5116723, 718M IGNOU JUNE-2023: HALL TICKET/ADMIT CARD
ignou ‘Sieur wiht upta gaa fayfterere
3 Indira Gandhi National Open University
UNIVERSITY. (Bata faafteret / A Central University)
3G-2023, wats Ear (eEE)/ JUNE-2023, Term End Examination (TEE)
16/05/2023 07:17:56
wictaie/ Photograph
‘Bre fewe/ WAR WA-Hall Ticket/Admit Card
5. Wat dz ws / Exam Centre Code 27216
1. SEG / Enrollment Number: 2108409538
2. stam #ig / Programme Code BAPAH
3, SHRI #1 5TH / Programme Name: BAPAH
4, slat 1 ATH /Name of the Student: | RAHUL PATEL
6, lanl 3% 1 Tall / Exam Centre Address:
GOSWAMI TULSIDAS GOVT. PG COLLEGE,
KARWI CHITRAKOOT
CHITRAKOOT, UTTAR PRADESH-210205
fear /Note- dar a. 17 aecayoh Pager A ferfera erat wt ET we] aieits ae era few Buf / This Hall Ticket is
valid subject to fulfil the conditions as mentioned in the para no-17 of important instructions
7. lel ea GRVA/Exam Time Table:
wile ar fester wa WoTEH BIS wr
Date of Exam Session Course Code Time*
02/06/2023 Afternoon, BPCG174 02:00 PM - 05:00 PM
06/06/2023 Afternoon, BEGS186 02:00 PM - 05:00 PM
08/06/2023 Morning BPAC105 10:00 AM - 01:00 PM.
12/06/2023 Morning BPACLO6 10:00 AM - 01:00 PM
14/06/2023 Morning BEGS183 10:00 AM - 01:00 PM
15/06/2023 Morning BPACLO7 10:00 AM - 01:00 PM.
19/06/2023 Morning BPAC108 10:00 AM - 01:00 PM.
21/06/2023 Morning BPAC109 10:00 AM - 01:00 PM
30/06/2023 Morning BPAC110 10:00 AM - 01:00 PM
05/07/2023 Morning BPCG173 10:00 AM - 01:00 PM.
1s faraht Fae Tere Wear Heh raPe WH Ur Oe eae Te BP
The exact duration of the exam of a particular paper will be as indicated on the question paper
3-2023 waa after & feng aeeayet FrET-Important Instructions for JUNE-2023
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15/1673, 718M IGNOU JUNE-2028: HALL TICKETIADMIT CARD
sade gee yRer 4 on srgenioy rei araurtyder RE ioraw, ue ster Tee organi
sifea oe BF aan a Than uROTT afte ae fear TET 1 ae Tene wr sqrt 10 sist sors 9
oil O12, ASS sian Hee A ota oT Pe (x) sifa eT aT | sRRHAIE HY 10 sist aT AM
Ferg are HR wer aT we | an er wis A RAM eR A HRT rT AT
The examinees should carefully write their enrolment numbers on the answer sheet. In case of an
ambiguous, deceptive or incorrect enrolment number being entered, the result will not be declared, If
the roll number of the examinee is 9 digits instead of 10 digits, then x (cross) should be marked in the
last bracket. Don't add zero before the enrolment number to make it 10 digits. The code of the
examination Centre should also be entered in similar way.
2. PUM Ug site a a Re HST Ta UPR & aifeRRat ora aE egw Sere GPR war TET a TAA
ae len aT ay ef fas ten oes A fered ae avg ah GB erat a AS
Please note that apart from the main answer sheet, no supplementary answer sheet will be provided.
Therefore, candidates should write in each line and not leave blank pages.
3. aM Weien Sher TR caw Ue aK aT Sepratey ere Prue wre A wee eT wT
| ae fabs earelf grer Prete aprere & sifehRert ora aoe wera’ faoer Gre @ sree See eT FAT
‘Uren 8 a Oe fifa A sa siquiera ArT areT |
Please sign on the attendance sheet during the examination in the prescribed column in front of your
name and enrollment number. In case a candidate has not signed or signed any where other than in
the prescribed column, he/she will be treated as absent.
4. oe Paw & ug GR gferer oar oS a Thanlf ia a a fe Puika ers we wad & gener,
wey Palen & were ae Nan cbs BT ARR cH |
Before submitting the answer sheet to the invigilator, the candidate should check that his/her
signature, the invigilator's signature and the examination Centre's stamp is affixed at the designated
place
5. Wane ug ate ax oi fe oe era Pewee va wR ofeefa wlan ox & srr fare ora ea
TR len 29 a orga set a ore
Examines should note that they shall not be allowed to appear at any other Exam Centre except the
Venue mentioned in the Admit Card.
6. annie ae ud aaadiexur tarts (CHsieaa ud ¥) ag feel aI 29 SATE, 2018 aa 10 sere,
2022 SY UN Grate AU & seTER afer Haw (Amanuensisyofayfed waa-wfcr a srqafer Bt ATT
wel ae Faas seamed (ator) wlenlf afer cesamferate werent at orqais oq tag ate
Sa 8 ins Vrita oe aa el
The examinees with Benchmark Disabilities (Divyangjan) seeking permission for Amanuensis
(writer)icompensatory time as per the Office Memorandum issued by the Govt. of India, MOSJ8E,
New Delhi, dated 29th August 2018 & 10th Aug 2022, may contact the respective Regional Centre
for obtaining permission of using amanuensis/compensatory time.
7. Wala & ders whanftiat & ore eq are ord du agars wa star aise ae feet oro a warelh
} Ud SER OM dy UgErd wa aa) 8, Al a Uden Sle A ode & feu fre ol aon dew ere od
wiclgad du Usa Ua fee wed eI
Examinees must be in possession of a valid Identity Card issued by IGNOU during the
examination. If for some reason, the examinee does not have his/her valid identity card, they may
show any valid Photo Identity card issued by any Government institution for entry in the examination
hall
8, Ulead Bit & sige Hanger IH aT IS Fa EclaaiPe HLT a GTA WET AAT SI
Mobile Phones or any other electronic gadgets are strictly prohibited inside the Examination Hall.
9. ale A Berger sur apek a orgs, oe cer Fe woe oa A AT Re me PS a are | eee
feiffra = @1
Calculators are allowed for use in the examination unless otherwise prohibited through instructions in
the question paper.
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10. Uden or He: Tanta et wat & Sax sae get rer A fess ae F foray crea sane Pear
‘rar G1 cerfe, cafe @s re Reh rer A ee OF aor fered 8, tea A Sra Uofleeor seh me
We atagenal
Medium of Examination: The examinees are required to write answers to the questions in the
languages in which the Programme is offered, However, the examinees have an option to attempt
the Examination of the courses in Hindi medium irrespective of registration of the same is in English
medium
11. fret ore ate urer 9 fea re Gin er Aeaies ae fear Gre Brea creueH wr dared aeT fear
are ¢ oe 2S crower St wlan odentiat a fear feet Ge & ee ax St ooh TS aaa A,
Udleatiat oF are a wlan A fee 8 aftatera dar eT
‘Answers written in any other regional language in which the Programme is not offered,will not be
evaluated and the examination in such course will be canceled without any intimation to the
examinees. In such cases, the examinees will be required to reappear in the subsequent
examination,
12. Prafefea ureupet & ux ua aaghg wor cagiteetta wx def) & st oh Soa sieson site we
irthfard fare area:
Question Papers of the following courses will be of Objective type (Multi
pattern) and conducted on OMR sheets only
le Choice Questions
‘ita / Program ‘UIgdPa / Course
BDP/BTC/BCA/BSW BSHF101, FSTOL
cus 8L1011, BL11012, BLUI03, BLUIO4
CBS/DVAPEV/DDT/OMT/DPVCPO &
it {JODT/OMT/ PCO-01
ows
CBCS-BASED BACHELORS & HONOURS | paar igs
DEGREE PROGRAMMES
* The examination for CCH Programme for the course(s) BNS041 & BNS042 will be held in
descriptive mode only.
13. of Uoama. Ue of THE (AR 1S HAE 6) & sear aacin ous, fefta dora & creas sie
‘were stars, Fabra Fastweait & crower & at, Uda a FARR cite wa a uPadia a orgate ue ae ae
‘feear TET
The request for change in date and session of exam will not be entertained in case the courses are
from the same Group (Group 1 to group 6) or the courses are backlog courses, the courses from the
different programmes and in MP Programme, courses from different specializations.
14, Shcerones ware 3 oferan Sr oreenreta orauewel A ur aa a fare viltgra Penile a were a
‘oneh @ fi a clan ert ote wa FART a Greene & fore sit ata Se a aah SE
Students registered for appearing in Practical/Lab courses other than the BLIS Programme are
advised to contact their Regional Centre for venue and schedule of exams.
15, 0H Ua faatte SF & 15 frre are tan let A waar at sigue re a ort | aenf, Sx srftarar der
BRU & STU WR 30 Pere ce ah BO wt HT BE Tea a1
Entry into the examination hall shall be closed after 15 minutes of the distribution of the question
paper. However, the Centre Superintendent may condone the delay up to 30 minutes on account of a
bonafide reason,
16. Whar ae eM & uw we af eanfta a ued feet sh ora ot adler sia Bisa oT yaa t OM a orga
adi ore
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17.
18,
19,
20.
2
No student will be allowed to leave the examination hall or take away the question paper before the
expiry of one hour of commencement of the examination,
‘era ewe Bue, ate
WF: WaT staf ats ar] S) Visa store St ua Tara A es SI (il) HVAT ToMEH Sts FA TET
“araUaRH Bl (il) HET VrOMAPT ts a Giver Be fre onder Ae Rar Sh (iv) wR BU TSM BIS
& unfeior & fay andes fen en a, at cere fsa Baia oRona or Gafeaies ufos ot aft
coifties 8, arate 2 orate Roem aren (v) gue GoATA ARB src ae wh ake itera, aA wel aa
3. daa Trond H afer HU (vi) Fe Tory & orerfa anlar a a
The hall ticket is valid if,
The validity of programme is not over including re-admission period if applicable. (i) Filled in course
codes are optediregistered courses. (li)Not applicable for the re-evaluation of the filled in course
codes. (iv)/f applied for the re-evaluation of filled in course codes, the re-evaluation result of the
immediate previous term end result whichever is higher will be notified in the mark sheet.(v) Please
check your name spelling including sumame,{f not correct, immediately report to the SRD. (vi) Not
covered under exemption scheme.
fret at adel at Wan de & aret SR URreT a GIA a orate set 8 ote afe Car ora Gree 8, a
arret yfere sik ate wa A cishtgeat fase aE
No Examinee is allowed to take away the Answer Sheet out of Exam Centre and if found, the case
will be registered with the Police & U.F.M.
‘wfersaor a year gfere at di ome
Impersonation will be reported to the Police.
‘fererfeh at arora Gh ore 8 fae 3 far & eles & fare oh gta ewes oa ah Uw oe ores Fa
aaa es
Students are advised to preserve a copy of their hall ticket/ admit card in good condition for future
reference.
UE 2023 Wal & wargame sik Odea sand te ors fale A oe 2023 Wan & afore & are
sraetts feu ae
The Assignments/Project & Practical Awards of June 2023 examination will be uploaded with the
result of June 2023 TEE in the Grade Card Status.
‘Weta WE, TRI W Stay Safe, Stay Healthy
‘werafaa (THES ) / Registrar(SED)
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