Easa Mod 11

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11.

1Theory of flight
1. With respect to flight spoilers, they an operate both on the ground and in flight
2. Lift dumpers are used after touchdown only
3. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to. prevent adverse yaw in a turn
4. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true? The down going aileron
moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron
5. A differential aileron (and Fries aileron) system is designed to prevent adverse yaw
6. A flying control mass balance weight tends to move the control surface C of G. close to the hinge line
7. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with aileron
8. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for? To re-energies the
boundary layer
9. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a. (Which of the following trailing
edge flaps give an increase in wing area? Fowler flap
10. Elevons combine the functions of both. Elevator and aileron
11. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to. act as venture, accelerate the air and re-energies boundary layer.
12. Dutch role is movement in. yaw and roll. Or a combined yawing and rolling motion. Or Instability giving
roll and yaw.
13. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's. Dutch
roll frequency.
14. When an aircraft stalls. lift decreases and drag increases. (is caused by the separation of airflow from
the wing's upper surface)
15. An airplane can stall at any airspeed, in any flight attitude, or at any weight.
16. To recover from a stall, smooth airflow must be restored.
17. The mach number Is the ratio of the true airspeed of an aircraft to the speed of sound.
18. The critical Mach No. can be increased by sweeping back the wing.
19. A factor of great importance in the study of high-speed flight is the speed of sound
20. Flight spoilers are primarily ?used for differential ailerons to reduce adverse yow in a turn
21. The rudder limiter ? reduce rudder travel at high speeds in order to prevent rudder / stabilizer over
load
22. A servo tab? Is connected directly to the pilots control and moves the control surface to which it is
attached aerodynamically
23. Control surface bias may be provided on one or more control surfaces to ?make an aircraft oppose a
constant disturbing force such as propeller slipstream
24. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control a roll to the right is caused by ?right spoilers
extended, left spoilers remain retracted
25. If the leading edge of a variable incidence stabilizer is moved downwards there will be a nose up
moment on the aeroplane

11.2 Airframe Structures General Concepts


1. Structural Classification: primary (RED), secondary (YALOW) and tertiary (GREAN)
2. If a color is used to identify primary structure, it will be RED (and they carries flight, ground or pressure
load.)
3. Primary These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and, if damaged, may cause failure of the
aircraft and loss of life of the aircrew
4. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures? These parts of the airframe are highly
stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
5. Tertiary These are lightly stressed parts such as fairing, wheel shields, minor component brackets
6. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as Primary
7. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
8. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of
the fuselage is water line
9. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a vertical line. (UP AND DOWN)
10. Where are wing stations measured from?. BUTTOCK LINE (BL)
11. What are buttock lines? Measurements from the center line.(right or left of the fuselage)
12. A Fuselage Station is a. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
13. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or years,
regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?. SAFE LIFE
14. SAFE LIFE the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure
occurs.
15. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a fail-safe design
16. Stringers panels are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction? Semi-
monocoque parts
17. Stringers opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure (What opposes buckling in a semi-
monocoque structure?)
18. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft? tension, compression, torsion,
bending, and shear
19. When tension exceeds the elastic limit of a material it will remain permanently deformed
20. An example of primary stress is tension
21. Compression tries to squeeze the ends of an object together
22. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike? Bonding Strip.
23. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by. bonding.
24. Bonding used to Reduces danger from lightning strikes
25. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be. 0.5 in wide.
26. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the gauge
read?. Zero
27. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is 50 milliohms.
(0.05 ohm)
28. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a. tear stopper.
29. Fuselage formers are usually constructed of pressed aluminium alloy sheet
30. An symmetry check is carried out on aeroplane structure primarily to check whether any distortion has
taken place.
31. Symmetry checks should be carried out. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks
32. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of measurement is normally
used? Steel tape and spring balance
33. Sulphuric Acid Anodizing (SAA): is the most common process giving a deep, almost transparent, film of
oxide and a good surface finish.
34. The aircraft construction trusses have numerous layout , the two dominate layouts in for aircraft
application have been ? semi-monocoque and tri-monocoque
35. Most commonly methods are used to join sheet metal structure and other parts are ? riveting, bolting,
bonding and welding
36. Most joining method used in aviation is? riveting

11.3 Airframe Structures – Aeroplanes


1. Stressed-skin-type fuselages are used in modern transport aircraft
2. Most large transport aircraft skins are: 2024 (are semi-monocoque structures and made of aluminum
alloy 2024)
3. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads? Skin
4. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the? Skin
5. The power supply to a cargo loading system is available only when the cargo door is fully open
6. The doors in the pressurized cabin can be divided into two groups: plug-type doors; non-plug-type
doors
7. Door Safety Proximity sensors attached to the door for 'Door Closed, 'Door Locked' and this gives an
indication to the flight crew at time any one of these conditions is not met
8. Cabin doors and emergency exits normally sealed by inflatable rubber seals.
9. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabilizer (or wing) are? skin, spar, ribs, stringers
10. The primary structural components that make up a wing on a large metal constructed aeroplane are
skin, spar, ribs, stringers
11. The main lengthwise members in a wing truss are the spar
12. The principle load bearing members of the wing are. spars.
13. What is a cantilever wing? One that has no external supporting struts
14. The lower wing surface is usually made from aluminium alloy 2024
15. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates? Sagging (the top surface goes into
compression and the bottom surface goes into tension)
16. The empennage configuration that must the vertical stabiliser be constructed to be the strongest is a
high horizontal stabilizer (T tail )
17. The flight deck windows are divided into two kinds: windshield (front windows) and side windows
18. There is a heating element between the outside window and the plastic layer
19. The protective windows are installed in the wall panels. There is a small ventilation hole in the inside
window to allow adjustment for pressure differences between the inside and the outside window.
20. Cabin windows are made of a certain synthetic The advantages are its extreme clearness and that is
weather proof. A disadvantage of this material is that it is sensitive to solvents, stripping compounds,
ultraviolet rays and air pollution
21. Each window is made with two panes. Each of the two panes can carry the full differential cabin
pressure on their own. The panes are made of stretched acrylic.
22. dummy windows are made of one layer of aluminum alloy plate.
23. Scratches
1-Hairline Scratches. A hairline scratch can be seen but is difficult to feel with a fingernail.
2-Light Scratches. A light scratch is less than 0·254 mm (0·010 inch) deep and can be felt with a fingernail.
3-Heavy Scratches. A heavy scratch is 0·254 mm (0·010 inch) or more in depth and can be readily felt with a
fingernail.
24. The landing gear loads are the largest loads on the aircraft For this reason, the transfer of these loads
to the fuselage shell requires extensive local reinforcement.
25. If an engine cowling is constructed of composite materials, metal strips fitted to the surface of the
cowling is for lightning protection.
26. Wing-mounted engine pylons are attached to the front spar only
27. A pylon structural member supports the. Pylon
28. The engine pylon that sometimes called a stub wing is: aft fuselage engine mount

11.4 Air Conditioning and Pressurisation (ATA 21)


1. Air conditioning systems decrease the temperature of air
2. In the airconditioning pack the air from pneumatic system is cooled to temperature between 2 to 60 C°
3. In the vapour cycle cooling heat is removed from the charge air by changing a liquid into a vapour.
4. When dissipating heat in a vapour cycle system. vapour converts to a liquid.
5. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?. Vapour cycle.
6. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system apply suction to remove air and moisture
7. The Condenser - condenses the hot refrigerant gas coming from the compressor. The condenser is the
radiator-like component which receives the hot, high-pressure vapour from the compressor and allows
cool ram air to flow over its coils to remove the heat from the refrigerant vapour so it will change back
into a liquid
8. Receiver-Dryer: remove moisture from refrigerant only
9. The expansion valve also reduce the pressure of the refrigerant.
10. a variable expansion valve is controlled by the tempoerature at the evaporator
11. absorbs the heat of the aircraft cabin into the refrigerant. As the heat is absorbed the refrigerant
evaporates and its temperature will drop .
12. During the operation of a vapour cycle cooling system, water will condense from the air at the
evaporator.
13. There are types of refrigerant. R134a
14. * During servicing of a vapour cycle cooling system it is usual to apply vacuum to remove air and
moisture.
15. maintenance procedures concerning a bleed air supply system, supplying air for the air conditioning
system and cabin pressurisation are found in chapter 36 of maintenance manual
16. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air.
17. Components of Air Cycle Systems Bleed air shut off valve Heat Exchangers Air Cycle Machine
18. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by. the compressor of the gas
turbine engine
19. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to: reduce the air supply temperature
20. In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is ram air from ambient conditions.
21. After passing through the primary heat exchanger of an air cycle system, the supply air flows to the
compressor.
22. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is. conversion of heat energy to
mechanical energy in the C.A.U.
23. Air Cycle Machine(Also known as 'Cold Air Unit‘) consists of a turbine and compressor
24. Water separator :remove the moisture and water drops .It is fitted downstream of turbine
25. In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the TCV (Temperature control
valve )
26. A pack valve on an air conditioning system incorporates a venturi to measure the flow rate of the bleed
air.
27. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin
pressure differential is not exceeded: 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes
above 8000 feet.
28. To avoid discomfort for aeroplane passengers, the rate of change of cabin pressure should be as low as
possible when the aeroplane in descending. ( during descent)
29. If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show: a rate of descent
30. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. all open
31. Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be. Fitted or connected
32. Cabin environmental control system regulates the air temperature and movement and air pressure and
humidity
33. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control: the cabin differential
pressure
34. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between. the pressure inside the aircraft and the
ambient air pressure ( cabin pressure and ambient pressure)
35. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum. a warning light (or horn) comes on in the
cockpit.
36. Aircraft Altitude : The actual height above sea level at which an aircraft is flying.
37. Pressure control systems consist of outflow valve(s), pressure controller(s), control panel, pressure
relief valve and monitoring devices.
38. cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by. regulating the position of the outflow
valve
39. There are different types of outflow valves. Electrical • Pneumatic
40. The cabin altitude warning is usually an audible horn which can be muted.
41. Rate of change of cabin pressure is. selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller.
42. The pressure control panel includes of dials, switches, and indicators used in the operation of the
pressurization control system. It could be the automatic (AUTO) mode or manual (MAN)
43. pressure relief valve : to relief the pressure if it is more than needed inside the cabin
44. In a pneumatic cabin pressure controller, vacuum air is provided to operate the outflow valve from the
aircraft’s vacuum system.
45. Ditching control is used for. closing all valves and inlets.
46. If an aircraft ditches in the sea, it is necessary that all the valves are closed. This can be achieved on
many aircraft by pressing the guarded( Ditching push-button switch.)
47. The OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT light illuminate means the aircraft descending before it has reached
cruise altitude
48. Emergency Ram Air Source The system can be used in flight to ventilate the cockpit and the cabin if
pressurization system fails
11.5

1. The purpose of the turn coordinator is that? it indicates rate of turns and response quickly to turns.
2. A stall warning system should activate at an aircraft? speed higher than the stall speed.
3. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator (IVSI), indicator change in vertical sped rapidly because it? incorporates
accelerometers.
4. An attitude indicator (ADI) USES ?Vertical gyro
5. An Alpha vane? Measure the aircraft angle of attack
6. The rata of turn coordinator compared to turn and slip indicator is? more instantaneous
7. Glass cockpit modern transport aircrafts used? LCD screens
8. An altimeter cantains capsule which has ? outside of it inside air title case
9. EICAS shows the alert messages in which display? primary
10. The gyroscope in the aircraft that spin on the vertical axis will? sense pitch and roll .
11. Aircraft flying at constant pressure altitude and detect excessive terrain closure due to terrain GWS, will detect
and alert this in? mode 2.
12. If the altimeter big handle points to 6 and the small handle points to 2 , so the altimeter indicates? 2600ft.
13. The encoding altimeter? sends the altitude digitally to the ATC via transponder mode C.
14. In modern aircraft the hydraulic system parameters are digitized for interface with the other system the primary
purpose for this ? display on the EFIS in the flight deck
15. The directional gyro is checked every 15 minuets for? drift.
16. Aircraft airspeed indicator has? pitot to the capsule and static to the outside of the capsule
17. The crap angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the? difference between the course arrow
and aircraft heading
18. ADF system incorporate? the sense and loop antennas
19. SELCAL select of call is used to? monitor the ground signals
20. The weather radar emits? microwave pulses(system)
21. The altitude data that provide in the ATC transponder? Mode c
22. the radio altimeter measures all the heights of the aircraft? above the ground level up to 2500ft
23. GPS system aircraft equipment is? User segment.
24. VOR bearing information is indicated on? RMI.
25. ILS consist of? localizer, glideslope and marker beacons.
26. Non-directional beacon system is used by the? Automatic direction finder (ADF)
27. Inertial navigation system consist of? three gyros and two accelerometers.
28. ACARS uses? VHF of SATCOM systems.
29. VHF communication system is? line of sight transmission system.
30. The location of marker beacon antenna is on the? under side of the aircraft.
31. If the flight director roll command bar is right of center during a localize approach? the pilot needs to fly the
aircraft o the right.
32. ACARS system IS primirly used for ? Communication between the aircraft and the maintenance base.
33. The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures? The slant distance from the ground to aircraft
34. The outer marker beacon indication color is? Blue.
35. Standard VOR system on aircraft provides? bearing information only.
36. VHF navigation Is used by? VOR and the ILS.
37. Each ring laser gyro in an internal reference system uses? two laser beams.
38. SATCOM system can be used for? data and voice transmission.
39. For long rang communication? HF system is used.
40. autopilot annunciation are on the ? Primary flight display, PDF
41. a VHF NAV and COM system has a range which is? greater if the aircraft is at higher altitude.
42. On the aircraft that does not have a glass cockpit, dual VOR equipments are indicated on? the HSI and RMI.
43. Why does an audio panel have push-buttons to enable listening to NAV receiver? All navigation beacons also
transmit audio Morse code indents'.
44. The new emergency locator transmitter (ELT) regulatory requirement for digital information transmission is on?
406 MHZ.
45. The instrument landing system, ILS, is selected or turned on the? VHF NAV receiver same as the VOR.
46. A power supply to the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)? An internal lithium battery pack
47. A ‘Squake’ code switch is applicable to? The transponder mode A.
48. What is The maximum radio altimeter? Track altitude is 2500 ft.
49. The runway heading is? QDR
50. Radio altimeter system can be self tested? both on the ground and in the air.
51. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System).? A red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
52. For an IRS system to pass the ‘alignment system performance test’ the? latitude entered must be within give
limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
53. The localizer system offers approach guidance to the runway in? horizontal plane
54. Middle marker modulation is keyed with? alternate dots and dashes

11.6

1. When a battery installation The acid trap ?must be drained at regular intervals
2. If, during flight, a DC generator fails, the pilot will get what indication? negative current on the ammeter gauge,
reducing voltage and a red warning light.
3. When checking the specific gravity of lead-acid battery electrolyte, the temperature must be taken into account
because higher temperature results in a? Lower density of the electrolyte.
4. what electrical fault will not always trip the GCR? Under-frequency and under-volts.
5. To adjust the voltage output of a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator? the contact spring tension is adjusted
6. The amount of current which flows into the battery charge will determine? The level of charge of the battery
7. The oil inside a constant speed unit? provides hydraulic function for the CSD as well as cooling and lubrication
8. after load shedding from an electrical busbar, the busbar voltage? Remains unchanged and current consumption
decreases
9. If the ground power plug is withdrawn from the socket with the circuit still live ? no damage will be done
because the external power rely will be DE energized because the main pin are disconnected

10. A sensing element of a load sharing circuit uses what type of transformer? A current transformer
11. A frequency wild generator may damage? capacitive and inductive components only .
12. If the current output of a generator Is doubled The heating loss in the generator? be quadrupled
13. Which AC generator configuration provides two voltage options? Star configuration
14. If the load on the generator increase, in order to provide the increased demand, a voltage regulator using a pulse
width modulation will? increase the pulse width.
15. .in the brushless PMG type generator the rotating rectifier diode are between the ? exciter armature and main
generator field
16. A ‘freewheel diode’ on a relay is to? provide protection from induced current when the contactor is opened.
17. In multi generator paralleled electrically loaded distribution system reactive load sharing is activated adjustment
of generator ? excitation
18. A constant speed drive, or IDG, will be automatically disconnected in the event of? high oil temperature or low
oil pressure
19. The point of regulation of a brushless PMG type generator is at the? main generator stator.
20. Interpoles on A DC generator are ? the opposite magnetic polarity as the preceding main pole (in direction of
rotation of armature)
21. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged? The electrolyte level is higher level than normal.
22. A diode connected across a coil will? prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way.
23. The distilled water should be added to ni-cad battery? only in the work shop.
24. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates? excessive charging current.
25. In an undervolt condition in AC generator system, the most likely consequent is? activation of the time delay
circuit.
26. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indication of? high oil temperature / low
oil pressure.
27. Zener diodes are used as? voltage regulation
28. In the event of complete AC generator failure, power is maintained to the essential AC bus-bar? by power fed
from a battery supplied static inverter.
29. What control are the o/p from the generator? GCU
30. Neutralizing agent for sulphuric acid is? Sodium bicarbonate
31. The inverter is used to convert? DC to AC.
32. Integrated drive generator (IDG)? incorporates the alternator and the CSD as one unit.

11.7 Emergency Equipment


1. How often are life jackets inspected? In accordance with the manufacturers specification.
2. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of: 9g
3. At least one megaphone in required when the total passenger seats more than ? 60
4. Inflation of emergency escape slide are usually achieved with ? (C02) and/or nitrogen (N).
5. Regarding an electrically operated pilots seat , if there is an electrical power failure to the seat,the
seat? Can always be moved manually
6. Proof testing of passenger seat-belts is carried out to? 9.0 g.
7. a seat belt or harness each capable of restraining a person of mass 77 kg (170 pounds)
8. cabin layouts can be configured for? (a combination of Passenger and Cargo)
9. Air stairs can be operated from ?either inside or outside the aircraft.
10. Regarding layout of general cabin equipment such as fire extinguishers ,therapeutic oxygen, first aid
kits etc, these can be located “? In overhead hat racks, in bulkhead cupboards and under crew seats
11. Video display must be located either under the hat racks on hinged mountings or in the back of each
passenger seat
12. How are passenger seats secured to the floor? By the back legs while the front attachment provides
anti-rattle function
13. Unit load devices (cans)for large transport category aircraft are usually manufactured from?
Polycarbonate
14. The normal stair motor is operated by ? AC source
15. Modern aircraft are usually equipped with four seats ? captain, first officer and two observer seats
16. The fact that the pressure lapse rate , the decrease is pressure with altitude is ? not linear
17. The instantaneous vertical speed indicator ( IVSI) is also sometimes referred to as ?the inertial lead
vertical speed indicator ( ILVSI) ANSWER (A)
11.8

1. On a fenwall continuous-loop fire detector, an overheat condition causes a? drop in the resistance of the
eutectic salt, closing an electric circuit.
2. a carbon monoxide detector which has been exposed to a level of carbon monoxide, will turn from? green to
black color.
3. Which type of fire extinguisher has been discontinued due to its toxicity and corrosiveness aluminum alloys?
Methyl bromide MB
4. A thermal switch works on the principle of? thermal expansion.
5. How much accumulation of smoke particles are required in the air to activate a photoelectric type smoke
detector? 0.1
6. The lavatory waste bin fire extinguisher will be activated? Above At 70 C (158 C),
7. Lavatory (NO SMOKING) placards must be displayed? both inside and outside of lavatory.
8. A hand held portable fire extinguisher operating handle is? secured with copper tell-tale wire.
9. Portable fire extinguishers are operated? by breaking the tamper-proof seal then squeezing the handle as
required.
10. Afire that can be put out by crew members in cargo bay? class B compensation
11. A systron-Donner fire detection system uses? helium gas.

11.9
1. Lift dumpers fitted on wings to help prevent the brakes and skidding after touchdown.
2. Flutter can be prevented by? mass balance
3. “Q” feel system applied to an elevator system is sensitive to? airspeed and elevator deflection.
4. A series yaw damper moves the? Rudder only when damping dutch roll.
5. On some large transport aircraft when it is close to the stalling angle? slats will extend automatically.
6. How the flight control surfaces on large modern A/C moved? Electro-hydraulic servo actuators
7. Gust lock are most often used on aircraft with control systems which are? cable or push rod operated.
8. Control surface flutter is? most likely occur at high A/C speeds
9. Flight control system operation by pneumatic power is sometimes used for? Secondary flight control
10. A leading edge devices that extend to the front of the wing for lift augmentation are? Slat
11. Stall strips fitted on the? wings leading edge
12. The devices that mounted on trailing edge of wing and deflected to increase curvature of the wing
are? flap
13. Device to rapidly and noisily vibrate the control yoke? Stick shaker
14. Elevator trim balances the control forces necessary to maintain the aerodynamic down force on? The
tail
15. The control of the A/C becomes more difficult to operate the system if A/C? increase in size and weight
(1 and 2 are correct)
16. In a fully fly by wire aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground
and? thrust reversers are deployed
17. The flight controls in the cockpit actuate control valves which direct hydraulic fluid to control surface
actuators
18. The wing tip brake can be reseted after energized? Only on ground
19. To avoid moments bending the root of wing the A/C will be fitted with? Symmetrical flight control trim
20. During an autopilot controlled turn? ailerons, rudder, and elevators will move
21. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque sitting is to? Prevent control surface runaway
22. On aircraft fitted with spoiler for lateral control, a roll to the right is caused by? right spoilers
extending, left spoiler remaining retracted
23. If the leading edge of a variable incidence stabilizer is moved downwards there will be a? nose up
movement on the A/C
11.10 Fuel Systems
1. Each fuel system of a multi-engine aircraft must be arranged in such a way that the failure of any one
component (except the fuel tank) will not cause more than one engine to lose power
2. Each fuel tank must have a 2% expansion space that cannot be filled with fuel.
3. A gravity feed system must be able to flow 150% of the fuel flow required for cruise when the tank
contains the minimum fuel allowable.
4. If an aircraft fuel system has two boost pumps to each engine supply line, each boost pump is fitted
with a non-return valve and a pressure switch.
5. Light aircraft fuel tanks are usually filled through over-wing filler caps by gravity feed fuel system
6. Pressure refueling is carried out at up to 50PSI (or 40)
7. regarding defueling of a large transport aircraft, fuel pumps supply pressure for pressure defueling and
an external defuel source provides suction for? suction defueling.
8. The Fuel Jettison System (also known as Dump System) makes it possible to bring the aircraft weight?
below the maximum landing weight
9. water is now considered to be a major source of contamination.
11.11 Hydraulic Power
1. A closed hydraulic system directs fluid to the main system manifold
2. Power pack system is widely used in light aircraft
3. Exxon hyjet v hydraulic fluid is phosphate easter based
4. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system
5. A hydraulic pump driven by the pneumatic system usually an auxiliary or emergency pump.
6. An “internal gear’ hydraulic pump is one which has gears in which the teeth project outwards on one
gear and inward on the other gear.
7. The hydraulic pump that has circularly or elliptically shaped intrior and flat end plates is called vane
pump
8. Engine driven hydraulic pumps are lubricated by hydraulic oil via the case drain.
9. A hydraulic pump driven by the electrical system is usually an auxiliary o emergency pump
10. A ram air turbine ( RAT ) hydraulic pump is for flying controls if hydraulic power lost
11. Hydraulic Actuators
The purpose of an actuator is to transform fluid flow into linear or rotary motion
Types:
A-linear actuator 1-single acting. 2-double acting
B-Rotor actuator (rack and pinion type)
12. If components has an internal hydraulic leak, the fluid temperature will? increase
13. An accumulator has a pre-charge nitrogen pressure of 800 PSI. If 1000 PSI of hydraulic pressure is
pumped into the accumulator, the nitrogen pressure gauge will read? 1000 PSI
14. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to control the rate of system operation.
15. Regulator valve ( Unloading valve) to maintain pressure within a specified range
16. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by? low accumulatoe pressure.
11.12 Ice and Rain Protection
1. Ice that forms on aircraft on the ground must be removed before flight
2. Clear or glaze ice is deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and
which is dense, tough and sticks closely to the surface
3. A hot rod ice detector is switched on? only when selected by the flight crew
4. Serrated Rotor Ice Detector Head It is tested with? screwdriver torque test at the end of the shaft
5. On a hot air de-icing system, thermal expansion and contraction of ducting is catered for by use of
bellows of gimbal type expansion joints
6. Electrical de-icing mats are normally supplied continuously with electricity, whereas anti-icing mats are
intermittently heated.
7. the flow rate of anti-icing chemical fluid is determined by the flow control tubes
8. The wipers for the pilot and the co-pilot are driven independently, so if one drive malfunctions, there
will still be clear visibility on the other side.
11.13 Landing Gear
1. Wheeled undercarriages normally come in two types: 1-conventional or "tail-dragger“ undercarriage,
2- Tricycle undercarriage
2. Track :The distance between the far right and the far left main wheel.
3. An air ground sensing is required by many systems on a large aircraft and is performed by a simple
microswitch or proximity sensor located usually on one or both main landing gear.
4. A brake belt is sometimes used on the nose landing gear only
5. The centring cams on a nose landing gear enable the landing gear to be retracted into the wheel well
safely.
6. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to damp the rebound.
7. the colour of a thermal relief fuse plug indicates the temperature at which it will operate
8. Both tubed and tubeless tyres have vents holes
9. A tyre has a designation code of 17.5 X 5.75 – 8. the tyre width is 5.75inch
10. the red line painted on the tyre and wheel is intended to indicate tyre creep.
11. Tyres should always be stored indoors in a dark room
12. Brake compensating rods prevent the rear wheels on a main wheel bogie system, lifting during braking.
13. In an anti-skid system? brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking.
14. A Maxaret is used in what system? Skid control.
11.14 lights

1. The approximate arc width of a landing light beam is? 10 .


2. When the cargo door is closed, the cargo lights will? Go off, regardless of the light switch position.
3. A high Intensity Discharge (HID) lamp produce light by? an electric arc is established in a gas-filled tube.
4. The upper and lower strobe lights are colored? red.
5. The advantage of the LED lighting are? very low heating, and low power consumption, long life
6. Florescent light are general not used in the cabin of light aircraft? The required AC power
7. Position light are connected in? parallel with each other and series with switch
11.15 Oxygen system
1. Main component of oxygen system 1-regulator 2- filter 3- gauge 4-Thermal compensator is used in. 5-
pipes 6-masks 7- indications
2. There are three types of oxygen:Aviation, Medical, and Welding.
3. Hypoxia in which there is complete deprivation of oxygen supply is referred to? As anoxia.
4. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft. masks drop automatically.
5. In a diluter demand oxygen system (most common in modern aircraft) each member of the crew has
their own regulator.
6. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of stainless steel and to lubricate oxygen connector
threads we use Teflon tape
7. The cylinder test dates are paint in white on the cylinder.
8. Aircraft oxygen cylinder are normally charged to 1,800 p.s.i.
9. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders. Is relieved by a bursting disc.
10. A passenger cabin gaseous oxygen system layout is such that a small number of oxygen cylinders
(typically 5 to 13 ) together supply all the cabin masks with oxygen
11. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with a demand regulator.
12. A chemical oxygen generator operates at 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes.
13. A discharge chemical generator is indicate by a change in color.
14. A chemical oxygen generator operates at 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes.
15. The operating pressure of the Low Pressure regulator is 50 to 500 PSI. The operating pressure of the
High Pressure regulator is 50 to 2,000 PSI.
16. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with pressure gauge and quantity gauges.
17. Oxygen system should be carried out at the periods specified in approved Maintenance Schedules and
whenever a component has been changed.
11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum
1- After the compressed air in an aircraft pneumatic system has served its purpose it is dumped
overboard.
2- Compressors in pneumatic system, use piston-type pump is generally
3- The drain valve in the bottom of a pneumatic system reservoir is to drain moisture and sediment.
4- In the event of a pneumatic system failure, pressure for essential services is ensured by a pressure
maintaining valve in the non-essential services pipeline
5- Brake Control Valve Is used on some modern aircraft, and is operated by linkage from brake pedals
attached to the rudder bar
6- The valve that used to split or connect the different pneumatic system is? isolation valve
7- In High pressure system If the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of time, the
system would lose pressure from the compressor side only.
8- Pneumatic sources in flight are: • Engine compressors
9- The engine bleed air system consists of the power source (the engine compressors) and the control
devices. These control devices regulate temperature and pressure during system operation.
10- The HPV(High Pressure Valve) closes if: the high stage pressure exceeds 100 PSI .
11- The Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV) regulates the pneumatic supply pressure to 44 PSI.
12- A caution light in the cockpit annunciates “USE ENG PNEUM SUPPLY” this means the pneumatic
system is being supplied from APU.
13- To monitor the pneumatic system, normally pneumatic pressure and temperature indicators are
installed in the cockpit.
11.17 Water/Waste
1- The insulation and heating system is independent, but installed in all other subsystems is to protect
them from freezing
2- The potable water drain valve is on most large transport aeroplanes are electrically operated with a
manual operation as backup
3- tanks and water quantity depends

4- Because the water taps are located at a higher level than the tanks, it is necessary to pressurize the
system. So water can flow to the taps
5- Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by wrapping the pipes with ribbons (heated
tapes)
6- To maintain lavatory toilet in a clean condition, a chemical-water solution is used. This solution is
blue coloured and odorizing additives are mixed in it.
7- If a toilet tank venturi vent is blocked foul odours from the tank will enter the lavatory.
8- 233
11.18

1. What does The expression ‘electric library system’ refer to? a system of CD or disc data that lists all data
configuration and systems for that aircraft and carried on board
2. Where are modern aircrafts, the printers usually located ? in flight station center pedestal.
3. What devise is required to load software or load updated software in the aircraft flight management computer?
A data loader
4. Why Modern aircraft fitted with printers? to print faults recorded by CMC to aid in rectification
5. What is One reason for structural monitoring ? to develop a preventative maintenance policy.
6. In central maintenance system, the normal mode? generates reports.
7. The airborne printer allows to printout of the central maintenance system(CMS) reports from? ACARS
8. The central maintenance system(CMS) can be retrieved? The cockpit printer
9. Any detected failure generating flight effect is class ? one

11.19

1. The bandwidth of AFDX can be up to ? 100 MBPS


2. Single core processing input/output module hosts a lot of avionics systems
(SEVERAL AVIONICS APPLICATION)
3. In an IMA the perpos of an input /output modern (I/OM) IS TO ? convert the aircraft system data
sent and received by LRUs
4. The avionics data computer network (ADCN) in an integrated modular avionics (IMA) system used
what communication technology ? AFDX
5. Virtually link (VL) in an ADCN is? Predefined path between 2 ADCN subscribe
6. Integrated modulator avionics (IMA) technology ? can be combined with older federate type
technology on the same aircraft with the used of additional hardware and interface to allow to two
technology to communicates
7. AFDX Ethernet is defined as ? full duplex
8. The central feature of an AFDX network are its? virtual links (VL)
9. The advantage of using AFDX is? weighting saving
10. IOM has ? 1 CPU
11. Flight attendant communicate with directors of the cabin intercommunication data system using?
Flight attendant panels within the cabin
12. The units and component with furnish amines of entertaining the passenger in a modern aircraft
include video screen , audio outlet and internet conductivity
13. Interface between cockpit/ cabin crew and cabin system is performed via data exchange of deferent
related LRUs and is managed by ? the cabin intercommunication system (CIDS)
14. in-flight entertainment center(IFE) is installed in? the avionics bay
15. in additional Multi-purpose flight attendant panel need to be fitted in cabin system this is ? daisy
chain connected to any existing (FABS)
16. Cabin network service enables ,passengers to access internet and email service via? WLAN
17. The cabin core system include? service interphone
18. Call source priority are ? cockpit , acoustic devise , cockpit handset, cabin handset
19. system used to initial emergency evacuation signaling of all cabin areas and in the cockpit? EVAC
20. The cabin information system gives access to? cabin applications and documentation for the cabin
crew.
21. **The e-logbook used for defect reporting ,Maintenance action reporting ,Aircraft release after
maintenance
22. E- library and mass storage system such as electronic flight bag ? general purpose computing plate
from intendent to reduce or replaced paper
23. **Portable maintenance Access terminal (PMAT) Can Be use to connecte to network server
system ?
Only with the aircraft on the ground
24. portable electronic flight bag is connected to aircraft power it’s a ? class 2 devise
25. The cabin crew can access to the cabin application via ?flight attendant panel
26. the network server sys includes? Data processing

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