 V (b) 13 V Q
(c) 16 V (d) 18 V
76. The Wheatstone bridge and its balance condition
RΩ
provide a practical method for determination of an RΩ RΩ
(a) known resistance
O
(b) unknown resistance A
(c) Both (a) and (b) RΩ B
(d) None of the above P S
RΩ
77. The resistance of the following circuit between A and (a) 5R (b) 2R
B is (c) 4R (d) R
E
2Ω 2Ω 81. The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge in figure have
C D
following resistances AB =100 Ω, BC =10 Ω,
2Ω CD = 5 Ω and DA = 60 Ω.
2Ω
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω A galvanometer of 15 Ω resistance is connected
F
across BD. Calculate the current through the
2Ω
A B galvanometer when a potential difference of 10 V is
2Ω maintained across AC.
(a) ( 3/ 2 ) Ω (b) 2 Ω
B
(c) 4 Ω (d) 8 Ω
78. The resistances in the two ()
arms of the meter bridge 5Ω RΩ C
A
are 5 Ω and R Ω,
respectively. When the
resistance R is shunted
G
with an equal resistance, D
the new balance point is at A B
l1 100 –l1
1.6 l1 . The resistance R, is
10 V
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) 10 Ω (b) 15 Ω (a) 4.87 A (b) 4.87 mA
(c) 20 Ω (d) 25 Ω (c) 4.0 A (d) 4.0 mA
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 65

82. The resistances of the four arms P , Q, R and S in a 83. In meter bridge for measurement of resistance, the
Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 Ω, 30 Ω, 30 Ω and 90 Ω, known and the unknown resistances are interchanged.
respectively. The emf and internal resistance of the The error so removed is
cell are 7 V and 5 Ω respectively. If the galvanometer (a) end correction
resistance is 50 Ω, the current drawn from the cell will (b) index error
be [NEET 2013] (c) due to temperature effect
(a) 1.0 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 0.1 A (d) 2.0 A (d) random error

Topic 5
Potentiometer
84. Which of the following draws no current from the 2 VR 2 VR
(a) (b)
voltage source being measured? R0 + 4 R R0
(a) Meter bridge (b) Wheatstone bridge 4 VR VR
(c) (d)
(c) Potentiometer (d) None of these R0 + 2 R R0 + 2 R
85. In a potentiometer, the null point is received at 7th 90. The figure below shows a 2.0 V potentiometer used for
wire. If now we have to change the null point at the the determination of internal resistance of a 2.5 V cell.
9th wire, what should we do? The balance point of the cell in the open circuit is 75 cm.
(a) Attach resistance in series with battery
When a resistor of 10 Ω is used in the external circuit of
(b) Increase resistance in main circuit
the cell, the balance point shifts to 65 cm length of
(c) Decrease resistance in main circuit
potentiometer wire. The internal resistance of the cell is
(d) Decrease applied emf
86. Potentiometer measures the potential difference more 2.0 V
accurately than a voltmeter because
J' J
(a) it has a wire of high resistance A B
(b) it has a wire of low resistance G G
1.5 V
(c) it does not draw current from external circuit
(d) it draws a heavy current from external circuit
10 Ω
87. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of
potentiometer wire, respectively with and without (a) 2.5 Ω (b) 2.0 Ω (c) 1.54 Ω (d) 1.0 Ω
being short circuited through a resistance of 10 Ω. Its 91. The circuit shown here is
internal resistance is used to compare the emf of V
(a) 1.0 Ω (b) 0.5 Ω (c) 2.0 Ω (d) zero
two cells E1 and E 2 C
88. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant ( E1 > E 2 ). The null point A B

potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells is at C when the

are connected in series first to support one another and galvanometer is connected E1 G
then in opposite direction. The balance points are to E1 . When the
obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of galvanometer is connected E2
the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf is to E 2 , the null point will be
[NEET 2016] (a) to the left of C (b) to the right of C
(a) 5 : 4 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 5 : 1 (c) at C itself (d) no change in null point
89. A resistance of R Ω draws V 92. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are
current from a potentiometer. R0 connected in series with a battery of emf E 0 and a
Potentiometer has a total A C resistance r1 . An unknown emf is balanced at a length l
B
resistance R 0 Ω as shown in of the potentiometer wire. The emf E will be given by
R
figure. [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
A voltage V is supplied to the potentiometer. Derive LE0 r E0 rl E l LE0 r
(a) (b) . (c) 0 (d)
an expression for the voltage across R when the l r1 ( r + r1 ) L L ( r + r1 ) l
sliding contact is in the middle of the potentiometer.
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 98. Statement I In electrostatics all charges whether
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 93-97) In the following free or bound, are considered to be at rest.
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a Statement II The charges in motion constitute an
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following electric current.
statements, choose the correct one. 99. Statement I Conductivity arises from mobile charge
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the carriers.
correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the Statement II In metals, these mobile charge carriers are
correct explanation of Assertion. electrons with fixed positive ions in background; these
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. can be both positive and negative ions in an electrolyte.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. 100. Statement I For insulators and semiconductors, number
93. Assertion The average time of collisions τ, of electrons increases with increasing temperature.
decreases with increasing temperature. Statement II This increase of number of electrons
Reason At increased in temperature, average speed of more effective than any decrease in τ, so that for such
the electrons, which act as the carriers of current, materials ρ decreases with temperature.
increases, resulting in more frequent collisions.
Statement Based Questions Type II
94. Assertion Charge carriers do not move with
acceleration, with a steady drift velocity. 101. When no electric field is applied across a conductor,
Reason Charge carriers under go collisions with ions then consider the following statements.
and atoms during transit. I. The electrons will be moving due to thermal motion
during which they collide with the fixed ions.
95. Assertion If we bend an insulated conducting wire,
II. An electron colliding with an ion emerges with the
the resistance of the wire increases.
same speed as before the collision. However the
Reason The drift velocity of electron in bended wire direction of its velocity after the collision is completely
remains same. random.
96. Assertion The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic III. At a given time, there is no preferential direction for the
wire decreases when temperature of the wire is increases. velocities of the electrons. Thus, on the average, the
number of electrons travelling in any direction will be
Reason On increasing temperature, conductivity of
equal to the number of electrons travelling in the opposite
metallic wire decreases. direction. So, there will be no net electric current.
97. Assertion Manganin and constantan are widely used Which of the following statements is/are correct?
in standard resistors. (a) I and II (b) II and III
Reason Manganin and constantan resistances values (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
would change very little with temperatures.
102. Consider the following statements.
II. Statement Based Questions Type I I. The resistance R of a conductor depends on its length l
and cross-sectional area A through the relation.
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 98-100) In the following ρA
questions, a statement I is followed by a corresponding R=
l
statement II. Of the following statements, choose the
II. Metals have low resistivity in the range of10−8 Ωm to
correct one.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement 10−6 Ωm.
II is the correct explanation of Statement I. III. In most substance, the carriers of current are electrons
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement in same cases for example ionic crystals and
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. electrolytic liquids, positive and negative ions.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) I and II (d) I and III
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 67

III. Matching Type 105. Match the following Column I and Column II and
choose the correct option from the codes given below.
103. Match the following Column I with Column II and
choose correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II
Column I Column II

Resistivity, ρ (10–8 Ω m)
A. V ceases to be 1. 1.5 I
mA 0.4 1. Temperature
proportional to I.
dependence of
V resistivity for a
–2
A. 0.2
0.2 typical
semiconductor
I µA 0
50 100 150
B. The relation 2. Temperature, T (K)
between V and I

Resistivity, ρ (µ Ω cm)
depends on the sign
of V.
V
1.20 2. Resistivity ρ T of
copper as a function
B. 1.10 of temperature T
I

C. The relation 3. Negative 1.00

between V and I is Non-linear resistance 200 400 600 800
region region
Current I (mA)

not unique. Temperature, T (K)

3. Resistivity of ρ T of
Voltage V (V) C. nichrome as a
function of absolute
A B C A B C temperature T.
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3
T
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2
104. Consider the figure. A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 1
(c) 3 1 2
Resistance (d) 1 3 2
Red Silver (22×102 π) ±10%
106. A battery has an open circuit
Match the following Column I with Column II and potential difference of 6 V
choose the correct option from the codes given below. between its terminals in the figure. When a load
Column I Column II resistance of 60 Ω is connected across the battery, the
A. The first two bands 1. A tolerance of 20% total power dissipated is 0.4 W.
from the end
B. The third band 2. Tolerance or possible variation in per ε
cent about the indicated values
Load (R)
C. The last band 3. The decimal multiplier r
D. Absence of last band 4. First two significant figures of the
resistance (in ohm)

A B C D Match the physical quantities given in Column I with

(a) 4 3 1 2 their values given in Column II and choose the
(b) 3 1 2 4 correct option from codes given below.
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
68 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Column I Column II
Column I Column II
A. Terminal potential difference across 1. R > r
A. Internal resistance of the battery(r). 1. 0.6 W the cell to be maximum
B. Value of R for maximum power dissipation 2. 0.4 W B. Power transferred to R is less than 2. R < r
the maximum possible
C. Total power supplied by the battery 3. 30 Ω
under condition B C. Power dissipated in the cell is 3. R = ∞
maximum
D. Maximum power dissipated in R 4. 60 Ω
under condition B D. Fastest drift of ions in the 4. R = 0
electrolyte in the cell will be for
5. 0.3 W
A B C D
A B C D (a) 3 1,2,3,4 4 4
(a) 3 3 1 5 (b) 4 2,3,4 2,3,1 2
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 1 2,1,3 2,4,2 1,3
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 5 (d) 1 2 3 4

107. A battery A (15 V, 1 Ω) and a battery B (10V, 1 Ω ) are IV. Passage Based Questions
joined to a resistance of 3 Ω as shown in figure.
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 109-113) These questions are
15 V 1 Ω 10 V 1 Ω based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below.
∆Q
We define average current as I av = and
∆t
3Ω dQ
instantaneous current as I = . Obviously, Q = ∫ Idt.
dt
Match the statements given in Column I with the Further, electric energy delivered per unit time by a
entries given in Column II and choose correct option ∆E
from codes given below. source, i.e., power, P = , where ∆E is the energy
∆t
Column I Column II delivered by the source in time ∆t.

A. Potential drop across A 1. A In a certain accelerator, electrons emerge with

energies of 40.0 MeV (1MeV = 1.60 × 10 −13 J). The
B. Potential drop across B 2. B
electrons do not emerge in steady stream, but in
C. Power is supplied by battery 3. 14 V pulses that repeat 250 times per second.
D. Power is consumed by battery 4. 9V 4.00 ms 200 ns

5. 11 V

A B C D I
(a) 2 5 4 1
(b) 5 4 3 1,2 t (s)
(c) 3 5 1 2
This corresponds to a time between each pulse of
(d) 1 2 3 4 4.00 ms in figure. Each pulse lasts for 200 ms and the
108. Column I and Column II contain electrons in the pulse constitute a current of 250 mA.
four entries each. Entries of The current is zero between the pulses. While the
R
Column I are to be matched with pulse is on, the current is constant.
same entries of Column II. One or 109. Which of the following relation is correct for
more than one entries of Column I conductivity σ of solid conductor?
may have the matching with the E r
ne2 2ne2
same entries of Column II and one (a) σ = τ (b) σ = τ
entry of Column I may have one or more than one m m
matching with entries of Column II. In the figure, the ne2 ne2
(c) σ = τ (d) σ = τ
resistance R is variable, r is the internal resistance of 2m 4m
battery of emf E.
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 69

110. The charge delivered by the acceleration per pulse is 118. When R is finite, then potential difference between P
(a) 5.00 × 10−6 C (b) 5.00 × 10−8 C and N is
(c) 10.00 × 10−8 C (d) 10.00 × 10−6 C (a) ε (b) ε − Ir (c) 2ε − Ir (d) ε − 2Ir

111. The number of electrons delivered per pulse is 119. The internal resistance of dry cells is … A…, than the
internal resistance of common electrolytic cell.
(a) 6 × 1011 (b) 6 × 109
(c) 3.13 × 1011 (d) 3.13 × 1018 Here, A refers to
(a) much lower (b) much higher
112. The average current delivered by the acceleration is (c) slightly lower (d) slightly higher
(a) 12.5 A (b) 12.5 mA
120. The current flowing in the cell is
(c) 12.5 µA (d) 1.25 A
ε R+r
(a) I = (b) I =
113. The maximum power delivered by the electron beam is R+r ε
(a) 100 W (b) 10 kW R
(c) 1MW (d) 10 MW (c) I = (d) I = r/ ε
ε
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 114-116) These questions are 121. The maximum current that can be drawn from a cell is
based on the following situation. Choose the correct for
options from those given below. (a) R = infinity
In the given figure, for a given voltage V across the (b) R = finite non-zero resistance
full cross-section of slab and I is the current through (c) R=0
the entire slab. (d) R=r

l ■ Directions (Q.Nos. 122-125) These questions are

Half slab 1 based on the following situation. Choose the correct
Half slab 2
A/2 options from those given below.
A/2 The potential difference (V ) across a
r2 ε2
source in a circuit is not equal to its
emf ( ε). This is due to the reason A B
114. The current flowing through each of the two half
that every source of electric energy I r1 ε1
slabs is
has some internal resistance (r ).
(a) I / 2 (b) I (c) I / 4 (d) 3 / 4 I
Further, ε, V and r are related to each other as
115. The potential difference across the ends of a half slab is V = ε − Ir. A single battery shown in figure, consists of
(a) V (b) V / 2 (c) V / 4 (d)
3
V two cells of emf’s ε1 and ε 2 and internal resistances r1
4 and r2 , respectively in series.
116. The resistance of each of the half slab, R1 is (given 122. The current in the internal circuit is
ε 2 − ε1
resistance of full slab= R) (a) zero (b)
(a) R (b) R / 2 r1 + r2
(c) R / 4 (d) 2R ε1 + ε 2 ε1 − ε 2
(c) (d)
r1 + r2 r1 + r2
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 117-121) These questions are
based on the following figure. Choose the correct 123. The equivalent emf of the battery is
options from those given below. (a) ( ε1 + ε 2 ) (b) ( ε1 − ε 2 )
R ( ε1 r2 − ε 2 r1 )
C
I I
D (c) ( ε 2 − ε1 ) (d)
I P N I
r1 + r2

124. For the terminal A to be positive

A B (a) ε1 > ε 2 (b) ε 2 > ε1 (c) ε1 r1 = ε 2 r2 (d) ε1 r2 > ε 2 r1
Electrolyte
125. The internal resistance of the battery is
( r1 + r2 )
117. When R is infinite, then potential difference V (a) ( r1 + r2 ) (b)
between P and N is r1 r2
(a) ε (b) 2ε (c)
r1 r2
(d)
r2
(c) ε/ 2 (d) ε/ 4 ( r1 + r2 ) ( r1 + r2 )
70 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

V. More than One Option Correct 129. Two bulbs consume same energy when operated at
200 V and 300 V, respectively, when these bulbs are
126. Ohm’s law is not true
connected in series across a DC source of 500 V, then
(a) for metallic conductors at low temperature
(a) ratio of potential difference across them is 3/2
(b) for metallic conductors at high temperature
(b) ratio of potential difference across them is 4/9
(c) for electrolytes when current passes through them
(c) ratio of power produced in them is 4/9
(d) for diode when current flow
(d) ratio of power produced in them is 2/3
127. Temperature dependence of resistivity ρ (T ) of
semiconductor insulators and metals is significantly 130. In the circuit shown in figure
based on the following factors. A

Ω
4
(a) Number of charge carries can change with temperatureT.
(b) Time interval between two successive collision which
depends on T.

Ω
6
B
(c) Length of material can be a function of T.
(d) Mass of carries is a function of T. 2Ω 20 V

128. The resistance of a conductor increases with (a) power supplied by the battery is 200 W
(a) increase in length (b) current flowing in the circuit is 5A
(b) increase in temperature (c) Potential difference across the 4 Ω resistance is equal to
(c) decrease in cross-sectional area the potential difference across the 6 Ω resistance
(d) None of the above (d) current in wire AB is zero

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

NCERT 136. A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 Ω at 27.5 °C and
131. The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V. If the a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100 °C. Determine the
internal resistance of the battery is 0.4 Ω, what is the temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver.
maximum current that can be drawn from the battery? (a) 0.0039/°C (b) 0.02/°C (c) 0.05/°C (d) 0.06/°C
(a) 10 A (b) 20 A (c) 30 A (d) 40 A 137. A heating element using nichrome connected to a
132. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 3 Ω is 230 V supply draws an initial current of 3.2 A which
connected to a resistor. If the current in the circuit is settles after a few seconds to a steady value of 2.8 A.
0.5 A, what is the resistance of the resistor? What is the steady temperature of the heating element,
(a) 10 Ω (b) 17 Ω (c) 15 Ω (d) None of these if the room temperature is 27.0°C? Temperature
133. Three resistors 2 Ω, 4 Ω and 5 Ω are combined in
coefficient of resistance of nichrome averaged over
parallel. If the combination is connected to a battery the temperature range involved is 1.70 × 10 − 4 °C −1 .
of emf 20 V and negligible internal resistance, (a) 676°C (b) 876°C (c) 867°C (d) 500°C
determine the total current drawn from the battery. 138. Determine the current in drawn from source.
(a) 19 A (b) 29 A (c) 13 A (d) 23 A B
134. At room temperature (27.0°C) the resistance of a 10 Ω 5Ω
heating element is 100 Ω. What is the temperature of
the element, if the resistance is found to be117 Ω, given A C
5Ω
that the temperature coefficient of the material of the
. × 10 − 4 /°C.
resistor is 170
5Ω
(a) 1000°C (b) 1027°C (c) 2027°C (d) 3027°C 10 Ω
D
135. A negligible small current is passed through a wire of
length 15 m and uniform cross-section 60 . × 10 − 7 m 2
10 Ω
and its resistance is measured to be 5.0 Ω. What is the 10 V
resistivity of the material at the temperature of the 4 10
(a) A (b) A
experiment? 17 17
(a) 2 × 10−9 Ωm (b) 3 × 10−9 Ωm (c)
6
A (d)
5
A
(c) 2 × 10−7 Ωm (d) 4 × 10−7 Ωm 17 17
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 71

139. In a meter bridge, the balance point is found to be at 145. Figure shows a 2.0 V potentiometer used for the
39.5 cm from the end A, when the resistor Y is of determination of internal resistance of a 1.5 V cell.
. Ω. Determine the balance point of the bridge
125 The balance point of the cell in open-circuit is
above, if X and Y are interchanged. 76.3 cm. When a resistor of 9.5 Ω is used in the
(a) 39.5 cm (b) 12.5 cm external circuit of the cell, the balance point shifts to
(c) 60.5 cm (d) None of these 64.8 cm length of the potentiometer wire.
140. A storage battery of emf 8.0 V and internal resistance Determine the internal resistance of the cell.
0.5 Ω is being charged by a 120 V DC supply using a 2.0 V
series resistor of 15.5 Ω. What is the terminal voltage
of the battery during charging?
(a) 10 V (b) 11.5 V A B
(c) 7 V (d) 16 V 1.5 V G
G
141. In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.25 V
gives a balance point at 35.0 cm length of the wire. If the 9.5 Ω
cell is replaced by another cell and the balance point
shifts to 63.0 cm, what is the emf of the second cell? (a) 3 Ω (b) 1.68 Ω (c) 4.5 Ω (d) 3.6 Ω
(a) 2.25 V (b) 3.25 V
(c) 4.5 V (d) 6 V NCERT Exemplar
142. The number density of free electrons in a copper 146. Consider a current carrying wire (current I) in the
conductor estimated at 8.5 ×10 28 m − 3 . How long does shape of a circle.
an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0 m (a) Source of emf
long to its other end? The area of cross-section of the (b) Electric field produced by charges accumulated on the
. × 10 − 6 m 2 and it is carrying a current of 3.0 A.
wire is 20 surface of wire
(a) 6 h 33 min (b) 7 h 33 min (c) The charges just behind a given segment of wire which
push them just the right way by repulsion
(c) 6 h (d) 5 h 20 min
(d) The charges ahead
143. Determine the current drawn from a 12 V supply with
147. Two batteries of emfs ε 1 and ε 2 (ε 2 >ε 1 ) and internal
internal resistance 0.5 Ω by the infinite network resistances r1 and r2 respectively are connected in
shown in given figure. Each resistor has 1 Ω parallel as shown in figure.
resistance.
ε1 r1
1Ω 1Ω 1Ω 1Ω 1Ω

A B
1Ω 1Ω 1Ω 1 Ω (12 V, r2
0.5 Ω) ε2

(a) The equivalent emf εeq of the two cells is between ε1 and
1Ω 1Ω 1Ω 1Ω 1Ω ε 2 , i.e., ε1 < εeq < ε 2
(a) 3A (b) 2.7A (b) The equivalent emf εeq is smaller than ε1
(c) 3.7A (d) 4.2A (c) The εeq is given by εeq = ε1 + ε 2 always
144. Figure shows a potentiometer (d) εeq is independent of internal resistances r1 and r2
circuit for comparison of two 148. A resistance R is to be measured using a meter bridge,
A B
resistances. The balance point student chooses the standard resistance S to be 100 Ω.
with a standard resistor G He finds the null point at l1 = 29
. cm. He is told to
R
R =10.0 Ω is found to be attempt to improve the accuracy.
58.3 cm, while that with the X
Which of the following is a useful way?
unknown resistance X is e
(a) He should measure I1 more accurately
68.5 cm. Determine the value
(b) He should change S to1000 Ω and repeat the experiment
of X.
(c) He should change S to 3 Ω and repeat the experiment
(a) 9.5 Ω (b) 10.5 Ω
(c) 11.75 Ω (d) 13 Ω (d) He should given up hope of a more accurate measurement
with a meter bridge
72 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

149. Two cells of emfs approximately 5 V and 10 V are to (b) Current through R′ is nearly a constant as R′ is varied
be accurately compared using a potentiometer of (c) Current I depends sensitively on R'
length 400 cm. V
(d) I ≥ always
(a) The battery that runs the potentiometer should have r+ R
voltage of 8 V 154. The measurement of an unknown resistance R is to be
(b) The battery of potentiometer can have a voltage of 15 V carried out using Wheatstone bridge as given in the
and R adjusted so that the potential drop across the wire figure. Two students perform an experiment in two
slightly exceeds 10 V ways. The first students takes R 2 =10 Ω and R1 = 5 Ω.
(c) The first portion of 50 cm of wire itself should have a The other student takes R 2 =1000 Ω and R1 = 500 Ω.
potential drop of 10 V In the standard arm, both take R 3 = 5 Ω.
(d) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing resistances R
and not voltages
Both find R = 2 × R 3 = 10 Ω within errors.
R1
150. A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular B
1 I4
cross-section of 1cm × cm is connected to a battery Unknown
2 R2
R4
I2
across opposite faces. The resistance will be C
A G
(a) Maximum when the battery is connected across I1 R3
1 R1
1 cm × cm faces Standard
2 I3 arm
(b) Maximum when the battery is connected across D
10 cm × 1 cm faces ε
(c) Maximum when the battery is connected across
1 (a) The errors of measurement of the two students are the same
10 cm × /cm faces
2 (b) Errors of measurement do depend on the accuracy with
(d) Same irrespective of the three faces which R2 and R1 can be measured
151. Which of the following characteristics of electrons (c) If the student uses large values of R2 and R1 the currents
through the arms will be feeble. This will make
determines the current in a conductor? determination of null point accurately more difficult
(a) Drift velocity alone (d) Wheatstone bridge is a very accurate instrument and has
(b) Thermal velocity alone no errors of measurement
(c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity
(d) Neither drift nor thermal velocity 155. In a meter bridge, the point D is a neutral point (figure).
R S
152. Kirchhoff’s junction rule is a reflection of B
(a) conservation of current density vector
(b) conservation of charge A l1 C
G 100 – l1
(c) the fact that the momentum with which a charged D
particle approaches a junction is unchanged (as a
vector) as the charged particle leaves the junction
(d) the fact that there is no accumulation of charges at a
junction
153. Consider a simple circuit shown in figure stands for a
variable resistance R ′ . R ′ can vary from R to infinity. (a) The meter bridge can have no other neutral. A point for
r is internal resistance of the battery (r << R′ << R). this set of resistances
(b) When the jockey contacts a point on meter wire left of
D, current flows to B from the wire
R′
(c) When the jockey contacts a point on the meter wire to
R the right of D, current flows from B to the wire through
A B galvanometer
I (d) When R is increased, the neutral point shifts to left
V r

(a) Potential drop across AB is nearly constant as R′ is varied

 Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24 (d) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (a)
46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (b)
76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (b) 101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (b) 104. (d) 105. (b)
106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (b) 111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (d) 114. (a) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (a)
121. (d) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (a, 127. (a,b) 128. (a,b, 129. (b,c) 130. (a,c) 131. (c) 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (c)
d) c)
136. (a) 137. (c) 138. (b) 139. (c) 140. (b) 141. (a) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (b, 153. (a, 154. (b, 155. (a,
d) d) c) c)

Hints and Explanations

1. (b) Given, number of electrons, N = 20000000 = 2 × 107 .  ∆Q 
Current from A to B, i1 = 100 × 3 e = 300 e i = 
 ∆t 
Total charge on twenty million electrons is
Current from B to A, i2 = 50 × 3 e = 150 e
q = Ne (Q e = 1.6 × 10−19 C) Net current, i = 300 e − 150 e = 150 e towards right
= 2 × 107 × 1.6 × 10−19 C i = 150 × 1.6 × 10−19 = 2.4 × 10−17 A fromA to B
= 3.2 × 10−12 C 2πr
6. (c) Time period of revolution, T =
Now time taken by twenty million electrons to pass from v
point X to point Y is t = 2µs = 2 × 10−6 s 2 × 3.14 × (5.0 × 10−11 m)
=
q 3.2 × 10−12 2.2 × 106 ms −1
I= = . × 10−6 A
= 16
t 2 × 10−6 = 14.27 × 10−17 s
Since, the direction of the current is always opposite to the Charge e 1.6 × 10−19 C
Equivalent current = = =
direction of flow of electrons. Therefore due to flow of Time T 14.27 × 10−17 s
electrons from point X to point Y the current will flow from
point Y to point X. = 0.112 × 10−2 A = 1.12 × 10−3 A

2. (a) In some materials like wooden piece and other insulators 7. (c) An α-particle has a charge equal to 2 protons. Motion of
the electrons are bound, i. e. , they will not accelerate even, if α-particle to the left, motion of proton towards left and motion
an electric field is applied. In other materials, notably metals, of electrons towards right, all will produce conventional
some of the electrons are practically free to move within the current towards left. The total current will be
bulk material. These materials, generally called conductors, i = 1019 × (2 × 1.6 × 10−19 ) + 1019 × (1.6 × 10−19 ) + 1019
develop electric currents in them when an electric field is × (1.6 × 10−19 ) = 6.4 A
applied.
e e ev  2πr
3. (b) In electrolyte charge carriers are +ve and –ve ions. 8. (d) As, current i = = = Q velocity, v = 
t 2πr / v 2πr  t 
4. (b) dq = i dt = ( 4 + 2t ) dt Here, velocity v = e2 / h
6
⇒ q= ∫ 2 ( 4 + 2 t ) dt = [ 4 t + t and radius of circular orbit
2 6
]2
i. e., r = h 2 / me2
= 4 × 6 + 62 − ( 4 × 2 + 22 ) = 60 − 12 = 48 C
e ( e2 / h ) e3 × me2
5. (b) Let mid-point be C as shown
∴ i= =
2π ( h / me )
2 2
2π h 3
100
me5 4 π 2 me5  h
. . .B = = Q h = 
A.
2π h 3
h3  2π 
50
74 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

dQ d
9. (c) Current i = = ( 5 t 2 + 3 t + 1) = 10 t + 3 15. (b) Both plates have same thickness, let thickness is d.
dt dt
t = 5 s ⇒ i = 10 × 5 + 3 = 53A R S
10. (c) In that case, there will be a steady electric field in the
body of the conductor. This will result in a continuous ρl ρ2l
current rather than a current for a short period of time. RR = and RS =
ld 2ld
Mechanisms, which maintain a steady electric field are cells RR
or batteries. ∴ =1
RS
Iρl  l
11. (b) Ohm’s law, V = I × R = Q R = ρ 
A  A 16. (b) Let the length of various edges in increasing order be
l , x, 2l, respectively. ( R = δl / A )
Current per unit area (taken normal to the current), I / A is
ρ2l 2ρ
called current density and is denoted by J . R max = =
I xl x
Area (A), current density, J = ρl ρ x
A R min = =
2lx 2x l
ρ
R max 2
∴ = =4
R min 1 / 2
17. (d) R = ρl/ A = 10 Ω
The SI unit of the current density is Am−2 .
New length, l1 = l + l / 10 = 11l / 10
12. (a) Surface area of earth, A = 4 πr2 10 A
∴ New area, A 1 = Al / l1 =
Charge entering the earth per second per unit area 11
Current density ∴ New resistance, R1 = ρl1 / A 1 = ρ (11l / 10 ) / (10/ 11) A
121 ρl 121
J = 0.15 × 1.6 × 10−19 cm−2 s −1 = = × 10 = 12.1 Ω
100 A 100
= 0.15 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 104 m−2 s −1 ρl
18. (b) As, resistance ( R ) = .
∴ Current, i = JA = J 4 πr2 A
= 0.15 × 1.6 × 10−19 ×104 × 4 × 3.14 × (6.4 × 106 )2 ρ( 4 a ) 2ρ
So, R1 = =
= 0.12 A ( 2a )( a ) a
ρ( a ) ρ
13. (c) On stretching, volume (V ) remains constant. ⇒ R3 = =
( 4 a ) ( 2a ) 8 a
So, V = Al or l = V / A
ρ( 2a ) ρ
ρl ρV ρV 16ρV and R2 = =
Now, R= = 2 = 2 4 = 2 4 ( 4 a ) a 2a
A A π D / 16 π D
∴ R1 > R2 > R3
Taking logarithm of both the side and differentiating it, we get
∆R ∆D ∆R 19. (d) Consider a concentric spherical shell of radius x and
= −4 or = − 4 × ( − 0.25 ) = 1.0% thickness dx as showing in figure. Its resistance, dR is
R D R
ρ dx
Resistance will increase. dR =
4 π x2
25 5l
14. (c) Given, l1 = l + l= .
100 4
Since, volume of wire remains unchanged on increasing
length, hence a x
 A1 l1 = Al  dx
 5l  or A = 4 A / 5 b
 A1 × = Al 1
 4 
Given, R = ρl/ A = 10Ω
∴ Total resistance,
ρl ρ5l / 4 25ρl
and R1 = 1 = = b
R = ∫ dR
A 1 4 A / 5 16 A a
ρ b dx ρ  1 1
∫
25 250 ⇒ R= =
∴ R1 = × 10 = = 15.6 Ω  − 
16 16 4π xa 2
4π  a b
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 75

20. (b) Electrons are random motion in absence of E. We get, R1 = 8 and R2 = 4

12 l1 12 l2 l1 1
1 N
Again, R1 = and R2 = , then =
then
N
∑ vi = 0 l1 + l2 l1 + l2 l2 2
i=1
28. (c) As electron number density in solid conductor is
21. (a) As electron has negative charge it moves opposite to enormous ~1029 m−3 .
direction of E and J . E have same direction J =σE, here σ is
positive scalar. 29. (a) Current density, J = σ E
1 1 1
E where, σ = conductivity = = =
J resistivity ρ 1.7 × 10−8 Ω m
— e
1 100
⇒ J = −8
× 100 = × 109 = 6 × 109 Am−2
eE e V  1.7 × 10 17
22. (a) vd = τ = τ   or vd ∝ V
m m  l 30. (c) As we know, drift velocity.
I 20
Therefore, drift velocity is doubled, when V is doubled. vd = = = 1.25 × 10−3 ms −1
∆V 100 nAe 1029 × 10−6 × 1.6 × 10−19
23. (a) Electric field = = = 100 Vm−1
l 1 V iR iρl iρ 1 × 1.7 × 10−8
31. (c) E = = = = =
n = 8.5 × 1028 m−3 l l Al A 2 × 10−6
I I = 8.5 × 10−3 Vm−1
vd = , J = σ E, J = (given)
neA A 32. (b) The circuit arrangement shown in Fig. (b) is the correct
σ 5.81 × 107 × 100 arrangement for verification of Ohm’s law. For
∴ vd = E=
en 1.6 × 10−19 × 8.5 × 1028 convenience the same figure has been redrawn here. In the
figure, R is the resistance, for which Ohm’s law is to be
= 0.43 ms −1
verified. Voltmeter V is connected to its parallel and
1 I
24. (d) As I = neAvd , vd ∝ , J = σE or = σE, ammeter, cell and Rheostat arrangement in the series.
A A +
1 A –
i. e., E∝ +
A +
R V –
Thus, vd and E depend on A (cross-sectional area). Only I is –
constant.
25. (d) I = n e A vd
33. (d)
I I I
or vd = or vd ∝
neA A B
R
v ′ d I ′ / A ′ 2I / 2 A
∴ = = =1
vd I/A I/A
26. (b) Here, density of copper (ρ) = 9 × 103 kgm−3 ,
40°
Avogadro’s number ( N ) = 6.023 × 1023 . A V
−3 According to Ohm’s law, we get
Atomic mass of copper ( m ) = 63.5 g = 63.5 × 10 kg
V
Number of free electrons per unit volume, Current I = . So, slope AB
R
N 6.023 × 1023 I 1 V V
n= ρ= × 9 × 103 i. e., tan 40° = ⇒ = ⇒ cot 40° =
m 63.5 × 10−3 V tan 40° I I
Drift velocity i. e.,  V
1.5 × 63.5 × 10−3 Qslope of AB i. e., R = 
vd =
i
=  I
nAe 6.023 × 1023 × 9 × 103 × 10−7 × 1.6 × 10−19
34. (d) Ri = 2.1 Ω, R f = 2.7 Ω,
= 1.1 × 10−3 ms −1
∆R = 2.7 − 2.1 = 0.6 Ω ,
27. (d) We know that, R ∝ l
∆T = 100° C − 27.5° C = 72.5° C
R1 + R2 = 12 Ω As, ∆R = α R i ∆T
R1 × R2 8 ∆R 0.6 Ω
= Ω ∴ α= = = 0.0039 / ° C
R1 + R2 3 Ri ∆T (2.1 Ω ) (72.5° C)
R1 R2 = 32 Ω
76 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

35. (c) As we know Cu is conductor, so with increase in 42. (d) As, R ′ = n 2 R = 22 × 4 = 4 × 4 = 16 Ω

temperature, resistance will increase. Then, Si is
semiconductor, so with increase in temperature, resistance 43. (c) LetV be the safe voltage applied across the resistance of
will decreases. 98 Ω.
V2
36. (b) If charges moved without collisions through the Then, P=
conductor, their kinetic energy would also change so that the R
total energy is unchanged. Conservation of total energy ⇒ V = PR = 0.5 × 98 = 49
would then imply that,
⇒ V = 7V
∆K = − ∆U pot i.e., ∆K = I V∆t > 0
At voltage more than 7V excessive heat produced may burn
37. (d) Here, R20 ,= 20 Ω, R500 = 60 Ω, R t = 25Ω the resistor.
Q R t = R0 (1 + α t ) V 2 ( 230 )2
44. (c) R = = = 529 Ω
where, α is the temperature coefficient of resistance. P 100
⇒ 20 = R0 (1 + α × 20 ) …(i) When the voltage drops to 115 V, heat and light energy
⇒ 60 = R0 (1 + α × 500 ) …(ii) produced by the bulb in 20 min is given by
V2 (115 )2
On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get W = t= × 20 × 60 = 30000 J
2 1 R 529
⇒ α= = ° C−1
440 220 P 100
45. (a) P = Vi ⇒ i = = = 0.5 A
 1  V 200
⇒ 20 = R0 1 + × 20 …(iii)
 220  Charge passing through the lamp in 1s
 1  q = i × t = 0.5 × 1 = 0.5 C (Qt = 1s)
⇒ 25 = R0 1 + × t …(iv)
 220  Therefore, number of electrons moving through the filament
per second
On dividing Eq. (iv) by Eq. (iii), we get
0.5
 1  N = q/ e = = 3.125 × 1018
1 + × t 1.6 × 10−19
25  220 
=
20  1  46. (b) Effective resistance,
1 + × 20
 220  40 × 120 4800
Reff = = = 30 Ω
∴ t = 80° C 120 + 40 160
7 7  E 
38. (c) First significant figure (green → 5 ) = 5 ∴ Current, I = = = 0.2 A Q I = 
( 30 + 5 ) 35  R + r
Second significant figure (blue → 6 ) = 6
Number of zeroes to be attached (brown → 1) = 1 47. (c) ε = 50 Vand I = 12 A
Silver → 10% tolerance P = ε I = (50V) (12A) = 600 W
⇒ 56 × 101 Ω = 560 Ω ± 10% Since, the efficiency of the motor is 30%.
R = 56 × 10 ± 10% = 560 + 10% Power dissipated as heat in the motor windings
= (100% − 30%) = 70%
39. (b) Value of given resistance 4.7 × 106 Ω ± 5%
Total power dissipated as heat in the windings
⇒ 4 7 × 105 Ω ± 5%  70 
↓ ↓ =  × 600 = 420 W
↓ ↓  100
Yellow Violet Green Gold
If R is the resistance of the winding of the motor, total
40. (c) First significant figure = 6, second significant figure = 0,
power dissipated as heat = I 2 R
number of zeroes to be attached = 4
I 2 R = 420 W
Thus, R = 60 × 104 Ω. (blue : 6, black : 0, yellow :4)
420 W
V 30V ⇒ R= = 2.9 Ω
As,V = 30 V, I = = = 0.5 × 10−4 A (12 A)2
R 60 × 104 Ω
48. (a) Resistance in the branch ADC,
41. (a) Slope 2 > Slope1
R1 = 3 Ω + 7 Ω = 10 Ω
1 1
> Since, arms ADC (10Ω ) and AC (10 Ω ) are in parallel their
R2 R1 10 × 10
equivalent resistance, R2 = Ω =5 Ω
R1 > R2 10 + 10
T1 > T2
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 77

Since, R2 is in series with 9Ω in arm AB, equivalent (iii) Equivalent circuit when the equivalent resistance is
resistance, R3 = 5 Ω + 9 Ω = 14 Ω. calculated between points P and R
As R3 is in parallel with 5Ω in arm BC, equivalent Q
resistance between B and C,
14 × 5 70
i. e., RBC = = Ω P R
14 + 5 19
49. (c) In stretching 4 times R becomes 4 2 time .
R 16 r  r
R′ = = =4 × r + 
4 4 3  2 3
RPR = = r
R ′′ = 4 2 × 4 = 64 r r 11
+ r+
1 1 1 1 1 4 3 2
Each part has = + + + =
Req 64 64 64 64 64 52. (a) Two resistances of each side of triangle are connected in
Req = 16 Ω parallel. Therefore, the effective resistance of each arm of
r×r
50. (d) The resistance AB , BC and CD in series. The total the triangle would be = r / 2.
r+ r
resistance is
The two arms AB and AC are in series and they together are
R1 = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 Ω in parallel with third one.
The resistance AE , EF and FD in series. ∴ R ′ = ( r/ 2 ) + ( r/ 2 ) = r
The total resistance is R2 = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 Ω
1 1 2 3
Q The resistance BE and CF are ineffective, as no current Total resistance = + = ⇒ R = r / 3.
R r r r
flow through them by symmetry of circuit.
R1 R2 3
Since, R1 and R2 are in parallel. 53. (d) RP = = and R1 = 3 Ω, then
6× 6 R1 + R2 5
∴ The total resistance, R = = 3Ω
6+ 6 3 × R2 3
= ⇒ 15 R2 = 9 + 3 R2 ⇒ 12 R2 = 9
3 3 + R2 5
The current in the circuit, I = V / R = = 1.0 A
3 3
∴ R2 = Ω
51. (a) 4
(i) Equivalent circuit when the equivalent resistance is 54. (c) For the same length and same material
calculated between points P and Q. R2 A1 3
= = or R2 = 3 R1
R R1 A2 1
1 ≡ thick, 2 ≡ thin
P Q
The resistance of thick wire R1 = 10 Ω
r The resistance of thin wire = 3 R1 = 3 × 10 = 30 Ω
Total resistance = 10 + 30 = 40Ω
 r r
r×  +  55. (a)Effective resistance of n resistance each of the resistance r
 3 2 5
RPQ = = r in series Rs = r × n = R, so r = R / n
r r 11
r+ + When these resistance are connected in parallel, the effective
3 2 R/n
(ii) Equivalent circuit when the equivalent resistance is resistance R p = r / n = = R / n2.
n
calculated between points Q and R.
56. (a) Given, resistance 10Ω and 2.5 Ω are in parallel,
P
⇒ R1 = 2 Ω
Now, 2 Ω and 10 Ω are in series
Q R
R2 = 10 + 2 = 12 Ω
R2 and 12 Ω are in parallel
1 1 1
= +
r  r R3 12 12
× r + 
2  3 4 r ⇒ R3 = 6 Ω
RQR = =
r r 11
+ r+ Now, R3 and 10 Ω are in series R4 = 10 + 6 = 16 Ω
2 3
78 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Now, R4 and 16 Ω are in parallel ε1 ε2 εeq

61. (c) I
1 1 1 16
∴ = + ⇒ R= = 8Ω A
r1
B
r2
C A I req C
R 16 16 2
Net equivalent resistance across the points A and B is 8 Ω. V AC = V ( A ) − V (C ) = [V ( A ) − V ( B )] + [V ( B ) − V (C )]
57. (b) Equivalent circuit of this combination of resistance is as = ε1 − I r1 + ε 2 − I r2
shown in figure. The effective resistance of arm = ( ε1 + ε 2 ) − I ( r1 + r2 ) = ε eq − Ireq
4×4 4×4 62. (a) ε1
EG = + = 2 + 2= 4 Ω
4+4 4+4
I
I1
r1
I1
εeq I
4Ω
A B A B1
I2
ε2 B2 C A I req C
I2
4Ω 4Ω
r2
E G I = I1 + I 2
ε −V ε −V
4Ω 4Ω I1 = 2 ⇒ I2 = 2
r1 r2
D C
4Ω Combining the last three equations
Total resistance between A and B will be ε1 − V ε 2 − V
I = I1 + I 2 = +
1 1 1 1 3 r1 r2
= + + =
R 4 4 4 4 ε ε   1 1
4 =  1 + 2 −V  + 
∴ R= Ω  r1 r2   r1 r2 
3
ε1 r2 + ε 2 r1 rr
58. (d) The resistances are connected in parallel hence, voltage Hence,V is given by, V = −I 12
r1 + r2 r1 + r2
will remain constant.
If we want to replace the combination by a single cell,
V 2t 1 between B1 and B2 of emf ε eq and internal resistance req , we
Energy developed, E = ⇒ E∝
R R would have V = ε eq − I req
E1 R2 2R 2
∴ = = = 63. (c) If an identical battery is connected in opposition net emf
E2 R1 R 1 = E − E = 0 and the current through circuit will be zero,
E although each one of them has constant emf.
59. (b) As, I = or E = I ( R + r )
R+r E E 2R
64. (d) i = ⇒ P = i2R ⇒ P =
2.1 = 0.2(10 + r ) r+ R ( r + R )2
10 + r =
2.1
× 10 Power is maximum, when r = R
2 E2 E2
∴ Pmax = or Pmax =
∴ r = 10.5 − 10 = 0.5 Ω 4R 4r
60. (a) 66. (c) A fully charged capacitor draws no current. Therefore, no
i E
current flows in arm GHF. So, the R of arm HF is ineffective.
r = 0.1 Ω The total resistance of the resistors in circuit is
V = E – ir (R + R ) × R (2 + 2) × 2 10
R′ = +R= + 2= Ω
R = 3.9 Ω (R + R ) + R (2 + 2) + 2 3
E 10
∴ V = E − ir Total current, i = = = 3A
R′ (10/ 3 )
where, r is the internal resistance.
In parallel circuit, the current divides in the inverse ratio of
E
Also, current i = resistance, so current in arm ABGD = 1 A and current in arm
R+r AD = 2 A. Potential difference between G and D
 E  = VG − VD = 1 × 2 = 2 V
⇒ V =E− r
 R + r Potential difference between D and F
Putting numerical values, we have = VD − VF = 3 × 2 = 6V
E = 2 V, r = 0.1 Ω, R = 3.9 Ω ∴ VG − VF = (VG − VD ) + (VD − VF ) = 2 + 6 = 8 V
 2  Potential difference across capacitor = VG − VF = 8 V
⇒ V = 2−   × 0.1 ⇒V = 1.95 V
 3.9 + 0.1
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 79

67. (b) Here, the resistance of 400 Ω and 10000 Ω are in V A − VD VD − VB VD − VC

= +
parallel, their effective resistance R p will be 10 20 30
400 × 10000 5000 VD VD − 10
Rp = = Ω ⇒ 70 − VD = + ⇒ VD = 40 V
400 + 10000 13 2 3
A
5000 15400
Total resistance of circuit = + 800 = Ω i1
13 13
6 39 10 Ω
Current in the circuit, i = =
15400/ 13 7700 D
i3 i2
Potential different across voltmeter 30 Ω 20 Ω
39 5000
i. e., V = iR p = × = 1.95 V
7700 13 C B
10 V 0V
68. (a) mn = 20 70 − 40
i1 = = 3 A,
For maximum current R = nr / m …(i) 10
⇒ 2.5 = n × 0.5/ m or n = 5 m 40 − 0 40 − 10
i2 = = 2A and i3 = = 1A
From Eq. (i), m × 5m = 20, or m2 = 4 20 30
⇒ m = 2 , therefore n = 5 × 2 = 10 73. (a) In a closed loop, say, ABCC ′ EA and apply Kirchhoff’s
69. (b) According to Kirchhoff’s first law, I
second rule, − IR −   R − IR + ε = 0
(5A) + (4A) + ( −3A) + ( −5A) + I = 0 ⇒ I = − 1 A  2
3I
4A D′ I
C′
I/2
x I
I/2
5A 3A A′ I
B′
I I/2 I/2
5A
I C
D I/2
70. (c) Loop Rule The algebraic sum of changes in potential I/2
around any closed loop involving resistors and cells in the A
3I I B E
loop is zero. This rule is also obvious, since, electric
3I
potential is dependent on the location of the point. Thus,
starting with any point, if we come back to the same point, the where, R is the resistance of each edge and ε the emf of battery.
total change must be zero. In a closed loop, we do come back 5
to the starting point and hence the rule. ΣIr = ΣV Thus, ε = IR
2
71. (b) Given that, the resultant voltage across the battery The equivalent resistance Req of the network is
terminal = 1.5 V
1.2 V, 0.2 Ω ε 5
Req = = R
3I 6
The effective resistance between two diagonally opposite
A B ends = 5 R / 6.
VAB = 1.5 V
74. (c) LetV be the potential at C.
E, 0.4 Ω 10 V i1 C i2 5V
• • •
For circuit having two cells of emf E and E2 with internal 4Ω i3 2Ω
resistance of r1 and r2 in parallel the equivalent emf of 2Ω
battery is given by
1.2 E • S
+
E1 / r1 + E2 / r2 0.2 0.4
E= = = 1.5
1/ r1 + 1/ r2 1
+
1
0.2 0.4 Using Kirchhoff’s first law, i1 + i2 = i3
Solving we get E = 2.1 V 10 − V 5 − V V − 0
+ =
72. (d) Applying Kirchhoff’s law at point D, we get 4 2 2
i1 = i2 + i3 On solving,V = 4 V, i3 = V / 2 = 4 / 2 = 2A
80 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

75. (b) The distribution of current as shown in figure. As per Solving we get
question, i1 = 0.1 A , i2 = 0.23 A
A 2Ω B 2Ω C 1Ω D V A – VB = 90 × 0.1 = 9 V
i i – i1 V A – VC = 40 × 0.23 = 9.2 ⇒ VB – VC = + 0.2 V
4Ω 2Ω 1Ω 80. (d) P
RΩ RΩ
i1/2 i1/2
G F E A RΩ B
i1 O S
= 1 or i1 = 2A RΩ RΩ
2
In a closed circuit BCFGB, Q
i
2i1 + 2 × 1 − 4 ( i − i1 ) = 0 ⇒ 4 + 2 = 4 ( i − 2 ) 2R × 2R
∴ Equivalent resistance = = RΩ
2 2R + 2R
3 7
⇒ + 2= i ⇒ =i 81. (b) Considering the mesh BADB, we have
2 2
Again in the closed circuit ABGFB B
I 1 –I g
2i + 4 ( i − i1 ) = E ⇒ E = 13 V 100 Ω
Ig 10 Ω
76. (b) In meter bridge balanced wheatstone bridge is used to I1
determine unknown resistance. A 1Ω C
I2
77. (a) Since, resistance connected in arms CE , ED , CF and FD 5Ω
R1
will form a balanced wheatstone bridge, therefore the 60 Ω
resistance of arm EF becomes ineffective. Now, resistance I I2 I 2 +I g
of arm CED or CFD = 2 + 2 = 4 Ω. D
4×4 ε
Effective resistance of these two parallel arm = = 2Ω
4+4 10 V
Now, resistance of arm ACDB = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 Ω , is in 100 I1 + 15 I g − 60 I 2 = 0
parallel with resistance arm AB = 2 Ω. Thus, effective ⇒ 20 I1 + 3 I g − 12 I 2 = 0 …(i)
6× 2 3
resistance between A and B = = Ω. Considering the mesh BCDB, we have
6+ 2 2
10 ( I1 − I g ) − 15 I g − 5 ( I 2 + I g ) = 0
78. (b) For first case,
⇒ 10 I1 − 30 I g − 5I 2 = 0
5 R
= ...(i) ⇒ 2I1 − 6 I g − I 2 = 0 …(ii)
l1 (100 − l1 )
Considering the mesh ADCEA
Now, by shunting resistance R by an equal resistance R, new 60I 2 + 5 ( I 2 + I g ) = 10
resistance in that arm become R / 2
⇒ 65 I 2 + 5I g = 10
5 R/2
So, = ...(ii) ⇒ 13I 2 + I g = 2 …(iii)
1.6 l1 (100 − 1.6 l1 )
On multiplying Eq. (ii) by 10, we get
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
20 I1 − 60 I g − 10I 2 = 0 …(iv)
1.6 (100 − 1.6 l1 )
= ×2 From Eqs. (iv) and (i),
1 100 − l1
63 I g − 2I 2 = 0 ⇒ I 2 = 31.5 I g
⇒ 160 − 1.6 l1 = 200 − 3.2 l2 ⇒ 1.6 l1 = 40
On substituting the value of I 2 into Eq. (iii), we get
400
l1 = = 25 m ⇒ 13 (31.5 I g ) + I g = 2
16
.
410.5 I g = 2 ⇒ I g = 4.87 mA
5 R
From Eq. (i), = ⇒ R = 15 Ω 82. (b) Effective resistance,
25 75
40 × 120 4800
79. (b) Applying Kirchhoff’s law in closed circuits we have four Reff = = = 30 Ω
equation with four unknown quantity like i1 , i2 , ig and r 120 + 40 160
(internal resistance of galvanometer) 7 7  E 
∴ Current, I = = = 0.2A Q I = 
i2 × 90 + 110 ( i1 – ig ) = 4 …(i) ( 30 + 5 ) 35  R + r
i2 × 40 + 60 ( i2 + ig ) = 4 …(ii)
83. (a) In meter bridge for measurement of resistance the known
90 × i1 + ig r – 40i2 = 0 …(iii) and the unknown resistance are interchanged. The error so
ig r + ( ig – i2 )60 – ( i1 – ig )110 = 0 …(iv) removed is end correction.
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 81

84. (c) The potentiometer has the advantage that it draws no The total resistance between A and C will be sum of
current from the voltage source being measured. As such it resistance between A and B and B and C, i. e., R1 + R0 / 2.
is unaffected by the internal resistance of the source. So, the current flowing through the potentiometer will be
85. (b) The working of potentiometer is based on the fact that V 2V
I= =
the fall of potential across any portion of the wire is directly R1 + R0 / 2 2R1 + R0
proportional to the length of that portion provided the wire is
of uniform area of cross-section and a constant current is The voltageV1 taken from the potentiometer will be the
flowing through it. product of current I and resistance R1
 2V  2 VR
To shift the balance point on higher length, the potential V1 = IR1 =   × R1 =
gradient of the wire is to be decreased. The same can be  2R1 + R0  R0 + 4 R
obtained by decreasing the current of the main circuit, which
90. (c) For a potentiometer, the internal resistance ( r ) is given by
is possible by increasing the resistance in series of
potentiometer wire. l 
r = R  1 − 1
86. (c) When we measure the emf of a cell by the potentiometer  l2 
then no current flows in the circuit in zero-deflection condition Given, R = 10 Ω, l1 = 75 cm, l2 = 65 cm
i.e., cell is in open circuit. Thus, in this condition the actual
 75 
value of emf of a cell is found. In this way, potentiometer is ∴ r = 10  − 1 = 10 × 0.154 = 1.54 Ω
equivalent to an ideal voltmeter of infinite resistance.  65 
87. (a) In potentiometer experiment, we find internal resistance 91. (a) In case of potentiometer, E1 / E2 = l 1 / l2 . As given that
of a cell, let E be the emf of the cell and V the terminal E1 > E2 , therefore l 1 > l2 . Therefore, the null point for the
potential difference, then cell of emf E2 must be at shortest length than that of cell E1 .
E l1 Thus, the null point on potentiometer wire should shift towards
=
V l2 left of C.
where, l1 and l2 are lengths of potentiometer wire with and 92. (b) Consider a potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance
without short circuited through a resistance. r are connected in series with a battery of emf E0 and a
E R+r E0
So, = [Q E = I ( R + r ) andV = IR] resistance r1 as shown in figure. Current in wire AB =
V R r1 + r
R + r l1 r 110 r1
∴ = or 1 + =
R l2 R 100 E0
r 10 1
or = or r= × 10 = 1 Ω A
l P r
R 100 10 B
L
88. (c) According to question, emf of the cell is directly
proportional to the balancing length E
i.e., E ∝l …(i)
Now, in the first case, cells are connected in series to Ir  E0  r
Potential gradient, x = =
support one another i.e., L  r1 + r L
Net emf = E1 + E2 and produced across E will be given by
From Eq. (i), E1 + E2 = 50 cm (given) …(ii)  E r l
Again cells are connected in series in opposite direction i.e, E = x⋅ l =  0 
 r1 + r L
Net emf = E1 − E2
From Eq. (i), E1 − E2 = 10 …(iii) 93. (a) With increase in temperature, average speed of the
From Eq. (ii) and Eq. (iii), electrons, which acts as the carriers of current, increases
resulting in more frequent collisions. The average time of
E1 + E2 50 E1 5 + 1 6 3
= ⇒ = = = collisions τ, thus decreases with temperature.
E1 − E2 10 E2 5 − 1 4 2
94. (a) Charge carriers do not move with acceleration but with a
89. (a) E R0/2 R0/2 steady drift velocity. This is because of the collisions with
A ions and atoms during transit.
3
95. (d) Bending will not increase the resistance of the
conducting wire. Also drift velocity of electron is
R independent of bending of conductor.
1 1 1 R0 R 96. (b) Increasing the temperature of a conductor, the kinetic
= + ⇒ R1 = energy of free electrons increases.
R1 R ( R0 / 2 ) R0 + 2R
82 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

On account of this, they collide more frequently with percentage about the indicated values. Sometimes, this last
each other (and with the ions of the conductor) and band is absent and that indicates a tolerance of 20%. e.g., If the
consequently their drift velocity decreases. four colours are orange, blue, yellow and gold, the resistance
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct value is 36 × 104 Ω, with a tolerance value of 5%.
explanation of A. 105. (b)
97. (a) Manganin and constantan have very low temperature 0.4
coefficient resistance.
0.2
98. (c) In electrostatics all charges whether free or bound, are
considered to be at rest. Net charges in motion constitute
an electric current. 50 100 150
Temperature T(K)
99. (a) As we have seen, conductivity arises from mobile Resistivity ρT of copper as
charge carriers. In metals, these mobile charge carriers are a function of temperature T
electrons, with fixed positive ions in background, they are
negative ions and positive charged ions, in an electrolyte. 1.20
1 m
100. (b) Resistivity of a material is given by ρ = = 2
σ ne τ 1.10
ρ thus depends inversely both on the number n of free 1.00
electrons per unit volume and on the average time τ 2 4 6 8
between collisions. For insulators and semiconductors, n Temperature T(K) Temperature dependence of
increases with temperature. This increase more than Resistivity of nichrome as resistivity for a semiconductor
compensates any decrease in τ,so that for such materials, function of absolute temperature
ρ decreases with temperature. E2 (6)2
106. (a) (A → 3) As power delivered, P = , 0.4 = ,
103. (b) (A →2)V ceases to be proportional to I. R+r 60 + r
⇒ r = 30 Ω
( B→ 3) For maximum power dissipated in the circuit
R = r = 30 Ω
V
( C→ 1) Total power supplied by the battery (under condition B)
ε2 ( 6 )2
I i.e., PTotal = = = 0.6 W
R + r 30 + 30
(B → 1) This happens, in a diode. ( D → 5) Maximum power dissipated in R
0.6 W
1.5 I (under condition B) i. e., PR = = 0.3 W
mA 2
107. (c) Current flowing in a circuit
V
(15 V − 10 V)
–2 0.2 I= =1 A
(3Ω + 1 Ω + 1 Ω )
I (A → 3) Potential drop across A
µA
V A = ε − Ir = 15 V − (1 Ω × 1 A ) = 14 V
(C → 3) The relation between V and I is not unique, (B → 5) Potential drop across B
i. e., there is more than one value of V for the same current VB = ε + Ir = 10 V + (1 Ω × 1 A )= 11V
I. A material exhibiting such behaviour is GaAs. (C → 1) Power is supplied by battery A because it is charging
Negative battery B and hence is discharging itself.
Non-linear resistance
region region
(D → 2) Power is consumed by battery B because it is being
Current I (mA)

charged by battery A.
E
108. (a) I =
R+r
Terminal potential difference across the cell is, V = E − Ir
This is maximum if I = 0, and this is possible if R = ∞. Hence,
Voltage V (V)
A → 3.
104. (d) The first two bands from the end indicate the first two Power transferred to R is maximum if R = r. In all other cases,
significant figures. The third band indicates the decimal it will be somewhat less.
multiplier as listed in table. Hence, B → 1, 2, 3, 4
The last band stands for tolerance or possible variation in
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 83

Power dissipated in cell = EI 117. (a) When R is infinite, so that I = V / R = 0, where V is the
This is maximum if I is maximum, for this R = 0. Hence, potential difference between P and N . Equivalent to open
C → 4. circuit hence, PD = emf
Also if I is maximum, there will be the fastest drift of ions in 118. (b) If however, R is finite, I is not zero. In that case the
electrolyte in the cell. Hence, D → 4. potential difference between P and N is
ne2 A V = V+ + V− − Ir = ε − Ir
109. (a) On comparing equations I∆t = τ∆t | E | and I = JA,
m
119. (b) The internal resistance of dry cells, is much higher than
we get exactly Ohm’s law, if we identity the conductivity
the common electrolytic cells.
ne2
as σ = τ. We thus see that a very simple picture of 120. (a) V is the potential difference across R , we have from Ohm’s
m
law
electrical conduction reproduces Ohm’s law. We have, of
V =IR
course, made assumptions that τ and n are constants,
independent of E. Combining equationsV = IR andV = ε − Ir, we get
ε
110. (b) Here, current (I) = 250 × 10−3 A I R = ε − I r or I =
R+r
Time, (t) = 200 ns = 200 × 10−9 s
121. (d) The maximum current that can be drawn from a cell is for
So, charge delivered by the acceleration per pulse
maximum current flows when internal resistance equal to
Q
i.e., I = pulse ⇒ Q pulse = It = ( 250 × 10−3 A ) ( 200 × 10−9 s ) external resistance.
t Net emf ε1 + ε 2
= 5.00 × 10−8 C 122. (c) Net current, I = =
Total resistance r1 + r2
111. (c) Number of electrons delivered per pulse
123. (d) Equivalent emf of battery (ε)
Q pulse 5.00 × 10−8 C
i. e., n= = ε = V A − VB = ε 1 − Ir1
e 1.6 × 10−19 C
 ε + ε2  ( ε1 r2 − ε 2 r1 )
= 3.13 × 10 electron / pulse
11 = ε1 −  1  r1 =
 r1 + r2  ( r1 + r2 )
112. (c) Average current delivered by the acceleration
124. (d) Terminal A is positive,ifV A > VB orV A − VB > 0
Q pulse 5.00 × 10−8 C
I av = = = 12.5 µA or ( ε 1 r2 − ε 2 r1 ) > 0
∆t 4.00 × 10−3 s or ε 1 r2 > ε 2 r1
113. (d) Maximum power delivered by the electron beam 125. (a) Since, r1 and r2 are in series, so resultant resistance is
∆E
P= r = r1 + r2
∆t
127. (a,b) The resistivity of a metallic conductor is given by
(3.13 × 1011 electrons / pulse) (40.0 MeV / electron)
= m
2.00 × 10−7 s / pulse e=
ne2 τ
−13
= (6.26 × 10 MeV/s) (1.6 × 10
19
J / MeV) where, n is number of charge per unit volume which can
= 1.00 × 10 W = 10.0 MW
7 change with temperature T and τ is time interval between
two successive collision which decreases with the increase
114. (a) Imagine dividing the slab into two by cutting it of temperature.
lengthwise so that the slab can be considered as a l
combination of two identical slab of length l, but each 128. (a,b,c) Resistance, R = ρ
having a cross-sectional area of A / 2. A
For a given voltage V across the slab, if I is the current i.e., R ∝ρ ∝T
through the entire slab, then clearly the current flowing i.e., R ∝l
through each of the two half slabs is I/2. 1
R∝
115. (a) Since, the potential difference across the ends of the half A
slab is V i.e., the same as across the full slab. V2
129. (b,c) As, P=
116. (d) Resistance of each of the half slab R1 is R
V2
V V therefore, R= or R ∝ V 2
R1 = = 2 = 2R P
(I / 2) I 2
R1  200 4
where, V/I is taken as R. i.e., =  =
R2  300 9
84 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

When connected in series, potential drop is in the ratio of 17

or t − 27 =
their resistance. So . × 10− 4
100 × 170
V1 R1 4 t = 1000 + 27 = 1027 °C
= = or
V2 R2 9 l
135. (c) Resistance of wire, R = ρ
Now, P = I 2R A
or P ∝R (In series I is the same) RA 5 × 6.0 × 10− 7
P1 R1 4 or ρ= = = 2 × 10− 7 Ω-m
or = = l 15
P2 R2 9
136. (a) Let the temperature coefficient of silver be α.
130. (a,c) 4 Ω and 6 Ω resistor are short-circuited. Therefore, no Rt 2 − Rt 1
current will flow through these resistance. Current passing α=
through the battery is I = ( 20 / 2 ) = 10 A R1 ( t 2 − t1 )
This is also the current passing in wire AB from B to A. R100 − R27. 5 2.7 – 2.1
⇒ α= = ⇒ α = 0.0039/ °C
Power supplied by the battery R27. 5 (100 − 27.5) 2.1 × 72.5
P = EI = ( 20 )(10 ) = 200 W 137. (c) Resistance at 27 °C,
Potential difference across the 4 Ω resistance
V 230 2300
= Potential difference across the 6 Ω resistance. R27 °C = = = Ω
I 27 °C 3.2 32
E
131. (c) Current drawn from the battery, I = V 230 2300
R+r Resistance at t°C, Rt °C = = = Ω
In case of maximum current, R = 0 I t °C 2.8 28
E 12 Temperature of coefficient of resistance
∴ I max = = = 30 A
r 0.4 Rt − R27
α=
E R27 ( t − 27 )
132. (b) I=
R+r 2300 2300
−
−4
∴ 0.5 =
10
⇒ R = 17 Ω ⇒ 1.7 × 10 = 28 32
2300
R+3 ( t − 32 )
32
133. (a) The potential drop across each resistor is same as the 82.143 – 71.875
applied potential difference, V = 20 V or t − 27 = = 840.347
71.875 × 1.7 × 10− 4
R1
or t = 840.3 + 27 = 867.3 ° C
I1
R2 138. (b) In the given circuit,
I2 B
I3 R3
10 Ω 5Ω
I2
I1
A 5Ω C
20 V
I–

Current through resistance R1

l1

5Ω
V 20 10 Ω
I1 = = = 10 A I D
R1 2
Current through resistance R2 F E
10 Ω 10 V
V 20
I2 = = = 5A
R2 4 In loop ABDA,
Current through resistance R3 Distributing the current
V 20 10I1 + 5I 2 − 5( I − I1 ) = 0
I3 = = = 4A
R3 5 ⇒ 2I1 + I 2 − I + I1 = 0
Total current drawn I = I1 + I 2 + I 3 = 10 + 5 + 4 = 19 A ⇒ 3I1 + I 2 = I ...(i)
Rt − R27 In loop BCDB,
134. (b) α =
R27 ( t − 27 ) 5 ( I1 − I 2 ) − 10 ( I − I1 + I 2 ) − 5I 2 = 0
117 − 100 ⇒ I1 − I 2 − 2I + 2I1 − 2I 2 − I 2 = 0
1.70 × 10− 4 =
100 ( t − 27 ) ⇒ 3I1 − 4 I 2 = 2I ...(ii)
 CHAPTER 3 : Current Electricity 85

By solving the Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 143. (c) Let the effective resistance of the network is x. If one part
2I I of the network has resistance (1 Ω , 1 Ω , 1 Ω ) is separated as
I1 = and I 2 = − ...(iii) shown, the effective resistance remains x (as it is infinitely
5 5
In loop ABCEFA network). Here, x and 1 Ω are in parallel.
1 1 1 1+ x x
10 = 10I + 10I1 + 5 ( I1 − I 2 ) = + = ⇒ RP =
RP x 1 x 1+ x
2 = 2I + 3I1 − I 2 ...(iv)
1Ω
Putting the values of I1 and I 2 from Eq. (iii) in Eq. (iv), we
get
 2I   I  x 1Ω 12 V, 0.5 Ω
2 = 2I + 3   −  − 
 5   5
17 10 1Ω
or 2= I or I=
A
5 17
10 Now, resistances RP , 1 Ω and 1 Ω are in series. So, the
∴ Current drawn from source, I = A resultant resistance
17
x x
X l l R = RP + 1 + 1 = + 1+ 1= +2 …(i)
139. (c) = ⇒ X = Y 1+ x 1+ x
Y 100 − l 100 − l
In case of infinite resistances, the value of R remains x.
39.5 × 12.5
⇒ X= = 8.16 Ω x
100 – 39.5 ∴ x= +2
1+ x
The resistance of resistor X is 8.16 Ω.
⇒ x ( x + 1) = x + 2 + 2x ⇒ x2 − 2x − 2 = 0
If X and Y are interchanged, then the balance length will also
interchanged. Thus, the balance length becomes − ( −2 ) ± 4 + 8 2 ± 12
x= = = 1± 3
100 – 39.5 = 60.5 cm 2 2
140. (b) Effective emf in the circuit = 120 − 8 = 112 V The value of resistance cannot be negative. So, the resistance
of network
Current in circuit,
x = 1 + 3 = 1 + 1.732
Effective emf E 112
I= = = = 7A x = 2.732 Ω
Total resistance r + R 0.5 + 15.5
Total resistance of the circuit = 2.732 + 0.5 = 3.232 Ω
The battery of 8 V is being charged by 120 V, so the
terminal potential across of 8 V will be greater than its emf Current drawn from the supply,
terminal potential differenceV = E + Ir = 8 + 7( 0.5 ) = 11.5 V V 12
I= = = 3.72 A
141. (a) As we know that in case of potentiometer, the potential
3.232 3.232
gradient remains constant. 144. (c) Here, l1 = 58.3 cm, l2 = 68.5 cm, R = 10 Ω, X = ?
i. e., E ∝l E1 and E2 be the potential drops across R and X respectively.
E1 l1 1.25 35 Then,
∴ = ⇒ =
E2 l2 E 63 E2 i X X E
= = or X = 2 ⋅ R …(i)
1.25 × 63 E1 i R R E1
or E= = 2.25 V
35 According to the principle of potentiometer,
E2 l2
142. (b) Time taken by electron to drift from one end to another =
of the wire, E1 l1
Length of the wire l From Eq. (i), we get
t= = …(i)
Drift velocity vd l2 68.5
X = ⋅R = × 10 = 11.75 Ω
I = ne A vd l1 58.3
I 145. (b) Here, balancing length when cell is in open-circuit,
vd = …(ii)
ne A l1 = 76.3 cm
− 19 −6 Balancing length when cell is in closed-circuit,
l ne A 3 × 8.5 × 10 × 1.6 × 10
28
× 2 × 10
t= = l2 = 64.8 cm
I 3
or t = 2.72 × 104 s = 7 h 33 min and resistance R = 9.5 Ω
86 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

The internal resistance of the cell is given by Here, I is the current and vd is the drift velocity.
l   76.3  So, I ∝vd
r =  1 − 1 R =  − 1 × 9.5 = 1.68 Ω
 l2   64.8  Thus, only drift velocity determines the current in a conductor.
The internal resistance of the cell is 1.68 Ω. 152. (b,d) Kirchhoff’s junction rule is also known as Kirchhoff’s
current law which states that the algebraic sum of the
146. (b) Current per unit area (taken normal to the current), I/A is
currents flowing towards any point in an electric network is
called current density and is denoted by J. The SI unit of the
zero. i.e., charges are conserved in an electric network.
current density is Am−2 .
So, Kirchhoff’s junction rule is the reflection of
The current density is also directed along E and is also a conservation of charge.
vector and the relationship is given by
153. (a,d) Here, the potential drop is taking place across AB and
J = σE
R and R′ are parallel so patential drop R and R′ will be
The J changes due to electric field produced by charges equal whatever may be the value of R′. Since potential
accumulated on the surface of wire. As direction of E difference on R isV which is constant (the value of r is very
changes, direction of J also changes but current ( I ) remains small) potential difference over R′ will also be constant.
unaffected. Since, the equivalent resistance of parallel combination of R
147. (a) The equivalent emf of this combination is given by V
and R' is always less than R, therefore I ≥ always.
ε 2 r1 + ε1 r2 r+ R
εeq =
r1 + r2 154. (b,c) Given, for first student, R2 = 10 Ω, R1 = 5 Ω , R3 = 5 Ω
This suggest that the equivalent emf εeq of the two cells is For second student, R1 = 500 Ω , R3 = 5 Ω
given by Now, according to Wheatstone bridge rule,
ε eq R2 R1 R
ε1 < εeq < ε 2 ⇒ <1 = ⇒ R = R3 × 2 ...(i)
ε2 R R3 R1
[ε eq is weighted mean of ε1 and ε 2 so it will lie between B
I4
ε1 and ε 2 ]

Un
kn
o
148. (c) The percentage error in R can be minimised by adjusting R3

wn
I2 R2
the balance point near the middle of the bridge, i.e., when l1 A G
C
is close to 50 cm. This requires a suitable choice of S. I1 R1 R4

m rd
ar da
R l1 Sl1
= ⇒ R= ≈3
an
Since,
S (100 − l1 ) 100 − l1 I3 St
D
Since, here R : S :: 2. 9 : 97.1 imply that the S is nearly 33 times
to that of R. In orded to make this ratio 1:1, it is necessary to
reduce the value of S nearly 1/23 times i.e. to nearly 3 Ω. ε
149. (b) In a potentiometer experiment, the emf of a cell can be Now putting all the values in Eq. (i), we get R = 10 Ω for
measured, if the potential drop along the potentiometer wire both students. Thus, we can analyse that the Wheatstone
is more than the emf of the cell to be determined. Here, bridge is most sensitive and accurate if resistances are of
values of emfs of two cells are given as 5Vand 10V, same value.
therefore, the potential drop along the potentiometer wire
must be more than 10V. Thus, the errors of measurement of the two students depend
on the accuracy and sensitivity of the bridge, which in turn
150. (a) The resistance of wire is given by depends on the accuracy with which R2 and R1 can be
l measured.
R =ρ
A When R2 and R1 are larger, the currents through the arms of
For greater value of R, l must be higher and A should be bridge is very weak. This can make the determination of null
lower and it is possible only when the battery is connected point accurately more difficult.
 1 155. (a,c) At neutral point, potential at B and D are same. When
across 1 cm ×   cm (area of cross-section A).
 2 jockey is placed at to the right of D, the potential drop
across AD is more than potential drop across AB, which
151. (a) The relationship between current and drift speed is given
brings the potential of point D less than that of B, hence
by I = ne Avd current flows from B to D.
 C H A P T E R

4
Moving Charges
and Magnetism
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. The space in the surroundings of a magnet or a 6. KEmax of charged particle accelerated by cyclotron is
current-carrying conductor in which its magnetic q 2B 2R 2
influence can be experienced is called magnetic KEmax =
2m
field. Its SI unit is Tesla (T).
where, R = radius of circular track of charged particle.
2. Lorentz force is the total force F experienced
by charge (q) when it is moving with velocity v 7. Biot-Savart’s law According to this law, the magnetic
in the presence of electric field E and magnetic field due to small current-carrying element ldl at any
field B. nearby point is given by
F = q ( v × B + E) (vector form) I dB
Magnitude of magnetic force, F = qvB sin θ and
dl r
direction of force is given by right hand palm rule or P
Fleming’s left hand rule.
3. Force experienced by a current-carrying conductor
having current I and length l, when placed in a µ 0 Idlr$
dB = ⋅
magnetic field B is F = l × B = lB sin θ 4π |r | 2
4. When charged particle enters into a magnetic field µ 0 Idl sin θ
or dB = ⋅
perpendicularly, then 4π r2
mv 2 mv
(i) = qvB (ii) r = 8. Magnetic field at any point along the axis of circular
r qB current-carrying conductor is
2πm qB
(iii) T = (iv) ν = µ 0Ia 2
qB 2 πm B=
2 (r + a 2 ) 3 / 2
2
q 2B 2r 2
(v) KE =
2m
5. The frequency of a charged particle (q) when it √r 2 + a 2
a
enters perpendicularly into the magnetic field B and it P
qB
attains a circular path, is ν = r
2 πm
where, m is the mass of charged particle. This is called M
cyclotron frequency.
88 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

9. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular 13. Magnetic field due to toroidal solenoid
current-carrying conductor/ coil (i) Inside the toroidal solenoid,
µ I B = µ 0nI
B= 0
2r
r

r
I
I I

where, r is the radius of a circular loop. N

Here, n= ,
10. Ampere’s circuital law The line integral of the 2πr
magnetic field B around any closed loop is equal to N = total number of turns
µ 0 times the total current I flowing through the loop, (ii) In the open space, exterior of toroidal solenoid,

I B =0
B 14. Force between the two parallel current-carrying
conductors is

Magnetic
I field lines I1 I2
r
i.e., ∫ B ⋅ d l = µ 0I

Magnitude of magnetic field of a straight wire using µ 0 2 I1 I 2

µ I F = ⋅ .L
Ampere’s law, B = 0 4π r
2 πr If the direction of flow of current is same, then they
11. Magnetic field due to straight current-carrying attract each other otherwise they will repel each other.
conductor at any point P at a distance r from the wire 15. Torque on a current loop,
is given by
τ=M×B=NI AB
where, M is the magnetic moment.
r
P 16. Magnetic moment, M = N I A
Long straight wire
where, A is the area and I is the current.
17. The magnetic field due to current in a circular current
µ 0 2I loop as magnetic dipole, is
B= ⋅
4π r µ 2 π r 2i
1 B= 0
⇒ B∝ 4π x 3
r Here, x is the distance along the axis from the centre of
12. Magnetic field due to a straight solenoid the loop.
µ e
18. The ratio l = is called the gyromagnetic ratio
l 2me
and is constant. Its value is 8.8 × 1010 C / kg for an
electron.
φ NAB
19. Current sensitivity, =
(i) At any point inside the solenoid, B = µ 0nI I k
where, n = number of turns per unit length. where, φ is deflection produced and k is spring
1 constant.
(ii) At the ends of the solenoid, B = µ 0nI φ NAB
2 20. Voltage sensitivity, =
V kR
 Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Magnetic Force
1. If a proton is projected in a direction perpendicular to 6. When a charged particle moves in the region of
a uniform magnetic field with velocity v and an magnetic field, then
electron is projected along the lines of force, what (a) magnitude of its velocity keeps on changing
will happen to proton and electron? (b) velocity of particle remains constant
(a) The electron will travel along a circle with constant (c) direction of momentum keeps on changing
speed and the proton will move along a straight line (d) kinetic energy of particle keeps on changing
(b) Proton will move in a circle with constant speed and
there will be no effect on the motion of electron 7. A proton enters a magnetic field of flux density
(c) There will not be any effect on the motion of electron 1.5 Wbm −2 with a velocity of 2 × 10 7 ms −1 at an
and proton angle of 30° with the field. The force on the proton
(d) The electron and proton both will follow the path of a will be
parabola (a) 2.4 × 10−12 N
2. Which of the following diagrams is correct? (b) 0.24 × 10−12 N
(c) 24 × 10−12 N
F (d) 0.024 × 10−12 N
(a) θ
B (b) v 8. An ionised gas contains both positive and negative
θ – B
B ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to an electric
F v
field along the + x-direction and a magnetic field
along the + z-direction, then
B (a) positive ions deflect towards + y-direction and negative
(c) F
(d) F B ions towards − y-direction
v θ v (b) all ions deflect towards + y-direction
θ – (c) all ions deflect towards − y-direction
(d) positive ions deflect towards − y-direction and
3. Magnetic field produced by a wire carrying current negative ions towards + y-direction
(a) is parallel along the axis of wire
9. A current-carrying wire of area A, length l, number of
(b) is perpendicular to the plane of the wire
density of charge carriers n is placed in a region of
(c) forms circular loops along the axis of wire and coplanar
to the wire external magnetic field B. What will be net force on
(d) direction of field is not constant charged carriers?
(a) ( nAl )q ( vd × B ) (b) q ( vd × B )
4. An electron is travelling horizontally towards East. A
(c) nq ( vd × B ) (d) Alq ( vd × B )
magnetic field in vertically downward direction exerts
a force on the electron along 10. A current-carrying closed loop in the form of a right
(a) East (b) West angled isosceles ∆ ABC is placed in a uniform
(c) North (d) South magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force
5. If a particle of charge 10 −12 C moving along the on the arm BC is F, then force on the arm AC is
$
X-direction with a velocity 10 5 ms −1 experiences a A

force of 10 −10 N in Y-direction

$ due to magnetic field,
then the minimum magnetic field is
(a) 6.25 × 103 T in Z-direction
$
−15 $
(b) 10 T in Z-direction
(c) 6.25 × 10−3 T in Z-direction
$ B C
−3 $
(d) 10 T in Z-direction (a) −F (b) F (c) 2 F (d) − 2 F
90 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

11. A square current-carrying loop is suspended in a 16. A particle of mass m and charge q moves with a
uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the constant velocity v along the positive x-direction. It
loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is F, enters a region containing a uniform magnetic field B
the net force on the remaining three arms of the directed along the negative z-direction, extending
loop is from x = a to x = b. The minimum value of v required
(a) 3 F (b) – F so that the particle can just enter the region x > b is
(c) –3 F (d) F (a) qb B / m (b) q ( b − a ) B / m
12. An electron enters a region of magnetic field (c) q aB / m (d) q ( b + a ) B / 2m
perpendicularly with a speed of 3 × 10 7 ms −1 . 17. An α-particle with a specific charge of 2.5 × 10 7 C/kg
Strength of magnetic field is 6 × 10 −4 T. Frequency moves with a speed of 2 × 10 5 ms −1 in a perpendicular
and energy of electron respectively are magnetic field of 0.05 T. The radius of circular path
(a) 2 MHz, 25 keV described by the particle is
(a) 8 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 2 cm
(b) 20 MHz, 2.5 keV
(c) 20 MHz, 25 keV 18. A proton of energy 1 MeV describes a circular path in
(d) 2 MHz, 2.5 keV plane at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of
6.28 × 10 −4 T. The mass of proton is1.7 × 10 −27 kg.
13. Which one is a correct figure to represent path of a
The frequency of proton is nearly equal to
moving charge in magnetic field?
(a) 107 Hz (b) 105 Hz
Y B Y (c) 106 Hz (d) 104 Hz
19. A proton of mass 1.67 × 10 −27 kg and charge
(a) (b) 1.6 × 10 −19 C is projected with a speed of 2 × 10 6 ms −1
v at an angle of 60° to the X -axis. If a magnetic field of
v
X X 0.104 T is applied along Y -axis, then path of proton is
O O (a) a circle of radius 0.2 m and time period of π × 10−7 s
(b) a circle of radius 0.1 m and time period 2π × 10−7 s
Y B Y
B (c) a helix of radius 0.2 m and time period of 2π × 10−7 s

(c) (d) (d) a helix of radius 0.2 m and time period of 4 π × 10−7 s
v v 20. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries
X X a current of 2 A. It is held in mid-air by a uniform
O O
horizontal magnetic field. What is the magnitude of
14. A proton, a deuteron and an α-particle enter a region magnetic field?
of perpendicular magnetic field (to their velocities) (a) 1 T (b) 0.65 T (c) 0.35 T (d) 0.85 T
with same kinetic energy. If rp , rd and rα are the radii 21. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform
of circular paths of these particles, then speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of
(a) rα = rd < rp the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to
(b) rα = rd = rp B v
(a) (b)
(c) rα < rd < rp v B
(d) rα > rd > rp v B
(c) (d)
15. Two particles of masses ma and mb with same charge B v
are projected in a perpendicular magnetic field. They 22. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a
travel along circular path of radii ra and rb such that circular orbit of radius 0.5 m in a plane perpendicular
ra > rb . Which is correct? to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton
(a) ma va > mb vb that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 m in the
(b) ma > mb and va > vb same plane with the same magnetic field B is
(c) ma = mb and va > vb (a) 25 keV (b) 50 keV
(d) mb vb > ma va (c) 200 keV (d) 100 keV
Topic 2
Motion in Combined Electric and Magnetic Field
23. In the given figure, E and B are Y 28. Cyclotron frequency of an electron circulating in a
magnitudes of electric and E magnetic field of 1T is
magnetic fields which are acting v (a) 28 MHz (b) 280 MHz (c) 2.8 GHz (d) 28 GHz
on a moving electron as shown. – X
B 29. An electron is moving in a cyclotron at a speed of
The direction of velocity of
3.2 × 10 7 ms −1 in a magnetic field of 5 × 10 −4 T
electron is along X -axis. Z
Then, force on electron is given by perpendicular to it. What is the frequency of this
electron? ( q = 1.6 × 10 −19 C, me = 9.1 × 10 −31 kg )
(a) F = q ( E + vB ) $j (b) F = q ( E − vB ) $j
(a) 1.4 × 105 Hz (b) 1.4 × 107 Hz
(c) F = q ( E + vB ) k$ (d) F = q ( E − vB ) k$
(c) 1.4 × 106 Hz (d) 1.4 × 109 Hz
24. An electron moves straight σ
inside a charged parallel plate 30. Which of the following figures correctly depicts the
capacitor. Plates of capacitor direction of magnetic field of a current-carrying coil?
σ
have charge density σ. The space l
between plates is filled with I I
constant magnetic field of induction B. (a) (b)
Time taken by electron to pass through the region is
eσ ε 0 lB σe ε0 B
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ε 0 lB σ ε0 B eσ
I I
25. A cyclotron is used to accelerate charged particles or (c) (d)
ions to high energies. It uses
(a) only electric field
(b) only magnetic field
(c) Both electric and magnetic fields 31. A tightly wound coil of 100 turns with radius
(d) None of the above 10 cm, magnitude of carrying-current in coil is 1 A,
what will be the magnitude of magnetic field at
26. An alternating electric field of frequency ν, is applied centre of coil?
across the dees (radius = R ) of a cyclotron that is (a) 6.28 × 10− 6 T (b) 6.28 × 10− 7 T
being used to accelerate protons (mass = m). The (c) 6.28 × 10− 5 T (d) 6.28 × 10− 4 T
operating magnetic field ( B ) used in the cyclotron and
the kinetic energy ( K ) of the proton beam produced 32. A copper coil of 100 turns, radius 8.0 × 10 − 2 m
by it, are given by [CBSE AIPMT 2012] carries a current of 0.40 A. Magnitude of magnetic
mν field at centre of coil is
(a) B = and K = 2mπ 2 ν 2 R 2
e (a) B = 3.1 × 10− 3 T (b) B = 3.1 × 10− 2 T
2πmν (c) B = 3.1 × 10− 4 T (d) B = 3.1 × 10− 7 T
(b) B = and K = m2 πνR 2
e
2πmν 33. Two concentric circular coils X and Y of radii 16 cm
(c) B = and K = 2mπ 2 ν 2 R 2
e and 10 cm lie in same vertical plane containing North
mν to South direction. Coil X has 20 turns, coil Y has
(d) B = and K = m2 πνR 2 25 turns and current in coil X is16 A whereas in coil Y
e
is18 A. Current in X is anti-clockwise and in Y is
27. A proton and an α-particle both enter a region of clockwise. For an observer facing West and looking at
uniform magnetic field B, moving at right angles to coils, magnetic field at the centre of assembly of coils is
the field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the (a) 1.57 × 10− 3 T towards East
particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by
proton is 1 MeV, the energy acquired by the (b) 1.57 × 10− 3 T towards West
α-particle will be [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (c) 1.57 × 10− 3 T towards North
(a) 4 MeV (b) 0.5 MeV (c) 1.5 MeV (d) 1 MeV (d) 15.7 × 10− 3 T towards South
92 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

34. A conducting loop carrying a current I is placed in a 35. A straight long wire carries a current of 35 A. Its
uniform magnetic field pointing into the plane of the magnitude of magnetic field at a distance of 0.20 m
paper as shown in figure. from the wire is
Y
The loop will have a tendency to I Fm
(a) 3.5 × 10− 5 T
(a) contract (b) 3.5 × 105 T
(b) expand X (c) 3.5 T
(c) move towards positive X -axis (d) 7T
(d) move towards negative X -axis

Topic 3
Biot-Savart’s Law and Ampere’s Law
36. Vector form of Biot-Savart’s law is 40. If a current loop of radius R carrying a anti-clockwise
µ l × dl I dl × r current I is placed in a plane parallel to YZ-plane,
(a) dB = 0 (b) d B =
4 π r2 r3 then magnetic field at a point on the axis of the loop is
µ I dl × r µ I dl × r given by
(c) dB = 0 (d) dB = 0
4π r3 4π r2 µ 0 IR 2
(a) B = $j
37. An element ∆I = ∆x $i is placed at the origin and carries 2 ( x 2 + R 2 )3 / 2
a current I =10 A. µ 0 IR 2
(b) B = k$
Y 2 ( x 2 + R 2 )3 / 2
µ 0 IR 2
P (c) B = i$
2 ( x 2 + R 2 )3 / 2
0.5 m µ 0 IR 2
(d) B = ( $i × k$ )
2 ( x 2 + R 2 )3 / 2
X
∆x 41. An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form a
If ∆x =1 cm, magnetic field at point P is right angle as shown. A current I flows through
(a) 4 × 10− 8 k$ T PQR. The magnetic field due to this current at the
(b) 4 × 10− 8 i$ T point M is H1 . Now, another infinitely long straight
conductor QS is connected at Q, so that the current
(c) 4 × 10− 8 $j T
is 1/2 in QR as well as in QS. The current in PQ
(d) − 4 × 10− 8 $j T remaining unchanged. The magnetic field at M is
now H 2 . The ratio H1 / H 2 is given by
38. There is a thin conducting wire carrying current. What
is the value of magnetic field induction at any point on M
the conductor itself?
(a) 1 (b) Zero 90°
–¥ +¥
(c) − 1 (d) Either (a) or (b) P I Q S

39. A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is sent into a R –¥

semicircular loop of radius 2.0 cm. What will be 1 2
(a) (b) 1 (c) (d) 2
magnetic field at the centre of the semicircular loop? 2 3

42. A polygon shaped wire is inscribed in a circle of

I I radius R. The magnetic induction at the centre of
polygon, when current flows through the wire is
(a) B = 1.9 × 10− 4 T µ 0n I  2π  µ 0n I  4π 
(a) tan   (b) tan  
(b) B = 1.9 × 10 T
4
2πR  n 2πR  n
(c) B = 1.9 × 10− 4 T, ⊗ µ 0n I  π µ 0n I  π
(c) tan   (d) tan  2 
(d) B = 1.9 × 10 4 T, ⊗ 2πR  n 2πR n 
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 93

43. Two identical wires A and B, each of length l, carry 48. A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is
the same current I. Wire A is bent into a circle of made up of 500 turns. It carries a current of 5A. What
radius R and wire B is bent form a square of side a. If is the magnetic field inside the solenoid?
B A and B B are the values of magnetic field at the (a) 6.28 × 10−3 T (b) 6.28 × 103 T
centres of the circle and square respectively, then the (c) 6.28 × 10− 5 T (d) 6.28 × 105 T
ratio B A / B B is [JEE Main 2016]
π2 π2 49. A long solenoid has 20 turns cm −1 . The current
(a) (b) necessary to produce a magnetic field of 20 mT inside
8 16 2
the solenoid is approximately
π2 π2 (a) 1A (b) 2 A (c) 4 A (d) 8 A
(c) (d)
16 8 2
50. For a toroid, magnetic field strength in the region
44. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular current enclosed by wire turns is given by
carrying-conductor of radius r is B c . The magnetic (a) B = µ 0 n I, where n = number of turns
field on its axis at a distance r from the centre is B a . (b) B = µ 0 I / n , n = number of turns per metre
The value of B c : B a will be µ I
(c) B = 0 , r = mean radius
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 2 2r
µ 0 NI  N = number of turns
(c) 2 2 : 1 (d) 2 :1 (d) B = ,
2πr  r = radius of toroid
45. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its 51. A toroid of core of inner radius 0.25 m and outer
cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and radius 0.26 m around which 3500 turns of a wire are
a wound. If the current in the wire is 11 A, then
B′ at radial distances and 2a respectively, from the magnetic field inside the core of the toroid is
2
axis of the wire is [NEET 2016]
(a) 3 × 102 T (b) 3 × 10−2 T (c) 3 × 10−7 T (d) 3 × 107 T
1 1 52. If two parallel current-carrying conductors placed 1 m
(a) (b) 1 (c) 4 (d)
2 4 apart in vacuum are placed such that each carries 1 A
current, then there is a force of
46. For a cylindrical conductor of radius a, which of the
following graphs shows a correct relationship of B (a) 2 × 10− 7 N per metre of length
versus r? (b) 2 × 107 N per metre of length
B B (c) 9 × 109 N per metre of length
(d) 9 × 10− 9 N per metre of length
(a) (b) 53. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD
are placed at right angle to each other, with one above
r r
r=a r=a other such that O is their common point for the two.
B B The wires carry I 1 and I 2 currents, respectively. Point
P is lying at distance d from O along a direction
(c) (d) perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The
magnetic field at the point P will be [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
r r  I1 
a r=a µ0 µ0
(a)   (b) ( I1 + I 2 )
2πd  I2  2πd
47. Which of the following represent a correct figure to
µ µ
display of magnetic field lines due to a solenoid? (c) 0 ( I12 − I 22 ) (d) 0 ( I12 + I 22 )1 / 2
2πd 2πd
Cross-section of wires Cross-section of wires
54. Two long parallel straight wires A and B carrying
(a) (b) currents of 4.0 A and 5.0 A in same direction
separated by a distance of 4 × 10 − 2 m.
The force on a 0.20 m section of wire A is
Cross-section of wires
Cross-section of wires (a) 2 × 10− 5 N towards B
(c) (d) (b) 2 × 10− 5 N away from B
(c) 2 × 10− 5 N perpendicular to B
(d) 2 × 10− 5 N parallel to B
94 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

55. Two very long, straight and parallel wires carry 58. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance d
steady currents I and I, respectively. The distance carry a current of I ampere in same direction. They will
between the wires is d. At a certain instant of time µ 0I 2
a point charge q is at a point equidistant from the (a) attract each other with a force of
2πd
two wires in the plane of the wires. Its instantaneous
velocity v is perpendicular to this plane. µ 0I 2
(b) repel each other with a force of
The magnitude of the force due to the magnetic field 2πd
acting on the charge at their instant is µ 0I 2
(c) attract each other with a force of
µ 0Iqv µ 0Iqv 2µ 0Iqv 2πd 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0
2πd πd πd µ 0I 2
(d) repel each other with a force of
56. A square loop ABCD Y
B C 2πd 2
carrying a current i, is 59. Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying
placed near and coplanar I i L currents are arranged as shown in the figure.
with a long straight
conductor XY carrying a
X A D
current I, the net force on 15 A 50 A 10 A
L/2 L
the loop will be
µ 0 Ii 2µ 0 IiL µ 0 IiL 2µ 0 Ii x (15 – x)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2π 3π 2π 3π
57. The wire which connects the battery of a car to its
The wire C which carries a current of 50 A is so
starter motor carries current of 300 A during
replaced that it experiences no force. The distance of
starting. Force per unit length between wires
wire C from wire A is
(wires are 0.7 m long and 0.015 m distant apart) is (a) 9 cm (b) 7 cm
(a) 1.2 Nm− 1 repulsive (b) 1.2 Nm− 1 attractive (c) 5 cm (d) 3 cm
(c) 2.4 Nm− 1 repulsive (d) 2.4 Nm− 1 attractive

Topic 4
Torque on Current Loop and Magnetic Dipole
60. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carrying 61. A current-carrying loop is placed in a uniform
a current I of 12 A is placed in different orientations magnetic field in four different orientations, I, II, III
as shown in the figures. and IV. Arrange them in the decreasing order of
z potential energy.
I z
B
I I B
(a) y (b) ^
n
I I I. B II. B
I y
x I
z x I ^
z n
I B
I B ^
n
(c) I y (d)
I I
I y
x I III. B IV. B
x I
^
n
If there is a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in the
positive z-direction in which orientations the loop (a) I > III > II > IV
would be in (i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable (b) I > II > III > IV
equilibrium? [JEE Main 2015] (c) I > IV > II > III
(a) (a) and (b) respectively (b) (a) and (c) respectively (d) III > IV > I > II
(c) (b) and (d) respectively (d) (b) and (c) respectively
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 95

62. A steady current i flows in a small square loop of wire 68. Two similar coils are placed mutually perpendicular
of side L in a horizontal plane. The loop is now folded such that their centres coincide. At centre, the ratio of
about its middle such that half of it lies in a vertical the magnetic field due to one coil and the resultant
plane. Let µ 1 and µ 2 respectively denote the magnetic magnetic field of both coils for same current will be
moments due to the current loop before and after (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 :1
folding. Then,
(a) µ 2 = 0 69. Magnetic moment (or magnetic dipole moment) of a
(b) µ 1 and µ 2 are in the same direction current-carrying coil is given by
| µ1 | I
(c) = 2 (a) m = INA (b) m =
|µ2 | A
NI
|µ 1 |  1  (c) m = NA (d) m =
(d) =  A
|µ 2 |  2 
70. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of
63. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l the tightly wound 150 turns coil of radius 12 cm
is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent
carrying a current of 2A, is
magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a
(a) 18 G (b) 19.7 G
current i in the triangle a torque τ acts on it, the side l
(c) 15.7 G (d) 17.7 G
of the triangle is
2  τ
1/ 2
2  τ 71. A loop of flexible wire of irregular shape carrying
(a)   (b)   current is placed in an external field. Then,
3  Bi  3  Bi 
1/ 2
(a) it rotates in a direction perpendicular to its axis
 τ  1 τ (b) it rotates along an axis perpendicular to its plane
(c) 2   (d)
 3 Bi  3 Bi (c) it does not show any change
(d) it assumes a circular shape
64. Torque on a current-carrying loop of magnetic
moment m, placed in region of magnetic field B is 72. A circular current loop of magnetic moment M is in
given by an arbitrary orientation in an external magnetic field
1 B. The work done to rotate the loop by 90° about an
(a) τ = m × B (b) = µ 0 m × B axis perpendicular to its plane is
2
µ0 3
(c) τ = (m × B ) (d) τ = m × B (a) MB (b) MB
4π 2
MB
65. A current loop in a magnetic field [NEET 2013] (c) (d) zero
2
(a) experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or
non-uniform in all orientations 73. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of area
(b) can be in equilibrium in one orientations A is B. The magnetic moment of the loop will be
(c) can be equilibrium in two orientations, both the BA 2 BA 3 / 2
equilibrium states are unstable (a) (b)
µ 0π µ 0π
(d) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable
while the other is unstable BA 3 / 2 2BA 3 / 2
(c) (d)
µ 0 π1 / 2 µ 0 π1 / 2
66. A circular coil of 25 turns and radius 12 cm is placed
in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T normal to the 74. For hydrogen atom, which of the following figure
plane of the coil. If the current in the coil is 6 A, then correctly, shows the direction of magnetic moment
total torque acting on the coil is related to revolving electron?
(a) zero (b) 3.4 N m (c) 3.8 N m (d) 4.4 N m e– e–

67. For a circular current loop magnitude of magnetic field

(a) +Ze µe (b) +Ze µe
on axis of loop at a point distant x from centre of loop
(x >> R and magnetic dipole moment of loop is m = IA)
is e– e–
µ0 m µ m
(a) B = (b) B = 0 3
x3 4π x (c) +Ze (d) +Ze
µ 2m µ0 m⋅R µe µe
(c) B = 0 3 (d) B =
4π x 2π x 3
96 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

75. In a hydrogen atom, an electron revolves around the 77. The value of Bohr magneton is
nucleus in an orbit of radius r with velocity v, the (a) 9.27 × 10−24 Am2 (b) 9.27 × 10−27 Am2
current corresponding to the revolving electron is
er ev ev ev (c) 8.8 × 10−10 Am2 (d) 6.25 × 10−12 Am2
(a) I = (b) I = (c) I = (d) I =
2πv 2π 2πr πr 78. Magnitude of angular magnetic moment
76. In a hydrogen atom, an electron moves in a circular associated with a revolving electron in a hydrogen
−11 atom will be
orbit of radius 5.2 × 10 m and produces a magnetic
induction of 12.56 T at its centre. The current e −el 2
(a) µ l = (b) µ l =
produced by the motion of the electron will be 2me 2me
(a) 6.53 × 10−3 A (b) 13.25 × 10−10 A −e − el
(c) µ l = (d) µ l =
(c) 9.6 × 106 A (d) 1.04 × 10−3 A 4 me 2me

Topic 5
Moving Coil Galvanometer
79. A moving coil galvanometer is an instrument which 85. In ballistic galvanometer, the frame on which the coil
(a) is used to measure EMF is wound is non-metallic to
(b) is used to measure potential difference (a) avoid the production of induced emf
(c) is used to measure resistance (b) avoid the production of eddy current
(d) is a deflection instrument which gives a deflection (c) increase the production of eddy current
when a current flows through its coil (d) increase the production of induced emf
80. In a moving coil galvanometer of coil of N -turns of 86. Current sensitivity of a galvanometer is
area A have a spring of stiffness k. NBA k NBA kR
(a) (b) (c) (d)
If coil is deflected by some angle φ due to flow of I k NBA kR NBA
current in uniform radial magnetic field B, then
87. To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil
 NAB   k 
(a) φ =  I (b) φ =  I galvanometer, we should decrease
 k   BNA  (a) strength of magnet (b) torsional constant of spring
 kA   BN  (c) number of turns in coil (d) area of coil
(c) φ =  I (d) φ =  I
 BN   kA  88. The coil of a galvanometer consists of 100 turns and
81. To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer effective area of 1 cm 2 . The restoring couple is
(a) number of turns of coil is kept small 10 −8 Nm rad −1 . The magnetic field between poles is
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe of 5 T. Current sensitivity of this galvanometer is
(c) poles are of very strong magnets (a) 5 × 104 rad /µ amp (b) 5 × 106 per amp
(d) poles are cylindrically cut
(c) 2 × 10−7 per amp (d) 5rad /µ amp
82. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
(a) directly proportional to torsional constant of spring 89. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance15 Ω and meter
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil shows full scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. To
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil convert it into an ammeter of 0 to 6 A range,
(d) inversely proportional to the current in the coil (a) a resistance of 10 mΩ is required in series
83. In a moving coil galvanometer having a coil of (b) a resistance of 10 mΩ is required in parallel
N -turns of area A and carrying current I is placed in a (c) a resistance of 1000 Ω is required in series
radial field of strength B. (d) a resistance of 1000 Ω is required in parallel
The torque acting on the coil is 90. In two galvanometers A and B, to produce a
2 2
(a) NA B I (b) NABI 2 2
(c) N ABI (d) NABI deflection of 10 divisions, currents of 3 mA and 5 mA
are required respectively, then
84. What is the shape of magnet used in moving coil (a) A is more sensitive than B
galvanometer to make the magnetic field radial (b) B is more sensitive than A
(a) concave (b) horse-shoe magnet (c) both are equally sensitive
(c) convex (d) None of these (d) sensitivity of B is 5 / 3 that A
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 97

91. For the given ammeter circuit, 96. To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter,
SΩ (a) a low resistance in parallel is used
(b) a low resistance in series is used
(c) a high resistance in series is used
I Ig (d) a high resistance in parallel is used
G
GΩ
97. For the voltmeter circuit given,
(a) I g S = IG (b) ( I − I g )S = I g G
S
I G G
(c) I g G = ( I + I g )S (d) =
Ig S Ig
RL
92. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, I
(a) a low resistance is connected in series with the coil of Ig G I R +G
galvanometer (a) = (b) = L
(b) a low resistance is connected in parallel with the coil I S Ig S
of galvanometer (c) ( I − I g )RL = I g (G + S ) (d) IRL = I g G
(c) a high resistance is connected in series with
galvanometer coil 98. A galvanometer with a coil of resistance 12 Ω shows
(d) a high resistance is connected in parallel with the full scale deflection for a current of 2.5 mA. The ratio
galvanometer coil of net resistance of an ammeter of range 0 to 7.5 A and
93. A galvanometer of resistance 70 Ω, is converted into a voltmeter of range 0 to 10 V is
an ammeter by a shunt resistance rs = 003
. Ω. The (a) 10−12 (b) 10−7 (c) 10−6 (d) 10−8
value of its resistance will become 99. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of12 Ω and meter
(a) 0.025 Ω (b) 0.022 Ω (c) 0.035 Ω (d) 0.030 Ω shows full scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. To
convert galvanometer into a voltmeter of range 0 to 18 V,
94. To increase current sensitivity of a moving coil
(a) a resistance of 5988 Ω in series is required
galvanometer by 50%, its resistance is increased so
(b) a resistance of 5988 Ω in parallel is required
that its new resistance is twice of its initial resistance.
(c) a resistance of 5.988 Ω in series is required
Its voltage sensitivity changes by a factor of
(d) a resistance of 5.988 Ω in parallel is required
(a) increases by a factor of 2
(b) decreases by a factor of 1 / 2 100. Relation between voltage sensitivity ( S V ) and current
(c) increases by a factor of 4 sensitivity ( S i ) for a galvanometer of resistance G
(d) decreases by a factor of 1/ 4 ohms is
Si SV
(a) = SV (b) = Si
95. Voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer is G G
NBA k NBA kR (c) S i S V = G (d) S iSV = G
(a) (b) (c) (d)
k NBA kR NBA

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 101. Assertion Cyclotron is a device which is used to
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 101-105) In the following accelerate the positive ions.
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a Reason Cyclotron frequency depends upon the velocity.
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following 102. Assertion If a proton and an α-particle enter a uniform
statements, choose the correct one. magnetic field perpendicularly with the same speed, the
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason time period of revolution of α-particle is double than
is the correct explanation of Assertion. that of proton.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason Reason In a magnetic field, the period of revolution at
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. a charged particle is directly proportional to the mass of
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. the particle and inversely proportional to the charge of
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. particle.
98 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

103. Assertion The ion cannot move with a speed beyond Statement II The electron is an elementary particle,
a certain limit in a cyclotron. it does not spin around an axis and it does not possess
any intrinsic magnetic moment.
Reason As velocity increases, then time taken by ion
increases. 110. Statement I If we increase the current sensitivity of
a galvanometer by increasing number of turns, its
104. Assertion The magnetic field produced by a
voltage sensitivity also increases.
current-carrying solenoid is independent of its length
and cross-sectional area. Statement II Resistance of a wire is directly
proportional to its length.
Reason The magnetic field inside the solenoid is
uniform.
Statement Based Questions (Type II)
105. Assertion An electron and a proton enter a magnetic
field with equal velocities, then the force experienced 111. Consider a moving charged particle in a region of
by the proton will be more than electron. magnetic field. Which of the following are correct?
Reason The mass of proton is 1837 times more than I. If vis parallel to B, then path of particle is spiral.
that of electron. II. If v is perpendicular to B, then path of particle is a circle.
III. Ifv hasacomponentalongB,thenpathofparticleishelical.
II. Statement Based Questions (Type I) IV. If vis along B, then path of particle is a circle.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 106-110) In the following (c) III and IV (d) IV and I
questions, a statement I is followed by a corresponding
statement II. Of the following statements, choose the 112. An electron and a proton moving on a straight parallel
correct one. paths with same velocity enter a semi-infinite region
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and of uniform magnetic field perpendicular to velocity.
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. Which of these are correct?
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but
I. They will never come out of magnetic field region.
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I. II. They will come out travelling along parallel paths.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. III. They will come out same time.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. IV. They will come out at different times.
106. Statement I When a charged particle moves in the (a) I and II (b) II and III
region of a perpendicular magnetic field, its speed (c) II and IV (d) I and IV
remains constant. 113. A velocity selector; (a region of perpendicular electric
Statement II Force acting on the charged particle is and magnetic field)
given by F = q ( v × B ). I. Allows charged particles to pass straight when v = E / B.
107. Statement I When a charged particle moves in a II. Deflects particles in a direction perpendicular to both v
region of magnetic field such that its velocity is at and B, when v > E / B.
some acute angle with direction of field, its trajectory III. Deflects particles in the direction of electric field when
is a helix. v < E / B.
Statement II Perpendicular component of velocity IV. Deflects all particles in a direction perpendicular to
causes a rotating centripetal force and parallel both E and B.
component of velocity does not produces any force. (a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV
108. Statement I In cyclotron, frequency of applied
voltage (to dees) is adjusted so that ν applied voltage 114. Difference between Coulomb’s force and
= ν cyclotron = qB /2πm. This ensures acceleration of Biot-Savart’s force are
charged particle in each cycle. I. Electrostatic force is along the displacement vector
Statement II Charged particles are moved inside joining the source and the field point but magnetic
‘dee’ by magnetic field in semicircular paths and they force is perpendicular to the plane containing the
arrive in gap between the ‘dees’ in a time interval of displacement vector and source.
T sec, where T = 2πm/ Bq. II. There is an angle dependence in the Biot-Savart’s law
which is not present in Coulomb’s law.
109. Statement I Magnetic properties of iron like
III. Biot-Savart’s law can be expressed in vector form but
materials cannot be linked to intrinsic magnetic
Coulomb’s law cannot be expressed in vector form.
moment of electrons of its atoms.
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 99

IV. Biot-Savart’s law is applicable in all medium but 118. Match the following parameters of a charged particle
Coulomb’s law is applicable only in medium which moving in cyclotron with their values.
can be polarised.
(a) I and II (b) II and III Column I Column II
(c) III and IV (d) IV and I
A. Frequency of rotation of 1. B qv
115. Two coaxial solenoids 1 and 2 of the same length are charged particle ν (Hz).
set so that one is inside the other. The number of turns
per unit length are n1 and n2 . The current i1 and i2 are B. Velocity of charged particle 2. q 2B 2R 2 / 2 m
v (ms−1 ).
flowing in opposite directions. The magnetic field
inside the inner coil is zero. This is possible when C. Kinetic energy of charged 3. qBR / m
I. i1 ≠ i 2 and n1 = n 2 particle K (joule).
II. i1 = i 2 and n1 ≠ n 2 D. Force on charged particle when 4. Bq
III. i1 = i 2 and n1 = n 2 it is inside any of dees F (newton). 2 πm
IV. i1 n1 = i 2 n 2
A B C D
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) I and II (b) II and III (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV (c) 1 3 4 2
116. The galvanometer cannot as such be used as an (d) 4 3 2 1
ammeter to measure the value of current in a given 119. Match the following columns.
circuit. The following reasons are
I. galvanometergivesfullscaledeflectionforasmallcurrent. Column I Column II
II. galvanometer has a large resistance. q
III. a linear scale cannot be designed so that I ∝ φ.
A. Lorentz force 1. ∫ E ⋅ dA =
ε0
IV. a galvanometer can give inaccurate values. µ0 i dl × r
(a) I and IV (b) II and III B. Gauss’ law 2. dB = =
4π r3
(c) I and II (d) III and IV
C. Biot-Savart’s law 3. F = q(E + v × B)
III. Matching Type 1 q1q2
D. Coulomb’s law 4. F = ⋅
117. A charged particle with some initial velocity is 4 πε0 r 2
projected in a region where non-zero electric and/or
magnetic fields are present. In Column I, information A B C D A B C D
about the existence of electric and/or magnetic field (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
and direction of initial velocity of charged particle are (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3
given, while in Column II the probable path of the 120. For a current-carrying wire loop of N-turns, placed in
charged particle is mentioned. Match the entries of region of a uniform magnetic field B, match Column I
Column I with the entries of Column II. and Column II.
Column I Column II Column I Column II
A. E = 0, B ≠ 0, and initial velocity is at 1. Straight line
any angle with B A. Torque on loop 1. mB

B. E ≠ 0, B = 0 and initial velocity is at 2. Parabola B. Torque on loop when m is either 2. NIA

any angle with E parallel or anti-parallel to B
C. E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0, E|| B and initial velocity 3. Circular C. Magnetic moment of loop 3. zero
is ⊥ to both
D. E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0, E perpendicular to B and 4. Helical path with D. Torque on loop when m is 4. m ×B
v perpendicular to both E and B non-uniform pitch perpendicular to B

A B C D A B C D
(a) 1, 3 1, 2 4 1 (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1,2 3,4 4 1,3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 1 2 3 (d) 1 3 4 2
100 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

121. Figure shows the construction details of a moving coil ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 125-126) These questions are
galvanometer. based on the following situation. Choose the correct
Scale options from those given below.
The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field
at a certain place is 3.0 × 10 −5 T and the direction of
Pointer Permanent magnet the field is from the geographic south to the
Coil
north pole. A very long straight conductor is carrying
a steady current of 1 A.
125. What is the force per unit length on it when it is
Spring placed on a horizontal table and the direction of
N S
current is east to west?
(a) 3 × 10−5 Nm−1 (b) 5 × 10−2 Nm−1
Pivot
(c) 6 × 10−1 Nm−1 (d) 8 × 10−3 Nm−1
126. What is the force per unit length when the direction of
the current is south to north?
Pole Soft Iron core
pieces (a) 5 × 10−4 Nm−1 (b) Zero
Uniform radial
−2 −1
magnetic field (c) 6 × 10 Nm (d) 8 × 10−3 Nm−1

Match the part with its function. ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 127-128) These questions are
Column I Column II based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below.
A. Soft iron core 1. produces deflecting torque
A B
B. Pole pieces 2. produces restoring torque O a
C. Spring 3. produces radial field I1 30°
D. Coil 4. increases field strength D
b
A B C D A B C D C
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 The arc’s BC (radius = b) and AD (radius = a) of loop
are joined by the straight wires AB and CD. A steady
IV. Passage Based Questions current I is flowing in the loop. Angle made by AB and
CD at the origin is 30°.Another straight thin wire with
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 122-124) These questions are steady current I, flowing out of plane of the paper is
based on the following situation. Choose the correct kept at the origin.
options from those given below.
127. The magnitude of the magnetic field B due to loop
An electron with a speed v 0 << c moves in a circle of ABCD at the origin O is
radius r0 in a uniform magnetic field. The time µ 0I ( b − a )
required for one revolution of the electron is T0 . The (a) zero (b)
24 ab
speed of the electron is now doubled to 2 v 0 .
µ 0I  b − a µ I  π 
(c)   (d) 0 2( b − a ) + ( a + b )
122. The radius of the circle will change to 4 π  ab  4π  3 
(a) 4 r0 (b) 2r0 (c) r0 (d) r0 / 2
128. Due to presence of current I 1 at the origin
123. The time required for one revolution of the electron
(a) the forces on AB and DC are zero
will change to
(a) 4T0 (b) 2T0 (c) T0 (d) T0 / 2 (b) the forces on AD and BC are zero
(c) the magnitude of the net force on the loop is given by
124. A charged particle is projected in a magnetic field
µ 0 II1  π 
B = (2$i + 4$j) × 10 T. The acceleration of the particle
2
 2( b − a ) + ( a + b )
4π  3 
is found to be a = ( x$i + 2$j) ms −2 . Find the value of x.
(d) the magnitude of the net force on the loop is given by
(a) 4 ms −2 (b) −4 ms −2 µ 0 II1
(b − a )
(c) −2 ms −2 (d) 2 ms −2 24 ⋅ ab
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 101

(a) a circle
V. More than One Option Correct (b) a helix with uniform pitch
129. Which of the following statements are correct? (c) a helix with non-uniform pitch
(a) If a moving charged particle enters into a region of (d) a helix with uniform radius
magnetic field from outside, it does not complete a
131. A proton is fired from origin with velocity
circular path
v = v 0 $j + v 0 k$ in a uniform magnetic field B = B 0 $j.
(b) If a moving charged particle traces a helical path in a
uniform magnetic field, the axis of the helix is parallel (a) its z-coordinate can never be negative
to the magnetic field (b) its x-coordinate can never be positive
(c) The power associated with the force exerted by a (c) its x-and z-coordinates cannot be zero at the same time
magnetic field on a moving charged particle is always (d) its y-coordinate will be proportional to its time of flight
equal to zero
132. Two circular coils of radii 5 cm and 10 cm carry equal
(d) If in a region a uniform magnetic field and a uniform
electric field both exist, a charged particle moving in currents of 2 A. The coils have 50 and 100 turns
this region cannot trace a circular path respectively and are placed in such a way that their
planes as well as their centres coincide. Magnitude of
130. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic magnetic field at the common centre of coils is
field. The velocity of the particle at some instant (a) 8π × 10−4 T if currents in the coils are in same sense
makes an acute angle with the magnetic field. The
(b) 4 π × 10−4 T if currents in the coils are in same sense
path of the particle will be
(c) zero if currents in the coils are in opposite sense
(d) 8π × 10−4 T if currents in the coils are in opposite sense

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

NCERT 137. A 3.0 cm wire carrying a current of 10 A is placed
133. A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of inside a solenoid perpendicular to its axis. The
radius 8.0 cm carries a current of 0.40 A. What is the magnetic field inside the solenoid is given to be 0.27 T.
magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil? What is the magnetic force on the wire?
(a) 4 T . × 10−4 T
(b) 31 (a) 7 × 10− 2 N (b) 8.1 × 10− 2 N
(c) 2 × 10−3 T (d) 10−4 T (c) 6.4 × 10− 2 N (d) 4 × 102 N

134. A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a 138. Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying
current of 50 A in north to south direction. Give the currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same direction are
magnitude and direction of B at a point 2.5 m east of separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on
the wire. a 10 cm section of wire A.
(a) 2 × 10− 6 T, south (b) 3 × 10−6 T, down (a) 5 × 10−5 N repulsive (b) 5 × 10−5 N attractive
(c) 4 × 10− 6 T, up (d) 6 T, north (c) 2 × 10−5 N repulsive (d) 2 × 10−5 N attractive
139. A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of
135. A horizontal overhead power line carries a current windings of 400 turns each. The diameter of the solenoid
of 90 A in East to West direction. What are the is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A, estimate the
magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due to magnitude of B inside the solenoid near its centre.
the current 1.5 m below the line?
(a) 2.5 × 10− 2 T (b) 3.5 × 10− 2 T
(a) 1.2 × 10− 5 T, North (b) 1.2 × 10− 5 T, South
(c) 4.5 × 10− 2 T (d) 5 × 10− 2 T
(c) 4 T, vertically up (d) 4 T, vertically down
140. A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and
136. What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit carries a current of 12 A. The coil is suspended
length on a wire carrying a current of 8 A and vertically and the normal to the plane of the coil makes
making an angle of 30° with the direction of a an angle of 30° with the direction of a uniform
uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T? horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 0.80 T. What is
(a) 0.4 Nm −1 (b) 0.6 Nm −1 the magnitude of torque experienced by the coil?
(c) 4 Nm −1 (d) 6 Nm −1 (a) 1.96 Nm (b) 0.96 Nm (c) 2.0 Nm (d) 4 Nm
102 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

141. Two moving coil meters M 1 and M 2 having the 147. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along
following particulars : the axis of a current-carrying long solenoid. Which of
R1 = 10 Ω, N 1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 × 10 − 3 m 2 , B1 = 0.25 T the following is true?
R 2 = 14 Ω, N 2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 × 10 − 3 m 2 , B 2 = 050
. T (a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis
(The spring constants are identical for the two meters). (b) The electron path will be circular about the axis
Determine the ratio of voltage sensitivity of M 2 and (c) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis
M1 . and hence execute a helical path
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 1 (d) The electron will continue to move with uniform
142. In a chamber, a uniform magnetic field of 6.5 G (1G velocity along the axis of the solenoid
= 10 − 4 T) is maintained. An electron is shot into the 148. In a cyclotron, a charged particle
field with a speed of 4.8 × 10 6 ms −1 normal to the (a) undergoes acceleration all the time
field explain why the path of the electron is a circle. (b) speeds up between the dees because of the magnetic
Determine the radius of the circular orbit. field
. × 10 −19 C, me = 9.1 × 10 −31 kg)
( e = 16 (c) speeds up in a dee
(a) 2 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 4.2 cm (d) slows down within a dee and speeds up between dees

143. A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8.0 cm carrying 149. A circular current loop of magnetic moment M is in
a current of 6.0 A is suspended vertically in a uniform an arbitrary orientation in an external magnetic field
horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The B. The work done to rotate the loop by 30° about an
field lines make an angle of 60° with the normal of axis perpendicular to its plane is
the coil. Calculate the magnitude of the counter MB
(a) MB (b) 3
torque that must be applied to prevent the coil from 2
turning. MB
(c) (d) zero
(a) 4 Nm (b) 6 Nm (c) 3.1 Nm (d) 2.8 N m 2
150. The gyromagnetic ratio of an electron in an H-atom,
NCERT Exemplar according to Bohr model, is
144. Two charged particles traverse identical helical paths (a) independent of which orbit it is in
in a completely opposite sense in a uniform magnetic (b) negative
field B = B 0 k.
$ (c) positive
(d) increase with the quantum number n
(a) They have equal z-components of momenta
(b) They must have equal charges 151. Consider a wire carrying a steady current, I placed in a
(c) They necessarily represent a particle, anti-particle pair uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to its length.
(d) The charge to mass ratio satisfy Consider the charges inside the wire. It is known that
 e  e magnetic forces do no work. This implies that,
  +  =0
 m 1  m 2 (a) motion of charges inside the conductor is unaffected by
B, since they do not absorb energy
145. Biot-Savart, law indicates that the moving electrons (b) some charges inside the wire move to the surface as a
(velocity v) produce a magnetic field B such that result of B
(a) B is perpendicular to v (c) If the wire moves under the influence of B, no work is
(b) B is parallel to v done by the force
(c) it obeys inverse cube law (d) if the wire moves under the influence of B, no work is
done by the magnetic force on the ions, assumed fixed
(d) it is along the line joining the electron and point of
within the wire.
observation
152. Two identical current carrying coaxial loops, carry
146. A current-carrying circular loop of radius R is placed
current I in an opposite sense. A simple amperian loop
in the x-y plane with centre at the origin. Half of the
passes through both of them once. Calling the loop as C,
loop with x > 0 is now bent so that it now lies in the
(a) ∫ B ⋅ d l = mµ 0 I
y-z plane.
(a) The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes (b) the value of ∫ B ⋅ d l = m 2µ 0 I is independent of sense of
(b) The magnetic moment does not change C
(c) The magnitude of B at ( 0,0, z ), z > R increases (c) there may be a point on C where, B and d l are
(d) The magnitude of B at ( 0,0, z ), z >> R is unchanged perpendicular
(d) B vanishes everywhere on C
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 103

153. A cubical region of space is filled with some uniform (c) both particles gain or loose energy at the same rate
electric and magnetic fields. An electron enters the (d) the motion of the Centre of Mass (CM) is determined by
B alone
cube across one of its faces with velocity v and a
positron enters via opposite face with velocity − v. 154. A charged particle would continue to move with a
At this instant, constant velocity in a region wherein,
(a) the electric forces on both the particles cause identical (a) E = 0, B ≠ 0
accelerations (b) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0
(b) the magnetic forces on both the particles cause equal (c) E ≠ 0, B = 0
accelerations (d) E = 0, B = 0

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c)(a) 8. (c)
7. 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (b)(d) 23. (b) 24. (b)
22. 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c)(a) 38. (b) 39. (c)
37. 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (b)(a) 53. (d) 54. (a)
52. 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a)(c) 68. (a) 69. (a)
67. 70. (c) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (c)
76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (d)(b) 83. (d) 84. (a)
82. 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (c)(c) 98. (c) 99. (a)
97. 100. (a) 101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (d)
106. (a) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (d) 111. (b)(c) 113. (c) 114. (a)
112. 115. (c) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (d) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (b)(b) 128. (b) 129. (a,b,c
127. 130. (b,d 131. (b, 132. (a,c 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (b)
,d) ) d) )
136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (c) 139. (a) 140. (b) 141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (d) 148. (a) 149. (d) 150. (b)

Hints and Explanations

1. (b) For proton, v ⊥ B and for electron v || B. So, force on 6. (c) When a charged particle moves in the region of magnetic
proton = q ( v × B ) = Bqv whereas, force on electron = 0. field, then force is perpendicular to the velocity and it
produces a change of direction.
2. (c) Direction of force can be found by left hand rule. As we
know the direction of F is the direction of cross product of 7. (a) Net force on the proton,
velocity v and magnetic field B, which is perpendicular to i.e., F = B q vsin θ
the plane containing v and B. = 1.5 ×1.6 ×10−19 × 2 ×107 × sin 30° = 2.4 × 10−12 N
3. (d) The Oersted found that the I 8. (c) As the electric field is switched on, positive ion will start
alignment of the magnetic needle is to move along positive x-direction and negative ion along
tangential to an imaginary circle which negative x-direction. Current associated with motion of both
has the straight current-carrying wire, B
types of ions is along positive x-direction. According to
as its centre has its plane perpendicular Fleming’s left hand rule force on both types of ions will be
to the wire as shown in figure. along negative y-direction.
4. (d) 9. (a) The total number of mobile charge carriers in wire will
be nAl. For a steady current I in this conducting wire , we
E may assume that each mobile carrier has an average drift
Current velocity vd . In the presence of an external magnetic field B,
B
the force on these carriers is given by
F = ( nAl ) q ( vd × B )
If an electron is travelling horizontally towards East and
magnetic field in vertically downward, then according to left 10. (a) According to the question,
hand rule. So, force on electron is towards North. A
F 10−10
5. (d) Magnetic field, i.e., B = = −12 = 10−3 Wb m−2
q v 10 × 105
So, according to left hand rule, magnetic field acting along
B C
Z-axis.
104 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

FAB + FBC + FCA = 0 mv

Now, r= ≥ (b − a )
FBC + FCA = 0 (Q FAB = 0 ) qB
FCA = − FBC = − F q ( b − a )B q ( b − a )B
or v≥ ⇒ v min =
11. (b) When a current carrying closed loop is placed in a m m
uniform magnetic field, F net = 0, only torque acts.
17. (c) Radius of circular path followed by a particle,
mv 9 × 10−31 kg × 3 × 107 ms −1
12. (b) r = = mv v 2 × 105
qB 1.6 × 10−19 C × 6 × 10−4 T r= = = = 16 cm
B q B q 0.05 × 2.5 × 107
= 28 × 10−2 m = 28 cm m
Frequency of an electron, 18. (d) As we know that frequency of proton,
i.e., ν = v ( 2πr ) ≈ 20 × 106 s −1 1 qB 1.6 × 10−19 × 6.28 × 10−4
f = = =
≈ 20 × 10 Hz ≈ 20 MHz
6
T 2π m 22
2× × 1.67 × 10−27
Amount of energy required 7
E = (1/ 2 )mv2 = (1/ 2 ) 9 × 10−31 kg × 9 × 1014 m2s −2 ≈ 10−19 − 4 + 27 ≈ 104 Hz
= 40.5 × 10−17 J 19. (c) As, velocity v component is along magnetic field B. So,
−16 −19
= 4 × 10 J = 2.5 keV (1 eV = 1.6 × 10 J) path is helical. Radius of a helix,
mv⊥ 1.67 × 10−27 × 2 ×106
13. (d) When a particle moves perpendicular to the magnetic r= = ⇒ r = 0.2 m
field. It has a tendency to perform circular motion in a plane Bq 0.104 × 1.6 × 10−19
perpendicular to the magnetic field. When this is coupled 2π m
with the velocity parallel to the field, then resulting Time period, T = = 2π × 10−7 s
trajectory will be a helix along the magnetic field line as Bq
shown in figure. 20. (b)
I

Y mg B
l
B

There is an upward force F of magnitude IlB. For mid-air

y

suspension, this must be balanced by the force due to gravity.

vn
v mg 0.2 × 9.8
θ mg = IlB ⇒ B = = = 0.65 T
vp
X Il 2 × 1.5
21. (b) The radius of circular path,
14. (a) As we know that radius of circle,
mv v
mv 1  2mv2  2E r= ⇒ r∝
r= =   ⇒ r= qB B
Bq 2  Bqv  Bqv
mv 2mK
Energy is same. So, r ∝ 1/ q but in case of deuteron and 22. (d) Q r = =
α-particle Bq Bq
q is same and q for proton is least rp mp K p mp K p
∴ rp > rα = rd = ⇒ 1=
rd md K d 2mp K d
mv
15. (a) Radius of path, r = K p = 2K d ⇒ K p = 2 × 50 = 100 keV
rB
ma va mb vb 23. (b) Y
Given, ra > rb ⇒ > ⇒ ma va > mb vb
qB qB E
FE
16. (b) The particle moves in a circular path of radius r in the
magnetic field. It can just enter the region x > b for r ≥ ( b − a ). v
X
Direction of B
S current FB
Y Q Z
B
When electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each
other.
v
So, FE = qE = qE $j, FB = qv × B
x =a x =b
P R X = q ( v$i × Bk$ ) = − qv$j (Q $i × k$ = − $j)
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 105

Therefore, force on electron is given by 30. (a)

F = q ( E − vB )$j
E σ
24. (b) Velocity of a particle, v ==
B ε0 B
∴ Time taken by electron to pass through the region,
l lε 0 B
t= =
v σ
25. (c) The cyclotron is a machine to accelerate charged particles Curl the palm of your right hand around the circular wire
or ions to high energies. The cyclotron used both electric and with the fingers pointing in the direction of the current. The
magnetic fields in combination to increase the energy of right hand thumb gives the direction of the magnetic field.
charged particles. 31. (d) Since, the coil is tightly wound, we may take each
eB circular element to have the same radius R = 10 cm = 0.1 m.
26. (c) Frequency, ν = The number of turns N = 100. The magnitude of the
2πm
magnetic field is
1 mv
KE = mv2 and radius R = µ NI 4 π × 10−7 × 102 × 1
2 eB B= 0 =
πR 2πR 2R 2 × 10−1
Here, velocity v = = = 2πRν
T/2 T = 2π × 10−4 = 6.28 × 10−4 T
m( 2πRν ) 32. (c) Magnetic field at the centre of the loop,
∴ Radius, R =
eB µ 0 NI 4 π × 10−7 × 100 × 0.4
2πmν B= = = 3.1 × 10−4 T
Magnetic field, B = 2r 2 × 8.0 × 10−2
e
1 33. (b) The magnitude of magnetic field in
Kinetic energy, K = m( v )2 = 2mπ 2 ν 2 R 2 current-carrying circular loop,
2
µ NI
27. (d) Radius in magnetic fields of circular orbit, B= 0
2R B
mV 2mE 4 π × 10−7 × 20 × 16
R= = BX =
qB qB Y
2 × 016
.
and total energy of a moving particle in a circular orbit,
= 4 π × 10−4 T
q2B 2R 2
E= 4 π × 10−7 × 25 × 18
2m BY = = 9 π × 10−4 T
For a proton entering in a region of magnetic field, 2 × 01
.
e2 × B 2 × R 2 B net = BY − B X = 5π × 10−4 T
E1 = …(i)
2 × mP = 1.57 × 10−3 T (towards west)
where, mP is the mass of proton.
34. (b) Net force on a Y
Similarly, for an α-particle moving in a uniform magnetic field current-carrying loop in a i Fm B
( 2e )2 × B 2 × R 2 uniform magnetic field is zero.
E2 = (Q mα = 4 mP ) …(ii)
2 × ( 4 mP ) Hence, the loop cannot translate.
X
So, options (c) and (d) are
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get
wrong.
E2 ( 2e )2 × B 2 × R 2 2 × mP
= × 2 From Fleming’s left hand rule,
E1 2 × ( 4 mP ) e × B2 × R2 we can see that if magnetic
E2 field is perpendicular to paper inwards and current in the
= 1 ⇒ E2 = E1 = 1 MeV loop is clockwise (as shown), the magnetic force Fm on
E1
each element of the loop is radially outwards or the loops will
28. (d) Frequency of an electron have a tendency to expand.
Bq 1 × 1.6 × 10−19
f = = = 28 GHz 35. (a) Magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying
2π m 2 × 3.14 × 9.1 × 10−31 conductor
29. (b)Q v = 3.2 × 10 ms
7 −1
⇒ B = 5 × 10 T −4 µ 0I 4 π × 10−7 × 35
B= = = 3.5 × 10−5 T
The frequency of electron, 2πr 2 × π × 0.20
qB 1.6 × 10−19 × 5 × 10−4 36. (c) Vector notation of Biot-Savart’s law,
ν= =
2πm 2 × 3.14 × 9.1 × 10−31 µ 0 Idl × r
dB =
ν = 1.4 × 107 Hz = 14 MHz 4π r3
106 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

µ 0I
37. (a) The magnitude of magnetic field, 43. (d) B at centre of a circle =
µ 0 I dl sin θ 2R
| dB | = µI
4π r2 B at centre of a square = 4 × (sin 45° + sin 45° )
l
Y 4π ⋅
2
P
µ 0I
=4 2
0.5 m 2πl
L L
Now, R = and l = (as L = 2πR = 4 l )
X 2π 4
∆x
where, L = length of wire
10−7 × 10 × 10−2 µ I πµ 0 I µ I 
i.e., |dB | = = 4 × 10−8 T ∴ BA = 0 = =π 0 
25 × 10−2 L L  L 
2⋅
2π
As, dl × r = ∆x$i × y$j = y ∆x ( i$ × $j ) = y ∆xk$
So, the direction of the field is in the + Z-direction. µ 0I 8 2µ 0 I 8 2  µ 0 I 
BB = 4 2 = =  
µ 0 Idl × r µ Idl sin θ  L πL π  L 
2π  
38. (b) | dB | = = 0 ×  4
4π r 3
4π r2
If point lies on the conductor, then θ = 0° or 180° and ∴ B A : BB = π 2 : 8 2
sin θ = 0, then dB = 0. Hence, the magnetic field induction at 44. (c) Magnetic field at centre of current-carrying coil,
any point on the conductor itself is zero. µ 0I
µ πi 22 × 12 Bc = …(i)
39. (c) B = 0 = 10−7 × = 1.9 × 10−4 T 2r
4π R 7 × 2 × 10−2 Magnetic field at axial point due to a current-carrying coil at
Thus, B is 1.9 × 10−4 T normal to the plane of the paper distance of r,
going into it. d=r
µ 0 Ir2 µ 0 Ir2
41. (c) Magnetic field at any point lying on the current-carrying Bc = ⇒ Ba = …(ii)
straight conductor is zero. 2( r + d )
2 2 3/ 2
2( 2r2 )3 / 2
Here, H1 = magnetic field at M due to current in PQ. Bc µ 0 I 2( 2r2 )3 / 2
H 2 = magnetic field at M due to QR + magnetic field Now, = × =2 2
Ba 2r µ 0 Ir2
at M due to QS + magnetic field at M due to PQ.
H 3 H 2 Bc : Ba = 2 2 : 1
= 0 + 1 + H1 = H1 ⇒ 1 =
2 2 H2 3 45. (b) Consider two amperian loops of
42. (c) radius a/ 2 and 2a as shown in the a/2
diagram. Applying Ampere’s circuital law
R for these loops, we get
2a
θ
θ
∫ B ⋅ dL = µ 0 I enclosed
r For the smaller loop,
2
a I  a 1 µ I
⇒B × 2π = µ0 × × π   = µ 0I × = 0
2π 2 πa 2  2 4 4
Angle subtended at centre by any of side =
n µ I a
2π π ⇒ B′ = 0 , at distance from the axis of the wire.
⇒ 2θ =;θ = 4 πa 2
n n Similarly, for bigger amperian loop
Field due to one side, B ′ × 2π ( 2a ) = µ 0 I
µ I
B1 = 0 (sin θ + sin θ ) (total current enclosed by Amperian loop is 2.)
4 πr µ I
π π ⇒ B′ = 0
But, r = R cos θ = R cos and sin θ = sin 4 πa
n n
µ 0I π µ I π at distance 2a from the axis of the wire.
∴ B1 = × 2sin = 0 tan B µ I 4 πa
π n 2πR n So, ratio of = 0 × =1
4 π R cos B ′ 4 πa µ 0 I
n
and so field on n sides at centre will add up to form net field 46. (c) For a cylindrical conductor for r < a , B ∝ r and for
µ nI π r > a , B ∝ (1/ r ). So, graph (c) is correct.
Bcentre = 0 tan .
2πR n
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 107

µ 0 I1 µ I
47. (c)
Q B1 = and B 2 = 0 2
2π d 2π d
µ0 1 2
B net = B12 + B22 ⇒ B net = ( I1 + I 22 )1 / 2
P 2π d
54. (a) I1 = 4 A , I 2 = 5 A ,d = 4 × 10−2 m, l = 0.20 m
Force on a current carrying wire,
µ 0 I1 I 2 l 4 π × 10−7 × 4 × 5
48. (a) The number of turns per unit length is F = = × 0.20
2πd 2 × π × 4 × 10−2
500
n= = 1000 turns/m = 2 × 10−5 N towards B
0.5
The length ( l ) = 0.5 m and radius ( r ) = 0.01 m. 55. (d) According to given information, following figure can be
Thus, l/ a = 50 i.e., l >> a. drawn, which shows that direction of magnetic field is along
the direction of motion of charge, so net force on it is zero.
Hence, we can use the long solenoid formula, namely,
B = µ 0 nI = 4 π × 10−7 × 103 × 5 = 6.28 × 10−3 T
49. (d) By the formula, v
−3 −7
B = µ 0 nI or 20 × 10 = 4 π × 10 × 2000 × I q
−3
20 × 10 d
or I= −7
⇒ I ~
− 8A
4 π × 10 × 2000 d/2 d/2

50. (d) For toroid, applying Ampere’s circuital law, 56. (d) Consider the given figure,
µ NI Y
B C
B ( 2πr ) = µ 0 NI ⇒ B = 0
2πr
where, B = magnetic field of a toroid I i L

N = number of turns of toroidal coil

r = radius of toroid X A D
L/2 L
0.25 + 0.26
51. (b) Mean radius, rm = = 25.5 × 10−2 m µ 0 IiL µ 0 IiL
2 FBA = ⇒ FCD =
N 3500  L  3L
n= = 2π   2π  
2π rm 2π × 25.5 × 10−2  2  2
Magnetic field of a toroid Therefore, net force on the loop ABCD will be
−7 3500 −2 µ 0 IiL  1 1 
B = µ 0 nI = 4 π × 10 × × 11 = 3 × 10 T Floop = FBA − FCD = −
2π × 25.5 × 10−2 2π  ( L/ 2 ) ( 3L/ 2 )
52. (a) The force acting per unit length, 2 µ 0 iI
Floop =
F µ 0 2I1 I 2 3π
= F µ 0 I1 I 2
l 4π d 57. (a) The force acting per unit length of a wire, =
When d = 1m, l = 1m, I1 = I 2 = 1 A l 2π d
Then, F = 2 × 10−7 Nm−1 Also I1 and I 2 are opposite directions.
∴ They repel each other, F = 1.2 Nm−1
53. (d) A
I1 58. (a) Current flows in same direction.
O F µ 0I 2
C D ∴ Wires attract each other and =
I2 l 2π d
F AC F A C B
B 59. (a) = BC
l l
The point P is lying at a distance d along the Z-axis.
µ 0 2 × 15 × 50 µ 0 2 × 50 × 10
⋅ = × 15 A 50 A 10 A
P
B1 4π x 4π 15 − x
90° 15 10
=
x (15 − x ) x 15 – x
B2 225 − 15x = 10x ⇒ 25x = 255 or x = 9 cm
108 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

60. (c) Since, B is uniform only torque acts on a 65. (d) For parallel M is stable and for anti-parallel is unstable.
current-carrying loop. 66. (a) The torque acting on the coil | τ | = | m × B | = mB sin θ.
As, τ = M × B ⇒ | τ | = | M|| B | sin θ Here the circular coil is placed normal to the direction of
For orientation shown in (b) θ = 0° , τ = 0 magnetic field then the angle between the direction of
(Q stable equilibrium) magnetic moment ( m ) and magnetic field ( B ) is zero, then
∴ and for (d) θ = π , τ = 0 (Q unstable equilibrium) τ = mB sin θ = mB sin 0 = 0 ⇒ τ = 0
61. (c) As we know, potential energy i.e., 67. (c) For a loop at a point on its axis distant x from centre,
U = − MB cosθ, where θ = angle between normal to the µ 0 IR 2
B=
plane of the coil and direction of magnetic field. 2 ( x2 + R 2 )3 / 2
62. (c) As, we know that initial magnetic moment = µ 1 = iL 2
µ 0R 2 I µ 0 IA
For x >> R, B= ⇒ B=
i 2x 3
2πx 3
L Hence, ~ µ 0 m = µ 0 × 2m
B−
2πx 3 4 π x3
68. (a) I

L/2 L
µ1
L L/2
µ1 = iL2
µ 0I
M For a single coil, magnetic field, Bs = T …(i)
µ2 = M √2 2R
I
M
After folding the loop,
I
M = magnetic moment due to each part
 L iL2 µ 1 For two coils magnetic field,
= i × L= =
 2 2 2 µ 0I
B T = B12 + B22 = 2 …(ii)
µ1 µ 2R
⇒ µ2 = M 2 = × 2= 1
2 2 On comparing Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
BS 1
63. (c) Torque acting on equilateral triangle in a magnetic field =
B is BT 2
L
69. (a) Magnetic moment of a current-carrying loop is
m = NIA
S N
B l where, N is number of turns, I is current flowing on a loop
90° and A is area of cross-section of loop.
70. (c) Here, N = 150 , R = 12 cm = 12 × 10−2 m , I = 2A
M N µ 0 NI 2π × 10−7 × 150 × 2
O B= =
Normal 2R 12 × 10−2
τ = M × B, τ = i AB sin θ ( iA = M ) = 1.57 × 10−3 T = 15.7 × 10−4 T = 15.7 G
Area of ∆ LMN , 71. (d) Each segment experiences a force, so it tends to
3 2 assume a circular shape.
A= l and θ = 90° ( l = sides of triangle )
4 72. (d) Work done = MB(1 − cos θ ),θ = 0° so work done is zero.
Substituting the given values in the expression for torque, 73. (d) Magnetic field at the centre of circular loop,
we have
µ 0 2πI µ 0 I 2Br
3 2 3 2 B= = ⇒I =
τ=i× l B sin 90° = il B (Qsin 90° = 1) 4π r 2r µ0
4 4
1/ 2 Also, A = πr or r = ( A / π )
2 1/ 2
 τ 
Hence, l = 2   2Br 2BA  A 
1/ 2
 3 Bi  Magnetic moment, M = IA = A= × 
µ0 µ0  π
64. (d) Torque on current loop in a field is τ = m × B.
2BA 3 / 2
where, m is magnetic moment of a current carrying loop B is =
magnetic field. µ 0 π1 / 2
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 109

e–
74. (c) The uniform circular motion i 81. (d) Uniform field is made radial by cutting pole pieces radially.
of the electron constitutes a r 82. (b) The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer,
current in anti-clockwise. The NAB
direction of the magnetic moment φ= ⋅ I or φ ∝ N , where N is number of turns in a
is into the plane of the paper and +Ze µe k
is indicated separately by ⊗. coil, B is magnetic field, A is area of cross-section.
83. (d) The deflecting torque acting on the coil
75. (c) T is the time period of revolution. Let r be the orbital
radius of the electron, and v the orbital speed. Then, τ deflection = NIAB
2π r 2 86. (a) Current sensitivity of the galvanometer deflection per
T= ,I = unit ampere
v T
φ NBA
On substituting, we have I = ev / 2π r. ⇒ =
I k
76. (d) Magnetic field on a current-carrying in a circular orbit
µ I 87. (b) Current sensitivity of all galvanometer
i.e., B = 0 φ NBA
2R = Si =
I k
B × 2R 12.56 × 2 × 5.2 × 10−11
∴ I= = −7
= 1.04 × 10−3 A Hence, to increase S i , k must be decreased.
µ0 4 π × 10
Nm
e 88. (b) Spring constant, k = 10−8
77. (a) For n = 1, for an H2 atom, µ l min = h rad
4πme
N = 100, A = 1 cm2 = (1 × 10−2 )2 m2 = 1 × 10−4 m2 B = 5 T,
1.60 × 10−19 × 6.63 × 10 − 34
= = 9.27 × 10−24 Am2 NBA 100 × 5 × 1 × 10−4
4 × 3.14 × 9.11 × 10−31 ∴ Si = = = 5 × 106 A −1
k 10−8
where, the subscript min stands for minimum. This value is Ammeter
called the Bohr magneton. 89. (b) As potential is same for parallel
combination. S
78. (d) There will be a magnetic moment, usually denoted by µ i
associated with this circulating current. For ammeter, S ( I − I g ) = GI g
I I–Ig
Its magnitude is µ i = Iπr2 = evr / 2. G Ig G
Shunt resistance, S = Ig I
Multiplying and dividing the right hand side of the above I − Ig
expression by the electron mass me , 15 × 4 × 10−3
e e = = 10 mΩ
We have µl = ( me vr ) = l 6 − 4 × 10−3
2m e 2m e
90. (a) Minimum current measured by A → 0.3 mA
Here, l is the magnitude of the angular momentum of the
electron about the central nucleus (orbital angular momentum). by B → 0.5 mA
Vectorially, 91. (b) According to ammeter circuit, we get ( I − I g ) S = I g G
e
µl = − l where, G is resistance of galvanometer.
2me
The negative sign indicates that the angular momentum of the 92. (b) To convert a galvanometer into ammeter, a low resistance
electron is opposite in direction to the magnetic moment. is connected in parallel with the coil of galvanometer.
RG rs
79. (d) A moving coil galvanometer is a sensitive instrument 93. (d) R =
which is used to measure a deflection when a current flows RG + rs
through its coil. Here, RG = 70 Ω , rs = 0.03 Ω
70 × 0.03
80. (a) When a current flows through the coil, a torque acts on it. ∴ R= = 0.02998 = 0.03 Ω
This torque is given by τ = NIAB 70 + 0.03
S 15
. Si 3
where, the symbols have their usual meaning. Since, the 94. (d) S V = i ⇒ S V′ = = SV
field is radial by design, we have taken sin θ = 1in the above R 2R 4
expression for the torque. The magnetic torque NIAB tends 1 − 3/ 4
to rotate the coil. % decrease in voltage sensitivity = × 100 = 25%
1
A spring S P provides a counter torque kφ that balances the = (1/ 4 ) S V
magnetic torque NIAB; resulting in a steady angular
deflection φ. In equilibrium kφ = NIAB 95. (c) Voltage sensitivity is deflection per unit voltage
where, k is the torsional constant of the spring, i.e., the φ NBA  NBA  1
= =  ×
restoring torque per unit twist. The deflection φ is indicated V kR  k  R
on the scale by a pointer attached to the spring. We have
96. (c) To convert a galvanometer into voltmeter, a high
 NAB 
φ=  I resistance in series is to be connected with galvanometer.
 k 
110 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

97. (c) For voltmeter circuit, 105. (d) The force experienced by a charged particle in a
( I − I g ) ⋅ RL = I g (G + S ) magnetic field is given by F = q ( v × B ), which is
where, G and S, are resistance of galvanometer and shunt. independent of mass. As qv and B are same for both the
electron and proton, both will experience same force.
98. (c) G = 12 Ω and I g = 2.5 × 10−3 A
106. (a) When a charged particle moves in region of a
GI g 12 × 2.5 × 10−3 perpendicular magnetic field, the magnetic force is
For ammeter, S = = −3 perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. So, no work is
I − Ig 7.5 − (2.5 × 10 )
done and no change in the magnitude of the velocity.
1 1 1
⇒ S = 4 × 10−3 Ω ⇒ = + 107. (b) If velocity has Y
R ammeter G S component along B, this
SG
⇒ Ra = = 4.0 × 10−3 Ω component remains v||
S +G unchanged as the motion
X
along the magnetic field B
For a galvanometer as voltmeter,
will not be affected by q
V 10.0
R= −G= − 12 = 3988 Ω the magnetic field. The
Ig 2 ⋅ 5 × 10−3 motion in a plane
Z Pitch Radius

∴ RV = Voltmeter’s resistance perpendicular to B is as before a circular one, thereby

producing a helical motion.
RV = R + G = 4000 Ω = 4 × 103 Ω
108. (c) Charged particle covers semicircular path in T / 2 s.
Ra 4 × 10−3 2π m
Ratio, = = 10−6 T=
RV 4 × 103 Bq
99. (a) R where, B is magnetic field and m is mass of electron.
G 109. (d) Any charge in uniform circular motion would have an
Ig
associated magnetic moment. This dipole moment is labelled
For voltmeter circuit, we get as the orbital magnetic moment. Hence, the subscript l in µ l .
As, Ig (R + G ) = V Besides the orbital moment, the electron has an intrinsic
V 18 magnetic moment, which has the same numerical value. It is
So, R= −G= − 12 = 5988 Ω in series
Ig 3 × 10−3 called the spin magnetic moment. But we hasten to add that
it is not as though the electron is spinning. The electron is an
NBA elementary particle and it does not have an axis to spin
100. (a) As, we know current sensitivity S i =
k around like a top or our Earth. Nevertheless it does possess
NBA this intrinsic magnetic moment. The microscopic roots of
and voltage sensitivity, S V = magnetism in iron and other materials can be traced back to
kR
Si Si this intrinsic spin magnetic moment.
⇒ = R (or G ) ⇒ = SV NBA
SV G 110. (d) Current sensitivity, S i =
k
101. (c) Cyclotron is utilised to accelerate the positive ion. NBA
Be and voltage sensitivity, S V =
Cyclotron frequency is given by ν = . kR
2πm
So, when S i is increased by increasing number of turns N ,
It means cyclotron frequency does not depend upon velocity. length of wire used also increases and so, R increases. Hence,
2πm  m  m S V may remain same or decrease whereas S i increases.
102. (b) Time period, T = as   = 2   ⇒ Tα = 2Tp
Bq  qα  q p 111. (b) If v ⊥ B, then path is a circular motion and if v has a
Also, T ∝m component along B, then path will be helical.
But, Tα = 4Tp which is not the case. 112. (c) Radius of a circle
mv × × ×
103. (c) Time taken is independent of velocity and radius of r= ⇒ r ∝ m ⇒ ve < v p B
path. However, maximum velocity will be given by Bq × × ×
qBR
v max = and time taken to complete one revolution
m × × ×
2πm B
where, R is radius of Dee’s. T= ⇒ T ∝m × × ×
Bq
104. (b) The magnetic field due to solenoid having n number of
turns/metre and carrying current I is But, mass of electron ( me ) < mass of proton ( mp )
µ nI So, Te < Tp
B = 0 (cos α − cos β )
2 113. (c) In a velocity selector, where Fe and FB are electric and
It is obvious that magnetic field is independent of length and magnetic field,
area. Also magnetic field is uniform inside the solenoid.
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 111

Case I Fe = FB ⇒ v = E / B 120. (c) A. Torque on loop, τ = m × B

Case II Fe < FB ⇒ v > E / B where, m is magnetic moment of a current-carrying loop
Case III Fe > FB ⇒ v < E / B and B is magnetic field.
B. Torque on loop when m is either parallel or anti-parallel
114. (a) Difference between Coulomb’s force and Biot-Savart’s to B, i.e., τ = m × B vanishes.
forces are
C. Magnetic moment of loop, m = NIA, where I is
I. The electrostatic field is along the displacement vector current and A is area of cross-section of wire.
joining the source and the field point. The magnetic field
D. Torque on loop when m is perpendicular to B.
is perpendicular to the plane containing the displacement
vector r and the current element Idl. τ = m × B = mB sin 90° = mB
II. There is an angle dependence in the Biot-Savart’s law 121. (d) Scale
which is not present in the electrostatic case. In the
magnetic field at any point in the direction of Idl is zero.
Along this line, θ = 0, sin θ = 0, then | dB | = 0. Pointer Permanent magnet
115. (c) As two coaxial solenoids 1 and 2 of the same length are
set to be inside the other. So, net magnetic field, Coil
i.e., B net = B1 − B2 ⇒ B1 − B2 = 0
B1 = B2 ⇒ B ∝ ni
Sp
So, n1 i1 = n2 i2 or n1 = n2 and i1 = i2 N S

116. (c) I Galvanometer is a very sensitive device, it gives a full

scale deflection for a current of the order of µΑ.
II For measuring currents, the galvanometer has to be Soft iron core
connected in series and as it has a large resistance, this will Uniform radial magnetic field
change the value of the current in the circuit. A. Core increases field strength.
117. (a) A. Since, E = 0 and B ≠ 0 so path will be straight line. If B. Pole pieces produce radial field.
velocity is parallel to B, or path will be circular if v ⊥ B , C. Spring produce restoring torque.
or path will be helical (with uniform pitch) if v is at D. Coil produces deflecting torque.
same other angle to B. mv m ( 2v0 )
122. (b) r0 = ⇒ r′ = = 2 r0
Hence, A → 1, 3 qB qB
B. Since, E ≠ 0 and B = 0. So, path will be straight line 2πm
parellel to E or parabola otherwise. 123. (c) T = → independent of velocity.
qB
Hence, B → 1, 2
C. E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0, E || B 124. (b) As F ⊥ B
Helical path with non-uniform pitch. Hence, a ⊥ B
Hence, C → 4 ∴ a ⋅ B = 0 ⇒ ( xi$ + 2$j) ⋅ ( 2i$ + 4 $j ) = 0
v 2x + 8 = 0 ⇒ x = −4 ms −2
125. (a) Force acting on a horizontal table F = IlB sin θ
90°
So, the force per unit length is
F
B f = = IB sin θ
D. Straight line path if v × B = E l
When the current is flowing from East to West, then
Hence, D → 1
θ = 90°, so f = IB sin 90° = 1 × 3 × 10− 5 × 1 = 3 × 10−5 Nm
−1
B
126. (b) When the current is flowing from South to North, then
E θ = 0°, So, f = IB sin 0° ⇒ f = 0
Hence, there is no force on the conductor.
v 127. (b) B
A
119. (a) A. Lorentz force F = q ( E + v × B ) a
B. Gauss’ law, ∫ E ⋅ dA = q/ ε 0 O 30°
D
µ 0 idl × r b
C. Biot-Savart’s law, dB = = C
4π r3
D. Coulomb’s law, F =
1 q1 q2 Net magnetic field at O, B AB + BBC + B CD + BDA
4 πε 0 r2
112 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

µ0 I π µ I π µ I µ 0 2I 2 × 50
⇒ B = 0+ × + 0− 0 × = 0 (b − a ) B= ⋅ = 10− 7 ⋅ = 4 × 10− 6 T, upward direction
4a 6π 4b 6π 24 ab 4π r 2.5
128. (b) As, AD and BC are parallel to the field of I1 . So, force 135. (b) Overhead line
90 A
on them is zero.
West East
129. (a,b,c,d) Options (a) and (b) are theoretical facts. As in case 1.5 m
of moving charged particle in magnetic field Fmag ⊥ v,
hence power associated will be zero (option (c) is correct). P
If both the electric and magnetic fields exist : If B || E, the The magnitude of magnetic field,
path of the charged particle will be helical. If B || E, the
µ 2I 10− 7 × 2 × 90
radius of the charged particle will not be constant. Hence, B= 0⋅ = = 1.2 × 10− 5 T
the path will not be circular (option (d) is correct). 4π r 1.5
The direction of B will be perpendicularly upward.
130. (b,d) If a particle moves in a magnetic field in helical path,
the plane of the helical path will be inclined at an acute 136. (b) According to the question, I = 8 A, θ = 30°, B = 0.15 T,
angle with the magnetic field. l = 1m
Plane of I
I helical path
θ 30°
B

Hence, options (b) and (d) are correct. The magnitude of magnetic force
131. (b, d) Velocity of proton makes an angle of 45° with the F = I ( l × B ) = I l B sin θ
direction of magnetic field. Therefore, the path of the proton 8 × 0.15
= 8 × 1 × 0.15 × sin 30° = = 0.6 Nm −1
is a helix. The plane of the circle of this helix is the plane 2
formed by negative X and positive Z-axis. Therefore,
137. (b) I
x-coordinate can never be positive. Further, x and
z-coordinates will become zero simultaneously after every
B
pitch and y-coordinate of the proton at any time t is
y = v0 t , i.e., y ∝ t
Here, the angle between the magnetic field and the direction
µ NI
132. (a,c) Using B = 0 ⇒ | B1 | = | B 2 | = 4 π × 10−4 T of flow of current is 90°.
2R Given, l = 3 cm = 3 × 10− 2 m, I = 10 A, B = 0.27 T,
If current in same sense, B net = 8π × 10−4 T The magnitude of magnetic force on the wire,
If current in opposite sense, B net = 0 F = IlB sin 90° = 10 × 3 × 10− 2 × 0.27 × sin 90°
133. (b) Here, n = 100, r = 8 cm = 8 × 10− 2 m = 8.1 × 10− 2 N
138. (c) Given, I1 = 8 A, I 2 = 5 A and r = 4 cm = 0.04 m
A B
O
r
8A 5A
B
4 cm
and I = 0.40 A F
The magnetic field B at the centre,
Force per unit length on two parallel wire carrying-current
µ 2πIn 10− 7 × 2 × 3.14 × 0.4 × 100
B= 0⋅ = = 3.1 × 10− 4 µ 0 2I1 ⋅ I 2 10− 7 × 2 × 8 × 5
4π r 8 × 10− 2 F = ⋅ = = 2 × 10− 4 N
T 4π r 0.04
134. (c) Given, I = 50 A and r = 2.5 m The force on A of length 10 cm is F ′ = F × 0.1
North (Q 1m = 100 cm)
⇒ F ′ = 2 × 10− 4 × 0.1 = 2 × 10− 5 N
2.5 m East 139. (a)
r P
50 A B

South ∴ The total number of turns, N = 400 × 5 = 2000

The magnitude of magnetic field,
 CHAPTER 4 : Moving Charges and Magnetism 113

2000 (i) speeds up between the dees because of the oscillating

and number of turns/length, n = = 2500
0.8 electric field and
The magnitude of magnetic field inside the solenoid (ii) speed remains the same inside the dees because of the
magnetic field but direction undergoes change
B = µ 0 nI = 4 × 3.14 × 10− 7 × 2500 × 8 = 2.5 × 10− 2 T
continuously.
The direction of magnetic field is along the axis of solenoid.
149. (d) The rotation of the loop by 30° about an axis
140. (b) The magnitude of torque experienced by the coil, perpendicular to its plane make no change in the angle made
τ = NI AB sin θ by magnetic moment with the direction of magnetic field,
therefore, the work done to rotate the loop is zero.
= 20 × 12 × (10 × 10− 2 )2 × 0.80 × sin 30°
150. (b) If L is the magnitude of the angular momentum of the
2.4 × 0.80
τ = 2.4 × 0.80 sin 30° = = 0.96 Nm electron about the central nucleus (orbital angular
2 momentum). Vectorially,
141. (d) Using the formula of voltage sensitivity, e
µl = − L
NAB 2me
V =
kR where, µ l is the magnetic moment.
Vs 2 n B A .k R 42 × 0.50 × 1.8 × 10− 3 × k × 10 The negative sign indicates that the angular momentum
∴ = 2 2 2 1 1 =
Vs 1 k2 . R2 . n1 B1 A1 k × 14 × 30 × 0.25 × 3.6 × 10− 3 of the electron is opposite in direction of the magnetic
moment.
=1
mv 151. (b,d) Magnetic forces on a wire carrying a steady current, I
142. (d) r = [Here, F = q ( v × B ) = e ( v × B ) = eV B sin 90° ] placed in a uniform magnetic field B, perpendicular to its
Bq length is given by
mv2 F = IlB
evB sin 90° =
r
The direction of force is given by Fleming's left hand rule
mv 9.1 × 10−31 × 4.8 × 106 and F is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field B.
⇒ r= =
eB × 1 1.6 × 10−19 × 6.5 10−4 Therefore, work done by the magnetic force on the ions is
zero.
= 4.2 × 10− 2 m = 4.2 cm
152. (b,c) Applying the Ampere’s circuital law, we have
143. (c) Magnitude of torque acting on the current-carrying coil
due to the magnetic field, ∫cB ⋅ d l = µ 0 ( I − I ) = 0 (because current is in opposite
sense.)
Also, there may be a point on C where B and dl are
60° perpendicular and hence, ∫ B ⋅ d l = 0
c
B
153. (b,c,d) The magnetic force F = q ( v × B ) on charged particle
is either zero or F is perpendicular to v (or component of v)
which in turn revolves particles on circular path with
τ = nIAB sin θ uniform speed. In both the cases, particles have equal
= 30 × 6 × π (0.08) 2 × 1 × sin 60° accelerations.
3 Both the particles gain or loss energy at the same rate as
= 30 × 6 × 3.14 × 0.08 × 0.08 × = 3.133 Nm both are subjected to the same electric force (F = q E) in
2
opposite direction.
144. (d) For given pitch, d corresponds to charged particle, we
Since, there is no change of the Centre of Mass (CM) of the
have
particles , therefore the motion of the Centre of Mass (CM)
q 2πvcos θ  e  e
= = constant ⇒   +   = 0 is determined by B alone.
m qB  m 1  m 2
154. (a,b,d) Here, force on charged particle due to electric field
Note Consider e in place of q in solution. FE = qE.
145. (a) Magnetic field associated with moving charge Force on charged particle due to magnetic field,
Fm = q ( v × B )
µ v× r
B= q 2 Now, FE = 0if E = 0and Fm = 0if sin θ = 0or θ° = 0° or 180°
4π r
So, B⊥v Hence, B ≠ 0 .
Also, E = 0 and B = 0 and the resultant force
147. (d) F = qvB sin θ = 0 as θ = 0 or π
q E + q ( v × B ) = 0. In this case, E ≠ 0 and B ≠ 0.
148. (a) The charged particle undergoes acceleration as
 C H A P T E R

5
Magnetism and
Matter
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Magnetic materials tend to point in the North-South where, m is pole strength and 2 I is dipole length
direction. Like magnetic poles repel and unlike poles directed from S to N. The SI unit of magnetic dipole
attract each other. moment is A-m 2 or JT −1. It is a vector quantity and its
2. Cutting a bar magnet creates two smaller magnets. direction is from South pole to North pole.
Therefore, magnetic poles cannot be separated 7. Magnetic Field due to a Bar Magnet
i.e., magnetic monopole does not exist.
(i) The magnetic field in free space at a distance r
3. Magnetic field lines are imaginary lines which give from the given bar magnet along its axial line is
pictorial representation for the magnetic field inside given by
and around a magnet.
µ 2 Mr
Their properties are given below B= 0⋅ 2
4 π (r − l 2 ) 2
(i) These lines form continuous closed loops.
2l
(ii) The tangent to the field line gives direction of the P
field at that point. S N
(iii) Greater the density of the lines, stronger will be M
r
the magnetic field. l l
(iv) These lines do not intersect one another. When r >> l, the above relation is simplified as
4. Current bearing loop of wire behaves like a magnetic µ 2M
dipole whose dipole moment is given by B= 0⋅ 3 (Q r >> l )
4π r
M = IA The direction of magnetic field is along the
The direction of dipole moment can be obtained by direction of magnetic dipole moment ( M ).
right hand thumb rule. Its SI unit is A-m 2 . (ii) Along the equatorial line of a BN
5. Bar Magnet as an Equivalent Solenoid The expression magnetic dipole, the
for magnetic field at distance r from centre is given by magnetic field B in free space B P
µ 2M is given by θ
B= 0⋅ 3
4π r µ M
B= 0 ⋅ 2 BS
r
This expression is equivalent to magnetic field of bar 4 π (r + l 2 ) 3 / 2
magnet. µ M θ
6. The magnetic dipole moment of a magnetic dipole is B= 0⋅ 3 (Q r >> l)
4π r S N
given by –m +m M
The direction of magnetic
S N 2l
field is parallel to the
2l magnetic dipole and opposite to the direction of
M =m × 2I dipole moment.
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 115

8. Torque on a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field Magnetic inclination dip (δ) is the angle made by the
is direction of the intensity of the total earth’s magnetic
τ = MB sin θ = M × B field with the horizontal direction. If B is intensity of
the earth’s total magnetic field and BV is the vertical
where, θ is the angle between M and B. Its SI unit is
component of the earth’s magnetic field, then
joule per tesla (JT −1).
BH = B cos δ , BV = B sin δ
9. Oscillation of a Freely Suspended Magnet
BV
The oscillations of a freely suspended magnet so that B = BH2 + BV2 and tan δ =
BH
(magnetic dipole) in a uniform magnetic field are SHM.
The time period of oscillation, 14. Intensity of magnetisation of a substance is defined
as the magnetic moment induced in the substance
I
T = 2π per unit volume when placed in the magnetising field.
MB M m
Thus, I= =
where, I = moment of inertia of the magnet, V A
M = magnetic moment and It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is Am −1.
B = magnetic field intensity. 15. Magnetic intensity is a measure of the capability of
10. Potential energy of a magnetic dipole in a magnetic external magnetising field to magnetise the given
field is given by substance and is mathematically defined as,
U = − MB cos θ = − M ⋅ B B B
H = 0 or H =
µ0 µ
where, θ is the angle between M and B.
11. Work done in rotating the dipole in a uniform Magnetic intensity H is a vector quantity and its SI
magnetic field from θ1 to θ 2 is given by unit is Am −1.
W = MB (cos θ1 − cos θ 2 ) 16. Magnetic permeability is the ability of a material to
permit the passage of magnetic lines of force through
12. Magnetism and Gauss’ Law The net magnetic flux B
( φB ) through any closed surface is always zero. it µ =
H
φB = Σ B ⋅ ∆ S = 0
17. Magnetic susceptibility of a substance is the ratio of
∆S intensity of magnetisation I induced in the substance
I
to the magnetic intensity H. Thus, χm = . It is a
H
θ
scalar term and has no units or dimensions.
B (i) B = µ 0(H + I )
(ii) µ r = 1 + χm
13. Earth’s Magnetism Magnetic declination at a place 18. Magnetic materials are broadly classified as
is the angle between the geographic meridian and diamagnetic, paramagnetic and ferromagnetic. For
magnetic meridian. It is denoted by θ. diamagnetic materials χ is negative and small and for
paramagnetic materials it is positive and small.
Geographic meridian
BH θ 19. Ferromagnetic materials have large χ and are
A
δ characterised by non-linear relation between B and H.
B BV They show the property of hysteresis.
P M 20. The magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic
materials varies as
1 C
Magnetic meridian χm ∝ or χm =
C′ (T − Tc ) (T − Tc )
where, C is a constant. It is known as Curie-Weiss
C D
law and Tc is curie temperature.
 Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Magnet and Magnetisation
1. The tip of a suspended magnet which points to the 9. In the given figure, the axial magnetic field at
geographic North is called a point P, at a distance r from the centre O of a
(a) South-pole (b) North-pole solenoid is (Consider m as the magnitude of the
(c) East-pole (d) West-pole magnetic moment of the solenoid).
2. The pattern of iron fillings suggests that the
(a) magnet has only one pole a
(b) magnet has two poles P
(c) magnet is a magnetic dipole O r
(d) Both (b) and (c)
l
3. The pattern of iron filling permit us 2l
(a) to plot the North-South poles
2 µ 0 2m 4 µ 0 2m
(b) to plot the geographic North-South poles (a) B = (b) B =
(c) to plot the magnetic field lines 3 π r3 3 π r3
(d) to plot the electric dipole µ 2m µ 2m
(c) B = 0 3 (d) B = 0 3
4. Magnetic field lines show the direction (at every 4π r 2π r
point) along which a small magnetised needle aligns. 10. Two magnets have the same length and the same pole
Do the magnetic field lines also represent the lines of strength. But one of the magnets has a small hole at
force on a moving charge at every point? its centre. Then,
(a) No (a) both have equal magnetic moment
(b) Yes (b) one with hole has small magnetic moment
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (c) one with hole has large magnetic moment
(d) Given information is not sufficient (d) one with hole loses magnetism through the hole
5. The resemblance of magnetic field lines for a bar 11. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole moment
magnet and a solenoid suggest that M is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure.
(a) a bar magnet may be thought of as a large number of The new magnetic dipole moment will be [NEET 2013]
circulating currents in analogy with a solenoid
(b) cutting a bar magnet in half is like cutting a solenoid
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
r r
6. Cutting a bar magnet in half is like cutting a solenoid,
60°
such that we get two smaller solenoids with
(a) weaker magnetic properties
(b) strong magnetic properties 3M π
(a) 3π (b) (c) (d) 3M
(c) constant magnetic properties π 3M
(d) Both (a) and (b) 12. A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their
7. The magnetic dipole moment m of a current loop is lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1. The pole strengths of the
given by two pieces will have ratio
NAI (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
(a) A I (b) NAI (c) 2NAI (d)
2 13. If the bar magnet of magnetic moment 40 Am 2 is
8. The magnitude of the magnetic moment of the replaced by a solenoid of cross-sectional area
solenoid is 2 × 10 −4 m 2 and 1000 turns but of the same magnetic
(a) m = n ( 2l ), I ( π a 2 ) (b) m = n ( 4 l ), I ( π a 2 ) moment, the current flowing through the solenoid is
(c) m = n ( 2l ), 2I ( π a ) (d) m = n ( 2l 2 ), I ( π a 2 )
2 (a) − 2 A (b) 2 A (c) 20 A (d) 1 A
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 117

14. The length of a magnetised steel wire is l and the 20. A loop carrying current I lies in the XY-plane as
magnetic moment is m. It is bent into the shape of L shown in figure. The unit vector k$ is coming out of
with two sides equal. The magnetic moment now will the plane of the paper. The magnetic moment of the
be current loop is [IIT JEE 2013]
(a) m/ 2 (b) 2m Y
(c) 2 m (d) m/ 2
I
15. A straight wire carrying current I is turned into a a X
circular loop. If the magnitude of magnetic moment
a
associated with it in MKS unit is m, then length of the
wire will be
mπ π 
4π (a) a 2 Ik$ (b)  + 1 a 2 Ik$
(a) (b) 2 
m 4I
π 
4πm 4πI (c) −  + 1 a 2 Ik$ (d) ( 2π + 1) a 2 Ik$
(c) (d) 2 
I m
16. A magnet with moment Pm is given. If it is bent into a 21. The equatorial field ( B E ) of a bar magnet at a distance
semi-circular form, its new magnetic moment will be r, for r >> l, where l is the size of the magnet is that
P P µ0 m µ0 m µ0 m µ0 m
(a) m (b) m (a) (b) − (c) (d) −
π 2 4 πr 3
4 πr 3
4 πl 3
4 πl 3
2Pm
(c) Pm (d) 22. The axial field ( B A ) of a bar magnet for r >> l is
π
µ 0 2m µ 0 2m
(a) − (b)
17. The areas of cross-section of three magnets of same 4 π r3 4 π r3
lengths are A, 2 A and 6A, respectively. The ratio of µ 2m µ 2m
(c) 0 3 (d) − 0 ⋅ 3
their magnetic moments will be 4π l 4π l
(a) 6 : 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 6
(c) 2 : 6 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 : 1 23. Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres
at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is placed
18. Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a
in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure.
dipole moment m. Which configuration has highest net The force on the charge Q is
magnetic dipole moment? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] Q P
S N D N S
N O
d
N S
(a) (b) (a) zero
S N (b) directed along OP
S S N
(c) directed along PO
N (d) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper
N
24. What is the magnitude of the equatorial and axial
(c) (d)
30° 60° fields due to a bar magnet of length 5.0 cm at a
distance of 50 cm from its mid-point ? The magnetic
S N S N
moment of the bar magnet is 0.40 Am 2 .
19. A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points A and B along (a) 3.2 × 10− 6 T, 6.4 × 10− 7 T
axis at a distance of 24 cm and 48 cm on the opposite (b) 4.2 × 105 T, 6 × 10− 7 T
ends. Ratio of magnetic fields at these points will be (c) 5 × 10− 6 T, 3.2 × 10− 7 T
A B (d) 3.2 × 10− 7 T, 6.4 × 10− 7 T
O
24 cm 48 cm 25. The intensity of magnetic field at a point X on the axis
(a) 8 of a small magnet is equal to the field intensity at
(b) 3 another point Y on equatorial axis. The ratio of distance
(c) 4 of X and Y from the centre of the magnet will be
(d) 1/ 2 2 (a) ( 2 ) − 3 (b) ( 2 )− 1 / 3 (c) 23 (d) 21 / 3
Topic 2
The Dipole in a Uniform Magnetic Field
26. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with an 32. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m
external field of 800 G experiences a torque of having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a
0.016 Nm. The magnetic moment of the magnet is uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 Wbm −2 . The
(a) 4 Am2 coil carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the coil is
(b) 0.5 Am2 inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction of the
(c) 2 Am2 field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable
equilibrium will be [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(d) 0.40 Am2
(a) 0.15 Nm (b) 0.20 Nm
27. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a (c) 0.24 Nm (d) 0.12 Nm
uniform external magnetic field of 0.25 T experiences
33. A magnet of dipole moment m is aligned in
a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 × 10 − 2 Nm. The equilibrium position in a magnetic field of intensity B.
magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet is The work done to rotate it through an angle θ in the
(a) 0.38 JT−1 (b) 0.96 JT−1 magnetic field is
(c) 0.48 JT−1 (d) 0.36 JT−1 (a) mB sin θ (b) mB cos θ
(c) mB (1 − cos θ ) (d) mB (1 − sin θ )
28. A copper rod is suspended in a non-homogenous
magnetic field region. The rod when in equilibrium 34. Rate of change of torque τ with deflection θ is
will align itself maximum for a magnet suspended freely in a uniform
(a) in the region where magnetic field is stranger magnetic field of induction B, when
(b) in the region where magnetic field is weaker and (a) θ = 0° (b) θ = 45° (c) θ = 60° (d) θ = 90°
parallel to the direction of magnetic field there 35. Potential energy of a bar magnet of magnetic moment
(c) in the direction in which it was originally suspended m placed in a magnetic field of induction B such that,
(d) in the region where magnetic field is weaker and it makes an angle θ with the direction of B is
perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field there
(a) mB cos θ (b) − mB cos θ
29. In the given figure, the magnetic needle has magnetic (c) mB (1 − cos θ ) (d) mB (1 + cos θ )
moment 6.7 × 10 − 2 Am 2 and moment of inertia
I = 7.5 × 10 − 6 kg-m 2 . It performs 10 complete 36. A thin bar magnet is placed in a uniform magnetic
oscillations in 6.70 s. The magnitude of the magnetic field and is aligned with the field. The needle is now
field is rotated by an angle of 45° and the work done is W.
The torque on the magnetic needle at this position is
N W
(a) zero (b)
θ B 2 −1
S W
(c) (d) 2W
2
(a) 1.00 T (b) 0.67 T
37. Work done in rotating a bar magnet from 0 to angle
(c) 0.01 T (d) 1.50 T
120° is
30. In the Q. 26, the work done in moving it from its most 1 3
(a) MB (b) MB
stable to most unstable position is that 2 2
(a) 0.064 J (b) 0.024 J 2
(c) MB (d) MB
(c) 0.01 J (d) 3.2 J 3
31. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 38. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic
m = 0.32 JT −1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of field requires 10 J of work to turn it through 30°. The
0.15 T. If the bar is free to rotate in the plane of the torque needed to maintain the needle in this position
field the potential energy which would correspond to will be
its unstable equilibrium? (a) 10 3 N-m (b) 3 N-m
(a) 4.8 × 10− 2 J (b) − 4.8 × 10− 2 J 10 2− 3
(c) N-m (d) N-m
(c) 7.5 × 10− 2 J (d) 3.6 × 105 J 2− 3 10
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 119

39. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 40. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic
2 × 10 4 J T −1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is
horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10 −4 T exists in the n times the corresponding work done to turn it
space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly through an angle of 60°. The value of n is given by
from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° (a) 2
from the field is (b) 1
(a) 0.6 J (b) 12 J (c) 0.5
(c) 6 J (d) 2 J (d) 0.25

Topic 3
Magnetism and Gauss’s Law
41. Consider a small vector area element ∆S of a closed 44. Gauss’s law for magnetism is
surface S as shown in figure. The magnetic flux (a) the net magnetic flux through any closed surface is B ⋅ ∆S
through ∆S defined as ∆φ B is (b) the net magnetic flux through any closed surface is E ⋅ ∆S
(c) the net magnetic flux through any closed surface is 0
^
n (d) Both (a) and (c)
B
45. Many of the diagrams given in figure, show magnetic
θ
field lines (thick lines in the figure). Point out which
∆S one is/are correct?

(a) B ⋅ ∆S (b) 2B ⋅ ∆S (c) B ⋅ 2∆S (d) B × ∆S (i) (ii)

42. In the above question, divide S into many small area
elements and the individual flux through each is
calculated. Then, net flux φ B is
(a) ∑ B ⋅ ∆S (b) 2 ∑ B ⋅ ∆S
all all
(c) 0 (d) Both (a) and (c) (iii) (iv)
43. In the Gauss’s law of electrostatics, the flux through a
closed surface is given by
q 2q q q (a) Both (i) and (iv) (b) Both (ii) and (iv)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ε0 ε0 2ε 0 4 ε0 (c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iii)

Topic 4
The Earth’s Magnetism
46. The strength of the earth’s magnetic field varies from 48. The pole near the geographic North-pole of the earth
place to place on the earth’s surface, its value being of is called the ……… magnetic pole and the pole near
the order of the geographic South-pole is called the ………
(a) 105 T (b) 10− 6 T (c) 10− 5 T (d) 108 T magnetic pole.
(a) South-North (b) South-East
47. The magnetic field is now thought to arise due to
electrical currents produced by convective motion of (c) North-East (d) North-South
metallic fluids (consisting mostly of molten iron and 49. The vertical plane containing the longitude circle and
nickel) in the outer core of the earth. This is known as the axis of rotation of the earth is called the
the (a) geographic meridian (b) magnetic meridian
(a) dynamo effect (b) tidal effect (c) magnetic declination (d) magnetic inclination
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
120 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

50. One can define ……… of a place as the vertical plane 59. The value of angle of dip is zero at the magnetic
which passes through the imaginary line joining the equator because on it
magnetic North and the South-poles. (a) V and H are equal
(a) geographic meridian (b) magnetic meridian (b) the values ofV and H are zero
(c) magnetic declination (d) magnetic inclination (c) the value of V is zero
(d) the value of H is zero
51. Dip is the angle that the total ……… of the of earth
makes with the surface of the earth. 60. A bar magnet 30 cm long is placed in the magnetic
(a) magnetic field BE (b) magnetic inclination meridian with its North-pole pointing South. The
(c) magnetic declination (d) magnetic meridian neutral point is observed at a distance of 30 cm from
52. To describe the magnetic field of the earth at a point on its centre. Calculate the pole strength of the magnet.
its surface, we need to specify three quantities, viz . the (Given, horizontal component of earth’s field = 0.34 G)
declination D, the angle of dip or the inclination and (a) 4.3 Am (b) 5.2 Am
the horizontal component of the earth’s field H E . (c) 6.9 Am (d) 8.6 Am
These are known as the element of the 61. A short bar magnet with the North-pole facing North
(a) earth’s gravitational field forms a neutral point at P in the horizontal plane. If
(b) earth’s magnetic field the magnet is rotated by 90° in the horizontal plane,
(c) earth’s friction the net magnetic induction at P is (horizontal
(d) Both (a) and (b) component of earth’s magnetic field = B H )
53. If a magnetic needle is perfectly balanced about a (a) zero (b) 2BH
horizontal axis, so that it can swing in a plane of the 5
(c) BH (d) 5 BH
magnetic meridian, the needle would make an angle 2
with the horizontal. This is known as the 62. A bar magnet is placed North-South with its
(a) angle of dip (b) angle of inclination North-pole due North. The points of zero magnetic
(c) angle of declination (d) Both (a) and (b) field will be in which direction from centre of
54. The earth’s magnetic field at the equator is magnet?
approximately 0.4 G, the earth’s dipole moment is (a) North-South
(a) 1 × 10 23
Am 2
(b) 1.05 × 10 23
Am 2 (b) East-West
(c) North-East and South-West
(c) 8 × 10 22
Am 2
(d) 4 × 10 Am 2 2
(d) North-East and South-West
55. In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the 63. At a certain place, horizontal component is 3 times
horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is the vertical component. The angle of dip at this place is
0.26 G and the dip angle is 60°. The magnetic field of (a) zero (b) π / 3
the earth at this location is (c) π / 6 (d) None of these
(a) 5.2 G (b) 5.00 G (c) 0.52 G (d) 0.5 G
64. The angle of dip at a certain place where the
56. A magnetic dipole is placed in two perpendicular horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s
magnetic fields B and H and is in equilibrium taking magnetic field are equal is
angle θ with B . Then, (a) 30° (b) 90°
(a) B = H (b) B cos θ = H sin θ (c) 60° (d) 45°
(c) B sin θ = H cos θ (d) B = H tan θ
65. At a certain place, the angle of dip is 30° and
57. If a magnet is suspended at an angle of 30° to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is
magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle 0.50 oersted. The earth’s total magnetic field
of 45° with the horizontal. The real dip is (in oersted) is
(a) tan − 1 ( 3/ 2 ) (b) tan − 1 ( 3 ) (a) 3 (b) 1
−1 −1 (c) 1/ 3 (d) 1/ 2
(c) tan ( 3 / 2) (d) tan ( 2/ 3 )

58. The time of vibration of a magnetic needle vibrating 66. At a certain place, the horizontal component of the
in the vertical plane is 3 s. When magnetic needle is earth’s magnetic field is B 0 and the angle of dip is 45°.
made to vibrate in the horizontal plane, the time of The total intensity of the field at that place will be
vibration is 3 2. Then the angle of dip is (a) B0 (b) 2 B0
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90° (c) 2B0 (d) B02
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 121

67. The earth’s magnetic induction at a certain point is 70. A bar magnet is oscillating in the earth’s magnetic
7 × 10 − 5 Wbm − 2 . This is to be annulled by the field with a period T. What happens to its period of
magnetic induction at the centre of a circular motion, if its mass is quadrupled?
conducting loop of radius 15 cm. The required current T
(a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =
in the loop is 2
(a) 0.56 A (b) 5.6 A (b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2T
(c) 2.28 A (d) 2.8 A (c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 4T
68. A bar magnet 20 cm in length is placed with its (d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays
nearly constant
South-pole towards geographic North. The neutral
points are situated at distance of 40 cm from centre of 71. A magnetic instrument placed in magnetic meridian
the magnet. If horizontal component of earth’s field has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes
= 3.2 × 10 − 5 T, then pole strength of magnet is oscillations with a time period of 2 s in the earth’s
(a) 5 A-m (b) 10 A-m (c) 45 A-m (d) 20 A-m horizontal magnetic field of 24 µT. When a horizontal
field of 18µT is produced opposite to the earth’s field
69. When a magnet is placed vertically on horizontal by placing a current carrying wire, the new time
board, number of neutral points obtained on the board period of magnet will be
is (a) 1 s (b) 2s
(a) four (b) three (c) two (d) one (c) 3s (d) 4 s

Topic 5
Magnetisation and Magnetic Intensity
72. Property of a bulk material called intensity of 77. A solenoid has core of a material with relative
magnetisation is permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are
(a) magnetic moment per unit volume insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A.
(b) net magnetic moment per unit volume If the number of turns is 1000 per metre, calculate H
(c) a vector quantity and having unit of Am−1 and M.
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) 2 × 103 Am−1 , 8 × 105 Am−1
73. Magnetic intensity is define by (b) 1.0 Am−1 , 1.5 × 105 Am−1
B B
(a) H = −I (b) H = +I (c) 6.8 × 10− 5 Am−1 , 1.2 × 10− 5 Am−1
µ0 µ0
(d) 2.1 × 10− 4 Am−1 , − 2.6 × 105 Am−1
2B
(c) H = µ 0 ( I − B ) (d) H = −I
µ0 78. In the above question, B and the magnetising
current is
74. ……… is a measure of how a magnetic material (a) 1.0 T, 794 A (b) 4.2 T, 594 A
responds to an external field. (c) 2.9 T, 698 A (d) 1.9 T, 494 A
(a) magnetic field (b) angle of inclination
(c) magnetic susceptibility (d) angle of declination 79. The core of a toroid having 3000 turns has inner and
outer radii 11 cm and 12 cm, respectively. The
75. Which one of the following is correct? magnetic field in the core for a current of 0.70 A is
(a) B = µH (b) B = 2µH 2.5 T. The relative permeability of the core is
µH µH (a) 685 (b) 880
(c) B = (d) B = (c) 448 (d) 790
2 4
76. B = µ 0µ r H . In the given equation, µ r is called 80. An iron rod of 0.2 cm 2 cross-sectional area is
subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 Am −1 . The
(a) relative magnetic permeability of substance
susceptibility of iron is 599. The permeability will be
(b) magnetic susceptibility of substance
(c) magnetic permeability of substance (a) 7.9 × 105 T m / A (b) 8.0 × 1022 T m / A
(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) 7.5 × 10− 4 T m / A (d) 1.8 × 10− 5 T m / A
122 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

81. Obtain the earth’s magnetisation assuming that the 83. The horizontal component of flux density of earth’s
earth’s field can be approximated by a giant bar magnetic field is 1.7 × 10 − 6 T. The value of horizontal
magnet of magnetic moment 8.0 × 10 22 Am 2 . The component of intensity of earth’s magnetic field will be
earth’s radius is 6400 km. (a) 2.45 Am−1 (b) 13.53 Am−1
(a) 7.9 × 105 Am−1 (b) 73 Am −1 (c) 1.53 Am−1 (d) 0.35 Am−1
(c) 1.8 × 10− 5 Am−1 (d) 1.0 Am −1 84. Hysteresis loss is minimised by using
82. The space inside a toroid is filled with tungsten whose (a) alloy of steel
susceptibility is 6.8 × 10 − 5 . The percentage increase (b) shell type of core
in the magnetic field will be (c) thick wire which has low resistance
(a) 0.0068% (b) 0.068% (d) metal
(c) 0.68% (d) None of these

Topic 6
Magnetic Properties of Materials
85. Which of the following substances have tendency to 93. Which of the following possesses a permanent
move from stronger to the weaker part of the external magnetic dipole moment of their own?
magnetic field? (a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic
(a) Paramagnetic (b) Diamagnetic (c) Copper (d) Lead
(c) Ferromagnetic (d) All of these
94. The magnetisation of a paramagnetic material is
86. Diamagnetic substances are the ones in which inversely proportional to the
resultant magnetic moment in an atom is (a) Curie’s constant (b) absolute temperature
(a) zero (b) half (c) susceptibility (d) permeability
(c) one-fourth (d) three-fourth
95. Which of the following is correct for paramagnet
87. The most exotic diamagnetic materials are materials?
(a) conductors (b) superconductors B0 B0
(c) semiconductors (d) poor conductors (a) M = C (b) M = 2 C
T T
88. If superconductors are cooled to very low T B0
temperature, then the exhibit perfect (c) M = B0 (d) M = C
C 2T
(a) conductivity (b) diamagnetism
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) 96. Curie’s law is known as
µ0 T
89. When will the field lines be completely expelled? (a) χ = C (b) χ = C
T µ0
(a) χ = − 1and µ r = 0 (b) − 1 ≤ χ and µ r >> 1
(c) χ ≤ 1and µ r << 1 (d) χ = 1and µ r = 1 µ0 T
(c) χ = 2 C = (d) χ = C
T 2µ 0
90. The phenomenon of perfect diamagnetism in
super-conductors is called the 97. For a paramagnetic material both χ and µ r depend
(a) Tidal effect (b) Meissner effect
upon
(c) Humus effect (d) None of these
(a) pressure (b) material
91. Which of the following are used for running (c) temperature (d) Both (b) and (c)
magnetically levitated superfast trains?
(a) Diamagnets (b) Paramagnets 98. The individual atoms (or ions or molecules) in a
(c) Ferromagnets (d) Superconducting magnets ferromagnetic material possess a dipole moment as in
a paramagnetic material, so they interact with one
92. If a diamagnetic solution is poured into a U-tube and
another in such a way that they spontaneously align
one arm of this U-tube is placed between poles of a
themselves in a common direction over a microscopic
strong magnet, with the meniscus in line with the
volume called
field, then the level of solution will
(a) domain (b) bulk
(a) rise (b) fall
(c) group (d) None of these
(c) oscillate slowly (d) remain as such
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 123

99. In non-uniform magnetic field, the ferromagnetic 108. A Rowland ring of mean radius 15 cm has
sample tends to move towards the region of 3500 turns of wire wound on a ferromagnetic core
(a) low field (b) high field of relative permeability 800. The magnetic field
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b) ( B ) in the core for a magnetising current of 1.2 A is
100. When the external field is removed in ferromagnetic (a) 4 T (b) 4.48 T (c) 7.9 T (d) 3 T
materials the magnetisation persists, such materials are 109. The susceptibility of magnesium at 300 K is
called 1.2 × 10 − 5 . At what temperature will the
(a) soft ferromagnetic materials
susceptibility increase to 1.8 × 10 − 5 ?
(b) hard ferromagnetic materials
(a) 100 K (b) 200 K (c) 300 K (d) 400 K
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b) 110. The coercivity of a small magnet where the
ferromagnet gets demagnetised is 3 × 10 3 Am −1 . The
101. In which type of material the magnetic susceptibility
does not depend on temperature? current required to be passed in a solenoid of length
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the magnet
(c) Ferromagnetic (d) Ferrite gets demagnetised when inside the solenoid is
[JEE Main 2014]
102. Above Curie temperature (a) 30 mA (b) 60 mA (c) 3 A (d) 6 A
(a) a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
(b) a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic 111. The variation of the intensity of magnetisation I with
(c) a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic respect to the magnetising field H in a diamagnetic
(d) a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic substance is described by the graph in figure.
103. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room B
+1
temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond I
A
Curie temperature, then it will show
(a) paramagnetism (b) ferromagnetism O H
(c) no magnetic property (d) diamagnetism
C
104. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnet material at
–1
− 73° C is 0.0075. Its value at − 173° C will be D
(a) 0.015 (b) 0.15 (c) 15.0 (d) 1.50 (a) OD (b) OC
105. A domain in ferromagnetic iron is in the form of a cube (c) OB (d) OA
of side length 1 µm. Estimate the number of iron atoms 112. The correct measure of magnetic hardness of a
in the domain. The molecular mass of iron is 55 g/mol material is
and its density is 7.9 g cm −3 . (a) remanent magnetism (b) hysteresis loss
(a) 8.65 × 10− 10 atoms (b) 8.0 × 10− 13 atoms (c) coercivity (d) Curie temperature
(c) 8.0 × 105 atoms (d) 8.65 × 1010 atoms 113. Liquid oxygen remains suspended between two
poles of magnet because it is
106. In the above question, calculate the maximum possible
(a) diamagnetic
dipole moment and magnetisation of the domain. (Given
(b) paramagnetic
. × 10 −24 units)
magnetic moment of individual atom = 927
(c) ferromagnetic
(a) 4 × 104 Am2 , 2 × 104 Am−1 (d) anti-ferromagnetic
(b) 20 × 10−6 Am2 , 10 × 10−6 Am−1
114. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the North
(c) 40 × 10−6 Am2 , 80 × 10−6 Am−1 or the South-pole of a bar magnet, then it is
(d) 8.0 × 10−13 Am2 , 8.0 × 105 Am−1 (a) attracted by the both poles
107. A sample of paramagnetic salt contains 2.0 ×10 24
atomic (b) repelled by both the poles
dipoles, each of dipole moment 1.5 × 10 − 23 JT −1 . The (c) repelled by the North-pole and attracted by the
South-pole
sample is placed under a homogenous magnetic field of
(d) attracted by the North-pole and repelled by the
0.84 T and cooled to a temperature of 4.2 K. The South-pole
degree of magnetic saturation achieved is equal to (e) None of the above
15%. The total dipole moment of the sample for a
magnetic field of 0.98 T and a temperature of 2.8 K is 115. At Curie point, a ferromagnetic material becomes
(a) non-magnetic (b) diamagnetic
(a) 3 × 103 JT−1 (b) 4 π × 10− 6 JT−1
(c) paramagnetic (d) strongly ferromagnetic
(c) 7.9 JT−1 (d) 7 × 104 JT−1
124 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

116. Those substance which at room temperature retain 125. Ferromagnetism show their properties due to
their ferromagnetic property for a long period of (a) filled inner subshells
time are called (b) vacant inner subshells
(a) permanent magnets (b) electromagnets (c) partially filled inner subshells
(c) ferromagnets (d) paramagnets (d) all the subshells equally filled
117. It is possible to make magnets out of 126. As magnetising field on a ferromagnetic material is
(a) iron and its alloys increased, its permeability
(b) aluminium and its alloys (a) increases (b) decreases
(c) copper and its alloys (c) remains constant (d) Cannot say
(d) Both (a) and (b)
127. A uniform magnetic field parallel to the plane of paper,
118. For making permanent magnet which material is existed in space initially directed from left to right.
better than soft iron? When a bar of soft iron is placed in the field parallel to
(a) Steel (b) Chromium it, the lines of force passing through it will be
(c) Copper (d) Nickel represented by figure.
119. Core of electromagnets are made of ferromagnetic
materials which have (a) (b)
(a) high permeability (b) low retentivity
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
120. In which application the material goes through an
AC cycle of magnetisation for a long period? (c) (d)
(a) Transformer cores (b) Telephone diaphragms
(c) Generator (d) Both (a) and (b)
128. The variation of magnetic susceptibility ( χ ) with absolute
121. The hysteresis cycle for the material of permanent temperature T for a ferromagnetic is given in figure by
magnet is +ve +ve
(a) short and wide (b) tall and narrow χ χ
(c) tall and wide (d) short and narrow (a) (b)
122. Permanent magnet has properties of retentivity and
coercivity respectively T T
(0, 0) (0, 0)
(a) high-high (b) low-low +ve +ve
(c) low-high (d) high-low
χ
123. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft (c) (d) χ T
(0, 0)
iron has
(a) low susceptibility and low retentivity T –ve
(b) low susceptibility and high retentivity (0, 0)
(c) high permeability and low retentivity 129. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A and B are
(d) high permeability and high coercivity as given below: [JEE Main 2016]
B B
124. The variation of magnetic susceptibility ( χ ) with
temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
represented by figure H H

χ χ
(a) (b) (A) (B)

These materials are used to make magnets for electric

O O
T T generators, transformer core and electromagnet core.
Then, it is proper to use
χ χ (a) A for electric generators and transformers
(c) O (d) O T
T
(b) A for electromagnets and B for electric generators
(c) A for transformers and B for electric generators
(d) B for electromagnets and transformers
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 125

130. The relative permeability of a substance X is slightly less 133. The current I-H curve for a paramagnetic material
than unity and that of substance Y is slightly more than is represented by figure.
unity, then
(a) X is paramagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic Y Y
(b) X is diamagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
I I
(c) X and Y both are paramagnetic (a) (b)
(d) X is diamagnetic and Y is paramagnetic
131. The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is K at 27°C. O X O X
H H
At what temperature will its susceptibility be K /2 ?
(a) 600°C (b) 287°C (c) 34°C (d) 327°C Y y

132. A rod of ferromagnetic material with dimensions

I I
10 cm × 0.5 cm × 0.2 cm is placed in a magnetic field of (c) (d)
strength 0.5 × 10 4 Am −1 as a result of which a magnetic
moment of 5 Am 2 is produced in the rod. The value of O X O X
H H
magnetic induction will be
(a) 0.54 T (b) 6.28 T (c) 0.358 T (d) 2.591 T

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason North-pole of a magnet was so named as it was the
North seeking pole.
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 135-144) In the following
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a 137. Assertion A magnetic needle, which is free to
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following swing horizontally, would lie in the magnetic
statements, choose the correct one. meridian and the North-pole of the needle would
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the point towards the magnetic North-pole.
correct explanation of Assertion.
Reason The line joining the magnetic poles is
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not
the correct explanation of Assertion. tilted with respect to the geographic axis of the
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. earth, the magnetic meridian at a point makes
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. angle with the geographic meridian.
134. Assertion The true geographic North direction cannot be 138. Assertion When magnetic field is applied to a
found by using a compass needle. diamagnetic substance, those electrons having
Reason The magnetic meridian of the earth is along the orbital magnetic moment in the same direction
axis of rotation of the earth. slow down and those in the opposite direction
135. Assertion The axis of the dipole does not coincide with
speed up.
the axis of rotation of the earth but is presently tilted by Reason This happens due to induced current in
approximately 11.3° with respect to the later. accordance with Lenz’s law and the substance
Reason The magnetic poles are located where the magnetic develops a net magnetic moment in direction
field lines due to the dipole enter or leave the earth. opposite to that of the applied field and hence
repulsion.
136. Consider the figure, Ng
Assertion Unlike in the case of bar 139. Assertion Susceptibility is defined or the ratio of
intensity of magnetisation I to magnetic intensity H.
11. 3

magnet, the field lines go into the earth Nm

at the North magnetic pole ( N m ) and Reason Greater the value of susceptibility
°

come out from the South magnetic smaller value of intensity magnetisation I.
pole ( S m ).
140. Assertion The pole of magnet cannot be
Reason The magnetic North was the Sm
separated by breaking into two pieces.
direction to which the North-pole of a Sg
magnetic needle pointed; the Reason The magnetic moment will be reduced to
half when a magnet is broken into two equal pieces.
126 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

141. Assertion Substances which at room temperature retain 148. Statement I The ferromagnetic substances do not
their ferromagnetic property for a long period of time are obey Curie law.
called permanent magnets. Statement II At Curie point a ferromagnetic
Reason Permanent magnet can be made by placing a substance start behaving as a paramagnetic
ferromagnetic rod a solenoid and passing current through it. substance.
142. Assertion Ferromagnetic substances are those which
gets strongly magnetised when placed in an external Statement Based Questions Type II
magnetic field. 149. Consider the statements given below.
Reason The individual atoms (or ions or molecules) in a
I. The magnetic field lines of a magnet (or a
ferromagnetic material possess a dipole moment as in a
solenoid) form continuous closed loops. This is
paramagnetic material.
unlike the electric dipole where, these field lines
143. Assertion A paramagnetic sample displays greater begin from a positive charge and end on the
magnetisation (for the same magnetising field) when negative charge or escape to infinity.
cooled. II. The tangent to the field line at a given point
Reason The magnetisation does not depends on represents the direction of the net magnetic field B
temperature. at that point.
III. The larger the number of field lines crossing per unit
II. Statement Based Questions Type I area, the stronger the magnitude of the magnetic
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 145-149) In the following
field B.
questions, a statement I is followed by a corresponding IV. The magnetic field lines intersect each other.
statement II. Of the following statements, choose the Which of the following statements are correct?
correct one. (a) I, II and IV
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and (b) I, III and IV
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) II, III and IV
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but (d) I, II and III
Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 150. Consider the statements given below.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. I. The difference between the Gauss’s law of
144. Statement I The flux through a closed surface in that magnetism and that for electrostatics is a reflection
q of the fact that isolated magnetic poles are not
case is given by, E ⋅ ∆S = known to exist.
ε0
II. There are no sources or sinks of B,the simplest
Statement II According to Gauss’s law for magnetism, the magnetic element is a dipole or a current loop.
net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero. III. All magnetic phenomena can be explained in terms
145. Statement I The susceptibility of diamagnetic materials of an arrangement of dipoles and/or current loops.
does not depend upon temperature. Choose the correct options from those given
Statement II Every atom of a diamagnetic materials is below.
(a) I and II are correct, III may be correct
not a complete magnet in itself.
(b) I and III are incorrect, II may be correct
146. Statement I Paramagnetic substances are those which (c) II and III are correct, I is incorrect
get weakly magnetised when placed in an external (d) I, II and III are correct
magnetic field.
151. Which of the following statements is/are correct
Statement II Paramagnetic substances have tendency to
move from a region of weak magnetic field to strong about magnetism?
magnetic field, i. e., they get weakly attracted to a magnet. I. The earth behaves as a magnet with the magnetic
field pointing approximately from the geographic
147. Statement I Ferromagnetic substances are those which South to the North.
gets strongly magnetised when placed in an external II. When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it points in
magnetic field. the North-South direction. The tip which points to
Statement II Ferromagnetic substances have strong the geographic North is called the North-pole and
tendency to move from a region of weak magnetic field to the tip which points to geographic South is called
strong magnetic field, i. e., they get strongly attracted to a the South-pole of magnet.
magnet.
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 127

III. There is a repulsive force when North-poles Which of the following statements are in correct?
(or South-poles) of two magnets are brought close (a) I and II (b) II and III
together. Conversely, there is an attractive force (c) I, II and III (d) None of the above
between the North-pole of one magnet and the
South-pole of other. III. Matching Type
IV. We can isolate the North or South-pole of a magnet.
155. Match the terms of Column I with the items of
Which of the following statements are correct?
Column II and choose the correct option from the codes
(a) I, II and IV
given below.
(b) I, II may be correct, III and IV are correct
(c) III and IV may be correct and I, II are correct Column I Column II
(d) I, II and III B

152. I. The magnetic field lines of the earth resemble that of

a (hypothetical) magnetic dipole located at the N ii
centre of the earth.
II. The location of the North magnetic pole is at a
latitude of 79.74′′N and a longitude of 71.8′′W, a A. 1. The field lines of a
S current carrying
place somewhere in North Canada.
finite solenoid
III. The magnetic South-pole is at 79.74′′S, 108.22′′E in
the Antarctica. i
(a) I, II and III are correct I B
(b) I and III are correct but II may be correct
(c) I and II are incorrect and III is correct ii
(d) I and II are correct but III may be correct
153. Consider the given statement with respect to the B. 2. A field lines of
figure showing a bar of diamagnetic material electric dipole
placed in an external magnetic field.
I. The field lines are repelled or expelled and the field I
i
inside the material is reduced. E
II. When placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, the bar
will tend to move from high to low field. + ii
III. Reduction the field inside the material slight, being
one part in105 .
C. 3. The field lines of
– a bar magnet

A B C A B C
Choose the correct options from these given below.
(a) 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 2
(a) I, II are correct, III may be correct
(c) 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 1
(b) I, III are correct, II may be correct
(c) II, III are correct, I may be correct 156. Consider the expression for magnetic potential energy,
(d) I, II and III are correct match the terms of Column I with the items of Column II
and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
154. I. When an iron rod in the North-South direction is
hammered repeatedly, it becomes a magnet. Column I Column II
II. A steel rod is striked with one end of a bar magnet a A. Potential energy at θ = 90° 1. Minimum
large number of times, always in the same sense to
B. Potential energy at θ = 0° 2. Maximum
make a permanent magnet.
III. A permanent can be made by placing a C. Potential energy at θ = 180° 3. Zero
ferromagnetic rod in a solenoid and passing a A B C A B C
current. (a) 3 1 2 (b) 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2
128 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

157. With reference to electric dipole, match the terms of A B C A B C

(a) 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3
Column I with the items of Column II and choose the (c) 2 3 1 (d) 2 1 3
correct option from the codes given below.
161. Match the terms of Column I with the items of
Column I Column II
Column II and choose the correct option from the
A. Dipole moment 1. 2 p/ 4 π ε0 r 3 codes given below.
B. Equatorial field for a short dipole 2. − p⋅ E
Column I Column II
C. Axial field for a short dipole 3. p× E
A. Diamagnetic 1. µ >> µ 0 , µ r >> 1 and χ >> 1
D. External field : Torque 4. − p/ 4 π ε0 r 3 B. Paramagnetic 2. − 1 ≤ χ < 0, 0 ≤ µ r < 1 and µ < µ 0
E. External field : Energy 5. p C. Ferromagnetic 3. 0 < χ < ε, 1 < µ r < 1 + ε and µ > µ 0

A B C D E A B C A B C
(a) 3 1 2 5 4 (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1
(b) 5 4 1 3 2
(c) 4 2 5 1 3
(d) 2 4 5 3 1 IV. Passage Based Questions
158. With reference to magnetic dipole, match the terms of ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 163-164) These questions are
Column I with the terms of Column II and choose the based on the following situation. Choose the correct
correct option from the codes given below. options from those given below.
The North-pole and South-pole of a bar magnet of
Column I Column II length 2l is assigned a magnetic charge (also called
A. Dipole moment 1. − m⋅B pole strength) + q m and − q m , respectively.
B. Equatorial field for a short dipole 2. m ×B
162. The magnetic moment of the bar magnet is
C. Axial field for a short dipole 3. − µ 0 m / 4 πr 3 (a) 2qm ( 2l ) (b) 4 qm ( 2l )
D. External field : Torque 4. m q
(c) m ( 2l ) (d) qm ( 2l )
E. External field : Energy 5. µ 0 2 m / 4 πr 3 2
163. The field strength due to q m at a distance r from it is
A B C D E
(a) 4 3 5 2 1 given by
µ 0 qm 2µ 0 qm 3 µ 0 qm µ 0 qm
(b) 5 3 4 1 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 3 5 1 2 4 2πr 2
πr 2
4 π r2 4 π r2
(d) 1 4 2 3 5 ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 165-169) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
159. Match the terms of Column I with the items of
options from those given below.
Column II and choose the correct option from the
codes given below. To determine the magnitude N
of B accurately, a small
Column I Column II θ
compass needle of known B
S
A. Horizontal component 1. BE sin I magnetic moment m and
B. Vertical component 2. ZE / HE moment of inertia I is
C. tan I 3. BE cos I allowed to oscillate in the magnetic field. This
arrangement is shown in figure.
A B C A B C
164. The torque on the needle is
(a) 3 2 1 (b) 2 3 1
(a) τ = 2 m × B (b) τ = m × B
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 1 3 2
(c) τ = m × B/ 2 (d) τ = m × 2 B
160. Match the terms of Column I with the items of
165. Which of the following represents a simple harmonic
Column II and choose the correct option from the
motion?
codes given below.
d2θ mB dθ mB
Column I Column II (a) 2
=− θ (b) 2
=− θ
dt I dt I
A. Negative susceptibility 1. Ferromagnetic
d 2 θ mB d2θ mB
B. Positive and small susceptibility 2. Diamagnetic (c) = θ (d) 2
= θ
C. Positive and large susceptibility 3. Paramagnetic dt I dt I
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 129

166. The time period of oscillation of the dipole is respectively. The directions of magnetic fields due to
the dipole are same at
2I I
(a) 2π (b) 2π (a) P1 and P2 (b) Q1 and Q2
mB 2mB
(c) P1 and Q1 (d) P2 and Q2
I I 173. The magnetic field lines of magnet
(c) 4π (d) 2π
mB mB (a) are continuous
167. The magnitude of the magnetic field if time period is (b) are called magnetic line of force
T is (c) intersect each other
(d) are emerging from one face and entering into the
4π 2I 2π 2 I
(a) B = (b) B = other face.
mT 2 mT 2
174. A horizontal circular loop carries a current that loops
π 2I 3π 2I
(c) B = (d) B = anti-clockwise when viewed from above. It is
2mT 2 2 mT 2 replaced by an equivalent magnetic dipole N-S which
168. The magnetic potential energy U m is given by of the following is true?
(a) The line N-S should be along a diameter of the loop
(a) U m = − m ⋅ B (b) U m = m ⋅ B
(b) The line N-S should be perpendicular to the plane of the
(c) U m = 2m ⋅ B (d) U m = − 2m ⋅ B loop
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 170-172) Answer the following (c) South pole should be below the loop
questions based on given figure. (d) North pole should be above the loop
B 175. A circular coil of 16 terms and radius 10 cm carrying
1.5 a a current of 0.75 A rests with its plane normal to an
external field of magnitude 5.0 × 10 −2 T.
b
1.0
0.5 (a) Magnetic moment of the coil is 0.377 JT −1
–100 c
–200 O 100 200 H
(b) If coil oscillates about its stable equilibrium with a
–0.5 Am–1 frequency of 0.2/s, then moment of inertia of the coil
–1.0 will be 1.2 × 10−4 kg-m 2
e
d –1.5 (c) If coil oscillates about its stable equilibrium with a
frequency of 0.3/s, then moment of inertia of the coil
will be 3.2 × 10−4 kg-m 2
169. From the figure, the retentivity or remanence is
(d) If the moment of inertia is 4 × 10−2 , then coil oscillates
(a) value of B at H =0
(b) value of B at H = 100 with frequency of 3/s
(c) value of B at H = −100 176. Diamagnetism substances
(d) value of B at H = − 10 (a) are those which have tendency to move from stronger to
170. The coercivity of the material is the weaker part of the external magnetic field
(a) value of H at c (b) value of H at b (b) Develops a net magnetic moment in direction opposite
(c) value of H at e (d) value of H at d to that of the applied
(c) The most exotic diamagnetic materials are
171. For a given value of H , B is not unique but depends non-superconductors
on the magnetic history of the sample. This (d) None of the above
phenomenon is called
177. Which of the following characteristic are correct
(a) coercivity (b) remanence
associated with a ferromagnetic material?
(c) retentivity (d) hysteresis
(a) It is strongly attracted by a magnetic
(b) It tends to move from a region of strong magnetic field
V. More than One Option Correct to a region of weak magnetic field
172. A magnetic dipole is placed North-South P1 , P2 , (c) It origin is the spin of electron
Q1 , Q2 are four points at the same distance from the (d) Above the Curie temperature, it exhibits paramagnetic
dipole towards North, South, East and West properties
 NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
NCERT (i) At what distance from the centre of the magnet, the
resultant field is inclined at 45° with the earth’s field on
178. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30º with a
normal bisector?
uniform external magnetic field of 0.25 T experiences
(a) 5 cm (b) 6 cm
a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 × 10 − 2 J. What is (c) 7 cm (d) 8 cm
the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet?
(ii) At what distance from the centre of the magnet, the
(a) 0.36 J/T (b) 0.63 J/T (c) 0.64 J/T (d) 0.60 J/T resultant field is inclined at 45° with the earth’s field on
179. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment, m = 0.32 JT −1 its axis?
is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. If the (a) 7.3 cm (b) 3.6 cm
bar is free to rotate in the plane of the field, which (c) 3.7 cm (d) 6.3 cm
orientation would correspond to its (a) stable and 184. A compass needle free to turn in a horizontal plane is
(b) unstable equilibrium? What is the potential energy placed at the centre of circular coil of 30 turns and
of the magnet in each case? radius 12 cm. The coil is in a vertical plane making an
(a) 8.4 × 10−2 J, 4.8 × 10−2 J angle of 45º with the magnetic meridian. When the
(b) − 4.8 × 10−2 J, 4.8 × 10−2 J current in the coil is 0.35 A, the needle points West to
(c) 0.32 × 10−2 J, − 0.32 × 10−2 J East. The horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field at the location will be
(d) − 23 × 10−2 J, 0.23 × 10−2 J
(a) 3.9 × 10−5 T (b) 9.3 × 10−5 T
180. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J/T lies (c) 4.9 × 10−5 T (d) 9.5 × 10−5 T
aligned with the direction of a uniform magnetic field
of 0.22 T. What is the amount of work required by an NCERT Exemplar
external torque to turn the magnet so as to align its
magnetic moment to the field direction. 185. A toroid of n turns, mean radius R and cross-sectional
(a) 0.66 J (b) 0.44 J radius a carries current I. It is placed on a horizontal
(c) 0.33 J (d) None of these table taken as XY-plane. Its magnetic moment m
(a) is non-zero and points in the z-direction by symmetry
181. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane (b) points along the axis of the toroid ( m = m φ )
parallel to the magnetic meridian has its North tip 1
(c) is zero, otherwise there would be a field falling as 3 at
pointing down at 22º with the horizontal. The large distances outside the toroid r
horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at (d) is pointing radially outwards
the place is known to be 0.35 G. The magnitude of 186. The magnetic field of the earth can be modelled by that
the earth’s magnetic field at the place will be of a point dipole placed at the centre of the earth. The
(a) 0.68 G (b) 0.38 G dipole axis makes an angle of 11.3° with the axis of the
(c) 0.83 G (d) 0.86 G earth. At Mumbai, declination is nearly zero. Then,
182. At a certain location in Africa, a compass points 12º (a) the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E
West of the geographic North. The North tip of the (b) the least declination is 0°
magnetic needle of a dip circle placed in the plane of (c) the plane defined by dipole axis and the earth axis
passes through Greenwich
magnetic meridian points 60º above the horizontal.
(d) declination averaged over the earth must be always negative
The horizontal component of the earth’s field is
measured to be 0.16 G. The magnitude of the earth’s 187. In a permanent magnet at room temperature,
field at the location will be (a) magnetic moment of each molecule is zero
−4 −4 (b) the individual molecules have non-zero magnetic
(a) 0.23 × 10 T (b) 0.18 × 10 T
moment which are all perfectly aligned
−4 −4
(c) 0.32 × 10 T (d) 0.81 × 10 T (c) domains are partially aligned
(d) domains are all perfectly aligned
183. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment
5.25 × 10 −2 JT −1 is placed with its axis perpendicular 188. Consider the two idealised systems (i) a parallel plate
to the earth’s field direction. Magnitude of the earth’s capacitor with large plates and small separation and
field as the plane is given to be 0.42 G. Ignore the (ii) a long solenoid of length L >> R, radius of
length of the magnet in comparison to the distance cross-section. In (i) E is ideally treated as a constant
involved. between plates and zero outside.
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 131

In (ii) magnetic field is constant inside the solenoid 192. A long solenoid has 1000 turns per metre and carries
and zero outside. These idealised assumptions, a current of 1 A. It has a soft iron core of µ r =1000.
however, contradict fundamental laws as below. The core is heated beyond the Curie temperature, TC .
(a) Case (i) contradicts Gauss’ law for electrostatic fields (a) The H field in the solenoid is (nearly) unchanged but the
(b) Case (ii) contradicts Gauss’ law for magnetic fields B field decreases drastically
(c) Case (i) agrees with ∫ E ⋅ d l = 0.
(b) The H and B fields in the solenoid are nearly unchanged
(d) Case (ii) contradicts ∫ H ⋅ d l = I en (c) The magnetisation in the core reverses direction
(d) The magnetisation in the core diminishes by a factor of
189. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetisation of
about 108
8 Am −1 when placed in an external magnetic field of
0.6 T at a temperature of 4 K. When the same sample 193. Essential difference between electrostatic shielding by
is placed in an external magnetic field of 0.2 T at a a conducting shell and magnetostatic shielding is due to
temperature of 16 K, the magnetisation will be (a) electrostatic field lines can end on charges and
32 2 conductors have free charges
(a) Am–1 (b) Am–1
3 3 (b) lines of B can also end but conductors cannot end them
(c) 6 Am–1 (d) 2.4 Am−1 (c) lines of B cannot end on any material and perfect
shielding is not possible
190. S is the surface of a lump of magnetic material.
(d) shells of high permeability materials can be used to
(a) Lines of B are necessarily continuous across S
divert lines of B from the interior region
(b) Some lines of B must be discontinuous across S
(c) Lines of H are necessarily continuous across S 194. Let the magnetic field on the earth be modelled by that
(d) Lines of H cannot all be continuous across S of a point magnetic dipole at the centre of the earth. The
angle of dip at a point on the geographical equator
191. The primary origin (s) of magnetism lies in
(a) atomic currents (a) is always zero
(b) Pauli exclusion principle (b) can be zero at specific points
(c) polar nature of molecules (c) can be positive or negative
(d) intrinsic spin of electron (d) is bounded

Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24 (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (d)
46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (a)
76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (b) 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (d)
106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (b) 110. (c) 111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (c) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (c) 120. (d)
121. (c) 122. (a) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (d) 130. (d) 131. (d) 132. (b) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (b)
136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (b) 141. (b) 142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (d) 149. (d) 150. (d)
151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (d) 154. (b) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (c) 161. (b) 162. (d) 163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (a)
166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (a) 171. (d) 172. (a, 173. (a,b, 174. (c,d 175. (a, 176. (a, 177. (a,c, 178. (a) 179. (b) 180. (c)
b) d) ) b) b) d)
 Hints and Explanations
1. (b) The tip of a bar magnet which points to the geographic 15. (c) Magnetic moment, m = IA = I ( πr2 ), and l = 2πr
North is called North-pole.
m
2. (d) The pattern of iron fillings suggests that the magnet has two r=
πI
poles similar to the positive and negative charge of an electric
dipole. m 4 πm
The length of the wire l = 2π =
3. (c) The pattern of iron filling permits us to plot the magnetic πI I
field lines. Pm
16. (d) As Pm = qm × 2l , qm = .
4. (a) No, the magnetic force is always normal to B (remember 2l
magnetic force = qv × B. It is misleading to call magnetic field Here, qm (and not m) denotes the pole strength as m
lines as lines of force. denotes magnetic moment. Further, as πr = 2l or r = 2l/ π
5. (c) The resemblance of magnetic field lines for a bar magnet and 4l
Distance between the two poles, 2l ′ = 2r =
a solenoid suggest that a bar magnet may be thought of as a large π
number of circulating currents in analogy with a solenoid. Cutting  Pm   4 l 
a bar magnet in half is like cutting a solenoid. Magnetic moment Pm′ = qm × 2l ′ =     = 2Pm / π
 2l   π 
We get two smaller solenoids with weaker magnetic properties.
The field lines remain continuous, emerging from one face of 17. (b) As magnetic moment ∝ pole strength ∝ area of
the solenoid and entering into the other face. cross-section i.e., m ∝ qm ∝ A.
6. (a) Cutting a bar magnet in half is like cutting a solenoid, such m1 : m2 : m3 = 1 : 2 : 6
that we get two smaller solenoids with weaker magnetic properties. 18. (c) Magnetic moment is from S to N
7. (b) The magnetic dipole moment m associated with a current
M net = m2 + m2 + 2m2 cos θ
loop was defined to be m = NIA where, N is the number of turns
in the loop. M net will be maximum, if cos θ is maximum, cos θ will
8. (a) The magnitude of the magnetic moment of the solenoid is be maximum when θ will be minimum so, at θ = 30°
m = n ( 2l ) ( I ) ( πa 2 ), where 2l is the length and a is the radius M net will be maximum.
of the solenoid. 19. (a) Here, 2l = 3 cm, d1 = 24 cm and d 2 = 48 cm
9. (c) Magnitude of the magnetic moment of the solenoid is, As the magnet is short
m = n ( 2l ) I ( πa 2 ) 3
B1 d 23  48 cm 
µ 2M = =  =8
Thus, B= 0 ⋅ 3 B2 d13  24 cm
4π r
10. (b) As, we know, magnetic dipole moment m = m( 2l ), so hole 20. (b) Area of the given loop is A
reduces the effective length of the magnet and hence magnetic a
= (area of two circles of radius and area of a square of
moment reduces. 2
11. (b) The magnetic moment, M = ml side a)
2
π 3l  a π 
l= × r ⇒ r= = 2π   + a 2 =  + 1 a 2
3 π  2 2 
∴ New magnetic moment π 
3l 3M M = IA =  + 1 a 2 I
M′ = M × r= M × = 2 
π π
From screw law, direction of M is outwards or in positive
12. (d) Pole strength does not depend on length. Z-direction.
So, strength of the two pieces will remain same. π 
∴ M =  + 1 a 2 I k$
13. (b) Magnetic moment ms = NIA ⇒ ms = 0.40 Am2 2 
⇒ 0.40 = 1000 × I × 2 × 10−4 21. (b) The magnetic field at large distance due to a bar
⇒ I = 0.40 × 104 / (1000 × 2 ) = 2 A magnet of magnetic moment m can be obtained from
14. (d) If qm is strength of each pole, then m = qm × l. When the wire the equation for electric field due to an electric dipole
is bent into L shape effective distance between the poles of dipole moment p by making the following
replacements
= ( l / 2 )2 + ( l / 2 )2 = l / 2 1 µ
E→ B , p → m, → 0
l m 4 π ε0 4 π
∴ m′ = qm × = (m will remain unchanged)
2 2
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 133

The equatorial field ( B E ) of a bar magnet at a distance r, for 32. (b) Given, N = 50, B = 0.2 Wbm−2 , I = 2A
r >> l is the size of the magnet
µ m θ = 60°, A = 0.12 × 0.1 = 0.012 m2
BE = − 0 3
4 πr B
µ 2m
22. (b) The axial field of a bar magnet for r >> l is B = 0 3
4π r 30°
M
60°
23. (a) Magnetic field due to bar magnets exerts force on moving
charges only. Since, the charge is at rest, zero force acts on it.
24. (d) Magnetic field at equatorial line
µ 0m 10−7 × 0.4 10−7 × 0.4
BE = = =
4 πr 3 3
(0.5) 0.125
−7
= 3.2 × 10 T Thus, torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium
µ 0 2m i.e., τ = NIAB sin θ
Magnetic field at axial line B A = = 6.4 × 10−7 T
4 πr 3 = 50 × 2 × 0.012 × 0.2 × sin 60°
3
25. (d) If d1 is distance of point X one axial line and d 2 is = 50 × 2 × 012
. × 0.2 × = 0.20 Nm
distance of point Y on equatorial line. 2
θ
Then,
µ 2m
B A = 0 3 , BE = 0 ⋅ 3
µ m 33. (c) Work done W = ∫0 mB sin θ dθ = mB (1 − cos θ)
4 π d1 4π d2
(as ∆W = τ dθ = mB sin θ dθ)
As, B A = BE dτ
34. (a) As we know, torque i. e., τ = mB sin θ , = mB cos θ. It
µ 0 2m µ 0 m dθ
∴ = ⇒ d13 = 2 d 23
4 πd13 4 πd 23 will be maximum when θ = 0°.
⇒ d1 / d 2 = 21 / 3 35. (b) Potential energy PE = − mB (cos θ 2 − cos θ1 )

26. (d) The magnetic moment of the magnet When θ1 = 90° (position of zero PE), θ 2 = θ
τ = mB sin θ, θ = 30°, PE = − mBcos θ
hence, sin θ = 1 / 2 (Q 1 G = 10−4 T) 36. (b) Given, work done = W and θ = 60°
−4 We know that
Thus, 0.016 = m × ( 800 × 10 T) × (1 / 2 )
 1
⇒ m = 160 × 2 / 800 = 0.40 Am2 W = MB (1 − cos θ ) = MB (1 − cos 45° ) = MB 1 − 
 2
27. (d) Here, θ = 30° , B = 0.25 T, τ = 4.5 × 10−2 J Hence, torque
As, τ = mB sin θ W× 2 1 W
|T | = MB sin 45° = × =
Magnetic moment of the magnet 2 −1 2 2 −1
τ 4.5 × 10−2 J
m= = = 0.36 JT−1 37. (b) Work done in rotating a magnet (from angle 0 to θ) is
B sin θ (0.25 T × sin 30° ) given by
θ
29. (c) The time period of oscillation is W = ∫0 τ dθ
6.70
T= = 0.67 s where, τ = torque and d θ = angular change.
10 θ

B=
4 π 2 I 4 × (3.14)2 × 7.5 × 10−6
= = 0.01 T
Also, τ = MBsin θ = ∫0 MB sin θ d θ
mT 2 6.7 × 10−2 × (0.67)2 θ
= MB ∫ sin θd θ = MB ( − cos θ )θ0
0
30. (a) The most stable position is θ = 0° and the most unstable
1 3
position is θ = 180°, work done is given by = MB ( − cos 120° + cos 0° ) ⇒ MB (1 + ) = MB
2 2
W = U m (θ = 180°) − U m (θ = 0° )
38. (c) In this case, work done
⇒ = 2 mB = 2 × 0.40 × 800 × 10−4 = 0.064 J
W = MB (cos θ1 − cos θ 2 )
31. (a) For unstable equilibrium m is to be anti-parallel to B. In 10 = MB (cos 0°− cos 30° ) (Q Given, W = 10 J)
this case, θ = 180°. Thus,  3 20
U = − mB cos 180° = − mB ( − 1) = mB = MB 1 −  ⇒ MB =
 2  2− 3
= (0.32 JT−1 ) (0.15 T) = 4.8 × 10−2 J
134 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Torque, τ = MBsin 30° A closed loop of static magnetic field line must enclose a
20 1 10 region across which a current is passing. By contrast,
= × = N-m electrostatic field lines can never form closed loops, neither
2− 3 2 2− 3
in empty space nor when the loop encloses charges.
39. (c) When magnetic dipole is rotated from initial position θ1 (c) Right Magnetic lines are completely confined within a
to final position θ 2 , then work done = MB (cos θ1 − cos θ 2 ) toroid. Nothing wrong here in field lines forming closed
Given, θ1 = 0° , θ 2 = 60° loops, since each loop encloses a region across which a
Magnetic moment, M = 2 × 104 JT−1 current passes. Note, for clarity of figure only a few field
lines within the toroid have been shown. Actually, the
Magnetic field, B = 6 × 10−4 T
entire region enclosed by the windings contains magnetic
 1 Qcos 0° = 1  field.
So, W = MB 1 −   
 2 and cos 60° = 1 / 2 (d) Wrong Field lines due to a solenoid at its ends and
2 × 104 × 6 × 10−4 outside cannot be so completely straight and confined;
= =6J such a thing violates Ampere’s law. The lines should
2
curve out at both ends and meet eventually to form
40. (a) Work done in rotating the dipole from θ1 to θ 2 is closed loops.
W = − MB (cos θ 2 − cos θ1 ) 46. (c) Earth’s magnetic field is of the order of 10−5 T.
Case I W1 = − MB (cos 90°− cos 0° ) = MB ...(i)
47. (a) The magnetic field is now thought to arise due to
Case II W2 = − MB (cos 60°− cos 0° ) electrical currents produced by convective motion of
1  1 metallic fluids (consisting mostly of molten iron and
= − MB  − 1 = MB ...(ii)
2  2 nickel) in the outer core of the earth.This is known as the
1 dynamo effect.
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), W2 = W1 48. (d) The pole near the geographic North-pole of the earth is
2
called the North magnetic pole. Likewise, the pole near the
As W1 = nW2
geographic South-pole is called the South magnetic pole.
∴ n=2
51. (a) Dip is the angle that the total magnetic B E of the earth
41. (a) Consider a small vector area element ∆S of a closed
makes with the surface of the earth.
surface S as shown in figure. The magnetic flux through ∆S
µ m
is defined as ∆φ B = B ⋅ ∆S where, B is the field at ∆S. 54. (b) The equatorial field is BE = 0 3
4π r
42. (d) We divide S into many small area elements and calculate
the individual flux through each. Then, the net flux φ B is BE = 0.4 G = 4 × 10−5 T
φ B = Σ ∆φ B = Σ B ⋅ ∆S = 0 4 × 10−5 × (6.4 × 106 )3
all all Dipole moment, m =
µ 0 / 4π
where, all stands for ‘all area elements ∆S’.
43. (a) According to Gauss’ law, electrostatic flux through a = 4 × 102 × (6.4 × 106 )3 (Qµ 0 / 4 π = 10−7 )

closed surface is given by, φ = ∑ E ⋅ ∆S =

q = 1.05 × 1023 Am2
ε0 H
55. (c) cos 60° = E
44. (c) Gauss’s law for magnetism is the net magnetic flux BE
through any closed surface is zero. HE 0.26
45. (d) Magnetic field BE = = = 0.52 G
cos 60° (1/ 2)
(a) Wrong Magnetic field lines can never emanate from a
point, as shown in figure over any closed surface, the net 56. (c) As θ is with B, therefore according to tangent law,
flux of B must always be zero, i. e., pictorially as many B sin θ
H = B tan θ = or B sin θ = H cos θ
field lines should seem to enter the surface, as the cos θ
number of lines leaving it. The field lines shown, in ZE ZE tan θ tan θ
fact, represent electric field of a long positively charged 57. (d) tan θ ′ = = = =
H E′ H E cos α cos α cos 30°
wire. The correct magnetic field lines are circling the
straight conductor. ⇒ tan θ = cos 30° , tan θ ′
(b) Wrong Magnetic field line as (like electric field lines) = cos 30° tan 45°
can never cross each other, because otherwise the 3
= (α = 30° , θ = 45° )
direction of field at the point of intersection is 2
ambiguous. There is further error in the figure 3
magnetostatic field lines can never form closed loops θ = tan −1
around empty space. 2
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 135

58. (c) As, we know time of vibration, 62. (b) Points of zero magnetic field i.e., neutral points lie on
I equatorial line of magnet i.e., along East and West.
t1 = 3 = 2π …(i) Z B
MR 63. (c) Angle of dip, tan δ = E or δ = V
where, R is resultant intensity of earth’s field and time of HE BH
vibration of a magnetic needle ZE ZE 1
i. e., tan δ = = =
I HE 3 ZE 3
i.e., t 2 = 3 2 = 2π ...(ii)
MH
∴ δ = 30° = π / 6 rad
On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get Z H
64. (d) Angle of dip, tan δ = E = E = 1
1 H R cosδ 1 HE HE
= = = cosδ ⇒ cosδ = ⇒ δ = 60°
2 R R 2 ∴ δ = 45°
HE 0.50 0.50 × 2 1
59. (c) At magnetic equator,V = 0 65. (c) Magnetic field BE = = = =
cos δ cos 30° 3 3
V
∴ tan φ ==0 ⇒ δ=0
H 66. (b) We know, H E = BE cos δ
i.e., value of angle of dip is zero. HE B0
∴ Magnetic field BE = = = 2 B0
60. (d) Here, 2l = 30 cm cos δ cos 45°
l = 15 cm = 0.15 m, r = 30 cm = 0.30 m 67. (b) According to magnetic field,induced at the centre of a
circular loop i.e.,
BH = 0.34 G = 0.34 × 10−4 T
µ0 i 4 π × 10−7 × i
When magnet is placed with its North-pole pointing South, B= ⇒ 7 × 10−5 =
neutral point is obtained on its axial line.
2r 2 × 5 × 10−2
Therefore, at the neutral point. ∴ Current in the circular loop
(BH = Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field) 7 × 10−5
i.e., i= = 5.6 A
Baxial = BH 4 π × 10−6
µ0 2mr
or × = BH 68. (c) Here, 2l = 20 cm, l = 10 cm, d = 40 cm
4 π ( r2 − l 2 )2
As neutral point,
4 π BH ( r2 − l 2 )2 µ0
∴ m= × H=B=
2md
µ0 2r 4 π ( d 2 − l 2 )2
1 0.34 × 10−4 × (0.302 − 0.152 )2
= × 10−7 × 2m (0.4)
10 −7
2 × 0.30 ⇒ 3.2 × 10−5 =
15 × 15 × 10−4
3.2 × 15 × 15 × 10−4 × 10−5
0.34 × 10−4 × (0.0675)2 ∴ m= =9
= = 2.582 Am2 0.8 × 10−7
10−7 × 2 × 0.30
m 2.582 and pole strength of magnet
The pole strength of the magnet, qm = = = 8.606 Am m 9
2l 0.30 i.e., qm = = = 45 A-m
2l 0.2
61. (d) At neutral point P
69. (d) At one point only, horizontal component of earth’s
N N magnetic field may balance the field due to vertical magnet
n (which is vertical being along the axis of the magnet).
s n
W E W E 70. (b) The time period of a bar magnet in a magnetic field is
given by
s
 I 
S S T = 2π  
(i) (ii)
 MB 
µ 0 2m where, I is moment of inertia of bar magnet, M is magnetic
In Fig. (ii), net magnetic induction at P = resultant of moment and B is magnetic induction.
4π d 3
When mass is made 4 times, moment of inertia I becomes
= 2BH along horizontal and BH along vertical, 4 times (as I = mr2 , I ∝ m). From the above equation of
i.e., BR = ( 2BH )2 + ( BH )2 = 5BH time period T ∝ I . So, T becomes twice as mass is
quadrupled.
136 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

71. (d) Time period in vibration magnetometer is given by 80. (c) Relative permeability of the core
I 1 µ = µ 0 µ r = µ 0 (1 + χ m ) (Qµ r = 1 + χ m )
T = 2π ⇒ T∝
M × BH BH = (4π × 10−7 Tm / A) (1 + 599)
So, for two different cases = 7.5 × 10−4 TmA −1
T ( BH )2 2 6 1 M 8.0 × 1022 Am2 8.0 × 1022 Am2
⇒ 1 = ⇒ = = [Q ( BH )2 = 24 − 18 = 6] 81. (b) I = = =
T2 ( BH )1 T2 24 2 V (4 / 3) π R 3
(4 / 3) (3.14) (6.4 × 106 m)3
∴ T2 = 4 s = 73 Am −1
72. (d) Magnetisation of a substance is given by magnetic 82. (a) When space inside the toroid is filled with air,
moment per unit volume and having unit of Am−1 . B0 = µ 0 H .
B
73. (a) Magnetic intensity is define by H = −I When filled with tungsten, we get
µ0 B = µH = µ 0 µ r H = µ 0 (1 + χ m ) H
74. (c) Magnetic susceptibility is a measure of how a magnetic Percentage increase in magnetic field
material responds to an external field. ( B − B0 ) × 100 µ 0 χ m H × 100
= = = χ m × 100
75. (a) We know, B0 µ 0H
Total magnetic field B = µ 0 ( H + I ) ... (i) = 6.8 × 10−5 × 100 = 0.0068 %
Also, I = χ H (where, χ is magnetic susceptibility) ... (ii) 83. (b) B = 1.7 × 10−5 T, H = ?
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), Horizontal component of intensity of earth is magnetic field.
B = µ 0 ( H + χH )
B 1.7 × 10−5
⇒ B = µ 0 (1 + χ ) H H= = = 13.53 Am−1
µ 0 4 π × 10−7
⇒ B = µ 0 µ r H, where µ r = (1 + χ )
or B =µH. Here, µ is the magnetic permeability of the 86. (a) Electrons in an atom orbiting around nucleus possess
substance. orbital angular momentum. These orbiting electrons are
equivalent to current-carrying loop and thus possess orbital
77. (a) (i) The field H is dependent of the material core and is magnetic moment. Diamagnetic substances are the ones in
H = nI = 1000 × 2.0 = 2 × 103 Am−1 which resultant magnetic moment in an atom is zero.
(ii) Magnetisation, M = ( B − µ 0 H ) / µ 0 87. (b) The most exotic diamagnetic material are superconductors.
So, B = µ rµ 0H 88. (c) If superconductors are cooled to very low temperature,
= 400 × 4 π × 10−7 (NA −2 ) × 2 × 103 (Am−1 ) then they exhibit both perfect conductivity and perfect
= 1.0 T diamagnetism.
I = ( B − µ 0H ) / µ 0 89. (a) The field lines are completely expelled when χ = − 1and
µ r = 0.
= (µ r µ 0 H − µ 0 H ) / µ 0
90. (b) The phenomenon of perfect diamagnetism in
= (µ r − 1) H = 399 × H = 8 × 105 Am−1
superconductors is called the Meissner effect.
78. (a) The magnetising current I m is the additional current that
91. (d) Superconducting magnets are used for running
needs to be passed through the windings of the solenoid in
magnetically levitated superfast trains.
the absence of the core which would given a B value as in
the presence of the core. 92. (b) A diamagnetic liquid moves from stronger parts of
Thus, B = µ r n0 ( I + I m ) using I = 2A , B = 1T, we get magnetic field to weaker parts. Therefore, the meniscus of
the level of solution will fall.
I m = 794 A
94. (b) Experimentally, one finds that the magnetisation of a
79. (a) Mean radius of the toroid, paramagnetic material is inversely proportional to the
(11 + 12 ) cm
R= = 11.5 cm = 11.5 × 10−2 m absolute temperature T.
2 B0
For paramagnetic materials, M = C
I = 0.70 A , B = 2.5 T, N = 3000 T
As, B = µH , H = nI 97. (d) For a paramagnetic material both χ and µ r depend not
and µ r = µ /µ 0 , B = µ r µ 0 nI only on the material, but also (in a simple fashion) on the
B B
Thus, µ r = = sample temperature. As the field is increased or the
µ 0 nI µ 0 ( N / 2 πR )I temperature is lowered, the magnetisation increases until it
reaches the saturation value M s , at which point all the
2.5 T × 2π (11.5 × 10−2 m)
= A = 685 dipoles are perfectly aligned with the field.Beyond this
(4 π × 10−7 Tm / A) (3000) × (0.70) Curie’s law is no longer valid.
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 137

98. (a) The individual atoms (or ions or molecules) in a 106. (d) The maximum dipole moment mmax is achieved when
ferromagnetic material possess a dipole moment as in a all the atomic moments are perfectly aligned.
paramagnetic material. However, they interact with one
Thus, mmax = (8.65 × 1010 ) (9.27 × 10−24 )
another in such a way that they spontaneously align
themselves in a common direction over a macroscopic = 8.0 × 10−13 Am2
volume called domain. The consequent magnetisation is
99. (b) In a ferromagnetic material the field lines are highly M max = mmax / Domain volume
concentrated. In non-uniform magnetic field, the sample = 8.0 × 10−13 Am2 / 10−18 m3
tends to move towards the region of high field.
= 8.0 × 105 Am−1
100. (b) In some ferromagnetic materials the magnetisation C
persists. Such materials are called hard magnetic materials 107. (c) According to Curie’s law, χ m =
T
or hard ferromagnets. Alnico, an alloy of iron, aluminium,
As, magnetic susceptibility
nickel, cobalt and copper, is one such material.
M m B
101. (a) The magnetic susceptibility of a material is a measure of χm = ,M = and H =
H V µ
the ease with which a specimen of that material can be
magnetised in a magnetising field. For a diamagnetic m/V C CV  B 
= or m=  
substance, magnetic susceptibility ( χ m ) is independent of B /µ T µ T 
temperature.
For a given sample, CV /µ = constant
102. (a) Ferromagnetism decreases with rise in temperature. If we m1 B /T
heat a ferromagnetic substance, then at a definite Thus, m = ( B / T ) or = 1 1
m2 B2 / T2
temperature, the ferromagnetic property of the substance
suddenly disappears and the substance becomes B1 = 0.84 T, B2 = 0.98 T
paramagnetic. The temperature above which a ferromagnetic T1 = 4.2 K, T2 = 2.8 K
substance becomes paramagnetic is called the Curie m1 0.84 / 4.2
temperature of the substance. Thus, = = 4 / 7 or m2 = ( 7/ 4 ) m1
m2 0.98 / 2.8
103. (a) Nickel exhibits ferromagnetism because of a quantum Initial total magnetic moment of the sample i.e.,
physical effect called exchange coupling in which the
electron spins of one atom interact with those of m1 = 15% of (2.0 × 1024 ) (1.5 × 10−23 JT−1 ) = 4.5 JT−1
neighbouring atoms. The result is alignment of the magnetic Thus, m2 = ( 7/ 4 ) (4.5 JT−1 ) = 7.9 JT−1 .
dipole moments of the atoms, in spite of the randomising
tendency of atomic collisions. This persistent alignment is 108. (b) R = 15 cm = 15 × 10−2 m
what gives ferromagnetic materials their permanent N = 3500, µ r = 800, I = 1.2 A.
magnetism. Clearly, n (number of turns per unit length) = N / 2πR
If the temperature of a ferromagnetic material is raised Since, magnetic field i.e., B = µH = µ r µ 0 nI,
above a certain critical value, called the Curie temperature,
the exchange coupling ceases to be effective. (as µ r = µ / µ 0 and H = nI)
−7 3500
104. (a) Magnetic susceptibility i.e., χ m 1 = 0.0075, T1 = − 73° C B = 800 ( 4 π × 10 Tm / A) × × (1.2 A)
2π (15 × 10−2 m)
T1 = ( −73 + 273 ) K = 200 K
= 4.48 T
χ m2 = ?, T2 = − 173° C = ( −173 + 273) K = 100 K C χm T ′
109. (b) As magnetic susceptibility, χ m = , =
1 χ m2 T1 200 T χ m′ T
As we know, χ m = = = = =2
T χ m 1 T2 100 or temperature of magnesium i.e.,
∴ χ m2 = 2χ m1 = 2 × 0.0075 = 0.015 χ   1.2 × 105 
T′ =  m  T =   300 = 200 K
105. (d) The volume of cubic domain is  χ m′   1.8 × 105 
V = (10−6 )3 m3 = 10−18 m3 = 10−12 cm3 110. (c) For solenoid, the magnetic field and needed to be
It’s mass = Volume × Density magnetised the magnet
= 7.9 g cm−3 × 10−12 cm3 = 7.9 × 10−12 g B = µ 0 nI
100
It is given that Avogadro’s number i.e., 6.023 × 1023 of iron ⇒ 3 × 103 = ×I ⇒ I = 3A
0.1
atoms have a mass of 55 g. Hence, the number of atoms in
the domain is 111. (b) For a diamagnetic substance, I is negative and − I × H.
7.9 × 10−12 × 6.023 × 1023 Therefore, the variation is represented by OC or OD. As
N = = 8.65 × 1010 atoms magnetisation is small. So, OC is better choice than OD.
55
138 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

112. (c) The correct measure of hardness of a material is its 127. (b) When a bar of soft iron is
coercivity; i. e., the field strength required to be applied in placed in the uniform magnetic
opposite direction to reduce the residual magnetism of the field which is parallel to it
specimen to zero. because of large permeability
of soft iron, magnetic lines of
113. (b) Liquid oxygen is paramagnetic because its atoms possess
force prefer to pass through it.
permanent magnetic dipole moment.
Concentration of lines in soft
114. (b) If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the North or iron bar increases as shown in figure.
South-pole of a bar magnet, it is feebly repelled by both the +ve
128. (a) As temperature of
poles of magnet such as antimony, copper, gold and silver. χ
ferromagnetic material is raised, its
115. (c) At Curie temperature, ferromagnetic becomes susceptibility χ remains constant
paramagnetic. first and then decreases as shown in
figure. (0, 0) T
116. (a) Substance which at room temperature retain their
ferromagnetic property for a long period of time are called 129. (d) Area of hysteresis loop is proportional to net energy
permanent magnets. absorbed per unit volume by the material, as it taken over a
complete cycle of magnetisation.
117. (a) The material should have a high permeability. Steel is
one favoured choice. It has a slightly smaller retentivity than For electromagnets and transformers energy loss should be low.
soft iron but this is outweighed by the much smaller i.e., thin hysteresis curves.
coercivity of soft iron. Other suitable materials for permanent Also B = 0,when H = 0and | H | should be small when B = 0.
magnets are alnico, cobalt, steel and ticonal. 130. (d) As µ r < 1for substance X , it must be diamagnetic and
119. (c) Core of electromagnets are made of ferromagnetic µ r > 1for substance Y , is must be paramagnetic.
materials which have high permeability and low retentivity.
131. (d) For a paramagnetic material,
Soft iron is a suitable material for electromagnets.
1
K ∝
120. (d) In certain applications, the material goes through an AC T
cycle of magnetisation for a long period. This is the case in K 2 T1 K / 2 27 + 273
transformer cores and telephone diaphragms. The hysteresis ∴ = ⇒ =
K 1 T2 K T2
curve of such materials must be narrow. The energy dissipated
and the heating will consequently be small. The material must ⇒ T2 = 600 K = 600 − 273 = 327° C
have a high resistivity to lower eddy current losses. 132. (b) Here,V = (10 × 0.5 × 0.2) cm3
121. (c) Permanent magnet should have large coercivity and large 1 cm3 = 10−6 m3
retentivity. Therefore, the hysteresis cycle of the material H = 0.5 × 104 Am−1 , M = 5 Am2 , B = ?
should be tall and wide.
Intensity of magnetisation i.e.,
122. (a) The materials for a permanent magnet should have high M 5
retentivity (so that the magnet is strong) and high coercivity I= = −6 = 5 × 106 Am
V 10
(so that the magnetisation is not wiped out by stray magnetic
fields). From B = µ 0 ( I + H )
Magnetic induction
123. (c) Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron
i.e., B = 4 π × 10−7 (5 × 106 + 0.5 × 104 ) = 6.28 T
has high permeability and low retentivity.
133. (c) In a paramagnetic material, I ∝ H. Therefore, the graph
124. (d) For diamagnetic substances, the between H and I is a straight line represented by in figure
magnetic susceptibility is negative, χ 0 T Y
and it is independent of temperature.
I
Therefore, choice (d) is correct in
figure.
O X
125. (c) Partially filled inner subshells are responsible for H
ferromagnetic behaviour of such substances. 134. (c) A compass is simply a needle shaped magnet that
B mounted so that it can rotate freely about a vertical axis.
126. (b) µ = ; when H increases B also
H When it is held in a horizontal plane, the North-pole end of
increases so µ remains constant. In B the needle points, generally, towards the geomagnetic
ferromagnetic subtance, B-H curve is not North-pole (really a South magnetic pole). Thus, true
straight line but a curve. Slope decreases on geographic North direction cannot be found by using a
H compass needle. Now, vertical plane passing through the
higher H.
magnetic axis of earth’s magnet is called magnetic meridian.
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 139

136. (a) If one looks at the magnetic field lines of the earth one 151. (d)
sees that unlike in the case of a bar magnet, the field lines go (I) The earth behaves as a magnet with the magnetic field
into the earth at the North magnetic pole ( N m ) and come out pointing approximately from the geographic South to the
from the South magnetic pole ( S m ). North.
The convention arose because the magnetic North was the (II) When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it points in the
direction to which the North-pole of a magnetic needle North-South direction. The tip which points to the
pointed; the North-pole of a magnet was so named as it was geographic North is called the North pole and the tip
the North seeking pole. which points to the geographic South is called the
Thus, in reality, the North magnetic pole behaves like the South-pole of the magnet.
South-pole of a bar magnet inside the earth and vice-versa. (III) There is a repulsive force when North poles (or
137. (b) A magnetic needle which is free to swing horizontally South-poles) of two magnets are brought close together.
would, lie in the magnetic meridian and the North-pole of Conversely there is an attractive force between the
the needle would point towards the magnetic North-pole. North-pole of one magnet and the South-pole of the
The line joining the magnetic poles is tilted with respect to other.
the geographic axis of the Earth, the magnetic meridian at a (IV) We cannot isolate the North or South-pole of a magnet.
point makes angle with the geographic meridian. If a bar magnet is broken into two halves, we get two
similar bar magnets with somewhat weaker properties.
139. (c) From the relation, susceptibility of the material is
Unlike electric charges, isolated magnetic North and
I
χm = ⇒ I = χ mH South poles known as magnetic monopoles do not exist.
H
152. (a) The magnetic field lines of the earth resemble that of a
Thus, it is obvious that greater the value of susceptibility of (hypothetical) magnetic dipole located at the centre of the
a material greater will be the value of intensity of earth. The axis of the dipole does not coincide with the axis
magnetisation i. e., more easily it can be magnetised. of rotation of the earth but is presently tilted by
146. (b) Paramagnetic substances are those which get weakly approximately 11.3° with respect to the later.
magnetised when placed in an external magnetic field. They In this way of looking at it, the magnetic poles are located,
have tendency to move from a region of weak magnetic field where the magnetic field lines due to the dipole enter or
to strong magnetic field, i. e., they get weakly attracted to a leave the earth. The location of the North magnetic pole is at
magnet. a latitude of 79.74′ ′ N and a longitude of 71.8′ ′ W, a place
147. (b) Ferromagnetic substances are those which gets strongly somewhere in North Canada. The magnetic South-pole is at
magnetised when placed in an external magnetic field. They 79.74′ ′ S, 108.22′ ′ E in the Antarctica.
have strong tendency to move from a region of weak 153. (d) Figure shows a bar of
magnetic field to strong magnetic field, i. e., they get strongly diamagnetic material placed in
attracted to a magnet. an external magnetic field. The
149. (d) field lines are repelled or
(I) The magnetic field lines of a magnet (or a solenoid) expelled and the field inside the
form continuous closed loops. This is unlike the electric material is reduced, this
dipole where these field lines begin from a positive reduction is slight, being one part in 105 . When placed in a
charge and end on the negative charge or escape to non-uniform magnetic field, the bar will tend to move from
infinity. high to low field.
(II) The tangent to the field line at a given point represents the 155. (b)
direction of the net magnetic field B at that point. Axis Axis
(III) The larger the number of field lines crossing per unit area, B I B
the stronger on the magnitude of the magnetic field B.
(IV) The magnetic field lines never intersect, for if they did
N ii ii
the direction of the magnetic field would not be unique
N
at the point of intersection.
150. (d) The difference between the Gauss’s law of magnetism
and that for electrostatic is a reflection of the fact that isolated
magnetic poles (also called monopoles) are not known to exist. S
There are no sources or sinks of B; the simplest magnetic
element is a dipole or a current loop. All magnetic phenomena
can be explained in terms of an arrangement of dipoles and/or I
i i
current loops. Thus, Gauss’s law for magnetism is (a) (b)
‘The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero.’
140 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Axis 162. (d) Some text books assign a magnetic charge (also called
E
pole strength + qm to the North-pole and − qm to the
South-pole of a bar magnet of length 2l and magnetic
ii moment qm ( 2l ).
163. (d) The field strength due to qm at a distance r from it is
given by µ 0 qm / 4 πr2 .
164. (b) The torque on the needle is
τ=m×B
i Magnitude of torque,τ = mB sin θ
(c) 165. (a) Torque on the needle
The field lines of (a) a bar magnet (b) a current-carrying τ = mBsin θ
finite solenoid and (c) electric dipole. At large distances, the Here, τ is restoring torque and θ is the angle between m
field lines are very similar. The curves labelled (i) and (ii) and B.
are closed Gaussian surfaces. d 2θ
Therefore, in equilibrium I 2 = − mB sin θ
156. (a) Since, the magnetic potential energy U m is given by, dt
U m = m ⋅ B = − mB cosθ Negative sign with mB sin θ implies that restoring torque is
A. For θ = 90°, in opposition to deflecting torque. For small values of θ in
U m = − mB cos 90° = 0 radians, we approximate sin θ ≈ θ and we get
B. For θ = 0°, d 2θ d 2θ mB
I 2 ≈ − mB θ or 2
=− θ
U m = − mB cos 0° = − mB dt dt I
The potential energy is minimum and hence the needle is This represents a simple harmonic motion.
in most stable position. 166. (d) The square of the angular frequency is ω 2 = mB / I and
C. For θ = 180°, the time period is,
U m = − mB cos180° = + mB I 4π 2I
The potential energy is maximum and hence the needle is in T = 2π or B=
mB mT 2
unstable position.
4π 2I
157. (b) The dipole analogy 167. (a) The magnitude of the magnetic field is B = .
mT 2
Electrostatic Magnetism
168. (a) An expression for magnetic potential energy can also be
1/ ε0 µ0 obtained on lines similar to electrostatic potential energy.
Dipole moment p m The magnetic potential energyU m is given by
Equatorial field for a short dipole − p / 4 πε0r 3 −µ 0 m / 4 πr 3 Um = ∫ τ (θ ) dθ = ∫ mB sin θ dθ
Axial field for a short dipole 2 p/ 4 πε0r 3
µ 0 2 m / 4 πr 3
= ( − mB cos θ ) = − m ⋅ B
External field torque p× E m ×B 169. (a) The relation between B and H in ferromagnetic
External field energy − p⋅ E − m⋅B materials is complex. It is often not linear and it depends on
the magnetic history of the sample. Figure depicts the
156. (a) Vertical component, ZE = BE sin I behaviour of the material as we take it through one cycle of
magnetisation. Let the material be unmagnetised initially.
Horizontal component, H E = BE cos I
We place it in a solenoid and increase the current through
Z
which gives tan I = E the solenoid. The magnetic field B in the material rises and
HE saturates as depicted in the curve Oa. This behaviour
160. (c) In terms of the susceptibility χ, a material is diamagnetic
represents the alignment and merger of domains until no
further enhancement is possible. It is pointless to increase
if χ is negative, para-if χ is positive and small and ferro-if the current (and hence the magnetic intensity H) beyond
χ is large and positive. this. Next, we decrease H and reduce it to zero.
Diamagnetic Paramagnetic Ferromagnetic At H = 0, B ≠ 0.
161. (b)
− 1≤ χ < 0 0< χ< ε χ >> 1 This is represented by the curve ab. The value of B at H = 0
is called retentivity or remanence. In figure, BR ~ 1.2 T,
0 ≤ µr < 1 1< µr < 1 + ε µ r >> 1
where the subscript R denotes retentivity.
µ < µ0 µ > µ0 µ >> µ 0
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 141

The domains are not completely randomised even though the (d) Frequency of oscillation of the coil
external driving field has been removed. 1 M ×B
f = ⇒ f = 0.54/s
B (Tesla) 2π I
1.5 a
b 178. (a) Given, uniform magnetic field B = 0.25 T
1.0 The magnitude of torque τ = 4.5 × 10− 2 J
0.5
–100 c
–200 O 100 200 H M
–1
– 0.5 Am B
30°
–1.0
e
d –1.5

Angle between magnetic moment and magnetic field θ = 30°.

170. (a) When the current in the solenoid is reversed and slowly
Torque experienced on a magnet placed in external magnetic
increased. Certain domains are flipped until the net field
field
inside stands nullified. This is represented by the curve bc.
τ = M× B
The value of H at c is called coercivity. In figure
τ = MB sin θ (Q A × B = AB sin θ)
H c ~ − 90 Am−1 . As the reversed current is increased in
magnitude, we once again obtain saturation. 4.5 × 10− 2 = M × 0.25 × sin 30°
171. (d) For a given value of H , B is not unique but depend on Magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet
previous history of the sample. This phenomenon is called 4.5 × 10− 2 4.5 × 10− 2 × 2  1
hysteresis. M = = Qsin 30° = 
0.25 × sin 30° 0.25 × 1  2
172. (a,b) It is clear, the direction of magnetic fields due to
= 0.36 JT −1
dipole are same at ( P1 , P2 ) and at (Q1 , Q2 )
N Thus, the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet is
P1 0.36 JT −1 .
N 179. (b) Given, magnetic moment of magnet m = 0.32 JT −1
Q2 Q1
W E The magnitude of magnetic field B = 0.15 T
S (i) For stable equilibrium, the angle between magnetic
P2 moment (m) and magnetic field (B) is θ = 0°
S (Q In this position, it will be in a direction parallel to
magnetic field thus no torque will act on it.)
174. (c,d) Field due to circular loop carrying current is
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. As, current is Q The potential energy of the magnet
anti-clockwise so, North pole lies above the loop and South U = − m⋅B
pole lies below the loop. = − mB cos θ (Q A ⋅ B = AB cos θ)
175. (a,b) (a) Magnetic moment of the coil = − 0.32 × 0.15 cos 0° = − 4.8 × 10− 2
M = nIA = 16 × 0.75 × π (0.1)2 J
Thus, for the stable equilibrium the potential energy is
= 16 × 0.75 × 3.14 × 0.1 × 0.2 = 0.377 JT−1
− 4.8 × 10− 2 J .
(b) Frequency of oscillation of the coil
(ii) For the unstable equilibrium, the angle between the
1 M ×B magnetic moment and magnetic field is 180°.
f =
2π I (In this position, it will be in a direction perpendicular to
Squaring on both the sides, we get magnetic field thus maximum torque will act on it.)
1 MB θ = 180°
f2 = ⋅ Potential energy of the magnet
4π I
U = − mB cos 180°
MB 0.377 × 5 × 10−2
⇒ I= = = − 0.32 × 0.15 (–1) = 4.8 × 10− 2 J
4 π 2 f 2 4 × 3.14 × 3.14 × 2 × 2
Thus, for the unstable equilibrium the potential energy is
⇒ I = 1.2 × 10−4 kg - m2 4.8 × 10− 2 J.
(c) Moment of inertia 180. (c) (i) Given, magnetic moment of magnet
MB 0.377 × 5 × 10−2 M = 1.5 JT−1
I= = = 5.3 × 10−5 kg -m2
4π f
2 2
4 × 3.14 × 3.14 × 3 × 3 Uniform magnetic field B = 0.22 J
142 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Angle θ1 = 0° and θ 2 = 90° According to the vector analysis,

Work done in rotating the magnet from angle θ1 to angle θ 2 B sin 90° Bnet
tan 45° =
W = − MB (cos θ 2 − cos θ1 ) B cos 90° + Be Be
= − 1.5 × 0.22 (cos 90° − cos 0° ) = 0.33 J B
1= or B = Be 45°
181. (b) Given, angle of dip δ = 22° Be 90°
Horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field −4 µ m B
H = 0.35 G 0.42 × 10 = 0 ⋅ 3
GN
4π r
MN 10− 7 × 5.25 × 10− 2
0.42 × 10− 4 =
12°
r3
5.25 × 10− 9
r3 = = 12.5 × 10− 5
GW GE 0.42 × 10− 4
r = 0.05 m or r = 5 cm
MS (ii) When point lies on axial line
GS Let the resultant magnetic field Bnet makes an angle 45°
Let the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is R. from Be .
Using the formula, H = R cos δ The magnetic field on the axial line of the magnet at a
distance of r from the centre of magnet
H 0.35 0.35
or R= = = = 0.38 G µ 2m
cos δ cos 22° 0.9272 B′ = 0 ⋅ 3 (S to N)
4π r
Thus, the value of the earth’s magnetic field at that place is Bnet
0.38 G. Be

182. (c) Given, angle of declination, θ = 12° West 45°

S O N
Angle of dip δ = 60°
P B′
Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field r
H = 0.16 G Direction of magnetic field is from S to N.
Let the magnitude of earth’s magnetic field at that place is According to the vector analysis,
R. B ′ sin 90°
tan 45° = Be
Using the formula, H = R cos δ B ′ cos 90° + Be Bnet
−H 0.16 0.16 × 2 B′ 45°
R= = = 1=
cos δ cos 60° 1 Be 90°
= 0.32 G = 0.32 × 10−4 T or Be = B ′ B′
µ 2m
The earth magnetic field lies in a vertical plane 12° West of ⇒ 0.42 × 10− 4 = 0 × 3
geographical meridian at an angle 60° above the horizontal. 4π r
−4 10− 7 × 2 × 5.25 × 10− 2
183. (a) (i) At normal bisector ⇒ 0.42 × 10 =
Let r is the distance between axial line and point P. r3
−9
10 × 2 × 5.25
The magnetic field at point P, due to a short magnet ⇒ r3 = = 2.5 × 10− 5
µ m 0.42 × 10− 4
B= 0⋅ 3 …(i)
4π r r = 0.063 m or 6.3 cm
Bnet Be (Magnetic field) 184. (a) Given, number of turns in the coil n = 30
45° Current in the coil I = 0.35 A
Radius of circular coil = 12 cm = 0.12 m
P
B Let N-S be the line of magnetic N
meridian, the coil is placed at an angle C1
of 45° with the magnetic meridian. C1 45°
and C 2 be the plane of coil. The W E
r needle points West to East. The 45°
magnetic field produced due to the B
S O N coil is B. The direction of B is along C2
S
the axis of coil i.e., it makes an angle
The direction of B is along PA, i.e., along N-pole to
of 45° with East. The needle points West to East only if the
S-pole.
direction of magnetic field B is at 45° from East.
 CHAPTER 5 : Magnetism and Matter 143

Use the formula, magnetic field produced by a current It contradicts for magnetic field, because there is a magnetic
carrying coil field inside the solenoid and no field outside the solenoid
µ 2πI 10− 7 × 2 × 3.14 × 0.35 × 30 carrying current but the magnetic field lines form the closed
B= 0⋅ = path.
4π r 0.12
= 1.83 × 10− 6 × 30 = 5.49 × 10− 5 T 189. (b) As Curie law explains, we can deduce a formula for the
relation between magnetic field induction, temperature and
Restoring torque due to H = MH sin 90° = MH
magnetisation.
Deflecting torque due to B B (magnetic field induction)
= MB sin 45° = MB sin 45° i.e., I (magnetisation) ∝
t (temperature in kelvin)
So MH = MB sin 45°
I 2 B2 t
The horizontal component of magnetic field ⇒ = × 1
1 I1 B1 t2
H = B sin 45° = 5.49 × 10− 5 × = 3.9 × 10− 5 T
2 Let us suppose, here I1 = 8 Am–1
185. (c) In case of toroid, the magnetic field is only confined B1 = 0.6 T, t1 = 4 K
inside the body of toroid in the form of concentric magnetic B2 = 0.2 T , t 2 = 16 K
lines of force and there is no magnetic field outside the body
I2 = ?
of toroid. This is because the loop encloses no current. Thus,
0.2 4 I 2 1 2
the magnetic moment of toroid is zero. ⇒ × = ⇒ I2 = 8 × = Am–1
In general, if we take r as a large distance outside the toroid, 0.6 16 8 12 3
1 190. (a,d) Magnetic field lines for magnetic induction ( B ) form
then m ∝ 3 . But this case is not possible here.
r continuous lines. So, lines of B are necessarily continuous
186. (a) For the earth's magnetism, the magnetic field lines of the across S.
earth resemble that of a hypothetical magnetic dipole located Also, magnetic intensity ( H ) varies for inside and outside
at the centre of the earth. the jump. So, lines of H cannot all be continuous across S.
The axis of the dipole does not coincide with the axis of 191. (a,d) The primary origin of magnetism lies in the fact that
rotation of the earth but is presently tilted by approxmately the electrons are revolving and spinning about nucleus of an
11.3° with respect to the later. This results into two atom, which gives rise to current called atomic current.
situations as given in the figure ahead.
This atomic currents gives rise to magnetism. The revolving
N N and spinning about nucleus of an atom is called intrinsic
spin of electron.
.3°
11

S S
.3

11

192. (a,d) Here, for solenoid H = nI .

°

W E W E
N ⇒ H = 1000 × 1= 1000 Am
N
Thus, H is a constant, so it is nearly unchanged.
S S
But B = µ 0 µ r n I = µ 0 n I µ r = k (constant) µ r .
Hence, the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E. Thus, from above equation, we find that B varies with the
187. (d) As we know a permanent magnet is a substance which at variation in µ r .
room temperature retain ferromagnetic property for a long Now, for magnetisation in the core, when temperature of the
period of time. iron core of solenoid is raised beyond Curie temperature,
The individual atoms in a ferromagnetic material possess a then it behave as paramagnetic material, where
dipole moment as in a paramagnetic material. and ( χ m ) Fero ≈ 103 and ( χ m ) Para ≈ 10−5
However, they interact with one another in such a way that
( χ m ) Fero 103
they spontaneously align themselves in a common direction ⇒ = = 108
over a macroscopic volume called domain. Thus, we can say ( χ m) Para 10−5
that in a permanent magnet at room temperature, domains
are all perfectly aligned. 193. (a,c,d) Electrostatic shielding is the phenomenon to block
q the effects of an electric field. The conducting shell can
188. (b) As Gauss’ law states, ∫ E ⋅ d S = for electrostatic block the effects of an external field on its internal content
S ε0
or the effect of an internal field on the outside environment.
field. It does not contradict for electrostatic fields as the Magnetostatic shielding is done by using an enclosure made
electric field lines do not form continuous closed path. of a high permeability magnetic material to prevent a static
According to Gauss’ law in magnetic field, magnetic field outside the enclosure from reaching objects
∫ E⋅ d S = 0
S
inside it or to confine a magnetic field within the enclosure.
 C H A P T E R

6
Electromagnetic
Induction
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Magnetic flux linked with any surface is equal to total 5. Lenz’s Law The direction of induced emf or
number of magnetic lines of force passing normally induced current is such that it always opposes the
through it. It is a scalar quantity. Suppose, we consider cause that produces it.
small area dA in field B, then If induced current is produced in a coil rotating in a
φ = ∫ B ⋅ dA uniform magnetic field, then
NBA ω sin ω t
Magnetic flux is a scalar quantity having SI unit Wb/m 2 I= = I 0 sin ωt
R
(Tesla) and its dimensional formula is [ML2 T −2 A −1 ].
where, N = number of turns in the coil,
2. The phenomenon of generation of current or emf by
ω = angular frequency
changing the magnetic flux is known as
Electromagnetic Induction (EMI). 6. Motional emf The potential difference induced in
a conductor of length l moving with velocity v, in a
3. Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction
direction perpendicular to magnetic field B is given
First Law Whenever magnetic flux linked with the closed by
loop or circuit changes, an emf is induced in the loop or
ε = ∫ ( v × B) ⋅ d l = vB l
circuit which lasts so long as change in flux continuous.
7. The induced emf developed between two ends of
Second Law The induced emf in a closed loop or
conductor of length l rotating about one end with
circuit is directly proportional to the rate of change of
angular velocity ω in a direction perpendicular to
magnetic flux linked with the closed loop or circuit
( −) ∆ φ ∆φ Bω l 2
i.e., e∝ ⇒ e= −N magnetic field is given by, ε =
∆t ∆t 2
[Proportionality constant is 1] 8. Eddy currents are induced in solid metallic
sheets/cylinders, when magnetic flux linked with
where, N = number of turns in loop and φ is flux linked
them changes. Direction of eddy currents can be
with each turn. Negative sign indicates the direction of
given by Lenz’s law or by Fleming right hand rule.
current induced.
9. Inductance is the ratio of the flux linkage and
4. If N is the number of turns and R is the resistance of a current.
coil. The magnetic flux linked with its each turn
changes by ∆φ in short time interval ∆t, then induced 10. Mutual Induction The phenomenon of generation
of induced emf in secondary coil when current
current flowing through the coil is
linked with primary coil changes.
∆φ 
= − N
|e | 1
I=  N 2 φ2 = MI1
R R  ∆t 
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 145

where, N 2 φ 2 = flux linked with secondary coil 11. Self-Induction The phenomenon of production of
I1 = current in primary coil induced emf in a coil, when a current passes through
it, undergoes a change.
− MdI1
Also, e2 = Q Total flux linked with coil, N φ ∝ I and N φ = LI
dt
dI
SI unit of mutual inductance (M ) is Henry (H). Also, induced emf, e = − L
dt
Mutual inductance (M ) of a pair of closely wound SI unit of self-inductance (L) is Henry (H).
solenoids, µN 2 A
µ NN A Coefficient of self-inductance L =
M = 0 1 2 l
l
where, N = number of turns, A = area of solenoid
where, N1 and N 2 = number of turns in primary and and l = length of solenoid.
secondary solenoids,
12. In an AC generator mechanical energy is converted
A = area of solenoid to electrical energy by virtue of electromagnetic
and l = length of solenoid induction.

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
The Experiments of Faraday and Henry : Magnetic Flux
1. The experiments of Michael Faraday in England and 5. Which scientist demonstrated that electric currents
Joseph Henry in USA conducted around 1830, were induced in closed coils when subjected to
demonstrated conclusively that changing magnetic changing magnetic fields?
fields, induced the electric currents in (a) Faraday (b) Maxwell
(a) open coils (b) closed coils (c) Hertz (d) Marconi
(c) generator (d) dynamo 6. Moving magnet produces
2. The phenomenon in which electric current is generated (a) electric current in closed coil
by varying magnetic fields is appropriately called (b) static magnetic field
(a) electromagnetic wave (c) static electric field
(b) electromagnetic flux (d) displacement of insulator
(c) electromagnetic induction
(d) displacement of insulator 7. The discovery and understanding of electromagnetic
induction are based on a long series of experiments
3. The pioneering experiments of Faraday and Henry carried out by
have led directly to the development of modern day’s (a) Faraday
(a) generator (b) Henry
(b) transformer
(c) Maxwell
(c) dynamo
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
8. When the north pole of a bar magnet is pushed
4. Which of the following phenomena is utilised in the
towards the coil along axis of coil, the pointer in the
functioning of mouth piece of a telephone
galvanometer deflects, this is indicating the
now-a-days?
(a) Thermoelectric effect (a) absence of current in the coil
(b) Photoelectric effect (b) presence of current in the coil
(c) Change of resistance with pressure (c) induction in the coil
(d) Electromagnetic induction (d) Both (b) and (c)
146 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

9. In which direction will the galvanometer deflection 13. Magnetic flux through a plane of area A placed in a
be, when the magnet is pulled away from the coil? uniform magnetic field B (as shown in figure) can be
(Given deflection was towards a when magnet was written as
pushed towards coil)

N S B
θ
A
a
b G

(a) towards a
(b) no deflection (a) φB =B×A
(c) towards b (b) φB =B×A
(d) indicator oscillates between a and b (c) φB = B⋅A
10. Current in the coil is larger (d) φB = B ⋅A
14. If the magnetic field has different magnitudes and
directions at various parts of a surface as shown in
N S
given figure, then the magnetic flux through the
surface is given by
dAi
G Bi

(a) when the magnet is pushed towards the coil faster

(b) when the magnet is pulled away the coil faster
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
11. What will happen with the galvanometer when the
tapping key K is pressed? (a) ∑ Bi ⋅ dA i (b) ∑ Bi × ( dA i )2
all all
C1
C2 (c) ∑ B i × dA i (d) ∑ B i ⋅ dA i
all all

15. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface,

kept in a magnetic field is
µ0
(a) zero (b)
4π
K 4 µ0
G (c) 4 πµ 0 (d)
π
(a) A momentary deflection (b) A long time deflection 16. A square of side a metre lies in the YZ-plane in a
(c) No deflection (d) None of these region, where the magnetic field is given
B = B 0 (3$i + 3$j − 4k$ ) T, where B 0 is constant. The
12. When the key K is released, the current in C 2 and the
magnitude of flux passing through the square is
resulting magnetic field
C1 (a) 2B0 a 2 Wb (b) 5 B0 a 2 Wb
C2
(c) 3B0 a 2 Wb (d) 4 B0 a 2 Wb

17. A circular disc of radius 0.2 m is placed in a uniform

1  Wb 
G magnetic field of induction   in such a way
K π  m2 
that its axis makes an angle of 60° with B. The
(a) increase from zero to maximum value
(b) first increase, then decrease magnetic flux linked with the disc is
(c) remain same (a) 0.02 Wb (b) 0.06 Wb
(d) maximum value to zero (c) 0.08 Wb (d) 0.01 Wb
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 147

18. A circular loop of radius R carrying current I lies in 20. A coil is suspended in a uniform magnetic field with
XY -plane with its centre at origin. The total magnetic the plane of the coil parallel to the magnetic lines of
flux through XY -plane is force. When a current is passed through the coil. It
(a) directly proportional to R starts oscillating. It is very difficult to stop. But if an
(b) directly proportional to I aluminium plate is placed near to the coil, it stop.
(c) inversely proportional to I This is due to [AIEEE 2012]
(d) zero (a) development of air current when the plate is placed
(b) induction of electrical change on the plate
19. At a given place, horizontal and vertical components
(c) shielding of magnetic lines of force as aluminium is a
of earth’s magnetic fields B H and BV are along X and paramagnetic material
Y-axes, respectively as shown in the figure. What is (d) electromagnetic induction is the aluminium plate giving
the total flux of earth’s magnetic field associated with rise to electromagnetic damping
an area S, if the area S is in the XY -plane?
21. A circular coil of diameter 21 cm is placed in a
magnetic field of induction 10 −4 T. The magnitude of
Y

BV flux linked with coil when the plane of coil makes an

angle 30° with the field is
X (a) 1.44 × 10−6 Wb
BH
(b) 1.732 × 10−6 Wb
Z (c) 3.1 × 10−6 Wb
(d) 4.2 × 10−6 Wb
(a) 0 (b) BH S (c) BV S (d) ( BH + B V )S

Topic 2
Faraday’s Law of Induction
22. An ......... is induced in a coil when magnetic flux 26. A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns and
through the coil changes with time. resistance 2 Ω is placed with its plane perpendicular
(a) electric current (b) emf to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) field. It is rotated about its vertical diameter through
180° in 0.25 s. Find the magnitude of the emf induced
23. The time rate of change of magnetic flux through a
in the coil. Horizontal component of the earth’s
circuit induces ......... in circuit.
(a) electric current (b) change in mass magnetic field at the place is 3.0 × 10 −5 T.
(c) change of size (d) emf (a) 3 × 103 V (b) 3.8 × 10−3 mV
(c) 3.8 × 103 mV (d) 3.8 × 10−3 V
24. The magnitude of the induced emf in a circuit is equal
to the time rate of change of magnetic flux through 27. A square loop of wire, side length 10 cm is placed at
the circuit, is statement of angle of 45° with a magnetic field that changes
(a) Fleming’s right hand rule uniformly from 0.1 T to zero in 0.7 s. The induced
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule current in the loop (its resistance is 1Ω) is
(c) Newton’s third law (a) 1.0 mA (b) 2.5 mA (c) 3.5 mA (d) 4.0 mA
(d) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction 28. Flux (φ ) (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance
25. A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.5 Ω is 20 Ω varies with time t (in second) according to
equation φ = 6t 2 − 5 t + 1 . The magnitude of the
placed vertically in the east-west plane. A uniform induced current at t = 0.25 s, is
magnetic field of 0.10 T is set-up across the plane in (a) 1.2 A (b) 0.8 A (c) 0.6 A (d) 0.1 A
the north-east direction. The magnetic field is
decreased to zero in 0.70 s at a steady rate. The 29. A coil of resistance 400 Ω is placed in a magnetic
magnitudes of induced emf and current during this field. If the magnetic flux φ (Wb) linked with the coil
time interval are varies with time t(s ) as φ = 50t 2 + 4. Current at 2 s is
(a) 0.1 mV, 2A (b) 1 mV, 2 mA [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(c) 1 V, 2 A (d) 1 mV, 0.2 A (a) 0.5 A (b) 0.1 A (c) 2 A (d) 1 A
148 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

30. The flux linked with a circuit is given by 37. Which of the following is the fundamental
φ = t 3 + 3 t − 7. The graph between time (X-axis) and significance of the Faraday’s discovery?
induced emf (Y-axis) will be a (a) A changing magnetic field can exert a force on the
stationary charge
(a) straight line through the origin
(b) A changing magnetic field can exert a force on the
(b) straight line with positive intercept neutral particle
(c) straight line with negative intercept (c) A constant magnetic field can exert a force on the
(d) parabola not through the origin stationary charge
(d) A constant magnetic field can exert a force on the
31. Wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. neutral particle
The frequency of change of direction of the induced
emf is [NEET 2013] 38. A coil has 1000 turns and 500 cm 2 as its area. The
(a) once per revolution plane of the coil is placed at right angle to a magnetic
(b) twice per revolution induction field of 2 × 10 −5 Wbm −2 . The coil is rotated
(c) four times per revolution through 180° in 0.2 s. The average emf induced in the
(d) six times per revolution coil (in mV) is
32. The magnetic flux linked with the coil varies with (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
time as φ = 3 t + 4t + 9. The magnitude of the
2
39. A 50 turns circular coil has a radius of 3 cm, it is kept
induced emf at 2s is in a magnetic field acting normal to the area of the
(a) 9 V (b) 16 V coil. The magnetic field B increased from 0.10 T to
(c) 3 V (d) 4 V 0.35 T in 2 ms −1 . The average induced emf in the
33. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated about its
coil is
(a) 1.77 V (b) 17.7 V (c) 177 V (d) 0.177 V
centre with 20 rev/ s in a uniform magnetic field of
0.1 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. The 40. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region
emf induced across the radius of the disc is of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a
π dB
(a) V rate . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r
20 dt
π and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of
(b) V
10 magnetic field as shown in the figure. Then the emf
(c) 20π mV generated is [NEET 2016]
(d) None of these
××××××××××
34. A varying magnetic flux linking a coil is given by ××××××××××
××××××××××
φ = xt 2 . If at time t = 3 s, the emf induced is 9 V, then ×××××××××× R
××××××××××
the value of x is ××××××××××
× × ×1× × × × × × ×
(a) 0.66 Wbs −2 ××××× R×××××
2
(b) 1.5 Wbs −2
(c) – 0.66 Wbs −2 (a) zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
(d) None of these −dB 2 −dB 2
(b) πr in loop 1 and πr in loop 2
dt dt
35. A small piece of metal wire is dragged across the gap
−dB
between the poles of a magnet in 0.4 s. If change in (c) πR 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
magnetic flux in the wire is 8 × 10 −4 Wb, then emf −dB 2
induced in the wire is (d) πr in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
(a) 8 × 10−3 V (b) 6 × 10−3 V
(c) 4 × 10−3 V (d) 2 × 10−3 V
41. If a coil of 40 turns and area 4.0 cm 2 is suddenly
removed from a magnetic field, it is observed that a
36. A coil having 500 turns of square shape each of side charge of 2.0 × 10 −4 C flows into the coil. If the
10 cm is placed normal to a magnetic field, which is resistance of the coil is 80 Ω, then magnetic flux
increasing at 1Ts −1 . The induced emf is density (in Wbm −2 ) is
(a) 0.1 V (b) 0.5 V (a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(c) 1 V (d) − 5 V (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
Topic 3
Lenz’s Law and Conservation of Energy
42. The polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to 47. In the given situation, the bar magnet experiences a
produce a current which opposes the change in ......... force due to the ......... in coil.
magnetic flux that produced it, is statement of
(a) Faraday’s law (b) Lenz’s law
(c) Fleming’s right hand rule (d) Fleming’s left hand rule
43. What will happen, if an open circuit is used in place of
N
the closed loop (in figure below CD is open circuit)?
(a) an attractive, air
(b) an attractive, induced current
(c) repulsive, induced current
N S (d) attractive, vacuum

D 48. A closed loop moves normal to the constant electric

C field between the plates of a large capacitor. Is the
current induced in the loop when it is wholly inside
(a) emf is induced across the open ends with C positive
the region between the capacitor plates?
(b) emf is not induced across the open ends of the circuit
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) emf is induced across ends with C negative
(c) May be possible (d) May not be possible
(d) emf is induced with both C, D positive and
mid-point negative 49. In the above question, is a current induced in the
a loop, when it is partially outside the plates of the
44. An electron moves on a
capacitor?
straight line path XY as
(a) Yes (b) No
shown. The abcd is a coil b d
(c) May be possible (d) May not be possible
adjacent in the path of
electron. What will be the 50. A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out
c
direction of current, if any X Y of a uniform magnetic field region in the given figure
induced in the coil? to a field free region with a constant velocity v. In
(a) abcd which loop do you expect the induced emf to be
(b) adcb constant during the passage out of the field region?
(c) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes
past the coil
v v
(d) No current induced
45. Suppose that the induced
current was in the direction (a) Rectangular loop (b) Circular loop
opposite to the one depicted in (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
the given figure. In this case,
the ......... pole due to the N 51. Predict the polarity of the capacitor in the situation
induced current will face the described by in the given figures.
approaching ......... pole of the magnet. A
(a) North, North (b) South, South B
(c) North, South (d) South, North S N S N

46. In the physical situation of previous question will the

bar magnet, then be attracted towards the coil at an (a) Plate A will be positive
ever increasing acceleration? (b) Plate B will be positive
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Plate A will be negative
(c) May be possible (d) Never possible (d) Plate B will be negative
150 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

52. A magnet N-S is suspended from a spring 56. According to Lenz’s law of electromagnetic
and when it oscillates, the magnet moves induction,
in and out of the coil C. Then, as magnet (a) the induced emf is not in the direction opposing the
oscillates change in magnetic flux
(a) G shows no deflection but the amplitude N (b) the relative motion between the coil and magnet
steadily decreases S produces change in magnetic flux
(b) G shows deflection to the left and right C G (c) only the magnet should be moved towards coil
(c) G shows deflection to the left and right (d) only the coil should be moved towards magnet
with constant amplitude
(d) G shows deflection on one side field 57. There is a uniform magnetic field directed
perpendicular and into the plane of the paper. An
53. The magnet in figure rotates as shown on a pivot irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly
through its centre. At the instant shown, what are the changing into a circular loop in the plane of the
directions of the induced current? paper. Then,
S (a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise
direction
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction
(c) AC is induced in the loop
A B C D (d) no current is induced in the loop
N
58. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an
(a) A to B and C to D (b) B to A and C to D uniform magnetic field B directed along positive
(c) A to B and D to C (d) B to A and D to C Z-axis. This direction of induced current as seen from
54. The north pole of a bar magnet is moved towards the Z-axis will be
a coil along the axis passing through the centre of (a) clockwise of the positive Z-axis
the coil and perpendicular to the plane of the coil. (b) anti-clockwise of the positive Z-axis
The direction of the induced current in the coil (c) zero, no current is induced
when viewed in the direction of the motion of the (d) along the magnetic field
magnet is 59. An electron moves along the line
(a) clockwise PQ which lies in the same plane
(b) anti-clockwise as a circular loop of conducting
(c) no current in the coil wire as shown in figure. What Loop
(d) Either clockwise or anti-clockwise will be the direction of the P e– Q
induced current in the loop?
55. The north pole of a magnet is falling on a metallic
(a) Anti-clockwise
ring as shown in the figure. The direction of induced
(b) Clockwise
current, if looked from upside in the ring will be
(c) Alternating
S (d) Non-current will be induced
60. Near a circular loop of conducting
N wire as shown in the figure an
electron moves along a straight line.
The direction of the induced current,
(a) clockwise or anti-clockwise depending on metal of the if any in the loop is
ring (a) variable
e
(b) no induced current (b) clockwise
(c) anti-clockwise (c) anti-clockwise
(d) clockwise (d) zero
Topic 4
Motional Electromotive Force and Eddy Current
61. A conducting rod of length L is moving in a transverse 67. A metallic rod of 1 m length is rotated with a
magnetic field of strength B with velocity v. The frequency of 50 rev/s, with one end hinged at the
resistance of the rod is R. The current in the rod is centre and other end at the circumference of a circular
BLv B 2 v2 L2 metallic rings of radius of 1 m, about an axis passing
(a) (b) BLv (c) zero (d)
R R through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of
the ring (given figure). A constant and uniform
62. The magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at a place magnetic field of 1 T parallel to the axis is present
is B 0 and the angle of dip is δ. A horizontal conductor everywhere. What is the emf between the centre and
of length L lying in magnetic north-south moves the metallic ring?
Eastwards with a velocity v. The emf induced across
the conductor is
Q
(a) zero (b) B0 Lv sin δ
(c) B0 Lv (d) None of these R
ω
63. A simple pendulum with bob of mass m and θ=ωt
conducting wire of length L swings under gravity O P
through an angle θ. The earth’s magnetic field
component in the direction perpendicular to swing is
B. Maximum potential difference induced across the
pendulum is
θ
L
(a) 147 V (b) 157 V (c) 140 V (d) 164 V
68. A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5 m long is
rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane normal
h to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
H E at a place. If H E = 0.4 G at the place, what is the
θ  θ induced emf between the axle and the rim of the
(a) 2BL sin ( gL )1 / 2 (b) BL sin   ( gL )
2  2 wheel? (Take,1G = 10 −4 T)
 θ  θ (a) 6.28 × 10−5 V
(c) BL sin   ( gL )3 / 2 (d) BL sin   ( gL )2
 2  2 (b) 62.8 × 10−5 V
64. Energy associated with a moving charge in space with (c) 0.628 × 10−5 V
electric and magnetic fields is due to (d) 62.8 × 10−5 mV
(a) electric field (b) magnetic field
69. A horizontal rod of length L rotates about a vertical
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
axis with a uniform angular velocity ω. A uniform
65. A horizontal straight wire 20 m long extending from magnetic field B exists parallel to axis of rotation.
east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0 ms −1 at right Then, potential difference between the two ends of
angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s the rod is
ω
magnetic field 0.30 × 10 −4 Wbm −2 . The
instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire
will be
(a) 6.0 mV (b) 3 mV (c) 4.5 mV (d) 1.5 mV
L
66. A metal conductor of length 1m rotates vertically
about one of its ends at angular velocity 5 rad/s. If the
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is
0.2 × 10 −4 T, then the emf developed between the (a) ωL2 B (b) ω 2 LB
ends of the conductor is 1 1
(c) ωL2 B (d) ω 2 LB
(a) 5 µV (b) 5 mV (c) 50 µV (d) 50 mV 2 2
152 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

70. A helicopter rises vertically with a speed of 100 ms −1 . 76. A metal disc of radius 100 cm is rotated at a constant
If helicopter has length 10 m and horizontal angular speed of 60 rads −1 in a plane at right angles to
component of earth’s magnetic field is an external field of magnetic induction 0.05 Wbm −2 .
5 × 10 −3 Wbm −2 , then the induced emf between the The emf induced between the centre and a point on
tip of nose and tail of helicopter is the rim will be
(a) 50 V (b) 0.5 V (a) 3 V (b) 1.5 V (c) 6 V (d) 9 V
(c) 5 V (d) 25 V 77. A copper rod of length L rotates at an angular velocity
71. 2 m long wire is moved with a velocity 1 ms −1 in a ω in a uniform magnetic field B as shown. What is the
−2 induced emf across the ends?
magnetic field of intensity 0.5 Wbm in direction
perpendicular to the field. The emf induced will be
B
(a) 2 V (b) 1 V (c) 0.1 V (d) 0.5 V
dL
72. A thin semicircular conducting ring ( PQR ) of radius r
is falling with its plane vertical in a horzontal ω L
magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential A
difference developed across the ring when its speed is
v, is [CBSE AIPMT 2014] 1 1 1 1
(a) ωBL2 (b) ωBL2 (c) ωBL3 (d) ωBL2
2 3 2 4
× × × ×
B 78. An ∠AOB made of a conducting wire moves along its
× × Q × × bisector through a magnetic field B as suggested by
figure. Find the emf induced between the two free
r
× × × × ends if the magnetic field is perpendicular to the
P R plane of the paper.
(a) zero
A
(b) Bvπ 2 / 2 and P is at higher potential
l
(c) πrBv and R is at higher potential θ
O v
(d) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
73. Two parallel rails of a railway track insulated from B
each other and with the ground are connected to a
millivoltmeter. The distance between the rails is 1 m. (a) Bl sin (θ / 2 ) (b) Bv sin (θ / 2 )
A train is travelling with a velocity of 72 kmh −1 along (c) 2 Blv sin (θ / 2 ) (d) Blv sin (θ / 4 )
the track. The reading of the millivoltmeter (in mV) is
79. Figure shows a conducting rod PQ in contact with
(vertical component of the earth’s magnetic induction
is 2 × 10 −5 T) metal rails RP and SQ, which are 25 cm apart in a
uniform field of flux density 0.4 T acting
(a) 1.44 (b) 0.72 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.2
perpendicular to the plane of the paper. Ends R and S
74. A wire of length 50 cm moves with a velocity of are connected through a 5 Ω resistance. What is the
300 m-min −1 , perpendicular to a magnetic field. If the magnitude and the direction of the current through the
emf induced in the wire is 2V, the magnitude of the 5 Ω resister when the rod moves to the right with a
field (in tesla) is velocity of 5 ms −1 ?
(a) 2 (b) 5
P
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.8 R
75. A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from B = 0.4 T v = 5 ms – 1
east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0 ms −1 , at
5Ω 25 cm
right angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field of strength 0.30 × 10 −4 Wbm −2 . The
instantaneous value of the induced potential gradient
in the wire from west to east is S Q
−3 −1 −3 −1
(a) + 1.5 × 10 Vm (b) − 1.5 × 10 Vm
(c) + 1.5 × 10−4 Vm−1 (d) − 1.5 × 10−4 Vm−1 (a) 0. 1 A from R to S (b) 0.1 A from S to R
(c) 0.5 A from R to S (d) 0.5 A from S to R
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 153

80. Refer to figure, the arm PQ of the rectangular 84. A copper plate is allowed to swing like a simple
conductor is moved from x = 0, outwards. The pendulum between the pole pieces of a strong magnet
uniform magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane (as shown in figure). It is found that the motion is ....
and extends from x = 0 to x = b and is zero for x > b. and in a little while the plate comes to halt in the
Only the arm PQ possesses substantial resistance r. magnetic field. We can explain this phenomenon on
Consider the situation when the arm PQ is pulled the basis of …. .
outwards from x = 0 to x = 2b and is then moved back
Pivot
to x = 0 with constant speed v. Obtain expressions for
the flux and the induced emf.
S Copper plate
K L
I
S
P
I
l v N
Q
R
M
x=0 x=b x=2b
(a) damped, induced current
(a) Blx , − Blv; 0 ≤ x < b (b) 2 Bl , − 2Bl (b) accelerated, induced current
(c) Blb , 0, b ≤ x < 2b (d) Both (a) and (c) (c) accelerated, electromagnetic induction
(d) damped, Gauss’ law
81. In the above question, find the force necessary (x = 0
85. Which part in the figure is allowed to swing like a
to x = b motion, x = b to x = 2b motion) to pull the arm
simple pendulum between the pole pieces of a strong
and the power dissipated as joule heat.
magnet to induce eddy currents in it?
B 2l 2v B 2 l 2 v2
(a) Force , 0; Power ,0
r r Pivot
B 2 l 2 v2 B 2 l 2 v2 B 2 lv B 2 l 2 v
(b) Force , ; Power ,
r r r 2r
B lv B 2 l 2 v 2 B 2l 2v B 2l 2 S
(c) Force , ; Power , z I
2v 2r 4r 4r
I
B lv B lv B 2 l 2 v2 B 2 l 2 v2 N
(d) Force , ; Power ,
4 r 2r 4r 4r
82. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm with a cut
is stationary between the pole pieces of an
electromagnet. The magnetic field of the magnet is (a) Copper plate (b) Rubber piece
normal to the loop. The current feeding the (c) Wooden piece (d) Plastic sheet
electromagnet is reduced so that the field is decreased
from its initial value of 0.3 T at the rate of 0.02 Ts −1 . 86. The retarding force due to the eddy current inhibits
If the cut is joined and the loop has a resistance of the motion of the magnet. This phenomenon is called
2.0 Ω, the power dissipated by the loop as heat is (a) electromagnetic furnace
(a) 5 nW (b) 4 nW (c) 3 nW (d) 2 nW (b) electromagnetic damping
(c) Both (a) and (b)
83. A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 2 cm with a (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
small cut is moving out of a region of uniform magnetic
field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the loop. 87. Eddy currents are generated in
Suppose the loop is stationary but the current feeding (a) insulator (b) conductor
the electromagnet that produces the magnetic field is (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
gradually reduced so that the field decreases from its 88. The shining disc in analogue type electric power
initial value of 0.3 T at the rate of 0.02 T/s. If the cut meter rotates due to
is joined and the loop has a resistance of 1.6 Ω, how (a) continuously decreasing current
much power is dissipated by the loop as heat? (b) motor fitted inside
(a) 6.4 × 1010 W (b) 0.64 × 1010 W (c) continuously increasing current
(c) 64 × 1010 W (d) 6.4 × 10−10 W (d) eddy current
Topic 5
Inductance and AC Generator
89. An electric current can be induced in a coil by flux 96. There are two identical coils A and B parallel placed
change produced by another coil in its vicinity or flux along common axis, separated by some distance. If a
change produced by the same coil. In both cases, the current of 2A flows through A, a magnetic flux of
flux through a coil is 10 −2 Wb passes through B (no current through B). If
(a) proportional to the square of current no current passes through A and a current of 1 A
(b) inversely proportional to the square of current passes through B, what is the flux through A?
(c) proportional to the current
(d) inversely proportional to the current (a) 5 × 10−3 Wb (b) 0.5 × 10−3 Wb
(c) 50 ×10−3 Wb (d) 00.5 × 10−3 Wb
90. If the geometry of the coil does not vary with time, then
dφ B dI 97. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual
(a) ∝ (b) dφ B ∝ dI
dt dt inductance of the pair of coils depends upon
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) (a) the rates at which currents are changing in the
two coils
91. Choose the correct option. (b) relative position and orientation of the two coils
(a) For a closely wound coil of N -turns, the magnetic flux (c) the materials of the wires of the coils
linked with all turns is same
(d) the currents in the two coils
(b) When the flux φ B through the coil changes, each turn
contributes to the induced emf 98. Two concentric circular coils, one of small radius r1
(c) Both (a) and (b) and the other of large radius r2 , such that r1 << r2 , are
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) placed coaxially with centres coinciding. Obtain the
92. Inductance depends on the mutual inductance of the arrangement.
(a) geometry of the coil (b) intrinsic material properties µ 0 πr12 µ 0 πr22 µ 0 πr22 µ 0 πr12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) 2r2 2r1 r1 r2
93. If a medium of relative permeability µ r had been 99. According to phenomenon of mutual inductance,
present instead of air, the mutual inductance would be (a) the mutual inductance does not dependent on geometry
(a) M = µ r µ 0 n1 n2 πr1 l (b) M = µ 0 n1 n2 πr12 l of the two coils involved
(c) M = µ r n1 n2 πr12 l (d) M = µ r µ 0 n1 n2 πr12 l (b) the mutual inductance depends on the intrinsic magnetic
property, like relative permeability of the material
94. Mutual inductance of a pair of coil, solenoids etc., (c) the mutual inductance is independent of the magnetic
depends on their property of the material
(a) separation (b) relative orientation (d) ratio of magnetic flux produced by the coil 1 at the place
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b) of the coil 2 and the current in the coil 2 will be different
from that of the ratio defined by interchanging the coils
95. O is the centre of two coplanar concentric circular
conductors A and B, of radii r and R respectively as 100. Which of the following plays the role of inertia for
shown in the figure. Here, r <<< R . The mutual current flowing in coil?
inductance of the system of the conductor can be (a) Resistance of coil (b) Self-inductance
given by (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) emf applied to coil
101. The self-induced emf always opposes
B
R (a) any change of current in the coil
A
(b) decrease of current in coil
r I (c) increase of current in coil
(d) All of the above
102. Work needs to be done against the back emf (ε ) in
µ 0 π r2 µ 0 πR 2
(a) (b) establishing the current. This work done is stored as
2R 2r
(a) magnetic kinetic energy
πR 2 µ πr
(c) (d) 0 (b) magnetic potential energy
µ 0r 2R
(c) electric kinetic energy
(d) electric potential energy
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 155

103. If the number of turns in a coil becomes doubled, then 113. Current in a coil changes from 5 A to 10 A in 0.2 s. If
it self-inductance will become the coefficient of self-induction is 10 H, then the
(a) double (b) halved induced emf is
(c) four times (d) unchanged (a) 112 V (b) 250 V
104. For the current I at an instant in a circuit with (c) 125 V (d) 230 V
inductance L, the rate of work done is 114. The inductance of a coil is L = 10 H and resistance
dW dI dW dI
(a) = LI (b) = − LI R = 5 Ω. If applied voltage of battery is 10 V and if
dt dt dt dt
switches off in 1 ms, find induced emf of inductor.
dW dI dW dI
(c) = 2LI (d) = − 2LI (a) 2 × 104 V (b) 1.2 × 104 V
dt dt dt dt
(c) 2 × 10−4 V (d) None of these
105. Total amount of work done in establishing the current
I in coil of inductance L is 115. Three solenoid coils of same dimension, same
I I numbers of turns and same numbers of layers of
(a) W = ∫ 0 IdI (b) W = ∫ 0 LI
2
dI
winding are taken. Coil 1 with inductance L1 was
I I wound using a wire of resistance 11 Ωm −1 , coil 2 with
(c) W = − ∫ 0 IdI (d) W = ∫ 0 LIdI inductance L2 was wound using the similar wire but
the direction of winding was reserved in each layer,
106. Two identical induction coils each of inductance L
coil 3 with inductance L3 was wound using a
joined in series are placed very close to each other
superconducting wire. The self- inductance of the
such that the winding direction of one is exactly
coils L1 , L2 , L3 are such that
opposite to that of other, what is the net inductance?
(a) L1 = L2 = L3 (b) L1 = L2 , L3 = 0
(a) L2 (b) 2L (c) L/ 2 (d) Zero
(c) L1 = L3 , L2 = 0 (d) L1 > L2 > L3
107. In 0.2 s, the current in a coil increases from 1.5 A to 116. If coil is open, then L and R respectively become
2.5 A. If inductance of this coil is 60 mH, then (a) ∞, 0 (b) 0, ∞ (c) ∞ , ∞ (d) 0, 0
induced current in an external resistance of 3 Ω will
be 117. In a coil when current changes from 10 A to 2A in
(a) 1 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 0.2 A (d) 0.1 A time 0.1 s, induced emf is 3.28 V. What is the
self-inductance of coil?
108. A current passing through a coil of self-inductance of (a) 4 H (b) 0.4 H (c) 0.04 H (d) 5 H
2 mH changes at the rate of 20 mAs −1 . The emf
induced in the coil is 118. In 0.1 s, the current in a coil increases from 1A to
(a) 10 µV (b) 40 µV (c) 10 mV (d) 40 mV 1.5 A. If inductance of coil is 60 mH, then induced
current in external resistance of 3 Ω will be
109. The self-induced emf in a coil of 0.4 H (a) 1A (b) 0.5 A (c) 0.2 A (d) 0.1 A
self-inductance when current in it is changing at the
119. A coil of N =100 turns carries a current, I = 5A and
rate of 50 As −1 , is
creates a magnetic flux, φ = 10 −5 Tm 2 per turn. The
(a) 8 × 10−4 V (b) 8 × 10−3 V
value of its inductance L will be
(c) 20 V (d) 500 V
(a) 0.05 mH (b) 0.10 mH
110. An inductor having coefficient of self-induction (c) 0.15 mH (d) 0.20 mH
40 mH. What is the energy stored in it, when a current 120. A circular coil has 500 turns of wires and its radius is
of 2A is passed through it? 5 cm. The self-inductance of the coil is
(a) 40 mJ (b) 80 mJ (c) 20 mJ (d) 100 mJ (a) 25 × 10−3 mH (b) 25 mH
111. Energy required to establish a current of 4 A in a coil (c) 50 × 10−3 H (d) 50 × 10−3 mH
of self-inductance L = 200 mH is 121. The energy stored in an inductor of self-inductance L
(a) 0.16 J (b) 0.18 J (c) 0.40 J (d) 1.6 J henry carrying a current of I ampere is
1 2 1 2
112. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A (a) L2 I (b) − LI 2 (c) LI (d) LT
2 2
flow through it, the magnetic flux linked with each
turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10 −3 Wb. The self- 122. Magnetic flux of 10 µ Wb is linked with a coil, when
inductance of the solenoid is [NEET 2016] a current of 2 mA flows through it. What is the
(a) 3 H (b) 2 H self-inductance of the coil?
(c) 1H (d) 4 H (a) 10 mH (b) 5 mH (c) 15 mH (d) 20 mH
156 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

123. What is the self-inductance of a solenoid of length 130. ε = NBA ω sin ωt, in the equation which of the
31.4 cm, area of cross-section 10 −3 m 2 and total following is the maximum value of the emf, which
number of turns 10 3 ? occurs when sin ωt = ±1?
(a) 4 mH (b) 4 H (c) 40 H (d) 0.4 H (a) NBA (b) NBAω sin ωt
(c) NBAω (d) N ω sin ωt
124. A solenoid 60 cm long has 50 turns on it and is
wound on an iron rod of 7.5 mm radius. Find the flux 131. The instantaneous value of the emf is .........
through the solenoid when the current in it is 3A and (given, ε 0 = NBAω )
the relative permeability of iron is 600. (a) ε 0 sin ωt (b) sin ωt (c) ε 0ω sin ωt (d) ω sin ωt
(a) 1.66 Wb (b) 2.66 Wb
(c) 1.66 mWb (d) 1.66 µ Wb 132. The maximum value of emf is, when θ is equal to
125. The expression for the magnetic energy stored in a (given, ε = ε 0 sin ωt)
solenoid in terms of magnetic field B, area A and (a) 90° (b) 270°
length l of the solenoid, is (c) 180° (d) Both (a) and (b)

(a)
1
BAl (b)
1
B 2 Al 133. The change of flux is greatest at θ is equal to
2µ0 2µ0 (given, φ B = NBA cos ωt)
1 2 1 (a) 90° , 270° (b) 90° , 45°
(c) B Al (d) BA 2 l
µ0 µ0 (c) 60° , 90 (d) 180° , 90°
134. A current I = 20 sin (100πt ) A is passed in first coil,
126. Which method is used to induce an emf or current in a
which induces a maximum emf10 πV in second coil.
loop in AC generator? The mutual inductance between the coils is
(a) A change in the loop’s orientation (a) 10 mH (b) 15 mH (c) 25 mH (d) 5 mH
(b) A change in its effective area
(c) Both (a) and (b) 135. Two coils have mutual inductance 0.005 H. The
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
current changes in the first coil according to equation
I = I 0 sin ωt, where I 0 = 10 A and ω = 100 π rad s −1 .
127. As the coil rotates in a magnetic field B, the effective
The maximum value of emf in the second coil is
area of the loop (the face perpendicular to the field) is
(a) 12 π (b) 8 π (c) 5 π (d) 2 π
θ=0° 136. A square coil of side 25 cm having 1000 turns is
B rotated with a uniform speed in a magnetic field about
an axis perpendicular to the direction of the field. At
an instant t, the emf induced in the coil is
N A S ε = 200 sin 100 π t. The magnetic induction is
(a) 0.50 T (b) 0.02 T
(c) 10−3 T (d) None of these
(a) A cos θ (b) A sec θ (c) A tan θ (d) A cot θ
137. Kamla paddles a stationary bicycle, the paddles of the
128. When the coil is rotated with a constant angular speed
bicycle are attached to a 100 turns coil of area
ω, the angle θ between the magnetic field vector B
0.10 m 2 . The coil rotates at half a revolution per
and the area vector A of the coil at any instant t, is
second and it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of
(a) θ = AB (b) θ = At (c) θ = ωt (d) θ = Bt
0.01 T perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the
129. The effective area of the coil exposed to the magnetic coil. What is the maximum voltage generated in the
field lines changes with time, the flux at any time is coil?
(a) 3.14 V (b) 31.4 V (c) 0.314 V (d) 314 V
θ=0°
138. A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a
B much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The centre
of the smaller loop is on the axis of the bigger loop.
N A The distance between their centres is 15 cm. If a
S
current of 2.0 A flows through the smaller loop, then
the flux linked with bigger loop is [JEE Main 2013]
(a) φ B = BA cot ωt (b) φ B = BA cos ωt (a) 9.2 × 10−11 Wb (b) 6 × 10−11 Wb
(c) φ B = BA tan ωt (d) φ B = BA sec ωt (c) 3.3 × 10−11 Wb (d) 6.6 × 10−9 Wb
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 157

139. When a circular coil of radius 1 m and 100 turns is 142. A rectangular coil ABCD which is rotated at constant
rotated in a horizontal uniform magnetic field, the peak angular velocity about an horizontal axis as shown in
value of emf induced is 100 V. The coil is unwound the figure. The axis of rotation of the coil as well as
and then rewound into a circular coil of radius 2 m . If the magnetic field B are horizontal. Maximum current
it is rotated now, with the same speed, under similar will flow in the circuit when the plane of the coil is
conditions, the new peak value of emf developed is
B
(a) 50 V (b) 25 V (c) 100 V (d) 200 V
140. In a region of uniform magnetic induction B = 10 −2 T,
a circular coil of radius 30 cm and resistance π 2 Ω is C
rotated about an axis which is perpendicular to the A
direction of B and which forms a diameter of the coil.
If the coil rotates at 200 rpm the amplitude of the
alternating current induced in the coil is D
(a) 4 π 2 mA (b) 30 mA (c) 6 mA (d) 200 mA
(a) inclined at 30° to the magnetic field
141. A six pole generator with fixed field excitation (b) perpendicular to the magnetic field
develops an emf of 100 V, when operating at 1500rpm.
(c) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
At what speed it must rotate to develop 120 V?
(a) 1200 rpm (b) 1800 rpm (c) 1500 rpm (d) 400 rpm (d) parallel to the magnetic field

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 146. Assertion Eddy currents are undesirable.
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 143-152) In the following Reason Eddy currents heat up the core and dissipate
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a electrical energy in the form of heat.
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following 147. Assertion Eddy current is produced in any metallic
statements, choose the correct one. conductor when magnetic flux is changed around it.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion. Reason Electric potential determines the flow of charge.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is 148. Assertion If the inner solenoid was much shorter
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
than (and placed well inside) the outer solenoid, then
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
we could still have calculated the flux linkage N 1φ 1 .
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Reason The inner solenoid is effectively immersed
143. Assertion Faraday’s law are consequence of in a uniform magnetic field due to the outer solenoid.
conservation of energy.
149. Assertion Self-inductance is the electromagnetic
Reason In purely resistive AC circuit, the current analogue of mass in mechanics.
lags behind the emf in phase.
Reason Work needs to be done against the back emf
144. Assertion Lenz’s law violates the principle of (ε ) in establishing the current.
conservation of energy. 150. Assertion The quantity L/R possesses dimensions of
Reason Induced emf always opposes the change in time.
magnetic flux responsible for its production. Reason To reduce the rate of increase of current
145. Assertion In equation F = q ( E + v × B) when v = 0, through a solenoid, we should increase the time
any force on the charge must arise from the electric constant (L/R)
field term E alone. 151. Assertion An AC generator is based on the
Reason To explain, the existence of induced emf or phenomenon of self-induction.
induced current in static conductor kept in Reason In single coil, we consider self-induction only
time-varying magnetic field, we must assume that a
time-varying magnetic field generates an electric 152. Assertion Inductance coil are made of copper
field. Reason Induced current is more in wire having less
resistance.
158 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

II. Statement Based Questions Type I 161. Statement I In self-induction, flux linkage through a
coil of N -turns is proportional to the current through
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 153-165) In the following
the coil.
questions, a statement I is followed by a corresponding
statement II. Of the following statements, choose the
Statement II Nφ B ∝ I ⇒ Nφ B = LI
correct one. 162. Statement I It would be extremely difficult to
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and calculate the flux linkage with the outer solenoid
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. when current flows in inner solenoid.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but
Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement II As the magnetic field due to the inner
Statement I. solenoid would vary across the length as well as
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. cross-section of the outer solenoid (when inner
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. solenoid is smaller in length and radius).
153. Statement I The flux can be altered by changing 163. Statement I The self-induced emf is also called the
the shape of a coil in a magnetic field or rotating coil back emf.
in a magnetic field such that the angle θ between B Statement II The self-induced emf opposes any
and A changes. change in the current in a circuit.
Statement II By changing the shape of a coil or the 164. Statement I An exceptionally important application
angle θ between B and A, an emf is induced in the coil. of phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is the
154. Statement I φ B = B ⋅ A magnetic flux φ B is scalar generation of Alternating Currents (AC).
quantity. Statement II The modern AC generator with a
typical output capacity of 100 MW is highly evolved
Statement II Quantity obtained by product of two machine.
vectors is always scalar.
165. Statement I The direction of the current changes
155. Statement I If magnetic field B = 0, then magnetic periodically and therefore the current is called
flux is also zero. alternating current.
Statement II If magnetic flux, φ = 0, then magnetic Statement II Equation ε = ε 0 sin ωt can be written as
field is also zero. ε = ε 0 sin 2πνt.
156. Statement I Coil or loop used for electromagnetic Statement Based Questions Type II
induction, is made up of conducting material.
166. I. Joseph Henry, American experiment physicists
Statement II Prepared by using wires which are
professor at Princeton University and the first director
coated with insulating material.
of the Smithsonian Institution.
157. Statement I The direction of induced emf is always II. Henry made important improvement in electromagnets
such as to oppose the change that causes it. by winding coils of insulated wire around iron pole
Statement II Conservation of energy applies to know pieces and invented an electromagnetic motor.
the direction of induced emf. III. Henry discovered self-induction and investigated how
currents in one circuit induce currents in another.
158. Statement I Electric fields produced by static Which of the above statements are incorrect? Choose
electric charges have different properties from those the correct option.
produced by time-varying magnetic fields.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
Statement II Electric field lines of electric field due (c) I and III (d) None of these
to static electric charges form closed loops.
167. Consider coil and magnet.
159. In galvanometer, with metallic core Y
Statement I when coil oscillates, electromagnetic
damping occurs.
N S
Statement II eddy currents generated in the core X
oppose the motion and bring the coil to rest quickly.
160. Statement I Inductance coils are made of conductor.
Current is induced in coil when
I. coil and magnet both are at rest.
Statement II Induced current is more in wire having
more resistance. II. coil is at rest and magnet moves along x.
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 159

III. magnet is at rest and coil moves along x. 171. Which of the following statements are false?
IV. Both coil and magnet move along y with same speed. (refer figure below)
Correct statements are Coil Axle
(a) I and IV (b) I and II
(c) III and IV (d) II and III
168. Consider the statements on the basis of figure in
I. magnetic flux associated with the plate keeps on
changing as the plate moves in and out of the region
between magnetic poles.
II. the flux change induces eddy currents in the plate. N S
III. directions of eddy currents are opposite when the plate
swings into the region between the poles and when it
swings out of the region. Slip rings
Alternating emf
(a) I is correct, II may be correct
(b) I and II are correct, III may be correct
(c) I, II and III are correct
Sketch of AC generator
(d) I and II are incorrect but III is correct
169. Consider the statements. I. AC generator consists of a coil mounted on a rotor
I. Inductance is a scalar quantity. shaft.
II. Inductance has the dimensions of [ML2 T 2 A 2 ] given II. The axis of rotation of the coil is perpendicular to the
by the dimensions of flux divided by the dimension of direction of the magnetic field.
current. III. The coil (called armature) is mechanically rotated in
III. The SI unit of inductance is henry and is denoted by H. the uniform magnetic field by come external means.
IV. Inductance is named in honour of Joseph Henry who IV. The rotation of coil causes the magnetic flux through
discovered electromagnetic induction in USA, coil to change, so an emf is induced in the coil.
independently of Faraday in England. (a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
Incorrect statement is (c) II, III and IV (d) None of these
(a) only I (b) only II (c) only III (d) only IV 172. I. Modern day generators produce electric power as high
as 500 MW.
170. There are two solenoids of same length and
inductance L0 but their diameters differ to the extent II. In most generators, the coils are held stationary and it is
that one can just fit into the other. They are connected the electromagnets which are rotated.
in three different ways in series. III. The frequency of rotation in India is 50MHz.
I. They are connected in series but separated by large Incorrect statement (s) is/are
distance. (a) only I (b) only III (c) I and II (d) only II
II. They are connected in series with one inside the other
and senses of the turns coinciding. III. Matching Type
III. Both are connected in series with one inside the other 173. Match the items of Column I with the items of
with senses of the turns opposite as depicted in figures Column II and choose the correct option from the
1, 2 and 3, respectively.
codes given below.
The total inductance of the solenoids in each of the
Column I Column II
cases I, II and III are respectively
1. Current is
C1 induced in coil
C 1 due to
I
II motion
A. N S of the current
carrying coil
III C2
I
G
(a) 0, 4 L 0 , 2L 0 (b) 4 L 0 , 2L 0 , 0
(c) 2L 0 , 0, 4 L 0 (d) 2L 0 , 4 L 0 , 0
160 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Column I Column II 175. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
C1 2. Coils C 1 and
C 2 held A. Dielectric ring uniformly 1. Constant electrostatic
C2
stationary, charged field out of system
B. current in C 1 is
induced by B. Dielectric ring uniformly 2. Magnetic field strength
charged rotating with
changing angular velocity ω
I current in C 2
G
C. Constant current in ring i 3. Electric field

D. i = i0 cosωt 4. Magnetic dipole

C1 3. When the bar moment
C2 magnet is
pushed towards
the coil, the A B C D
pointer in (a) 2 3,4 3,4 1,4
C. galvanometer
G deflects (b) 1 2,3,4 2 4
(c) 1 2,4 2,4 2,3,4
G K (d) 2,4 2,4 2,3,4 2,4
176. A square loop of conducting wire is placed near a
A B C A B C long straight current carrying wire as shown.
(a) 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2
174. Match the items of Column I with those of Column II i
and choose the correct option from the codes given
below.
Column II
Column I
(Planar looks of different shapes)
(Direction of induced Match the statements in Column I with the
current) corresponding result in Column II.
A. d
Column I Column II
a
A. If the magnitude of 1. Induced current L in the
c 1. b a c b current I is increased loop will be clockwise
b B. If the magnitude of 2. Induced current L in the
current I is decreased loop will be
anticlockwise
B.
a C. If the loop is moved 3. Wire will attract the loop
away from the wire
c 2. c d a b c
D. If the loop is moved 4. Wire will repel the loop
b towards the wire

5. Torque about the

C. centre of mass of loop is
a zero

b 3. b c d a b
A B C D
c (a) 1,4 2,4 1,3 2,4
d
(b) 2, 4 1,3 1, 4 2,4
A B C A B C (c) 1,3 2,4 1, 3 2,4
(a) 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 (d) 1,4 2,3 2, 4 1,3
(c) 1 2 3 (d) 1 3 2
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 161

IV. Passage Based Questions ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 181-182) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 177-180) These questions are options from those given below.
based on the following situation. Choose the correct When the North pole of a bar magnet is pushed
options from those given below. towards the coil, the pointer in the galvanometer
The steady current in the coil C2 produces a steady deflects. Fig. (i) show that it is the relative motion
magnetic field. As coil C2 is moved towards the coil C1 , between the magnet and coil that is responsible for
the galvanometer shows a deflection. This indicates generation of electric current in the coil. In Fig. (ii),
that electric current is induced in coil C1 . the bar magnet is replaced by a second coil C2
When C2 is moved away, the galvanometer shows a connected to a battery. The steady current in the coil
deflection again, but this time in the opposite direction. C2 produces a steady magnet field.
As coil C2 is moved toward the coil C1 , the
galvanometer shows a deflection. Again, it is the
relative motion between the coils that induces the
C1
electric current.
C2

C1

I
G N S

177. I. Because of current inC 2 , it acts as bar magnet. I

G
II. The steady current in the coilC 2 produces a steady Fig. (i)
magnetic field.
III. If coilC 2 is moved towards the coilC1 , the
galvanometer shows a deflection.
IV. This indicates that electric current is induced in coilC1 . C1
Which of the above statements are correct? Choose C2
the correct option.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV (d) All of these
178. What will be the direction of deflection of I
galvanometer, when C 2 is moved away? G
(a) Same direction
(b) Opposite direction Fig. (ii)
(c) No deflection
181. Consider the motion of a magnet towards or away
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
from coil C1 in Fig. (i) and moving a current carrying
179. For duration of deflection in G i.e., current flow in coil C 2 towards or away from coil C1 in Fig. (ii).
coil C1 , which of the following is correct? Magnetic flux associated with coil C1
(a) The deflection lasts as long as C 2 is in motion (a) changes in both (i) and (ii) situations
(b) The deflection lasts till 1 min after motion of C 2 stops (b) changes in situation (i) but do not change in situation (ii)
(c) The deflection lasts till 1 h after motion of C 2 stops (c) does not change in situation (i) but changes in situation (ii)
(d) The deflection lasts forever (d) does not change in both situations (i) and (ii)
180. When the coil C 2 is held fixed and C1 is moved , then 182. The change in magnetic flux
(a) same effects are observed i.e., current is induced in coil C1 . (a) decreases the radius of the coil C 1 to half the initial
(b) no current is induced in coil C1 . radius
(c) number of magnetic field lines through C1 do not (b) induces emf in the coil C 1
change. (c) increases the radius of coil C 1 to double the initial radius
(d) current in coil C 2 increases drastically. (d) None of the above
162 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

■ Directions (Q. Nos. 183-187) These questions are ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 188-192) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below. options from those given below.
A rectangular conduct or PQRS in which the Coil is to be wound over metallic core which is helpful
conductor PQ is free to move is shown in figure. The in reducing eddy currents in the metallic cores of
rod PQ is moved towards the left with a constant transformers, electric motors and other such devices.
velocity v as shown in figure. Assume that there is no Eddy current are undesirable since they heat up the
loss of energy due to friction. PQRS forms a closed core and dissipate electrical energy in the form of
circuit enclosing an area that changes as PQ moves. It heat. Eddy currents are minimised by using
is placed in a uniform magnetic field B which is laminations of metal to make a metal core.
perpendicular to the plane of this system.
The length RQ = x and RS = l. Wounded coil on core

I P S
S M

l v N Core of
R N transformer
Q
x

188. How are eddy currents minimised to make a metal core

183. The magnetic flux φ B enclosed by loop PQRS will be of transformer on which coils are wound?
(a) φ B = lx (b) φ B = Bx (a) By using laminations of metal
Blx (b) By using solid metallic core
(c) φ B = (d) φ B = Blx
2 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
184. In the above equation for φ B , x is changing with time,
189. The plane of the laminations must be arranged parallel
the rate of change of flux φ B will induce an emf
given by to the magnetic field, so that they cut across the
dφ B d (a) keep on sliding
(a) ε = − (b) ε = − ( Blx ) (b) keep on rotating
dt dt
dx (c) cut across the induced eddy currents
(c) ε = − Bl (d) All of these (d) Both (a) and (b)
dt
dx 190. Induction furnace is used to produce
185. ε = − Bl , in the given equation we use dx / dt = − v (a) low temperature to melt the metal
dt
(b) high temperature to melt the metal
which is the
(c) constant low temperature 20°C
(a) speed of the conductor PQ
(d) high pressure
(b) speed of PQRS loop
(c) acceleration of the conductor PQ 191. Induction furnace can be utilised to prepare
(d) acceleration of PQRS loop (a) alloys, by melting the constituent metals
(b) metal, by mixing electrons, protons, neutrons
186. The induced emf Blv is called
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) constant emf
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(b) accelerated emf
(c) motional emf 192. When a high frequency alternating current is passed
(d) Both (b) and (c) through a coil which surrounds the metal to be
melted.
187. It is also possible to explain the motional emf
expression Blv by invoking ......... acting on the free The ......... generated in the metals produce .........
......... of conductor PQ. temperatures sufficient to ......... it.
(a) Lorentz force, neutral particles (a) induced emf, low, freeze
(b) Henry force, atoms (b) induced current, low, melt
(c) Lorentz force, charge carriers (c) eddy current, high, melt
(d) Henry force, neutral particles (d) mechanical energy, high, freeze
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 163

■ Directions (Q. Nos. 193-196) These questions are V. More than One Option Correct
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below. 197. SI unit of inductance, henry can be written as
(a) Weber/ampere
Consider the figure below which shows two long
(b) Volt-second/ampere
coaxial solenoids each of length l.
(c) Joule/(ampere) 2
The radius of the inner solenoid S1 is denoted by r1 (d) Ohm-second
and the number of turns per unit length by n1 . The
corresponding quantities for the outer solenoid S 2 are 198. A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept along
r2 and n 2 , respectively. the diagonal of a square wire loop, without touching
Let N 1 and N 2 be the total number of turns of coils in it, the incorrect statement(s) is/are
S1 and S 2 , respectively. (a) the emf induced in the loop is zero, if the current is
constant
r2 (b) the emf induced in the loop is finite, if the current is
l constant
(c) the emf induced in the loop is zero if the current
increases at a steady rate
(d) the emf induced in the loop is finite if the current
r1 decreases of a steady rate
N1 turns S1
S2 199. A coil having 400 turns of square shape each of side
N2 turns 20 cm is placed normal to a magnetic field which is
193. When a current I 2 is set-up through S 2 , it in turn sets-up decreasing at 2 Ts −1 . Then
a magnetic flux through S 1 . The corresponding flux (a) angle between area vector and magnetic field is 0°
linkage with solenoid S 1 is N 1φ 1 which is given by (b) emf induced is 32 V
(a) N 1 φ1 = M 12 I1 (c) angle between area vector and magnetic field is 90°
(d) emf induced is 0 V
(b) N 1 φ1 = M 12 I 2
(c) N1 φ1 = I1 M 21 200. A circular coil of radius R =10 cm having 500 turns
(d) None of these and total resistance 2 Ω is placed initially
perpendicular to the earth magnetic field of 3 × 10 5 T.
194. Which of the following called the mutual inductance
The coil is rotated about its vertical diameter by an
of solenoid S 1 with respect to solenoid S 2 ?
angle 2π in 0.5 s.
(a) M 21 (b) M 12
(c) Both M 12 and M 21 (d) M 12 I1 (a) The initial flux through the coil is 3π × 10−7 Wb
(b) The final flux through the coil is −7π × 10−7 Wb
195. I. M 12 is referred to as the coefficient of mutual induction.
(c) The emf induced in the coil is 2 × 10−3 V
II. The magnetic field due to the current I 2 in S 2 in M 2 I 2 . (d) Induced current in the coil is 1 mA
(a) Both I and II are correct
(b) Both I and II are incorrect 201. Mutual inductance of two concentric circular coils
(c) I is correct, II is incorrect depends upon
(d) I is incorrect, II is correct (a) number of turns of both coils
(b) area of cross-section of coils
196. The flux linkage with coil S 1 is,
(c) distance between two coils
(a) µ 0 n1 πr12 lI 2 (d) magnetic permeability of medium between the coil
(b) µ 0 n2 πr12 lI 2 202. The main components of AC generator are
(c) µ 0 n1 n2 πr1 lI 2 (a) armature (b) slip rings
(d) µ 0 n1 n2 πr12 lI 2 (c) brushes (d) commutator
 NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
NCERT Exemplar 209. A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of
203. A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop 1.5 H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to
2
of area 2.0 cm placed inside the solenoid normal to 20 A in 0.5 s. The change of flux linkage with the
its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes other coil is
steadily from 2.0 A to 4.0 A in 0.1 s, what is the (a) 60 Wb (b) 65 Wb
induced emf in the loop while the changing in current? (c) 30 Wb (d) 50 Wb
(a) 7.5 × 106 V (b) 5 × 106 V (c) 7 × 105 V (d) 5 × 105 V 210. An air-cored solenoid with length 30 cm, area of
cross-section 25 cm 2 and number of turns 500, carries
204. A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 2 cm with a
a current of 2.5 A. The current is suddenly switched
small cut is moving out of a region of uniform
off in a brief time of 10 − 3 s. How much is the
magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to
average back emf induced across the ends of the open
the loop. What is the emf developed across the cut if
switch in the circuit? Ignore the variation in magnetic
the velocity of the loop is 1 cm/s in a direction normal
field near the ends of the solenoid.
to the longer side?
(a) 6.5 V (b) 7.5 V
(a) 3 × 10−4 V (b) 2.4 × 10−4 V
(c) 6.0 V (d) 8.0 V
(c) 5 × 10−4 V (d) 2 × 10−4 V

205. A 1.0 m long metallic rod is rotated with an angular NCERT Exemplar
frequency of 400 rad/s about an axis normal to the rod 211. A square of side L metres lies in the XY -plane in a
passing through its one end. The other end of the rod region, where the magnetic field is given by
is in contact with a circular metallic ring. A constant B = B 0 (2$i + 3$j + 4k$ ) T, where B 0 is constant. The
and uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to the
magnitude of flux passing through the square is
axis exists everywhere. The emf developed between
(a) 2B0 L2 Wb (b) 3B0 L2 Wb
the centre and the ring is
(a) 200 V (b) 50 V (c) 4 B0 L2 Wb (d) 29B0 L2 Wb
(c) 100 V (d) None of these 212. A loop, made of straight edges has six corners at
206. A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is rotated A (0, 0, 0), B (L, 0, 0), C (L, L, 0), D (0, L, 0), E (0, L,
about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of L) and F (0, 0, L). A magnetic field B = B 0 ( $i + k$ ) T
50 rad/s in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of is present in the region. The flux passing through the
magnitude 3.0 × 10 − 2 T. The maximum emf induced, loop ABCDEFA (in that order) is
average emf induced and average power loss due to (a) B0 L2 Wb (b) 2B0 L2 Wb
heating are respectively.
(c) 2B0 L2 Wb (d) 4 B0 L2 Wb
(a) 0.0603 V, 0 V and 0.018 W
(b) 0.0603 V, 0.02 V and 0.015 W 213. A cylindrical bar magnet is rotated about its axis. A
(c) 0 V, 0.0603 V and 0 W wire is connected from the axis and is made to touch
(d) 0.05 V, 0.02 V and 0.018 W the cylindrical surface through a contact. Then,
(a) a direct current flows in the ammeter A
207. A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from (b) no current flows through the ammeter A
East to West is falling with a speed of 5.0 m/s, at right (c) an alternating sinusoidal current flows through the
angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s 2π
ammeter A with a time-period T =
magnetic field, 0.30 × 10 − 4 Wbm −2 . What is the ω
instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire? (d) a time varying non-sinusoidal current flows through the
(a) 1.9 × 10−4 V . × 10−3 V
(b) 15 ammeter A
(c) 2.0 × 10−4 V (d) 3.0 × 10−4 V 214. There are two coils A and B as shown in figure. A
current starts flowing in B as shown, when A is
208. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s.
moved towards B and stops when A stops moving.
If an average emf of 200 V induced, then an estimate
The current in A is counter-clockwise. B is kept
of the self-inductance of the circuit is
stationary when A moves.
(a) 5 H (b) 4 H (c) 3 H (d) 2 H
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 165

We can infer that 217. A metal plate is getting heated. It can be because
A B (a) a direct current is passing through the plate
(b) it is placed in a time varying magnetic field
v
(c) it is placed in a space varying magnetic field, but does
not vary with time
(d) a current (either direct or alternating) is passing through
(a) there is a constant current in the clockwise direction in the plate
A
218. An emf is produced in a coil, which is not
(b) there is a varying current in A
connected to an external voltage source. This can be
(c) there is no current in A
due to
(d) there is a constant current in the counter-clockwise
direction in A (a) the coil being in a time varying magnetic field
(b) the coil moving in a time varying magnetic field
215. Same as Q. 214 except the coil A is made to rotate (c) the coil moving in a constant magnetic field
about a vertical axis (figure). No current flows in B if (d) the coil is stationary in external spatially varying
A is at rest. The current in coil A,when the current in magnetic field, which does not change with time
B (at t = 0) is counter-clockwise and the coil A is as 219. The mutual inductance M 12 of coil 1 with respect to
shown at this instant, t = 0, is
ω coil 2
A
B (a) increases when they are brought nearer
(b) depends on the current passing through the coils
(c) increases when one of them is rotated about an axis
(d) is the same as M 21 of coil 2 with respect to coil 1
(a) constant current clockwise 220. A circular coil expands radially in a region of
(b) varying current clockwise magnetic field and no electromotive force is produced
(c) varying current counter-clockwise in the coil. This can be because
(d) constant current counter-clockwise (a) the magnetic field is constant
216. The self-inductance L of a solenoid of length l and (b) the magnetic field is in the same plane as the circular
coil and it may or may not vary
area of cross-section A, with a fixed number of turns
(c) the magnetic field has a perpendicular (to the plane of
N increases as the coil) component whose magnitude is decreasing
(a) l and A increase suitably
(b) l decreases and A increases (d) there is a constant magnetic field in the perpendicular
(c) l increases and A decreases (to the plane of the coil) direction
(d) Both l and A decrease

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24 (d) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (d)
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (c)
76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (b) 101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (d)
106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (b) 111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (a) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (c) 129. (b) 130. (c) 131. (a) 132. (d) 133. (a) 134. (d) 135. (c)
136. (d) 137. (c) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (c) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (c) 159. (a) 160. (c) 161. (a) 162. (b) 163. (b) 164. (b) 165. (b)
166. (d) 167. (d) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (d) 171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (a) 175. (c) 176. (b) 177. (d) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (a)
181. (a) 182. (b) 183. (d) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (c) 187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (c) 190. (b) 191. (a) 192. (c) 193. (b) 194. (b) 195. (c)
196. (d) 197. (a,b,c 198. (b,d 199. (a, 200. (a,c, 201. (a, 202. (a,b, 203. (a) 204. (b) 205. (c) 206. (a) 207. (b) 208. (b) 209. (c) 210. (a)
,d) ) b) d) b) c)
 Hints and Explanations
2. (c) The phenomenon in which electric current is generated Number of field lines entering and going out from S are
by varying magnetic fields is called electromagnetic equal. So, net flux through S is zero.
induction. ∫ B ⋅ dA = 0
3. (d) The pioneering experiments of Faraday and Henry have
16. (c) B = B0 ( 3$i + 3$j − 4 k$ ) T
led directly to the development of modern day generators
and transformers. B x = ( 3B0 i$ ) T or Bx = ( 3B0 ) T= component of B along area A
4. (d) Electromagnetic induction is utilised in the functioning Area of the square, A = a 2 (m2 )
of mouth piece of a telephone now-a-days.
Observing φ B = BA cos θ
5. (a) Faraday demonstrated that electric currents were induced
⇒ φ B = ( B cos θ ) A = (component of B along A) A
in closed coils when subjected to changing magnetic fields.
φ B (magnitude of magnetic flux)
6. (a) Moving magnet produce electric current in closed coil.
= Bx A = 3B0 a 2 (Tm2 ) = 3 B0 a 2 Wb
7. (d) The discovery and understanding of electromagnetic
induction are based on a long series of experiments carried 17. (a) The magnetic flux φ passing through a plane surface of
out by Faraday and Henry. area A placed in a uniform magnetic field B is given by
8. (d) When the north pole of a bar magnet is pushed towards φ = BA cos θ
the coil, the pointer in the galvanometer deflects, indicating
where, θ is the angle between the direction of B and the
the presence of electric current in the coil. Current is induced
normal to the plane.
in the coil.
9. (c) The galvanometer indicator deflects in the opposite
direction, when the magnet is pulled away from the coil.
10. (c) Current will be larger, when the magnet is pushed faster B
towards the coil, also current is large when magnet is pulled 60°
faster away but now it is in opposite direction. A
11. (a) The galvanometer shows a momentary deflection when
1
the tapping key K is pressed. Here, θ = 60°, B = Wbm−2 , A = π (0.2)2
π
12. (d) Maximum value to zero.
1 1
13. (d) Magnetic flux through a plane of area A placed in a ∴ φ= × π( 0.2 )2 × cos 60° = (0.2)2 × = 0.02 Wb
π 2
uniform magnetic field B can be written as
18. (d) Whenever the flux of magnetic field through the area
bounded by a closed conducting loop changes, an emf is
produced in the loop, in this case the magnetic flux i. e.,
B number of magnetic lines of force entering and leaving the
θ XY-plane is same hence magnetic flux is zero.
A
19. (a) The earth magnetic field, B = ( BH $i − BV $j )
Given the area, A = S k$
φ B = B ⋅ A = BA cos θ φ xy = B ⋅ A = ( BH $i − BV $j ). Sk$ = 0
where, θ is angle between B and A.
20. (b) According to Lenz’s law electromagnetic induction takes
14. (d) ∑ B i ⋅ dA i place in the aluminium plate for which eddy current is
all
develop. This causes in energy which result in damping of
15. (a) According to Gauss’s theorem in magnetism, surface oscillatory motion of the coil.
integral of magnetic field intensity over a surface (closed or 21. (b) Magnetic flux, φ = B ⋅ A = BA cos θ , where θ is an angle
open) is always zero.
between normal to the area A and magnetic field B.
Here, θ = ( 90° − 30° ) = 60°
2
 21 
S N and φ = 10−4 × π  × 10−2  × cos 60° (Q A = πr2 )
2 
S = 1.732 × 10−6 Wb
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 167

22. (c) An emf is induced in a coil when magnetic flux through Final flux after the rotation
the coil changes with time. This emf causes electric current φ B (final) = 3.0 × 10−5 × ( π × 10−2 ) × cos 180°
in closed coil. = − 3π × 10−7 Wb
23. (d) Emf, observations indicate that if circuit is open, then ⇒ ∆φ = φ B (final) − φ B (initial) = − 6π × 10−7
opposite charges accumulate on opposite ends of conductor.
Therefore, estimated value of the induced emf is
P Q
∆φ
ε=−N = 500 × ( 6 π × 10−7 )/0.25 = 3.8 × 10−3 V
∆t
27. (a) More clearly
When conductor PQ moves downward (in figure) positive dφ B
Q ε= − N
charge accumulates at Q and negative charge at P. So, emf dt
across PQ is induced. Flow of charge (current) is induced in d A dB
closed circuit only. Emf is induced in both open and closed ⇒ ε = 1⋅ ( BA cos 45° ) =
dt 2 dt
circuits.
(10 × 10 × 10−4 ) 0.1
Here, in this question emf is most appropriate. = × = −1 mV
− 2 0.7
24. (d) The magnitude of the induced emf in a circuit is equal to
1mV
the time rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit. Magnitude of current = = 1 mA
Mathematically, the induced emf is given by 1Ω
dφ dφ B
ε=− B 28. (d) From Faraday’s second law, e = −
dt dt
The negative sign indicates the direction of ε and hence the =−
d
( 6 t 2 − 5 t + 1) = − (12 t − 5 )
direction of current in a closed loop. dt
This is statement of Faraday’s law of electromagnetic At t = 0.25 s = − [12 × ( 0. 25 ) − 5] = + 2 V
induction. Fleming’s rules, Newton’s third law deal with e 2
forces and their directions. Now, i = = = 0.1 A
R 20
25. (b) The angle θ made by the area vector of the coil with the dφ
29. (a) Induced emf of coil, E = −
magnetic field is 45°. The initial magnetic flux is dt t
N
A B Given, φ = 50t 2 + 4 and R = 400 Ω
dφ
E= − = 100t |t = 2 = 200 V
W E dt t = 2
Loop E 200 1
Current in the coil, i = = = = 0.5 A
S
R 400 2
30. (d) φ = t 3 + 3 t − 7
−2
0.1 × 10 dφ
φ = BA cos θ = Wb ∴ Induced emf, e = − = − (3t 2 + 3) = − 3t 2 − 3
2 dt
(as A = 0.1 × 0.1 = 10−2 m2 ) At t = 0; e = − 3 V
Final flux, φ min = 0 Therefore, shape of graph will be a parabola not through
The change in flux is brought about is 0.70 s. The magnitude origin. (Q e ∝ t 2 )
of the induced emf is given by 31. (d) If a wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field, the
| ∆φ B$ | | (φ − 0) | 10−3 frequency of change in the direction of the induced emf is
ε= = = = 1.0 mV
∆t ∆t 2 × 0.7 twice per revolution.
dφ d
and the magnitude of the current is 32. (b) e = = (3t 2 + 4 t + 9) = 6t + 4 + 0
dt dt
ε 10−3 V
I= = = 2 mA. At t = 2s, e = 6 × 2 + 4 = 16 V
R 0.5 Ω
33. (c) From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
26. (d) Initial flux through the coil
dφ
φ B (initial) = BA cos θ = 3.0 × 10−5 × ( π × 10−2 ) × cos 0° e=−= − BAN (Q dt = 1s )
dt
= 3 π × 10−7 Wb Given, B = 0.1 T, N = 20, A = πr2 = π (0.1)2
∴ e = 0.1 × 20 × π (0.1)2 = 20π mV
168 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

34. (d) From Faraday’s law, induced emf is Similarly, e2 = emf associated with loops
dφ dφ
e=− = 2 =0 (Q φ 2 = 0 )
dt dt
φ = xt2 dφ e
Given, 41. (b) e = ⇒ q = ∫ idt = ∫ dt
dt R
− d (x t 2 )
∴ e= = − 2 tx 1 dφ 1 φ
dt ⇒ ∫
R dt
⋅ dt = ∫ dφ =
R R
Given, t = 3, e = 9 V
−9 Nφ
∴ x= = − 1.5 Wbs −2 for N turns,q =
3× 2 R
N N  ε Nφ 
dφ 8 × 10−4 q= φ= ( BA ) Q q = it = t = t
35. (d) | e | = = = 2 × 10−3 V R R  R Rt 
dt 0.4
dq dφ
36. (d) The magnetic flux through area A placed in magnetic R= B ⇒ qR = NBA
field B is dt dt
φ = BA cos θ qR 2 × 10−4 × 80
⇒ B= = = 1 Wb m−2
Given, θ = 0° ,
dB
= 1 Ts −1 , A = (10 )2 cm2 = 10−2 m2 NA 40 × 4 × 10−4
dt
42. (b) The statement of Lenz’s law is ‘the polarity of induced
dφ
⇒ = 1 × 10−2 V emf is such that it tends to produce a current which opposes
dt the change in magnetic flux that produced it’.
By Faraday’s law, induced emf is
Faraday’s law gives magnitude of induced emf. Fleming’s
dφ
e=−N = − 500 × 10−2 = − 5 V (here, φ is φ B ) rules give force on charged particle in field.
dt D
43. (a) An emf is induced across the open ends of
37. (a) Changing magnetic flex cheats emf or potential
difference which creats electric field. Electric field of can the circuit. The direction of the induced emf
C E
credit force of stationary change. can be found using Lenz’s law. For
A changing magnetic field can exert a force on the conductor CD, C is at positive potential.
F
stationary charge. We shall use lenz’s law to find polarity.
38. (b) N = 1000, A = 500 cm2 = 500 × 10−4 = 5 × 10−2 m2 When S-role of magnet goes away from coil it induces
−5 −2 N -pole at C and S -pole at D so that movement of magnet is
B = 2 × 10 Wb m , θ1 = 0°, θ 2 = 180°, ∆t = 0.2 s. prevents. Creation of N -pole at C induces anti cloclewise
Initial flux linked with coil current at C or +ve polarity at C. It c and c are foiled lay wire
φ1 = NBAcos θ1 = NBA cos 0° = NBA current will flow from C to D through the wire.
Final flux, φ 2 = NBAcos 180° Anti clock Clock wise
wise ⊕ −
NBA ( −1) = − NBA
Change in flux ∆φ = ( φ 2 − φ1 ) = − NBA − ( NBA ) = − 2NBA
∆φ − ( −2NBA ) 2NBA North polarity creats anti-clock wise current
∴ Induced emf, e = − = =
∆t ∆t ∆t 44. (c) First current develops in direction of abcd but when
2 × 1000 × 2 × 10−5 × 5 × 10−2 electron moves away then magnetic field inside loop
= decreases and current changes its direction.
0.2
−3
= 10 × 10 V = 10 mV 45. (d) Suppose that the induced current was in the direction
opposite to the one depicted. In that case, the south-pole due
− NA ( B2 − B1 )cos θ
39. (b) Induced emf ( e ) = to the induced current will face the approaching north-pole
∆t of the magnet.
50 × π × ( 3 × 10−2 )2 (0.35 −0.10)cos 0°
= = 17.7 V 46. (a) Yes. The bar magnet will then be attracted towards the
2 × 10−3
coil at an ever increasing acceleration.
dφ
40. (d) Induced emf in the region is given by | e | =
dt 47. (c) In this situation, the bar magnet experiences a repulsive
dφ dB force due to the induced current. Therefore, a person has to
where, φ = BA = πr B ⇒ 2
= − π r2 do work in moving the magnet. Where does the energy
dt dL
spend by the person go? This energy is dissipated by Joule
Rate of change of magnetic flux associates with loop 1
heating produced by the induced current.
dφ dB
e1 = − 1 = − πr2
dt dt
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 169

48. (b) Case I Closed coil is moving inside constant electric field. 55. (c) By Lenz’s law the direction of induced S
Case II Closed coil is fully inside constant electric field. current in the ring is such as to oppose the
No current is induced in either case. Current cannot be falling of N-pole of the magnet. N
induced by changing the electric flux. So, the direction of induced current will be
anti-clockwise, because the induced current
49. (b) No. makes the ring a magnetic dipole, with its N-pole upward
50. (a) The induced emf is expected to be constant only in the which opposes (repel) the N-pole of falling magnet.
case of the rectangular loop. In the case of circular loop, the Hence, the direction of the current in the ring will be
rate of change of area of the loop during its passage out of anti-clockwise.
the field region is not constant, hence induced emf will vary 56. (b) According to Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction,
accordingly. the relative motion between the coil and magnet produces
51. (a) The polarity of plate ‘A’ will be positive with respect to change in magnetic flux.
plate ‘B’ in the capacitor. Both magnets, by motion, increase 57. (a) As the shape of the loop is changing and hence, the flux
rightward magnetic flux through coil, induced emf with linked with the loop changes. There will an induced emf and
produce leftward flux, positive charge will come at A. hence induced current in the coil. As circle has maximum
52. (b) When the south-pole of a magnet is moved towards the area, for given perimeter.
coil, then by Lenz’s law the face of coil, towards magnet So, magnetic flux through the coil is increasing. Induced emf
becomes south-pole and the current flows clockwise to opposes it by giving induced current in anti-clockwise direction.
cancel change in the magnetic flux. So, to bring the magnet 58. (c) In uniform magnetic field, change in magnetic flux is
near to the coil, more work has to be done against the force zero. Therefore, induced current will be zero.
of repulsion produced between them. So, the galvanometer
shows deflection to the left. Now when the south-pole is 59. (a) From right hand thumb rule, the
moved away, current flows in anti-clockwise direction to magnetic field passing through the
make the face of the coil towards magnet, a north-pole. loop due to the current i will be
perpendicular to the plane of the page
Thus will try to attract the magnet. So, the galvanometer
pointing downwards. The direction of i
shows the deflection to the right. Since, of flux varies hence,
the current in the loop will be such as P Q
amplitude will not be constant and will decrease. I e–
to oppose the increase of this field
Moving
N N (Lenz’s law), hence direction of induced current in the loop
Moving
down up anti-clockwise.
S S
60. (a) Since, electron is moving from right to left, the flux
linked with loop will first increase and then decrease as the
C G C G electron passes. Therefore, induced current I in the loop will
be first clockwise and then will move in anti-clockwise
direction.
61. (c) Emf across rod is induced, charges get accumulated
across end. Current flowing is zero because circuit is open.
53. (a) In the rotation of magnet, N -pole moves closer to coil
CD and S -pole moves closer to coil AB. 62. (b) Vertical component of magnetic field
As per Lenz’s law, N pole should develop at the end Rate of flux = B0 sin δ
corresponding to C. Induced current flows from C to D. ⇒ emf induced = B0 ⋅ vLsin δ
Again S -pole should develop at the end corresponding to B. 63. (a) Q h = L − Lcosθ
Therefore, induced current in the coil flows from A to B. θ
⇒ h = L (1 − cos θ ) L
54. (b) When the north pole of the magnet is brought towards
∴ v2 = 2gh = 2g L (1 − cos θ )
one end of the coil, the induced current flows in the coil in
such a direction that the end of the coil near the magnet = 2gL ( 2sin 2 θ / 2 )
becomes a north pole which repels the magnet and opposes h
⇒ v = 2 gL sin θ / 2
the motion of the north pole of the magnet towards the coil,
thus direction of induced current is anti-clockwise. Thus, maximum potential difference
V max = BvL = B × 2 gL (sin θ / 2 ) L
S N
= 2BL (sin θ / 2 ) ( gL )1 / 2
N S
C D 64. (a) A uniformly moving charge can travel both electric and
G magnetic fields. Energy associated with it will be due to
electric field only as magnetic force acts perpendicular to
velocity, it does not affect energy of moving charge.
170 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

65. (b) Induced emf across the ends of wire 73. (c) Induced emf, ε = Bvl
e = BH lv = 0.30 × 10−4 × 20 × 5 = 3 mV v = velocity of train = 72 ×
5
= 20 ms −1
18
66. (c) The emf induced between ends of the conductor
Induced emf, ε = 2 × 10−5 × 20 × 1
1 1
e = BωL2 = × 0.2 × 10−4 × 5 × 12 = 2 × 10−5 × 20 = 40 × 10−5 V
2 2
−4
= 0.5 × 10 V = 40 × 10−2 mV = 0.4 mV

= 5 × 10−5 V = 50 µV 74. (d) Emf induced in the wire is given by, ε = Blv

67. (b) As the rod is rotated, free electrons in the rod move
towards the outer end and due to force and get distributed Given, l = 50 cm = 0.5 m
300
over the ring. Thus, the resulting separation of charges v = 300 m - min −1 = = 5 ms −1
produces an emf across the ends of the rod. At a certain 60
value of emf, there is no more flow of electrons and a steady e = 2V
state is reached. The magnitude of the emf generated across ε 2
Magnetic field, B = = = 0.80 T
a length dr of the rod as it moves at right angles to the lv 0.5 × 5
magnetic field is given by
75. (c) Given, B = 0.30 × 10−4 Wb m−2 , v = 5 ms −1 and l = 10 m
dε = Bvdr
B N
R R B ωR 2
Hence, ε = ∫ dε = ∫ Bvdr = ∫ Bωrdr = +ve
0 0 2 W E
v
Note that, we have used v = ωr. This gives –ve
1
ε = × 1.0 × 2π × 50 × (1)2 = 157 V S
2 As induced emf or potential, e = Bvl
68. (a) Induced emf = (1/ 2 ) ωBR 2 e
So, induced potential gradient = = Bv
= (1/ 2 ) × 4π × 0.4 × 10−4 × (0.5)2 = 6.28 × 10−5 V l
= 0.3 × 10−4 × 5 = 1.5 × 10−4 Vm −1
 2π × 120  Here, East end B at positive potential gradient means
Qω = = 4 π rads –1 
 60  increasing potential.
The number of spokes is immaterial because the emf ’s 76. (b) The emf developed between the centre and the rim is
across the spokes are in parallel. 1 1
e= Bωl 2 = × 0.05 × 60 (1)2 = 1.5 V
69. (c) The potential difference across the ends of the conductor 2 2
dE = Bvdr, 77. (a) Induced emf for element on the rod
L L 1 de = BvdLsin 90° = BvdL
V = ∫ dE = ∫ 0 Bvdr = ∫0 Brω dr = ωL2 B
2 L
L L  Br2ω 
70. (c) In case of motional emf, the motion of the conductor in the Net emf, e = ∫ de = ∫0 BvdL = ∫0 Brω dL = 
 2 0

field exerts force on the free charge in conductor, so that one
end of the conductor becomes positive, while the other negative
resulting in a potential difference across its ends due to which a dL
r
non-conservative electric field is set up in the conductor. In
steady state the magnetic force on the free charge is balanced L
by the electric force due to induced field.
qE = qvB ⇒ q (V / l ) = qvB e=
1 2
BL ω
i. e., V = Bvl 2
So, the induced emf between tip of nose and tail of 78. (c) The rod OA is equivalent to a cell A
helicopter is given by with emf vBlsin θ / 2. the positive sin (θ/2)
changes shift towards A due to the ε = vB l sin (θ/2)
ε = Bvl = 5 × 10−3 × 10 × 100 = 5 V force qv × B. The positive terminal of
the equivalent will appears towards O θ
71. (b) The emf induced, e = vBl = 1 × 0.5 × 2 = 1 V ε = vBl sin (θ/2)
A. Similarly, the rod BO is
72. (d) For motional emf e = ( Bv × 2r ) = 2rBv will be at equivalent to a cell of emf vBlsin θ / 2,
higher potential, we can find it by using right hand rule. with the positive terminal towards O.
The equivalent circuit is shown in B
The electrons of wire will move towards and P due to electric
figure. Clearly, the emf between the points A and B is
force and at end R the excess positive charge will be left. 2Blvsin θ / 2.
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 171

79. (a) Here, B = 0.4 T, v = 5 ms −1 , l = 25 cm = 0.25 cm Let ε be the magnitude of the induced emf in the loop.
dφ d d  dB 
Induced emf produced, P Clearly, ε = B = ( φB ) ⇒ ( BA ) = A  
R dt dt dt  dt 
ε = Blv = 0.4 × 0.25 × 5 (as φ B = BA and A is a constant)
5Ω 25 cm v = 5 ms–1
= 0.5 V or ε = (16 × 10−4 m2 ) (0.02 T / s) = 32 × 10−6 V
Current through the 5Ω S When the cut in the loop is joined, power dissipated
resistance Q
ε 2 ( 32 × 10−6 V)2
ε 0.5 P= = = 6.4 × 10−10 W
i= = = 0.1 A R . Ω
16
R 5
According to Lenz’s law when the rod PQ moves towards 84. (a) Electromagnetic Induction A copper plate is allowed
right, the induced current should flow in a direction, so that to swing like a simple pendulum between the pole pieces of a
the rod PQ experiences force towards left. According to strong magnet.
Fleming’s left hand rule, then the current through the rod PQ It is found that the motion is damped and in a little while the
will flow from end Q to P i. e., from end R to S through the plate comes to a halt in the magnetic field. We can explain
resistance of 5Ω. this phenomenon on the basis of electromagnetic induction.
80. (d) Let us consider the forward motion from x = 0 to x = 2b. Magnetic flux associated with the plate keeps on changing
The flux φ B linked with the circuit SPQR is as the plate moves in and out of the region between
magnetic poles. The flux change induces eddy currents in
φ B = Blx, 0 ≤ x < b
the plate. Directions of eddy currents are opposite when the
The induced emf is plate swings into the region between the poles and when it
dφ Blx swings out of the region. Heat is produced in copper plate,
ε=− B =− = − Blv, 0 ≤ x < b
dt t copper plate moves slower.
φ B = Blb, b ≤ x < 2b 85. (a) A copper plate is allowed to swing like a simple pendulum
dφ between the pole pieces of a strong magnet to induce eddy
e=− = 0, b ≤ x < 2b
dt currents in it. Eddy currents are not induced in insulators.
B lv 86. (b) Electromagnetic damping.
81. (a) When the induced emf is non-zero, the current I is .
r 87. (b) Conductor.
The force required to keep the arm PQ in constant motion is
88. (d) The disc in analogue type electric power meter rotates
IlB. Its direction is to the left. In magnitude
due to eddy currents.
B 2l 2v
F = BIl = , 0 ≤ x< b 89. (c) An electric current can be induced in a coil by flux
r change produced by another coil in its vicinity or flux
F = 0, b ≤ x < 2b change produced by the same coil. In both the cases, the flux
The joule heating loss is through a coil is proportional to the current. That is, φ B ∝ I.
B 2 l 2 v2
P j = Fv = , 0 ≤ x< b 90. (c) Further, if the geometry of the coil does not vary with
r time, then
P = 0, b ≤ x < 2 b dφ B dI
∝
−4
82. (a) Here, A = 10 × 5 = 50 cm = 50 × 10 m
2 2 dt dt
For a closely wound coil of N turns, the same magnetic flux
dB
= 0.02 T s −1 , R = 2Ω is linked with all the turns. When the flux φ B through the
dt coil changes, each turn contributes to the induced emf.
dφ dB
ε = B = A⋅ = 50 × 10−4 × 0.02 = 10−4 V Therefore, a term called flux linkage is used which is equal
dt dt to Nφ B for a closely wound coil and in such a case Nφ B ∝ I.
ε2 91. (c) For a closely wound coil of N turns the magnetic flux
Power dissipated in the form of heat =
R linked with all turns is same. When the flux φ B through the
10−4 × 10−4 coil changes, each turn contributes to the induced emf.
= = 0.5 × 10−8 W
2 92. (c) Geometry of coil and intrinsic material properties.
= 5 × 10−9 W = 5nW 93. (d) Air as the medium within the solenoids. Instead, if a
medium of relative permeability µ r had been present, the
83. (d) Here dB / dt = 0.02 T/s,
mutual inductance would be M =µ r µ 0 n1 n2 πr12 l.
Area of the loop,
It is also important to know that the mutual inductance of a
A = l × b = 8 cm × 2 cm = 16 cm2 = 16 × 10−4 m2 pair of coils, solenoids etc., depends on their separation as
Resistance of the loop, R = 16
. Ω well as their relative orientation.
172 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

95. (a) Mutual inductance for two concentric coplanar circular Thus, emf produced in first coil is negative and the emf
coils, produced in second coil is positive, so net inductance is
Q Magnetic flux linked with A, φ A = B ⋅ πr2 L = L1 + L 2 = L + L
µ 0I From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
⇒ φA = ⋅ π r2 φ = LI, where φ is flux and I is the current.
2R
µ 0I φ φ
(QB = ,magnetic field at the centre of B and N 1 = 1 = N 2 ) L= − + ⇒ L = 0 = net inductance
2R I I
Now, the coefficient M ; 107. (d) The coefficient of self-induction of a coil is numerically
Q φ A = MI equal to the emf (e) induced in the coil when the rate of
 ∆i 
µ 0 I ⋅ π r2 change of current   in the coil is unity.
µ π r2  ∆t 
⇒ M = 2R = 0 e ∆i
I 2R ∴ L= − ⇒ e=−L
∆i ∆t
96. (a) Here, I A = 2 A,
∆t
φ B [flux linked with B due to current (in A)] = 10−2 Wb Given, L = 60 mH = 60 × 10−3 H,
As, φ B = M BA I A
∆i = (2.5 − 1.5) A = 1 A and ∆t = 0.2 s
φ 10−2 Wb
M BA = BA = = 5 × 10−3 H 60 × 10−3 × 1
IA 2A ∴ e=− = − 0.3 V
0.2
When, I B = 1 A, φA = M AB I B = (5 × 10−3 H) (1 A) e 0.3
Induced current, i = = = 0.1 A
= 5 × 10−3 Wb R 3
97. (b) Mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends on 108. (b) By Faraday’s second law, induced emf
distance between two coils and geometry of two coils. Ndφ dI
e=− which gives, e = − L
98. (a) Let a current I 2 flow through the outer circular coil. The dt dt
field at the centre of the coil is B2 = µI 2 / 2 r2 . Since, the ∴ |e | = 2 × 10−3 × 20 × 10−3 V = 40 µV
other co-axially placed coil has a very small radius. B2 may
be considered constant over it’s cross-sectional area. Hence, 109. (c) The induced emf is given by
µ π r2  µ I  di 
φ = πr12 B2 = 0 1 I 2 = M 12 I 2 Q B = 0  | e| =  L  = 0.4 × 50 = 20 V
2r2  2r   dt 

µ 0 π r12 110. (b) Energy stored inductor

Thus, M 12 = 1 2 1
2r2 E= LI = × 40 ( 2 )2 mJ = 80 mJ
2 2
µ 0 πr 12
⇒ M 12 = M 21 = . 111. (d) Energy stored in a self-inductor,
2r2
1 2 1
E= Li = × 200 × 10−3 × ( 4 )2 = 1.6 J.
99. (b) Mutual induction depends upon the magnetic 2 2
permeability of medium between the coils ( µ r ) or nature of 112. (c) Given, number of turns of solenoid, N = 1000.
material on which two coils are wound.
Current, I = 4A
101. (d) The self-induced emf always opposes any change
(increase or decrease) of current in coil. Magnetic flux, φ B = 4 × 10−3 Wb
103. (c) From formula for a circular coil L = µ 0 n 2 Al Q Self-inductance of solenoid is given by
φ ⋅N
L ∝ n2 L= B …(i)
I
So, if n is double, so inductance will be four times.
dW dI Substitute the given values in Eq. (i), we get
104. (a) Rate of work done, = LI . 4 × 10−3 × 1000
dt dt L= = 1H
I 4
105. (d) Work done, W = ∫0 LIdI.
113. (b) Induced emf in the coils given by
106. (d) When the two coils are joined in series such that, the dI
e=L
winding of one is opposite to the other, then the emf dt
produced in first coil is 180° out of phase of the emf (10 − 5 )
produced in second coil. ⇒ e = 10 × = 250 V
0.2
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 173

114. (a) The emf induced in the inductor is given by 120. (b) Self-inductance of coil is given as

|e | = L
di   µ 0I  
N  2R   ( πR )N = LI
2
dt  
V 10
Current, I = = = 2A µ 0 N 2 πR 4 π × 10−7
R 15 ⇒ L= = × ( 500 )2 × π × ( 5 × 10−2 )
2 2
Circuit switches off in 1 ms.
= 25 × 10−3 H = 25 mH
or dt = 1 × 10−3 s, dI = 2 A
and L = 10 H 121. (c) The energy stored in an inductor
1 2
∴ Induced emf in inductor is U= LI
dI 2 2
| e |= L = 10 × = 2 × 104 V
dt 1 × 10−3 122. (b) Flux φ = Li (L = self-inductance of the coil)
φ 10 × 10−6
115. (b) Solenoids 1 and 2 were wound using the similar wire and ⇒ Self-inductance, L = = = 5 × 10−3 = 5 mH
same number of turns ⇒ L1 = L 2 i 2 × 10−3
Solenoid 3 was wound using superconducting wire (means 123. (a) Area, A = 10−3 m2
R = 0) infinite current will flow, so resistance to change of
current = 0 ⇒ L 3 = 0 Length, l = 31.4 cm = 0.314 m
So, L1 = L 2 and L 3 = 0 103
A = 10−3 m2 , n = = turns per unit
116. (b) When coil is open, there is no current in it, hence no flux 0.314
associated with it i. e., φ = 0. Also, we know that flux linked length
with the coil is directly proportional to the current in the ⇒ (µ 0 nI )( nl )( A ) = LI
coil, ⇒ L = µ 0 n 2 Al
i. e., φ ∝ i ⇒ φ = Li 2
 103 
−7
where, L is proportionally constant known as ⇒ L = 4 π × 10 ×   × 10−3 × 0.314 = 4 mH
self-inductance.  0.314 
φ
∴ L= = 0 N2
i 124. (c) φ = µ r µ o Ai
 V l
Again, since i = 0, hence R = ∞. Q R = 
 I (7.5 × 10−3 )2 × 3
117. (c) The induced emf is = 600 × 4 π × 10−7 × 50 × 50 π ×
6 × 10−1
di
e = −L = 16.6 × 10−3 Wb = 1.66 m Wb
dt
Here, di = ( 2 − 10 ) A = − 8 A, 125. (b) The magnetic energy is
⇒ dt = 0.1s, e = 3.28 V 1 2
UB = LI
L( −8 ) 2
∴ 3.28 = −
01
. 2
1  B 
3.28 × 0.1 = L  (Since, B = µ 0 nI , for a solenoid)
⇒ L= = 0.04 H 2  µ 0n
8
2
di (1.5 − 1) 1  B  1
118. (d) Induced emf, |e | = L = ( 60 × 10−3 ) × = (µ 0 n 2 Al )   = B 2 Al
dt 0.1 2  µ 0n 2µ 0
60 × 10−3 × 0.5
= = 0.3 126. (c) One method to induce an emf or current in a loop is
0.1 through a change in the loop’s orientation or a change in its
e 0.3 effective area.
Induced current, i = = = 0.1 A
R 3 As the coil rotates in a magnetic field B, the effective area of
the loop (the face perpendicular to the field) is Acos θ ,
119. (d) The inductance of a coil of wire of N turns is given by where, θ is the angle between A and B.
φ
L= N This method of producing a flux change is the principle of
i operation of a simple AC generator. An AC generator
where, i is current and φ is magnetic flux. converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Given, N = 100, i = 5 A, φ = 10−5 Tm2 (turn)−1 128. (c) When the coil is rotated with a constant angular speed ω
the angle θ between the magnetic field vector B and the area
10−5 vector A of the coil at any instant t is θ = ωt (assuming
∴ L = 100 × = 0.20 mH
5 θ = 0° at t = 0 ).
174 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

129. (b) The effective area of the coil exposed to the magnetic 137. (c) Here, ν = 0.5 Hz, N = 100, A = 0.1m2 and B = 0.01 T
field lines changes with time, the flux at any time t is (Q ε = ε 0 sin ωt = NBAω sin ωt)
φ B = BA cos θ = BA cos ωt ε max = NBAω (Q sin ωt = 1)
130. (c) The maximum value of the emf is NBAω. ε 0 = NBA ( 2πν ) = 100 × 0.01 × 0.1 × 2 × 3.14 × 0.5
131. (a) From Faraday’s law, the induced emf for the rotating coil = 0.314 V
of N turns is then, The maximum voltage is 0.314 V.
dφ B d 138. (a) Mutual inductance of two coils
ε=N = − NBA (cos ωt )
dt dt µ 0 R12 πR22
Thus, the instantaneous value of the emf is M =
2( R12 × x2 )3 / 2
ε = NBA ω sin ωt
where, x = distance between the centres
where, NBAω is the maximum value of the emf, which
occurs when sin ωt = ± 1. If we denote NBAω as ε 0 , then Flux through the bigger coil
ε = ε 0 sin ωt µ π 2R 2R 2
M = 0 ⋅ 2 1 12
dφ B 4 π ( R1 × x )
133. (a) = − NBAω sin ωt , change of flux is greatest for
dt On substituting the values, we get
ωt = θ = 90° , 270°, θ = 90° , 270° .
µ ( 2 )( 20 × 10−2 )2
134. (d) From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction M = 0 × π( 0.3 × 10−2 ) 2
2[( 0.2 )2 + ( 015
. )2 ]
Mdi
e=− On solving, we get, M = 9.216 × 10−11 ≈ 9.2 × 10−11 Wb
dt
e N∆φ
⇒ M =− 139. (d) Induced emf =
di / dt ∆t
Given, e = 5π V and i = 10 sin (100 πt ), Peak value = N 1 BA1 ω = 100 V
 di  Here, 2 π r1 × 100 = 2 π r2 × N 2 (given)
∴   = 10 × 100π r × 100 1 × 100
 dt  max N2 = 1 =
N
= 50 = 1
5π r2 2 2
∴ M =− = − 5 × 10−3 H = 5 mH Q e0 = N 2 BA 2ω
10 × 100π
N
135. (c) Mutual inductance between two coils M = 0.005 H ⇒ e0 = × B × 4 A 1 × ω = 2 × (initial emf) = 200 V
2
Peak current I 0 = 10 A (Q A 2 = 4 A 1 )
Angular frequency ω = 100π rad s −1 140. (c) When a coil of N number of turns and area A is rotated
in external magnetic field B, magnetic flux linked with the
The current I = I 0 sin ωt
coil changes and hence an emf is induced in the coil. At this
d d instant t, if e is the emf induced in the coil, then alternating
or = ( I 0 sin ωt ) = I 0 cos ωt ⋅ ω
dt dt emf induced is
= 10 × 1 × 100 π = 1000 π e = e0 sin ωt
Hence, induced emf is given by e NBAω
Maximum current i0 = 0 =
di R R
e=M × = 0.005 × 1000 × π = 5 πV −2
dt Given, N = 1, B = 10 T
136. (d) ε = 200sin 100 πt A = π(0.3)2 m2 , R = π 2 Ω
200 −1  200
f = s and ω = 2π  
60  60 
1 × 10−2 × π (0.3)2 × 2π × 200
B
∴ i0 =
60 × π 2
Coil
= 6 × 10−3 A = 6 mA
ε 0 = 200, ω = 100 π
141. (b) The emf induced is directly proportional to rate at which
Q BANω = ε 0 flux is intercepted which varies directly as the speed of
ε 200 rotation of the generator.
∴ B= 0 = = 0.01 T
ANω (0.25 × 0.25) × 1000 × 100 π 120
Now, speed = × 1500 rpm = 1800 rpm
100
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 175

142. (d) As the coil is rotated, angle θ (angle which normal to the 152. (a) The inductance coils made of copper will have very
coil makes with B at any instant t) changes, therefore small ohmic resistance. Due to change in magnetic flux a
magnetic flux φ linked with the coil changes and hence, an large induced current will be produced in such an inductance
emf is induced in the coil. At this instant t , if e is the emf coil which will offer appreciable opposition to the flow of
induced in the coil, then current.
dφ d 153. (a) If B = 0, then φ = B ⋅ A = 0.
e=− =− ( NAB cos ωt )
dt dt If φ = 0, then φ = B ⋅ A = 0. B may or may not be zero because
where, N is number of turns in the coil. angle between B and A may be 90°. BAcosθ = 0 for θ = 90°.
d
⇒ e = − NAB (cos ωt ) 154. (c) Scalar product of two vectors can be scalar or vector.
dt
155. (c) If B = 0, then φ = B ⋅ A = 0
= − NAB ( − sin ωt ) ω
⇒ e = NAB ω sin ωt When φ = 0, B may or may not be zero.
The induced emf will be maximum. 156. (a) Wherever the term ‘coil’ or ‘loop’ is used, it is assumed
When sin ω t = maximum = 1 that they are made up of conducting material.
∴ e max = e0 = NABω × 1 157. (a) The direction of induced emf is always such as to oppose
the change that causes it. It is based upon conservation of
⇒ e = e0 sin ωt
energy.
Therefore, e would be maximum, hence current is maximum
(as i0 = e0 / R) when θ = 90°, i. e., normal to plane of coil is 158. (c) Electric field lines of electric field of static electric
perpendicular to the field or plane of coil is parallel to charges do not form closed loops, they start from positive
magnetic field. charge and end at negative charge.
143. (c) According to Faraday’s law of the conservation
mechanical energy into electrical energy is in accordance + –
with the law of conservation of energy. It is also clearly
known that in pure resistance, the emf is in phase with the
current.
Electric field lines of electric field due to time varying
144. (d) Lenz’s law is based on conservation of energy and
magnetic field form closed loops.
induced emf always opposes the cause of it, change in
magnetic flux.
145. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is Magnetic
Electric field increasing
correct explanation of assertion. field with time
line
Increasing B causes induced current I due to induced electric
field E along I.
Note This induced electric field is non-conservative, makes closed
159. (a) Coil comes to rest quickly because of eddy current
loop electric field lines.
generated.
So, time varying magnetic field generates electric field. 160. (c) The inductance coils made of conductor will have very
small ohmic resistance. Due to change in magnetic flux a
146. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the large induced current will be produced in such an
correct explanation of assertion. inductance, which will offer appreciable opposition to the
148. (a) If the inner solenoid was much shorter than (and placed flow of current.
well inside) the outer solenoid, then we could still have 161. (a) In self-induction, flux linkage through a coil of N turns
calculated the flux linkage N 1θ1 because the inner solenoid is proportional to the current through the coil.
is effectively immersed in a uniform magnetic field due to
the outer solenoid. r I
N turns
150. (c) The relation of induced emf is
Ldi e 1 Ldi
e= and current i is given by i = =
dt R R dt
µ 0I
di R i Magnetic field at centre = B = N ∝ NI
⇒ =i = 2r
dt L L/ R
In general, magnetic field inside circle of radius ∝ NI
In order to decrease the rate of increase of current through
L ⇒ Flux through coil ∝ NI πr2 ∝ NI ∝ I
solenoid we have to increase the time constant = .
R ⇒ Flux linkage ∝ I ⇒ Nφ B ∝ I ⇒ Nφ B = LI
176 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

162. (b) It would be extremely difficult to calculate the flux Overall inductance will increase
linkage with the outer solenoid as the magnetic field due to i. e., L = L 0 + L 0 + 2 L 0 = 4 L0 (for positive coupling)
the inner solenoid would vary across the length as well as But for negative coupling, L = L 0 + L 0 − 2L 0 = 0
cross-section of the outer solenoid.
171. (d) An AC generator consists of a coil mounted on a rotor
163. (b) The self-induced emf is also called the back emf as it shaft. The axis of rotation of the coil is perpendicular to the
opposes any change in the current in a circuit. Physically, direction of the magnetic field. The coil (called armature) is
the self-inductance plays the role of inertia. It is the mechanically rotated in the uniform magnetic field by some
electromagnetic analogue of mass in mechanics. So, work external means.
needs to be done against the back emf ( ε ) in establishing the The rotation of the coil causes the magnetic flux through it
current. This work done is stored as magnetic potential to change, so an emf is induced in the coil. The ends of the
energy. coil are connected to an external circuit by means of slip
164. (b) An exceptionally important application is the generation rings and brushes.
of Alternating Currents (AC). The modern AC generator 172. (b) Modern day generators produce electric power as high as
with a typical output capacity of 100 MW is a highly 500 MW. In most generators, the coils are held stationary,
evolved machine. electromagnets are rotated. In India frequency of rotation of
165. (b) Alternating current changes direction periodically. armature is 50 MHz.
ω = 2πν and ε = ε 0 sin 2 π ν t. 173. (d)
166. (d) Joseph Henry (1797-1878) American experimental
physicist professor at Princeton University and first director
C1
of the Smithsonian Institution. He made important
improvements in electromagnets by winding coils of
insulated wire around iron pole pieces and invented an
N S
electromagnetic motor and a new, efficient telegraph.
He discovered self-induction and investigated how currents
in one circuit induce currents in another.
I
167. (d) Relative motion between the magnet and the coil that is G
responsible for induction in the coil.
169. (b) I, III and IV are correct. Inductance has dimension
When the bar magnet is pushed towards the coil, the pointer
[ML2 T–2 A –2 ]
in the galvanometer G deflects.
170. (d) When two solenoids of inductance L0 are connected in
series at large distance and current i passed through them,
the total flux linkage φ total is the sum of the flux linkages L 0 i
and L 0 i, C1
i. e., φ total = L 0 i + L 0 i C2
If L be the equivalent inductance of the system, then
φ total = Li ∴ Li = L 0 i + L 0 i
(Q current remains same in series)
⇒ L = 2L 0
I
When solenoids are connected in series with one inside the G
other and senses of the turns coinciding, then there will be a
mutual inductance L between them.
In this case the resultant induced emf in the coils is the sum Current is induced in coil C1 due to motion of the current
of the emf ’s e1 and e2 in the respective coils, i. e., carrying coil C 2 .
C1
 di di   di di 
e = e1 + e2 =  − L 0 ± L 0  +  − L 0 ± L 0  C2
 dt dt   dt dt 
where, ( + ) sign is for positive coupling and ( − ) sign for
negative coupling.
di
But e=−L
dt
G K
di di di di
∴ − L = − L0 − L 0 ± 2L 0
dt dt dt dt
Current in C1 is induced by changing current in C 2 .
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 177

174. (a) PQRS forms a closed circuit enclosing an area that changes
(i) The magnetic flux through the rectangular loop abcd as PQ moves.
increases, due to the motion of the loop into the region of P
magnetic field. The induced current must flow along the S M
path bcdab, so that it opposes the increasing flux.
(ii) Due to the outward motion, magnetic flux through the l
triangular loop abc decreases due to which the induced
R N
current flows along bacb, so as to oppose the change in flux. Q
(iii) As the magnetic flux decreases due to motion of the x
irregular shaped loop abcd out of the region of magnetic
field, the induced current flows along cdabc, so as to oppose
It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B which is
change in flux.
perpendicular to the plane of this system. If the length
176. (b) Due to current carrying wire, the magnetic field in loop RQ = x and RS = l, the magnetic flux φ B enclosed by the
will be inwards w.r.t. the paper. As current is increased, loop PQRS will be φ B = Blx.
magnetic flux associated with loop increases. So a current
184. (d) Since, x is changing with time, the rate of change of flux
will be induced so as to decrease magnetic flux inside the
φ B will induce an emf given by
loop. Hence, induced current in the loop will be
− dφ B d
anti-clockwise. The current in left side of loop shall be ε= = − ( Blx )
downwards and hence repelled by wire. The current in right dt dt
side of loop is upwards and hence attracted by wire. Since dx
= − Bl = B lv
left side of loop is nearer to wire, repulsive force will dt
dominate. 185. (a) Here, we have used dx/ dt = − v which is the speed of
Hence wire will repel the loop (b) Options in (b) will be the conductor PQ.
opposite of that in (a) (c) When the loop is moved away
186. (c) The induced emf Blv is called motional emf. Thus, we
from wire, magnetic flux decreases in the loop. Hence the
are able to produce induced emf by moving a conductor
options for this case shall be same as in (b) (d) When the
instead of varying the magnetic field, that is by changing the
loop is moved towards the wire, magnetic flux increases in
magnetic flux enclosed by the circuit.
the loop. Hence, the options for this case shall be same as
in (a). 187. (c) It is also possible to explain the motional emf expression
in equation, ε = Blv by involving the Lorentz force acting on
177. (d) The steady current in the coil C 2 produces a steady
the free charge carriers of conductor PQ. Consider any
magnetic field. As coil C 2 is moved towards the coil C1 , the arbitrary charge q in the conductor PQ. When the rod moves
galvanometer shows a deflection. This indicates that electric with speed v, the charge will also be moving with speed v in
current is induced in coil C1 . When C 2 is moved away, the the magnetic field B.
galvanometer shows a deflection again, but this time in the
The Lorentz force on this charge is qvB in magnitude and its
opposite direction. The deflection lasts as long as coil C 2 is
direction is towards Q.
in motion. When the coil C 2 is held fixed and C1 is moved,
the same effects are observed. It is the relative motion All charges experience the same force, in magnitude and
between the coils that induces the electric current. direction, irrespective of their position in the rod PQ.
The work done in moving the charge from P to Q is,
178. (b) Opposite direction. Refer to sol. 177.
W = qvBl
179. (a) Coil C 2 is in motion. Refer to sol. 177.
Since, emf is the work done per unit charge,
180. (a) Galvanometer shows the deflection, same effects are W
ε= = B lv
observed. q
181. (a) The motion of a magnet towards or away from coil C1 in This equation gives emf induced across the rod PQ and is
Fig. (i) and moving a current-carrying coil C 2 towards or identical to motional emf equation.
away from coil C1 in Fig. (ii), change the magnetic flux 188. (a) Eddy current are minimised by using laminations of
associated with coil C1 . The change in magnetic flux metal to make a metal core.
induces emf in coil C1 . It is this induced emf which causes
electric current to flow in coil C1 and through the The laminations are separated by an insulating material
galvanometer. like lacquer. The plane of the laminations must be
arranged parallel to the magnetic field, so that they cut
183. (d) A rectangular conductor PQRS in which the conductor across the eddy current paths. This arrangement reduces
PQ is free to move. The rod PQ is moved towards the left the strength of the eddy current. Since, the dissipation of
with a constant velocity v as shown in the figure. Assume the strength of electric current, heat loss is substantially
that there is no loss of energy due to friction. reduced.
178 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

189. (c) Eddy currents paths. Refer to solution 188. 198. (b,d) φ 0 = 0 for all cases. So, induced emf = 0
190. (b) Induction furnace can be used to produce high
temperatures and can be utilised to prepare alloys, by ×
melting the constituent metals. A high frequency alternating ×
current is passed through a coil which surrounds the metals × ×
× × ×
to be melted. The eddy currents generated in the metals × × × ×
produce high temperatures sufficient to melt it.
191. (a) Alloys, by melting the constituent metals. 199. (a,b) The magnetic flux through area A placed in magnetic
192. (c) Eddy current generated in the metal produce high field B is
temperature sufficient to melt it. φ = BA cos θ
dB
193. (b) Two long co-axial solenoids each of length l are shown Given, θ = 0° , − = 2 Ts −1
dt
in the following figure. We denote the radius of the inner
solenoid S 1 by r1 and the number of turns per unit length by A = ( 20 )2 cm2 = 4 × 10−2 m2
n1 . The corresponding quantities for the outer solenoid S 2 by By Faraday’s law, induced emf is
r2 and n2 , respectively. Let N 1 and N 2 be the total number of
∆φ dB
turns of coils S 1 and S 2 , respectively. e=−N = − 400 × A
∆t dt
r2  dB 
= − ( 400 ) ( 4 × 10−2 )  − 
l
 dt 
= 400 × 4 × 10−2 × 2 = 32 V
200. (a,c,d) Here, radius r = 10 cm = 10 × 10−2 m
Number of turn N = 500
Magnetic field B = 3 × 10−5 T
r1
N1 turns
S1 Resistance R = 2 Ω
S2 Initial flux through the coil φBi = BA cos θ
N2 turns = 3 × 10−5 × π × (10 × 10−2 )2 cos 0°

When a current I 2 is set up through S 2 , it in turn sets up a = 3π × 10−7 Wb

magnetic flux through S 1 . Let us denote it by φ1 . The Final flux after rotation
corresponding flux linkage with solenoid S 1 is φ B f = 3 × 10−5 × π × (10 × 10−2 ) × cos 180°
N 1 φ1 = M 12 I 2
= − 3π × 10−7 Wb
M 12 is called the mutual inductance of solenoid S 1
Emf induced in the coil
w.r.t. solenoid S 2 . It is also referred to as the coefficient of
mutual induction. ∆φ B  φB f − φB i 
E=−N = − N  

194. (b) M 12 . Refer to solution 193. ∆t  ∆t 

195. (c) M 12 is coefficient of mutual induction. Magnetic field in 500 × ( −3π × 10−7 − 3π × 10−7 )
=−
S 2 = µ 0 n2 I 2 0.5
−2
500 × 6π × 10 500 × 6π × 10−2
196. (d) Magnetic field due to the current. = = = 2 × 10−3 V
I 2 in S 2 is µ 0 n2 I 2 0.5 0.5
2 × 10−3
The resulting flux linkage with coil S 1 is Induced current in the coil, I = = 10−3 A = 1mA
2Ω
N 1 φ1 = ( nl )( π r12 )(µ 0 n2 I 2 )
203. (a) Given, number of turns n = 15 per cm = 1500 per metre
= µ 0 n1 n2 πr12 lI 2
Area of small loop A = 2 cm 2 = 2 × 10− 4 m 2
197. (a, b, c, d) From φ = Li ; L = meter/ampere dI 4 − 2 2
Change in current = = = 20 A /s
di volt -second dt 0.1 0.1
From e = L ; L =
dt ampere Let e be the induced emf,
1 2 According to Faraday’s law,
From E = Li ; L = Joule/ampere2 .
2 dφ d
e= = ( BA ) (Q φ = BA)
From R = ωL ; L = ohm-sec dt dt
 CHAPTER 6 : Electromagnetic Induction 179

dB d Thus, the emf developed between the centre and ring is 100 V.
or e= A = A (µ 0 n I )
dt dt 206. (a) Given, radius of coil = 8 cm = 0.08 m
(Q Magnetic field inside the solenoid B = µ 0 nI)
Number of turns = 20
dI
or e = A µ 0n Resistance of closed-loop = 10 Ω
dt Angular speed ω = 50 rads −1
⇒ e = 2 × 10− 4 × 4 × 3.14
Magnitude of magnetic field B = 3 × 10− 2 T
× 10− 7 × 1500 × 20
Induced emf produced in the coil e = NBAω sin ωt
(Q µ 0 = 4 π × 10− 7 ) For maximum emf, sin ωt = 1
∴ Maximum emf
⇒ e = 7.5 × 10 6 V
e 0 = NBAω = 20 × 3 × 10− 2 × 3.14 (0.08)2 × 50
Thus, the induced emf in the loop is 7.5 × 10 6 V.
⇒ e 0 = 0.603 V
204. (b) (i) When velocity is normal to the longer side
e0 0.603
( l = 8 cm = 8 × 10− 2 m ) Maximum current in the coil I 0 = = = 0.0603 A
Given, length of the loop R 10
Average induced emf
× × v × ×
1 2π 1 2π
× ×
2 cm
× ×
eav =
T ∫0 e dt =
T ∫0
NBAω sin ωt dt
2π
8 cm 1 cos ωt 
⇒ eav = ⋅ NABω 
 ω  0
× × × ×
v T
× × × × NBA
= [cos 2π − cos 0° ]
l = 8 cm = 8 × 10− 2 m T
NBA
Width of the loop b = 2 cm = 2 × 10− 2 m ⇒ eav = [1 − 1] = 0
T
Velocity of the loop = 1cms −1 = 0.01 ms −1
For full cycle average emf, eav = 0
Magnitude of magnetic field B = 0.3 T Average power loss due to heating
In this case, motional emf e = Blv = 0.3 × 8 × 10− 2 × 0.01 eI 0.603 × 0.0603
= 0 0 = = 0.018 W
= 2.4 × 10− 4 V 2 2
205. (c) Length of rod l = 1m 207. (b) Given, velocity of straight wire = 5 ms −1
ω 10 m
W E

v = 5 ms–1
l
Magnetic field of straight wire,
Fixed
B = 0.30 × 10− 4 Wbm −2
Length of wire, l = 10 m
Angular frequency of rod ω = 400 rads −1
Emf induced in the wire e = Blv sin θ
Magnetic field B = 0.5 T
Here, θ = 90°
The linear velocity of fixed end = 0 ∴ sin θ = 1
The linear velocity of other end = lω (Q Wire is falling at right angle to earth’s horizontal
(Q v = rω) magnetic field component.)
0 + lω lω = 0.3 × 10− 4 × 10 × 5 = 1.5 × 10− 3 V
Average linear velocity v = = …(i)
2 2
208. (b) Change in current,dI = 5 − 0 = 5 A
By using the formula of motional emf,
Blω Time taken in current change dt = 0.1s
e = Bvl = ⋅l [from Eq.
2 Induced average emf eav = 200 V
(i)] dI
Induced emf in the circuit, e = L
0.5 × 1 × 400 × 1 dt
⇒ e=
2  5 200
⇒ 200 = L   or L = = 4H
⇒ e = 100 V  0.1 50
180 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

209. (c) Given, mutual inductance of coil 213. (b) When cylindrical bar magnet is rotated about its axis, no
M = 1.5 H change in flux linked with the circuit takes place, consequently
Current change in coil dI = 20 − 0 = 20 A no emf induces and hence, no current flows through the
ammeter A.
Time taken in change dt = 0.5 s
dI dφ Axis
Induced emf in the coil e = M = A
dt dt N
or dφ = M . dI = 1.5 × 20 Bar
ω
⇒ dφ = 30 Wb magnet

Thus, the change of flux linkage is 30 Wb.

210. (a) Given, length of solenoid l = 30 cm = 30 × 10− 2 m
S
Area of cross-section A = 25 cm 2 = 25 × 10− 4 m 2
214. (d) When the A stops moving the current in B become zero,
Number of turns N = 500
it possible only if the current in A is constant. If the current
Current I1 = 2.5 A, I 2 = 0 in A would be variable, there must be an induced emf
Brief time dt = 10− 3 s (current) in B even if the A stops moving.
Induced emf in the solenoid 215. (a) When the current in B (at t = 0) is counter-clockwise and
dφ d
e= = ( BA ) (Q φ = BA) the coil A is considered above to it. The counter-clockwise
dt dt flow of the current in B is equivalent to north pole of magnet
Magnetic field induction B at a point well inside the long and magnetic field lines are emanating upward to coil A.
solenoid carrying current I is When coil A start rotating at t = 0, the current in A is
B = µ 0 nI constant along clockwise direction by Lenz’s rule.
 N 216. (b) The self-inductance of a long solenoid of cross-sectional
 where, n = Number of turns per unit length = 
 l area A and length l, having n turns per unit length, filled the
inside of the solenoid with a material of relative
dB d  N  µ N dI
∴ e = NA =A µ 0 I = A 0 ⋅ permeability ( e. g ., soft iron, which has a high value of
dt dt  l  l dt relative permeability) is given by
⇒ L = µ r µ 0 n 2 Al
500 2.5 n=N /l
e = 500 × 25 × 10−4 × 4 × 314
. × 10– 7 × × where,
30 × 10−2 10−3
217. (a,b,d) A metal plate is getting heated when a DC or AC
⇒ e = 6.5 V current is passed through the plate, known as heating effect
211. (c) Here, A = L2 k$ and B = B0 ( 2i$ + 3$j + 4 k$ ) T of current. Also, when metal plate is subjected to time
varying magnetic field, the magnetic flux linked with the
φ = B ⋅ A = B0 ( 2$i + 3$j + 4 k$ ). L2 k$ = 4 B0 L2 Wb
plate changes and eddy currents comes into existence which
212. (b) Also, the magnetic flux linked with uniform surface of makes the plate hot.
area A in uniform magnetic field is given by 218. (a,b,c) Here, magnetic flux linked with the isolated coil
Y change when the coil being in a time varying magnetic field,
the coil moving in a constant magnetic field or in time
D C varying magnetic field.
E 219. (a,d) The mutual inductance M12 of coil increases when they
X are brought nearer and is the same as M 21 of coil 2 with
A B
respect to coil 1.
F
Z 220. (b,c) When circular coil expands radially in a region of
magnetic field such that the magnetic field is in the same
φ = B⋅A plane as the circular coil or the magnetic field has a
A = A1 + A 2 = ( L2 k$ + L2 i$ ) perpendicular (to the plane of the coil) component whose
and B = B ( $i + k$ ) T
0 magnitude is decreasing suitably in such a way that the
Now, φ = B ⋅ A = B0 ( i$ + k$ ) ⋅ ( L2 k$ + L2 i$ ) cross-product of magnetic field and surface area of plane of
coil remain constant at every instant.
= 2B0 L2 Wb
 C H A P T E R

7
Alternating Current
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Alternating Current (AC) is the current which varies Then,
in both magnitude as well as direction alternatively (i) Inductive reactance, XL = ωL = 2 πfL
and periodically. π
(ii) Voltage leads the current by phase .
i = i 0 sinωt or i = i 0 cos ωt 2
π
where, i 0 = peak value or maximum value of AC. If V = V 0 sin ωt , then i = i 0 sin ωt − 
2. RMS Value of AC is defined as the value of steady  2
current that would generate the same amount of heat π
(iii) Power factor, cos φ = cos = 0
in a given resistor as would be generated by the 2
given AC current over a complete cycle. Thus, average power consumption,
3. Average or Mean Value of AC is defined as the value Pav = V rms i rms cos φ = 0
of steady current which would send same amount of
charge through a circuit that is sent by the AC in the 8. In an L-R Series AC Circuit
in half-cycle. V rms
2i Impedance, Z = R 2 + XL2 =
i av = 0 = 0637
. i0 i rms
π
X L ωL
4. The instantaneous alternating emf is given by For the phase angle, tan φ = = , voltage leads
R R
V = V 0 sinωt or V = V 0 cos ωt
current by phase φ.
V
Also , V rms = 0 = 0707. or V rms = 707
. % of V 0
2 9. In an AC Circuit Containing Capacitor Only
2V Instantaneous value E is given by E = E 0 sinωt
and V av = 0 = 0637 . or V rms = 63.7% of V 0 1 1
π Then, (i) Capacitive reactance, XC = =
ωC 2 πfC
5. Power In a AC circuit, both emf and current change
continuously w.r.t. time, so in circuit, we have to (ii) Capacitor offers infinite reactance in DC circuit
calculate average power in complete cycle (0 → T ). as f = 0.
π
Pav = V rms i rms cos φ (iii) Voltage lags behind the current by phase .
where, cos φ = Power factor. 2
 π
6. In an AC Circuit Containing Resistance Only If V = V 0 sin ωt , then i = i 0 sin ωt + 
 2
Instantaneous value E is given by E = E 0 sinωt
Then, voltage and current are in same phase (iv) Power factor (cos φ) is minimum and equal to zero.
i = i 0 sinωt ∴ Average power consumption (during a
7. In an AC Circuit Containing Inductor Only complete cycle),
Instantaneous value E is given by E = E 0 sinωt Pav = V rms i rms cos φ = 0
182 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

10. In an C-R Series AC Circuit 14. L-C Oscillations When the charged capacitor is
V connected with the inductor, current flows through
Impedance, Z = rms = R 2 + XC2 the inductor and energy stored in the inductor in the
i rms
form of magnetic field and capacitor discharges and
XC 1
For the phase angle, tan φ = = vice-versa. In this way, energy oscillates between
R ωCR capacitor and inductor.
11. In an L-C Series AC Circuit 1
The frequency of oscillation is ω 0 =
V LC
Impedance, Z = rms = XL − XC
i rms 15. Quality Factor It indicates the sharpness of
Phase difference between voltage and current is π /2. resonance in an L-C-R series AC circuit.
Thus, power factor, cos φ = 0 V V ω L 1 1 L
Quality factor = L = C = 0 = =
12. In an L-C-R Series AC Circuit VR VR R ω 0CR R C
V rms Quality factor is also defined as
(i) Impedance, Z = R 2 + ( XL − XC ) 2 =
i rms  Maximum energy stored 
Q = 2π  
(ii) If XL > XC , then V leads i by φ and if XL < XC , then  Energy dissipated / cycle
V lags behind i by φ.
X − XC VL − VC 16. A transformer is device used either to obtain a high
where, tan φ = L = AC voltage from a low voltage AC source or vice-versa.
R VR
For an ideal transformer,
13. In Resonant L-C-R Series AC Circuit es Vs N ip
= = s = =k
(i) XL = XC ep V p N p is
(ii) Impedance, Z = Zmin = R where, k is known as transformation ratio.
(iii) The phase difference between V and i is 0°. For a step-up transformer, k > 1 but for a step-down
(iv) Resonant angular frequency, ω 0 =
1
. transformer k < 1.
LC The efficiency of a transformer is given by
(v) Average power consumption Pav becomes Output power Vs ⋅ is
η= =
maximum. Input power Vp ⋅ i p
V
(vi) Current becomes maximum and imax = rms For an ideal transformer, η = 100% or 1. However, for
R practical transformer, η ≈ 85-90%.

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
AC Voltage Applied to a Resistor
1. Which current do not change direction with time? 4. When the current changes continuously in magnitude
(a) DC current (b) AC current and periodically in direction, several times per
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) second, the current is known as the
(a) direct current (b) induced current
2. The electric mains supply in our homes and offices is
(c) displacement current (d) alternating current
a voltage that varies like a sine function with time.
Such a voltage is called ..... and the current driven by 5. Consider a source which
it in a circuit is called the ..... . produces sinusoidally varying
ε R
(a) DC voltage, AC current (b) AC voltage, DC current potential difference across its
(c) AC voltage, DC voltage (d) AC voltage, AC current terminals, this potential difference
called AC voltage, be given by the
3. Potential difference between two points is called
expression
(a) AC current (b) voltage
(a) Vm sin ωt (b) Vm cos ωt
(c) DC current (d) resistor
(c) 2Vm cos ωt (d) 2Vm sin ωt
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 183

6. Which of the following graphs shows, in a pure 13. A group of electric lamps having total power rating of
resistor, the voltage and current are in phase? 600 W, 200V is supplied by an AC voltage
Vm V V = 169 sin (314 t + 60° ). The rms value of the current is
im i
im i (a) 10 A (b) 9.04 A (c) 1.48 A (d) 8 mA
(a) O 2π
π ωt (b) O π ωt 14. The electric mains in the house is marked 220 V,
2π 50 Hz. Write down the equation for instantaneous
Vm V
voltage.
Vm V
(a) 3.1V sin (100π ) t (b) 31.1V cos (100π ) t
Vm V i (c) 311.1V sin (100π ) t (d) 311.1V cos (100π ) t
im
π
(c)
O π 2π 2π ωt
(d) O ωt 15. The electric current in a circuit is given by i = i0 ( t / τ )
π
im
2π
i
for same time. The rms current for the period t = 0 to
t = τ is
7. The sum of instantaneous current values over one i0 3i0 i0 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) i0
complete cycle is 3 2 2 4
(a) negative (b) positive 16. In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current
(c) zero (d) Both (a) and (b) (a) lags behind the emf in phase
8. When an AC current passes through a resistor there is (b) is in phase with the emf
dissipation of (c) leads the emf in phase
(a) joule heating (b) electrical energy (d) leads the emf in half the cycle behind it in the other half
(c) power (d) Both (a) and (b) 17. The frequency of an alternating voltage is 50 cycles/s
9. To express AC power in the same form as DC power, and its amplitude is 120 V. Then, the rms value of
a special value of current is defined and used, is voltage is
called (a) 101.3 V (b) 84.8 V
(a) root mean square current ( I rms ) (c) 70.7 V (d) 56.5 V
(b) effective current 18. In order to show phase relationship between voltage
(c) induced current and current in AC circuit, we use the notion of
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) phasors (b) sine function
10. Which of the following graphs, shows i / t? (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
i i 19. What is the speed of a phasor which rotates about the
im im
I I
origin?
(a) 2ω (b) ω / 2 (c) ω (d) ω / 4
(a) O (b) O π
2π 3π ωt 2π 3π ωt
20. Which of the following represent the value of voltage
– im im and current at an instant in a purely resistive AC
circuit?
i t
im (a) Vm sin ωt , im sin ωt (b) Vm cos ωt , im cos ω t
I (c) − Vm sin ωt , − im sin ω t (d) − Vm cos ωt , − im cos ω t
(c) O π (d) O I 21. What will be the phase angle between the voltage and
2π ωt π 2π 3π
the current in resistive AC circuit?
– im (a) π / 2 (b) π / 4
(c) π / 3 (d) Zero
11. The household line voltage of 220 V is a rms value
with a peak voltage of 22. Voltage and current in an AC circuit are given by
(a) 310 V (b) 311 V V = 5 sin (100 πt − π / 6)
(c) 307 V (d) 302 V and I = 4 sin (100 πt + π / 6)
12. A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V supply. (a) voltage leads the current by 30°
Find the resistance of the bulb. (b) current leads the voltage by 30°
(a) 48 Ω (b) 484 Ω (c) current leads the voltage by 60°
(c) 480 Ω (d) 350 Ω (d) voltage leads the current by 60°
184 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

23. Alternating current cannot be measured by DC 27. In a circuit, the value of the alternating current is
ammeter, because measured by hot wire ammeter as 10 A. Its peak value
(a) AC cannot pass through DC ammeter will be
(b) average value of current in complete cycle is zero (a) 10 A (b) 20 A (c) 14.14 A (d) 7.07 A
(c) AC is virtual 28. A resistance of 20 Ω is connected to a source of an
(d) AC changes its direction alternating potential, V = 220 sin (100 π t ). The time
24. In an AC circuit, I =100 sin 200 πt. The time required taken by current to change from its peak value to rms
value is
for the current to achieve its peak value will be
(a) 0.2 s (b) 0.25 s
1 1
(a) s (b) s (c) 25 × 10− 3 s (d) 2.5 × 10− 3 s
100 200
1 1 29. If an AC main supply is given to be 220 V. What
(c) s (d) s
300 400 would be the average emf during a positive half-cycle?
(a) 198 V (b) 386 V
25. A generator produces a voltage that is given by (c) 256 V (d) None of these
V = 240 sin 120 t, where t is in seconds. The frequency
and rms voltage are 30. If an alternating voltage is represented as
(a) 60 Hz and 240 V E =141 sin (628 t ), then the rms value of the voltage
(b) 19 Hz and 120 V
and the frequency are respectively
(a) 141 V, 628 Hz (b) 100 V, 50 Hz
(c) 19 Hz and 170 V
(c) 100 V, 100 Hz (d) 141 V, 100 Hz
(d) 754 Hz and 70 V
31. The voltage of an AC source varies with time
26. An alternating current is given by the equation according to equation V =100 sinπt cos 100 πt. where
i = i1 cos ωt + i2 sin ωt. The rms current is given by t is in seconds and V is in volts. Then
1 1
(a) ( i1 + i2 ) (b) ( i1 + i2 )2 (a) the peak voltage of the source is 100 V
2 2 (b) the peak voltage of the source is 50 V
1 1 2
(c) ( i12 + i22 )1 / 2 (d) ( i1 + i22 )1 / 2 (c) the peak voltage of the source is 100/ 2 V
2 2 (d) the frequency of the source is 100 Hz.

Topic 2
AC Voltage Applied to an Inductor
32. Vm
34. i = − cos (ωt ) + constant, in the given equation,
ε L ωL
the integration constant has the dimension of
(a) resistor (b) current (c) voltage (d) inductor
From the above figure, which one of the following 35. The integration constant in above question, is
option is correct? (a) time-independent (b) time-dependent
di di
(a) V − L =0 (b) L − V =0 (c) may be time-independent (d) never time dependent
dt dt
di di 36. The inductive reactance is directly proportional to the
(c) L + V (d) 2L − V =0 (a) inductance (b) frequency of the current
dt dt
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) amplitude of current
V
33. Equation di / dt = = (Vm / L) sin ωt implies that the 37. Which of the following figure shows that the current
L
equation for i ( t ), the current as a function of time, phasor I is π /2 behind the voltage phasor V ?
must be such that V V
(a) its slope di / dt is a sinusoidally varying quantity with I
(a) Vm sin ωt1 (b) Vm sin ωt1
the same phase as the source voltage ωt1 ωt1
(b) an amplitude given byVm / L im sin (ωt1– π/2)
im sin ωt1
(c) Both (a) and (b) I
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 185

38. In a purely inductive AC circuit, the current reaches 46. The current ( I ) in the inductance is varying with time
its maximum value later than the voltage by according to the plot shown in figure. Which one of
(a) one-fourth of a period the following is the correct variation of voltage with
(b) half of a period time in the coil?
(c) three by fourth of a period
(d) complete a period
I
39. A pure inductor of 25.0 mH is connected to a source
of 220 V. Find the inductive reactance if the T/2
t
frequency of the source is 50 Hz.
(a) 785 Ω (b) 6.50 Ω V V
(c) 7.85 Ω (d) 8.75 Ω (a) (b)
40. Refer the above question, the rms current in the t t
T/2 T T/2 T
circuit is
(a) 25 A (b) 16 A V Y
(c) 11 A (d) 28 A (d)
(c) V0
T/2 T
41. Which of the following graphs represents the correct t X
T/2 T t
variation of inductive reactance X L with angular
frequency ω?
XL XL 47. A resistance of 300 Ω and an inductance of 1 / π henry
are connected in a series to an AC voltage of 20 V
(a) (b) and 200 Hz frequency. The phase angle between the
voltage and current is
ω ω (a) tan − 1 4 / 3 (b) tan − 1 3/ 4
(c) tan − 1 3/ 2 (d) tan − 1 2/ 5
XL XL
48. Two inductors L1 (inductance 1mH, internal
(c) (d) resistance 3 Ω) and L2 (inductance 2 mH, internal
resistance 4 Ω), and a resistor R (resistance 12 Ω) are
ω ω all connected in parallel across a 5 V battery. The
circuit is switched on at time t = 0. The ratio of the
42. In a purely inductive AC circuit, L = 30.0 mH and the maximum to the minimum current ( I max / I min )
rms voltage is 150 V, frequency ν = 50 Hz. The drawn from the battery is [JEE Advanced 2016]
inductive reactance is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
(a) 15.9 Ω (b) 9.42 Ω
(c) 10 Ω (d) 8.85 Ω 49. In an L-R circuit connected to a battery, the rate at
which energy is stored in the inductor is plotted
43. An inductance of negligible resistance whose against time during the growth of current in the
reactance is 120 Ω at 200 Hz is connected to a 240 V, circuit. Which of the following figure best represents
60 Hz, power line. The current in the inductor is
the resulting curve?
(a) 6.66 A (b) 6.60 A
(c) 5.45 A (d) 54.5 A dU dU
dt dt
44. In a circuit containing an inductance of zero (a) (b)
resistance, the emf of the applied AC voltage leads
the current by
0 Time 0 Time
(a) 90° (b) 45°
(c) 30° (d) 0° dU dU
dt dt
45. In an AC circuit, the current lags behind the voltage
(c) (d)
by π /2. The components of the circuit are
(a) R and L (b) L and C
(c) R and C (d) only R 0 Time 0 Time
Topic 3
AC Voltage Applied to a Capacitor
50. Current I across the capacitor in a purely capacitive 58. A 15.0 µF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz
AC circuit is source. The capacitive reactance is
(a) im sin (ωt + π / 4 ) (b) im sin (ωt + π / 2 ) (a) 220 Ω (b) 215 Ω (c) 212 Ω (d) 204 Ω
(c) im cos (ωt + π / 4 ) (d) im cos (ωt + π / 2 )
59. Refer the above question, the current (rms and peak)
51. The amplitude of the oscillating current in the above in the circuit is
capacitive AC circuit is (a) 1.47 A, 2.04 A (b) 1.08 A, 1.0 A
(a) ωCVm (b) 2ωCVm (c) 1.04 A, 1.47 A (d) 2.4 A, 1.08 A
ωCVm 3 ωCVm
(c) (d) 60. Same current is flowing in two alternating circuits.
4 2
The first circuit contains only inductance and the
52. Which of the following is called capacitive reactance other contains only a capacitance. If the frequency of
and is denoted by X C ? the emf of AC is increased, the effect on the value of
(a) ωC (b) 1/ωC the current will be
(c) 2/ωC (d) ωC / R (a) increase in the first circuit and decrease in the other
(b) increase in both the circuits
53. The dimension of capacitive reactance is the same as
(c) decrease in both the circuits
that of
(d) decrease in the first circuit and increase in the other
(a) current (b) inductance reactance
(c) voltage (d) resistance 61. An alternating voltage E = 200 2 sin (100 t ) is
54. Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to connected to a 1µF, capacitor through an AC
(a) frequency (b) capacitance ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be
(c) voltage (d) Both (a) and (b) (a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 40 mA (d) 80 mA
55. For AC voltage applied to a capacitor, the current is
62. If the frequency is doubled, what happens to the
ahead of voltage by
capacitive reactance and the current?
(a) π / 2 (b) π / 4
3π (a) Capacitive reactance is halved, the current is doubled
(c) (d) π (b) Capacitive reactance is doubled, the current is halved
4
(c) Capacitive reactance and the current are halved
56. Which of the following diagram shows that the (d) Capacitive reactance and the current are doubled
current phasor I is π /2 ahead of the voltage phasor V
as they rotate counter-clockwise? 63. Which of the following graphs represents the
correct variation of capacitive reactance X C with
V V frequency f ?
Vm sin ωt1 I XC XC
(a) ωt1 (b) Vm sin ωt1 ωt
im sin (ωt1) im sin ωt1 (a) (b)
I
f f
vm sin ωt1 V
V
(c) I (d) XC XC
Vm sin ωt1
ωt
ωt1
im sin ωt1 (c) (d)
im sin (ωt1+ π/2)
I
f f
57. In capacitive AC circuit the current reaches its
maximum value earlier than the voltage by 64. A 60 µF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz AC
(a) half of a period (b) three-fourth of a period supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is
(c) three-two of a period (d) one-fourth of a period (a) 2 A (b) 2.49 A (c) 1.85 A (d) 2.05 A
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 187

65. A resistor and a capacitor are connected in series 66. A resistor of 200 Ω and a capacitor of 15 µF are
with an AC source. If the potential drop across the connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz AC source. The
capacitor is 5V and that across the resistor is 12 V, current in the circuit is
then applied voltage is (a) 755 A (b) 7.55 mA
(a) 13 V (b) 17 V (c) 5 V (d) 12 V (c) 0.755A (d) 0.755 mA

Topic 4
AC Voltage Applied to a Series L-C-R Circuit
67. Consider the figure, the R 70. Which of the following graph, is correct for a series
resistor, inductor and capacitor L-C-R circuit, where X C > X L ?
are in series, therefore ε C
φ φ
(a) the AC current in each L
element is same at any time
i V
(b) amplitude and phase are same in each element (a) V (b) i
O ωt π ωt O ωt 2π ωt
(c) Both (a) and (b) 1 2π 1 3π
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
68. Which one of the following phasor diagrams φ φ
correctly represents the relation between the
phasors VR , VL and VC of a series L-C-R circuit? (c)
V
(d)
V
i
i
VR O ωt O π ωt
VC

ωt1
VC

ωt1 2π 4π 2π
m

m
-V

–V

VR
Lm

Lm
m

V VR
VR

(a) (b)
VR

φ φ 71. The current in the series L-C-R circuit is

Vm Vm
ωt ωt (a) i = im sin (ωt + φ )
Vm
VC +VL VC + VL (b) i = sin (ωt + φ )
R + ( X c − X L )2
2
VC + VL
(c) i = 2 im cos (ωt + φ )
VC
m
+

(d) Both (a) and (b)

VL

(c) (d) All of these

m
m

VR
72. In an L-C-R series AC circuit, then voltage across each
VR

ωt Vm of the components. L, C and R is 50 V. The voltage

φ across the C-R combination will be
V (a) 50 V (b) 50 2 V (c) 100 V (d) zero
69. In the given circuit, the AC source has ω =100 rad/s. 73. In a series L-C-R circuit, the frequency of 10 V AC
Considering the inductor and capacitor to be ideal, voltage source is adjusted in such a fashion that the
the correct choice(s) is (are) [IIT JEE 2012] reactance of the inductor measures 15 Ω and that of the
capacitor 11 Ω. If R = 3 Ω, the potential difference
100 µF 100Ω across the series combination of L and C will be
(a) 8 V (b) 10 V
(c) 22 V (d) 52 V
0.5H 50Ω 74. In a circuit, L, C and R are connected in series with an
I alternating voltage source of frequency f . The current
20 V leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is
1 1
(a) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 A (a) (b)
2πf ( 2πfL + R ) πf ( 2πfL + R )
(b) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 2 A
1 1
(c) The voltage across 100 Ω resistor = 10 2 V (c) (d)
2πf ( 2πfL − R ) πf ( 2πfL − R )
(d) The voltage across 50 Ω resistor = 10 V
188 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

75. In an L-C-R series AC circuit, the voltage across each 78. For series L-C-R circuit, right statement is
of the components, L, C and R is 50 V. The voltage (a) applied emf and potential difference across resistance
across the L-C combination will be are is same phase
(a) 50 V (b) 50 2 V (b) applied emf and potential difference at inductor coil
have phase difference of π / 2
(c) 100 V (d) 0 V (c) potential difference at capacitor and inductor have
phase difference of π / 2
76. In the given circuit, the readings of voltmeters V1 and (d) Potential difference across resistance and capacitor
V2 are 300 V each. The readings of the voltmeter V3 have phase difference of π / 2.
and ammeter A are respectively
79. In an L-C-R series circuit, the potential difference
L C R=100 Ω between the terminals of the inductance is 60 V,
between the terminals of the capacitor is 30 V and
A V1 V2 V3 that across the resistance is 40 V. Then, supply
voltage will be equal to
220 V
(a) 50 V (b) 70 V (c) 130 V (d) 10 V

(a) 100 V, 2.0 A (b) 150 V, 2.2 A 80. An AC source of angular frequency ω is fed across a
(c) 220 V, 2.2 A (d) 220 V, 2.0 A resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current
registered is I. If now the frequency of source is
77. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 300 V and an changed to ω /3 (but maintaining the same voltage),
angular frequency ω = 400 rads −1 is applied to series the current in the circuit is found to be halved.
L-C-R circuit, in which R = 3 Ω, L = 20 mH and Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance at the
C = 625 µF. The peak current in the circuit is original frequency ω.
3 2 1 4
(a) 30 2 A (b) 60 A (a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5
(c) 100 A (d) 60 2 A

Topic 5
Resonance
81. The phenomenon of resonance is common among Figure shows the variation of im with ω in a
systems that have a tendency (a) R-L-C circuit (b) R-L circuit
(a) to oscillate at a particular frequency (c) R-C circuit (d) None of these
(b) to get maximum amplitude 84. In R-L-C series circuit with L =1.00 mH,
(c) Both (a) and (b)
C = 1.00 nF two values of R are (i) R =100 Ω and
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(ii) R = 200 Ω. For the source applied with Vm =100 V.
82. At resonant frequency, the current amplitude of an Resonant frequency is
R-L-C circuit is (a) 1 × 103 rad/s (b) 1 × 106 rad /s
(a) minimum (b) maximum (c) 1.56 × 106 rad/s (d) 1.75 × 103 rad/s
(c) may be minimum (d) never maximum
85. Resonant circuits are used in
83. 1.0
(a) the tuning mechanism of a radio
(b) TV set
(i) (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
0.5 (ii)
im (A)

86. In tuning, we vary the capacitance of a capacitor in

the tuning circuit such that the resonant frequency of
the circuit becomes nearly equal to the frequency of
ω0
0.0
0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0
the radio signal received. When this happens,
ω (rad/s) the...A... with the frequency of the signal of the
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 189

particular radio station in the circuit is maximum. 94. In a series L-C- R circuit, the voltage across R is
Here, A refers to 100 V and R = 1 k Ω, C = 2 µF. The resonant frequency
(a) resonant frequency (b) impedance ω is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is
(c) amplitude of the current (d) reactance (a) 40 V (b) 250 V
87. Bandwidth of the resonant L-C-R circuit is (c) 4 × 10− 3 V (d) 2.5 × 10− 2 V
R 2R 4R
(a) (b) R / 2L (c) (d) 95. An L-C-R series circuit consists of a resistance of
L L L
10 Ω a capacitor of reactance 6.0 Ω and an inductor
88. If resonant frequency of a R-L-C circuit is ω 0 and coil. The circuit is found to resonate when put across
bandwidth is Aω, then which of the following a 300 V, 100 Hz supply. The inductance of coil is
quantity is regarded as a measure of the sharpness of (take, π = 3)
resonance? (a) 0.1 H (b) 0.01 H (c) 0.2 H (d) 0.02 H
ω ω0 2ω 0 ∆ω
(a) 0 (b) (c) (d) 96. In an L-C-R circuit, capacitance is changed from C to
∆ω 2∆ω ∆ω 2ω 0 16C. For the resonant frequency to remain
89. Which of the following ratio is called the quality unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L
factor, Q of the circuit? to
(a) 4L (b) 16L (c) L/16 (d) L/ 4
ω 0L 2ω 0 L
(a) Q = (b) Q = 97. An inductor L and a capacitor A1
R R
C are connected in the circuit
ω 0L ω 0L
(c) Q = (d) Q = as shown in the figure. The A2
2R 4R frequency of the power
90. A 100 V, AC source of frequency 500 Hz is supply is equal to the A3
connected to an L-C-R circuit with L = 81 . mH, resonant frequency of the E=E0 sin ωt
C =125 . µF, R =10 Ω all connected in series as shown circuit. Which ammeter will
in figure. What is the quality factor of circuit? read zero ampere?
(a) A 1 (b) A 2
L C R (c) A 3 (d) None of these
 1 
98. An alternating emf of frequency ν =   is
 2π LC 
(a) 2.02 (b) 2.5434 (c) 20.54 (d) 200.54 applied to a series L-C-R circuit. For this frequency of
the applied emf
91. For the series L-C-R 8 mH
(a) the circuit is at resonance and its impedance is made up
circuit shown in the only of a reactive part.
figure, what is the 220 V 20 µF (b) the current in the circuit is in phase with the applied
angular resonant emf and voltage across R equals the applied emf
frequency and amplitude (c) the sum of the potential difference across the
of the current at the 44 Ω
inductance and capacitance equals the applied emf
resonating frequency? which is 180° ahead of phase of the current in the circuit
(a) 2500 rad/s and 5 2 A (b) 2500 rad/s and 5A (d) the quality factor of the circuit is ω L/R or 1/ω CR and
5 this is measure of the voltage magnification (Produced
(c) 2500 rad/s and A (d) 25 rad/s and 5 2 A by the circuit at reasonance) as well as the sharpness of
2 resonance of the circuit.
92. In an L-C-R circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 99. Figure shows a series L-C-R L=5H
2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, circuit, connected to a variable C=80 µF
the inductance should be change from L to frequency 200 V source. R
(a) 4L (b) 2L (c) L/ 2 (d) L/ 4 C = 80 µF and R = 40 Ω. The
93. In non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature of source frequency which drives
the circuit at resonance is V=200V
circuit for frequencies higher than the resonant
frequency? 25
(a) 25 Hz (b) Hz
(a) Resistive (b) Capacitive π
(c) Inductive (d) None of these 50
(c) 50 Hz (d) Hz
π
190 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

100. Calculate the wavelength of the radiowaves radiated 101. In a series resonant L-C-R circuit, the voltage across
out by a circuit containing 0.02 µF capacitor and 8 µH R is 100 V and R =1 kΩ with C = 2 µF. The resonant
inductance in series. freuency ω is 200 rads −1 . At resonance the voltage
(a) 703.8 m (b) 460 m across L is
(c) 398 m (d) 753.8 m (a) 2.5 × 10−2 V (b) 40 V (c) 250 V (d) 4 × 10−3 V

Topic 6
Power in AC Circuit
102. In an AC circuit, the average power dissipated depends 109. As in the case of inductor, the average power in
(a) on the voltage capacitor
(b) current imVm
(a) < sin ( 2ωt ) > (b) imVm < sin (ωt ) >
(c) cosine of the phase angle φ between them 2
(d) All of the above (c) imVm < sin ( 2ωt ) > (d) 0
103. In an AC circuit, the instantaneous values of emf and 110. Power dissipated in an L-C-R series circuit connected
current are e = 200 sin (314) t V and to an AC source of emf ε is
I = sin (314t + π / 3) A.The average power consumed is  1 
2

(a) 200 W (b) 100 W (c) 50 W (d) 25 W ε 2 R 2 +  Lω − 

ε R
2  Cω 
(a) (b)
104. The potential difference V and the current i flowing  2  1  
2 R
through an instruments in an AC circuit of frequency  R +  Lω −  
  Cω  
f are given by V = 5 cos ωt volts and i = 2 sin ωt 
amperes (where, ω = 2πf ).   1  
2
ε 2  R 2 +  Lω −  
The power dissipated in the instrument is   Cω   ε2 R
(c)  (d)
(a) zero (b) 10 W (c) 5 W (d) 2.5 W
R 2
 1 
105. In an AC circuit, V and I are given by R 2 +  Lω − 
 Cω 
 π
V =100 sin (100 t ) V, i = 100 sin 100t +  mA. The
 3 111. Which of the following components of a L-C-R
power dissipated in circuit is circuit, with AC supply, do not dissipatesel energy?
(a) 104 W (b) 10 W (c) 2.5 W (d) 5 W (a) L, C (b) R , C
(c) L, R (d) L, C , R
106. In an AC circuit, the current is given by
 π 112. Which of the following components of a L-C-R
i = 5 sin 100 t −  and the AC potential is
 2 circuit with AC supply, dissipates energy?
V = 200 sin (100) V. Then, the power consumption is (a) L (b) R
(a) 20 W (b) 40 W (c) C (d) All of these
(c) 1000 W (d) 0 W 113. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with
107. The average power supplied to an inductor over one a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb
complete cycle is decreases when [NEET 2013]
(a) imVm / 2 (b) imVm (a) frequency of the AC source is decreased
(c) 3 imVm / 4 (d) zero (b) number of turns in the coil is reduced
(c) a capacitance of reactance X C − X L is included in the
108. If a current I is given by I 0 sin (ωt − π / 2) flows in an same circuit
AC circuit across which an AC potential of (d) an iron rod is inserted in the coil
E = E 0 sin ωt has been applied, then the power
consumption P in the circuit will be 114. A lamp consumes only 50% of peak power in an AC
E0 I 0 circuit. What is the phase difference between the
(a) P + (b) P = 2 E0 I 0 applied voltage and the circuit current?
2
π π π π
E I (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) P = 0 0 (d) P = 0 6 3 4 2
2
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 191

115. A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting 123. d 2 x / dt 2 + ω 20 x = 0, in the equation of SHM, ω 0 refers
current in AC circuit, because to
(a) choke is cheap (a) k / m (b) k/m
(b) there is no wastage of power
(c) 2 k/m (d) 2 k / m
(c) choke is compact in size
(d) choke is a good absorber of heat 124. ω 0 = k / m, angular frequency in SHM, k refers to
116. A value of ω for which the current amplitude is 1/ 2 (a) power constant (b) spring constant
times its maximum value. At this value, the power (c) quality factor (d) None of these
dissipated by the circuit becomes
125. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 µF and a resistor
(a) double (b) one-fourth
(c) one-third (d) half 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf
V =10 sin 340t. The power loss in AC circuit is
117. In an electrical circuit R , L, C and an AC voltage [NEET 2016]
source are all connected in series. When L is removed (a) 0.67 W (b) 0.76 W
from the circuit, the phase difference between the (c) 0.89 W (d) 0.51 W
voltage and the current in the circuit is π / 3. If
instead,C is removed from the circuit, the phase 126. A charged 30 µF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH
difference is again π /3. The power factor of the inductor. What is the angular frequency of free
circuit is oscillations of the circuit?
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] (a) 1.1 s (b) 1.1 × 103 s −1
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/ 2 (c) 1 (d) 3/2 (c) 2 × 103 s −1 (d) 2.5 × 103 s −1
118. In an AC circuit the power factor 127. Suppose the initial charge on the capacitor in above
(a) is zero when the circuit contains an ideal resistance question is 6 mC. What is the total energy stored in the
only
circuit initially? What is the total energy at later time?
(b) is unity when the circuit contains an ideal resistance
(a) 0.6 J, 0.6 J (b) 66.7 J, 67 J
only
(c) 5.75 J, 0.92 J (d) 14.4 J, 10.5 J
(c) is unity when the circuit contains a capacitance only
(d) is unity when the circuit contains an ideal inductance 128. A 10 µF capacitor is charged to 25 V of potential. The
only battery is then disconnected and a pure 10 mH coil is
119. Power factor is maximum in a L-C-R circuit when connected across the capacitor so that L-C oscillation
(a) X L = X C (b) R = 0 (c) X L = 0 (d) X C = 0 are set up. The maximum current in the coil is
(a) 0.25 A (b) 0.01A
120. A coil of inductive reactance 31 Ω has a resistance of
(c) 2.5 A (d) 1.6 A
8 Ω. It is placed in series with a condenser of
capacitive reactance 25 Ω. The combination is 129. A resonant AC circuit contains a capacitor of
connected to an AC source of 110 V. The power capacitance 10 − 6 F and an inductor of 10 − 4 H. The
factor of the circuit is frequency of electrical oscillations will be
(a) 0.56 (b) 0.64 (c) 0.80 (d) 0.33 (a) 105 Hz (b) 10 Hz
121. A voltage of peak value 283 V and varying frequency 105 10
(c) Hz (d) Hz
is applied to a series L-C-R combination in which 2π 2π
R = 3 Ω, L = 25 mH and C = 400 µF. The frequency
130. A charged 60 µF capacitor is connected to a 54 mH
(in Hz) of the source at which maximum power is
dissipated in the above circuit is inductor. What is the angular frequency of free
(a) 51.5 Hz (b) 50.7 Hz (c) 51.1 Hz (d) 50.3 Hz oscillations of the circuit?
(a) 5.5 s − 1
122. When a capacitor (initially charged) is connected
(b) 5.5 ×102 s − 1
to a inductor, the change on the capacitor and the
(c) 1.2 s − 1
current in the circuit exhibit the phenomenon of
(a) electrical oscillations (b) induction (d) 1.1 × 10− 3 s − 1
(c) power factor (d) All of these
Topic 7
Transformers
131. Which of the following device, use the principle of 137. How much current is drawn by the primary coil of a
mutual induction? transformer which steps down 220 V to 22 V to
(a) Dynamo (b) Transformer operate a device with an impedance of 220 Ω ?
(c) Capacitor (d) Voltmeter (a) 1 A (b) 0.25 A (c) 0.01 A (d) 1.50 A
132. The value of emf in the secondary coil depends on 138. A 60 W load is connected to the secondary of a
(a) the number of turns (b) material used transformer whose primary draws line voltage of 220 V.
(c) voltage (d) induced flux If a current of 0.54 A flows in the load, then what is
the current in the primary coil?
133. If the transformer is assumed to be 100% efficient(on
(a) 2.7 A (b) 0.27 A (c) 1.65 A (d) 2.85 A
energy losses), then
(a) the power input is equal to the power output 139. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on
(b) the power input is less than the power output 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the
(c) the power output is less than the power input secondary coil is 6 A, the voltage across the secondary
(d) All of the above coil and the current in the primary coil and the current
in the primary coil respectively are [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
134. The large scale transmission and distribution of
(a) 300 V, 15 A (b) 450 V, 15 A
electrical energy over long distances is done with the
(c) 450 V, 13.5 A (d) 600 V, 15 A
use of
(a) dynamo (b) transformers 140. A step-down transformer is used on a 1000 V line to
(c) generator (d) capacitor deliver 20 A at 120 V the secondary coil. If the
efficiency of the transformer is 80%, then the current
135. If the secondary coil has less turns than the primary, drawn from the line is
then it is called
(a) 3 A (b) 30 A (c) 0.3 A (d) 2.4 A
(a) step-up transformer (b) step-down transformer
(c) ideal transformer (d) Both (b) and (c) 141. The ratio of secondary to primary turns is 4 : 5. If
power input is P, then the ratio of power output to
136. A power transmission line feeds input power at
power input is
2300 V to a step-down transformer with its primary
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 9 : 4 (c) 5 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
windings having 4000 turns. What should be the
number of turns in the secondary in order to get 142. A 220 V input is supplied to a transformer. The
output power at 230 V? output circuit draws a current of 2.0 A at 440 V. If the
(a) 600 (b) 550 efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current
(c) 400 (d) 375 drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is
(a) 5.0 A (b) 3.6 A (c) 2.8 A (d) 2.5 A

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 143. Assertion Today, most of the electrical devices
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 143-151) In the following
use/require AC voltage.
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a Reason Most of the electrical energy sold by power
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following companies is transmitted and distributed as
statements, choose the correct one. alternating current.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion. 144. Assertion Phasors V and I for the case of a resistor
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is are in the same direction.
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Reason The phase angle between the voltage and the
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. current is zero.
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 193

145. Assertion When the capacitor is connected to an 152. Statement I The alternating current lags behind the
AC source, it limits or regulates the current, but does emf by a phase angle of π /2, when AC flows through
not completely prevent the flow of charge. an inductor.
Reason The capacitor is alternately charged and Statement II The inductive reactance increases as
discharged as the current reverses each half-cycle. the frequency of AC source decreases.
146. Assertion Capacitor serves as a barrier for DC and 153. Statement I The opposition offered by AC circuits to
offers an easy path to AC. the flow of AC through it is defined as impedance. It’s
Reason Capacitor reactance is inversely unit is ohm.
proportional to frequency. Statement II The opposition offered by inductor or
147. Assertion If X C > X L , φ is positive and the circuit capacitor or both to the flow of AC through it is defind
is predominantly capacitive. The current in the as reactance.
circuit leads the source voltage. 154. Statement I A capacitor of suitable capacitance can
Reason If X C < X L , φ is negative and the circuit is be used in an AC circuit in place of the choke coil.
predominantly inductive, the current in the circuit Statement II A capacitor blocks DC and allows AC
lags the source voltage. only.
148. Assertion In a series R-L-C circuit, the voltages 155. Statement I There is always some flux leakage;
across resistor, inductor and capacitor are 8V, 16V i. e., not all of the flux due to primary passes through
and 10V, respectively. The resultant emf in the the secondary due to poor design of the core or the air
circuit is 10 V. gaps in the core.
Reason Resultant emf of the circuit is given by the Statement II Flux leakage can be reduced by winding
relation. the primary and secondary coils one over the other.
E = VR2 + (VL − VC ) 2
149. Assertion Resonance phenomenon is exhibited by a Statement Based Questions Type II
circuit only if both L and C are present in the circuit. 156. Consider the statements.
Reason Voltage across L and C cancel each other I. Most of the electrical devices we use require AC voltage.
and the current amplitude isVm / R , the total source II. Most of the electrical energy sold by power
voltage appearing across R causes resonance. companies is transmitted and distributed as alternating
150. Assertion In series L-C-R circuit resonance can take current.
place. III. AC voltages can be easily and efficiently converted
from one voltage to the other by means of transformers.
Reason Resonance takes place if inductance and
(a) I is correct, II and III are incorrect
capacitive reactances are equal and opposite. (b) I, III are correct, II is incorrect
151. Assertion The wire used for the windings of (c) I, II are correct, III is incorrect
transformer has some resistance. (d) I,II and III are correct
Reason Energy is lost due to heat produced in the 157. V
wire ( I 2 R ). V I

Vm sin ωt1 I
ωt1
II. Statement Based Questions Type I 0 ωt1 π 2π
ωt
im sin ωt1
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 152-155) In the following
questions, a statement I is followed by a
corresponding statement II. Of the following
statements, choose the correct one. (a) (b)
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Consider the figure,
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. I. The vertical components of phasorsV and I represent the
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but sinusoidally varying quantities V and i.
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I. II. The magnitudes of phasors V and I represent the
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. amplitudes or the peak values Vm and i m of these
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is incorrect. oscillating quantities.
194 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

III. The projection of voltage and current phasors on A B C D A B C D

vertical axis, i. e. , Vm sin ωt and i m sin ωt, respectively (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 1 3 2
represent the value of voltage and current at that instant. (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Choose 162. Match the following Column I and Column II.
the correct option. When oscillations on spring are compared with L-C
(a) I and II (b) I and III oscillations.
(c) II and III (d) All of these
Column I Column II
158. I. When a capacitor is connected to a voltage source in a A. Mass m 1. Reciprocal of capacitance i.e., 1/C
DC circuit, current will flow for the short time
required to charge the capacitor. B. Force constant k 2. Current, i = dq / dt
II. As charge accumulates on the capacitor plates, the C. Displacement x 3. Inductance L
voltage across them increases, opposing the current. D. Velocity, v = dx/ dt 4. Electromagnetic energy
III. A capacitor in a DC circuit will limit or oppose the 5. U = 1 q2 /C + 1 Li 2
current as it charges. E. Mechanical energy
2 2
IV. When the capacitor is fully charged, the current in the 1 2 1
circuit falls to zero. F. E = kx + mv2 6. Charge q
2 2
Which of the above statements are incorrect? Choose
A B C D E F
the correct option.
(a) 1 5 4 3 2 6
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(b) 6 4 2 3 1 5
(c) I and IV (d) None of these
(c) 3 1 6 2 4 5
(d) 2 4 5 6 3 1
III. Matching Types
159. Match the following. IV. Passage Based Questions
Column I Column II ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 163-166) Answer the following
A. VR 1. π/ 2 ahead of I questions based on given passage.
B. VC 2. Parallel to I A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and
C. VL 3. π/ 2 behind I frequency 50 Hz is applied to a series L-C-R circuit in
which R = 3 Ω, L = 25.48 mH and C = 796 µF.
A B C A B C
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1 163. The impedance of the circuit and the phase difference
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2 between the voltage across the source and the current
will be
160. Match the following.
(a) 5 Ω , 53.1° (b) 3 Ω , 50.3°
Column I Column II (c) 4 Ω , − 50.3° (d) 5Ω , − 53.1°
A. VRm 1. im X L 164. The power dissipated in the circuit and the power
B. VCm 2. im R factor will be
C. VLm 3. im X C (a) 480 W, 6.7 (b) 13.35 W, 66.6
(c) 4800 W, 0.6 (d) 11.09 W, 0.89
A B C A B C
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 165. Let the frequency of the source can be varied. What is
(c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 the frequency of the source at which resonance
occurs?
161. Match the following.
(a) 13.35 Hz (b) 66.7 Hz
Column I Column II (c) 35.4 Hz (d) 25.5 Hz
A. Resistive circuit 1. No power is dissipation
166. Calculate the impedance, the current and the power
B. Purely inductive or 2. Maximum power dissipation
capacitive circuit because of X C = X L
dissipated at the resonant condition.
(a) 4 Ω , 13.35 A, 60 W
C. L-C-R series circuit 3. Power dissipated only in
the resistor (b) 2Ω , 65 A, 13 kW
D. Power dissipated at 4. Maximum power
(c) 8 Ω , 66.7 A, 13.35 kW
resonance in L-C-R circuit dissipation (d) 3 Ω , 66.7 A, 13.35 kW
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 195

■ Directions (Q. Nos. 167-171) Read the following V. More than One Option Correct
paragraph and answer the following questions given
below. 172. Choose the correct options.
(a) Phasor diagram say nothing about the initial condition.
A transformer is based on the principle of mutual
(b) Any arbitrary value of t, draw different phasors which
induction. Input is supplied to primary coil and show the relative angle between different phasors. The
output is taken across the secondary coil of solution, so obtained is called the steady-state solution.
transformers. It is found that Es / E p = i p / i s when (c) We do have a transient solution which exists even for
there is no energy loss, the efficiency of a V = 0. The general solution is the sum of transient solution
transformer is given by and the steady-state solution.
Poutput E i (d) None of the above
η= = s s
Pinput E pi p 173. Choose the correct options.
(a) The antenna of a radio accepts signals from many
167. How much current is drawn by the primary coil of a broadcasting stations.
transformer which steps down 220 V to 44 V to (b) To hear one particular radio station, tune the radio.
operate a device with an impedance of 880 Ω? (c) The signals picked up in the antenna acts as a source in
(a) 1 A (b) 0.1 A the tuning circuit of the radio, so the circuit can be driven
(c) 0.01 A (d) 0.02 A at many frequencies.
(d) In tuning, we vary the capacitance of a capacitor in the
168. A 110 V AC is connected to a transformer of ratio tuning circuit such that the resonant frequency of the circuit
10. If resistance of secondary coil is 550 Ω, current becomes nearly equal to the frequency of the radio signal
through secondary coil will be received.
(a) 10 A (b) 2 A
(c) zero (d) 55 A 174. Choose the correct options.
(a) If the resonance is less sharp, not only is the maximum
169. A battery of 10 V is connected to primary of a current less, the circuit is close to resonance for a larger
transformer of ratio is 20. The output across range ∆ω of frequencies and the tuning of the circuit will
secondary coil is not be good.
(a) 20 V (b) 5 V (b) Less sharp the resonance, less is the selectivity of the
(c) 10 V (d) zero circuit or vice-versa.
170. A transformer is having 2100 turns in primary and (c) If quality factor is large, i. e., R is low or L is large, the
circuit is more selective.
4200 turns in secondary. An AC source of 120 V,
10 A is connected to its primary. The secondary (d) None of the above
voltage and current are 175. L-C oscillations is not realistic for the following
(a) 240 V, 5 A reasons. Which of the following reasons is (are) correct?
(b) 120 V, 10 A (a) Every inductor has some resistance.
(c) 240 V, 10 A (b) The effect of resistance is to introduce a damping effect
(d) 120 V, 20 A on the charge and current in the circuit and the oscillations
171. A transformer is used to light 140 W, 24 V lamp finally die away.
from 240 V AC mains. The current in the mains is (c) Even if the resistance is zero, the total energy of the
0.7 A. The efficiency of transformer is nearer to system would not remain constant. It is radiated away
from the system in the form of electromagnetic waves.
(a) 90% (b) 80%
(c) 70% (d) 60% (d) None of the above
 NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
NCERT 185. A 100 µF capacitor in series with a 40 Ω resistance is
176. A 100 Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz AC connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz supply. What is the
supply, then the rms value of current in the circuit is maximum current in the circuit?
(a) 2.2 A (b) 4.2 A (c) 3.2 A (d) 2.4 A (a) 3.00 A (b) 3.24 A (c) 4.24 A (d) 2.24 A
177. The peak voltage of an AC supply is 300 V, then the 186. A power transmission line feeds input power at
rms voltage will be 2300 V to a step-down transformer with its primary
(a) 212.1 V (b) 312.1 V windings having 4000 turns. What should be the
(c) 84.2 V (d) 85.2 V number of turns in the secondary in order to get
output power at 230 V?
178. A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz AC
(a) 400 (b) 450 (c) 800 (d) 230
supply. Determine the rms value of the current in the
circuit. 187. At a hydroelectric power plant, the water pressure
(a) 20.4 A (b) 15.9 A (c) 21.4 A (d) 22.4 A head is at a height of 300 m and the water flow
available is 100 m 3 /s. If the turbine generator
179. A 60 µF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz AC
efficiency is 60%, the electric power available from
supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit will the plant will be
be (a) 184.4 MW (b) 176.4 MW
(a) 4.49 A (b) 2.29 A (c) 190.4 MW (d) 290.4 MW
(c) 2.49 A (d) 3.49 A
180. Obtain the resonant frequency ω of a series L-C-R NCERT Exemplar
circuit with L = 2.0 H, C = 32 µF and R = 10 Ω. What
188. If the rms current in a 50 Hz AC circuit is 5 A, the
is the Q-value of this circuit?
value of the current 1/300 s after its value becomes
(a) 36 (b) 27 (c) 24 (d) 25
zero is
181. A charged 30 µF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH (a) 5 2 A (b) 5 3 / 2 A (c) 5 / 6 A (d) 5 / 2 A
inductor. What is the angular frequency of free
oscillations of the circuit? 189. An alternating current generator has an internal
(a) 1.1 × 104 rads −1 (b) 1.1 × 103 rads −1 resistance R g and an internal reactance X g . It is used
(c) 1.1 × 10 rads
2 −1
(d) 1.1 × 10 rads −1 to supply power to a passive load consisting of a
resistance R g and a reactance X L . For maximum
182. A series L-C-R circuit with R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H and power to be delivered from the generator to the load,
C = 35 µF is connected to a variable frequency 200 V the value of X L is equal to
AC supply. When the frequency of the supply equals (a) zero (b) X g (c) − X g (d) Rg
the natural frequency of the circuit, what is the
average power transferred to the circuit in one 190. When a voltage measuring device is connected to AC
complete cycle? mains, the meter shows the steady input voltage of
(a) 2 kW (b) 3 kW 220 V. This means
(c) 4 kW (d) 5 kW (a) input voltage cannot be AC voltage, but a DC voltage
(b) maximum input voltage is 220 V
183. A radio can tune over the frequency range of a portion
(c) the meter reads not v but < v2 > and is calibrated to read
of MW broadcast band: (800 kHz to 1200 kHz). If its
L-C circuit has an effective inductance of 200 µH, < v2 >
what must be the range of its variable capacitor? (d) the pointer of the meter is stuck by some mechanical
(a) 49 to 79 (b) 88 to 198 defect
(c) 100 to 200 (d) 110 to 200 191. To reduce the resonant frequency in an L-C-R series
184. A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100 Ω is circuit with a generator.
connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz AC supply. What is the (a) The generator frequency should be reduced
maximum current in the coil? (b) Another capacitor should be added in parallel to the first
(a) 1.824 A (b) 2.824 A (c) The iron core of the inductor should be removed
(c) 3.824 A (d) 4.824 A (d) Dielectric in the capacitor should be removed
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 197

192. Which of the following combinations should be 197. Electrical energy is transmitted over large distances at
selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used high alternating voltages. Which of the following
for communication? statements is (are) correct?
(a) R = 20 Ω, L = 15
. H, C = 35µ F (a) For a given power level, there is a lower current
(b) R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45µF (b) Lower current implies less power loss
(c) R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30µF (c) Transmission lines can be made thinner
(d) R = 25 Ω, L = 15
. H, C = 45µF (d) It is easy to reduce the voltage at the receiving end using
step-down transformers
193. An inductor of reactance 1Ω and a resistor of 2Ω are
connected in series to the terminals of a 6V (rms) 198. For a L-C-R circuit, the power transferred from the
AC source. The power dissipated in the circuit is driving source to the driven oscillator is P = I 2 Z cos φ.
(a) 8 W (b) 12 W (c) 14.4 W (d) 18 W (a) Here, the power factor cos φ ≥ 0, P ≥ 0
194. The output of a step-down transformer is measured (b) The driving force can give no energy to the oscillator
( P = 0 ) in some cases
to be 24 V when connected to a 12 W light bulb.
(c) The driving force cannot syphon out ( P < 0 ) the energy
The value of the peak current is out of oscillator
(a) 1 / 2 A (b) 2 A (c) 2 A (d) 2 2 A (d) The driving force can take away energy out of the
195. As the frequency of an AC circuit increases, the oscillator
current first increases and then decreases. What 199. When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the
combination of circuit elements is most likely to capacitor C
comprise the circuit? (a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V
(a) Inductor and capacitor (b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage
(b) Resistor and inductor (c) the charge on the plates is in phase with the applied voltage
(c) Resistor and capacitor (d) power delivered to the capacitor is zero
(d) Resistor, inductor and capacitor
200. The line that draws power supply to your house from
196. In an alternating current circuit consisting of street has
elements in series, the current increases on increasing (a) zero average current
the frequency of supply. Which of the following (b) 220 V average voltage
elements are likely to constitute the circuit? (c) voltage and current out of phase by 90°
(a) Only resistor (b) Resistor and an inductor (d) voltage and current possibly differing in phase φ such that
(c) Resistor and a capacitor (d) Only a capacitor φ < π/ 2

Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24 (d) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a,c) 70. (d) 71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d)
76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (d,a) 79. (a) 80. (a) 81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (d) 101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (c)
106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (a) 111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (d) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (d) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (b) 125. (d) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (b) 131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (b)
136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (a) 141. (d) 142. (a) 143. (a) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (a)
151. (b) 152. (c) 153. (b) 154. (b) 155. (b) 156. (d) 157. (d) 158. (d) 159. (b) 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (d) 164. (c) 165. (c)
166. (d) 167. (c) 168. (b) 169. (d) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (a,b, 173. (a,b,c 174. (a,b, 175. (a,b, 176. (a) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (c) 180. (d)
c) ,d) c) c)
 Hints and Explanations
6. (b) 15. (a) As, i = i0 (t / τ )
Vm V τ τ 2
im i ∫0 i 2 dt
∫ i0 (t / τ )
2
dt
2π i =
2
= 0
O π ωt τ τ
i2 τ 2 i 02 τ 3 i 02
= 03
τ ∫0 t dt =
τ3
×
3
=
3
In a pure resistor, the voltage and current are in phase. The
minima zero and maxima occur at the same respective times. i 02 i
Thus, i rms = i 2 = = 0
3 3
8. (d) Joule heating is given by i 2 R and depends on i 2 (which is
always positive whether i is positive or negative) and not on i. 17. (b) The rms value of voltage i.e.,
V 120
Thus, there is joule heating and dissipation of electrical energy Vrms = 0 = = 84.8 V
when an AC current passes through a resistor. 2 1.414
10. (c)
im
I 22. (c) Phase difference ∆φ = φ 2 − φ 1 = π / 6 − (− π / 6) = π / 3
I T
24. (d) The current takes seconds to reach the peak value. In the
O
4
π 2π ωt 2π 1
given question, = 200 π ⇒ T = s
T 100
–im
1
∴ Time to reach the peak value = s.
The rms current I is related to the peak current im by 400
I = im / 2 = 0.707 im. 25. (c) Frequency of a generator i.e.,
11. (b) Vm = 2 V = (1.414) (220 V) = 311 V ω 120 × 7 240
ν= = = 19 Hz ⇒ ν rms = = 120 2 ≈ 170 V
2π 2 × 22 2
12. (b) We are given P = 100 W and 220 V. The resistance of the
bulb is 26. (c) Let i1 = A sin φ ; i2 = A sin φ
V 2 (220 V)2 i = A sin(ωt + φ ), where A = i12 + i22
R= = = 484 Ω
P 100 W
i0 i12 + i22
13. (c) The general equation for the AC voltage is So, i = i12 + i22 sin (ωt + φ ) ; irms = =
2 2
ε = ε 0 sin (ωt + θ ).
Comparing it with the given equation, we find that 27. (c) Hot wire ammeter reads rms value of current. Hence, its
ε = V , ε 0 = 169 V, ω = 314 , θ = 60° peak value i 0 = irms × 2 = 10 × 1.414 = 14.14 A.
Let ε rms and I rms represent the rms value of AC voltage and 28. (d) Current in at peak value so its equation is
current, respectively. Clearly, i = i0 (100πt + π / 2)
ε 169
ε rms = 0 = V = 119.5 V Peak value to rms value means current becomes 1/ 2 times.
2 2
So, from i = i0 sin (100 πt + π / 2)
V2 i0
P= = i0 sin(100πt + π / 2)
R 2
V 2 (220)2 1
⇒ R= = sin 3π / 4 = sin(100πt + π / 2) ⇒ t = s
P 600 400
119.5 × 600 Time taken by current to change from its peak value to rms
i rms = = 1.48 A (Q Vrms = I rms R ) value,
(220)2 1
i.e., t= s = 2.5 × 10− 3 s
14. (c) We are given that, ε rms = 220 V, ν = 50 Hz 400
ε 2 2 2 2
As, ε rms = 0 , ε 0 = ε rms 2 29. (a) Vav = V0 = × (Vrms × 2 ) = Vrms
2 π π π
(220 V) (1.414) = 311.1 V =
2 2
× 220 = 198 V
Further, ω = 2πν = 2π × 50 = 100 π rads−1 π
Thus, the equation for the instantaneous voltage is given as 30. (c) Here, E = 141 sin (628 t )
ε = ε 0 sin ωt = 311.1 V sin (100 π ) t E 141
Erms = 0 = = 100 V
2 1.41
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 199

Angular displacement i.e., ω = 628 and 2πf = 628 At t = 0, i = 0 ⇒ dU / dt = 0

∴ f =
628
= 100 Hz At t = ∞ , i = i0 (constant)
2 × 314
. di dU
∴ =0 ⇒ =0
dt dt
32. (a) Using the Kirchhoff’s loop rule, Σε ( t ) = 0 and since there
is no resistor in the circuit. 50. (b) Current I across the capacitor is im sin (ωt + π / 2).
An AC source connected to an inductor 51. (a) The amplitude of the oscillating current is
V − L (di / dt ) = 0 I m = Vm / X C = ωCVm.
36. (c) Inductive reactance X L = ωL = 2πfL 57. (d) The current reaches its maximum value earlier than the
volage by one-fourth of a period.
39. (c) The inductive reactance,
X L = 2πνL = 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 25 × 10− 3 = 7.85 Ω 58. (c) The capacitive reactance is
1 1
40. (d) The rms current in the circuit is XC = = = 212 Ω
2πνC 2π (50 Hz) (15.0 × 10− 6 F)
V 220 V
I= = = 28 A V 220 V
X L 7.85 Ω 59. (c) The rms current is i = = = 1.04 A
X C 212 Ω
41. (b) Inductive reactance, X L = ωL ⇒ XL ∝ ω
The peak current is im = 2 i = (1.41) (1.04 A) = 1.47 A
Hence, inductive reactance increases linearly with angular V V
frequency. 60. (d) For the first circuit, i = =
Z ωL
42. (b) The inductive reactance, So, increase in ω will cause a decrease in i.
. × (50 s− 1 ) × (30.0 × 10− 3 H) = 9.42 Ω
X L = 2πνL = 2 × 314 V
For the second circuit, i =
1/ ωC
43. (a) The reactance ( X L ) of the inductance at 200 Hz is 120 Ω .
Hence, increase in ω will cause an increase in i.
As, X L = ωL = 2πν × L V V ωC  1 
X 120 Ω 3 61. (b) Reading of ammeter = irms = rms = 0 Q X C = 
L= L = = H XC 2  ω C
2πν 2π × 200 s− 1 10π
200 2 × 100 × (1 × 10− 6 )
If X ′L denotes the reactance of the same inductance at 60 Hz, =
2
X L′ = ω′L = 2πν′ L
 3H  = 2 × 10− 2A = 20 mA
or X L′ = (2π × 60 s− 1 )   = 36 Ω
 10π 
62. (a) If the frequency is doubled, the capacitive reactance is
If I rms is the current that flows through the inductance when halved and the current is doubled.
connected to 240 V and 60 Hz power line, then 1 1 1
63. (c) Capacitive reactance, X C = = πfC ⇒ X C ∝
ε 240 V ωC 2 f
I rms = rms = = 6.66 A
X L′ 36 Ω With increase in frequency, X C decreases.
46. (d) V = − L (di / dt ), V is proportional to the slope of the Hence, option (c) represents the correct graph.
i - t graph, which is constant and positive for the first half (0 to 1 1
T /2) and negative and constant for the second half (T / 2 to T ). 64. (b) X C = = = 44.2 Ω
2πνC 2 (3.14) (60 s− 1 ) (60 × 10− 6 F)
Note : | V | = L (di / dt ) in this case.
ε 110 V
For first half V is –ve and for the second half it is + ve. I rms = rms = = 2.49 A
X C 44.2 Ω
47. (a) Phase angle,
ωL 2πνL 2π × 200 1 4 65. (a) Let the applied voltage be V volt.
tan φ = = = × = ⇒ φ = tan − 1 4 / 3
R R 300 π 3
Here, VR = 12 V, VC = 5 V
48. (c) When t = 0 due to large impedance of two inductor current
V = VR2 + VC2 = (12)2 + (5)2
will flow only in 12Ω.
∴ I min = 5/12. = 144 + 25 = 169 = 13 V
After sometime current become is steady then R = 12 Ω will go 66. (c) Impedance of the circuit
out of circuit only r1 and r2 will be effective route of current flow.
5 I Z = R 2 + X C2 = R 2 + (2πνC )− 2
reff = 2 Ω ⇒ I max = ⇒ max = 6
2 I min = (200 Ω )2 + (2 × 3.14 × 50 × 15 × 10− 6 F)− 2
49. (c) Energy stored in an inductor L carrying current i is = (200 Ω )2 + (212 Ω )2 = 291.5 Ω
U = (1/ 2) Li 2
Therefore, the current in the circuit is
dU 1  di   di  220 V
Rate at which energy is stored = = L 2i   = Li   i = V /Z = = 0.755 A
dt 2  dt   dt  291.5 Ω
200 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

69. (a,c) 100 µF

Since L,C and R are connected in series combination, then
100 Ω potential difference across R is
I1 Z1 VR = i X R = 2 × 3 = 6V
Z2 Across L, VL = i X L = 2 × 15 = 30 V
I1 0.5H 50 Ω
Across C , VC = i X C = 2 × 11 = 22 V
I So, potential difference across series combination of L and C
= VL − VC = 30 − 22 = 8 V
XC − X L
Circuit 1 74. (a) tan φ =
R
1
XC = = 100 Ω ⇒ Z1 = (100)2 + (100)2 = 100 2 Ω 1
ωC − 2πfL
2πfC 1
R  ⇒ tan 45° = ⇒ C =
φ 1 = cos−1  1  = 45° R 2πf (2πf L + R )
 Z1 
In this circuit current leads the voltage. 75. (d) Net voltage across L-C combination = VL − VC = 0 V.

i1 =
V
=
20
=
1
A ⇒ V100 Ω = (100)i1 = (100)
1 76. (c) As V = (VL − VC )2 + VR2 , 220 = (300 − 300)2 + VR2
Z1 100 2 5 2 5 2 VR 220 V
V or VR = 220 V, i = = = 2.2 A
R 100 Ω
= 10 2 V
Circuit 2 77. (b) The impedance of the circuit is
X L = ωL = (100)(0.5) = 50 Ω Z = R 2 + ( X L − X C )2
Z2 = (50)2 + (50)2 = 50 2 Ω X L = ωL = 400 × 20 × 10−3 = 8 H
R  ⇒ XC =
1
=
1
=4F
φ 2 = cos−1  2  = 45°
 Z2  ωC 400 × 625 × 10−6
E 300
In this circuit voltage leads the current. ⇒ Z = (3)2 + (8 − 4 )2 = 5 ⇒ i = = = 60 A
Z 5
V 20 2
i2 = = = A 79. (a) In L-C-R series circuit
Z2 50 2 5
 2 V = VR2 + (VL − VC )2 = (40)2 + (60 − 30)2
V50 Ω = (50)i2 = 50   = 10 2 V
 5 = 1600 + 900 = 2500 = 50 V
Further, i1 and i2 have a mutual phase difference of 90°. 80. (a) At angular frequency ω, the current in R-C circuit is given
1 4 1 by
∴ i= i12 + i22 = + = A ≈ 0.3 A Vrms
50 50 10 I rms = …(i)
2
70. (d) φ  1 
R +
2

V  ωC 
I I
φ V
I rms Vrms Vrms
ωt1 Also, = = …(ii)
O π ωt
ωt1 2π 2  1 
2 9
R +
2 R2 +
 ω 2C 2
 ωC / 3 
(a) (b) From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
5 1 3 XC 3
For X C > X L , peak of i comes before peak of V . 3R 2 = 2 2 ⇒ = ⇒ =
ωC ωC 5 R 5
72. (b) VCR = VC2 + VR2 = (50)2 + (50)2 R
1
= 2500 + 2500 = 5000 = 10 50 = 50 2 V 84. (a) ω 0 = = 1.00 × 103 rad / s.
LC
73. (a) Given, R = 3 Ω , X L = 15 Ω , X C = 11 Ω ⇒ Vrms = 10 V 86. (c) At resonance, current in the circuit is maximum.
∴Current through the circuit 87. (b) Bandwidth of the resonant R-L-C circuit is ∆ω =
R
.
Vrms 10 2L
i= =
R + ( X L − X C )2
2
(3) + (15 − 11)2
2 88. (b) The quantity (ω 0 / 2∆ ω ) is regarded as measure of the
sharpness of resonance. The smaller the ∆ω, the sharper is the
10 10
= = =2A resonance.
9 + 16 5
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 201

90. (b) The Q-factor of series resonant circuit is given as Since, resonant frequency remains unchanged,
voltage across L or C So, LC = constant
Q= L
applied voltage (= voltage across R ) ⇒ L1C 1 = L2C 2 ⇒ L × C = L2 × 16C ⇒ L2 =
16
(ω L)i ω r L
= r = 97. (c) This is a parallel resonant circuit in which current becomes
Ri R
zero at resonance.
Here, L = 81
. mH, C = 12.5 µF, R = 10 Ω, f = 500 Hz 1
ω L 2πfL 2 × π × 500 × 81 . × 10−3 99. (b) Resonant frequency ν =
∴ Q= r = = = 2.5434 2π LC
R R 10 1
∴ ν=
91. (a) Resonance frequency 2 × 3.14 × 5 × 80 × 10− 6
1 1
ω= = = 2500 rads−1 1 1
LC 8 × 10 × 20 × 10− 6
−3 = = −2
2 × 3.14 (400 × 10 ) 2 × 3.14 × 2 × 10
−6

220 2
Resonant current = Vm / R = =5 2A 100 25 25
44 = = = Hz
3.14 × 4 3.14 π
1
92. (c) Resonance X L = X C ⇒ωL = 100. (d) C = 0.2 µF = 0.02 × 10− 6 F, L = 8µH = 8 × 10− 6 H
ωC
Since, resonant frequency remains unchanged 1
Thus, frequency of a circuit i.e., ν =
LC = constant 2π LC
L1C 1 = L2C 2 ⇒ LC = L2 (2C ) ⇒ K 2 = L /2. 1
= Hz
93. (c) In non-resonant circuits, 2 × 3.14 (8 × 10− 6 ) (0.02 × 10− 6 )
1
 1 
2
= × 106 Hz = 3.98 × 105 Hz
Impedance, Z = R 2 + ωL −  , with rise in frequency Z 2 × 3.14 × 0.4
 ωC 
Wavelength of electromagnetic wave,
increases i. e., current decrease, so circuit behaves as inductive
c 3 × 108
circuit. λ= = = 753.8 m
1 ν 3.98 × 105
At lower frequency > ωL the circuit becomes capacitative. At
ωL 101. (c) At resonance, ωL =
1
higher frequency, the circuit is inductive. ωC
1 Current flowing through the circuit,
94. (b) At resonance, X L = X C or ωL =
ωC V 100
1 1 I = R = = 01
. A
or L= 2 = = 12.5 H R 1000
ω C (200)2 × 2 × 10−6 So, voltage across L is given by
V 100 V VL = IX L = IωL
As, I0 = R = = 0.1 A
R 1000 Ω 1 .
01
but ωL = ⇒ VL = VC = = 250 V
. A) (200 s− 1 ) (12.5 H) = 250 V
VL = i0 X L = i0ωL = ( 01 ωC 200 × 2 × 10−6
200 1
95. (a) Angular velocity, ω 0 = 2πn = 2π × 100 103. (c) Vrms = , irms =
2 2
ω 0 = 2 × 3 × 100 = 600 rads −1 (Q π = 3)
∴ Average power consumed i.e., A
1
Further ω0 = …(i) 200 1
LC P = Vrms irms cos φ = cos π / 3 = 50 W
2 2
1
Also XC = = 60 Ω  π
Cω 0 104. (a) Given, V = 5 cos ωt = 5 sin ωt +  and i = 2 sin ωt
 2
1 1 1
⇒ C = = ⇒ C = F Power dissipated in the instrument i.e.,
ω 0 × 60 600 × 60 36 × 103
= Vrms × irms × cos φ = 0
So, put values in Eq. (i), we get π π
1 (since, φ = , therefore cos φ = cos = 0)
600 = 2 2
 1 
L  105. (c) Power dissipated in the circuit
 36 × 103 
100 100 × 10− 3 π
36 × 103 36 × 103 1 P = Vrms × irms × cos φ = × × cos
⇒ 36 × 104 = ⇒ L= = = 01
. H 2 2 3
L 36 × 104
10
104 × 10− 3 1 10
96. (c) In the condition of resonance, = × = = 2.5 W
2 2 4
X L = X C ⇒ ωL = 1/ωC
202 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

106. (d) Power consumption i.e., P = Vi cos φ ∴ Power factor cos φ = 1

It is the condition of resonance therefore phase difference
Phase difference, φ = π /2 ⇒ P = Vi cos π / 2 = Vi × 0 = 0
between voltage and current is zero and power factor is
107. (d) The average power over a complete cycle is cos φ = 1.
 iV  iV 119. (a) In L-C-R circuit, in the condition of resonance X L = X C i. e.,
PL = − m m sin (2ωt ) = − m m sin (2ωt ) = 0
 2  2 circuit behaves as resistive circuit. In resistive circuit power
Since, the average of sin(2ωt ) over a complete cycle is zero. factor is maximum.
Thus, the average power supplied to an inductor over one
complete cycle is zero. 120. (c) Power factor of AC circuit is given by
R
108. (d) Phase angle φ = 90° , so power P = VI cos φ = 0 or the cos φ = …(i)
Z
given circuit is a pure inductive circuit, hence power dissipate is where, R is resistance employed and Z the impedance of the
zero. circuit.
109. (d) As in the case of an inductor, the average power in capacitor Z = R 2 + ( X L − X C )2 …(ii)
iV iV
PC = m m sin (2ωt ) = m m sin (2ωt ) = 0 Eqs. (i) and (ii) meet to give
2 2 R
cos φ =
Since, < sin (2ωt ) > = 0 over a complete cycle. R 2 + ( X L − X C )2
111. (b) The resistor dissipates energy in the circuit. The inductor Given, dc R = 8 Ω, X L = 31 Ω , X C = 25 Ω
and capacitor both store energy but they eventually return it to 8 8
the circuit without dissipation. ∴ cos φ = =
(8)2 + (31 − 25)2 64 + 36
113. (d) As Z = R 2 + X L2 = R 2 + (2πfνL)2
Hence, cos φ = 0.80
V
As i= , P = i 2R 121. (d) A series resonance circuit admits maximum current, as
Z
P = i 2R
i.e., V ↑ , L ↑ ⇒ Z ↑ , i ↓ and P ↓
So, power dissipated is maximum at resonance.
114. (b) Power consumed by lamp So, frequency of the source at which maximum power is
i.e., P = (1/ 2) V0 i0 cos φ ⇒ P = Ppeak ⋅ cos φ dissipated in the circuit is
1 1 1
⇒ (Ppeak ) = Ppeak cos φ ν= =
2 2π LC 2 × 3.14 25 × 10− 3 × 400 × 10− 6
1 1 π
⇒ cos φ = ⇒ cos φ = ⇒ φ = =
1
= 50.3 Hz
2 2 3
2 × 3.14 10− 5
116. (d) The amplitude of the current in the series L-C-R circuit is
given by 123. (b) As, we know that angular displacement in equation of SHM,
Vm V 1 we get
im = ⇒ imax = m now imax = im k k
 1 
2 R 2 ω2 = ⇒ ω=
R +  ωL −
2
 m m
 ωC 
where, k is the spring constant and m is a mass of the block.
1 Vm2 Vm2
126. (b) Here, C = 30 µF = 30 × 10− 6 F, L = 27 mH = 27 × 10− 3 H
⇒ = ⇒ R 2 = (ωL – 1 / ωC )2
2 R 2 R 2 + (ωL – 1 / ωC )2
Angular frequency of oscillating circuit i.e.,
(ωL – 1/ωC 2 ) 1 1 104
⇒ R = (ωL – 1 / ωC ) ⇒ tan φ = = 1 ⇒ φ = 45° = 1.1 × 103 s−1
2
ω= = =
R LC (54 × 10− 3 ) (15 × 10− 6 ) 9
I rms I2 1 I P
P= = rms × = rms = max 127. (a) Here, C = 30µF = 30 × 10− 6 F, Q0 = 6 mC = 6 × 10− 3 C
R + (ωL – 1 / ωC )
2 2 2R 2 2R 2 Total energy stored in the circuit
Q2 (6 × 10− 3 C)2
117. (c) Here, phase difference i.e., U = 0 = = 0.6 J
X − XC π X − XC 2C 2 (30 × 10− 6 F)
tan φ = L ⇒ tan = L At a later time, the total energy is the same, i. e., 0.6 J and is
R 3 R
When L is removed shared between C and L.
3 = X C / R ⇒ X C = 3R 128. (a) For L-C oscillations
1 2 1
When C is removed Li0 = CV02
π X 2 2
tan = 3 = L ⇒ X L = R 3 C 10− 5 F
3 R or i 0 = V0 =
Hence in resonant circuit L 10− 1 H
3R − 3R = 25 × 10− 2 A = 0.25 A
tan φ = =0 ⇒ φ=0
R
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 203

129. (c) Frequency of electrical oscillator i.e., 148. (a) The resultant emf in the L - C - R circuit is given by
1 1 105
ν= = = Hz E = VR2 + (VL − VC )2 ⇒ E = (8)2 + (16 − 10)2
2π LC 2π 10− 6 × 10− 4 2π
⇒ E = 64 + 36 ⇒ E = 10 V
130. (b) Angular frequency of free oscillations of the circuit i.e.,
1 1 149. (a) It is important to note that resonance phenomenon is
ω= = exhibited by a circuit only if both L and C are present in the
LC (54 × 10 ) (60 × 10− 6 ) s− 1
−3
circuit. Only then do the voltage across L and C cancel each
104 − 1 other (both being out of phase) and the current amplitude is
= s = 0.55 × 10 3 s − 1 Vm / R , the total source voltage appearing across R. This means
18
that we cannot have resonance in a R-L or R-C circuit.
136. (c) Here, ε p = 2300 V, N p = 4000, ε s = 230 V
154. (b) Capacitance or inductor can be used in AC in place chock
Let N s be the required number of turns in the secondary coil as they have high reactance but uses no energy unlike high
ε N ε   230 V  resistance.
As, s = s , N s = N p  s  = 4000   = 400
εp N p  εp   2300 V 158. (d) When a capacitor is connected to a voltage source in a DC
circuit, current will flow for the short time required to charge
137. (c) Here, ε p = 220 V, ε s = 22 V and Z = 220 Ω the capacitor.
If i s is the current through the secondary, then As charge accumulates on the capacitor plates, the voltage
ε 22 V across them increases, opposing the current. That is, a capacitor
is = s = = 0.1A
Z 220 Ω in a DC circuit will limit or oppose the current as it charges.
We know that, ε p ip = ε s is When the capacitor is fully charged, the current in the circuit
falls to zero.
where, i p is the current drawn by the primary coil
Thus, 220 × ip = 22 × 0.1 A ⇒ i p = 0.01 A 161. (b) Case I Resistive circuit If the circuit contains only pure R,
it is called resistive. In that case φ = 0, cos φ = 1. There is
138. (b) P = 60 W, ε p = 220 V, is = 0.54 A
maximum power dissipation.
60 W Case II Purely inductive or capacitive circuit. If the circuit
As, P = εsi ⇒ εs = = 110 V
0.54 A contains only an inductor or capacitor, we know that, the phase
ε s 110 V 1 difference between voltage and current is π /2.
Since, = = Therefore, cos φ = 0 and no power is dissipated even though a
ε p 220 V 2
current is flowing in the circuit. This current is sometimes
As, ε p ip = ε s is referred to as wattless current.
ε   110 V Case III L -C - R series circuit In an L-C-R series circuit,
i p =  s  is =   (0.54 A) = 0.27 A
 εp   220 V power dissipated is given by equation P = I 2 cos φ, where
φ = tan − 1 ( X C − X L )/ R.
139. (b) Initial power = 3000 W So, φ may be non-zero in a R-L or R-C or L-C-R circuit. Even in
90
As efficiency is 90% then final power = 3000 × = 2700 W such cases, power is dissipated only in the resistor.
100
Case IV Power dissipated at resonance in L-C-R circuit At
V1i1 = 3000 W  resonance X C − X L = 0, and φ = 0. Therefore, cos φ = 1and
⇒ …(i)
V1i1 = 2700 W  P = I 2Z = I 2R. That is maximum power is dissipated in a
2700 900 3000 circuit (through R) at resonance.
So, V2 = = = 450 V and i1 = = 15 A
6 2 2000 162. (c) Analogies between mechanical and electrical quantities,
140. (a) Here, ε p = 1000 V, is = 20 A and ε s = 120 V, η = 80%, ip = ?
Mechanical system Electrical system
ε i 80 120 × 20
As η= s s ⇒ = Mass m Inductance L
ε p ip 100 1000 ip Force constant k Reciprocal capacitance 1/C
2.4 × 10 Displacement x Charge q
Current drawn by primary coil i.e., i p = =3A
8 Velocity v = dx/ dt Current i = dq / dt
141. (d) In an ideal transformer, there is no energy loss and flux is Mechanical energy Electromagnetic energy
completely confined with the magnetic core i.e., perfectly coupled 1 1 1 q2 1 2
E = kx2 + mv2 U = + Li
Pout
=1 2 2 2 C 2
Pin
As mass resists force to create acceleration (known as inertia) L
142. (a) The current drawn by the primary winding of the
resists to build up current in a circuit. It also resists to reduce
transformer i.e.,
current in a circuit.
 1  ε   100  440 V (1/ 2) kx 2 ≈ (1/ 2) q2 / c
i p =    s  is =     (2A) = 5 A
 η  ε p   80   220 V
So, x ≈ q and k ≈ 1/ c.
204 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

163. (d) To find the impedance of the circuit, we first calculate 170. (a) Secondary voltage
X L and X C . X L = 2πνL N 4200
i.e., Es = s Ep = × 120 = 240 V
= 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 25.48 × 10− 3 Ω = 8 Ω Np 2100
1 1
XC = = =4Ω Secondary current
2πνC 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 796 × 10− 6 Np 2100
i.e., is = ip = × 10 = 5 A
Ns 4200
Therefore, impedance, Z = R 2 + ( X L − X C )2
171. (b) Pi = 240 × 0.7 = 168 W, PO = 140 W
= 32 + (8 − 4 )2 = 5 Ω
Efficiency of transformer
 X − XC  P 140
Phase difference, φ = tan − 1  L  i.e., η = O × 100 = × 100 ≈ 80%
 R  Pi 168
 8 − 4
= tan − 1   = 53.1° 172. (a,b,c) When one has obtained the amplitude and phase of
 3  current for an L -C - R series circuit using the technique of
Since, φ is negative, the current in the circuit lags the voltage phasors. But this method of analysing AC circuits suffers from
across the source. certain disadvantages. First, the phasor diagram say nothing
164. (c) The power dissipated in the circuit is, P = i 2R about the initial condition. One can take any arbitrary value of t
(say, t1) and draw different phasors which show the relative
i 1  283
Now, im = o =   = 40 A angle between different phasors.
2 2  3  The solution so obtained is called the steady-state solution. This
Therefore, P = (40 A)2 × 3 Ω = 4800 W is not a general solution. Additionally, we do have a transient
Power factor = cos φ = cos 53.1° = 0.6 solution which exists even for V = 0. The general solution is the
165. (c) The frequency at which the resonance occurs is sum of the transient solution and the steady-state solution.
1 1 After a sufficiently long time, the effects of the transient
ω0 = = solution die out and the behaviour of the circuit is described by
LC 25.48 × 10 3 × 796 × 10− 6
−
the steady-state solution.
= 222.1 rads−1 175. (a,b,c) L - C oscillation is not realistic for two reasons.
ω 221.1 (i) Every inductor has some resistance. The effect of this
νr = 0 = = 35.4 Hz
2π 2 × 3.14 resistance is to introduce a damping effect on the charge
166. (d) The impedance Z at resonant condition is equal to the and current in the circuit and the oscillations finally die
resistance Z = R = 3 Ω away.
V V  283 1 (ii) Even, if the resistance in L-C circuit were zero, the total
The rms current at resonance is = = =   = 66.7 A
Z R  2 3 energy of the system would not remain constant. It is
radiated away from the system in the form of
The power dissipated at resonance is
electromagnetic waves. In fact during the process of
P = I 2 × R = (66.7)2 × 3 = 13.35 kW. charging and discharging of capacitor, electrons travel
167. (c) Here, ip = ?, Ep = 220 V, Es = 44 V, Rs = 880 Ω between plates with acceleration. Their accelerated
movement causes radiation of energy by EM waves.
Current in secondary coil,
E 44 1 176. (a) Current in the circuit
i.e., is = s = = A V 220
Rs 880 20 irms = rms = = 2.2 A
R 100
As, Ep ip = Es is
Current drawn by primary coil i.e., 177. (a) The rms value of voltage
V 300
∴
Ei
ip = s s =
44
×
1
= 0.01 A Vrms = 0 = = 212.1 V
Ep 220 20 2 2

Ns 178. (b) Inductive reactance X L = 2πfL

168. (b) Here, Ep = 110 V, k = = 10, Rs = 550 Ω, is = ?
Np = 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 44 × 10− 3 = 13.83 Ω
Ns The rms value of current in the circuit
Es = Ep × = 110 × 10 = 1100 V
Np V 220
irms = rms = = 15.9 A
Current through secondary coil X L 13.83
E 1100
i.e., is = s = = 2A 179. (c) Capacitive reactance
Rs 550 1 1
XC = = = 44.23 Ω
2πfC 2 × 3.14 × 60 × 60 × 10− 6
169. (d) As, we know k = N s / N p = 2. As a transformer does not
The rms value of the current in the circuit
work on battery, output voltage across secondary is zero.
V 110
Battery produce direct steady current no induction occurs. irms = rms = = 2.49 A
X C 44.23
 CHAPTER 7 : Alternating Current 205

Vrms 110
180. (d) Resonant angular frequency The rms value of current, irms = =
1 1 Z 48
ωr = = = 125 rad/s
The maximum current in the circuit
LC 2 × 32 × 10− 6
110
Q-factor of this circuit, I 0 = 2irms = 1.414 × = 3.24 A
48
1 L 1 2 103
Q= = = = 25 V
186. (a) As, S = S ⇒
N 230
=
NS
⇒ N S = 400
R C 10 32 × 10− 5 40 VP N P 2300 4000
181. (b) Resonant angular frequency of oscillation of the circuit Thus, the number of turns in secondary are 400.
104 m × g × h Volume × Density × g × h
ωr =
1
=
1
= 187. (b) Power = =
t t
LC 27 × 10− 3 × 30 × 10− 6 9
Pin = 100 × 1000 × 9.8 × 300 = 2.94 × 108 W
= 1.1 × 103 rad/s
(Q volume/second = 100 m 3/s, density = 1000 kg/m 3)
182. (a) At the condition of resonance impedance Z = R = 20 Ω
Suppose, the power output is P out , which is equal to the power
The rms value of current in the circuit
available from the plant.
V 200
irms = rms = = 10 A ⇒ φ = 0° (for resonance) The efficiency of generator
Z 20 P 60 Pout
Power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle η = out ⇒ =
Pin 100 2.94 × 108
P = irms.Vrms cos φ = 10 × 200 × cos 0° = 2000 W = 2 kW
60
183. (b) For tuning, the natural frequency is equal to the frequency of Pout = × 2.94 × 108 = 1764 × 105 W
100
oscillations that means it is the case of resonance.
= 176.4 MW
1
Frequency of oscillations f =
2π LC 188. (b) i rms = 5A
1 i 0 = Peak value = 2, i rms = 2 × 5 = 5 2 A
For capacitance C 1, f1 =
2π LC 1 i = i 0 sin ωt = 5 2 sin 2π νt
1 1 1
C1 = = = 5 2 sin 2π × 50 ×
4 π 2 f12L 4 × 3.14 × 3.14 × (8 × 105 )2 × 2 × 10− 4 300
= 197.7 × 10− 12 F = 197.7 pF π 3
= 5 2 sin = 5 2 × = 5 3/ 2 A
1 3 2
For capacitance C 2, f2 =
2π LC 2 189. (c) For delivering maximum power from the generator to the
load, total internal reactance must be equal to conjugate of total
1 1
C2 = = external reactance.
4 π f2 L 4 × 3.14 × 3.14 × (12 × 105 )2 × 2 × 10− 4
2 2
Hence, X int = * X ext
= 87.8 × 10− 12 F = 87.8 pF
⇒ X g = ( X L )* = − X L
Thus, the range of capacitor is 87.8 pF to 197.7 pF.
⇒ XL = −Xg
184. (a) The rms value of voltage Vrms = 240 V, f = 50 Hz
190. (c) The voltmeter connected to AC mains reads mean value
Impedance of circuit Z = R 2 + X L2 = R 2 + (2πfL)2 (<v 2>) and is calibrated in such a way that it gives value of
<v 2>, which is multiplied by form factor to give rms value.
= (100)2 + (2 × 3.14 × 50 × 0.50)2
191. (b) We know that resonant frequency in an L-C-R circuit is
= 186.14 Ω given by
V 240
The rms value of current irms = rms = = 1.29 A ν0 =
1
Z 186.14 2π LC
The maximum value of current in the circuit
Now to reduce ν 0 either we can increase L or we can increase C.
i0 = 2 irms = 1.414 × 1.29 = 1.824 A
To increase capacitance, we must connect another capacitor
2 parallel to the first.
 1 
185. (b) Impedance Z = R 2 + X C2 = R 2 +   192. (c) Quality factor (Q) of an L-C-R circuit is given by,
 2πfC 
1 L
2 Q=
 1  R C
= (40)2 +  
 2 × 3.14 × 60 × 10− 6 × 100 where, R is resistance, L is inductance and C is capacitance of
the circuit. To make Q high, R should be low, L should be high
= 1600 + 704.33 = 48 Ω and C should be low.
206 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

193. (c) Average power dissipated in the circuit Clearly when frequency increases, X C decreases.
Pav = Erms i rms cos φ ...(i)  1 
2
For R-C circuit, X = R2 +  
i E  ωC 
i rms = 0 = rms
2 Z when frequency increases, X decreases.
Z = R 2 + X L2 = 4 + 1 = 5 197. (a,b,d) We have to transmit energy (power) over large distances
6 R 2 at high alternating voltages, so current flowing through the
i rms = A ⇒ cos φ = = wires will be low because for a given power (P).
5 Z 5
6 2 + –
Pav = 6 × × [from Eq. (i)] + –
5 5 + –
+ –
72 72 + –
= = = 14.4 W
5 5 5
194. (a) Secondary voltage VS = 24V + –
Power associated with secondary PS = 12 W (AC)

P 12 1 P = Erms irms , i rms is low, when Erms is high.

iS = S = = A = 0.5 A
VS 24 2 Power loss = i 2rms R = low (Q i rms is low)
Peak value of the current in the secondary Now at the receiving end high voltage is reduced by using
1 step-down transformers.
i 0 = iS 2 = (0.5) (1 .414 ) = 0.707 = A
2 198. (a,b,c) According to question power transferred,
195. (a,d) Reactance of an inductor of inductance L is, X L = 2πνL P = i 2Z cos φ
where, v is frequency of the AC circuit. R
As power factor, cos φ =
1 Z
X C = Reactance of the capacitive circuit =
2πfC where R > 0 and Z > 0 ⇒ cos φ > 0 ⇒ P > 0
On increasing frequency ν, clearly X Lincreases and X C 199. (c,d) When the AC voltage is applied to the capacitor, the plate
decreases. connected to the positive terminal will be at higher potential
For an L-C-R circuit, and the plate connected to the negative terminal will be at lower
Z = Impedance of the circuit potential.
= R 2 + ( X L − X C )2 The plate with positive charge will be at higher potential and
the plate with negative charge will be at lower potential. So, we
 1 
2 can say that the charge is in phase with the applied voltage.
= R 2 +  2πνL − 
 2πνC  Power applied to a circuit is
Pav = Vrms i rms cos φ
As frequency (ν) increases, Z decreases and at certain value of
frequency known as resonant frequency (ν 0), impedance Z is For capacitive circuit, φ = 90° ⇒ cos φ = 0
minimum that is Zmin = R current varies inversely with ⇒ Pav = Power delivered = 0
impedance and at Zmin current is maximum. 200. (a, d) For house hold supplies, AC currents are used which are
196. (c,d) According to the question, the current increases on having zero average value over a cycle.
increasing the frequency of supply. Hence, the reactance of the The line is having some resistance so power factor
circuit must be decreases as increasing frequency. cos φ = R / Z ≠ 0
For a capacitive circuit, so, φ ≠ π / 2 ⇒ φ ,< π / 2
1 1 i.e., phase lies between 0 and π / 2.
XC = =
ωC 2πfC
 C H A P T E R

8
Electromagnetic
Waves
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Displacement Current The current which comes into each other and to the direction of wave propagation.
play in the region in which the electric field and the Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by electric
electric flux is changing with time. It is given by and magnetic fields.
dφE Y
iD = ε 0 E B E B
dt
2. Maxwell’s equations of electromagnetic waves are O X
the basic laws of electricity and magnetism. There
are four maxwell’s equations which gives complete Z
B E B E
description of all electromagnetic interactions. Direction of propagation
q
(i) Gauss’ law in electrostatics, ∫ E ⋅ dS = ε 0 5. E (electric field) and B (magnetic field) in
electromagnetic waves are in same phase.
(ii) Gauss’ law in magnetism, ∫ B ⋅ dS = 0 6. For a wave of frequency ν, wavelength λ, propagating
(iii) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, along z-direction, we have
 z t 
dφB E = E x (t ) = E 0 sin (kz − ωt ) = E 0 sin 2 π  −  
∫ E ⋅ d l = − dt   λ T 
(iv) Modified Ampere’s circuital law, B = B y (t ) = B 0 sin (kz − ωt )
∫ B ⋅ d l = µ 0 (iC + iD ) = B 0 sin [2 π ( z / λ − t /T )] in vacuum
where, iC is conduction current and iD is 7. Speed of electromagnetic wave
displacement current. E 1
c= 0 = = 3 × 108 ms −1
3. An electromagnetic wave is a wave radiated by an B0 µ 0ε 0
accelerated or oscillatory charge in which varying
8. In a general medium, the speed of EM wave
magnetic field is the source of electric field and
1
varying electric field is the source of magnetic field. v =
Thus, two fields becomes source of each other and µε
the wave propagates in a direction perpendicular to where, µ is permeability and ε is permittivity of the
both the fields. medium.
4. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. i.e., 9. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided
electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to equally between electric and magnetic fields.
208 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

10. Average energy density associated with an where, U = total energy transmitted by the
electromagnetic wave is electromagnetic wave and c = speed of
1 B2 electromagnetic wave.
U= ε0 E 2 + 12. The systematic distribution of electromagnetic waves
2 2µ 0
in ascending or descending order of frequency or
11. Linear momentum delivered to a surface by an wavelength is known as electromagnetic spectrum.
U
electromagnetic wave, p = The range varies from 10−12 m to 104 m
c
i.e., from γ-rays to radio waves.

Different Types of Electromagnetic Waves

Type Wavelength range Frequency range (Hz) Production Detection
Radio wave > 0.1 m 3 × 103 to 3 × 108 Rapid acceleration and Receiver’s aerials
deceleration of electrons in aerials.
Microwave 0.1 m to 1 nm 3 × 108 to 3 × 1011 Klystron valve or magnetron valve Point contact diodes
Infrared wave 1 mm to 700 nm 3 × 1011 to 4 × 1014 Vibration of atoms and molecules Thermopile, Bolometer, infrared
photographic film
Light 700 nm to 400 nm 4 × 1014 to 8 × 1014 Electrons in atoms emit light when The eye, photocells, photographic
they move from one energy level to film
a lower energy level.
Ultraviolet rays 400 nm to 1 nm 8 × 1014 to 8 × 1016 Inner shell electrons in atoms Photocells, photographic film
moving from one energy level to a
lower level.
X-rays 1 nm to 10−3 nm 1 × 1016 to 3 × 1021 X-ray tubes or inner shell electrons. Photographic film Geiger tubes
−3
γ-rays < 10 nm 5 × 10 to 5 × 10
18 22
Radioactive decay of the nucleus. Photographic film ionisation
chamber

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Displacement Current
1. The conduction current is the same as displacement 4. There may be a large regions of space, where there is
current when source is no conduction current, but there is only
(a) only AC (a) displacement current due to time varying electric fields
(b) only DC (b) induced current due to time varying electric fields
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
5. Which statement represents the symmetrical
2. An oscillating charge is an example of
counterpart of Faraday’s law and a consequence of
(a) displacement current (b) conduction current
the displacement current being a source of a magnetic
(c) accelerating charge (d) accelerating current field?
dφ E
3. The current ε 0 = i is a new term and is due to (a) An electric field changing with time gives rise to a
dt magnetic field
changing electric field, therefore called (b) A magnetic field changing with time gives rise to an
(a) conduction current electric field
(b) induced current (c) An emf changing with time gives rise to an electric field
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) An displacement current, changing with time gives rise
(d) Maxwell’s displacement current to an electric field
 CHAPTER 8 : Electromagnetic Waves 209

P M E
6. In the given figure, a + – 10. A parallel-plate capacitor consists of two circular
magnetic field (say at B + – plates with radius R =10 cm separated by distance
point M) between the i (t)
+ – d = 0.5 mm. The capacitor is being changed at a
plates of the capacitor to + – uniform rate by applying a changing potential
+ –
be the same as that + – difference between the two plates. Calculate the
just displacement current for the capacitor. Assume that
(a) outside at P (b) between the plates the electric field is due to the displacement current
(c) above the plates (d) down the plates only and rate at which the electric field between the
plates changes is 5 × 1013 Vms −1 .
7. The charge on a parallel-plate capacitor varies as
(a) 13.8 A (b) 12.6 A (c) 13.9 A (d) 10.5 A
q = q 0 cos 2πνt. The plates are very large and close
together (area = A, separation = d ). Neglecting the 11. A sinusoide voltage is applied directly across an
edge effects, find the displacement current through 8 µF capacitor. The frequency of the source is
the capacitor? 3.00 kHz and the voltage amplitude is 30.0 V. Find
(a) − sin 2πνt ( 2πν ) (b) q0 cos 2πνt the displacement current and amplitude between the
(c) 2π q0 ν sin ( 2πνt ) (d) − 2π q0 ν sin ( 2πνt ) plates of the capacitor.
(a) 42.5 A (b) 4.25 µA (c) 4.52 A (d) 4.52 µA
8. What is an instantaneous take of change of voltage
for displacement current of 10A current in the space 12. You are given a parallel plate capacitor having
between the parallel plate of 1 µF capacitor? capacitance of 2µF. How would you establish an
instantaneous displacement current of 1 mA in the
(a) 105 Vs −1 (b) 106 Vs −1
space between its plates?
(c) 10−6 Vs −1 (d) 107 Vs −1
(a) 550 Vs −1 (b) 500 Vs −1
9. The charge of a parallel plate capacitor is varying as (c) 525 Vs −1 (d) 475 Vs −1
q = q 0 sin 2πft. The plates are very large and close 13. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to 100 × 10 −6 C.
together (Area = A, separation = d). Neglecting edge
effects, the displacement current through the capacitor is Due to radiations falling, from a radiating source the
d d plate loses charge at the rate of 2 × 10 −7 Cs −1 . The
(a) (b) sin 2πft
Aε 0 ε0 magnitude of displacement current is
2πfq0 (a) 10−6 A (b) 10−4 A
(c) 2πfq0 cos 2πft (d) cos 2πft (c) 2 × 10−7 A (d) 2 × 10−7 mCs −1
ε0

Topic 2
Maxwell’s Equation
14. Which is the most important prediction to emerge 16. We have a contradiction, calculated one way, there is
from Maxwell’s equations? a magnetic field at a point P, calculated another way,
(a) Existence of magnetic waves the magnetic field at P is zero. Since, the
(b) Existence of electrical waves contradiction arises from our use of
(c) Existence of radio waves (a) Ampere’s circuital law (b) Lorentz’s force law
(d) Existence of electromagnetic waves (c) Fleming’s right hand rule (d) Fleming left hand rule
15. The total current passing through any surface, of 17. ‘Time-dependent electric and magnetic fields give
which the closed loop is the perimeter, is rise to each other’. Which laws give a quantitative
(a) sum of conduction current and displacement current expression of this statement?
(b) difference of conduction current and displacement (a) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
current (b) Ampere-Maxwell law
(c) product of conduction current and displacement current (c) Faraday’s left hand rule of electromagnetic induction
(d) fraction of conduction current and displacement current (d) Both (a) and (b)
210 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

18. If we generalise Ampere’s circuital law by adding to 21. Consider cross-sectional view of the given figure.
the total current carried by conductors through the
surface, another term which is ε 0 times the rate of B
B

change of electric flux through the same surface, the

total value of current for all surfaces will be E
(a) same (b) different B
(c) may be same (d) None of these B

19. Find magnetic field on circular loop of radius r,

placed between circular plates of capacitor of radius R Now choose the correct option.
having displacement current id , r < R . P M E P M B
+ – + –
µ 0 id r µ 0 id µ 0 id B + – E + –
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero
2πR 2
2πR 2πr (a) i (t) + – (b) i (t) + –
+ – i + –
20. An expression for the magnetic field strength B at the + – + –
+ – + –
point between the capacitor plates in terms of the rate C C
of change of the electric field strength i. e., dE / dt P M E P M E
between the plates is – + + –
B – + B + –
µ 0i ε 0 µ 0 r dE
(a) (b) (c) i (t) – + (d) i (t) + –
2πr 2 dt – + + –
µ 0i – + + –
(c) zero (d) – + + –
2r C C

Topic 3
Sources and Nature of EM Waves
22. Which scientist’s experiment marks the beginning of the 27. The velocity of light depends on
field of communication using electromagnetic waves? (a) electric properties of the medium
(a) Maxwell (b) JC Bose (b) magnetic properties of the medium
(c) Hertz (d) Marconi (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
23. Electromagnetic waves can be deflected by
(a) only electric field (b) only magnetic field 28. In a material medium of permittivity ε and magnetic
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these permeability µ, the velocity of light becomes
1 1 ε
24. Which waves propagate in a solid, which is rigid and (a) v = (b) v = (c) v = µ / ε (d) v =
that resists shear? µε µε µ
(a) Electromagnetic waves 29. Electromagnetic waves of different wavelengths with
(b) Sound waves the same velocity (independent of wavelength) within a
(c) Transverse waves of water few metres per second and the value of speed of light is
(d) Transverse elastic sound waves (a) 3 × 108 ms −1 (b) 3 × 1011 ms −1
25. Name of famous scientists who demolished the (c) 3 × 1012 ms −1 (d) 3 × 109 ms −1
conclusively the hypothesis of ether? 30. The constancy of the velocity of electromagnetic
(a) Maxwell and Hertz in 1890 waves in vacuum is used to define a standard of
(b) JC Bose and Hertz in 1886
(a) breadth (b) thickness
(c) Marconi and Maxwell in 1887 (c) length (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Michelson and Morley in 1887
31. The distance travelled by light in vacuum in a time
26. In which medium, electric and magnetic fields, (1/c) seconds = (2.99792458 × 10 8 ) −1 second is
oscillating in space and time, can sustain each other? known as
(a) Air (b) Vacuum (a) centimetre (b) metre
(c) Free space (d) Water (c) decimetre (d) millimetre
 CHAPTER 8 : Electromagnetic Waves 211

32. The direction of k describes 41. Light with an energy flux of18 Wcm −2 falls on a
(a) direction of propagation of the wave non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the
(b) opposite direction of propagation of the wave surface has an area of 20 cm 2 , find the average force
(c) direction of propagation of the wave (ω / k ) executed on the surface during a 30 min time span.
(d) opposite direction of propagation of the wave (ω / k ) (a) 12 × 10−6 N (b) 1.2 × 10−7 N
33. The signal will be greatly diminished, when the (c) 1.2 × 10−6 N (d) 12 × 107 N
antenna is turned 42. By measuring the heating of a material as it absorbs
(a) horizontal (b) vertical light from the sun, one finds that the intensity of
(c) at the angle of 45° (d) at angle of 60° sunlight at the surface of the earth is 1300 Wm −2 . What
34. What will be the magnetic energy density, in the will be magnetic field of sunlight?
magnetic field B? (a) 990 T (b) 3 × 10−6 T
(a) B / 2µ 0
2
(b) B / 2µ 0 (c) 3.3 × 10−6 T (d) 9.9 × 10−6 T
(c) 2B /µ 0 (d) 2 B 2µ 0 43. An electromagnetic wave propagating in the y-direction
has wavelength of 5.0 mm. The electric field is in the
35. The average value of electric energy density in an
x-direction and its maximum magnitude of 66 Vm −1 . The
electromagnetic wave is (E 0 is peak value) equation for the electric field as function of x and t is
1 E02 1
(a) ε 0 E02 (b) (c) ε 0 E02 (d) ε 0 E02 (a) 11sin ( t − y / c ) (b) 66 sin 1.2π × 1011 ( t − y / c )
2 2ε 0 4
(c) 66 sin 1.2 π ( t − x / c ) (d) 11 sin π × 1011 ( t − x / c )
36. During the propagation or electromagnetic waves in
44. Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an
a medium. [JEE Main 2014]
(a) Electric energy density is double of the magnetic electromagnetic wave is E 0 = 120 NC −1 and its frequency
energy density is ν = 50.0 MHz. The expressions for E will be (if wave
(b) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy travels along X)
density (a) [(120 NC −1 ) sin {(1.05 radm −1 ) x
(c) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic − (3.14 × 108 rads −1 ) t}] $i
energy density
(d) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero (b) [(120 NC −1 ) sin {(1.05 rad m −1 ) x
− (3.14 × 108 rads −1 ) t}] k$
37. Out of the following options which one can be used −1
(c) [(120 NC sin {(1.05 radm ) x −1
to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave? − (3.14 × 108 rads −1 ) t }] $j
[NEET 2016]
(d) [(120 NC −1 ) cos {(1.05 radm −1 ) x
(a) A stationary charge
− (3.14 × 108 rads −1 ) t}] $j
(b) A charge less particle
(c) An accelerating charge 45. The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is given
(d) A charge moving at constant velocity by B y = 3 × 10 −7 sin (10 3 x + 6.28 × 1012 t ).
38. If the total energy transferred to a surface in time t is The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave is
U , then the magnitude of the total momentum (a) 6.28 cm (b) 3.14 cm (c) 0.63 cm (d) 0.32 cm
delivered to this surface (for complete absorption) is
U c 46. Light having an energy flux of 40 Wcm −2 falls on
(a) p = (b) p = non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the
c U
2c surface has an area of 20 cm 2 , the total momentum
(c) p = cU (d) p = delivered (for complete absorption) during 10 min is
U
(a) 24 × 10−5 kg ms −1 (b) 24 × 10−4 kg ms −1
39. Solar radiation is
(c) 102 × 104 kg ms −1 (d) 1.03 × 107 kg ms −1
(a) transverse electromagnetic wave
(b) longitudinal electromagnetic wave 47. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 30 MHz
(c) stationary wave travels in free space along x-direction. The electric
(d) None of the above field component of the wave at a particular point of
40. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz space and time E = 6 Vm −1 along y-direction. Its
travels in free space along the x-direction. At a magnetic field component B at this point would be
particular point in space and time, E = 6.3 JV/ m. (a) 2 × 10−8 T along z-direction
What is B at this point? (b) 6 × 10−8 T along x-direction
(a) 2.1 × 10−8 k$ T (b) 2.1 × 108 k$ T (c) 2 × 10−8 T along y-direction
(c) 3.5 × 106 k$ T (d) 3.0 × 105 k$ T (d) 6 × 10−8 T along z-direction
212 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

48. The refractive index and the permeability of a 52. The electric field associated with an electro magnetic
medium are respectively 1.5 and 5 × 10 −7 Hm −1 . The wave in vacuum is given by
relative permittivity of the medium is nearly E = i 40 cos ( kz − 6 × 10 8 t ), where E , z and t are in
(a) 25 (b) 15 (c) 81 (d) 6 V m −1 , meter and second respectively. The value of
49. If ε 0 and µ 0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic wave vector k is [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) 2 m−1 (b) 0.5 m−1 (c) 6 m−1 (d) 3 m−1
permeability of free space and ε and µ are the
corresponding quantities in the medium, the index of 53. Radiations of intensity 0.5 Wm −2 are striking a metal
refraction of the medium in terms of above parameter is plate. The pressure on the plate is
(a) 0.66 ×10−8 Nm−2 (b) 0.332 × 10−8 Nm−2
1/ 2 1/ 2
εµ  εµ  ε µ  ε µ 
(a) (b)   (c)  0 0  (d)  0 0 
ε0 µ 0  ε0 µ 0   εµ   εµ  . × 10−8 Nm−2
(b) 0111 (c) 0.083 × 10−8 Nm−2

50. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly 54. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic
reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of
surface is electric field strength is [JEE Main 2013]
E 2E (a) 3 Vm −1 (b) 6 Vm −1
(a) (b)
c c (c) 9 Vm −1 (d) 12 Vm −1
E 55. A charged particle with charge q enters a region of
(c) Ec (d)
c2 constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal fields E
Y and B with a velocity v perpendicular to both E and B,
51. Light wave is travelling along
and comes out without any change in magnitude or
y-direction. If the
direction of v. Then,
corresponding E vector at any
time is along the X-axis, the (a) v = B × E/ B 2 (b) v = B × E/ B 2
X
direction of B vector at that (c) v = E × B / E 2 (d) v = B × E/ E 2
time is along
Z 56. The magnetic field component of intensity of
(a) Y-axis (b) X-axis electromagnetic wave is 4I 0 . What is the electric field
(c) + Z-axis (d)− Z-axis component of intensity?
I0
(a) 2 I 0 (b) 4 I 0 (c) I 0 (d)
4
Topic 4
Electromagnetic Spectrum
57. At the time Maxwell predicted the existence of 60. Infrared waves are produced by
electromagnetic waves, which was the more familiar (a) hot bodies and molecules (b) cold bodies and molecules
electromagnetic waves at that time? (c) Neither hot nor cold (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) X-rays
61. Infrared radiations is trapped by
(b) γ-rays
(a) ozone layer (b) water vapour
(c) Visible light waves
(c) CO2 (d) Both (b) and (c)
(d) Radiowaves
58. Which of the following are electromagnetic waves? 62. Visible rays in the spectrum runs from about
(a) Visible light waves and X-rays (a) 4 × 1014 Hz to 4 × 1011 Hz
(b) Gamma rays and radio waves (b) 4 × 1014 Hz to 7 × 1014 Hz
(c) Microwaves and ultraviolet rays (c) 4 × 1012 Hz to 7 × 1014 Hz
(d) All of the above
(d) 4 × 1011 Hz to 7 × 1014 Hz
59. The classification of electromagnetic waves
according to frequency is called 63. In the electromagnetic spectrum, X-ray region lies
(a) electromagnetic beam (a) beyond the microwave region
(b) electromagnetic spectrum (b) above the ultraviolet region
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) beyond the UV region
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) above the infrared ray region
 CHAPTER 8 : Electromagnetic Waves 213

64. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in the 70. All components of the electromagnetic spectrum in
order of increasing energy. [JEE Main 2016] vacuum have the same
I. Blue light II. Yellow light (a) energy (b) velocity
III. X-ray IV. Radio wave (c) wavelength (d) frequency
(a) IV, II, I, III 71. The condition under which a microwave oven heats
(b) I, II, IV, III up a food item containing water molecules most
(c) III, I, II, IV efficiently is [NEET 2013]
(d) II, I, IV, III (a) the frequency of the microwave must match the
resonant frequency of the water molecules
65. UV radiation is absorbed by
(b) the frequency of the microwave has no relation with
(a) ordinary glass (b) prism
natural frequency of water molecules
(c) black glass (d) Both (b) and (c)
(c) microwave are heat waves, so always produce heating
66. The energy of the EM waves is of the order of 15 keV. (d) infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven
To which part of the spectrum does it belong? 72. Radio wave diffract around building although light
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] waves do not. The reason is that radio waves
(a) X-ray (b) Infrared rays (a) travel with speed target than c
(c) Ultraviolet rays (d) γ-rays (b) have much longer wavelength than light
67. Wavelength of gamma rays are (c) carry news
(a) 10−10 nm to less than 10−14 m (d) are not electromagnetic waves
(b) 10−14 m to less than 10−10 m 73. X-rays are not used for radar purposes, because they
(c) 10−11 m to less than 10−14 m are not
(d) 10−14 nm to less than 10−10 nm (a) reflected by target
68. Gamma rays are used in medicine to destroy (b) partly absorbed by target
(a) PB cells (b) cancer cells (c) electromagnetic waves
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) completely absorbed by target
74. Molybdenum is used as a target element for the
69. One common way to generate X-rays is that
production of X-rays because it is
(a) bombard a metal target by high energy electrons
(a) light and can easily deflect electrons
(b) bombard a metal target by low energy neutrons
(b) light and can absorb electrons
(c) bombard a metal target by low energy protons
(c) a heavy element with a high melting point
(d) bombard a metal target by high energy neutrons
(d) an element having high thermal conductivity

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason S
+ – + –
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 75-78) In the following questions, P P M
+M – + –
a statement of assertion is followed by a corresponding r + –
r + –
statement of reason. Of the following statements, choose i (t) i (t) + –
+ –
the correct one. + – + –
+ – + –
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason C
C
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason Reason No current passes through the surface.
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 76. Assertion We needed to do was to set up an AC
circuit in which the current oscillate at the frequency
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
of visible light i.e., yellow.
75. Assertion While applying Ampere’s circuital law to
given surfaces with same perimeter, the left hand side Reason The above experiment demonstrates
electromagnetic wave.
∫ B ⋅ dl = µ 0 i(t ) has not changed but the right hand side
is zero.
214 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

77. Assertion An oscillating charge produces an Statement Based Questions Type II

electric field in space, which produces an oscillating
82. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
magnetic field, which in turn, is a source of electric
field and so on. P M E
Reason The oscillating electric and magnetic field + –
B + –
thus regenerate each other, so to speak, as the wave + –
i (t)
propagates through the space. + –
+ –
78. Assertion When the sun shines on our hand, we + –
S
feel the energy being absorbed from the
electromagnetic waves (our hands get warm). I. The electric field E is perpendicular to the surface S
Reason Electromagnetic waves also transfer in given figure.
momentum to our hand but because c is very large, II. It has the same magnitude over the area A of the
the amount of momentum transferred is extremely capacitor plates, and vanishes outside it.
small and we do not feel the pressure.
III. So, the electric flux φ E through the surface S by
1 Q Q
II. Statement Based Questions Type I using the Gauss law, is φ E = | E | A = ⋅A=
ε0 A ε0
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 79-81) In the following
(a) I and II
questions, a statement I is followed by a (b) II and III
corresponding statement II. Of the following (c) I and III
statements, choose the correct one. (d) All of these
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
and Statement II is the correct explanation of 83. I. In all respects, the displacement current has the same
Statement I. physical effects as the conduction current.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct II. Due to electric fields in a conducting wire, the
but Statement II is not the correct explanation displacement current may be zero, since the electric
of Statement I. field E does not change with time.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is III. The charging capacitor, both conduction and
incorrect. displacement currents may be present in same
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is regions of space.
correct. IV. In most of the cases, they both may be present in the
79. Statement I Infrared waves are sometimes referred same region of space, as there exist no perfectly
to as heat waves. conducting or perfectly insulating medium.
(a) I and II (b) III and IV
Statement II Water molecules present in most (c) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV
materials readily absorb infrared waves. After
absorption, their thermal motion increases, that is 84. I. The total current i is the sum of the conduction
they heat up and heat their surroundings. current denoted by ic , and the displacement current
denoted by id ( t ) = ε 0 ( dφE / dt ).
80. Statement I Welders wear special glass goggles or dφ
face masks with glass windows to protect their eyes So, i = ie + id = ic + ε 0 ε .
dt
from large amount of UV produced by welding arcs.
II. Outside the capacitor plates, we have only
Statement II Due to shorter wavelength of UV, conduction current ic = i and no displacement
UV-radiations can be focussed into very narrow current, id = 0.
beams for high precision applications such as
III. Inside the capacitor, there is no conduction current
LASER eye surgery.
ic = 0 and there is only displacement current, so that
81. Statement I X-rays are used as a diagnostic tool in id = i
medicine and as a treatment for certain forms of Which of the above statements is/are correct? Choose
cancer. the correct option.
Statement II X-rays damage or destroy living (a) I and III (b) II and III
tissues and organisms. (c) I and III (d) All of these
 CHAPTER 8 : Electromagnetic Waves 215

85. X 89. I. Ultraviolet rays wavelength ranging about

E
4 × 10 −7 m (400 nm) down to 6 × 10 −10 m
Z (0.6 nm).
Y
B II. UV radiation is produced by special lamps and
very hot bodies.
Consider the figure. Which of the following III. The Sun is an important source of ultraviolet light.
statements are correct?
IV. Most of the UV rays absorbed in the ozone ayer in
I. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating along the atmosphere at an altitude of about 40-50 km.
the z-direction (the fields are shown as a function
of the z-coordinate, at a given time t). Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
II. The electric field E x is along the Y-axis and varies
(c) I, III and IV (d) All of these
sinusoidally with z, at a given time.
90. Which of the following statements are correct?
III. The magnetic field B y is along the Y-axis and again
varies sinusoidally with z. I. The wavelength of microwave is greater than that
of UV-rays.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) All of these II. The wavelength of infrared rays is lesser than that
of UV-rays.
86. I. Electromagnetic waves are self-sustaining
III. The wavelength of microwave is lesser than that of
oscillations of electric and magnetic fields in free
infrared rays.
space or vacuum.
IV. Gamma rays have shortest wavelengths in the
II. No material medium is involved in the vibrations
electromagnetic spectrum.
of the electric and magnetic fields.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
III. Sound waves in air are longitudinal waves of
compression and refraction.
IV. Transverse waves on the surface of water consist of
III. Matching Type
water moving up and down as the wave spreads 91. Match the items of Column I with those of Column II
horizontally and radially onwards. and choose the correct option from the codes given
Which of the following statements are correct? below.
Choose the correct option. Column I Column II
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) All of these A. ∫ E dA = Q / ε0 1. Faraday’s law

87. I. The great technological importance of B. ∫ B dA = 0 2. Ampere-Maxwell law

electromagnetic waves stems from their capability
dφB 3. Gauss law for
to carry energy from one place to another. C. ∫ Ed l = −
dt electricity
II. The radio and TV signals from broadcasting
dφE 4. Gauss law for
stations carry energy. D. ∫ B i d l = µ 0 ic + µ 0ε0
dt magnetism
III. Light carries energy from the sun to the earth, thus
making life possible on the earth. A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 1 4
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 3 4
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) All of these 92. Match the items of Column I with the items of
88. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? Column II and choose the correct option from the
I. Radio waves are produced by the accelerated codes given below .
motion of charges in conducting wires. Column I Column II
II. Radio waves are used in radio and television A. Radio 1. 54 MHz
communication systems. B. Amplitude modulated 2. 88 MHz to 108 MHz
III. Cellular phones use radio waves to transmit voice C. Short wave bands 3. 530 kHz to 1710 kHz
communication in the ultra high frequency.
D. TV wave 4. 500 kHz to 1000 MHz
(a) I and III (b) II and III
(c) I and II (d) All of these E. Frequency modulated 5. 54 MHz to 890 MHz
216 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

A B C D E 98. What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field?

(a) 3 1 5 2 4
(a) 0.8 × 10−7 T
(b) 1 5 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 5 2 3 . × 10−7 T
(b) 16
(d) 4 3 1 5 2 (c) 3.2 × 10−8 T
93. Match List I (Electromagnetic wave type) with List (d) 6.4 × 10−8 T
II (Its association/application) and select the correct
option from the choices given below the list. V. More than One Option Correct
[JEE Main 2014]
99. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
List I List II (a) Time dependent electric field gives rise to magnetic field.
A. Infrared waves 1. To treat muscular strain (b) Time independent electric field gives rise to magnetic field.
B. Radio waves 2. For broadcasting (c) Time dependent magnetic field gives rise to electric field.
C. X-rays 3. To detect fracture of bones (d) Time independent magnetic field gives rise to electric field.
D. Ultraviolet 4. Absorbed by the ozone layer of 100. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free
space is given by E = 10 cos (10t + kx ) j Vm −1 , where t
the atmosphere

A B C D A B C D and x are in seconds and metres, respectively. It can be

(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3 inferred that
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 (a) The wavelength λ is 188.4m
(b) The wave number k is 0.33 radm−1
IV. Passage Based Questions (c) The wave amplitude is 10Vm −1
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 94-96) These questions are (d) The wave is propagating along + x-direction.
based on the following situation. Choose the correct 101. Which of the following have zero average value in a
options from those given below. plane electromagnetic wave?
The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave (a) Electric field
is given by By = 2 × 10 −7 sin( 0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 10t) T. (b) Magnetic field
(c) Electric energy
94. What is the wavelength of the wave?
(d) Magnetic energy
(a) 12.6 cm (b) 1.26 cm (c) 1. 26 m (d) 6.12 m
102. Which of the following statements about EM waves
95. What is the frequency of the wave? is/are correct?
(a) 2.39 GHz (b) 23.9 MHz (a) Electromagnetic waves having wavelength 1000 times
(c) 23.9 GHz (d) 20.3 MHz smaller than light waves are called X-rays.
96. Write an expression for the electric field? (b) Ultraviolet waves are used in treatment of swollen joints.
(a) E y = 60 sin (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011 t ) Vm−1 (c) de-Broglie waves are not electromagnetic in nature
(d) Electromagnetic waves exhibit polarisation while sound
(b) Ex = 60 sin (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011 t ) Vm−1 waves do not.
(c) E z = 60 sin (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011 t ) Vm−1
103. The wavelength of X-rays; γ-rays; ultraviolet rays and
(d) E y = 60 cos (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011 t ) Vm−1
microwaves are a, b, c and d, respectively then
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 97-98) These questions are (a) a > b
based on the following situation. Choose the correct (b) d > c
options from those given below. (c) d < b
(d) c > a
In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field
oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz 104. Which of the following relation are true for energy of
and amplitude 48 Vm −1 . X-rays ( E X ), radiowaves ( E R ) and microwave ( E M )?
(a) E X > E M
97. What is the wavelength of the wave?
−2 −4 (b) E X < E M
(a) 1.5 × 10 m (b) 1.5 × 10 m
(c) E M > ER
(c) 3 × 10−2 m (d) 3 × 10−4 m (d) E M < ER
 NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
NCERT ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 111-114) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 105-107) These questions are
options from those given below.
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below. Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an
electromagnetic wave is E0 = 120 N/C and that its
A parallel plate capacitor made
frequency is ν = 50.0 MHz.
of circular plates each of radius
R = 6.0 cm, has a capacitance 111. The amplitude of B 0 is
C = 100 pF. The capacitor is (a) 200 nT (b) 300 nT (c) 400 nT (d) 500 nT
connected to a 230 V AC supply ∼
112. The value of ω is
with a frequency of 300 rads −1 .
(a) 3.14 × 102 rads −1 (b) 3.14 × 108 rads −1
105. What is the rms value of conduction current? (c) 6.28 × 104 rads −1 (d) 6.28 × 108 rads −1
(a) 6.9 × 106 A (b) 6.9 µ A
(c) 5.9 × 106 A (d) 5.9 µA 113. The value of k is
(a) 0.5 radm−1 (b) 1 radm−1
106. In the above question, is the conduction current equal
(c) 2 radm−1 (d) 4 radm−1
to the displacement current?
(a) Yes (b) No 114. The value of λ is
(c) May be (d) Never possible (a) 2 m (b) 4 m (c) 6 m (d) 8 m
107. Determine the amplitude of B, at a point 3.0 cm from 115. About 5% of the power of a 100W light bulb is
the axis between the plates. converted to visible radiation. What is the average
(a) 1.62 × 10−11 T (b) 1.63 × 1011 T intensity of visible radiation at a distance of 1m from
(c) 1.62 × 1011 T (d) 1.63 × 10−11 T the bulb? Assume that the radiations are emitted
isotropically and neglect reflection.
■ Direction (Q. Nos. 108-110) These questions are (a) 0.2 Wm−2 (b) 0.4 Wm−2
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
(c) 0.8 Wm−2 . Wm−2
(d) 16
options from those given below.
Figure shows a capacitor made of two circular plates 116. The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a
each of radius 12 cm and separated by 5.0 cm. The harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is
capacitor is being charged by an external source (not B 0 = 510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric
shown in the figure). The charging current is constant field part of the wave?
and equal to 0.15 A. (a) 130 N/C (b) 153 N/C
(c) 170 N/C (d) 190 N/C
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 117-119) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below.
Suppose that the electric field part of an
electromagnetic wave in vacuum is
108. What is the capacitance of capacitor? F = {( 3.1 NC−1 ) cos [(1.8 radm −1 ) y + (5.4 × 10 6 rads −1 )t]}
(a) 2pF (b) 4pF
(c) 6pF (d) 8pF 117. What is the wavelength λ ?
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 3.5 m (d) 4.5 m
109. What is the rate of change of potential difference
between the plates? 118. What is the frequency ν ?
(a) 9.5 × 10 Vs
9 −1
(b) 9.5 × 10 Vs
12 −1 (a) 0.74 × 104 Hz (b) 0.86 × 106 Hz
(c) 18.7 × 109 Vs −1 (d) 18.7 × 1012 Vs −1 (c) 0.9 × 106 Hz (d) 107 Hz

110. What is the displacement current across the plates? 119. What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the
(a) 0.15 A (b) 0.30 A wave?
(c) 0.50 A (d) 1 A (a) 10−8 T (b) 10−7 T (c) 10−6 T (d) 10−5 T
218 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

NCERT Exemplar (c) The given electromagnetic field is circularly polarised

(d) The given electromagnetic wave is plane polarised
120. One requires 11 eV of energy to dissociate a carbon
monoxide molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms. 127. An electromagnetic wave travelling along Z-axis is
The minimum frequency of the appropriate given as E = E 0 cos ( kz − ωt ). Choose the correct
electromagnetic radiation to achieve the dissociation options from the following.
1$
lies in (a) The associated magnetic field is given as B = k×E
(a) visible region (b) infrared region c
(c) ultraviolet region (d) microwave region (b) The electromagnetic field can be written in terms of the
associated magnetic field as E = c ( B × k$ )
121. A linearly polarised electromagnetic wave given as
(c) k$ ⋅ E = 0, k$ ⋅ B = 0
E = E 0 $i cos ( kz − ωt ) is incident normally on a
(d) k$ × E = 0, k$ × B = 0
perfectly reflecting infinite wall at z = a. Assuming
that the material of the wall is optically inactive, the 128. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating along
reflected wave will be given as x-direction can have the following pairs of E and B.
(a) Er = E0 $i ( kz − ωt ) (b) Er = E0 i$ cos ( kz + ωt ) (a) Ex , B y (b) E y , B z
(c) Er = − E0 i cos ( kz + ωt ) (d) Er = E0 i$ sin ( kz − ωt )
$ (c) Bx , E y (d) E z , B y

122. Light with an energy flux of 20 W cm −2 falls on a 129. A charged particle oscillates about its mean
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the equilibrium position with a frequency of 10 9 Hz. The
surface has an area of 30 cm 2 , the total momentum electromagnetic waves produced
delivered (for complete absorption) during 30 min is (a) will have frequency of 109 Hz
(a) 36 × 10−5 kg-ms −1 (b) 36 × 10−4 kg-ms −1 (b) will have frequency of 2 × 109 Hz
−1
(c) 108 × 10 kg-ms
4
(d) 1. 08 × 107 kg-ms −1 (c) will have wavelength of 0.3 m
(d) fall in the region of radiowaves
123. The electric field intensity produced by the radiations
coming from 100 W bulb at a 3 m distance is E. The 130. The source of electromagnetic waves can be a charge
electric field intensity produced by the radiations (a) moving with a constant velocity
coming from 50 W bulb at the same distance is (b) moving in a circular orbit
E (c) at rest
(a) (b) 2E (d) falling in an electric field
2
E 131. An EM wave of intensity I falls on a surface kept in
(c) (d) 2E
2 vacuum and exerts radiation pressure p on it. Which
124. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field of the following are true?
I
vectors of the electromagnetic wave, the direction of (a) Radiation pressure is if the wave is totally absorbed
propagation of electromagnetic wave is along c
I
(a) E (b) B (c) B × E (d) E × B (b) Radiation pressure is if the wave is totally reflected
c
125. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field 2I
(c) Radiation pressure is if the wave is totally reflected
and magnetic field components to the intensity of an c
EM wave is I 2I
(d) Radiation pressure is in the range < p < for real
(a) c : 1 (b) c2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) c : 1 c c
surfaces
126. An electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along
z-direction E = ( E1 $i − E 2 $j)cos( kz − ω t ). Choose the 132. The magnetic field of a beam emerging from a filter
correct options from the following. facing a floodlight is given by
(a) The associated magnetic field is given as B 0 = 12 × 10 −8 sin (1.20 × 10 7 z − 3.60 × 1015 t ) T.
1
B = ( E1 i$ − E2 $j )cos( kz − ωt ) What is the average intensity of the beam?
c
(b) The associated magnetic field is given as (a) 1.91 Wm–2 (b) 1.71 Wm–2
−2
1
B = ( E1 $i − E2 $j )cos( kz − ωt ) (c) 200 Wm (d) 1.5 Wm−2
c
 Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d)
10. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 11. (c) (b)
12. 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (d)
25. (d) 23. (d) 24 (d) 26. (c) (c)
27. 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (c)
40. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 41. (c) (c)
42. 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (a)
55. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 56. (b) (c)
57. 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (a)
70. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 71. (a) (b)
72. 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (a)
76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (a) 82. (d)
85. (c) 83. (d) 84. (d) 86. (d) (d)
87. 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (a)
100. (a,c 98. (b) 99. (a,c) 101. (a,b) (a,c,
102. 103.(a,b, 104. (a, 105. (b)
) d) d) c)
106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (a) 111. (c) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (c)

Hints and Explanations

1. (c) In conductor, there is no storage of charge, so conduction 11. (c) Here, C = 8.00 µF = 8.00 × 10−6 F,ν = 3.00 kHz,
current is the same as displacement current when sources are V0 = 30.0 V
both Direct Current (DC) and Alternating Current (AC).
Clearly, ω = 2πν = 2π × (3.00 × 103 s −1 ) = 6π × 103 s −1
5. (a) The fact that an electric field changing with time gives
Voltage across the capacitor, V = V0 sin ωt
rise to a magnetic field, is the symmetrical counterpart and is
a consequence of the displacement current being a source of = (30.0) sin ( 6 π × 103 t )
a magnetic field. dq d d dV
Displacement current, id = = (q ) = (CV ) = C
7. (d) Displacement current ( I d ) is equal to charging current dt dt dt dt
−6 d
( id = dq / dt ). Thus, = (8.00 × 10 ) [ 30.0 sin ( 6 π × 10 t )]3
dt
dq d d d
id = = (q ) = ( q0 cos 2πνt ) −6
= (8.00 × 10 ) (30.0) [sin (6 π × 103 t )]
dt dt dt dt
= q0 = ( − sin 2πνt ) ( 2πν ) d
= (8.00 × 10−6 ) (30.0) [cos (6 π × 103 t )] ( 6π × 103 t )
= − 2π q0 ν sin ( 2πνt ) dt
8. (d) Displacement current i.e.,
= (8.00 × 10−6 ) (30.0) ( 6 π × 103 ) cos ( 6 π × 103 t )
dφ E d V  = (4.52 A) cos (6 π × 103 t )
id = ε 0 = ε0 A  
dt dt  d  Hence, the displacement current varies sinusoidally with
time and has a maximum value of 4.52 A.
ε 0 A dV dV
⇒ id = × =C 12. (b) Here, C = 2µ F = 2 × 10−6 F
d dt dt
dV id 10 id (displacement current) = 1 mA = 10−3 A
⇒ = = = 10 Vs −1
7
dt C 10−6 As, id =
dq d
= (CV ) = C
dV
,
dt dt dt
9. (c) As, we know, the displacement through the capacitor
dV  1   1 
dq d =   id =  −6 
(10−3 A) = 500 Vs −1
i.e., = i= ( q0 sin 2πft ) = q0 2πf cos 2πft . dt  C   2 × 10 F
dt dt
10. (c) Here, cross-section area of a capacitor i.e., 13. (c) Magnitude of displacement current is given by
−2
A = πR = π (0.1 m) = 3.14 × 10
2 2
m 2
I d = IC =
dq
= 2 × 10−7 Cs −1 = 2 × 10−7 A
dE dt
i. e., = 5 × 1013 Vms −1
dt 14. (d) The most important prediction to emerge from
Thus, displacement current Maxwell’s equations is the existence of electromagnetic
waves, which are (coupled) time-varying electric and
dE
i.e., id = ε 0 A magnetic fields that propagate in space. The speed of the
dt waves, according to these equations, turned out to be very
= (8.85 × 10−12 C2 Nm−1 ) (3.14 × 10−2 m2 ) close to the speed of light (3 × 108 ms −1 ), obtained from
(5 × 1013 Vms −1 ) = 13 ⋅ 9 A optical measurements. This led to the remarkable conclusion
that light is an electromagnetic waves.
220 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

15. (a) The total current passing through any surface of which wave. Such a radio must remain horizontal in order to
the closed loop is the perimeter is the sum of the conduction receive the signal. In such cases, response also depends on
current and the displacement current. The generalised law is the orientation of the radio with respect to the station.
dφ
∫ B ⋅ dl = µ 0 ic + µ 0 ε0 dtE and is known as 39. (a) Solar radiation is transverse electromagnetic wave. It
consists of electric and magnetic field components. These
Ampere-Maxwell law. components are perpendicular to the direction of propagation
19. (a) Consider a loop of radius r(< R ) between the two of wave.
circular plates, placed coaxially with them. The area of the 40. (a) According to Maxwell equation, the magnitude of the
loop = πr2 . electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave are
By symmetry, magnetic field is equal in magnitude at all related as.
points on the loop. If id is the displacement current crossing E 6.3 Vm−1
B= = = 2.1 × 10−8 k$ T
the loop and id is the total displacement current between c 3 × 108 ms −1
i
plates id = d 2 × πr2 . 41. (c) The total energy falling on the surface is
πR
U = (18 Wcm−2 ) × (20 cm2 ) × (30 × 60) = 6.48 × 105 J
Using Ampere-Maxwell’s law, we have
π r2 µ i r Therefore, the total momentum delivered (for complete
B ⋅ dl = µ 0 id′ or B ⋅ 2πr = µ 0 id 2
or B = 0 d 2 absorption) is
πR 2πR 6.48 × 105 J
p =U/ c = = 2.16 × 10−3 Jms −1
20. (b) Magnetic field strength B between the parallel plates 8
3 × 10 ms −1
capacitor i.e., B ⋅ dt = µ 0 id
The average force exerted on the surface is
µ 2i µ 2i µ 2 dφ  dφ 
B = 0 d = 0 d = 0 × ε 0 E Q id = ε 0 E  p 2.16 × 10−3
4 πr 4π r 4π r dt  dt  F = = = 1.2 × 10−6 N
t 0.18 × 104
(Q dφ E = dE ⋅ A = dE πr2 )
42. (c) Here, I = 1300 Wm−2
µ ε πr2 dE µ 0 ε 0 r dE
= 0 0 = 1
2πr dt 2 dt As, I= ε 0 c E02
2
21. (a) In parallel plate capacitor, electric field E is perpendicular 2I
to the surfaces. It has the same magnitude over the area A of As, we know, electric field i.e., E0 =
ε0 c
the capacitor plates and vanishes outside it.
P M E 2 (1300 Wm−2 )
+ – =
+ – (8.85 × 10−12 C2 Nm−2 ) (3 × 108 ms −1 )
B
i (t)
+ – or E0 = 990 NC−1
+ –
+ – So, magnetic field of sunlight i.e.,
+ – E 990 NC−1
C B0 = 0 = 8 −1
= 3.3 × 10−6 T
23. (d) In electromagnetic waves, the rest mass of a particle is
c 3 × 10 ms
zero, then net force exerted on a particle is zero. So, there is 2πc 2π × 3 × 108
43. (b) Angular frequency, ω = 2πν = =
no deflection shown by a particle. λ 5 × 10−3
24. (d) Transverse elastic (sound) waves can also propagate in a = 1.2π × 1011 rads −1
solid, which is rigid and that resist shear.
The equation for the electric field, along X-axis in the
27. (c) The velocity of light depends on electric and magnetic
electromagnetic wave is
properties of the medium.
 y
29. (a) Electromagnetic waves of different wavelengths that this Ex = E0 sin ω  t −  = 66 sin 1.2π × 1011 ( t − y / c )
 c
velocity is the same (independent of wavelength) to within a
few metres per second, out of the value of 3 × 108 ms −1 . 44. (c) Given, E0 = 120 NC−1 , ν = 50.0 MHz = 50 × 106 Hz
31. (b) Namely, the metre is now defined as the distance As, we know, magnetic field
travelled by light in vacuum in a time (1/ c ) seconds E 120 NC−1
B0 = 0 =
= (2.99792458 × 108 )−1 s. c 3 × 108 ms −1
33. (a) When the antenna is turned horizontal, the signal will be = 4 × 10−7 T = 400 nT
greatly diminished. Some portable radios have horizontal ω = 2πν = (2 × 3.14 rad) (50 × 106 Hz)
antenna (usually inside the case of radio), which are
sensitive to the magnetic component of the electromagnetic = 3.14 × 108 rads −1
 CHAPTER 8 : Electromagnetic Waves 221

ω 3.14 × 108 rads −1 49. (b) Velocity of light in vacuum c =

1
Wave constant i.e., k = =
c 3 × 108 ms −1 µ 0 ε0
−1
= 1.05 radm Velocity of light in medium v =
1
c 3 × 10 ms 8 −1 µε
and wavelength i.e., λ = = = 6.00 m
ν 50 × 106 Hz c  µε 
1/ 2

If we take the wave to be propagating along X-axis, then E is So, µ= = 

v  µ 0 ε0 
along Y-axis and B is along Z-axis. Clearly,
E = E0 sin ( kx − ωt )$j E
50. (b) Initial momentum of surface, pi =
c
= (120 N C−1 ) sin { (1.05 rad m−1 ) x
where, c = velocity of light (constant) and E is energy
− (3.14 × 108 rads −1 ) t )}] $j
Since, the surface is perfectly reflecting, so the same
45. (c) Given, B y = 3 × 10−7 sin (103 x + 6.28 × 1012 t ) momentum will be reflected completely.
−E
Comparing with the general equation Final momentum, p f = (negative value)
c
B y = B0 sin ( kx + ωt ), we get
2π ∴ Change in momentum, ∆p = p f − pi
 2π 
k = 103 ⇒ = 103 Q k =  E E 2E
λ  λ =− − =−
c c c
⇒ Wavelength of electromagnetic wave
Thus, momentum transferred to the surface is
2π
λ = 3 = 6.28 × 10−3 m = 0.63 cm 2E
10 ∆p ′ = | ∆p | = .
c
46. (b) Here, energy flux, φ = 40 W cm−2 , surface area
51. (c) Electromagnetic radiation is a self propagating wave in
( A ) = 20 cm2 , time (t) = 10 min = 10 ×60 s. space with electric and magnetic components.
Total energy falling on the surface in time t is These components oscillate at right angles to each other and
U = φ At = 40 × 20 × (10 × 60 )J to the direction of propagation.
Momentum of the incident light Electric field
U 40 × 20 × (10 × 60 ) Y
( p) = = E Magnetic field
c 3 × 108
M
= 24 × 10−4 kgs −1 X

Momentum of the reflected light = 0

∴ Momentum delivered to the surface
= 24 × 10−4 − 0 Hence, B is along the Z-axis at that time.
−4 −1
= 24 × 10 kg ms 52. (a) Electromagnetic wave equation
47. (a) In electromagnetic, the ratio of the amplitude of electric E = E0 cos ( kz − ωt ) …(i)
and magnetic field is always constant and it is equal to ω
Speed of electromagnetic wave v =
velocity of the electromagnetic waves. k
E E 6 Given, equation
i.e., =c ⇒ B= = = 2 × 10−8 T
B c 3 × 108 E = $i 40 cos ( kz − 6 × 108 t ) …(ii)
−8
Magnetic field of component B is 2 × 10 T along Z. Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
48. (d) Given refractive index i.e., n = 1.5 ω = 6 × 108 and E0 = 40$i

Permeability of a medium i.e., µ 0 = 5 × 10−7 ω 6 × 108

Here, wave factor k = = = 2 m −1
v 3 × 108
c
n= ⇒ n = µ r εr
v 53. (a) Intensity or power per unit area of the radiations
n2 n2 µ 0  µ P = pv ⇒ p=
P
⇒ εr = = Qµ r = 
µr µ  µ0 v
0.5
(1.5)2 × 4 π × 10−7 = = 0.166 × 10−8 Nm−2
= = 6(Qµ 0 = 4 π × 10−7 Tm A −1 ) 3 × 10 8
5 × 10−7
222 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

54. (b) As, E = B × c 70. (b) In electromagnetic spectrum, all components of electric
where, E = electric field, B = magnetic field and magnetic fields in vacuum are carrying same velocity of
light i.e., 3 × 108 ms −1 .
c = speed of EM wave
On putting the values of electric field, we get 72. (b) Diffraction takes places when the wavelength of wave is
|E|= |B ||c | comparable with the size of the obstacle in path. The
wavelength of radiowaves is greater than the wavelength of
= 20 × 10−9 × 3 × 10−8 = 6 Vm−1
light waves. Therefore, radio waves are diffracted around
55. (a) When a charged particle q enters a region with velocity building.
as v of charged particle is remaining constant, it means force 73. (a) X-rays has wavelength about 1 nm to 10−3 nm which has
acting on charged particle is zero. minimum wavelength and carries maximum energy i.e.,
So, q ( v × B ) = qE ⇒ v × B = E 1
E ∝ . So, It penetrates the target and hence are not
Velocity of a charged particle λ
E×B E× B reflected back by target.
∴ v= , v=
B2 B2 75. (a) On applying Ampere’s circuital law to such surfaces with
1 the same perimeter, we find that the left hand side of equation
56. (b) As I E (intensity due to electric field) = cε 0 E 2
2 ∫ B. dl = µ 0 i( t ) has not changed but the right hand side is zero
cB 2 and not µ 0 i. Since, no current passes through the surface.
I B (intensity due to magnetic field) =
2µ0 76. (c) We needed to set up an AC circuit in which the current
I E 1/ 2 cε 0 E 2
 1 oscillate at the frequency of visible light, i.e., yellow. The
= = ( ε 0 µ 0 )( E / B )2 =  2  ( c2 ) = 1 frequency of yellow light is about 6 × 1014 Hz, while the
IB cB 2 / 2µ 0 c 
frequency that we get even with modern electronic circuits is
 1 
⇒ IE = IB = 4I0 as c = and E / B = c hardly about 1011 Hz. This is why the experimental
 ε0 µ 0 
  demonstration of electromagnetic wave had to come in the
low frequency region (the radio wave region), as in the
58. (d) Electromagnetic waves include visible light, X-rays, Hertz’s experiment (1887).
gamma rays, radiowaves, microwaves and infrared waves.
77. (a) An oscillating charge produces an electric field in space,
60. (a) Infrared waves are produced by hot bodies and which produces an oscillating magnetic field, which in turn,
molecules. This band lies adjacent to the low-frequency or is a source of electric field.
long-wavelength end of the visible spectrum.
78. (a) When the sun shines on your hand, you feel the energy
61. (d) Infrared waves radiations, are trapped by greenhouse being absorbed from the electromagnetic waves (your hands
gases such as carbon dioxide and water vapour. get warm). Electromagnetic waves also transfer momentum
62. (b) Visible rays is the most familiar form of to your hand but because c is very large, the amount of
electromagnetic waves. It is the part of the spectrum that is momentum transferred is extremely small and you do not
detected by the human eye. It runs from about 4 × 1014 Hz feel the pressure.
to about 7 × 1014 Hz or a wavelength range of about 79. (a) Infrared waves are sometimes referred to as heat waves.
700-400 mm. This is because water molecules present in most materials
65. (a) UV-radiation is absorbed by ordinary glass. readily absorb infrared waves (many other molecules, e.g.,
CO2 , NH3 , also absorb infrared waves). After absorption,
66. (a) Given, energy of EM waves is of the order of 15 keV their thermal motion increases, that is, they heat up and heat
c their surroundings.
i.e., E = hν = h ×
λ 80. (b) Due to its shorter wavelengths, UV-radiations can be
h×c 6.624 × 10−34 × 3 × 1018 focussed into very narrow beams for high precision
⇒ λ= =
E . × 10−19
15 × 103 × 16 applications such as LASIK (Laser assisted in situ
keratomileusis) eye surgery, UVlamps are used to kill germs
13248
. × 10−29 in water purifier.
= −19
= 0.828 × 10−10 m
. × 10
16 81. (a) X-rays are used as a diagnostic tool in medicine and as
λ = 0.828 Å (Q 1Å = 10−10 m) a treatment for certain forms of cancer. Because X-rays
damage or destroy living tissues and organisms, care must
Thus, this spectrum is a part of X-rays.
be taken to avoid unnecessary or over exposure.
69. (a) One common way to generate X-rays is to bombard a
82. (d) According to Gaussian surfaces, net electric flux i.e.,
metal target by high energy electrons. X-rays is to bombard
a metal target by high energy electrons.  1 Q Q
φE = |E | A =   × A=
 ε0 A  ε0
 CHAPTER 8 : Electromagnetic Waves 223

84. (d) The total current i is the sum of the conduction current 94. (b) Comparing the given equation with
denoted by ic , and the displacement current denoted by magnetic field in a plane
id [ = ε 0 ( dφ E / dt )]. So, we have  x t 
dφ i.e., B y = B0 sin 2π  +  
i = ic + id = ic + ε 0 E   λ T 
dt
In explicit terms, this means that outside the capacitor plates, 2π
we get λ= m = 1.26 cm
we have only conduction current ic = i and no displacement 0.5 × 103
current i. e., ic = 0 and there is only displacement current, so
1
that id = i. 95. (c) As we know frequency i.e., ν =
Time taken
86. (d) Electromagnetic waves are self-sustaining oscillation of
1 ω
electric and magnetic fields in free space, or vacuum. They = = (1.5 × 1011 ) / 2π = 23.9 GHz
differ from all the other waves we have studied so far, in T 2π
respect that no material medium is involved in the vibration 96. (c) According to Maxwell equation, electric field
of the electric and magnetic fields.
i.e., E0 = B0 c = 2 × 10−7 × 3 × 108 ms −1 = 6 × 101 Vm−1 .
Sound waves in air are longitudinal waves of compression
and rarefaction. Transverse waves on the surface of water The electric field component is perpendicular to the
consist of water moving up and down as the wave spreads direction of propagation and the direction of magnetic field.
horizontally and radially onwards. Therefore, the electric field component along the Z-axis is
87. (d) The great technological importance of electromagnetic obtained as
waves stems from their capability to carry energy from one E z = 60 sin (0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011 t ) Vm−1
place to another. The radio and TV signals from broadcasting
c 3 × 108
stations carry energy. Light carries energy from the sun to 97. (a) Wavelength of waves λ = = = 1.5 × 10− 2 m
the earth, thus making life possible on the earth. f 2 × 1010
88. (d) Radio waves are produced by the accelerated motion of E0
98. (b) Using the formula, c =
charges in conducting wires. They are used in radio and B0
television communication systems. They are generally in the
The amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field
frequency range from 500 kHz to about 1000 MHz. The AM
E 48
(amplitude modulated) band is from 530 kHz to 1710 kHz. B0 = 0 = = 1.6 × 10− 7 T
Higher frequencies upto 54 MHz are used for short wave c 3 × 108
bands. TV waves range from 54 MHz to 890 MHz. 100. (a,c) Amplitude = 10 Vm−1
The FM (frequency modulated) radio band extends from 88
ω 107
MHz to 108 MHz. Cellular phones use radio waves to c= ⇒ 3 × 108 =
transmit voice communication in the Ultra High Frequency k k
(UHF) band. 1
⇒ k=
89. (d) Ultraviolet rays covers wavelength ranging from about 30
4 × 10−7 m (400 nm) down to 6 × 10−10 m (0.6 nm). It is 2π 1
⇒ = ⇒ λ = 188.4 m
produced by special lamps and very hot bodies. The sun is λ 30
an important source of ultraviolet light. 104. (a,c) V X > V M > VR
But fortunately, most of it is absorbed in the ozone layer in
∴ E X > E M > ER
the atmosphere at an altitude of about 40-50 km.
105. (b) Capacitive reactance,
91. (c) A. ∫ E dA = q / ε 0 (Gauss’s law for electricity)
1 1
X = =
B. ∫ B dl = 0 (Gauss’s law for magnetism) c
ωC 300 × 10−10
− dφ B 108
C. ∫ Edl = (Faraday’s law) X = Ω
dt c
3
dφ
D. ∫ B dl = µ 0 ic + µ 0 ε 0 E (Ampere-Maxwell law) If i rms is the rms value of the conduction current.
dt
V 230 V
Then, i rms = rms = = 6.9 × 10−6 A = 6.9 µ A
92. (d) Column I Column II X c (108 / 3) Ω
A. Radio 4. 500 kHz to 1000 MHz
107. (d) Given, the distance or point from the axis between the
B. Amplitude modulated 3. 530 kHz to 1710 kHz plates
C. Short wave bands 1. 54 MHz
r = 3 cm = 3 × 10−2 m
D. TV wave 5. 54 MHz to 890 MHz
E. Frequency modulated 2. 88 MHz to 108 MHz Radius of plates R = 6 cm = 6 × 10−2 m
224 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

The magnetic field at a point between the plates At a distance of 1m, the energy distributed in the form of sphere.
µ0 µ r Area of sphere = 4π (radius) 2
B= 2
⋅ r ⋅ Id ⇒ B = 0 2 I (Id = I )
2πR 2πR Intensity of visible radiation
If I = I 0 , maximum value of current, then I = 2I rms Power 5
= = = 0.4 Wm −2
µ r Area 4 × 3.14 × (1)2
B = 0 2 2I rms
2πR
116. (b) Given, magnetic field part of harmonic electromagnetic
4 π × 10−7 × 0.03 × 2 × 6.9 × 10−6 wave
B=
2π × 0.06 × 0.06 B0 = 510 nT
−11 E
B = 1.63 × 10 T Speed of light in vacuum c = 0
B0
108. (d) Capacitance of parallel plate capacitor
where, E0 is the electric part of the wave
ε0 A
C= E0
d 3 × 108 = or E0 = 153 NC −1
where, A is the area of plates. 510 × 10− 9
8.854 × 10− 12 × 3.14 (12 × 10− 2 )2 Thus, the amplitude of the electric field part of wave is 153 NC −1 .
C=
5 × 10− 2 117. (c) The electric part of electromagnetic wave in vacuum
8.854 × 3.14 × 144 × 10− 12 − 4 + 2 E = 3.1 cos (1.8 Y + 5.4 × 106 t ) $i
⇒ C=
5 Comparing with standard equation
⇒ C = 8.01 × 10− 14 F = 8.01 pF E = E0 cos ( ky + ωt ), we get
109. (c) Charge on the plates of the capacitor
Angular frequency ω = 5.4 × 10 6 rads −1
q = CV Wave number, k = 1.8 radm −1
dq dV dV  dq  The amplitude of the electric field part of the wave
⇒ =C⋅ ⇒ I =C⋅ Q = I
dt dt dt  dt  E0 = 3.1NC −1
dV I 0.15 2π 2π
⇒ = = = 18.7 × 109 Vs −1 λ= = = 3.492 m
dt C 8.01 × 10− 12 k 1.8
Thus, the rate of change of potential is 18.7 × 109 Vs −1 . λ = 3.5 m
110. (a) The displacement current is equal to the conduction 118. (b) As, ω = 2πν
current ω 5.4 × 106 × 7
ν= = = 0.86 × 106 Hz
I d = 0.15 A. 2π 2 × 22
111. (c) Speed of light in vacuum E0
119. (a) c =
E0 E0 120 B0
c= ⇒ B0 = = = 40 × 10− 8
B0 c 3 × 108 Amplitude of magnetic field
−9 E 3.1
or B0 = 400 × 10 T = 400 nT B0 = 0 = = 1.03 × 10– 8 T ≈ 10−8 T
c 3 × 108
112. (b) Angular frequency of wave,
120. (c) Given, energy required to dissociate a carbon monoxide
ω = 2πf = 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 106 molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms E = 11eV
⇒ ω = 3.14 × 108 rads −1 We know that, E = hν
113. (b) Wave number of electromagnetic waves where h = 6.62 × 10−34 J-s ⇒ 11 eV = hν
ω 3.14 × 108 . × 10−19
11 × 16
k= = = 1.05 radm −1 = 1 rad m−1 ⇒ ν= J = 2.65 × 1015 Hz
c 3 × 108 h
This frequency radiation belongs to ultraviolet region.
114. (c) Wavelength of electromagnetic wave
c 3 × 108 121. (b) The incident electromagnetic wave is,
λ= = = 6.00 m
f 50 × 106 E = E0 $i cos( kz − ωt )
The reflected electromagnetic wave is given by
115. (b) Total power = 100 W
Er = E0 ( − $i ) cos[ k ( − z ) − ωt + π ]
Visible radiation power = 5% of total power
= − E i$ cos[ − ( kz + ωt ) + π ]
0
5
= × 100 = 5 W = E0 $i cos[ − ( kz + ωt ) = E0 i$ cos( kz + ωt )]
100
 CHAPTER 8 : Electromagnetic Waves 225

122. (b) Given, energy flux φ = 20Wcm−2 127. (a,b,c) Suppose an electromagnetic wave is travelling along
2 negative z-direction. Its electric field is given by
A = 30cm , t = 30 min = 30 × 60 s
E = E0 cos( kz − ωt )
Now, total energy falling on the surface in time t is, which is perpendicular to Z-axis. It acts along negative
U = φAt = 20 × 30 × ( 30 × 60 ) J y-direction.
U
Momentum of the incident light = The associated magnetic field B in electromagnetic wave is
c along X-axis i.e., along k$ × E.
20 × 30 × ( 30 × 60 )
= = 36 × 10−4 kg-ms −1 E0 1
3 × 108 As, B0 = ⇒ B = ( k$ × E )
c c
Momentum of the reflected light = 0 The associated electric field can be written in terms of
∴ Momentum delivered to the surface magnetic field as
= 36 × 10−4 − 0 = 36 × 10−4 kg-ms −1 E = c ( B × k$ ).
123. (a) We know that, E0 ∝ Pav Angle between k$ and E is 90° between k$ and B is 90°.
Therefore, E = 1Ecos 90° = 0 and k$ ⋅ B = 1 E cos 90° = 0 .
( E0 )1 ( Pav )1 E 1000
∴ = ⇒ = 129. (a, c, d) Given, frequency by which the charged particles
( E0 )2 ( Pav )2 ( E0 )2 50
oscillates about its mean equilibrium position = 109 Hz.
( E0 )2 = E / 2
So, frequency of electromagnetic waves produced by the
Now according to question, P′ = 50 W, P = 100 W charged particle is ν = 109 Hz.
∴ Putting these value in above equation, we get c 3 × 108
E′ 50 E′ 1 E Wavelength λ = = = 0.3 m
= ⇒ = ⇒ E′ = ν 109
E 100 E 2 2
Also, frequency of 109 Hz fall in the region of radiowaves.
1
125. (c) Intensity in terms of electric field, U av = ε 0 E02 130. (b, d) Here, in option (b) charge is moving in a circular orbit.
2
In circular motion, the direction of the motion of charge is
1 B02 changing continuously, thus it is an accelerated motion and
Intensity in terms of magnetic field,U av =
2µ0 this option is correct.
Now taking the intensity in terms of electric field. Also, we know that a charge starts accelerating when it falls
1 1 in an electric field.
(U av )electric field = ε 0E02 = ε 0 (cB0 )2 (Q E0 = cB0)
2 2 131. (a, c, d) When wave is fully absorbed by the surface, the
1 2 momentum of the reflected wave per unit time per unit area
= ε 0 × c 2 B0 = 0.
2
1 Radiation pressure ( p ) = change in momentum per unit time
But, c= ∆I I I
µ 0 ε0 per unit area = = − 0= .
c c c
1 1 1 B02
∴ (U av ) electric field = ε0 × B02 = When wave is totally reflected, then momentum of the
2 µ 0 ε0 2µ0 I
reflected wave per unit time per unit area = − ,
= (U av ) magnetic field c
Thus, the energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally I  I  2I
between electric field vector and magnetic field vector. Radiation pressure p = −  −  = .
c  c c
Therefore, the ratio of contributions by the electric field and I 2I
magnetic field components to the intensity of an Here, p lies between and .
c c
electromagnetic wave is 1 : 1.
132. (b) Magnetic field B = B0 sin ωt
126. (d) Here, in electromagnetic wave, the electric field vector
is given as, Given, equation B = 12 × 10−8 sin(120
. × 107 z − 3.60 × 1015 t )
E = ( E1 $i + E2 $j )cos( kz − ωt ) T.
In electromagnetic wave, the associated magnetic field vector, On comparing this equation with standard equation, we get
E E i$ + E2$j B0 = 12 × 10−8
B= = 1 cos( kz − ωt )
c c 1 B02
The average intensity of the beam Iav = ⋅c
Also, E and B are perpendicular to each other and the 2µ0
propagation of electromagnetic wave is perpendicular to E
1 (12 × 10−8 )2 × 3 × 108
as well as B, so the given electromagnetic wave is plane = × = 1. 71 W/m 2
polarised. 2 4 π × 10−7
 C H A P T E R

9
Ray Optics and
Optical Instruments
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Laws of Reflection (ii) The ratio of the sine of angle of incidence (i) to the
(i) The incident ray, reflected ray and the normal to sine of angle of refraction (r) is constant, i.e.,
the reflecting surface at the point of incidence sin i
= n21
lie in the same plane. sin r
(ii) The angle of incidence, ∠i = angle of reflection, where, n21 is a constant, called the refractive index
∠r. of the second medium with respect to the first
2. The focal length of a spherical mirror is half of its medium.
R This is known as Snell’s law of refraction.
radius of curvature, i.e., f = .
2 7. A ray of light travelling from denser medium to a rarer
3. Mirror Equation If an object is placed at a medium is incident at the interface of two media at an
distance u from the pole of a mirror and its image is angle greater than the critical angle for the two media,
formed at a distance v from a pole. Then, the ray is totally reflected back to denser medium, this
according to the mirror equation given by phenomenon is called Total Internal Reflection (TIR).
1 1 1
+ = n
v u f 8. sinc = 1
n2
4. If a thin object of linear height h is placed
perpendicular to the principal axis of a mirror and where, c is the critical angle.
the linear height of its image be h′, then linear 9. Refraction at a Spherical Surface If an object is
magnification is given by placed in a medium of refractive index n, at a distance
h′ v u from the pole of a spherical surface of radius of
m= =−
h u curvature R and after refraction, its image is formed in a
5. Refraction of light is the phenomenon of bending medium of refractive index n2 at a distance, v, then
of a ray of light while passing from one transparent n2 n1 n2 − n1
− =
medium to another. v u R
6. Laws of Refraction This equation holds for any curved spherical surface.
(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the 10. Lens Maker’s Formula is given by
normal to the interface at the point of incidence,
all lie in the same plane. 1 1 1
= (n21 − 1)  − 
f  R1 R 2 
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 227

11. The lens formula is given by 17. The phenomenon of splitting of light into its
1 1 1 component colours is known as dispersion.
− =
v u f 18. Magnifying power of simple microscope,
12. Magnification (m ) produced by lens is defined as the D
m =1+
ratio of the size of the image to that of the object. f
h′ v where, D is the least distant of distinct vision.
m= =
h u 19. Angular magnification of simple microscope is
13. Power of a lens is a measure of the convergence or D θi
divergence which a lens introduces in the light falling on it. m= =
f θo
1 100
P = = dioptre
f (m) f (cm) 20. Magnifying power of a compound microscope is
It is also defined as the tangent of the angle by which it L  D
m = mo me = 1 + 
converges or diverges a beam of light falling at unit fo  fe 
distant from the optical centre.
where, fo = the focal length of objective lens
tan δ = h / f and fe = the focal length of eyepiece.
14. If several thin lenses of focal length f1, f2 , f3 , … are in
21. Magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is
contact, the effective focal length of their combination
is given by β fo
m= =
1 1 1 1 α fe
= + + , … or P = P1 + P2 + P3, …
f f1 f2 f3 where, β = angle subtended at the eye by the final
15. Angle of deviation through a prism, δm = i + e − A image
where, i is the angle of incidence, e is the angle of α = angle which the object subtends at the
emergence and A is the angle of prism. lens or the eye.
 A + δm 
sin   22. Length of the telescope tube = fo + fe
 2 
16. Refractive index of prism material, n =
sin ( A / 2)
where, δm is minimum deviation.

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Reflection of Light by Spherical Mirrors
1. Human eye can sense (c) few rays moving in different directions
(a) a small range of electromagnetic rays (d) more than one ray
(b) a large range of electromagnetic rays 4. Earlier, we have studied that light is an
(c) cannot detect electromagnetic waves
electromagnetic wave but from our interactive
(d) only longitudinal waves
notion, we realise that light travels in a straight line.
2. Speed of light in vacuum is Which of the given point justify both the
(a) highest attainable speed contradictory facts?
(b) attainable by small mass particles in vacuum (a) Of the order of wavelength of light
(c) attainable by dust particles in interstellar space (b) Much larger than wavelength of light
(d) None of the above (c) Of the order of one millimetre
3. A beam of light is (d) The wavelength of light is much smaller compared to
(a) a ray of light the size of ordinary objects
(b) a bundle of rays
228 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

5. If θ 1 and θ 2 are the angles of incidence and reflection 12. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that
respectively, then correct relation between them is a ray of light incident on the first mirror and parallel to
π the second is reflected from the second mirror parallel
(a) θ1 = + θ2 (b) θ1 > θ 2 to the first mirror. The angle between the two mirrors is
2
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75°
(c) θ1 < θ 2 (d) θ1 = θ 2
13. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle θ. It is
6. Incident ray always lies in a plane found that a ray incident on one mirror at any angle is
(a) perpendicular to plane containing normal and reflected rendered parallel to itself after reflection from both
ray the mirrors. The value of θ is
(b) perpendicular to normal
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(c) perpendicular to plane containing reflected ray
(c) 90° (d) 120°
(d) containing reflected ray and normal
14. Four identical mirrors are made to B C
7. Laws of reflection are valid in case of stand vertically to form a square
(a) regular reflection arrangement as shown in a figure. A
(b) irregular reflection ray starts from the mid-point M of
(c) reflection over a curved surface mirror AD and after two reflections θ
(d) Both (a) and (c) reaches corner D. Then, angle θ A D
M
8. A plane mirror is placed along the X -axis facing must be
negative Y -axis. The mirror is fixed. A point object is (a) tan −1 ( 0.75 ) (b) cot −1 ( 0.75 )
moving with 3 $i + 4 $j infront of the plane mirror. The (c) sin −1 ( 0.75 ) (d) cos −1 ( 0.75 )
relative velocity of image with respect to its object is
Y 15. In given diagrams, point F is

X
P
C F

(a) − 8$j (b) 8 $j

(I)
(c) 3 $i − 4 $j (d) −6 $j

9. A ray of light gets reflected from the plane mirror. The

incident ray and the reflected ray are perpendicular to
each other. The angle of incidence is P F C
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 0°
10. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror along the (II)
direction given by vector, A = 2$i − 3$j + 4k.
$ Find the
unit vector along the reflected ray. (Take, normal to
the mirror along the direction of vector,
B = 3$i − 6$j + 2k).
$ C F
P
− 94 i$ + 237$j + 68k$ − 94 i$ + 68$j − 273 k$
(a) (b)
49 29 49 29 Focal plane
3i$ + 6$j − 2k$ (III)
(c) (d) None of these
7 (a) focal in I, centre of curvature in II and focus in III
1 (b) focal in I and II and centre of curvature in III
11. A ray of light travelling in the direction ( $i + 3 $j ) is
2 (c) focal in I and centre of curvature in II and III
incident on a plane mirror. After reflection, it travels (d) focal in all I, II and III
1
along the direction ( $i − 3 $j ). The angle of 16. In reflection over a spherical mirror, ray parallel to
2 principal axis, after reflection from mirror pass through
incidence is [JEE Advanced 2013] (a) focus (b) centre of curvature
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75° (c) pole of mirror (d) any point
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 229

17. A ray passing through or directed towards centre of 23. A concave mirror of focal length f 1 is placed at a
curvature of a spherical mirror is reflected such that it distance of d from a convex lens of focal length f 2 . A
trace back of its path, because beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this
(a) it does not follow law of reflection convex lens-concave mirror combination returns to
(b) angle of incidence is 0° infinity. The distance d must be equal
(c) centre of curvature is midway between object and pole [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(d) distance of centre of curvature from focus is equal to its (a) f1 + f2 (b) − f1 + f2
distance from pole
(c) 2 f1 + f2 (d) −2 f1 + f2
18. If lower half of a concave mirror is blackened, then 24. An object 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 16 cm
(a) image distance increases from a concave mirror, which produces a real image
(b) image distance decreases 3 cm high. What is the focal length of the mirror?
(c) image intensity increases
(a) − 9.6 cm (b) − 3.6 cm
(d) image intensity decreases
(c) − 6.3 cm (d) − 8.3 cm
19. An object is placed at 10 cm from a concave mirror of 25. A rod of length 30 cm lies along the principal axis of
radius of curvature 15 cm, then a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way
(a) it forms an erect image that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the
(b) it forms a small and inverted image mirror. The length of the image is [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(c) it forms a point image (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 5 cm
(d) if forms a magnified, real and inverted image
26. A concave mirror has a radius of curvature of 20 cm.
20. Rear view mirror of a car is of radius of curvature The image of a object formed in mirror is 2.50 times
R = 2 m. A jogger approaches car (from behind) at a the size of the object. How far is the mirror from the
speed of 5 ms −1 . The speed of image, when jogger is object?
39 m from the mirror, is
(a) 5.5 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 10 cm
(a) 0.3 ms −1 (b) 0.1 ms −1
(c) 0.5 ms −1 (d) 0.5 cm s −1 27. A container is filled with water (µ =1.33) upto a
height of 33.25 cm. A concave mirror is placed 15 cm
21. A boy 1.5 m tall with his eye level at 1.38 m stands above the water level and the image of an object
before a mirror fixed on a wall. The minimum length of placed at the bottom is formed 25 cm below the water
mirror required to view the complete image of boy is
(a) 0.75 m (b) 0.06 m (c) 0.69 m (d) 0.12 m
level. The focal length of the mirror is
Mirror
22. A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of
a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u
from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is 15 cm
approximate equal to
1/ 2 1/ 2
u − f  f  µ=1.33 25 cm
33.25
(a) b   (b) b   cm
 f  u − f
I
2
u − f  f 
(c) b   (d) b   (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) −18.3 cm (d) 25 cm
 f  u − f

Topic 2
Refraction and Total Internal Reflection
28. Incident ray, normal at the point of incidence and 29. A ray of light strikes an air-glass interface at an angle
refracted ray are always of incidence ( i = 60° ) and gets refracted at an angle of
(a) mutually perpendicular refraction r. On increasing the angle of incidence
(b) inclined at acute angles ( i > 60° ), the angle of refraction r
(c) parallel (a) decreases (b) remains same
(d) coplanar (c) is equal to 60° (d) increases
230 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

30. For the same angle of incidence, the angles of 35. For refraction through a plane glass slab, dimension d
refraction in media P , Q and R are 35° , 25° and15°, is called
respectively. Which of the following relation hold true i
for the velocity of light in medium P , Q and R? ε
(a) vP < vQ < vR
(b) vP < vR < vQ ε
(c) vP > vQ > vR e d
(d) vP > vR > vQ (a) refraction shift
(b) lateral shift
31. A divergent beam of light from a point source S
(c) emergence shift
having divergence angle α falls symmetrically on a
(d) incidence shift
glass slab as shown in the figure. The angles of
incidence of the two extreme rays are equal. If the 36. When an object lying in a denser medium is observed
thickness of the glass slab is t and its refractive index from rare medium, then real depth of object is
is n, then the divergence angle of the emergent beam is (a) more than that observed
S (b) less than that observed
α (c) equals to observed depth
i i (d) depends on angle of vision
37. A beaker contains water upto height h1 and kerosene
n t of height h2 above water so that the total height of
(water + kerosene) is ( h1 + h2 ). Refractive index of
water is µ 1 and that of kerosene is µ 2 . The apparent
(a) zero (b) α shift in position of the bottom of the beaker shown
(c) sin −1 (1/ n ) (d) 2 sin −1 (1/ n ) viewed from above is
 1  1
32. A ray of light strikes a material’s slab at an angle of (a) 1 −  h 2 + 1 −  h1
 µ1   µ2
incidence 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other, then which of the given  1  1
(b) 1 +  h 1 + 1 +  h2
options is are correct?  µ1   µ2
(a) The angle of refraction is 45°  1  1
(b) The angle of refraction is 30° (c) 1 −  h 1 + 1 −  h2
 µ1   µ2
(c) The refractive index of the material is 3
 1  1
(d) Both (b) and (c) (d) 1 +  h 2 − 1 +  h1
 µ 1  µ 2
33. A ray of light strikes a transparent rectangular slab of
refractive index 2 at an angle of incidence of 45°. real depth
38. The ratio is equal to
The angle between the reflected and refracted ray is apparent depth
(a) 75° (b) 90° (a) refractive index of denser medium with respect to air
(c) 105° (d) 120° (b) refractive index of denser medium with respect to rare
medium
34. As you can seen from Fig. (i) and (ii) shows (c) refractive index of rare medium with respect to air
refraction of light from air to glass and from air to (d) refractive index of rare medium with respect to denser
water. Find out the value of the angle θ in the case of medium
refraction as shown in figure (iii) will be
39. A beaker of depth a is half filled with olive oil of
40° 50°
refractive index µ 1 and the other half is filled with
(i) Glass (ii) (iii) θ
Glass
water of refractive index µ 2 . The apparent depth of
Air
Air Water Water the beaker when viewed from above is
50° 45° a(µ 1 + µ 2 ) aµ 1µ 2
45° (a) (b)
2µ 1µ 2 2(µ 1 + µ 2 )
(a) 30° (b) 50° aµ 1µ 2 2a(µ 1 + µ 2 )
(c) (d)
(c) 40° (d) 45° (µ 1 + µ 2 ) µ 1µ 2
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 231

40. A vessel is filled with water to a height of 13 cm. The 46. A green light is incident from the water to the
apparent depth of a screw lying at the bottom of the air-water interface at the critical angle (θ). Select the
vessel is measured by a microscope to be 8.5 cm. If correct statement. [JEE Main 2014]
water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index 1.70 (a) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the
upto the same height. Find the distance at which water at an angle of 90° to the normal
microscope have to be moved to focus on the screw (b) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less
again? than that of green light will come out of the air medium
(a) 0.85 cm (b) 0.52 cm (c) 0.65 cm (d) 1.02 cm (c) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is more
than that of green light will come out to the air medium
41. Early sunrise and delayed sunset are caused due to (d) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the
(a) bending of light rays towards centre of earth due to water at various angles to the normal
gravity
(b) bending of light rays away from centre of earth due to 47. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a
refraction plane boundary. The speed of light in medium A is
(c) bending of light rays towards centre of earth due to 2 × 10 8 ms −1 and in medium B is 2.5 × 10 8 ms −1 . The
refraction critical angle for which a ray of light going from A to B
(d) scattering of light from molecules of gases and dust is totally internally reflected is
particles in atmosphere  1  2
(a) sin −1   (b) sin −1  
42. Time-period of rotation of earth on its own axis is  2  5
24 h. Time taken by sun to shift by 1°, when viewed  4  3
(c) sin −1   (d) sin −1  
from earth is  5  4
(a) 36 min (b) 24 / 360 min
48. A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface
(c) 4 min (d) around 1 min
at an angle i, it emerges finally parallel to the surface
43. A ray of light strikes an air-glass interface such that a
of water, then the value of µ g would be
part of it is reflected into air and the rest enters glass
Air
as shown in the figure given below.
ay µw = 4/2
dr
f l ecte Water
Incident R e Glass
ray α
Air
Glass (a) ( 4 / 3 ) sin i (b) 1/sin i (c) 4 / 3 (d) 1

Refracted
49. A ray of light from a denser medium
strikes a rarer medium at an angle of
If angle of refraction and refractive index of glass i r
incidence i (see figure). The Denser
with respect to air is r and µ respectively, then value reflected and refracted rays make an Rarer
of α is angle of 90° with each other. The r′
(a) r (b) µ sin r angle of reflection and refraction are
 sin r r and r ′. The critical angle is
(c) sin −1 (µ sin r ) (d) sin −1  
 µ  (a) sin −1 (tan r ) (b) sin −1 (cot i )
44. In total internal reflection, (c) sin −1 (tan r′ ) (d) tan −1 (sin i )
(a) light ray travelling through a denser medium is 50. A right-angled prism is to be made by selecting a
completely reflected back to denser medium proper material and angles A and B ( B ≤ A ), as shown
(b) light ray travelling through a denser medium is in figure. It is desired that a ray of light incident on
completely refracted to rare medium
face AB emerges parallel to the incident direction
(c) light ray is partially reflected back to denser medium
and partially refracted to rare medium
after two internal reflections. What should be the
minimum refractive index n for this to be possible?
(d) light ray is absorbed completely by denser medium
45. Total internal reflection of a light ray travelling from A B
denser medium to rare medium occurs only when
angle of incidence is
(a) 45° (b) 90° 90°
(c) acute (d) more than a certain value
C
232 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

1 1 Region I Region II Region III Region IV

(a) n min = (b) n min =
sin A sin B n0 n0 n0
n0
sin A 2 6 8
(c) n min = (d) n min = sin A × sin B
sin B  3  1
(a) sin −1   (b) sin −1  
51. A parallel sides slab ABCD of refractive index 2 is  4  8
sandwiched between two slabs of refractive indices  1  1
(c) sin −1   (d) sin −1  
2 and 3 as shown in the figure. The minimum  4  3
value of angle θ such that the ray PQ suffers total
56. Mirage in hot deserts occurs due to
internal reflection at both the surfaces AB and CD is (a) reflection of light
Q µ2 = √ 2 (b) refraction of light
A B
θ
(c) total internal reflection of light
µ1 = 2 (d) scattering of light
D
µ3 = √ 3
C 57. A diamond piece has more brilliance than a glass
piece of same shape and size, because
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75° (a) diamond has tetrahedral arrangement of carbon atoms
52. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in (b) diamond has more mass density than the glass
water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam incident (c) diamond is more hard than glass
normally on the face AB is totally reflected to reach (d) critical angle for diamond is less than that of glass
the face BC, if 58. Prisms are used in many optical instruments for
B A bending light rays by 90° or 180°. This is possible
because
(a) light undergoes total internal reflection
C (b) light undergoes refraction while passing through a
prism
(c) light shows dispersion while passing through a prism
(a) sin θ > 8/ 9 (b) 2/ 3 sin θ < 8/ 9 (d) prism are easy to mount in corners
(c) sin θ < 2/ 3 (d) None of these 59. An optical fibre is
53. A light source is placed at a depth of d below the (a) a fibre optically visible in light
surface of water (µ). A wooden disc is placed on the (b) a fibre optically invisible in light
surface so that light from the source is not visible from (c) a fibre through which light can travel
the surface. Find out the radius of the wooden disc. (d) a fibre opaque to ordinary light
d 2d
(a) (b) 60. In an optical fibre (shown), correct relation of
(µ − 1)
2 1/ 2
(µ − 1)1 / 2
2
refractive indices of core and cladding is
d
(c) (d) 2d (µ − 1)2 1/ 2
n2
2(µ 2 − 1)1 / 2
Core n1
54. If the critical angle for light going from medium A to B
is θ. Then find the speed of light in medium B, if Cladding
speed of light is v in medium A.
v (a) n1 = n2 (b) n1 > n2
(a) v(1 − cos θ ) (b) (c) n1 < n2 (d) n1 + n2 = 2
cos θ
v
(c) (d) v(1 − sin θ ) 61. An optical fibre is used in
sin θ (a) telescope (b) microscope
55. A light beam is travelling from θ (c) endoscope (d) periscope
region I to region IV (refer
n0
figure). The refractive index in 62. Which of the following is based on the phenomenon
n n n of total internal reflection of light?
regions I, II, II and IV are n0 , 0 , 0 and 0 ,
2 6 8 (a) Sparkling of diamond
respectively. The angle of incidence θ for which the (b) Optical fibre communication
beam just misses entering region IV is (c) Instrument used by doctors for endoscopy
(d) All of the above
Topic 3
Refraction at Spherical Surfaces and by Lenses
63. Consider a convex surface separating two media of 68. A mark placed on the surface of a sphere is viewed
refractive indices n1 and n2 respectively, n2 > n1 . through glass from a position directly opposite as
Which of these is a correct diagram? shown in the figure. The diameter of the sphere is
30 cm and refractive index of glass is 1.5. The
n1 n2 n1 n2 position of the image is
A
(a) (b)
O I O I
View
Mark side
O O B
n1 n2 n1 n2

(c ) (d)
O I O I B
(a) at a distance of 60 cm from surface ABC in the
direction of incident light
(b) at a distance of 60 cm from the surface ABC opposite
64. For the refraction shown below the correct relation is, to the direction of incident light
i (c) at a distance of 30 cm from the surface AOC opposite
n1 n2
r to the direction of incident light on ABC
(d) Both (b) and (c)
O P C I
u R 69. A parallel beam of light is incident on a solid
v transparent sphere of a material of refractive index n.
If a point image is produced at the back of the sphere,
n 2 n1 n 2 − n1 n1 n 2 n 2 − n1 the refractive index of the material of sphere is
(a) − = (b) − =
v u R v u R (a) 2.5 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.25 (d) 2.0
n1 n 2 n1 − n 2 n 2 n1 n1 − n 2
(c) − = (d) − = 70. A point source of light at the surface of a sphere
v u R v u R comes as a parallel beam of light and emerge from the
65. Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical opposite surface of the sphere. The refractive index of
glass surface (n =1.5 and radius of curvature = 20 cm). the material of the sphere is
The distance of the light source from the glass surface (a) 1.5 (b) 5/3 (c) 2 (d) 2.5
is 100 cm. Image distance from the glass surface is 71. A wire mesh consisting of very small squares is
(a) 20 cm (b) 50 cm viewed at a distance of 8 cm through a magnifying
(c) 100 cm (d) 75 cm converging lens of focal length 10 cm, kept close to
the eye. The magnification produced by the lens is
66. A magician during a show makes a glass lens with
n =1.47 disappear in a trough of liquid. (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 20
Refractive index of the liquid is 72. For a given lens, the magnification was found to be
(a) 1.47 (b) 1.33 twice as large as when the object was 0.15 m distant
4 12 from it as when the distance was 0.2 m. The focal
(c) (d)
3 5 length of the lens is
67. An object is placed in front of a sphere of radius R at (a) 1.5 m (b) 0.20 m
a distance x from the first surface. The value of x for (c) 0.10 m (d) 0.05 m
which the light after refraction from the first surface 73. A diminished image of an object is to be obtained on
becomes parallel to the axis is a screen 1 m from it. This can be achieved by using
R R
(a) (b) (a) plane mirror
(µ − 1) µ +1 (b) a convex mirror of suitable focal length
2R Rµ (c) a convex lens of focal length less than 0.25 m
(c) (d)
(1 +µ ) (µ + 1) (d) a concave lens of suitable focal length
234 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

74. A real image of distant object is formed by a 80. A hollow double concave lens is made of very thin
planoconvex lens on its principal axis. Spherical transparent material. It can be filled with air or either
aberration of two liquids L1 or L2 having refractive indices n1
(a) is absent and n2 , respectively ( n1 > n2 > 1). The lens will
(b) is smaller, if the curved surface of the lens faces the object diverge a parallel beam of light if it is filled with
(c) is smaller, if the plane surface of the lens faces the object (a) air and placed in air (b) air and immersed in L 1
(d) is the same whichever side of the lens faces the object (c) L 1 and immersed in L 2 (d) L 2 and immersed in L 1
75. A spherical aberration in a thin lens can be reduced by 81. A thin lens of glass (µ =1.5) of focal length ± 10 cm is
(a) using a monochromatic light immersed in water (µ = 1.33). The new focal length is
(b) using a doublet combination
(a) 20 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 48 cm (d) 12 cm
(c) using a circular annular mark over the lens
(d) increasing the size of the lens 82. Which of the following is true for
76. A double convex lens, made of a material of rays coming from infinity? µ1
refractive index µ 1 , is placed inside two liquids of (a) Two images are formed
refractive indices µ 2 and µ 3 as shown µ 2 > µ 1 > µ 3 . (b) Continuous image is formed µ2
A wide, parallel beam of light is incident on the lens between focal points of upper and
from the left. The lens will give rise to lower lens
µ2 µ2
(c) One image is formed
µ1 (d) None of the above
83. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses
(refractive index 1.5) each having radius of curvature
µ3 µ3
of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in
(a) a single convergent beam contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled
(b) two different convergent beams with oil of refractive index 1.7. The focal length of
(c) two different divergent beams the combination is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(d) a convergent and a divergent beam. (a) − 20 cm (b) − 25 cm (c) − 50 cm (d) 50 cm
77. A plano-convex lens is made of material of refractive 84. A convex lens of focal length 1 m and a concave lens
index n. When a small object is placed 30 cm away in of focal length 0.25 m are kept 0.75 m apart. A
front of the curved surface of the lens, an image of parallel beam of light first passes through the convex
double the size of the object is produced. Due to lens, then through the concave lens. Which of the
reflection from the convex surface of the lens, another following option is correct?
faint image is observed at a distance of 10 cm away (a) The final image is formed at 0.5 m away from the
from the lens. which of the following statement(s) is concave lens
(are) true? [JEE Advanced 2016] (b) The final image is formed at focus of the concave lens
(a) The refractive index of the lens is 2.5 (c) The rays after refraction from both the lenses becomes
(b) The radius of curvature of the convex surface is 45 cm parallel to the principal axis
(c) The faint image is erect and real (d) The final image is real and formed at 0.75 m from the
concave lens.
(d) The focal length of the lens is 20 cm
78. A lens is made of flint glass (refractive index = 1.5). 85. Diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and
When the lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive thickness at the centre is 3 mm. If speed of light in
index 1.25, the focal length material of lens is 2 × 10 8 ms −1 , the focal length of
(a) increases by a factor of 1.25 the lens is [JEE Main 2013]
(b) increases by a factor of 2.5 (a) 15 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 10 cm
(c) increases by a factor of 1.2 86. If two + 5 D, lenses are mounted at some distance
(d) decreases by a factor of 1.2 apart, the equivalent power will always be negative, if
79. A concave lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 has the distance is
both surfaces of same radius of curvature R . On (a) greater than 40 cm (b) equal to 10 cm
immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it (c) equal to 40 cm (d) less than 10 cm
will behave as a 87. Two thin lenses, when in contact, produce a
(a) convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R combination of power +10 D. When they are 0.25 m
(b) convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R apart, the power is reduced to + 6 D. The power of the
(c) divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R lenses in dioptres, are
(d) divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R (a) 1 and 9 (b) 2 and 8 (c) 4 and 6 (d) 5 each
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 235

88. The power of a biconvex lens is 20 dioptre and the 91. A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave
radius of curvature of each surface is 5 cm. Find the lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If
refractive index of the material of lens is lenses are made of different materials of refractive
4 3 9 3 indices µ 1 and µ 2 and R is the radius of curvature of
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 8 5 the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length
of the combination is [CBSE AIPMT 2013]
89. Two thin lenses, when in contact produces a R R
combination of power +10 D. When they are 0.25 m (a) (b)
2( µ 1 + µ 2 ) 2( µ 1 − µ 2 )
apart, the power reduces to + 6 D. The focal length of
the lenses are R 2R
(c) (d)
(a) 0.125 m and 0.5 m (b) 0.125 m and 1 m ( µ1 − µ 2 ) ( µ 2 − µ1 )
(c) 1 m and 0.5 m (d) 0.125 m and 0.4 m 92. A double convex lens whose refractive index is 1.33
90. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm, a concave lens has both radii of curvature of magnitude 10 cm. If an
of focal length 40 cm and a concave lens of focal object is placed at a distance of 5 cm from this lens,
length 15 cm are placed in contact. The power of the the position of the image formed is
combination in dioptre is (a) 7.46 same side of the object
(a) + 1.5 (b) − 1.5 (b) 7.46 opposite side of the object
(c) 14.45 same side of the object
(c) + 6.67 (d) − 6.67
(d) 14.45 opposite side of the object

Topic 4
Prism
93. A ray of light undergoes deviation of 30° when π π
97. A prism of prism angle gives a deviation of . If
incident on an equilateral prism of refractive index 4 4
2. The angle made by the ray inside the prism with the velocity of light in vacuum is 3 × 10 8 ms −1 , then
the base of the prism is find the velocity of light in material of the prism.
(a) 45° (b) 30° (c) 0° (d) 60° (a) 1.25 × 108 ms − 1 (b) 1.33 × 108 ms − 1
94. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive (c) 2.4 × 108 ms − 1 (d) 1.62 × 108 ms − 1
index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). The
angle of minimum deviation is [CBSE AIPMT 2015] 98. A prism (µ =1.57) gives a deviation of 5.5°. The
(a) 180 ° − 3 A (b) 180° − 2A prism angle is
(c) 90° − A (d) 180 ° + 2 A
(a) 9.64 ° (b) 7.74 ° (c) 5.5° (d) 8.50°
95. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such
99. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a
that, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
emergence and the latter is equal to 3/4 the angle of refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of
prism. The angle of deviation is prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation
through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation
(a) 25° (b) 30°
and refractive index of the material of the prism
(c) 45° (d) 35°
respectively, are [NEET 2016]
96. A plot of angle of (a) 30°; 2 (b) 45°; 2
Angle of deviation

deviation D versus angle 1 1

50°
of incidence for a (c) 30°; (d) 45°;
2 2
triangular prism is shown
below. 40° 100. In an experiment for determination of refractive index
The angle of incidence for 0 of glass of a prism by i-δ plot, it was found that a ray
30° 45° 60°
which the light ray travels Angle of incidence incident at an angle 35° suffers a deviation of 40° and
parallel to the base is that it emerges at an angle 79°. In that case, which of
(a) 30° (b) 60°
the following is closest to the maximum possible
(c) 45° (d) Data insufficient
value of the refractive index? [JEE Main 2016]
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.6 (c) 1.7 (d) 1.8
236 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

101. Which graph truly shows the relation between angle 108. Chromatic aberration is
of incidence and angle of deviation for a prism? (a) formation of a dull image in white light
[JEE Main 2013] (b) formation of a tilted image in white light
δ δ (c) formation of a deformed image in white light

Angle of deviation
Angle of deviation

(d) formation of a coloured image in white light

δm 109. Rainbow is formed due to
(a) δm (b)
(a) refraction (b) reflection
(c) dispersion (d) All of these
i i 110. The primary rainbow is a result of …A… step process.
Angle of incidence Angle of incidence
Here, A refers to
δ δ
Angle of deviation

(a) two (b) one

Angle of deviation

(c) three (d) four

(c) δm (d) 111. When light rays undergoes two internal reflections
δm inside a rain drop. Then, secondary rainbow is formed
due to …A… step process. Here, A refers to
i i (a) one (b) two
Angle of incidence Angle of incidence
(c) three (d) four
102. In vacuum,
(a) red travels faster (b) yellow travels faster 112. Which of the options correctly states the necessary
(c) violet travels faster (d) all colours have same speed condition for formation of rainbow?
(a) Sun should be shining in part of sky while it is raining
103. A monochromatic light is incident on the face of the in opposite part of the sky
prism at an angle of incidence i = 60°. (b) The observer must stand with his back towards the sun
Which of given statement is correct?
(c) The observer must be facing the sun
(a) Dispersion takes place
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Deviation takes place
(c) Both dispersion and deviation takes place 113. The amount of scattering is inversely proportional to
(d) Neither deviation nor dispersion takes place the fourth power of the wavelength. This is known as
104. A white light is incident obliquely on the face of the (a) Rayleigh scattering (b) Maxwell scattering
prism. The light emerging from the other face of the (c) Oersted scattering (d) Reynold scattering
prism consists of 114. At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass
(a) only white light through a larger distance because
(b) a spectrum of light consisting of different components (a) shorter wavelengths are removed by scattering
of colour namely violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, (b) longer wavelengths are removed by scattering
orange and red
(c) less frequency of scattering wavelength
(c) spectrum consisting of red, blue and green colour
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
105. White light is incident on one of the refracting surfaces 115. If the ratio of amount of scattering of two light waves
of a prism of angle 5°. If the refractive indices for red is 1 : 4, then the ratio of their wavelengths is
and blue colours are 1.641 and 1.659 respectively, the (a) 2 :1 (b) 2 : 1
angular separation between these two colours when (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 2 : 1
they emerge out of the prism is
(a) 0.9° (b) 0.09° (c) 1.8° (d) 1.2° 116. Red colour is used for danger signals because
(a) it causes fear
106. When a beam of white light passes through a prism
(b) it undergoes least scattering
then the most deviated colour is
(c) it undergoes maximum scattering
(a) red light (b) violet light (d) None of the above
(c) yellow light (d) Both (a) and (b)
117. The sky would appear red instead of blue, if
107. Thick lenses are not preferred because they (a) atmospheric particles scatter blue light more than red light
(a) are heavy (b) atmospheric particles scatter all colours equally
(b) breaks easily (c) atmospheric particles scatter red light more than the
(c) are costly to manufacture blue light
(d) are prone to chromatic aberration defect (d) the sun was much hotter
Topic 5
Optical Instruments and Defects of Vision
118. The light enters the eye through a curved front 124. Which one is the correct approach to correct the
surface, the …A…. . It passes through the …B… farsighted defect?
which is the central hole in the iris.
Here, A and B refer to (a) P′
(a) cornea, aqueous homour P P′ P
(b) cornea, pupil
(c) pupil, cornea
(d) pupil, aqueous homour (b) P′ P′
P P
119. The retina contains rods and cones which sense Cylindrical
(a) light intensity lens
P P′ P′
(b) color (c) P′
(c) transmit electrical signals
(d) All of the above Image as formed Image as formed
on the retina on the retina
120. When the object is brought closer to the eye, in order
(d) Both (a) and (b)
to maintain the same image lens distance ( ≅ 2.5 cm),
so focal length become shorter by ciliary muscles. 125. Which is the corrective vision for astigmatic eye?
This property of the eye is called …A… .
Here, A refers to (a)
P P
P′
P′
(a) accommodation
(b) vitreous homour
(c) buffer
(d) retina (b) P′ P′
P P
121. Near and far points of human eye are
Cylindrical
(a) 25 cm and infinite lens
(b) 50 cm and 100 cm P P′
(c) P′
(c) 25 cm and 50 cm
(d) 0 cm and 25 cm
Image as formed Image as formed
122. An elderly person tries to read a book at about 25 cm, on the retina on the retina
but the image appears blurred. So, defect of the eye is (d) Both (a) and (b)
called
(a) myopia 126. What focal length should the reading spectacles have
(b) hyperopia for a person for whom the least distance of distinct
(c) presbyopia vision is 50 cm?
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) + 50 cm (b) − 75 cm
(c) − 50 cm (d) + 75 cm
123. Which is the corrective vision for shortsighted defect?
127. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm infront of
(a) P′ the eye. What is the power of the lens required to
P P′ P
enable him to see very distant objects clearly?
(a) 2 D (b) 1.50 D
(b) P′ P′ (c) 2.75 D (d) − 1.25 D
P P
Cylindrical 128. The near point of a hypermetropic person is 75 cm
lens
from the eye. What is the power of the lens required
(c) P′ P′
to enable the person to read clearly a book held at
P′ 25 cm from the eye?
Image as formed Image as formed
on the retina on the retina (a) + 2.67 D (b) − 3.42 D
(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) 4.62 D (d) 5.42 D
238 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

129. The linear magnification m for the image formed at 138. The distance between the second focal point of the
the near point i. e., 25 cm is objective ( f o ) and first focal point of the eyepiece
 v  d  v  d i. e., f e is called
(a) 1 −  (b) 1 +  (c) 1 +  (d) 1 − 
 f  f  f  f (a) tube length (b) focal length
(c) image distance (d) radius of curvature
130. When an image is at infinity, then the magnification is
139. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a
(a) linear (b) angular
straight black line of length L is drawn on inside part
(c) polarised (d) non-polarised
of objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of
131. Identify the wrong descriptions of the below figures this line. The length of this image is I. The
magnification of the telescope is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
L L L+1 L
F (a) +1 (b) −1 (c) (d)
(i) (ii) I I L−1 I
140. The image formed by an objective of a compound
F microscope is
(iii) (iv) (a) virtual and diminished (b) real and diminished
(c) real and enlarged (d) virtual and enlarged
(a) (i) represents far sightedness
(b) (ii) correction far short sightedness 141. For compound microscope, f o = 1 cm, f e = 2.5 cm.
(c) (iii) represents far sightedness An object is placed at distance 1.2 cm from object
(d) (iv) correction for far sightedness lens. What should be the length of microscope for
132. The nearer point of hypermetropic eye is 20 cm. Find normal adjustment?
the power of lens which can be used for its (a) 8.5 cm (b) 8.3 cm (c) 6.5 cm (d) 6.3 cm
correction? 142. In modern microscopes, the quality of image is
(a) + 2.5 D (b) + 5.0 D (c) − 1.5 D (d) + 1.5 D improved by
(a) minimising optical aberrations in lens
133. A simple magnifier or microscope (b) increasing focal length of objective lens
(a) is a converging lens of small focal length (c) decreasing focal length of objective lens
(b) is a diverging lens of small focal length (d) increasing the radius of curvature of objective lens
(c) gives an erect, magnified and virtual image
143. Astronomical telescope depends on
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(a) its light gathering power
134. A simple microscope has a limited maximum (b) its resolution or resolving power
magnification (c) area of objective lens
(a) greater than 9 (b) lesser than 9 (d) All of the above
(c) equal to 9 (d) Both (b) and (c) 144. An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 m
135. In order to increase the angular magnification of a with a telescope of magnifying power of 20. To
simple microscope, one should increase observer the tree appears [JEE Main 2016]
(a) the object size (a) 10 times taller
(b) the aperture of the lens (b) 10 times nearer
(c) the focal length of the lens (c) 20 times taller
(d) the power of the lens (d) 20 times nearer

136. A square card of side length 1 mm is being seen through 145. F1 and F2 are focal lengths of objective and eyepiece
a magnifying glass lens of focal length 10 cm. The card respectively, of the telescope. The angular
is placed at a distance of 9 cm from the lens. The magnification of the given telescope is equal to
F1 F2 F1 F2 F1 + F2
apparent area of the card through the lens is (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 1 cm2 (b) 0.81 cm2 (c) 0.27 cm2 (d) 0.60 cm2 F2 F1 F1 + F2 F1 F2

137. In a microscope, the focal lengths of two lenses are 146. A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece
1.2 cm and 6.25 cm. If an object is placed at 2 cm and of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view
the final image is formed at 25 cm from eye lens. The an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses
distance between the two lenses is must be separated by a distance [NEET 2016]
(a) 46.0 cm (b) 50.0 cm
(a) 6.00 cm (b) 8.00 cm (c) 7.75 cm (d) 9.25 cm
(c) 54.0 cm (d) 37.3 cm
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 239

147. A telescope consists of two thin lenses of focal (c) microscope and telescope both will decrease
lengths 0.3 m and 3 cm, respectively. It is focused on (d) microscope will decrease but that of telescope will
increase
moon which subtends an angle of 0.5° at the
objective. Then, the angle subtended at the eye by the 151. Advantage of reflecting telescopes are
final image will be (a) no chromatic aberration
(a) 5° (b) 0.25° (c) 0.5° (d) 0.35° (b) parabolic reflecting surfaces are used
(c) weighs of mirror are much less than a lens of equivalent
148. An astronomical telescope has an angular optical quality
magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The (d) All of the above
separation between the objective and the eyepiece is
152. Limitation of reflecting telescope is
36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity. The
(a) objective mirror focusses light inside the telescope tube
focal length f o of the objective and the focal length
(b) objective mirror focusses light outside the telescope tube
f e of the eyepiece are (c) objective mirror has large focal length
(a) fo = 45 cm and fe = − 9 cm
(d) tube length is large
(b) fo = − 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
(c) fo = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm 153. A reflecting telescope has an objective lens of focal
length 150 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5.0 cm.
(d) fo = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm What is the separation between the objective and the
149. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a eyepiece?
converging power of 40 D and the least converging (a) 1.25 m (b) 1.55 m (c) 1.3 m (d) 1.8 m
power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D.
154. The largest reflecting telescope in the world are the
Using this information, the distance between the
part of …A… . telescope in Hawaii. Here, A refers to
retina and the cornea, eye lens can be estimated to be
(a) keck (b) cassegrain
[CBSE AIPMT 2013]
(a) 5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 1.67 cm (d) 1.5 cm (c) tetra (d) kistra

150. If the focal length of objective lens is increased, then 155. The largest telescope in India is in
magnifying power of [CBSE AIPMT 2014] (a) Kavalur (b) Andhra Pradesh
(a) microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 157. Assertion Refractive index of glass with respect to
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 156-170) In the following air is different for red light and violet light.
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a Reason Refractive index of a pair of media depends
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following on the wavelength of light used.
statements, choose the correct one. 158. Assertion Propagation of light through an optical
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is fibre is due to total internal reflection taking place at
the correct explanation of Assertion. the core-clade interface.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion. Reason Refractive index of the material of the core
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. of the optical fibre is greater than that of air.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. 159. Assertion The refractive index of diamond is 6 and
156. Assertion A ray of light incident along the normal to that of liquid is 3. If the light travels from diamond
the plane mirror retraces its path after reflection from to the liquid, it will initially reflected when the angle
the mirror. of incidence is 30°.
Reason A ray of light along the normal has angle of 1
Reason µ = , where µ is the refractive index of
incidence as π /2 and hence, it retraces its own path sin c
after reflection from mirror. diamond with respect to liquid.
240 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

160. Assertion Convergent lens property of converging 170. Assertion The focal length of the objective of the
remains same in mediums. telescope is larger than that of eyepiece.
Reason Property of lens whether the ray is diverging Reason The resolving power of telescope
or converging depends on the surrounding medium. increases when the aperture of objective is small.
161. Assertion By roughening the surface of a glass at
sheet its transparency can be reduced. II. Statement Based Questions Type I
Reason Glass sheet with rough surface absorbs more ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 171-182) In the following
light. questions, a statement I is followed by a
corresponding statement II. Of the following
162. Assertion The focal length of the mirror is f and
statements, choose the correct one.
distance of the object from the focus is u. The (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and
magnification of the mirror is f / u. Statement II is the correct explanation of
Size of image Statement I.
Reason Magnification = (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but
Size of object
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
163. Assertion Thin prisms do not deviate light much. Statement I.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Reason Thin prism have small angle A and hence,
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Dm (minimum deviation) is also very small as
Dm = [(1 µ 2 − 1) A ], where 1 µ 2 is the refractive index 171. Statement I All distances measured in direction of
light are taken positive.
of prism w.r.t. medium 1.
Statement II Velocity of incident light is positive
164. Assertion A white light on passing through prism according to sign convention used in mechanics.
splits into its component colour such that the red
light emerges nearest to the base of the prism. 172. Statement I If n21 > 1, refracted ray bends towards
Reason Wavelength of red light is more than other the normal and when n21 < 1, refracted ray bends
away from the normal.
component colours and hence, red light deviates least. sin i
Statement II n21 = , angle i is in medium 1
165. Assertion Sunlight reaches us without dispersion in sin r
the form of white light and not as its components. and angle r is in medium 2.
Reason Dispersion takes place due to variation of 173. Statement I Speed of light is different in different
refractive index for different wavelength but in vacuum medium.
the speed of light is independent of wavelength and Statement II Speed of light is more in water than
hence vacuum is a non-dispersive medium. in vacuum.
166. Assertion In case of rainbow, the inner surface of the 174. Statement I Refractive index of turpentine with
water drop get internally reflected. respect to air is more than that of water with respect
Reason The angle between the refracted ray and normal to air.
to the drop surface is greater than the critical angle. Statement II Mass density of turpentine is more
than that of water.
167. Assertion Secondary rainbow is fainter than primary
rainbow. 175. Statement I Critical angle of light while passing
from glass to air is minimum for violet colour.
Reason Secondary rainbow formation is four step
process and hence, the intensity of light is reduced at Statement II The wavelength of violet light is
the second reflection inside the rain drop. greater than the light of other colours.
176. Statement I When white light passes through a
168. Assertion Light from a distant object arriving at the
prism, bending of red component is most but for the
eye lens may get converged at a point in front of the violet it is least.
retina.
Statement II Red colour travels faster than violet
Reason The eye is producing too much divergence in
in glass.
the incident beam.
177. Statement I Rising and setting sun appears
169. Assertion Owls can move freely during night. reddish because of scattering due to dust particles
Reason They have large number of rods on their retina. and air molecules.
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 241

Statement II The order of colour in secondary 184. A layer of ice (µ =1.33) lies on a glass plate (µ =1.5).
rainbow is reverse of the order of colours in primary A ray of light makes an angle of incidence 60° on the
rainbow.
surface of ice as shown in the figure below.
178. Statement I If a convex lens of glass is immersed
in water its power decreases. 60°
A Air
Statement II In water, convex lens behaves as Ice
concave lens. r1
r
179. Statement I Power of a lens is defined as p =1/ f , Ice
Glass
f = focal length. r2

Statement II A lens of a high power has large focal

length. With reference to the above figure, match the items in
180. Statement I Astigmatism is occurred when the Column I with terms in Column II and choose the
cornea is not spherical in shape. correct option from the codes given below.
Statement II Astigmatism is corrected by using Column I Column II
cylindrical lens of desired radius of curvature.
A. sin r1 1. (1/ 3 )
181. Statement I Focal length of the eyepiece of
B. sin r2 2. (3 3 )/ 8
telescope is smaller as compared to the objective
which has a larger focal length and aperture. C. Refractive Index of ice with 3. 8/ 9
Statement II For larger focal length of objective respect to glass
than eyepiece, magnification is more in astronomical
A B C A B C
telescopes.
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3
182. Statement I According to yerkes observation, the (c) 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 2
objective lens has a diameter of 40 inch (~ 1.02 m).
Statement II To make such large sized lenses, form 185. Match the following Column I and Column II.
images that are free from chromatic aberration and Column I
Column II
distortions. (A simple microscope)
A. The magnifying 1.
III. Matching Type lens is located
such that image is at
h θi
183. With reference to the figure given below, match the the near point.
f θi
items in Column I with terms in Column II and
choose the correct option from the codes given below. Eye focused
at infinity
Normal B. The angle 2.
subtended by the
ay

Eye focused
object, is the same as
Inc

dr

on near point
id

that at the near point.

c te
en

f le

u
t ra

D
Re

α
y

β
Plane mirror C. The object near 3.
the focal point of θ0
Column I Column II the lens; the image is D
far off but closer
A. Angle of reflection 1. ( π − 2α ) than infinity.
B. Value of angle β 2. α
A B C A B C
C. Angle of deviation of the incident ray 3.  π − α (a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 3
 
2  (c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1
186. An optical component and an object S placed along
A B C A B C
its optic axis are given in Column I. The distance
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1
between the object and the component can be varied.
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 2 1 3
The properties of images are given in Column II.
242 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Match all the properties of images from Column II A B C D A B C D

with the appropriate components given in Column I. (a) 1,3 2,4,5 1,3,5 2,4 (b) 4,1,5 2,1,3 2,5 2
(c) 1,3,5 4,5,1 3,5 1 (d) None of these
Column I Column II
188. A light ray passes through triangular prism with angle
A = 60° and µ =1.5. With reference to the above
A. 1. Real image situation, match the items in Column I with terms in
S
Column II and choose the correct option from the
codes given below.
[Some useful data 2sin −1 (0.75) = 97° ,
B. 2. Virtual image
S sin −1 (2 / 3) = 42° , sin −1 (0.463) = 28° ]
Column I Column II
A. Minimum deviation (Dmin ) 1. 58°
C. S 3. Magnified image
B. Maximum deviation (Dmax ) 2. 37°
C. The angle of refraction r1 when 3. 42°
maximum deviation occurs

D. 4. Image at infinity A B C A B C
S
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 1 2
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 189. Match the corresponding entries of Column I with
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 4 2 1 Column II. (Where, m is the magnification produced
187. Two transparent media of refractive indices µ 1 and µ 3 by the mirror) [NEET 2016]

have a solid lens shaped transparent material of Column I Column II

refractive index µ 2 between them as shown in figures
in Column II. A ray traversing these media is also A. m=−2 1. Convex mirror
shown in the figures. In Column I different m=−
1
B. 2. Concave mirror
relationships between µ 1 , µ 2 and µ 3 are given. Match 2
them to the ray diagram shown in Column II. C. m=+ 2 3. Real image
Column I Column II 1
D. m=+ 4. Virtual image
2
A. µ1 < µ2 1.
µ 3 µ2 µ1 A B C D
(a) 1,3 1,4 1,2 3,4
(b) 1,4 2,3 2,4 2,3
(c) 3,4 2,4 2,3 1,4
B. µ1 > µ2 2.
µ 3 µ2 µ1 (d) 2,3 2,3 2,4 1,4
190. Match Column I with Column II.
Column I (Defect) Column II (Used Lens)
C. µ2 = µ3 3. A. Myopia 1. Cylindrical lens
µ3 µ2 µ1
B. Hypermetropia 2. Concave lens
C. Astigmatism 3. Convex lens
µ1
D. µ2 > µ3 4.
A B C
µ 3 µ2
(a) 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 3
µ1
5. µ3
(c) 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 3
µ2
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 243

191. Some laws/processes are given in Column I. Match 194. The angle of refraction in rarer medium for angle of
these with the physical phenomena given in Column II. incidence ic in denser medium is
Column I
(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) 45°
Column II
A. Intensity of light received 1. Radius of aperture (R)
195. If the angle of incidence i in denser medium is greater
by lens than ic ( i. e., i > ic ), then angle of deviation of the
incident ray is
B. Angular magnification 2. Dispersion of lens
(a) ( 90° − ic ) clockwise
C. Length of telescope 3. Focal length f o , f e (b) (180° − 2 i ) clockwise
D. Sharpness of image 4. Spherical aberration (c) (180° + 2 i ) anti-clockwise
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Codes
A B C D A B C D 196. The refractive index of rarer medium is µ r ( = 1.0)
(a) 4,2 1,3,4 2,1 3,1 (b) 1 3 3 1,2,3 and refractive index of denser medium is µ d ( = 1.5).
(c) 2 1 4 4,2,1 (d)1,4,3 4,1 2 1 The critical angle for the pair of media is
 3  2
(a) ic = sin −1   (b) ic = sin −1  
V. Passage Based Questions  2  3
 1
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 192-193) These questions are (c) ic = sin −1   (d) None of these
 3
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below. ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 197-198) These questions are
For a rectangular slab, i µ1 based on the following situation. Choose the correct
N
refraction takes place at two A B options from those given below.
r
interfaces (air-glass and Material A has a critical angle θ A and material B has
µ2
glass-air). It is easily seen critical angle θ B (θ B > θ A ). The refractive index of A
from figure that r1 = i , i.e., the r1 and B with respect to air is µ A and µ B , respectively.
emergent ray is parallel to the D C
incident ray, there is no M e µ3 197. Light can be totally internally reflected when it passes
deviation, but it does suffer from
lateral displacement with respect to the incident ray. (a) A to B
(b) B to A
192. If µ 2 > µ 1 > µ 3 , then which of the given relation (c) Either (a) or (b)
is/are correct? (d) total internal reflection is not possible
(a) i = e (b) i ≠ e
198. Critical angle between A and B is
(c) r = r1 (d) Both (b) and (c)  sin θ A   sin θ B 
(a) sin −1   (b) sin −1  
193. If µ 1 = µ 3 < µ 2 , then which of the given relation  sin θ B   sin θ A 
is/are correct? θ  µ 
(c) sin −1  A  (d) sin −1  A 
(a) i = e (b) r ≠ r1  θB  µB 
(c) r = r1 (d) Both (a) and (c)
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 199-201) These questions are
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 194-196) These questions are based on the following situation. Choose the correct
based on the following situation. Choose the correct options from those given below.
options from those given below. A ray of light is incident on the face of the prism
A ray of light travelling in denser medium strikes the (µ = 1.5) at an angle of 60°. The refracting angle of the
interface at an angle i c such that the refracted ray prism is also 60°.
 1
grazes out of the surface. [Some useful data sin −1   = 35°16 ′
 3
(Rarer) µr sin 24° 44 ′ = 0.42]
Refracted ray
199. The angle of emergence is
ic (Denser) µd (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 39° (d) 60°
y t
ra en
d

200. The angle of deviation is

ci
In

(a) 39° (b) 45° (c) 63° (d) 27°

244 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

201. The angle of deviation for angle of incidence i = 60° VI. More than One Option Correct
is D. The angle of incidence other than i for which 208. In case of reflection over a spherical surface, which of
same deviation is produced is these are correct?
(a) 39° (b) 45° (c) 27° (d) 30° (a) Normal is taken as perpendicular of tangent at point of
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 202-203) These questions are incidence
based on the following situation. Choose the correct (b) Perpendicular to incident ray which is perpendicular to
options from those given below. plane of incident ray
(c) Line joining centre of curvature of mirror with point of
Lens Power Aperture incidence
L1 1D 0.1 m (d) Line joining centre of curvature and pole of curved
L2 10 D 0.05 m surface
L3 10 D 0.02 m
209. If i = angle of incidence and r = angle of refraction,
L4 20 D 0.02 m
sin i
then the ratio is
202. Which of the given lens will be preferred as an sin r
eyepiece of an astronomical telescope? (a) a constant for a pair of medium
(a) L 1 (b) L 2 (c) L 3 (d) L 4 (b) is called refractive index of medium 2 with respect to
203. Which of the given lens will be preferred as an medium 1
objective of an astronomical telescope? (c) is called absolute refractive index of medium 2
(a) L1 (b) L 2 (c) L 3 (d) L 4 (d) varies with temperature

■ Directions (Q. Nos. 204-207) These questions are 210. Refractive index of a pair of media depends on
based on the following situation. Choose the correct (a) nature of Ist medium
options from those given below. (b) nature of IInd medium
Total internal reflection is the phenomenon of (c) angle of incidence
reflection of light into denser medium at the interface (d) temperature of medium
of denser medium with a rarer medium. Light must 211. Which one of the following is/are correct relation?
travel from denser to rarer and angle of incidence in 1
denser medium must be greater than critical angle (c) (a) n21 = (b) n32 = n31 × n 12
n12
1
for the pair of media in contact, we can show µ = . n 1a n2 a
sin c (c) n21 = (d) n21 =
n 2a n 1a
204. An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective
of focal length 20 m and an eyepiece of focal length 212. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
2 cm. Which of the following statement is not correct? a convex lens?
(a) The length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m (a) Convex lens is converging for light for all wavelengths
(b) The magnification is 1000 (b) For virtual object, the image is also virtual
(c) The image formed is inverted (c) For real object, the image is always real
(d) An objective of a larger aperture will increase the (d) None of the above
brightness and reduce chromatic aberration of the image
205. Critical angle for water air interface is 48.6°. What is 213. A point object is at 30 cm from a convex glass lens
the refractive index of water?  3
 µ s =  of focal length 20 cm. The final image of
(a) 1 (b) 3/2 (c) 4/3 (d) 3/4  2
206. Light is travelling from air to water at ∠i = 50°, which object will be formed at infinity, if
is greater than critical angle for air water interface. (a) another concave lens of focal length 60 cm is placed in
What fraction of light will be totally reflected? contact with the previous lens
(a) 100% (b) 50% (b) another convex lens of focal length 60 cm is placed at a
distance of 30 cm from the first lens
(c) 25% (d) None of these
(c) the whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive
207. Critical angle for glass air interface where refractive index 4/3
index µ of glass is 3/2 is (d) the whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive
(a) 41.8° (b) 60° (c) 30° (d) 44.3° index 9/8
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 245

214. Sunlight reaches to us in composite form and not in 215. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
it’s constituent colours because (a) In compound microscope, objective lens forms a real,
(a) vacuum is non-dispersive. inverted, magnified image of the object
(b) speed of all colours is same in vacuum. (b) Eyepiece lens, produces the final image which is
(c) light behaves like a particle in vacuum. enlarged and virtual
(d) light travels in a straight line in vacuum. (c) The final image is inverted with respect to the original
object
(d) None of the above

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

NCERT 221. Double-convex lenses are to be manufactured from a
216. A small candle 2.5 cm in size is placed 27 cm infront glass of refractive index 1.55, with both faces of the
of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 36 cm. At same radius of curvature. What is the radius of
what distance from the mirror should a screen be curvature required if the focal length is to be 20 cm?
placed in order to receive a sharp image? What is the (a) 20 cm (b) 21 cm
size of the image? (c) 22 cm (d) 23 cm
(a) 54 cm, 5 cm (b) − 54 cm, − 5 cm 222. A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is
(c) − 27 cm, 2.5 cm (d) − 54 cm, − 2.5 cm placed in the path of the convergent beam 12 cm from
217. A 4.5 cm needle is placed 12 cm away from a convex P. At what point does the beam converge if the lens is
mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the magnification a convex lens of focal length 20 cm?
of this image. (a) 7.5 cm (b) 8.5 cm
5 9 (c) 9.5 cm (d) 6.5 cm
(a) (b)
9 5 ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 223-224) Answer the following
(c) 5.5 (d) None of these questions which are based on given paragraph. Choose
218. A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The the correct option from those given below.
apparent depth of a needle lying at the bottom of the An object of size 3.0 cm is placed 14 cm infront of a
tank is measured by a microscope to be 9.4 cm. What concave lens of focal length 21 cm. The image distance
is the refractive index of water? If water is replaced is v, magnification m and image height I.
by a liquid of refractive index 1.63 upto the same
height, by what distance would the microscope have 223. With reference to the above situation, match the items
to be moved to focus on the needle again? in Column I with terms in Column II and choose the
(a) 1.32, 7.7 cm (b) 1.63, 7.7 cm option given below.
(c) 1.32, 1.7 cm (d) 1.63, 1.7 cm Column I Column II
219. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank A v (Image distance in cm) 1. 0.6
containing water to a depth of 80 cm. What is the area
B I (Image height in cm) 2. 8.4
of the surface of water through which light from the
bulb can emerge out? Refractive index of water is C m (magnification) 3. 1.8
1.33. (Consider the bulb to be a point source.)
A B C A B C
(a) 3.58 m 2 (b) 2.58 m 2 (c) 6 m 2 (d) 4 m 2
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1
220. A prism is made of glass of unknown refractive (c) 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 1
index. A parallel beam of light is incident on a face of
the prism. The angle of minimum deviation is 224. Which of the following statement correctly describes
measured to be 40°. What is the refractive index of the object?
the material of the prism? The refracting angle of the I. The image is virtual and erect.
prism is 60°. If the prism is placed in water (refractive II. Image is diminished.
index 1.33), predict the new angle of minimum III. If the object is moved further away from the lens
deviation of a parallel beam of light. betweenO and F, the image moves towards the lens
(a) 1.53, 10°20' (b) 1.2, 35°10' (never beyond focus) and the size of image decreases
(c) 1.53, 35°10' (d) 1.2, 10°20' gradually.
246 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given 232. A screen is placed 90 cm from an object, the image of
below. the object on the screen is formed by a convex lens at
(a) I and III (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) I, II and III two different locations separated by 20 cm. Determine
225. The plano-convex lens of focal length 20 cm and the focal length of the lens.
30 cm are placed together to from a double convex (a) 20.5 cm (b) 19.5 cm
lens. The final focal length will be (c) 23.2 cm (d) 21.4 cm

(a) 12 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 30 cm 233. At what angle should a ray of light be incident on the
face of a prism of refracting angle 60° so that it just
226. A person with a normal near point 25 cm using a suffers total internal reflection at the other face? The
compound microscope with an objective of focal refractive index of the material of the prism is 1.524.
length 8.0 mm and eyepiece of focal length 2.5 cm (a) 30°75′ (b) 29°75′
can bring an object placed at 9.0 mm from the (c) 28°75′ (d) 27°75′
objective in sharp focus. What is the separation
between the two lenses? How much is the magnifying 234. For a normal eye, the far point is at infinity and the
power of the microscope? near point of distinct vision is about 25 cm infront of
(a) 7.2, 89 (b) 9.4, 88 (c) 8.6, 90 (d) 9.4, 75 the eye. The cornea of the eye provides a converging
227. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal power of about 40 D and the least converging power
length 144 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.0 cm. of the eyelens behind the cornea is about 20 D. From
What is the magnifying power of the telescope? What this rough data estimate the range of accommodation
is the separation between the objective and the (i.e., range of converging power of its eyelens) of a
eyepiece? normal eye.
(a) 20-24 D (b) 18-22 D
(a) − 24, 150 cm (b) − 25, 150 cm
(c) 64-68 D (d) 35-40 D
(c) − 24, 160 cm (d) − 25, 160 cm
228. A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an 235. A myopic person has been using spectacles of power
objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eyepiece of −1.0 D for distant vision. During old age he also
focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is angular needs to use separate reading glass of power + 2.0 D.
magnification of the telescope? Find the near point of this person.
(a) + 50 cm (b) − 50 cm
(a) 1200 (b) 1000 (c) 1300 (d) 1500
(c) − 100 cm (d) + 100 cm
229. If in the question 228, this telescope is used to view
the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the 236. A person looking at a person wearing a shirt with a
moon formed by the objective lens? The diameter of pattern comprising vertical and horizontal lines is
able to see the vertical lines more distinctly than the
the moon is 3.48 ×10 6 m and the radius of lunar orbit
horizontal ones. What is this defect called? How is
is 3.48 ×10 8 m. such a defect of vision corrected?
(a) 13.5 cm (b) 13.2 cm (c) 13.7 cm (d) 13.9 cm (a) Astigmatism, convex lens
230. A small pin fixed on a table top is viewed from above (b) Myopia, concave lens
from a distance of 50 cm. By what distance would the (c) Astigmatism, cylindrical lens
pin appear to be raised if it is viewed from the same (d) Presbyopia, cylindrical lens
point through a 15 cm thick glass slab held parallel to 237. A man with normal near point (25 cm) reads a book
the table? Refractive index of glass =1.5. Does the with small print using a magnifying glass : a thin
answer depend on the location of the slab? convex lens of focal length 5 cm. What is the closest
(a) 5 cm, yes and the farthest distance at which he can read the
(b) 5 cm, no book when viewing through the magnifying glass?
(c) 10 cm, data insufficient (a) − 4.2 cm, − 5 cm
(d) None of the above (b) 4.2 cm, 5 cm
231. The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the wall to (c) − 4.2 cm, 5 cm
a room is to be obtained on the opposite wall 3 m (b) 4.2 cm, − 5 cm
away by means of a large convex lens. What is the 238. What is the maximum and the minimum angular
maximum possible focal length of the lens required magnification (magnifying power) possible using the
for the purpose? above simple microscope?
(a) 3 m (b) 0.75 m (c) 0.45 m (d) 0.25 m (a) 6, 2 (b) 7, 5 (c) 6, 5 (d) 6, 3
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 247

239. A card sheet divided into squares each of size 1 mm 2 244. Figure shows an equiconvex lens Q P P′ Q′
is being viewed at a distance of 9 cm held close to the (of refractive index 1.50) in contact
eye. with a liquid layer on top of a plane
(i) What is the magnification produced by the lens? mirror. A small needle with its tip on
How much is the area of each square in the virtual the principal axis is moved along the
image? axis until its inverted image is found
(ii) What is the angular magnification (magnifying at the position of the needle. The
power) of the lens? distance of the needle from the lens
(a) 2.8, 10 cm2 , 2.8 (b) 10, 1 cm2 , 2.8
is measured to be 45 cm. The liquid is removed and the
experiment is repeated. The new distance is measured to
(c) 10, 1 cm2 , 10 (b) 10, 100 cm2 , 2.8 be 30 cm. What is the refractive index of the liquid?
240. An angular magnification (magnifying power) of (a) 1.42 (b) 1.50 (c) 1.26 (d) 1.33
30 X is desired using an objective of focal length
1.25 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. How NCERT Exemplar
will you set up the compound microscope? 245. A ray of light incident at an angle θ on a refracting face
(a) u0 = − 1.5 cm, v0 = 7.5 cm, ue = − 4.17 cm of a prism emerges from the other face normally. If the
(b) u0 = 1.5 cm, v0 = −7.5 cm, ue = 4.17 cm angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is made of a
(c) u0 = − 1.5 cm, v0 = − 7.5 cm, ue = − 4.17 cm material of refractive index 1.5, the angle of incidence
(d) u0 = − 1.5 cm, v0 = 7.5 cm, ue = 4.17 cm is
241. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal (a) 7.5° (b) 5° (c) 15° (d) 2.5°
length 140 cm and an eyepiece of focal length
5.0 cm. What is the magnifying power of the 246. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a
telescope for viewing distant objects when glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling through
(i) the telescope is in normal adjustment (i.e., when the the slab, the first colour to emerge is
final image is at infinity). (a) blue (b) green (c) violet (d) red
(ii) the final image is formed at the least distance of 247. An object approaches a convergent lens from the left of
distinct vision (25 cm). the lens with a uniform speed 5 ms −1 and stops at the
(a) 14, 28 (b) 5, 1.2 focus. The image
(c) 28, 28.7 (d) 28, 33.6 (a) moves away from the lens with an uniform speed 5 ms − 1
242. (i) If the telescope used in Q. 241 is used to view a (b) moves away from the lens with an uniform acceleration
100 m tall tower 3 km away, what is the height of the (c) moves away from the lens with a non- uniform
image of the tower formed by the objective lens? acceleration
(ii) What is the height of the final image of the tower if it (d) moves towards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration
is formed at 25 cm? 248. A passenger in an aeroplane shall
(a) 28 cm, 4.67 cm (b) 5.32 cm, 14 cm (a) never see a rainbow
(c) 4.67 cm, 28 cm (d) 6 cm, 30 cm (b) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric
243. A Cassegrain telescope uses two mirrors as shown circles
in figure. Such a telescope is built with the mirrors (c) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric
arcs
20 mm apart. If the radius of curvature of the large
(d) shall never see a secondary rainbow
mirror is 220 mm and the small mirror is 140 mm,
where will the final image of an object at infinity be? 249. You are given four sources of light each one providing
a light of a single colour-red, blue, green and yellow.
Suppose the angle of refraction for a beam of yellow
Objective
mirror light corresponding to a particular angle of incidence at
the interface of two media is 90°. Which of the
Secondary following statements is correct, if the source of yellow
mirror light is replaced with that of other lights without
Eyepiece changing the angle of incidence?
(a) The beam of red light would undergo total internal
reflection.
(a) 315 mm (b) 415 mm (b) The beam of red light would bend towards normal while it
(c) 215 mm (d) 115 cm gets refracted through the second medium.
248 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

(c) The beam of blue light would undergo total internal 254. There are certain materials developed in laboratories
reflection which have a negative refractive index (figure shown
(d) The beam of green light would bend away from the below). A ray incident from air (medium 1) into such
normal as it gets refracted through the second medium a medium (medium 2) shall follow a path given by
250. The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a
plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If the refractive index of i 1 i 1
the material of the lens be 1.5, it will (a) (b)
(a) act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its r 2 r 2
curved side
(b) act as a concave lens for the objects that lie on its
curved side
(c) act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which
the object lies i r 1 1
(d) act as a concave lens irrespective of side on which the (c) (d)
object lies 2 2

251. The phenomena involved in the reflection of

radio waves by ionosphere is similar to
255. Consider an extended object immersed in water
(a) reflection of light by a plane mirror
contained in a plane trough. When seen from close to
(b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
the edge of the trough the object looks distorted
(c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the
formation of a rainbow because
(d) scattering of light by the particles of air (a) the apparent depth of the points close to the edge are
nearer to the surface of the water compared to the points
252. The direction of ray of light incident on a concave away from the edge
mirror is shown by PQ while directions in which the (b) the angle subtended by the image of the object at the
ray would travel after reflection is shown by four rays eye is smaller, than the actual angle subtended by the
marked 1,2,3 and 4 as shown in figure. Which of the object in air
four rays correctly shows the direction of reflected ray? (c) some of the points of the object far away from the edge
may not be visible because of total internal reflection
1
Q (d) All of the above
2 4
256. A rectangular block of glass ABCD A B
has a refractive index 1.6. A pin is
C F placed midway on the face AB figure.
3 When observed from the face AD.
P The pin shall D C
(a) appear to be near B
(a) 1 (b) 2 (b) appear to be near D
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) appear to be at the centre of AD
253. The optical density of turpentine is higher than that of (d) not be seen at all
water while its mass density is lower. Figure shows a 257. A magnifying glass is used, as the object to be viewed
layer of turpentine floating over water in a container. can be brought closer to the eye than the normal near
For which one of the four rays incident on turpentine point. This results in
in figure, the path shown is correct? (a) a larger angle to be subtended by the object at the eye
3 4 and hence, viewed in greater detail
2
1 (b) the formation of a virtual and erect image
Air (c) increase in the field of view
(d) infinite magnification at the near point
Turpentine 258. The near vision of an average is 25 cm. To view an
object with an angular magnification of 10, what
Water should be the power of the microscope?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 10 D (b) 20 D (c) 40 D (d) 30 D
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 249

259. Three immiscible liquids of densities d1 > d 2 > d 3 and 262. A jar of height h is filled with a transparent liquid of
refractive indices µ 1 > µ 2 > µ 3 are put in a beaker. refractive index µ shown in figure. At the centre of
h the jar on the bottom surface is a dot. Find the
The height of each liquid column is . A dot is made minimum diameter of a disc, such that when placed
3
at the bottom of the beaker. For near normal vision, on the top surface symmetrically about the centre, the
find the apparent depth of the dot? dot is invisible.
d
h 1 1 1  1 1 1
(a)  + +  (b) 3h  + − 
3  µ1 µ 2 µ 3   µ1 µ 2 µ 3 
h 1 1 1  1 1 1
(c)  − +  (d) 3h  − −  h
3  µ1 µ 2 µ 3   µ1 µ 2 µ 3  i i

260. For a glass prism (µ = 3 ), the angle of minimum

deviation is equal to the angle of the prism. Find the
angle of the prism. 2h h h 2 µ2 −1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 40° (b) 45° µ2 −1 µ2 −1 2 µ2 −1 h
(c) 60° (d) 75°
263. A myopic adult has a far point at 0.1 m. His power of
261. A thin convex lens of focal length 25 cm is cut into accomodation is 4 D.
two pieces 0.5 cm above the principal axis. The top (i) What power lenses are required to see distant objects?
part is placed at (0, 0) and an object placed at
(ii) What is his near point without glasses?
(−50 cm,0). The coordinates of the image are
(iii) What is his near point with glasses? (Take the image
(a) (50 cm, −1cm)
distance from the lens of the eye to the retina to be
(b) (50 cm, +1cm) 2 cm.)
(c) (−50 cm, +1cm) (a) − 10 D, 0.07 m, 0.25 m (b) 50 D, 0.25 m, 0.07 m
(d) (−50 cm, −1cm) (c) 10 D, 0.07 m, 0.25 m (d) − 50 D, 0.07 m, 0.25 m

Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (d)
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (c) 71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c)
76. (d) 77. (a, 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (d)
d)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (a)
103. (b)
100. (a) 101. (d) 102. (d) 104. (b) 105. (b)
106. (b) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (c) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (a) 114. (a)
118. (b)
115. (a) 116. (b) 117. (c) 119. (d) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (a) 129. (b)
133. (d)
130. (b) 131. (a) 132. (b) 134. (d) 135. (d)
136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (b) 142. (a) 143. (d) 144. (d)
148. (d)
145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (a) 149. (c) 150. (d)
151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (c) 157. (a) 158. (b) 159. (a)
163. (a)
160. (d) 161. (c) 162. (d) 164. (d) 165. (a)
166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (c) 169. (c) 170. (c) 171. (c) 172. (a) 173. (c) 174. (c)
178. (c)
175. (c) 176. (d) 177. (b) 179. (c) 180. (a)
181. (a) 182. (a) 183. (c) 184. (b) 185. (d) 186. (c) 187. (a) 188. (c) 189. (d)
193. (d)
190. (a) 191. (b) 192. (d) 194. (b) 195. (d)
196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (a) 199. (c) 200. (a) 201. (a) 202. (d) 203. (a) 204. (d)
208. (a,c
205. (c) 206. (d) 207. (a) 209.(a,b, 210.(a,b,
) d) d)
211. (a,b, 212. (a, 213. (a,d 214. (a, 215. (a,b, 216. (b) 217. (a) 218. (c) 219. (b) 220. (a) 221. (c) 222. (a) 223. (d) 224. (d) 225. (a)
d) b) ) b) c)
226. (b) 227. (a) 228. (d) 229. (c) 230. (b) 231. (b) 232. (d) 233. (b) 234. (a) 235. (b) 236. (c) 237. (a) 238. (c) 239. (b) 240. (a)
 Hints and Explanations
1. (a) Nature has endowed the human eye (retina) with the 10. (a) Given,
sensitivity to detect electromagnetic waves within a small Incident ray is represented by vector A
range of the electromagnetic spectrum.
A = 2i$ − 3$j + 4 k$
2. (a) Light travels with a speed of c = 2.99792458 × 108 ms −1 .
For many purposes, it suffices to take c = 3 × 108 ms −1 . The Similarly, normal is represented by
speed of light in vacuum is the highest speed attainable in B = 3i$ − 6$j + 2 k$
nature. Let reflected ray be represented by vector R .
3. (b) A light wave can be considered to travel from one point R=?
to another along a straight line joining them. The path is Here, normal can be represented by any vector pointing up
called a ray of light and bundle of such rays constitutes a from the mirror or downwards.
beam of light. We can verify, A ⋅ B = 6 + 18 + 8 = 32 (+ve)
4. (d) The wavelength of light is very small compared to the Since, A ⋅ B > 0, angle between incident
size of ordinary objects that we encounter commonly
$ = 2i − 3 j + 4 k
$ $ $
(generally of the order of a few centimetres or larger). Unit vector along A , A …(i)
29
5. (d) According to law of reflection, the angle of reflection
(i.e., the angle between reflected ray and the normal to the Unit vector along B,

$ = 3i − 6 j + 2k = 3i − 6 j + 2k
reflecting surface or the mirror) equals the angle of $ $ $ $ $ $
incidence (angle between incident ray and the normal). B …(ii)
49 7
Hence, θ1 = θ 2
Let ON and OM represent the unit vectors , hence
Inc
ide Normal
ay ON = OM − MN (from triangle law) …(iii)
nt r
ray c ted |MN | = 2 (projection length of vector ON along PN )
fl e
Re
θ1 θ2 = 2 (A $ = 2 32
$ ⋅ B)
7 29
From Eq. (iii), R = A − 2 ( A ⋅ B
$ $ $ $ )B $
Mirror
Substituting the values of Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
6. (d) Normal, incident ray and reflected ray are coplanar lines.  2i$ − 3$j + 4 k$   32   3i$ − 6$j + 2k$ 
R=  − 2   
 29   7 29   7 
7. (d) Laws of reflection are valid in case of regular reflection
and over a curved surface.  49 ( 2i$ − 3$j + 4 k$ ) − (192i$ − 384 $j + 128 k$ )
8. (a) Velocity of object, vob = 3i$ + 4 $j
= 
 49 29 
Velocity of image, vimage = 3$i − 4 $j
 98$i − 147$j + 196 k$ − 192i$ + 384 $j − 128 k$ 
Relative velocity of image with respect to its object = 
 49 29 
v rel = vimage − vob = ( 3i$ − 4 $j ) − ( 3i$ + 4 $j ) = − 8 $j
 − 94 $i + 237$j + 68 k$ 
9. (c) From the law of reflection,
= 
 49 29 
Normal
11. (a) Normal
y
In

ra
c

i
id

ed

θ
en

θ 1
ct
t

—
fle
ra

2
y

Re

i
O
√3 incident ray
—
2
Let, angle of incidence = angle of reflection = θ
 1
Given, incident ray is perpendicular to reflected ray (from  
 2 1
figure) tan i = = ⇒ i = 30°
 3 3
⇒ θ = 90° ⇒ θ = 45°  
So, angle of incidence = 45°  2
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 251

12. (c) Let θ be the angle between mirrors M 1 and M 2 . a−x

tan θ = ...(ii)
From figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. y
∴ ∠BCA = 90° − ( 90° − θ ) = θ tan θ =
a
...(iii)
Reflected ray a− y
(from M2)
C D From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
r2
2x a − x
i2 = ⇒ 2xy = a 2 − xa ...(iv)

(froment ray
a y

M1 )
M2 From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get

Incid
a−x a
r1
i1 =
y a− y
θ
B
M1 A a 2 − ya − xa + xy = ya ⇒
Also, ∠BCA = ∠DAC ( AD || BC ) a 2 − xa − ya + xy = ya
⇒ i1 + r1 = θ ⇒ i1 = r1 = θ/ 2 3xy = 2ay [Using Eq. (iv)]
∠CAB = ( 90° − θ / 2 ) 2a
So, x=
From ∆ABC, θ + θ + ( 90° − θ / 2 ) = 180° 3
3θ 90° × 2 Substituting this value of x in Eq. (i), we get
⇒ = 90° ⇒ θ = = 60° ( 2a / 3 ) 4
2 3 tan θ = =
B (a / 2) 3
13. (c)
Mirror (M1) Mirror (M2)
1 3
Normal
θ
Normal ∴ cot θ = = or θ = cot −1 ( 0.75 )
tan θ 4
N
M i i1 Q 15. (d) In a concave mirror, the reflected rays converge at a
2i
i i1 point F on the principal axis while in a convex mirror,the
reflected rays appear to diverge from a point F on its
A C
principal axis. This point F is called focal point or focus. So,
L S
in all cases F is the focus.
Let θ be angle between the mirrors M 1 and M 2 .
16. (a) Parallel beam passes through focus after reflection. This
Since, rays LM and NS are parallel to each other.
can be shown in the figure given below.
∠LMN = ∠SNQ = 2i
⇒ 2i1 + 2i = 180° .⇒ i1 + i = 90° …(i)
Also, in ∆MBN , θ + ( 90 − i ) + ( 90 − i1 ) = 180°
⇒ θ = i1 + i …(ii) A (F )
On comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
θ = 90°
14. (b) The ray starting from point M at an angle θ reaches the
corner D at the right along a parallel path. Let a be the 17. (b) As we know, angle i = 0° and angle r = 0° , when light
length of the side. ray is passes through centre of curvature of a spherical
mirror is reflected such that it trace back its path.
y a–y
B C 18. (d) If lower half of a concave mirror is blackened, then
θ θ
a–x image will now only half of the object, but taking the laws
θ of reflection to be true for all points of the remaining part of
θ the mirror, the image will be that of the whole object.
However, as the area of the reflecting surface has been
x reduced, the intensity of the image will be low i.e., half.
−15
θ θ 19. (d) The focal length, f = = −7.5 cm
A M D 2
a/2 a/2 The object distance i.e., u = −10 cm, v = ?
1 1 1
From figure, According to mirror formula, we get + =
x v u f
tan θ = ...(i) 1 1 1 10 × 7.5
(a / 2) ⇒ + = ⇒ v= = −30 cm
v ( −10 ) ( −7.5 ) −2.5
252 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

The image is 30 cm from the mirror on the same side as the 23. (c) According to question,the ray diagram will be
−v ( −30 )
object. Also, magnification, m = =− = −3.
u ( −10 )
Thus, the image is magnified, real and inverted.
fv
20. (a) From the mirror equation, we get v = f2 2f1
u− f
So, distance d between convex lens and concave mirror is given by
For convex mirror, since R = 2 m, f = 1 m.
d = 2 f1 + f2
( −39 ) × 1 39
Then, u = − 39 m, v = = m 24. (a) Here, h1 = 2 cm, u = − 16 cm h2 = − 3 cm
−39 − 1 40
(since image is real and inverted)
Since, the jogger moves at a constant speed of 5 ms −1 , after 1s
− h2 v
the position of the image v (for u = − 39 + 5 = − 34 ) is (34/35) ∴ m= =
m. h1 u
The shift in the position of image in 1s is − h2 3
⇒ v= u = × ( − 16 ) = − 24 cm
39 34 1365 − 1360 5 1 h1 2
− = = = m
40 35 1400 1400 280 1 1 1 1 1
Now, = + =− −
Therefore, the average speed of the image when the jogger is f v u 24 16
between 39 m and 34 m from the mirror, is (1/280) ms −1 . − 2− 3 − 5 − 48
⇒ = ⇒ f = = − 9.6 cm
21. (a) Let AB represents the boy with height AB = 1.5 m and 48 48 5
C represents the eye level. 25. (d) By mirror formula image distance of A
B 1 1 1
+ = ⇒ f = − 10 cm
0.12 m

i v u f
F i N
f=–10 cm
C (Mirror)
1.38 m

i1
E i1 M A C

A
Let MN represents the minimum height of the mirror. 1 1 1 1 1
+ = − = ⇒ v A = − 15 cm
⇒ MN = FC + CE vA u f ( −30 ) −10
 BC   AC  Also, image distance of C ⇒ vC = − 20 cm
=  +  = 0.06 + 0.69
 2   2  The length of image = | v A − VC | = | − 15 − ( −20 )| = 15 cm
∴ MN = 0.75 m 26. (a) For spherical mirror, f =
R
22. (d) We know, from the mirror formula, 2
here, R = 20 cm, m = 2.5
 uf 
v=  …(i) R 20
u − f ∴ f = = = 10 cm
2 2
On differentiating Eq. (i) both sides w.r.t. u, we get 1 1 1
Now, = +
dv ( u − f ) f − ( uf ) dv u f − f 2 − uf f v u
= ⇒ =
du ( u − f )2 du ( u − f )2 −v
and magnification m = or v = − mu
2 u
dv f2  f   1  1
⇒ =− ⇒ dv = −   du ∴
1 1
= −
1
⇒ u = f 1 −  = 10 1 −
( u − f )2 u − f  = 6 cm
du f u mu  m  2.5
2
 f  27. (c) Apparent depth of the object =
33.2
|dv | =   |du | …(ii) cm
u− f  1.33
33.5
Here, image size = |dv | Distance of object from the mirror = 15 + = 40 cm
1.33
object size = | du | = b 25
On substituting values in Eq. (ii), we get Similarly, distance of image from the mirror = 15 +
1.33
Image size = b ( f / u − f )2 . = 33.8cm
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 253

For concave mirror, u = − 40 cm or v = − 33.8 cm 32. (d) Given, i = angle of incidence = 60° and ∠BMC = 90°
Applying mirror formula,
A B
uv ( −40) ( −33.8) Inc
f = = = − 18.3 cm ide r ay
u + v ( − 40 − 33.8) nt ted
ray 60° 60° flec
Air Re
28. (d) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the
interface at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane. Slab M

Re
r

fr a
Inc
ay

c te
ide
nt edr C

dr
ray c t
fle R

ay
Re
θ θ
⇒ ∠CMR = r = angle of refraction = 180° − ( 60° + 90° )
⇒ r = 30°
Reflecting surface
sin i µ slab
From Snell’s law, =
sin r µ air
Refracted ray
sin 60° µ slab
⇒ =
29. (d) From Snell’s law of refraction, sin 30° 1.0
sin i
a
µg == constant …(i)  3
sin r ∴ µ slab =   × 2 = 3
Since, angle of incidence increase, the angle of refraction has  2
 sin i  33. (c) Given, i = 45°
to increase. So, that the ratio   is a constant according to
 sin r
Incident ray Reflected ray
Eq. (i).
Air
30. (c) For same angle of incidence, the angle of refraction is i r (µa = 1)
minimum in medium R
θ (µg = √2)
µ1 µ2 µ3 µ4
r′ Refracted ray
D
r2 e
r2 C
r1 sin i µ g
r1 From Snell’s law, =
i B sin r′ µ a
A
sin 45° 2
sin i ⇒ =
As, µ= …(i) sin r′ 1
sin r
1  1
µ∝
1 sin r′ = ⇒ r′ = sin −1   = 30°
or 2  2
sin r
⇒ µ is maximum for R, since r is minimum and From diagram, r + θ + r′ = 180°
hence, sin r is minimum. i + θ + 30° = 180° (Q i = r)
c 45 + θ + 30° = 180°
Also, µ= …(ii)
v θ = 180° − 75° = 105°
Therefore, if µ is maximum, v is minimum i.e., velocity of
light is minimum in medium R and order of velocity will be Hence, the angle between reflected and refracted ray is 105°.
vP > vQ > vR sin 50°
34. (c) a
µg = …(i)
31. (b) When a ray of light passes through the glass slab, the sin 40°
emergent rays are parallel to the incident rays. sin 50°
a
µw = …(ii)
α sin 45°
i i
sin 45°
w
µg = …(iii)
sin θ
α n t a
µ w × wµ g = a µ g
sin 50° sin 45° sin 50°
× = (Using Eq. (i), (ii) and (iii)
e=
i

sin 45° sin θ sin 40°

e=

Here, from figure, i = e. sin θ = sin 40°

So, divergent angle of the emergent beam is also same i.e., α. θ = 40°
254 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

35. (b) For a rectangular slab, refraction takes place at two interfaces Let h3 be the new apparent depth of the needle
(air-glass and glass-air). It is easily seen from diagram that h h 13
µ ′ = 1 or h3 = 1 = = 7.65
r2 = i1 , i.e., the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray – there h3 µ ′ 17.
is no deviation, but it undergoes a lateral shift.
here, h3 is less than h2 . Thus for focus the microscope
Medium hift should be moved up.
er al s
(Glass) Lat Distance by which microscope should be moved up
r2
= 8.5 − 7.65 = 0.85 cm
Medium i2 41. (c) The Sun is visible a little before the actual sunrise and
(Air) Medium until a little after the actual sunset due to refraction of light
r1 (Air)
i1 through the atmosphere.
42. (c) Time taken for 360° shift = 24 h
36. (a) When an object lying in a denser medium is observed Time taken for 1° shift = 24 / 360 h = 4 min
from rare medium, then real depth of object is more than 43. (c) Applying Snell’s law at air glass interface,
that observed depth. Normal
h h

y
37. (c) Apparent depth of the bottom of the beaker = 1 + 2

ra
In

ed
µ1 µ 2

c
id

ct
en

f le
i α

Re
ra
y
Air
Glass
h2 (µ 2) Kerosene r Refracted

(µ 1) Water
h1
sin i a
= µg = µ (given)
sin r
∴ Apparent shift = Real depth − Apparent depth
⇒ sin i = µ sin r ⇒ i = sin −1 (µ sin r )
h h 
= ( h1 + h2 ) −  1 + 2  From laws of reflection, i = α = sin −1 (µ sin r )
 µ1 µ 2 
44. (c) In total internal reflection, light travels from an optically
 1  1
= h1 1 −  + h2 1 −  denser medium to a rarer medium at the interface, it is partly
 µ1   µ2 reflected back into the same medium and partly refracted
38. (b) As we know, refractive index of denser medium w.r.t. back to the second medium.
Real depth 45. (d) When the angle of incidence is more than a certain value
rare medium =
Apparent depth the angle of refraction becomes more than 90°. It result into
Real depth total internal reflection (critical angle).
39. (a) Refractive index, µ = 46. (d) For total internal reflection of light take place, following
Apparent depth
conditions must be obeyed.
(i) The ray must travel from denser to rarer medium.
a/2 Olive oil µ1
a
(ii) Angle of incidence (θ) must be greater than or equal to
Water µ2
critical angle (C ) i.e.,
a/2
µ 
C = sin −1  rarer 
 µ denser 
a a a 1 1
Apparent depth, d apparent = + =  + 
2µ 1 2µ 2 2  µ 1 µ 2 
Air
a  µ + µ 1  a (µ 1 + µ 2 ) Water
=  2 =
2  µ 1µ 2  2µ 1µ 2 C
Green
40. (a) Actual depth of the screw in water h1 = 13 cm
and apparent depth is h2 = 8.5 cm
h 13 1 b
µ water = 1 = = 1.53 Here, sinC = and n water = a + 2
h2 8.5 n water λ
When water replaced by a liquid of refractive index If frequency is less ⇒ λ is greater and hence, RI, n(water) is
µ ′ = 1.70 less and therefore, critical angle increases. So, they do not
then the actual depth remains same, but its apparent depth suffer reflection and come out at angle less than 90°.
changes.
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 255

sin i µ r
47. (c) Given, velocity of light in medium A = …(ii)
= v A = 2 × 10 ms 8 −1 sin r′ µ d
µ 
(µB) Also,critical angle = C = sin − 1  r 
µ d 
Rarer Medium B
Denser (µA) From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
C
Medium A  sin i 
C = sin − 1   [r′ = 90 − i] [sin ( 90 − i ) = cos i]
 sin r′ 
Velocity of light in medium B = vB = 2.5 × 108 ms − 1
 sin i 
vA µ B 2 4 ⇒ C = sin − 1  −1
 = sin (tan i )
Q = = =  cos i 
vB µ A 2.5 5
= sin − 1 (tan r ) (Q i = r )
⇒ B is rarer and A is denser medium.
µ  50. (b) For total internal reflection at AC , A > C
Since, critical angle for pair of media = C = sin − 1  r 
µ d 
( where µ r = refractive index for rarer medium and
µ d = refractive index for denser medium) A B
A
 4
∴ C = sin − 1  
 5 B
90°
48. (b) For glass-water interface, applying Snell’s law
sin i µ w C
= Where, C is critical angle
sin r µ g
 1
⇒ A > sin − 1  
90°  n
Air
1 1
r
⇒ sin A > ⇒ n > …(i)
r Water n sin A
Also, for total internal reflection at BC ,
Glass
 1 1
i B > sin − 1   ⇒ n > …(ii)
 n sin B
1 1
 µ sin r Since, A ≥ B ⇒ sin A ≥ sin B ⇒ ≤
⇒ µg =  w  …(i) sin A sin B
 sin i 
For total internal reflection at both surface i.e., for
For water air interface, Angle of incidence in water = r 1
Eqs. (i) and (ii) both to be true simultaneously, n >
sin r 1 1 sin B
Again, = ⇒ sin r = …(ii)
sin 90° µ w µw 1
n min =
 1 sin B
(µ w ) ×  
µ w  1 51. (c) For total internal reflection at surface AB,θ > C
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), µ g = ⇒ µg =
sin i sin i
 2
⇒ θ > sin − 1   …(i)
 2
49. (a) Since, reflected ray and refracted ray make an angle of
90° with each other. Also, for total internal reflection at surface CD,
Hence θ = 90°  3
so r + θ + r′ = 180° θ > sin − 1   …(ii)
 2
r + r′ = 90° or i + r′ = 90° (Q i = r) …(i)
 3  2
Applying Snell’s law, Since, sin − 1   > sin − 1   …(iii)
 2  2
y
In

ra
c

ed
id

√2
en

ct
t

fle
ra

i r
Re
y

Denser (µd) θ θ
2
Rarer (µr) θ
r′ Refracted
√3
ray
256 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

For both the relations (i) and (ii) to be correct. Region I Region II Region III Region IV
 3
θ > sin − 1   r
 2 r
r
⇒ θ > 60° ⇒ θ min = 60° θ
52. (a) For total internal reflection at surface AC ,
µ1 µ2 µ3 µ4
θ>C
Applying Snell’s law at interface,
B A
µ 1 sin i = µ 2 sin r = µ 3 sin r ′ = constant
⇒ µ 1 sin i = µ 3 sin r ′ …(i)
θ n
Water Glass
⇒ n0 sin θ = 0 sin C
6
1 3 1  1
⇒ sin θ = × = ⇒ θ = sin − 1  
6 4 8  8
C
Note For refraction at multiple surface in sequence, we can apply
where, C = critical angle for glass water interface
Snell’s law directly for any two region as in Eq. (i).
µ  µ 
⇒ θ > sin − 1  r  ⇒ θ > sin − 1  water  56. (c) Due to total internal reflection of light.
µ
 d µ
 glass  57. (d) As critical angle ic is less for diamond, so light ray
 4 / 3 suffers more TIR’s before emerging and diamond shows a
⇒ θ > sin − 1   brilliance much more then glass.
 3/ 2
58. (a) Prisms are designed to bend light by 90° or by 180° by
 8
⇒ sin θ >   making use of total internal reflection [Fig. (a) and Fig. (b).
 9 Such a prism is also used to invert images without changing
1 their size [Fig. (c).
53. (a) If critical angle is θC then sin θC =
µ In the first two cases, the critical angle ic for the material of
the prism must be less than 45°.
Disc r Air

Water 45°
θc B B 45°
d 45°
A A

90°
90° 45°
A′
Light A′ B′ 45°
source (a) B′ (b)
1 r
so that tan θC = from diagram tan θC = B A′
(µ − 1)
2 1/ 2
d
A B′
r = d tan θC (r = radius of disc)
(c)
d  1 
r= 2 Q tan θC = 2 
(µ − 1)1 / 2  (µ − 1) 1/ 2 59. (c) Optical fibres are fabricated such that, light reflected at
one side of inner surface strikes the other at an angle larger
µ
54. (c) We know sin θ = 2 than the critical angle.
µ1 Even if the fibre is bent, light can easily travel along its length.
 c v Thus, an optical fibre can be used to act as an optical pipe.
As µ =  , sin θ =
 v v′ 60. (b) In optical fibres, core is surrounded by cladding, where
(here, v is speed in medium A and v′ is speed in medium B) the refractive index of the material of the core is higher than
v that of cladding to bound the light rays inside the core.
v′ =
sin θ 61. (c) Endoscope.
55. (b) Since, light beam just misses entering region IV, it 62. (d) Total internal reflection is the basis for following
must strike the region III region IV interface at critical phenomenon
angle (C ). (i) sparkling of diamond.
µ  n   3 (ii) optical fibre communication.
So, C = sin − 1  r  = sin − 1  0 / 8  = sin − 1  
µ
 d  0/ 6 
n  4 (iii) instrument used by doctors for endoscopy
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 257

63. (d) Figure shows the geometry of formation of image I of an u = 2R = − 30 cm

object O on the principal axis of a spherical surface with µ 1 = 1.5 ⇒ µ 2 = 1.0
centre of curvature C and radius of curvature R. The rays are
v=?
incident from a medium of refractive index n1 , to another of
µ 2 µ1 µ 2 − µ1
refractive index n2 . Applying, − =
v u R
N 1 1.5 (1 − 1.5)
n1 n2
i − =
v ( − 30 ) ( − 15 )
O r C I
1 1.5 − 0.5 1 0.5 1.5
M R ⇒ + = ⇒ = −
v 30 − 15 v 15 30
u v
⇒ v = − 60 cm
As before, we take the aperture (or the lateral size) of the The image is at a distance of 60 cm from surface ABC
surface to be small compared to other distances involved, so opposite to the direction of incident light.
that small angle approximation can be made. 69. (d) From first surface, µ = ∞
64. (a) As refraction formula for curved surface is µ1
n2 n1 n2 − n1
− =
v u R
65. (c) Here, u = − 100 cm, v = ?, R = + 20 cm, n1 = 1 C

and n2 = 1.5 µ2 =n
As, refraction formula for curved surface, we have v =2R
1.5 1 0.5 R
+ = ⇒ v = + 100 cm
v 100 20 v = + 2 R, where R is the radius of curvature.
The image is formed at a distance of 100 cm from the glass µ µ µ − µ1
Using equations 2 − 1 = 2
surface, in the direction of incident light. v u R
66. (a) The refractive index of the liquid must be equal to 1.47 (µ 1 = Refractive index of air)
in order to make the lens disappear. This means n1 = n2 . n µ ( n − 1)
⇒ − 1 = ⇒ n = 2.0
This given 1/ f = 0 or f → ∞. 2R ∞ R
67. (a) Applying, Lens’ maker formula, we get 70. (c) For refraction at surface AB,
µ 2 µ1 µ 2 − µ1
− = A
v u R
1.0 1.0

O O x
µ
Air µ Air
O
x O
R B
µ = − 2R
v=+∞ (µ 1 = µ ⇒ µ 2 = 1)
µ 1 µ −1 1 µ −1 µ µ µ − µ1
⇒ − = =+ = So, applying 2 − 1 = 2
∞ (− x ) + R x R v u R
1 µ 1− µ µ ( µ − 1)
 R  R ⇒ − = ⇒ =
∴ x=+ = ∞ − 2R −R 2R R
 µ − 1 (µ − 1)
⇒ µ = 2µ − 2
68. (b) Given, for refraction at spherical surface ABC, ∴ µ=2
A
µ2 71. (a) Given, u = − 8 cm
µ1
Views froe
m Converging lens, f = 10 cm
Mark this sid |v |
I Magnification, | m | = =?
O C B |u |
v=?
C
258 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

1 1 1 A diminished image by convex lens is obtained when object

Applying lens equation, − =
v u f is beyond 2 f , the image is between f and 2 f on other side.
uf ( − 8 ) × (10 ) So, OI = distance between object and screen = d
⇒ v= = = − 40 cm
u+ f ( − 8 ) + 10 ⇒ d > 2 f + 2 f ⇒ 4 f < 10
. m
40 1.0
So, |m | = =5 ⇒ f< ⇒ f < 0.25 m
8 4
|v | 74. (b) In general, spherical aberration is minimum when the
72. (c) Magnification, | m | =
|u | total deviation produced by the system is equally divided on
all refracting surfaces.
Case I u1 = − 0.15 m = −15 cm
A planoconvex lens is used for this purpose. In order that the
v1 = ? total deviation be equally divided on two surfaces, it is
m1 = ? essential that more parallel beam (or the incident and
Case II u 2 = − 0.2 m = − 20 cm refracted) be incident on the convex side.
v2 = ? Thus, when the object is far away from the lens, incident
rays will be more parallel than the refracted rays, therefore,
m2 = ? the object should face the convex side, but if the object is
Given, | m1 | = 2 | m2 | near the lens, the object should face the plane side.
| v1 | |v | | v1 | 2 × 15 3
⇒ =2 2 ⇒ = = This has been shown in figure.
| u1 | | u2 | | v2 | 20 2
3 3
⇒ | v1 | =
| v2 | or v1 = v2 O
I
2 2 O I
Applying lens equation,
1 1 1 1 1 1
− = or = − …(i) 75. (c) Spherical aberration is caused due to spherical nature of
v u f f v1 u1 lens. Paraxial and marginal rays are focused at different
1 1 1 places on the axis of the lens. Therefore, image so formed is
and = − …(ii)
f v2 u2 blurred. This aberration can be reduced by either stopping
paraxial rays or marginal rays, which can be done by using a
1 1 1 1
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), − = − circular annular mark over the lens.
v1 u1 v2 u2
 v2 − v1   u2 − u1 
⇒   = 
 v1 v2   u1 u2 
3
v2 −
v2
⇒ 2 =  − 5
 
3  300 Paraxial rays Marginal rays
v2 ⋅ v2
2 76. (d) As µ 2 > µ 1 , the upper half of the lens will become
− v2 − 5 − 300 diverging.
⇒ = or v2 = or v2 = + 20 cm
3 v22 300 15 As µ 1 > µ 3 , the lower half of the lens will become
Similarly, v1 = + 30 cm converging.
1 1 1 3 77. (a,d) Case 1
From Eq. (i), = − =
f + 30 ( − 15 ) 30
∴ f = 10 cm = 0.10 m I
73. (c) Image can be obtained on the screen if it is real. Real n
image of reduced size can be formed by a concave mirror or
a convex lens. 30 cm 60 cm
Using lens formula,
1 1 1 1 1 2
+ = ⇒ = + ⇒ f 1 = 20 cm
f I 60 30 f 1 f 1 60 60
O 2f f 2f
1  1 1 R
Further, = ( n − 1)  −  ⇒ f1 = = + 20 cm
f1  R ∞ n −1
d
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 259

Case 2 80. (d) From Lens Maker’s formula,

10 cm 1  1 1
= (1 µ 2 − 1)  − 
f  R1 R2 
n I

30 cm
µ3 µ2 µ1
Using mirror formula,
1 1 1 3 1 1 2
− = ⇒ − = =
10 30 f 2 30 30 f2 30
R For this concave lens to behave as diverging, f must be
f2 = 15 = ⇒ R = 30 ⇒ R = 30 cm negative.
2
 1 1
R
= +20 cm =
30
⇒ 2n − 2 = 3 ⇒ f 1 = + 20 cm Q  −  is negative
n −1 n −1  R1 R2 
Refractive index of lens is 2.5. So, (1 µ 2 − 1) > 0
Radius of curvature of convex surface is 30 cm. µ2
Image is erect and virtual. Focal length of lens is 20 cm. ⇒ > 1 or µ 2 > µ 1 …(i)
µ1
78. (b) When lens is in air,
If the lens is filled with L2 having refractive index
From Lens maker’s formula, [( n2 = µ 2 )] and placed in L1 having refractive index
1  1 1 [( n1 = µ 2 )].
= ( a µ g − 1)  −  …(i)
f1  R1 R2  81. (b) When lens is immersed in water,
When lens is immersed in liquid, 1  1 1
From Lens maker’s formula, = ( w µ g − 1)  − 
1  1 1 f2  R1 R2 
= ( l µ g − 1)  −  …(ii)
f2  R1 R2  1  1.5   1 1
⇒ = − 1  −  …(i)
On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get f2  1.33   R1 R2 
f2 ( µ g − 1)
a
1  1 1
= l When lens is in air, = (1.5 − 1)  −  …(ii)
f1 ( µ g − 1) f1  R1 R2 
f2 (1.5 − 1)  l µg  On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get
⇒ = Q µ g = 
f1  1.5   µl   0.5 × 1.33
 − 1 f2 =   × f1 = 4 f1 = 4 × 10 = 40 cm
 1.25   0.17 
( µ 2 = 125
. ) 82. (a) Since, lens is made of two layers of different refractive
f2 0.5 × 1.25 indices, for a given wavelength of light it will have two
⇒ = = 2.5 or f2 = 2.5 f1
f1 0.25 different focal lengths or will have two images at two
1
Hence, focal length increases by a factor of 2.5 when different points as ∝ (µ − 1) (from Lens maker’s
immersed in liquid. f
79. (a) Given, concave lens, µ g = 1.5 ; µ m = 1.75 formula).
83. (c) Given µ g = 15
.
Refractive index medium
µg 1.5
m
µg = =
µ m 1.75
Applying Lens maker’s formula,
1  1 1   1.5   1 1 
= ( m µ g − 1)  _ = − 1  −  Glass Glass
f  R1 R2   1.75   − R + R 
0.1
1 (1.5 − 1.75)  2 
⇒ = × −  µ oil = 17
f 1.75  R .
R = 20 cm
1.75 7
⇒ f = R = R = ( + 3.5 R ) From Lens Maker’s formula for the plano convex lens
0.25 × 2 2
1 1 1
Since, f is positive it behaves as convergent lens of focal = (µ − 1)  − 
length ( + 3.5 R ). f  R1 R2 
260 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Here, R1 = R 1
For P<0 ⇒<0
and for plane surface, R2 = ∞ F
1 1  1 0.5 ⇒
1
−
d
<0 ⇒
1
<
d
∴ = (15
. − 1)  − 0 ⇒ =
flens R  flens R 10 400 10 400
When the intervening medium is filled with oil, then focal ∴ d > 40 cm
length of the concave lens formed by the oil 1
87. (b) Case I When lenses are in contact, P = = + 10 D
1  1 1 2 −14 . F1
= (17
. − 1)  − −  = − 0.7 × =
fconcave  R R  R R 1 1 1 1 1
= + ⇒ 10 = + …(i)
Here, we have two concave surfaces F1 f1 f2 f1 f2
1 1 1 0.5  −14
.  1 14. 0.4 Case II When lenses are d = 0.25 m apart
So, = 2× + = 2× +  = − =−
feq f f R  R  R R R 1 1 1 1 d
P= =+ 6D ⇒ = + − …(ii)
R 20 F2 F2 f1 f2 f1 f2
∴ feq = − =− = − 50 cm
0.4 0.4 From Eq. (i),
84. (c) At I, second focus of convex lens coincides with the first 0.25 0.25 1
6 = 10 − or f1 f2 = =
focus of concave lens. Hence, rays will become parallel to f1 f2 4 16
the optical axis after refraction from both the lenses. 1 1
⇒ × = 16 …(iii)
f1 f2
∴ P1 P2 = 16
I Hence, from Eq. (iii), only option (b) satisfies this relation.
Hence, P1 and P2 is 2 and 8.
100
0.75 m 0.25 m 88. (b) Power of lens (in dioptre) =
1.0 m focal length f (in cm)
85. (c) By Pythagoras theorem 100
f =
= 5 cm
32 + ( R − 3 mm )2 = R 2 20
⇒ 32 + R 2 − 2R ( 3 mm ) + ( 3 mm )2 = R 2 ⇒ R ≈ 15 cm 1  1 1
from Lens maker’s formula = (µ − 1) − 
c 3 × 108 f  R1 R2 
Refractive index of material of lens µ = =
v 2 × 108 for biconvex lens, R1 = + R
Here c = speed of light in vacuum R2 = − R
= 3 × 108 ms 2 1  1 1  2
cm = (µ − 1) +  = (µ − 1) 
R=
3 f  R R  R
v = speed of light in material of lens 3mm
= 2 × 108 ms 2 , µ = 3 / 2 1  2
= (µ − 1) 
5  5
From Lens Maker’s formula
1  1 1 2µ − 2 = 1 ⇒ 2µ = 3 ⇒ µ = ( 3/ 2 )
= (µ − 1) − 
f  R1 R2  89. (a) When the lenses are in contact, the power of the system is
P = P1 + P2 or P1 + P2 = 10 …(i)
Here, R1 = R and R2 = ∞ (for plane surface)
When lenses are separated by a distance
1 3  1
=  − 1   1
f  2   15 d = 0.25 m = m
4
⇒ f = 30 cm
The power is P = P1 + P2 − d P1 P2
86. (a) Given, P1 = P2 = + 5 D [1 D = 1m − 1 ] PP
⇒ P1 + P2 − 1 2 = 6 …(ii)
100 4
⇒ f1 = f2 = = + 20 cm
5 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
For lenses separated by distance d, P P
1 1 1 d 1 1 1 d 10 − 1 2 = 6 ⇒ P1 P2 = 16
= + − ⇒ = + − 4
F f1 f2 f1 f2 F 20 20 400 So, P1 = 8 D and P2 = 2 D
1 1 d 1 1
⇒ = − ∴ f1 = m = 0.125 m ⇒ f2 = m = 0.5 m
F 10 400 8 2
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 261

90. (d) For equivalent focal length, Hence, the ray suffers minimum deviation and under
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 minimum deviation, the ray travels parallel to the base of the
= + + = + + prism inside the prism.
f f1 f2 f3 ( + 40 ) ( − 40 ) ( − 15 )
1 1 Hence θ = 0.
⇒ =− ⇒ F = − 15 cm  A + Dm 
f 15 sin  
 2 
1 100 20 94. (b) As, we know that µ =
Since, power i.e., P (in D) = =− =− A
F (in m) 15 3 sin
2
= − 6.67 D  A + Dm 
sin  
91. (c) Focal length of the combination A  2 
1 1 1 ⇒ cot =
= + …(i) 2 A
sin
f f1 f2 2
1  1 1  µ1 − 1 A sin  A + Dm 
We have = (µ 1 − 1) −  = cos  
f1  ∞ −R R 2 =  2 
⇒
1  1 1  − (µ 2 − 1) A A
and = (µ 2 − 1)  − = sin sin
f2  −R ∞ R 2 2
1 1  π A  A + Dm 
Putting these values of and in Eq. (i) sin  −  = sin  
f1 f2  2 2  2 
1 (µ 1 − 1) (µ 2 − 1) π A A Dm
= − ⇒ − = +
f R R 2 2 2 2
[µ − 1 − µ 2 + 1] µ 1 − µ 2 ⇒ Dm = π − 2 A ⇒ Dm = 180° − 2 A
= 1 =
R R 95. (b) Given, equilateral prism i.e., A = 60°
R
f = i=e=
3 3
A ⇒ = × 60° = 45°
µ1 − µ 2 4 4
1  1 1 From relation, A + D = i + e
92. (a) Using = (µ − 1)  − 
f  R1 R2  We have, 60° + D = 2 × 45°
here, R1 = 10 cm, R2 = − 10 cm, u = − 5 cm and µ = 133
. ⇒ D = 90° − 60° = 30°
1 1 1 96. (c) When light ray travels parallel to the base, the light
= (133
. − 1)  + 
f  10 10 suffers minimum deviations.
1 2 0.33 So, for minimum deviation, D min = 40°
= 0.33 × = ⇒ f = 1515
. cm i = e = 45° (from graph)
f 10 5
sin ( A + δ m ) / 2
uf − 5 × 1515
. 97. (d) Using µ =
Now, from lens formula, v = = A
u + f − 5 + 1515
. sin
2
− 75.75 π π
= = − 7.46 Here, A = = 45°, sin = = 45°
.
1015 4 4
⇒ v is −ve hence image will be formed on the same side. c = 3 × 10 ms
8 −1

93. (c) Let Dm be the angle of minimum deviation. Then, sin ( 45 + 45 ) / 2 0.707
∴ µ= ⇒ µ= = 1.85
 A + Dm  45 0.3826
sin   sin
 2  2
µ=
A c 3 × 108
sin
2 Therefore, v = = . × 108 ms−1
⇒ v = 162
µ 185
.
Given, A = 60° for equilateral prism and µ = 2
98. (a) Here, µ = 157
. , δ = 5.5°
 60° + Dm 
sin   using δ = (µ − 1) A
 2 
2= δ 5.5
 60°  A= = = 9.64 °
sin   µ − 1 157 . −1
 2 
99. (a) Consider a ray of light PQ incident an the surface AB
On solving, we get Dm = 30°
The given deviation, D = 30° and moves along RS , after passing through the prism ABC.
262 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

It is given that the incident ray A 102. (d) In vacuum, all colours have same speed which is equal to
suffers minimum deviation. the speed of light i.e., c = 3 × 108 ms −1 .
Therefore, the ray inside the 60°
prism must be parallel to the 45° 30° 45° 103. (b) For monochromatic light having single wavelength, only
base BC of the prism. P Q
30° 30° S deviation takes place and no dispersion occurs.
R
From the geometry of the prism 104. (b) When a white light is incident on a glass prism, the
and the ray diagram, it is clear that emergent light is seen to be consisting of several colours but
B C broadly the different component colours that appear in
angle of incidence, i = 45° sequence are violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and
angle of refraction r = r′ = 30° red (given by the acronym VIBGYOR).
angle of emergence, e = 45° 105. (b) Given, angle of prism = 5° ; µ r = 1.641, µ b = 1.659 g for
Therefore, minimum deviation suffered by the ray is this angle prism,
δ min = i + e − ( r + r′ ) = 90° − 60° = 30° D ≈ (µ − 1) A
Also we know that So, Db = (µ b − 1) A
 A + δm  ⇒ Dr = (µ r − 1) A
sin  
 2  Angle between the emergent blue and red rays
µ=
sin
A = Db − Dr = (µ b − µ r ) A
2 = (1.659 − 1.641) × 5
where, µ = refractive index of the material of the prism. = 0.018 × 5° = 0.09°
A = angle of prism = 60° 106. (b) The bending of red component of white light is least
 60° + 30°  while most for the violet component.
sin  
 2  sin 45° 1 / 2 2 107. (d) A lens can be viewed as a prism, it disperse light and
∴ µ= = = = = 2
60° sin 30° 1/ 2 2 image formed has coloured edges this is called chromatic
sin
2 aberration defect.
100. (a) δ = ( i1 + i2 ) − A ⇒ 40° = ( 35° + 79° ) − A 108. (d) Chromatic aberration occurs when a coloured image is
formed by a lens in white light.
⇒ A = 74 °
W
Now, we know that
 A + δm 
sin  
 2  V R
µ=
 A
sin  
 2
109. (d) The rainbow is an example of the dispersion of sunlight
If we take the given deviation as the minimum deviation, then by the water drops in the atmosphere. This is a phenomenon
 74 ° + 40°  due to combined effect of dispersion, refraction and
sin  
 2  reflection of sunlight by spherical water droplets of rain.
µ= = 151
.
 74 °  110. (c) The formation of primary rainbow occurs when red light
sin  
 2  from drop I and violet light from drop II reach the observers
The given deviation may or may not be the minimum eye. The violet light from drop II and red light from drop II
deviation. Rather it will be less than this value. Therefore, µ are directed at level above or below the observer. Thus the
will be less than 1.51. observer, say a rainbow with red colour on the top and violet
on the bottom.
Hence, maximum possible value of refractive index is 1.51.
Thus, the primary rainbow is a result of three step process,
101. (d) Angle of deviation first decreases and then increases that is, refraction, reflection and refraction as shown in figure.
with increase in angle of incidence.
t
ligh
Angle of deviation (δ)

Sun

1
50° Raindrops
2
40° 40°
42°
Observer
30° 111. (d) When light rays undergoes two internal reflections inside
20° 40° 60° 80°
Angle of incidence (i) a raindrop instead of one as in the primary rainbow, a
secondary rainbow is formed as shown in figure. It is due to
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 263

four step process. The intensity of light is reduced at the 121. (a) For distinct vision for human eye near point = D = 25 cm
second reflection and hence, the secondary rainbow is fainter Far point is at infinity.
than the primary rainbow. Further, the order of the colours is
reversed in it. 122. (c) He might be suffering from presbyopia.
123. (a) To rectify the short sighted defect, by using concave lens
Raindrops between the eye and the object, with the diverging effect
desired to get the image focused on the retina.
Light
124. (b) If the eye lens focusses the incoming light at a point
behind the retina, a convergent lens is needed to compensate
for the defect in vision. This defect is called farsightedness
50° 53°
or hypermetropia.
Observer
125. (c) Another common defect of vision is called astigmatism.
112. (d) The necessary condition for formation of rainbow is
This occurs when the cornea is not spherical in shape. If a
(i) Sun should be shining in part of the sky while it is person with such a defect in eye lens looks at a wire mesh or
raining in the opposite part of the sky. a grid of lines, focusing in either the vertical or the
(ii) The observer must stand with his back towards the Sun. horizontal plane may not be as sharp as in the other plane.
113. (a) The amount of scattering is inversely proportional of the
126. (a) The distance of normal vision is 25 cm. So, if a book is
fourth power of the wavelength. This is known as Rayleigh
at u = − 25 cm, its image should be formed at v = − 50 cm.
scattering.
Therefore, the desired focal length is given by
114. (a) At sunset or sunrise, the Sun’s rays have to pass through
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
a larger distance in the atmosphere. Most of the blue and = − ⇒ = − =
other shorter wavelengths are removed by scattering. The f v u f − 50 − 25 50
least scattered light reaching our eyes, therefore, the Sun ∴ f = + 50cm (convex lens)
looks reddish. This explains the reddish appearance of the 127. (d) The person should use a concave lens of focal length
Sun and full Moon near the horizon.
− 80
115. (a) We know, from Rayleigh’s scattering. = − 80 cm = m
100
1 − 100
Amount of scattering ∝ i.e., Power =
1
= = − 1.25 D
λ4 focal length 80
(Amount of scattering)1 λ 42
⇒ = 128. (a) Here, u = − 25 cm, v = − 75 cm
(Amount of scattering)2 λ 41
1 1 1
1  λ2
4
λ 2  1
1/ 4
1 = − i.e., f = 37.5 cm
⇒ =  ⇒ =  = f 25 75
4  λ1  λ 1  4 2 1 1
P= = = 2.67 D
∴ λ1 : λ 2 = 2 : 1 f 37.5
1 So, the corrective lens needs to have a converging power of
116. (b) From Rayleigh’s scattering, amount of scattering ∝
λ4 + 2.67 D.
Since, λ red is more, it is least scattered and hence, suitable 129. (b) The linear magnification m, for the image formed at the
for indication signals. near point d, by a simple microscope can be obtained by
1 using the relation.
117. (c) Amount of scattering ∝ 4 (Rayleigh’s law)
λ v  1 1 v
m = = v −  = 1 −
Thus, sky appears blue as blue light (short wavelength) is u v f f
scattered more than red and predominates. If red light will
Now, according to our sign convention, v is negative, and is
be scattered more, sky would appears red.
equal in magnitude to d. Thus, the magnification is
118. (b) Light enters the eye through a curved front surface, the  d
cornea. It passes through the pupil which is the central hole in m = 1 + 
the iris.  f

119. (d) The retina contains rods and cones which sense light Since, d is about 25 cm, to have magnification of six, one
intensity and colour, respectively, and transmit electrical needs a convex lens of focal length, f = 5 cm.
signals via the optic nerve to the brain which finally 130. (b) A single lens simple magnifier achieves is that it allows
processes this information. the object to be brought closer to the eye than D then the
120. (a) This property of the eye is called accommodation. magnification when the image is at infinity. In this case, we
will obtained the angular magnification.
264 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

131. (a) Fig. (i) describes myopia or short sightedness in which 138. (a) The first image is formed near the focal point of the
rays after refraction from lens meet (focussed) before the retina. eyepiece. The distance L, i.e., the distance between the
second focal point of the objective and the first focal point
132. (b) Hypermetropia is corrected by using convex lens.
of the eyepiece (focal length fe ) is called the tube length of
Focal length of lens used f = + (defected near point) the compound microscope.
f = + d = + 20 cm 139. (d)
100 100
∴ Power of lens = = = 5D
f (cm) + 20 L

133. (d) A simple magnifier or microscope is a converging lens of I

small focal length. In order to use such a lens as a microscope, fo+fe
the lens is held near the object, one focal length away or less,
and the eye is positioned close to the lens on the other side. We know, magnification of telescope,
The idea is to get an erect, magnified and virtual image of the f
m= o,
object at a distance so that it can viewed comfortably, i.e. at fe
25 cm or more.
fe −I
134. (d) A simple microscope has a limited maximum Here =
fe + u L
magnification (≤ 9 ) for realistic focal lengths.
fe −I
135. (d) For least distance of distinct vision, the angular ⇒ =
magnification of simple microscope is fe − ( fo + fe ) L
D  1
M = 1+ ⇒ M = 1 + DP ∴ Power ( P ) =  ⇒
fe I
= i.e., m =
L
f  t fo L I
D
and for normal adjustment M = ⇒ M = DP. 140. (c) Objective of a compound microscope is a convex lens.
f Convex lens forms real and enlarged image when an object
Hence, if the angular magnification of simple microscope is placed between focus and radius of curvature.
increases, then the power of the lens should increase. 141. (b) When final image formed at normal adjustment, then
136. (a) For magnification, a simple microscope may be used as length of compound microscope,
magnifying glass having converging lens. uo fo  D. fe 
L = vo + ue = + 
f = + 10 cm ( uo + fo )  D + fe 
⇒ u = − 9 cm
 1 1 1 1 1 1
uf − 9 × 10 Q = − and = − 
From lens formula, v = = = − 90  fo vo uo fe ue ve 
u + f − 9 + 10
v − 90 − 1.2 × 1 25 × 2.5
Magnification, m = = = 10 = + = 6 + 2.27
u −9 − 1.2 + 1 25 + 2.5
≈ 8.27 ≈ 8.3 cm
∴ Apparent area of the card through the magnifying
= 10 × 10 × 1 × 1= 100 mm2 = 1 cm2 142. (a) In modern microscopes, multicomponent lenses are used
for both the objective and the eyepiece to improve image
137. (b) Here, fo = 12
. cm, fe = 6.25 cm quality by minimising various optical aberrations (defects)
uo = − 2 cm, ve = − 25 cm in lenses.
1 1 1 1 1 1
For objective − = ⇒ = − 143. (d) Astronomical telescope depends on
vo uo fo vo 12
. 2 (i) light gathering power
⇒ vo = 3 cm (ii) resolution power
1 1 1 (iii) area of objective lens
For eyepiece − =
ve ue fe 144. (d) Telescope resolves and brings objects closer. Hence,
1 1 1 telescope with magnifying power of 20, the tree appears
⇒ − = 20 times nearer.
−25 ue 6.25
1 1 1 145. (a) Given, fo = F1 , fe = F2
− = +
ue 6.25 25 We know, angular magnification for telescope
ue = − 5 cm fo F F1
|M |= = 1 ⇒
Distance between two lenses = | vo | + | ue | = 3 + 5 = 8 cm fe F2 F2
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 265

146. (c) According to question, 152. (a) The main limitation of reflecting telescope is that the
Focal length of objective lens ( f0 ) = + 40 cm objective mirror focusses light inside the telescope tube.
Focal length of eyepiece lens ( fe ) = 4 cm 153. (b) The separation between the objective and therefore piece
Object distance for objective lens ( u 0 ) = − 200 cm = length of the telescope tube
Objective lens Eye-piece lens
⇒ f = fo + fe
here, fo = 150 cm = 1.5 m, fe = 5 cm = 0.05 m
4 cm f = 1.5 + 0.05 = 1.55 m

154. (a) The largest reflecting telescopes in the world are the part
200 cm v of keck telescopes in Hawaii.
155. (a) The largest telescope in India is in Kavalur, Tamilnadu
Applying lens formula for objective lens ( D = 2.34 m).
1 1 1 1 1 1 156. (c) Angle of incidence = Angle between incident ray and
− = ⇒ − =
v u f v −200 40 normal to the mirror = 0°
1 1 1 5−1 4
⇒ = − = = ⇒ v = 50 cm
v 40 200 200 200 Reflected ray
Image will be form at first focus of eyepiece lens.
Incident ray,
So, for normal adjustment distance between objectives and Normal
eye-piece lense (length of tube) will be
v + fe = 50 + 4 = 54 cm ⇒ Angle of reflection = 0° (from laws of reflection)
147. (a) For a telescope, Hence, the reflected ray retraces its path along the normal at
β f
Angular magnification = = o an angle 0° with normal.
α fe
157. (a) Refractive index of any pair of media is inversely
β 0.3
∴ = ⇒ β = 5° proportional to wavelength of light.
0.5° 0.03
Hence, λv < λr
| f |
148. (d) For telescope | m | = o = 5 …(i) ⇒ µv > µr
| fe |
where, λ v and λ r are the wavelengths of violet and red light
and length of the telescope and µ r and µ v are refractive index of violet and red light.
L = | fo | + | fe | = 36 …(ii)
158. (b) Optical fibre communication is based on the phenomenon
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
of total internal reflection at core-clad interface.
⇒ fe = 6 cm and fo = 30 cm
The refractive index of the material of the cladding, hence,
149. (c) Given, power ( P1 ) = 40 D and power ( P2 ) = 20 D light striking at core-cladding interface gets totally internally
We have Peq = P1 + P2 = 40 D + 20 D = 60 D reflected. The light undergoes and reaches the other end of
1 1 1 the fibre.
So, = +
feq f1 f2 159. (a) Refractive index of diamond w.r.t. liquid
100 100 1 µ 6 1
⇒ f = = = 1.67 cm
l
µd = = d ⇒ =
Peq 60 sin C µ l 3 sin C
1
150. (d) For microscope, m =
L D
⇒ m∝
1 ⇒ sin C = = sin 45°
f0 fe f0 2
f0 ∴ C = 45°
For telescope, m= , m ∝ f0
fe 160. (d) In air or water a convex lens made of glass behaves as a
The magnifying power of microscope will decrease but the convergent lens but when it is placed in carbon disulfide, it
magnifying power telescope will increase. behaves as a divergent lens. Therefore, when a convergent
lens is placed inside a transparent medium having refractive
151. (d) Reflecting telescopes are used because of following index greater than that of material of lens, it behaves as a
advantages divergent lens.
(i) no chromatic aberration.
161. (c) When glass surface is made rough, then light incident on
(ii) parabolic reflecting surfaces are used.
it is scattered in different directions. Due to which its
(iii) Weighs of mirror are much less than a lens of equivalent
transparency decreases. There is no effect of roughness on
optical quality.
absorption of light.
266 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

162. (d) Magnification produced by mirror, 169. (c) Owl can move freely during night, because they have
I f f large number of cones on their retina which helps them to
m= = = . see in night.
O f− u x
f
where, x is distance from focus. 170. (c) The magnifying power of telescope is m = o . So, for
fe
Size of image ( I )
and m= high magnification, the focal length of objective lens should
Size of object (O )
be larger than eyepiece.
163. (a) For thin prisms, angle of prisms A is small d
Resolving power of a telescope = .
For small A, D min (minimum deviation) is also small. 1.22λ
 A + D min  For high resolving power, diameter ( d ) of objective should
sin  
 2  be higher.
So, µ= …(i)
sin ( A / 2 ) 171. (c) According to sign convention, all distances are measured
 A + D min  A + D min from the pole of the mirror or the optical centre of the lens.
sin   ≈ (Qsin θ ≈ θ for small θ)
 2  2 Object on left Mirror

A A Heights
and sin ≈ upwards
Incident light
2 2 positive
Using above approximations, X-axis
A + D min
µ= ⇒ D min = (µ − 1) A Distances against
2 incident light
Heights negative Distances along
A/2 incident light
downwards
negative positive
Hence, it can be seen that if A is small, D min is also small.
164. (d) Dispersion takes place because the refractive index of 172. (a) If n21 > 1, r < i, i.e. the refracted ray bends towards the
medium for different wavelengths (colours) is different. The normal. In such a case medium 2 is said to be optically
refractive index is inversely proportion to λ by Cauchy’s denser (or denser, in short) than medium 1.
expression as On the other hand, if n21 < 1, r > i, the refracted ray bends
b c
µ (λ ) = r + 2 + 4 away from the normal. This is the case when incident ray in
λ λ a denser medium refracts into a rarer medium.
Hence, deviation ( D ) = (µ − 1) A 173. (c) Speed of light depends on refractive index of medium.
Since λ red is more than other colours wavelength. The highest speed attainable in nature is c = 3 × 108 ms −1
So, deviation is least for red and have it appears farthest which is speed of light in vacuum. Thus speed of light in
from the base of the prism. water is less than speed of light in vacuum.

165. (a) In vacuum speed of light is independent of wavelength. 174. (c) It is possible that mass density of an optically denser
Hence, no dispersion takes places in vacuum. Thus, vacuum medium may be less than that of an optically rarer medium
is a non-dispersive medium in which all colours travel with (optical density is the ratio of the speed of light in two media).
the same speed. e.g., Turpentine and water. Mass density of turpentine is less
than of water but its optical density is higher.
166. (a) The rainbow is formed when the inner surface of the
µ 
water drop get internally reflected if the angle between the 175. (c) As, critical angle, C = sin − 1  r 
refracted ray and normal to the drop surface is greater than µ d 
the critical angle.  1  C
In this case, sin C =  Qµ = λ  …(i)
167. (a) I. Primary rainbow is a result of three-step process.  µd 
(i) Refraction at the first surface of raindrop.
Since, refractive index of material is inversely proportional
(ii) Total internal reflection from the second surface of
to the wavelength of the light. Wavelength of violet ( λ v ) is
raindrop.
least and hence, refractive index is maximum for violet.
(iii) Again refraction from the first surface of raindrop from Thus critical angle is minimum from Eq. (i).
where the light finally emerges out. The intensity of light
is reduced at the second reflection and hence, the 176. (d) When white light pass through a prism, bending of red
secondary rainbow is fainter than the primary rainbow. component of white light is least while it is most for the
violet. Equivalently, red light travels faster than violet light
168. (c) The light from a distant object arriving at the eye lens in a glass prism.
may get converged at a point in front of the retina. This type
of defect is called nearsightedness or myopia. This means 177. (b)
that the eye is producing too much convergence in the I. At sunset or sunrise, the Sun’s rays have to pass through
incident beam. a larger distance in the atmosphere. Most of blue and
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 267

other shorter wavelengths are removed by scattering. sin i

Applying Snell’s law, 1 = air
µ ice
The least scattered light reaches our eyes, therefore Sun sin r1
looks reddish. i1=
60°
II. In secondary rainbow light undergoes two internal Air
reflections inside a raindrop and hence the order of A Ice
r1
colour gets reversed. r1
Ice
178. (c) From Lens maker’s formula,
B Glass
1  µ lens  1 1 r2
In air = − 1  − 
f1  µ air   R1 R2 
1  µ lens  1 1 sin 60° µ ice
In water = − 1  − ⇒ = …(i)
f2  µ water   R1 R2  sin r1 1
µ lens ( 3/ 2 ) µ lens ( 3/ 2 ) sin 60° 3/ 2 3 3
Q < ⇒ sin r1 = = = … (ii)
µ water ( 4 / 3 ) µ air (1) µ ice 4/ 3 8
1 At B, Ice - glass interface
⇒ or power is less in water but f2 is positive, hence it Applying Snell’s law,
f2
sin r1 ice µ glass
behaves as convex lens and not as concave lens. = µ glass = …(A)
sin r2 µ ice
179. (c) A lens with large focal length have less power.
1 On multiplying Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
i.e., P∝
f sin 60° sin r1 µ ice µ glass sin 60°
× = × ⇒ = µ glass
1 sin r1 sin r2 1 µ ice sin r2
or f ∝
P sin 60° ( 3 / 2 ) 3/ 2  1 
⇒ sin r2 = = = =  …(B)
180. (a) Astigmatism can be corrected by using cylindrical lens of µ glass 1.5 3/ 2  3
desired radius of curvature with an appropriate directed axis.
Also, refractive index of ice w.r.t. glass
f
181. (a) For astronomical telescope, | m | = o . air
µ 4/ 3 8
fe ⇒ glass
µ ice = air ice = = …(C)
µ glass 3/ 2 9
So, magnification is inversely proportional to focal length of
the eyepiece and directly proportional to focal length of 185. (d) A → 2, B → 3, C → 1 is correct option. If the object is at
objective. The larger fo and smaller fe will given better a distance f , the image is at infinity. However, if the object
magnification. is at a distance sightly less than the focal length of the lens,
the image is virtual and closer than infinity. Although the
182. (a) The largest lens objective in use has the diameter 40 inch
closest comfortable distance for viewing the image is when
(~ 1.02 m). It is at the Yerkes observatory in Wisconsin,
it is at the near point (distance D ≅ 25 cm), it causes some
USA. Such big lenses tend to be very heavy and therefore,
strain on the eye. Therefore, the image formed at infinity is
difficult to make and support by their edges. Further, it is
often considered most suitable for viewing by the relaxed eye.
rather difficult and expensive to make such large sized
lenses which form images that are free from any kind for 186. (c) In case of concave mirror or convex lens (A), (C) and
chromatic aberration and distortions. (D) image can be real, virtual, diminished, magnified or of
183. (c) From laws of reflection, same size. In case of convex mirror (B), image is always
Normal virtual (for real objects).
y
ra

187. (a)
ed
In

ct

(A) → Since µ 1 < µ 2 , the ray of light will bend towards

c
id

fle

α
en

α
Re

normal after first refraction.

t

β
ra
y

(B) → µ 1 > µ 2 , the ray of light will bend away from the
φ Angle of
α deviation
normal after first refraction.
(C) → since µ 2 = µ 3 means in second refraction there will
be no change in the path of ray of light.
(A) Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection = α
(D) → Since µ 2 > µ 3 , ray of light will bend away from the
(B) The value of angle β = π / 2 − α normal after second refraction.
(C) Angle of deviation = φ = π − 2α (From figure)
Therefore the correct options are as under
184. (b) In this case, the light gets refracted twice from air to ice (A) → 1, 3 (B) → 2, 4, 5
at A and from ice to glass at B. We have find angle r2 . (C) → 1, 3, 5 (D) → 2, 4
At A, Air - ice interface
268 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

188. (c) Minimum Deviation On multiplying Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
The angle of minimum deviation occurs when i = e and sin i µ 3
= …(iv)
r1 = r2 and is given by sin e µ 4
( A + D min )
sin Since, µ 3 ≠ µ1 ⇒ sin i ≠ sin e or i≠e
  A 
µ= 2 ⇒ D min = 2 sin −1 sin   × µ  − A 193. (d) From relation (iv), in above answer.
A   2  
sin sin i µ 3
2 =
Substituting µ = 1.5 and A = 60° sin e µ 4
D min = 2 sin −1 (0.75) − 60° = 37° …(A) Q µ 3 = µ1 ⇒ sin i = sin e
∴ i=e
Hence, the angle of minimum deviation is 37°.
Maximum Deviation …(B) and (C) Also, r = r1 (alternate angle, from figure)
The deviation is maximum when i = 90° or e = 90° that is at 194. (b) At angle of incidence iC i.e., critical angle for pair of
grazing incidence or grazing emergence. media in the denser medium corresponding to which angle
A of refraction in the rarer medium is 90°.
195. (d) So, for i > ic , total internal reflection takes place. Hence,
the ray gets reflected into the denser medium.
i=90° e
r1 r2

Rarer
Denser ay 180°–2i
r i
ent i > ic
id
Let i = 90° Inc Reflected ray
So, r1 must be at critical angle for pair (air glass) interface.
µ   1 From figure, angle of deviation = (180° − 2i ) clockwise
⇒ r1 = c = sin −1  r  = sin −1   = (180° + 2i ) anti-clockwise
µ d  µ 
µ 
 2 196. (b) As, critical angle = iC = sin − 1  r 
⇒ r1 = sin −1   = 42° …(C) µ d 
 3
 1.0  2
Also, r1 + r2 = A ⇒ r2 = A − r1 = 60° − 42° = 18° = sin − 1   = sin − 1  
sin r2 1  1.5  3
Using = ⇒ sin e = µ sin r2 = 1.5 sin 18°
sin e µ 197. (a) For total internal reflection, the light must pass from the
denser to rarer medium.
⇒ sin e = 0.463 ⇒ e = 28°
Q µ A > µ B , so material A is denser than material B.
Deviation = D max = i + e − A = 90°+28°−60° = 58° …(B)
So, light must travel from A to B.
Hence, the maximum deviation for the prism is 58°.
198. (a) For pair of media A and B, critical angle = C (let)
189. (d) A concave mirror forms real and virtual images, whose
µ Refractive index of rarer medium
magnification can be negative or positive depending upon ⇒ sin C = r =
the position of the object. If object is placed between focus µ d Refractive index of denser medium
and pole the image obtained will be virtual and its µ B 1/sin θ B
magnification will be positive. In all other cases, concave = =
µ A 1/sin θ A
mirror forms real images whose magnification will be
negative. A convex mirror always forms a virtual image  1 1
Qsin θ A = and sin θ B = 
whose magnification will always be positive.  µA µ B 
192. (d) Applying Snell’s law at interface AB sin θ A  sin θ A 
∴ sin C = ⇒ C = sin − 1  
sin i µ 2 sin θ B  sin θ B 
= …(i)
sin r µ 1
199. (c) Given, µ = 1.5
Again, applying Snell’s law at interface DC A
sin r1 µ 3
= …(ii)
sin e µ 2
P
i=60°
From figure, r = r1 (alternate angles) r1
Q
e
r2
sin r µ 3
⇒ = …(iii)
sin e µ 2
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 269

Angle of incidence = i = 60° 208. (a, c) Normal is perpendicular to the tangent to surface at the
Refracting angle of prism = A = 60° point of incidence i.e., the normal is along the radius, the
Angle of emergence = e = ? line joining the centre of curvature of the mirror to the point
Angle of deviation = D = ? of incidence.
Applying Snell’s law at P, 209. (a, b, d) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the
sin 60° 1.5 3 2 1 sine of angle of refraction is constant.
= ⇒ sin r1 = × = sin i
sin r1 1 2 3 3 hence = n21 …(i)
sin r
 −1  1  
⇒ r1 ≈ 35° 16 ′ sin   = 35° 16 ′ where, n21 is a constant, called the refractive index of the
 3  medium 2 w.r.t. the medium 1. Eq. (i) is the well known
Using r1 + r2 = A , we get, Snell’s law of refraction and on depends on temperature.
r2 = 60° − 35°16 ′ = 24 ° 44 ′ 210. (a, b, d) Refractive index depends on optical densities of
sin r2 1 mediums 1 and 2, it also depends on temperature (or optical
At point Q, = density varies with temperature), but it is independent of
sin e 1.5
angle of incidence. Refractive index for a pair of medium is
⇒ sin e = 1.5 sin 24 ° 44 ′ (sin 24 ° 44 ′ = 0.42)
same for all angle of incidence.
⇒ sin e = 0.63 ⇒ e = 39°
211. (a, b, d) If n21 is the refractive index of medium 2 with
200. (a)Q A+D=i+e
respect to medium 1 and n12 the refractive index of medium
⇒ D = i + e − A = 60° + 39° − 60° 1 with respect to medium 2, then it should be clear that
(Using, e = 39° from above solution) 1
= 39° n12 =
n21
201. (a) From the principle of reversibility of path it can be It also follows that if n32 is the refractive index of medium
verified that, if i and e are interchanged, deviation remains 3 with respect to medium 2, then n32 = n31 × n12 , where, n31
same. Hence, same deviation is obtained for angle of is the refractive index of medium III with respect to medium I.
incidence 60° and 39°. n
n21 = 2 a
202. (d) The eyepiece lens of an astronomical telescope should n1 a
have least possible focal length and small aperture. Hence,
212. (a,b) I. Convex lens is a converging lens provided refractive
we shall use lens L4 as the eyepiece whose focal length
1 index of the material of the lens is greater than the
= m = 5 cm and aperture is 0.02 m. surrounding medium in which the lens is kept.
20
1 1 1
203. (a) The objective lens of an astronomical telescope should From Lens makers formula, = (µ 2 − 1)  − 
have highest possible focal length as well as aperture. Hence, f  R1 R2 
we shall select L1 of power 1 D (or focal length 1m) and Refracting index of lens varies inversely with the
aperture 0.1 m. wavelength of light used.
204. (d) Here, fo = 20 m and fe = 2 cm = 0.02 m. II. For virtual object, image is real for convex lens.
In normal adjustment, length of telescope take
L = fo + fe = 20.02 m
f 20
Magnification = o = = 1000 I
fe 0. 02 O
(Virtual object)
The image formed in inverted with respect to the object. Real image
1 1 1 4
205. (c) Critical angle i.e., µ = = = = .
sin C sin 48.6 0.75 3 III. For object (real) between and O, image is
virtual.
206. (d) Light cannot undergoes total internal reflection when it is
travelling from air to water, i. e.,from rarer to denser medium. 213. (a, d) Final image is formed at infinity if the combined focal
207. (a) From total internal reflection of light, length of the two lenses (in contact) becomes 30 cm.
1 1 1
As we know that, µ =
1
⇒ sin C =
1 Thus, from Lens maker’s formula, = +
sin C µ 30 20 f
2 i.e. when another concave lens of focal length 60 cm is kept
As, sin C = 1 / ( 3/ 2 ) = = 0.6667 in contact with the first lens. Similarly, let µ be the
3 refractive index of a liquid in which focal length of the
C = sin −1 (0.6667) = 41.8° given lens becomes 30 cm. Then,
270 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

1 3   1 1 1 1 1 4+5 9
=  − 1  −  …(i) ⇒ = + = =
20  2   R1 R2  v 15 12 60 60
Distance of image from the mirror v = 6.7 cm
1  3/ 2   1 1
= − 1  −  …(ii) The positive sign shows that the image is formed behind the
30  µ   R1 R2  mirror. Using the formula of magnification.
9 v I − 6.7 I
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), µ = m= − = ⇒ =
8 u O − 12 4.5
214. (a, b) In vacuum, the speed of light is independent of Size of images I = 2.5 cm
wavelength. Thus, vacuum (or air approximately) is a As I is positive, so image is erect and virtual
non-dispersive medium in which all colours travel with the Magnification m is given by
same speed. I 2.5 25 5
m= = = =
215. (a, b, c) In compound microscope objective lens forms a O 4.5 45 9
real, inverted, magnified image of the object. This serves as
the object for the second lens, the eyepiece, which functions 218. (c) When tank is filled with water:
essentially like a simple microscope or magnifier, produces Real depth = 12.5 cm
the final image, which is enlarged and virtual. The first Apparent depth = 9.4 cm
inverted image is thus meet (at or within) the focal plane of Refractive index of water is
the eyepiece, at a distance appropriate for final image Real depth
a
µw = = 1.32
formation at infinity, or a little closer for image formation at Apparent depth
the near point.
When tank is filled with liquid
Clearly, the final image is inverted with respect to the
original object. Real depth = 12.5 cm
Real depth
216. (b) Here, h1 = 2.5 cm, u = − 27 cm, R = −36 cm Refractive index of liquid =
R Apparent depth
f = = −18 cm 12.5
2 or 1.63 =
(Q R is − ve for a concave mirror) Apparent depth
By mirror formula, 12.5
1 1 1 1 1 −3 + 2 1 Apparent depth with liquid = cm = 7.669 cm ~ 7.7 cm
= − = + = =− 163
.
v f u −18 27 54 54 Distance through which the microscope has to be moved
or v = −54 cm = 9.4 − 7.7 = 1.7 cm
Thus the screen should be placed at 54 cm from the mirror 219. (b) Use relation between critical angle and refractive index.
on the same side as the object. When light is incident at an angle of incidence equal to the
Magnification, critical angle. The angle of refraction is 90° and light will
h v −54 pass through the interface of the two media.
m= 2 = − = − = −2
h1 u −27
Size of image, C A B
h2 = −2 × 2.5 = − 5 cm
Negative sign shows that the image is real and inverted.
217. (a) Given, focal length of convex mirror f = + 15 cm (Focal ic
ic ic
ic
length of convex mirror is taken as positive)
Distance of object u = − 12 cm
Size of object O = 4.5 cm O
Let the bulb is placed at point O
AB = AC = r
If the light falls at an angle of incidence equal to critical
F C angle iC , then only a circular area is formed because if angle
of incidence is less than the critical angle it will refract into
air and when angle of incidence is greater than critical angle
then it will be reflected back in water.
Using the mirror formula,
The source of light is 80 cm below the surface of water i.e.,
1 1 1 1 1 1 AO = 80 cm, µ w = 133
= + ⇒ = − .
f v u 15 v 12
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 271

Using the formula for critical angle, 222. (a) Here, the point P is on the right side of lens acts as
1 1 vertical object.
sin iC = ⇒ sin iC = = 0.75
µw 133
. Given, distance of object from the lens u = 12 cm
iC = 48.6°
AB r 12 cm
In ∆OAB tan iC = or tan ic =
AO l P
r = l tan iC = 80 tan 48.6
O
r = 80 × 11345
. = 90.7 cm
Area of circular surface of water, through which light will Focal length of convex lens f = + 20 cm
emerge 1 1 1 1 1 1
A = π r2 Using Lens formula, − = ⇒ − =
v u f v 12 20
A = 314
. × ( 90.7 )2 = 25865.36 cm 2 1 1 1 3+ 5 8
= + = =
A = 2.58 m2 v 20 12 60 60
220. (a) When the prism is placed in air v = 7.5 cm
δ m = 40°, A = 60° Thus, the beam converges on the right side of lens at a
distance of 7.5 cm.
∴ Refractive index of the prism material is
A + δm 60°+40° 223. (d) Given, concave lens, f = − 21cm, u = − 14 cm
sin sin
2 2 sin 50° 0.7660 Object size O = 3 cm
a
µg = = = = = 1532
.
A 60° sin 30° 0.5000 Applying lens formula,
sin sin
2 2 uf ( − 14 ) × ( − 21) − 42
v= = = cm = − 8.4 cm
When the prism is placed in water u + f ( − 14 ) + ( − 21) 5
A + δm
′ 60° + δ ′m Using the formula of magnification of lens
sin a
µ g sin
ω 2 2 v I
µg = or a = m = = ,where I = height of image
A µ ω
60 ° u O
sin sin
2 2 ( − 8.4) I
60°+ δ ′m ⇒ = ⇒ I = 1.8 cm
sin − 1.4 +3
1.532
or = 2 v − 8.4
1.33 sin 30° Magnification of a lens, M = = = 0.6
u −1.4
60° + δ m
′ 1.532
or sin = × 0.5 = 0.5759 224. (d) Since, v is negative and I is positive, the image is virtual
2 1.33
and erect and at a distance of 8.4 cm from the lens on the same
δ′
∴ 30°+ m = sin −1 (0.5759) = 35°10' or δ m ′ = 10°20' side as object and height of the image is 1.8 cm and hence,
2 diminished.
221. (c) Given, the refractive index of glass with respect to air If the object is moved further away from the lens between O
a
µ g = 155
. (Q both faces have same radius of curvature) and F, the image moves towards the lens (never beyond
focus). The size of image decreases gradually.
For double convex lenses R1 = R , R2 = − R
225. (a) Given, f1 = + 20 cm, f2 = + 30 cm
(For double convex lens, one radius is taken positive and
other negative) So, for equivalent focal length
Focal length of lens, f = + 20 cm 1
=
1
+
1
⇒
1
=
1
+
1
f f1 f2 f 20 30
20 × 30 600
∴ f = = = 12 cm
R1 R2 20 + 30 50
226. (b) Here, f0 = 0.8 cm, u0 = − 0.9 cm, v0 = ?
1 1 1
Using the Lens maker’s formula As − =
v0 u0 f0
1  1 1 1  1 1
= ( a µ g − 1) −  ⇒ = (155
. − 1) +  1 1 1 1 1 0.9 − 0.8 0.1
f  R1 R2  20  R R ∴ = + = − = =
v0 f0 u0 0.8 0.9 0.9 × 0.8 0.8 × 0.9
1 2
= 0.55 × ⇒ R = 0.55 × 2 × 20 = 22 cm 0.8 × 0.9
20 R or v0 = = 7.2 cm
0.1
Thus, the required radius of curvature is 22 cm.
272 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Now for the eye-piece, we have 231. (b) The minimum distance between an object and its real
fe = 2.5 cm, ve = − D = −25 cm, ue = ? image is 4 f .
1 1 1 1 1 −1 − 10 −11 D 3m
∴ = − =− − = = ∴ 4 f max = D or f max = = = 0.75 m
ue ve fe 25 2.5 25 25 4 4
25 232. (d) As shown in figure, let O and I be the positions of object
or ue = − = − 2.27 cm
11 and image respectively and L1 and L2 be the two conjugate
Hence the separation between the to lenses positions of the lens.
L1 L2
= v0 + | ue | = 7.2 + 2.27 = 9.47 cm
Magnifying power,
v  D  7.2  25  O I
m = m0 × me = 0 1 +  = 1 +  = 88
| v0 |  fe  0.9  2.5
x 20 cm x
227. (a) Given, focal length of objective lens fo = 144 cm.
Obviously, x + 20 + x = 90 cm or x = 35 cm
Focal length of eye-piece fe = 6 cm When the lens is in position L1 , we have
Magnifying power of the telescope in normal adjustment u = − x = −35 cm, v = 20 + x = 20 + 35 = 55 cm
(i.e., when the final image is formed at ∞) 1 1 1 1 1 7 + 11 18
f 144 ∴ = − = + = =
m= − o = − = − 24 f v u 55 35 385 385
fe 6 385
or f = = 21.4 cm
∴ Separation between lenses L = fo + fe = 144 + 6 = 150 18
cm
233. (b) Angle of prism, A = 60°
228. (d) Here, f0 = 15 cm, fe = 1.0 cm = 0.01 m Refractive index of prism µ = 1.524
f 15
Angular magnification, m = 0 = = 1500 Let i be the angle of incidence. The critical angle is ic
fe 0.01 because it just suffers total internal refraction, so we use
critical angle,
229. (c) Let d be the diameter of the image in metres. Then angle
1 1
subtended by the moon will be sin iC = = = 0.6561 ⇒ iC = 41°
µ 1524.
Diameter of moon 3.48 × 106
α= =
Radius of lunar orbit 3.48 × 108 A

Angle subtended by the image formed by the objective will 60°

also be equal to α and is given by
Diameter of image of moon d i1
α= = r1 ic
f0 15
d 3.48 × 106
∴ = B C
15 3.8 × 108
Diameter of image of moon, For a prism r1 + r2 = A here r2 = ic
3.48 × 106 × 15 ∴ r1 + iC = A ⇒ r1 + 41° = 60° ⇒ r1 = 19°
d= sin i1
3.8 × 108 Using the formula, µ =
sin r1
3.48 × 15 × 10–2
= = 13.73 cm or sin i1 = 1524
. sin 19° = 1524
. × 0.3256
3.8
or i1 = sin −1 ( 0.4962 )
230. (b) Given, thickness of glass slab (real depth) = 15 cm
⇒ i1 = 29° 75′
Refractive index of glass a µ g with respect to air = 15
.
Thus, the angle should be 29°75′.
Real depth 15
Using the formula a µ g = = 234. (a) To see objects at infinity, the eye uses its least
Apparent depth a µ g converging power = 40 + 20 = 60 dioptres
15 ∴ Approximate distance between the retina and the cornea
Apparent depth of pin y = = 10 cm eyelens
1.5
Distance by which the pin appears to be raised = focal length of the eyelens
= Real depth − Apparent depth= 15 − 10 = 5 cm 100 100 5
= = = cm
The answer does not depend on the location of the slab. P 60 3
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 273

To focus an object at the near point on the retina, we have 239. (b) (i) Here, area of each square (or object) = 1 mm2
5
u = −25 cm, v = cm u = − 9 cm, f = +10 cm
3
1 1 1
∴ Focal length f should be given by As − =
v u f
1 1 1 3 1 15 + 1 16 25
= − = + = = ⇒ f = cm 1 1 1 1 1 9 − 10 1
f v u 5 25 25 25 16 ∴ = + = − = =−
v f u 10 9 90 90
Corresponding converging power = 64 D.
Power of the eye-lens = 64 − 40 = 24 D or v = − 90 cm
Thus the range of accommodation of the eyelens is roughly Magnitude of magnification is
20 to 24 D. v 90
m= = = 10
235. (b) Initially power of spectacles = − 1D, i.e., focal length is |u | 9
( − 100 ) cm. It means that far point of the person is 100 cm Area of each square in the virtual image
and near point is normal i.e. 25 cm. Due to the old age the = (10 )2 × 1 = 100 mm2 = 1cm2
person use + 2 D spectacles i.e., focal length f = 50 cm
D 25
So, u = − 25 cm and f = 50 cm (ii) Magnifying power, M = = = 2.8
|u | 9
1 1 1
From the lens formula, = + 240. (a) We assume the microscope in common usage, i.e., the
50 v 25
1 1 1 1− 2 1 final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision,
⇒ = − = =− ⇒ v = −50cm D = 25 cm, fe = 5 cm
v 50 25 50 50
The near point is a 50 cm. ∴ Angular magnification of the eye piece is
D 25
236. (c) This defect is called astigmatism. It arises because the me = 1 + = 1+ =6
fe 5
curvature of the cornea plus eyelens refracting system is not
the same in different planes. The eyelens is usually As total magnification, m = me × m0
spherical, ∴ Angular magnification of the objective is
i.e., has the same curvature in different planes but the cornea m 30
is not spherical in case of an astigmatic eye. The defect can m0 = = =5
me 6
be corrected by using a cylindrical lens with its axis along
the vertical. As real image is formed by the objective, therefore,
237. (a) For the closest distance, v = −25 cm, f = 5 cm, u = ? v
m0 = 0 = −5
v0
1 1 1
As − = or v0 = − 5 u0 ⇒ f0 = 1.25 cm
v u f
1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 −1 − 5 −6 Now, − =
∴ = − = − = = v0 u0 f0
u v f −25 5 25 25
1 1 1 −6 1
25 or − = or =
or u=− cm = − 4.2 cm −5u0 u0 125
. 5u0 125
.
6
6 × 1.25
This is the closest distance at which the man can read the book. or u0 = − = − 1.5 cm
For the farthest image 5
v = ∞, f = 5 cm, u = ? Thus, the object should be held at 1.5 cm in front of the
objective lens.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
∴ = − = − = 0− = − Also v0 = −5 u0 = − 5 × ( −1.5 ) = 7.5 cm
u v f ∞ 5 5 5
1 1 1
u = −5 cm As − =
ve ue fe
This is the farthest distance at which the man can read the
1 1 1 1 1
book. ∴ = − = − (Q ve = − D = −25cm )
ue ve fe − 25 5
238. (c) Maximum angular magnification is
−1 − 5 6
d 25 = =−
= =6 25 25
u min 25 / 6
−25
Minimum angular magnification is ue = = − 4.17 cm
6
D 25
= =5 ∴ Separation between the objective and the eyepiece
u max 5
= | ue | + | v0 | = 4.17 + 7.5 = 11.67 cm
274 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

241. (d) Here, f0 = 140 cm and fe = 5 cm Distance measured in second case

(i) In normal adjustment, magnifying power, = Focal length of the convex lens
f 140 i.e., f1 = + 30 cm
m= 0 = = 28 The focal length f2 of the plano-concave lens is given by
fe 5
1 1 1 1 1 1
(ii) When the final image is formed at the least distance of + = or = −
f1 f2 F f2 F f1
distinct vision (25 cm)
f  f  1 1 2− 3 1
m = 0 1 + e  = − ⇒ = =−
fe  D 45 30 90 90
∴ f2 = − 90 cm
140  5
= 1 +  = 28 × 1.2 = 33.6 Now for the equiconvex lens, we have
5  25
R1 = R , R2 = − R , f = 30 cm, µ = 1.5
242. (c) (i) Angle subtended by the 100 m tall tower at 3 km Using lens maker’s formula
away is
1 1 1 1  1 1
100 1 = ( µ − 1)  −  or = (1.5 − 1)  + 
α ≈ tan α = = rad f  R1 R2  30 R R
3 × 103 30
1 2
Let h be the height of the image of tower formed by the = 0.5 ×
objective. Then angle subtended by the image produced 30 R
by the objective will also be equal to α and is given by or R = 0.5 × 2 × 30 cm = 30 cm
α=
h
=
h For plano-convex lens, f = −90 cm
f0 140 For concave surface, R1 = − R = −30 cm
h 1 140 14 For plane surface, R2 = ∞
∴ = or h = = = 4.67 cm
140 30 30 3 1 1 1
As = (µ − 1)  − 
(ii) Magnification produced by the eyepiece is  1
f R R 2
D 25
me = 1 + = 1+ =6 1  1 1 −30 1
fe 5 ∴ = (µ − 1)  −  or µ − 1 = =+
− 90  −30 ∞  −90 3
14
∴ Height of the final image = h × me = × 6 = 28 cm 1
3 or µ = 1 + = 1.33
3
243. (a) Given, distance between objective mirror and another
245. (a) A
mirror d = 20 mm
Radius of curvature of objective mirror = R1 = 220 mm
220
∴ Focal length of objective mirror, f1 = = 110 mm
2 i=θ
Radius of curvature of small mirror = R2 = 140 mm
140 B C
∴ Focal length of small mirror, f2 = = 70 mm
2 Given, i = θ ; A = 5° ; µ = 1.5
The image of an object placed at infinity, formed by the For ray emerging normally from AC, e = 0
objective mirror will act as a virtual object for small mirror. From relation, A + D = i + e, we have
So, the object distance for small mirror u = f1 − d ⇒ 5° + D = θ + 0 ⇒ i = θ = 5° + D
i.e., u = 110 − 20 = 90 mm Also, for small angles, D = (µ − 1) A = 0.5 x = 2.5°
Using mirror formula So, i = θ = 5° + 2.5° = 7.5°
1 1 1 1 1 9− 7 2 246. (d) Since, v ∝ λ , the light of red colour is of highest
= − = − = =
v f2 u 70 90 630 630 wavelength and therefore of highest speed. Therefore, after
v = 315 mm or v = 315 . cm travelling through the slab, the red colour emerge first.
Thus, the final image is formed at 315 mm away from small 247. (c) When an object approaches a convergent lens from the left
mirror. of the lens with a uniform speed of 5 ms −1 , the image moves
244. (d) Distance of the needle from the lens in the first case away from the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.
= Focal length F of the cmbination of the convex lens and 248. (b) A passenger in an aeroplane may see a primary and a
planoconcave lens formed by the liquid secondary rainbow like concentric circles.
i.e., f = 45 cm
 CHAPTER 9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 275

249. (c) Here, for yellow light r= 90° when i = C . As i is kept Applying Snell’s law,
sin i 1
same, C must be smaller for total internal reflection from = µ 2 = negative
1 sin r
µ= will be smaller, when µ is larger out of given
sin C sin i positive
⇒ sin r = 1 = = negative
colours, µ is largest for blue colour critical angle will be µ 2 negative
smallest for blue colour. Therefore, blue light would Since, sin r is negative, it means r must be on other side of
undergo total internal reflection. normal such that, total deviation of ray is, D = i + r.
250. (c) Here, µ =1. 5 255. (d) Here, an extended object lies immersed in water
If object lies on plane side contained in a plane trough. When seen from close to the
edge of the trough, the object looks distorted on an account
O of refraction of light from denser to rarer medium.
Therefore, apparent depths of the points close to the edge
and nearer to the surface of water is more compared to
(a) points away from the edge.
R1 = ∞ , R2 = − 20 cm Further, the angle subtended by the image of the object at the
eye is smaller than the actual angle subtended by the object in
1  1 1  1 1 1
= (µ − 1)  −  = (1. 5 − 1)  +  = air. Again,some of the points of the object far away from the
f  R1 R2   ∞ 20 40 edge may not be visible because of total internal reflection.
⇒ f = + 40 cm 256. (d) Here, in the adjacent figure, a pin is hold at L, mid-point
The lens behaves as convex. of AB. When seen from face AD (as long as i < C) image of
If object lies on its convex side R1 = 20cm, R2 = ∞. L appears to be at L′ closer to A.
L′ L
A B
O

i<C

(b) r
i >C
1  1 1  1 1 1 TIR
= (µ − 1)  −  = (1. 5 − 1)  −  = ⇒
f′  R1 R2   20 ∞  40 C D

f ′ = 40 cm
1 1
Thus, lens behaves as convex. From sin C = = = 0.625,sin −1 ( 0. 625 ) = 38.7
µ 1. 6
251. (b) The phenomenon involved in the reflection of
So, when angle of incidence becomes greater than
radiowaves by ionosphere is similar to total internal
C ( = 38.7° ) the rays starting from L will undergo total
reflection of light in as during a mirage (angle of incidence
internal reflection and pin shall not be seen at all.
> critical angle)
257. (a, b) A magnifying glass is used, as the object to be viewed
252. (b) In the given figure PQ is a ray of light passing through
can be brought closer to the eye than the normal near point.
focus and falling on the surface of a concave mirror. On
This results in a larger angle to be subtended by the object at
reflection from the mirror, the ray becomes parallel to
the eye and hence, viewed in greater detail. Moreover, the
principal axis of the mirror.
formation of a virtual erect and enlarged image, takes place.
253. (b) Ray number 2 follows the correct path according to the
258. (c) The least distance of distinct vision of an average person
laws of refraction.
(i.e., D) is 25 cm, in order to view an object with
Since, µ turpentine > µ water > µ air magnification 10.
So, as light travels from air to turpentine (i.e. from rarer to Here, v = D = 25 cm and u = f
denser medium), it bends towards the normal after refraction. D
Again when it strikes the turpentine water interface it must But the magnification m = v / u = D / f m =
f
bend away from the normal as it travels from denser to rare
D 25 1
medium. ⇒ f = = = 2.5 = 0.025 m ⇒ P = = 40 D
m 10 0.025
254. (a) For materials with negative refractive index, the
This is the required power of lens.
deviation produce after refraction is D = ( i + r ) i. e., light
bends such that, it is on other side of normal. 259. (a) Let the apparent depth be O1 for the object seen from m2 ,
For negative refractive index i.e., µ 2 is negative µ2 h
then O1 =
(refractive index of medium 2 w.r.t. medium 1 = 1µ 2 ) µ1 3
276 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Since, apparent depth = real depth/refractive index, µ. 1 1 1

Using lens equation, − =
Since, the image formed by Medium 1, O2 act as an object v u f
for Medium 2.
uf ( − 50 ) × ( + 25 ) − 1250
If seen from µ 3 , the apparent depth is O2 . ⇒ v= = = = + 50 cm
u+ f − 50 + 25 − 25
Similarly, the image formed by Medium 2, O2 act as an
v + 50
object for Medium 3 Also, m = = = −1
u − 50
µ3 h  µ 3  h µ 2h h  µ 3 µ 2 
O2 =  + O1  =  +  =  + 

µ2 3  µ 2  3 µ 1 3 3  µ 2 µ 1  Thus, the image of A would have been formed at 50 cm
from the pole and 0.5 cm below principal axis.
If seen from outside, the apparent height is
So, coordinates of image ≡ ( + 50 cm, − 1 cm)
1 h  1 h h µ 3 µ 3 
O3 =  + O2  = +  +  262. (a) Let d be the diameter of the disc. The spot shall be
µ3  3  µ 3  3 3  µ 2 µ 1   invisible if the incident rays from the dot at O to the surface
at d / 2 at the critical angle.
h 1 1 1
=  + +  Let i be the angle of incidence.
3  µ1 µ 2 µ 3 
Using relationship between refractive index and critical angle,
This is the required expression of apparent depth. 1
then, sin t =
µ
260. (c) The relationship between refractive index, prism angle A Using geometry and trigonometry.
and angle of minimum deviation is given by d/2 d
Now, = tan i ⇒ = h tan i = h ( µ 2 − 1 )−1
 ( A + Dm ) h 2
sin  
µ=  2
Here, Dm = A 2h
∴ d=
 A
sin   µ2 −1
 2
This is the required expression of d.
sin A
∴ µ= 263. (a) (i) Let the power at the far point be P f for the normal
sin A / 2
relaxed eye of an average person. The required power
A A
2sin cos 1 1 1
On solving, we have = 2 2 = 2cos A Pf = = + = 60 D
A 2 f 0.1 0.02
sin
2 By the corrective lens the object distance at the far point is ∞.
A A The power required is
2sin cos
sin A 2 2 = 2cos A 1 1 1
∴ µ= = P f′ = = + = 50 D
sin
A
sin
A 2 f ′ ∞ 0.02
2 2 So for eye + lens system, we have the sum of the eye and
For the given value of refractive index, that of the glasses Pg
we have, ∴ P f′ = P f + Pg
A 3 A ∴ Pg = −10 D
∴ cos = or = 30°
2 2 2 (ii) His power of accommodation is 4 D for the normal eye.
∴ A = 60° Let the power of the normal eye for near vision be Pn .
This is the required value of prism angle. Then 4 = Pn − P f or Pn = 64 D
261. (a) Given, convex lens ( f = + 25 cm ). Since the lens is cut Let his near point be xn , then
along XX ′ (0.5 cm) above principal axis PP′, let us imagine 1
+
1
= 64 or
1
+ 50 = 64 ⇒
1
=14
the lens as if there is no cut. The point object placed at xn 0.02 xn xn
A ( − 50, 0 ) be treated as linear object AB. Also, u = − 50 cm. 1
∴ xn = = 0.07 m
Cut out along 14
Object (0, 0) this plane
(iii) With glasses Pn′ = P f′ + 4 = 54
A
5 cm 1 1 1 1
P B O P′ 54 = + = + 50 ⇒ =4
Principal axis xn′ 0.02 xn′ xn′
1
∴ xn′ = = 0.25 m
4
 C H A P T E R

10
Wave Optics
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. The locus of all those particles which are vibrating in 10. Conditions for Destructive Interference
the same phase at any instant is called wavefront. Assuming initial phase difference = 0
Thus, wavefront is a surface having same phase of
Necessary conditions for interference of waves
vibrating particles at any instant at every point on it.
(i) phase difference = ( 2n − 1) π, where, n = 1, 2, 3, K
For point source, shape of wavefront is spherical.
λ
2. Phase speed is the speed with which wavefront moves (ii) path difference = ( 2n − 1) , where, n = 1, 2, 3, K
2
and it is equal to wave speed.
11. Two waves of amplitudes a1 and a 2 interfere at a point
Each point on any waefront acts as independent where phase difference is φ, then resultant amplitude is
source which emits spherical wave. given by
3. Huygens’ principle is essentially a geometrical A 2 = a12 + a 22 + 2a1a 2 cos φ
construction which gives the shape of the wavefront at
any time, allows us to determine the shape of the For constructive interference, Amax = (a1 + a 2 )2
wavefront at a later time. For destructive interference, Amin = (a1 − a 2 )2
4. The laws of reflection and refraction can be verified Also, resultant intensity, I = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1I 2 cos φ
using Huygens’ principle. 12. When I1 = I 2 = I 0
5. Wavelength is inversely proportional to refractive index Then, resultant intensity,
(µ) of the medium
I = I 0 + I 0 + 2I 0 cos φ = 2I 0 (1 + cos φ )
λ
i.e., λ′ =  φ
µ I = 4I 0 cos 2  
 2
6. Coherent sources of light are the sources which emit 13. In Young’s double slit experiment,
light waves of same frequency, same wavelength and M
have a constant initial phase difference. P
7. Two such sources of light, which do not emit light y
S1
waves with a constant phase difference are called
incoherent sources. S d O
8. The phenomenon of redistribution of energy in the
region of superposition of waves is called interference. S2 D
The points of maximum intensity in the regions of
superposition of waves are said to be in constructive N
interference whereas the points of minimum intensity
For point P, ∆x = d sin θ = d tan θ = dy /D
are said to be in destructive interference.
Dλ
9. Conditions for Constructive Interference If initial (i) Fringe width of bright and dark fringe, β =
d
phase difference is zero, then the interference waves
where, λ = wavelength of wave
must have
(i) phase difference = 2n π, where, n = 0, 1, 2, 3, K D = distance between slit and screen
(ii) path difference = nλ, where, n = 0, 1, 2, 3, K
278 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

and d = distance between two slits (vi) Angular width of central maxima = 2λ /d
β λ (vii) Linear width of central maxima = 2Dλ /d
Angular fringe width, θ = =
D d λ
(viii) Angular width of secondary maxima or minima =
(ii) Separation of nth order bright fringe from central fringe d
Dnλ Dλ
yn = , n = 1, 2, 3, K (ix) Linear width of secondary maxima or minima =
d d
(iii) Separation of nth order dark fringe from central fringe (x) Intensity of central maxima is maximum and
Dλ intensity of secondary maxima decreases with the
yn = ( 2n − 1) , n = 1, 2, 3, K increase of their order. The diffraction pattern is
2d
graphically as shown below.
(iv) Angular position of nth order
y nλ I0 Intensity
(a) Bright fringe = n =
D d
yn λ
(b) Dark fringe = = ( 2n − 1) , where n = 1, 2, 3, K
D d
14. The phenomenon of bending of light around the sharp
corners and the spreading of light within the geometrical
shadow of the opaque obstacles is called diffraction of light.
–3λ –2λ λ 0 λ 2λ 3λ
Path difference (d sinθ)
16. Resolving Power of Optical Instruments Resolving
Source S Screen power of an optical instrument is the ability of the
instrument to produce distinctly separate images of two
close objects.
Slit
1 D
15. Diffraction due to a Single Slit of Width (d) A parallel (i) Resolving power of a telescope = =
dθ 1.22λ
beam of light with a plane wavefrontWW ′ is made to fall 1 2 µ sin β
on a single slit AB. Width of the slit is of the order of (ii) Resolving power of microscope = =
∆d 1.22λ
wavelength of light, therefore, diffraction occurs on passing
through the slit. As shown in the diagram given below. 17. Fresnel’s Distance The distance at which diffraction
d2
spread equal to the size of aperture, Z F = .
Slit λ
W θ P The ray optics is applicable, when Z < Z F .
θ y 18. The phenomenon of restricting the vibrations of light in
a particular direction, perpendicular to the direction of
d O wave motion is called polarisation of light.
C
19. Malus’ Law According to law of Malus’
N i.e. I ∝ cos 2 θ ⇒ I = I 0 cos 2 θ
θ
W′ B This rule is also called cosine squared rule.
wavefront
D where, I 0 = intensity of plane polarised light
Screen I = intensity of transmitted light from the analyser and
(i) nth order secondary minima is obtained when θ = angle between axis of the polariser and the analyser.
d sin θ = nλ , where, n = 1, 2, 3,... 20. The angle of incidence at which the reflected light is
completely plane polarised is called polarising angle
(ii) nth order secondary maxima is obtained when
or Brewster’s angle (iB ).
λ
d sin θ = ( 2n + 1) , where, n = 0, 1, 2, 3,... 21. Brewster’s Law According to this law, when
2
unpolarised light is incident at polarising angle, iB on
(iii) Angular separation for nth minima, an interface separation air from a medium of refractive
nλ index µ, then the reflected light is plane polarised
θn = , where, n = 1, 2, 3,...
d (perpendicular to the plane of incidence), provided,
(iv) Linear separation of nth secondary minima, µ = tan iB
Dnλ
yn = where, iB = Brewster’s angle and µ = refractive index
d of denser medium.
(v) Angular position of nth order secondary maxima, At polarising angle, iB + r = 90°,
λ i.e. reflected plane polarised light is at right angle from
θn = ( 2n + 1)
2d refracted light.
 Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text
Topic 1
Huygens’ Principle
1. In geometrical optics, a ray of light is defined as 5. Which one of the following phenomena is not
(a) path of propagation of light explained by Huygens’ construction of wavefront?
(b) path of propagation of shadows (a) Refraction (b) Reflection
(c) direction of formation of image (c) Diffraction (d) Origin of spectra
(d) path of propagation of energy for λ → 0
6. The direction of wavefront of a wave with the wave
2. For a ray of light, which of the following statement motion is
holds true? (a) parallel (b) perpendicular
(a) A ray is defined as the path of energy propagation (c) opposite (d) at an angle of θ
(b) The wavelength for a ray of light in geometrical optics
is assumed to be negligible, standing to zero
7. Ray diverging from a point source on a wavefront are
(c) A ray of light travels in a straight line (a) cylindrical (b) spherical (c) plane (d) cubical
(d) All of the above 8. If a source is at infinity, then wavefronts reaching to
3. Which of the given phenomenon is based on the fact observer are
that light waves are transverse electromagnetic waves? (a) cylindrical (b) spherical (c) plane (d) conical
(a) Diffraction (b) Interference 9. In Huygens’ wave theory, the locus of all points in
(c) Polarisation (d) All of these the same state of vibration is called
4. Huygens’ principle of secondary wavelets may be (a) a half period zone (b) oscillator
used to (c) a wavefronts (d) a ray
(a) find the velocity of light in vacuum 10. According to Huygens’ principle, each point of the
(b) explain the particle’s behaviour of light wavefront is the source of
(c) find the new position of a wavefront (a) secondary disturbance (b) primary disturbance
(d) explain photoelectric effect (c) third disturbance (d) fourth disturbance

Topic 2
Refraction and Reflection of Plane
11. If AB is incident wavefront. Then, refracted wavefront is 13. In given figure, light passes from denser medium 1
to rare medium 2.
A
Incident wavefront

Biconvex
B lens Medium 1 B
v1τ

A′ A′ A′ A′ v1
i
A
f C
(a) (b) (c) (d) Medium 2 r
r
v2τ
B′ B′ B′ B′ v2

12. When light is refracted into a denser medium

(a) its wavelength and frequency both increases v1 > v2
Refracted wavefront
(b) its wavelength increases but frequency remains unchanged
E
(c) its wavelength decreases but frequency remains the same
(d) its wavelength and frequency both decreases
280 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

When i > ic (critical angle of incidence). Then, 18. Which of the colours of light travels fastest in prism
wavefronts EC is made up of glass?
(a) formed further deep in medium 2 (a) Red
(b) formed closer to surface line AC (b) Violet
(c) formed perpendicular to AC (c) Blue
(d) formed in medium 1 (on same side of AB) (d) Speed of light in glass is independent of the colour of
light
14. If a source of light is moving away from a stationary
observer, then the frequency of light wave appears to 19. A planet moves with respect to us so that light of 475 nm
change because of is observed at 475.6 nm. The speed of the planet is
(a) Doppler's effect (b) interference (a) 206 kms −1 (b) 378 kms −1
(c) diffraction (d) None of these (c) 108 kms −1 (d) 100 kms −1
15. In the context of Doppler effect in light, the term red
20. The earth is moving towards a fixed star with a
shift signifies
(a) decrease in frequency (b) increase in frequency
velocity of 50 kms −1 . An observer on the earth
(c) decrease in intensity (d) increase in intensity observes a shift of 0.50Å in the wavelength of light
coming from the star. The actual wavelength of light
16. If source and observer are moving towards each other emitted by the star is
with a velocity, v radial and c indicates velocity of (a) 3000 Å (b) 2400 Å (c) 6000 Å (d) 5800 Å
light, then fractional change in frequency of light due
to Doppler’s effect will be 21. The wavelength of spectral line coming from a distant
∆ν v radial ∆ν − v radial star shift from 400 nm to 400.1 nm. The velocity of
(a) = (b) =
ν c ν c the star relative to earth is
∆ν c ∆ν −c (a) 75 kms −1 (b) 100 kms −1 (c) 50 kms −1 (d) 200 kms −1
(c) = (d) =
ν v radial ν v radial
22. The source of light is moving towards observer with
17. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light relative velocity of 3 kms −1 . The fractional change in
in glass is frequency of light observed is
(a) 3 × 108 ms −1 (b) 2 × 108 ms −1 (a) 3 × 10−3 (b) 3 × 10−5
−1
8
(c) 1× 10 ms (d) 4 × 108 ms −1 (c) 10−5 (d) None of these

Topic 3
Coherent and Incoherent Addition of Waves
23. Suppose displacement produced at some point P by a 26. Two waves interfere at point P having path difference
wave is y1 = a cos ωt and by another wave is 1.5λ between them. The interference is
y2 = a cos ωt. Let I 0 represents intensity produced by (a) constructive
each one of individual wave, then resultant intensity (b) destructive
due to overlapping of both waves is (c) no interference pattern
I0 (d) None of the above
(a) I 0 (b) 2I 0 (c) (d) 4 I 0
2
27. Two coherent point sources S 1 and S 2 vibrating in
24. Interference can be observed in phase emit light of wavelength λ. The separation
(a) only longitudinal waves between the sources is 2λ. The smallest distance from
(b) only transverse waves S 2 on a line passing through S 2 and perpendicular to
(c) only electromagnetic waves S 1 S 2 , where minimum of intensity occurs, is
(d) All of the above
7λ 15λ
25. Two light waves interfere constructively at a point P. (a) (b)
12 4
The total phase difference between the two waves at
P may be λ 3λ
(c) (d)
(a) 0 (b) 2π (c) 4π (d) All of these 2 2
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 281

28. Two identical coherent sources placed on a diameter 35. The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities of
of a circle of radius R at separation x ( << R ) two sources is 4 : 1. The ratio of their amplitudes is
symmetrically about the centre of the circle. The (a) 1 : 81 (b) 3 : 1
sources of points on the circle with maximum (c) 1 : 9 (d) 1 : 16
intensity is ( x =5 λ ).
36. When two coherent monochromatic beams of
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 24 (d) 26
intensity I and 9I interference, the possible maximum
29. Two sources S 1 and S 2 emitting light of wavelength and minimum intensities of the resulting beam are
600 nm are placed at a distance 1.0 × 10 −2 cm apart. A (a) 9I and I (b) 9I and 4I
detector can be moved on the line S 1 P which is (c) 16I and 4 I (d) 16 I and I
perpendicular to S 1 S 2 . The position of the farthest 37. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiments have
minimum detected is approximately width in ratio 1 : 25. The ratio of intensity at the
(a) 1.5 m (b) 1.0 m I
(c) 1.07 m (d) 1.03 m maxima and minima in the interference pattern max
I min
30. The phase difference between the two light waves is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
reaching at a point P is 100π. Their path difference is 9 121
(a) (b)
equal to 4 49
(a) 10 λ (b) 25λ (c) 50λ (d) 100λ 49 4
(c) (d)
31. In the phenomenon of interference, energy is 121 9
(a) destroyed at destructive interference 38. Two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n are
(b) created at constructive interference employed in an interference experiment. The ratio of
(c) conserved but it is redistributed the intensities of maxima and minima is
(d) same at all points  n + 1  n + 1
2
(a)   (b)  
32. Two distinct light bulbs as sources  n − 1  n − 1
(a) can produce an interference pattern 2
 n + 1  n + 1
(b) cannot produce a sustained interference pattern (c)   (d)  
(c) can produce an interference pattern, if they produce  n − 1  n − 1
light of same frequency
(d) can produce an interference pattern only when the light 39. Light from two coherent sources of the same
produced by them is monochromatic in nature amplitude A and wavelength λ interference. The
maximum intensity recorded is I 0 . If the sources were
33. Two light waves superimposing at the mid-point of incoherent, the intensity at the same point will be
the screen are coming from coherent sources of light (a) 4 I 0 (b) 2I 0 (c) I 0 (d) I 0 / 2
with phase difference π rad. Their amplitudes are
2 cm each. The resultant amplitude at the given point 40. If two incoherent sources each of intensity I 0 produce
will be wave which overlaps at some common point, then
(a) 8 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) zero resultant intensity obtained is
34. If two waves of equal intensities I 1 = I 2 = I 0 , meets at (a) 4 I 0
(b) 2 I 0
two locations P and Q with path difference ∆ 1 and ∆ 2 I
respectively, then the ratio of resultant intensity at (c) 0
2
I 
points P and Q,  P  will be (d) dependent on phase difference
 IQ  41. Two identical and independent sodium lamps act as
2  ∆1  (a) coherent sources (b) incoherent sources
cos  
λ cos 2 ∆1 (c) Either (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(a) (b)
∆  cos 2 ∆ 2 42. In an experiment with two coherent sources, the
cos 2  2 
 λ amplitude of the intensity variation is found to be 5%
 π∆  of the average intensity. The relative intensities of the
cos 2  1 
 λ  ∆1 light waves of interferring sources will be
(c) (d)
 π∆  ∆2 (a) 1600:1 (b) 900:1
cos 2  2 
 λ  (c) 40:1 (d) 400:1
Topic 4
Interference of Light Waves, Young’s Double Slit Experiment
43. In Young’s double slit experiment, if source S is 47. In Young’s double slit experiment, intensity at a
shifted by an angle φ as shown in figure. Then,  1
point is   th of the maximum intensity. Angular
central-bright fringe will be shifted by angle φ  4
towards position of this point is
A
(a) sin −1 ( λ / d ) (b) sin −1 ( λ / 2d )
S′ S1
(c) sin −1 ( λ / 3d ) (d) sin −1 ( λ / 4 d )
φ
S O
Q
48. The Young’s double slit experiment is done in a
S2
medium of refractive index 4/3. A light of 600 nm
B wavelength is falling on the slits having 0.45 mm
(a) end A of screen separation. The lower slit S 2 is covered by a thin
(b) end B of screen glass sheet of thickness 10.4 µm and refractive index
(c) does not shift at all 1.5. The interference pattern is observed on a screen
(d) Either end A and B depending on extra phase difference placed 1.5 m from the slits as shown in the figure.
caused by shifting of source Y
S1
44. White light may be considered to be mixture of wave
O
with wavelength ranging between 3000 Å and S S2
7800 Å. An oil film of thickness 10000 Å is examined
normally by the reflected light. If µ =1.4, then the
film appears bright for The location of the central bright fringes on the
(a) 4308 Å, 5091 Å, 6222 Å Y -axis is
(b) 4000 Å, 5091 Å, 5600 Å (a) 4.0 mm (b) 4.33 mm
(c) 4667 Å, 6222 Å, 7000 Å (c) 5 mm (d) 4.5 mm
(d) 4000 Å, 4667 Å, 5600 Å, 7000 Å
49. With reference of the above question, if 600 nm light
45. The figure shows a Young’s double-slit experiment is replaced by white light of range 400 nm to 700 nm,
where, P and Q are the slits. The path lengths PX and the wavelength of the light that form maxima exactly
QX are nλ and ( n +2) λ respectively, where n is a whole at point O are
number and λ is the wavelength. Taking, path difference (a) 650 nm and 400 nm (b) 650 nm and 433.33 nm
at the central fringe as zero, what is formed at X ? (c) 400 nm and 667 nm (d) 650 nm and 667 nm
nλ X 50. A parallel beam of sodium light of wavelength
6000 Å is incident on a thin glass plate of refractive
P 2)λ
(n+ index 1.5 such that the angle of refraction in the plate
is 60°. The smallest thickness of the plate which will
make it dark by reflection.
Q (a) 4000 Å (b) 4200 Å
(c) 1390 Å (d) 2220 Å
51. In Young’s double slit experiment two disturbance
(a) First bright (b) First dark
(c) Second bright (d) Second dark
arriving at a point P have phase difference of π / 2.
The intensity of this point expressed as a fraction of
46. In Young’s double slit experiment, a glass plate is maximum intensity I 0 is
placed before a slit which absorbs half the intensity of 3 1 4 3
(a) I 0 (b) I 0 (c) I0 (d) I0
light. Under this case 2 2 3 4
(a) the brightness of fringes decreases
(b) the fringe width decreases 52. Two monochromatic light wave of same amplitudes
(c) no fringes will be observed of 2A interferring at a point have a phase difference of
(d) the bright fringes become fainter and the dark fringes 60°. The intensity at that point will be proportional to
have finite light intensity (a) 5 A 2 (b) 12 A 2 (c) 7 A 2 (d) 19 A 2
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 283

53. The shape of the fringe obtained on the screen in case 61. In Young’s double slit experiment the two slits are d
of Young’s double slit experiment is distance apart. Interference pattern is observed on a
(a) a straight line (b) a parabola screen at a distance D from the slits. A dark fringe is
(c) a hyperbola (d) a circle observed on the screen directly opposite to one of the
slit. The wavelength of light is
54. In Young’s double slit experiment, distance between
D2 d2 D2 d2
slits in kept 1 mm and a screen is kept 1 m apart from (a) (b) (c) (d)
slits. If wavelength of light used is 500 nm, then 2d 2D d D
fringe spacing is 62. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 0.5 cm with blue and with green light of wavelengths 4360 Å
(c) 0.25 mm (d) 0.25 cm and 5460 Å, respectively. If x is the distance of 4th
maximum from the central one, then
55. If the 8th bright band due to light of wavelength λ 1
(a) x ( blue ) = x (green ) (b) x ( blue )> x (green )
coincides with 9th bright band from light of x ( blue ) 5460
wavelength λ 2 in Young’s double slit experiment, (c) x ( blue )< x (green ) (d) =
x (green ) 4360
then the possible wavelengths of visible light are
(a) 400 nm and 450 nm (b) 425 nm and 400 nm 63. In a Young’s double slit experiment, two coherent
(c) 400 nm and 425 nm (d) 450 nm and 400 nm sources are placed 0.90 nm apart and the fringes are
observed 1 m away. If it produces the second dark
56. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed fringe at a distance of 1mm from the central fringe,
with light of wavelength 6000 Å, where in 16 fringes the wavelength of monochromatic light used would be
occupy a certain region on the screen. If 24 fringes (a) 60 × 10−4 cm (b) 10 × 10−4 cm
occupy the same region with another light, of
wavelength λ, then λ is (c) 10 × 10−5 cm (d) 6 × 10−5 cm
(a) 6000 Å (b) 4500 Å (c) 5000 Å (d) 4000 Å 64. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm
57. The maximum intensity of fringes in Young’s double apart and are illuminated by photons of two
slit experiment is I. If one of the slit is closed, then wavelengths λ 1 = 12000 Å and λ 2 = 10000 Å. At what
the intensity at that place becomes I 0 . Which of the minimum distance from the common central bright
following relations is correct? fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright
(a) I = I 0 fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a
(b) I = 2I 0 bright fringe from the other? [NEET 2013]
(c) I = 4 I 0 (a) 8 mm (b) 6 mm (c) 4 mm (d) 3 mm
(d) There is no relation between I and I 0 65. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light
58. Young’s double slit experiment is performed with fringes are obtained on a screen placed at some
sodium (Yellow) light of wavelength 589.3 nm and distance from the slits. If the screen is moved by
the interference pattern is observed on a screen 5 ×10 −2 m towards the slits, the change in fringe
100 cm away. The 10th bright fringe has its centre at width is 3 ×10 −5 m. If separation between the slits is
a distance of 12 nm from the central maximum. The 10 −3 m, the wavelength light used is
separation between the slits is (a) 6000Å (b) 5000Å (c) 3000Å (d) 4500Å
(a) 0.49 mm (b) 0.6 mm
(c) 0.7 mm (d) 0.53 mm 66. In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance
between two slits is 0.1mm and these are illuminated
59. If Young’s double slit experiment, is performed in with light of wavelength 5460Å. The angular
water, the fringe width recorded is ω 2 . If it is positions of first dark fringe on the screen distant 20
performed in air, the fringe width recorded is ω1 . cm from slits will be
Then, ω1 / ω 2 is (µ water = 4 / 3) (a) 0.8° (b) 0.6° (c) 0.4° (d) 0.16°
(a) 3/2 (b) 3/4
67. In Young’s double slit experiment the fringe width is
(c) 4/3 (d) Data insufficient
1 × 10 −4 m. If the distance between the slit and screen
60. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the slit is double and distance between the two slit is reduced
separation is 1mm and the screen is 1m from the slit. to half and wavelength is changed from 6.4 × 10 −7 m
For a monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm, the to 40. × 10 −7 m, the value of new fringe width will be
distance of 3rd minima from the central maxima is
(a) 0.50 mm (b) 1.25 mm (a) 0.15 × 10−4 m (b) 2.0 × 10−4 m
(c) 1.50 mm (d) 1.75 mm (c) 1.25 × 10−4 m (d) 2.5 × 10−4 m
284 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

68. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I 75. Two sources of light of wavelengths 1500Å and
interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen in 2500Å are used in Young’s double slit experiment
Young’s double slit experiment. The phase difference simultaneously. Which orders of fringes of two
between the beams is π/2 at point A and π at point B. wavelength patterns coincide?
Then, the difference between the resultant intensities (a) 3rd order of 1st source and 5th of 2nd
at A and B is (b) 7th order of 1st and 5th order of 2nd
(a) 2I (b) 4I (c) 5I (d) 7I (c) 5th order of 1st and 3rd order of 2nd
(d) 5th order of 1st and 7th order of 2nd
69. In Young’s double slit experiment, let S 1 and S 2 be
the two slits and C be the centre of the screen. If the 76. In Young’s double slit experiment using
∠S 1CS 2 = θ and λ is the wavelength, then fringe monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the path
width will be difference (in terms of an integer n) corresponding to
λ 2λ λ any point having half the peak intensity is
(a) (b) λθ (c) (d)
θ θ 2θ λ ( 2n + 1)λ
(a) ( 2n + 1) (b)
2 4
70. In Young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are λ ( 2n + 1) λ
obtained to be formed in a certain segment of the (c) ( 2n + 1) (d)
8 16
screen when light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If
the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, number 77. In a Young’s double slit experiment the distance
of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen between slits is increased five times where as their
is given by distance from screen in halved, then the fringe width is
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 30 1 1
(a) becomes (b) becomes
71. Young’s double slit experiment is made in a liquid. 90 20
The 10th bright fringe in liquid lies, where 6th dark 1
(c) becomes (d) it remains same
fringes lies in vacuum. The refractive index of the 10
liquid is approximately 78. The fringe width in a Young’s double slit interference
(a) 1.8 (b) 1.54
pattern is 3.2 × 10 −4 m, when red light of wavelength
(c) 1.67 (d) 1.2
5600Å is used. How much will it change, if blue light
72. In the Young’s double slit experiment using a of wavelength 4200Å is used?
monochromatic light of wavelength λ the path (a) 8 × 10−4 m (b) 0.8 × 10−4 m
difference (in terms of an integer n) corresponding to
(c) 4.2 × 10−4 m (d) 0.45 × 10−4 m
any point having half the peak intensity is
[JEE Advanced 2013] 79. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity
λ λ of light at a point on the screen (where the path
(a) ( 2n + 1) (b) ( 2n + 1)
2 4 difference is λ) is K, (λ being the wavelength of light
λ λ used). The intensity at a point where the path
(c) ( 2n + 1) (d) ( 2n + 1)
8 16 difference is λ / 4, will be [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) K (b) K / 4 (c) K / 2 (d) zero
73. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation
between the slits = 2.0 mm, the wavelength of the 80. If the intensities of the two interferring beams in
light = 600 nm and the distance of the screen from the Young’s double slit experiment be I 1 and I 2 , then the
slits = 2.0 m. If the intensity at the centre of the contrast between the maximum and minimum
central maximum is 0.20 Wm −2 , then the intensity at intensity is good when
a point 0.5 cm away from this centre along the width (a) I1 is much greater than I 2
of the fringes will be (b) I 2 is smaller than I 2
(a) 0.05 Wm−2 (b) 0.15 Wm−2 (c) I1 = I 2
(d) Either I1 = 0 or I 2 = 0
(c) 0.20 Wm−2 (d) 0.10 Wm−2
81. In Young’s double slit experiment, a third slit is made
74. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slit width and
in between the double slits. Then
the distance of slits from the screen both are double.
(a) fringes of unequal width are formed
The fringe width
(b) contrast between bright and dark fringes is reduced
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) intensity of fringes totally disappears
(c) remain unchanged (d) None of these
(d) only bright light is observed on the screen
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 285

82. In Young’s double slit experiment, the central bright 83. Yellow light is used in a single-slit diffraction
fringes can be identified experiment with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow light is
(a) as it is greater intensity than the other bright fringes replaced by X-rays, then the observed pattern will reveal
(b) as it has wider than the other bright fringes (a) that the central maximum is narrower
(b) more number of fringes
(c) as it is narrower than the other bright fringes
(c) less number of fringes
(d) by using white light instead of monochromatic light (d) no diffraction pattern

Topic 5
Diffraction
84. What should be the slit width to obtain 10 maxima 90. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a,
of the double slit pattern within the central maxima the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when
of the single slit pattern of slit width 0.4 mm? light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident of the slit. The
(a) 0.4 mm (b) 0.2 mm first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of
(c) 0.6 mm (d) 0.8 mm [NEET 2016]
−1  2 −1  1 −1  3   1
85. In a single slit diffraction of light of wavelengths λ (a) sin   (b) sin   (c) sin   (d) sin −1  
is used and slit of width e, the size of the central  3  2  4  4
maxima on a screen at a distance b is 91. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident
2bλ normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is
(a) 2bλ + e (b)
e placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of
2bλ 2bλ the electrons is increased, then which of the following
(c) +e (d) −e
e e statements is correct? [NEET 2013]
86. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000 Å gets (a) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the
diffracted by a single-slit width 0.3 mm. The angular case of electrons
position of the first minima of diffracted light is (b) The angular width of the central maximum of the
diffraction pattern will increases
(a) 6 × 10−3 rad (b) 1.8 × 10−3 rad
(c) The angular width of the central maximum will decreases
(c) 3.2 × 10−3 rad (d) 2 × 10−3 rad (d) The angular width of the central maximum will be
unaffected
87. Yellow light from atomic sodium with a wavelength
of 589 nm illuminates a single-slit. The dark fringes 92. A single-slit diffraction pattern is formed with white
in the diffraction pattern are found to be seperated light. For what wavelength of light the third secondary
on either side of central bright by 2.2 mm, on a maximum in the diffraction pattern coincides with the
screen 1.0 m from the slit. The slit width is second secondary maximum in the pattern for red light
(a) 0.7 mm (b) 0.54 mm of wavelength 6500 Å.
(c) 1.0 mm (d) 0.24 mm (a) 4400 Å (b) 4100Å (c) 4642.8 Å (d) 9100 Å

88. In a single-slit diffraction pattern observed on a 93. A single-slit of width d is illuminated by violet light of
screen placed at D m distance from the slit of width wavelength 400 nm and the width of the central
d m, the ratio of the width of the central maximum to maxima is measured as y. When half of the slit width is
the width of other secondary maximum is covered and illuminated by yellow light of wavelength
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:1 (d) 3:1 600 nm, the width of the central diffraction pattern is
(a) the pattern vanishes and the width is zero
89. Consider diffraction pattern obtained with a single (b) y / 3
slit at normal incidence. At the angular position of (c) 3 y
the first order diffraction maximum, the phase (d) None of the above
difference between the wavelets from the opposite
edges of the slit is 94. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant
π π source falls on a single-slit 1mm wider and the
(a) (b) (c) 3π (d) 2π resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2m
4 2
away.
286 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

The distance between the first dark fringes on either 102. In telescope, the radius of the central bright region
side of the central bright fringes is ( r0 ) is
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm (c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm 0.61λf 0.75λf 1.94 λf 2.43λf
(a) (b) (c) (d)
95. If we observe the single-slit diffraction with a a a a
wavelength λ and slit width e, the width of the central 103. For better resolution, a telescope must have a
maximum is 2θ. On decreasing the slit width for the (a) large diameter objective
same λ, then (b) small diameter objective
(a) θ increases (c) may be large
(b) θ remains unchanged (d) Neither large nor small
(c) θ decreases
(d) θ increases or decreases depending on the intensity of 104. The diameter of objective lens of a telescope is 6 cm
light and wavelength of light used is 540 nm. The
resolving power of telescope is
96. In diffraction from a single slit the angular width of
. × 104 rad −1
(a) 91 (b) 105 rad −1
the central maxima does not depend on
(a) λ of light used (c) 3 × 104 rad −1 (d) None of these
(b) width of slit 105. A telescope is used to resolve two stars separated by
(c) distance of slits from the screen
3.2 ×10 −6 rad. If the wavelength of light used in
(d) ratio of λ and slit width
5600Å, what should be the aperture of the objective
97. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 4000 Å gets of the telescope?
diffraction by a single slit of width 0.2 mm. The angular (a) 0.2135 m (b) 0.1488 m
position of the first minima of diffracted light is (c) 0.567 m (d) 1 m
(a) 2 × 10−3 rad (b) 3 × 10−3 rad
106. What will be the ratio ( D/ f ) in microscope, where D
(c) 1.8 × 10−3 rad (d) 6 × 10−3 rad
is the diameter of the aperture and f is the focal
98. A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source length of the objective lens?
β β
falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting (a) tan β (b) tan (c) 2tan β (d) tan
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. 2 6
The distance between first dark fringes on either side 107. If the medium between the object and the objective
of the central bright fringe is [CBSE AIPMT 2014] lens of a microscope is not air but refractive index n,
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm (c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm then minimum separation gets modified to
99. In a Young’s double slit experiment the angular width 1.44 λ 1.22 λ 3.2 λ 1.49λ
(a) (b) (c) (d)
of a fringe is found to be 0.2° on a screen placed 1 m 2nsin β 2nsin β 2n sin β nsin β
away. The wavelength of light used is 600 nm. If the 108. The resolving power of a compound microscope
entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water increases when
(Refractive index of water is 4/3), then angular width (a) refractive index of the medium is increased keeping
of the fringe will be wavelength of light (λ) constant (or same)
(a) 0.25° (b) 0.15° (c) 0.75° (d) 1° (b) for the same medium, wavelength of light is decreased
100. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the screen is (c) refractive index of the medium and wavelength of light
placed at a distance of 1.25m from the slits. When the used both are decreased
apparatus is immersed in water (µ ω = 4 / 3), the (d) Both (a) and (b)
angular width of a fringe is found to be 0.2°. 109. In a Fresnel biprism experiment, the two positions of
When the experiment is performed in air with same lens give separation between the slits as 25 cm and
set up, the angular width of the fringe is 16 cm respectively. The actual distance of separation is
(a) 0.4° (b) 0.28° (c) 0.35° (d) 0.15° (a) 20 cm (b) 16 cm
(c) 18 cm (d) 20.5 cm
101. The angular resolution of the telescope is determined
by the 110. For what distance is ray optics a good approximately
(a) image produced by the telescope when the aperture is 3mm wide and wavelength is
(b) objective of the telescope 500 nm?
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) 18 m (b) 25 m
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) (c) 30 m (d) 35 m
Topic 6
Polarisation
111. When the displacement of the wave is at right angles 120. Unpolarised light is incident on a plane glasses
to the direction of its propagation, it is known as surface. What should be the angle of incidence so that
(a) transverse wave (b) longitudinal wave the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Both (b) and (c) each other? [µ for glass =1.5]
(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 0° (d) 57°
112. Light waves are
(a) longitudinal waves (b) electromagnetic waves 121. An unpolarised beam of light of intensity I 0 falls on a
(c) transverse wave (d) Both (b) and (c) polariod. The intensity of the emergent beam is
113. Which of the following can be used to control the I0 I0
(a) (b) I 0 (c) (d) zero
intensity, in sunglasses, window pares etc? 2 4
(a) Transverse wave (b) Polaroids 122. For good polariser in case of unpolarised light, we
(c) Plane polarised wave (d) Polarised wave will observe
114. The phenomenon of polarisation of light indicates (a) reflection and no transmission of light
that (b) no reflection and total transmission of light
(a) light is a longitudinal wave (c) diffraction
(b) light is a transverse electromagnetic wave (d) total internal reflection of light
(c) light is a transverse wave only 123. When both the components of electric field of light
(d) Either (b) or (c) waves are present such that one is stronger than the
115. Which of the following cannot be polarised? other and such light is viewed through a rotating
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Ultrasonic waves analyser, one sees a maximum and a minimum of
(c) X-rays (d) Radio waves intensity but not complete darkness. This kind of light
is called
116. Which of the following is a dichronic crystal? (a) polarised (b) linearly polarised
(a) Quartz (b) Tourmaline (c) partially polarised (d) None of these
(c) Mica (d) Selenite
124. An unpolarised beam intensity I 0 is incident on a pair
117. In the propagation of light waves, the angle between of nicols making an angle of 60° with each other. The
the direction of vibration and plane of polarisation is intensity of light emerging the pair is
(a) 0° (b) 90°
(a) I 0 (b) I 0 / 2
(c) 45° (d) 80°
(c) I 0 / 4 (d) I 0 / 8
118. When light passes through two polaroids P1 and P2 ,
125. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I 0 is passed
then transmitted polarisation is the component
through a polaroid A and then through another
parallel to the polaroid axis. Which of the following is
polaroid B which is oriented so that its principal plane
correct?
makes an angle of 45° relative to that of A. The
P1 intensity of the emergent light is [JEE Main 2013]
(a) (b)
P2 (a) I 0 (b) I 0 / 2
(c) I 0 / 4 (d) I 0 / 8
126. A beam of ordinary unpolarised light passes through a
tourmaline crystal C1 and then its passes through
(c) (d)
another tourmaline crystal C 2 , which is oriented such
that its principle plane is parallel to that of C 2 . The
intensity of emergent light is I 0 .
119. At which angle the intensity of transmitted light is Now, C 2 is rotated by 60° about the ray. The
maximum when a polaroid sheet is rotated between emergent ray have an intensity.
two crossed polaroids? (a) 2I 0 (b) I 0 / 2
(a) π / 4 (b) π / 2 (c) π / 3 (d) π (c) I 0 / 4 (d) I 0 / 4
288 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

127. When unpolarised light beam is incident from air to 130. When the angle of incidence is 45° on the surface of a
glass (µ =1.5) at the polarising angle. glass slab, it is found that the reflected ray is
(a) reflected beam is polarised 100% completely polarised. The velocity is light in glass in
(b) reflected and refracted beams are partially polarised (a) 3 × 108 ms −1
(c) the reason for (a) is that almost all the light is reflected
(d) All of the above (b) 3 × 108 ms −1
(c) 2 × 108 ms −1
128. At what angle should an unpolarised beam to incident
on a crystal of µ = 3, so that reflected beam is (d) 2 × 108 ms −1
polarised? 131. The refractive index of a medium is 1. If the
(a) 45° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 0° unpolarised light is incident on it at the polarising
 4 angle of the medium, the angle of refraction is
129. The critical angle of a certain medium is sin −1   . (a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 0°
 5
The polarising angle of medium is 132. Find the angle of incidence at which light reflected
 5  4  5  4 from glass (µ =1.5) be completely polarised.
(a) tan −1   (b) sin −1   (c) sin −1   (d) tan −1  
 4  5  4  3 (a) 72.8° (b) 51.6° (c) 40.3° (d) 56.3°

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason Reason The speed of light waves is more in glass and
the base of the prism is thicker than the top.
Directions (Q. Nos. 133-145) In the following
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a 136. Assertion If we have a point source emitting waves
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following uniformly in all directions, the locus of point which
statements, choose the correct one. have the same amplitude and vibrate in the same
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and phase are spheres.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. Reason Each point of the wavefront is the source of a
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but secondary disturbance and the wavelets emanating
Reason is not the correct explanation of from these points spread out in all directions with the
Assertion. speed of the wave.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
137. Assertion Increase in the wavelength of light due to
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Doppler’s effect is red shift.
133. Assertion In the field of geometrical optics, light Reason When the wavelength increases, then
can in assumed to approximately travel in straight wavelength in the middle of the visible region of the
line. spectrum moves towards the red end to the spectrum.
Reason The wavelength of visible light is very small
138. Assertion No interference pattern is detected when
in comparison to the dimensions of typical mirrors
two coherent sources are infinitely close to each
and lenses, then light can be assumed to
other.
approximately travel in straight line.
Reason The fringe width is inversely proportional to
134. Assertion When monochromatic light is incident on a the distance between the two slits.
surface separating two media, the reflected and
refracted light both have the same frequency as the 139. Assertion If the initial phase difference between the
incident frequency. light waves emerging from the slits of Young’s
Reason Speed of light and wavelength of light both double slit experiment is π-radian, the central fringe
changes in refraction and hence, the ratio v = c/ λ is a will be dark.
constant. 2π
Reason Phase difference is equal to times the path
λ
135. Assertion The emergent plane wavefront is tilted on
difference.
refraction of a plane wave by a thin prism.
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 289

140. Assertion In Young’s double slit experiment, for two 146. Statement I Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory of
coherent sources, the resultant intensity by light proved that light is an electromagnetic wave.
φ Statement II Light waves propagates even in
I = 4I 0 cos 2
2 vacuum according to wave theory of light.
Reason Ratio of maximum and minimum intensity 147. Statement I When monochromatic light is
2 incident on a surface separating two media, the
I max ( I 1 + I 2 )
= reflected light both have the same frequency as the
I min ( I 1 − I 2 ) 2 incident frequency.
141. Assertion In Young’s double slit experiment, the Statement II Reflection and refraction arise
fringes become in distinct, if one of the slits is covered through interaction of incident light with the atomic
with cellophane paper. constituents of matter. Atoms may be viewed as
oscillators, which take up the frequency of the
Reason The cellophane paper decreases the wavelength external agency (light) causing forced oscillations.
of light.
148. Statement I Speed of light is independent of its
142. Assertion In interference, the film which appear bright colour only in vacuum.
in reflected system will appear dark in the transmitted
system and vice-versa. Statement II Red colour travels slower than violet
in glass.
Reason The condition for film to appear bright or dark
in reflected light are just reverse to those in the 149. Statement I When light travels from a rarer to a
transmitted light. denser medium, the speed decreases but energy of
the wave remains same.
143. Assertion In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe
width for dark fringes is same as that for white fringes. Statement II Intensity of light wave is directly
proportional to the square of the amplitude of the
Reason In Young’s double slit experiment, when the wave.
fringes are performed with a source of white light, then
only dark and bright fringes are observed. 150. Statement I Sound waves cannot be polarised.
144. Assertion In Young’s doule slit experiment, the fringe Statement II Sound waves are longitudinal in
width is directly proportional to wavelength of the nature.
source used. 151. Statement I The intensity at the bright band on the
Reason When a thin transparent sheet is placed infront screen is maximum and equal to 4I 0 , where I 0 is
of both the slits of Young’s double slit experiment, the the intensity of light from each sources.
fringe width will increase. Statement II The intensity at the dark band is
145. Assertion To observe diffraction of light the size of always zero irrespective of the intensity of light
waves coming from the two sources.
obstacle aperture should be of the order of 10 −7 m.
Reason 10 −7 m is the order of wavelength of visible 152. Statement I In Young’s double slit experiment, at
light. centre line of screen, a bright fringe is obtained.
Statement II Path difference between two waves
II. Statement Based Questions Type I is given by S 2 P − S 1 P which is zero at centre line.
153. Statement I In Young’s double slit experiment,
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-154) In the following
questions, a statement I is followed by a corresponding the width of one of the slits is slowly increased to
statement II. Of the following statements, choose the make it twice the width of the other slit. The
correct one. intensity of both the maxima and minima increases.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II Intensity of light from the slits is
Statement II is the correct explanation of directly proportional to the width of the slit.
statement I. 154. Statement I Diffraction determines the limitations
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but of the concepts of light rays.
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement II A beam of width a starts to spread
Statement I.
out due to diffraction after it has travelled a
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
distance (2a 2 / λ ).
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
290 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Statement Based Questions Type II 159. Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is

incident from air on a water surface.
155. According to Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory
following phenomenon can be explained. (Refractive index of water is 1.33).
I. propagation of light in vaccum Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
II. interference of light I. Frequency of reflected light and refracted light are
III. polarisation of light same.
IV. photoelectric effect II. Wavelength of reflected light is more than that of
refracted light.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, IV
(c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV III. Speed of reflected light is equal to that of refracted light.
IV. Intensity of reflected light is always more than that of
156. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? refracted light.
I. A point source emitting waves uniformly in all (a) I and III (b) II and IV
directions. (c) I and II (d) III and IV
II. In spherical wave, the locus of point which have the
some amplitude and vibrate in same phase are spheres. 160. Shape of wavefront in case of
III. At a small distance from the source, a small portion of I. light diverging from a point source.
sphere can be considered as plane wave. II. light emerging out of convex lens when a point source
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II is placed at its focus.
(c) Only III (d) All of the above III. the portion of the wavefront of light from a distant star
157. In case of reflection of a wavefront from a reflecting intercepted by the earth are respectively.
surface, (a) cylindrical, concave, plane
(b) spherical, plane, plane
(c) spherical, convex, plane
Incident
wavefront (d) spherical, cylindrical, plane
E Reflected 161. Let S 1 and S 2 are two sources and if wave from S 1
B wavefront
i reaches some common point P be covering seven
M A i r C time of wavelength ( λ ) and from S 2 by covering nine
N
times of wavelength ( λ ).
I. points A and E are in same phase S1 7λ
II. points A andC are in same phase
P
III. points B and A are in same phase
IV. pointsC and E are in same phase 9λ
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV S2
158. Figure shows behaviour of a wavefront when it passes Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
through a prism. I. S 2 P − S 1 P = 2λ
A A′ II. Waves from S 1 arrives exactly two cycles earlier than
waves from S 2 .
Incident
wavefront
Refracted III. At P waves from S 1 and S 2 are in phase.
wavefront
IV. At P waves from S 1 and S 2 are out of phase.
B B′
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
I. Lower portion of wavefront (B′) is delayed resulting in 162. The conditions for producing sustained interference
a tilt. are
II. Time taken by light to reach A′ from A is equal the time I. phase difference between interferring waves remains
taken to reach B′ from B. constant with time.
III. Speed of wavefront is same everywhere. II. interferring waves have nearly same amplitude levels
IV. A particle on wavefront A ′ B ′ is in phase with a particle III. interferring waves are of same frequency.
on wavefront AB. IV. interferring waves are moving in opposite directions.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (a) I, II and III (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 291

163. Which of the following statement is/are correct for III. Matching Type
coherent sources?
167. Light waves travels in vacuum along X -axis,
I. Two coherent sources emit light waves of same
Y -axis and Z-axis. Column I lists the equation of
wavelength.
the plane wavefront and Column II lists the
II. Two coherent sources emit light waves of same frequency.
direction of propagation of the wave. Match the
III. Two coherent sources have zero or constant initial phase
items in Column I with terms in Column II and
difference with respect to time.
choose the correct options from the codes given
Choose the correct option from the codes given below. below.
(a) Only I (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
Column I Column II
164. Choose the correct option for the statements given below.
A. X =C 1. Along Y-axis
I. The interference pattern has a number of equally spaced
B. Y =C 2. Along X -axis
bright and dark bands, while the diffraction pattern has a
central bright maximum, which is twice as wide as the C. Z =C 3. Along Z-axis
other maxima.
A B C A B C
II. The interference pattern is superposing two waves (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1
originating from the two narrow slits, while the
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 1
diffraction pattern is a superposition of a continuous
family of waves originating from each point on a single 168. Match the following columns and choose the
slit. correct options from the codes given below.
III. For a single slit of width a, the first null of the interference Column I Column II
pattern occurs at an angle of λ / a while at the same angle of
A. Constructive interference 1. nλ
λ / a, a maximum (not a null) for two narrow slits separated
by a distance a. B. Destructive interference 2. (n + 1) λ / 2
(a) I and II are correct, III is incorrect C. Path difference for 3. Waves are in phase at
(b) I and II are correct, II is incorrect constructive interference point of interference
(c) I, II and III are correct D. Path difference for 4. Waves are out of phase at
(d) I, II and III are incorrect destructive interference point of interference

165. Which of the given statements is/are correct for (a) A → 4, B → 1, C → 3, D → 2

phenomenon of diffraction? (b) A → 4, B → 3, C → 1, D → 2
I. For diffraction through a single-slit, the wavelength of (c) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2
wave must be comparable to the size of slit. (d) A → 3, B → 4, C → 2, D → 1
II. The diffraction is very common in sound waves but not so 169. Two slits are made one millimetre apart and the
common in light waves.
screen is placed 1 m away and blue-green light of
III. Diffraction is only observed in electromagnetic waves. wavelength 500 nm is used.
(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
Now, match the activity given in Column I with
166. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with the change in fringe pattern obtained in Column II.
reference to the figure given below?
Column I Column II
I. Dots and arrows indicates that both polarisations are
present in the incident and refracted waves. A. Screen is moved away from 1. Linear width of fringes (β)
the plane of slits increases.
II. The reflected light is not linearly polarised.
III. Transmitted intensity will be zero when the axis of the B. Source is replaced by another 2. Angular separation of
analyser is in the plane of the figure i.e., the plane of source of shorter wavelength fringe remains constant.
incidence. C. Set up of experiment is 3. Fringe separation
Air dipped completely in water decreases.
Incident Reflected
D. Distance between slits is 4. Fringe width become 3/4th.
reduced.
Refracted
(a) A → 1, B → 3, C → 4, D → 2
Medium
(b) A → 3, B → 1, C → 4, D → 2
(c) A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1
(a) Only I (b) Only II (d) A → 2, B → 3, C → 1, D → 4
(c) Both I and III (d) Both I and II
292 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

170. Consider the arrangement shows in the figure. The IV. Passage Based Questions
distance D is large compared to the separation d
■ Directions (Q.Nos. 172-173) Answer the following
between the slits. For this arrangement, match the
items in Column I with terms in Column II and questions based on the given passage. Choose the
choose the correct option from codes given below. correct options from those given below.
The figure represents a wavefront emanating from a
P point source.
S2
y
d
O
S S1

P
x D S
Screen

Wavefront
Column I Column II
Q
A. The minimum value of d so that there is 1. λD
a dark fringe at O for x = D is 172. The phase difference between the two points P and Q
3
on the wavefront is
B. For x = D and d minimum such that there 2. 2d (a) π / 2 (b) 0
is dark fringe at O, the distance y at (c) π / 3 (d) Data insufficient
which next bright fringe is located is
173. The amplitude of point P and Q on the wavefront is
C. fringe width for x = D 3. d
(a) same (b) different (c) zero (d) Data sufficient
D. The minimum value of d so that there is 4. λD
a dark fringe at O for x = D / 2 is ■ Directions (Q.Nos. 174-175) Answer the following
2
questions based on the given passage. Choose the
(a) A → 4, B → 3, C → 2, D → 1 correct options from those given below.
(b) A → 1, B → 2, C → 3, D → 4 A point source emits wave diverging in all directions.
(c) A → 1, B → 3, C → 2, D → 4 174. At a finite distance r from the source the shape of
(d) A → 4, B → 2, C → 3, D → 1 wavefront is
(a) spherical (b) plane
171. Column I shows the changes introduced in Young’s
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
double-slit experiment while Column II tells the
changes in the fringe pattern while performing the 175. At a very large distance from the source, the shape of
experiment. Match each situation given in Column I the wavefront will be
with the result given in Column II. (a) spherical (b) plane
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
Column I Column II
■ Directions (Q.Nos 176-178) Answer the following
A. If sodium light is replaced by 1. All fringes are coloured questions based on the given passage. Choose the
red light of same intensity except central fringe
correct options from those given below.
B. Monochromatic light is 2. Fringe width will In the given figure,
replaced by white light became quadrupled
Incident
C. Distance between slits and 3. The bright fringe will wavefront B
screen is doubled and the bocame less bright
distance betwen slits is halved A′
v1 t
v1
D. If one of the slits is covered 4. The fringe width will i
by cellophone paper increase Medium 1 i
A r C
Medium 2
A B C D r v 2t
v1<v2 Refracted
(a) 4 1 2 3 E wavefront
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 1 4 AB is an incident wavefront and EC is refracted
(d) 3 2 4 1 wavefront. Speed of light in medium 1 is v1 and speed
of light in medium 2 is v 2 .
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 293

sin i 181. Here, v radial refers to

176. The ratio of is equal to
sin r (a) the component of the source velocity along the line
BC AE BC AE joining the source to observer
(a) (b) (c) (d)
AC EC AE BC (b) the component of the source velocity along the line
joining the observer to the source relative to the
177. When light travelling through medium 1, passes observer
through medium 2, which of the following statements (c) the frequency of light as observed by the observer
is correct. (d) None of the above
sin i v2 C
(a) = (b) η = 182. Statement I The Doppler’s shift expression is valid
sin r v1 v1
v v1 v
only when the speed of the source is small compared
(c) η21 = 2 (d) = 2 to that of light.
v1 λ1 λ 2
Statement II Doppler’s effect in light can be used to
178. In case of refraction of a light beam, which of these estimate the velocity of aeroplanes, rockets
remains constant? submarines etc.
(a) Speed (b) Wavelength (a) Both the Statements are correct
(c) Frequency (d) Intensity (b) Both the Statements are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
■ Directions (Q. Nos 179-180) Answer the following
(d) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
questions based on the given passage. Choose the
correct options from those given below. ■ Directions (Q. Nos 183-184) Answer the following
Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm in incident questions based on the given passage. Choose the
from air on a water surface. λ 1 and λ 2 are the correct options from those given below.
wavelength of reflected and refracted light The string shown above is given an up and down jerk
respectively, v1 and v 2 are the velocities of reflected at one end of it while the outer end is fixed at origin.
and refractive light, respectively. Y
[Refractive index of water is 1.33]
String
179. The velocities of reflected and refracted light is v1 O X
v1
and v 2 , respectively. Then, is (ratio of frequency) is
v2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
183. If the string always remains confined to the
180. Match the items in Column I with terms in Column II XY -plane, then it represents
and choose the correct option from the codes given (a) a plane polarised wave
below. (b) an unpolarised wave
Column I Column II (c) linearly polarised wave
A. λ1 (in nm) 1. 442 (d) Both (a) and (c)
B. λ 2 (in nm) 2. 225 184. If the plane of the vibrations of the string is changed
C. 6
v1 (in 10 ms ) −1
3. 589 randomly in a very short intervals of time, it is known
as
D. v2 (in 106 ms−1) 4. 300
(a) polarised wave (b) plane polarised wave
A B C D A B C D (c) unpolarised wave (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
■ Direction (Q. Nos. 185-186) Answer the following
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 4
questions based on the given passage. Choose the
■ Directions (Q.Nos 181-182) Answer the following correct options from those given below.
questions based on the given passage. Choose the Light passes through two polaroids P1 and P2 with pass
correct options from those given below. axis of P2 making an angle θ with the pass axis of P1 .
The expression for Doppler’s shift is given by 185. The value of θ for which the intensity of emergent
∆ν v radial light is zero, is
=
ν c (a) 45° (b) 90°
[Consider the directions from observer to source as (c) 60° (d) 30°
positive]
294 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

186. A third polaroid is placed between P1 and P2 with its

pass axis making an angle β with the pass axis of P1 . S1
The value of β for which the intensity of light from P2 is x
I0 S2
, where I 0 is the intensity of light on the polaroid P1 is
8 x
(a) (b)
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
In this case, which of the following statements are true?
V. More than One Option Correct (a) S 1 and S 2 have the same intensities
(b) S 1 and S 2 have a constant phase difference
187. In the Young’s double slit experiment, the ratio of (c) S 1 and S 2 have the same phase
intensities bright and dark fringes is 9. This mean that (d) S 1 and S 2 have the same wavelength
(a) the intensities of individual sources are 5 and 4 units
respectively 190. Consider the sunlight incident on a pinhole of width
(b) the intensities of individual sources are 4 and 1 units 10 3 Å. The image of the pinhole seen on a screen shall be
respectively (a) a sharp white ring
(c) the ratio of their amplitudes is 3 (b) different from a geometrical image
(d) the ratio of their amplitudes is 2 (c) a diffused central spot, white in colour
188. A thin film of thickness t and index of refraction 1.33 (d) diffused coloured region around a sharp central white
coats a glass with index of refraction 1.50. Which of spot
the following thickness t will not reflect normally 191. For light from a point source,
incident light with wavelength 640 nm in air? (a) the wavefront is spherical
(a) 120 nm (b) 240 nm (c) 360 nm (d) 480 nm (b) the intensity decreases in proportion to the distance
squared
189. Two sources S 1 and S 2 of intensity I 1 and I 2 are
(c) the wavefront is parabolic
placed infront of a screen Fig. (a). The pattern of (d) the intensity at the wavefront does not depend on the
intensity distribution seen in the central portion is distance
given by Fig. (b).

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

NCERT Determine the wavelength of light used in the
experiment.
192. Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is
incident from air on a water surface. What are the (a) 5 × 10−7 m
wavelength, frequency and speed of (i) reflected and (b) 6 × 10−7 m
(ii) refracted light?(Refractive index of water is 1.33). (c) 0.05 × 10−7 m
−9 14 8 −1
(a) Reflected light - 589 × 10 m, 5.09 × 10 Hz, 3 × 10 ms (d) 0.06 × 10−7 m
Refracted light - 4.42 × 10−7 m, 5.09 × 1014 Hz,
2.25 × 108 ms −1 194. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths
(b) Reflected light - 475 × 10−9 m, 509 × 10−14 Hz,
650 nm and 520 nm is used to obtain interference
fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment with slit
2 × 105 ms −1 .
width = 2 mm and distance of screen = 1.2 m.
Refracted light - 5 × 10−5 m, 2.09×1014 , 3 × 108 ms −1 (i) Find the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen
(c) Reflected light - 1m, 1ms −1 from the central maximum for wavelength 650 nm.
Refracted light - 1m, 2Hz, 3 × 106 ms −1 (ii) What is the least distance from the central maximum
(d) None of the above where the bright fringes due to both the wavelength
coincide.
193. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are
(a) 1.17 × 10−3 m, 1.56 × 10−3 m
separated by 0.28 mm and screen is placed 1.4 m
away. The distance between the central bright (b) 2.25 × 10−2 m, 1.25 m
fringe and the fourth bright fringe is measured to be (c) 0.05 × 10−2 m, 1.3 × 10−4 m
1.2 cm. (d) None of the above
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 295

195. Light of wavelength 5000Å falls on a plane reflecting 201. Consider a ray of light incident from air onto a slab of
surface. What are the wavelength and frequency of glass (refractive index n) of width d, at an angle θ.
the reflected light? The phase difference between the ray reflected by the
For what angle of incidence is the reflected ray top surface of the glass and the bottom surface is
1/ 2 1/ 2
normal to the incident ray? 4 πd  1 2  4 πd  1 2 
(a) 1− sin θ + π (b) 1− sin θ
(a) λ = 3000Å, ν = 5 × 1015 Hz, ∠i = 45° λ  n2  λ  n2 
(b) λ = 5000Å, ν = 6 × 1014 Hz, ∠i = 45° 4 πd  1 2 
1/ 2
π 4 πd  1 2 
1/ 2
(c) 1− 2 sin θ + (d) 1− 2 sin θ + 2π
(c) λ = 8800Å, ν = 5 × 1015 Hz, ∠i = 60° λ  n  2 λ  n 
(d) None of the above
202. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the source is
196. The 6563 Å H α sign line emitted by hydrogen in a white light. One of the holes is covered by a red filter
star is found to be red shifted by 15Å. Estimate the and another by a blue filter. In this case
speed with which the star is receding from the earth. (a) there shall be alternate interference patterns of red and
2
(a) − 5.04 × 10 ms −1 blue
(b) there shall be an interference pattern for red distinct
(b) − 6.86 × 105 ms −1 from that for blue
(c) 5.84 × 102 ms −1 (c) there shall be no distinct interference fringes
(d) 8.8 × 103 ms −1 (d) there shall be an interference pattern for red mixing
with one for blue
197. In Young’s double-slit experiment using light of
wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of a fringe 203. Figure shows a standard two slit arrangement with
formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. What is the spacing slits S 1 , S 2 , P1 , P2 are the two minima points on either
between the two slits? side of P as shown in figure.
(a) 1 m Screen
(b) 1.5 × 10−2 m S1 P1
(c) 3.44 × 10−4 m
S
(d) 0.05 × 10−2 m P
S3
198. Two towers on top of two hills are 40 km apart. The S2 P2 S4
Second
line joining them passes 50 m above a hill halfway screen
between the towers. What is the longest wavelength
of radio waves which can be sent between the towers At P2 on the screen, there is a hole and behind P2 is a
without appreciable diffraction effects? second 2-slit arrangement with slits S 3 , S 4 and a
(a) 0.125 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 0.05 m (d) 0 m second screen behind them.
(a) There would be no interference pattern on the second
199. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls screen but it would be lighted
on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is
(b) The second screen would be totally dark
observed on a screen 1m away. It is observed that the
(c) There would be a single bright point on the second
first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the
screen
centre of the screen. Find the width of the slit.
(d) There would be a regular two slit pattern on the second
(a) 2 mm (b) 1 mm (c) 0.2 mm (d) 0.1 mm
screen

NCERT Exemplar 204. The human eye has an approximate angular resolution
. ×10 −4 rad and a typical photoprinter prints a
of φ = 58
200. Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width 10 4 Å.
minimum of 300 dpi (dots per inch, 1 inch = 2.54 cm).
The image seen through the slit shall
At what minimum distance z should a printed page be
(a) be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the centre
held so that one does not see the individual dots?
(b) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to zero
intensities at the edges. (a) 14.5 cm
(c) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to regions of (b) 12.5 cm
different colours (c) 19.8 cm
(d) only be a diffused slit white in colour (d) 10.25 cm
296 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

205. Consider a two slits interference arrangements(figure) 207. To ensure almost 100% transmittivity, photographic
such that the distance of the screen from the slits is lenses are often coated with a thin layer of dielectric
half the distance between the slits. material. The refractive index of this material is
Obtain the value of D in terms of λ such that the first intermediated between that of air and glass (which
minima on the screen falls at a distance D from the makes the optical element of the lens). A typically
centre O. used dielectric film is MgF2 ( n =1.38). What should
the thickness of the film so that at the centre of the
visible spectrum (5500Å) there is maximum
S1 T1
P
transmission?
Source
(a) 5000 Å (b) 2800 Å (c) 1000 Å (d) 725 Å
O
S C
208. A small transparent slab containing material of µ =1.5
S2 T2
Screen
is placed along AS 2 (figure). What will be the
distance from O of the principal maxima and of
(a) 0. 358 λ (b) 0.404 λ (c) 0.725 λ (d) 0. 80 λ minima on either side of the principal maxima
206. Four identical monochromatic sources A, B, C, D as obtained in the absence of the glass slab?
shown in the figure, produce waves of the same
wavelength λ and are coherent. Two receiver R1 and S1
R 2 are at great but equal distances from B.
P
R2 θ
A O
C
L=
d/4 S2
Screen
λ/2 λ/2
R1 A B C
AC = CO = D , S 1C = S 2C = d << D
λ/2
2D 5
(a) above point O and below point O
247 231
D
(b) 3 247 above point O and 5 231 below point O
Which of the two receivers picks up the larger signal? 5 3D
(c) below point O and below point O
(a) R1 (b) R2 465 247
(c) R1 and R2 (d) None of these (d) None of the above

Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24 (d) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c)
76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (c) 81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100. (b) 101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (a)
106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (d) 109. (a) 110. (a) 111. (a) 112. (d) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (d)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (c) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (b) 131. (b) 132. (d) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (c)
136. (a) 137. (a) 138. (a) 139. (b) 140. (b) 141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (c) 144. (c) 145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (b) 157. (c) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (b) 161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (d) 164. (c) 165. (c)
166. (c) 167. (c) 168. (c) 169. (c) 170. (a) 171. (a) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (b) 176. (c) 177. (d) 178. (c) 179. (a) 180. (a)
181. (b) 182. (a) 183. (d) 184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (c) 187. (b,d)188. (b,d) 189. (a,b,d) 190. (b,d) 191. (a,b) 192. (a) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (b)
196. (b) 197. (c) 198. (a) 199. (c) 200. (a) 201. (a) 202. (c) 203. (d) 204. (a) 205. (b) 206. (b) 207. (c) 208. (a)
 Hints and Explanations
1. (d) In geometrical optics a ray is defined as the path of the 11. (b) When ABC wavefront passes through glass, its velocity
energy propagation in the limit of wavelength tending to is reduced.
zero. vair
vglass =
2. (d) A ray is defined as the path of energy propagation nga
in the limit of wavelength tending to zero. It travels A
in a straight line and defined as the path of energy A′
propagation. B′
B
3. (c) The phenomenon of polarisation is based on the fact that
C′
the light waves are transverse electromagnetic waves.
C
Diffraction and interference can be explained by wave Denser medium
theory of light.
As, points A and C remain in glass for a short duration, they
4. (c) Every point on a given wavefront act as a secondary move for a larger distance and B covers a small distance as it
source of light and emits secondary wavelets which travels remains in glass for a longer duration (middle portion of
in all directions with the speed of light in the medium. A glass is thick) and finally A ′ B ′ C ′ is position of new
surface touching all these secondary wavelets tangentially in wavefront. It is concave in shape.
the forward direction, gives new wavefront at that instant of
12. (c) Wavelength is dependent on refractive index medium by,
time.
λ1 µ 2
5. (d) Huygens’ construction does not explains quantisation of =
λ 2 µ1
energy and it is not able to explain emission and absorption
spectrum. So, in denser medium, µ 2 > µ 1 so λ 1 > λ 2 (i.e. wavelength
decreases as the light travels from rarer to denser medium)
6. (b) Wavefront is a surface perpendicular to a ray but a
wavefront moves in the direction of the light. Q c = νλ
7. (b) Wavefronts emitting from a point source are spherical 13. (d) We define an angle ic by the following equation.
wavefronts. n2
sin ic =
Spherical n1
Thus, if i = ic , then sin r=1 and r= 90°. Obviously for i > ic ,
Rays are
perpendicular
there cannot be any refracted wave. The angle ic is known
to wavefronts as the critical angle and for all angles of incidence greater
Point
source than the critical angle, we will not have any wavefront in
Wavefronts
are concentric
medium 2.
spheres 14. (a) According to Doppler’s effect, wherever there is relative
motion between source and observer, the frequency
Light rays
observed is different from that given out by source.
8. (c) Rays reaching from a source at infinity are parallel and 15. (a) When source moves away from the observer, frequency
when we draw a surface perpendicular to each ray, we get a observed is smaller than that emitted from the source and
plane wavefront. (as if light emitted is yellow but it will be observed as red)
this shift is called red shift.
16. (b) For small velocities compared to the speed of light. The
fractional change in frequency ∆ν / ν is given by −v radial / c,
where, v radial is the component of the source velocity along
Rays
the line joining the observer to the source relative to the
observer, v radial is considered positive when the source
Wavefronts moves away from the observer. Thus, the Doppler’s shift
9. (c) In Huygens’ wave theory, the locus of all points in the can be expressed as
same state of vibration is called a wavefront. ∆ν v
= − radial
10. (a) According to Huygens’ principle, each point of the ν c
wavefront is the source of a secondary disturbance and the 17. (b) From Snell’s law of refraction
wavelength emanating from these points spread out in all sin i µ 2 v1
directions with the speed of the wave. = =
sin r µ 1 v2
298 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Given, v1 = 3 × 108 ms −1 Thus, the resultant of displacement at P would be given by

y = y1 + y2 = 2a cosωt
µ2 1 v 3 × 108 −1
= µ 2 = 1.5 ⇒ v2 = 1 1 = ms Since, the intensity is the proportional to the square of the
µ1 µ2 1.5 amplitude, the resultant intensity will be given by
3 × 108 I = 4I0
∴ Speed of light, v2 = = 2 × 108 ms −1
3/ 2 where, I 0 represents the intensity produced by each one of
the individual waves.
18. (a) We know from Cauchy's expression,
b c 24. (d) Interference is a wave phenomenon. Longitudinal waves
µ (λ ) = a + + +… like sound, transverse waves like wave on a string or
λ 2
λ4
electromagnetic waves like light show interference.
or λ red > λ blue > λ violet
25. (d) For constructive interference,
µ red < µ blue > µ violet (for glass prism) Phase difference ( ∆φ ) = 2nπ (even multiple of π)
So, refractive index of prism for violet colour is more hence For n = 0, ∆φ = 0
from Eq. (i), the velocity of violet colour in medium 2 ( v2 )
will be less than the red colour. Red colour light will travel For n =1, ∆φ = 2π
fastest in glass prism. For n = 2, ∆φ = 4 π and so on
19. (b) The relation between v, c and λ is v λ = c 3
26. (b) Given, path difference ( ∆x ) = 1.5 λ = λ
2
For small changes in v and λ
Phase difference ( ∆φ ) and path difference ( ∆x ) are related
∆v − ∆λ − v radial
= = by the relation,
v λ c 2π
∆φ = × ∆x
as ∆λ = 475.6 − 475.0 = + 0.6 nm λ
 0.6  0.6 2π 3
or v radial = c  = × 3 × 108 ⇒ ∆φ = × λ = 3π
 475 475 λ 2
⇒ ∆φ = odd multiple of π.
= 3.78 × 105 ms −1 = 378 kms −1
So, destructive interference occurs.
v
20. (a) Using, ∆λ = λ 27. (a) Given, separation between sources S 1 and S 2 = 2λ. For
c
minimum intensity at P, destructive interference must take
Here, v = 50 kms −1 = 50 × 103 ms −1
place at P.
c = 3 × 108 ms −1 S1
Wavelength, ∆λ = 0.50Å
2λ
c 3 × 108
∴ Wavelength, λ = ∆λ = × 0.50 = 3000 Å
v 50 × 103
S2 P
x
21. (a) Here, λ = 400 nm
∆λ = 400.1 nm − 400 nm = 0.1 nm So, S 1 P − S 2 P = ∆x (path difference)
vs ∆λ λ
as = = ( 2n + 1) (for destructive interference)
c λ 2
∆λ 0.1 nm For minimum distance,
vs = c= × 3 × 108 ms −1 3λ λ
λ 400 nm S1P − S 2P = ≠ …(i)
2 2
= 75 × 103 ms −1 = 75 kms −1 2
3λ   3λ  
⇒ x2 + ( 2λ )2 − x = ⇒ x2 + ( 2λ )2 = x +   
22. (c) Doppler’s shift is given by 2   2 
∆ν v radial ∆ν 3 × 103 9λ 2 3λ
= ⇒ = = 10−5 ⇒ x2 + 4 λ2 = x2 + + 2⋅ x⋅
ν c ν 3 × 108 4 2
2
23. (d) The displacement produced by the source S 1 at the point 2 9λ 7λ 2 7λ
⇒ x⋅ 3λ = 4 λ − = ⇒ x=
P is given by y1 = a cosωt 4 4 12
λ 15λ
The displacement produced by the sources S 2 (at the point Note If we proceed with Eq. (i) taking S 1P − S 2P = , x= which
2 4
P) is also given by 7λ
y2 = a cosωt is more than .
12
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 299

28. (a) From the figure, path difference = S 1 M = P 29. (c) The position of farthest minimum detection occurs when
λ
P = S 1 M = xcosθ (Q x<< R ) the path difference is least and odd multiple of , i.e.,
2
P
condition for destructive interference and approaches zero as
θ M P moves to infinity.
os
xc S1
θ θ
S1 O S2
x
d

S2 P
D
(S 1 P and S 2 P are assumed approximately parallel)
For maximum intensity, P = nλ (where, n = 0, 1, 2, 3) So, if S 2P = D
⇒ xcosθ = nλ λ
S 1 P − S 2 P = ( 2n + 1)
for destructive interference.
nλ 2
⇒ cosθ = (n = 0, 1, 2, …). For farthest distance
x
λ
nλ so S 1 P − S 2 P =
⇒ cosθ = (Q x = 5λ ) 2
5λ
λ
⇒ cosθ =
n ⇒ D +d2 −D =
2

5 2
2
We know, − 1 ≤ cosθ ≤ 1  λ
n ⇒ D2 + d 2 =  D + 
⇒ − 1≤ ≤ 1  2
5
⇒ −5≤ n ≤ 5 λ2
⇒ d 2 = Dλ +
Possible values of n ={0, ±1, ± 2, ± 3, ± 4, ± 5} 4
Let us analysis each value of n for θ in range. d2 λ
⇒ D= −
θ ∈ ( 0, 2π ) λ 4
−4 2
1 (1.0 × 10 m )
For n = 1, cosθ = = −9
− 150 × 10−9 m
5 ( 600 × 10 m )
cos θ = 107 cm
⇒ D = 1.07 m
30. (c) Given, ∆φ = 100 π
π 3π 2π
2 2
We know, change in phase difference,
2π
i.e., ∆φ = × ∆x
λ
where, ∆x = path difference
Here, negative value of n means the path difference λ λ
⇒ ∆x = ∆ φ × = 100π × = 50λ
( S 1 P − S 2 P ) is negative, i.e., for those points S 1 P < S 2 P. 2π 2π
For n = 0, ±1, ± 2, ± 3, ± 4, 31. (c) In the phenomenon of interference, energy in conserved
From the given graph of cosine function, it can be observed but it is redistributed.
that in interval θ ∈[0, 2π], for above values of n there are in
total 18 points, i.e., 2 points for n = 0, 4 points each for 32. (b) As two distinct sources are incoherent, so phase changes
n = ±1, ± 2, ± 3, ± 4. are random, so no fixed pattern of maxima or minima.
For n = + 5, cosθ = +1, 33. (d) Resultant amplitude
One value of θ i.e., θ = 0° is possible as for θ = 2π, the points A = A12 + A22 + 2 A1 A2 cos φ
will coincide.
For n = − 5, cosθ = −1, i.e., θ = π. Here A1 = A2 = 2 cm ⇒ φ = π rad
Thus, in total 20 points of maxima’s are possible in all A = ( 2 )2 + ( 2 )2 + 2 × 2 × 2 × cos π
4 quadrants.
A = 4 + 4 − 8 or A = 0
300 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

34. (c) Resultant intensity is given by I = 4 I 0 cos 2 φ / 2. 39. (d) We know, I max = ( I1 + I 2 )2 = 4 I 0′ ( if I1 = I 2 = I 0′ )
2π Here, 4 I 0′ = I 0
Now, phase difference ( φ ) = × ∆ (path difference)
λ I
⇒ I 0′ = 0
As a path difference of one wavelength corresponds to a 4
phase difference of 2π radius. For incoherent source, the interference has uniform intensity
 2π∆  2  π∆  throughout given by
⇒ I = 4 I 0 cos 2   = 4 I 0 cos  
 2λ   λ  I = I1 + I 2
IP  π∆   π∆  or
I
I = 2I 0′ = 2 × 0 = 0
I
∴ = cos 2  1  cos 2  2 
IQ  λ   λ  4 2
40. (b) When the sources are incoherent there is no interference
I max 4 and resultant intensity is I1 + I 2 . For sources of same
35. (b) Given, =
I min 1 intensity I 0 , resultant intensity will be 2I 0 .
2
I max  r + 1 4 41. (b) Two identical and independent sodium lamps (i.e., two
We know, =  = independent sources of light) can never be coherent. Hence,
I min  r − 1 1
no coherence between the light emitted by different atoms.
r+1 2
⇒ = ⇒ r + 1 = 2r − 2 or r = 3 42. (a) Let the average intensity be I av .
r−1 1
The amplitude of intensity variation means.
A1
∴ The ratio of amplitudes = r= 3 I = I av ± 0.05 I av
A2
⇒ I max = I av (1 + 0.05) = 1.05 I av
36. (c) Given, I1 = I and I 2 = 9I ⇒ I min = I av (1 − 0.05) = 0.95I av
I1 I 1 A I1 1 1 I max 1.05 105
⇒ = = ⇒ r= 1 = = = So, = =
I 2 9I 9 A2 I2 9 3 I min 0.95 95
2 2
I max  r + 1  r + 1 105
=  …(i) ⇒   =
I min  r − 1  r − 1 95

1 
2 ⇒ ( r2 + 1 + 2r ) 95 = 105 ( r2 + 1 − 2r )
 + 1 16
=3  = =4 ⇒ 10r2 + 10 − 200 ⋅ 2r = 0
1
 − 1 4
3  ⇒ 10r2 − 400r + 10 = 0
⇒ r2 − 40r + 1 = 0
37. (a) Given, Young’s double slit experiment, having two slits
of width are in the ratio of 1 : 25. 40 ± ( 40 )2 − 4 × 1 × 1
⇒ r=
So, ratio of intensity, 2
I1 W1 1 I 25 40 + 40
= = ⇒ 2 = ⇒ r≈ = 40
I 2 W2 25 I1 1 2
2 I1 1600
 I2  ∴ = r2 = ( 40 )2 =
2  + 1 I2 1
( I 2 + I1 )
= 
I max I1
∴ = or I1 : I 2 = 1600 : 1
I min ( I 2 − I1 )2 )  I2 
 − 1
 I1  43. (b) Consider that the source is moved to some new point S ′
and suppose that Q is the mid-point of S 1 and S 2 . If the
2 2
 5 + 1  6 36 9 angle S ′QS is φ, then the central bright fringe occurs at an
⇒  5 − 1 =  4  = 16 = 4 angle −φ, on the other side. Thus, if the source S is on the
perpendicular bisector, then the central fringe occurs at O,
I max 9
Thus, = also on the perpendicular bisector.
I min 4
If S is shifted by an angle φ to point S ′, then the central
I1 I1 fringe appears at a point O ′ at an angle −φ, which means that
38. (d) Given, = n ⇒ r= = n it is shifted by the same angle on the other side of the
I2 I2
bisector.
I max  r + 1
2
 n + 1
2 This also means that the source S ′, the mid-point Q and the
=  =  point O ′ of the central fringe are in a straight line.
I min  r − 1  n − 1
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 301

44. (a) The film appears bright if the path difference is 48. (b) Shift produced due to insertion of slab
λ µg  D
2µt = ( 2n − 1) , where, n = 1, 2, 3, ... ∆x = t  − 1
2 µ m  d
4 µt
∴ λ=  1.5  1.5
( 2n − 1) = 10.4 × 10− 6  − 1 = 4.33 mm
 4 / 3  0.45 × 10− 3
4 × 1.4 × 10000 × 10−10 56000
λ= = Å Thus, the central maximum is obtained at a distance 4.33 mm
( 2n − 1) ( 2n − 1)
below point O on the screen as the slab is placed in the path
∴ λ = 56000 Å, 18666 Å , 11200 Å , 8000 Å , of lower slit.
6222 Å , 5091 Å , 4308 Å , 3733 Å µg 
49. (b) At O, path difference, P =  − 1 t
The wavelengths which are not within specified ranges µ
 m 
produce minima.
For maximum intensity at O
45. (c) Path difference = QX − PX = ( n + 2 ) λ − nλ = 2λ …(i) P = nλ ( n = 1, 2, 3, L )
For constructive interference or bright band, P
∴ λ= 
Path difference = ∆x = nλ (where, n = 1, 2, ...) n
From Eq. (i), it is obvious that second bright band is formed µg  t  1.5  10.4 × 103 nm
as n = 2. or λ =  − 1 =  − 1 ×
µ m  n  4/ 3  n
46. (d) We know, 1300 nm
Intensity of bright band, I max = ( I1 + I 2 )2 ...(i) λ=
n
For n = 1, λ = 1300 nm
Intensity of dark band, I min = ( I1 − I 2 )2 ...(ii)
For n = 2, λ = 650 nm
Case I When there is no glass slab For n = 3, λ = 433.33 nm
⇒ I1 = I 2 = I 0 Thus, the wavelength in the range 400 to 700 nm are 650 nm
or I max = 4 I 0 (Complete brightness) and 433.33 nm.
and I min = 0 (Complete darkness) 50. (a) The condition for minimum thickness corresponding to a
Case II When glass slab is inserted, dark band in reflection
I 2µt cos r = λ
⇒ I1 < I 2 or I1 = 0 and I 2 = I 0 (given)
2 λ 6000 × 10−10
∴ t= = = 4000 Å
or I max < 4 I 0 [from Eq. (i)] 2 µ cos r 2 × 1.5 × cos 60°
and I min > 0 [from Eq. (ii)]
51. (b) The resultant internsity
Hence, the bright band becomes less bright and dark band
φ
becomes less dark. I = I 0 cos 2
2
 ∆φ  π
47. (c) Using relation, I = I max cos 2   ,
 2 Here, I 0 is the maximum intensity and φ =
2
where, ∆φ = total phase difference  π  2 π
I I = I 0 cos 2   = I 0 cos
Given, I = max at certain point  2 × 2 4
4
I0
I max  ∆φ  1  ∆φ  I=
⇒ = I max cos 2   or = cos 2   2
4  2 4  2
52. (b) Here, A1 = 2 A , A2 = 2 A , φ = 60°
 ∆φ   π  2π 
⇒ cos   = cos   or ∆φ =   R= A12 + A22 + 2 A1 A2 cos φ
 2  3  3
λ λ 2π λ
Path difference, ∆x = × ∆φ = × = ...(i) = ( 2 A )2 + ( 2 A )2 + 2 × 2 A × 2 A × cos 60°
2π 2π 3 3
For Young’s double slit experiment we know, path = A 12
difference = d sin θ ...(ii) as intensity ∝ (Amplitude) 2
where, θ = angular separation of the point Therefore, I ∝ 12 A 2
Using Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
54. (a) Fringe spacing
λ λ
= d sin θ ⇒ sin θ = Dλ 1 × 5 × 10−7
3 3d β= = m (1 nm = 10−9 m)
 λ  d 1 × 10−3
⇒ θ = sin −1  
 3d  = 5 × 10−4 m = 0.5 mm
302 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

nλD 61. (d) Since, dark fringe is directly opposite to one of the slits,
55. (d) Position of nth bright fringe from central maxima is .
d
8λ 1 D 9λ 2 D Dark band
∴ = S1
d d x= d/2
λ1 9
⇒ =
λ2 8
S2
Hence, the possible wavelengths of visible light is of the
ratio of 9 : 8.
56. (d) λ 1 = 6000 Å, n1 = 16 fringes and n2 = 24 fringes d
∴ Distance of the dark fringe from central maxima =
nDλ 2
Position of nth fringe, ⇒ n1 λ 1 = n2 λ 2 λD
d Position of nth dark fringe = ( 2n − 1)
λ 1 n2 6000 24 2d S1
⇒ = ⇒ = d λD x = d/2
λ 2 n1 λ2 16 or = ( 2n − 1)
6000 × 16 96000 2 2d
⇒ λ2 = = = 4000 Å d2 S2
24 24 ⇒ λ=
D ( 2n − 1)
57. (c) Suppose slit width are equal, so they produces wave of
equal intensity say I ′. Resultant intensity at any point d2
⇒ For n = 1, λ =
I R = 4 I ′ cos 2 φ, where φ is the phase difference between the D
moves at the point of observation. For maximum intensity. 62. (c) Position of nth maximum from central maxima
φ = 0 ⇒ I max = 4 I ′ = I …(i) nλD
= ⇒ xn ∝ λ
Also, when one slit is closed d
I ′ = I0 …(ii) So, x(blue) < x (green) as
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 4 I 0 = I λ blue < λ green
10λD
58. (a) Position of 10th bright fringe = 63. (d) Given, d = 0.90 mm = 0.90 × 10−3 , D = 1 m
d
10λD Position of 2nd dark fringe from central fringe
Also, = 12
3λD
d = = 1 × 10−3 m
10λD 2d
⇒ d=
12 3× λ ×1
⇒ 1 × 10−3 =
The separation between the slits 2 × 0.90 × 10−3
10 × 589.3 × 10−9 × 1
= 1.8 × 10−6
12 × 10−3 ∴ λ= = 0.6 × 10−6 m = 6 × 10−5 cm
3
= 4.9 × 10−4 m = 0.49 mm
λ air 64. (b) Given, λ 1 = 12000 Å and λ 2 = 10000 Å,
59. (c) µ =
λ water D = 2 cm and d = 2 mm = 2 × 10−3 cm.
Using Eq. (iii), we get λ 1 12000 6 n2
We have = = =
ω1 µ water 4 λ 2 10000 5 n1
= =
ω2 µ air 3 n1 λ 1 D 5 × 12000 × 10−10 × 2
as x= =
60. (b) Here, λ = 500 nm, d = 1 mm, D = 1 m d 2 × 10−3
 1 λD = 5 × 1.2 × 104 × 10−10 × 103 = 6 mm
Distance of 3rd minima i. e., xn =  n + 
 2 d λD1 λD2
65. (a) The fringe width i.e., β1 = and β 2 =
 1 λD d d
x3 =  2 + 
 2 d λ
So, β1 − β 2 = ( D1 − D2 )
5λD d
⇒ x= λ
2d ⇒ 3 × 10−5 = −3 ( 5 × 10−2 )(Q D1 − D2 = 5 × 10−2 m)
5 × 500 × 10−9 × 1 10
=
2 × 1 × 10−3 3 10−8
⇒ λ= × = 0.6 × 10−6 m = 6000 Å
5 10−2
= 12.5 × 10−4 m = 1.25 mm
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 303

66. (d) nλ l D
P 71. (a) In liquid position of 10th bright fringe, xn =
S1 x d
θ 10λ l D
⇒ x=
O d
S2 where, λ l = wavelength in liquid.
D
λD
x Q Position of dark fringe = ( 2n − 1) ...(i)
Angular position of first dark fringe = tan θ ≈ θ = 2d
D
11λ air D
λ 5460 × 10−10  λD  In vacuum position of 6th dark fringe =
⇒ θ= = Q x =  2d
2d 0.1 × 10−3  2d  [put n = 6 in Eq (i)]
= 54600 × 10−7 rad Since, 10th bright fringe in liquid is located at 6th dark
fringe in air,
180
As, we know, θ (in degree) = × 546 × 10−5 10λ l D 11⋅ λ air D λl 5.5
π ⇒ = ⇒ =
d 2d λ air 10
180 0.32
= × 7 × 546 × 10−5 ≈ = 0.16° λl µ 1 5.5
22 2 Also, = air ⇒ =
λD λ air µl µl 10
67. (d) β=
d 10 20
or µl = = = 1.8
β 2 λ 2 D2 d1 5.5 11
∴ =
β1 λ 1 D1 d 2 72. (b) φ
I = I max cos 2 …(i)
β × λ 2 × 2D1 × d1 2
⇒ β2 = 1
λ 1 × D1 × d1 / 2 Given, I=
I max
…(ii)
λ 2
⇒ β2 = β × 2 × 4 π 3π 5π
λ1 ∴ From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have, φ = , ,
2 2 2
⇒ β 2 = 2.5 × 10−4 m
λ
Or path difference, ∆x =   ⋅ φ
68. (b) Resultant intensity, I R = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos ∆φ  2π 
Case I (at A ) ∆φ = π / 2 λ 3λ 5λ  2n + 1
∴ ∆x = , , K  λ
I R 1 = I1 + I 2 = I + 4 I = 5I 4 4 4  4 
Case II (at B) ∆φ = π n = 0, 1, 2, ……
I R 2 = I1 + I 2 − 2 I1 I 2 = 5I − 2 × 2I = I 73. (a) Fringe width
∴ I R 1 − I R 2 = 5I − I = 4 I λD 600 × 10−9 × 2
i.e., β= = = 6 × 10−4 m
69. (a) d 2 × 10−3
S1 πx
Using, I = I max cos 2
θ/2 β
θ/2 C
 π 0.5 × 10−2 
d

S2 ⇒ I = 0.20 cos 2  
D  6 × 10−4 
 100π  2 25π
So, distance between two slits i.e., S 1 and S 2 ⇒ I = 0.20 cos 2   = 0.20 cos
 12  3
d = ( 2 tan θ / 2 ) D
For small angles θ, tan θ ≈ θ  π
or I = 0.20 cos 2  8π + 
θ D 1  3
⇒ d = 2 × × D = Dθ or =
2 d θ π 1
⇒ I = 0.20 cos 2 = 0.20 × = 0.05 Wm−2
λD λ 3 4
Fringe width, β = =
d θ λD
74. (c) As we know, fringe width β1 =
70. (b) Length of segment = constant d
⇒ n1ω1 = n2ω 2 ⇒ n1 λ 1 = n2 λ 2  2D  λD
β2 = λ   =
λ 600  2d  d
or n2 = n1 1 = 12 × = 18
λ2 400 ⇒ β1 = β 2
304 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

75. (c) Let nth fringe of 1500 Å coincide with ( n − 2 ) th fringe For the second case,
of 2500 Å  π / 2  2π λ 
K ′ = 4 I 0 cos 2   φ = × 
∴ 1500 × n = 2500 × ( n − 2 )  2   λ 4
3n = 5( n − 2 ) = 4 I 0 cos 2 ( π / 4 )
3n = 5n − 10 K ′ = 2I 0 …(ii)
2n = 10 Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii),
⇒ n=5 K ′= K /2
(n − 2) = 3
80. (c) The contrast interference will occur when there is
∴ 5th order of 1st and 3rd order of 2nd. absolute darkness at the dark band due to destructive
76. (b) In YDSE, as we know interference i. e., I R = I min = 0 and there is complete (max.)
∆φ brightness at the bright band due to constructive interference
Intensity, I = I max cos 2
2 i. e., I R = I max = 4 I 0 , which is possible only when
I max ∆φ individual intensities are same,
⇒ = I max cos 2 So, I1 = I 2 = I 0
2 2
2 ∆φ 1 ∆φ  2n + 1 81. (b) Contrast between the bright and dark fringes will be reduced.
cos = ⇒ =  π, n = 0, 1, 2,K
2 2 2  4  82. (d) By using white light, the central maxima will be white
while the fringes closest on either side of central fringe is
 2n + 1
∆φ =  π red and farthest will appear blue.
 2 
∆φ 83. (d) Diffraction is observed when slit width is of the order of
⇒ ∆x = ×λ (Here, ∆x is path difference) wavelength of light (or any electromagnetic wave) used.
2π
∴ λ X- rays (1 − 100Å ) << slit width (0.6 mm)
 2n + 1 λ  2n + 1
= π × = λ ⇒ So, no pattern of diffraction will be observed.
 2  2π  4 
84. (b) As, the path difference aθ is λ,
λD
77. (c) Fringe width, β = …(i) λ
d then θ=
a
According to the question, 10λ 2λ d 10
D ⇒ = ⇒ a= = = 0.2 mm
D ′ = and d ′ = 5d d a 5 5
2
So, the width of each slit is 0.2 mm.
 D
 λ 85. (c) The direction in which the first minima occurs is θ (say).
D′ λ  2  1 Dλ
∴ β′ = = = λ
d′ 5d 10 d Then, esin θ = λ or eθ = λ or θ =
β e
β′ = [from Eq. (i)] (Qθ = sin θ, when θ is small)
10
2λb
78. (b) Here, β1 = 3.2 × 10−4 m Width of the central maxima = 2bθ + e = ±e
e
λ 1 = 5600 Å, λ 2 = 4200 Å 86. (d) Given, λ = 6000 Å = 6000 × 10−10 m, d = 0.3 mm
β 2 λ 2 4200
= = For minima, d sin θ = mλ
β1 λ 1 5600
6 First minima means ( m = 1),
or β 2 = × β1 λ
8 ⇒ sin θ =
d
6
= × 3.2 × 10−4 = 2.4 × 10−4 m Angular position of 1st minima,
8 λ 6000 × 10−10
Decrease in fringe width, sin θ = θ = = = 2 × 10−3 rad
d 0.3 × 10−3
∆β = β1 − β 2
So, angular position of first minima is 2 × 10−3 rad.
= ( 3.2 − 2.4 ) × 10−4 = 0.8 × 10−4 m
φ 2π  87. (b) Given, λ = 589 nm = 589 × 10−9 m, D = 1.0 m
2
79. (c) For net intensity, I = 4 I 0 cos φ = × λ Slit width = d = ?
2  λ 
Here, given the distance between two dark fringes (i. e., dark
For the first case,
fringes for m = ± 1)
K = 4 I 0 cos 2 ( π ) = width of central maximum = 2 y = 2.2 mm
K = 4I0 …(i) or y = 1.1 mm = 1.1 × 10−3 m
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 305

Using, for zero intensities path difference = mλ, For 1st secondary maxima
dy 3λ 3λ
we have = mλ ⇒ a sin θ1 = ⇒ sin θ1 = …(ii)
D 2 2a
mλD (1) ( 589 × 10−9 m) × (1.0 m) Substitute value of a from Eq. (i) to Eq. (ii), we get
Slit width i.e., d = =
y 1.1 × 10−3 m 3λ 3
sin θ1 = ⇒ sin θ1 =
= 0.54 mm 4λ 4
3
88. (a) Width of central maximum θ1 = sin −1
4
2λD
( ∆y0 ) = 2 y = …(i) 92. (c) For 2nd secondary maxima using red light
d
( 2m + 1) λ 1
Width of 1st order secondary maxima d sin θ1 = , where m = 2
= Distance between D1 and D2 (consecutive dark bands) 2
5λ 1 5λ 1
= y2 − y1 d sin θ1 = ⇒ sin θ1 = …(i)
2 2d
When white light is used, for position of 3rd secondary
D2 maxima ( m = 3 )
7λ 2 7λ 2
D1 y2 d sin θ 2 = ⇒ sin θ 2 = …(ii)
y1 2 2d
d
Since, the position coincide with each other for white and
red light
5λ 1 7λ 2
sin θ1 = sin θ 2 ⇒ =
2d 2d
D 5 5
⇒ λ 2 = λ 1 = × 6500 Å
7 7
For secondary minima (or dark band) path difference
= d sin θ = mλ (where, m = 1, 2, 3, …) Wavelength of white light, λ 2 = 4642.85 Å
Position of 1st dark band 93. (c) Using violet light
yd λD Slit width = d, λ 1 = 400 × 10− 9 m
Path difference = 1 = λ or y1 =
D d Width of diffraction pattern (central maxima)
Position of 2nd dark band 2λ 1 D
y d 2λD = 2y = …(i)
Path difference = 2 = 2λ ⇒ y2 = d
D d d
Slit width = (as half covered)
∴ Width of secondary maxima (∆y1 ) 2
λD λ 2 = 600 × 10− 9 m
⇒ ∆y1 = y2 − y1 or ∆y1 = = y
d
Width of diffraction pattern(Central maxima)
Thus, width of other secondary maxima is half that of
2λ 2 D
central maxima. = 2 y′ = …(ii)
∆y0 2 (d / 2)
or = y λ
∆y1 1 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), = 1
2π y′ 2λ 2
89. (c) Phase difference = ∆φ = × ( d sin θ ) y 400 2 1
λ ⇒ = = = ⇒ y′ = 3 y
(for two end of slit) y′ 600 × 2 3 × 2 3
For first order diffraction maximum, 94. (d) Distance between the first dark fringes on either side of
λ the central bright fringe = Width of central maxima
d sin θ = ( 2m + 1) ,
2 2λD 2 × 600 × 10− 9 × 2
3λ 2π 3λ 2y = =
where m = 1= ⇒ ∆φ = × = 3π d 1 × 10− 3
2 λ 2
= 24 × 10− 4 m = 2.4 mm
90. (c) For minima,
2λ 2λ
a sin θ = nλ 95. (a) Angular width of central maxima ( 2θ ) = =
d e
⇒ a sin 30° = (1) λ ( n = 1)
λ 1
 1 ⇒ 2θ ∝ ⇒ θ∝ (for λ = constant)
⇒ a = 2λ Qsin 30° =  …(i) e e
 2
Thus, on decreasing slit width ( e ), then θ will increases.
306 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

2λ θw µ 1  λ air µ 
96. (c) Angular width of central maxima = 2θ = . or = air = Q = water 
d θ air µ water µ water  λ water µ air 
Thus, θ does not depend on D i. e., distance between the slits 4
and the screen. ⇒ θ air = µ waterθ w = × 0.2° ≈ 0.28°
3
97. (a) Here, λ = 4000 Å = 4000 × 10−10 m = 4 × 10−7 m
101. (b) The angular resolution of the telescope is determined by
a = 0.2 mm = 0.2 × 10−3 m = 2 × 10−4 m the objective of the telescope.
−7 102. (a) Radius of the central bright region is approximately
λ 4 × 10 m
sin θ = = = 2 × 10−3 given by
a 2 × 10−4 m
1.22λf 0.61λf
r0 ≈ =
As sin θ is very small 2a a
∴ θ ≅ sin θ = 2 × 10−3 rad
x/ 2
98. (d) From the figure, tan θ =
2 2a 0.61λf
a
For small θ and when θ is counted in rad, tan θ −
~θ

f
1st minima
103. (a) Thus, ∆θ will be small if the diameter of the objective is
a θ=λ/a
O
X large. This implies that the telescope will have better
1st minima resolving power, if a is large. It is for this reason that for
better resolution, a telescope must have a large diameter
2m objective.
2λD 1 D
Width of central maximum = = 2.4 mm 104. (a) Resolving power of telescope (RP) = =
d ∆θ 1.22 λ
x/ 2 λ ~ x where, D = diameter of objective, λ = wavelength of light
So, θ~
− ⇒ −
2 9 4 Given, D = 6 cm = 6 × 10−2 m, λ = 540 nm = 540 × 10−9 m
4 λ ~ 4 × 600 × 10−9
x~
− − 6 × 10− 2
a 10−3 ⇒ RP = rad −1
1.22 × 540 × 10− 9
~ 24 × 10−4 m ~
−
−3
− 2.4 × 10 m 6000 × 104
= rad − 1 = 9.1 × 104 rad − 1
⇒ ~ 2.4 mm
− 540 × 1.22
λ 105. (a) Aperture of the telescope
99. (b) Angular width, θ =
d 1.22 λ
D=
θ1 λ 1 θ1 λ1 dθ
∴ = ⇒ =
θ2 λ 2 θ2 λ 1 / µ Here λ = 5600 Å = 5600 × 10−10 m, d θ = 3.2 × 10−6 rad
θ1 . × 5600 × 10−10
122
⇒ =µ (refractive index) ∴ D= ⇒ D = 0.2135 m
θ2 3.2 × 10−6
θ1 3
∴ θ2 = = × 0.2 = 0.15° 106. (c) The objective lens of a microscope, the object is placed
µ 4 slightly beyond f , so that a real image is formed at a distance
100. (b) In water angular width θ w = 0.2° (given) v [figure]. The magnification ratio of image size to object
size is given by m ≈ v / f . It can be seen from figure that
λ water
We know, θw = …(i) D / f ≈ 2 tan β …(i)
d
where, 2β is the angle subtended by the diameter of the
Let µ water = refractive index of water objective lens at the focus of the microscope.
In air,
λ air Image
θ air = …(ii) D
d β 1.22 fλ
On dividing Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get Object θ D
f
θw λ u
= water Object
Image plane
θ air λ air plane
Objective
lens
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 307

107. (b) If the medium between the object and the objective lens dramatic effect on the light coming from P2 . In one position,
is not air but a medium of refractive index n, the intensity transmitted by P2 followed by P1 is nearly zero.
1.22 λ When turned by 90° from this position, P1 transmits nearly
d min = the full intensity emerging from P2 as shown figure.
2n sin β
P2 P2 P2
108. (d) For compound microscope,
Resolving power
2µ sin β
i. e., RP =
1.22 λ
(i) Q RP ∝ µ P1 P1 P1
(a)
If the refractive index ( µ ) of the medium between the object
and the objective lens increases, the resolving power increases.
1
(ii) Q RP ∝
λ
On increasing the wavelength of light used, the resolving
power of microscope decreases and vice-versa. (b)
109. (a) In Fresnel biprism experiment, the actual distance of 119. (a) Suppose I 0 be the intensity of polarised light after
separation between the two slits, passing through the first polariser P1 . Then, the intensity of
d = d1 d 2 = 25 × 16 = 20 cm light after passing through second polariser will be
a2 I = I 0 cos 2 θ
110. (a) According to Fresnel distance, ZF i.e., ZF =
λ where, θ is the angle between pass axes of P1 and P2 . Since,
−3 2 −6
( 3 × 10 ) 9 × 10 P1 and P3 are crossed the angle between the pass axes of P2
= = = 18 m π 
5 × 10−7 5 × 10− 7 and P3 will be  − θ .
2 
112. (d) Light waves are transverse in nature; i. e., the electric
Hence, the intensity of light emerging from P3 will be
field associated with a propagating light wave is always at
right angles to the direction of propagation of the wave. We π 
I = I 0 cos 2 θ cos 2  − θ
can say light waves are transverse electromagnetic waves. 2 
113. (b) Polaroids can be used to control the intensity in I 
= I 0 cos 2 θ ⋅ sin 2 θ =  0  sin 2 2θ
sunglasses windowpanes, etc. The intensity can be further  4
controlled from 50% to zero of the incident intensity by
adjusting the angle between the pass-axes of two polaroids. Therefore, the transmitted intensity will be maximum when
θ = π / 4.
114. (b) The phenomenon of polarisation is based on the fact that
light waves are transverse electromagnetic waves. 120. (d) Given, i + r = π / 2
Light waves are transverse in nature i. e., the electric field According to Brewster’s law, we get
associated with a propagating light wave is always at right tan iB = µ = 1.5
angles to the direction of propagation of the wave. So, iB = tan −1 (1.5) ⇒ iB = 57°
115. (b) Ultrasonic waves being sound waves are longitudinal i.e., this is the Brewster’s angle for air to glass interface.
and hence cannot be polarised.
121. (a) In unpolarised beam, vibrations are probable in all
116. (b) Some crystals such as tourmaline and sheets of directions in a plane perpendicular to the direction of
iodosulphate of quinine have the property of strongly propagation. Therefore, θ can have any value from 0 to 2π.
absorbing the light with vibrations perpendicular to a 1 2π 1 2 π  1 + cos 2θ  1
2π ∫ 0 2π ∫0 
specific direction (called pass axis), transmitting the light [cos 2 θ ] av = cos 2 θ dθ =   dθ =
2  2
with vibration parallel to it. This selective absorption of light
called dichroism. 1 I0
So, using law of Malus, I = I 0 cos 2 θ ⇒ I 0 = I 0 × =
117. (a) Plane of vibration is perpendicular to the direction of 2 2
propagation and also perpendicular to plane of polarisation. 122. (b) When an unpolarised beam of light is incident at the
Thus, the angle between plane of polarisation and direction Brewster’s angle on an interface of two media, only part of
of vibration is 0° i. e, they are parallel. light with electric field vector perpendicular to the plane of
118. (a) If an identical piece of polaroid P2 be placed before P1 . incidence will be reflected. Now, by using a good polariser,
if we completely remove all the light with its electric vector
As expected, the light from the lamp is reduced in intensity
perpendicular to the plane of incidence and let this light be
on passing through P2 alone. But now rotating P1 has a
308 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

incident on the surface of the prism at Brewster’s angle, we 128. (b) tan iB = µ, where iB = polarising or Brewster’s angle
will observe no reflection and there will be total
transmission of light. ⇒ iB = tan − 1 (µ ) = tan − 1 ( 3 ) = 60°
 4
123. (c) In the special situation, one of the two perpendicular 129. (a) Here, Critical angle, ic = sin −1  
components of the electric field is zero. At other angles, both  5
components are present but one is stronger than the other. 4
∴ sin ic =
There is no stable phase relationship between the two 5
perpendicular components, since these are derived from two 1 5
perpendicular components of an unpolarised beam. As µ= =
sin ic 4
When such light is viewed through a rotating analyser, one According to Brewster’s law,
sees a maximum and a minimum of intensity but not
tan i p = µ
complete darkness. This kind of light is called partially
polarised. where, i p is the polarising angle
5  5
124. (d) Angle between P1 and P2 = 60° ∴ tan i p = ⇒ i p = tan −1  
4  4
130. (b) As reflected light is completely polarised, therefore
I0 I0 I0
I0= cos2 θ i p = 45°
P1 2 P2 2
µ = tan i p = tan 45° = 1
I0 c
Intensity of light emerging from P2 is I = cos 2 θ As µ=
2 v
where, θ = ∠angle between P1 and P2 c 3 × 108
I I ⇒ v= = ⇒ v = 3 × 108 ms −1
so, I = 0 cos 2 60° = 0 µ 1
2 8
131. (b) Using tan i p = µ
125. (c) B
45°
I0 (I0/2) tan i p = 1
(Unpolarised) IR i p = tan −1 (1) = 45°
A As r = 90° − i p = 90° − 45° ⇒ r = 45°

According to Malus law, 132. (d) Using, tan i p = µ = 15

. ⇒ i p = tan −1 (1.5 ) = 56.3°
I  I 1 I 133. (a) The branch of optics in which one completely neglects
I R =  0  cos 2 ( 45° ) = 0 × = 0
 2 2 2 4 the finiteness of the wavelength is called geometrical optics.
The wavelength of light is very small as compared to the
126. (c) Case I Since, ray emergent from C 2 has intensity. dimensions of objects (such as mirror, lenses etc.) and hence,
Angle between C1 and C2 = 0° it can be neglected and assumed to travel in a straight line.
134. (b) Reflection and refraction arise through interaction of
I1 I1 I1
incident light with constituents of matter. Atoms may be
I= cos2 θ viewed as oscillators, which take up the frequency of the
C1 2 C2 2
external agency (light) causing forced oscillations. The
I1 I I frequency of light emitted by a charged oscillator equals its
I= cos 2 θ = 1 cos 2 0° = 1 frequency of oscillation. Thus, the frequency of scattered
2 2 2
light equals the frequency of incident light.
I1
or = I 0 ⇒ I1 = 2I 0 135. (c) Since, the speed of light waves is less in glass, the lower
2
portion of the incoming wavefront (which travels through
Case II Angle between C1 and C 2 = 60° the greatest thickness of glass) will get delayed resulting in a
tilt in the emerging wavefront.
I1= 2I0 C1
2 I0
= I0 C2 I = I0 cos2 θ
2
Incident plane

2
 1
wave

I
Intensity of emergent ray = I 0 cos 2 60° = I 0   = 0
 2 4
wa t
ne gen
ve

127. (a) If unpolarised light is incident at polarising angle, then

pla mer

reflected light is completely i. e., 100% polarised Prism

E

perpendicular to the plane of incidence.

 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 309

136. (a) According to Huygens’ principle each point of the λD

144. (c) Fringe width, β = shall remain the same as the waves
wavefront is the source of a secondary disturbance and the d
wavelets emanating from these point spread out in all travel in air only, after passing through the thin transparent
directions with the space of wave. sheet. Due to introduction of this sheet, only path difference
These wavelets emanating from the wavefront are usually is changed, due to which there is shift of position of fringes
referred to as secondary wavelets and if we draw a common D (µ − 1) t
only, which is given as ∆x = , where, µ is
tangent to all these spheres, we obtain the new position of the d
wavefront at a later time. refractive index of thin sheet and t is thickness.
137. (a) Increase in wavelength of light when the source move 145. (a) For diffraction to occur, the size of an obstacle/aperture
away from the observer due to Doppler’s effect is called red is comparable to the wavelength of light wave. The order of
shift. The visible regions shifts towards red end of wavelength of light wave is 10− 7 , so diffraction occurs.
electromagnetic spectrum and hence called red shift. 146. (c) Maxwell proposed that light must be an electromagnetic
λD wave. Thus, according to Maxwell, light waves are associated
138. (a) As, we know, fringe width β i. e.,=
d with changing electric and magnetic fields. The changing
So, smaller the distance between the slits (d), then larger electric and magnetic field result in the propagation of
will be fringe width (β). electromagnetic waves (or light waves) even in vacuum.
Hence, single fringe will cover whole screen and pattern will 147. (a) The frequency of light emitted by a charged oscillator
not be visible. equal to its frequency of oscillation. So, the frequency of
139. (b) Given, initial phase difference = φ S 1 − φ S 2 = π scattered light equals to the frequency of incident light.
148. (c) Red colour travels faster than violet in glass. Speed of
At central maximum, ∆x = 0 ( path difference = ∆x) light is independent of its colour only in vacuum.
2π For light travelling from medium 1 to medium 2,
⇒ Total phase difference = φ S 1 − φS 2 + ∆x
λ v1 λ 1 µ 2
At central maximum, = =
v2 λ 2 µ 1
2π
∆φ = π + × ∆x = π + 0 c
λ 149. (b) µ =
v
or ∆φ = π = odd multiple of π.
Hence, the speed of light decreases in denser medium.
Hence, at central maximum dark band is obtained.
Energy carried by a wave depends on the amplitude of the
140. (b) wave, not on the speed of wave propagation. Energy remains
2
I max ( I1 + I 2 ) same.
∴ =
I min ( I 2 − I 2 )2 Also, intensity of wave ∝ (amplitude)2 or I ∝ A 2

141. (c) When one of slits is covered with cellophane paper, the 150. (a) Only transverse waves can be polarised. Sound waves are
intensity of light emerging from the slit is decreased longitudinal waves, so these waves cannot be polarised.
(because this medium is translucent). 151. (c) I max = ( I1 + I 2 )2 = ( 2 I 0 )2 = 4 I 0
Now, the two interferring beam have different intensities or The minimum intensity observed at dark band is given by
amplitudes.
I min = [ I1 − I 2 ]2
Hence, intensity at minima will not be zero and fringes will
become indistinct. If I1 = I 2 = I 0 , I min = 0
142. (a) For reflecting system of the film, the condition for If I1 ≠ I 2 ; I min ≠ 0
maxima or constructive interference is 152. (a) For centre of screen,
( 2n − 1) S1P − S 2P = 0 ⇒ ∆ L = 0
2 µt cos r = λ , while the maxima for transmitted
2 2π
system of film is given by equation 2µ t cos r = nλ , where t ⇒ ∆φ = × ∆L = 0
λ
is thickness of the film and r is angle of refraction.
From these two equations, we can see that condition for S1
maxima in reflected system and transmitted system are just
opposite. P
143. (c) In Young’s double slit experiment fringe width for dark
and white fringes are same while in the same experiment, S2
when a white light as source is used, the central fringe is
white around while few coloured fringes are observed on So, waves meet in phase and results in intensity maxima or
either side. bright fringe due to constructive interference.
310 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

153. (a) Intensity is the amount of light energy falling per unit 160. (b) Case I A light rays diverging from a point source.
area per unit time. So, when a slit width is increased, area
over which light falls increases and hence, more light energy
falls and hence, intensity increases. Spherical
(Intensity from slit) ∝ slit width of each slit Point source
wavefronts
⇒ I max = ( I1 + I 2 )2 ⇒ I min = ( I1 − I 2 )2
So, maximum and minimum intensities both increase.
154. (c) Diffraction determines the limitations of the concept of
a2
light rays. A beam of width a travels a distance , called Case II A light ray emerging out of convex lens when a
λ point source is placed at its focus.
the fresnal distance, before it starts to spread out due to
diffraction.
155. (a) Except photoelectric effect, all others phenomenon such
as propagation of light in vacuum, interference and
Point Light rays
polarisation of light can be explained by wave theory of source
light. In photoelectric effect light behaves as it is made up of at focus
particles. Incident Refracted
wavefronts wavefronts
156. (b) For a point emitting waves uniformly in all to direction,
the locus of points which have the same amplitude and Case III A portion of the wavefront of light from a distant
vibrate in the same phase are spheres. But at a large distance star intercepted by the earth.
from the source, the small portion of the sphere can be
considered as plane wave as shown in Figure
Light
from
distant
star

157. (c) Figure shows AB as incident wavefront, so A and B are Wavefronts

in same phase.
161. (a) It is given that S 1 P = 7λ and S 2 P = 9 λ
B We have, S 2 P − S 1 P = 9 λ − 7 λ
⇒ S 2 P − S 1 P = 2λ
A
The waves emanating from S 1 will arrive exactly two cycles
earlier than the waves from S 2 and will again be in phase.
E B
λ
S 1P = 7 P
A C S1

By the time B reachesC, secondary wavelet from A reaches E. 9λ

So, points C and E are same time intervals apart as they are 2
P= λ
S
in same phase.
S2
158. (a) When incident wave fronts passes through a prism, then
lower portion of wavefront ( B ) is delayed resulting in a tilt. 162. (a) When interferring sources have same frequency and their
So, time taken by light to reach A ′ from A is equal to the phase difference remains constant with time, interference is
time taken to reach B ′ from B. sustained (stayed for a finite time interval). If amplitudes are
159. (c) Frequency does not changes in reflection, of nearby values, then contrast will be more pronounced.
According to Snell’s law of refraction, we get 163. (d) Light sources which emit light waves of same wavelength
v λ air (or frequency) having either zero or a constant originating
ηw = air =
v water λ water phase difference are called coherent sources of light.
λ air λ air 3 164. (c) For a single slit of width a, the first null of the
⇒ As wavelength i.e., λ water = = = λ air interference pattern occurs at an angle of λ / a. At the same
ηw 4/ 3 4
angle of λ / a, we get a maximum (not a null) for two narrow
So, wavelength of reflected light is more than that of slits separated by a distance a.
refracted light.
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 311

165. (c) 169. (c)

I. For diffraction pattern, the size of slit should be A. Angular separation of the fringes remains constant
comparable to the wavelength of wave used. ( = λ / d ). The actual separation of the fringes increases
II. Diffraction phenomenon is commonly observed in our in proportion to the distance of the screen from the plane
daily routine in case of sound waves (which is a of the two slits.
longitudinal wave) because wavelength of sound waves B. The separation of the fringes (and also angular
is large (0.1-1 m). However, as wavelength of light separation) decreases.
waves is extremely small (10−6 -10−7 m), we do not λ 3
observe diffraction of light in daily routine. C. When medium is water, λ ′ = air = λ air
4/ 3 4
III. Diffraction is a wave phenomenon. It is observed in
electromagnetic and longitudinal waves as well. λ ′D 3  λD  3
∴ β′ = =   = β
166. (c) Figure shows light reflected from a transparent medium, d 4 d  4
say, water. As before, the dots and arrows indicate that both Dλ
As we know , fringe width β =
polarisations (E) are present in the incident and refracted d
waves. 1
As the figure shows, the reflected light is therefore, linearly D. When d is reduced, β ∝
d
polarised perpendicular to the plane of the figure (represented
by dots). This can be checked by looking at the reflected So, β is increased.
light through an analyser. 170. (a) Path difference, P = ( S S 2 + S 2O ) − ( S S 1 + S 1O )
The transmitted intensity will be zero when the axis of the 1/ 2
analyser is in the plane of the figure, i. e., the plane of  d2  d2 
S S 2 = x 2 + d 2 = x 1 + 2  = x 1 + 2 
incidence  x   2x 
Incident Reflected
Air (Q d <<< x )
S2 P

y
d
Refracted S1
S O
x D
Medium  d2 
Similarly,S 2O = ( D 2 + d 2 ) = D 1 +  (Q d << D )
167. (c) Since, light wave travels along the direction  2D 2 
perpendicular to its wavefront, for rays travelling along Also, S S1 O = x + D
X -axis,
 d2   d2 
i.e., plane, X = C is the perpendicular plane. ∴ P = x 1 + 2  + D 1 +  − (x + D )
Similarly, for rays along Y and Z-axes plane wavefronts  2x   2D 2 
Y = C and Z = C represent the wavefront, respectively. d2 d2 d2 1 1
=x+ +D+ − x − D or P =  + 
168. (c) A constructive interference is produced when waves 2x 2D 2  x D
overlaps such that a crest meets a crest and waves are in phase.
λ
Y n=3
For dark fringe, P =
n=2
2
n=1 ( 2n − 1) λ
[for minimum d , P = ; n = 1]
Q 2
n=0 λ d2 1 1 λxD
⇒ =  +  or d=
G n=–1 2 2  x D (x + D )
n=–2
n=–3 λD λD
Put x = D, d = ⇒ Put x = D / 2, d =
For maxima, 2 3
S 1 P ~ S 2 P = nλ ( n = 0, 1, 2, 3,K ) λD λD
Fringe width = β = = = 2d
For minima, d λD / 2
 1 Distance of next bright fringe from O.
S 1 P ~ S 2 P =  n +  λ ( n = 0, 1, 2, 3,⋅⋅⋅ )
 2 Distance of consecutive bright and dark band
we will have destructive interference and the resultant Fringe width
intensity will be zero. = =d
2
312 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Dλ 177. (d) According to Snell’s law of refraction, we have

171. (a) Fringe width, W =
d sin i v1 τ / AC v1
= =
where, D = distance between slits and screen sin r v2 τ / AC v2
d = distance between slits and v1 fλ1 λ1 v v
λ = wavelength of light = = or 1 = 2
v2 fλ 2 λ 2 λ1 λ 2
A. λ increase so W also increase
(∴ A → 4 ) 178. (c) In refraction, speed and wavelength changes but
frequency remains constant. As part of light is always
B. White light produces coloured fringes (Q B → 1)
reflected (and also absorbed,) there is change in intensity of
C. If D is doubled and d is halved, then W becomes four light also.
times (QC → 2 )
179. (a) On reflection and refraction, frequency of light remains
D. If intensity of either slit is reduced, the bright fringes
the same.
became less bright. (Q D → 3 )
ν2
172. (b) A wavefront is locus of points, which oscillate in phase ⇒ =1
ν ′2
i. e., it is a surface of constant phase.
173. (a) If we have a point source emitting waves uniformly in all 180. (a) According to Snell’s law of refraction,
directions, then the locus of points which have the same sin i µ 2 v λ
= = 1 = 1 …(i)
amplitude and vibrate in same phase are spheres. sin r µ 1 v′2 λ′2
174. (a) At a finite distance r the shape of the wavefront is spherical. Inc
ide ray
nt c ted
(v ray fle λ 2)
Wavefront 1, λ Re (v 2,
r 1) i i
Air (µ1)
S

Re (v′ 2,
r

fra λ′ 2
cte )
Water (µ2)

dr
ay
175. (b) At a large distance from the source, a small portion of the
spherical wave can be approximated by a plane wave. Given, wavelength of incident light, λ 1 = 589 nm
Wavefront For reflection, λ 2 = λ 1 = 589 nm …(A)
Also, v2 = v1 = 3 × 108 ms −1 = 300 × 106 ms −1 …(C)
Wave propagation
For refraction, using Eq. (i)
µ2 λ v λ 589 nm
= 1 = 1 ⇒ λ ′2 = 1 1 =
µ 1 λ ′2 v ′2 µ2 4/ 3
= 441.7 nm ≈ 442 nm …(B)
176. (c)
v1 3 × 108 ms −1
Incident Also, v ′2 = 1 = = 2.25 × 108 ms −1
wavefront B µ2 4/3
A′ = 2.25 × 106 ms −1 …(D)
v1 t
v1 ∆ν v radial
i 181. (b) In Doppler’s shift given by, =
Medium 1 i v c
A r C ∆ν
Medium 2 = fractional change in frequency
r v 2t ν
v1<v2 Refracted
E wavefront v radial = the component of the source velocity along the line
joining the observer to the source relative to the observer
BC vτ c = speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 ms −1 .
sin i = = 1
AC AC
AE vτ 182. (a)
and sin r = = 2 I. The Doppler’s shift is valid only when the speed of
AC AC
source is small compared to that of light. When speeds
where, i and r are the angles of incidence and refraction,
are close to that of light, the concept of Einstein’s
respectively.
special theory of relativity is used.
sin i BC / AC BC
= = II. Doppler’s effect finds application in estimation of the
sin r AE/ AC AE velocity of aeroplanes, rockets, submarines etc.
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 313

183. (d) In transverse wave the displacement is in the y-direction, (ii) Regular pattern shows constant phase difference.
it is often referred to as a y-polarised wave. Since, each (iii) We are using monochromatic light in YDSE to avoid
point on the string moves on a straight line, the wave is also overlapping and to have very clear pattern on the screen.
referred to as a linearly polarised wave. Further, the string 190. (b, d) Given, width of pinhole = 103 Å = 1000 Å
always remains confined to the XY-plane and therefore, it is
also referred to as a plane polarised wave. We know that wavelength of sunlight ranges from 4000 Å to
8000 Å.
184. (c) If the plane of vibration of the string is changed randomly
in very short intervals of time, then we have what is known Clearly, wavelength λ < width of the slit.
as an unpolarised wave. Thus for an unpolarised wave the Hence, light is diffracted from the hole. Due to diffraction
displacement will be randomly changing with time though it from the sunlight the image formed on the screen will be
will always be perpendicular to the direction of propagation. different from the geometrical image and overlaping of
185. (b) By law of Malus, intensity of emergent light from P2 is colour v.
191. (a, b) Consider the diagram in which light diverges from a
I = I 0 cos 2 θ, where θ = angle between P1 and P2 pass axis.
point source (O).
⇒ I = 0 when θ = 90°
186. (c) Let P3 be the new polaroid inserted.
β = angle between the pass axis of P1 and P3 (given)
O
I 0 = Intensity of light on polaroid P1 (given)
r
Let α be the angle between P3 and P2 pass axis.
I
Intensity of light from P1 = 0 Spherical
2
I0 Due to the point source light propagates in all directions
Intensity of light from P3 = cos 2 β symmetrically and hence, wavefront will be spherical as
2 shown in the diagram.
I
Intensity of light from P2 = 0 cos 2 β cos 2 α If power of the source is P, then intensity of the source will be
2 P
π I=
Q α = −β (as P1 and P2 are perpendicular) 4 π r2
2
I where, r is radius of the wavefront at any time.
I = 0 cos 2 β cos 2 ( π / 2 − β )
2 192. (a) Given, wavelength of light, λ = 589 nm = 589 × 10−9 m

=
I0
cos 2 β sin 2 β Refractive index of water µ w = 1.33
2 (i) For reflected light
I
I = 0 sin 2 2 β (Qsin 2θ = 2sin θ cos θ ) (a) Wavelength of reflected light, λ = 589 × 10−9 m
8
c 3 × 108
I (b) Frequency of reflected of light, ν = =
Also, I= 0 (given) λ 589 × 10−9
8
I0 I0 where c is velocity of light
⇒ = sin 2 2β or sin 2 2β = 1 ⇒ β = π / 4 = 45°
8 8 (Q Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 ms −1 )
I max  a1 + a2 
2 v = 5.09 × 1014 Hz
187. (b, d) =9 ⇒   (c) As the reflection takes place in the same medium so
I min  a1 − a2 
Speed of reflected light c = 3 × 108 ms −1
a1 + a2 a 3+1 4 a
= 9= 3 ⇒ 1 = = ⇒ 1 =2 (ii) For refracted light (In this process wavelength and speed
a1 − a2 a2 3 − 1 2 a2
changes but frequency remains the same)
Therefore I1 : I 2 = 4: 1 Wavelength of refracted light
188. (b,d) We have, for minima is reflection λ 589 × 10−9
nλ 640 × 3 λ′= = = 4.42 × 10−7 m
2µ 1 t = nλ ⇒ t= =n = 240 nm µ .
133
2 µ1 2× 4
c 3 × 108
t = 240 nm, 480 nm,K ∴ Velocity of refracted li, v = = = 2.25 × 108 ms −1
µ 133
.
189. (a, b, d) Consider the pattern of the intensity shown in the
figure of question. 193. (b) Given, separation between slits
(i) As intensities of all successive minima is zero, hence we d = 0.28 mm = 0.28 × 10−3 m
can say that two sources S 1 and S 2 are having same Distance between screen and slit D = 1.4 m
intensities.
314 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Distance between central bright and fourth fringe 196. (b) Given, wavelength of H α , λ = 6563 Å = 6563 × 10−10 m
x = 1.2 cm = 1.2 × 10−2 m Red shift ∆λ =15Å
Number of fringes n = 4 Since, the star is found to be red-shifed, hence star is
Dλ receding away from earth and Doppler’s shift is negative.
For constructive interference x = n
d vλ ∆λ ⋅ c 15 × 3 × 108
−2 4 × 1.4 × λ ∆λ = − ⇒ v=− =−
1.2 × 10 = c λ 6563
0.28 × 10−3 5 −1
v = − 6.86 × 10 ms
1.2 × 10−2 × 0.28 × 10−3
Wavelength, λ = ⇒ λ = 6 × 10−7 m Negative sign shows that the star is receding away from earth.
4 × 1.4
197. (c) Given, wavelength of light, λ = 600 nm = 600 × 10−9 m
194. (a) Given, wavelength λ 1 = 650 nm = 650 × 10−9 m
.π
01
Angular width of fringe, θ = 01
. °= rad
and λ 2 = 520 nm = 520 × 10−9 m, d = 2 × 10−3 m 180
(i) For third bright fringe, n = 3, D = 12 λ
. m Using the formula, θ =
The distance of third bright fringe from central maximum. d
nλ D λ 600 × 10−9 × 180
x= = 3 × 650 × 10−9 × m
D Spacing between the slits, d = =
d d θ . ×π
01
−9
3 × 650 × 10 × 12 . d = 3.44 × 10−4 m
= = 1.17 × 10−3 m
2 × 10−3 Thus, the spacing between the two slits is 3.44 × 10−4 m.
(ii) Let nth bright fringe due to wavelength λ 2 = 520 nm, 198. (a) There is no obstruction by the hill to spreading the radio
coincide with ( n +1) th bright fringe due to wavelength beams, the radial spread of the beam over the hill 20 km
λ 1 = 650 nm. away must not exceed 50 m.
D D i.e., ZF (Fresnel’s distance) = 20 km = 20 × 10−3 m ⇒ a = 50 m
i.e., nλ 2 = ( n − 1) λ 1
d d a2 a2 50 × 50
ZF = ⇒ λ= = = 1250 × 10−4 m
n × 520 × 10−9 = ( n − 1) 650 × 10−9 λ ZF 20 × 103
or 4 n = 5n − 5 or n = 5 Thus, the longest wavelength of radio waves is 0.125 m.
D D
Thus, the least distance, x = nλ 2 = 5 × 520 × 10−9 199. (c) Given, wavelength of light λ = 500 nm = 500 × 10−9 m
d d
−9 D = 1m, n = 1, x = 2.5 mm = 2.5 × 10−3 m
D . × 10
12 nDλ
x = 2600 × 10−9 m = 2600 × −3
. × 10−3 m
m= 156 Distance of n th minimum from the centre, x =
d 2 × 10 d
195. (b) Given, wavelength of light λ = 5000Å = 5000 × 10−10 m nDλ 1 × 1 × 500 × 10−9
d= = = 2 × 10−4 m ⇒ d = 0.2 mm
On the reflection there is no change in wavelength and x 2.5 × 10−3
frequency. So, wavelength of reflected light will be 5000Å. Thus, the width of slit of 0.2 mm.
A B
200. (a) Given, width of the slit = 104 Å
= 104 × 10− 10 m = 10− 6 m = 1µm
i r
Wavelength of (visible) sunlight varies from 4000 Å to 8000 Å.
As the width of slit is comparable to that of wavelength,
O hence diffraction occurs with maxima at centre. So, at the
Frequency of the incident light centre all colours appear i.e., mixing of colours form white
c 3 × 108 patch at the centre.
v= = = 6 × 1014 Hz
λ 5 × 10−7 201. (a) Consider the diagram, the ray (P) is incident at an angle θ
When reflected ray is normal to the incident ray. and gets reflected in the direction P ′ and refracted in the
direction P ′ ′. Due to reflection from the glass medium, there
AO and BO are the incident and reflected rays. is a phase change of π.
BO ⊥ AO N
P P′
∴ ∠i + ∠r = 90°
For reflection, ∠i = ∠r θ

∴ 2 ∠i = 45° O
∠i = 45° r r r′ d
Thus, the angle of incidence is 45°.
P′′
 CHAPTER 10 : Wave Optics 315

Time taken to travel along OP′′ λ

The minima will occur when S 2 P − S 1 P = ( 2n − 1)
OP ′′ d / cos r nd 2
∆t = = =
v c/ n ccos r λ
i.e., [ D 2 + ( D + x )2 ]1 / 2 − [ D 2 + ( D − x )2 ]1 / 2 =
sin θ 2
From Snell’s law, n =
sin r (for first minima n = 1)
sin θ If x=D
⇒ sin r = λ
n we can write [ D 2 + 4 D 2 ]1 / 2 − [ D 2 + 0]1 / 2 =
2
sin 2 θ
cos r = 1 − sin 2 r = 1 − λ
n2 ⇒ [ 5D 2 ]1 / 2 − [ D 2 ]1 / 2 =
2
− 1/ 2
nd n2d  sin 2 θ  λ
∴ ∆t = = 1 −  ⇒ 5D − D =

1/ 2
 n2  2
sin 2 θ  c
c 1 −  λ
 n2  ⇒ D ( 5 − 1) = λ / 2 or D =
2 ( 5 − 1)
−1 / 2
2π 2π nd  sin 2 θ  Putting 5 = 2. 236
Phase difference = ∆φ = × ∆t = 1 − 
λ λ  n2 
⇒ 5 − 1 = 2. 236 − 1 = 1. 236
So, net phase difference = ∆φ + π
λ
4 πd
−1 / 2 D= = 0.404 λ
 1 2  2 (1.236)
= 1 − 2 sin θ +π
λ  n 
206. (b) The resultant disturbance at a point will be calculated by
202. (c) In a Young’s double slit experiment, when one of the sun of disturbances due to individual sources.
holes is covered by a red filter and another by a blue filter. Consider the disturbances at the receiver R1 which is at a
In this case due to filteration only red and blue lights are distance d from B.
present. In Young’s double slit monochromatic light is used
Let the wave at R1 because of A be Y A = a cos ωt . The path
for the formation of fringes on the screen. Hence, in this
difference of the signal from A with that from B is λ / 2 and
case there shall be no interference fringes.
hence, the phase difference is π.
203. (d) There is a hole at point P2 (minima). The hole will act as Thus, the wave at R1 because of B is
a source of fresh light for the slits S 3 and S 4 . Therefore, yB = a cos (ωt − π) = − a cos ωt .
there will be a regular two slit pattern on the second screen. The path difference of the signal from C with that from A is
204. (a) Given, angular resolution of human eye, φ = 5.8 × 10−4 λ and hence the phase difference is 2π.
rad. and printer prints 300 dots per inch. Thus, the wave at R1 because of C is YC = a cos (ω t − 2π)
The linear distance between two dots is = a cos ωt
2.54 R2
l= = 0.84 × 10−2 cm.
300
l
At a distance of z cm, this subtends an angle, φ =
z
l 0.84 × 10−2 cm λ/2 λ/2
∴ z= = = 14.5 cm.
φ 5.8 × 10−4 R1 A B C

205. (b) For nth minima to be formed on the screen path λ/2
difference between the rays coming from S 1 and S 2 must be
λ D
( 2n − 1) . The path difference between the signal from D with that of
2
A is
From the given figure of two slit interference arrangements, 1/ 2
2
we can write 2 λ  λ  λ
d +   − ( d − λ / 2 ) = d 1 +  −d+
T2 P = T2 O + OP = D + x  2  4d2 2
and T1 P = T1O − OP = D − x 
1/ 2
λ2  λ λ
= d 1 +  −d+ ≈ (Q d >> λ)
S 1 P = ( S 1T1 )2 + ( PT1 )2 = D 2 + ( D − x )2  8d 2  2 2
Therefore, phase difference is π.
and S 2 P = ( S 2T2 )2 + (T2 P )2 = D 2 + ( D + x )2 ∴ YD = a cos (ωt − π) = − a cos ωt
316 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Thus, the signal picked up at R1 from all the four sources is 2nd
Thus, the optical path difference = − 2d tan r sin i
YR 1 = y A + yB + yC + yD cos r
= a cos ωt − a cos ωt + a cos ωt − a cos ωt = 0  1 − sin 2 r 
sin i d sin r
Let the signal picked up at R2 from B be yB = a1 cos ω t . = 2. − 2d sin i = 2d sin  
sin r cos r cos r sin r cos r
The path difference between signal at D and that at B is λ / 2.
∴ yD = − a1 cos ω t = 2nd cos r
The path difference between signal at A and that at B is λ
For these waves to interfere destructively path difference = .
2 1/ 2 2
λ  λ2  ~ 1λ
2
( d )2 +   − d = d 1 +  −d− λ
 2  4d2 8 d2 ⇒ 2nd cos r =
2
As d >> λ, therefore this path difference → 0 λ
⇒ nd cos r = ... (i)
2π  1 λ 2  4
and phase difference =  →0
λ  8 d2 For photographic lenses, the sources are normally in vertical
Hence, y A = a1 cos (ωt − φ ) plane
Similarly, yC = a1 cos (ωt − φ ) ∴ i = r = 0°
∴ Signal picked up by R2 is λ
From Eq. (i), nd cos 0° =
y A + yB + yC + yD = y = 2a1 cos (ωt − φ ) 4
∴ y
2
= 4 a12 cos 2 (ωt − φ ) ∴ < I > = 2a12 λ 5500 Å
⇒ d= = ≈ 1000Å
4 n 4 × 1.38
Thus, R1 picks up the larger signal.
207. (c) In this figure, we have shown a dielectric film of 208. (a) In case of transparent glass slab of refractive index µ, the
thickness d deposited on a glass lens. path difference = 2d sin θ + (µ − 1) L, slit width = 2d
For the principle maxima, (path difference is zero)
ly
ive

r1
st ere

i.e., 2d sin θ 0 + (µ − 1) L = 0
ct
de terf
ru

B L (µ − 1) − L ( 0.5 )
in
π

r2
or sin θ 0 = − = [Q L = d / 4]
=
φ

2d 2d
0

i
−1
=
φ

Air, n = 1 E or sin θ 0 =
C 16
r −D
Film, n = 1.38 d OP = D tan θ 0 = D sin θ 0 =
r r 16
0

λ
=

=
φ

For the first minima, the path difference is ± .

φ

D 2
Glass, n = 1.5 λ
2d sin θ1 + 0.5L = ±
Refractive index of film = 1.38 2
and refractive index of glass = 1.5. ± λ / 2 − 0.5 L
or sin θ1 =
Given, λ = 5500 Å . 2d
± λ / 2 − d / 8 ± λ / 2 − 2λ / 8 1 1
Consider a ray incident at an angle i. A part of this ray is = = =± −
reflected from the air-film interface and a part refracted inside. 2d 2λ 4 16
This is partly reflected at the film-glass interface and a part [Q The diffraction occurs if the wavelength of waves in
transmitted. A part of the reflected ray is reflected at the nearly equal to the slit width (d)].
film-air interface and a part transmitted as r2 parallel to r1 . 1 1 3
On the positive side, sin θ′1 = + − =
Of course successive reflections and transmissions will keep 4 16 16
on decreasing the amplitude of the wave. 1 1 5
On the negative side, sin θ1′′ = − − =−
The optical path difference between r2 and r1 is 4 16 16
n ( AD + CD ) − AB The first principal maxima on the positive side is at distance.
If d is the thickness of the film, then sin θ1′ 3 3D
D tan θ1′ = D =D = above
d 2 2 2 247
AD = CD = ⇒ AB = AC sin i 1 − sin θ1′ 16 − 3
cos r
point O.
AC The first principal minima on the negative side is at distance.
= d tan r
2 5 5
∴ AC = 2d tan r D tan θ1′′= = below point O.
2
16 − 5 2 231
Hence, AB = 2d tan r sin i.
 C H A P T E R

11
Dual Nature of
Radiation and Matter
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. The minimum amount of energy required to just eject 5. Effect of Potential on Photoelectric Current For a
an electron from the outermost surface of metal is fixed frequency and intensity of incident light, the
known as work function of the metal. photoelectric current increases with increase in the
Also, work function, W = hν 0 =
hc potential applied to the collector. When all the
λ0 photoelectrons reach the plate A, current becomes
maximum it is known as saturation current.
where, ν 0 and λ 0 are the threshold frequency and
threshold wavelength, respectively.
2. Photoelectric emission is the phenomenon of I 1 > I2 >I3
emission of electrons from the surface of metal when Photocurrent I1
I2
light radiations of suitable frequency fall on it. tia
l
en I3
3. The phenomenon of emission of photoelectron from t
po
the surface of metal, when a light beam of suitable ng Saturation
pi current
op
frequency is incident on it, is called photoelectric St
effect. The emitted electrons are called photoelectrons –V0 O Collector plate
and the current so produced is called photoelectric potential
Retarding potential
current.
4. Effect of Intensity of Light on Photocurrent For a 6. For a particular frequency of incident radiation, the
fixed frequency of incident radiation, the minimum negative (retarding) potential V 0 given to
photoelectric current increases linearly with increase
plate for which the photoelectric current becomes
in intensity of incident light.
zero is called cut-off or stopping potential.
KEmax = eV0
1
Photoelectric

2
⇒ mv max = eV 0
2
current

7. Effect of Frequency of Incident Radiation on

Stopping Potential We take radiations of different
frequencies but of same intensity. For each radiation,
O Intensity
318 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

we study the variation of photoelectric current against ⇒ V0 =

h
( ν − ν 0) (Q
the potential difference between the plates. e
KEmax = eV 0)
c c
Photoelectric current ν= and ν 0 =
λ λ0
ν3 > ν2 > ν1
h c c
Saturation V0 = − ⇒
ν3 current 
e  λ λ 0 
ν2
ν1 hc  1 1
V 0 =    −
 e   λ λ 0 
–V03 –V02 –V01 O Collector plate
Retarding potential potential (Anode potential) For photoelectric emission λ < λ 0 and ν > ν 0.
hc
8. The minimum frequency of light which can emit 13. Energy of each photon is given by E = hν =
λ
photoelectrons from a material is called threshold
h hν
frequency or cut-off frequency of that material. 14. Momentum of each photon is given by p = =
λ c
9. The maximum wavelength of light which can emit
2 E hν h
photoelectrons from a material is called threshold 15. Energy E = mc ⇒m= 2 = 2 =
wavelength or cut-off wavelength of that material. c c cλ
10. According to Planck’s quantum theory, light 16. de-Broglie wavelength is given by
radiations consist of tiny packets of energy is called h h h
λ= = =
quanta. One quantum of light radiation is called a mv 2mE 2meV
photon which travels with the speed of light. m0
where, m = ,
11. Einstein Photoelectric Equation Energy quantum of v2
radiation, K max = h ν − φ 0 1− 2
c
where, hν = energy of photon and φ = work-function m 0 being the rest mass of the particle and c is the
12. Relation between Stopping Potential (V0 ) and speed of light.
Threshold Frequency (ν 0 ) E is the kinetic energy.
We know that hν = KEmax + W0 12.27
For an electron, λ = Å
where, W0 = work function V
KEmax = hν − W0 also, W0 = hν 0 where, V is potential difference.
KEmax = hν − hν 0 ⇒ KEmax = h( ν − ν 0) 17. Electron diffraction experiments by Davisson and
Germer, and by GP Thomson have verified and
eV 0 = h( ν − ν 0)
confirmed the wave nature of electrons.

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Electron Emission
1. Gases are non-conductor at NTP. They are most (a) There is no discharge in the tube
conducting at (b) A zig-zag thin red spark runs from cathode to anode
(a) low temperature and low pressure (c) Whole of tube is filled with bright light
(b) low temperature and high pressure (d) A fluorescent glow appeared
(c) high temperature and low pressure 3. Colour of glow in a discharge tube at a pressure of
(d) high temperature and high pressure 0.001 mm of mercury column depends on
2. When electric field is applied between cathode and (a) nature of gas in the discharge tube
anode at pressure of about 0.001 mm of mercury in a (b) potential diference between cathode and anode
discharge tube, following is observed. (c) nature of material of cathode
(d) nature of glass of the discharge tube
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 319

4. Glow in discharge tube is due to 14. Mass of a particle is 400 times than that of an electron
(a) X-rays (b) positive rays and charge is double that of an electron. The particle is
(c) cathode rays (d) collision of gas ions accelerated by a potential difference of 5 V. If particle is
initially at rest, then its final KE will be
5. Cathode rays are
(a) 5 eV (b) 10 eV
(a) streams of positive ions
(c) 100 eV (d) 2000 eV
(b) streams of negatively charged particles
(c) streams of nuclei 15. Gases begin to conduct electricity at low pressure
(d) streams of neutrons because
6. Cathode rays are streams of fast moving negatively (a) at low pressure gases turn to plasma
charged particles. Their speed range is (b) colliding electrons can acquire higher kinetic energy
due to increased mean path leading to ionisation of
(consider c ≈ 3 × 10 8 ms −1 ) atoms
(a) 0.1 c to 0.2 c (c) atom break into ions and electrons
(b) c (d) the electrons in atoms can move freely at low pressure
(c) greater than c 16. Cathode rays are produced when the pressure is of
(d) around 10− 5 c to 10− 3 c order of
7. Specific charge of electrons is (a) 2 cm of Hg (b) 0.1 cm of Hg
(a) 1.76 × 10 C kg11 −1
(b) 1. 6 × 10− 19
C kg −1 (c) 0.001 mm of Hg (d) 10 cm of Hg
−31 −1 − 27
. × 10
(c) 911 C kg (d) 1. 67 × 10 C kg −1 17. An electron initially at rest is accelerated through a
potential difference of 200 V, so that it acquires a
8. Value of e/m (specific charge) of the cathode ray velocity of 8.4 × 10 6 ms −1 . The value of e/m of electron is
particles
(a) 2.76 × 1012 C kg −1 (b) 1.76 × 1011 C kg −1
(a) depends on potential difference of cathode and anode
(b) depends on nature of gas in the discharge tube (c) 0.76 × 1012 C kg −1 (d) 2.76 × 1011 C kg −1
(c) is independent of material of cathode or gas in tube
18. Which of the following orders of specific charge of
(d) depends on nature of metal used for cathode
proton, α-particle and electron is correct
9. The specific charge of a proton is 9.6 × 10 7 kg − 1 . The (a) e > p > α (b) p > α > e
specific charge of an α-particle will be (c) e > α > p (d) p > e > α
(a) 9.6 × 107 C kg −1 (b) 19.2 × 107 C kg −1 19. In Millikan’s oil drop experiment an oil drop having
(c) 4.8 × 107 C kg −1 (d) 2.4 × 107 C kg −1 charge q gets stationary on applying a potential
difference V between two plates separated by a
10. RA Millikan during his oil-drop experiment on
distance d. The weight of the drop is
electron found that the charge on an oil drop is d q V
(a) a fraction of 1.6 × 10−19 C (a) qVd (b) q (c) (d) q
V Vd d
(b) an even multiple of 1.6 × 10−19 C
(c) an odd multiple of 1.6 × 10−19 C 20. Free electrons cannot normally escape out of metal
(d) an integral multiple of 1.6 × 10−19 C surface because
(a) free electrons are bounded to one or other ion core
11. Which of the following wavelengths falls in X-ray (b) free electrons lie deep inside atom
region? (c) free electrons are held in metal lattice by attraction
° ° force of protons
(a) 0.5 A (b) 103 A
(d) if an electron attempts to come out of metal, the metal
° °
(c) 10−3 A (d) 102 A surface acquires a positive charge and pulls the electron
back to metal
12. X-ray can be deflected by applying
(a) a magnetic field (b) an electric field 21. Work-function is
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) maximum possible energy acquired by an electron
(b) energy of electrons in valence shell
13. An electron is accelerated through a potential (c) minimum energy required by an electron to move out of
difference of 1000 V, its velocity is nearly metal surface
(a) 3.8 × 107 ms −1 (b) 1.9 × 106 ms −1 (d) maximum energy which is given to electron to move it
(c) 1.9 × 107 ms −1 (d) 5.7 × 107 ms −1 out of metal surface
320 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

22. Work-function for a metal will change 25. Kinetic energy of emitted electron depends on
(a) if it is heated (b) if it is cooled (a) amount of energy acquired from an external source
(c) if it is coated (d) All of these (b) work function of an electron
(c) Both (a) and (b)
23. Work-function is least for
(d) it does not depend on any physical quantity
(a) caesium (b) aluminium
(c) silver (d) platinum 26. For moving elementary charged particles,
(a) q / m value is measured and not q or m separately
24. When light of suitable high frequency falls on a metal (b) only q or m can be measured and these are more
surface, it emits electrons this process is called important than q/m
(a) field emission (b) electron emission (c) q / m value is not measured
(c) thermionic emission (d) photoemission (d) q / m value is important only for electrons

Topic 2
Photoelectric Effect and Wave Theory
27. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light 30. A positively charged zinc plate is connected to an
because electroscope.
(a) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no
photoelectrons are emitted Zinc plate
(b) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons do not
depends on the frequency of light and not on its intensity
(c) when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the
photoelectrons will not leave the surface immediately
(d) electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantised
28. Lenard observed that when UV-radiations were It is then irradiated by UV-light. Result is
allowed to fall on the emitter plate of an evacuated
glass tube enclosing two electrodes, current flows in
the circuit as shown in figure. Reason is
(a) (b)
Quartz
window
S

Evacuated
Photosensitive glass tube
plate
Electrons (c) (d)

C A

31. Lenard observed that no electrons are emitted when

Commutator frequency of light is less than a certain minimum
µA frequency. This minimum frequency depends on
V (a) potential difference of emitter and collector plates
(b) distance between collector and the emitter plate
(c) size (area) of the emitter plate
+ –
(d) material of the emitter plate
(a) UV-light ionises the traces of gas left after evacuation
32. Photoelectric effect involves
(b) UV-light produces ionisation of cathode and anode
(a) conversion of nuclear energy into electrical energy
(c) UV-light causes ionisation of cathode
(b) conversion of atomic energy into electrical energy
(d) UV-light causes ejection of electrons from the emitter
(c) conversion of electronic energy into electrical energy
plate
(d) conversion of light energy into electrical energy
29. Which one among the following shows particle nature
of light? 33. Photoemission with visible light is possible in
(a) Photoelectric effect (b) Interference (a) alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals
(c) Refraction (d) Polarization (c) metalloids (d) semiconductors
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 321

34. When yellow light is incident over a metal surface, no 41. To measure the effect of potential on photoelectric
electrons are emitted while green light can emit current
electrons. If red light is incident over the surface, then (a) intensity and frequency of incident light is kept fixed
(a) no electrons are emitted (b) only intensity is kept fixed
(b) more electrons are emitted (c) only frequency is kept fixed
(c) electrons of higher energy are emitted (d) only potential of collector plate is kept fixed
(c) electrons of lower energy are emitted
42. With the increase in potential difference of emitter
35. When ultraviolet rays are incident on a metal surface and collector, the photoelectric current
the photoelectric effect does not occur. It may occur (a) increases
by the incidence of (b) decreases
(a) X-rays (b) radiowave (c) remains constant
(c) infrared rays (d) sound waves (d) increases initially and then become constant
36. In the experimental study of photoelectric effect, light 43. At certain positive potential of collector plate,
used is photocurrent becomes maximum or saturates.
(a) monochromatic light Saturation current corresponds to the case when
(b) white light (a) half of photoelectrons emitted by emitter plate reaches
(c) polychromatic light collector
(d) light from a tungsten filament lamp (b) more than half of photoelectrons emitted by emitter
plate reaches collector
37. Light used to emit electrons from metal plate is (c) less than half of photoelectrons emitted by emitter plate
(a) short wavelength (b) long wavelength reaches collector
(c) polarised light (d) low speed (d) All of the photoelectrons emitted by emitter plate
reaches the collector plate
38. While studying, effect of variation of intensity on the
photocurrent, intensity of light is changed in a 44. When polarity of collector plate is reversed,
photocell by (a) only slow electrons reach collector
(a) using a prism in the path of light beam (b) only very fast electrons reach collector
(b) using a thick glass sheet (c) no electron can reach collector
(c) tilting the cathode (d) all electrons move towards emitter
(d) changing the distance of light source from the emitter 45. Variation of photoelectric current with anode
39. Variation of photoelectric current with intensity of potential is shown below. Choose the correct option.
light is
Photoelectric

Photoelectric
current

current
Photoelectric
Photoelectric

(a) (b)
current
current

(a) (b)

O Anode potential O Anode potential

Intensity of light Intensity of light
Photoelectric

Photoelectric
current

current
Photoelectric

Photoelectric

(c) (d)
current

current

(c) (d)

O Anode potential O Anode potential

Intensity of light Intensity of light
46. Stopping potential is
40. Number of photoelectrons emitted per second is (a) maximum possible negative potential of anode
proportional to the (b) minimum possible negative potential of anode for
(a) intensity of incident radiation which photoelectric current is zero
(b) colour of incident radiation (c) anode potential for which photoelectric current is
saturated at constant intensity
(c) angle of incidence of incident radiation
(d) None of the above
(d) potential difference of collector and emitter plates
322 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

47. Obtain the value of stopping potential from the given We conclude that
graph is (a) maximum KE of photoelectrons is independent of
Photoelectric intensity
current (b) maximum KE of photoelectrons depends on intensity
(c) minimum KE of photoelectrons is independent of nature
of material
(d) minimum KE of photoelectrons depends on intensity
51. Maximum KE of photoelectrons depends on
(a) accelerating potential and light source
– 0.54 V O 0.2 V Anode potential (b) only accelerating potential
(a) − 0.54 V (b) 0.54 V (c) 0.2 V (d) − 0.2 V (c) light source and emitter plate material
(d) only emitter plate material
48. Variation of photoelectric current with collector plate
potential for different intensities ( I 1 > I 2 ) at a fixed 52. Stopping potential is more negative for
frequency is (a) higher frequency of incident radiation
(b) lower frequency of incident radiation
Photoelectric

(c) higher intensity of incident radiation

current
Photoelectric

I1 (d) lower intensity of incident radiation

current

I2
(a) (b) 53. In a photoelectric experiment the relation between
I1 I2
applied potential difference between cathode and
V01 V02 Collector
anode V and the photoelectric current I was found to
V0 Collector potential
potential be shown in graph below. If Planck’s constant
h = 6.6 × 10 −34 Js, the frequency of incident radiation
Photoelectric
Photoelectric

current

I2 I1 would be nearly (in s −1 )(φ =1eV)

current

I1 I2
(c) (d) I

V0 Collector plate V0 Collector plate

potential potential

49. If collector plate is made negative with respect to –2.2 O V (volt)

emitter, at certain potential V0 , photocurrent is zero. (a) 0.436 × 10 18
(b) 0.436 × 1017
Light
(c) 0.775 × 1015 (d) 0.775 × 1016
Collector
plate 54. An electron gun with its anode at a potential difference
P
+ – of 120 V fires out electron in a spherical bulb
containing hydrogen gas at low pressure (10 − 2 mm of
Photo sensitive plate
Hg). A magnetic field of 2.5 × 10 − 4 T curves the path of
the electron in a circular orbit of radius 13 cm. The e/m
V0
ratio is
(a) 2.27 × 10− 11 C kg − 1
If K indicates kinetic energy of an emitted
(b) 2.27 × 108 C kg − 1
photoelectron, then at point P;
(a) K > eV0 (b) K < eV0 (c) 2.27 × 10− 8 C kg − 1
(c) K = eV0 (d) 0 ≤ K ≤ eV0 (d) 2.27 × 1011 C kg − 1
50. From graph of photoelectric current versus collector 55. In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of
plate potential shown, the cut-off voltage versus frequency of incident light
is found to be 12 × 10 − 15 V-s. Calculate the value of
Photocurrent

Planck’s constant.
I1
I2
(a) 6. 0 × 10−34 Js
Stopping
potential Intensity I1 > I2 (b) 0.63 × 10−34 Js

V0 O (c) 6.59 × 10−34 Js

Collector plate potential
(d) 0
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 323

56. Photoelectrons are emitted from a metal surface when 61. Greater the frequency of incident light
light of suitable frequency is incident over a metal (a) lesser is the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
surface. Then, all of emitted photoelectrons (b) lesser is the minimum kinetic energy of emitted
(a) do not have same kinetic energy electrons
(b) have same momentum (c) greater is the maximum kinetic energy of emitted
(c) have same velocity electrons
(d) do not have kinetic energy (d) greater is the minimum kinetic energy of emitted
electrons
57. Photoelectric current in an experimental study of
photoelectric effect is made zero by making anode 62. Which of the following is true for a photosensitive
negative with respect to cathode. If stopping potential material?
is V0 , then (a) All materials shows photosensitivity to some or more
extent
(a) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron is K = eV0
(b) Different photosensitive materials have same sensitivity
(b) for every emitted photoelectron kinetic energy K ≥ eV
(c) Same photosensitive substance gives different response
(c) maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons to light of different wavelengths
K max = eV0
(d) All photosensitive materials give response to green
(d) sum of kinetic energies of emitted photoelectrons is light
ΣK = eV0
63. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic
58. When intensity of incident radiation is changed to
surface for frequencies ν 1 and ν 2 of the incident light
study the effect of intensity on stopping potential, it is
(ν 1 > ν 2 ). If the maximum values of kinetic energy of
found that,
the photoelectrons emitted in the two cases are in the
(a) stopping potential increases with increase in intensity
ratio 1: n, then the threshold frequency of the metallic
(b) stopping potential decreases with increase in intensity
surface is
(c) stopping potential remains same even when intensity is
( ν1 − ν 2 ) ( nν1 − ν 2 )
increased (a) (b)
(d) stopping potential first decreases, then increases with ( n − 1) ( n − 1)
increase in intensity ( nν 2 − ν1 ) ( ν1 − ν 2 )
(c) (d)
( n − 1) n
59. For the graph of collector plate potential versus photo
electric current shown, 64. In a photoelectric experiment, for different incident
frequencies of same intensities, we have
current
Photo

(a) same saturation current but different stopping potentials

(b) same stopping potential but different value of saturation
current
A Saturation (c) same saturation current value and same stopping
B current
C potential value
(d) both saturation current and stopping potential are
Collector plate potential
different for different frequencies
If I denotes intensity of incident radiation, then 65. Energy of emitted photoelectrons depends on
(a) I A > I B > IC (b) I A < I B < IC (a) intensity of incident radiation
(c) I A = I B = IC (d) I B > I A and I B < IC (b) frequency of incident radiation
60. For the graph shown, (c) both on intensity and frequency of incident radiation
(d) does not depends on frequency or intensity of incident
radiation
current
Photo

66. Photoemission of electrons

(a) is instantaneous process with a time lag of less than nano
A
second
B (b) is slow with a large time lag
C
(c) shows a time lag of around 1 s
– V0A – V0B – V0C Collector plate potential (d) time lag of less than 1 s cannot be calculated
If f denotes frequency of incident light 67. A beam of wavelength λ and intensity I falls over a
(a) f A > fB > fC (b) f A < fB < fC clean surface of sodium metal. If N photoelectrons
(c) f A = fB = fC (d) fB > fC and fB > f A are emitted with kinetic energy E, then
324 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

1 (c) refracted completely through the metal

(a) N ∝ I and E ∝ I (b) N ∝ I and E ∝
λ (d) absorbed by the nuclei of surface atoms
1 1
(c) N ∝ λ and E ∝ I (d) N ∝ and E ∝ 73. According to wave theory of light,
λ I
(a) maximum KE of electrons increases with frequency
68. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such (b) maximum KE of electrons increases with intensity
that the work function changes from W1 to W2 (c) maximum KE of electrons increases with decrease in
(W2 > W1 ). If the current before and after change are frequency
I 1 and I 2 , all other conditions remaining unchanged (d) maximum KE of electrons does not depend on intensity
and assuming ( E1 > W2 ), then
W1 I 74. According to wave theory of light,
(a) I1 = I 2 (b) I1 < I 2 (c) I1 > I 2 (d) = 1 (a) frequency less than threshold frequency is required for
W2 I2
photoemission
69. If light is considered a wave, then time delay for (b) frequency greater than threshold frequency is required
photoemission is of hours because for photoemission
(a) metal surface reflects the wave (c) frequency equal to that of threshold frequency is required
(b) metal surface may not be in resonance with the wave (d) a beam of sufficient high intensity is required
(c) metal surface has many electrons
(d) energy carried by a wave is very less 75. According to wave theory, time required for
photoemission is
70. Phenomena of interference, diffraction and (a) less than 10 s (b) around 10−9 s
polarisation are explained by (c) around 1s (d) around few hours
(a) wave theory of light
(b) particle theory of light 76. Photoelectric effect can be explained by
(c) Newton’s Corpuscular theory (a) Corpuscular theory of light
(d) Einstein’s mass-energy relation (b) Wave nature of light
(c) Bohr’s theory
71. Light is an electromagnetic wave consisting of (d) Quantum theory of light
electric and magnetic fields with
(a) uniform distribution of electrons 77. Light of intensity 10 −5 Wm −2 falls on sodium photo
(b) continuous distribution of energy cell of surface area 2 cm 2 and work function 2 eV.
(c) no distribution of energy Assuming that, only top 5 layers of sodium absorbs
(d) discrete distribution of energy the incident energy and effective atomic area of
sodium atom is 10 −20 m 2 , the time required for
72. When a light wave is incident over a metal surface,
photoemission in wave picture of light is nearly
light energy is
1 1 1 1
(a) absorbed by free electrons of the metal surface (a) 10 s (b) s (c) h (d) yr
(b) reflected completely back into first medium 2 2 2 2

Topic 3
Einstein’s Photoelectric Equation and Energy
Quantum of Radiation
78. According to Albert Einstein, photoelectric emission 79. The photoelectric threshold frequency of a metal is ν.
does not takes place by …A…of energy from When light of frequency 6ν is incident on the metal,
radiation. Radiation energy is build up of discrete the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo
units called …B… of energy of radiation. Here, A electron is
and B refer to (a) 4hν (b) 5hν (c) 3hν (d) ( 3/ 2 ) hν
(a) radiation, bundle
80. Electrons emitted due to absorption of energy of
(b) incidence, packet
radiation will have a maximum kinetic energy
(c) emission, thrust
(a) K max = hν − φ 0 (b) K max = φ 0 − hν
(d) continuous absorption, quanta
(c) K max > hν − φ 0 (d) K max < hν − φ 0
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 325

81. Maximum kinetic energy K max of emitted 89. Intensity of light is

photoelectrons is determined by (a) number of photons falling over an area is 1 s
(a) total number of photons absorbed (b) number of photons falling over an area
(b) rate of photons incident over surface (c) number of photons falling over unit area in unit time
(c) energy of each photon (d) number of photons emitted by source in 1 s
(d) distance of source from the surface 90. According to Einstein, photoemission occurs only, when
82. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is (a) incident radiation must be very intense
1 2 (b) metal surface must be smooth
(a) K max = mv (c) incident radiation must falls over surface for a
2
sufficient time
(b) K max = eV0
(d) frequency of incident radiation exceeds threshold
1 1
(c) K max = hν − φ 0 = hc  −  frequency
 λ λ0
91. For incident frequency greater than threshold
(d) K max = mc2 frequency, photocurrent is proportional to
83. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is based on (a) intensity (b) work-function
(a) conservation of momentum (c) distance of source (d) initial energy of electron
(b) de-Broglie’s matter wave 92. In photoemission, if intensity of radiation falling over
(c) conservation of energy surface is very low, then
(d) mass-energy relation (a) time required will be large
84. For photoelectric effect with incident photon wavelength (b) time required will be small
λ, the stopping potential is V . Identify the correct (c) process in instantaneous whether intensity is low or high
1 (d) photoemission does not occurs
variations of V0 with λ 0 and .
λ [JEE Advanced 2015] 93. V0 versus ν curve is a
V0 V0
(a) straight line with slope = φ 0
(b) straight line with slope = φ 0 / e
(a) (b) (c) straight line with slope = h / e
(d) straight line with zero slope
λ λ
94. Stopping potential versus frequency graph for a metal
V0 V0
surface is a straight line. Planck’s constant is given by
(a) slope of line
(c) (d) (b) product of slope of the line and charge of electron
(c) product of y intercept and mass of electron
1/λ 1/λ (d) product of slope and mass of electron
85. According to Einstein’s equation K max ∝ ν because 95. In an experiment on photoelectric
V0

(a) an electron is emitted after absorption of few photons effect, the frequency f of incident
when absorbed energies exceeds certain value light is plotted against the
(b) an electron is emitted after number of photons falling stopping potential V0 . The O A
over surface exceeds of critical volume f
work-function of the photoelectric f0
(c) an electron is emitted only if it is present on the surface B
surface is given by
(d) an electron is emitted after absorption of a single (a) OB × e (in eV) (b) OB (in volts)
photon of sufficient energy (c) OA (in eV) (d) the slope of line AB
86. An electron is emitted from a metal surface, when 96. A point source of light is used in i
(a) hν > φ 0 (b) hν < φ 0 (c) hν = φ 0 (d) 0 < hν < φ 0 an experiment on photoelectric a

87. Energy E of emitted photoelectrons ranges from effect. Which of the following b
c
(a) hν < E < K max (b) φ 0 < E < K max curves best represents the
d
(c) K max > E > ∞ (d) 0 < E < K max variation of photoelectric current
i with distance d of the source d
88. As kinetic energy (K max ) is always positive, so from the emitter?
(a) hν = φ 0 (b) hν > φ 0 (a) a (b) b
(c) hν < φ 0 (d) None of these (c) c (d) d
326 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

97. Figure represents a graph of kinetic energy K of 103. Two identical photo cathodes receive light of
photoelectrons and frequency ν for a metal used or frequencies ν 1 and ν 2 . If the velocities of the photo
cathode in photoelectric experiment. The work electrons (of mass m) coming out are v1 and v 2
function of metal is respectively, then
1/ 2
K (eV) 2h  2h 
(a) v12 − v22 = ( ν1 − ν 2 ) (b) v1 − v2 =  ( ν1 + ν 2 )
4 m m 
3 1/ 2
2 2h  2h 
(c) v12 − v22 = ( ν1 + ν 2 ) (d) v1 − v2 =  ( ν1 − ν 2 )
1
ν
m m 
–1
104. In experimenting with rubidium photocell, the
–2
–3 following lines from a mercury source were used
λ 1 = 3650 Å, λ 2 = 4047 Å, λ 3 = 4358 Å,
(a) 1 eV (b) 1.5 eV
(c) 2 eV (d) 3 eV
λ 4 = 5461 Å, λ 5 = 6907 Å and stopping potentials
respectively are V01 =1.28 V, V02 = 0.95 V,
98. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation V03 = 0.74 V, V04 = 0.16 V, V05 = 0 V.
of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V . If the
same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavel Threshold frequency and work-function of metal are
V (a) 4 × 1014 Hz, 1.5 eV (b) 4.3 × 1014 Hz, 1.8 eV
ength 2λ, the stopping potential is . The threshold
4 (c) 4 × 1014 Hz, 3 eV (d) 1.5 × 1014 Hz, 5 eV
wavelength for the metallic surface is [NEET 2016]
5 105. Every metal has a definite work-function. Then, all
(a) 5λ (b) λ (c) 3λ (d) 4λ
2 photoelectrons do not come out with same kinetic
energy, if incident radiation is monochromatic because
99. Light of wavelength 0.6 mm from a sodium lamp falls (a) KE of emitted electron depends on number of photons
on a photocell and causes the emission of absorbed
photoelectrons for which the stopping potential is (b) KE of emitted electron depends on energy of absorbed
0.5 V and with the light of wavelength 0.4 mm from a photon and each photon may be of different energy
sodium lamp, the stopping potential is 1.5 V with this (c) all electrons in an atom do not have the same energy level
data, the value of h / e is (d) all electrons have same kinetic energy
(a) 4 × 10− 59 Vs (b) 0.25 × 1015 Vs 106. The work-function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV.
(c) 4 × 10− 15 Vs (d) 4 × 10− 8 Vs When light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on the
metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs.
100. A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic What is the
light of frequency ν 1 and stopping potential is found
(i) stopping potential and
to be V1 . If the light of frequency ν 2 irradiates the
(ii) maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons?
surface. The stopping potential will be
h h (a) V0 = 0.35 V,V max = 350.7 kms −1
(a) V1 + ( ν1 + ν 2 ) (b) V1 + ( ν1 − ν 2 )
e e (b) V0 = .2 V,V max = 250 kms −1
e
(c) V1 + ( ν 2 − ν1 )
h
(d) V1 − ( ν1 + ν 2 ) (c) V0 = 1.2 V, V max = 250 kms −1
h e (d) None of the above
101. The work function of platinum is 6.35 eV. The 107. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by
threshold frequency of platinum is monochromatic light of wavelengths λ and λ /2. If the
(a) 15.32 × 1014 Hz (b) 15.32 × 1016 Hz maximum kinetic energy of the emitted
(c) 15.32 × 1019 Hz (d) 15.32 × 1018 Hz photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times than in
the first case, the work function of the surface of the
102. For a certain metal, incident frequency ν is five times of
material is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
threshold frequency ν 0 and the maximum velocity of
(h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light)
coming out photoelectrons is 8 × 10 6 ms − 1 if ν = 2ν 0 ,
hc hc
the maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be (a) (b)
2λ λ
(a) 4 × 106 ms −1 (b) 6 × 106 ms −1
2 hc hc
(c) 8 × 106 ms −1 (d) 1 × 106 ms −1 (c) (d)
λ 3λ
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 327

108. Radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a photocell. The source is replaced by an iron source and its 427.2
The fastest emitted electron has speed v. If the nm line irradiates the same photocell. Predict the new
3λ stopping voltage.
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the fastest (a) 1.51 V (b) 3.5 V
4
(c) 0.05 V (d) 2.03 V
emitted electron will be [JEE Main 2016]
 4
1/ 2
 4
1/ 2 110. Light of wavelengths λ A and λ B falls on two identical
(a) > v   (b) < v  
 3  3 metal plates A and B respectively. The maximum
1/ 2 1/ 2 kinetic energy of photoelectrons is K A and K B
 4  3 respectively, then which one of the following relations
(c) = v   (d) = v  
 3  4 is true? ( λ A = 2λ B )
KB
109. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 640.2 nm (a) K A < (b) 2K A = K B
(1 nm = 10 − 9 m) from a neon lamp irradiates 2
photosensitive material made of caesium on tungsten. (c) K A = 2K B (d) K A > 2K B
The stopping voltage is measured to be 0.54 V.

Topic 4
Particle Nature of Light : The Photon
111. Millikan proved validity of Einstein’s photoelectric 116. Particle like behaviour of light is confirmed by
equation by (a) α-particle scattering
(a) finding work-function ( φ 0 ) (b) scattering of electrons by a metal target
(b) finding Planck’s constant ( h ) (c) scattering of X-rays from electrons
(c) finding change of electron ( e ) (d) scattering of neutrons
(d) finding mass of electron ( m ) 117. All photons present in a light beam of single
112. Einstein’s picture of photoelectric effect was accepted frequency have
using (a) same frequency but different momentum
(a) the hypothesis of light quantas (b) same momentum but different frequency
(c) different frequency and different momentum
(b) the experimental determination of values of h and φ 0
(d) same frequency and same momentum
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) 118. When intensity of a light beam is increased,
(a) energy of photons present increases
113. Photoelectric effect gave evidence that light in (b) momentum of photons present increases
interaction with matter, (c) wavelength of photons present increases
(a) is converted into particles of same size (d) number of photons crossing a unit area per second increases
(b) is converted into particles of same energy
119. An electric eye is
(c) is converted into mass following E = mc2
(a) an LED (b) a photocell
(d) behaves as if it was made of packets of energy, each of
energy hν (c) a solar cell (d) a photo diode

114. Particle like behaviour of light arises from the fact 120. Which of the following is ‘incorrect’ statement
that each quanta of light has definite …A… and a regarding ‘photon’?
fixed value of …B… just like a particle. Here, A and (a) Photon exerts no pressure
B refer to (b) Photon energy is hν
(a) frequency, energy (c) Photon rest mass is zero
(b) shape, volume (d) Photons can rebound from a metal surface
(c) energy, frequency 121. In an electron-photon collision, which is not true?
(d) energy, momentum (a) Photon-electron collision is elastic
115. Definite value of energy possessed by quantum of (b) Photons can rebound from an electron
radiation is called (c) In an photoelectron collision, number of photons is not
(a) proton (b) photon conserved
(c) deutron (d) lapton (d) Photons are deflected by a strong electric field
328 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

122. The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line 126. Work-function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Threshold
of sodium is 589 nm. Find the kinetic energy at which frequency of caesium is
(i) an electron and . × 1014 Hz
(a) 514 (b) 6 × 1014 Hz
(ii) a neutron would have the same de-Broglie wavelength. (c) 3 × 1014 Hz (d) 5.16 × 1014 Hz
(a) KE e = 5 × 10−25 J, KE n = 6.5 × 10−28 J
(b) KE e = 6.96 × 10−25 J, KE n = 3.81 × 10−28 J 127. The wavelength of light in the visible region is about
760 nm for red colour. The energy of photon in eV at
(c) KE e = 1.25 × 10−25 J KE n = 6.23 × 10−28 J
the red end of the visible spectrum is
(d) KE e = 3.26 × 10+25 J, KE n = 4.06 × 10+28 J (a) 6.63 (b) 3.62 (c) 7.61 (d) 1.64
123. In an accelerator experiment on high-energy 128. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of
collisions of electrons with positrons, a certain event the earth is 1.52 × 10 3 Wm −2 . The photons in the
is interpreted as annihilation of an electron-positron sunlight have an average wavelength of 520 nm. How
pair of total energy 10.2 eV into two γ-rays of equal many photons per square metre are incident on the
energy. What is the wavelength associated with each earth per second?
γ-ray? (a) 4 × 1021 (b) 4 × 1034
(a) 2.436 × 10−7 m (b) 1.436 × 10−7 m (c) 4 × 1031 (d) 4 × 1028
(c) 2.436 × 10+7 m (d) 1.436 × 10+7 m
129. An X-ray tube produces a continuous spectrum of
124. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is radiation with its short wavelength end at 0.55Å. The
produced by a laser. The energy of a photon in the maximum energy of a photon in the radiation is
light beam is (a) 32.6 eV (b) 22.6 keV
(a) 5 × 10−15 J (b) 3.98 × 10−19 J (c) 15.2 keV (d) 12.8 keV
(c) 2.54 × 10−14 J . × 10−14 J
(d) 516
130. The linear momentum of a 6 MeV photon is
125. A laser beam of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is emitted (a) 0.01 eV sm −1
from a source of 2 × 10 −3 W. Number of photons
emitted per second is (b) 0.02 eV s m −1
(a) 3.98 × 10−19 . × 1014
(b) 516 (c) 0.03 eV s m −1
(c) 3.98 × 1019 (d) 5 × 1015 (d) 0.04 eV s m −1

Topic 5
Wave Nature of Matter
131. de-Broglie hypothesis is 134. A photocell converts
(a) wave can behave like a particle (a) change in current into change in light intensity
(b) a stationary particle can behave like a wave (b) change in intensity of light into change in current
(c) a travelling wave can behave like a particle (c) change in current into change in voltage
(d) a moving particle of matter can display wave like (d) change in intensity into change in potential difference
properties
135. A photocell cannot be used
132. de-Broglie hypothesis is a conclusion drawn from (a) for reproduction of sound in motion pictures
(a) photoelectric effect (b) in burglar alarms
(b) convertibility of mass into energy (c) as a fire alarm
(c) symmetry of matter and energy (d) to illuminate a room
(d) compton effect
136. If an electron is accelerated from rest through a
133. Macroscopic objects like a moving cricket ball does potential of V volts, then kinetic energy K gained by it
not shows any wave like properties because 1
(a) K = eV (b) K = eV
(a) de-Broglie’s hypothesis is not true 2
(b) de-Broglie’s hypothesis is true only for electrons 2
(c) K = eV (d) K = 0
(c) de-Broglie’s hypothesis is true only for photons 3
(d) wavelength associated with a macroscopic object is small
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 329

137. The phenomenon of image formation by our eye, 145. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an
(a) can be described using wave theory electron moving with a speed of 5.4 × 10 6 ms −1 is
(b) can be described using photon theory (a) 0.135 nm (b) 0.125 nm
(c) can be described using any of the wave or photon theory (c) 0.150 nm (d) 0.145 nm
(d) can be described fully by using both wave and photon theory
146. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated through the
138. The de-Broglie wavelength λ same potential difference. The ratio of de-Broglie
(a) is proportional to mass
wavelength λ p to that of λ α is
(b) is proportional to momentum
(c) inversely proportional to momentum (a) 2 :1 (b) 4 :1 (c) 6 :1 (d) 8 :1
(d) does not depends on momentum
147. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of KE, K is
139. de-Broglie wavelength of a body of mass m and λ. What will be the wavelength of the particle, if it’s
kinetic energy E is given by K
kinetic energy is ?
h 2mE 9
(a) λ = (b) λ =
mE h (a) λ (b) 2λ (c) 3λ (d) 4λ
h h
(c) λ = (d) λ = 148. There are two sources of light, each emitting with a
2mE 2mE
power of 200 W. One emits X-rays of wavelength
140. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest 2 nm and the other visible light of 400 nm. The ratio
gets accelerated by a constant electric field E. The of number of photons of X-rays to the photons of
rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of the visible light of the given wavelength is
electron at time t ignoring relativistic effect is (a) 1 : 100 (b) 1 : 200 (c) 1 : 500 (d) 1 : 300
−h −eEt − mh −h
(a) (b) (c) (d) 149. If alpha particle, proton and electron move with the
e Et 2 E e Et 2 eE same momentum, then their respective de-Broglie
141. de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron, wavelengths λ α , λ p , λ e are related as
accelerating through a potential difference of 100 V (a) λ α = λ p = λ e (b) λ α < λ p < λ e
lies in the region of (c) λ α > λ p > λ e (d) λ p > λ e > λ α
(a) Gamma rays (b) X-rays 150. Electrons with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the
(c) Ultraviolet (d) Visible region target in an X-ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of the
142. Wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is emitted X-ray is
(a) more than de-Broglie wavelength of its photon 2mcλ 2 2h
(a) λ 0 = (b) λ 0 =
(b) less than de-Broglie wavelength of its photon h mc
(c) there is not relation between wavelength of a radiation 2m2 c2 λ 3
and de-Broglie wavelength of its photon (c) λ 0 = (d) λ 0 = λ
h2
(d) wavelength of radiation is equal to de-Broglie
wavelength of its photon 151. Electrons used in an electron microscope are
accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is
143. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy
increased to 100 kV, then the de-Broglie wavelength
E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated
associated with the electrons would
with them is (c being velocity of light) [NEET 2016]
1/ 2 (a) decrease by 2 times (b) decrease by 4 times
 E 1/ 2 (c) increase by 4 times (d) increase by 2 times
(a)   (b) c( 2mE )
 2m
1/ 2 1/ 2
152. If h is Planck’s constant, the momentum of a photon
1  2m 1 E  of wavelength 1 Å is
(c)   (d)  
c E  c  2m (a) 1010 h (b) h
144. The number of photons entering the pupil of our eye (c) 102 h (d) 1012 h
per second, when a light beam of intensities of 153. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to
10 −10 Wm −2 enters pupil of our eye of area 0.4 cm 2 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in
with frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is
[NEET 2013]
(a) around 1 × 104 in 1 s (b) around 100 in 1 s
(a) 25 (b) 75
(c) around 1000 in 1 s (d) only 1 in 1 s
(c) 60 (d) 50
330 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

154. The work function for aluminium surface is 4.2 eV. 160. What is the basic idea behind experimental
The cut-off wavelength for the photoelectric effect is verification of de-Broglie hypothesis?
(a) 2955 Å (b) 4200 Å (a) Wavelength associated with electrons is of same order
(c) 2000 Å (d) 1000 Å as spacing of atomic planes in crystal
(b) Wavelength associated with electrons is much larger
155. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 200 nm is incident on than spacing of atomic planes in crystal
polished surface of Fe (iron). Work function of the (c) Wavelength associated with electrons is much smaller
surface is 4.71 eV. What will be its stopping potential? than spacing of atomic planes in crystal
(a) 0.5 V (b) 2.5 V (d) It was taken from diffraction of X-rays from crystal
(c) 1.5 V (d) None of these planes
156. An electron, an α-particle and a proton have the same 161. Wave is associated with matter
kinetic energy. Shortest de-Broglie wavelength is (a) when it is stationary
associated with (b) when it is in motion with velocity of light
(a) electron (c) when it is in motion with any velocity
(b) α-particle (d) never associated with matter
(c) proton 162. A particle which has zero rest mass and non-zero
(d) all produces same wavelength energy and momentum must travel with a speed
157. A particle is moving three times as fast that of an (a) equal to c, the speed of light in vacuum
electron. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of particle (b) greater than c
to that of the electron is1.83 × 10 −4 . Then, the particle is (c) less than c
(a) a meuon (b) a proton (d) tending to infinity
(c) a neutron (d) Either neutron or a proton 163. According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, it is
158. Calculate the not possible to measure
(i) momentum and (a) exact momentum of an electron
(ii) de-Broglie wavelength of electrons accelerated through (b) exact position of an electron
a potential difference of 56 V. (c) both exact position and momentum of an electron at
same time
(a) p = 4.02 × 10−24 kg ms −1 , λ = 0164
. nm.
(d) exact velocity of electron
(b) p = 2.5 × 1022 kg ms −1 , λ = 1nm
164. If ∆x is uncertainty in the specification of position
(c) p = 1.25 × 10− 22 kg ms −1 , λ = 0.5 nm and ∆p is the uncertainty in specification of
(d) None of the above momentum of an electron, then the product
159. Which of the following figures represent the variation ∆x and ∆p is of the order of h such that h
of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie (a) h/ 2π (b) 10−2
wavelength? (c) 10−19 (d) 10−31
165. An electron is confined to a 1 nm wide region. Find
p p
the uncertainty in momentum using Heisenberg
(a) (b) uncertainty principle. (Take h = 6.63 × 10 − 34 J-s)
(a) 1.05 × 10−25 kg ms− 1
(b) 2.03 × 10−31 kg ms− 1
λ λ (c) 3.05 × 10−34 kg ms− 1
(d) 2.49 × 10−32 kg ms− 1
p p
166. Davisson-Germer experiment verified
(a) particle nature of radiation
(c) (d)
(b) particle nature of electrons
(c) wave nature of electrons
(d) transverse nature of electromagnetic radiation
λ λ
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 331

167. Davisson-Germer’s electron diffraction arrangement (d) comparing theoretical value of wavelength associated
is as shown with moving electrons and practical value of
Nickel target
wavelength measured by observing diffraction pattern
produced by electrons
A θ
B 170. de-Broglie hypothesis is true for
C
L.T
Movable
(a) particles which are very light like electrons
collector (b) only subatomic particles
Vacuum
D chamber (c) only for photons and electrons
(d) fast moving particles, lighter like electrons and also for
Correct labelling is particles much-much heavier than electrons
(a) A-electron source, B-metal crystal, C-reflector,
D-detector 171. Wave nature of electrons is exploited in
(b) A-electron source, B-hollow tube, C-wall, D-reflector (a) mass-spectrometer (b) coolidge tube
(c) A-electron gun, B-electron accelerator, C-detector, (c) synchrotrons (d) electron microscope
D- counter 172. In Davisson-Germer experiment, the wavelength
(d) A-electron gun, B-collimating and accelerating tube, associated with nickel crystal is
C-metal target, D -movable collector (a) 1.66 Å (b) 2Å
168. In Davisson-Germer experiment, at accelerating (c) 2.3 Å (d) 3.86 Å
voltage of 54 V, intensity of scattered electrons is 173. In the Davisson and Germer experiment the velocity
maximum at an scattering angle of 50°. The of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be
appearance of the peak in a particular direction is due to increased by
(a) resonance caused by scattered electrons (a) increasing the potential difference between the anode
(b) destructive interference of electrons scattered from and filament
different layers of atoms of crystal (b) increasing the filament current
(c) constructive interference of electrons scattered from (c) decreasing the filament current
different layers of atoms of crystal
(d) decreasing the potential difference between the anode
(d) constructive interference of electrons scattered by same and filament
atom of crystal
174. An electron microscope uses electrons accelerated by
169. Davisson-Germer experiment confirms de-Broglie a voltage of 50 kV. Determine the de-Broglie
relation by wavelength associated with the electrons.
(a) converting electrons into waves (a) 2.5 × 10−12 m (b) 1.5 × 10−12 m
(b) converting light into particles
(c) 5.5 × 10−12 m (d) 0 m
(c) varying angle of incidence of an electron beam over a
metal target and observing scattering pattern

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 175. Assertion Cathode rays produce fluorescence in
Directions (Q. Nos. 175-182) In the following
glass and colour of glow depends on nature of glass.
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a Reason Cathode rays excite glass electrons and they on
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following de-excitation emits radiation in visible region.
statements, choose the correct one. 176. Assertion In photoelectric effect, cathode or emitter
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and plate is usually coated with barium oxide, barium
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion sulphide or strontium oxide.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason Coating prevents cathode from erosion.
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion 177. Assertion According to wave theory of light, if
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect intensity of incident radiation is increased, then
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct energy of emitted photoelectrons increases.
Reason Energy of a wave is proportional to its intensity.
332 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

178. Assertion Photoelectric current depends on the 185. Statement I In photoemissive cell inert gas is used.
intensity of incident light. Statement II Inert gas in the photoemissive cell is
Reason Number of photoelectrons emitted per given greater current.
second is directly proportional to the intensity of
incident radiation. Statement Based Questions Type II
179. Assertion Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its 186. Maxwell’s equations are
work-function is small.
I. Gauss’s law for electrostatics.
Reason Work-function = hν 0 where, ν 0 is the II. Gauss’s law for magnetism.
threshold frequency. III. Faraday law of electromagnetic induction.
180. Assertion In photon particle collision the total IV. Ampere’s circuital law with Maxwell’s addition.
energy and total momentum are conserved. (a) I and II (b) I II and III
Reason The number of photons are conserved in a (c) Only IV (d) All of these
collision. 187. Energy required by an electron for electron emission
181. Assertion Photocell is also called electric eye. can be supplied to a free electron by
Reason Photocell can see the things placed in front I. hammering the metal surface.
of it. II. heating the metal surface.
III. applying electric field.
182. Assertion In Davisson-Germer experiment
IV. applying magnetic field.
wavelength associated with the beam decreases with
increases of speed of electrons. (a) Only I (b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) II and III
Reason Wavelength associated with electron beam in
h 188. To observe the effect of intensity of light on
Davisson-Germer experiment is given by λ = .
2mK photocurrent,
I. collector is maintained at positive potential with
respect to emitter.
II. Statement Based Questions Type I
II. frequency of incident light is kept fixed.
Directions (Q. Nos. 183-185) In the following III. accelerating potential is fixed.
questions, a Statement I is followed by a IV. distance of source from emitter is kept constant.
corresponding Statement II. Of the following
(a) I and II are correct (b) II and III are correct
Statements, choose the correct one.
(c) III and IV are correct (d) I II and III are correct
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
and Statement II is the correct explanation of 189. Variation of stopping potential V0 with frequency ν of
Statement I incident radiation for photosensitive materials A and
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct B are shown
but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
Stopping
potential

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

B
A
tal

tal

incorrect
Me

Me

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is

correct ν0 ν0′ Frequency of
183. Statement I The energy ( E ) and momentum ( p) of incident radiation

a photon are related p = E / c From graph we conclude that

Statement II The photon behaves like a particle. I. maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons varies
184. Statement I In Millikan experiment for the linearly with frequency.
determination of charge on an electron, oil drop of II. a frequency lower than a certain frequency
any size can be used. photoemission is not possible.
Statement II Millikan’s experiment determines the III. density of metal A is more than that of B.
charge of electron, by simply measuring the terminal IV. metal A contains more electrons than that of B.
velocity. (a) I and II (b) I and IV (c) III and IV (d) II and III
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 333

190. Experimental study of photoelectric effect shows that 194. Match the quantities of Column I with their values
I. photocurrent ∝intensity of light. in Column II and choose the correct option from the
II. saturation current ∝intensity of light. codes given below.
III. photoemission occurs only at frequency greater than Column I Column II
threshold frequency.
A. Maximum number of photons 1. φ0
IV. photoemission is an instantaneous process. absorbed by an electron ν0
(a) I and II are correct
(b) I, II and III are correct B. Number of photons emitted by a 2. P
(c) I, III and IV are correct source per second E
(d) All I, II, III and IV are correct C. Energy of a photon 3. hν
191. Which of the following statements are true? D. Planck’s constant 4. 1
I. In the interaction with matter, radiation behaves as if it is
made up of particles called photons. A B C D
II. Each photon has energy E = hνand momentum (a) 2 4 1 3
p = hν/ c. (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
III. Photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected by
(d) 3 1 2 4
electric and magnetic fields.
IV. In a photon-particle collision, photon number is 195. Match the following.
conserved.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III List-I List-II
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV h
A. Planck constant 1.
p
192. If de-Broglie wavelength of
I. a bullet of mass 0.40 kg travelling with speed of 1.0 kms −1 B. Stopping potential 2. E − K high
is λ 1 . C. Work-function 3. V0 = K high / c
II. a ball of mass 0.60 kg moving at a speed of 1.0 ms −1 is λ 2 . E
III. a dust particle of mass1.0 × 10−9 kg drifting with a speed D. de-Broglie wavelength 4.
v
of 2.2 ms −1 is λ 3 .
Then, A B C D
(a) λ 1 > λ 2 > λ 3 (b) λ 2 > λ 1 > λ 3 (a) 4 3 2 1
(c) λ 1 < λ 2 < λ 3 (d) λ 3 > λ 1 > λ 2 (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
III. Matching Type (d) 3 1 2 4

193. Work-function for caesium metal is 2.14 eV. Let a 196. Match List-I (Fundamental Experiment) with List-II
14
beam of light of frequency 6 × 10 Hz is incident over (its conclusion) and select the correct option from
the metal surface. the choice given below the list.
Now, match the following columns and choose the List-I List-II
correct option from codes given.
A. Frank-Hertz experiment. 1. Particle nature of light
Column I Column II
B. Photoelectric experiment. 2. Discrete energy levels of
A. Maximum KE of emitted photoelectrons 1. 332.3 kms −1
atom
(in eV)
B. Minimum KE of emitted photoelectrons 2. 345 mV C. Davisson-Germer 3. Wave nature of electron
(in eV) experiment
C. Stopping potential of material (in mV) is 3. 0.345 eV 4. Structure of atom
D. Maximum speed of the emitted 4. 0
photoelectrons (in kms −1) A B C
(a) 2 1 3
A B C D A B C D (b) 4 2 3
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 2 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 1 2
334 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

IV. Passage Based Questions 202. Find wavelength of the beam.

(a) 1Å (b) 2Å (c) 3Å (d) 0.5Å
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 197-199) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct 203. The energy of the electron is
options from those given below. (a) 160 eV (b) 150.8 eV
When a beam of 10.6 eV photons of intensity (c) 145 eV (d) 100 eV
2.0 Wm −2 falls on a surface of platinum of surface area 204. The least of d for which the standing wave of the type
1.0 × 10 −4 m 2 and the work-function of the material is described can form
5.6 eV. Given that, 0.53% of the incident photons eject (a) 0.8 Å (b) 0.5 Å (c) 1Å (d) 2.5 Å
photoelectrons.
197. Find number of photoelectrons emitted per second. V. More than One Option Correct
(a) 7 × 1011 (b) 6.25 × 1011 .
205. The graph between 1/ λ and stopping potential (V ) of
(c) 9 × 1010 (d) 11 × 1011 three metals having work functions φ 1 , φ 2 and φ 3 in an
198. Find maximum energy of photoelectrons emitted. experiment of photoelectric effect is plotted as shown
(a) 5.0 eV (b) 6.0 eV (c) 2.5 eV (d) 0 eV in the figure. Which of the following option(s) is/are
correct? (Here, λ is the wavelength of the incident ray)
199. Find minimum energy of photoelectrons emitted.
V
(a) 6.0 eV (b) 5.0 eV (c) 5.8 eV (d) 0 eV
Metal 1 Metal 2 Metal 3
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 200-201) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below.
In a photoelectric experiment set-up, photons of θ
nm–1
energy 5 eV fall on the cathode having work function 0.001 0.002 0.004(1/λ)
3 eV. If the saturation current is found to be 4 × 10 −6 A
(a) Ratio of work function φ1 : φ 2 : φ 3 = 1 : 2 : 4
for intensity of 10 −5 Wm −2 , then
(b) Ratio of work function φ1 : φ 2 : φ 3 = 4 : 2 : 1
200. Graph between anode potential and current will be (c) tan θ is directly proportional to hc / e , where h is
Planck’s constant and c is the speed of light
i i
(d) The violet colour light can eject photoelectrons from
metals 2 and 3.
(a) (b)
V V 206. When photon of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of
(Anode potential) (Anode potential) a metal A, the ejected photoelectron have maximum
kinetic energy T A eV and de-Broglie wavelength λ A .
i The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
(c) (d) None of these liberated from another metal B by photon of energy
V
4.70 eV is TB = (T A − 1.5) eV. If the de-Broglie
(Anode potential) wavelength of these photoelectron is λ B = 2 λ A .
Then
201. When intensity is doubled,
(a) the work function of A is 2.25 eV
(a) saturation current remain as it is
(b) saturation current will be doubled (b) the work function of B is 4.20 eV
(c) saturation current will be four times (c) TA = 2.00 eV
(d) saturation current will be halved (d) TB = 2.75 eV

■ Directions (Q. Nos. 202-204) These questions are 207. Relativistic corrections become necessary when the
1
based on the following situation. Choose the correct expression for the kinetic energy mv 2 , becomes
options from those given below. 2
Assume that the de-Broglie wave associated with an comparable with mc 2 , where m is the mass of the
electron can form a standing wave between the atoms electron. At what de-Broglie wavelength, will relativistic
arranged in a one-dimensional array with nodes at corrections become important for an electron?
each of the atomic sites. It is found that one such (a) λ = 10 nm
standing wave is formed, if the distance d between the (b) λ = 10− 1 nm
atoms of the array is 2Å. A similar standing wave is (c) λ = 10− 4 nm
again formed, if d is increased to 2.5 Å but not for any
intermediate value of d. (d) λ = 10− 6 nm
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 335

208. Two particles A1 and A2 of masses m1 , m2 ( m1 > m2 ) 210. A particle moves in a closed orbit around the origin,
have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Then, due to a force which is directed towards the origin.
(a) their momenta are the same The de-Broglie wavelength of the particle varies
(b) their energies are the same cyclically between two values λ 1 , λ 2 with λ 1 > λ 2 .
(c) energy of A1 is less than the energy of A2 Which of the following statement are true?
(d) energy of A1 is more than energy of A2 (a) The particle could be moving in a circular orbit with
origin as centre
209. The de-Broglie wavelength of a photon is twice, the (b) The particle could be moving in an elliptic orbit with
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron. The speed of origin as its focus
c (c) When the de-Broglie wavelength is λ 1 , the particle is
the electron is v e = . Then,
100 nearer the origin than when its value is λ 2
Ee E p p (d) When the de-Broglie wavelength is λ 2 , the particle is
(a) = 10−4 (b) e = 10−2 (c) e = 10−2 (d) e = 10−4
Ep Ep me c me c nearer the origin than when its value is λ 1

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

NCERT The wavelength of the sodium light is 589 nm. At
211. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by what rate are the photons delivered to the sphere?
30 kV electrons will be (a) 3 × 1021 photon /s (b) 3 × 1020 photon /s
(a) 0.0414 nm (b) 0.414 nm (c) 3 × 1022 photon /s (d) 3 × 1024 photon /s
(c) 4.14 nm (d) 41.4 nm 217. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is
212. The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When . × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 ×1014 Hz is
33
14
light of frequency 6 × 10 Hz is incident on the metal incident on the metal, predict the cut-off voltage for
surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the photoelectric emission.
the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons? (a) 2.03 V (b) 4.04 V
(a) 0.65 eV (b) 0.35 eV (c) 0.50 eV (d) 0.56 eV (c) 5.04 V (d) 6.04 V
213. The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain 218. Light of frequency 7.21 ×1014 Hz is incident on a
experiment is 1.5 V. What is the maximum kinetic metal surface. Electrons with a maximum speed of
energy of photoelectrons emitted? . × 10 5 m / s are ejected from the surface. What is the
60
(a) 4.4 × 10−19 J (b) 5.4 × 10−19 J threshold frequency for photoemission of electrons?
(c) 2.4 × 10−19 J (d) 3.4 × 10−19 J (a) 4.74 × 1014 Hz (b) 5.47 × 1014 Hz
(c) 6.47 × 1014 Hz (d) 6.47 × 1014 Hz
214. Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is
produced by a helium-neon laser. The power emitted 219. Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon
is 9.42 mW. The energy and momentum of each laser, which is used in the photoelectric effect. When
photon in the light beam will be light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter,
(a) 3.14 × 10−19 J,1.05 × 10−27 kg ms −1 the stopping (cut-off) potential of photoelectrons is
(b) 2.4 × 10−19 J, 2.05 × 10−27 kg ms −1 0.38 V. Find the work function of the material from
which the emitter is made.
(c) 4.2 × 10−19 J, 3 × 1016 kg ms −1
(a) 3.17 eV (b) 2.17 eV (c) 4.17 eV (d) 5.17 eV
(d) 4.2 × 10−18 J, 1.05 × 10−26 kg ms −1
215. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of NCERT Exemplar
3 2
the earth is 1388
. × 10 W / m . How many photons 220. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de-Broglie
(nearly) per square metre are incident on the earth per wavelength associated with particle is proportional to
second? Assume that the photons in the sunlight have (a) H (b) H 1 / 2 (c) H 0 (d) H −1 / 2
an average wavelength of 550 nm.
221. Wavelengths of a photon needed to remove a proton
(a) 1021 (b) 1020 (c) 1010 (d) 1040
from a nucleus which is bound to the nucleus with
216. A 100 W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in 1 meV energy is nearly
all directions. The lamp is located at the centre of a
(a) 1.2 nm (b) 1.2 × 10−3 nm
large sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is −6
incident on it. (c) 1.2 × 10 nm (d) 1.2 × 101 nm
336 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

222. Consider a beam of electrons (each with energy E 0 ) 224. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an α-particle
incident on a metal surface kept in an evacuated have same energy. Then, their de-Broglie
chamber. Then, wavelengths compare as
(a) no electrons will be emitted as only photons can emit (a) λ p = λ n > λ e > λ α (b) λ α < λ p = λ n < λ e
electrons (c) λ e < λ p = λ n > λ α (d) λ e = λ p = λ n = λ α
(b) electrons can be emitted but all with energy E0
225. An electron moving with an initial velocity v = v 0 $i
(c) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a
maximum of E0 − φ (φ is the work-function) and is in a magnetic field B = B 0 $j. Then, its
(d) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a de-Broglie wavelength
maximum of E0 (a) remains constant (b) increases with time
(c) decreases with time (d) first increases decreases
223. Consider figure given below. Suppose the voltage
applied to A is increased. The diffracted beam will 226. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity
have the maximum at a value of θ that v = v 0 $i ( v 0 > 0) is in an electric field
E = E 0 $i ( E 0 = constant > 0) field. It’s de-Broglie
HT
wavelength at time t is given by
λ0  eE t 
(a) (b) λ 0 1 + 0 
 eE0 t   mv0 
Nickel 1 + 
A Electron beam target  m v0 
θ (c) λ 0 (d) λ 0 t
Electron
LT gun 227. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v = v 0 $i
Diffracted Vacuum is in an electric field E = E 0 $j. If λ 0 = h/ mv 0 , it’s
Movable electron chamber
collector beam de-Broglie wavelength at time t is given by
To galvanometer e2 E02 t 2
(a) λ 0 (b) λ 0 1 +
(a) will be larger than the earlier value m2 v02
(b) will be the same as the earlier value λ0 λ0
(c) (d)
(c) will be less than the earlier value e E02 t 2
2  e2 E02 t 2 
(d) will depend on the target 1+ 1 + 
m2 v02  m2 v02 

Answers
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24 (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (d)
76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (a) 81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (a,c 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (d)
)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b 95. (a) 96. (d) (b)
97. (a) 98. (c) 99 (c) 100. 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (c)
106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (a) 111. (b) (b)
112. (c) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. 116. (c) 117. (d) 118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (a)
121. (d) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (d) 126. (d) (b)
127. (d) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. 131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (d) 134. (b) 135. (b)
136. (a) 137. (d) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (a) 141. (b) (a)
142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. 146. (d) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (b) (a)
157. (d) 158. (a) 159. (b) 160. 161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (c) 164. (a) 165. (a)
166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (c) 169. (d) 170. (d) 171. (d) (a)
172. (a) 173. (a) 174. (c) 175. 176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (a) 179. (b) 180. (c)
181. (c) 182. (a) 183. (a) 184. (d) 185. (b) 186. (d) (d)
187. (d) 188. (d) 189. (a) 190. 191. (b) 192. (c) 193. (b) 194. (b) 195. (a)
196. (a) 197. (b) 198. (a) 199. (d) 200. (a) 201. (b) (a,c
202. (a) 203. (b) 204. (b) 205. 206.(a,b, 207. (c,d 208. (a, 209. (b,c 210.(b,d
) c) ) c) ) )
211. (a) 212. (b) 213. (c) 214. (a) 215. (a) 216. (b) 217. (a) 218. (a) 219. (b) 220. (d) 221. (b) 222. (d) 223. (c) 224. (b) 225. (a)
 Hints and Explanations
1. (c) At low pressure and high temperature, free electrons are 2 eV . × 10− 19 × 1000
2 × 16
generated and positively charged atom (or molecule) which ⇒ v= =
m . × 10− 31
91
is called an ion is created. Hence, conduction is possible.
= 1.875 × 107 ≈ 1. 9 × 107 ms −1
2. (d) It was found that at sufficiently low pressure of about
0.001 mm of mercury column, a discharge tube place 14. (b) Change in KE = work done by electric field due to
between the two electrodes an applying the electric field to potential difference applied
the gas. KE f − KEi = qV ⇒ KE f − 0 = qV
A fluorescent glow appeared opposite to cathode.
or KE f = qV (q = 2e)
3. (d) In the discharge tube a fluorescent glow is seen on the
⇒ KE = 2e × 5 = 10 eV
glass opposite to cathode. The colour of glow of the glass
depended on the type of glass, it being yellowish-green for 15. (c) Atom break into proton and electron at low pressure.
soda glass. 16. (c) Pressure is of the order of 10− 2 mm of Hg.
4. (c) Glow is due to the radiation which appeared to be
coming from the cathode. 17. (b) Initially energy of electron = eV
5. (b) Cathode rays are streams of negatively charged particles. 1 2 1 2
and finally, energy = mv ⇒ eV = mv
6. (a) The particles speed ranges from 0.1c to 0.2c. Here, c is 2 2
the speed of light in vacuum which is 3 × 108 ms −1 . v2
or e/ m = ...(i)
7. (a) Specific charge is 1.76 × 1011 C kg −1 . By applying 2V
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields across the On substituting the values in Eq. (i), we get
discharge tube, JJ Thomson was the first to determine the
⇒ e / m = 1.76 × 1011 C kg −1
speed and the specific charge [Charge to mass ratio (e/m)] of
the cathode ray particles. 18. (a) Use m e = 9.1 × 10− 31 kg , e = 1.6 × 10− 19 C
8. (c) The value of e / m was found to be independent of the mp = 1.67 × 10− 27 , e = 1.6 × 10− 19 C
nature of the material/metal used as the cathode (emitter) or
the gas introduced in the discharge tube. mα = 4 × mp , qα = 2 × 1.6 × 10− 19 C
9. (c) For proton, e 1.6 × 10−19 c
e For electron = = 0.176 × 1012 C kg −1
Specific charge = = 9.6 × 107 C kg − 1 me 9.1 × 10−31 kg
m
For alpha particle, e 1.6 × 10−19 c
For proton =
2e 1 e 1 mp 1.67 × 10−27 kg
Specific charge = = = × 9.6 × 107
4m 2 m 2 = 0.95 × 108 C kg −1
= 4.8 × 107 C kg − 1
2e 1 e
10. (d) It is found that the charge on an oil-droplet was always For α-particle qα / mα = = = 0.475 × 108 C kg
4 mp 2 mp
an integral multiple of an elementary charge, 1. 6 × 10− 19 C. −1
Millikan’s experiment established that electric charge is
quantised. From the values of charge ( e ) and specific charge Therefore, order of specific charge is
( e / m ), the mass ( m ) of the electron could be determined.  e   e   qα 
11. (c) X-rays region lies from wavelengths 10−8 m (= 10 or 100
  >   >  
 me   mp   mα 
°
A) to 10−19 m (= 10−14 nm or 10−3 A) ⇒ e> p>α
12. (d) X-rays does not have charge particle they are simple
19. (d) As the drop is stationary, then we can say that
electromagnetic radiation, hence, it cannot be deflected by + + +
applying electric and magnetic fields. Fe
13. (c) When an electron is accelerated by a potential difference
E q
of V volts, then
or eV = U Fg
– – –
This potential energy is converted into KE of electron,
Fe = Fg
KE = U
⇒ q E = Fg (Fg = weight)
1 2
⇒ mv = eV V
2 ⇒ Weight = qE = q
d
338 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

20. (d) If an electron attempts to come out of the metal, the 35. (a) Frequency of X-rays is much higher than ultraviolet-light,
metal surface acquires a positive charge and pulls the so photoemission might be possible with X- rays. For
electron back to the metal. photoemission, a minimum frequency called threshold
Consequently, the electron can come out of the metal frequency is required. Below threshold frequency
surface only if it has got sufficient energy to overcome the photoemission does not occurs.
attractive pull. 36. (a) In the experiment study of photoelectric effect, light is
21. (c) The minimum energy required by an electron to escape monochromatic, consisting of only one wavelength.
from the metal surface is called the work function of the 37. (a) Short wavelength light have high frequency and
metal. photoemission occurs.
22. (d) The work function ( φ 0 ) depends on the properties of the c
metal and the nature of its surface. The work function also Since, c = νλ or ν =
λ
depends on presence of surface impurities and it also
For constant wave velocity (as in case of electromagnetic
depends on temperature of the surface.
radiation in vacuum, c = 3 × 108 ms −1 ), the frequency is
23. (a) The work function of platinum is the highest inversely proportional to wavelength. High frequency light
(φ 0 = 5.65 eV) while it is the lowest (φ 0 = 2.14 eV) for carries more energy [ E = hν ] and hence photoemission
caesium. easily occurs.
24. (d) Electrons absorbs light energy and electrons are emitted, 38. (d) Intensity of light reaching a surface is inversely
so the process is called photoemission. proportional to square of its distance from source.
25. (c) Kinetic energy of electron is the excess energy remained 1
Intensity ∝
after the electron moves out of metal surface. So, it depends (Distance)2
on work function and also energy acquired from external
source. 39. (d) Photocurrent varies linearly with intensity. The
photocurrent is directly proportional to the number of
q
26. (a) We can measure charge by mass ratio only. i.e., is photoelectrons emitted per second. This implies that the
m number of photoelectrons emitted per second is directly
measured. proportional to the intensity of incident radiation.
27. (a) Below a minimum frequency no photoelectrons will be 40. (a) As photocurrent increases with increase in intensity,
emitted. so we can say that number of photoelectrons emitted per
28. (d) When ultraviolet radiations fall on the emitter plate, second is proportional to intensity of radiation.
electrons are ejected from it which are attracted towards the 41. (a) Intensity and frequency are kept fixed and collector plate
positive collector plate by the electric field. The electrons flow potential is gradually changed. Since, intensity and frequency
through the evacuated glass tube, resulting in the current flow. may effect photocurrent, these parameter are kept fixed to
30. (c) Positive charge on a positively charged zinc plate was observe, the effect of then change in third parameter.
found to be further enhanced when it was illuminated by 42. (d) With the increase in collector potential it is found that
ultraviolet light. So, leaves of electroscope will move further the photoelectric current increases with increase in
apart. accelerating (positive) potential and finally saturates.
31. (d) Hallwachs and Lenard also observed that when ultraviolet 43. (d) The maximum value of the photoelectric current is
light fell on the emitter plate, no electrons were emitted at all called saturation current. Saturation current corresponds
when the frequency of the incident light was smaller than a to the case when all the photoelectrons emitted by the
certain minimum value, called the threshold frequency. This emitter plate C reach the collector plate A.
minimum frequency depends on the nature of the material of 44. (b) When polarity of collector plate is reversed only the
the emitter plate. most energetic electrons are able to reach the collector A.
32. (d) Photoemission involves conversion of light energy into 45. (a)
Photocurrent

electrical energy.It is observed that many metals emit

electrons when light shines upon them.
33. (a) Some alkali metals such as, lithium, sodium, potassium, I 3 > I2 > I 1
caesium and rubidium are sensitive even to visible light. All I3
I2
these photosensitive substances emit electrons when they are I1
illuminated by light. Stopping
potential
34. (a) For photoemission a minimum frequency called threshold
frequency is required. As green light can emit electrons and
–V0 0 Collector plate
yellow light does not, so red light also shows no photoemission Retarding potential potential
as the frequency of red light is least of all three colours.
Anode potential
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 339

46. (b) For a particular frequency of incident radiation, the ∆V

For slope of graph, tan θ =
minimum negative (retarding) potentialV0 given to the plate ∆ν
A for which the photocurrent stops or becomes zero is called eV = hv − φ
the cut-off or stopping potential. ∆V h
⇒ =
47. (a) From figure, 0 to V0 = − 0.54 V. ∆ν e
h
48. (d) For greater intensity ( I1 ), more photoelectrons are ∴ = 4.12 × 10− 15
e
emitted and hence saturation current is more. Thus, graph
corresponding to I1 will be above that of I 2 . The stopping h = 1.6 × 10− 19 × 4.12 × 10− 15
potential is independent of intensity, hence the graphs = 6.592 × 10− 34 J-s
converge at same value ofV0 (stopping potential).
56. (a) All the photoelectrons emitted from the metal do not
49. (c) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends
have the same energy. Electrons near the surface acquires
on the frequency of light source and the emitter plate
more KE and electrons lying in deep layers are ejected with
material but is independent of intensity of incident radiation.
less energy. Range of KE of emitted electrons is zero to a
Loss in KE = Gain in PE.
maximum (K max ).
50. (a) Maximum KE is independent of intensity of light.
57. (c) Photoelectric current is zero when the stopping potential
51. (c) Maximum KE will depend upon the frequency of light is sufficient to repel even the most energetic photoelectrons,
source and emitter plate material. with the maximum kinetic energy ( K max ), so that
52. (a) Stopping potential is more negative for higher frequency. K max = eV0
53. (c) From the graph, stopping potential = V0 = − 3. 2 V 58. (c) With incident radiation of the same frequency but of
higher intensity I 2 and I 3 ( I 3 > I 2 > I1 ) , the saturation
For photoelectric effect, KE max = hν − φ currents are found to attain higher values. This shows that
hν = 2.2 + 1 = 3.2 eV more electrons are being emitted per second, proportional to
The frequency of incident radiation the intensity of incident radiation. But the stopping potential
. × 10−19 × 3.2
16 remains the same as KE of ejected electrons does not change.
ν= = 0.775 × 1015 Hz
Photo current
6.6 × 10−34
I3
54. (d) Here, B = 2.5 × 10− 4 T I2
V = 120 V Stopping
I1

r = 13 cm = 13 × 10− 2 m potential Intensity I3 > I2 > I1

When electrons are accelerated through V volts.
The change in kinetic energy of the electron is –V0
Collector plate potential
1 2 2 eV
mv = eV ⇒ v2 = ...(i) 59. (c) Intensities will be equal as the saturation current is same.
2 m To study the variation of photocurrent with collector plate
mv2 eBr potential at different frequencies the intensity is kept same.
as evB = or v =
r m
60. (a) Stopping potential is more negative for higher frequency
2 e 2 B 2 r2 of incident radiation and vice-versa. Thus, from graph
⇒ v = ....(ii)
m2 ν0 A > ν0 B > ν0 C
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get ⇒ f A > fB > fC
2eV e2 B 2 r2
= 61. (c) When frequency of incident radiation increases, the
m m2 maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons also increases.
e 2V 2 × 120
or = = 62. (c) Different photosensitive materials respond differently to
m r2 B 2 (13 × 10− 2 )2 × (2.5 × 10− 4 )2 light. Selenium is more sensitive than zinc or copper. The
= 2.27 × 1011 C kg −1 same photosensitive substance gives different response to
light of different wavelengths. e.g., Ultraviolet light gives
55. (c) Given, slope of graph, tan θ = 4.12 × 10− 15 V-s and rise to photoelectric effect in copper while green or red light
charge on electron e = 1.6 × 10− 19 C does not.
V 63. (b) By using equation, hν − hν 0 = K max
θ h ( ν1 − ν 0 ) = K 1 and h ( ν 2 − ν 0 ) = K 2
ν
ν1 − ν 0 K 1 1 ( nν1 − ν 2 )
∴ = = or ν 0 =
V0 ν2 − ν0 K 2 n ( n − 1)
340 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

64. (a) We obtain different values of stopping potential but the 75. (d) In the wave picture, the absorption of energy by electron
same value of the saturation current for incident radiation of takes place continuously over entire wavefront of the
different frequencies of same intensities. radiation. Since a large number of electrons absorb energy,
the energy absorbed per electron per unit time turns out to
Photoelectric be small. Explicit calculations estimate that it can take hours
current or more for a single electron to pick up sufficient energy to
overcome the work function and come out of the metal.
ν3 > ν2 > ν1 76. (d) Photoelectric effect is based on quantum theory. The
Saturation current wave picture is unable to explain the most basic features of
photoelectric emission. In quantum theory, the radiation
ν3
ν2 energy is considered to be built up of discrete units and it is
ν1
–ν03 –ν02 –ν01 Collector plate potential considered that photoelectric emission does not take place
by continuous absorption of energy from radiation.
Retarding potential
77. (d) Incident power of light = Intensity × Area
65. (b) Energy of emitted photoelectrons depends on frequency P = IA = 10− 5 × 2 × 10− 4 = 2 × 10− 9 W
of incident radiation.
Number of layers absorbing light is 5, each sodium atom
66. (a) Experimentally, it is found that, if frequency of the
with effective atomic area of 10− 20 m2 .
incident radiation exceeds the threshold frequency, the
photoelectric emission starts instantaneously without any Number of electrons absorbing energy
apparent time lag, even if the incident radiation is very dim. A 2 × 10− 4
= n′ = n × = 5× = 1017
It is now known that emission starts in a time of the order of Ae 10− 20
10− 9 s or less. where, A e = effective area of sodium atom
67. (b) N ∝I Energy absorbed per second by each electron
As, f ⋅ λ = speed of light (Here, f is frequency) E = P / n ′ = 2 × 10− 9 / 1017 = 2 × 10− 26 Js −1
1 ∴ Time required for protoemission in wave picture of light
∴ f ∝
λ 2 × 1.6 × 10−19 J
1 φ0 / E = = 1.6 × 107 s = 0.507 yr
Also, E∝ f ⇒ E∝ 2 × 10−26 Js −1
λ 1
= yr
68. (a) Photocurrent depends only on intensity of light. As in 2
given problem, only work function is changed, so current 78. (d) Einstein’s photoelectric equation depends on the basic
values are same. idea of quantisation of energy. Each quanta of energy is
69. (c) In metals many free electrons are present on the surface. called a photon with energy hν, where h = Planck's constant
70. (a) The wave nature of light was well established by the end and ν is the frequency of light.
of the nineteenth century the phenomena of interferences, 79. (b) The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is
diffraction and polarisation were explained in a natural and given by
satisfactory way as the wave picture of light. K max = hν − φ 0 = h ( 6ν ) − h ( ν ) = 5 hν
71. (b) According to wave theories, light is an electromagnetic 80. (a) In photoelectric effect, an electron absorbs a quantum of
wave consisting of electric and magnetic fields with energy ( hν ) of radiation. If this quantum of energy absorbed
continuous distribution of energy over the region of space exceeds the minimum energy needed for the electron to
over which the wave is extended. escape from the metal surface (work function φ 0 ), the
72. (a) According to the wave picture of light, the free electrons electron is emitted with maximum kinetic energy
at the surface of the metal (over which the beam of radiation K max = hν − φ 0
falls) absorb the radiant energy continuously. 81. (c) According to Einstein’s experimental results, K max
73. (b) The greater the intensity of radiation, the greater are the depends linearly on ν and is independent of intensity of
amplitude of electric and magnetic fields. Consequently, the radiation. It is determined by energy of each photon.
greater the intensity, the greater should be the energy
absorbed by each electron. The maximum kinetic energy of 82. (c) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron is
the photoelectrons on the surface is then expected to given by K max = hν − φ 0
increase with increase in intensity. This is Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
74. (d) According to wave theory we will require beam of As we can write, φ 0 = hν 0
sufficient high intensity. where, ν 0 = threshold frequency
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 341

The above equation can be expressed in following form 92. (c) In Einstein’s picture, the basic elementary process
K max = hν − φ 0 ⇒ eV0 = hν − hν 0 involved in photoelectric effect is the absorption of light
K max = eV0 , whereV0 = stopping potential quantum by an electron. This process is instantaneous. Thus,
1 whatever may be the intensity i.e., the number of quanta of
c hc 1
⇒ K max = eV0 = h − = hc  −  radiation per unit area per unit time, photoelectric emission
λ λ0  λ λ0 is instantaneous.
where, λ 0 = threshold wavelength 93. (c) The photoelectric equation can be written as
hc φ
84. (a, c) eV0 = −W h
λ eV0 = hν − φ 0 , for ν ≥ ν 0 or V0 = ν− 0
e e
 hc  1  W This is an important result. It predicts that the V0 versus ν
V0 =     −
 e  λ e curve is a straight line with slope = ( h / e ) , independent of
1 the nature of the material.
V0 versus graph is in the form y = mx − c
λ 94. (b) As slope of graph of stopping potential versus frequency
Therefore, option (c) is correct. is h / e. So,
Clearly, V0 versus λ graph is not a straight line but V0 ∴ Slope =
h
or h = e × slope
decreases with increase in λ andV0 becomes zero when e
hc
= W. 95. (a) By Einstein’s equation,
λ h φ
i.e., λ = λ0 (Threshold wavelength) we have eV0 = hν − φ 0 or V0 =ν− 0
e e
∴ Option (a) is also correct. Above is a equation of straight line ( y = mx + c ) with slope
h φ
85. (d) When photon of sufficient energy is absorbed, electron and y-intercept = 0
e e
will be emitted.
∴ Work function, φ 0 = e × intercept (eV)
86. (a) Einstein’s photoelectric equation is
96. (d) As the distance of source from the surface increases,
K max = hν − φ 0 intensity of radiation decreases.
where, K max = maximum KE of emitted electrons, 1
h = Planck’s constant, ν = frequency of incident radiation, Intensity = and photocurrent ∝ Intensity
(distance)2
φ 0 = work function of metal.
Since, K max must be non-negative. 97. (a) K max = hν − φ 0 (Einstein's photoelectric equation)
So, photoelectric emission is possible only, if Above equation is equation of a straight line with y-intercept
hν > φ 0 or ν > ν 0 , φ 0 , so from graph, work function is 1eV.
φ 98. (c) In Ist case, when a metallic surface is illuminated with
where, ν0 = 0
h radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V.
87. (d) More tightly bound electrons will emerge with kinetic So, photoelectric equation can be written as
energies less than the maximum value. hc hc
eV = − …(i)
Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons lies between 0 to K λ λ0
maximum value, where K max = hν − φ 0 In IInd case, when the same surface is illuminated with
88. (b) We know that, K max = hν − φ 0 and hence if K max > 0 V
radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is .
⇒ hν − φ 0 > 0 or hν > φ 0 4
So, photoelectric equation can be written as
89. (c) Intensity of light of a given frequency is determined by the eV hc hc 4 hc 4 hc
= − ⇒ eV = − …(ii)
number of energy quanta (photon) per unit area per unit time. 4 2λ λ 0 2λ λ0
φ From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
90. (d) From Einstein’s equation, ν > 0 . So, the greater the
h hc hc 4 hc 4 hc
work function φ 0 , the higher the threshold frequency ν 0 ⇒ − = −
λ λ0 2λ λ0
needed to emit photoelectrons. Thus, there exists a threshold
frequency ν 0 ( = φ 0 / h ) for the metal surface, below which no 1 1 2 4
⇒ − = − ⇒ λ 0 = 3λ
photoelectric emission is possible, no matter how intense the λ λ0 λ λ0
incident radiation may be or how long it falls on the surface. hc
99. (c) Here, eV = − W0
91. (a) The greater the number of energy quanta available, the λ
greater is the number of electrons absorbing the energy hc
quanta and therefore greater number of electrons coming out 0.5e = − W0
6 × 10− 7
of the metal (for ν > ν 0 ). Hence, photoelectric current is
proportional to intensity.
342 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

h c  W0 1 2
mv2 = hν 2 − φ
⇒ 0.5 =   − ...(i)
−7
e  6 × 10  e 2
1
h c  W0 ∴ m( v12 − v22 ) = h ( ν1 − ν 2 )
Similarly, 1.5 =  −7
 − ...(ii) 2
e  4 × 10  e 2h
v12 − v22 = ( ν1 − ν 2 )
From Eqs (i) and (ii), we get m
c
h c  1 1 104. (b) Frequency of lines can be found by using ν = and they
1= − λ
e 10− 7  4 6 are listed in tabular form as
f × 1014 Hz 8.219 7.412 6.884 5.493 4.343
h 12 × 10− 7
⇒ =
e 3 × 108 V0 1.28 0.95 0.74 0.16 0
h
= 4 × 10− 15 Vs From the table, frequency f0 = 4.343 × 1014 Hz
e
Work function = φ 0 = hνf0 ≈ 1.8 eV
100. (b) Maximum kinetic energy,
105. (c) When an electron absorbs sufficient energy, it is emitted
1
K max = mv2 = eV0 and carries remaining energy as its KE. Part of energy
2 absorbed is spent in overcoming attraction from metal
where,V0 is the stopping potential. surface and in collision.
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation KE max = 4v − φ = 0.35 eV
hν1 = φ 0 + eV1 106. (a) Given, work-function of caesium metal φ 0 = 2.14 eV
hν 2 = φ + eV2 Frequency of light ν = 6 × 104 Hz
∴ h ( ν1 − ν 2 ) = e (V1 − V2 )
KE max = hν − φ = 0.35 eV
h
( ν1 − ν 2 ) = V1 − V2 (i) Let stopping potential be V0
e We know that
h
or V2 = V1 + ( ν1 − ν 2 ) KE max = eV0
e
0.35 eV = eV0
101. (a) Work-function φ 0 = hv0
V0 = 0.35 V
Then threshold frequency 1
φ 6.35 × 1.6 × 10− 19 (ii) Maximum kinetic energy KEmax = mv2max
v0 = 0 = = 15.32 × 1014 Hz 2
h 6.63 × 10− 34 1 2
102. (a) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, 0.35 eV = mvmax
2
1 2 1 2
hν = hν 0 + mv max or mv max = hν − hν 0 (where, vmax is the maximum speed and m is the mass of
2 2 electron)
According to the given problem 0.35 × 2 × 1.6 × 10− 19
1 or = v2max (Q e = 1.6 × 10− 19 )
m( 8 × 106 )2 = h ( 5 ν 0 − ν 0 ) ...(i) 9.1 × 10− 31
2
1 2 or v2max = 0.123 × 1012
mv max = h ( 2 ν 0 − ν 0 ) ...(ii)
2 or v max = 350713.55 ms −1
On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get v max = 350.7 kms −1
6 2
( 8 × 10 ) 4 ν0
= 107. (a) According to Einstein photoelectric equation
v2max ν0
E = K max + φ
( 8 × 106 )2 where, K max is maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron
v2max =
4 and φ is work function of an electron
8 × 106 K max = E − φ = hν − φ
v max = = 4 × 106 ms− 1
2 hc
K max = −φ
103. (a) According to Einstein’s equation λ
Kinetic energy of emitted electron Similarly, in second case, maximum kinetic energy of
emitted electron is 3 times that in first case, we get
= hν − (work - function φ 0 )
hc
1 2 3K max = −φ
∴ mv1 = hν1 − φ λ /2
2
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 343

Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get work function of an emitted 111. (b) Millikan performed a series of experiments on
electron from a metal surface photoelectric effect. He measured the slope of the straight
hc line obtained for sodium. Using the known value of e, he
φ= determined the value of Planck’s constant h. This value was
2λ
close to the value of Planck’s constant ( = 6.626 × 10−34 Js)
108. (a) According to Einstein’s photoelectric emission of light, determined in an entirely different context.
hc
E = ( KE ) max + φ as = ( KE ) max + φ 112. (c) The successful explanation of photoelectric effect using
λ the hypothesis of light quanta and the experimental
3λ determination of values of h and φ 0 in agreement with
If the wavelength of radiation is changed to , then
4 values obtained from other experiments, led to the
4 hc  4 φ acceptance of Einstein's picture of photoelectric effect.
⇒ =  ( KE ) max +  + φ
3 λ 3 3 113. (d) Photoelectric effect gives the evidence to the strange fact
1 that light in interaction with matter behaved as if it was
For fastest emitted electron, ( KE ) max = mv′ 2 + φ made of quanta or packets of energy, each of energy hν.
2
114. (d) Einstein arrived at the important result that the light
1 4  1 2 φ
⇒ 2
mv′ =  mv  + quantum can also be associated with momentum ( h ν / c ). A
2 3 2  3 definite value of energy as well as momentum is a strong sign
 4
1/ 2 that the light quantum can be associated with a particle.
i.e., v′ > v   (b) The quantum possessing energy is called photon.
 3 115.
116. (c) Behaviour of light was further confirmed, in 1924 by the
109. (a) Given, for neon lamp wavelength of monochromatic
experiment of AH. Compton (1892-1962) on scattering of
radiation, λ = 640.2 nm = 640.2 × 10− 9 m X-rays from electrons.
Stopping voltageV0 = 0.54 V h hν
117. (d) Momentum of a photon = =
Let φ 0 be the work-function. λ c
hc So, all have same momentum.
∴ eV0 = − φ0
λ 118. (d) Intensity of a light beam = Number of photons falling on
Work-function of photosensitive material, a unit area in 1s.
hc 119. (b) It is a photocell. As a photocell converts variation of
φ0 = − eV0
λ intensity of light into variation of current, we can say it is
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 sensitive to intensity of light like an eye. It is based on the
= −9
− 1.6 × 10−19 × 0.54 application of photoelectric effect.
640.2 × 10
120. (a) Photons can exerts pressure. Pressure of electromagnetic
= 3.1 × 10− 19 − 0.864 × 10− 19 = 2.236 × 10−19 waves is called radiation pressure.
2.236 × 10−19 (d) Photons are electrically neutral and so are not deflected
= = 1.4 eV 121.
1.6 × 10−19 by strong electric or magnetic field.
For iron; given work-function, φ 0 = 1.4 eV 122. (b) Given, wavelength of light = 589 nm = 589 × 10− 9 m
Wavelength λ = 427.2 nm = 427.2 × 10− 9 m Mass of electron, me = 9.1 × 10− 31 kg
LetV0′ be the new stopping potential. Mass of neutron, mn = 1.67 × 10−27 kg
hc
eV0′ = − φ0 Planck’s constant, h = 6.62 × 10− 34 J-s
λ
h
6.63 × 10−34 × 108 × 3 (i) Using of formula, λ =
= − 1.4 = 1.51eV 2KEme
427.2 × 10−9 × 1.6 × 10−19
Required stopping potential, V0′ = 1.51V Kinetic energy of electron,
h2 (6.63 × 10− 34 )2
110. (a) According to Einstein photoelectric equation, KEe = 2 =
2λ me 2 × (589 × 10− 9 )2 × 9.1 × 10− 31
hc 2hc
KA = − φ ⇒ 2K A = − 2φ
λA λA = 6.96 × 10− 25 J
2hc (ii) Kinetic energy of neutron
or 2K A + φ = −φ
λA h2 (6.63 × 10− 34 )2
KEn = 2 =
Wavelength of metal B is half of metal A, therefore 2λ mn 2 × (589 × 10− 9 )2 × 1.66 × 10− 27
2hc K = 3.81 × 10− 28 J
KB = − φ ⇒ 2K A + φ = K B ⇒ K A < B
λA 2
344 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

123. (a) Given, energy of γ-rays = 10.2 eV = 10.2 eV (2γ-rays) 130. (b) Energy of a photon, E = 6 MeV = 6 × 106 eV
10.2 Linear momentum of the photon
Energy of one γ-ray = = 5.1 eV = 5.1 × 1.6 × 10−9 J
2 E
p=
= 8.16 × 10−19 J c
Let λ be the wavelength. 6
6 × 10 eV
P= = 2 × 10− 2 eVs m− 1 = 0.02 eVs m− 1
Energy of each ray 3 × 108 ms − 1
hc hc
E= or λ = 131. (d) According to de-Broglie, a moving particles of matter
λ E should display wave-like properties under the condition that
− 34
6.63 × 10 × 3 × 108 particle is having some momentum under the frame of reference
= = 2.436 × 10−7 m
8.16 × 10− 19 of observation. So, a moving particle may exhibit wave like
properties.
124. (b) Energy of photons = hν
132. (c) de-Broglie reasoned that nature was symmetrical and that
= ( 6.626 × 10− 34 Js ) × ( 6 × 1014 s − 1 ) the two basic physical entities-matter and energy, must have
= 3.98 × 10 − 19
J symmetrical character. If radiation shows dual aspects, so
should matter.
125. (d) Number of photons emitted per second 133. (d) λ is smaller for a heavier particle (large m) or more
= Power of the source/ Energy of one photon energetic particle (large v).
2 × 10− 3 This wavelength is so small that it is beyond any
= = 5 × 1015 Photons per second. measurement. This is reason why macroscope objects in our
3.98 × 10− 19
daily life do not show wavelike properties.
126. (d) Work function, φ 0 = hν ′0
134. (b) In photocell, light energy (intensity) is converted into
∴ Threshold frequency, electrical energy (current). It converts a change in intensity
φ . × 10−19
2.14 × 16 of illumination into a change in photocurrent. This current
ν0 = 0 = = 5.16 × 1014 Hz can be used to operate control systems and in light
h 6.62 × 10−34 measuring device.
127. (d) For red light, λ = 760 nm 135. (b) In burglar alarm, ultraviolet light is continuously made to
hc fall on a photocell installed at the doorway.
Energy, E = hν =
λ 136. (a) For an electron (mass m, charge e) accelerated from rest
6.63 × 10− 34 × 3 × 108 through a potential V. The kinetic energy K of the electron
Hence E= −9
= 2.62 × 10− 19 J equals to work done (eV) on it by the electric field
760 × 10
⇒ K = eV
2.62 × 10− 19
= eV = 1.64 eV 137. (d) In the familiar phenomenon of seeing an object by our
1.6 × 10− 19 eye, both descriptions are important. The gathering and
128. (a) Here, I = 1.52 × 103 Wm− 2 focussing mechanism of light by the eye-lens is well
described in the wave picture. But its absorption by the rods
λ = 520 × 10− 9 m ⇒ h = 6.63 × 10− 34 Js and cones (of the retina) requires the photon picture of light.
Number of photons incident on earth’s surface per second h
138. (c)Q λ =
per square metre is p
I I  hc 1
n= = λ Q E = λ  ⇒ λ ∝ or λ is inversely proportional to momentum.
E hc   p
1.52 × 103 × 520 × 10−9 139. (d) If v = velocity of particle
n=
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 1 2 p2
Then, E= mv = , so that
= 4 × 1021 Photons per m2 per second. 2 2m
129. (b) Here, λ min = 0.55 Å = 0.55 × 10− 10 m, c = 3 × 108 ms− 1 p = 2m E = 2m eV

Maximum energy of X-ray photon is The de-Broglie wavelength λ of the electron is then
h h h
E max = hν max =
hc λ= = =
λ min p 2m E 2 meV

6.63 × 10− 34 × 3 × 108 140. (a) Here, u = 0 ; a =

eE
; v = ?, t = t
= − 10 − 19
eV m
0.55 × 10 × 1.6 × 10
eE
3
= 22.6 × 10 eV = 22.6 keV ∴ v = u + at = 0 + t (from equation of motion)
m
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 345

de-Broglie wavelength, h 6.63 × 10−34 Js

de-Broglie wavelength, λ = =
λ=
h
=
h
=
h p 4.92 × 10−24 kgms −1
mv m ( eEt / m ) eEt
= 0.135 nm
Rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength, h
146. (d) As λ =
dλ h  1 −h 2 mqv
= −  =
dt eE  t 2  eEt 2 1
∴ λ∝
1227
. 1227
. mq
141. (b) λ = nm = = 0123
. nm
V 100 λp mα qα
which is in X-ray region. ∴ = (mα = 4 mp , qα = 2q p )
λα mp q p
142. (d) Momentum of a photon of energy hν
hν h h λp 4 mp × 2e
p= = ⇒ λ= …(i) = = 8 :1
c λ p λα mp × e
Also, by de-Broglie wavelength formula, h
147. (c) de-Broglie wavelength, λ = ...(i)
h 2mK
λ= …(ii)
p K
When the KE is , then
Both agrees to same value. 9
143. (d) Since, it is given that electron has mass m. de-Broglie’s h 3h
λ′ = = = 3λ [using Eq. (i)]
wavelength for an electron will be given as K 2mK
2m  
h  9
λe = …(i)
p 148. (b) Here, P = 200 W, λ 1 = 2 nm, λ 2 = 400 nm
where, h = Planck’s constant
p = Linear momentum of electron Let n1 and n2 be the number of photons of X-rays and visible
light emitted from the two sources.
p2
As kinetic energy of electron, E = hc hc n n
2m ∴ n1 = n2 or 1 = 2
λ1 λ2 λ1 λ 2
⇒ p = 2 mE …(ii)
n1 λ 2 1
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get ⇒ = 1 = = = 1 : 200
n2 λ 2 400 200
h
λe = …(iii) 149. (a) de-Broglie wavelength, λ = h / p
2 mE
Q pα = p p = pe ∴ λα = λ p = λe
Energy of a photon can be given as
h
E = hν 150. (a) Momentum of striking electrons, p =
λ
hc hc ∴ Kinetic energy of striking electrons
⇒ E= ⇒ λp = …(iv)
λp E p2 h2
K = =
Hence, λ p = de-Broglie’s wavelength of photon. 2m 2mλ 2
Now, dividing Eq. (iii) by Eq. (iv), we get This is also, maximum energy of X-ray photons.
λe h E λe 1 E h2 2mλ 2 c
= ⋅ ⇒ = . Therefore,
hc
= or λ 0 =
λp 2mE hc λ p c 2m λ 0 2mλ 2
h
144. (a) Energy per unit area per unit time = Intensity 151. (a) We have, λ =
12.27
Number of photons per unit area per unit time = N V
Intensity I λ1
∴ = ∴ =
V2
or λ 2 = λ1
V1
Energy of a photon hν λ2 V1 V2
So, number of photons entering our eye
25 1 λ1
I λ 2 = λ1 ⇒ λ 2 = λ1 =
= N × Area of pupil = × A = 1008
. × 104 photons s −1 . 100 4 2
hν
E hν h
145. (a) For the electron, 152. (a) Momentum of photon, p = = =
c c λ
Mass, m = 911. × 10−31 kg, speed v = 5.4 × 10−6 ms −1
h h
Then, momentum p= = = 1010 h
λ 1 × 10− 10
. × 10−31 × 5.4 × 106 = 4.92 × 10−24 kg ms −1
p = mv = 911
346 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

153. (b) For de-Broglie wavelength 158. (a) Given, potential difference, V = 56 V
h h (i) Use the formula for kinetic energy
λ1 = = …(i)
p 2mK 1 2 eV 2 eV
h h λ1 eV = mv2 ⇒ = v2 ⇒ v =
λ2 = = = …(ii) 2 m m
2m 16K 4 2mK 4 where, m is mass and v is velocity of electron.
λ 2 = 25% of λ 1 Momentum associated with accelerated electron,
There is 75% change in the wavelength 2eV
p = mv = m = 2 eVm
154. (a) If λ 0 is threshold wavelength, then work function m
hc hc 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 = 2 × 1.6 × 10− 19 × 56 × 9 × 10− 31
φ0 = ⇒ λ0 = = ≈ 2955 Å
λ0 φ0 . × 10−19
4.2 × 16 = 4.02 × 10−24 kg-ms −1
155. (c) Given that, the wavelength of incident light (ii) de-Broglie wavelength of electron,
12.27 12.27
( λ ) = 200 nm = 200 × 10−9 m λ= Å= = 0.164 × 10− 9 m = 0.164 nm
V 56
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
KE max = hν − φ …(i) 159. (b) The de-Broglie wavelength is given by
But KE max = eV0 λ = h / p ⇒ pλ = h
∴ eV0 = hν − φ (V0 = stopping potential) This equation is in the form of yx = c, which is the equation
of a rectangular hyperbola. Hence, the graph given in
hc
eV0 = −φ option (b) is the correct one.
λ
160. (a) If an electron is accelerated through a potential
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
∴1.6 × 10−19 V0 = − 4.71 × 1.6 × 10−19 difference of V volts, then wavelength associated with
200 × 10−9 1227
.
electron is λ = nm, where,V is the magnitude of
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 4.71 × 1.6 × 10−19 V
V0 = −7 −19
− accelerating potential in volts. For a 120 V accelerating
2 × 10 × 1.6 × 10 1.6 × 10−19
potential, above equation gives λ = 0.112 nm. This
V0 = (6.19 − 4.71) = 1.48 ≈ 1.50 V wavelength is of the same order as the spacing between the
1 atomic planes in crystals.
156. (b) K = mv2
2 h
161. (c) As λ = and p = momentum
h h
⇒ 2 mK = p 2 and λ = = p
p 2mK ∴ If p = 0, λ = ∞ (not defined)
1 Hence, p ≠ 0 ⇒ v = finite and non-zero.
So, for same kinetic energy, λ ∝ .
m 162. (a) Photons have zero rest mass and non-zero energy and
As heaviest is α-particle, λ is smallest for α. they are moving with a speed of light.
λp
157. (d) Given, . × 10−4 (where, λ p and λ e are
= 183 163. (c) The matter wave picture elegantly incorporated the
λe Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. According to the principle,
de-Broglie’s wavelengths associated with particle and it is not possible to measure both the position and momentum
vp of an electron (or any other particle) at the same time exactly.
electron, respectively) and = 3 (where, v p and ve are
ve 164. (a) There is always some uncertainty ( ∆x ) in the
velocities of the particle and electron, respectively.) specification of position and some uncertainty ( ∆p ) in the
h h specification of momentum. The product of ∆x and ∆p is of
Since, λ= or m = ...(i) the order of h (with h = h/ 2π) i. e., ∆x ∆ p ≈ h
mv λv
me λ p v p 165. (a) Here, ∆x = 1nm = 10− 9 m
Using Eq. (i), = = 5.49 × 10−4
mp λ e ve By Heisenberg uncertainty principle
∆x ∆p = h
mp 1
or = h h  h
me 5.49 × 10−4 ∴ ∆p = = Q h = 
∆x 2π ∆x  2π 
. × 10−31
91 6.63 × 10− 34
⇒ mp = . × 10−27 kg
≈ 166 = < 1.05 × 10− 25 kg ms− 1
5.49 × 10−4 2 × π × 10− 9
So, particle may be proton or a neutron. 166. (c) The wave nature of electrons was first experimentally
verified by CJ Davisson and LH Germer in 1927.
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 347

167. (d) _ + 178. (a) The number of photoelectrons emitted per second is
HT directly proportional to the intensity of incident radiation
Collimating and and kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on frequency
accelerating tube
of incident radiation.
Nickel target
179. (b) Work function is the minimum energy required to eject
the photoelectron from photosensitive metal. Hence for metal
A Electron beam

Vacuum chamber
F to be photosensitive, the work-function should be small.
θ
Work function = hν 0
Electron
LT gun where ν 0 is the threshold frequency.
Diffracted
electron 180. (c) In a photon-particle collision such as photon-electron
Movable
collector
beam collision, the total energy and total momentum are conserved.
To galvanometer
However, the number of photons may not be conserved in a
collision. The photon may be absorbed or a new photon may be
168. (c) The appearance of the peak in a particular direction is created.
due to the constructive interference of electrons scattered 181. (c) Photocell is a technical application of the photoelectric
from different layers of the regularly spaced atoms of the effect. It is a device which converts light energy into electric
crystals. energy. It is also called an electric eye. Photocell are used in
170. (d) For heavy or slow particles, wavelength associated is not the reproduction of sound in motion picture and in the
measurable. But for a fast and light particle, wavelength is television camera.
observable. 182. (a) In Davisson and Germer experiment, de-Broglie
171. (d) The de-Broglie hypothesis beam basic to the wavelength associated with electron beam is
development of modern quantum mechanics. It has also led h
to the field of electron optics. The wave properties of λ=
2mK
electrons have been utilised in the design of electron
microscope which is a great improvement, with higher where, K is KE and m is mass of electron.
resolution, over the optical microscope. 183. (a) Momentum of a photon is given by p = h / c
172. (a) For the nickel crystal, the interatomic separation is Also the photon is a form of energy photon behaves as a
d = 0.91 Å hc E
particle having energy E = so p = λ .
According to Bragg’s law, for first order diffraction maxima λ c
( n = 1) , we have 185. (b) The photo emissive cell contain an inert gas at low
2 d sin θ = 1 × λ pressure. An inert gas in the cell is given greater current but
∴ λ = 2 × 0.91 × sin 65° = 165
. Å causes a time lag in the response of the cell to very rapid
173. (a) The experimental arrangement used by Davisson and change of radiation which may make it unsuitable for some
Germer consists of an electron gun which comprises of a purpose.
tungsten filament F, coated with barium oxide and heated by 186. (d) Maxwell’s equations and Lorentz force formula forms
a low voltage power supply. Electrons emitted by the the basic foundation of electrodynamics Maxwell’s
filament are accelerated to a desired velocity by applying equations describes how electric and magnetic fields are
suitable potential/voltage from a high voltage power supply.
generated and altered by each other. X-ray is a form of
174. (c) Given, voltage of electron microscope = 50kV = 50000V electromagnetic radiation.
12.27 12.27 187. (d) The minimum energy required for the electron emission
de-Broglie wavelength, λ = Å= = 0.055 Å
V 50000 from the metal surface can be supplied to the free electrons
= 5.5 × 10−12 m by anyone of the following physical processes.
175. (a) Cathode ray particles when strike the electrons of glass (i) Thermionic emission By suitably heating, sufficient
atom, the electrons of glass atom are excited and move to thermal energy can be imparted to the free electrons to
higher energy levels. On de-excitation, they fall to their enable them to come out of the metal.
ground state and release energy. As energy levels are (ii) Photoelectric emission When light of suitable frequency
characteristics of glass, glow depends on glass. illuminates a metal surface, electrons are emitted from the
176. (c) Sensitivity of a photoelectric materials greatly depends metal surface. These photo (light)-generated electrons are
on its surface characteristics. When emitter plate is coated called photoelectrons.
with a materials of low work function, photoemission occurs (iii) Field emission By applying a very strong electric field
even at low frequency. (of the order of 108 Vm−1 ) to a metal, electrons can be
177. (a) We know that intensity is energy per unit area per unit time. pulled out of the metal, as in a spark plug.
348 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

188. (d) To study effect of intensity, the collector C is maintained (iii) Photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected by
at a positive potential with respect to emitter E so that electric and magnetic fields.
electrons ejected from E are attracted towards collector C. (iv) In photon-particle collision (such as photoelectron
Keeping the frequency of the incident radiation and the collision), the total energy and total momentum are
accelerating potential fixed, the intensity of light is varied conserved.
and the resulting photoelectric current is measured each h
time. It is found that the photocurrent increases linearly with 192. (c) Using λ = and p = mv,
p
intensity of incident light.
we get, λ 1 < λ 2 < λ 3
189. (a) (i) The graph shows that the stopping potential V0 varies
linearly with the frequency of incident radiation for a p1 = m1 v1 = ( 0.4 kg × 1 kms −1 ) = 400 kg ms −1
given photosensitive material. p2 = m2 v2 = ( 0.6 kg × 1 ms −1 ) = 0.6 kg ms −1
Y . × 10−9 × 2.2 ) = 2.2 × 10−9 kgms −1
p3 = m3 v3 = (10
Metal A
Metal B p1 > p2 > p3
 1
Stopping λ1 < λ 2 < λ 3 Q λ ∝ 
potential ν >ν 0′  p
(V0) ν > ν 0′
193. (b) A → 3, B → 4 , C → 2, D → 1
ν ν0 ′
0 Frequency of incident radiation Maximum KE is given by
(ν)
K max = hf − φ 0
Variation of stopping potential V0 with frequency ν of
6.62 × 10− 34 × 6 × 1014
incident radiation for a given photosensitive material. = − 214
.
(ii) There exists a certain minimum cut-off frequency ν 0 for . × 10− 19
16
which the stopping potential is zero. = 2.485 − 2.140 = 0.345 eV
These observations have two implications. K min = 0, (so B → 4 )
(iii) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons K 0.345 eV
Stopping potential, V0 = max =
varies linearly with the frequency of incident radiation, e e
but is independent of its intensity. or V0 = 0.345 V= 345 mV
(iv) For a frequency ν of incident radiation lower than the Maximum speed of emitted electrons,
cut-off frequency ν 0 , no photoelectric emission is
1
possible even if the intensity is large. K max = mv2 max
This minimum, cut-off frequency ν 0 , is called the 2
threshold frequency. It is different for different metals. 2K max
or v max = = 01104
. × 1012
190. (d)(i) For a given photosensitive material and frequency of m
incident radiation (above the threshold frequency), the = 3.323 × 105 ms −1 = 332 kms −1
photoelectric current is directly proportional to the
intensity of incident light, till saturation. 194. (b) A → 4, B → 2, C → 3, D → 1
(ii) Saturation current is found to be proportional to the A. An electron absorbs a single photon of light and if the
intensity of incident radiation whereas the stopping energy carried by photon is more than work function of
potential is independent of its intensity. the metal, the electron is emitted.
(iii) A certain minimum cut-off frequency of the incident B. From source,
radiation, called the threshold frequency, below which Total emitted power = P (total energy per second)
no emission of photoelectrons takes place, no matter Energy carried by each photon = E
how intense the incident light is. Above the threshold
So, number of photons emitted by the source = P / E
frequency, the stopping potential or equivalently the
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons C. Energy of a photons = E = hν
increases linearly with the frequency of the incident D. For the cut-off or threshold frequency, the energy hν 0 of
radiation but is independent of its intensity. the incident radiation must be equal to work function φ 0 ,
(iv) The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process so that hν 0 = φ 0
φ
without any apparent time lag (~ 10− 9 or less), even ⇒ h= 0
ν0
when the incident radiations is made exceedingly dim.
196. (a) A → 2, B → 1, C → 3
191. (b) (i) In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation
behaves as if it is made up of particles called photons. Frank-Hertz experiment → Discrete energy levels of atoms.
(ii) Each photon has energy E ( = hν ) and momentum Photoelectric experiment → Particle nature of light
p ( = hν / c ) where c is the speed of light. Davisson-Germer experiment → Wave nature of electron.
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 349

197. (b) Energy of the incident photons, h2 ( 6.63 × 10− 34 )2

∴ K = = = 2.415 × 10− 17 J
Ei = 10.6 eV 2mλ 2 . × 10− 31 ) (10− 10 )2
2 ( 91
= 10.6 × 1.6 × 10− 19  2.415 × 10− 17 
K =  = 150.8 eV
Ei = 16.96 × 10− 19 J  1.6 × 10− 19 
Energy incident per unit area per unit time (intensity) = 2 J
204. (b) The least value of d will be, when only one loop is
∴ Number of photons incident on unit area in unit time formed.
2
= = 1.18 × 1018 1
16.96 × 10− 19 ∴ d min = λ / 2 = ⇒ d min = 0.5 Å
2
Therefore, number of photons incident on given area hc
(1.0 × 10− 4 m2 ) 205. (a,c) − φ = eV
λ hc φ
= (1.18 × 1018 ) (1.0 × 10− 4 ) V = −
eλ e
= 1.18 × 1014 For plate I Plate 2 Plate 3
But only 0.53% of incident photons emit photoelectrons. φ1 φ2 φ3
= 0.001 = 0.002 = 0.004
∴ Number of photoelectrons emitted per second ( n ), hc hc hc
 0.53 14 11 φ1 : φ 2 : φ 3 = 1 : 2 : 4
n=  (1.18 × 10 ) = 6.25 × 10
 100  For plate 2, threshold wavelength
hc hc 1000
198. (a) K max = Ei − work-function = (10.6 − 5.6) = 5.0 eV λ= = = = 500 nm
φ 2 0.002hc 2
199. (d) K min = 0, kinetic energy of photoelectrons varies from 0
For plate 3, threshold wavelength
(KE) max . Hence, minimum possible KE of any hc hc 1000
photoelectron is zero. γ= = = = 250 nm
φ 3 0.004 hc 4
200. (a) Maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons would be
Since, violet colour light will eject photoelectrons from
K max = E − W = 5 − 3 = 2 eV plate 2 not from 3.
i
8µA 206. (a,b,c) K max = E − W0
4µA
TA = 4.25 − (W0 ) A …(i)
TB = (TA − 1.5 )
TB = 4.70 − (W0 )B …(ii)
–2 V
Anode potential Eqs. (i) and (ii) gives
(W 0 )B − (W0 ) A = 1.95 eV
Therefore, the stopping potential is 2 V. Saturation current
de-Broglie wavelength
depends on the intensity of light incident. Therefore, option
h 1
(a) is correct. λ= ⇒ λ∝
2mV K
201. (b) When the intensity is doubled the saturation current will
also become double. λB KA TA
= ⇒ 2=
202. (a) From the figure, it is clear that λA KB TA − 1.5
2 A° ⇒ TA = 2 eV
N N From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
p-loops λ/2 W A = 2.25 eV and WB = 4.20 eV
207. (c,d) de-Broglie wavelength
(p + 1) loops h h
2.5 A° λ= ⇒ v=
mv mλ
p ⋅ ( λ / 2 ) = 2Å ⇒ ( p + 1) ⋅ λ / 2 = 2.5 Å Here, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js
∴ λ / 2 = (2.5 − 2.0) Å = 0.5 Å or λ = 1 Å
and for electron, m = 9 × 10−31 kg
203. (b) de-Broglie wavelength is given by
Now consider each option one by one
h h
λ= = (a) λ 1 = 10 nm = 10 × 10−9 m = 10−8 m
p 2Km
Here, K = Kinetic energy of electron 6.6 × 10−34 2.2
⇒ v1 = −31 −8
= × 105 ≈ 105 ms −1
( 9 × 10 ) × 10 3
350 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

(b) λ 2 = 10−1 nm = 10−1 × 10−9 m = 10−10 m Ep hc 2λ 2e me

∴ = ×
6.6 × 10−34 Ee 2λ e h2
⇒ v2 = ≈ 107 ms −1 λ e me c 100h me c
( 9 × 10−31 ) × 10−10 = = × = 100
h me c h
(c) λ 3 = 10−4 nm = 10−4 × 10−9 m = 10−13 m Ee 1
So, = = 10−2
6.6 × 10−34 E p 100
⇒ v3 = ≈ 1010 ms −1
( 9 × 10−31 ) × 10−13 For electron, pe = me ve = me × c / 100
(d) λ 4 = 10−6 nm = 10−6 × 10−9 m = 10−15 m pe 1
So, = = 10−2
6.6 × 10−34 me c 100
⇒ v4 = ≈ 1012 ms −1
9 × 10−31 × 10−15 210. (b, d) The de-Broglie wavelength of the particle can be
varying cyclically between two values λ 1 and λ 2 , if particle
Thus, options (c) and (d) are correct as v3 and v4 is greater
is moving in an elliptical orbit with origin as its one focus.
than 3 × 108 ms −1 .
Consider the figure given below
h
208. (a, c) de-Broglie wavelength, λ = v2
mv
where, mv = p (momentum)
h h A P
⇒ λ= ⇒ p= O
p λ
Here, h is a constant. v1
1 p λ
So, p∝ ⇒ 1 = 2 Let v1 , v2 be the speed of particle at A and B, respectively
λ p2 λ 1
and origin is at focus O. If λ 1 , λ 2 are the de-Broglie
But (λ 1 = λ 2 ) = λ wavelengths associated with particle while moving at A and
p1 λ B respectively. Then,
Then, = = 1 ⇒ p1 = p2
p2 λ λ1 =
h
and λ 2 =
h
Thus, their momenta is same. mv1 mv2
λ 1 v2
1 1 mv2 × m 1 m2 v2 1 p 2 ∴ =
Also, E = mv2 = = = λ 2 v1
2 2 m 2 m 2 m
1
Here, p is constant E ∝ Since λ1 > λ 2
m
E1 m2 ∴ v2 > v1
∴ = < 1 ⇒ E1 < E2 By law of conservation of angular momentum, the particle
E2 m1
moves faster when it is closer to focus.
209. (b, c) Suppose, mass of electron = m e , mass of photon = mp , From figure, we note that origin O is closed to P than A.
Velocity of electron = ve and velocity of photon = v p 211. (a) Given, voltageV = 30 kV = 30 × 103 Vand
Thus, for electron, de-Broglie wavelength . × 10−19 C
e = 16
h h 100 h
λe = = = (given) …(i) Using formula for energy
me ve me ( c / 100 ) me c E = eV = hν
1 eV 16. × 10−19 × 30 × 103
Kinetic energy, Ee = me ve2 ν= = = 7.24 × 1018 Hz
2 h 6.63 × 10−34
⇒ me ve = 2Ee me Maximum frequency ν = 7.24 × 1018 Hz
h h Minimum wavelength of X-ray.
so, λe = =
me ve 2me Ee c 3 × 108
λ= =
h2 ν 7.24 × 1018
⇒ Ee = …(ii)
2λ 2e me where, c = 3 × 108 m/s (speed of light)
For photon of wavelength λ p , energy λ = 0.414 × 10−10 = 0.0414 × 10−9 m = 0.0414 nm
hc hc 212. (b) Given, work function of caesium metal φ 0 = 214
. eV
Ep = = [Q λ p = 2λ e ]
λ p 2λ e Frequency of light ν = 6 × 1014 Hz
 CHAPTER 11 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 351

Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons (Einstein's LetV0 be the cut-off voltage.
photoelectric equation) Using the formula for kinetic energy,
6.63 × 10−34 × 6 × 1014 KE = eV0 = hν − hν 0
KE max = hν − φ 0 = − 214
. = 0.35 eV
. × 10−19
16 h ( ν − ν 0 ) 6.63 × 10−34 ( 8.2 × 1014 − 3.3 × 1014 )
V0 = =
213. (c) Given, cut-off voltage V0 = 15
. V e 16. × 10−19
Use the formula for maximum kinetic energy 6.63 × 10−34 × 1014 × 4.9
= = 2.03 V
KE max = eV0 = 15
. eV = 15 . × 10−19 = 2.4 × 10−19 J
. × 16 . × 10−19
16
214. (a) Given, wavelength of monochromatic light, λ = 632.8 nm 218. (a) Given, frequency of light, ν = 7.21 × 1014 Hz
= 632.8 × 10−9 m Mass of electron, m = 91 . × 10−31 kg
Maximum speed of electrons, v max = 6 × 105 m/s
Power = 9.42 mW = 9.42 × 10−3 W
Let ν 0 be the threshold frequency.
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
Energy of each photon, E = = Use the formula for kinetic energy
λ 632.8 × 10−9 1
KE = mv2max = hν − hν 0
. × 10−19 J
= 314 2
1 −31
h i.e., . × 10 × 6 × 105 × 6 × 105
× 91
We know that momentum of each photon, p = 2
λ
= 6.63 × 10−34 (ν − ν 0 )
6.63 × 10−34
p= . × 10−27 kg-m/s
= 105 . × 10−21
36 × 91
632.8 × 10−9 or ν − ν0 = = 2.47 × 1014
2 × 6.63 × 10−34
215. (a) Given, energy per unit area per second,
ν 0 = 7.21 × 1014 − 2.47 × 1014 (Q ν = 7.21 × 1014 Hz)
P = 1388
. × 103 W/m 2
Let n be the number of photons incident on the earth per square = 4.74 × 1014 Hz
metre. Wavelength of each photon = 550 nm = 550 × 10−9 m 219. (b) Given, wavelength of light, λ = 488 nm = 488 × 10−9 m
Energy of each photon, E = hc / λ (where, h is the Planck's . × 10−19 C
Cut-off potential V0 = 0.38 V, e = 16
constant)
Planck constant h = 6.62 × 10−34 J-s
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
= = 3.616 × 10−19 J Velocity of light c = 3 × 108 m/s
550 × 10−9 Let φ 0 be the work function.
Number of photons incident on the earth's surface Use the formula for kinetic energy,
P 1388
. × 103 hc
n= = = 3.838 × 1021 KE = eV0 = − φ0
E 3.616 × 10−19 λ
= 3.838 × 1021 photon/m 2 -s 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
. × 10−19 × 0.38 =
16 − φ0
216. (b) Given, power of lamp, P = 100 W 488 × 10−9
Wavelength of the sodium light, λ = 589 nm = 589 × 10−9 m or 6.08 × 10−20 = 40.75 × 10−20 − φ 0
Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10−34 J-s or φ = ( 40.75 − 6.08 ) × 10−20 = 34.67 × 10−20 J
Energy of each photon
34.67 × 10−20
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 or = eV = 217
. eV
E= = −9
(Q c = 3 × 108 m/s) . × 10−19
16
λ 589 × 10
220. (d) Velocity gained by particle
= 3.38 × 10−19 J
3.38 × 10−19 v = 2gH
= = 211
. eV
. × 10−19
16 ∴ λ=
h
=
h
=
h
⇒ λ ∝ H −1 / 2
Let n photons are delivered per second. p mv m 2gH
Power 221. (b) Energy of a photon,
∴ n= (from P = En)
Energy of each photon hc 1240 eV- nm
E= ⇒ λ= = 1.2 × 10−3 nm
=
100
= 3 × 1020 photon/s λ 1 MeV
3.38 × 10−19 222. (d) When an electron with energy E0 strikes another
= 3 × 1020 photon/s are delivered electron, it is one of the possibility that it replaces one of e−
of metal by transferring complete energy. As there is no
217. (a) Given, threshold frequency for a metal, ν 0 = 3.3 × 1014 Hz
change in total number of electrons, no work has to be done
Frequency of light, ν = 8.2 × 1014 Hz as no attraction is produced by metal atoms.
352 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

∴ Electrons will be emitted with maximum energy = E0 F = − eE = − e [ − E0 $i ] = eE0 $i

223. (c) In Davisson-Germer experiment, the de-Broglie F eE0 i$
wavelength associated with electron is Acceleration of electron, a = =
m m
12. 27
λ= Å ...(i) Velocity of electron after time t ,
V  eE $i 
where, V is the applied voltage. v = v0 i$ +  0  t (using, v = u + at )
 m 
If there is a maxima of the diffracted electrons at an angle θ,
then  eE   eE0  $
=  v0 + 0 t  $i = v0 1 + t i
2d sin θ = λ …(ii)  m   mv0 
i.e., V will increase with the decrease in the λ. de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron at time t is
So, with the decrease in λ, θ will also decrease. h h
Thus, when the voltage applied to A is increased. The λ= =
mv   eE0  
diffracted beam will have the maximum at a value of θ that m v0 1 + t 
will be less than the earlier value.   mv0 
λ0  h 
224. (b) We know that the relation between λ and K is given by = Q = λ 0
 eE0   mv0 
1 +
h t
λ=
2mK  mv0 
h 227. (c) Initial de-Broglie wavelength of electron,
Here, for the given value of energy K, is a constant.
2K h
λ0 =
1 mv0
Thus, λ∝
m Force on electron in electric field,
∴ λ p :λn :λe :λ α F = − eE = − eE0 $j
1 1 1 1
⇒ = : : : Acceleration of electron,
mp mn me mα
F eE
a= = − 0 $j
Since, mp = mn , hence λ p = λ n m m
As, mα > mp , therefore λ α < λ p It is acting along negative Y-axis.
As, me < mn , therefore λ e > λ n
The initial velocity of electron along X -axis vx 0 = v0 i$.
Hence, λα < λ p = λn < λe
Initial velocity of electron along Y -axis, v y 0 = 0.
225. (a) Given, v = v0 i$, B = B0$j
Velocity of electron after time t along X -axis, v = v i$x 0
Y
(since, there is no acceleration of electron along X -axis)
Velocity of electron after time t along Y -axis,
B0
 eE  eE
v y = 0 +  − 0 $j t = − 0 t $j
Direction of
force on
 m  m
electron V0
X Magnitude of velocity of electron after time t is
Force on charged particle moving in external magnetic field | v | = vx2 + v2y
= q( v × B )
2
or F = q( v0 i$ × B0 $j )  − eE0  e2 E02 t 2
= v02 +  t  = v0 1 +
or F = qB v k$  m  m2 v02
0 0

Q q is negative, force is in direction of − k.

$ (into the plane de-Broglie wavelength,
of paper) For force perpendicular to velocity, the particle h h h
λ= = (here, λ 0 = )
executes uniform circular motion. Since, magnitude of mv 1 + e E02 t 2
2 mv0
velocity v0 is constant. mv0 2
( m2 v0 )
h h
de-Broglie wavelength, λ = = = constant λ0
mv mV0 = 1/ 2
226. (a) Initial de-Broglie wavelength of electron,
 e E0 t 2 
2 2
1 + 
 m2 v02 
h 
λ0 = …(i)
mv0
Force on electron in electric field,
 C H A P T E R

12
Atoms
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Rutherford’s Model of Atom The spectrum consists of a set of isolated parallel
(i) The force between the α-particle and nucleus is lines termed as line spectrum. It provides useful
1 (2e) ( Ze) information about the atomic structure.
given by, F =
4 πε 0 r2 8. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum
consisting of various series.
where, r is the distance between the particle and
the nucleus and Z is the atomic number. The frequency of any line in a series can be
expressed as
1 2 Ze 2
(ii) Distance of closest approach, r0 = 1 1
4 πε 0 K (i) Lyman series, ν = Rc  2 − 2  ; n = 2, 3, 4...
1 n 
(iii) Impact parameter is the perpendicular distance of
the initial velocity vector of the α-particle from the 1 1
(ii) Balmer series, ν = Rc  2 − 2  ; n = 3, 4, 5 ...
central line of the nucleus. 2 n 
2. The relation between the orbit radius and the electron
1 1
velocity is (iii) Paschen series, ν = Rc  2 − 2  ; n = 4, 5, 6 ...
e2 3 n 
r= (e = charge on nucleus)
4πε 0 mv 2 1 1
(iv) Brackett series, ν = Rc  2 − 2  ; n = 5, 6, 7 ...
3. The kinetic energy (K) and electrostatic potential 4 n 
energy (U ) of the electron in hydrogen atom are
1 1
e2 −e 2 (v) Pfund series, ν = Rc  2 − 2  ; n = 6, 7, 8 ...
K = and U = 5 n 
8πε 0r 4πε 0r
9. Bohr’s Model of Hydrogen Atom
4. The total energy (E ) of the electron in a hydrogen atom is (i) The electrons revolve around the nucleus only in
−e 2 certain permitted orbits, (known as stationary
E =
8πε 0r orbits) in which the angular momentum of the
5. Hydrogen spectrum consists of discrete bright lines electron is an integral multiple of h / 2π, where h
on a dark background and it is specifically known as is the Planck’s constant.
hydrogen emission spectrum. (ii) If energy of the electron in nth and mth orbits be
6. There is one more type of hydrogen spectrum exists En and Em respectively, then the electron jumps
where, we get dark lines on the bright background, it from nth to mth orbit, the radiation frequency ν is
is known as absorption spectrum. emitted. Such that,
7. Wave number is given by, E n − E m = hν
1 1 1 This is called Bohr’s frequency equation.
ν= = R  2 − 2
λ (iii) The orbital velocity of electron is given by
n1 n2 
1 2 πZe 2 Ze 2 Z
Atoms of each element are stable and emit vn = ⋅ = = 2.21 × 106 ms −1
characteristic spectrum. 4 πε 0 nh 2 ε 0nh n
354 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

(iv) The orbital radius of the electron is given by me 4 − Zke 2 −2Rhc ( Z ) 2

and PE = = =
n 2h 2 n2 4n 2h 2 ε 20 r n2
rn = 4 πε 0 ⋅ 2 2
= 0.53 Å
4 π mZe Z Rhc = 13.6 eV
(v) Orbital frequency is given by (vii) Energy difference between states is given by
1 v me 4 Z 2 mZ 2e 4 1 1
f = = = 2 3 3 E 2 − E1 =
T 2 π r 4 ε 0n h 8 ε 02h 2 n 2 − n 2 
 1 2
(vi) The total energy of the orbital electron is 1 1
2 4
E 2 − E1 = 13.6 Z 2  2 − 2 
 1  2 πme   1  n1 n2 
E =− 
 4 πε 0   h 2  n 2  10. de-Broglie hypothesis that electrons have a
4 2 2 2 4 h
− me Z −RhcZ −13.6 Z eV me wavelength λ = gave an explanation for Bohr’s
= = = = mv
8n 2 ε 20h 2 n2 n2 8ε 20ch 3
quantised orbits by bringing in the wave particle
. × 107 m
= 103 duality. The orbits correspond to circular standing
waves in which the circumference of the orbit equals
Z 2me 4 Z 2ke 2 RhcZ 2
KE = 2 2 2
= = to a whole number of wavelength.
8n h ε 0 2r n2

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
JJ Thomson’s, Rutherford’s
Model of Atom and Atomic Spectra
1. JJ Thomson’s experiment revealed that 4. Order of ratio of e/ m ratio of proton, α-particles and
(a) atoms are smallest entities of matter electrons is
(b) atoms are round in shape  e  e  e
(c) atoms are electrically neutral (a)   >   >  
 m p  m α  m e
(d) atoms contains negatively charged particles
 e  e  e
2. The first atomic model as proposed by J J Thomson, (b)   >   >  
 m e  m p  m α
can be picturised as
 e  e  e
(c)   >   >  
 m α  m e  m p
(a) (b) (d) All are equal
5. Average angle of deflection of α-particles by a thin
gold foil predicted by Thomson’s model was
(d) (a) much less than that predicted by Rutherford’s model
(c)
(b) about the same that predicted by Rutherford’s model
(c) much more than that predicted by Rutherford’s model
(d) None of the above
3. JJ Thomson’s cathode ray experiment demonstrated
that, 6. The probability of backward scattering predicted by
(a) cathode rays are stream of ions Thomson’s model was
(b) all the mass of an atom is situated in the nucleus (a) much less than that predicted by Rutherford’s model
(c) the e / m of electrons is greater than the e / m of protons (b) about the same that predicted by Rutherford’s model
(d) the e / m ratio of the cathode ray particles change when (c) much more than that predicted by Rutherford’s model
a different gas is placed in the cathode rays (d) None of the above
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 355

7. Comparison of J J Thomson and Rutherford atomic 11. Correct figure of Geiger-Marsden experiment is
models is shown respectively, pick the correct one.
(a) (b)
(a) Positively
charge matter
α-source α-source
Gold foil Gold foil
10–10 m 10–10 m

10–10 m (c) (d)

(b) α-source Gold foil α-source Gold foil

10–15 m 10–15 m
12. Gold foil used in Geiger-Marsden experiment is
10–15 m about 10 −8 m thick. This ensures
(a) gold foil’s gravitational pull is small or possible
(c) (b) gold foil is deflected when α-particle stream is not
incident centrally over it
(c) gold foil provides no resistance to passage of
10–20 m 10–17 m α-particles
(d) most α-particle will not suffer more than 1°
10–15 m
scattering during passage through gold foil

(d) 13. In Geiger-Marsden experiment detection of

α-particles scattered at a particular angle is done
by
10–15 m 10–10 m
(a) counting flashes produced by α-particles on a ZnS
8. α-particle scattering experiment is done coated screen
(a) to investigate nuclear structure (b) counting spots produced on a photographic film
(b) to investigate atomic structure (c) using a galvanometer detector
(c) to investigate electronic configuration (d) using a Geiger-counter
(d) to investigate α-particle emission 14. Atoms consist of a positively charged nucleus is
9. Rutherford’s atomic model can be visualised as obviously from the following observation of
Geiger-Marsden experiment
(a) most of α-particles do not pass straight through the
(a) (b) gold foil
(b) many of α-particles are scattered through the acute
angles
(c) very large number of α-particles are deflected by
large angles
(c) (d) (d) None of the above
15. For scattering of α-particles, Rutherford’s
suggested that
10. In Geiger-Marsden experiment, collimation of (a) mass of atom and its positive charge were
α-particles into a narrow beam is done by passing concentrated at centre of atom
(a) α-particles through a narrow gap between lead bricks (b) only mass of atom is concentrated at centre of atom
(b) α-particles through gold foil (c) only positive charge of atom is concentrated at
(c) α-particles through an electric field centre of atom
(d) α-particles through a magnetic field (d) mass of atom is uniformly distributed throughout
its volume
356 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

16. α-particles are scattered due to 23. α-particles are scattered by the gold nucleus but
(a) attraction from electrons (b) repulsion from nucleus not by the electrons. It is, because
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) gravitational pull from neutrons (a) electrons are much massive than α-particle
(b) α-particles are massive than electrons but only
17. Graph of total number of α-particles scattered at different about 2% massive for a gold nucleus
angles is (c) α-particles are nearly of same mass or that of
nucleus
(d) α-particles are positively charged
α-particles

α-particles
Number of

(a) (b) Number of 24. Trajectory of an α-particle is shown in figure

below. Then, impact parameter is
20° 160° θ 20° 160° θ
d
c
α-particle
α-particles

α-particles
Number of

Number of

a
(c) (d) b

Central line of nucleus Gold nucleus

20° 160° θ 20° 160° θ
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
18. From Rutherford’s experiment, estimated sizes of nucleus 25. If impact parameter is very small, then scattering
and atom are angle is around
(a) 10−15 m, 10−10 m (b) 10−15 m, 10−14 m (a) zero (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) 360°
(c) 10−15 m, 10−20 m (d) 10−15 m , 10−15 m 26. The size of nucleus is estimated by measuring
19. For separation r between gold nucleus and an α-particle, the (a) distance of closest approach
magnitude of repulsive force is given by (b) impact parameter
1 2e2 1 e2 (c) scattering angle
(a) F = ⋅ (b) F = ⋅ (d) All of the above
4 π ε 0 r2 4 π ε 0 r2
158 ⋅ e2 56 e2 27. In the diagram shown, dimension d is known as
(c) F = 2
(d) F = 2
4 π ε0 r 4 π ε0 r α
d

20. When an α -particle of mass m moving with velocity v

Gold nucleus
bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, its distance of
closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as (a) impact parameter
[NEET 2016] (b) distance of closest approach
1 1 1 (c) atomic radius
(a) (b) 2
(c) m (d)
m m m (d) nuclear radius

21. In Geiger-Marsden experiment, it can be fairly assumed that 28. The fact that only a small fraction of the number
the gold nucleus remains stationary throughout the of incident particles rebound back in Rutherford
scattering process as scattering indicates that
(a) gold foil is very thin (a) number of α-particles undergoing head-on
(b) α-particles are moving very fast collision is large
(c) α-particles carry positive charge (b) mass of the atom is concentrated in a small volume
(d) gold nucleus is about 50 times heavier than the α-particles (c) mass of the atom is concentrated in a large volume
(d) Both (a) and (b)
22. In a Geiger-Marsden experiment, an α-particle of 7.7 MeV
energy approaches a gold nucleus head on, it comes 29. In Geiger-Marsden experiment, in a head-on
momentarily to rest and reverses its direction. We can collision between an α-particle and a gold
conclude that nucleus, the minimum separation is 4 × 10 −14 m .
(a) radius of gold nucleus is 3.0 × 10−14 m The energy of α-particle is (Take, atomic
(b) radius of gold nucleus is more than 3.0 × 10−14 m number of gold = 79)
(c) radius of gold nucleus is less than 3.0 × 10−14 m (a) 5.68 MeV (b) 8 MeV
(c) 4.47 MeV (d) 7.24 MeV
(d) radius cannot be estimated by given data
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 357

30. In Rutherford’s model, if Fe indicates electrostatic 39. A line emission spectrum consists of
force between electron and nucleus and Fc indicates (a) bright lines on a dark background
the centripetal force on revolving electron, then (b) dark lines on a bright background
(a) Fe = Fc (b) Fe > Fc (c) alternate dark and bright lines
(c) Fe < Fc (d) None of these (d) a dark patch followed by a coloured band

31. In Rutherford’s model, if v is velocity of electron and r 40. A line emission spectrum of a material is
is its orbital radius, then in case of a hydrogen atom is (a) unique like a fingerprint
e2 e2 (b) same for all
(a) r = (b) r = (c) may be same for few elements
8π ε 0 mv2 8π ε 0 v
(d) depends on excitation produced
e2 e2
(c) r = (d) r = 41. When white light is passed through an unexcited gas
4π ε 0 mv 2
4π ε 0 v
(in varified state), then transmitted light consists of
32. In an atom, the ratio of radius of orbit of electron to (a) few bright lines in dark background
the radius of nucleus is (b) few dark lines in bright background
(a) 103 (b) 104 (c) 105 (d) 106 (c) alternate dark and bright lines
(d) alternate dark and bright bands
33. In Rutherford’s model, kinetic energy of revolving
electron into hydrogen atom of radius r is given by 42. In a line emission spectrum, frequencies of the light
e2 e2
emitted follows
(a) K = (b) K = (a) some regular pattern
4π ε 0 r 8πε 0 r2 (b) some but not regular
− e2 e2 (c) no pattern at all
(c) K = (d) K =
8π ε 0 r 8πε 0 r (d) cannot be judged

34. In Rutherford’s model, potential energy of the 43. Balmer series of hydrogen line emission spectrum
electron in an hydrogen atom of radius r is given by lies in
e 2
e 2 (a) visible region
(a) U = (b) U = (b) infrared region
4π ε 0 r 4π ε 0 r 2
(c) ultraviolet region
2
e e2 (d) X-ray region
(c) U = − (d) U = −
4π ε 0 r 4π ε 0 r2
44. In Balmer series, H α -line is of
35. In Rutherford’s model, total energy of an electron in a (a) red colour (b) yellow colour
hydrogen atom is (c) orange colour (d) green colour
(a) positive (b) negative 45. Which of the following shows a spectrum of
(c) either positive or negative (d) zero hydrogen gas?
36. Spectrum emitted due to de-excitation of electrons of
an atom is (a)
(a) line emission spectrum (b) band emission spectrum
(c) continuous spectrum (d) no spectrum is emitted H∞ Hδ Hγ Hβ Hα
37. Every element present in nature can be associated with
(a) an unique emission spectrum (b)
(b) an emission spectrum
(c) an unique band emission spectrum H∞ Hδ Hγ Hβ Hα
(d) an emission band spectrum
38. A line spectrum is observed when (c)
(a) a gas is excited by heating or by passing a discharge
H∞ Hδ Hγ H β Hα
through it
(b) a gas is excited by applying pressure
(c) a gas under low pressure condition is excited by heating (d)
or by passing a discharge through it
(d) a gas under high pressure condition is excited by H∞ Hδ H γ H β Hα
heating or by passing a discharge through it
358 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

46. Balmer’s formula for spectral series of hydrogen is 51. If wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of
1 1 1 1 1 1 hydrogen is 6561Å, the wavelength of the second line
(a) = R  − 2 (b) = R  − 2
λ  4 n  λ  2 n  of the series should be
(a) 13122Å (b) 3280Å (c) 4860Å (d) 2187Å
1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) = R  − 2 (d) = R  2 − 2
λ 9 n  λ 1 n  52. In Brackett series, ratio of maximum to minimum
wavelengths ( λ max / λ min ) is
47. The shortest wavelength in Balmer’s series for (a) 4/3 (b) 25/9 (c) 16/7 (d) 36/11
Hydrogen atom is … and this is obtained by
1 1 1  53. In Pfund series, ratio of maximum to minimum
substituting … in Balmer’s formula = R  − 2  . wavelength of emitted spectral lines is
λ 4 n 
λ max 4 λ 9
(a) 656.3 nm, n = 3 (b) 486.1 nm, n = 4 (a) = (b) max
=
λ 3 λ 5
(c) 410.2 nm, n = 5 (d) 364.6 nm, n = ∞ min min
λ 16 λ 36
48. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the (c) max
= (d) max
=
λ min 7 λ min 11
ground state by emitting a photon of wavelength λ. If
R is the Rydberg constant, then the principal quantum 54. An electron jumps from the 4th orbit to 2nd orbit of
number n of the excited state is the hydrogen atom. Given, Rydberg’s constant
λR λ λR2
λR R = 10 5 cm −1 , the frequency in hertz of emitted
(a) (b) (c) (d)
λR − 1 λR − 1 λR − 1 λ −1 radiation will be
3 3 9 3
(a) × 105 (b) × 1015 (c) × 1015 (d) × 1015
49. The largest wavelength correspording to Lyman 16 16 16 4
series is
(a) 1218 Å (b) 1028 Å 55. If ν 1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman
(c) 938 Å (d) 636 Å series, ν 2 is the frequency of the first line of Lyman
series and ν 3 is the frequency of the series limit of the
50. Balmer formula is valid for Balmer series. Then,
(a) hydrogen (b) singly ionised helium
(a) ν1 − ν 2 = ν 3 (b) ν1 = ν 2 − ν 3
(c) doubly ionised lithium (d) All of these 1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) = + (d) = +
ν 2 ν1 ν 3 ν1 ν 2 ν 3

Topic 2
Bohr Model of Hydrogen Atom
56. Fundamental difference of Sun-planet system and 58. Frequency of emitted radiation due to a revolving
nucleus-electron system of Rutherford model is of electron is
(a) orbital radii (a) less than frequency of revolving electron
(b) orbital velocity (b) more than frequency of revolving electron
(c) interacting force (c) equals to frequency of revolving electron
(d) orbital shapes (d) not related to frequency of revolving electron
57. Niels Bohr after studying Rutherford’s model 59. According to classical electromagnetic theory, the
concluded that electron revolving around a proton in hydrogen atom in
(a) only electromagnetic theory can explain the process at . × 10 −11 m with velocity
an orbit of radius 53
atomic scale . × 10 6 ms −1 is
22
(b) only classical mechanics can explain the process at
(a) does not emit any radiation
atomic scale
(b) emits radiation of any frequency
(c) both electromagnetic theory and classical mechanics are
needed to explain process at atomic scale (c) emits frequency of light of 6.6 × 1015 Hz
(d) None of the above (d) emits frequency of light of 2.2 × 1015 Hz
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 359

60. Energy of an atom is least when electron revolves in 68. When an electron in hydrogen atom is excited from its
an orbit which is 4 th to 5 th stationary orbit, the change in angular
(a) closest to its nucleus momentum of electron is
(b) farthest from its nucleus (a) 4.6 × 10−34 Js (b) 3.32 × 10−34 Js
(c) is of elliptical shape (c) 1.05 × 10−34 Js (d) 2.08 × 10−34 Js
(d) is circular in shape
69. The ratio of speed of an electron in ground state in
61. According to Bohr’s first postulate, an electron in an Bohr’s first orbit of hydrogen atom to the velocity of
atom can revolve light in air is
(a) in any orbit e2 2eπ
(b) in certain stable orbits with emission of radiant energy (a) (b)
2πhc hc
(c) in certain stable orbits without emission of radiant
energy e3 2 πe2
(c) (d)
(d) only in orbits close to nucleus 2πhc hc

62. Bohr’s second postulate defines the stable orbits on 70. In Bohr’s atomic model, speed and time period of
the basis of revolution of an electron in n = 3 level are respectively
(a) linear momentum of electron (a) v = 1.09 × 106 ms −1 , T = 1.52 × 10−16 s
(b) angular momentum of electron (b) v = 2.19 × 106 ms −1 , T = 1.52 × 10−16 s
(c) kinetic energy of electron
(d) total energy of electron (c) v = 7.29 × 106 ms −1 , T = 1.22 × 10−16 s

63. In a stable orbit, angular momentum of an electron is (d) v = 7.29 × 105 ms −1 , T = 4.10 × 10−15 s
(a) a whole number multiple of h/ 2π 71. The speed of electron in ground state energy level is
(b) a prime number multiple of h/ 2π . × 10 6 ms −1 , then its speed in fourth excited state
26
(c) an odd number multiple of h/ 2π will be
(d) an integral multiple of h/ 2π
(a) 5.6 × 106 ms −1 (b) 6 × 105 ms −1
64. Second Bohr’s postulate implies quantisation of (c) 5.5 × 105 ms −1 (d) 4.3 × 106 ms −1
(a) charge of an electron
(b) energy of an electron 72. Orbital radius of an electron of hydrogen atom in its
(c) angular momentum of an electron ground state ( n =1) is around
(d) radiated energy by an electron (a) 0.53 Å (b) 0.16 Å
(c) 0.28 (d) Cannot be found
65. Bohr’s second postulate can be written as
h nh 73. If radius of first Bohr orbit is r,then the radius of second
(a) mvn rn = (b) mvn rn =
4π 2π Bohr’s orbit will be
nh (a) 2r (b) 8r (c) 4r (d) 2 2r
(c) mvn rn = (d) mvn rn = 0
4π 74. The magnetic moment (µ ) of an electron revolving
66. As an electron makes a transition from an excited around the nucleus varies with principal quantum
state to the ground state of a hydrogen like atom/ion. number as
[JEE Main 2015] (a) µ ∝ n (b) µ ∝ 1/ n
(a) Its kinetic energy increase but potential energy and (c) µ ∝ n 2 (d) µ ∝ 1/ n 2
total energy decreases
(b) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy 75. Ratio of wavelengths emitted for transition 2 → 1 in
decrease Li 2+ , He 2+ and H is
(c) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases (a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 : 9
but total energy remains same (c) 4 : 9 : 36 (d) 3 : 2 : 1
(d) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential
energy increases 76. Time of revolution of an electron around a nucleus of
charge Ze in n th Bohr orbit is proportional to
67. Energy of an electron in an excited state of hydrogen
n3
atom is − 3.4 eV. Its angular momentum will be (a) n (b)
(a) 1.11 × 1034 Js (b) 1.51 × 10−31 Js Z2
2
(c) 2.11 × 10−34 Js (d) 3.72 × 10−34 Js n Z
(c) (d)
Z n
360 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

77. If an electron is revolving is its Bohr orbit having 84. A diatomic molecule is made of two masses m1 and
Bohr radius of 0.529Å, then the radius of third orbit is m2 which are separated by a distance r. If we
(a) 4234 nm (b) 4496 Å calculate its rotational energy by applying Bohr's rule
(c) 4.761 Å (d) 5125 nm of angular momentum quantisation, its energy will be
78. Which of the following statements is true for given by (n is an integer) [AIEEE 2012]
hydrogen atom? ( m1 + m2 )2 n 2 h 2 n2h2
(a) (b)
(a) Angular momentum ∝
1
(b) Linear momentum ∝
1 2m12 m22 r2 2( m1 + m2 )r2
n n 2n 2 h 2 ( m1 + m2 )n 2 h 2
1 1 (c) (d)
(c) Radius ∝ (d) Energy ∝ ( m1 + m2 ) r 2
2 m1 m2 r2
n n
79. Energy of an electron in an stationary state of the 85. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
hydrogen atom can be given by − 13.6 eV. What is potential energy of electrons in
13.6 this state?
(a) J, n = 1, 2, 3 ,⋅⋅⋅ (a) Zero (b) − 27.2 eV (c) 1 eV (d) 2 eV
n2
13.6 86. If energy of a hydrogen atom in n th orbit is E n , then
(b) − 2 J, n = 1, 2, 3 ,⋅⋅⋅
n energy of a singly ionised helium (He + ) atom in n th
13.6 orbit will be
(c) 2 eV, n = 1, 2, 3 , ⋅⋅⋅ (a) 4 En (b) En / 4 (c) 2En (d) En / 2
n
(d) ( −13.6/ n 2 ) eV,n = 1, 2, 3 ,⋅⋅⋅ 87. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen
atom is 13.6 eV, then energy required to remove
80. Energy of an electron in the stationary states of
18 electron from first excited state of Li 2+ is
− 2.18 × 10
hydrogen atom is J. The negative sign (a) 122.4 eV (b) 30.6 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 3.4 eV
n2
means 88. If the potential energy of the electron in the hydrogen
(a) electron needs more energy −Ke 2
atom is , its kinetic energy is
(b) electron can participate in conduction process r
(c) electron is bound with the nucleus and energy is −Ke2 −Ke2
required to remove it (a) (b)
(d) electron is at infinite distance from nucleus 2r r
Ke2 Ke2
81. As the electron in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom passes (c) (d)
2r r
from state n = 2 to n =1 , the kinetic energy ( K ) and
potential energy (U ) changes as 89. If the orbital radius of the electron in a hydrogen atom
(a) K becomes twice,U becomes four times is 4.7 × 10 −11 m. Compute the kinetic energy of the
(b) K becomes four times,U becomes twice electron in hydrogen atom.
(c) K becomes four times,U also four times (a) 15.3 eV (b) − 15.3 eV
(d) K becomes twice,U also two times (c) 13.6 eV (d) −13.6 eV

82. In Bohr’s atomic model, in going to a higher level 90. In an hydrogen atom, the electron in a given orbit has
(PE = potential energy, TE = total energy) total energy–1.5 eV. The potential energy is
(a) 1.5 eV (b) –1.5 eV
(a) PE decreases, TE increases
(c) 3.0 eV (d) –3.0 eV
(b) PE increases, TE increases
(c) PE decreases, TE decreases 91. Which of the following atoms has the lowest
(d) PE increases, TE decreases ionisation potential?
133 40
(a) 55 Cs (b) 18 Am
83. If choice of zero potential energy is taken at n = 3 16 14
(c) 8 O (d) 7 N
state instead of n = ∞ state, then
(a) value of PE and KE both will change 92. Which of the following is true for kinetic energy (K)
(b) value of only PE will change and potential energy (U ) of electron moving in a orbit
(c) value of only KE energy will change around the nucleus is
(a) U = − K (b) U = −2K
(d) both PE and KE will remain same or they are
1
independent of choice of zero of potential energy (c) U = −3 K (d) U = − K
2
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 361

93. An hydrogen atom and Li + ion are both in the second 103. As excitation of hydrogen atom increases
excited state. If I H and I Li are their respective electronic (n increases) the value of minimum energy
angular momentums and E H and E Li their respective required to free the electron from the excited atom
energies, then (a) increases
(a) I H > I Li and | EH |> | ELi | (b) I H = I Li and | EH |< | ELi | (b) decreases
(c) remains same
(c) I H = I Li and | EH |> | ELi | (d) I H > I Li and | EH |< | ELi |
(d) first increases then decreases
94. Bohr’s model is true with the restriction that
104. Energy level diagram for the hydrogen atom is
(a) orbits are circular in shape
shown, correct one is
(b) orbits are elliptical in shape

excited states
n=6
(c) orbits may be of any shape
n=5

Higher
(d) orbits may be either circular or elliptical in shape
–0.85 eV n=4
95. Bohr’s model is applicable only for
–1.51 eV n=3
(a) a single proton atom (a)
(b) an atom without any neutron –3.40 eV First excited state n=2
(c) a single electron atom or ion
(d) an ion with double electron
–13.6 eV Ground state n=1
96. In Bohr’s model where

excited states
(a) linear momentum is conserved while angular momentum is

Higher
not conserved
–0.85 eV n=4
(b) potential energy is conserved while kinetic energy is not
conserved –1.51 eV IInd excited state n=3
(c) only potential energy is quantised (b)
(d) only angular momentum is quantised –3.40 eV First excited state n=2

97. Energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen –13.6 eV Ground state n=1
atom from n =10 state is
excited states

(a) 13.6 eV (b) 1.36 eV (c) 0.136 eV (d) 0.0136 eV –0.85 eV n=4
Higher

98. Least possible energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom

is –1.51 eV IInd excited state n = 3
(c)
(a) 13.6 eV (b) − 13.6 eV –3.40 eV First excited state n = 2
(c) zero (d) – 10.2 eV
–13.6 eV Ground state n = 1
99. Ionisation energy of an electron is
excited states

(a) maximum possible energy stored by an electron n=5

Higher

(b) energy required to liberate an electron

(c) energy required to excite an electron –0.85 eV IIIrd excited state n = 4
(d) minimum energy required to free the electron from the (d) –1.15 eV IInd excited state n = 3
ground state of the hydrogen atom
–3.40 eV First excited state n = 2
100. Ionisation energy of an electron in ground state of a
–13.6 eV Ground state n=1
hydrogen atom is
(a) 13.6 eV (b) − 13.6 eV
105. Highest energy level of an electron corresponds to
(c) more than 13.6 eV (d) less than 13.6 eV
n = ∞ and it has an energy of
101. At room temperature, in a given sample of hydrogen gas (a) zero (b) ∞ (c) 13.6 eV (d) − 13.6 eV
(a) most of hydrogen atoms are in excited state
106. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition
(b) most of the hydrogen atoms are at rest
(c) most of the hydrogen atoms are in ground state
n1 → n2 , where n1 and n2 are principal quantum
(d) few of the hydrogen atoms are in ground state
numbers of these two states. Assuming Bohr’s
model to be valid, if the time period of electron in
102. When a hydrogen atom receives energy by processes such the initial state is eight times of that in the final
as electron collision, it is said to be in state, the possible values of n1 and n2 are
(a) ionic state (b) unstable state (a) n1 = 4 , n 2 = 2 (b) n1 = 8, n 2 = 2
(c) excited state (d) ground state (c) n1 = 8, n 2 = 1 (d) n1 = 6, n 2 = 5
362 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

107. A hydrogen like atom (described by Bohr model) is 110. Imagine an atom made of a proton and a hypothetical
observed to emit six wavelengths from all possible particle of double the mass of the electron but having
transitions between a group of levels ranging from same charge as the electron. Apply Bohr atom model
− 0.85 eV to − 0.544 eV. Atomic number of atom is and consider all possible transition of the
(a) 1 (b) 2 hypothetical particle to the first excited level. The
(c) 3 (d) 4 longest wavelength photon that will be emitted has
wavelength λ (in Rydberg constant terms) equal to
108. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. If a
(a) 9/ 5R (b) 54 / 5R
hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by
(c) 18/ 5R (d) 4/ R
monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV.
The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atom will be 111. Frequency of radiation emitted when a hydrogen atom
(a) only one is de-excites from level n to level ( n −1) is
(b) two in number me4 ( 2n − 1)
(a)
(c) three in number (4π ) 3
ε 20 ( h / 2π )3 n 2 ( n − 1)2
(d) four in number 4
me ( 2 n − 1)
(b)
109. Transition from state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like 4 π 2 ε 20 ( h / 2 π )3 n 2
atom result in a UV radiation. IR radiation will be
me4 ( 2n − 1)
obtained in the transition when (c)
(a) 2 → 1 (b) 3 → 2 4 π ε 0 ( h / 2π )2 ( n − 1)2
2

(c) 4 → 2 (d) 5 → 4 (d) None of the above

Topic 3
Hydrogen Spectrum and de-Broglie’s
Explanation of Bohr’s Second Postulate
112. The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is shown 113. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom
in figure. corresponding to increasing values of energy, i.e.,
0 eV n=∞ E A < E B < EC . If, λ 1 , λ 2 and λ 3 are wavelengths of
– 0.36 eV n=6 photon corresponding to transitions shown.
– 0.54 eV n=5
– 0.85 eV n=4 C
λ1
C B
– 1.5 eV n=3

B D λ2 λ3
– 3.39 eV n=2

A
A
– 13.5 eV n=1
Then,
Transitions A, B and C represent (a) λ 3 = λ 1 + λ 2 (b) λ 3 = λ 1 λ 2 / λ 1 + λ 2
(a) first member of Lyman series, third spectral line of
Balmer series and second line of Paschen series (c) λ 1 + λ 2 + λ 3 = 0 (d) λ 23 = λ 21 + λ 22
(b) ionisation potential of hydrogen, second spectral line 114. When an electron moves from 2 E energy level to E, a
of Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen
series photon of wavelength λ is emitted. If electron moves
(c) series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line 4
from E level to E, then wavelength of emitted
of Balmer series and second spectral line of Paschen 3
series photon is
(d) series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of 3λ 4λ
Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen series (a) λ / 3 (b) (c) (d) 3λ
4 3
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 363

115. The figure shows energy levels of an atom with six 120. Correct line spectra for Lyman series is shown by
transitions of wavelengths λ 1 , λ 2 , λ 3 , λ 4 , λ 5 and n=∞
(a)
λ 6 . The following wavelengths also occur in n=4
absorption spectrum
n=3
C
B n=2

A
G n=1
λ1 λ2 λ3 λ4 λ5 λ6 Ground state
(a) λ 1 , λ 2 , λ 3 (b) λ 4 , λ 5 , λ 6 (b) n=∞
(c) λ 1 , λ 4 , λ 6 (d) λ 1 , λ 2 , λ 3 , λ 4 , λ 5 , λ 6 n=5
n=4
116. A 12.75 eV electron beam is used to bombard
n=3
gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Then,
wavelengths emitted are in n=2
(a) either Paschen, Lyman or Balmer series
(b) either Brackett, Pfund or Lyman series n=1
(c) either Paschen, Brackett or Balmer series n=∞
(c)
(d) either Lyman, Balmer or Brackett series n=5
n=4
117. In H-spectrum, the wavelength of H α -line is
n=3
656 nm whereas in distant galaxy wavelength of
H α -line is 706 nm. Estimate the speed of galaxy n=2
with respect of the earth.
(a) 2 × 108 ms −1 (b) 2.2 × 107 ms −1
n=1
(c) 2 × 106 ms −1 (d) 2 × 105 ms −1
(d) n=∞
118. When an atom makes a transition from the higher n=5
energy state ( ni ) to the lower energy state ( n f ), the n=4
difference of energy is carried away by a photon of n=3
frequency ν if such that
n=2
(a) ν if ≥ Ei − E f
(b) ν if ≤ Ei − E f
n=1
Ei − E f
(c) ν if ≥
h 121. Hydrogen (1 H1 ), deuterium (1 H 2 ), singly ionised
Eni − En f helium ( 2 He 4 ) + and doubly ionised lithium ( 3 Li 8 ) 2+ all
(d) ν if =
h have one electron around the nucleus. Consider an
 1 electron transition from n = 2 to n =1. If the wavelength
1 1 
119. Using hν if = E ni − E n f , we get = R  2 − 2 , of emitted radiation are λ 1 , λ 2 , λ 3 and λ 4 , respectively
λif n 
 f ni  for four elements, then approximately which one of the
the value of Rydberg constant is given by following is correct? [JEE Main 2014]
me4 (a) 4 λ 1 = 2λ 2 = 2λ 3 = λ 4 (b) λ 1 = 2λ 2 = 2λ 3 = λ 4
(a) R = (c) λ 1 = λ 2 = 4 λ 3 = 9λ 4 (d) λ 1 = 2λ 2 = 3λ 3 = 4 λ 4
8ε 20 h 3 c
me4 122. When an electron de-excites from level n to level n −1 in
(b) R =
4ε 20 h 3 c an hydrogen atom, frequency of emitted radiation is
4 (a) n times of frequency of revolution of electron in the orbit
me
(c) R = (b) ( n − 1) times of frequency of revolution of electron in orbit
4ε 20 h 2 c2 (c) same as that of frequency of revolution of electron in the
me2 orbit only for large values of n
(d) R =
4πε 0 ⋅ h 2 c (d) same as that of frequency of revolution of electron in the
orbit only for small values of n
364 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

123. According to classical electromagnetic theory, 126. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in first
emission spectrum of Rutherford atom must be Bohr’s orbit is
(a) a line emission spectrum 1
(a) equal to of circumference of orbit
(b) a line absorption spectrum 4
(c) a continuous spectrum 1
(b) equal to of circumference of orbit
(d) a band absorption spectrum 2
(c) equal to twice of circumference of orbit
124. For a wave on a string, length of string must be of
(d) equal to the circumference of orbit
(a) any length
(b) equal to wavelength 127. The wavelength of yellow line of sodium is 5896 Å,
(c) equal to two wavelengths its wave number is
(d) any integral number of wavelengths (a) 50883 per cm (b) 16961 per cm
(c) 17581 per cm (d) 50833 per cm
125. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest
wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest 128. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third
wavelength in the Balmer series is excited state to second excited state and then from
[CBSE AIPMT 2015, NEET 2013] second excited to the first excited state. The ratio of
4 9 the wavelengths λ 1 : λ 2 emitted in the two cases is
(a) (b)
9 4 [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
27 5 7 27 27 20
(c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
5 27 5 20 5 7

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 133. Assertion Bohr’s postulate states that the stationary
Direction (Q. Nos. 129-133) In the following
orbits are those for which the angular momentum is
h
questions, statement of assertion (A) is followed by a some integral multiple of .
corresponding statement of reason (R). Of the 2π
following statements, choose the correct one. Reason Linear momentum of the electron in the
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and atom is quantised.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but II. Statement Based Questions Type I
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
Direction (Q. Nos. 134-137) In the following
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect questions, a Statement I is followed by a
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct corresponding Statement II. Of the following
129. Assertion Large angle of scattering of alpha particles Statements, choose the correct one.
led to the discovery of atomic nucleus. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Reason Entire positive charge of atom is concentrated and Statement II is the correct explanation of
in the central core. Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
130. Assertion Atom as a whole is electrically neutral.
but Statement II is not the correct explanation
Reason Atom contains equal amount of positive and of Statement I
negative charges. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
131. Assertion The total energy of an electron revolving in incorrect
any stationary orbit is negative. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Reason Energy can have positive or negative values. correct

132. Assertion Atoms of each element are stable and emit 134. Statement I According to classical electromagne-
characteristic spectrum. tic theory, an accelerating charged particle emits
Reason The spectrum provides useful information radiation in form of electromagnetic radiation.
about the atomic structure. Statement II Rutherford’s atomic model is not stable.
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 365

135. Statement I Rutherford’s model cannot explain 141. Rutherford’s atomic model could account for
line emission spectrum of hydrogen atom. I. concept of stationary orbits.
Statement II Practically, a line emission spectrum is II. the positively charged central core of an atom.
obtained but according to Rutherford’s model, III. origin of spectra.
emission spectrum must be a continuous spectrum. IV. stability of atoms.
136. Statement I Energy required to excite an electron Choose the correct option from the codes given below.
in hydrogen atom to its first excited state is 10.2 eV. (a) Only I is correct (b) Only II is correct
Statement II Energy of an electron of hydrogen (c) I, III and IV are correct (d) All of these
13.6
atom is − 2 eV. 142. In Paschen series, range of wavelengths are
n I. 0.365 µm II. 0.565 µm
137. Statement I As n increases, energy level comes III. 1.89 µm IV. 0.818 µm
closer and closer. Choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Statement II Energy of an electron in any of (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV(d) IV and I
− 13.6
stationary states is given by E n = eV. 143. The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed,
n2 I. if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when an
excited atom falls to ground state.
Statement Based Questions Type II II. if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due to
138. The observations of Geiger-Marsden experiment are transition between excited states and first excited state.
III. in any transition of a H-atom.
I. many ofα-particles pass straight through the gold foil.
IV. as a sequence of frequencies with the higher
II. only about 0.14% ofα-particles scatter by more than 1°. frequencies getting closely packed.
III. about 1 in 8000 ofα-particles is deflected more Choose the correct option from the codes given below.
than 90°. (a) I and II (b) II and III
IV. very fewα- particles are reflected back. (c) I and III (d) II and IV
Choose the correct option from the codes given 144. Bohr’s atomic model assume that
below. I. the nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest.
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III
II. electrons in a quantised orbit will not radiate the energy.
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
III. mass of electrons remains constant during revolution.
139. α-particles have IV. emission or absorption of energy results to transition of
I. mass equals to that of helium atom. electron from one orbit to another.
II. charge of +2e units. Choose the correct option from the codes given below.
III. size less than10−15 m (a) Only Statement I is correct
IV. speed around that of speed of light. (b) Statements I and II are correct
Choose the correct option from the codes given (c) Statements I, II and III are correct
below. (d) All of the above
(a) I and II 145. Which of these statements are correct regarding
(b) II and III Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom?
(c) I, II and III I. Orbiting speed of electron decreases as it shift to
(d) I, II and IV discrete orbits away from nucleus.
II. Radii of allowed orbits of electron are proportional to
140. Trajectory of an α-particle in Geiger-Marsden the principal quantum number.
experiment is explained by using III. Frequency of revolution of an electron is inversely
I. Coulomb’s law II. Newton’s law proportional to the cube of principal quantum number.
III. Gauss’ law IV. Faraday’s law IV. Binding force with which electron is bound to nucleus
Choose the correct option from the codes given increases as electron shifts to outer orbits.
below. Choose the correct option from the codes given below.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (a) I and III (b) II and IV
(c) I and IV (d) I, II and IV (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
366 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

III. Matching Type 150. For atomic model of hydrogen atom given by Niels
Bohr, match the following proportionalities.
146. For Balmer spectral series of hydrogen, match the
following. Column I Column II

Column I Column II A. Angular momentum 1. 1/ n

A. Hα 1. 410.2 nm B. Velocity of electron 2. n2

B. Hβ 2. 434.1 nm C. Radius of electron 3. 1/ n2

D. Energy of electron 4. n
C. Hγ 3. 486.1 nm
D. Hδ 4. 656.3 nm A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 2 4 4 (d) 2 3 4 1 151. It is found experimentally that 13.6 eV energy is
147. For spectral series of hydrogen atom, match the required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton
following. and an electron. Now, match the following.
Column I Column II Column I Column II
A. 1
= R  2 − 2 
1 1 1. Lyman series A. Total energy of electron (in joules) 1. 4.4 × 10−18
λ 1 n 
B. Orbital radius (in metres) 2. 2.2 × 10−6
= R  2 − 2 
B. 1 1 1 2. Paschen series
3 C. Velocity of electron (in ms −1) 3. 5.3 × 10−11
λ n 
D. Potential energy of electron (in joules) 4. − 2.2 × 10−18
= R  2 − 2 
C. 1 1 1 3. Brackett series
λ 4 n  A B C D A B C D
D. 1
= R  2 − 2 
1 1 4. Pfund series (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
λ 5 n  (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2

A B C D A B C D 152. Match the following.

(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 Column I Column II
(c) 2 1 4 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
A. Thomson 1. Radiating circular orbit
148. For spectral series of hydrogen atom, match the
B. Rutherford 2. Radiating SHM of electron
following.
C. Bohr 3. elliptical orbit
Column I Column II
D. Sommerfeld 4. non-radiating orbit
A. Lyman series 1. Ultraviolet region
B. Balmer series 2. Infrared region A B C D A B C D
C. Paschen series 3. Visible region (a) 1,2 3 4 2 (b) 2 1 4 3,4
(c) 2,4 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
D. Brackett series

A B C D A B C D IV. Passage Based Questions

(a) 1 3 2 2 (b) 2 1 2 2
■ Direction (Q. Nos. 153-154) These questions are
(c) 2 1 3 3 (d) 1 2 2 3
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
149. Match the following spectral series with the maximum options from those given below.
wavelength of the series. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom,
(R = Rydberg’s constant) electrons revolve around the nucleus in stationary
1
Column I (Series) Column II (λ max ) orbits. The radius of stationary orbits r ∝ and total
n
A. Lyman series 1. 400 / 9R 1
B. Balmer series 2. 144 / 7R energy of electron in stationary orbits − E ∝ 2 .
n
C. Paschen series 3. 36 / 5R Energy emitted when an electron jumps from outer
D. Brackett series 4. 4 / 3R orbit n 2 to inner orbit n1 is,
 1 1
A B C D A B C D hν = E2 − E1 = Rhc  2 − 2  where R = Rydberg
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 4 1 2  n1 n 2 
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2 constant = 1.097 × 107 m −1 .
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 367

153. Total energy of electron in first stationary orbit of Then, the moment of inertia of CO molecule about its
hydrogen atom is −13.6 eV. The energy in second centre of mass is close to (Take, h = 2π × 10 −34 Js)
stationary orbit would be (a) 2.76 × 10−46 kgm2 (b) 1.87 × 10−46 kgm2
(a) 13.6 eV (b) 8.6 eV (c) −13.6 eV (d) −3. 4 eV −47
(c) 4 . 67 × 10 kgm 2
(d) 1. 17 × 10−47 kgm2
154. The energy released when an electron jumps from
second stationary orbit to the first stationary orbit 160. In a CO molecule, the distance between C
in hydrogen atom is (mass =12 amu) and O (mass =16 amu), where 1 amu
(b) −10.2 eV 5
(a) 10.2 eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 13.6 eV = × 10 −27 kg, is close to
3
■ Direction (Q. Nos. 155-157) These questions are
(a) 2 . 4 × 10−10 m (b) 1. 9 × 10−10 m
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below. (c) 1. 3 × 10−10 m (d) 4 . 4 × 10−11 m
In a mixture of HHe + gas (He + is singly ionized V. More than One Option Correct
He atom), H-atoms and He + ions are excited to
their respective first excited states. Subsequently, H 161. Which of the following is true for Balmer series of the
atoms transfer their total excitation energy to He + hydrogen spectrum?
ions (by collisions). (a) The entire series falls in the UV region
155. The quantum number n of the state finally (b) The series is partly in the visible region and partly in the UV
region
populated in He + ions is 5R
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (c) The wave number of the first Balmer line is , R is the
36
156. The wavelength of light emitted in the visible Rydberg’s constant
region by He + ions after collisions with H-atoms is (d) The colour of the second line of Balmer series is blue.
(a) 6.5 × 10−7 m (b) 162. The radius of the orbit of an electron in a Hydrogen like
5.6 × 10−7 m atom is 4.5 a 0 , where a 0 is the Bohr radius. Its orbital
(c) 4.8 × 10−7 m (d) 4.0 × 10−7 m 3h
angular momentum is . It is given that h is Planck’s
157. The ratio of kinetic energy of the n = 2 electrons for 2π
the H-atom to that of He + ion is constant and R is Rydberg constant. The possible
1 1 wavelength(s), when the atom de-excites is/are
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 2 9 9 9 4
4 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
32R 16R 5R 3R
■ Direction (Q. Nos. 158-160) These questions are
163. Consider a beam of free electrons among towards free
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
protons. When they scatter, an electron and a proton
options from those given below.
cannot combine to produce a H-atom.
The key feature of Bohr's theory of spectrum of
hydrogen atom is the quantisation of angular (a) Because of energy conservation
momentum when an electron is revolving around a (b) Without simultaneously releasing energy in the form of
proton. We will extend this to a general rotational radiation
motion to find quantized rotational energy of a (c) Because of momentum conservation
diatomic molecule assuming it to be rigid. The rule (d) Because of angular momentum conservation
to be applied is Bohr's quantization condition. 164. The Bohr model for the spectra of a H-atom
158. A diatomic molecule has moment of inertia I. By (a) will not be applicable to hydrogen in the molecular form
Bohr’s quantization condition its rotational energy (b) will not be applicable for multielectron atom
in the nth level (n = 0 is not allowed) is (c) is valid only at room temperature
1  h2  1  h2  (d) predicts continuous as well as discrete spectral lines
(a)   (b)  
n 2  8π 2 I  n  8π 2 I  165. The minimum energy to ionise an atom is the energy
 h  2  h  2 required to
(c) n  2  (d) n 2  2  (a) add one electron to the gaseous state of atom
 8π I   8π I  (b) excite the atom from its ground state to its first excited
state
159. It is found that the excitation frequency from
(c) remove one outermost electron from the gaseous state of atom
ground to the first excited state of rotation for the
(d) remove one innermost electron from the gaseous state of
4
CO molecule is close to × 1011 Hz. atom
π
 NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
NCERT 174. In the above question, what is the potential energy of
166. What is the shortest wavelength present in the the electron in this state?
Paschen series of spectral lines? (a) −3. 4 eV (b) + 3. 4 eV (c) 6. 8 eV (d) − 6. 8 eV
(a) 411.85 nm (b) 822.65 nm (c) 11.85 nm (d) 22.65 nm 175. Which of the answers for the above question would
167. A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in
change if the choice of the zero of potential energy is
an atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted changed?
(a) KE (b) PE
when the atom makes a transition from the upper
(c) TE (d) Both (b) and (c)
level to the lower level?
(a) 3.4 × 102 Hz (b) 1. 25 × 1010 Hz 176. A 10 kg satellite revolves around the earth in circular
14 orbit in every 2 h in an orbit, of radius 8000 km. Then,
(c) 5.6 × 10 Hz (d) None of these
according to Bohr’s theory, quantum number of orbit
168. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is −136
. eV. of satellite is
What are the kinetic and potential energies of the (a) 100 (b) 204 (c) 5. 3 × 1045 (d) 5. 3 × 1012
electron in this state?
(a) KE = 13.6 eV, PE = −27.2 eV
(b) KE = 1.5 eV, PE= −3.0 eV NCERT Exemplar
(c) KE = −27.2 eV, PE= 13.6 eV 177. Taking Bohr radius, a 0 = 53 pm, the radius of Li 2+ ion
(d) None of the above in its ground state on the basis of Bohr model will be
(a) 53 pm (b) 27 pm (c) 18 pm (d) 13 pm
169. A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs
a photon which excites it to the n = 4 level. Determine 178. The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to
the wavelength of photon. calculate the energy levels of an atom with many
(a) 9. 74 × 10−8 m (b) 5. 25 × 10−5 m electrons as
(c) 1.05 × 10−3 m (d) 7.15 × 10−2 m (a) electrons are not subjected to a central force
(b) electrons are colliding with each other
170. The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a (c) electrons are subjected to screening effects
hydrogen atom is 5 .3 × 10 −11 m. What are the radii of (d) force between nucleus and electrons is in comparison to
then n = 2 and n = 3 orbits? electron-electron electronic force.
(a) 2. 12 × 10−19 m, 5. 5 × 10−10 m 179. For ground state of H-atom, angular momentum is
−19 −10 h/2π . As angular momentum is a vector and hence
(b) 2. 12 × 10 m, 4 . 77 × 10 m
there will be infinitely many possibilities of orbits
(c) 1. 05 × 10−3 m,1. 25 × 10−19 m
with vector pointing in all possible directions. In
(d) None of the above
actuality this is not correct
171. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous (a) because Bohr model gives incorrect value of angular
hydrogen at room temperature. What series of momentum
wavelength will be emitted? (b) because only one of these would have a minimum
(a) 225 Å (b) 845 Å (c) 993 Å (d) 105 Å energy
(c) angular momentum must be in the direction of spin of
172. In accordance with the Bohr’s model, find the electrons
quantum number that characterises the earth’s (d) because electrons go around in horizontal orbits only
revolution around the sun in an orbit of radius
180. O 2 molecule consists of two oxygen atoms. In the
1.5 × 1011 m with orbital speed 3 × 10 4 ms −1 .
molecule, nuclear force between the nuclei of the two
(Mass of earth = 6 .0 × 10 24 kg.)
atoms
(a) 2. 6 × 1074 (b) 8. 5 × 1080 (a) is not important because nuclear forces are short-ranged
100
(c) 4.34 × 10 (d) None of these (b) is an important as electrostatic force for binding the two
atoms
173. The total energy of an electron in the first excited (c) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force between the
state of the hydrogen atom is about −3.4 eV. What is nuclei
the kinetic energy of the electron in this state? (d) is not important because oxygen nucleus have equal
(a) −3. 4 eV (b) + 3. 4 eV (c) 6. 8 eV (d) − 6. 8 eV number of neutrons and protons
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 369

181. Two H-atoms in the ground state collide inelastically. (a) Only I (b) II and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
The maximum amount by which their combined 185. The simple Bohr model cannot be applied to
kinetic energy is reduced is He 4 atom as it was applied to a H-atom, because
(a) 10.20 eV (b) 20.40 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 27.2 eV I. He 4 is an inert gas.
182. A set of atoms in an excited state decays II. He 4 has neutrons in its nucleus.
(a) in general to any of the states with lower energy III. He 4 has one more electron.
(b) into a lower state only when excited by an external IV. Electrons-electrons interaction are effective.
electric field
(c) all together simultaneously into a lower state
Correct reasons are
(d) to emit photons only when they collide (a) III and IV (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) II and IV
183. An ionised H-molecule consists of an e − and two
protons. The protons are separated by a small 186. Positronium is just like a H-atom with the proton
distance. In ground state replaced by the positively charged anti-particle of the
− electron (called the positron which is as massive as
(a) the e would not move in circular orbits
the electron). What would be the ground state energy
(b) the energy would be 2 4 times of a H-atom
of positronium?
(c) the e− would not go around protons (a) 1.3 eV (b) − 6.8 eV (c) 2.5 eV (d) −13.6 eV
(d) molecule soon decay in a proton and a H-atom
187. Assume that there is no repulsive force between the
− me 4 electrons in an atom but the force between positive
184. Let E n = be the energy of n th level of
8ε 20 n 2 h 2 and negative charges is given by Coulomb’s law as
H-atom. If all the H-atoms are in ground state and usual. Under such circumstances, calculate the ground
radiation of frequency E 2 − E1 / h falls on it, then state energy of a He-atom.
(a) −54.4 eV (b) −13.6 eV (c) 12 eV (d) 13.6 eV
I. it will not be absorbed at all.
II. some of atoms moves to first excited state. 188. Using Bohr model, calculate the electric current
III. all atoms will be excited to n = 2state. created by the electron when the H-atom is in the
IV. no atom makes a transition to the n = 3state. ground state. With radius a 0 and velocity v.
e 2πa0 e
Possible options is/are (a) 2πa0 v (b) (c) (d) 0
2πv v

Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24 (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (d) 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (c)
76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (a) 101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (a)
106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (b) 111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (d) 126. (d) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (b) 132. (b) 133. (c) 134. (a) 135. (a)
136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (d) 139. (a) 140. (a) 141. (b) 142. (c) 143. (d) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (a) 149. (c) 150. (d)
151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (d) 154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (c) 157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (b) 160. (c) 161. (b,c,d) 162. (a,c) 163. (a,b,c) 164. (a,b) 165. (c)
166. (b) 167. (c) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (b) 171. (c) 172. (a) 173. (b) 174. (d) 175. (d) 176. (c) 177. (c) 178. (d) 179. (a) 180. (a)
181. (a) 182. (a) 183. (a,c) 184. (c) 185. (a) 186. (b) 187. (a) 188. (c)
 Hints and Explanations
4. (b) For an electron, e = 1.6 × 10− 19 C, me = 9.1 × 10− 31 kg 22. (c) Let d be the centre-to-centre distance between the
For a proton, e = 1.6 × 10− 19 C, mp = 1.6 × 10− 27 kg α-particle and the gold nucleus when the α-particle is at its
stopping point. Then, we can write the conservation of
For an α-particle, energy Ei = E f as
e = 2 × 1.6 × 10−19 C, mα ≈ 4 × 1.6 × 10− 27 kg 1 ( 2e ) ( Ze ) 2Ze2
K = =
 e  e  e 4 πε 0 d 4 πε 0 d
Clearly,   >   >  
 m e  m p  m α Thus, the distance of closest approach d is given by
9. (d) Rutherford’s atom had a positively charged centre and 2Ze2
d= = 7.7 MeV 1.2 × 10− 12 J
electrons were revolving outside it. It is also called the 4 πε 0 K
planetary model of the atom.
Since, 1/ 4 πε 0 = 9.0 × 109 N - m2 / C2 .
11. (d) Most of α-particles pass straight through, few are
deflected at small angles and very few are deflected by Therefore, with e = 1.6 × 10−19 C, we have
larger angles. ( 2) (9.0 × 109 Nm2 / C2 ) (1.6 × 10−19 C)2 Z
d=
12. (d) As the gold foil is very thin, it can be assumed that 1.2 × 10−12 J
α-particles will suffer not more than one scattering during
their passage through it. Therefore, computation of the = 3.84 × 10−16 Z m
trajectory of an α-particle scattered by a single nucleus The atomic number of foil material gold is Z = 79,
is enough. so that d (Au) = 3.0 × 10−14 m = 30 fm.
13. (a) The scattered α-particles were observed through a The radius of gold nucleus is, therefore, less than
rotatable detector consisting of zinc sulphide screen and a
microscope. The scattered α-particles on striking the screen 3.0 × 10−14 m.
produced brief light flashes or scintillations. These flashes 24. (b) The impact parameter is the perpendicular distance of the
may be viewed through a microscope and the distribution of initial velocity vector of the α-particle from the centre line
the number of scattered particles may be studied as a function of the nucleus of atom, when the α-particle is far away from
of angle of scattering. nucleus at line.
25. (c) α-particle close to the nucleus (small impact parameter)
Gold foil suffers large scattering. In case of head-on collision, the
impact parameter is minimum and the α-particle rebounds
back (θ =~ π ). For a large impact parameter, the α-particle
goes nearly undeviated and has a small deflection (θ = ~ 0 ).

Screen 26. (d) The scattering angle can be used to calculate the distance
of closest approach and therefore the “radius” of the
nucleus.
Source of α-particles
29. (a) At distance of minimum separation, KE = PE.
15. (a) In Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom, the entire k Ze ⋅ 2e
positive charge and most of the mass of the atom are ⇒ KE =
concentrated in the nucleus with the electrons some distance r
away. 9 × 109 × 79 × 2 × (1.6 × 10−19 )2
or KE = J
19. (c) For separation r, force between α-particle (charge 2e) 4 × 10−14
and gold nucleus (charge Ze) is 9 × 109 × 79 × 2 (1.6 × 10− 19 )2
= eV
1 2 e ( Ze ) 4 × 10− 14 × 1.6 × 10− 19
F = ×
4 πε 0 r2 = 5.688 MeV (Q 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10−13 J)
For gold, Z = 79 30. (a) The electrostatic force of attraction, Fe between the
1 158 e2 revolving electrons and the nucleus provides the requisite
∴ F = ⋅ centripetal force ( Fc ) to keep them in their orbits. Thus, for
4 πε 0 r2
a dynamically stable orbit in a hydrogen atom Fe = Fc .
21. (d) For gold, Z = 79. Since, the nucleus of gold is about ke × e mv2
50 times heavier than an α-particle, it is reasonable to 31. (c) =
r2 r
assume that it remains stationary throughout the scattering
process. e2
i.e., r=
4πε 0 mv2
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 371

33. (d) The kinetic energy ( K ) of the electron in hydrogen atom is 49. (a) Largest wavelength results due to transition
2 n = 2→ n = 1
1 2 e
K = mv = 1 1 1 1 3R
2 8πε 0 r = R  2 − 2 ⇒ =
λ 1 2  λ 4
e2
34. (c)U = Potential energy = − . 4
4πε 0 r Or λ= = 1218 Å
3R
35. (b) The total energy E of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 50. (d) Balmer formula is applicable for all single electron
e2 e2 e2 atoms or ions. However, it is difficult to apply it in multi
E = K +U = − =− electrons system.
8πε 0 r 4 πε 0 r 8πε 0 r
51. (c) Wavelength of spectral line in Balmer series is given by
The total energy of the electron is negative. This implies the
1  1 1
fact that the electron is bound to the nucleus. If E were = R  2 − 2
positive, an electron will not follow a closed orbit around λ  2 n 
the nucleus. For first line of Balmer series, n = 3
38. (c) Each element has a characteristic spectrum of radiation, 1  1 1  5R
which it emits. When an atomic gas or vapour is excited at ⇒ = R  2 − 2 =
low pressure, usually by passing an electric current through it, λ1  2 3  36
the emitted radiation has a spectrum which contains certain For second line, n = 4
specific wavelengths only. A spectrum of this kind is termed
1  1 1  3R
as emission line spectrum. ⇒ = R  2 − 2 =
λ2  2 4  16
39. (a) Line emission spectrum consists of bright lines on a dark
background. The study of emission line spectra of a material λ 2 20 20
can therefore serve as a type of ‘fingerprint’ for ∴ = ⇒ λ2= × λ1
λ 1 27 27
identification of the gas.
20
41. (b) When white light passes through a gas and we analyse the ⇒ λ2 = × 6561 = 4860 Å
transmitted light using a spectrometer, we find some dark 27
lines in the spectrum. These dark lines correspond precisely to 1  1 1
52. (b) In Brackett series, = R  2 − 2 
those wavelengths which were found in the emission line λ 4 n 
spectrum of the gas. This is called the absorption spectrum of
the material of the gas. For maximum wavelength, λ max transition n = 5 ,
we get
44. (a) In Balmer series, Hα -line is obtained using formula 1  1 1  25 − 16 R×9
1  1 1 = R 2 − 2 = R  = …(i)
= R  2 − 2 , λ max 4 5   16 × 25 16 × 25
λ 2 n 
For minimum wavelength, λ min transition n = ∞ ,
where, R = 1097
. × 107 m−1 , n = 3 for Hα we get
This gives λ = 656.3 nm which corresponds to red colour. 1  1 1  1
= R 2 − 2 = R  …(ii)
45. (a) A regular pattern of increasing spacing is observed in λ min  4 ∞   16
option (a) whereas others are irregular.
On comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
47. (d) The shortest wavelength occurs when an electron makes
λ min 25
a transitions from n = ∞ to n = 2 state. =
1 R λ max 9
1  1
∴ = R  2 −  = = 364.6 nm
λ min 2 ∞ 4 53. (d) In Pfund series,
1  1 1
48. (a) According to Rydberg’s formula = R  2 − 2  ; n = 6, 7,L
λ 5 n 
1  1 1
= R 2 − 2 Maximum wavelength is given by
λ  
 n f ni  1  1 1
= R  2 − 2
here n f = 1, ni = n λ max  5 6 
1 1 1 In transition 6 → 5
= R 2 − 2
λ 1 n  1  1 1
Minimum wavelength is given by =R 2 − 
1  1 λ min 5 ∞
= R 1 − 2  ...(i)
λ  n  In transition ∞ → 5
λR 36
⇒ n= So, ratio is .
λR − 1 11
372 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

c  1 1 67. (c) Using En = −

13.6
54. (c) We know that, frequency ν = = c. R  2 − 2  = − 3.4 eV, we get n = 2
λ  n1 n2  n2
∴ Angular momentum
 1 1 9
= 3 × 108 × 107  2 − 2  = × 1015 Hz nh 2 × 6.6 × 10− 34
2 4  16 L= = = 2.11 × 10− 34 J -s
2π 2 × 3.14
 1 1
55. (a) We know that frequency, ν1 = Rc  2 − 2  68. (c) Change in angular momentum
 n1 n2 
n2 h n1 h 6.6 × 10− 34
This gives, ∆L = L2 − L1 = − = × (5 − 4)
2π 2π 2 × 3.14
 1  1 3
ν1 = Rc 1 −  = Rc ⇒ ν 2 = Rc 1 −  = Rc = 1.05 × 10− 34 J-s
 ∞  4 4
2πZe2
 1 1  Rc 69. (d) In hydrogen atom, speed of an electron vn =
ν 3 = Rc  −  = ⇒ ν1 − ν 2 = ν 3 nh
 4 ∞ 4
2πe2 v 2πe2
56. (c) The model of the atom proposed by Rutherford and v= ⇒ =
h c hc
assume that the atom, consisting of a central nucleus and 1 c
revolving electron is stable much like sun-planet system 70. (d) Using, ν n = , we get
which the model imitates. However, there are some 137 n
fundamental differences between the two situations. 1 3 × 108
While the planetary system is held by gravitational force, v3 = × = 7.29 × 105 ms −1
137 3
the nucleus-electron system being charged objects,
2πr
interact by Coulomb’s law of force. Also, Tn =
v
57. (d) Bohr concluded that inspite of the success of
electromagnetic theory in explaining large-scale phenomena, 2πr3 2π (32 × 0.53 × 10− 10 )
∴ T3 = = = 4.10 × 10− 15 s
it could not be applied to the processes at the atomic scale. It v3 7.29 × 105
became clear that a fairly radical departure from the
71. (b) According to Bohr’s model
established principles of classical mechanics and
electromagnetism would be needed to understand the 2πKe2 Z 1
v= or v∝
structure of atoms and the relation of atomic structure of nh n
atomic spectra. According to classical mechanics, electron vA nB
emits radiation while revolving nucleus. ∴ =
vB nA
58. (c) According to the classical electromagnetic theory, the
nA 1
frequency of the electromagnetic waves emitted by the ∴ vB = v A × = 2.6 × 106 × = 6 × 105 ms −1
revolving electrons is equal to the frequency of revolution of nB 4
electron. 72. (a) The size of the innermost orbit ( n = 1) can be obtained as
59. (c) The frequency of the electron moving around the h 2 ε0
proton is r1 =
π me2
v 2.2 × 106 ms −1
ν= = ≈ 6.6 × 1015 Hz This is called the Bohr radius, represented by the symbol a0 .
2πr 2π (5.3 × 10− 11 m)
h 2 ε0
According to the classical electromagnetic theory, we know Thus, a0 =
π me2
that the frequency of the electromagnetic waves emitted by
the revolving electrons is equal to the frequency of its Substitution of values of h , m, ε 0 and e , we get
revolution around the nucleus. Thus, the initial frequency of a0 = 5.29 × 10−11 m
the light emitted is 6.6 × 1015 Hz.
∴ a0 ≈ 0.53 Å
60. (a) The energy of an atom is the least (largest negative 73. (c) According to Bohr atomic radius, rn i.e., rn ∝ n 2
value) when its electron is revolving in an orbit closest to
the nucleus i. e., the one for which n = 1. For n = 2, 3 L the rn n 2
∴ = or rn = n 2 r
absolute value of the energy E is smaller. r 12
66. (a) As we know that kinetic energy of an electron is So, n = 2 gives r2 = 4 r
2
 Z 74. (a) Magnetic moment of an electron
KE ∝  
 n e ev e e
i.e., µ = IA = ⋅ π r2 = ⋅ πr2 = ⋅ vr = ⋅ mvr
When the electron makes transition from an excited state to T 2πr 2 2m
the ground state, then n decreases and KE increases. We e nh
µ= ⋅
know that PE is lowest for ground state. As TE = − KE. TE 2m 2π
also decreases. ∴ µ ∝n
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 373

75. (c) According to Rydberg’s formula, 13.6

and K n = | En | = Kinetic energy = eV
1  1 1 1 n2
= RZ 2  2 − 2  ⇒ λ∝ Clearly, if n increases PE and total energy being negative
λ  n1 n2  Z2
increases, whereas KE decreases.
1 1 1 1 1 1 83. (b) At the choice of zero. The value of PE and TE, changes
: : = : : = 4 : 9: 36
32 22 12 9 4 1 but KE remains same.
Hence, λ Li 2+ : λ He2+ : λ H = 4 : 9 : 36.
84. (d) Rotation kinetic energy of the two body system rotating
2πrn about their centre of mass is
76. (b) T = Period of revolution =
vn 1
Rotation kinetic energy = µω 2 r2 ,
n 2 h 2 ε0 Ze2 2
Here, rn = and vn = m1 m2
πmZe 2
2ε 0 nh where, µ = = reduced mass
m1 + m2
4 ε 20 n 3 h 3 n3
So, Tn = or Tn ∝ . and angular momentum, L = µωr2 =
nh
⇒ ω=
nh
mZ 2 e4 Z2 2π 2πµr2
2
77. (c) As rn = n ao 2
1 1  nh  2
here ao = 0.529Å and n = 3 ∴ Rotation kinetic energy = µω 2 r2 = µ ⋅   r
2 2  2πµr2 
∴ rn = 3 = ( 3 )2 ao = 9 × 0.529 Å = 4.761 Å
n2h2 n2h2  h
78. (b) Angular momentum, = =  where, h = 
nh nh 8π 2µr2 2µr2  2π 
L = mvr = or mv =
2π 2πr ( m1 + m2 )n 2 h 2
=
Now r ∝ n2 2m1 m2 r2
1 85. (b) If En = Total energy of Bohr’s atom, thenU n = 2En
Also E∝ 2
n and K = 1 En
nh
∴ mv = p ∝ So, U1 = 2 × ( − 13.6 eV) = − 27.2 eV
2πn 2 13.6
h 1 86. (a) En = − 2 Z 2 ⋅ eV
p∝
⇒ p∝ n
2πn n So, for a singly ionised helium atom ( Z = 2 ) ;
81. (c) As we know, potential energy U = 2E , K = − E
EHen = EH n 22 = 4 En
13.6
and E=− 87. (b) Energy of electron in first excited state of hydrogen
n2
−13.6 13.6 13.6
For state n = 1, E1 = = −13.6 =− = − 2 = − 3.40 eV(n = 2 in first excitation)
2
(1) n2 2
So, for doubly ionised lithium ( Z = 3 ), energy will be
−13.6 E1
For state n = 2, E2 = 2
= ⇒ E1 = 4 E2 En = ( EH ) Z 2 = − 3.40 × 9 = − 30.60 eV
(2) 4
But, K = − E , so, K 1 = 4 K 2 88. (c) The kinetic energy is equal to half of magnitude of
potential energy.
Similarly, for state n = 1, potential energy
−136 1 Ke2 Ke2
(U1 ) = 2E = 2 × = −2 × 13.6 So, KE = =
2 r 2r
(1)2
For state n = 2, potential energy e2 ( 9 × 109 Nm2 / C2 ) (1.6 × 10−19 C )2
89. (a) K = =
−13.6 −2 × 13.6 8πε 0 r ( 2 ) ( 4.7 × 10−11 m )
(U 2 ) = 2E = 2 × =
( 2 )2 4 = 2.45 × 10−18 J
U1 = 15.3 eV
U2 = ⇒ U1 = 4U 2
4 90. (d) Potential energy i.e., PE = 2 × Binding energy= − 3.0 eV.
13.6 Z2
82. (b) Here, En = − 2 eV 91. (a) E N ∝ .
n n2
U n = Potential energy − Z 2 (13.6)
27.2 93. (b) Energy, En =
2En = − 2 eV n2
n ∴ | ELi | > | EH |
374 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

94. (d) In Bohr’s model, it is assumed that the electronic orbits 111. (a) Emitted frequency f is given by hf = ∆E
are circular, though orbits under inverse square force are, in
∆E E n − E n − 1
general elliptical. However, it was shown by the German ⇒ f = =
physicist Arnold Sommerfeld (1868-1951) that, when the h h
restriction of circular orbit is relaxed, these equations me4  1 1 
continue to hold even for elliptic orbits. = 3  2
− 
3 2  h  n ( n − 1)2 
97. (c) Energy of electron in a hydrogen atom from n = 10 state ( 4 π ) ε0  
 2π 
13.6
=− eV = − 0.136 eV me4 ( 2n − 1)
102 = 3
 h
∴ Energy required to remove it = − En = 0.136 eV ( 4 π )3 ε 20   n 2 ( n − 1)2
 2π 
98. (b) Least energy of an electron in ground state i.e., n = 1
13.6 112. (c) Transition A ; n = ∞ to n = 1, series limit of Lyman series.
E ( n = 1) = − eV = −13.6 eV Transition B ; n = 5 to n = 2, third spectral line of Balmer
n2
series.
104. (a) Look at the energy difference between the lines, the Transition C ; n = 5 to n = 3, second spectral line of Paschen
figure which show gradual decrease (visible through the series.
gaps between lines) from bottom to top is the correct one.
113. (b) Let energy in A , B and C state be E A , EB and EC , then
105. (a) For n = ∞, energy of an electron at nth level i.e.,
C
13.6 λ1
En = − ⇒ E∞ = 0 B
n2
3 λ2 λ3
T1  n1 
106. (a) In hydrogen state, T ∝ n 3 ⇒ = 
T2  n2  A
Given, T1 = 8T2 Then, ( EC − EB ) + ( EB − E A ) = EC − E A
⇒ n1 = 2n2 . hc hc hc
or + = ⇒ λ 3 = λ 1λ 2 / λ 1 + λ 2
13.6 λ1 λ 2 λ 3
107. (c) Energy of an electron in nth orbit, En = − Z2
n2 114. (d) Energy released in the form of photons i.e., 2E − E = hν
Z 2 (13.6) Z 2 (13.6) hc hc
We have, − 2
= 0.85 and − = 0.544 ⇒ = E⇒λ =
n1 n 2z λ E
On solving, we get Z = 3. 4 hc E hc
Also, E−E= ⇒ =
108. (c) When electron absorbs photon of energy 12.1 eV, 3 λ1 3 λ1
energy of electron will be = initial + absorbed energy 3 hc
∴ λ1 = = 3λ
= − 13.6 eV + 12.1 eV = − 1.5 eV E
which corresponds to n = 3 excited state. 115. (a) Absorption lines are obtained when an e − absorbs a
n ( n − 1) photon in ground state and is excited to a higher state.
So, number of transition possible are, N =
2 Initially e− is in ground state.
n = 3→ n = 2
So, transition states are 1, 2, and 3.
⇒ n = 2→ n = 1
⇒ n = 3→ n = 1 116. (a) When electron beam of 12.75 eV is incident over
H-gaseous.
Emitted lines are three in number.
Energy of H-atoms will be = − 13.6 + 12.75 = − 0.85 eV
1
109. (d) Energy of radiation of an electron ∝ 2 This corresponds to n = 4 excited state.
n
n=4
e2 − e2 F
110. (b) KE = and PE,U = ⇒ HenceU = −2 K n=3
8πε o r 4πε o r
D E
Z2  µ  n=2
For this hypothetical model, En = − Rhc  
n 2  m
A B C
where, µ = reduced mass,
hc 2 1 1 2 5 n=1
= Rhc  2 − 2  = × Rhc
λ 3 2 3  3 36 Clearly, emitted radiation lies in Lyman series (A , B and C).
λ max = 54 / 5 Few emissions are in Balmer series (D and E).
One of them (n = 4 to n = 3 ) lies in Paschen series ( F ).
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 375

117. (b) Change in wavelength 128. (d) Here, for wavelength λ 1 , n1 = 4 and n2 = 3
∆λ = 706 − 656 = 50 and for λ 2 , n1 = 3 and n2 = 2
∆λ v ∆λ 50 1 1 1
= or v = × c = 3 × 108 × We have, = −R  2 − 2 
λ c λ 656 λ  n2 n1 
= 2.2 × 107 ms −1 So, for λ 1
1  1 1 
121. (c) For hydrogen atom, we get ⇒ = −R  2 − 
1  1 1 λ1  (4 ) ( 3 )2 
= R ( Z )2  2 − 2 
λ 1 2  1  7 
=R  ...(i)
1  3 λ1 144 
= R(1)2  
λ1  4 Similarly, for λ 2
1  3 1  1 1 
= R(1)2   ⇒ =−R 2− 
λ2  4 λ2  (3) ( 2 )2 
1  3 1  5
= R( 2 )2   =R  ...(ii)
λ3  4 λ2  36
1  3 Hence, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
= R( 3 )2  
λ4  4 λ 1 20
=
1 1 1 1 λ2 7
= = =
λ 1 4 λ 3 9λ 4 λ 2 129. (a) α-particle is positively charged, so is the nucleus, so
the large angle of scattering of α-particle shows that the
122. (c) When an electron de-excites from level n to level ( n − 1)
nucleus is positively charged and concentrated in the central
in an hydrogen atom, then frequency of emitted radiation is
core.
always equals to classical frequency of revolution of
electron in n th orbit. 134. (a) According to classical Proton (hydrogen nucleus)
electromagnetic theory, an
125. (d) In hydrogen atom, wavelength of characteristic
accelerating charged particle emits
spectrum.
radiation in the form of
1 1 1 electromagnetic waves. The energy e–
= RZ 2  2 − 2  of an accelerating electron should, ↑
λ  n1 n2  Electron
therefore continuously decrease.
For Lyman series n1 = 1, n2 = 2 The electron would spiral inward and eventually fall into the
1  1 1  nucleus as shown in figure. Thus, such an atom cannot be
= RZ 2  2 −  ...(i) stable.
λ1  (1) ( 2 )2 
136. (b) The energy required to excite an electron in hydrogen
For Balmer series n1 = 2, n2 = 3 atom to its first excited state, is an energy equal to
1  1 1  E2 − E1 = − 3.40 eV − (13.6) eV = 10.2 eV.
= RZ 2  2 −  ...(ii) 1  1 1
λ2  (2) ( 3 )2  142. (c) In Paschen series, = R  2 − 2
λ max 3 4 
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i) we get
1  1 1
211 ⇒ λ max = 1.89 µm and =R 2 − 
RZ  −  5 λ min 3 ∞
λ1  4 9 36
= = ∴ λ min = 0.818 µm
λ2 2 1 3
RZ 1 −  1
 4  4 145. (a) As we know, orbital speed vn ∝ and frequency of
n
λ1 5 4 5 1
= × = revolution of an electron f ∝ .
λ 2 36 3 27 n3
1  1 1
126. (d) A standing wave is shown on a circular orbit where four de- 146. (b) For Balmer series, = R  2 − 2 
Broglie wevelengths fit into the circumference of the orbit. λ 2 n 
127. (b) Wave number = Number of waves in unit length where, R = 1097
. × 107 m−1
1 1 16961
. × 10−4 1  1 1
= = = 16961
. × 106 For n = 3, Hα = = 1097
. × 107  2 − 2 
λ 5896 × 10− 10 λ 2 3 
10−10
= 656.3 × 10−9 m = 656.3 nm
= 16961
. × 104 = 16961per cm
376 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

1  1 1 This gives the orbital radius

For n = 4, Hβ = = 1097
. × 107  2 − 2 
λ  2 4  e2
r= −
. × 10−9 m = 4861
= 4861 . nm 8πε 0 E
1  1 1 (9 × 109 N m2 / C2 ) (1.6 × 10−19 C)2
For n = 5, Hγ = = 1097
. × 107  2 − 2  =−
λ 2 5  (2) ( −2.2 × 10−18 J)
= 434.1 × 10−9 m = 434.1nm = 5.3 × 10−11 m
1  1 1 The velocity of the revolving electron can be computed with
For n = 6, Hδ = = 1097
. × 107  2 − 2 
λ 2 6  m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg
e
= 410. 2 × 10−9 m = 410.2 nm. v=
4 πε 0 mr
148. (a) Balmer series lies in visible region, the Lyman series is 9 × 109
in the ultraviolet, while the Paschen and Brackett series are =
in the infrared region. 4 × 8.85 × 10−12 × 3.14 × 9.1 × 10−31 × 5.3 × 10−11
149. (c) Lyman series = 2.2 × 10– 6 ms −1
1 1 1 1
= R  2 − 2  n = 2, 3, 4 ,.. 153. (d) As, E∝ 2
λ 1 n  n
Paschen series 13.6
∴ E2 = −
eV= −3.4 eV
1  1 1 22
= R  2 − 2  n = 4 , 5, 6 ,..
λ 3 n  13.6  −13.6
154. (a) hν = E2 − E1 = 2 −  2 
1  1 1 2  1 
Brackett series = R  2 − 2  n = 5, 6, 7 ,..
λ 4 n  = −3.4 + 13.6 = 10.2 eV
1  1 1 −13.6 2
Pfund series = R  2 − 2  n = 6, 7, 8 ,.. 155. (c) En = (Z )
λ 5 n  n2
Also, Balmer series In first excited state EH 2 = −3.4 eV and EHe = −13.6 eV
H2 atom gives excitation energy (10.2 eV) to helium atom.
1  1 1
= R  2 − 2 Now energy of He ion = −13.6 + 10.2 = −3.4 eV
λ  2 n  −13.6
Again, E= × Z2
To obtain series limit minimum wavelength, we substitute n2
n = ∞ in each of these and to obtain maximum wavelengths 13.6 × 4
we substitute n = number of next possible orbit. ⇒ n= =4
3.4
∴ n = 2 in Lyman
1 13.6Z 2  1 1
n = 4 in Paschen 156. (c) =  − 
λ hc  n12 n22 
n = 5 in Brackett
n = 6 in Pfund Here n1 = 3 and n2 = 4 ⇒ λ = 4.8 × 10−7 m
n = 3 in Balmer Z2
nh 157. (a) Kinetic energy, K ∝
150. (d) As we know, angular momentum (L) = ⇒L∝n n2
2π 2 2
2
KH2  ZH   1 1
2
n  h  4 πε 0 =  2 =   =
Radius of an electron = rn =   ⇒ rn ∝ n 2 K He  ZHe   2 4
m  2π  e2
nh
Velocity of electrons 158. (d) Iω =
2π
1 e2 1
vn = ⋅ vn ∝ 1/ n 1 2 1 n2h2 n2h2
n 4 πε 0 ( h / 2π ) Rotational kinetic energy = Iω = =
2 2 4 π 2 I 8π 2 I
me4
Potential energy i.e., En = − 159. (b) hf = change in rotational kinetic energy ( f = frequency)
8n 2 ε 20 h 2
3h 2
∴ En ∝ 1/ n 2 hf =
8π 2 I
151. (b) Total energy of the electron in hydrogen atom is 3h 3 × 2π × 10−34
− 13.6 eV = −13.6 × 1.6 × 10− 19 J = − 2.2 × 10− 18 J. Thus, I= = = 01875
. × 10−45
8π 2 f 8π 2 × 4 / π × 1011
e2
we have − = − 2.2 × 10− 18 J
8πε 0r = 1875
. × 10−46 kgm 2 .
 CHAPTER 12 : Atoms 377

160. (c) r1 =
m2 d
and r2 =
m1 d hc 21.76 × 10−19
or =
m1 + m2 m1 + m2 λ 9
Now, I = m1 r12 + m2 r22 9 × 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
or λ=
∴ . × 10−10 m
d = 13 21.76 × 10−19
r1 r2 = 8.2265 × 10−7 m = 822.65 nm
C O Thus, the shortest wavelength present is 822.65 nm.
m1 m2
d 167. (c) Given, difference in energy level E = 2.3 eV
161. (b,c,d) The series is partly in the visible region and partly in = 2.3 × 1.6 × 10− 19 J
the UV region. The colour of the second line of Balmer − 34
series is blue. Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10 J-s
1  1 1 Let ν be the frequency, then E = hν
Wave number = = R  2 − 2 
λ  n1 n2  E 2.3 × 1.6 × 10− 19
or ν= = = 5.6 × 1014 Hz
For first Balmer line n1 = 2, n2 = 3 h 6.63 × 10− 34
 1 1  9 − 4  5R 168. (a) Given, the ground state energy of hydrogen atom
∴ Wave number = R  2 − 2  = R   =
2 3   9 × 4  36 E = − 13.6 eV
nh 3h We know that
162. (a,c) = ⇒ n=3 Kinetic Energy (KE) = − E = 13.6 eV
2π 2π
n2 n2 Potential Energy (PE) = − 2KE = − 2 × 13.6 = − 27.2 eV
a0 × = 4.5a0 ⇒ = 4.5 ⇒ Z = 2
Z Z 169. (a) For ground state n1 = 1 to n2 = 4
1 1 1  Energy absorbed by photons E = E2 − E1 = 12 − 75eV
= R × 22  − 2 
λ1 1 3   1 1
= + 13.6  2 − 2  × 1.6 × 10−19 J
1 1 1  n1 n2 
= 4R  2 − 2 
λ2 2 3  1 1 
= 13.6  − 2  × 1.6 × 10−19
1 1 1  1 4 
= 4R  − 2 
λ3 1 2   15
9 9 1 = 13.6 × 1.6 × 10−19   = 20.4 × 10−19
λ1 = ,λ 2 = ,λ 3 =  16
32R 5R 3R
or E = hν = 20.4 × 10−19
163. (a, b, c) When beam of free electrons is aiming towards free
protons. Then, they scatter but an electron and a proton 20.4 × 10−19 20.4 × 10−19
Frequency ν = =
cannot combine to produce a H-atom because of energy h 6.63 × 10−34
conservation and without simultaneously releasing energy in
= 3.076 × 1015 = 3.076 × 1015 Hz
the form of radiation.
c 3 × 108
164. (a, b) The Bohr model for the spectra of a H-atom will not Wavelength of photon λ = = = 9.74 × 10− 8 m
be applicable to hydrogen in the molecular form. And also, ν 3.076 × 1015
it will not be applicable for multielectron atom.
170. (b) Given, the radius of the innermost electron orbit of a
165. (c) The minimum energy to ionise an atom is the energy hydrogen r1 = 5.3 × 10− 11 m
required to excite an electron in the atom from its ground
state corresponding to n = 1, to its ionisation level As we know that rn = n 2 r1
corresponding to n = ∞. If the atom is given such amount of For n = 2, , radius r2 = 22 r1 = 4 × 5.3 × 10−11 = 2.12× 10−10 m
energy, the electron is just able to become a free electron
and the atom is about to be ionised. For n = 3 , radius r3 = 32 r1 = 9 × 5.3×10− 11 = 4.77 × 10− 10 m
When this occurs, one outermost electron from the atom is 171. (c) Energy of electron beam E =12.5 eV = 12.5 × 1.6 × 10−19 J
just to be removed from the atom. Much higher energy is
necessary to free an innermost electron from the atom. Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10− 34 J-s

166. (b) For Paschen series, n1 = 3 and n2 = ∞ for shortest Velocity of light c = 3 × 108 ms −1
wavelength, using the formula, hc
Using the relation E =
1 λ
hc 1
= R  2 − 2  [where, R is the Rydberg constant] 6.62 × 10− 34 × 3 × 108
λ  1
n n 2 λ=
12.5 × 1.6 × 10−19
hc 1 1
= 13.6 × 1.6 × 10−19  2 − 2  = 0.993 × 10− 7 m = 993 × 10− 10 m = 993 Å
λ 3 ∞ 
378 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

This wavelength falls in the range of Lyman series (912 Å to 179. (a) Bohr’s model assumes a central force and circular orbit
1216 Å) thus, we conclude that Lyman series of wavelength which accounts for a constant angular momentum with
993 Å is emitted. vector pointing perpendicular to force vector.
172. (a) Given, radius of orbit r = 1.5 × 1011 m This is an approximate model.
181. (a) The total energy associated with the two H-atoms in the
Orbital speed v = 3 × 104 m/s; mass of earth M = 6 × 1024 kg
ground state collide in elastically = 2 × (13.6 eV) = 27.2 eV.
nh The maximum amount by which their combined kinetic
Angular momentum, mvr =
2π energy is reduced when anyone of them goes into first
2πvrm excited state after the inelastic collision.
or n=
h The total energy associated with the two H-atoms after the
[where, n is the quantum number of the orbit] collision.
 13.6
2 × 3.14 × 3 × 104 × 1.5 × 1011 × 6 × 1024 =  2  + (13.6 ) = 17.0 eV
=  2 
6.63 × 10−34
Therefore, maximum loss of their combined kinetic energy
= 2.57 × 1074
= 27.2 − 17.0 = 10.2 eV
or n = 2.6 × 1074 182. (a)A set of atoms in an excited state decays in general to any
Thus, the quantum number is 2.6 × 1074 which is too large. of the state with lower energy, emitting a photon in the
2 process.
KZe
173. (b) The kinetic energy of electron (KE) = 183. (a,c) In an ionised hydrogen molecule, as there are two
2r
2
protons and one electron, therefore electrons’s orbit would
− KZe go around the two protons separated by a small distance
Potential energy of electron (PE) = ⇒ PE = − 2 KE
r (~ Å). Electron revolves around the ‘charge centre’ so orbit
In this calculation, the electric potential and potential energy is no longer remains circular.
are zero at infinity. 184. (c) As incident energy is E2 − E1 , so, it is sufficient for an
Total energy = PE + KE = − 2KE + KE = − KE electron to make a transition from n = 1to n = 2 state. So,
In the first excited state, total energy = – 3.4 eV depending on number of incident photons, few of e− absorbs
KE = − ( −3.4) = 3.4 eV photons and so are excited in a higher energy level (n = 2 state).
174. (d) PE of electron in this first excited state 186. (b) The total energy of the electron in the stationary states of
the hydrogen atom is given by
= − 2 KE = − 2 (3.4) = − 6.8eV.
me4 13.6 Z 2 µ
175. (d) If zero of potential energy is changed, kinetic energy En = − 2 2 2 ≈ −
does not change and continue to be + 3.4 eV. So, the 8n ε 0 h n me
potential energy and total energy of the state would change me
with the choice of zero of potential energy. µ = reduced mass =
2
176. (c) Here, m = 10 kg and rn = 8 × 106 m. We have, the time 13.6
E1 = − = −6.8 eV
period T of the circling satellite as 2 h. That is T = 7200 s 2
Thus, the velocity vn = 2πrn / T 187. (a) For a He -nucleus with charge 2e and electrons of charge
mvr =
nh − e, the energy level in ground state is
2π −13.6 eV −13.6 eV
− En = Z 2 = 22 = − 54.4 eV
The quantum number of the orbit of satellite n 2
12
n = ( 2π rn )2 × m/ (T × h ) It will remain same, if no interaction between electrons.
Substituting the values, 188. (c) The electron in hydrogen atom in ground state revolves
n = ( 2π × 8 × 106 m )2 × 10 / (7200 s × 6.64 × 10−34 Js) on a circular path whose radius is equal to the Bohr radius
( an ). Let the velocity of electron is v.
= 5.3 × 1045 2πa0
177. (c) For a hydrogen like atom ∴ Time for one revolution =
v
n2 n2 q
rn = 0.53 Å = 53 pm The electric current is given by i = , if q charge flows in
Z Z t
For Li 2+ , n = 1 (ground state) time t.
Z=3 Here, q = e
53 2πa0
∴ rn = ≈ 18 pm The electric current is given by i = e.
3 v
 C H A P T E R

13
Nuclei
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. In every atom, the positive charge is densely 8. Nuclides with different atomic number Z and
concentrated at the centre of the atom forming its different mass number A but same neutron number
nucleus. are called isotones.
2. A nucleus has a structure of its own. It consists of 3 4 198 199
1 H, 2He and 80 Hg, 79 Au are examples of isotones.
protons and neutrons. Electrons revolve around the 9. The radius of a nucleus depends only on its mass
nucleus. number A according to the relation R = R 0 A1/ 3 ,
3. The unit to express atomic masses is called atomic where R 0 is a constant having a value 1. 2 × 10−15 m
1
mass unit. Atomic mass unit is defined as th of the or 1.2 fm.
12
mass of carbon atom (C12 ). 10. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its
i.e., 1u = 1. 660539 × 10−27 kg constituent nucleons is called the mass defect of
that nucleus. Thus, mass defect,
(i) Mass of proton (m p ) = 100727
. u
(ii) Mass of neutron (mn ) = 100866
. u ∆M = Zm p + ( A + Z ) mn − M
(iii) Mass of electron (me ) = 0000549
. u where, M is the mass of given nucleus.
11. The energy equivalent of the mass defect of a
Relation between amu and MeV
nucleus is called its binding energy.
1 amu ≈ 931 MeV
Thus, binding energy
4. Number of proton ( Z ) inside the nucleus of an atom is
exactly equal to the number of electrons revolving ∆Eb = ∆Mc 2
round the nucleus of that atom. This number is called = [ ZM p + ( A − Z ) M n − M ] c 2
the atomic number or charge number. 12. In the mass number range A = 30 to 170, the binding
5. The number of neutron in the nucleus of an atom is energy per nucleon is nearly constant, about
called the neutron number N. The sum of the number 8 MeV/nucleon.
of protons and neutrons is called the mass number A. 13. Binding energy per nucleon
Thus, A=N + Z Total binding energy
=
6. Isotopes of an element are nuclides having same Mass number (i.e., total number of nucleon)
atomic number Z but different mass number A (or ∆m × 931 MeV
different neutron number N). =
1 2 3
A Nucleon
1H , 1H , 1 H and 6C11, 6C12, 6C14 etc., are isotopes.
Binding energy per nucleon ∝ Stability of nucleus.
7. Nuclides having same mass number A but different 14. Radioactivity is the phenomenon of spontaneous
atomic number Z are called isobars. Isobars disintegration of the nucleus of an atom with
represent different chemical properties. emission of one or more radiations like α-particle,
3 3 14 14
1H , 2He and 6C , 7C are examples of isobars. β-particle or γ-rays.
380 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

15. Radioactive decay is a nuclear transformation 22. In α-decay, the mass number of the product nucleus
process in which the radioactive rays are emitted is four less than that of decaying nucleus while the
from the nucleus of the atom. atomic number decreases by two.
A−4
16. According to Radioactivity Decay Law, the rate of A
Z X → Z − 2Y + 42He + ν
decay of radioactive atom at any instant is 23. (i) The Q -value of a nuclear process is
proportional to the number of atoms present at that
instant. Q = final kinetic energy-initial kinetic energy.
dN dN Due to conservation of mass-energy this can also
(i) ∝ N, = − λN be given by
dt dt
Q = (sum of initial masses – sum of final masses) c 2
where, λ = decay constant and N = number of
Active nucleus present in the sample at any (ii) For the above α-decay in point 22
instant t. Q = (m x − m y − mHe) c 2
(ii) N = N 0e − λt , where N 0 = Number of atoms present 24. In β -decay, the mass number of product nucleus
initially. remains same but atomic number increases or
decreases by one. In beta-minus decay (β − ), an
17. The SI unit of radioactivity is Becquerel (Bq).
electron and an anti-neutrino are created and emitted
1 Becquerel (Bq) = 1 disintegration/second from the nucleus via the reaction given below
1 Curie (Ci) = 3.7 × 1010 decays/second n → p + e− + ν
1 Rutherford (Rd) = 10 decays/second
6
A
X→ A
+ 0
+ν
Z Z +1Y −1 e
18. Half-life period of a radioactive sample is the time in +
In beta-plus decay (β ), a positron and a neutrino are
which half of the quantity of the sample initially
created and emitted from the nucleus via the reaction
present gets disintegrated. The half-life period is
given below
related to decay constant λ as,
0693
. p → n + e+ + ν
T1/ 2 =
λ
A
Z X→ A
Z –1Y + 0
+1e +ν
19. After n half-lives, the quantity of a radioactive 25. A γ-ray is emitted when α or β-decay results in a
substance left intact (undecayed) is given by daughter nucleus in an excited state. Atom then
n
t returns to ground state by a single photon transition
 1  1  T1/ 2
N = N0   = N0   or successive transitions involving more than one
2 2 photon.
20. Average life of a radioactive element is total life time A
Z X→ A
ZX +γ
of all the atoms of the radioactive element and
26. Nuclear fission is the process of splitting of a heavy
divided by the total number of atoms present initially
nucleus ( 92U235 or 94 U239) into two lighter nuclei of
in the sample of the element.
comparable masses alongwith the release of a large
1
τ = = 144
. T1/ 2 ⇒ T1/ 2 = 0693
. τ amount of energy after bombarded by slow neutrons.
λ
27. Nuclear fusion is the process in which two or more
21. Time required to decay from N 0 to N light nuclei combine to form a single larger nucleus,
2.303 N  with emission of energy.
t = log10  0 
λ N
 Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Composition of Nucleus
1. Ratio of radius of an atom to the radius of its nucleus 11. Masses of nuclei of deuterium and tritium are not
is around same because
(a) 10−2 (b) 104 (c) 1012 (d) 1015 (a) they contain different number of protons
(b) they contain some other neutral matter in different
2. Volume of a nucleus to the volume of its atom is amounts
around (c) they contain protons of different masses
(a) 102 (b) 10−2 (c) 10−12 (d) 10−15 (d) their nuclear densities are different
3. Ratio of mass of nucleus with mass of atom is 12. Least stable particle is
approximately (a) electron (b) proton
(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 103 (d) 1010 (c) neutron (d) meuon
4. Nucleus of an atom has a 13. A free neutron decays into
(a) boundary that diffuses into atom like atmosphere of
earth diffuses into vacuum (a) an electron and a proton
(b) boundary that keeps on changing due to interaction of (b) a proton, an electron and a anti-neutrino
protons and neutrons (c) an electron and a positron
(c) sharply defined boundary that remains unaltered in (d) free neutrons are stable
ordinary conditions 14. As compared to 12
C atom, 14
C atom has
(d) uneven boundary (a) two extra protons and two extra electrons
5. Atomic mass unit (1 u) is (b) two extra protons but no extra electrons
(a) 1/ 12 of mass of 12 C atom (c) two extra neutrons and no extra electrons
(d) two extra neutrons and two extra electrons
(b) 1/ 14 of mass of 14 C atom
(c) 1/ 12 of mass of 14 C atom 15. If an element has 3 isotopes with atomic masses
m1 , m2 and m3 with percentage abundances of n1 ,
(d) 1/ 6 of mass of 12 C atom
n2 and n3 respectively, then average atomic mass of
6. Chlorine has two isotopes having masses 34.98 u and element is
36.98 u with relative abundance of 75.4% and m1 n1 + m2 n2 + m3 n3
(a) m1 n1 + m2 n2 + m3 n3 (b)
24.6 %, respectively. The average atomic mass of m1 + m2 + m3
chlorine is m1 + m2 + m3 m1 n1 + m2 n2 + m3 n3
(c) (d)
(a) 34.98 (b) 36.98 (c) 35.47 (d) 35 n1 + n2 + n3 n1 + n3 + n3
7. The lightest element hydrogen has 16. Two stable isotopes of lithium 63 Li and and 73 Li have
(a) only one isotope (b) two isotopes
(c) three isotopes (d) four isotopes respective abundances of 7.5% and 92.5%. These
isotopes have masses of 6.01512u and 7.01600u,
8. Unstable isotope of hydrogen is respectively. The atomic mass of lithium is
(a) hydrogen (b) deuterium (c) helium (d) tritium (a) 6.940934 u (b) 6.849325 u
9. Which of the following is not true about the nucleus? (c) 6.01512 u (d) 6.01600 u
(a) Positive charge of nucleus is due to the protons 17. Boron has two stable isotopes 5 B10 and 5 B11 . Their
(b) All the electrons of an atom are outside the nucleus respective masses are10.01294 u and11.00931 u and
(c) Charge of nucleus is +Ze the atomic mass of boron is10.811 u. The abundance
(d) Charge of electrons may be greater than −Ze in an atom
of 5 B10 and 5 B11 are respectively nearing to
10. Masses of nuclei of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium (a) 50%, 50% (b) 20%, 80%
are in ratio (c) 25%, 75% (d) 5%, 95%
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 4
382 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

18. The mass number of a nucleus is equal to the 22. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1 : 3.
number of K A K . In 226
88 Ra nucleus, there are
The ratio of their nuclear densities would be
K B K and K C K . Here A, B and C refer to (a) ( 3 )1 / 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1
(a) electrons it contains, 138 protons and 88 neutrons 197
23. The ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope 79 Au
(b) protons it contains, 226 neutrons and 88 electrons 107
(c) neutrons it contains, 226 protons and 88 electrons and silver isotope 47 Au is
(d) nucleons it contains, 138 neutrons and 88 protons (a) 1.23 (b) 0.216
14 (c) 2.13 (d) 3.46
19. In 14g of 6 C isotope
of carbon, the number of
protons, neutrons and electrons are 24. Density of a nucleus is
(a) 48 × 10 , 48 × 10 , 36 × 10
23 23 21 (a) more for lighter elements and less for heavier elements
(b) more for heavier elements and less for lighter elements
(b) 36 × 1023 , 36 × 1023 , 36 × 1021 (c) very less compared to ordinary matter
(c) 36 × 1023 , 48 × 1023 , 36 × 1023 (d) a constant
(d) 48 × 1023 , 36 × 1023 , 48 × 1023 25. If the nuclear radius of Al is 3.6 Fermi, the 27

20. The nuclei 13 14 approximate nuclear radius of 64 Cu in Fermi is

6 C and 7 N may be described as
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) isobars
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2
(b) isotopes of C
(c) 4.8 (d) 3.6
(c) isotones
(d) isotopes of N 26. If R is the radius and A is the mass number, then log R
versus log A graph will be
21. If α-particles of higher energies are targeted over
(a) a straight line (b) a parabola
gold foil, then distance of closest approach will be
(c) an ellipse (d) None of these
(a) smaller
(b) larger 27. Surface area of a nucleus (assuming it to be a perfect
(c) remains same sphere), is (where, A = mass number)
(d) zero, as an α-particle of high energy strikes the (a) (1.8 × 10−29 ) A1 / 3 (b) (1.8 × 10−29 ) A 2
nucleus −29
(c) (1.8 × 10 )A 2/ 3
(d) (1.8 × 10−29 ) A 3

Topic 2
Mass-Energy and Nuclear Binding Energy
28. Energy equivalent of 2 g of a substance is (c) 1.49 × 10−10 J
(a) 18 × 1013 mJ (b) 18 × 1013 J (d) 127.5 MeV
(c) 9 × 1013 mJ (d) 9 × 1013 J 32. Binding energy ( E b ) is
(a) energy required to separate nucleus from its atoms
29. How much mass has to converted into energy to (b) energy required to break a nucleus into its nucleons
produce electric power of 200 MW for one hour? (c) energy required to remove all electrons of the atom
(a) 2 × 10− 6 kg (b) 8 × 10− 6 kg (d) energy required to break an atom into electrons, protons
(c) 1 × 10− 6 kg (d) 3 × 10− 6 kg and neutrons
30. Mass of nucleus is 33. Correct plot of binding energy per nucleon ( E bn ) with
(a) equal to mass of nucleons the mass number ( A ) is shown in
(b) more than mass of nucleons 10 Fe
BE per nucleon (in MeV)

(c) less than mass of nucleons 8.75

8
(d) may be more or less, depends on size of nucleus
6
31. Given, mass of a neutron = 1.00866 u, mass of a proton (a)
4
= 1.00727 u, mass of 16
8 O = 15.99053 u Then, the
2
energy required to separate 16
8 O into its constituents is 56
0
(a) 12.7 MeV 50 100 150 200 250
Mass number (A)
(b) Cannot be estimated from given data
 CHAPTER 13 : Nuclei 383

7
10 36. The binding energy per nucleon of and 42 He nulcei3 Li
BE per nucleon (in MeV)

8 are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the

nuclear reaction 73 Li +11 H → 42 He + 42 He + Q, the value
(b) 6
of energy Q released is [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
4
(a) 19.6 MeV (b) – 2.4 MeV
2 (c) 8.4 MeV (d) 17.3 MeV
0 37. Correct order is
50 75 100 150 200 250
Mass number (A) (a) Fgravitation > Felectrostatic > F nuclear
(b) F nuclear > Fgravitation > Felectrostatic
BE per nucleon (in MeV)

10 (c) F nuclear > Felectrostatic > Fgravitation

8.75
8 (d) Fgravitation > F nuclear > Felectrostatic
6 38. Which of the following is a correct graph of potential
(c) energy (U ) of a pair of nucleons as a function of their
4
separation ( r )?
2

Potential energy
U
0
50 100 150 200 250
Mass number (A) (a) (b)
r0 r0
r r
BE per nucleon (in MeV)

10

8
Distance between nucleons
6 U U
(d)
4
(c) (d)
2
r
0 r0 r0 r
50 100 150 200 250
Mass number (A)
39. Nuclear force is
34. A gamma ray photon creates an electron-positron (a) larger for proton-proton pair
pair (pair creation). If the rest mass energy of an (b) larger for neutron-neutron pair
electron is 0.5 MeV and the total KE of (c) larger for proton-neutron pair
electron-positron pair is 0.78 MeV, then the energy (d) same for neutron-neutron, proton-proton or neutron-proton
of the γ-ray photon must be pairs
(a) 0.78 MeV 40. Two protons are attracting each other, then separation
(b) 1.78 MeV between them is
(c) 1.28 MeV (a) 10− 10 m (b) 10− 2 m (c) 10−8 m (d) 10− 15 m
(d) 0.28 MeV
41. Nuclear forces show saturation property, this can be
26 Fe) = 55.934939 u and m ( 83 Bi)
35. Given, m ( 56 209
explained by the fact that
= 208.980388 u (a) binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve
m proton = 1.007825 u, m neutron = 1.008665 u. rises sharply with increase in mass number for ware mass
numbers
Then, BE per nucleon of Fe and Bi are respectively
(b) binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve
(a) 8.790 MeV, 7.848 MeV falls for heavier masses
(b) 7.75 MeV, 6.84 MeV
(c) binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve is
(c) 7.5 MeV, 6.5 MeV flat for mass numbers 50 to 100
(d) Data insufficient (d) binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve has
a maxima for A = 56
384 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Topic 3
Radioactivity
42. Emission of radiation from a salt of uranium 50. Tritium has a half-life of 12.5 yr undergoing β-decay.
potassium sulphate (irradiated by sunlight is) Fraction of sample remaining undecayed after 25 yr
(a) stopped by using a thin metal foil will be
(b) stopped by few centimetres of air 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) stopped by using a thin metal plate wrapped by a thick 8 2 4 16
paper
4
(d) Cannot be stopped by any of above methods 51. In the α-decay of 238
92 U → X + He
2
43. For any radioactive sample number of nuclei The nucleus X is
undergoing the decay per unit time is proportional to (a) 234
(b) 235
90 Th 90 U
(a) reciprocal of activity of sample 237
(c) 91 Pa (d) Cannot be determined
(b) mass of 1 mole of sample
(c) number of decayed nuclei in sample 52. Select the correct statement.
(d) number of undecayed nuclei present at that time in the (a) β radioactivity is the process in which an electron is
sample emitted from an unstable atom whose atomic number Z
dN remains unchanged
44. Decay rate, R = − , is the number of nuclei (b) γ radioactivity is the process in which daughter nucleus
dt
has atomic number one unit more than the parent
decaying in one second. It is also called as nucleus
(a) activity of sample (b) disintegration constant (c) α radioactivity is the process in which an unstable atom
(c) half-life of sample (d) mean life of sample emits helium atom
45. SI unit for activity is (d) α emission is the process in which a heavy atom emits
(a) Curie (b) Rutherford electromagnetic radiation of very high frequency
(c) Pascal (d) Becquerel 53. Complete the reaction
46. The counting rate observed from a radioactive source
A
Z X → …P… + 42He. Here, P refers to
at t = 0 s was 1600 count/s −1 and at t = 8 s, it was (a) A− 4
2
Y (b) A
2 Y (c) A −2
Z −4
Y (d) A−4
Z −2
Y
100 count/s −1 . The counting rate observed at t = 6 s was
92 U → Z Th
238 A
54. In a nuclear reaction + 42 He, the value of
(a) 400 (b) 300
A and Z are
(c) 200 (d) 150
(a) A = 234 , Z = 94 (b) A = 238, Z = 94
47. For a radioactive sample half-life T1/ 2 and (c) A = 234 , Z = 90 (d) A = 238, Z = 90
disintegration constant λ are related as 55. Q value of α-decay is
log 2 (a) ∆ M ⋅ c2 , where ∆M = mass defect
(a) T1 / 2 = log 2 ⋅ λ (b) T1 / 2 = (b) amount of heat required for disintegration
λ
(c) T1 / 2 × log 2 = λ (d) None of these (c) amount of heat released in reaction
(d) energy shared by daughter nucleus
48. In the earth, only those radioactive elements are
found naturally which 56. Energy released in α-decay is
(a) dissipated completely in form of heat in the atmosphere
(a) have less half-life time
(b) carried completely by helium nuclei emitted
(b) have more half-life time
(c) carried completely by daughter nucleus
(c) lie deep inside earth
(d) shared by daughter nucleus and the α-particles
(d) lie on the surface of earth
238
57. Given, atomic masses are 92 U = 238.05079u
49. Out of the following radioactive substances which are
4 234
not found in naturally on earth? 2 He = 4.00260u, 90 Th = 234.04363u,
1
(i) Tritium (ii) Deuterium 1 H = 1.00783u. The energy released during the
(iii) Uranium (iv) Plutonium α-decay of 238
92 U is
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(a) 4.25 MeV (b) 4.5 MeV
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
(c) 6 MeV (d) 5 MeV
 CHAPTER 13 : Nuclei 385

67
58. Using data of previous problem, we can conclude that 67. A sample of Ga with a half-life of 78 h has a mass
(a) 238 237
92 U can decay into 91 Pa
of 3.4 g. Initial decay rate of sample is
238 234 (a) 8.00 × 1016 s −1 (b) 6.27 × 1016 s −1
(b) 92 U can decay into 90 Th
238 234 237
(c) 7.53 × 1016 s −1 (d) 8.53 × 1015 s −1
(c) 92 U can decay into either 90 Th or into 91 Pa
(d) Data not sufficient to analyse 68. Activity of a radioactive sample reduces from
8 counts to 1 count in 3 h. Half-life of sample is
59. In beta (β − ) decay, emission consists of (a) 2 h (b) 1 h (c) 3 h (d) 4 h
4 0 0
(a) 2 He (b) −1 e (c) +1 e (d) 11 H
69. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay
60. In beta (β + ) decay, emission consists of constants 5λ and λ, respectively. At t = 0, they have the
4 0 0
(a) 2 He (b) −1 e (c) +1 e (d) 11 H same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei
2
61. In case of beta minus (β − ) decay an electron is  1
of A to those of B will be   after a time interval
emitted by the nucleus alongwith  e
(a) a neutrino (b) an anti-neutrino (a) 1/ 4 λ (b) 4λ (c) 2λ (d) 1 / 2λ
(c) a positron (d) a neutron
70. If half-life of a radioactive substance is 1 month, then
62. In case of beta positive (β + ) decay, a positron is which of these are true?
emitted alongwith (a) 7/8th part of substance disintegrate in 3 months
(a) an electron (b) a neutrino (b) 1/8th part of substance disintegrate in 4 months
(c) an anti-neutrino (d) a positron
(c) Substance disintegrates completely in 4 months
63. In β + -decay, process occurring inside the nucleus is (d) The substance disintegrates completely in 2 months
(a) n → p + e+ + ν (b) p → n + e+ + ν 71. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. It
(c) e → n + p + ν (d) p → n + e+ + ν reduces to 3.125% of its original value in
(a) 2T (b) 3T (c) 5T (d) 15T
64. When a nucleus is in an excited state
(a) it can stay in excited state 72. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 s, the
(b) it gives excess energy to surrounding electrons and time taken for the sample to decay by 7/8th of its
comes to a lower energy state
intitial value is
(c) it can make a transition to a lower energy state by
emission of electromagnetic radiation (a) 20 s (b) 40 s (c) 60 s (d) 80 s
(d) it can emit a proton or neutron with excess kinetic . × 10 9 yr decays
73. A radio isotope X with a half life 14
energy and so achieves a lower energy state
to Y which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave
65. Energy level diagram shown depicts
was found to contain X and Y in the ratio 1 : 7. The
60
27Co
β–
age of the rock is [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) 1.96 × 109 yr (b) 3.92 × 109 yr
(c) 4.20 × 109 yr (d) 8.40 × 109 yr
E = 1.17 MeV
74. The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is 20 yr. It
E = 1.33 MeV decays to another element Y which is stable. The two
elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7
60
28 Ni in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is
(a) emission of only one β − -particle estimated to be [NEET 2013]
(b) emission of one β − -particle and two γ-ray photons of (a) 40 yr (b) 60 yr
equal frequencies (c) 80 yr (d) 100 yr
(c) emission of one β − -particle and two γ-photons of
different frequencies 75. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials
(d) emission of two γ-ray photons A1 and A2 with half-lives of 20 s and 10 s
respectively. Initially the mixture has 40 g of
66. Out of 80 kg of a radioactive substance 10 kg decays
A1 and 160 g of A2 . The amount of the two in the
in 1 h. The decay constant of material is
mixture will become equal after [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) 5.80 × 10−4 s −1 (b) 1.16 × 10−3 s −1
(a) 60 s (b) 80 s
(c) 2.32 × 10−3 s −1 (d) 4.64 × 10−3 s −1 (c) 20 s (d) 40 s
386 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Topic 4
Nuclear Energy
76. Binding energy per nucleon ( E bn ) is nearly constant 86. On bombarding U 235 by slow neutron, 200 MeV
( ≥ 8.0 MeV) for elements whose mass number range is energy is released. If the power output of atomic
(a) A < 30 (b) 30 ≤ A ≤ 170 reactor is 1.6 MW, then the rate of fission will be
(c) A ≥ 170 (d) 0 < A ≤ 56 (a) 5 × 1022 s −1 (b) 5 × 1016 s −1
77. If a nucleus with mass number A = 240 with (c) 8 × 1016 s −1 (d) 20 × 1016 s −1
E bn = 7.6 MeV breaks into two fragments of A =120 87. In any fission process, ratio of mass of daughter
and E bn = 8.5 MeV, then released energy is around nucleus to mass of parent nucleus is
(a) 216 MeV (a) less than 1
(b) 200 MeV (b) greater than 1
(c) 100 MeV (c) equal to 1
(d) Cannot be estimated from given data (d) depends on the mass of parent nucleus
78. In the fission reaction of 235
on an average number 88. For a nuclear to be in critical condition, the value of
92 U,
of neutrons (per fission) released is neutron multiplication factor ( K ) must be
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 2.5 (a) K > 1 (b) K < 1 (c) K = 1 (d) K = 0
235 89. Heavy water is used in a nuclear reactor to
79. In fission reaction of a 92 U sample, chain reaction is
(a) absorb the neutrons (b) slow down the neutrons
possible because
(c) act as coolant (d) None of these
(a) released energy is of order 200 MeV
(b) fissionable nucleus 236 90. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver
92 U is formed
300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each
(c) more neutrons are released then consumed
(d) excessive amount of heat is released nucleus of uranium atoms U 238 is 170 MeV. The
number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be
80. For sustaining the chain reaction in a sample (of small
(a) 30 × 1025 (b) 4 × 1022
size) of 235
92 U, it is desirable to slow down fast
(c) 10 × 1020 (d) 5 × 1015
neutrons by
(a) friction (b) elastic damping/scattering 91. In a nuclear reactor, the fuel is consumed at the rate
(c) absorption (d) None of these of 1 mgs −1 . The power generate (in kW) is
81. For maintaining sustained chain reaction, the (a) 9 × 1014 (b) 9 × 107 (c) 9 × 108 (d) 9 × 1012
following is required 92. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of
(a) protons (b) electrons (c) neutrons (d) positrons thorium and helium. Then, [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
82. Operation of a reactor is said to be critical when K, (a) the helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the
the multiplication factor becomes thorium nucleus
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) ∞ (d) 1 (b) the helium nucleus has less momentum than the
thorium nucleus
83. A sample of uranium U contains (c) the helium nucleus has more momentum than the
235 238 thorium nucleus
(a) more of isotope 92 U and less of 92 U
238 (d) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the
(b) more of impurities alongwith a small amount of 92 U thorium nucleus
235 238
(c) equal amounts of isotopes 92 U and 92 U 93. Thermonuclear fusion is
238
(d) more of isotope 92 U and less of 235
92 U
(a) fusion due to high temperatures
(b) fusion due to high pressures
238
84. The abundant 92 U isotope
is non-fissionable but (c) fusion due to high volumes
produces which radioactive element when captures (d) fusion due to high velocities
neutron 94. For thermonuclear fusion to occur between two
(a) Thorium (b) produces plutonium protons at rest,
(c) absorbs fast neutrons (d) rejects slow neutrons (a) temperature on the surface of sun is sufficient
85. In any nuclear reactor amount of a radioactive (b) temperature inside the core of sun is sufficient
substance required as a fuel is (c) temperature much higher than the core temperature of
sun is required
(a) very less (b) very large
(d) room temperature is sufficient
(c) of moderate amounts (d) None of these
 CHAPTER 13 : Nuclei 387

95. In fusion reaction occurring in the sun, 97. The fusion process is possible at high temperature,
(a) hydrogen is converted into carbon because at higher temperatures
(b) hydrogen and helium are converted into carbon and other (a) the nucleus disintegrates
heavier metals/elements (b) the molecules disintegrates
(c) helium is converted into hydrogen (c) atoms become ionised
(d) hydrogen is converted into helium (d) the nucleus get sufficient energy to overcome the
strong force of repulsion
96. Which of the following are suitable for the fusion
process? 98. Nuclear winter is
(a) winter caused by absorption of heat energy by a
(a) Light nuclei
fusion reaction on earth’s surface
(b) Heavy nuclei (b) winter caused by radioactive waste blocking sunlight
(c) Elements lying in the middle of periodic table to reach earth’s surface
(d) Elements lying in the middle of binding energy curve (c) winter caused due to cooling of sun’s core
(d) winter caused due to collapse of sun’s core

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason Reason For thermonuclear fusion to take place,
extreme condition of temperature and pressure are
Directions (Q. Nos. 99-103) In the following required.
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following
statements, choose the correct one. II. Statement Based Questions Type I
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is Directions (Q. Nos. 104-110) In the following
the correct explanation of Assertion. questions, a statement I is followed by a
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is corresponding statement II. Of the following
not the correct explanation of Assertion. statements, choose the correct one.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I
99. Assertion Nuclear force between neutron-neutron,
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but
proton-neutron and proton-proton is approximately the Statement II is not the correct explanation of
same. Statement I
Reason The nuclear force does not depend on the (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
electric charge. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
100. Assertion The detection of neutrinos is extremely 104. Statement I Kilogram is not a convenient unit to
difficult. measure mass of an atom.
Reason Neutrinos interact only very weakly with matter. Statement II The mass of an atom is very small.
101. Assertion A free neutron is unstable. 105. Statement I Mass and energy are separately
Reason Free neutron disintegrates into proton, conserved in a reaction.
electron and an anti-neutrino i.e., n → p + e − + v Statement II Law of conservation of mass and
law of conservation of energy are valid for every
102. Assertion An α-particle is emitted when uranium 238 reaction.
decays into thorium.
Reason The decay of uranium 238 to thorium is 106. Statement I Binding energy per nucleon is a
92 U → 90 Th + 2 He
represented by 238 234 4 constant for average mass numbers.
Statement II Nuclear forces are short range forces
The helium nuclei is called an alpha particle.
and so they are saturated for a medium or large sized
103. Assertion Naturally, thermonuclear fusion reaction is nucleus.
not possible on earth.
388 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

107. Statement I Energy always releases in fission 114. Plot of binding energy per nucleon E bn against the
(splitting of a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei), nuclear mass M is
( A >170). Ebn
Statement II Nucleons of lighter nuclei are more C D
tightly bound, (30 < A < 170). B E
A F
1
108. Statement I On an average 2 neutrons are
2 M
liberated per fission of 235
92 U but a chain reaction in a
sample of 235 For masses A, B , C , D, E and F corresponding to
92 U is still not possible.
different nuclei. Consider reactions
Statement II Neutrons liberated are readily absorbed I. A + B → C + ε
by other 235
92 U atoms present in the sample. II. C → A + B + ε
III. D + E → F + ε
109. Statement I Energy is released when two lighter
IV. F → D + E + ε
nuclei are fused together ( A < 30).
Statement II Binding energy per nucleon of heavy where, ε is the energy released.
nuclei is less than that of lighter nuclei. (30 < A < 170). In which reaction ε is positive?
(a) I and IV (b) I and III
110. Statement I In a fusion reaction, two lighter nuclei (c) II and IV (d) II and III
combine to form a single nucleus with release of energy.
Statement II Elements more heavier than iron are 115. In one half-life time duration
not produced by fusion. I. activity of a sample reduced to half of its initial value.
II. total number of nuclei present are reduced to half of its
Statement Based Questions Type II initial value.
III. number of radio active nuclei present is reduced to half
111. Which of the following statements are correct?
of its initial value.
I. Atomsofisotopeshavesameelectronicstructure.
IV. mass of sample is reduced to half of its initial value.
II. Atoms of isotopes occupies same place in periodic table.
III. Atoms of isotopes have same number of protons. Out of these, correct statements are
IV. Atoms of isotopes have same number of neutrons. (a) I and II (b) I and III
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) II and IV (d) II and III
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) II and IV 116. Which of the following are fission reactions?
112. Which of the following are correct? I. 10 n + 235
92 U→ 92 U → 56 Ba + 36 Kr + 3 0 n
236 144 89 1

0 n + 92 U→ 92 U → 51 Sb + 41 Nb + 410 n
I. Nuclear density is a constant for all matter. 1 235 236 133 99
II.
II. Nuclear density is around 2.3 × 1017 kg/m 3 .
0 n + 92 U → 54 Xe + 38 Sr + 2 0 n
1 235 1.40 94 1
III.
III. Nuclear density is very large compared to ordinary
1 H + 1 H → 2 He + n
2 2 3
matter. IV.
IV. Mass of ordinary matter is mainly due to nucleus. (a) I , II and IV (b) III and IV
(a) I, II and III (b) II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and III
(c) I and II (d) I, II, III and IV 117. In α-decay which of these are true?
113. For binding energy per nucleon versus mass number I. 42 Heis emitted.
curve, which of the following are correct? II. Mass number of daughter nucleus decreases by 4.
I. Binding energy per nucleon E bn is independent of III. Atomic number of daughter nucleus decreases by 2.
mass number in range 30 < A < 170.
IV. 42 Heis electrically neutral.
II. Binding energy is lower for both light nuclei ( A < 30)
and heavy nuclei ( A > 170). (a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
III. Binding energy is maximum of about (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
8.75 MeV for A = 56. 118. Nuclear force is a strong attractive force which
IV. In region 0 < A < 80, binding energy increases with I. is responsible for high value of binding energy per
mass number. nucleon.
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
II. overcomes the repulsive force of proton and proton.
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and III
 CHAPTER 13 : Nuclei 389

III. binds protons and neutrons into the nucleus. A B C D A B C D

IV. is very short range. (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 4 1 3 2
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
(a) I and II (b) II and IV 123. Potential energy for a pair of nucleons versus
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV separation between the nucleons is plotted below.
U
119. For a fusion reaction to takes place, conditions required
are
I. large amount of fusing material.
II. high temperature. r0 ≈ 0.8 fm 2 fm
r
O
III. large nucleus sizes of fusing material. fm
IV. small nuclear sizes of fusing material.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV Match the following columns.
120. β-decay of 198
79 Au is shown Column I Column II

198 A. Force between nucleons is zero. 1. r > 0.8 fm

79 Au
β–1
B. Force between nucleons is attractive. 2. r < 0.8 fm
β–2
1.088 MeV C. Force between nucleons is repulsive. 3. r = 0.8 fm
D. Potential energy is minimum. 4. r=0
0.412 MeV
198
0 MeV A B C D A B C D
80 Hg (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
Frequency of γ-ray photons emitted will be (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 3
I. 2.626 × 1020 Hz II. 0.944 × 1020 Hz 124. Match the following columns with type of decay and
III. 1.631 × 1020 Hz IV. 0.564 × 1020 Hz their products.
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
Column I Column II
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III
A. α-decay 1. X-rays
121. If a nuclear power reactor is highly polluting, why +
B. β -decay 2. Electromagnetic waves
then they are built
I. they produce lots of stable elements for a small amount C. γ-decay 3. Electrons
of fuel. D. K-electron-capture 4. 4
He2 , Helium nucleus
II. they reduce green house effect by producing steam.
III. they reduce green house effect by saving fossil fuels. A B C D A B C D
IV. they produce power to meet our growing demands. (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 2 1 3
(c) I and III (d) III and IV 125. Match the following columns.

III. Matching Type Column I Column II

94 Pu → 92 U
242 238
122. Match the following nuclei with the type of A. + 42 He 1. K-electron capture
characteristic shown.
B. 83 Bi → 84 Po
210 210
+ e− + ν 2. β + -decay
Column I Column II
7 7
C. 43 Te → 42 Mo
97 97
+ e+ + ν 3. β − -decay
A. Isotopes 1. 3 Li, 4 Be

B. Isobars 2. 18 19 D. 54 Xe +
120
e− → 120
53 I+ν 4. α-decay
8O ,9F
17 17
C. Isotones 3. 8O , 9F A B C D A B C D
D. Mirror nuclei 4. 235 238 (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 4 3 2
92 U , 92 U
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
390 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

126. Match the nuclear processes given in Column I with the 130. Activity of second isotope is
appropriate option (s) in Column II. [JEE Advanced 2015] 1 1 1 1
(a) µCi (b) µCi (c) µCi (d) µCi
Column I Column II 8 32 2 48
A. Nuclear fusion P. Absorption of thermal neutrons ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 131-132) These questions are
by 235
92 U based on the following situation. Choose the correct
60
B. Fission in a nuclear Q. 27 Co nucleus options from those given below.
reactor
A nucleus of mass M + ∆m is at rest and decays into
C. β-decay R. Energy production in stars via
hydrogen conversion to helium two daughter nuclei of equal mass M/ 2 each. Speed of
D. γ-ray emission S. Heavy water light is c.
T. Neutrino emission 131. The speed of daughter nuclei is
A B C D ∆m ∆m
(a) c (b) c
(a) PT QR RT SQ M + ∆m M + ∆m
(b) RS PT QR S 2∆m ∆m
(c) R PS QT Q (c) c (d) c
M M
(d) S RT QP RS
127. Match Column I of the nuclear processes with 132. The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus
Column II containing parent nucleus and one of the is E1 and that for daughter nuclei is E 2 . Then
end products of each process and then select the (a) E1 = 2E2 (b) E2 = 2E2 (c) E1 > E2 (d) E2 > E1
correct answer using the codes given below the ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 133-135) These questions are
Column.
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
Column I Column II options from those given below.
A. α-decay 1. 8 O → 7 O+K
15 15 Suppose that a reactor using uranium -235 has an
output of 700 MW and is 20% efficient. An atom of U 235
B. β + -decay 2. 92 U → 90 Th +K
238 234
undergoes fission in a reactor liberated 200 MeV energy.
C. Fission 3. 185
83 Bi → 184
82 Pb+K
133. Energy generated from the reactor per fission is
D. Proton emission 4. 94 Pu → 57 La +K
239 140
(a) 3.2 × 10−11 J (b) 6.4 × 10−11 J
(c) 3.2 × 10−12 J (d) 6.4 × 10−12 J
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 2 3 1 134. How many uranium atoms does it consume in 24 h?
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 2 1 3 (a) 9.5 × 1021 (b) 9.5 × 1022 (c) 9.5 × 1023 (d) 9.5 × 1024
135. What mass of uranium does it consume during 24 h?
IV. Passage Based Questions (a) 2.5 kg (b) 3.7 kg (c) 2.5 g (d) 3.7 g
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 128-130) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct V. More than One Option Correct
7
options from those given below. 136. If the binding energy per nucleon in and 2 He 4 3 Li
In an experiment on two radioactive isotopes of an nuclei are respectively 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV
element (which do not decay into one another), their mass respectively, then
ratio at a given instant was formed to be 3. The decaying (a) the energy of proton in the reaction
3 Li + p → 2 2 He is 18.3 MeV
isotope has a large mass and activity of 1.0 curie initially. 7 4

The half-lives of the two radioactive isotopes are known to

(b) total BE of nucleons in 3 Li 7 is 39.20 MeV
be 12 h and 16 h. Activity of the each isotope and their
mass ratio after 2 days was studied. (c) total BE of nucleons in 2 ( 2 He4 ) is 56.48 MeV
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
128. Ratio of number of atoms of first isotope to that of the
137. Consider the following reaction
other isotope is
A −4 A −4
(a) 2 (b) 1.5 (c) 1 (d) 1.75 Z X A
→ Z +1Y
A
→ Z −1 K → Z −1 K

129. Activity of first isotope is Radioactive radiations emitted is/are

3 1 1 1 (a) α and β (b) α and γ
(a) µCi (b) µCi (c) µCi (d) µCi (c) α , β and γ (d) Only α and β
2 4 8 16
 CHAPTER 13 : Nuclei 391

138. The variation of decay rate (a) Decay constant of A is greater than that of B, hence A
always decays faster than B
of two radioactive samples
(b) Decay constant of B is greater than that of A but its decay
A and B with time is rate is always smaller than that of A
shown in figure. dN
(c) Decay constant of A is greater than that of B but it does
Which of the following dt
P B not always decay faster than B
statements are true? (d) Decay constant of B is smaller than that of A but still its
A
t decay rate becomes equal to that of A at a later instant

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

NCERT 145. Calculate the height of the potential barrier for a head
139. The three stable isotopes of neon, 20
and 21 on collision of two deuterons. [Hint : The height of the
10 Ne, 10 Ne
22 potential barrier is given by the Coulomb repulsion
10 Ne have respective abundances of 90.51%, 0.27%
between the two deuterons when they just touch each
and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the three isotopes other. Assume that they can be taken as hard spheres of
are 19.99 u, 20.99 u and 21.99 u, respectively.
radius 2.0 fm.]
Obtain the average atomic mass of neon.
(a) 215 kV (b) 360 kV
(a) 20.18 u (b) 12.5 u (c) 8.55 u (d) 1.257 u
(c) 120 kV (d) 450 kV
140. Obtain the binding energy (in MeV) of a nitrogen 10 11
146. Boron has two stable isotopes Their
5 Band 5 B.
nucleus (147 N ), given m(147 N ) = 14.00307 u.
respective masses are 10.01294 u and 11.00931 u and
(a) 210 (b) 104.67 (c) 83.5 (d) 75.25 the atomic mass of boron is 10.811 u. Then, the
141. A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the abundances of 10 11
5 Band 5 Bare
nuclear energy that would be required to separate (a) 19.9, 80.1 (b) 80.1, 19.9
all the neutrons and protons from each other. For (c) 92.5, 7.5 (d) 7.5, 92.5
simplicity, assume that the coin is entirely made of 56
63 147. The binding energy of the nuclei 26 Fe in units of MeV
29 Cu atoms (of mass 62.92960 u).
(a) 2.5 × 1025 MeV (b) 0.5 × 1012 MeV is [m ( 56
26 Fe ) = 55.934939 u]
(a) 7.20 MeV
(c) 1.58 × 1025 MeV (d) 7.5 × 1012 MeV
(b) 8.79 MeV
60
142. Obtain the amount of 27 Co necessary
to provide a (c) 10.2 MeV
radioactive source of 8.0 mCi strength. The half-life (d) 13.6 MeV
of 60
27 Co is 5.3 yr.
148. A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in
(a) 7.12 × 10 − 6 g (b) 1.2 × 10− 5 g
5 yr. The reactor operates 80% of the time that all the
energy generated arises from the fission of 235
92 U and
(c) 4.5 × 10− 6 g (d) 3.5 × 10 − 5 g
this nuclide is consumed only by the fission
143. The half-life of 90
is 28 yr. What is the
38 Sr
process.The power of reactor P =1000 MW. How much
235
disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope? 92 U did it contain initially?
(a) 2050 kg
(a) 5.7 × 10 10 Bq (b) 7.877 × 10 10 Bq
(b) 3070 kg
(c) 4.3 × 10 10 Bq (d) 2.34 × 10 10 Bq (c) 4000 kg
144. The fission properties of 239
are very similar to (d) 5000 kg
94 Pu
235 149. How long can an electric lamp of 100 W be kept
those of 92 U. The average energy released per
fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV is glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? Take the
released if all the atoms in 1 kg of pure 239 fusion reaction as
94 Pu
1 H + 1 H → 1 He + n + 3.27 MeV
2 2 3
undergo fission?
(a) 4.53 × 10 26 eV (b) 1.25 × 10 26 eV (a) 6 × 103 yr (b) 5 × 104 yr
(c) 8.06 × 10 26 eV (d) 3.75 × 10 26 eV (c) 7 × 10 yr
5
(d) 10 × 10 yr
6
392 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

150. Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 154. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons.
200000 MW of electric power, ten percent of which This is because of the fact that
was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. (a) neutrons are heavier than protons
Suppose we are given that, on an average, the (b) electrostatic force between protons is repulsive
efficiency of utilization (i. e., conversion to electric (c) neutrons decay into protons by beta decay
energy) of thermal energy produced in a reactor was (d) nuclear force between neutrons is weaker than protons
25%. How much amount of fissionable uranium
155. In a nuclear reactor, moderator slow down the
would our country need per year by 2020? Take the
neutrons which come out in a fission process. The
heat energy per fission of 235 U to be about 200 MeV. moderator have light nuclei. Heavy nucleus will not
(a) 2 × 102 kg serve the purpose because
(b) 3 × 102 kg (a) they will break up
(b) elastic collision with neutrons with heavy nuclei will
(c) 2 × 103 kg not slow them down
(d) 3 × 104 kg (c) weight of reactor is appreciably high
(d) substances with heavy nuclei are not liquids or gases at
NCERT Exemplar room temperature

151. Suppose we have a large number of containers each 156. Fusion processes like combining two deuterons to
containing initially 10000 atoms of a radioactive form a He nucleus are impossible at ordinary
material with a half-life of 1 yr. After 1 yr temperatures and pressures.
(a) all containers will have 5000 atoms of the material The reason for this can be traced to the fact that
(b) all containers will contains same number of atoms of (a) nuclear forces are long-range
the material but that number will only be (b) nuclei are positively charged
approximately 5000 (c) the original nuclei must be completely ionised before
(c) the containers will general have different number of the fusion can takes place
atoms but their average is around 5000 (d) the original nuclei must break up from combining with
each other
(d) None of the containers have more than 5000 atoms
157. Samples of two radioactive nuclides A and B are
152. When nucleus in an atom undergoes a radioactive taken. λ A and λ B are the disintegration constants of
decay, the electronic energy level of the atom A and B, respectively. In which of the following
(a) do not change for any type of radioactivity cases, the two samples can simultaneously have the
(b) change for α and β-radioactivity but not for same decay rate at any time?
γ-radioactivity (a) Initial rate of decay of A is twice the initial rate of
(c) change for α-radioactivity but not for others decay of B and λ A = λ B
(d) change for β-radioactivity but not for others (b) Initial rate of decay of A is twice the initial rate of
153. M X and M Y denote the atomic masses of the parent decay of B and λ A > λ B
and the daughter nuclei, respectively in a radioactive (c) Initial rate of decay of B is twice the initial rate of
decay of A and λ A > λ B
decay. The Q value for a β − -decay is Q1 and that for a λA NB
β + decay is Q2 . If me denotes the mass of an electron, (d) =
λB NA
then which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Q1 = ( M X − M Y ) c2 158. The gravitational force between a H-atom and another
particle of mass m will be given by Newton’s law
and Q2 = ( M X − M Y − 2M e ) c2 M.m
F= G , where r is in km and
(b) Q1 = ( M X − M Y ) c2 and Q2 = ( M X − M Y ) c2 r2
(a) M = mproton + melectron
(c) Q1 = ( M X − M Y − 2M e ) c2
B
and Q2 = ( M X − M Y + 2M e ) c2 (b) M = mproton + melectron − ( B = 13.6 eV).
c2
(d) Q1 = ( M X − M Y + 2M e ) c2 (c) M is not related to the mass of the hydrogen atom.
|V|
and Q2 = ( M X − M Y + 2M e ) c2 (d) M = mproton + melectron − 2 (|V | = magnitude of the
c
potential energy of electron in the H-atom.
 Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24 (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (d)
46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (d)
76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (b) 81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (b)
106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (a) 111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (a) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (c) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (d) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (b) 131. (c) 132. (d) 133. (d) 134. (d) 135. (b)
136. (b,c 137. (c) 138. (c,d 139. (a) 140. (b) 141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (b) 150. (d)
) )
151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (b) 155. (b) 156. (b) 157. (d) 158. (b)

Hints and Explanations

~ 10−10
1. (b) Radius of atom − 17. (b) Let the percentage of 10
5 B in sample be x. Then,
~ 10−14
Radius of nucleus − 5 B is (100 − x ). So, using formula of average
percentage of 11
Radius of atom 10−10 ~ 4 atomic masses of isotopes,
∴ = −14 − 10
Radius of nucleus 10 10.01294 × x + 11.00931 (100 − x )
10.811 =
100
2. (c) Volume of a nucleus is about 10−12 times volume of an
⇒ 1081.1 = 1100.931 − 0.99637 x
atom.
⇒ 0.99637x = 19.831
3. (a) As nearly 99.9% mass of atom is in nucleus. 19.831
∴ x= = 19.3 ≈ 20%
Mass of nucleus 99.9 0.99637
∴ = = 0.99 ≈ 1
Mass of atom 100 19. (c) Protons, neutrons and electrons in an atom of 14 6 C are 6,
6. (c) The average mass of a chlorine atom is obtained by the 8 and 6, respectively. 14 g of 6 C contains 6 × 10
14 23

weighted average of the masses of the two isotopes, which is (1 mole) atoms, number of protons, neutrons and electrons
75.4 × 34.98 + 24.6 × 36.98 in 14 g of 14
6 C are 6 × 6 × 1023 = 36 × 1023 = number of
= = 35.47u
100 protons.
10. (a) Since, the nuclei of deuterium and tritium are isotopes of 8 × 6 × 1023 = 48 × 1023 = number of neutrons
hydrogen, they must contain only one proton each. But the and 6 × 6 × 1023 = 36 × 1023 = number of electrons.
masses of the nuclei of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium are 20. (c) As, we know both have same number of neutrons, so
in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3, because of presence of neutral matter they described as isotones.
in deuterium and tritium nuclei. 21. (a) When a more energetic particle is used, it can penetrate
13. (b) A free neutron, unlike a free proton, is unstable. It decays more against Coulomb’s repulsion.
into a proton, an electron and a anti-neutron (another 22. (b) A1 : A2 = 1 : 3
elementary particle). Their radii will be in the ratio
→ p + e− + ν
n R0 A11 / 3 : R0 A12 / 3 = 1 : 31 / 3
6 C, A = 12 = N + Z , Z = 6 ⇒
14. (c) For 12 N =6 A
Density ρ =
For 14
A = 14 = N + Z , Z = 6 ⇒ N = 8 4 / 3 πR 3
6 C;
1 3
Also, number of electrons in both atoms ∴ ρA 1 : ρA 2 = : =1:1
4 3 3 4 3 1/ 3 3
= number of protons = Z = 6. πR0 ⋅ 1 πR0 ( 3 )
3 3
16. (a) As we know that,
23. (a) Here A1 = 197, A2 = 107
m1 n1 + m2 n2 6.01512 × 7.5 + 7.01600 × 92.5
m= = 1/ 3
R1  A1 
1/ 3
n1 + n2 100  197
∴ =  =  = 1.225
= 6.940934 u R2  A2   107
394 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Mass mA 3m 36. (d) The binding energy for 1 H1 is around zero and also not
24. (d) Density = = = , m = mp = mN
Volume 4 πR 3 A 4 πR03 given in the question so we can ignore it
0
3 Q = 2 ( 4 × 7.06 ) − 7 × ( 5.60 )
−3
≈ 2.3 × 10 kgm , which is a constant.
17
= ( 8 × 7.60 ) − ( 7 × 5.60 )
25. (c) Nuclear radius r ∝ A1 / 3 , where A is mass number
= ( 56.48 − 39.2 ) MeV
= 17.28 MeV ~ − 17.3 MeV
r = r0 A1 / 3 = r0 ( 27 )1 / 3 = 3r0
3.6 38. (b) Potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of
r0 = = 1.2 fm their separation. For a separation greater than r0 , the force is
3
For 64 Cu , r = r0 A1 / 3 = 12 . fm ( 64 )1 / 3 = 4.8 fm attractive and for separations less than r0 , the force is
strongly repulsive. For potential energy U, force
26. (a) R = R0 A1 / 3 log R = log R0 + log A
1 F = − dU / dr.
3 40. (d) Nuclear force is attractive in nature and exists only for a
Which is equation of a straight line with variables log A and short distance ~ 10−15 m. It becomes repulsive when nucleons
log R.
come very close.
27. (c) Surface area = 4 πR 2 = 4 π ( R0 A1 / 3 )2
46. (c) Number of half-lives
= 4 π R02 ⋅ A 2 / 3 1600
n = 100 =
= 4 (3.14)(1.2 × 10−15 )2 A 2 / 3 2n
= (1.8 × 10−29 ) A 2 / 3 or n = 4 ⇒ 4 t1 / 2 = 8 s ⇒ t1 / 2 = 2s
N 1600
28. (b) Energy, E = 2 × 10−3 × ( 3 × 108 )2 J N = 30 = = 200 (Q 6s = 3 t1 / 2 )
2 8
E = 2 × 10−3 × 9 × 1016 = 18 × 1013 J 48. (b) Those radioactive elements whose half-life is short
Thus, if one gram of matter is converted to energy, there is a compared to the age of the universe (13.7 billion years) are
release of enormous amount of energy. not found in observable quantities in nature today. They
have, however, been seen in the laboratory in nuclear
29. (b) We have, P = 200 MW = 2 × 108 W
reactions. Tritium and plutonium belong to this category.
t = 1h = 3600 s n
N  1
E = P × t = 2 × 108 × 3600 J 50. (c) Fraction of radioactive substance left = = 
N 0  2
as E = mc2 t
 1 T N
E 2 × 10 × 3600
8
⇒ N = N 0   1/ 2 = 0
m= = = 8 × 10−6 kg  2 4
c 2
( 3 × 10 )
8 2

92 U undergoes α-decay,
238 234
51. (a) When it transforms to 90 Th
31. (d) Mass of 8 neutrons = 8 × 1.00866 u
92 U → 90 Th + 2 He
238 234 4
Mass of 8 protons = 8 × 1.00727 u
92 U → 90 Th
238 234
Therefore, the expected mass of 16
8 O nucleus.
54. (c) + 42 He
= 8 × 2.01593 u = 16.12744 u. When a α -particle is emitted mass number decreases by 4
The atomic mass of 16 and atomic number by 2.
8 O found from mass spectroscopy
A −4
experiments is seen to be 15.99493 u. 56. (d) This energy is shared by the daughter nucleus Z −2
Y
Thus, ∆M = 1612744
. u − 15.99493 u = 0.13691 u and the α-particle, 42 He in the form of kinetic energy.
34. (b) Energy of γ-ray photon
57. (a) The α-decay of 238
92 U is given by equation.
= KE of electron positron pair + Mass energy
92 U → 90 Th + 2 He + Q
238 234 4

= 0.78 + 0.5 × 2 (an e− and e+ are created)

The energy released in this process is given by
= 1.78 MeV
Q = ( M U − M Th − M He ) c2
56
35. (a) 26 Fe nucleus has 26 protons and 30 neutrons.
Substituting the atomic masses as given in the data, we find
∴ Mass defect = ( 26 mp + 30 mn ) − m ( 56
26 Fe) Q = (238.05079 − 234.04363 − 4.00260)u × c2
= 56.46340 − 55.934939 = 0.528461 amu = (0.00456 u)c2
Total BE = 0.528461 × 931.5 MeV = 492.26 MeV
= (0.00456 u) (931.5 MeV / u) = 4.25 MeV
∴ Binding energy per nucleon 238
492.26 58. (b) If 92 U spontaneously emits a proton, the decay process
= = 8.790 MeV would be
56
Similarly for Bi, E bn = 7.848 MeV
238
92 U → 237
91 Pa + 11 H
 CHAPTER 13 : Nuclei 395

The Q for this process to happen is 2

N 1  1 1
Given, =  = 2
= ( M U − M Pa − M H ) c2 N 2  e e
= (238.05079 − 237.05121 − 1.00783)u × c2 1 1 1
∴ = ⇒ t=
= ( − 0.00825 u)c2 = (0.00825 u) (931.5 MeV/ u) e 2 e 4 λt 2λ
t
= − 7.68 MeV N  1
n
 1 T  1
t /1

Thus, the Q of the process is negative and therefore it cannot 70. (a) =   =   1/ 2 =  
N 0  2  2  2
proceed spontaneously. We will have to supply an energy of
3
7.68 MeV to a 238
92 U nucleus to make it emit a proton.  N   1 1
For t = 3 months,   =   =
Hence, 92 U → 90 Th
238 234
+ 42 He + Q  N 0   2 8
is more feasible/probable reaction. 1 7
∴ Disintegrated part in 3 months = 1 − = part
+ 8 8
63. (b) In β -decay, a proton transforms into neutron (inside the
3125
. 1
nucleus) by reaction 71. (c) N = N0 = N 0 ⇒ N = N 0 e − λt
100 32
p → n + e+ + ν …
1
65. (c) By beta emission, the 60
nucleus transforms into 60 ⇒ N 0 = N 0 e − λt
27 Co 28 Ni 32
nucleus in its excited state. The excited 60
28 Ni nucleus so ⇒ eλt = 32 = 25
formed, then de-excites to its ground state by successive
⇒ λt = 5 log e 2
emission of 1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV gamma rays.
 0.693
66. (a) Fraction of material that remains undecayed ⇒   t = 5 × 0.693
− λt − t ln 2 / T1/ 2
 T 
N = N 0e ⇒ N = N0 e
∴ t = 5T yr
1h
t / T1 / 2
N  1 10  1 T1 / 2 72. (c) After three half-lives, the fraction of undecayed nuclei
⇒ =  ⇒ = 
N 0  2 80  2
2
 1 1
=  =
1h  2 8
⇒ T1 / 2 = = 20 min = 1200 s
3  1 7
∴ Time taken for the sample of decay by 1 −  th or th of
and λ=
0.693 0.693
= = 5.8 × 10−4 s −1  8 8
T1 / 2 1200 initial value.
67. (c) Decay rate, R = λN = 3T1 = 3 × 20 = 60 s
R 0 = λN 0 73. (c) Ratio of X : Y is given = 1 : 7
log2 log2 mx 1
λ= = = ⇒ 7mx = my
T1 / 2 78 h my 7
= 8.89 × 10−3 (h −1 ) = 2.47 × 10−6 s −1 ⇒ Let the initial total mass is m.
3.4 my
N0 = × 6 × 1023 = 3.05 × 1022 ⇒ mx + my = m ⇒ + my = m
67 7
∴ R0 = (2.47 × 10−6 ) (3.05 × 1022 ) 8my 7
⇒ = m ⇒ my = m
= 7.53 × 1016 s −1 7 8
1
68. (b) A 0 = 8, A = 1, time = 3 h only part remains
8
 A   1
n n 1 1 1
 1  1 ⇒ 1 T→ T
1/ 2
→ T
1/ 2
→
1/ 2
  =  ⇒   =  ⇒ n=3 2 4 8
 A 0   2  8  2
1
t t 3 So, time taken to become unstable part
n= or T1 / 2 = = = 1 h 8
T1 / 2 n 3 . × 109 = 4.2 × 109 yr
= 3 × T1 / 2 = 3 × 14
n 3
69. (d) Number of nuclei after time t , N  1 N  1 1
− λt 74. (b) As =  , =  =
N = N0 e N 0  2 N 0  2 8
Now, N 1 = N 0 e −5 λt Number of half-lives = 3
N2 = N0 e − λt ⇒ T = 20 yr
t
N1 1
= e (− 5 λ + λ ) t = e − 4 λ t = 4 λ t ∴ T= or t = T × n = 20 × 3 yr = 60 yr
⇒ n
N2 e
396 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

20 s 20 s Number of atoms fissioned per second

75. (d) For 40 g amount 40 g → 20 g → 10 g
half -life 3 × 108 3 × 1020
= =
10 s
For 160 g amount 160 g → 80 g → 40 g
10 s
27.2 × 10−12 27.2
half -life Number of atoms fissioned per hour
10 s
→ 20 g → 10 g
10 s
3 × 1020 × 3600 3 × 36
= = × 1022
27.2 27.2
So, after 40s, A1 and A2 remains same. = 4 × 1022 m
77. (a) The energy released (i. e.,Q value) in the fission reaction
of nuclei like uranium is of the order of 200 MeV per 91. (b) From Einstein’s mass energy relation the energy
fissioning nucleus. This is estimated as follows. releases is
Let us take a nucleus with A = 240 breaking into two ∆E = ∆ mc2
fragments each of A = 120. Then, where, ∆ m is mass and c is speed of light.
Ebn for A = 240 nucleus is about 7.6 MeV. Given, ∆ m = 1 mg = 1 × 10−6 kg, c = 3 × 108 ms −1
Ebn for the two A = 120 fragment nuclei is about 8.5 MeV.
∴ ∆ E = 1 × 10−6 × ( 3 × 108 )2 = 9 × 1010 J
So, gain in binding energy for nucleon is about 0.9 MeV.
Hence, the total gain in binding energy is 240 × 0.9 or The rate at which energy is dissipated is known as power,
216 MeV. ∆ E 9 × 1010
i. e., P= = = 9 × 1010 W
80. (b) Fast neutrons are slowed down by elastic scattering with t 1
light nuclei each collision takes away nearly 50% of energy. ∴ P = 9 × 107 kW
82. (d) For K = 1, the operation of the reactor is said to be
92. (a) 92 U
238

→ 92 Th 238 + 2 He4
critical, which is what we wish it to be for steady power
operation. If K becomes greater than one, the reaction rate According to law of conservation of linear momentum,
and the reactor power increases exponentially. Unless the we have.
factor K is brought down very close to unity, the reactor will | pTh | = | pHe | = p
become supercritical and can even explode. ⇒ As, kinetic energy of an element,
83. (d) Uranium are obtained naturally from earth contains only p2
a very small part (0.01%) of U235 and remaining (99.9%) is KE =
U238 . 2m
84. (b) The abundant 238 where, m is mass of an element.
92 U isotope, which does not fission, on
capturing a neutron leads to the formation of plutonium. 1
Thus, KE ∝
The series of reactions involved is M
92 U + n → 92 U → 93 Np + e + ν
238 239 239 − So, M He < M Th ⇒ K He > K Th

93 Np → 94 Pu
239 239
+ e− + ν 98. (b) High temperature conditions for fusion reactions can be
created by exploding a fission bomb. Super-explosions
Plutonium is highly radioactive and can also undergo fission equivalent to 10 megatons of explosive power of TNT were
under bombardment by slow neutrons. tested in 1954. Such bombs which involve fusion of isotopes of
86. (b) Energy released on bombarding U235 by neutron hydrogen, deuterium and tritium are called hydrogen bombs.
= 200 MeV It is estimated that a nuclear arsenal sufficient to destroy
Power output of atomic reactor = 1.6 MW every form of life on this planet several times over is in
1.6 × 106 position to be triggered by the press of a button. Such a
∴ Rate of fission = = 5 × 1016 s −1 nuclear holocaust will not only destroy the life that exists
200 × 106 × 1.6 × 10−19
now but its radioactive fallout will make this planet unfit for
87. (a) In fission process, when a parent nucleus breaks into life for all times.
daughter products, then some mass is lost in the form of Scenarios based on theoretical calculations predict a long
energy. Thus, mass of fission products < mass of parent nuclear winter, as the radioactive waste will hang like a
nucleus. cloud in the earth’s atmosphere and will absorb the sun’s
Mass of fission products radiation.
⇒ <1
Mass of parent nucleus 100. (a) Neutrinos interact only very weakly with matter, they
88. (c) In critical condition, K = 1. The chain reaction will be can even penetrate the earth without being absorbed. It is for
this reason that their detection is extremely difficult and
steady. The size of the fissionable material used is said to be their presence went unnoticed for long.
critical size and its mass the critical mass.
Energy 105. (b) It was presumed that mass and energy were conserved
90. (b) Power = = 300 × 106 W = 3 × 108 Js −1 separately in a reaction. However, Einstein showed that
Time mass is another form of energy and one can convert
170 MeV = 170 × 106 × 16 . × 10−19 = 27.2 × 10−12 J mass-energy into other forms.
 CHAPTER 13 : Nuclei 397

92 U and 92 U Z = 92; Number of protons equal are

235 238
106. (a) The constancy of binding energy per nucleon can be 122. (c) For
understood in terms of its short-range. The nuclear force isotopes. In 8 O and 179 F, A = 17, Mass number are same
17
between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their distance
is more than a few femtometres. This leads to saturation of ⇒ Isobars. In 8 O and 19
18
9 F, N = A − Z = 10 for both
forces in a medium or a large-sized nucleus, which is the Since, number of neutrons are same, so there are isotones.
reason for the constancy of the binding energy per nucleon.
In 73 Li A = 7, Z = 3 ⇒ N = 4 of in 74 Be; A = 7, Z = 4
109. (c) Two very light nuclei ( A ≤ 10 ) joining to form a heavier ⇒ N = 3.
nucleus. The binding energy per nucleon of the fused As in both N and Z values are interchanged (lateral
heavier nuclei is more than the binding energy per nucleon inversion of image of a plane mirror).
of the lighter nuclei. This means that the final system is So, they are mirror nuclei.
more tightly bound than the initial system.
123. (d) A rough plot of the potential energy between two
110. (a) Heavier elements are formed by fusion but elements
nucleons as a function of distance shows that the potential
massive than iron cannot be produced by fusion, because
energy is a minimum at a distance r0 of about 0.8 fm.
iron has highest E bn .
This means that the force is attractive for distances larger
111. (b) The chemical properties of elements depend on their than 0.8 fm and repulsive if they are separated by distances
electronic structure. As the atoms of isotopes have identical less than 0.8 fm.
electronic structure they have identical chemical behaviour 124. (a) α -decay in which a helium nucleus 42 He is emitted.
and are placed in the same location in the periodic table. β-decay in which electrons or positrons are emitted.
114. (a) In reaction I, A + B → C + ε γ-decay in which high energy photons are emitted, k
electrons capture, high energy radiations are emitted.
It is a fusion reaction and reaction e. g .,
125. (a) 242
94 Pu → 238
92 U + 42 He (α-decay)
F → D + E + ε
−
So, it is a fission reaction.
210
83 Bi → 210
84 Po +e +ν (β − -decay)
Hence, energy is released in both. 97
43 Te → 97
42 Mo + e+ + ν (β + -decay)
119. (d) To generate useful amount of energy, nuclear fusion 120
+ e − → 120
I+ ν (K-electron capture)
54 Xe 53
must occur in bulk matter. Heat is needed is to raise the
temperature of the material until the particles have enough 128. (b) As, A1 = λ 1 N 1 and A2 = λ 2 N 2
energy - due to their thermal motions alone - to penetrate the λ 1N1 = λ 2N 2 …(i)
Coulomb barrier. This process is called thermonuclear N1
fusion. Fusion occurs among small size nuclei. ⇒ =3 (Q N 1 > N 2 )
N2
198
120. (d) 79 Au T1 = 12 h and T2 = 16 h
β1 After 2 days, i.e., 2 × 24 = 48 h
t/T
 1  t 48 
1.088 MeV N1 ′ = N1    But = = 4
β2  2  T 12 
γ1 γ3 4
 1
∴ N1 ′ = N1  
 2
0.412 MeV
γ2 3
 1
Also, N2′ = N2   …(iii)
198
0  2
80 Hg
4
E2 − E1  1
Frequency of emitted γ-rays, ν =  
h N 1 ′ N 1  2 8 3
∴ = = 3 × = = 1. 5
(1.088) × 1.6 × 10−13 N 2 ′ N 2  1 3 16 2
∴ ν( γ 1 ) =  
6.63 × 10−34  2
= 2.626 ×1020 Hz 129. (d) Activity of rapidly decaying isotope after 2 days
4
(0.412 – 0) × 1.6 × 10 −13  1 1 µC
ν( γ 2 ) = A1 ′ = λ 1 N 1 ′ = λ 1 N 1   =
6.63 × 10−34  2 16

= 0.994 × 1020 Hz 130. (b) Activity of the other isotope after 2 days A2 ′ = λ 2 N 2 ′
0.6931 0.6931
(1.088 − 0.412) × 1.6 × 10−13 Now, T1 = and T2 =
ν (γ 3 ) = λ2 λ2
6.63 × 10−34
λ 1 T2 16 4
= 1.631 × 1020 Hz ∴ = = =
λ 2 T1 12 3
398 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

3 dN
∴ λ2 =λ1 138. (c,d) = Initial decay rate of A is more than that of
4 dt t =0
N ′ 3 2
After 1 = or N 2 ′ = N 1 B but B finally have a decay rate more than that of A..Also,
N2′ 2 3 decay rate of B is equal to that of A at a later instant
3 2 1 (Intersection point). A has smaller half-life which imply A
Equation becomes A2 ′ = λ 1 × N 1 ′ = λ × N 1 ′
4 3 2 has greater decay constant.
1 1 1 139. (a) Average atomic mass ( m ) = Weighted average of all isotopes
= × µCi = µCi
2 16 32 90.51 × 19.99 + 0.27 × 20.99 + 9.22 × 21.99
=
131. (c) Total kinetic energy of products = Total energy released 90.51 + 0.27 + 9.22
p2 p2  M  1809.29 + 5.67 + 202.75
+ = (mass defect )c2  where, m = given  =
2m 2m  2  100
 p2   2017.7
 M M  = = 20.18 u
⇒ 2   = ( M + ∆m ) −  +   c 2 100
 2m   2 2 
Thus, the average atomic mass of neon is 20.18 u.
  140. (b) Given, mass of proton, mp = 1.007834,
 p2 
⇒ 2×   = ( ∆m )c2 Mass of neutron, mn = 1.00867 u
 2  M   14
7N nucleus contains 7 protons and 7 neutrons.
  2  
2 Mass defect ( ∆m ) = mass of nucleons – mass of nucleus
M 
2  v = 7mp + 7mn − mN
 2 
⇒ = ( ∆m )c2 = 7 × 1.00783 + 7 × 1.00867 − 14.00307
M = 7.05481 + 7.06069 − 14.00307 = 0.11243 u
⇒ v=c
2∆m Binding energy of nitrogen nucleus = ∆m × 931MeV
M = 0.11243 × 931 MeV
132. (d) Because energy is releasing. = 104.67 MeV
Binding energy per nucleon of product > that of parent. Thus, the binding energy is 104.67 MeV.
⇒ E2 > E1 141. (c) Given, mass of coin = 3 g

133. (d) Energy released in each fission of U235 = 200 MeV 6.023 × 1023
Number of atoms in 1 g of Cu =
= 200 × 106 × 16. × 10−19 J = 3.2 × 10−11 J 63
Since, only 20% of this is utilized efficiently, therefore 6.023 × 1023
Number of atoms in 3 g of Cu = ×3
energy generated from the reactor per fission. 63
= 3.2 × 10−11 × 0.20 = 6.4 × 10−12 J = 2.868 × 1022
−1
134. (d) Since, the output of the reactor is 700 × 10 Js , the
6
Number of protons in Cu atom, = 29
number of fission required per second is Number of neutrons in Cu atom = 63 − 29 = 34
700 × 106 Mass defect in each atom, ∆m = 29 × mp + 34 × mn − mCu
= . × 1020 s −1
= 11
6.4 × 10−12 J = 29 × 1.00783 + 34 × 1.00867 − 62.9260 = 0.59225 u
The number of uranium – 235 atoms consumed in 24 hours. ∴ Total mass defect in all atoms = 0.59225 × 2.868 × 1022
= 24 × 60 × 60 × 1.1 × 1020 = 9.5 × 1024 = 1.6985 × 1022 u
135. (b) There are 6.02 × 1026 atoms in 235 kg of U-235. Binding energy = Mass defect × 931MeV
Therefore, the mass of U-235 consumed during 24 hours is
= 1.6985 × 1022 × 931 = 1.58 × 1025 MeV
9.5 × 1024
× 235 kg = 3.7 kg Thus, the energy required to separate all the neutrons and
6.02 × 1026 protons is 1.58 × 1025 MeV i.e., equal to binding energy.
136. (b,c) Total BE of nucleons in 3 Li 7 = 7 × 5.60 = 39.20 MeV dN
142. (a) Activity, = 8 mCi = 8 ×10− 3 × 3.7 × 1010
Total BE of nucleons in 2 ( 2 He4 ) = ( 4 × 7.06 ) × 2 dt
= 56.48 MeV = 8 × 3.7 × 107 disintegration/s
Therefore, energy of protons in the reaction (Q 1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/s)
= difference of BE’s Half-life of 60
27 Co, T1 / 2 = 5.3 yr
= 56.48 − 39.20 = 5.3 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60
= 17.3 MeV = 1.67 × 108 s
 CHAPTER 13 : Nuclei 399

We know that 146. (a) Given, mass of 10 B = 10.01294 u

0.693 0.693
λ= = = 4.14 × 10−9 /s Mass of 11 B = 11.00931 u
T1 / 2 1.67 × 108
dN Atomic mass of boron = 10.811 u
Activity, = λN Let the abundance of 10 B be x%.
dt
dN / dt 8 × 3.7 × 107 So, the abundance of 11 B be (100 − x )%.
or N = = = 7.133 × 1016
λ 4.14 × 10−9 Atomic mass = Weighted average of the isotopes
By using the concept of Avogadro number, x × 10.01294 + (100 − x ) × 11.00931
10.811 =
Mass of 6.023 × 1023 atoms of 60 27 Co = 60 g
( x + 100 − x )
60 × 7.133 × 1016 Abundance of 10 B, x = 19.9%
Mass of 7.133 × 1016 atoms of 60
27 Co =
6.023 × 1023 Abundance of 11 B, (100 − x ) = 100 − 19.9 = 80.1%
Mass m = 7.12 × 10−6 g
147. (b) Given, mass of proton mp = 1.00783 u
Thus, the required mass of 60
27 Co is 7.12 × 10−6 g.
Mass of neutron, mn = 1.00867 u
143. (b) Given, half-life of 90
38 Sr, T1 / 2 = 28 yr
For 56
26 Fe,
= 28 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 s 56
26 Fe contains 26 protons and ( 56 − 26 ) = 30 neutrons
According to Avogadro number concept,
90 g of Sr contains = 6.023 × 1023 atom Mass defect ( ∆m ) = mass of nucleons – mass of nucleus of
56
6.023 × 1023 × 15 × 10−3 26 Fe
15 mg of Sr contains = Mass defect ( ∆m ) = 26 × mp + 30 × mn − mN
90
Number of atoms, N = 1.0038 × 1020 = 26 × 1.00783 + 30 × 1.00867 − 55.934939
= 26.20345 + 30.25995 − 55.934939
dN dN  0.6931 
Activity, = λN or = ⋅ N = 0.528461 u
dt dt  T1 / 2  Total binding energy = ∆m × 931MeV
0.6931 × 1.0038 × 1020  0.693 = 0.528461 × 931.5 = 492.26 MeV
= Q λ = 
28 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60  T1 / 2  Average binding energy per nucleon of 56
26 Fe
dN Binding energy
⇒ = 7.877 × 1010 disintegration/s =
dt Total number of nucleons
= 7.877 × 1010 Bq =
492.26
= 8.790 MeV
56
144. (a) According to the concept of Avogadro number
148. (b) Use the concept that the energy generated in one fission
The number of atoms in 239 g of 239
94 Pu = 6.023 × 1023
of 235
92 U is 200 MeV.
6.023 × 1023 × 1000 Let x kg of 235 U is used.
Number of atoms in 1 kg of 239
94 Pu =
239 According to Avogadro number concept
= 2.52 × 1024 235 g of 235 U contains = 6.023 × 1023 atoms
The average energy released in one fission = 180 MeV 6.023 × 1023
∴ x kg of 235 U contains = × x atoms
So, total energy released in fission of 1 kg of 239
94 Pu
235 × 10−3
As half fuel is used in 5 yr and each atoms gives energy of
= 180 × 2.52 × 1024 = 4.53 × 1026 MeV
200 MeV, so energy given by fuel is
145. (b) Given, radius r = 2 fm = 2 × 10−15 m 6.023 × 1023 × x × 200 × 1.6 × 10−13
= J …(i)
For head on collision, the distance between the centres of 235 × 2 × 10−3
two deuterons
d = 2r ⇒ d = 4 × 10−15 = 4 × 10−15 m Energy produced in reactor in 5 yr as 80%
80
Charge on each deuteron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C = 1000 × 106 × 5 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 ×
100
Potential energy =
1 q1 q2
⋅ (From formula E = Pt ) …(ii)
4 πε 0 d Equate Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
9 × 109 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 1.6 × 10−19  1  6.023 × 1023 × 200 × 1.6 × 10−13 x
= Q = 9 × 109  =
4 × 10−15  4 πε 0  235 × 2 × 10−3
5.76 × 10−14 109 × 5 × 365 × 24 × 3600 × 80
= −19
= 360 keV =
1.6 × 10 100
400 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

5 × 365 × 24 × 36 × 80 × 235 × 2 × 10−3 × 109 Number of fission in one year,

⇒ x=
6.023 × 10 × 200 × 1.6
10 2 × 1010 × 60 × 60 × 24 × 365
n=
= 3071.5 kg . × 10− 13
50 × 16
The initial amount of 235 2 × 36 × 24 × 365
92 U is 3071.5 kg. n= × 1024
8
149. (b) Let t be the time.
Mass of 6.023 × 1023 atoms of 235 U = 235 g = 235 × 10− 3 kg
According to the Avogadro number concept
Number of atoms in 2 g of deuterium = 6.023 × 1023 2 × 36 × 24 × 365
Mass of 235
92 U required to produce × 1024
8
Number of atoms in 2 kg of deuterium atom
6.023 × 1023 × 2 × 103 235 × 10− 3 × 2 × 36 × 24 × 365 × 1024
= = 6.023 × 1026 nuclei =
2
6.023 × 1023 × 8
From given equation, energy released during fusion of two
deuterium = 3.27 MeV = 3.08 × 104 kg
3.27
∴ Energy released by one deuterium = = 1.635 MeV 151. (c) Disintegration laws are based on an statistical model and
2 give average values.
Energy released in 6.023 × 1026 deuterium atoms 152. (b) γ-decay occurs due to de-excitation of a nucleus and
= 1635
. × 6.023 × 10 26
= 9.848 × 10 MeV
26 energies involves is essentially in MeV.
Electronic energy levels have values only in eV.
= 9.848 × 1026 × 1.6 × 10−13 = 15.75 × 1013 J
Energy used by bulb in 1s = 100 J 153. (a) For a β − -decay, A
Z X → A
Z + 1Y1 + 0
−1 e + ν−
1 × 15.75 × 1013 ∴ Q1 value of decay
15.75 × 1013 J energy used in time =
100 = [( M X − Z M e ) − {M Y − ( Z + 1) M e } − M e ] c2
= 15.75 × 1011 s
= ( M X − MY ) c2
(Q We know that 1 yr = 60 × 24 × 60 × 365 s)
For β + -decay, A
X → A
Z −1Y 2 + 10 e + ν
15.75 × 1011 Z
= yr = 4.99 × 104 yr ∴ Q2 value of decay
60 × 24 × 60 × 365
= [( M X − Z M e ) − {M Y − ( Z − 1) M e } − M e ] c2
Thus, the bulbs glow for 4.99 × 104 yr.
= ( M X − M Y − 2M e ) c2
150. (d) Total target power = 200000 = 2 × 105 MW
154. (b) Force between neutrons is only attractive. Nuclear force
Total nuclear power = 10% of total
which is short range force.
10
= × 2 × 105 N N
100 ∴ For stable nuclides, either = 1 or >1
Z Z
= 2 × 104 MW N
Nuclides with < 1are least stable.
Energy produced/fission = 200 MeV Z
Efficiency of power plant = 25% 155. (b) For efficient energy transfer between 2 bodies, both
Energy converted into electrical energy per fission must be of comparable masses.
25 If a heavy nucleus is taken, then neutron rebounds with
= × 200 = 50 MeV
100 nearly same energy.
. × 10− 13 J
= 50 × 16 157. (d) λ A N OA = λ A N OB
Total electrical energy to be produced in per year GMm
158. (b) Given, F =
= 2 × 104 MW = 2 × 104 × 106 W r2
= 2 × 1010 W = 2 × 1010 J/s M = effective mass of hydrogen atom
B
= 2 × 1010 × 60 × 60 × 24 × 365 J/yr. = mass of electron + mass of proton −
c2
where, B is BE of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV.
 C H A P T E R

14
Semiconductor
Electronics;
Materials, Devices
and Simple Circuits
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Metals They have very low resistivity or high
conductivity, ρ ~ 10−2-10−8 Ωm, σ ~102 - 108 Sm −1 5. On the basis of purity, semiconductors are of two types
2. Semiconductors They have resistivity or (i) Intrinsic semiconductor It is a pure semiconductor
conductivity between metals and insulators. without any significant dopant species present.
i.e., ρ ~ 10− 5 - 106 Ωm, σ ~ 10+ 5 -10− 6 Sm −1 ne = nh = ni
where, ne and nh are number densities of electrons and
Types of Semiconductors holes respectively and ni is called intrinsic carrier
Types of semiconductors are given below concentration.
(i) Element semiconductors are available in An intrinsic semiconductor is also called an undoped
natural form, e.g., silicon and germanium. semiconductor or i-type semiconductor.
(ii) Compound semiconductors are made by (ii) Extrinsic semiconductor Pure semiconductor when doped
compounding the metals, e.g., CdS, GaAs, with the impurity is known as extrinsic semiconductor.
CdSe, InP, anthracene, polyaniline, etc. Extrinsic semiconductors are basically of two types
3. Insulators They have high resistivity or low (a) n-type semiconductor (b) p-type semiconductor
conductivity. Note Both the types of semiconductors are electrically neutral.
− 11 − 19 −1 6. In n-type semiconductor, majority charge carriers are
i.e., ρ ~ 10 - 10 Ωm, σ ~ 10
11 19
- 10 Sm
electrons and minority charge carriers are holes, i.e.,
4. Fermi energy It is the maximum possible ne > nh . Here, we dope Si or Ge with a pentavalent element,
energy possessed by free electrons of a then four of its electrons bond with the four silicon
material at absolute zero temperature neighbours, while fifth remains very weakly bound to its
(i.e., 0 K). parent atom.
402 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

7. In p-type semiconductor, majority charge carriers are (iii) Solar cell Solar cell is a p-n +
holes and minority charge carriers are electrons, i.e., junction diode which converts
p
nh > ne . In a p-type semiconductor, doping is done solar energy into electrical
with trivalent impurity atoms i.e., those atoms which energy. n
have three valence electrons in their valence shell. Its symbol is given by –
8. At equilibrium condition, nenh = ni2
9. Minimum energy required to create a hole-electron 16. Zener diode is a reverse biased heavily doped p-n
pair, hν ≥ E g , where E g is energy band gap. junction diode. It is operated in breakdown region.
10. A p-n junction is an arrangement made by a close Its symbol is given by and is used as
contact of n-type semiconductor and p-type voltage regulator.
semiconductor.
17. A transistor is a combination of two p-n junction
11. A semiconductor diode is basically a p-n junction joined in series. A junction transistor is known as
with metallic contacts provided at the ends for the bipolar junction transistor (BJT). Transistors are of
application of an external voltage. two types n-p-n and p-n-p. The central block thin and
A p-n junction diode is represented as the symbol. lightly doped is called ‘Base’ while the other
The direction of arrow indicates the p n electrodes are emitter and collectors.
conventional direction of current (when 18. The emitter-base junction is forward biased while
the diode is under forward bias). collector base junction is reversed biased.
V
12. The DC resistance of a junction diode, rDC = 19. The transistor can be in three configurations,
I
∆V common emitter (CE), common collector (CC) and
13. The dynamic resistance of junction diode, rAC =
∆I common base (CB).
14. Diode as rectifier The process of converting 20. The plot between IC and VCE for fixed IB is called
alternating voltage or current into direct voltage or output characteristics while the plot between IC and
current is called rectification. Diode is used as a IB with VBE fixed is known as input characteristics.
rectifier for converting alternating current or voltage
21. Transistor parameters in CE configuration are
into direct current or voltage.
∆ VBE
There are two ways of using a diode as a rectifier i.e., Input resistance, ri =
(i) Diode as a half-wave rectifier Diode conducts ∆ IB VCE = constant
corresponding to positive half cycle and does not
∆VCE
conduct during negative half cycle. Hence, AC is Output resistance, ro =
converted by diode into unidirectional pulsating ∆ IC IB = constant
DC. This action is known as half-wave rectification.
(ii) Diode as a full-wave rectifier In the full-wave  ∆I 
Current amplification factor, β =  C 
rectifier, two p-n junction diodes D1 and D2 are used.  ∆IB  V
CE = constant
Its working is based on the principle that junction
22. A transistor can be used as an amplifier. The voltage
diode offers very low resistance in forward bias and
gain of CE configuration is
very high resistance in reverse bias.
V  R
15. Optoelectronic devices Semiconductor diodes in AV =  o  = β C
which carriers are generated by photons.  Vi  RB
i.e., photo-excitation, such devices are known as where, RC and RB are respectively resistances in
optoelectronic devices. collector and base sides of the circuit.
These are as follows
23. In common base configuration, AV current gain is
(i) Light emitting diode (LED) It is a heavily doped ∆ IC
p-n junction diode which converts electrical energy α= .
into light energy. ∆ IE V = constant
CB
hν
+ – 24. Transistor can be used as an oscillator as well as a
Its symbol is given by switch (is cut-off or saturation state).
(ii) Photodiode A photodiode is a special 25. A logic gate is a digital electronic circuit which
type of junction diode used for detecting
follows a logical relationship between its input and
optical signals. It is a reverse biased p-n
output. A logic gate may have one or more inputs but
junction made from a photosensitive
has only one output.
material. Its symbol is given by
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 403

Logic gates follow Boolean algebra, which consists of (iv) NAND gate
three basic operations, namely AND ( A ⋅ B = Y ), NAND gate is the combination of AND gate and NOT
OR ( A + B = Y ) and NOT ( A = Y ) . gate. Boolean expression for NAND gate is given by

(i ) OR gate Boolean expression for OR gate is given Y = A ⋅B

by Y = A + B Logic symbol
Logic symbol A
NAND Y
A B
Y
B
(v) NOR gate
(ii ) AND gate Boolean expression for NOR gate is given by
Boolean expression for AND gate is given by Y = A+B
Y = A ⋅B The NOR gate is the combination of OR and NOT
Logic symbol gate given by
A Logic symbol
Y
B A
NOR Y
B
(iii ) NOT gate
(vi) XOR gate
Boolean expression for NOT gate is given byY = A
Boolean expression for output/input of XOR gate is
Logic symbol Y = A ⊕ B = A ⋅B + A ⋅B
Logic symbol
A Y
A
Y
B

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Classification of Metals,
Conductors and Semiconductors
1. For the flow of electrons in a vacuum tube, vacuum is 4. Bonding in a semiconductor is
required, because (a) metallic (b) ionic
(a) electrons are not ejected from cathode (c) van der Walls (d) covalent
(b) vacuum helps in extracting electrons from remaining
gas molecules or atoms 5. The SI unit of conductivity is
(c) in vacuum work function of cathode is reduced (a) ( Ω m )−1 (b) Ωm−1 (c) Sm−1 (d) S
(d) electrons may lose their energy on collision with air
molecules in their path
6. Correct one is
(a) σ semiconductor > σ insulator > σ metal
2. Semiconductor devices (diodes, transistors) are (b) σ metal > σ semiconductor > σ insulator
smaller than vacuum tubes because (c) σ semiconductor > σ metal > σ insulator
(a) they are made from silicon /germanium crystals (d) σ insulator > σ semiconductor > σ metal
(b) they have very high density (here, σ represents conductivity.)
(c) large crystals of semiconductors have large resistance
7. In a crystal, atomic separation is around 2 to 3A. At this
(d) flow of charge carriers are within the solid itself
separation due to interatomic interaction, energies of
3. If a solid transmits the visible light and has a low (a) outermost electrons are changed
melting point, it possesses (b) innermost electrons are changed
(a) metallic bonding (b) ionic bonding (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) covalent bonding (d) van der Walls bonding (d) None of the above
404 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

8. Following diagram shows energy band positions 11. Which of these is a true graph showing a relation between
in a semiconductor at 0 K. resistivity ρ and temperature for semiconductor?
Empty 4N Ω-m Ω-m
states Ec ρ ρ
Ec Half filled
(a) Eg (b) Eg
Ev Half filled (a) (b)
4N Ev
Filled states
–1 –1
K K
Eg Empty 1000/T 1000/T
Filled
Ec Ec
Ω-m Ω-m
(c) Eg (d) Filled ρ ρ

Ev Ev
Empty Eg Empty
(c) (d)
9. The splitting of 1s and 2s atomic energy levels
when many atoms come together to form a solid 1000/T
K
–1
1000/T
K
–1

is best represented by
12. There is no hole current in good conductors, because they
(a) have large forbidden energy gap
2s 2s (b) have no energy gap due to overlapping valence and
Energy

Energy

(a) (b) conduction bands

1s 1s (c) are full of electron gas
Atomic separation Atomic separation
(d) have no valence band
13. A solid having upper most energy band partially filled
with electrons is called
2s (a) insulator (b) semiconductor
Energy

Energy

(c) (d) 2s
(c) conductor (d) None of these
1s
1s
14. If the energy of a photon of sodium light ( λ = 580 nm )
Atomic separation Atomic separation equals the band gap of semiconductor, the minimum
energy required to create hole electron pair.
10. Forbidden energy gap in a semiconductor is (a) 1.5 eV (b) 3.2 eV
nearly equal to (c) 2.1 eV (d) 4.1 eV
(a) 1 eV (b) 6 eV (c) 0 eV (d) 3 eV

Topic 2
Intrinsic and Extrinsic Semiconductors
15. At elevated temperature, few of covalent bonds of Si (c) doped semiconductor
or Ge are broken and a vacancy in the bond is created. (d) None of the above
Effective charge of vacancy or hole is (Here, ne = number of free electrons, nh = number of free
(a) positive holes, ni = intrinsic carrier concentration)
(b) negative 17. If I is total current through an intrinsic semiconductor
(c) neutral and I e is electron current and I h is hole current, then
(d) sometimes positive and sometimes negative Ih Ie
(a) I e = (b) =I
16. In pure form, Ge or Si, a semiconductor is called I Ih
(a) intrinsic semiconductor, ne = nh = ni (c) I e − I h = I (d) I e + I h = I
(b) extrinsic semiconductor, ne = nh = ni
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 405

18. Energy band gap diagram for an intrinsic 26. Doping of intrinsic semiconductor is done
semiconductor at temperature T > 0 K is (a) to neutralise charge carriers
Holes (b) to increase the concentration of majority charge carriers
Ec Ec
(c) to make it neutral before disposal
(d) to carry out further purification
(a) Eg Electrons (b) Eg 27. An n-type and p-type silicon can be obtained by
Ev doping pure silicon with
Ev
(a) arsenic and phosphorous, respectively
Ec
(b) indium and aluminium, respectively
Ec (c) phosphorous and indium, respectively
(d) aluminium and boron, respectively
(c) Eg (d) Holes Eg
28. Which of the following statement is correct for an
Ev Ev n-type semiconductor?
(a) The donor level lies below the bottom of the conduction
Electrons
Electrons band
(b) The donor level lies closely above the top of the
19. In equilibrium condition, the rate of generation of valence band
electron-hole pairs (c) The donor level lies at the halfway mark of the
(a) is more than rate of recombination of electron and hole forbidden energy gap
pairs (d) None of the above
(b) is less than rate of recombination of electron and hole pairs
(c) equals to rate of recombination of electron and hole pairs
29. Number of electrons present in conduction band due
(d) is always zero
to doping
(a) shows a heavy increase with increase of temperature
20. In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, (b) shows a heavy decrease with increase of temperature
number of electrons and holes are (c) independent of change in ambient temperature
(a) equal (b) zero (c) unequal (d) infinite (d) reduces to zero at temperature above room temperature
21. A pure semiconductor behaves as a good conductor at 30. To make a p-type semiconductor, germanium is
(a) room temperature (b) low temperature doped with
(c) high temperature (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) gallium (b) boron
22. At absolute zero, Si acts as (c) aluminium (d) All of these
(a) non-metal (b) metal 31. In a p-type semiconductor, the majority and minority
(c) insulator (d) None of these charge carriers are respectively,
23. Si and Cu are cooled to a temperature of 300 K, then (a) protons and electrons
(b) electrons and protons
resistivity
(c) electrons and holes
(a) for Si increases and for Cu decreases (d) holes and electrons
(b) for Cu increases and for Si decreases
(c) decreases for both Si and Cu 32. Which statement is correct?
(d) increases for both Si and Cu (a) n -type germanium is negatively charged and p-type
germanium is positively charged
24. The energy gap for silicon is 1.14 eV and for zinc (b) both n -type and p-type germanium are neutrals
sulphide it is 3.6 eV. (c) n -type germanium is positively charged and p-type
From the above data, we conclude that germanium is negatively charged
(a) silicon is transparent and zinc sulphide is opaque (d) both n -type and p-type germanium are negatively charged
(b) silicon is opaque and zinc sulphide is transparent 33. If ne is number density of electrons in conduction band
(c) both ZnS and Si are transparent
and nh is number density of holes in valence band,
(d) both ZnS and Si are opaque
then for an extrinsic semiconductor at room
25. Doping is temperature, (ni = number density of intrinsic pairs)
(a) a process of adding an impurity to a pure semiconductor ne nh
(a) = ni2 (b) = ni2
(b) a process of obtaining semiconductor from its ore nh ne
(c) melting of a semiconductor
(c) ne nh = ni2 (d) ne + nh = ni2
(d) purification of a semiconductor
406 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

34. Carbon is more resistive than germanium and 43. Which of the following has negative temperature
silicon. Then, order of energy gap is coefficient of resistance?
(a) C > Ge > Si (b) C > Si > Ge (a) Metal (b) Insulator
(c) Si > GE > C (d) C = Si = Ge (c) Semiconductor (d) All of these
35. Let a pure Si crystal has 5 × 10 28 atoms m −3 . It is 44. The relation between the number of free electrons in
doped by parts per million concentration of pentavalent semiconductors ( n) and its temperature (T ) is
arsenic. If number of intrinsic pairs is1.5 × 1016 m −3 , (a) n ∝ T 2 (b) n ∝ T
then number of holes in doped crystal is (c) n ∝ T (d) n ∝ T 3 / 2
9 −3 16 −3
(a) 4.5 × 10 m (b) ~ 10 m
(c) 2.25 × 1032 m−3 (d) 5 × 1022 m−3 45. In extrinsic p and n-type, semiconductor materials, the
ratio of the impurity atoms to the pure semiconductor
36. If ne and nh are the number of electrons and holes atoms is about
in a semiconductor heavily doped with (a) 1 (b) 10−1
phosphorous, then (c) 10−4 (d) 10−7
(a) ne >> nh (b) ne < < nh (c) ne ≤ nh (d) ne = nh
46. The energy band diagrams for three semiconductor
37. ne and v d be the number of electrons and drift
samples of silicon are as shown. We can then assert that
velocity in a semiconductor. When the temperature
is increased, then
Electron
(a) ne increases and vd decreases energy
(b) ne decreases and vd increases
(c) both ne and vd increase
(d) both ne and vd decrease X Y Z
(a) sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been
38. For extrinsic semiconductor,
doped with a third group and a fifth group impurity,
(a) the conduction band and valence band overlap
respectively
(b) the gap between conduction band and valence band
(b) sample X is undoped while both samples Y and Z have
is more than 16 eV
been doped with a fifth group impurity
(c) the gap between conduction band and valence band
is near about 1 eV (c) sample X has been doped with equal amounts of third and
(d) the gap between conduction band and valence band fifth group impurities while samples Y and Z are undoped
will be 100 eV and more (d) sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been
doped with a fifth and a third group impurity, respectively
39. Three semiconductors are arranged in the
increasing order of their energy gap as follows. The 47. In an n-type semiconductor, which of the following
correct arrangement is statement is true? [NEET 2013]
(a) tin, germanium, silicon (b) tin, silicon, germanium (a) Electrons are majority charge carriers and trivalent atoms
(c) silicon, germanium, tin (d) silicon, tin, germanium are the dopants
(b) Electrons are minority charge carriers and pentavalent
40. When the electrical conductivity of semiconductor
atoms are the dopants
is due to the breaking of its covalent bonds, then (c) Holes are minority charge carriers and pentavalent atoms
the semiconductor is said to be are the dopants
(a) donor (b) acceptor (c) intrinsic (d) extrinsic
(d) Holes are majority charge carriers and trivalent atoms are
41. The forbidden energy gap in the energy bands of the dopants
germanium at room temperature is about
48. In an n-type silicon, which of the following statements is
(a) 1.1 eV (b) 0.1 eV (c) 0.67 eV (d) 6.7 eV
correct?
42. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The (a) Electrons are majority charge carriers and trivalent atoms
concentration of acceptor atom is ~ 10 21 atoms per are the dopants
m 3 . Given that the intrinsic concentration of (b) Electrons are minority charge carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants
electron hole pairs is ~ 1019 per m 3 , the
(c) Holes are minority charge carriers and pentavalent atoms
concentration of electrons in the specimen is are the dopants
(a) 1017 per m3 (b) 1015 per m3 (d) Holes are majority charge carriers and trivalent atoms are
(c) 104 per m3 (d) 102 per m3 the dopants
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 407

49. The number of silicon atoms per m 3 is 5 × 10 28 . This then the number of acceptor atoms in silicon per cubic
centimetre will be
is doped simultaneously with 5 × 10 22 atoms per m 3
(a) 2.5 × 1030 atoms per cm3
of arsenic and 5 × 10 20 per m 3 atoms of indium.
(b) 1.0 × 1013 atoms per cm3
Given that ni = 1.5 × 1016 m −3 .
(c) 1.0 × 1015 atoms per cm3
Number of electrons and holes (in per metre cube of
(d) 2.5 × 1036 atoms per cm3
sample) are respectively,
(a) 4.95 × 1022 , 4.54 × 109 (b) 4.54 × 109 , 4.54 × 109 51. The number of density of electrons and holes in pure
9
(c) 4.54 × 10 , 4.95 × 10 22 22
(d) 4.95 × 10 , 4.95 × 10 22 silicon at 27°C are equal and its value is
2.0 × 1016 m −3 on doping with indium the hole
50. A silicon specimen is made into a p-type
density increases to 4.5 × 10 22 m −3 , the electron
semiconductor by doping on an average, one indium density in doped silicon is
atom per 5 × 10 7 silicon atoms. If the number density (a) 10 × 109 m−3 (b) 8.89 × 109 m−3
of atoms in the silicon specimen is 5 × 10 28 atoms/m 3 , (c) 11 × 109 m−3 (d) 16.78 × 109 m−3

Topic 3
p-n Junction and Semiconductor Diode
52. A p- n junction contains 56. Potential difference of p and n-side which prevents
(a) a p-type semiconductor is joined with an n -type diffusion of electrons is called
semiconductor by glue (a) potential gradient
(b) a p-type semiconductor is bolted with an n -type (b) potential difference
semiconductor (c) barrier potential
(c) a p-type semiconductor is kept in touch with an n -type (d) depletion potential
semiconductor
(d) a p-type semiconductor is formed with an n -type 57. Can we take one slab of p-type semiconductor and
semiconductor on same semiconductor crystal wafer physically join it to another n-type semiconductor to
53. Due to diffusion, the space charge region on either get p -n junction?
side of p-n junction is developed. This space charge (a) Yes
region is called (b) No
(a) dilution region (b) diffusion region (c) It depends on the hole and electron concentrations on p
and n -side
(c) depletion region (d) ionic region
(d) Only when a p-type semiconductor is soldered with an
54. Thickness of depletion region is of order of n-type semiconductor
(a) ~10−7 m (b) ~10−10 m (c) ~10−9 m (d) ~10−3 m 58. The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is
55. Which of these graphs shows potential difference caused by
between p-side and n-side of a p-n junction in (a) drift of holes
equilibrium? (b) diffusion of charge carriers
(c) migration of impurity ions
(d) drift of electrons
(a) p-side n-side (b) p-side 59. The barrier potential of a p- n junction depends on
n-side
Junction Junction
(i) type of semiconductor material
plane plane (ii) amount of doping
(iii) temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
(c) p-side (d) p-side
n-side n-side [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii)
Junction Junction
plane plane (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
408 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

60. The electrical resistance of depletion layer is large 66. If V is applied potential difference in forward bias and
because V0 is barrier potential of a p-n junction, then effective
(a) of strong electric field barrier height under forward bias is
(b) it has a large number of charge carriers (a) V − V0 (b) V0 − V (c) V0 + V (d) V0
(c) it contains electrons as charge carriers
67. In forward bias, forward current obtained from the
(d) it has holes as charge carriers
p-n junction diode is
61. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the (a) due to injection of electrons in p-side
p-region to n-region because (b) due to injection of holes in n -side
(a) free electrons in the n-region attract them (c) both (a) and (b)
(b) they moves across the junction by the potential (d) due to flow of electrons from negative terminal of
difference supply to its positive terminal
(c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to 68. In a p-n junction diode,
hole concentration in n-region (a) the current in the reverse biased condition is generally
(d) All of the above very small
(b) the current in the reverse biased condition is small but
62. A Si based p-n junction has a depletion layer of that in forward biased condition is independent of the
thickness 1µm and barrier potential difference of bias voltage
n-side and p-side is 0.6 V. (c) the reverse biased current is strongly dependent on the
The electric field in the depletion region is applied bias voltage
(a) 0.6 Vm−1 (b) 6 × 10−4 Vm−1 (d) the forward biased current is very small in comparison
to reverse biased current
(c) 6 × 105 Vm−1 (d) 6 × 104 Vm−1
69. In a reverse biased p-n junction diode,
63. A diode is a (a) current under reversed bias is not very much dependent
(a) piece of a covalent crystal on applied voltage
(b) piece of a semiconductor crystal with metallic contacts (b) current under reversed bias is directly proportional to
provided at two ends applied voltage
(c) p-n junction with metallic contacts provided at two ends (c) current initially depends on applied voltage, then it
(d) piece of a metal which is sprayed over by a becomes independent
semiconductor (d) no current flows in reversed bias

64. Symbol of a p-n junction diode is an arrow, its 70. If reverse biasing potential is increased beyond a
direction indicates certain critical (breakdown) value, then
(a) diode gets destroyed due to overheating
(b) no current flows through the diode
(c) after breakdown a heavy current flows from p to n-side
(a) nothing its just a symbol
(d) potential barrier becomes zero
(b) direction of flow of electrons
(c) direction of conventional current when it is forward 71. Characteristic curve of a p-n junction is
biased I (mA) I (mA)
(d) direction of electric field

65. In the case of forward biasing of p-n junction, which (a) (b)
V (volts) V (volts)
one of the following figures correctly depicts the
direction of flow of charge carriers? I (µA) I (µA)

p n p n I (mA) I (mA)

(a) e- e- (b) e- e- (c) (d)

V (volts) V (volts)
Vp Vp
I (µA) I (µA)
p n p n
(c) (d) 72. Threshold or knee voltage for a forward biased
e- e- e- e- germanium and silicon diodes have respective values
(a) 0.2 V, 0.7 V (b) 0.7 V, 1.1 V
Vp Vp
(c) 1.2 V, 0.7 V (d) 0.7 V, 0.2 V
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 409

73. Diode primarily allows the flow of current only in one 79. In the circuit given below, the value of the current is
direction (forward bias). The forward bias resistance
+4 V P N 300 Ω +1 V
is low as compared to the reverse bias resistance. In a
circuit, a diode acts like a (a) 0 A (b) 10−2 A (c) 102 A (d) 10−3 A
(a) valve (b) switch
(c) amplifier (d) multi-way passage 80. A semiconductor X is made by
X Y
doping a germanium crystal with
74. Dynamic resistance of a diode is given by
arsenic ( Z = 33). A second
∆V ∆V
(a) rd = (b) rd = − semiconductor Y is made by doping
∆I ∆I germanium with indium ( Z = 49). The
Threshold voltage Breakdown voltage
(c) rd = (d) rd = two are joined end to end and connected to a battery
Current Current as shown. Which of the following statements is
75. V -I characteristics of a silicon diode is shown. correct?
I (mA) (a) X is p-type, Y is n-type and the junction is
30 forward biased
(b) X is n -type, Y is p- type and the junction is forward
Silicon biased
20 (c) X is p-type, Y is n-type and the junction is reverse
15 biased
(d) X is n-type, Y is p-type and the junction is reverse
10
biased
2Ω A S B
–10 V
81. The diode shown in the circuit is a
0 0.5 0.70.8 V (Volts) silicon diode. The potential
1 µA
difference between the points A
and B will be 6V
The ratio of resistance of diode at I D =15 mA and (a) 6 V (b) 0.6 V
VD = −10 V, is (c) 0.7 V (d) 0 V
(a) 10−3 (b) 10−4 (c) 10−5 (d) 10−6
82. The current through an ideal p-n p n 100 Ω
76. If no external voltage is applied across p-n junction, junction shown in the following
there would be circuit diagram will be 1V 2V
(a) no electric field across the junction (a) zero (b) 1 mA
(b) an electric field pointing from n-type to p-type side (c) 10 mA (d) 30 mA
across the junction
(c) an electric field pointing from p-type to n-type side 83. A potential barrier of 0.3 V exists across a
across the junction p-n junction. If the depletion region is 1µm wide,
(d) a temporary electric field during formation of p-n what is the intensity of electric field in this region?
junction that would subsequently disappear (a) 2 × 105 Vm−1 (b) 3 × 105 Vm−1
77. For the given circuit of p-n R (c) 4 × 105 Vm−1 (d) 5 × 105 Vm−1
junction diode, which of the
following statement is correct? 84. When the voltage drop across a p-n junction diode is
(a) In forward biasing, the voltage increased from 0.65 V to 0.70 V, the change in the
across R isV V diode current is 5 mA. The dynamic resistance of
(b) In forward biasing, the voltage across R is 2V diode is
(c) In reverse biasing, the voltage across R isV (a) 5 Ω (b) 10 Ω (c) 20 Ω (d) 25 Ω
(d) In reverse biasing, the voltage across R is 2V 30 Ω
85. The circuit shown in the figure
78. Which is reverse biased diode? contains two diodes each with a
30 Ω
forward resistance of 30 Ω and
(a) (b) – 20 V with infinite backward resistance. 50 Ω
5V If the battery is 3 V, the current
–10 V
through the 50 Ω resistance (in 3V

ampere) is
(c) 15 V (d) 20 V
(a) 0 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.03
10 V –5 V
Topic 4
Application of Junction Diode as a Rectifier and
Special Purpose p-n Junction Diodes
86. If an alternating voltage is applied across a diode in diode input) would be positive. This implies voltage
series with a load, then drop between A and centre tap is half. If a centre tap
(a) a continuous DC voltage appears across load transformer is used with 2 diodes for full-wave
(b) an AC voltage appears across load rectification, then output voltage of rectifier is
(c) a pulsating DC voltage appears across load
(d) no voltage appears across load A D1 Centre tap

87. Which of this is a half-wave rectifier circuit?

B D2
RL
Output

RL Centre tap transformer

(a) (b) RL
(a) 2 × secondary voltage of transformer
AC input
AC input (b) 2/ 3 × secondary voltage of transformer
(c) 1/ 2 × secondary voltage of transformer
(c) RL (d) RL (d) 3 / 2 × secondary voltage of transformer

AC input AC input 91. If two diodes are connected across two ends of
secondary windings of a centre tap transformer as
88. For any practical half-wave rectifier circuit, shown in figure. If inputs at A and B are as shown
(a) the reverse breakdown voltage of diode must be greater VA
than peak AC voltage
(b) the reverse breakdown voltage of diode must be greater t
than rms AC voltage
(c) the reverse breakdown voltage must be greater than VB
mean AC voltage
(d) the reverse breakdown voltage must be smaller than the t
rms AC voltage
89. Input to an half-wave rectifier is given as follows Then, output across load resistance will be
VL
Voltage at input

VL

(a) (c)
t t
t
VL VL

Its output will be (b) (d)

t t
V0 V0
(a) (b) 92. Output of a full-wave rectifier is
t t (a) pure DC voltage
(b) pure AC voltage
V0 V0 (c) pulsating DC voltage
(c) (d) (d) pulsating AC voltage
t t
93. Filters are used alongwith a full-wave rectifier to
(a) remove AC part from the output
90. In the course of rectification of the AC cycle when (b) remove DC part from the output
the voltage at A (upper diode input) becomes negative (c) mix AC and DC
with respect to centre tap, the voltage at B (lower (d) None of the above
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 411

94. In the given circuit, 102. High current observed at breakdown of a zener diode
due to emission and movement of electrons from p to
n-side is known as
AC Rectifier RL DC
C (a) thermionic emission (b) external field emission
(c) internal field emission (d) photoemission

Capacitor C is used 103. Correct circuit using a zener diode as a voltage

(a) for storing potential energy regulator is
(b) as a bypass to DC component to get AC in RL +
(c) to remove sparking Unregulated
Rs
(d) as a bypass to AC component to get DC in RL (a) voltage
Vi Regulated
95. In a full-wave rectifier, input AC current has a RL voltage
– VZ
frequency (ν). The output frequency of current is
(a) ν/ 2 (b) ν +
(c) 2ν (d) None of these Input Regulated
(b) voltage RL voltage
96. In comparison to a half-wave rectifier, the full-wave Vi VZ
rectifier done by centre tapping gives lower –
(a) efficiency (b) average
(c) output voltage (d) None of these +
Unregulated Regulated
97. In the figure alongside, the B (c) voltage
RL
voltage
Vi VZ
input is across the terminals A
and C and the output is across B –
and D. Then, the output is A C +
(a) zero Unregulated
Rs
(b) same as input (d) voltage
Vi Regulated
(c) full-wave rectified D RL voltage
(d) half-wave rectified – VZ

98. In case a single capacitor is connected in parallel with 104. For a zener regulated power supply, a zener diode
a load resistance of R L , it gets discharged through the with zener voltage V z = 6.0 V is used for regulation.
load. The rate of fall of voltage across the capacitor is The load current is to be 4.0 mA and the unregulated
proportional to input 10.0 V. The value of series resistor R s must be,
(a) RL C (b)
C it I Z / I 2 = 5
RL
1 R RS
(c) (d) L
R LC C

99. What is the ratio of output frequencies of full-wave RL VZ

rectifier and a half-wave rectifier, when an input of
frequency 50 Hz is fed at input?
(a) 167 Ω (b) 120 Ω
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(c) 250 Ω (d) 20 Ω
100. A zener diode which is used in reversed biased is
105. Optoelectronic devices are
used as a
(a) CFL’s
(a) voltage regulator (b) voltage rectifier
(b) light based semiconductor diodes
(c) current regulator (d) current rectifier
(c) bulbs
101. A zener diode differs from a p-n junction that (d) discharge tubes
(a) zener diode is made from very lightly doped 106. A photodetector is a
p-n junction
(a) photodiode used for detecting optical signals
(b) zener diode is made from a heavily doped p-n junction
(b) LED’s which are used for detection of infrared signals
(c) zener diode is made from a metal piece
(c) an evacuated tube consisting of a photosensitive cathode
(d) zener diode is made from a heavily doped p-type
semiconductor (d) None of the above
412 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

107. A photodiode converts 114. I -V characteristics of a solar cell is best represented by

(a) variation in intensity of light into current amplitude I I
variation VOC VOC
V V
(b) variation of current amplitude into variation in intensity (a) (b)
of emitted light
(c) variation of voltage into variation of current ISC ISC
(d) variation of intensity of light into variation of volume
I I
108. A photodiode in reverse Light VOC
V
VOC
V
biased is irradiated with (c) (d)
light of suitable frequency
and current in circuit is p n ISC ISC
measured.
µA 115. To fabricate solar cell, material used have an energy
Characteristics of diode
gap of
for different illumination R
(a) around 0.7 eV (b) less than 1 eV
intensities I 1 , I 2 , I 3 and
(c) around 1.5 eV (d) less than 0.7 eV
I 4 are drawn as follows.
mA 116. A p-n junction photodiode is fabricated from a
semiconductor with a band gap of 2.8 eV. It can
detect a wavelength nearing to
Reverse bias Volts (a) 5200 Å (b) 4400 Å (c) 6200 Å (d) 7500 Å
I1 117. For a photodiode, the conductivity increases when a
I2 wavelength less than 620 nm is incident on it. The
I3 band gap of crystal used to fabricate the diode is
I4 µA (a) 1.12 eV (b) 1.8 eV (c) 2.0 eV (d) 1.62 eV

Greatest intensity is 118. In an LED, when it glows, electron moves from A to

(a) I1 (b) I 2 (c) I 3 (d) I 4 B, when an appropriate bias is applied. A and B are
respectively,
109. When LED is forward biased, then electrons move (a) conduction band, valence band
from n to p and electron-hole combination occurs (b) valence band, conduction band
near junction plane. If E g is energy gap between (c) conduction band, connecting wires
conduction band and valence band, then released (d) connecting wires, conduction band
energy ( E ) due to electron-hole combination will be
(a) E = E g (b) E > E g (c) E ≤ E g (d) E ≥ E g 119. Photodetectors and LED’s are used in
(a) road construction works
110. An LED cannot be used in reverse biased as a voltage (b) optical telecommunication links
regulator because (c) power generation from falling water near dam
(a) reverse breakdown voltage is very low for them
(d) radio transmitters
(b) reverse breakdown voltage is very high for them
(c) they do not breakdown for any voltage 120. Two different semiconductors A and B are used to
(d) None of the above make ‘red’ and ‘violet’ LED’s, respectively. Then,
ratio of energy gaps of semiconductors must be
111. Semiconductors used to fabricate LED to produce
EA EA
visible light must have energy gap E g such that (a) >1 (b) <1
EB EB
(a) 1.1 eV < Eg (b) Eg > 3 eV
(c) 1.8 eV < Eg < 3 eV (d) 1.1 eV < Eg < 2.8 eV (c) E A = EB (d) E A > 3 eV and EB < 1.5 eV

112. Substance used to make red LEDs is 121. LED’s are not used for room lighting (although they
(a) silicon are used for automobile bulbs and in industrial
(b) germanium lighting) because
(c) gallium arsenide phosphide (a) our eyes are not comfortable with very intense light
(d) indium phosphide (b) our eyes are not comfortable with monochromatic light
(c) LED’s are much costlier than bulbs tubelights and
113. A solar cell is CFL’s
(a) photodetector (b) photovoltaic device (d) LED manufacture in mass production will be a very
(c) light emitting diode (d) photogenerator polluting process
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 413

122. The I -V characteristics of an LED is [JEE Main 2013]

(a) 1 × 1014 Hz (b) 20 × 1014 Hz
(c) 10 × 1014 Hz (d) 5 × 1014 Hz
RYGB
B
G 124. Identify the semiconductor devices whose
(a) I (b) YR characteristics are as given below in the order (i), (ii),
(iii), (iv). [JEE Main 2016]
O V O V I I
V O
- Red
- Yellow
(i) V (ii) V
I - Green
(c) I (d) R - Blue
Y
G
B
O V I I
Dark Resistance

123. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band

(iii) V (iv) V
gap of 2 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation Intensity
of light
that can be absorbed by the material is nearly Illuminated
(Take hc = 1240 eV-nm)

Topic 5
Junction Transistor
125. A transistor has 128. Let ‘•’ shows an electron and ‘ ’ shows a hole, then
(a) two doped regions forming a large p-n junction which of the following shows correct direction of
(b) three doped regions forming two p-n junctions motion of charge carriers?
(c) two p-n junctions connected by a conducting wire p n p
(d) None of the above
A.
126. For an n-p-n transistor shown below,
+ – + –
n p n
I II III
p n p
B.

Regions marked I, II and III are respectively, + – + –

(a) emitter,collector, base

(b) base, collector, emitter
(c) emitter, base, collector C. n p n
(d) collector, emitter, base – + – +
127. When a transistor is biased as follows.

n p n D. n p n
– + – +
– + – +
(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) A and C (d) B and D
Then, it is said to be in
129. In active state of a transistor, the emitter base junction
(a) solid state
acts as a ...A... resistance and base-collector junction
(b) active state
acts like a ...B... resistance. Here, A and B refer to
(c) inactive state
(a) low, low (b) low, high
(d) passive state
(c) high, low (d) high, high
414 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

130. Correct circuit to study input-output characteristics of 135. Input resistance ( ri ) of a transistor in CE
an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration is configuration is
 ∆V   ∆V 
(a)  BE  (b)  CE 
+ R2  ∆I B  VCE  ∆I B  V BE
µA
(a) R1
VBE –  ∆V   ∆V 
+ + (c)  BB  (d)  BC 
VBB – – VCC  ∆I B  V BE  ∆I B  VCE

– + 136. An n-p-n transistor is connected in common-emitter

mA
configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance
µA + R2 of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the
(b) R1 VCE voltage drop across it is 0.8V. If the current
VBE –
+
VBB – VCC amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of
the circuits is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power
gain of the amplifier will respectively be [NEET 2016]
(a) 3.69, 3.84 (b) 4, 4
mA
µA R2 (c) 4, 3.69 (d) 4, 3.84
(c) R1 VCE
VBE
⊥–
137. If β DC for a transistor is
+
VBB – 1+ VCC
∆IC ∆I B IC IB
(a) (b) (c) (d)
– + ∆I B ∆IC IB IC
mA 138. IC (mA)
µA R2
(d) R1 VCE 12
VBE
– ⊥ V 10
VBB + 1 CC
8 60 µA= IB = base current
50 µA
6 40 µA
4.5 30 µA
131. For a transistor, which is correct? 4
3.0 20 µA
(a) VCE = VCB + VBE (b) VBE = VCB + VCE 2 10 µA
(c) VCB = VCE + VBE (d) VCE = VCB − VBE VCE (volts)
2 4 6 8 10 12 14
132. For a silicon base transistor, VCE must be sufficiently
larger than The output characteristics of a typical n-p-n transistor
(a) 21 V (b) 0.7 V in CE configuration are shown. When VCE =10 V and
(c) 0.1 V (d) 20 V I C = 40
. mA, then ratio of β AC and β DC is
133. In an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration, when VCE (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
is increased, then 139. Vo
(a) I B increases and IC increases proportionally
I II III
(b) I B increases and IC remains constant
(c) effect on I B is negligible but IC increases
(d) Both I B and IC remain nearly constant
134. In a common-emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage
gain G, the transistor used has transconductance 0.6 V
Vi
. mho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is
003 for Si transistor
replaced with another one with transconductance In above transfer characteristics of an n-p-n transistor
0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be in CE configuration; cut-off region, active region,
[NEET 2013] saturation region respectively, are
2 (a) II, III and I
(a) G (b) 15
. G
3 (b) III, I and II
1 5 (c) III, II and I
(c) G (d) G
3 4 (d) I, II and III
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 415

140. For an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration, correct 1

T1
graph showing variation of output voltage with 2 Mutual inductance
variation of input voltage is (Coupling through
magnetic field)
Vo Vo 3
C
(a) (b) n-p-n T2
T2′ Output
L
Vi Vi 4

S1 (Switch)
Vo Vo
(b)
(c) (d)
Y Y′
IC IE
Vi Vi
X Z X′ Z′
t t
(i) (ii)
141. For an n-p-n transistor used as amplifier, the power (c)
gainAP is given by (AV = voltage gain)
(a) both IC , I E increase initially
1
(a) A P = (β AC )2 × AV (b) AP = AV (b) both IC , I E decrease but I E decreases
β AC (c) initially IC increases but I E decreases
1 (d) initially IC decreases but I E increases
(c) AP = β AC × AV (d) AP = AV
(β AC )2 145. Refer figure of Q. 144, after maximum collector
142. For a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage current, there is no further change in collector current,
across collector resistance of 2.0 kΩ is 2.0 V. the magnetic field around T2 ceases to grow. As soon
Suppose the current amplification factor of the as the field becomes static, there will be no further
transistor is 100. What should be the value of R B in feedback from T2 to T1 . Without continued feedback,
series with VBB supply of 2.0 V, if DC base current the ...A... current begins to fall. Consequently, collector
has to be 10 times the signal current? (VBE = 0.6 V) current decreases from Y to Z. However, a decrease of
(a) 14 kΩ (b) 24 kΩ collector current causes the magnetic field to decay
(c) 34 kΩ (d) 44 kΩ around the coil T2 . Thus, T1 is now seeing a ...B... field
143. In an n-p-n transistor, the collector current is 24 mA. in T2 (opposite form what it saw when field was
The possible emitter current (in mA) is growing at the initial start position).
Here, A and B refer to
E B C
n p n (a) emitter, rising (b) emitter, decaying
(c) collector, rising (d) collector, decaying
146. In a common emitter transistor, the current gain is 80.
If change in base current is 250 µA, then change in
collector current will be
(a) 36 (b) 20
(a) ( 80 × 250 ) µA (b) ( 250 − 80 ) µA
(c) 16 (d) 6
(c) ( 250 + 80 ) µA (d) ( 250 / 80 ) µ A
144. For tuned collector oscillator, using an n-p-n transistor,
from rise and fall (or built up) of I C , I E current graphs. 147. In case of an n-p-n transistor, the E B C
n p n
It can be concluded collector current is always less
than the emitter current because
Input (a) collector side is reverse biased
Transistor Output and emitter side is forward biased
amplifier
(b) after electrons are lost in the base and only remaining
ones reach the emitter back
Feedback (c) collector side is forward biased and emitter side is
network
reverse biased
(a) (d) collector being reverse biased attracts less electrons
416 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

148. In a transistor circuit shown here, the base current is 152. For a common-emitter n-p-n transistor following is a
35 µA. true relationship between I B and I C . In active region.
IC IC nt
s ta
VCC =constant
c on
(a) (b) E
=
RL VC
Rb
IB IB

9V IC VCE =constant IC
VC
The value of resistance R b is E=
co
(c) (d) ns
(a) 123.5 kΩ ta n
t
(b) 257 kΩ IB IB
(c) 380.5 kΩ
(d) cannot be found from given data 153. The current gain for a transistor working as common
base amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is
149. For the given circuit,
7.2 mA, then the base current is
(a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA
154. The power gain for common base amplifier is 800 and
the voltage amplification factor is 840. The collector
L1 L2
current when base current is 1.2 mA, is
(a) 24 mA (b) 12 mA (c) 6 mA (d) 3 mA
C
155. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a
Frequency of oscillation is  π
voltage gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos 15 t +  . The
1 1 1  3
(a) f = (b) f =
2π ( L1 + L 2 ) C 2π ( L1 − L 2 ) C corresponding output signal will be [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
 π  2π 
1 1 (a) 300 cos 15 t +  (b) 75 cos 15 t + 
(c) f = (d) f =  3  3
2π L1 L 2 ⋅ C  L1 + L 2 
2π  C  5π   4π 
 2  (c) 2 cos 15 t +  (d) 300 cos 15 t + 
 3  3
150. For the given circuit, if current amplification factor 156. A transistor has a current gain of 30. If the collector
β = 90 andVBE = 0.7 V resistance is 6 kΩ, input resistance is 1 kΩ, its
voltage gain is
2 kΩ
(a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 45 (d) 360
157. The input resistance of a transistor is 1000 Ω on
RB + + charging its base current by10µA, the collector current
4V – 9V increases by 2 mA. If a load resistance of 5 kΩ is used in
– the circuit, the voltage gain of the amplifier is
3V
(a) 100 (b) 500 (c) 1000 (d) 1500
IB IC
158. In an n- p-n circuit transistor, the collector current is
10 mA. If 80% electrons emitted reach the collector,
Then, base resistance R B is then
(a) 180 kΩ (b) 185 kΩ (a) the emitter current will be 7.5 mA
(c) 82 kΩ (d) 190 kΩ (b) the base current will be 2.5 mA
(c) the base current will be 3.5 mA
151. A circuit containing transistor is such that I B =10µA (d) the emitter current will be 15 mA
and I C = 5 mA, 159. When the voltage drop across a p-n junction diode is
(a) transistor can be used as amplifier with β DC = 10 increased from 0.65 V to 0.70 V, then change in the
(b) transistor can be used as amplifier with β DC = 100 diode current is 5 mA. The dynamic resistance of the
(c) transistor can be used as amplifier with β DC = 250 diode is
(d) transistor cannot be used as amplifier (a) 20 Ω (b) 50 Ω (c) 10 Ω (d) 80 Ω
Topic 6
Digital Electronics and Logic Gates
160. Analog signals are 165. Inputs to a NAND gate are A and B are made as below.
(a) continuous waveforms (b) discrete value signals t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
1
(c) intermittent signals (d) erratic waveforms
A
161. Digital signals are 0
(a) continuous waveforms
1
(b) discrete value signals
B
(c) intermittent signals 0
(d) erratic waveforms
Output of the NAND gate is
162. A NOT gate is called an invertor, because (a)
(a) it produces an output which changes with time
(b) it produces 1 as output when input is 0 and vice-versa (b)
(c) it produces no output for any input
(d) it has only a single input (c)

163. Truth table for an OR gate is (d)

t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
(a) A B Y (b) A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 0 166. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of
1 0 0 1 0 1 current flowing through AB is [NEET 2016]
0 1 0 0 1 1
A 1 kΩ B
1 1 1 1 1 0
+4 V –6V
(c) A B Y (d) A B Y (a) 10−2 A (b) 10−1 A
0 0 1 0 0 0 (c) 10−3 A (d) 0 A
1 0 0 1 0 1
0 1 0 0 1 1 167. Inputs A and B are given to show combination of gates
1 1 0 1 1 1
A
A t
164. Truth table for the logic gate whose symbol shown is 1 2 3 4 5 C

B t B
1 2 3 4 5
A
Y
B Then, output C is
(a) A B Y (b) A B Y (a)
0 0 0 0 0 0 t
1 2 3 4 5
1 0 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0 (b)
t
1 1 1 1 1 1
(c)
(c) A B Y (d) A B Y t
0 0 1 0 0 1 (d)
1 0 0 1 0 0 t
1 2 3 4 5
0 1 0 0 1 0
1 1 0 1 1 0
418 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

168. The output ( X ) of the logic circuit shown in figure 170. In the given figure, a diode D is D 100 Ω

will be [NEET 2013] connected to an external R

A
X resistance R =100 Ω and an emf
B of 3.5 V. If the barrier potential
(a) X = A ⋅ B (b) X = A ⋅ B developed across the diode is
3.5 V
(c) X = A ⋅ B (d) X = A + B 0.5 V, the current in the circuit
will be [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
169. See the circuit shown in the figure. Name the gate (a) 30 mA (b) 40 mA (c) 20 mA (d) 35 mA
that the given circuit resembles.
+5 V 171. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct
choice for the input is [NEET 2016]
D1 A
A V0 B Y
C
B
D2 (a) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(c) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (d) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(a) NAND (b) AND (c) OR (d) NOR

Special Format Questions

I. Assertion and Reason 176. Assertion
A X
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 172-176) In the following Y
B
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following This circuit acts as OR gate.
statements, choose the correct one. Reason Truth table for two input OR gate is
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is A B Y
the correct explanation of Assertion.
0 0 0
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion. 0 1 1
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 1 0 1
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. 1 1 1

172. Assertion The conductivity of an intrinsic

semiconductor depends on its temperature. II. Statement Based Questions Type I
Reason The conductivity of an intrinsic ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 177-187) In the following
semiconductor is slightly higher than that of a lightly questions, a statement I is followed by a corresponding
doped p-type semiconductor. statement II. Of the following statements, choose the
173. Assertion A zener diode is used to obtain voltage correct one.
regulation. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Reason When zener diode is operated in reverse bias and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
after a certain voltage (breakdown voltage), the
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but
current suddenly increases, but potential difference Statement II is not the correct explanation of
across diode remains constant. Statement I.
174. Assertion In a transistor, the base is made thin. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Reason A thin base makes the transistor stable. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

175. Assertion In an oscillator, the feedback is in the 177. Statement I An electron on p-side of a p - n
same phase which is called as positive feedback. junction moves to n-side just an instant after drifting
Reason If the feedback voltage is in opposite phase, of charge carriers occurs across junction plane.
the gain is greater than one. Statement II Drifting of charge carriers reduces
the concentration gradient across junction plane.
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 419

178. Statement I In equilibrium condition, p-side of a p-n 187. Statement I A logic gate is a digital circuit.
junction is at positive potential. Statement II They are called gates, because they do
Statement II A p-type semiconductor contains more not allow current through them.
holes than electrons.
Statement Based Questions Type II
179. Statement I The applied voltage (in forward bias of a
p-n junction) mostly drops across the depletion region 188. Semiconductor devices have the advantage over
and the voltage drop across the p-side and n-side of vacuum tubes of
the junction is negligible. I. small size. II. long life and reliable.
Statement II Resistance of depletion region is large III. low power use. IV. low cost.
compared to resistance of n or p-side. Advantages of semiconductor devices are
180. Statement I In forward bias, as voltage increases (a) I, II, III and IV (b) II, III and IV
beyond threshold voltage, the forward current (c) I, III and IV (d) I and IV
increases significantly. 189. Consider four statements.
Statement II By Ohm’s law states V ∝ I. I. Inside crystal, because of difference of position, each
electron has different energy; this makes energy bands
181. Statement I A diode can be used to rectify alternating
in crystals.
voltages.
II. Energy levels of valence electrons are included in
Statement II A p-n junction allows current to pass valence band.
only when it is in reverse bias.
III. Energy level above the valence band is conduction band.
182. Statement I To filter out AC ripple from a given IV. In metals, conduction band and valence band overlap.
pulsating DC voltage, an inductor is connected in Correct statements are
series and a capacitor is connected in parallel with
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
load resistance.
(c) II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
Statement II For AC inductor has high reactance and
a capacitor has a low reactance when frequency is high. 190. Due to diffusion of electrons from n to p-side,

183. Statement I A solar cell is made in wafer’s shape I. electron-hole combination across p - n junction occurs.
(of large area). II. an ionised acceptor is left in the p-region.
Statement II By increasing area, work-function of III. an ionised donor is left in the n-region.
electron is decreased. IV. electrons of n-side comes to p-side and electron-hole
combination takes place in p-side.
184. Statement I When a light based p-n junction is
Correct options are
radiated with light of frequency ν such that
(a) I and II (b) II and III
hν > E g , it produces an emf with p side becoming
(c) II and IV (d) II, III and IV
more negative than n-side.
Statement II Junction field separates electron-hole 191. Which of the given statements are correct regarding
pairs generated due to photon absorption and sweep unbiased p-n junction?
them to different regions. I. Drift and diffusion currents occur p to n-side.
II. Initially, diffusion current is large and drift current is
185. Statement I In a typical transistor, I E = I C + I B
small.
⇒ I E ≈ IC . III. Finally, diffusion and drift currents grow to be equal in
Statement II Base region of a transistor is very thin magnitude.
and lightly doped with I B current small, collector IV. Under equilibrium there is no net current across p-n
current I C is large. junction plane.
186. Statement I When an n-p-n transistor in CE (a) I and IV (b) I, II and III
configuration is being used as a switch, it is operated (c) II, III and IV (d) All of these
in cut-off region or in saturation region. 192. Which of these are correct?
Statement II In cut-off region, here Vi is low but Vo I. In forward biasing, holes from p-side crosses junction
is high. In saturation region, here Vi is high but Vo is and reach n-side.
low. II. In forward biasing, electrons from n-side crosses
junction and reach p-side.
420 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

III. In n-side, holes are minority charge carriers. 196. In an oscillator,

IV. In p-side, electrons are minority charge carriers. I. we get AC output without any external input signal.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV II. output is self sustained.
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
III. feedback can be achieved by inductive coupling
193. Consider the following statements I and II and (through mutual inductance) or L-C or R-C networks.
identify the correct choice of the given answers. Incorrect statement is
I. The width of the depletion layer in a p-n junction diode (a) Only I
increases in forward biased. (b) Only II
II. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the fermi energy level is (c) Only III
exactly in the middle of the forbidden energy gap. (d) None of these
(a) I is true and II is false (b) Both I and II are false
197. Which of these gates can be formed using a NOR gate?
(c) I is false and II is true (d) Both I and II are true
I. AND II. OR
194. Following of these are circuits used for full-wave
III. NOT IV. NAND
rectification,
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I, II and IV (d) All I, II, III, and IV
I. AC RL
mains
III. Matching Type
198. Before invention of transistor, vacuum tubes were
RL used and these were named according to number of
II. AC
mains electrodes they have.
Now, match these with number of electrodes
Column I Column II
III.
RL A. Pentode 1. 2

B. Tetrode 2. 3

C. Triode 3. 4
RL
D. Diode 4. 5
IV.
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV (c) 3 4 1 2
195. For the circuit given, an n-p-n transistor is being used (d) 4 3 2 1
as a switch in CE configuration. 199. Match the elements or compounds with their
RB respective energy gaps values. (Energy gap existing
B C IC
RC
between conduction and valence bands)
IB +
E
IE Vo
Vi – Column I Column II
VBB
VCC
A. Diamond 1. 1.1 eV

B. Aluminium 2. 0.71 eV
Which of the following are correct? C. Germanium 3. 0.03 eV
I. VBB = I B R B + VBE
II. VCE = VCC − I C RC D. Silicon 4. 6 eV

III. Vi = I B R B + VBE A B C D
IV. Vo = VCC − I C RC (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 421

200. Following shows a plot of potential difference of 203. Match the inputs of Column I with their respective
n-side and p-side of a p-n junction (battery, in outputs from Column II for a NOR gate
forward biased)
Column I Column II
1 A. 0, 0 1. 0
2 B. 0, 1 2. 1
Vn – Vp

3 C. 1, 0
D. 1, 1

A B C D A B C D
Then, match the following columns. (a) 1 1 2 2 (b) 1 1 1 2
(c) 2 2 2 1 (d) 2 1 1 1
Column I Column II
204. Match the following Column I with Column II.
A. Without battery 1. 1 Column I Column II
B. Low potential battery 2. 2
A. n-p-n transistor 1.
C. High potential battery 3. 3

A B C A B C
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3 B. p-n-p transistor 2.
N
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 2
201. Match the following columns.
E C
Column I Column II C. Light emitting diode 3.

A. Moderate size and heavily doped 1. Base B

B. Very thin and lightly doped 2. Collector E C

D. Zener diode 4.
C. Moderately doped and of large size 3. Emitter

B
A B C
(a) 1 2 3 A B C D A B C D
(b) 1 3 2
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 2 1
202. Match the following symbols with their names. IV. Passage Based Questions
Column I Column II ■ Directions (Q. Nos. 205-209) These questions are
A. 1. OR based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below.
2. AND
B. The input and output resistances in a common-base
amplifier circuits are 400 Ω and 400 kΩ, respectively.
3. NAND The emitter current is 2 mA and current gain is 0.98.
C.
205. The collector current is
4. NOR
D. (a) 1.84 mA (b) 1.96 mA
(c) 1.2 mA (d) 2.04 mA
5. NOT
E. 206. The base current is
(a) 0.012 mA (b) 0.022 mA
A B C D E (c) 0.032 mA (d) 0.042 mA
(a) 1 2 3 4 5
(b) 3 1 2 4 5 207. Voltage gain of transistor is
(c) 5 1 2 5 4 (a) 960 (b) 970
(d) 5 1 2 3 4 (c) 980 (d) 990
422 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

208. Power gain of transistor is 214. Which of the following statement concerning the
(a) 950 (b) 960 (c) 970 (d) 980 depletion zone of an unbiased p-n junction is (are) true?
(a) The width of the zone is independent on the densities of
209. If peak voltage of input AC source is 0.1 V. The peak the dopants (impurities)
voltage of the output will be (b) The width of the zone is dependent on the densities of
(a) 9.8 V (b) 98 V (c) 980 V (d) 970 V the dopants
■ Directions (Q. Nos. 210-211) These questions are (c) The electric field in the zone is produced by the ionized
based on the following situation. Choose the correct dopant atoms
options from those given below. (d) The electric field in the zone is produced by the electrons
in the conduction band and the holes in the valence band
Three ideal p - n junction diodes D1 , D 2 and D3 are
connected as shown in the circuit. The potentials V A 215. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon should be
and V B can be changed. doped to make a p-type semiconductor, are those of
(a) phosphorus (b) boron
D1 R
(c) antimony (d) aluminium
D2 R 216. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a
constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all current and a
D3 R
maximum power rating of 100 milliwatt. The value of
R/4 R/4 maximum current in the circuit is I when voltage
across resistance R is VR and the value of resistance in
VA VB
R, thus which of the following are correct?
R D
i
210. If V A is kept at −10 V and VB at −5 V, the effective
resistance between A and B becomes
(a) R (b) R / 2 (c) 3R (d) 3R / 2
211. If V A = −5 V and VB = −10V, then the resistance
1.5 V
between A and B will be
(a) R (b) R / 2 (c) 3R (d) 3R / 2 (a) I = 200 mA,VR = 1 V (b) I = 200 mA, R = 5 Ω
(c) I = 100 mA,VR = 2 V (d) I = 100 mA, R = 10 Ω
V. More than One Option Correct 217. In an n- p- n transistor circuit, the collector current is
212. If the lattice constant of this semiconductor is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the
decreased, then which of the following are incorrect? collector
(a) the emitter current will be 9 mA
Conduction
bandwidth Ec (b) the base current will be 1 mA
(c) the emitter current will be 11 mA
Band gap (d) the base current will be −1mA
Eg

Valence 218. Consider the following circuit. It VBE = 0.7 V

Ev
bandwidth

(a) All Ec , Eg , Ev increase

(b) Ec and Ev increase, but Eg decrease 2 kΩ
(c) Ec and Ev decrease, but Eg increase
(d) All Ec , Eg , Ev decrease RB +
4V 9V
213. Choose correct option(s) from the following.
(a) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are
–
3V
insulators
(b) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with
increase in temperature
(c) In conductors the valence and conduction bands may
overlap and β = 90, then which of the following are correct?
(d) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with (a) IC = 2.5 mA (b) I B = 27.8 mA
increase in temperature (c) RB = 82 kΩ (d) IC = 12
. mA
 NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions
NCERT 225. For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain
219. When a forward bias is applied to a p- n junction. It (a) remains constant for all frequencies
(a) raises the potential barrier (b) is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the
(b) reduces the majority carrier current to zero middle frequency range
(c) lowers the potential barrier (c) is low at high and low frequencies and constant at mid
(d) None of the above frequencies
(d) None of the above
220. For transistor action, which of the following statements
are correct? 226. For a CE-transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage
(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar across the collector resistance of 2 kΩ is 2 V. Suppose
size and doping concentrations the current amplification factor of the transistor is
(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped 100. Find the input signal voltage and base current, if
(c) The emitter junction is forward biased and collector the base resistance is 1kΩ
junction is reverse biased (a) Vin = 1V, I B = 5 µA (b) Vin = 0.01V, I B = 10 µA
(d) Both the emitter junction as well as the collector (c) Vin = 15
. V, I B = 5 µA (d) Vin = 13
. V, I B = 10 µA
junction are forward biased
221. In an n-type silicon, which of the following 227. Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in
statements is true? series (cascaded). The first amplifier has a voltage gain
(a) Electrons are majority charge carriers and trivalent of 10 and the second has a voltage gain of 20. If the
atoms are the dopants input signal is 0.01 V, calculate the output AC signal.
(b) Electrons are minority charge carriers and pentavalent (a) 2 V (b) 3 V (c) 4 V (d) 5 V
atoms are the dopants 228. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the energy gap E g is
(c) Holes are minority charge carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants
1.2 eV. Its hole mobility is much smaller than electron
(d) Holes are majority charge carriers and trivalent atoms mobility and independent of temperature. What is the
are the dopants ratio between conductivity at 600 K and that at
300 K?
222. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence
electrons each. These are characterised by valence Assume that the temperature dependence of intrinsic
and conduction bands separated by energy band gap carrier concentration ni is given by
respectively equal to ( E g )C , ( E g )Si and ( E g )Ge .  Eg 
Which of the following statement is true? ni = no exp −  
 2k B T 
(a) ( Eg ) Si < ( Eg ) Ge < ( Eg ) C (b) ( Eg ) C < ( Eg ) Ge > ( Eg ) Si
where no is a constant.
(c) ( Eg ) C > ( Eg ) Si > ( Eg ) Ge (d) ( Eg ) C = ( Eg ) Si = ( Eg ) Ge
(a) 0.5 × 102 (b) 2.1 × 103
223. In an unbiased p- n junction, holes diffuse from the
(c) 1.1 × 105 (d) 3.2 × 104
p-region to n-region because
(a) free electrons in the n-region attract them 229. In a p-n junction diode, the current I can be expressed as
(b) they move across the junction by the potential difference eV
(c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to
I = I 0 exp −1
kBT
n-region
(d) All of the above where, I 0 is called the reverse saturation current. V is
the voltage across the diode and is positive for
224. Identify the logical operations carried out by the two
forward bias and negative for reverse bias and I is
circuits given respectively are
the current through the diode, k B is the Boltzmann
constant (8.6 × 10 −5 eV/K) and T is the absolute
temperature. If for a given diode I 0 = 5 × 10 −12 A
and T = 300 K, then
what will be the forward current at a forward voltage
(A) (B) of 0.6 V?
(a) 0.063A (b) 0.832A
(a) A-AND, B-NOT (b) A-AND, B-OR (c) 0.0763A (d) None of these
(c) A-NAND, B-NOT (d) A-NOT, B-OR
424 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

230. A hole is 236. In the depletion region of a diode,

(a) an anti-particle of electron I. there are no mobile charges.
(b) a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond II. equal number of holes and electrons exist making the
(c) absence of free electrons region neutral.
(d) an artificially created (particle) III. recombination of electron and holes takes place.
IV. immobile charged ions exists.
NCERT Exemplar The correct options are
231. Conductivity of a semiconductor increases with (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
increase in temperature, because (c) I, II and IV (d) I, III and IV
(a) number density of free charge carriers increases
237. To reduce the ripples in a rectifier circuit with
(b) relaxation time increases
capacitor filter, which of these must be done?
(c) both number density of free charge carriers and
relaxation time increases I. R L should be increased.
(d) number density of free charge carriers increases II. Input frequency should be decreased.
relaxation time decreases but effect of decrease in III. Input frequency should be increased.
relaxation time is much less than increase in number IV. Capacitors with high capacitance should be used.
density
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
232. Assuming diodes to be ideal, (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
A 238. What happens during regulation action of a zener diode?
–10 V R D1 D2 B
I. The current and voltage across the zener remains
(a) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased, so constant.
current flows from A to B II. The current through series resistance ( R s ) changes.
(b) D2 is in forward bias and D1 is in reverse bias and III. The zener resistance is constant.
hence no current flows from B to A and vice-versa IV. The resistance offered by zener changes.
(c) D1 and D2 both are in forward bias, so current flows Correct ones are
from A to B
(a) I and IV (b) II and III (c) II and IV (d) I and II
(d) D1 and D2 both are in reverse bias, so no current flows
from A to B 239. The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode
233. A 220 V AC supply is connected between points A is more likely to occurs due to
and B. I. large velocity of minority charge carriers, if the doping
A is small.
II. large velocity of minority charge carriers, if the doping
~220 V AC C
is large.
B III. strong electric field in depletion region, if the doping
concentration is small.
What will be potential difference across capacitor C?
IV. strong electric field in depletion region, if the doping
(a) 220 V (b) 110 V (c) 0 V (d) 220 2 V concentration is large.
234. Output of the circuit shown below Correct ones are
Vm sin ωt

will be (a) I and IV (b) II and III

(a) zero all the times (c) I and III (d) II and IV
(b) like half wave rectifier with 240. Consider an n-p-n transistor with its base-emitter
positive cycles in output
junction forward biased and collector base junction
(c) like half wave rectifier with negative cycles in output
reverse biased, which of these are correct?
(d) like that of a full wave rectifier
I. Electrons cross over from emitter to collector.
235. In the circuit shown, the voltage difference between A II. Holes move from base to collector.
and B it the diode forward voltage drop is 0.3V
III. Electrons move from emitter to base.
IV. Electrons from emitter move out of base without going
to collector.
0.2 mA 5k Ω 5k Ω
(a) I and III (b) I and II
A B
(c) I and IV (d) II and III
(a) 1.3 V (b) 2.3 V (c) 0 (d) 0.5 V
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 425

241. Base biased CE transistor has the transfer (c) A B Y (d) A B Y

characteristics as shown 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 1
Vo
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 0

243. In an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration,

Vi
I C =10 mA. If 95% of electrons from emitter reaches
0 0.6 V 2V the collector, which of these are correct?
Which of the following statements are correct? I. I E = 8 mA II. I E = 10.53 mA
I. At Vi = 0.4 V, transistor is in active state. III. I B = 0.53 mA IV. I B = 2 mA
II. At Vi = 1 V, transistor can be used as an amplifier. (a) I and IV (b) II and IV
III. At Vi = 0.5V, it can be used as a switch turned off. (c) II and III (d) I and III
IV. At Vi = 2.5V, it can be used as a switch turned on. 244. When an electric field is applied across a
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV semiconductor, then
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, III and IV I. electrons move from lower energy level to higher
242. For given circuit, truth table is energy level in the conduction band.
II. electrons move from higher energy level to lower
A energy level in the conduction band.
III. holes in the valence band move from higher energy
Y
level to lower energy level.
IV. holes in the valence band move from lower energy
B level to higher energy level.
Out of these, correct statements are
(a) A B Y (b) A B Y (a) I and III
0 0 1 0 0 1 (b) I and II
0 1 0 0 1 0 (c) II and IV
1 0 1 1 0 0 (d) I and IV
1 1 0 1 1 1

Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c)10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a)
16. (a)17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24 (b)25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (d)32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a)40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (d)47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (a)55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (c)62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a)70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d)
76. (b)77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (b)85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (c)
91. (d)92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (b)
100. (a) 101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (a) 105. (b)
106. (a)
107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (a) 111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (d)
115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (a) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (b)
122. (a) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (b)
130. (a) 131. (a) 132. (b) 133. (c) 134. (a) 135. (a)
136. (d)
137. (c) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (a) 141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (a) 144. (a)
145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (c)
152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (b) 157. (c) 158. (b) 159. (c)
160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (b)
166. (a)
167. (d) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (c)
175. (c) 176. (a) 177. (c) 178. (c) 179. (a) 180. (b)
181. (c)
182. (a) 183. (c) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (a) 187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (d)
190. (d) 191. (c) 192. (d) 193. (c) 194. (b) 195. (d)
196. (d)
197. (d) 198. (d) 199. (d) 200. (a) 201. (c) 202. (d) 203. (d) 204. (a)
205 (b) 206. (d) 207. (c) 208. (b) 209. (b) 210. (d)
211. (a)
212. (a,b, 213. (a,b, 214. (b,c 215. (b,d 216. (a,b 217. (b,c 218. (a,b, 219. (c)
220. (b,c 221. (c) 222. (c) 223. (c) 224. (b) 225. (c)
d) c) ) ) ) ) c) )
226. (b) 227. (a) 228. (c) 229. (a) 230. (b) 231. (d) 232. (b) 233. (d) 234. (b) 235. (b) 236. (c) 237. (b) 238. (c) 239. (a) 240. (a)
 Hints and Explanations
1. (d) In a vacuum tube, the electrons are supplied by a heated 9. (c) Energy level splits into more finer levels and for many
cathode and the controlled flow of these electrons in vacuum atoms they form nearly continuous bands.
is obtained by varying the voltage between its different 10. (d) For a semiconductor, 0 < Eg ≤ 3 eV
electrodes.
Vacuum is required in the inter-electrode space; otherwise For metal Eg ~ 0 and for insulator Eg > 3 eV.
the moving electrons may lose their energy on collision with Forbidden energy gap in semiconductor is maximum energy
the air molecules in their path. gap allowed.
2. (d) The supply and flow of charge carriers in the 11. (d) For a semiconductor, conductivity increases with
semiconductor devices are within the solid itself. temperature or more electron-hole pairs are created due to
No external heating or large evacuated space is required by thermal agitation.
the semiconductor devices, so they have small sizes. 1 1
So, ρ∝ ⇒ σ ∝T ⇒ ∝T
3. (d) A van der Waals solid transmits light and has a low T ρ
melting point. 12. (b) In good conductors, which are metals there is no gap
4. (d) Semiconductors have 4 valency and so they form between valence band and conduction band. Hence, no holes
exist.
covalent bonds.
13. (c) In a conductor, uppermost band is occupied by
5. (c) The SI unit of conductivity is Siemen per metre (Sm−1 ).
conduction electrons. Uppermost band is conduction band.
6. (b) hc 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
14. (c) Using E = Eg = = J
(i) Metal They possess very low resistivity (or high λ 580 × 10−9
conductivity).
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
ρ ~ 10−2 − 10−8 Ω -m = eV = 2.1eV
2 8 −1
580 × 10−9 × 1.6 × 10−19
σ ~ 10 − 10 Sm
15. (a) In semiconductor as the temperature increases, more
(ii) Semiconductor They have resistivity or conductivity thermal energy becomes available to electrons and some of
intermediate to metal and insulator. these electrons may break away (becoming free electrons
ρ ~ 10−5 − 106 Ω-m contributing to conduction).
σ ~ 105 − 10−6 Sm−1 The thermal energy effectively ionises only a few atoms in
the crystalline lattice and creates a vacancy in the bond .
(iii) Insulator They have high resistivity (or low These holes behave as positive charge carriers.
conductivity).
16. (a) Pure semiconductors are called intrinsic semiconductors
ρ ~ 1011 − 1019 Ω-m
n e = n n = n i.
σ ~ 10−11 − 10−19 Sm−1 17. (d) Total current is the sum of hole current and electron
As, 108 > 105 > 10−19 ,σ metal > σ semiconductor > σ insulator current in semiconductor. Electrons move opposite to hole,
but current in same direction.
7. (a) Due to atomic interactions, the energies of outermost
I = Ie + Ih
electrons are changed in larger amounts.
18. (d)
8. (a) Empty 4 N states
Ec Ec Ec
Intrinsic
Eg Eg
Electron energy

At 0 K, CB of SC semiconductor

Eg remain empty
Ev Ev

Ev
Filled 4 N states T=0 K (a) (b) T>0 K

Infinitely large number of 19. (c) In equilibrium condition, there is no net current through
states each occupied by the semiconductor. This shows that the rate of generation of
two electrons at 0 K electron-hole pairs is equal to rate of recombination of
electron-hole pairs.
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 427

20. (a) An intrinsic semiconductor will behave like an insulator 29. (c) The number of electrons made available for conduction
at T = 0 K. It is the thermal energy at higher temperature by dopant atoms depends strongly upon the doping level
(T > 0 K), which excites some electrons from the valence and is independent of any increase in ambient temperature.
band to the conduction band. These thermally excited 30. (d) Gallium, boron and aluminium all are trivalent impurities.
electrons at T > 0 K, partially occupy the conduction band. These impurities make germanium p-type semiconductor.
These have come from the valence band leaving equal
number of holes there. 31. (d) In a p -type semiconductor, holes are majority charge
21. (c) Number density of electron-hole pairs is increased with
carriers and electrons are minority charge carriers.
temperature, so at high temperature semiconductors have 32. (b) In both n-type and p-type semiconductors, number of
higher conductivity. electrons is exactly equal to number of protons. Both are
neutrals.
22. (c) Semiconductors have negative temperature coefficient of
resistance i.e., the resistance of a semiconductor decreases 33. (c) At room temperature, the density of holes in the valance
with the increase in temperature and vice-versa . Silicon is band is predominantly due to impurity in the extrinsic
actually an insulator at absolute zero of temperature but it semiconductor. The electron and hole concentration in a
becomes a good conductor at high temperatures. Because on semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is given by
increasing temperatures of semiconductor some of the ne nh = ni2
electrons jumps from valence band to conduction band.
34. (b) The four bonding electrons of C, Si or Ge lie,
23. (a) Resistivity of a metal is directly proportional to respectively, in the second, third and fourth orbit. Hence,
temperature because its temperature coefficient is positive energy required to take out an electron from these atoms
and resistivity of semiconductor is inversely proportional to (i.e., ionisation energy Eg ) will be least for Ge, followed by
temperature due to its negative temperature coefficient. This Si and highest for C.
implies that with decrease in temperature, resistivity of
metal decreases while that of semiconductor increases. 35. (a) Total number of atoms = 5 × 1028 m–3
So, resistivity of Si increases but that of Cu decreases. For every 106 atoms, 1 A-s is doped.
24. (b) For visible region, 450 ≤ λ ≤ 750 nm 1 A-s contributely 1e–

Hence, photon energy ranges from few 1.7 to 2.8 eV. Ne = 5 × 1028 / 106 = 5 × 1022
 hc Since, ne nh = ni2
 using hc = 1240 eV- nm, E = 
 λ The number of holes
As for silicon most of the photons have a higher energy, so nh = (2.25 × 1032 ) / (5 × 1022 ) = 4.5 × 109 m−3
they excite electrons (electrons absorb photons) Hence, light
cannot pass through silicon. Silicon is opaque. 36. (a) Phosphorous is pentavalent, it donates electron.
But as photons are not absorbed in ZnS, they pass through it ∴ nh << ne
and so zinc sulphide is transparent. 37. (a) Increase of temperature causes more electrons to leave
valance band and reach conduction band, so ne increases.
25. (a) Process of adding an impurity is called doping.
But increase of temperature causes lattice vibrations and so
26. (b) Doping increases concentration of majority charge vd decreases as number of collisions increases.
carriers.
38. (c) Doping does not change energy gap, it is still around 1 eV.
27. (c) To form an n-type semiconductor doping is done by
using a pentavalent impurity like phosphorous and to form a 39. (a) Eg , Si = 1.1 eV
p-type semiconductor doping is done by using a trivalent Eg , Ge = 0.7 eV ⇒ Eg , Sn = 0.45 eV
impurity like indium.
40. (c) In intrinsic semiconductor, conductivity occurs due to
28. (a) excitation of electrons when they absorb energy and break
covalent bonds.
Ec
ED
41. (c) For Ge, the energy gap, Eg is 0.7 eV.
≈ 0.01 eV
Electron energy

42. (a) ni2 = ne nh , for extrinsic semiconductor

Eg
1038
⇒ (1019 )2 = ne (10 )21 ⇒ ne = = 1017 m−3
Ev 1021
43. (c) Conductivity of a semiconductor increases with
temperature.
So, they have negative value of temperature coefficient α.
Donor energy level is slightly less than energy level lowest
to conduction band. 44. (d) Relation is found empirically it is, n ∝ T 3 / 2 .
428 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

45. (d) Dopant concentration is usually 53. (c) When a hole diffuses from p → n due to the concentration
1 to 10 ppm (parts per million) gradient. It leaves behind an ionised acceptor (negative
charge) which is immobile. As the holes continue to diffuse,
1
⇒ ≈ 10−7 a layer of negative charge (or negative space-charge region)
107 on the p-side of the junction is developed. Similarly, a layer
46. (d) X shows an undoped semiconductor, of positive space-charge is developed on n-side because of
Y shows an n-type semiconductor, electron departure. This space-charge region on either side
of the junction together is known as depletion region.
Z shows a p-type semiconductor.
54. (a) Thickness of depletion region is around 10−7 m.
47. (c) The n-type semiconductor can be produced by doping an
impurity atom of valence 5, i.e., pentavalent atoms. 55. (c) p -side is at negative potential and n-side is at positive
i.e., phosphorous. potential. Also, central layer is at zero potential. Potential at
small distance from junction on both sides becomes constant.
48. (c) In an n-type silicon, dopants are pentavalent atoms,
electrons are majority charge carriers and holes are minority 56. (c) Potential tends to prevent the movement of electron from
charge carriers. the n-region into the p-region, it is often called barrier
potential.
49. (a) N = 5 × 1028 atoms / m3 , A = acceptor, indium,
57. (b) No, A p-n junction is formed when a p-type
D = donor, arsenic semiconductor is formed alongwith an n-type semiconductor
N A = 0.05 × 1022 atoms / m3 on a single intrinsic semiconductor.
⇒ N D = 5 × 1022 atoms / m3 58. (b) It is caused by diffusion of charge carriers.

ni = 1.5 × 1016 m−2 60. (a) E opposes movement of charge.

⇒ N D − N A = ne − nh and ne nh = ni2 61. (c) Diffusion and drift current of electrons and holes is due
to concentration difference.
n2
∴ ND − N A = ne − i 62. (c) Using
dV
= E, we get
ne dr
⇒ ne2 − ( N D − N A ) ne − ni2 = 0 V = Ed
(N D − N A ) + (N D − N A ) + 2
4 ni2 V 0.6 V
or E= = = 6 × 105 Vm−1
⇒ ne = d 1 × 10−6 m
2
On substituting values, we get, ne = 4 .95 × 1022 / m3 63. (c) A semiconductor diode is basically a p-n junction with
metallic contacts provided at the ends for the application of an
n 2 (1.5 × 1016 )2 external voltage. It is a two terminal device.
∴ nh = i = = 4.54 × 109 m−3
ne 4.95 × 1022 64. (c) The direction of arrow indicates the conventional
1022 direction of current (when the diode is under forward bias).
Observe that doping level = 10−6 ppm nearly
1028 65. (d) In forward biasing, electrons from n-side cross depletion
region and reach p-side.
50. (c) Number of Si atoms = 5 × 1028 atoms / m 3
66. (b) Effective potential barrier will be (V0 − V ). i.e., potential
Number of indium atoms = Number of indium atoms for 1
silicon atom × Total number of Si atoms barrier decreases.
5 × 1028 67. (c) Due to concentration gradient, the injected electrons on
= = 1 × 1021 atoms / m3 = 1 × 1015 atoms /cm3 p-side diffuse from the junction edge of p-side to the other
5 × 107
end of p-side. Likewise, the injected holes on n-side diffuse
51. (b) Using ne × nh = ni2 from the junction edge of n-side to the other end of n-side.
here ni = 2 × 1016 m−3 This motion of charged carriers on either side gives rise to
current. The total diode forward current is sum of hole
nh = 4.5 × 1022 m−3 diffusion current and conventional current due to electron
ni2 ( 2 × 1016 )2 diffusion.
∴ ne = = 68. (a) In RB potential barrier increases hence movement of
nh 4.5 × 1022
majority carrier decreases. But strong E pushes the
ne = 8.89 × 109 m−3 movement of minority carrier towards their respective side
and contributes small current.
52. (d) Consider a thin p-type silicon (p-Si) semiconductor
wafer. By adding precisely a small quantity of pentavalent 69. (a) The diode reverse current is not very much dependent on
impurity, part of the p-Si wafer can be converted into n-Si. the applied voltage. Even a small voltage is sufficient to
So, p-n junction is formed. sweep the minority charge carriers from one side of the
junction to the other side of the junction.
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 429

The current is not limited by the magnitude of the applied 76. (b) Without an external bias an electric field exists which
voltage but is limited due to the concentration of the points from n to p-side and opposes any diffusion of electrons.
minority charge carrier on either side of the junction.
77. (a) In forward biasing a negligible potential drop occurs in
70. (a) The current under reverse bias is essentially voltage diode, so potential drop across resistance R is V.
independent upto a critical reverse bias voltage, known as
breakdown voltage (V br ). When V = V brr , the diode reverse 78. (b) In reverse bias, V p -side − Vn -side = Negative
current increases sharply from n to p side.
79. (b) Diode is in forward bias , so resistance = 0
Even a slight increase in the bias voltage causes large change
in the current. If the reverse current is not limited by an V 4−1 3
So, I= = = = 10−2 A
external circuit, the p-n junction will get destroyed. Once it R 300 300
exceeds the rated value, the diode gets destroyed due to
80. (d) Arsenic is pentavalent, X is n-type and indium is
overheating.
trivalent and Y is p - type.
71. (a) TypicalV-I characteristics of a silicon diode are as shown. So, the junction is in reverse bias.
I (mA)
81. (a) Diode is in reverse bias, current = 0, potential difference
100 across R = 0;V AB = 6 V
80 82. (a) Current is zero as batteries cause p-n junction in reverse
60 bias.
40 V 0.3
83. (b) Electric field, E = = = 3 × 105 Vm−1
20 d 1 × 10−6
100 80 60 40 20
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
V (V) ∆V
–10 84. (b) Dynamic resistance is, rd =
Vb ∆I
–20
here, ∆V = 0.7V − 0.65V = 0.05 V
–30
I (µA) ∆I = 5 mA = 5 × 10−3 A
72. (a) In forward bias, the current first increases very slowly, 0.05
∴ rd = = 10 Ω
almost negligibly till the voltage across the diode crosses a 5 × 10−3
certain value. 30 Ω
85. (c) In the circuit, the upper diode 70 Ω
After the characteristic voltage, the diode current increases Di is reverse biased and lower
significantly (exponentially), even for a very small increase diode D2 is forward biased. Thus,
in the diode bias voltage. This voltage is called the threshold there will be no current across
voltage or knee voltage (~ 0.2 Vfor germanium diode and upper diode function. The +– 50 Ω
~ 0.7 Vfor silicon diode). effective circuit will be shown as
3V
73. (a) By allowing current only in forward bias it acts like a Total resistance,
one way valve. R = 50 + 30 + 70 = 150 Ω
74. (a) A p - n junction diode primarily allows the flow of V 3V
current only in one direction (forward bias). The forward Current in circuit, I = = = 0.02 A
R 150 Ω
bias resistance is low as compared to the reverse bias
resistance. For diodes, we define a quantity called dynamic 86. (c) If an alternating voltage is applied across a diode in
resistance as the ratio of small change in voltage ∆V to a series with a load, a pulsating voltage will appear across the
small change in current ∆I, load only during the half cycles of the AC input during
∆V which the diode is forward biased.
rd =
∆I 87. (b) In a half-wave rectifier, the secondary of a transformer
75. (d) From the graph, at I = 20 mA supplies the desired AC voltage across terminals A and B.
When the voltage at A is positive, the diode is forward
V = 0.8 V biased and it conducts. When A is negative, the diode is
and I = 10 mA,V = 0.7 V reverse biased and it does not conduct.
∆V 0.1 V The reverse saturation current of a diode is negligible and
rFB = = = 10 Ω
∆I 10 mA can be considered equal to zero for practical purposes.
Also, at V = − 10 V, I = − 1 µA Transformer
10 V A
rRB = = 1 × 107 Ω
1 µA
Primary Secondary RL
r 10
∴ Ratio = FB = 7 = 10−6
rRB 10 B
430 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

88. (a) The reverse breakdown voltage of the diode must be 1

94. (d) As, X C = , for AC component when ω is high, then
sufficiently higher than the peak AC voltage at the Cω
secondary of the transformer to protect the diode from X C is less and, so a capacitor let AC part bypass through it,
reverse breakdown. so only DC part reaches RL , the load resistance.
89. (d) X DC component
Voltage at A

IL
+
AC Rectifier – C RL DC
Input AC
t Y
AC component
bypass
across RL
Voltage

Output voltage Fig. (a) A full-wave rectifier with capacitor filter

AC
t input
Input AC voltage and output waveforms from
the half-wave rectifier circuit Output with
capacitor
90. (c) Due to centre tapping potential reaching the diodes is only input filter
half of secondary voltage. It is clear from its circuit’s diagram. Fig. (b) Input and output voltage of rectifier in (a)
Centre tap 95. (c) In full wave rectification, output frequency is double of
transformer Diode 1(D1) that of input frequency.
A
96. (c) In this question, full wave rectification is done by using a
Centre X centre tap transformer.
tap
B 1
So, output voltage is that of an half wave rectifier.
Diode 2(D2) RL Output 2
+ • v/ 2 v

Y  diff = 
centre • 0 2
 diff = v
91. (d) v 
− • − v / 2}diff =
Waveform Waveform

2 
at A

t
97. (c) During Ist half of cycle,
(i) B
at B

(ii)
(a) C RL
A
–
–
(across RL)

Due Due Due Due

waveform
Output

to to to to
D1 D2 D1 D2
(b) D

Fig. (a) Input waveform given to diode D1, at A and to diode –

D2 at B. Fig. (b) output waveform across the load R L
connected in the full-wave rectifier circuit
During IInd half of cycle,
92. (c) The rectified voltage is in the form of pulses of the shape Clearly, current through RL is unidirectional, in both halves
of half sinusoids. Though, it is unidirectional, it does not of input AC.
have a steady value. B
93. (a) To get steady DC output from the pulsating voltage
normally, a capacitor is connected across the output terminals
(parallel to the load RL ).
– C
One can also use an inductor in series with RL for the same A RL
purpose. Since, these additional circuits appear to filter out
the AC ripple and give a pure DC voltage, so they are called
filters. + D
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 431

98. (c) Rate of discharge is inversely proportional to time 107. (a) The variation of intensity results in change in number of
constant of the circuit. More value of time constant implies incident photons (per second) and hence a corresponding
slow discharge. change in generation rate of electron and holes occurs. This
99. (b) For full-wave rectifier, frequency = 2 × input frequency causes a change in current amplitude.
for half-wave rectifier frequency = input frequency. 108. (d) When intensity is increased, reverse saturation current
2 also increases.
∴ Ratio = mA
1
100. (a) Zener diode is a special purpose semiconductor diode.
It is designed to operate under reverse bias in the breakdown Reverse bias
region and used as a voltage regulator. The symbol for Volts
I1
Zener diode is shown in figure. I2
I3
I4
I4>I3>I2>I1 µA
101. (b) Zener diode is fabricated by heavily doping both p-sides
and n-sides of the junction. Due to this, depletion I-V characteristics of a photodiode for different illumination
region formed is very thin (< 10−6 m) and the electric intensity I 4 > I 3 > I 2 > I1 .
field of the junction is extremely high (~ 5 ×106 V/ m) 109. (c) When the diode is forward biased, electrons are sent
even for a small reverse bias voltage. from n → p.
Thus, at the junction boundary on either side of the junction,
102. (c) When the reverse bias voltage V = V z , then the electric
excess minority charge carriers are there which recombins
field strength is high enough to pull valence electrons from with majority charge carriers near the junction. On
the host atoms on the p-side which are accelerated to n-side. recombination, the energy equal to or slightly less than the
These electrons account for high current observed at the band gap are emitted.
breakdown. The emission of electrons from the host atoms
110. (a) The reverse breakdown voltages of LEDs are very low.
due to the high electric field is known as internal field
typically around 5 V. So, care should be taken that high
emission or field ionisation.
reverse voltages do not appear across them.
103. (d) Zener diode must be attached in reverse bias
111. (c) As, emitted energy = Band gap value when an electron
+ moves from conduction band to valance band.
Rs If λ is wavelength of emitted radiation, then
Unregulated hc
voltage (Vi) IL Eg =
Load Regulated λ
RL voltage (Vz) hc
– ⇒ λ=
Eg
Zener diode as DC voltage regulator
Taking hc = 1240 eV- nm and 450 nm ≤ λ ≤ 750 nm for
104. (a) The value of Rs should be such that the current through visible region, we get
the Zener diode is much larger than the load current. This is 450 ≤ λ ≤ 750
to have good load regulation. I z = 20 mA. The total current hc
through Rs is, therefore, 24 mA. The voltage drop across Rs ⇒ 450 ≤ ≤ 750
Eg
is 10.0 − 6.0 = 4.0 V. This gives
Rs = 4.0 V / (24 × 10−3 ) A = 167 Ω ⇒ Eg ≤
hc 1240 eV - nm
= ≈ 2.8 eV
105. (b) Semiconductor diodes in which charge carriers are 450 450 nm
generated by photons (photo-excitation) are called hc
and Eg ≥
optoelectronic devices. Optoelectronic devices are 750
(i) photodiodes used for detecting optical signal 1240 eV nm
= ≈ 1.7 eV
(photodetectors). Used near automatic doors. 750 nm
(ii) light Emitting Diodes (LED) which convert electrical So, 1.8 ≤ Eg ≤ 3 eV
energy into light.
112. (c) For red LEDs,
(iii) photovoltaic devices which convert optical radiation into
electricity (solar cells). GaAs 0.6 P0.4 – Gallium Arsenic Phosphide (Eg = 1.9 eV) is
used. This corresponds to λ ≈ 700 nm.
106. (a) A photodetector detects any change in intensity of light 113. (b) Solar cells uses light energy (photons) to generate an emf.
by changing either potential difference across it or by
changing current through it.
432 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

114. (d) Solar cell supplies current to load. So, I-V characteristics 122. (a) For same value of current, higher value of voltage is
is drawn in fourth quadrant. required for higher frequency.
IL 123. (d) Here, Eg = 2 eV
Wavelength of radiation corresponding to this energy,
hc 1240 eV-nm
λ= = = 620 nm
p n Eg 2eV
c 3 × 108 ms −1
Frequency, ν = = = 5 × 1014 Hz
Fig. (a) Depletion region λ 620 × 10−9 m
I 125. (b) A transistor has three doped regions forming two
VOC (open circuit voltage) p-n junctions between them. Obviously, there are two types
of transistors.
V
(i) n-p-n transistor (ii) p-n-p transistor
ISC 126. (c) n-p-n transistor Here, two segments of n-type
Short circuit current
semiconductor (emitter and collector) are separated by a
Fig. (b) I-V characteristics of a solar cell segment of p-type semiconductor (base).
115. (c) Semiconductors with band gap closed to 1.5 eV are ideal Emitter Collector
materials for solar cell fabrication. Solar cells are made with
semiconductors like Si (Eg = 1.1 eV),
GaAs (Eg = 1.43 eV). CdTe (Eg = 1.45 eV),
CuInSe 2 (Eg = 1.04 eV) etc.
Base
The important criteria for the selection of a material for solar
cell fabrication are (i) band gap (~ 1.0 to 1.8 eV), (ii) high Emitter Base Collector
optical absorption (~ 104 cm−1 ).
127. (b) The transistor works as an amplifier with emitter-base
116. (b) As, we know that wavelength junction forward biased and base collector junction reversed
hc 1240 eV- nm bias, a transistor is said to be in active state.
λ= = = 440 nm ≈ 4400 Å
Eg 2.8 eV 128. (c) For a p-n-p transistor, charge carrier motion is as
hc 1240 eV - nm
117. (c)Q Eg = = = 2.0 eV
λ 620 nm
118. (a) Electron moves from conduction to valence band, in p
n
p
LED when it glows

A IE IC
Holes IB Electrons
hc
Eg= VEB VCB
λ

B VEE VCC
For n-p-n transistor,
p-base
119. (b) An optical telecommunication link, n-emitter region n-collector
1 4 2 4 3 1 4 2 4 3 1 4 2 4 3
Input Output
signal signal
LED
Optical Optical
p
fibre detector n n
hc
120. (b) In red LED, λ R =
ER
IE IC
hc ER λ V
In violet, LED λ V = ⇒ = <1 Electrons Holes
EV EV λR VEB VCB
IB
121. (b) Light from an LED is highly monochromatic.
VEE VCC
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 433

129. (b) Low; High. When emitter-base junction is forward Q Voltage gain,
biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased, then V V 0.8 × 0.96
AV = L = L = −3 =4 ⇒ AV = 4
transistor, is said to be active state. In active state of Vin I B Ri 10 × 192
transistor the emitter-base junction acts as low resistance
while the base collector junction acts as high resistance. and power gain,
2
130. (a) Observe that emitter (E) is connected to both batteries, so IC2 RL I  R 800
AP = =  C  ⋅ L = ( 0.96 )2 ×
it is common. Emitter E-n side is connected to negative of 2
I B Ri  I B  Ri 192
VBB battery, collector C-n side is connected to positive of
VCC battery, active state. AP = 3.84
I
IC 137. (c)Qβ DC = C
– + IB
IB C mA
 ∆IC 
+ – B + R2 138. (a) Qβ AC =   V CE
µA E VCE  ∆I B 
R1 –
VBE IE
IC
VBB
VCC ⇒ β DC =
IB
Ratio= β AC : β DC = 150:150 = 1:1
Circuit arrangement for studying the input and output characteristics
of n-p-n transistor in CE configuration 139. (d) It is said to be in cut-off state for small Vi , active for
131. (a) For a transistor, intermediateVi , saturation for large Vi .
VCE = VCB + VBE 140. (a) With increasing Vi ,Vo decreases.
132. (b)VCE must be sufficiently larger than 0.7 V. Cut-off Active
region region
133. (c) I B does not depend onVCE . So, when VCE is increased, I B Vo
remains constant. IC increases till saturation.
R  ∆I ∆I c 
134. (a) As AV = β L Q g m = c =  Saturation
Ri  ∆V ∆lB Ri  region
Av
β  β
or G =   RL Q g m = 
 Ri   Ri 
Vi
⇒ G = g m RL ⇒ G ∝ g m Transfer characteristics
G2 g m1 0.02 141. (c) Power gain, AP = β AC × A v
∴ = ⇒ G2 = ×G
G1 g m2 0.03 142. (a) The output AC voltage is 2.0 V. So, the AC collector
2 current, iC = 2.0 / 2000 = 10 . mA. The signal current through
∴ Voltage gain, G2 = G i 1.0 mA
3 the base is, therefore given by iB = C = = 0.010 mA.
135. (a) Input resistance ( ri ) This is defined as the ratio of β 100
change in base emitter voltage ( ∆VBE ) to the resulting The DC base current has to be 10 × 0.010 = 010 . mA.
change in base current ( ∆I B ) at constant collector-emitter VBB = VBE + I B RB ⇒ RB = (VBB − VBE ) / I B
voltage (VCE ). This is dynamic (ac resistance). AssumingVBE = 0.6 V
 ∆V  RB = ( 2.0 − 0.6 ) / 010
. = 14 kΩ
ri =  BE 
 ∆I B  V 143. (a) iE = iB + iC ⇒ iE > iB
CE

136. (d) Given, resistance across load, RL = 800 Ω So, according to the question, the possible emitter current is 36.
Voltage drop across load, VL = 0.8 V 144. (a) Initially, both IC and I E increase.
Input resistance of circuit, Ri = 192 Ω
145. (b) Emitter current begins to fall, T1 is seeing decaying field
Collector current is given by
V 0.8 8 in T2 .
IC = L = = = 1 mA ∆ic
RL 800 8000 146. (a) β = Current gain =
∆ib
Output current IC
QCurrent amplification = = = 0.96 ⇒ ∆ic = β × ∆ib = ( 80 × 250 ) µA
Input current IB
147. (a) iE = iB + iC ⇒ iC = iE − iB .
1 mA
⇒ IB =
0.96 Emitter side is forward biased, collector side is reverse biased.
434 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

148. (b)Vb = ib Rb  ∆IC 

157. (c) Current gain, β =  
9  ∆I B  V
⇒ Rb = = 257k Ω CE
35 × 10−6 β × Rout
and voltage gain, AV =
149. (a) Inductors are in series, Rin
∴ L eq = L1 + L 2 here, Rin = 1000 Ω , ∆I B = 10 µA = 10−5 A
1 1 1
and frequency of oscillator = = Rout = 5 kΩ = 5 × 103 Ω
2π L eq C eq 2π ( L1 + L 2 )C
∆IC = 2 mA = 2 × 10−3 A
150. (c) From Kirchhoff’s loop rule in output loop, 2 × 10−3
9 − 4 = IC RC β=
= 200
10−5
As, RC = 2kΩ, 200 × 5 × 103
5 I 2.5 Hence, AV = = 1000
⇒ IC = = 2. 5 mA ⇒ I B = C = = 27.8 µA 1000
2 × 103
β 90 80I E
158. (b) Here, IC = 80% of I E =
VBE = 0.7 V 100
From Kirchhoff, loop rule in input loop, IC 10
or IE = = = 12.5 mA
2.3 0.8 0.8
I B RB = 3 − 0.7 ⇒ RB = × 106 = 82 kΩ
27. 8 I B = I E − IC = 12.5 − 10 = 2.5 mA
153. (a) DC current gain in common base amplifier is given by 159. (c) Dynamic resistance,
iC ∆V 0.05 × 1000
α= rd = ⇒ rd = Ω = 10 Ω
iE I∆ 5
where, iC is collector current and iE is emitter current. 160. (a) An analog signal is a continuous waveform as
Given, α = 0.96, iE = 7.2 mA +
Voltage amplitude

∴ iC = 0.96 × 7.2 mA = 6.91 mA

As, iE = iB + iC t
Time
∴ Base current, iB = iE − iC = 7.2 − 6.91 = 0.29 mA
power gain 800 20
154. (a) Current gain, α = = =
voltage gain 840 21 –
α 20 / 21 164. (b) AND gate An AND gate has two or more inputs and
Now, β = = = 20 one output. The output Y of AND gate is 1 only when input
1 − α 1 − ( 20 / 21)
A and input B are both 1. The logic symbol and truth table
IC
As β= = IC = βI B = 20 × 12
. = 24 mA for this gate is given by
IB
A Y Input Output
 π
155. (d) Input signal of a CE amplifier, Vi = 2cos 15t +  B A B Y
 3 0 0 0
Voltage gain, AV = 150 0 1 0
As CE amplifier gives phase difference of π between input 1 0 0
and output signals. 1 1 1
V 165. (b) For an NAND gate, truth table is
So, AV = 0
Vi A
Y
B
⇒ V0 = AV Vi
 π  Input Output
V0 = 150 × 2cos 15t + + π
 3  A B Y
 4π  0 0 1
V = 300 cos 15t +  0 1 1
 3
1 0 1
156. (b) Voltage gain = Current gain × Resistance gain 1 1 0
RC 6
= Current gain × = 30 × = 180 So, no output occurs when both inputs are at higher
RI 1 potentials (1). Till time t 4 , output (1) occurs because both
inputs do not become (1) together.
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 435

166. (a) Let us assume that current through the diode is I. 176. (a) A X
Y
From the given condition, B
V − VB 4 − ( −6 ) 10
I= A = = = 10−2 A Truth table for given circuit is
R 1 kΩ 1 × 103
A B X=A+ B Y = X
167. (d) Given circuit is 0 0 1 0
0 1 0 1
A
Y1 Y3 1 0 0 1
C1 1 1 0 1
Y5 Y6 Y7
Y2 Y4 Hence, the given circuit acts as OR gate.
B
177. (c) Due to diffusion of electrons, positive space-charge
Y1 Y2 Y3 Y4 y5 y6 y7
region on n-side of the junction and negative space charge
A B C
region on p-side of the junction, an electric field directed
0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 from positive charge towards negative charge develops.
0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 Electric field is from n-side to p-side. Due to this field, an
1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0
electron on p-side of the junction moves to n-side and a
hole on n-side of the junction moves to p-side. The motion
1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 of charge carriers due to the electric field is called drift.
Observing, this is NOR gate. Thus, a drift current, which is opposite in direction to the
So, output waveform is option (d). diffusion current starts. Concentration gradient is due to
doping of sides. It is not affected by drift of charge carriers.
168. (c) X = AB = A ⋅ B (i.e., AND gate)
178. (c) The loss of electrons from the E
If the output X of NAND gate is connected to the input of n-region and the gain of electrons + –
NOT gate (made from NAND gate by joining two inputs) by the p-region causes a + –
from the given figure, then we get back an AND gate. difference of potential across the + –
169. (b) It is an AND gate. junction of the two regions. The n p
polarity of this potential is such
A B A B X=A + B X =Y as to oppose further flow of carriers so that a condition of
0 0 1 1 1 0 equilibrium exists.
0 1 1 0 1 0 179. (a) As resistance of depletion region is large, potential drop
1 0 0 1 1 0 occurs mainly in depletion region.
1 1 0 0 0 1 180. (b) In forward bias, forward current is obtained due to
removal of barrier potential by externally applied potential.
171. (c) The resultant Boolean expression of the above logic Ohm’s law statesV ∝ I, not valid for diode.
circuit will be 181. (c) From theV-I characteristics of a junction diode, we see
Y = ( A + B )⋅C that it allows current to pass only when it is forward biased.
So, we have seen that among the given options, only option So, if an alternating voltage is applied across a diode the
(c) is the correct choice, i.e., current flows only in that part of the cycle when the diode is
Output, Y = 1only when inputs A = 1, B = 0 and C = 1. forward biased.
172. (c) The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is less 182. (a) As, X L = Lω , inductive reactance is high at high
than that of a lightly doped p-type semiconductor. frequency for AC and for capacitor, X C = 1/ Cω.
173. (a) Zener diode is a special purpose diode. In reverse bias, 183. (c) Solar cells are made wafer shape as a large area ensures
after a certain voltage, current suddenly increases in Zener more incident solar power.
diode. This property is used to obtain voltage regulation.
hν
174. (c) In a transistor, the base is made thin and lightly doped so
that the majority charge carriers coming from emitter may Metallised
pass on to the collector and very few form electron-hole Top surface finger electrode
combination in base. n
p
175. (c) In an oscillator, the feedback is in the same phase, i.e., n n
positive feedback. If the feedback voltage is in opposite p p
phase, i.e., negative feedback, the gain is less than one and it Back contact
can never work as oscillator. It will be an amplifier with (a) (b)
reduced gain. Typical p-n junction solar cell
436 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

184. (d) The generation of emf by a solar cell, when light falls continue to diffuse from n- p, a layer of positive charge (or
on, it is due to the following three basic processes positive space-charge region) on n-side of the junction is
generation, separation and collection (i) generation of developed. On p-side atom receiving electrons are ionised
electron-hole pairs due to light (with hν > Eg ) close to the acceptor.
junction; (ii) separation of electrons and holes due to 191. (c) Initially, diffusion current is large and drift current is
electric field of the depletion region. small. As the diffusion process continues, the space-charge
Electrons are swept to n-side and holes to p-side; (iii) the regions on either side of the junction extend, thus increasing
electrons reaching the n-side are collected by the front the electric field strength and hence drift current.
contact and holes reaching p-side are collected by the This process continues until the diffusion current equals the
back contact. Thus, p-side becomes positive and n-side drift current. Thus, a p-n junction is formed. In a p-n junction
becomes negative giving rise to photovoltage. under equilibrium there is no net current.
186. (a) In the case of Si transistor, as long as input Vi is less 192. (d) In forward biasing due to the applied voltage, electrons
than 0.6 V, the transistor will be in cut-off state and from n-side cross the depletion region and reach p-side (where
current IC will be zero. they are minority charge carriers).
Hence,Vo = VCC Similarly, holes from p-side cross the junction and reach the
When Vi becomes greater than 0.6 V, the transistor is in n-side (where they are minority charge carriers). This process
active state with some current IC in the output path and under forward bias is known as minority charge carrier
the outputVo decreases as the term IC RC increases. With injection. At the junction boundary, on each side, the minority
increase ofVi , IC inreases almost linearly and, soVo charge carrier concentration increases significantly compared to
decreases linearly till its value becomes less than about the locations far from the junction.
1.0 V. 193. (c) In forward bias, if depletion layer’s width decreases, fermi
187. (c) A gate is a digital circuit that follows certain logical energy level is in the middle of forbidden gap in intrinsic
relationship between the input and output voltages. semiconductor.
Therefore, they are generally known as logic gates 194. (b) The circuit using two diodes gives output rectified voltage
because they control the flow of information. The five corresponding to both the positive as well as negative half of
common logic gates used are NOT, AND, OR, NAND and the AC cycle.
NOR. Hence, it is known as full-wave rectifier. There is another
188. (a) They are small in size, consume low power, operate at circuit of full-wave rectifier which does not need a centre tap
low voltages and have long life and high reliability. transformer but needs four diodes. It is called a bridge
189. (d) In a solid, electron’s energies are very different from
rectifier.
that in an isolated atom. Inside the crystal, each electron 195. (d) Applying Kirchhoff’s voltage rule to the input and output
has a unique position and no two electrons see exactly the sides of this circuit, we get
same pattern of surrounding charges. Because of this, each IC
electron will have a different energy level.
C
These different energy levels with continuous energy RB B
variation form what are called energy bands. The energy RC +
IB
E Vo
band which includes the energy levels of the valence –
Vi VBB
electrons is called the valence band. The energy band IE
VCC
above the valence band is called the conduction band.
Some electrons from the valence band may gain external
energy to cross the gap between the conduction band and
VBB = I B RB +VBE
the valence band. Then, these electrons will move into the
conduction band. and VCE = VCC − IC RC
At the same time they will create vacant energy levels in We shall treat VBB as the DC input voltage Vi andVCE as the
the valence band where other valence electrons can move. DC output voltageVo . So, we have
Thus, the process creates the possibility of conduction due Vi = I B RB + VBE
to electrons in conduction band as well as due to vacancies
and Vo = VCC − IC RC .
in the valence band. In metals, conduction band and
valence band overlap. 196. (d) In an oscillator, we get AC output without any external
input signal. In other words, the output in an oscillator is
190. (d) When an electron diffuses from n → p, it leaves
self-sustained. To attain this, an amplifier is taken. A portion of
behind an ionised donor (species which has become ion by the output power is returned back (feedback) to the input in
donating electron) on n-side. phase with the starting power (this process is termed as positive
This ionised donor (positive charge) is immobile as it is feedback) as shown in figure. The feedback can be achieved by
bonded to the surrounding atoms. As the electrons
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 437

inductive coupling (through mutual inductance) or LC or RC 211. (a) When V A = − 5 VandVB = − 10 V

networks.
D2 is reverse biased and D1 and D3 get forward biased, then
Input R R R
Transistor R AB = + + = R
amplifier Output 4 2 4
212. (a, b, d) If lattice constant of semiconductor is decreased,
then Ec and Ev decrease but Eg increases.
Feedback
network 213. (a, b, c) (a) In insulators, energy gap is of the order of 5 to
10 eV and it is practically impossible to impart this much
197. (d) A ‘NOR’ gate, like an ‘NAND’ gate is universal gate, is amount of energy to the electrons in valence band so as to
also universal gate. AND, OR, NOT, NAND gates can be jump to conduction band.
made using NOR gates. So, choice (a) is correct.
199. (d) The given materials in decreasing order of conductivity (b) In semiconductors, with the rise in temperature more
are Al > Ge > Si > Diamond (C), so aluminium has least electrons from valence band jump to conduction band and this
energy gap and carbon has largest. Diamond has energy gap results in increase in conductivity. So, choice (b) is correct.
6 eV. Eg (Germanium) = 0.71eV.
(c) In conductors, the conduction band is either partially filled
203. (d) Truth table for NOR gate is given by, or the conduction band overlaps on the valence band. So,
choice (c) is correct.
Input Output
(d) In semiconductors, resistivity decreases with increase in
A B Y temperature. So, choice (d) is wrong.
0 0 1 P 100 × 10−3
0 1 0 216. (a,b) Current in circuit, i = =
Vd 0.5
1 0 0
1 1 0
(Vd = voltage drop across diode)
= 200 × 10−3 A
205. (b) As, IC = αlE = 0.98 × 2 = 196
. mA Voltage across resistance R, V ′ = 15
. − 0.5 = 10
. V
206. (d) As, lB = lE − lC = 2 − 196
. = 0.04 mA V′ 1
Thus, resistance R = = = 5Ω
Ro ( 400 × 103 i 200 × 10−3
207. (c) As, AV = α = 0.98 × = 980
Ri 400 217. (b, c) IC = 10 mA
208. (b) Power amplification, aP = αAV = 0.98 × 980 = 960 IC = 90% of I E
209. (b) As, Vo = Vi × voltage gain = 0.1 × 980 = 98V 90
10 = IE
100
210. (d) When V A = − 10 VandVB = −5 V, ideal diodes D1 and D3
I E = 11 mA
are reverse biased and D2 is forward biased.
∴ I E = I B + IC
R
I B = 1mA
R
218. (a,b,c) Applying loop law at output port,
R 9 − 4 = IC RC
R/4 R/4
or IC = 2.5 mA
I 2.5
VA= – 10 V VB = – 5 V IB = C = = 2.78 × 10−5 A = 27.8 µA
Since, ideal diode in reverse bias has infinite resistance (i.e., β 90
open circuited) and during forward bias it has zero resistance Since, the transistor operates in active region therefore
(i.e., short-circuited) Therefore, the given circuit may be VBE = 0.7 V
shown as in figure. 3 − 0.7
R R 3R Applying loop law at input port, I B =
∴ R AB = + R + = RB
4 4 2
2.3 × 105
R RB = = 82 kΩ
2.78
R
219. (c) When a forward bias is applied across the p-n junction,
R
the applied voltage opposes the barrier voltage. Due to this,
R/4 R/4
the potential barrier across the junction is lowered.
VA=–5 V VB=–10 V
438 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

IC I
220. (b) For a transistor, β = ⇒ I B = C base region is Input (base) resistance, Rinput = 1 kΩ = 1000 Ω
IB β
thin, so that majority carrier of emitter will reach the Voutput Routput
Q Voltage gain, AV = = β AC
collector. Vinput Rinput
Vinput Vinput
Rinput = = ⋅β Voutput
IB IC ∴ Input signal voltage, Vinput =
β AC ( Routput / Rinput )
1
i.e., Rinput ∝ 2
IC = = 0.01 V
100 ( 2000/ 1000 )
Therefore, Rinput is inversely proportional to the collector
current. For high collector current, the Rinput should be small Vinput 0.01
Base (input) current, I B = = = 10 × 10−6 A
for which the base region must be very thin and lightly Rinput 1000
doped for a transistor action, the emitter junction is forward
biased and collector junction is reverse biased. = 10 µA
221. (c) In an n-type semiconductor, it is obtained by doping the 227. (a) Given, voltage gain of first amplifier, AV 1 = 10
Ge or Si with pentavalent atoms. In n-type semiconductor, Voltage gain of second amplifier, AV 2 = 20
electrons are majority charge carriers and holes are minority
charge carriers. Input voltage, Vi = 0.01 V
222. (c) The energy band gap is largest for carbon, less for V
Total voltage gain, AV = o = AV 1 × AV 2
silicon and least for germanium. Vi
223. (c) In an unbiased p-n junction, the diffusion of charge Vo
carriers across the junction takes place from higher ∴ = 10 × 20
concentration to lower concentration. Therefore, hole 0.01
concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region. Vo = 2 V
− Eg / 2k B T
224. (b) AND gate 1 AND gate 2 228. (c) Given, intrinsic carrier concentration ni = no e
NOT gate 1
A
Y
and energy gap Eg = 1.2 eV
B C D E
NOT gate 2 kB = 8.62 × 10−5 eV/K
A B C D E Y For T = 600 K,
− E g / 2 k B × 600
0 0 0 1 1 0 n600 = no e …(i)
0 1 0 1 1 0 For T = 300 K,
1 0 0 1 1 0 − E g / 2 k B × 300
n300 = n0 e …(ii)
1 1 1 0 0 1
Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
So, this logic operation as AND gate.
(b) Split the gate  Eg  1 1  Eg  1 1 
 −  −   − 
n600 2 k B  600 300   2 k B  300 600 
AND gate 1 NOT gate 1 = e =e
E n300
A AND gate 3
C 1.2  1 
G  
2 × 8.62 × 10 −5  600 
AND gate 2 Y =e
NOT gate 3
B F = e11.6 = (2.718)11.6 (Q e = 2.718)
D
5
NOT gate 2 = 1.1 × 10
A B C D E F G Y Let the conductivities are σ 600 and σ 300 .
0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 σ 600 n 600
1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 = = 1.1 × 105 (Qσ = enµ e )
σ 300 n 300
0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1
1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 229. (a) Given, I 0 = 5 × 10−12 A, T = 300 K

So, this logic operation resembles to OR gate. kB = 8.6 × 10−5 eV/K

225. (c) The voltage gain is low at high and low frequencies and = 8.6 × 10−5 × 1.6 × 10−19 J/K
constant at mid frequencies.
Given, voltageV = 0.6 V
226. (b) Given, collector resistance Routput = 2 kΩ = 2000 Ω
eV 1.6 × 10−19 × 0.6
Current amplification factor of the transistor, β AC = 100 ∴ = = 23.26
kB T 8.6 × 10−5 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 300
Audio signal voltage, Voutput = 2 V
 CHAPTER 14 : Semiconductor Electronics; Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 439

The current I through a junction diode is given by atoms cause ionization resulting secondary electrons and
 eV 
− 1
thus more number of charge carriers.

I = I oe  2k B T 
= 5 × 10−12 ( e23.26 − 1) When doping concentration is large, there will be large
number of ions in the depletion region, which will give rise
= 5 × 10−12 (1.259 × 1010 − 1) to a strong electric field.
= 5 × 10−12 × 1.259 × 1010 = 0.063 A 241. (b)Vi = 1 V, active state
231. (d) When temperature increases, number density of free Vi = 0.5V, cut-off region IC = 0
charge carriers increases and mean relaxation time decreases Vi = 2.5 V
due to increased lattice vibrations. Effect of decrease in
relaxation time is much less as compared to effect of Cut-off
increase in number density. region
232. (b) In the given circuit, p-side of p-n junction, D1 is Vo Ac
tiv
connected to lower voltage and n-side of D1 to higher e
re
gi
voltage. Thus, D1 is reverse biased. The p-side of p-n on
Saturation
junction D2 is at higher potential and n-side of D2 is at lower region
potential. Thus, D2 is forward biased. Vi
S
Hence, no current flows through the junction B to A. 0.6 V
233. (d) As p-n junction conducts during positive half cycle The transistor circuit in active state can be used as an
only, the diode connected here will work in positive half amplifier.
cycle. Potential difference across C = peak voltage of the 242. (c) It is a combination of AND gates.
given AC voltageV0 = V rms 2 = 220 2 V
A Y2
234. (b) Each positive half passes through the diode and so output AND
only contains positive halves of voltage.
235. (b) Diode is forward biased, no current goes through side OR Y
branch after capacitor is charged.
Y1
∴ V AB = I AB × R AB = 0.2 × 10−3 × 10 × 103 = 2 V AND
B Y3
Option (b) is most appropriate, extra 0.3 V occurs due to
diode. A B Y1 Y2 Y3 Y
236. (c) In depletion region, after equilibrium, no recombination 0 0 1 0 0 0
can occur as electrons and holes are not ‘free’. In depletion 0 1 1 0 1 1
region, there are immobile charged ions and but no mobile
1 0 0 0 0 0
charges; equal number of holes and electrons exists.
1 1 0 1 0 1
237. (b) Ripple factor ( r ) of a full-wave rectifier using capacitor
1 243. (c) As, I E = I B + IC
filter is given by r =
4 3RLC 100% 10% 95%
95
1 So, IE × = IC
i.e., r∝ 100
RL
100 × 10
1 1 ⇒ IE = = 10.53 mA
⇒ r∝
,r∝ 95
C ν Also, I B = 10.53 − 10 = 0.53 mA
Thus, to reduce r, RL should be increased, input frequency ν
244. (a) When electric field is applied across a semiconductor,
should be increased and capacitance C should be increased.
the electrons in the conduction band get accelerated and
238. (c) Resistance of Zener diode changes at breakdown voltage acquire energy. They move from lower energy level to
and current through Rs increases after breakdown due to higher energy level.
increased movement of minority carrier. While the holes in valence band move from higher energy
239. (a) In reverse biasing, the minority charge carriers will be level to lower energy level, where they will be having more
accelerated due to reverse biasing which on striking with energy.
 C H A P T E R

15
Communication
System
A Quick Recapitulation of the Chapter
1. Communication is the act of transmission and The message signals are of two types as given below.
reception of information. (i) Analog signal A continuous electrical signal which at
2. Every communication system has three essential any instant lies within the range of a maximum and a
elements which are as transmitter, medium or minimum value.
communication channel and receiver. (ii) Digital signal (Pulse signal) Digital signals are those
3. Basic terminology used in electronic which can take only discrete stepwise values,
communication system e.g., output of a computer, fax etc.
(i) Signal Information converted into electrical form 5. Bandwidth of communication channel is the range of
and suitable for transmission is called a signal. frequencies used to pass through channel.
(ii) Transducer Any device/arrangement that converts 6. Ground wave propagation (f < 2 MHz) In ground wave
one form of energy into another is called a propagation, the radio waves (AM) travel along the
transducer, e.g. microphone. surface of the earth. These waves are guided along the
(iii) Noise It refers to the unwanted signals that tend to earth’s surface and they follow the curvature of the earth.
disturb the transmission and processing of
7. Sky wave propagation (2 MHz < f < 30 MHz)
message signals in communication system.
Long distance communication can be achieved by
(iv) Attenuation It refers to the loss of strength of a ionospheric reflection of radio waves back towards
signal during its propagation through the
earth. This mode of propagation is called sky wave
communication channel.
propagation and is used by short wave broadcast
(v) Amplification It is the process by which amplitude
services.
of a signal is increased using an electronic circuit
called the amplifier. 8. Space wave propagation (f > 30 MHz)
(vi) Range It is the largest distance between a source A space wave travels in a straight line from transmitting
and a destination up to which the signal is received antenna to the receiving antenna. Space waves are
with sufficient strength. used for Line-of-Sight (LOS) communication as well as
(vii) Repeater Repeaters are erected at suitable satellite communication.
distances between the transmitter and receiver. (i) Range of TV transmission, d = 2hR
Repeaters are used to extend the range of a where, h = height of antenna, R = radius of the earth,
communication system. d = maximum distance/range of transmission
4. Message signals A time varying electrical signal (ii) Range of line-of-sight distance between two antennas,
generated by a transducer out of original signal is
dM = dT + dR , dM = 2hT R + 2hRR
termed as message signal.
 CHAPTER 15 : Communication System 441

where, h T and hR are heights of transmitting and (i) AM can be represented by expression
receiving antenna and dT is the radio horizon of the µAc µAc
Cm (t ) = Ac sin ωct + cos (ωc − ω m )t −
transmitting antenna. 2 2
9. Satellite communication Signals which are reflected cos (ωc + ω m )t
by ionosphere is reflected back by satellite. In this where, Ac = amplitude of a carrier wave,
communication, frequency band 5.9 GHz to 6.4 GHz is Am = amplitude of modulating wave
used for uplinking and 3.7 GHz to 4.2 GHz is used for µ = Am / Ac is the modulation index (µ ≤ 1 ),
downlinking. fc = frequency of carrier wave
10. For transmitting a signal, we need an antenna. This and fm = modulating wave frequency.
antenna should have a size comparable to the
wavelength of the signal (atleast λ /4 is dimension). 16. Modulation index
Change in amplitude of carrier wave
11. The effective power radiated by an antenna is µ=
proportional to ( l / λ ) 2 , where l is the length of linear Amplitude of carrier wave
antenna. For a good transmission, we need high power. A m A max − A min
= = , Amax = Ac + Am, Amin = Ac − Am
12. Baseband Band of frequencies representing the A c A max + A min
original signal is called baseband.
where, A max = maximum amplitude of AM wave
13. Modulation Modulation is the process of variation of
A min = minimum amplitude of AM wave
some characteristics of a carrier wave in accordance
with the instantaneous value of a modulating signal. 17. Upper side band frequency = fc + fm
14. Types of pulse modulation Lower side band frequency = fc − fm
(i) PAM (Pulse Amplitude Modulation) where, fc and fm are frequencies of carrier wave and
(ii) PDM (Pulse Duration Modulation) modulating wave.
(iii) PPM (Pulse Position Modulation) Bandwidth = USB – LSB = (fc + fm ) − (fc − fm ) = 2fm
(iv) PCM (Pulse Code Modulation)
18. Demodulation It is the process of extracting the audio
15. Amplitude modulation In amplitude modulation, the frequency message signal from the modulated wave.
amplitude of the carrier is varied in accordance with
the information signal.

Objective Questions Based on NCERT Text

Topic 1
Basic Terminology used in Electronic
Communication System
1. A modern communication system acts as a 4. Identify the parts K X K and K Y K in the block
(a) transmitter (b) receiver diagram of a generalised communication system.
(c) messenger (d) None of these Communication system
2. Languages and methods used in communication have Information Message Transmitted
X Channel
source signal signal
kept evolving from prehistoric to modern times, to meet
the growing demands in terms of ...… and ...… of Noise
information.
Received Message User of
(a) receive, sender (b) receiver, sender Y
information
signal signal
(c) speed, complexity (d) language, quality
(a) channel, transmitter (b) transmitter, receiver
3. A communication system consists of
(c) receiver, channel (d) receiver, transmitter
(a) transmitter and receiver
(b) receiver and communication channel 5. If the output of the information source is a non-
(c) transmitter and communication channel electrical signal like a voice signal, a ..... converts it
(d) transmitter, communication channel and receiver to ..... form before giving it as an input to the ..... .
442 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

(a) receiver, electrical, channel 16. With the advancement of technology, a communication
(b) channel, magnetic, transducer system is based on
(c) transducer, electrical, channel (a) electrical (b) electronic
(d) transducer, electrical, transmitter (c) optical (d) All of these
6. When noise adds to the transmitted signal, which
17. Which type of communication system is used in FAX
part of the generalised communication system
machine?
receives a corrupted version of the transmitted
(a) Binary (b) Analog (c) Hybrid (d) All of these
signal?
(a) Channel (b) Receiver 18. Tremendous growth of message transmission through
(c) Transducer (d) Transmitter post offices is due to
7. ..... reconstructs a recognisable form of the original (a) E-mail (b) FAX (c) television (d) telegraph
message signal for delivering it to the user 19. Which of the following is not a transducer?
information. (a) Loudspeaker (b) Amplifier
(a) channel (b) transducer (c) Microphone (d) All of these
(c) receiver (d) transmitter
20. A device that converts some physical variable (pressure,
8. In a point to point communication mode, displacement, force, temperature, etc.) into the
communication takes place over a link between corresponding variation in the electrical signal at its
(a) transmitter and channel (b) channel and transmitter output is that
(c) transmitter and receiver (d) channel and receiver (a) transducer (b) receiver
9. Which of the following is an example of point to (c) noise (d) transmitter
point communication mode? 21. Audio signal cannot be transmitted directly upto large
(a) Radio (b) Television distance
(c) Telephone (d) Microwave (a) the signal has more noise
10. The transmission media can be (b) the signal cannot be amplified for distance
(a) only guided (b) only unguided communication
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) the transmitting antenna length is very small to design
(d) the transmitting antenna length is very large and cannot
11. Point to point communication requires the use of be achieved practically
(a) only a guided medium (b) only unguided medium
22. In electronic communication systems, we usually come
(c) any medium (d) None of these
across devices that have either their inputs and outputs
12. Quality of transmission depends upon in the form of
(a) nature of the medium only (a) magnetic (b) electrical
(b) nature of signal only (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) Both (a) and (b)
23. Signals are essentially single-valued function of
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(a) distance (b) displacement
13. Which of the following project was undertaken by (c) speed (d) time
US defence department?
24. Which of the following is the fundamental analog signal?
(a) ETHERNET (b) ARPANET
(a) cos wave (b) cosec wave
(c) INTERNET (d) INTRANET
(c) sine wave (d) tan wave
14. ARPANET allowed
25. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) file transfer from one computer to another connected
to the network (a) All analog signals can be fully understood in terms of
their sine wave components
(b) a message signal representing the original signal
delivered by the source of information (b) Sound and picture signals in TV are analog in nature
(c) communicating without using wires (c) Digital signals are those which cannot take only discrete
(d) message signals and make it suitable for transmission stepwise values
(d) Binary system that is extensively used in electronics
15. Which of the following optical systems are superior employs just two level of a signal
and more economical as compared to traditional 26. Fading in the variation in the strength of a signal at a
communication system? receiver is due to
(a) Ray optical (b) Fibre optical (a) interference of waves (b) diffraction of waves
(c) Wave optical (d) Light optical (c) polarisation of waves (d) None of these
 CHAPTER 15 : Communication System 443

27. The loss of strength of a signal while propagating 31. Consider the transmission of singal as shown in figure.
through a medium is known as
(a) amplification (b) receiver
(c) attenuation (d) noise
Mountain
28. Why is the amplification necessary in the
communication system? Earth’s surface
(a) To compensate for the attenuation of the signal
(b) To compensate for the range of the signal
(c) To compensate for the receiver of the signal Why are repeaters used?
(d) To compensate for the transmitter of the signal (a) To discrete the range of a communication system
29. The energy needed for additional signal strength is (b) To extend the range of a communication system
obtained from (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) AC power source (b) DC power source (d) None of the above
(c) generator (d) sunlight 32. Which one of the following is essentially repeater
30. Which is the largest distance between a source and a station in space?
destination upto which the signal is received with (a) Artificial satellite
sufficient strength? (b) Natural satellite
(a) Bandwidth (b) Demodulation (c) Communication satellite
(c) Repeater (d) Range (d) All of the above

Topic 2
Bandwidth of Signals &
Transmission Medium
33. In a communication system, message signal can be 37. Large bandwidth for higher data rate is achieved by
(a) voice (b) music using
(c) picture or computer data (d) All of these (a) high frequency carrier wave
(b) low frequency carrier wave
34. The type of communication system needed for a given
(c) high frequency audio wave
signal depends on the ..... which is considered
(d) low frequency audio wave
essential for the communication process.
(a) range of wavelength 38. A laser is a coherent source because it contains
(b) band of frequencies (a) many wavelengths
(c) Either (a) or (b) (b) in ordinate wave of particular wavelength
(d) None of the above (c) coordinate waves of many wavelength
(d) coordinate waves of particular wavelength
35. Rectangular wave can be decomposed into a
superposition of sinusoidal waves of frequencies are 39. Message signals are also called
(a) ν 0 , 3 ν 0 , 6ν 0 , 9ν 0 , L, nν 0 (a) band signals (b) electronic signals
(b) 4 ν 0 , 8ν 0 , 12ν 0 , 16ν 0 , L, nν 0 (c) electromagnetic signals (d) baseband signals
(c) ν 0 , 2ν 0 , 3 ν 0 , 4 ν 0 , L, nν 0 40. How many signals, is a single frequency sinusoid?
(d) 2ν 0 , 4 ν 0 , 6ν 0 , 8ν 0 , L, nν 0 (a) Two bandwidth (b) No signal
36. What happen if the bandwidth is large enough to (c) One signal (d) Three signals
accommodate a few harmonics? 41. A singal spreads over a range of frequencies called
(a) The information is not lost (a) signal bandwidth
(b) The rectangular signal is more or less recovered (b) signal baseband
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) signal audio frequency
(d) Only (b) (d) signal video frequency
444 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

42. The effective power radiated by a long wavelength 48. How much bandwidth, is required by an optical fibre
baseband signal would be for data transmission?
(a) large (a) 100 GHz (b) 1000 GHz
(b) small (c) 100 kHz (d) 1000 kHz
(c) either small or large
49. The range of frequency allotted for UHF TV
(d) neither small nor large
broadband is
43. The radio waves frequency 80 MHz of 300 MHz (a) 470 - 960 kHz (b) 47 - 960 MHz
belong to (c) 470 - 960 MHz (d) 174 - 216 MHz
(a) high frequency band
50. The Cellular Mobile Radio wave of frequency
(b) very high frequency band
840 - 935 MHz belongs to
(c) ultra frequency band
(a) base station to mobile (b) mobile to base station
(d) super high frequency band
(c) ultra high frequency (d) very high frequency
44. Coaxial cables are normally operated below
51. Which type of communication uses carrier signals
(a) 18 GHz (b) 18 kHz
(c) 18 MHz (d) 18 THz
having frequencies in the range of 10 12 Hz to 10 16 Hz?
(a) Optical communication (b) Analog communication
45. Communication through free space using ..... waves (c) Digital communication (d) None of these
takes place over a very wide range of frequencies :
52. A communication between a fixed base station and
from a few hundreds of kHz to a GHz. several mobile units, located on ships or aircraft
(a) gamma waves (b) microwaves
utilising two way radio communication in the VHF
(c) radio waves (d) None of these
and UHF is of frequency band
46. For mobile communication to base station, the (a) 3 to 30 MHz (b) 30 to 300 MHz
required frequency band is (c) 30 to 470 MHz (d) 30 to 600 MHz
(a) 896-901 MHz (b) 896-901 kHz 53. Optical fibre communication is generally preferred
(c) 840-935 MHz (d) 840-935 kHz over general communication system because
47. Optical communication is performed in the frequency (a) it is more efficient
range of (b) it has signal security
(a) 100 GHz (b) 1 THz to 1000 THz (c) it cannot be jammed as easily as radio waves
(c) 1 THz to 100 Tz (d) Only 1000 THz (d) All of the above

Topic 3
Propagation of Electromagnetic Waves
54. As the electromagnetic waves travel away from the 57. Sky wave is used by
transmitter, the strength of the wave keeps on (a) long wave broadcast services
(a) increasing (b) short wave broadcast services
(b) decreasing (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Either increasing or decreasing (d) middle wave broadcast services
(d) Both (a) and (b)
58. The ionosphere is acting as reflector due to
55. Which size of the antenna should have comparable to
(a) Presence of a short number of ions
the wavelength λ of the signal, to radiate signals with
(b) Presence of a large number of ions or charged particles
high frequency?
(c) Presence of neither short nor large number of ions
(a) Atleast ~ λ / 2 (b) Atleast ~ λ / 4
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) At maximum ~ λ / 2 (d) At maximum ~ λ / 4
56. A ground receiver in line-of-sight communication 59. From which height does the ionosphere extends
cannot receive direct waves due to above the earth’s surface?
(a) its low frequency (b) curvature of earth (a) 65 to 75 km (b) 170 to 190 km
(c) its high intensity (d) smaller antenna (c) ~ 65 km to 400 km (d) ~ 65 to ~ 75 km
 CHAPTER 15 : Communication System 445

60. Ionisation occurs due to 70. Which of the following are the examples of
(a) absorption of the gamma rays communication system using space wave mode of
(b) absorption of the infrared rays propagation?
(c) absorption of the X-rays (a) Telephonic communication, microwave links and
(d) absorption of the ultraviolet rays television broadcast
(b) Telephonic communication, satellite communication, and
61. The degree of ionisation depends on microwave links
(a) height (b) intensity (c) Radio broadcast, television broadcast and telephonic
(c) thickness (d) All of these communication
62. Which of the following is the correct statement? (d) Microwave link, satellite communication and television
(a) Electromagnetic wave of frequencies higher than broadcast
30 MHz penetrates the ionosphere and escape 71. What does the given figure depict?
(b) Electromagnetic wave of frequencies higher than
30 kHz, penetrates the ionosphere and escape Communication satellite
(c) Electromagnetic wave of frequencies lower than
30 MHz penetrates the ionosphere and escape
(d) Electromagnetic wave of frequencies lower than Space wave
30 kHz penetrates the ionosphere and escape
63. Radio waves are propagated through Ionosphere
(a) ground wave (b) sky wave LOS
(c) space wave (d) All of these Los Sky wave
Ground wave
64. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Ground wave propagation can be sustained at Earth
frequencies 500 kHz to 1500 kHz
(b) Satellite communication is useful for the frequencies (a) various propagation modes for electromagnetic waves
above 30 MHz (b) various propagation modes for magnetic waves
(c) Sky wave propagation is useful in the 50 to 80 MHz (c) sight communication by space waves
(d) Space wave propagation takes place through (d) sky wave propagation
tropospheric space
(e) The phenomenon involved in sky wave propagation is 72. A transmitting antenna at the top of tower has a height
total internal reflection 32 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 50 m.
What is the maximum distance between them for
65. The part of the ionosphere which exists during day satisfactory communication is LOS mode?
and night time is (given, radius of earth = 6.4 × 106 m)
(a) D-layer (b) E-layer
(a) 45.5 km (b) 4.55 m
(c) F1-layer (d) F2-layer
(c) 45.5 m (d) 45.5 cm
66. On which path, a space wave travels from
73. Frequencies in the UHF range, normally propagate by
transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna?
means of
(a) Parabola (b) Straight line
(a) ground waves (b) sky waves
(c) Circular path (d) Rectangular path
(c) surface waves (d) space waves
67. Space waves are used for
(a) Line-of-Sight (LOS) communication
74. A radar has a power of 1 kW and is operating at a
(b) satellite communication
frequency of 10 GHz. It is located on a mountain top of
(c) Both (a) and (b)
height 500 m. The maximum distance upto which it
(d) None of the above
can detect object located on the surface of the earth
(Radius of earth = 6.4 × 106 m) is [AIEEE 2012]
68. Line-of-Sight (LOS) communication is only possible
(a) 80 km (b) 16 km
when the frequency is (c) 40 km (d) 64 km
(a) above 40 MHz (b) above 40 kHz
(c) equal to 40 MHz (d) below 40 MHz 75. The highest frequency of radio waves which when sent
at some angle towards the ionosphere, gets reflected
69. Where the receiving antenna must be stand so that from that and returns to the Earth is called
the signal is to be received beyond the horizon? (a) critical frequency (b) maximum usable frequency
(a) At lowest (b) At highest possible
(c) polarisation of waves (d) None of the above
(c) In the middle (d) Neither low or high
446 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

76. Through which mode of propagation, the radio waves 83. For transmitting a signal, we need an
can be sent from one place to another (a) signal (b) modulation
(a) ground wave propagation (c) receiver (d) antenna or aerial
(b) sky wave propagation
84. Antenna should have a size comparable to the
(c) space wave propagation
(a) bandwidth of the signal
(d) All of the above
(b) baseband of the signal
77. A transmitting antenna of height 20 m and the (c) wavelength of baseband
receiving antenna of height h are separated by a (d) wavelength of the signal
distance of 40 km for satisfactory communication in
85. For an electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 kHz, the
line of sight mode. Then, the value of h is
wavelength λ is that
(Given radius of the earth is 6400 km)
(a) 20 km (b) 20 m (c) 15 km (d) 15 m
(a) 40 m (b) 45 m (c) 30 m (d) 25 m
86. To transmit a signal of 3 kHz frequency, the minimum
78. What should be the height of a transmitting antenna, if
length of antenna is ……… km.
the TV telecast is to cover a radius of 128 km?
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
(a) 1280 m (b) 1280 km (c) 1540 m (d) 1140 km
87. What should be the length of the dipole antenna for a
79. The maximum distance upto which TV transmission
carrier wave of frequency 3 × 10 8 Hz?
from a TV tower of height h can be received is
proportional to (a) 1 m (b) 1 cm (c) 0.5 m (d) 5 cm
1/ 2 3/ 2 2
(a) h (b) h (c) h (d) h 88. A theoretical study of radiation from a linear antenna
80. A TV transmission tower antenna is at a height of (length l ) shows that the power radiated is
20 m. The percentage increase in area covered in case (a) proportional to ( λ / l )2
if the receiving antenna is at ground level to that at a (b) inversely proportional to ( l / λ )2
height of 25 m is (Radius of earth = 6.4 × 106 m) (c) proportional to ( l / λ )2
(a) 248% (b) 348.9% (c) 150% (d) 360.2% (d) inversely proportional to ( l / λ )2
81. A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a 89. For a good transmission, we need
height of 36 m and the height of the receiving (a) high power
antenna is 49 m. What is the maximum distance (b) low power
between them for satisfactory communication in LOS (c) never low power
mode? (d) neither low power nor high power
(a) 46.5 km (b) 45.5 km (c) 42.75 km (d) 35.77 km
90. The fundamental radio antenna is a metal rod which
82. The area of the region covered by the TV broadcast has a length equal to
by a TV tower of 100 m height is (radius of the earth (a) λ in free space at the frequency of operation
= 6.4 × 106 m) (b) λ / 2 in free space at the frequency of operation
(a) 12.8 × 108 km2 (b) 1.28π × 103 km2 (c) λ / 4 in free space at the frequency of operation
(c) 0.64 π × 10 km3 2
(d) 1.28π × 104 km2 (d) 3 λ / 4 in free space at the frequency of operation

Topic 4
Modulation
91. A figure shows the nature of wave is 92. A figure shows the nature of wave is
Time period T Pulse
duration
Amplitude ω=2 π
T
Time Pulse
rise Pulse Pulse
fall amplitude

(a) pulse (b) sinusoidal (a) sinusoidal (b) pulses

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
 CHAPTER 15 : Communication System 447

93. A process which attaches information to the carrier 100. In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of the carrier
wave, known as is varied in accordance with the
(a) modulation (b) demodulation (a) message signal (b) baseband
(c) amplification (d) transmission (c) bandwidth (d) information signal
94. During the process of modulation, any of the three 101. To avoid distortion modulation index µ is kept.
parameters, viz., Ac , ω c and φ, of the carrier wave can (a) < 1 (b) > 1 (c) = 1 (d) ≤ 1
be controlled by 102. Using trigonometric relation sin A sin B
(a) baseband
= 1/ 2 [cos ( A − B )] − cos ( A + B ), we can write
(b) bandwidth
cm ( t ) = Ac sin ω c t + µAc sin ω m t sin ω c t as follows
(c) message or information signal µ Ac
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) cm ( t ) = A c sin ω m t + cos (ω c − ω m ) t
2
95. Choose the correct statements. [JEE Main 2016] µ Ac
− cos (ω c + ω m ) t
(a) In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of the high 2
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to µAm
(b) cm ( t ) = A c sin ω c t + cos (ω c − ω m ) t
the amplitude of the audio signal. 2
(b) In amplitude modulation, the frequency of the high µ Am
− cos (ω c + ω m ) t
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to 2
the amplitude of the audio signal. µAc
(c) cm ( t ) = A c sin ω c t + cos (ω c − ω m ) t
(c) In frequency modulation, the amplitude of the high 2
µ Ac
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to − cos (ω c + ω m ) t
the frequency of the audio signal. 2
µAc
(d) In frequency modulation, the amplitude of the high (d) cm ( t ) = A c sin ω c t + cos (ω c + ω m ) t
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to 2
µAc
the frequency of the audio signal. − (ω c − ω m ) t
2
96. The significant characteristics of a pulse are
(a) pulse amplitude, pulse duration, pulse receiver 103. A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated
(b) pulse amplitude, pulse repeater, pulse width on a carrier wave of frequency 2MHz. The
(c) pulse amplitude, pulse duration or pulse width, pulse frequencies of the resultant signal is/are
repeater (a) 2 MHz only [JEE Main 2015]
(d) pulse amplitude, pulse duration or pulse width, pulse (b) 2005 kHz and 1995 kHz
position (c) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
(d) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
97. Various types of pulse modulation are
(a) pulse amplitude modulation, pulse position modulation, 104. A signal wave of frequency 12 kHz is modulated with
pulse frequency modulation a carrier wave of frequency 2.51 MHz. The upper and
(b) pulse frequency modulation, pulse phase modulation, lower sideband of frequencies are respectively,
pulse position modulation (a) 2512 kHz and 2508 kHz (b) 2522 kHz and 2488 kHz
(c) pulse amplitude modulation, pulse phase modulation, (c) 2502 kHz and 2498 kHz (d) 2522 kHz and 2498 kHz
pulse position modulation
105. As carrier wave,
(d) pulse amplitude modulation, pulse duration or pulse µ Ac
width modulation, pulse position modulation cm ( t ) = Ac sin ω c t + cos (ω c − ω m ) t
2
98. In an amplitude modulation with modulation index − µ Ac / 2 cos (ω c + ω m ) t
0.5, the ratio of the amplitude of the carrier wave to In the given equation, (ω c − ω m ) and (ω c + ω m ) are
that of the sideband in the modulated wave is (a) upper side frequency, lower side frequency
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (b) lower side frequency, lower side frequency
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 (c) upper side frequency, lower side frequency
99. The modulation techniques used for transforming (d) lower side frequency, upper side frequency
digital data into analog signals are 106. The modulated signal consists of the carrier wave of
(a) only Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK) frequency ω c plus two sinusoidal waves each with a
(b) only Frequency Shift Keying (FSK) frequency slightly different, known as
(c) only Phase Shift Keying (PSR) (a) sidebands (b) baseband
(d) All of the above (c) width band (d) All of these
448 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

107. 116. In the communication system, AM is used for

Ac broadcasting because
Amplitude

µAc (a) it avoids receiver complexity

2 (b) it is more noise immune than other modulation system
(c) it requires less transmitting power
(ωc – ωm) ωc (ωc + ωm) ω (in radian) (d) no other modulation system can give the necessary
bandwidth for faithful transmission
Which one of the following graphs is shown in figure?
(a) Modulation of carrier wave 117. Identify the parts A and B of a diagram of a receiver.
(b) Modulation of sky wave Receiving
(c) Frequency spectrum of the amplitude modulated signal antenna
(d) Pulse modulation of carrier wave
Output
A IF stage B Amplifier
108. A message signal of frequency 10 kHz and peak Received
signal
voltage of 10 V is used to modulate a carrier of
frequency 1 MHz and peak voltage of 20 V. (a) detector, amplifier
Determine the modulation index. (b) signal, carrier wave
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.2 (c) 2 (d) 5
(c) amplifier, detector
109. In the above question, sidebands produced are (d) carrier wave, signal
(a) 1010 kHz and 990 kHz (b) 1010 MHz and 990 MHz 118. Which of the following is the process of recovering
(c) 1010 Hz and 990 Hz (d) 1010 THz and 990 THz the modulating signal from the modulated carrier
110. A sinusoidal carrier voltage of amplitude 100 V is wave?
amplitude modulated by a sinusoidal voltage to give (a) Amplification
as amplitude modulation wave to minimum voltage (b) Detection
amplitude of 70 V. Find the modulation index. (c) Rectifier
(a) 0.03 (b) 30 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.003 (d) Demodulation
111. A carrier wave of peak voltage 10 V is used to 119. The method shown in the block diagram is used to
transmit a message signal. What would be the peak obtain.
voltage of the modulating signal in order to have a AM Wave Envelope m (t)
Rectifier Output
modulation index of 50%? detector
(a) 5 V (b) 3 V (c) 9 V (d) 10 V
(a) (b) (c)
112. If the minimum voltage in an AM wave was found to
Time Time Time
be 2V and maximum voltage 10 V. Find per cent
modulation index. AM input wave Rectified wave Output (without RF
(a) 80% (b) 66.67% (c) 64.25% (d) 76.25% component)

113. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine (a) the original message signal m ( t )of angular frequency ω m
waves having modulation index of 0.3 and 0.4. The (b) the original information signal c( t ) of a simpler
total modulation index will be modular
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.35 (c) an AM signal
114. The modulator is to be followed by a (d) modulation of carrier wave
(a) baseband (b) bandwidth 120. In a modulated signal, an envelope of rectified wave is
(c) signal (d) power amplifier (a) message signal
115. Identify the part A in the block diagram of transmitter. (b) informal signal
Transmitting (c) Both (a) and (b)
antenna (d) None of these
m (t) Amplitude
A 121. In order to retrieve m ( t ), the signal is passed through
Message modulator
signal (a) rectifier
Carrier (b) amplifier
(a) square law device (b) band pass filter centred (c) envelope detector
(c) power amplifier (d) modulating signal (d) Both (a) and (c)
 Special Format Questions
I. Assertion and Reason 128. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Directions (Q. Nos. 122-125) In the following I. Similar to message signals, different types of
questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a transmission media offer different bandwidths.
corresponding statement of reason. Of the following II. The commonly used transmission media are wire, free
statements, choose the correct one. space and optical fibre.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is III. Coaxial cable is widely used wire media, which offers
the correct explanation of Assertion. a bandwidth of approximately 750 MHz.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is (a) I and II (b) II and III
not the correct explanation of Assertion. (c) I, II and III (d) Only I
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. 129. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
I. The frequency used in satellite communication lies
122. Assertion Digital signals are preferred over analog
between 5MHz and 1MHz.
signals for transmission of information.
II. The uplink and downlink frequencies are different.
Reason Analog signals require amplification and
III. The orbit of geostationary satellite lies in the equatorial
correction at suitable intervals.
plane at inclination of 0°.
123. Assertion In real life, an approximate bandwidth of (a) I and II (b) I and III
20 kHz is required to transmit the music. (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
Reason High frequencies are produced by the 130. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
musical instruments. regarding ground wave propagation?
124. Assertion A TV signal requires the bandwidth of I. A wave induces current in the ground over which it
76-88 MHz for transmission. passes and surrounding particle.
Reason A TV signal contains both voice and picture. II. It is attenuated as a result of absorption of energy by the
125. Assertion Antenna should have a size comparable to Earth and surrounding particle.
the wavelength of the signal (atleast λ / 4 in dimension). III. The attenuation of surface waves decreases very
Reason The antenna properly senses the time rapidly with increase in frequency.
variation of the signal. IV. The maximum range of coverage depends on the
transmitted power and frequency (less than a few
II. Statement Based Questions MHz).
(a) I and II (b) I and III
126. Digital signals (c) I, II and IV (d) All of these
I. do not provide a continuous set of a values.
II. represent values as discrete values. 131. Consider the following figure
dM
III. can utilise binary system and. dT
IV. can utilise decimal as well as binary systems.
h Earth’s surface hR
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and II (b) II and III Line of sight communication by space waver
(c) I, II and III (d) All of these
Which statement of the following is/are correct?
127. Read the following statements and select the correct
I. Because of line of sight nature of propagation, direct
option from the options given below.
waves get blocked at some point by the curvature of the
I. To reproduce the rectangular wave shape exactly we need Earth.
to superimpose all the harmonics v 0 , 2 v 0 , 3 v 0 , 4 v 0 L,
which implies an infinite bandwidth. II. Because of sky wave nature of propagation, direct
waves get blocked at some point by the curvature of the
II. For practical purposes, the contribution from higher
Earth.
harmonics cannot be neglected, thus limiting the
bandwidth. III. Because of surface wave nature of propagation, direct
III. Received waves are distorted version of the waves not blocked at some point by the curvature of the
transmitted one. Earth.
(a) I and III (b) I and II (c) Only III (d) All of these (a) Only I (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I and II
450 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

132. High frequency carrier waves are needed for effective 135. Match the following Column I with names given in
transmission of signals. Column II and choose the correct option from the
I. To reduce the length ( l ) of the transmitting antenna as codes given below. [HOTS]
l = λ / 4.
Column I Column II
II. To increase the power ( P ) radiated by the antenna (as
P α 1/ λ 2 ) so as to increase the range of transmission. A. Speech signals 1. Bandwidth of 20 kHZ
III. To transmit a large number of signals simultaneously. B. Speech signals for 2. Frequencies extends
(a) I and II (b) Only I commercial telephonic from 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(c) I and III (d) All of these communication
C. Music transmission 3. Frequency range 300 Hz
133. A schematic arrangement for transmitting a message to 3100 Hz.
signal (20 Hz to 20 kHz) is given in figure
D. Audible range of 4. 6 MHz of bandwidth
Transmitting antenna Antenna
frequencies
E. Video signals for 5. Bandwidth of 2800 Hz
Amplifier Amplifier transmission of picture (3100 Hz - 300 Hz)
Microphone
Transmitter Receiver Loudspeaker
F. TV signal 6. 4.2 MHz of bandwidth
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
A B C D E F
I. The message signal is in the AM range and cannot be (a) 6 4 3 2 1 5
transmitted beyond some distances as it possess small
(b) 5 3 2 1 4 6
energy.
(c) 3 5 1 2 6 4
II. An Amplitude Modulation (AM) signal does not possess
(d) 4 2 1 6 5 3
enough energy to travel an appreciable distance from the
antenna. 136. Consider the following figure.
III. The heights of the antennas required are so large that is 1.5
(s) (r) (q )
impossible to build them. 1.0 (p )
(a) Only I
0.5
(b) I and II
Voltage

(c) I and III 0 1

0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 time
(d) All of the above –0.5
–1.0
III. Matching Type –1.5
134. Match the following Column I with names given in
Match the following columns.
Column II and choose the correct option from the codes
given below. Column I Column II

Column I Column II A. (p) 1. Fundamental wave (ν0 )

A. 0 1. Binary coded decimal. B. (q) 2. Fundamental (ν0 ) + second harmonics
B. Combinations of 2. High level of voltage/current. (2ν0 ) + third harmonics (3ν0 )
number system. C. (r) 3. Rectangular wave
C. Universally 3. Low level of voltage/ current.
popular digital D. (s) 4. Fundamental wave (ν0 ) + second
code. harmonics (2ν0 )
D. ‘1’ 4. (ASCII) American Standard Code
for Information Interchange. A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
A B C D A B C D (b) 1 3 4 2
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3
 CHAPTER 15 : Communication System 451

137. Match the following Column I with names given in IV. Passage Based Questions
Column II and choose the correct option from the
codes given below. Directions (Q. Nos. 140-142) These questions are
based on the following situation. Choose the correct
Column I Column II options from those given below.
A. Standard AM broadcast 1. 54 - 72 MHz Space waves are used for line-of-sight (LOS)
B. FM broadcast 2. 5.925 - 6.425 GHz communication as well as satellite communication.
C. Satellite communication 3. 540 - 1600 kHz Because of line-of-sight nature of propagation, direct
(uplink) waves gets blocked at some point by the curvature of
D. Television (VHF) 4. 88 - 108 MHz the earth as illustrated in figure. If the signal is to be
received beyond the horizon then the receiving antenna
A B C D A B C D
must be high enough to intercept the line-of-sight
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
waves.
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
dM
dT
138. Match the following Column I with names given in
Column II and choose the correct option from the hT Earth’s surface hR
codes given below.
Column I Column II 140. If the transmitting antenna is at a height hT , the
A. F2 (Thermosphere) 300 km 1. Partially absorbs HF distance to the horizon dT is given as
at night, 250-400 km waves yet allowing them
during day time. to reach F2 . (a) dT = 2hR T (b) dT = 2Rh T
 hr 
B. E (part of stratosphere) 2. Efficiently reflects HF (c) dT = 2Rh T (d) dT = 2Rh T 1 + 
(100 km). waves, particularly at  2R 
night.
C. F1 (Part of mesosphere) 3. VHF (upto several GHz)
141. In the above question, dT is also called the radio
170 − 190 km. (a) horizon of the transmitting antenna
D. D (Part of stratosphere) 4. Helps surface waves, (b) horizon of the transmitter
(65-75 km). reflects HF. (c) horizon of the modulation
E. Troposphere (10 km). 5. Reflects LF, absorbs MF (d) horizon of the signal
and HF to some degree.
142. The maximum line of sight distance d M between the two
A B C D E A B C D E antennas having heights hT and hR above the Earth is
(a) 2 4 1 5 3 (b) 1 4 5 2 3 (a) d M = 1 + 2RhT (b) d M = 1 + 2RhR
(c) 4 2 5 3 1 (d) 5 1 4 3 2
(c) d M = 2Rh T + 2RhR (d) d M = 2Rh T (1 + 2RhR )
139. Match the following Column I with names given in
Column II and choose the correct option from the Directions (Q. Nos. 143-145) These questions are
codes given below. based on the following situation. Choose the correct
options from those given below.
Column I Column II
The modulated signal cm ( t) can be written as
1. Output cm ( t) = ( Ac + Am sin ω m t) sin ω c t
A. (V) (t)
 A 
(a) = Ac 1 + m sin ω m t sin ω c t …(i)
2. AM input wave
 A c 
A
B. (V) (b) (t) Here, µ = m is the modulation index; in practice µ is
Ac
3. Rectified wave kept ≤ 1 to avoid distortion.
C. (V) (t) µAc
(c) Now, cm ( t) = Ac sin ω c t + cos (ω c − ω m ) t
2
µAc
A B C A B C − cos (ω c + ω m )t …(ii)
(a) 3 2 1 (b) 2 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 Here, ω c − ω m and ω c + ω m are respectively called the
lower side and upper side frequencies.
452 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

143. An amplitude modulation wave is represented as (a) the size of the required antenna would be atleast 5 km
which is not convenient
cm ( t ) = 10 (1 + 0.4 sin 3140 t ) sin (2.2 × 10 t) V. The
6
(b) the audio signal cannot be transmitted through sky waves.
minimum and maximum voltage applied amplitude of (c) the size of the required antenna would be 5m
the wave are (d) effective power transmitted would be very low, if the
(a) 10 V, 2 V (b) 8 V, 10 V size of the antenna is less than 5 km
(c) 14 V, 6 V (d) 8 V, 14 V
148. Audio sine waves of 3 kHz frequency are used to
144. The frequency components contained in the wave are amplitude modulate a carrier signal of 1.5 MHz.
(a) 350 kHz, 349.5 kHz, 350.5 kHz Which of the following statements are true?
(b) 350 MHz, 349.5 MHz, 350.5 MHz (a) The sideband frequencies are 1506 kHz and 1494 kHz.
(c) 250 kHz, 249.5 kHz, 250.5 kHz (b) The bandwidth required for amplitude modulation is
(d) 250 MHz, 249.5 MHz, 250.5 MHz 6 kHz.
(c) The bandwidth required for amplitude modulation is
145. Amplitudes of frequency components are
3 MHz.
(a) 10 V, 6 V, 8 V (b) 10 V, 2 V and 2 V
(d) The sideband frequencies are 1503 kHz and 1497 kHz.
(c) 8 V, 4 V and 2 V (d) 8 V, 6 V, 2 V
149. In amplitude modulation, the modulation index m, is
V. More than One Option Correct kept less than or equal to 1 because
(a) m > 1, will result in interference between carrier
146. A TV transmission tower has a height of 240 m. frequency and message frequency, resulting into
Signals broadcast from this tower will be received by distortion
LOS communication at a distance of (assume the (b) m > 1, will result in overlapping of both sidebands
radius of earth is to be 6.4 × 106 m) resulting into loss of information
(a) 100 km (b) 24 km (c) 55 km (d) 50 km (c) m > 1, will result in change in phase between carrier
signal and message signal
147. An audio signal of 15 kHz frequency cannot be (d) m > 1, indicate amplitude of message signal greater than
transmitted over long distances without modulation, amplitude of carrier signal resulting into distortion
because

NCERT & NCERT Exemplar Questions

NCERT NCERT Exemplar
150. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by 153. Three waves such as A, B and C of frequencies
means of 1600 kHz, 5 MHz and 60 MHz, respectively are to be
(a) ground waves (b) sky waves transmitted from one place to another. Which of the
(c) surface waves (d) space waves following is the most appropriate mode of
151. Is it necessary for a transmitting antenna to be at the communication?
same height as that of the receiving antenna for line of (a) A is transmitted via space wave while B and C are
sight communication? A TV transmitting antenna is transmitted via sky wave
81 m tall. How much service area can it cover, it the (b) A is transmitted via ground wave, B is sky wave and C is
receiving antenna is at the ground level? space wave
(a) 3258.5 km 2 (b) 2200.5 km2 (c) B and C are transmitted via ground wave while A is
2 transmitted via sky wave
(c) 4512 km (d) 1212 km2
(d) B is transmitted via ground wave while A and C are
152. For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum transmitted via space wave
amplitude is found to be 10 V while the minimum
amplitude is found to be 2.V. Determine the 154. A 100 m long antenna is mounted on a 500 m tall
modulation index µ. building. The building can become a transmission
What would be the value of µ, if the minimum tower for waves with λ is
amplitude is 0 V? (a) ~ 400 m (b) ~ 25 m
(a) 3/2, 1.5 (b) 2/3, 1 (c) 2/3, 0.5 (d) 3/2, 1.33 (c) ~ 150 m (d) ~ 2400 m
 CHAPTER 15 : Communication System 453

155. A 1 kW signal is transmitted using a communication Choose the correct sequence in which these are
channel which provides attenuation at the rate of arranged in basic communication system.
−2 dB per km. If the communication channel has a (a) ABCDE (b) BADEC
total length of 5 km, the power of signal received is (c) BDACE (d) BEADC
(a) 900 W (b) 100 W (c) 990 W (d) 1010 W 160. Which of the following would produce analog
156. A speech signal of 3 kHz is used to modulate a carrier signals?
signal of frequency 1 MHz using amplitude modulation. (a) A vibrating tuning fork (b) Light pulse
The frequencies of the sidebands will be (c) Output of NAND gate (d) All of the above
(a) 1.003 MHz and 0.997 MHz
161. Which of the following would produce digit signals?
(b) 3001 kHz and 2997 kHz
(a) Musical sound
(c) 1003 kHz and 1000 kHz
(b) A vibrating tuning fork
(d) 1 MHz and 0.997 MHz
(c) Sound and picture signals in TV
157. A message signal of frequency ω m is superposed on a (d) Light pulse
carrier wave of frequency ω c to get an Amplitude
Modulated (AM) wave. The frequency of the AM will be 162. The frequency response curve for the filter circuit
ωc + ωm ω − ωm used for production of AM wave should be
(a) ω m (b) ω c (c) (d) c
2 2 Gain Gain
158. I-V characteristics of four devices are shown in figure
I I (i) (ii)

(i) (ii)
ω ω
(ωc + ωm) (ωc – ωm)
V V
Gain Gain
I I

(iii) (iv) (iii) (iv)

ω ω
V V
(ωc – ωm) (ωc + ωm) (ωc – ωm) (ωc + ωm)
Identify devices that can be used for modulation.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) Only (iii) (a) (i) followed by (ii) (b) (ii) followed by (i)
(c) (ii) and some regions of (iv) (d) All devices can be used (c) (iii) (d) (iv)
159. A basic communication system consists of 163. Would sky waves be suitable for transmission of TV
(A) transmitter (B) information source signals of 60 MHz frequency?
(C) user of information (D) channel (a) Yes (b) No
(E) receiver (c) May be (d) Never yes

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24 (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (d) 71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (b)
76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (d) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (d)
106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (c) 116. (a) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (c) 129. (c) 130. (c) 131. (a) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (c)
136. (c) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (b) 140. (b) 141. (a) 142. (c) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (b,c, 147. (a,b, 148. (b, 149. (b, 150. (d)
d) d) d) d)
 Hints and Explanations
1. (c) A modern communication system acts as a messenger. 21. (d) For efficient transmission, size of antenna = λ /4
It sends as a input signal in the form of message through
25. (c) Digital signals are those which cannot take only discrete
communication channel to receive an output signal at the
end of receiver. stepwise values.
26. (a) Fading in the signal received is due to interference of
Input signal Communication
(Message) Transmitter waves or attenuation which decreases in strength of a signal.
channel
29. (b) The energy needed for additional signal strength is
Output Receiver obtained from a DC power source in order to amplify the
signal
amplitude of a signal.
2. (c) Languages and methods used in communication have
35. (c) Rectangular wave can be decomposed into a superposition
kept evolving from prehistoric to modern times, to meet
of sinusoidal waves of frequencies ν 0 , 2ν 0 , 3ν 0 , 4 ν 0 , L , nν 0 ,
the growing demands in terms of speed and complexity of
where n is an integer extends to infinity.
information such as videophones, voicemail and satellite
conferences. 36. (c) The information is not lost and the rectangular signal is
7. (c) A receiver reconstructs a recognisable form of the more or less recovered.This is so because the higher the
original message signal for delivering it to the user’s harmonic less is its contribution to the waveform.
information. 37. (a) High frequency carrier wave provides a larger bandwidth
8. (c) In a point to point communication mode, communication for higher date rate transmission from sender to receiver or
takes place over a link between a transmitter and a vice-versa.
receiver.It is also known as peer-to-peer communication. 40. (b) No signal, in general, is a single frequency sinosoid, but it
10. (c) The transmission media can be both, guided as well as spreads over a range of frequencies called the signal bandwidth.
unguided. In guided medium, signal is guided along a solid 41. (a) A range of frequencies between two bands, i.e., upper and
medium such as transmission line, while in unguided lower limit is called the signal bandwidth.
medium, signal is transmitted and received by wireless
medium. 47. (b) Optical communication using fibres is performed in the
frequency range of 1 THz to 1000 THz (microwaves to
11. (a) A guided medium can provide point to point ultraviolet).It lies in extremely-high-frequency band (EHF).
communication.
52. (c) A communication link between a fixed base station and
13. (b) ARPANET was a project undertaken by the US
mobile units on a ship or aircraft works on 30 to 470 MHz.
department of defence.
55. (b) To radiate signals with high efficiency, the antennas
14. (a) ARPANET allowed file transfer from one computer to
should have a size comparable to the wavelength λ of the
another connected to the network by using File Transfer
signal (atleast ~ λ / 4). So, lesser the wavelength, the higher
Protocol (FTP).
will be frequency of a signal.
15. (b) Fibre optical systems are superior and more economical
56. (b) A ground receiver in line-of-sight communication cannot
as compared to traditional communication systems because
receive direct waves due to curvature of earth.
it is used to transmit more information and is immune to
electromagnetic interference. 60. (d) Ionisation occurs due to the absorption of ultraviolet and
very high energy radiation coming from the sun by air molecules.
16. (d) The modern communication system is based on
electrical, electronic or optical signals. For example, a 61. (a) The degree of ionisation varies with the height.So,the
microphone converts speech signal into electrical signals. density of atmosphere decreases with height.
17. (a) The fax or facsimile telegraphy is the electronic 62. (a) Electromagnetic waves of frequencies higher than 30 MHz
transmission and reproduction of a document at a distinct penetrate the ionosphere and escape. These phenomena are
place. It is the most popular example of a digital shown in the figure.
communication system.
19. (b) A transducer is a device that converts a signal in one
F2
form of energy to another form of energy. So, amplifier is F1
not a transducer. Ionospheric
layers E
20. (a) An electrical transducer may be defined as a device that D
converts some physical variable/pressure, displacement,
force, temperature, etc) into corresponding variations in Earth’s surface
the electrical signal at its output.
 CHAPTER 15 : Communication System 455

63. (d) Radio waves are propagated through ground, sky and 79. (a) As maximum distance on Earth from transmitter upto
space waves. It has frequency from 300 Hz to as low as 3 which a signal can be received is d T = 2Rh , d T ∝ h1 / 2
kHz and corresponding wavelength ranging from 1 mm to where, R is radius of Earth and is constant.
100 km.
80. (b) Here, hT = 20 m, R = 6.4 × 106 m = 64 × 105 m
64. (c) Sky wave propagation is possible for the radio waves of
frequency range from 3 MHz to 30 MHz and not in the If the receiving antenna is at ground level,
range 50-80 MHz. Range, d = 2hT R
66. (b) A space wave travels in a straight line from transmitting
= 2 × 20 × ( 64 × 105 )
antenna to the receiving antenna because its frequency is
below 2 MHz. So, it cannot travel over the horizon or behind = 16 × 103 m = 16 km
obstacles. 22
Area covered, A = πd 2 = × (16 )2 = 804.6 km2
69. (b) If the signal is to be received beyond the horizon, then 7
the receiving antenna must be high enough to intercept the
If the receiving antenna at a height of 25 m, then
line of sight waves.
Range, d1 = 2hT R + 2hR R
72. (a) The maximum Line of Sight (LoS) distance d M between
the two antennas having heights h T and hR is = 2 × 20 × ( 64 × 105 ) + 2 × 25 × 64 × 105
d M = 2Rh T + 2RhR
= 16 × 103 + 17.9 × 103
d = 2 × 64 × 10 × 32 + 2 × 64 × 10 × 50 m
5 5
= 33.9 × 103 m = 33.9 km
= 64 × 10 × 10 + 8 × 10 × 10 m
2 3
22
Area covered, A1 = πd12 = × (33.9)2 = 3611.8 km2
= 144 × 10 × 10 m = 45.5 km
2
7
74. (a) Range of radar on earth’s surface (optical distance, for A −A
Percentage increase in area = 1 × 100
space wave, i.e., line of view). A
 3611.8 − 804.6
=  × 100 = 348.9%
Ra

h
 
ng

804.6
e

81. (a) Given, hT = 36 m

R
hR = 49 m
R
R = 6400 km
Range = ( R + h )2 − R 2 = 2Rh + h 2 Maximum distance between transmitting and receiving
antenna,
~ 2Rh = 2 × 6400 × 1 km = 80 km
−
2 i.e., d M = d T + d R = 2RhT + 2RhR

75. (b) The highest frequency of radio waves that can be = 2( 6400 )( 36 × 10−3 ) + 2( 6400 )( 49 × 10−3 km)
reflected by the ionosphere is called maximum usable = 21.5 + 25 = 46.5 km
Critical frequency .
frequency (MUF), so MUF = 82. (b) Area of broadcast, A = πd 2 = π ( 2hR )
cos θ
Given, h = 100 m and R = 6.4 × 106 m
77. (b) d M = 2RhR + 2RhT
⇒ A = π( 2 × 100 × 6.4 × 106 )
where, hR and hT are the heights of receiving and
transmitting antenna and R is the radius of the earth. = 1.28π × 103 km2
40 × 103 = 2 × 6400 × 103 × h + 2 × 6400 × 103 × 20 85. (c) Frequency, i.e., ν = 20 kHz = 20 × 103 Hz
Speed of light, i.e., c = 3 × 108 ms −1
40 × 103 = 2 × 6400 × 103 × h + 16 × 103
c
[( 40 − 16 ) × 103 ]2 So, ν=
h= = 45 m λ
2 × 6.4 × 106
c 3 × 108
78. (a) Here, height of a transmitting antenna, i.e., d T =128 km Wavelength, i.e., λ = = = 1. 5 × 104 m =15 km
ν 2 × 104
= r radius of Earth, i.e., R = 6400km (Q 1km = 1000 m)
∴ Height of a transmitting antenna, d T = 2RhT For an electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 kHz, the
d2 (128 km)2 wavelength λ is 15 km.Obviously, such a long antenna is
hT = T = = 1.28 km = 1280 m
2R 2 × 6400 km not possible to construct and operate.
456 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

c 3 × 108 ms −1 108. (a) Here, A m = 10 V, A c = 20 V

87. (c) Wavelength of an antenna, λ = = = 1m
v 3 × 108 Hz As we know modulation index,
1 ( µ ) = A m / A c = 10 / 20 = 0.5
Length of the dipole antenna = λ / 2 = = 0.5 m
2
109. (a) The sidebands of a modulated message signal is ω c − ω m
89. (a) For good transmission, we need high powers and hence and ω c + ω m are (1000 + 10 ) = 1010 kHz andd
this also points out to the need of using high frequency (1000 − 10 kHz) = 990 kHz
transmission.
110. (c) Here, A c = 100 V, M 2 (minimum voltage amplitude of
90. (b) The fundamental radio antenna is a metal rod which has a
length equal to λ / 2in free space at the frequency of operation. AM wave) = 70 V
Since, M 2 = A c (1 − µ )
95. (b) As, we know, an amplitude modulated wave, the
bandwidth is twice the frequency of modulating signal. So, modulation index
M2 70 V
Therefore, amplitude modulation (AM), the frequency of the i.e., µ = 1− =1− = 1 − 0.7 = 0.3
high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to Ac 100 V
the amplitude of the audio signal. 50 1
111. (a) Given, A c = 10 V, µ = 50% = =
98. (a) Here, modulation index, µ = 0.5 100 2
Amplitude of the carrier wave = Ac As modulating index
A A 1
Amplitude of the sideband = µ c µ = m , A m = µAc = (10 V) = 5 V
2 Ac 2
2 2 4
Ratio = = = 112. (b) Modulation index,
µ 0.5 1 E max − E min 10 − 2 2
µ= = = × 100 = 66.67%
102. (c) Using the trigonometric relation sin A sin B = 1/ 2 E max + E min 10 + 2 3
[cos ( A − B ) − cos ( A + B )] , we can write cm ( t ) of 113. (b) Here, m1 = 0.3 and m2 = 0.4
equation cm ( t ) = A c sin ω c t + µ A c sin ω m t sin ω c t as
µAc Total modulation index i.e.,
cm ( t ) = A c sin ω c t + cos (ω c − ω m ) t
2 m = m12 + m22 = 0.32 + 0.4 2
µAc
− cos (ω c + ω m ) t = 0.09 + 0.16 = 0.25 = 0.5
2
Here, ω c − ω m and ω e + ω m are respectively called the 114. (d) The modulator is to be followed by a power amplifier
lower side and upper sideband frequencies. which provides the necessary power and the modulated
103. (c) Frequency associated with AM are fc − fm , fc , fc + fm signal is fed to an antenna of appropriate size for radiation.
116. (a) In the communication system, AM is used for
Thus, frequency of the resultant signal is/are carrier
frequency fc = 2000 kHz, LSB frequency broadcasting because it avoids receiver complexity level to
fc − fm = 2000 kHz – 5kHz maintain high strength of a modulating signal.
= 1995 kHz and USB frequency fc + fm = 2005 kHz 122. (b) Digital signals can be transmitted over long distances
104. (d) Here, ν s = 12kHz
without error because of their ability to overcome with
noise. Analog signals determine the amplitude and
ν c = 2.51 MHz = 2510 kHz frequency, respectively of the waveform of the voltage
Upper side band frequency = 2510 + 12 = 2522 kHz current. It pick up unwanted singnals.
Lower side band frequency = 2510 − 12 = 2498kHz 123. (a) To transmit music, an approximate bandwidth of 20 kHz
106. (a) The modulated signal consists of the carrier wave of is required because the high frequencies are produced by
frequency ω c plus two sinusoidal waves each with a the musical instruments.
frequency slightly different known as sidebands. 124. (a) A TV signal contains both voice and picture and is
107. (c) The frequency spectrum of the amplitude modulated usually allocated 6 MHz of bandwidth for transmission.
signal is shown in figure. 125. (a) For transmitting a signal, aerial or antenna should have a
size comparable to the wavelength of the signal atleast λ / 4 in
Ac dimension. So, it properly senses the time variation of the
Amplitude

µAc signal.
2 126. (c) Digital signals are the values in the form of 0 or 1. It
represents discrete values in the binary bits which are non-
continuous set of values.
(ωc – ωm) ωc (ωc + ωm) ω (in radians)
 CHAPTER 15 : Communication System 457

127. (a)To reproduce the rectangular wave shape exactly we need Minimum amplitude,
to superimpose all the harmonics v0 , 2v0 , 3 v0 , 4 v0 ,L, which M 1 = A c (1 + µ ) = 10 (1 + 0.4) = 14 V
implies an infinite bandwidth. However, for practical Maximum amplitude,
purposes, the contribution from higher harmonics can be M 2 = A c (1 − µ ) = 10 (1 − 0.4) = 6 V
neglected, thus limiting the bandwidth. As a result, received
144. (a) Frequency components of AM wave are ν c , ( ν c − ν m )
waves are a distorted version of the transmitted one.
and ( ν c + ν m ) i. e., 350 kHz, ( 350 − 0.5 ) = 349.5 kHz and
129. (c) In satellite communication, the frequency used is more ( 350 + 0.5 ) = 350.5 kHz.
than 40 MHz. The uplink and downlink frequencies are
different to avoid distortion of signal and the orbit of 145. (b) Amplitude of the frequency components are
geostationary satellite lies in the equatorial plane at an µAc µAc
A c, , , i. e., 10V, 2V and 2 V
inclination of 0°. 2 2
131. (a) In sky wave propagation, radio wave reaches the receiver 146. (b,c,d) Range, d T = 2RhT
after the reflection from ionosphere. Given, height of tower h = 240 m
133. (c) (i) The message signal is in the AM range and cannot be For LOS (Line of Sight) communication.
transmitted beyond some distance as it possesses small
d = 2Rh = 2 × 6.4 × 106 × 240
energy (due to low frequency).
(ii) The height of the antennas required are so large that it is = 55.4 × 103 m = 55.4 km
impossible to build them. Thus, the range of 55.4 km covers the distance 24 km,
134. (b) ‘0’ corresponds to a low level and ‘1’ corresponds to a 55 km and 50 km.
high level of voltage/current. There are several coding 147. (a,b,d) Transmission of a signal depends on three factors.
schemes useful for digital communication. They employ These are size of antenna, medium of transmission and
suitable combinations of number system such as the Binary power of transmitted wave.
Coded Decimal (BCD). American Standard Code for
Given, frequency of the wave to be transmitted is
Information Interchange (ASCII) is a universally popular
digital code to represent number, letters and certain ν m = 15 kHz = 15 × 103 Hz
characters. c 3 × 108 1
Wavelength, λ m = = = × 105 m
135. (c) For speech signal, frequency range from 300 Hz to ν m 15 × 103 5
3100 Hz is considered adequate. Therefore, speech signal
λ 1 1 
requires a bandwidth of 2800 Hz (3100 Hz − 300 Hz) for Size of the antenna required, l = = ×  × 105 
commercial telephonic communication. 4 4 5 
To transmit music, an approximate bandwidth of 20 kHz is = 5 × 103 m = 5km
required because of the high frequencies produced by the The audio signals are of low frequency waves. Thus, they cannot
musical instruments. be transmitted through sky waves as they are absorbed by
The audible range of frequencies extends from 20 Hz to atmosphere.
20 kHz. If the size of the antenna is less than 5 km, the effective
Video signals for transmission of pictures require about power transmission would be very low because l → high,
4.2 MHz of bandwidth. A TV signal contains both voice and 2
 l
picture and is usually allocated 6 MHz of bandwidth for λ → low, P ∝  
transmission. λ

142. (c) The maximum Line of Sight (LOS) distance d M between 148. (b, d) Given, ω m = 3 kHz
the two antennas having heights hT and hR is ω c = 1.5 MHz = 1500 kHz
d M = 2RhT + 2RhR , where hR and hT is the height of Now, sideband frequencies
receiving and transmitting antenna. ω c ± ω m = (1500 ± 3 )
143. (c) Comparing the given equation with = 1503 kHz and 1497 kHz
cm ( t ) = A c (1 + µ sin ω m t ) sin ω c t Also, bandwidth = 2ω m = 2 × 3 = 6 kHz
Amplitude of carrier wave 149. (b,d) The modulation index ( m ) of amplitude modulated
i.e., A c = 10 V, µ = 0.4 wave is
ωm 3140 m=
amplitude of message signal ( Am )
νm = = = 0.5 kHz
2π 2 × 314 . amplitude of carrier signal ( Ac )
Frequency of carrier wave, If m > 1, then Am > Ac .
ω 2.2 × 106 In this situation, there will be distortion of the resulting
νc = c = = 350 kHz
2π 2π signal of amplitude modulated wave.
458 Master The NCERT PHYSICS Vol-II

Maximum modulation frequency ( m f ) of Am wave is 155. (b) Here, Pi = 1 kW = 1000W, Length of path = 5 km,Po = ?
∆ν max
mf = Loss of power at a distance of 5 km = 2 × 5 = 10 dB
ν m (max)
P
frequency deviation As loss in dB =10 log o
= Pi
maximum frequency value of modulating wave P
∴ − 10 = 10 log o
If m f > 1, then ∆ν max > ν m . It means, there will be Pi
overlapping of both sidebands of modulated wave resulting Pi
into loss of information. ⇒ log = 1 = log10
Po
150. (d) Space wave range > 40 MHz Pi
⇒ =10
UHF range, 170 − 200 MHz Po
151. (a) Range, d = 2hR ⇒
P 1000
Po = i = = 100 W
22 10 10
∴ Service area = π × 2hR = × 2 × 81 × 6.4 × 106
7 156. (a) Here, ν = 1 MHz, ∆ ν = 3 kHz = 0.003 MHz
= 3258.5 × 106 m2 = 3258.5 km2 Using amplitude modulation, the frequencies of the
sideband
152. (b) Given, maximum amplitude A max = 10 V
= ( ν + ∆ ν ) and ( ν − ∆ ν )
Minimum amplitude, A min = 2 V Upper sideband = ( ν c + ν m ) = 1 MHz + 3kHz
Let Ac and Am be the amplitudes of carrier wave and signal = 1 MHz + 0.03 MHz = 1.003 MHz
wave.
Lower sideband = ( ν c − ν m ) = 1 MHz − 3 kHz
∴ A max = Ac + Am = 10 …(i)
and A min = Ac − Am = 2 …(ii) = 1 MHz − 0.003 MHz = 0.997 MHz
Adding the Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 157. (b) The amplitude modulation (AM) carrier signal is given
2 Ac = 12 or Ac = 6 V by cm ( t ) = ( A c + A m sin ω m t ) sin ω c t frequency is ω c .
and Am = 10 − 6 = 4 V 158. (c) The device which follows square law is used for
Am 4 2 modulation purpose. Characteristic shown by (i) and (iii)
Modulation index, µ = = =
Ac 6 3 corresponds to linear devices. Characteristic shown by (ii)
and (iv) corresponds to square law.
When the minimum amplitude is zero, then i. e., A min = 0
Ac + Am = 10 …(iii) 160. (a) A vibrating tuning fork produces analog signals which is
a continuous set of values.
Ac − Am = 0 …(iv)
By solving Eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get 162. (a,b,c) As bandwidth of AM wave should be
2 Ac = 10 or Ac = 5 and Am = 5 2ω m = (ω c + ω m ) − (ω c − ω m ). Therefore, it is applicable
A 5 for cases (i), (ii) and (iii). The case (iv) will reject the
Modulation index, µ = m = = 1 required signal for amplitude modulated wave.
Ac 5
163. (b) No. sky waves of Very High Frequency (VHF) and
154. (a) For given building complex, l = 100 m,λ = ? above, i. e., above 30 MHz pass through the ionosphere into
As length of the antenna, l = λ / 4 outer space.
λ ~ 4l ⇒ λ = 4 × 100 = 400 m
Solved Papers 2018
NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER
NEET
1. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) kΩ is to be marked with (c) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel
to the plane of incidence
rings of different colours for its identification. The
 1
colour code sequence will be (d) i = tan−1  
µ 
(a) Yellow - Green - Violet - Gold
(b) Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver 5. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation d
(c) Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver
between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light
(d) Green - Orange - Violet - Gold
used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and
2. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R ’ each , are slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the
connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E ’and internal fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to
resistance ‘R ’. The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ 0.21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the
resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. slits needs to be changed to
Then, the current drawn from battery becomes 10I. (a) 2.1 mm (b) 1.9 mm (c) 1.8 mm (d) 1.7 mm
The value of ‘n’ is 6. An astronomical refracting telescope will have large
(a) 20 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 9 angular magnification and high angular resolution,
when it has an objective lens of
3. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n ’ of identical (a) large focal length and large diameter
cells (having internal resistance ‘r ’each) which are (b) large focal length and small diameter
connected in series. The terminals of the battery are (c) small focal length and large diameter
short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of (d) small focal length and small diameter
the graphs shows the correct relationship between I 7. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an
and n? electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is
(a) 2 : − 1 (b) 1 : − 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : − 2
I I
8. An electron of mass m with a velocity v = v 0$i ( v 0 > 0)
(a) (b)
enters an electric field E = − E 0i$ ( E 0 = constant > 0) at
t = 0. If λ 0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
O O
n n de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
 eE0  λ0
I I
(a) λ 0 t (b) λ 0  1 + t (c) (d) λ 0
 mv 0   eE0 
1 + t
(c) (d)  mv 0 

9. For a radioactive material, half-life is

O n O n 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei,
the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450
4. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane nuclei is
surface of a material of refractive index ‘µ’. At a (a) 30 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 15
particular angle of incidence ‘i ’, it is found that the 10. When the light of frequency 2ν 0 (where, ν 0 is threshold
reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each
other. Which of the following options is correct for this frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum
situation? velocity of electrons emitted is v 1. When the frequency
 1
of the incident radiation is increased to 5ν 0, the
(a) i = sin−1   maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same
µ 
plate is v2 . The ratio of v 1 to v2 is
(b) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
perpendicular to the plane of incidence
2 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018

11. In the circuit shown in the 20 V 17. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain
figure, the input voltage V i inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is
is 20 V, V BE = 0 and RC 4 kW 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
VCE = 0. The values of I B , C (a) 1.389 H (b) 138.88 H (c) 0.138 H (d) 13.89 H
IC and β are given by RB
Vi 18. An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance
(a) IB = 20 µA, IC = 5 mA, 500 kW B
β = 250
h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric
E
field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed,
(b) IB = 25 µA, IC = 5 mA, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed
β = 200 to fall from rest in it through the same vertical
(c) IB = 40 µA, IC = 10 mA, distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
β = 250 comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(d) IB = 40 µA, IC = 5 mA, β = 125 (a) 10 times greater (b) 5 times greater
(c) smaller (d) equal
12. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to
heating 19. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an
(a) does not affect resistance of p-n junction isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q
(b) affects only forward resistance and area A, is
(c) affects only reverse resistance (a) proportional to the square root of the distance between the
(d) affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction plates
(b) linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
13. In the combination of the following gates the output Y (c) independent of the distance between the plates
can be written in terms of inputs A and B as (d) inversely proportional to the distance between the plates
A 20. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m −1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined
B
Y
plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal.
The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a
current through it when a magnetic field of induction
(a) A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B (b) A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The
(c) A ⋅ B (d) A + B current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is
14. An EM wave is propagating in a medium with a (a) 14.76 A (b) 5.98 A
velocity v = v $i . The instantaneous oscillating electric (c) 7.14 A (d) 11.32 A
field of this EM wave is along + y-axis. Then, the 21. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the
direction of oscillating magnetic field of EM wave will poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the
be along electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic
(a) − y-direction (b) + z-direction rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field.
(c) − z-direction (d) − x-direction Hence, the rod gains gravitational potential energy.
The work required to do this comes from
15. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and
(a) the lattice structure of the material of the rod
the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting (b) the magnetic field
surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by (c) the current source
silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering (d) the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic
the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after field
reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of
incidence on the prism is 22. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 µF and a resistor
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) zero 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf,
V = 10 sin 314 t . The power loss in the circuit is
16. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a
(a) 2.74 W (b) 0.43 W
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is
(c) 0.79 W (d) 1.13 W
displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the
mirror, the displacement of the image will be 23. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5
(a) 30 cm towards the mirror div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection
(b) 36 cm away from the mirror per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of
(c) 30 cm away from the mirror the galvanometer is
(d) 36 cm towards the mirror (a) 250 Ω (b) 25 Ω
(c) 40 Ω (d) 500 Ω
 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018 3

AIIMS
1. A metal wire has a resistance of 35 Ω. If its length is 6. In a series R-C circuit shown
increased to double by drawing it, then its new in figure, the applied
voltage is 10 V and the 8V VR
resistance will be
(a) 70 Ω (b) 140 Ω (c) 105 Ω (d) 35 Ω voltage across capacitor is
found to be 8V. Then, the 10 V
2. A half ring of radius R has a charge of λ per unit length. voltage across R and the
The electric force on 1 C charged placed at the centre is phase difference between current and the applied
kλ 2kλ kπλ voltage will respectively be
(a) zero (b) (c) (d)
R R R
(a) 6 V, tan−1   (b) 3 V, tan−1  
4 3
3. Positive charge Q is distributed uniformly over a  3  4

(c) 6 V, tan−1  
5
circular ring of radius R. A point particle having a mass (d) None of these
( m) and a negative charge − q is placed on its axis at a  3
distance x from the centre. Assuming x < R, find the 7. A system S consists of two coils A and B. The coil A
time period of oscillation of the particle, if it is released carries a steady current I. While the coil B is suspended
from there [neglect gravity]. nearby as shown in figure. Now, if the system is heated,
1/ 2 1/ 2
 16 π 3 ε0 R 3 m   8 π 2 ε0 R 3  so as to raise the temperature of two coils steadily, then
(a)   (b)  
 Qq   q 
1/ 2 A
 2 π 3 ε0 R 3 
(c)   (d) None of these B
 3q 

4. An infinite number of identical capacitors each of

capacitance 1 µF are connected as shown in the figure.
Then, the equivalent capacitance between A and B is
(a) the two coils shows attraction
(b) the two coils shows repulsion
(c) there is no change in the position of the two coils
(d) induced current are not possible in coil B

8 capacitors 8. A long straight wire, carrying current I is bent at its

mid-point to form an angle of 45°. Induction of
16 capacitors
magnetic field (in tesla) at point P, distant R from point
of bending is equal to
∞ P I
A B R 45°

1
(a) 1µF (b) 2µF (c) µF (d) ∞
2 ( 2 − 1) µ 0 I ( 2 + 1) µ 0 I
(a) (b)
5. In the circuit in the figure, if no current flows through 4 πR 4 πR
the galvanometer when the key K is closed, the bridge ( 2 − 1) µ 0 I ( 2 + 1) µ 0 I
(c) (d)
is balanced. The balancing condition for bridge is 4 2 πR 4 2 πR
9. An element dl = dx $i (where, dx = 1 cm) is placed at the
B
origin and carries a large current i = 10 A. What is the
R1 R2 magnetic field on the Y -axis at a distance of 0.5 m?
K
A
G
C (a) 2 × 10−8 kT
$ (b) 4 × 10−8 kT
$
−8 $
I1 (c) − 2 × 10 kT (d)
C2 −8 $
I C1 − 4 × 10 kT
D
10. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field
at any place is
E
0.36 × 10 −4 Wb/m2 . If the angle of dip at that place is
(a)
C1 R
= 1 (b)
C1 R 2
= 60°, then the value of vertical component of the earth’s
C 2 R2 C2 R1 magnetic field will be (in Wb/m2 )
C12 R12 C12 R2 (a) 0.12 × 10−4 (b) 0.24 × 10−4
(c) = (d) = −4
C 22 R 22 C 22 R1 (c) 0.40 × 10 (d) 0.622 × 10−4
4 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018

11. Consider the following Back 17. The diode used at a constant R
figure, a uniform 10 cm 30° potential drop of 0.5 V at all
magnetic field of 0.2 T 10 cm currents and maximum power I
is directed along the 60° rating of 100 mW. What
4 cm
positive X-axis. The 9 cm resistance must be connected in
magnetic flux through series diode, so that current in 1.5 V
top surface of the circuit is maximum?
figure. (a) 200 Ω (b) 6.67 Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 15 Ω
(a) zero (b) 0.8 m-Wb 2
18. An unpolarised beam of intensity 2a passes through a
(c) 1.0 m-Wb (d) −18
. m-Wb thin polaroid. Assuming zero absorption in the polaroid,
12. An ideal coil of 10 H is connected in series with a the intensity of emergent plane polarised light is
resistance of 5Ω and a battery of 5 V. After 2 s, after the a2
(a) 2 a2 (b) a2 (c) 2 a2 (d)
connection is made, the current flowing (in ampere) in 2
the circuit is
19. A diode detector is used to detect and amplitude
(a) (1 − e ) (b) e (c) e −1 (d) (1 − e −1 )
modulated wave of 60% modulation by using a
13. In the circuit, shown the galvanometer G of resistance condenser of capacity 250 pF in parallel with a load
60 Ω is shunted by a resistance r = 0.02 Ω. The current resistance 100 kΩ. Find the maximum modulated
through R is nearly 1 A. The value of resistance R (in frequency which could be detected by it.
ohm) is nearly (a) 10.62 MHz (b) 10.61 kHz (c) 5.31 MHz (d) 5.31 kHz
20. Red light of wavelength 5400 Å from a distant source
r = 0.02 Ω falls on a slit 0.80 mm wide. Calculate the distance
between first two dark bands on each side of central
bright band in the diffraction pattern observed on a
G
screen place 1.4 m from the slit.
R (a) 1.89 mm (b) 4 mm (c) 1 mm (d) 3 mm
5.0 V
21. A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much
bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The centre of the
(a) 1.00 Ω (b) 5.00 Ω (c) 11.0 Ω (d) 6.0 Ω small loop on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance
between their centres is 15 cm. If a current of 20 A
14. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an flows through the smaller loop, then the flux linked
alternating voltage source of frequency f . The current
with bigger drop is
leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is
1 1 (a) 9.1 × 10−11 Wb (b) 6 × 10−11 Wb
(a) (b)
2 πf(2 πfL + R ) πf(2 πfL + R ) (c) 3.3 × 10−11 Wb (d) 6.6 × 10−9 Wb
1 1 22. In the adjoining circuit
(c) (d)
2 πf(2 πfL − R ) πf(2 πfL − R ) diagram, the readings of A
R
ammeter and voltmeter are 2 A
15. The graph between the energy log E of an electron and
and 120 V, respectively. If the
its de-Broglie wavelength log λ will be value of R is 75 Ω, then the V
voltmeter resistance will be
(a) log λ (b) log λ (a) 100 Ω (b) 150 Ω (c) 300 Ω (d) 75 Ω

Direction (Q. Nos. 23-32) Each of these questions

log E log E contains two statements Assertion and Reason. Each
of these questions also has four alternative choices,
(c) log λ (d) log λ
only one of which is the correct answer. You have to
select one of codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is the
log E log E correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not
16. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 min. The the correct explanation of Assertion
approximate time interval (t2 − t 1) between the time t2 , (c) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
2 1 (d) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct
when of it has decayed and time t 1 when of it had
3 3
23. Assertion Mass of a body decreases slightly when it is
decayed is
negatively charged.
(a) 14 min (b) 20 min (c) 28 min (d) 7 min
Reason Charging is due to transfer of electrons.
 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018 5
24. Assertion A dielectric slab is inserted between plates of 29. Assertion If a glass slab is placed in front of one of the
an isolated charged capacitor which remain same. slits, then fringe with will decrease.
Reason Charge on an isolated system is conserved. Reason Glass slab will produce an additional path
25. Assertion Terminal voltage of a cell is greater than emf difference.
of cell during charging of the cell. 30. Assertion If electrons in an atom were stationary, then
Reason The emf of a cell is always greater than its they would fall into the nucleus.
terminal voltage.
Reason Electrostatic force of attraction acts between
26. Assertion A magnetic field interacts with a moving negatively charged electrons and positive nucleus.
charge and not with a stationary charge.
Reason A moving charge produce a magnetic field. 31. Assertion Radioactive nuclei emits β − -particles.
27. Assertion Bulb generally get fused when they are Reason Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
switched on or off. 32. Assertion Thickness of depletion layer is fixed in all
Reason When we switch on or off, a circuit current semiconductor devices.
changes in it rapidly.
Reason No free charge carriers are available in
28. Assertion A convex mirror always make a virtual image.
depletion layer.
Reason The ray always diverge after reflection from the
convex mirror.

JIPMER
1. The magnetic moment of an electron orbiting in a 5. Find V P − VQ in the circuit shown in figure.
circulate orbit of radius r with a speed v is equal to
10Ω
(a) evr/2 (b) evr
(c) er/2v (d) None of these 10Ω Q
P R
−7 −7
2. If point charges Q1 = 2 × 10 C and Q2 = 3 × 10 C are 18Ω
at 30 cm separation, then find electrostatic force 8Ω 25Ω
between them + –
(a) 2 × 10−3 N (b) 6 × 10−3 N
10 V
(c) 5 × 10−3 N (d) 1 × 10−3 N
(a) 6.68 V (b) 8 V (c) 4.65 V (d) 7 V
3. Find Rnet between A and B.
10Ω 10Ω 10Ω
6. If a capacitor having capacitance 2F and plate
A separation of 0.5 cm will have area
(a) 1130 cm 2 (b) 1130 m 2
(c) 1130 km 2 (d) None of these
40Ω 40Ω 20Ω
7. Find the capacitance in shown figure
B d/2
10Ω 10Ω 10Ω
(a) 60 Ω (b) 40 Ω (c) 70 Ω (d) 20 Ω
4. Find current (i) in circuit shown in figure.
B
d
5Ω 10Ω 2 KAε0 2 KAε0 (K + 1)Aε0 2 KA ε0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A
10Ω
D (K + 1)d d 2d (K 2 + 1)d

20Ω
8. If minimum deviation = 30 °, then speed of light in
i 10Ω
shown prism will be
C
3 1
(a) × 108 m/s (b) × 108 m/s
2 2
5V
2 2
(a) 0.5 A (b) 0.2 A (c) × 108 m/s (d) × 108 m/s
3 3
(c) 1 A (d) 2 A
6 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018

9. A current i is flowing through the wire of diameter (d) 15. A prism of crown glass with refracting angle of 5º and
having drift velocity of electrons vd in it. What will be mean refractive index = 1.51 is combined with a flint
new drift velocity when diameter of wire is made d/4? glass prism of refractive index = 1.65 to produce no
(a) 4vd (b)
vd deviation. Find the angle of flint glass.
4 (a) 3.92º (b) 4.68º (c) 5.32º (d) 7.28º
vd
(c) 16vd (d) 16. Two slits are separated by a distance of
16
0.5 mm and illuminated with light of λ = 6000 Å. If the
10. Find i in shown figure screen is placed 2.5 m , from the slits. The distance of
the third bright image from the centre will be
30Ω (a) 1.5 mm (b) 3 mm (c) 6 mm (d) 9 mm
i1
60Ω
17. Calculate the dispersive power for crown glass from
the given data
i
i2 µ V = 1523
. and µ R = 15145
.
(a) 0.01639 (b) 1.05639 (c) 0.05639 (d) 2.05639
2V
18. The force of attraction between two charges 8µC and
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.1 A −4µC is 0. 2 N. Find the distance of separation
(c) 0.3 A (d) 0.4 A (a) 1.2 m (b) 12 m (c) 120 m (d) 0.12 m

11. Which of the following is fusion process? 19. In a L-C circuit, angular frequency at resonance is ω.
What will be the new angular frequency when
(a) 12 H + 12 H → 42He
inductor’s inductance is made two times and
(b) 10 n + 235
92 U →
141
56 Ba + 92
36 Kr + 3(10 n) capacitor’s capacitance is made four times?
(c) Uranium decay ω ω 2ω
(a) (b) (c) 2ω (d)
(d) None of the above 2 2 2 2
12. A electron (e − ) is accelerated by V volts experiences a 20. Electron revolving with speed v is producing magnetic
force F, when it enters in a uniform magnetic field. field B at centre. Find relation between radius of path B
What will the force experienced when it is accelerated and v?
by 2V? 1 1
(a) B ∝ v ∝ (b) B ∝ v ∝
(a) 2F (b) F r r2
1 1
(c) 2F (d) F / 2 (c) B ∝ v 2 ∝ (d) B ∝ v 2 ∝ 2
r r
13. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW.
The energy released due to fission of each nucleus of 21. A regular hexagone of side a. A wire of length 24 a is
uranium atoms U238 is 170 MeV. The number of coiled on that hexagone. If current in hexagone is I,
uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be then find the magnetic moment.
(a) 30 × 1025 (b) 4 × 1022
Q
(c) 10 × 1020 (d) 5 × 1015

14. In the fusion reaction + 12H → 32He + 10n, the

2
1H
masses of deuteron, helium and neutron expressed in
amu are 2.015, 3.017 and 1.009, respectively. If 1 kg of (a) 6 3 Ia2 (b) 3 3 Ia2 (c)
3 3 2
Ia (d) 6 Ia2
deuterium undergoes complete fusion, find the amount 2
of total energy released. (1 amu = 931.5 MeV).
22. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light in
(a) 9.0 × 1013 J
glass is
(b) 20 × 105 J
(c) 5 × 1016 J (a) 3 × 108 m /s (b) 2 × 108 m /s
(d) 8 × 105 J (c) 1 × 10 m /s
8
(d) 4 × 10 m /s
8
 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018 7
Answer with Explanations
4. (b) The figure shown below represents the course of path an
NEET unpolarised light follows when it is incident from air on plane
1. (b) Given, R = (47 ± 4.7) kW = 47 ´ 103 ± 10% W surface of material of refractive index m.
As per the colour code for carbon resistors, the colour assigned Incident (Normal)
Plane polarised
to numbers. unpolarised reflected light
4 – Yellow light
7 – Violet
3 – Orange
For ±10% accuracy, the colour is silver. Hence, the bands of
Medium
colours on carbon resistor in sequence are yellow, violet,
(µ)
orange and silver.
Note To remember the colour code sequence for carbon
resistor, the following sentence should be kept in memory. B B
Roy of Great Britain has a Very Good Wife. Partially polarised
refracted light
2. (c) When n equal resistors of resistance R are connected in
series, then the current drawn is given as When the beam of unpolarised light is reflected from a medium
E (refractive index = m) and if reflected and refracted light are
I=
nR + r perpendicular to each other. Then, the reflected light is
where, nR = equivalent resistance of n resistors in series and completely plane polarised at a certain angle of incidence. This
r = internal resistance of battery. means, the reflected light has electric vector perpendicular to
Given, r=R incidence plane.
E E 5. (b) In a YDSE, angular width of a fringe is given as
Þ I= = …(i)
nR + R R( n + 1) l
q=
Similarly, when n equal resistors are connected in parallel, d
then the current drawn is given as where, l is the wavelength of the light source and d is the
E distance between the two slits.
I¢ =
R q1 d2
+ R Þ qµ
1
or = …(i)
n d q2 d1
R
where, = equivalent resistance of n resistors in parallel. Here, q1 = 0.20° , q2 = 0.21°, d1 = 2 mm
n
E nE Substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get
Given, I ¢ = 10 I Þ 10 I = = …(ii) 0.20° d2 0.20 0.40
R ( n + 1)R = Þ d2 = 2 ´ = = 1.90 mm
+ R
n 0.21° 2 mm 0.21 0.21
Substituting the value of I from Eq. (i) in Eq. (ii), we get 6. (c) Angular magnification of an astronomical refracting
æ E ö nE telescope is given as
10 ç ÷= Þ n = 10 f0
è R( n + 1) ø R( n + 1) M=
fe
3. (c) If n identical cells are connected in series, then where, f0 and fe are the focal length of objective and eye-piece,
Equivalent emf of the combination, respectively.
Eeq = nE From the given relation, it is clear that for large magnification
Equivalent internal resistance, either f0 has to be large or fe has to be small.
req = nr Angular resolution of an astronomical refracting telescope is
E nE E given as
\ Current, I = eq = or I = =constant
req nr r a
R=
Thus, current ( I) is independent of the number of cells ( n ) 1.22l
present in the circuit. where, a is the diameter of the objective.
Therefore, the graph showing the relationship between I and n Thus, to have large resolution, the diameter of the objective
would be as shown below. should be large.
Hence, from the above objective lens should have large focal
I length ( f0 ) and large diameter (a ).
7. (b) Kinetic energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of a hydrogen
atom is given as
Rhc
O KE n = …(i)
n n2
8 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018

Total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is \ Number of nuclei left undecayed,
given as N = N0 - N¢ = 600 - 450 = 150
- Rhc
TE n = …(ii) Half-life, t1/ 2 = 10 min
n2 t / t 1 /2
N æ1 ö
As, =ç ÷
Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get N0 è 2 ø
æ Rhc ö Substituting the given values, we get
ç 2 ÷
KE n è n ø t / 20 t / 10
= Þ KE n : TE n = 1 : - 1 150 æ 1 ö 1 æ1 ö
Rhc =ç ÷ or =ç ÷
TE n - æç 2 ö÷ 600 è 2 ø 4 è2 ø
è n ø
2 t / 10
æ1 ö = æ1 ö t
=2
8. (c) According to the question, or ç ÷ ç ÷ or
è2 ø è2 ø 10
v = v0 $i, E = - E0 i$
Þ t = 20 min
E0 10. (c) According to the Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
F E0 1 2
m Kmax = mv max = hv - f0 = hv - hv0 …(i)
2
Thus, magnitude of force on the electron due to the electric field, where, Kmax is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
| F| = q| E| Þ F = eE0 having maximum velocity v max .
From Newton’s second law of motion, When incident frequency of light, v = 2 v0
F = ma
Substituting the value of n in Eq. (i), we get
eE
\ F = ma = eE0 Þ a = 0 …(i) 1
m m v21 = h(2 v0 ) - hv0 = 2hv0 - hv0 = hv0 …(ii)
2
( - e ) ( - E0 $i ) eE0 $
or a= = i If incident frequency of radiation, n = 5 n0
m m
Substituting the value of n in Eq. (i), we get
From first equation of motion,
1 2
v = u + at mv2 = h(5v0 ) - hv0 = 5hv0 - hv0 = 4 hv0 …(iii)
2
Here, u (initial velocity) = v0
eE On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq (iii), we get
Þ v = v0 + 0 t …(ii) (from Eq. (i)) 1 2
m mv1
2 hv0 v2 1 v 1
Initial de-Broglie wavelength of the electron is given as = Þ 12 = or 1 =
1 2 4 hv0 v 4 v 2
h mv2 2 2
l0 = Þ h = lmv0 …(iii) 2
mv0
\ v1 : v2 = 1 : 2
After time t, de-Broglie wavelength is given as
h
11. (d) Given, VBE = 0 V, VCE = 0 V and Vi = 20 V
l=
mv VCC=20 V
Substituting the value of v from Eq. (ii), we get
h h RC=4 kW
l= = =4×103W
eE
m æç v0 + 0 t ö÷ mv0 é1 + eE0 ù
tú IC
è m ø ê mv0
ë û C
l mv0 IB
= [from Eq. (iii)] Vi VB
é eE0 ù RB=500 kW
B
mv0 ê1 + tú
ë mv0 û = 500×103W E
l0
=
é eE0 ù
ê1 + mv t ú
ë 0 û
l0
\ l=
eE0 Applying Kirchhoff’s law to the base-emitter loop, we get
1+ t
mv0 Vi = I B R B + VBE
Substituting the values, we get
9. (c) Key Concept n
20 = I B ´ (500 ´ 103 ) + 0
n
1 t 20
N = N0 æç ö÷ where, n = Þ IB = = 0.04 ´ 10 -3
è2 ø t 1/ 2 500 ´ 103
Here, initially number of nuclei, N0 = 600 = 40 ´ 10 -6 = 40 mA …(i)
After disintegration, number of nuclei, N¢ = 450 Similarly, VCC = IC RC + VCE
 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018 9

Substituting the given values, we get (since, there is no refraction at the face AC)
20 = IC ´ (4 ´ 103 ) + 0 Given, Refractive index of the material of prism, m = 2
20 Angle of prism, A = 30°
Þ IC = = 5 ´ 10 -3 = 5 mA …(ii)
4 ´ 103 If the ray OR has to retrace its path after reflection (as per the
I given condition), then the ray has to fall normally on the
Current gain is given as b = C
IB surface AC.
This means ÐARO = ÐORC = 90°
Substituting the value of I B and IC from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
In DAOR, ÐAOR + ÐARO + ÐOAR = 180°
5 ´ 10 -3
Þ b= = 0.125 ´ 103 = 125 Þ ÐAOR + 90° + 30° = 180°
40 ´ 10 -6
Þ ÐAOR = 180° - 120° = 60° …(i)
12. (d) Due to increase in temperature because of heating, thermal As we know, ÐAOR + Ðr1 = 90°
collision between the electron and holes increases. Thus, net
Þ Ðr1 = 90° - 60° = 30° [from Eq. (i)]
electron-hole pairs increase.
This leads to increase in the current in diode and overall Applying Snell’s law at the face AB, we get
sin i
resistance of the diode changes. m=
This in turn changes both the forward biasing and the reverse sin r1
biasing. Substituting the given values, we get
Thus, the overall I-V characteristics of p-n junction diode gets sin i
2=
affected. sin 30°
13. (b) According to the question, the figure of combination of gates Þ sin i = sin 30° ´ 2
in terms of inputs and outputs can be given as
1 æQ sin 30° = 1 ö
= ´ 2 ç ÷
A
A C= A ⋅ B 2 è 2ø
B 1
B B
C =
Y=C+D 2
A D
i = sin -1 æç ö÷ = 45° æQ sin 45° = 1 ö
1
A or ç ÷
D= A ⋅ B è 2ø è 2ø

Thus, Y =A×B+ A×B The angle of incidence of the ray on the prism is 45°.

14. (b) Here, velocity of EM wave, v = v$i 16. (b) Key Concept
Instantaneous oscillating electric field,
Case 1 When the object distance, u1 = - 40 cm
E = E$j
Focal length of mirror, f = - 15 cm
As we already know that, during the propagation of = EM
waves through a medium oscillating electric and magnetic
field vectors are mutually perpendicular to each other and to O
the direction of each other and to the direction of propagation
of the wave ( E ´ B). 40 cm
i.e. E ´ B = v Þ ( E$j) ´ B = vi$ …(i) f= – 15 cm
As we know that from vector algebra,
Using the mirror formula, we get
$j ´ k$ = $i …(ii) 1 1 1
= +
Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get f v1 u1
B = Bk$ , Substituting the given values, we get
1 1 -1
where B (say) be the magnitude of magnetic field. - = + æç ö÷
Thus, we can say that the direction of oscillating magnetic field 15 v1 è 40 ø
of the em wave will be along +z direction. 1 1 1 3-8 -5
Þ = - = =
15. (b) According to the question, the figure of mentioned prism is v1 40 15 120 120
given as -120
Þ v1 = = - 24 cm
A 5
Case 2 When the object distance, u2 = 20 cm
30°
R
O O
i r2=0
r1
m=√2
O¢ 20 cm
P
B C f= – 15 cm
10 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018

Using the mirror formula, we get 2h

where, k= or t µ m
1 1 1 qE
= +
f v2 u2
As, mass of proton ( m p ) >> mass of electron ( me ).
Substituting the given values, we get Thus, the time of fall of an electrons would be smaller than the
1 1 1
- = + æç - ö÷ time of fall of a protons.
15 v2 è 20 ø
19. (c) As we know that, the total work done in transferring a charge
1 1 1 3 - 4 -1 to a parallel plate capacitor is given as
Þ = - = =
v2 20 15 60 60 Q2
W= …(i)
Þ v2 = - 60 cm 2C
\ The displacement of the image is where, C is the capacitance of the capacitor.
= v2 - v1 = - 60 - ( -24 ) = - 60 + 24 We can also wirte a relation for work done as,
or = - 36 cm W = F×d …(ii)
= 36 cm, away from the mirror where, F is the electrostatic force between the plates of
17. (d) Given, magnetic potential energy stored in an inductor, capacitor and d is the distance between the plates.
U = 25 mJ = 25 ´ 10 -3 J From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Q2 Q2
Current in an inductor, I0 = 60 mA = 60 ´ 10 -3 A W= = Fd Þ F = …(iii)
2C 2Cd
As, the expression for energy stored in an inductor is given as
As, the capacitance of a parallel plate is given as
1
U = LI20 eA
2 C= 0
d
where, L is the inductance of the inductor.
Substituting the value of C in Eq. (iii), we get
Substituting the given values in above equation., we get
Q 2d Q2
1 F= =
(25 ´ 10 -3 ) = ´ L ´ (60 ´ 10 -3 )2 2 e0 Ad 2 e0 A
2
2 ´ 25 ´ 10 -3 500 This means, electrostatic force is independent of the distance
Þ L= = or L = 13.89 H between the plates.
3600 ´ 10 -6 36
20. (d) Key Concept
18. (c) Force on a charged particle in the presence of an electric field
is given as
F = qE …(i) X Y
where, q is the charge on the charged particle and E is the As, the system is in equilibrium,
electric field. SFx = 0 or mg sin q = F cos q …(i)
From Newton’s second law of motion, force on a particle with where, F is the magnitude of force experienced by the rod
mass m is given as when placed in a magnetic field and current I is flowing
F = ma …(ii) through it.
where, a is the acceleration.
But the force experienced by the given rod in a uniform
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get magnetic field is
qE
F = ma = qE Þ a = …(iii) F = ILB
m
\ Eq. (i) becomes,
Now, consider that a particle falls from rest through a vertical
mg sin q = ILB cos q
distance h. Therefore, u = 0 and the second equation of motion
mg sin q mg
becomes Þ I= = tan q
1 LB cos q LB
s = ut + at2
2 m g tan q
1 I = æç ö÷ …(ii)
or h = 0 ´ t + at2 è Lø B
2
1 qE 2 According to the question,
= ´ t [from Eq. (iii)]
2 m q
s
2hm 2hm B co
Þ t2 = or t = F
qE qE
Since, the particles given in the question is electron and q
2h F
proton; and the quantity (here, q p = qe = e ) for both of
qE q
them is constant. Thus, we can write sin q
g
t=k m m
 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018 11

m
Here, = 0.5 kg m -1,g = 9.8 ms-2 , q = 30°, B = 0.25 T Similarly, voltage sensitivity is the deflection per unit voltage,
L i.e.
q NAB ö I NAB
Substituting the given values in Eq. (ii), we get VS = = æç ÷ = …(ii)
0.5 ´ 9.8 0.5 ´ 9.8 1 V è k ø V kRG
I= tan 30° = ´ = 11.32 A
0.25 0.25 3 where, RG is the resistance of the galvanometer.
21. (c) As the source of current is switched on, a magnetic field sets From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
up in between the poles of the electromagnet. IS
RG = …(iii)
As we know that a diamagnetic substance when placed in a VS
magnetic field acquires a feeble magnetism opposite to the Here, IS = 5 div/mA = 5 ´ 10 -3 div/A and VS = 20 div/V
direction of magnetic field. Substituting the given values in Eq. (iii), we get
Also, in the presences of the field (non-uniform), these 5 ´ 103
substances are attracted towards the weaker field, i.e. they RG = = 250
20
move from stronger to weaker magnetic field.
\ The resistance of the galvanometer is 250 W.
Due to these reasons, the rod is repelled by the field produced
to the current source. Hence, it is pushed up, out of horizontal
field and gains gravitational potential energy. AIIMS
22. (c) Here, inductance, L = 20 mH = 20 ´ 10-3 H
1. (b) Given, R1 = 35 W, l2 = 2 l1
Capacitance, C = 100 mF = 100 ´ 10 -6 F
On increasing the length,
Resistance, R = 50 W m1 = m2
emf, V = 10 sin 314 t …(i) \ r A 1l 1 = r A 2 l 2
Q The general equation of emf is given as p r12 l1 = p r22 l2
V = V0 sin wt …(ii)
r12 l2
\ Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get =
r22 l1
V0 = 10 V, w = 314 rad s-1
r12 2 l1
The power loss associated with the given AC circuit is given as =
r22 l1
P = Vrms I rms cos f
V R r12
= Vrms æç rms ö÷ æç ö÷ r22
=2 …(i)
è Z ø èZ ø
2 l
V
2
æ V ö r × 12
= æç rms ö÷ R = ç 0 ÷ R …(i) R1 pr1 l r2 l 1
è Z ø è 2 × Zø = = 1 × 22 = 1 ×
R 2 r × l2 l2 r1 2 l1 2
\ Impedance, Z = R2 + ( X L - XC )2 pr22
R1 1
1 ö
2 =
= R2 + æç wL - ÷ R2 4
è wC ø
R2 = 4 R1 = 4 ´ 35 = 140 W
\ Substituting the given values in the above equation, we get
2 2. (c) As, be the radius of the ring. Consider a small strip of length
é 1 ù dl having charge dq lying at an angle q.
= (50 )2 + ê(314 ´ 20 ´ 10 -3 ) - -4 ú
ë 314 ´ 10 û dl = Rdq
Charge on dl = lRdq
= 2500 + [6280 ´10 -3 - 0.00318 ´ 104 ]2
Force at 1 C due to dl
= 2500 + (25.56)2 = 56.15 W ~
- 56 W klRdq kl
= = dq = dF
Now, substituting this values in Eq. (i), we get R2 R

æ 10 ö
2
100 We need to consider only the component dFcos q, as the
P=ç ÷ ´ 50 = ´ 50 = 0.79 W component dFsin q will cancel out because of the symmetrical
è 2 ´ 56 ø 2 ´ 3136 element dl.
Thus, power loss in the circuit is 0.79 W.
23. (a) Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is the dl
deflection ( q) per unit current ( I) flowing through it, i.e. dθ
q NAB 1C
IS = = …(i) θ
I k dθ
where, N = number of turns in the coil,
dl
A = Area of each turn of coil, dF
B = magnetic field
k = restoring torque per unit twist of the fibre strip.
12 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018

The total force on 1 C is 6. (a) We know that, for series R-C circuit
p /2 p /2
kl kl 2 kl V2 = VC2 + VR2
F = ò dF cos q = ò cos q dq = R ´ 2 = R
- p /2
R - p /2 VR
φ
3. (a) When the negative charge is shifted –q
at a distance x from the centre of the ring VC V
along its axis, then force acting on the x
point charge due to the ring. 100 = 64 + VR2 Þ VR2 = 36 Þ VR = 36 = 6 V
Q
F = qE (towards centre) V 8
Also, tan f = C Þ tan f =
kQx VR 6
=q× 2
( R + x2 )3 / 2 4
tan f =
If R >> x, then R2 + x2 ~
- R2 3
4
and F=
1
×
Qqx
(towards centre) \ f = tan -1 æç ö÷
4 pe0 R3 è3 ø
F 1 Qqx 7. (a) Coil A carries a steady current with increase in temperature,
Þ a= = ×
m 4 pe0 mR3 its resistance increases and so current is decreasing at a
constant rate, this induces an emf in B which opposes this
Since, restoring force FE µ x, therefore motion of charge particle change i.e., current in coil B is in same direction of A, therefore
will be SHM. they attract to each other.
Time period of SHM, mI
1/ 2 8. (a)\ B (at P) = 0 (cos q1 - cos q2 )
2p é 16 p3 e0 R3 m ù é 2 Qq ù 4 pd
T= = êQ w =
w êë Qq ú
û ë
ú
4 pe0 R3 û θ2 I
4. (b) This combination forms a GP, I I 45°
1 1 1 d P 135°
s =1+ + + +…
2 4 8
Sum of infinite GP,
a P
s=
1-r
In given case,
1
s= R
1 d = R sin45° =
1- 2
2
1 q1 = 135°, q2 = 180°
s= m0 I
1 \ B (at P) = [cos 135° - cos 180° ]
4 p æç ö÷
2 R
è 2ø
\ s =2
m0 I -1 mI æ 2 - 1ö
Hence, capacitance of the combination = 2 æç - ( -1)ö÷ = 0 2 ç ÷
C ¥ = 2 ´ 1 mF = 2 mF 4 pR è 2 ø 4 pR è 2 ø
5. (b) In the steady state, no current is passing through capacitor. m0 I
or B(at P) = ( 2 - 1) T
Let the charge on each capacitor be q. Since, the current through 4 pR
galvanometer is zero. 9. (b) Here, dl = dx = 1 cm = 10 -2 m, i = 10 A, r = 0.5 m
\ I1 = I2 m0 i(dl ´ r )
\ dB = ×
The potential difference between ends of galvanometer will be 4p r3
zero. m idl m idl
= 0 × 2 ( $i ´ $j ) = 0 × 2 k$
\ VA - VB = VA - VD 4p r 4p r
q
\ I1R1 = …(i) 10 -7 ´ 10 ´ 10 -2 sin 90° $
C1 = k
(0.5)2
Similarly, VB - VC = VD - VC
= 4 ´ 10 -8 kT
$
q
I2 R2 = …(ii)
C2 10. (d) Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field,
On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get BV = BH tan d
I1R1 q / C1 C2 = 0.36 ´ 10 -4 ´ tan 60°
= =
I2 R2 q / C2 C1 = 0.36 ´ 10 -4 ´ 3 = 0.622 ´ 10 -4 T
C1 R2
\ = = 0.622 ´ 10 -4 Wb/m2
C2 R1
 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018 13

11. (c)\ Magnetic flux, f = BAcos q 17. (c) Current passing in the circuit is
For the top surface, the angle between normal to the surface and P 100 ´ 10 -3
I== = 0.2 A
the X-axis is q = 60°. V 0.5
\ f = 0.2 ´ (10 ´ 10 ´ 10 -4 ) ´ cos 60° Value of connected series resistance,
= 10 -3 Wb = 1 m-Wb . - 0.5
15 1
R= Þ R=
0 .2 0.2
12. (d) Rise of current in L-R circuit is given by
I = I0 (1 - e - t / t ) \ R =5W
E 5 18. (b) The intensity of plane polarised light = 2a2 .
where, I0 = = = 1 A
R 5 \ Intensity of polarised light from first nicol prism
L 10 I 1
Now, t= = =2s = 0 = ´ 2 a2 = a2
R 5 2 2
After 2 s, i.e. at t = 2 s
19. (b)\ t = RC = 100 ´ 103 ´ 250 ´ 10 -12 s
Rise of current, I = (1 - e -1 ) A
= 2.5 ´ 107 ´ 10 -12 s = 2.5 ´ 10 -5 s
13. (b) Here, resistance of the galvanometer
The higher frequency which can be detected with tolerable
RG = 60 W
distortion is
When the galvanometer is shunted by a resistance r, its 1 1
effective resistance f = = Hz
2pma RC 2p ´ 0.6 ´ 2.5 ´ 10 -5
RG r 60 ´ 0.02
RP = = » 0.02W
RG + r 60 + 0.02 100 ´ 104
= Hz
25 ´ 12
. p
Total resistance of the circuit = R + R P = R + 0.02
5 5 4
Current, I = Þ 1= = ´ 104 Hz = 10.61 kHz
R + 0.02 R + 0.02 . p
12

R + 0.02 = 5 Þ R = 5 - 0.02= 4.98 » 5 W This condition is obtained by applying the condition that rate of
decay of capacitor voltage must be equal or less than the rate of
1
wL - decay modulated signal voltage for proper detection of
14. (c)\ tan f = wC modulated signal.
R
f being the angle by which the current leads the voltage. . ´ 10 -7 m,
20. (a) Here, wavelength ( l ) = 5400 Å = 54
Given, f = 45° a = 0.80 mm = 8 ´ 10 -4 m, D = 1.4 m
1 1 \ Distance between first two dark bands on each side of
wL - wL -
\ tan45° = w C Þ 1= w C central maximum is the width of central maximum
R R 2 lD 2 ´ 5.4 ´ 10-7 ´ 1.4
1 1 = 2x = =
R = wL - Þ wC = d 8 ´ 10-4
wC wL - R -3
= 189
. ´ 10 m = 189 . mm
1 1
Þ C= =
w( wL - R ) 2pf (2pfL - R ) 21. (a) Magnetic flux linked with bigger circular loop is given by
15. (c) As we know that, wavelength of a particle m0 pIR2 R2
f= × 2 1 2 23 / 2
æ h 2 ( R1 + x )
h h 1 1 ö
l= = × Þ log l = log ç × ÷
2 mE 2m E è 2m Eø Putting the values,
h 1 4 p ´ 10 -7 ´ p ´ 15 ´ ( 0.3 ´ 10-2 )2 ´ (20 ´ 10-2)2
Þ log l = log + log 1/ 2 f=
2m E [( 0.3 ´ 10-2 )2 + (15 ´ 10 -2 )2 ]3 / 2
æ h ö 1 By solving, we get
Þ log l = log ç ÷ - log E f = 9.116 ´ 10-11 Wb
è 2m ø 2
1 h 22. (c)QVAB = ( I - Ig )R = Ig × G
Þ log l = - log E + log
2 2m
I – Ig
R
So, equation of straight line is y = mx + c. A
I B
1
This is equation of line with slope - . Ig
2 V
1 2 2 1
16. (b)\ N1 = N0 - N0 = N0 and N2 = N0 - N0 = N0 where, G = voltmeter (resistance).
3 3 3 3
N2 æ 1 ö
n Given, VAB = 120 V, I = 2 A, R = 75 W
\ = ç ÷ Þ n =1
N1 è 2 ø Þ 120 = (2 - Ig )75 Þ Ig = 0.4 A
120
\ t2 - t1 = one half-life = 20 min Now, VAB = Ig G Þ G = = 300 W
0.4
14 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018

23. (d) Negatively charged body contains more electron than its 3. (b) 10Ω C 10Ω E 10Ω G
A
natural state of mass is slightly increased.
24. (a) Charge of plates remains same as there is no transfer of 40Ω 40Ω 20Ω
charge.
25. (c) During charging, E = V + ir (due to reversed current). In case
B
of charging emf of a cell is less than its terminal voltage while in 10Ω D 10Ω F 10Ω H
case of discharging emf is greater than terminal voltage.
In the circuit, the branch have three resistance of 10 W, 20
26. (a) A moving charge is equivalent to a current. W and 10 W, respectively which are connected in series
\ It produce a field and can interacts with external magnetic combination. So, their equivalent resistance is given by
field. R1 = 10 + 20 + 10 = 40 W
27. (d) Switching results in high decay/growth rate of current which This R1 resistance is parallel with 40 W resistance which is
results in a high. Current when bulb is turned off (due to back connected in the branch EF. So, their equivalent resistance
40 ´ 40
emf). So, a bulb is must likely to get fused when it is just turned off. R2 = = 20 W
40 + 40
28. (a) Convex mirror always form virtual image becomes ray
Now, circuit becomes
diverge after reflection.
10Ω C 10Ω E
29. (d) Fringe width does not change by the introduction of glass A
slab. Additional path is introduced due to insertion of glass slab.
30. (a) In an atom electron revolves around nucleus, for this required 40Ω 20Ω
centripetal force is provided by electrostatic force of attraction
between electron and nucleus. As there is no other force,
B
electrostatic force is unbalanced. 10Ω D 10Ω F
-
31. (c) For a b -decay, Now, t in the branch CEFD 10 W, 20 W and 10 W resistance are
1
0n ¾® 11p + 0
-1e
connect in series combination their equivalent resistance is
given by
\ Electrons do not exist inside the nucleus.
R3 = 10 W + 20 W + 40 W = 40 W
32. (d) Thickness of depletion layer depends upon the biasing of
This R3 is parallel with 40 W resistance which is present in
semiconductor devices and in the depletion layer, there is no free
branch CD. Their equivalent resistance,
charge carriers are available in depletion layer.
40 ´ 40
R4 = = 20 W
40 + 40
JIPMER Now, circuit becomes
1. (a) Magnetic moment M = NiA 10Ω C
where, N = number of turns of the current loop and i = current. A

Since, the orbiting electron behaves as a current loop of

current i, we can write 20Ω
e e ev
i= = =
T 2pr 2pr B
v 10Ω D
The net resistance between A and B,Rnet = 10 + 20 + 10 = 40 W
4. (a) B
v
5 10
A D
10
where, A = area of the loop = pr2 . 10 20
i
ev ö 2 evr
Þ M = (1) æç ÷ ( pr ) =
è 2pr ø 2 C

Q 1Q 2
2. (b)Q Electrostatic force, F = k 5V
r2
Above circuit is satisfied, the Wheatstone bridge condition, so
2 ´ 10 -7 ´ 3 ´ 10 -7
= 9 ´ 109 ´ no current is flow in the branch BC and it behaves like an open
(30 ´ 10 -2 )2 circuit.
= 6 ´ 10 -3 N
 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018 15

So, circuit becomes as shown below 7. (a) This combination is same as the two capacitors are
connected in series and distance between plates of each
B
capacitor is d/2.
5 10 Ke A eA
So, C1 = 0 and C2 = 0
A D d/2 d/2
æ 2 Ke0 A ö æ 2 e0 A ö
ç ÷ç ÷
10 20 C1C2 è d øè d ø 2 KAe0
i Hence, C net = = =
C1 + C2 æ 2 Ke0 A + 2 e0 A ö ( K + 1)d
C ç ÷
è d d ø
5V 8. (a) Given, A = 60° , dm = 30°
Now, in the above circuit According to prism formula,
R ABD = 5 + 10 = 15W A + dm ö
sin æç ÷
R ACD = 10 + 20 = 30 W è 2 ø
m=
A
sin æç ö÷
Resistance, R ABD and R ACD in parallel, so
15 ´ 30 450 è2ø
R net = = = 10 W
30 + 15 45 60°+30° ö
E 5 sin æç ÷
\ i= = = 0.5 A è 2 ø sin 45°
R net 10 or m= =
60° sin 30°
sin
5. (c) 10Ω 2
18Ω
or m= 2
P 10Ω Q
R Speed of light in air (c )
Q m=
Speed of light in prism ( v )
8Ω 25Ω
c 3 ´ 108 3
v= = = ´ 108 m/s
m 2 2
+ –
1
10V 9. (c)QCurrent, I = nAevd or vd µ
A
In the given circuit, net resistance between P and Q points is R PQ
d A
and net resistance between Q and R points is RQR, then If diameter of wire is , then area will be , so new drift
10 ´ 8 80 40 4 16
R PQ = = = W velocity = 16 vd .
10 + 8 18 9
10 ´ 18 ´ 25 4500 225 10. (b) Q60 W and 30 W resistor are connected in parallel. So, their
RQR = = = W
10 ´ 18 + 18 ´ 25 + 25 ´ 10 880 44 net resistance
So, circuit will be 30 ´ 60 1800
R net = = = 20 W
30 + 60 90
40 Ω 225 Ω
2 2
P
9 Q 44
R \ i= = = 0.1 A
R net 20
11. (a) When two lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus,
the process is called nuclear fusion. e.g.,
2 2
+ – Q 1 H +1 H ¾®42 He
10 V – –
12. (a) When is accelerated by V volts, then work done by is
In the series circuit, voltages will be divide in the ratio of their equals to kinetic energy of – .
resistances. 1
or qV = mv 2
R PQ V 2
\ = PQ
RQR VQR – 2qV
Then, the velocity of e is v =
æ 40 ö m
ç ÷
è9 ø V 1760 VPQ
\ = PQ or = or v = k V.
æ 225 ö V 2025 VQR When e – accelerated by V volts, then v = k V .
ç ÷ QR
è 44 ø
Force experiences by e – in a uniform magnetic field, F = qvB
1760 VPQ
or = Þ VPQ = 4.65V or F = qk VB ...(i)
3785 10
6. (c)QCapacitance of a parallel plate capacitor, When e accelerated by 2V volts, then v1 = k 2 V .
eA Cd 2 ´ 0.5 ´ 10 -2 \ F1 = qv1B = qk 2 VB
C= 0 A= =
d e0 . ´ 10 -12
885 Hence, F1 = 2 F [from Eq. (i)]
= 1130
. ´ 109 m2 = 1130 km2
16 NEET, AIIMS & JIPMER Solved Papers 2018

Energy 19. (a)QAngular frequency at resonance,

13. (b) Power = = 300 ´ 106 W = 3 ´ 108 J/s
Time 1
w= …(i)
Energy released due to fission LC
=170 MeV = 170 ´ 106 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 According to question, when inductor’s inductance is made 2
times and capacitance is 4 times, then
= 27.2 ´ 10 -12 J 1
w¢ =
Number of atoms fissioned per second LC
3 ´ 108 3 ´ 1020
w¢ = æç
= = 1 ö 1
or ÷
27.2 ´ 10 -12 27.2 è 2 2 ø LC
Number of atoms fissioned per hour w
= [From Eq. (i)]
3 ´ 1020 ´ 3600 3 ´ 36 2 2
= = ´ 1022 = 4 ´ 1022 m
27.2 27.2 20. (b)QMagnetic field at center,
14. (a) Dm = 2 (2.015) - (3.017 + 1.009) = 0.004 amu m0 I
B=
2r
\ Energy released = ( 0.004 ´ 931.5) MeV = 3.726 MeV
e
3.726 where, I=
Energy released per deuteron = = 1.863 MeV t
2
e ev
6.02 ´ 1026 or I= =
Number of deuterons in 1 kg = = 3.01 ´ 1026 æ 2pr ö 2pr
2 ç ÷
è v ø
\ Energy released per kg of deuterium fusion
m ev ö m0ev
= (3.01 ´ 1026 ´ 1.863) Hence, B = æç 0 ö÷ æç ÷=
è 2r ø è 2pr ø 4 pr 2
26 13
= 5.6 ´ 10 MeV » 9.0 ´ 10 J v
or Bµ 2
15. (a) Let A¢ be the angle of flint glass prism. r
Here, A = 5° and m = 1.51for crown glass prism. 21. (a) Let number of turns = n
Deviation produced by flint glass, a
d¢ = (m - 1)A = (1.51 – 1) ´ 5 = 2.55°
For no deviation, d¢ = d
or 0.65 A¢ = 2.55
2.55 n ´ 6 a = 24 a
A¢ = = 3.92°
0.65 \ n =4
16. (d) Distance of nth bright fringe from the centre, Magnetic moment, M = nIA = 4 IA
nDl 1 1
QArea of hexagone = a2 sin 60°+ a × 2a sin 60° + a2 sin 120°
yn =
d 2 2
3 ´ 6000 ´10 -10 ´ 2.5 3 2 3a2
\ y3 = = 9 ´ 10 -3 m = 9 mm = a + 3a2 +
0.5 ´ 10 -3 4 4
6 3a2 3 3a2
17. (a) Here, m V = 1.523 and m R = 1.5145 = =
4 2
Mean refractive index, æ 3 3a2 ö 2
Hence, magnetic moment = 4 I ç ÷ = 6 3Ia
1.523 + 1.5145 è 2 ø
m= = 1.51875
2
22. (b) From Snell’s law of refraction,
Dispersive power is given by, sin i m2 v
= = 1
(m - m R ) 1.523 –1.5145 sin r m1 v2
w= V = = 0.01639
(m - 1) (1.51875 – 1)
Given, v1 = 3 ´ 108 m/s
18. (a) Given that, F = 0.2 N, Q 1 = 8mC, Q 2 = 4 mC m2 1
= m2 = 1.5
QQ
QForce between two charges, F = k 12 2 m1
r v1 3 ´ 108
Þ v2 = = m/s
8 ´ 10 -6 ´ 4 ´ 10 -6
9 1
m2 1.5
or 0.2 = 9 ´ 10 ´
r2
3 ´ 108
9 ´ 109 ´ 8 ´ 10 -6 ´ 4 ´ 10 -6 \ v2 = = 2 ´ 108 m/s
\ r2 = 3/2
0.2
or r = 12
. m