Easa Mod 11
Easa Mod 11
Easa Mod 11
1Theory of flight
1. With respect to flight spoilers, they an operate both on the ground and in flight
2. Lift dumpers are used after touchdown only
3. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to. prevent adverse yaw in a turn
4. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true? The down going aileron
moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron
5. A differential aileron (and Fries aileron) system is designed to prevent adverse yaw
6. A flying control mass balance weight tends to move the control surface C of G. close to the hinge line
7. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with aileron
8. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for? To re-energies the
boundary layer
9. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a. (Which of the following trailing
edge flaps give an increase in wing area? Fowler flap
10. Elevons combine the functions of both. Elevator and aileron
11. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to. act as venture, accelerate the air and re-energies boundary layer.
12. Dutch role is movement in. yaw and roll. Or a combined yawing and rolling motion. Or Instability giving
roll and yaw.
13. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's. Dutch
roll frequency.
14. When an aircraft stalls. lift decreases and drag increases. (is caused by the separation of airflow from
the wing's upper surface)
15. An airplane can stall at any airspeed, in any flight attitude, or at any weight.
16. To recover from a stall, smooth airflow must be restored.
17. The mach number Is the ratio of the true airspeed of an aircraft to the speed of sound.
18. The critical Mach No. can be increased by sweeping back the wing.
19. A factor of great importance in the study of high-speed flight is the speed of sound
20. Flight spoilers are primarily ?used for differential ailerons to reduce adverse yow in a turn
21. The rudder limiter ? reduce rudder travel at high speeds in order to prevent rudder / stabilizer over
load
22. A servo tab? Is connected directly to the pilots control and moves the control surface to which it is
attached aerodynamically
23. Control surface bias may be provided on one or more control surfaces to ?make an aircraft oppose a
constant disturbing force such as propeller slipstream
24. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control a roll to the right is caused by ?right spoilers
extended, left spoilers remain retracted
25. If the leading edge of a variable incidence stabilizer is moved downwards there will be a nose up
moment on the aeroplane
1. The purpose of the turn coordinator is that? it indicates rate of turns and response quickly to turns.
2. A stall warning system should activate at an aircraft? speed higher than the stall speed.
3. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator (IVSI), indicator change in vertical sped rapidly because it? incorporates
accelerometers.
4. An attitude indicator (ADI) USES ?Vertical gyro
5. An Alpha vane? Measure the aircraft angle of attack
6. The rata of turn coordinator compared to turn and slip indicator is? more instantaneous
7. Glass cockpit modern transport aircrafts used? LCD screens
8. An altimeter cantains capsule which has ? outside of it inside air title case
9. EICAS shows the alert messages in which display? primary
10. The gyroscope in the aircraft that spin on the vertical axis will? sense pitch and roll .
11. Aircraft flying at constant pressure altitude and detect excessive terrain closure due to terrain GWS, will detect
and alert this in? mode 2.
12. If the altimeter big handle points to 6 and the small handle points to 2 , so the altimeter indicates? 2600ft.
13. The encoding altimeter? sends the altitude digitally to the ATC via transponder mode C.
14. In modern aircraft the hydraulic system parameters are digitized for interface with the other system the primary
purpose for this ? display on the EFIS in the flight deck
15. The directional gyro is checked every 15 minuets for? drift.
16. Aircraft airspeed indicator has? pitot to the capsule and static to the outside of the capsule
17. The crap angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the? difference between the course arrow
and aircraft heading
18. ADF system incorporate? the sense and loop antennas
19. SELCAL select of call is used to? monitor the ground signals
20. The weather radar emits? microwave pulses(system)
21. The altitude data that provide in the ATC transponder? Mode c
22. the radio altimeter measures all the heights of the aircraft? above the ground level up to 2500ft
23. GPS system aircraft equipment is? User segment.
24. VOR bearing information is indicated on? RMI.
25. ILS consist of? localizer, glideslope and marker beacons.
26. Non-directional beacon system is used by the? Automatic direction finder (ADF)
27. Inertial navigation system consist of? three gyros and two accelerometers.
28. ACARS uses? VHF of SATCOM systems.
29. VHF communication system is? line of sight transmission system.
30. The location of marker beacon antenna is on the? under side of the aircraft.
31. If the flight director roll command bar is right of center during a localize approach? the pilot needs to fly the
aircraft o the right.
32. ACARS system IS primirly used for ? Communication between the aircraft and the maintenance base.
33. The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures? The slant distance from the ground to aircraft
34. The outer marker beacon indication color is? Blue.
35. Standard VOR system on aircraft provides? bearing information only.
36. VHF navigation Is used by? VOR and the ILS.
37. Each ring laser gyro in an internal reference system uses? two laser beams.
38. SATCOM system can be used for? data and voice transmission.
39. For long rang communication? HF system is used.
40. autopilot annunciation are on the ? Primary flight display, PDF
41. a VHF NAV and COM system has a range which is? greater if the aircraft is at higher altitude.
42. On the aircraft that does not have a glass cockpit, dual VOR equipments are indicated on? the HSI and RMI.
43. Why does an audio panel have push-buttons to enable listening to NAV receiver? All navigation beacons also
transmit audio Morse code indents'.
44. The new emergency locator transmitter (ELT) regulatory requirement for digital information transmission is on?
406 MHZ.
45. The instrument landing system, ILS, is selected or turned on the? VHF NAV receiver same as the VOR.
46. A power supply to the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)? An internal lithium battery pack
47. A ‘Squake’ code switch is applicable to? The transponder mode A.
48. What is The maximum radio altimeter? Track altitude is 2500 ft.
49. The runway heading is? QDR
50. Radio altimeter system can be self tested? both on the ground and in the air.
51. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System).? A red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
52. For an IRS system to pass the ‘alignment system performance test’ the? latitude entered must be within give
limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
53. The localizer system offers approach guidance to the runway in? horizontal plane
54. Middle marker modulation is keyed with? alternate dots and dashes
11.6
1. When a battery installation The acid trap ?must be drained at regular intervals
2. If, during flight, a DC generator fails, the pilot will get what indication? negative current on the ammeter gauge,
reducing voltage and a red warning light.
3. When checking the specific gravity of lead-acid battery electrolyte, the temperature must be taken into account
because higher temperature results in a? Lower density of the electrolyte.
4. what electrical fault will not always trip the GCR? Under-frequency and under-volts.
5. To adjust the voltage output of a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator? the contact spring tension is adjusted
6. The amount of current which flows into the battery charge will determine? The level of charge of the battery
7. The oil inside a constant speed unit? provides hydraulic function for the CSD as well as cooling and lubrication
8. after load shedding from an electrical busbar, the busbar voltage? Remains unchanged and current consumption
decreases
9. If the ground power plug is withdrawn from the socket with the circuit still live ? no damage will be done
because the external power rely will be DE energized because the main pin are disconnected
10. A sensing element of a load sharing circuit uses what type of transformer? A current transformer
11. A frequency wild generator may damage? capacitive and inductive components only .
12. If the current output of a generator Is doubled The heating loss in the generator? be quadrupled
13. Which AC generator configuration provides two voltage options? Star configuration
14. If the load on the generator increase, in order to provide the increased demand, a voltage regulator using a pulse
width modulation will? increase the pulse width.
15. .in the brushless PMG type generator the rotating rectifier diode are between the ? exciter armature and main
generator field
16. A ‘freewheel diode’ on a relay is to? provide protection from induced current when the contactor is opened.
17. In multi generator paralleled electrically loaded distribution system reactive load sharing is activated adjustment
of generator ? excitation
18. A constant speed drive, or IDG, will be automatically disconnected in the event of? high oil temperature or low
oil pressure
19. The point of regulation of a brushless PMG type generator is at the? main generator stator.
20. Interpoles on A DC generator are ? the opposite magnetic polarity as the preceding main pole (in direction of
rotation of armature)
21. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged? The electrolyte level is higher level than normal.
22. A diode connected across a coil will? prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way.
23. The distilled water should be added to ni-cad battery? only in the work shop.
24. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates? excessive charging current.
25. In an undervolt condition in AC generator system, the most likely consequent is? activation of the time delay
circuit.
26. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indication of? high oil temperature / low
oil pressure.
27. Zener diodes are used as? voltage regulation
28. In the event of complete AC generator failure, power is maintained to the essential AC bus-bar? by power fed
from a battery supplied static inverter.
29. What control are the o/p from the generator? GCU
30. Neutralizing agent for sulphuric acid is? Sodium bicarbonate
31. The inverter is used to convert? DC to AC.
32. Integrated drive generator (IDG)? incorporates the alternator and the CSD as one unit.
1. On a fenwall continuous-loop fire detector, an overheat condition causes a? drop in the resistance of the
eutectic salt, closing an electric circuit.
2. a carbon monoxide detector which has been exposed to a level of carbon monoxide, will turn from? green to
black color.
3. Which type of fire extinguisher has been discontinued due to its toxicity and corrosiveness aluminum alloys?
Methyl bromide MB
4. A thermal switch works on the principle of? thermal expansion.
5. How much accumulation of smoke particles are required in the air to activate a photoelectric type smoke
detector? 0.1
6. The lavatory waste bin fire extinguisher will be activated? Above At 70 C (158 C),
7. Lavatory (NO SMOKING) placards must be displayed? both inside and outside of lavatory.
8. A hand held portable fire extinguisher operating handle is? secured with copper tell-tale wire.
9. Portable fire extinguishers are operated? by breaking the tamper-proof seal then squeezing the handle as
required.
10. Afire that can be put out by crew members in cargo bay? class B compensation
11. A systron-Donner fire detection system uses? helium gas.
11.9
1. Lift dumpers fitted on wings to help prevent the brakes and skidding after touchdown.
2. Flutter can be prevented by? mass balance
3. “Q” feel system applied to an elevator system is sensitive to? airspeed and elevator deflection.
4. A series yaw damper moves the? Rudder only when damping dutch roll.
5. On some large transport aircraft when it is close to the stalling angle? slats will extend automatically.
6. How the flight control surfaces on large modern A/C moved? Electro-hydraulic servo actuators
7. Gust lock are most often used on aircraft with control systems which are? cable or push rod operated.
8. Control surface flutter is? most likely occur at high A/C speeds
9. Flight control system operation by pneumatic power is sometimes used for? Secondary flight control
10. A leading edge devices that extend to the front of the wing for lift augmentation are? Slat
11. Stall strips fitted on the? wings leading edge
12. The devices that mounted on trailing edge of wing and deflected to increase curvature of the wing
are? flap
13. Device to rapidly and noisily vibrate the control yoke? Stick shaker
14. Elevator trim balances the control forces necessary to maintain the aerodynamic down force on? The
tail
15. The control of the A/C becomes more difficult to operate the system if A/C? increase in size and weight
(1 and 2 are correct)
16. In a fully fly by wire aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground
and? thrust reversers are deployed
17. The flight controls in the cockpit actuate control valves which direct hydraulic fluid to control surface
actuators
18. The wing tip brake can be reseted after energized? Only on ground
19. To avoid moments bending the root of wing the A/C will be fitted with? Symmetrical flight control trim
20. During an autopilot controlled turn? ailerons, rudder, and elevators will move
21. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque sitting is to? Prevent control surface runaway
22. On aircraft fitted with spoiler for lateral control, a roll to the right is caused by? right spoilers
extending, left spoiler remaining retracted
23. If the leading edge of a variable incidence stabilizer is moved downwards there will be a? nose up
movement on the A/C
11.10 Fuel Systems
1. Each fuel system of a multi-engine aircraft must be arranged in such a way that the failure of any one
component (except the fuel tank) will not cause more than one engine to lose power
2. Each fuel tank must have a 2% expansion space that cannot be filled with fuel.
3. A gravity feed system must be able to flow 150% of the fuel flow required for cruise when the tank
contains the minimum fuel allowable.
4. If an aircraft fuel system has two boost pumps to each engine supply line, each boost pump is fitted
with a non-return valve and a pressure switch.
5. Light aircraft fuel tanks are usually filled through over-wing filler caps by gravity feed fuel system
6. Pressure refueling is carried out at up to 50PSI (or 40)
7. regarding defueling of a large transport aircraft, fuel pumps supply pressure for pressure defueling and
an external defuel source provides suction for? suction defueling.
8. The Fuel Jettison System (also known as Dump System) makes it possible to bring the aircraft weight?
below the maximum landing weight
9. water is now considered to be a major source of contamination.
11.11 Hydraulic Power
1. A closed hydraulic system directs fluid to the main system manifold
2. Power pack system is widely used in light aircraft
3. Exxon hyjet v hydraulic fluid is phosphate easter based
4. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system
5. A hydraulic pump driven by the pneumatic system usually an auxiliary or emergency pump.
6. An “internal gear’ hydraulic pump is one which has gears in which the teeth project outwards on one
gear and inward on the other gear.
7. The hydraulic pump that has circularly or elliptically shaped intrior and flat end plates is called vane
pump
8. Engine driven hydraulic pumps are lubricated by hydraulic oil via the case drain.
9. A hydraulic pump driven by the electrical system is usually an auxiliary o emergency pump
10. A ram air turbine ( RAT ) hydraulic pump is for flying controls if hydraulic power lost
11. Hydraulic Actuators
The purpose of an actuator is to transform fluid flow into linear or rotary motion
Types:
A-linear actuator 1-single acting. 2-double acting
B-Rotor actuator (rack and pinion type)
12. If components has an internal hydraulic leak, the fluid temperature will? increase
13. An accumulator has a pre-charge nitrogen pressure of 800 PSI. If 1000 PSI of hydraulic pressure is
pumped into the accumulator, the nitrogen pressure gauge will read? 1000 PSI
14. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to control the rate of system operation.
15. Regulator valve ( Unloading valve) to maintain pressure within a specified range
16. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by? low accumulatoe pressure.
11.12 Ice and Rain Protection
1. Ice that forms on aircraft on the ground must be removed before flight
2. Clear or glaze ice is deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and
which is dense, tough and sticks closely to the surface
3. A hot rod ice detector is switched on? only when selected by the flight crew
4. Serrated Rotor Ice Detector Head It is tested with? screwdriver torque test at the end of the shaft
5. On a hot air de-icing system, thermal expansion and contraction of ducting is catered for by use of
bellows of gimbal type expansion joints
6. Electrical de-icing mats are normally supplied continuously with electricity, whereas anti-icing mats are
intermittently heated.
7. the flow rate of anti-icing chemical fluid is determined by the flow control tubes
8. The wipers for the pilot and the co-pilot are driven independently, so if one drive malfunctions, there
will still be clear visibility on the other side.
11.13 Landing Gear
1. Wheeled undercarriages normally come in two types: 1-conventional or "tail-dragger“ undercarriage,
2- Tricycle undercarriage
2. Track :The distance between the far right and the far left main wheel.
3. An air ground sensing is required by many systems on a large aircraft and is performed by a simple
microswitch or proximity sensor located usually on one or both main landing gear.
4. A brake belt is sometimes used on the nose landing gear only
5. The centring cams on a nose landing gear enable the landing gear to be retracted into the wheel well
safely.
6. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to damp the rebound.
7. the colour of a thermal relief fuse plug indicates the temperature at which it will operate
8. Both tubed and tubeless tyres have vents holes
9. A tyre has a designation code of 17.5 X 5.75 – 8. the tyre width is 5.75inch
10. the red line painted on the tyre and wheel is intended to indicate tyre creep.
11. Tyres should always be stored indoors in a dark room
12. Brake compensating rods prevent the rear wheels on a main wheel bogie system, lifting during braking.
13. In an anti-skid system? brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking.
14. A Maxaret is used in what system? Skid control.
11.14 lights
4- Because the water taps are located at a higher level than the tanks, it is necessary to pressurize the
system. So water can flow to the taps
5- Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by wrapping the pipes with ribbons (heated
tapes)
6- To maintain lavatory toilet in a clean condition, a chemical-water solution is used. This solution is
blue coloured and odorizing additives are mixed in it.
7- If a toilet tank venturi vent is blocked foul odours from the tank will enter the lavatory.
8- 233
11.18
1. What does The expression ‘electric library system’ refer to? a system of CD or disc data that lists all data
configuration and systems for that aircraft and carried on board
2. Where are modern aircrafts, the printers usually located ? in flight station center pedestal.
3. What devise is required to load software or load updated software in the aircraft flight management computer?
A data loader
4. Why Modern aircraft fitted with printers? to print faults recorded by CMC to aid in rectification
5. What is One reason for structural monitoring ? to develop a preventative maintenance policy.
6. In central maintenance system, the normal mode? generates reports.
7. The airborne printer allows to printout of the central maintenance system(CMS) reports from? ACARS
8. The central maintenance system(CMS) can be retrieved? The cockpit printer
9. Any detected failure generating flight effect is class ? one
11.19