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1. Principle: Parties to contract can only lay the foundation of a valid contract if the parties to contract are capable of
entering into a contract.

Facts: Arul is a 17-year-old boy who entered into an agreement with a car dealer to purchase a Ferrari. Arul paid Rs
2 lakhs as a guarantee and provided a promissory note for the remaining balance. After 2 months, Arul refused to pay
the balance amount. Determine the validity of his actions?
B. Arul does not have the pay the balance amount because
A. Arul does not have to pay the balance amount because
  the contract entered into by him with the dealer was void
he is a minor.
ab initio.
C. Arul does not have to pay the balance as long as he
  D. All of the above.
returns the car back to the dealer.
2. Principle: In a civil suit for defamation, the truth of the defamatory matter is an absolute defence. The burden of
proof lies on the defendant and if he does not successfully discharge this burden, then he is liable.

Facts: Lakshita is a famous Bollywood celebrity with millions of followers across all social media platforms.
Lakshita did not have a cordial relationship with another actress, Zainab. Lakshita posted on one of her social media
by calling Zainab talentless and saying that she did not deserve to stay in the industry. After this, Zainab filed a suit
for defamation against Lakshita. Will Zainab succeed?
A. Yes. Zainab will succeed because Lakshita has openly B. No. Zainab will not succeed because Lakshita was
 
spoken a false statement about her. merely exercising her freedom of speech and expression.
C. Yes. Zainab will succeed because Lakshita did not have D. No. Zainab will not succeed because Lakshita was
 
a reasonable justification to make that statement. merely expressing her opinion about Zainab.
3. Principle: Once the letter for an offer and the letter for acceptance is posted, the contract is complete and the parties
to the contract are bound as liable.

Facts: P sends an offer to Q via a letter in which P mentions that Q can communicate the acceptance of the offer by
posting a letter to P. P gives the letter to her assistance who posts the letter after 5 days instead of posting the letter
immediately. Due to the delay in response from P, Q sells the antique item that P wanted to purchase to R. What are
the legal remedies available to P?
A. There are no legal remedies because there is no B. There are legal remedies available to P such as
 
contract that subsists between P and Q. recovering damages from Q for selling the item.
C. The legal remedy available to P is to lawfully terminate
  D. None of the above.
the employment of her assistant for inefficient work ethic.
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4. Principle: A contract obtained by misrepresentation is voidable at the option of the buyer.

Facts: Sunil by misrepresentation leads Naren to believe that the firework factory that he was planning to purchase
was operating at stellar levels. However, the employees were stealing from the business and tampering the books of
account. Naren, a person with no background in accountancy, examines the books of accounts of the factory which
do not show any abnormality. After this, Naren buys the factory. Is the contract void?
A. The contract is void because it is an obvious case of B. The contract is not void because Naren checked the
 
misrepresentation. accounts before he purchased the factory.
D. The contract is voidable on account of Sunil’s
C. The contract is void because Sunil misled Naren to
  misrepresentation because Naren did not have the
purchase the factory.
diligence required to discover the truth.
5. Principle: The act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue
influence.

Facts: Girish was an illiterate old man was made to sign a document which was a pro-note. While signing the
document, Girish was under the impression that the document was a will that required his signature as a witness.
Under this impression, Girish signed the pro-note which his son endorsed to Kapil who paid the entire value for the
pro-note. After 3 years, Kapil sued Girish on the pro-note. Is Girish liable?
A. Girish is liable because the pro-note was signed by B. Girish is not liable because he thought that he was
 
him. signing a will as a witness.
C. Girish is liable because he should have had full
D. Girish is not liable because he was tricked by his son
  knowledge of the document to which he was providing his
who has mala fide intentions.
signature.
6. Principle: The original offer made by individual lapses only when a counteroffer is made by another person.

Facts: S went to a shop to purchase a skateboard. The shopkeeper agreed to sell the skateboard selected by S at a
price of Rs. 4000 to which S agrees. However, another customer enters the shop and wishes to purchase the
skateboard selected by S at the price of Rs.5000. Before the shopkeeper can agree to this offer, S makes an offer to
purchase the skateboard at Rs 5500. The shopkeeper sells the skateboard to S but S refused to pay more than Rs4000
after the other customer leaves. Which amount is S liable to pay?
A. S is liable to pay Rs 5000 because this is the price B. S is liable to pay Rs. 4000 because this is the asking
  offered by the other customer which is higher than the price of the shopkeeper and he must not pay a higher
asking price of the shopkeeper. amount.
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  C. S is liable to pay Rs 3500 because that is the price of D. S is liable to pay Rs 5500 because he made the
the skateboard at another store and the shopkeeper is counteroffer to the other person due to which his original
trying to take advantage of S by making him pay a offer to pay Rs 4000 lapsed.
premium price.
7. Principle: A taxi driver plying on the road is an invitation to offer.

Facts: Ms Tanvi books a taxi and steps into it and asks the driver to take her to a location on the opposite side of the
city. The driver refuses to take Ms Tanvi to her destination on the ground that it is too far away and the price is not
profitable for him. What remedy is available to Ms Tanvi?
A. Ms Tanvi cannot do anything and must step out of the B. Ms Tanvi can force the driver to take her to her
  cab to hail and another taxi because the driver is refusing destination because a contract comes into existence
to take her. between them the minute she stepped into his taxi,
C. Ms Tanvi cannot do anything because the contract
D. Ms Tanvi can file a complaint against the driver for his
  entered into by her with the driver is voidable at the
unprofessional behaviour.
option of the driver.
8. Principle: A master can be held liable for the wrongful acts of the servant in the course of employment.

Facts: R was a police officer providing security at the wedding of Roman Gilchrist, a well-known celebrity. In an
inebriated condition, R took out his rifle and fired 15 shots in the air to join in the celebration at the wedding.
However, one of the shots hit a tree, narrowly missing the guests. Garima, another celebrity present at the wedding
sued R for negligence. Is Roman vicariously liable for the actions of R?
A. No. R posed a threat to the guests and was not B. No. Roman is not liable because he did not hire the
  performing his duty for which he was present. Therefore, police officer and there does not subsist a master and
Roman is liable. servant relationship between them.
C. No. Roman is not liable because he should not be held D. Yes. Roman is liable because there exist a master and
 
liable for the acts of R who is an adult. servant relationship between him and R.
9. Principle: A violation of a legal right, with or without damage, gives rise to a tort.

Facts: Farhan establishes a school in an underprivileged neighbourhood at a very minimal rate. A lot of students join
this school to get a quality education. However, after a couple of months, Sameer establishes another school in the
same neighbourhood free of cost. Due to this, all of Farhan’s students leave his school to join Sameer’s school, Can
Farhan claim damages from Sameer for the loss caused to him?
  A. Yes. Farhan can claim damages from Sameer because B. No. Farhan cannot claim damages from Sameer
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Sameer has violated his legal right. because Sameer has only caused financial loss without
causing legal injury to Farhan.
C. No. Farhan cannot claim damages from Sameer D. Yes. Farhan can claim damages from Sameer because
  because Sameer established the school free of cost with a Sameer has restrained him from exercising a lawful
benevolent intention. profession.
10. Principle: A person cannot complain against harm to which he has voluntarily consented. Precautions can be taken
only against reasonably foreseeable mishaps.

Facts: David went to a cricket stadium to witness a match between England and Australia. In the 35th over of the
match, David’s least favourite batsman hit a six and the ball hit David in the head and rendered him unconscious.
Can David claim any compensation?
A. Yes. David can claim compensation because he did not B. Yes. David can claim compensation because his least
  consent to get injured when he purchased the ticket to favourite batsman purposely hit a six in his direction out
watch the match. of malice to injure him.
C. No. David cannot claim compensation because he D. No. David cannot claim compensation because he
  should have exercised caution when he was spectating the agreed to the injury which could be reasonable foreseen
match. since a sic is a common spectacle at a cricket match.
11. Direction: Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation.

Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

Principle:

Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence. This right also extends to lawfully
causing the death of the assailant, if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right of private defence, be

(i) An assault which reasonably causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt (very serious hurt)

(ii) An assault which causes reasonable apprehension of rape

(iii) An assault which causes reasonable apprehension of kidnapping.

This right is available for protecting one’s own body, as well as the body of any other, provided the assault is not self-
invited.
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Facts:

Aman is the boyfriend of Reena who calls him to meet him at a nearby park. Aman comes there with his friends and
seeing the girl alone his friends try to rape her Reena in means to protect herself uses a hard rock to stop one of them
which results in his death. In the court of law, his friends claim that she had self-invited them and therefore cannot
claim private defence. Decide:
  A. Aman is liable as he had brought his friends. B. His friends are right in their claim.
C. Reena had just invited her boyfriend and not his
  D. All of the above.
friends, therefore, her right to self define still stands.
12. Principle:

Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is
incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law. This principle
is valid in the cases of law of crimes but is invalid for a person who gets repeated attacks of insanity and at the time
of committing it understands the consequences of the act.

Facts:

Anirudh is a mental patient who was admitted in a mental hospital, he runs away from the hospital and knocks down
one lady on the road. Decide:
  A. The man is not responsible for the death of the lady. B. The man is responsible for the death of the lady.
C. The lady’s negligent driving is the reason for her
  D. None of the above.
accident.
13. Principle:

When a contract has been broken, the party who suffers by such breach is entitled to receive, from the party who has
broken the contract, compensation for any loss or damage caused to him thereby, which naturally arose in the usual
course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result from
the breach of it. Such compensation is not given for any remote or indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the
breach.

Facts:

Hadley had entered into a contract with Baxendale to deliver machinery but the delivery was delayed by a few days
due to which Hadley lost an important contract of worth 10,000. Decide the amount of compensation to be paid to
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Hadley:
  A. 10,000. B. The cost of delivery and 10,000.
C. The cost of delivery, the price of the machinery and
  D. The cost of delivery.
10,000.
14. Principle:

There is no liability that can arise from an innocent misrepresentation. This situation only arises when the person
causing the misrepresentation himself believed it to be true.

Facts:

The shopkeeper sells a bag of white rice to the customer saying that it is brown rice. The pack that was sold was
labelled as brown rice. Decide:
A. The shopkeeper will be held liable for B. The shopkeeper will not be held liable for
 
misrepresentation. misrepresentation.
D. The customers will be responsible for the good he
  C. The customer will be held liable for misrepresentation.
buys.
15. Principle:

A master will also be liable for the wrongful acts of his servants in the course of employment.

Facts:

Riza is a receptionist who works for Ram, Riza was asked by a customer about his blood test report and he gives her
the wrong report. Decide:
  A. Only Riza is liable. B. Only Ram is liable.
  C. Both Riza and Ram are liable. D. None of them is liable.
16. Principle:

Contract is an agreement freely entered into between the parties.

Facts:

The Farmers have denied selling their crops on the basis of the Essential Commodities Act saying that there is no
contract that they freely entered into. Decide:
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  A. The farmers are right in their claims. B. The farmers can deny selling.
C. The farmers cannot deny selling at a price regulated by
  D. The Government can deny buying.
the Government.
17. Principle:

The Christian marriages act allows marriages even if one of the parties is a Christian while only two Hindus can
marry under the Hindu Marriages Act.

Facts:

Arun, a Hindu wants to marry Isabella whom he met three years ago. Decide under which law can they marry:
  A. Either of the Hindu or Christian laws. B. Only the Hindu Laws.
  C. Only Christian laws. D. Cannot be determined.
18. Principle:

The occupier of premises owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.

Facts:

Ram builds a well on his premises with high walls. A boy who is seven years old enters his premises without his
permission and wants to see inside the well. For doing so, he brings a ladder from his house and climbs onto it to see
inside the well, he falls in the well and later his parents sue Ram. Decide:
B. Ram is liable as he should not have kept a ladder close
  A. Ram is liable as the well is on his premises.
to the well.
C. Ram is liable as he is stupid to build a well in the times D. Ram is not liable as he had exercised his duty of care
 
of water supply. by building high walls.
19. Principle:

Even if the sovereign functions of the State are discharged negligently the State is not vicariously liable in tort.

Facts:

The Police wrongly arrested a man for theft due to a confusion with similar names. Decide:
A. The government is responsible for this act as this is a B. The government is not responsible for this act as this is
 
sovereign function. a sovereign function.
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  C. The government is not responsible for this act as this is D. The government is responsible for this act as this is a
a non-sovereign function. non-sovereign function.
20. Principle:

In the municipal law systems of countries with a common law tradition, judges very often look to the decisions from
outside sources to fill in the “gaps” of the law to be applied in the resolution of a particular case.

Facts:

India usually uses many UK cases to decide on the matters of contract law. Decide:
A. India follows a municipal law system with common B. The UK follows a municipal law system with common
 
law traditions. law traditions.
C. The UK follows a municipal law system with civil law D. India follows a municipal law system with civil law
 
traditions. traditions.
21. Principle:

When one person signifies his assent to another, to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the
assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.

Facts:

Ramu telegraphed to Shyamu, writing: “Will you sell me your Rolls Royce car? Telegram the lowest cash price.”
Shyamu also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for car is Rs. 20 lakh.” Ramanuj immediately sent his consent
through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the car for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you.” Shyamu refused to sell the car.
A. He cannot refuse to sell the car because the contract B. He can refuse to sell the car because it was only
 
has already been made. invitation to offer and not the real offer.
C. It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter
  D. None of these.
into a contract was absent.
22. Principle:

A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is
capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.

Facts:
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Latika, who is a very good painter, is also a patient in a mental asylum, who, at intervals, is of sound mind. During
one of these intervals, she entered into a relationship with Lalita to paint a picture of her for a specified amount. She,
however, asked Lalita to pay her the entire amount in advance. One month later, on the day of delivery of the
painting, Latika refused to perform the contract saying that she suffers from insanity. Can Lalita force performance?
B. No, because Latika had been of unsound mind even
A. Yes, because Latika was of sound mind when she
  while the contract was signed which is proved by the fact
entered into the contract.
that she was admitted in an asylum.
C. Yes, because a good painter can paint irrespective of D. No, because it was silly on Lalita’s part to enter into a
 
his/her mental stability. contract with a mental patient admitted in an asylum.
23. Principle:

Mere silence as to the facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not a fraud, unless
the circumstances of the case are such that, on close examination it is found to be the duty of the person keeping
silent to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.

Facts:

X sells by auction to Y, a horse which X knows to be of unsound state of mind. X says nothing to Y about the horse’s
unsound state of mind. Give the correct answer.
  A. X can be held liable for fraud. B. X can be held liable for misrepresentation.
C. X cannot be held liable, because he did not say D. X cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who
 
anything positive about the mental state of the horse. must be aware of the things.
24. Principle:

If the consideration or object of an agreement is forbidden by law, or is of such a nature that would defeat the
provisions of any law, or is fraudulent, or is injurious to the person or property of another or, the Court regards it as
immoral, or opposed to public policy, then the object or consideration shall be deemed unlawful. Every agreement of
which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.

Facts:

Ajay enters into a contract with Tarun whereby Tarun will supply Ajay with 10 grams of cocaine for a specified
amount. Is the contract void?
  A. Yes, because the contract is for the sale of illegal B. No, because Ajay and Tarun have entered into the
drugs. contract out of their own free will, and being the citizens
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of a free country, they have the right to do so.

  C. Yes, because drugs are harmful. D. None of these.
25. Principle:

Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass
of goods.

Facts:

Z purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and sent it to a garage for repair. X believing wrongly that the
car was his, removed it from the garage.
A. X cannot be held responsible for trespass of goods as
  B. X can be held responsible for trespass of goods.
he was under a wrong belief.
  C. X has not committed any wrong. D. None of the above.
26. Principle:

Whoever causes unreasonable interference to the right of another over his property and space is causing nuisance.

Facts:

Divya conducted Bharatnatyam lessons in her flat which was just above Deepti’s flat. Deepti suffered from migraine
and the constant thud of people’s feet from the ceiling of her house gave her severe headaches. Deepti decided to sue
Divya for nuisance. Will she succeed?
A. Yes, because Divya should consider Deepti’s illness. B. Yes, because Deepti is getting disturbed, ad her health
  They are neighbours, after all, and should be considerate is deteriorating because of the dance lessons being
to each other. conducted by Divya.
C. No, because Divya‘s interference is not unreasonable. D. No, because India is a free country and Divya can do
 
It is just that Deepti is a sensitive plaintiff. whatever she chooses to.
27. Principle:

Nothing which is not intended to cause death, is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause, or be intended
by the doer to cause, or be known by the doer to be likely to cause, to any person for whose benefit it is done in good
faith, and who has given a consent, whether express or implied, to suffer that harm, or to take the risk of that harm.

Facts:
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A fake doctor operated on a man for internal piles by cutting them out with an kitchen ordinary knife. The man died
of haemorrhage.
  A. Doctor is guilty of murder. B. Doctor is not guilty.
C. Doctor is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to
  D. None of these.
murder
28. Principle:

Nothing which is not intended to cause death, is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause, or be intended
by the doer to cause, or be known by the doer to be likely to cause, to any person for whose benefit it is done in good
faith, and who has given a consent, whether express or implied, to suffer that harm, or to take the risk of that harm.

Facts:

Dr Mohit performed a kidney operation upon James for removal of kidney stones. James was already affected by
HIV. Dr Mohit had warned James of all the possible risks. James, out of his own volition, decided to undertake the
risks and signed a bond certifying the same. James died of haemorrhage as a result of the operation.
  A. Doctor is guilty of murder. B. Doctor is not guilty.
C. Doctor is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to
  D. None of these.
murder
29. Principle:

The real fact that a man is injured by and others at gives in itself no cause of action and if the act is deliberate the
party injured will have no claim in law even though the act is intentional so long as the other party is exercising a
legal right.

Facts –

A, lives in a remote Colony of Delhi. He has been running a cyber cafe their offering internet services for more than
five years. Being the only shop of this kind in the area he has been making good profit. Be opened a coffee shop in
the neighborhood and provided internet access to his customers as a result internet business of a is affected and he is
start suffering losses. After sometime a has to close his business. A wants to bring a Suit against be for causing him
loss of business.
  A. A can bring an action against be for legal remedy. B. B will be liable to restore is business.
  C. A has no cause of action against B. D. B can be ordered to stop providing internet services to
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his customers.
30. Principle:

When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining
the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.

Fact:

“Himan telegraphed to Superman, writing: “Will you sell me your BMW CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price.”
Superman also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lakh.” Himan immediately sent his consent
through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you.” But his message does not reach to
Superman due to act of god. Himan refused to buy the car later.
A. He cannot refuse to buy the CAR because the contract B. He can refuse to buy the CAR because it was only
 
has already been made. invitation to offer and not the real offer
C. It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter
  D. Not a valid offer as communication was not complete.
into a contract was absent
31. Principle:

A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is
capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.

Facts:

Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state of mind, enters into a contract with
Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind. Mr. Y having come to know about this fact after wards wants to file a
suit against Mr. X.
B. Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the
A. Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of
  other party to prove that he was of unsound state of mind
unsound state of mind when he entered into contract.
at the time of contract.
C. Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on Mr.
  X to prove that he was of sound state of mind at the time D. None of these
of contract.
32. Principle:

Willful rash driving is an offense.

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Facts:

Mr. Pandey was driving his car after drinking alcohol. Police books him for willful negligent driving. Is the act of the
police lawful?
A. No, because Mr. Pandey was not driving rashly; he was
  B. No, this is not a negligent act.
drunk while driving.
D. Yes, because the police has the power to arrest a person
  C. Yes, because Mr. Pandey was driving rashly.
driving rashly.
33. Principle:

Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse.

Fact:

X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on 28
Nov. 1962 it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it
in the ‘Manifest for Transit’. On 26th Nov. 1962 the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its
earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.
A. X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no B. X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is
 
knowledge about the new notification issued two days ago excusable
C. X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not D. X’s liability would depend on the discretion of the
 
excusable court
34. Principle:

Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass
of goods.

Facts:

Z gave his watch for repair but when he went it to take back, he found that there is no one in the counter so he picked
it and kept in his pocket.
A. Z cannot be held responsible for trespass of goods as
  B. Z can be held responsible for trespass of goods
he has taken his own watch.
  C. Z has not committed any wrong. D. None of the above
35. Facts –
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Tanvi and Ashrita were residents of Jahnvi Devi Society. Ashrita has been into the habit of practicing Nitinnatyam
before sunrise each morning since the past 25 years. She plays loud dance beats in her music system each morning to
help her practice. The loud noise emanating from her music system disturbs Tanvi who is woken up each morning
due to the sound. After putting up with this for 25 years, Tanvi finally decides she can take it no more and decides to
sue Ashrita for nuisance.

Principle:

Whoever causes unreasonable interference to the right of another over his property and space is causing nuisance.
A. Ashrita is liable because her dance practice cause B. Ashrita is liable because she could easily choose some
 
unreasonable interference with Tanvi’s sleep. other time of the day.
C. Ashrita is not liable because she has been doing this for
D. Ashrita is not liable because it is her wish as to what
  over 20 years, and has now acquired a prescriptive right to
she wants to do inside her house.
continue with it unchallenged.
36. Principle:

Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their own. No law made by the State can
take away a person’s fundamental right. Court does not have any power to make new laws but to decide the validity
of law. But court in its discretion can instruct the parliament to enact new laws.

Facts:

Parliament enacted a law, fundamental rights of teachers on the ground of equality. A group of teachers files a writ
petition challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute and further direct
Parliament to enact a new law.
A. No writ would lie against Parliament, as the court has B. The court can quash existing law if it violates
  no authority to direct Parliament to enact or re-enact a fundamental rights and can direct Parliament to make a
law. new law.
C. The court can quash the existing law if it violates
  fundamental rights but cannot direct Parliament to make a D. None of these
new law.
37. Principle:

A contract enters into by the use of misrepresentation is voidable at the option of the other party.
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Facts:

Lala with an intention to deceive Rai into buying his cement factory falsely stated that his factory is capable of
producing 2,000 kg of cement per day. However, in reality, the factory only has a production capacity of 500 kg/ day.
Rai gets induced and agrees to buy the factory. Is it a valid contract?
B. The contract is voidable at the option of Rai due to
  A. The contract is valid one and Rai must buy the factory.
misrepresentation by Lala.
D. The price of the contract could be reduced to
C. The contract is void due to false claims made by Lala
  commensurate with the reduced production capacity of the
in relation to his factory.
factory
38. Principle:

Any contract made for an unlawful consideration is void in law.

Facts:

Ganga enters into a contract with Nikki to murder his wife, Priya for a sum of Rs. 5 lakhs. Ganga agrees to pay the
amount to Nikki in return of the murder. Is it a valid contract?
A. The contract is voidable at the option of Nikki due to
  B. The contract is void due to unlawful consideration.
the risk involved in it.
C. The contract is valid and Nikki must perform the act of D. The contract is uncertain as the manner of murdering
 
murdering Priya. Priya is not specified in it.
39. Principle:

With the counter proposal made by the party, the original offer ceases to exist.

Facts:

Badal offered to sell his car to Pranav at the price of Rs. 3 lakhs. Pranav replies that he is ready to buy the car at Rs.
2.5 lakhs only. Badal refuses to sell at that price. Later, Pranav goes to Badal with Rs. 3 lakhs to buy the car. Is the
offer to Rs. 3 lakhs still valid?
A. The offer of Rs. 3 lakhs is not valid with a counter B.   The offer of Rs. 3 lakhs still stands for Pranav to buy
 
offer of Pranav being made. the car.
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  C. The offer stands as it was made by owner of the car i.e. D. The offer can be renegotiated by the buyer and seller.
Badal himself.
40. Principle: A contract becomes void if the performance of the same becomes impossible under the circumstances.

Facts: Ravi offers to buy the horse of Arjun for a price of Rs. 10 lakhs. Arjun, not knowing that the horse is already
dead, agrees to the contract. Later the truth about the death of the hose is discovered. Is the contract valid?
A. The contract is valid and the money must be paid for B. The contract is void as the performance of the same is
 
the horse. impossible.
C. The contract is void as the performance of the same is D. The contract is valid and Arjun must deliver another
 
impossible. horse to Ravi for the price.
41. Recently, in December 2020, who organized the fifth India Water Impact Summit (IWIS)?
A. National Clean Ganga Mission and Center for Ganga
  B. Ministry of Water.
River Basin Management and Studies.
  C. Ministry of Transportation. D. Center for Ganga River Management Private Limited.
42. Which of the following temples is not related to Khajuraho temples?
  A. Kandariya Mahadev B. Chausath yogini
  C. Chitragupta D. Dashavatar
43. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Fundamental Duties

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance
Programme launched by the Government of India?
  A. 1 only B. 3 only
  C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
44. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters
B. Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and
  at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending
not criminal in nature.
before any court.
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  C. Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired D. None of the statements given above is correct.
judicial officers only and not any other person.
45. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each
House of Parliament?
  A. The President of India B. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
  C. The Prime Minister of India D. The Union Finance Minister
46. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for
determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
  A. District Planning Committees B. State Finance Commission
  C. Finance Ministry of that State D. Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
47. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in
the country, provides for which of the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.

3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only
  C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
48. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
______________.
  A. The President of India B. The Parliament of India
  C. The Prime Minister of India D. The Union Finance Minister
49. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme
provided in the ______________.
  A. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 B. Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
  C. Government of India Act, 1935 D. Indian Independence Act, 1947
50. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is ______________.
A. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent B. to let opposition members collect information from the
 
public importance. ministers.
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  C. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for D. to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate
grant. or violent behaviour on the part of some members.
51. Every year, 2 October is celebrated as International Day of Non- Violence. In which year it was initiated by UN
General Assembly?
  A. 2006 B. 2007
  C. 2008 D. 2010
52. When is International Day of UN Peacekeepers observed?
  A. 20 June B. 29 August
  C. 29 May D. 30 March
53. The central nodal agency for implementing price support operations for commercial crops is ______________.
  A. NAFED B. NABARD
  C. TRIFED D. FCI
54. In which year, the Parliament of India passed a law called the National Food Security Act, to provide the right to
food to every citizen of the country?
  A. 2012 B. 2013
  C. 2016 D. 2008
55. Which national park became the first tiger reserve in India?
  A. Kaziranga National park B. Sundarban National park
  C. Jim Corbett National park D. Sariska National park
56. Bandhavgarh National Park is located in which state?
  A. Maharashtra B. Madhya Pradesh
  C. Rajasthan D. Gujarat
57. Which of the following international organizations has started the scheme 'Partnership for Peace' for a group of
nations?
A. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries B. Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific
 
(OPEC) (ESCAP)
  C. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) D. Organizations of African Unity (OAU)
58. Which person is called as the “Saint of the Gutters”?
  A. Mother Teresa B. Chengiz Khan
  C. Mahakavi Kalidas D. Sankaracharaya
59. The famous 'Bordoloi Trophy' is related to which sport?
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  A. Hockey B. Football
  C. Basketball D. Bridge
60. Who is the first Indian recepient of the prestigious 'Ramon Magsaysay Award'?
  A. Mother Teresa B. Dara Khurody
  C. Verghese Kurian D. Vinobha Bhave
61. Which was the inaugural film of Kolkata International Film Festival 2021?
  A. Pather Panchali B. Aparajito
  C. Apur Sansar D. Charulata
  E. Teen Kanya
62. What is India’s rank in the list of 500 most valuable companies across the world?
  A. 8th B. 10th
  C. 15th D. 18th
  E. 20th
63. Which state/Union territories signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the North East Cane and
Bamboo Development Council (NECBDC) to promote Bamboo Cultivation and related entrepreneurship in the
region?
  A. Ladakh B. Jammu & Kashmir
  C. Himachal Pradesh D. Sikkim
  E. Asaam
64. CSIR- National Institute of Oceanography and National Geophysical Research Institute virtually signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with which country in the field of Marine Sciences and Technology?
  A. USA B. Japan
  C. Russia D. Israel
  E. France
65. India’s first ‘Fire Park’ was inaugurated in which state and also a virtual platform ‘Agnishama Seva’ has been
launched?
  A. Telangana B. Andhra Pradesh
  C. Odisha D. Karnataka
  E. Tamil Nadu
66. Which defence manufacturing company of India has signed an agreement with European defence company Thales to
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manufacture STARStreak Air Defence System in India?

  A. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited B. Bharat Dynamics Limited
  C. Bharat Earthmovers Limited D. Bharat Electronics Limited
  E. Defence Research Development Organisation
67. Which country topped in the Arton Capital Passport Index 2021?
  A. Germany B. Sweden
  C. Finland D. Denmark
  E. Norway
68. Padma Shree awarded eminent personality Sunil Kothari passes away. He belongs to which of the following field?
  A. Social Reformer B. Indian dance journalist
  C. Indian National Movement Historian D. Indian dance historian
  E. Sitar Player
69. Which defence manufacturing group has received ‘green channel status’ from Defence Ministry?
  A. L & T Defence B. Bharat Dynamics Ltd
  C. Ordnance Factory Board D. Tata Advanced Systems.
  E. Mahindra Defence Systems
70. Elavenil Valarivan associated with which sports who has won the FICCI sportsperson of the year award 2020 in
female category?
  A. Badminton B. Table Tennis
  C. Cricket D. Shooting
  E. Archery
71. Direction: Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
  A. Snake B. Tortoise
  C. Crocodile D. Whale
72. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow. Statements:
N>B≤U≥S>Y

Conclusions:
I. U > N
II. U > Y
  A. only conclusion I follows. B. only conclusion II follows.
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  C. either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  E. If both conclusions I and II follow.
73. Statements:
X > E > Q, L > M = Q

Conclusions:
I. X = L
II. E > M
  A. only conclusion I follows. B. only conclusion II follows.
  C. either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. neither conclusion I nor II follows.
  E. If both conclusions I and II follow.
74. Statements:
U < S = M, I > E < U

Conclusions:
I. M > E
II. U > M
  A. only conclusion I follows. B. only conclusion II follows.
  C. either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. neither conclusion I nor II follows.
  E. If both conclusions I and II follow.
75. Statements:
D < W > Z > L, D = O

Conclusions:
I. W > O
II. L < W
  A. only conclusion I follows. B. only conclusion II follows.
  C. either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. neither conclusion I nor II follows.
  E. both conclusions I and II follow.
76. Some letters are given with numbers from 1 to 9. Select the sequence of numbers which arranges the letters into a
meaningful word.
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  A. 298175643 B. 298157643
  C. 289157643 D. 298175634
77. A man goes 7.5 km east from point A then rotates 11700 clockwise and goes 7.5 km. In which direction is he from
the starting point?
  A. east B. north-east
  C. north-west D. south-east
78. Sanmitra walked 8 m towards the north. He turned to his right and walked 16 m, then he turned to his left and walked
5 m and again he turned to his left and walked 16 m. In which direction is he from his starting point?
  A. South B. East
  C. North D. West
79. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are certain number of persons sitting in a linear row and are facing north direction. Three persons sit between
D and G who sits at the end. F sits second to the left of T. A sits second to the right of D. Two persons sit between T
and R who sits second to the left of H. The number of persons sitting to the right of D is same as the number of
persons sitting to the left of R. The number of persons sitting between W and A is same as the number of persons
sitting between W and F. U sits second to the left of R and to the immediate right of S. One person sits between S and
Y. Two persons sit between D and W who doesn’t sit adjacent to G.

How many persons are sitting in a row?

  A. Twenty B. Eighteen
  C. Twenty-one D. Nineteen
  E. None of these
80. Who amongst the following persons sits ninth to the left of the one who sits third to the right of W?
  A. Y B. F
  C. R D. H
  E. None of these
81. What is the position of Y with respect to the one who sits third to the left of D?
  A. 6th to the left B. 7th to the left
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  C. 9th to the left D. 8th to the left

  E. None of these
82. How many persons sit between the one who sits at second position from the left end and W?
  A. Seven B. Nine
  C. Ten D. Eight
  E. None of these
83. If O sits fourth to the left of D then how many persons sit between O and R?
  A. Three B. Five
  C. Four D. Six
  E. None of these
84. Direction: In the following question, some statements are followed by some conclusions. Assuming the given
statements to be true, find which of the following conclusions follow the given statements and choose appropriate
answer choice. Statements:
Some mobiles are desktops
No memory is a desktop
Some memory are keyboards

Conclusions:
I. All keyboards being mobiles is a possibility
II. No desktops is a memory
III. All keyboards are memory
  A. only I follows. B. only I and III follows.
  C. only I and II follow. D. only II follows.
  E. None of these
85. Direction: In the following question, a set of statements is followed by some conclusions, one of which definitely
does not follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence). Choose that conclusion as the answer.
Statements:
All apples are bananas.
All bananas are oranges.
No litchi is orange.

Conclusions:
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I. All oranges being apples is a possibility.

II. Some bananas are litchi.
III. No apple is a litchi.
  A. Only conclusion I does not follow. B. Only conclusion II does not follow.
  C. Only conclusion III does not follow. D. Both conclusions I and II do not follow.
  E. None of these
86. Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, and II. You
must take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts. Statements:
Only hands are lips.
Only papers are hands.
Only bags are papers.

Conclusions:
I. All bags are lips.
II. Some hands are not bags.
  A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows.
  C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. If both conclusions I and II follow.
  E. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
87. Direction: In each of the questions below are given few statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Statements:
All Dog is Cat.
All Cat is Fish.
Only a few Turtle are Fish.

Conclusions:
I. All Turtle are Cat.
II. Some Dog are Fish.
  A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows.
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  C. If either conclusion I or II follows. D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  E. If both conclusions I and II follow.
88. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a certain code language,
‘normal life idea creative’ is written as ‘pa da ka sa’.
‘creative mind boost’ is written as ‘ka ba ta’.
‘life logic boost’ is written as ‘da ba wa’.
‘mind idea logic’ is written as ‘sa ta wa’.

What is the code for the word ‘Idea’?

  A. wa B. ta
  C. sa D. ka
  E. None of these
89. What is the code for the words ‘Creative Boost’?
  A. ka ta B. ka ba
  C. ba ta D. da ba
  E. None of these
90. Which amongst the following word is coded as ‘da’?
  A. Boost B. Logic
  C. Mind D. Life
  E. None of these
91. What is the code for the word ‘Logic’?
  A. da B. ta
  C. wa D. ba
  E. None of these
92. Which amongst the following words are coded as ‘pa ta’?
  A. Creative Mind B. Normal Mind
  C. Normal Idea D. Creative Logic
  E. None of these
93. Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
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A is the brother of C. C is married to E. E is the daughter of D. A is the father of R. M is the mother of S. M has only
one son and only one daughter. S is the son of A. T is the daughter of C.
How is E related to A ?
  A. Sister B. Sister-in-law
  C. Cousin (sister) D. Cannot be determined
  E. None of these
94. How is R related to C ?
  A. Daughter B. Nephew
  C. Daughter-in-law D. Niece
  E. Son
95. How is T related to D ?
  A. Daughter-in-law B. Grand daughter
  C. Niece D. Daughter
  E. Cannot be determined
96. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

Eight people i.e. Z, X, C, V, B, N, M, and F are sitting around a rectangular table. All are facing towards the inside.
Four people sit at the vertex of this table and the rest people sit at the midpoint of each side. F sits 2nd to the right of
Z. Two people sit between Z and M. B sits 2nd to the left of M. B does not sit near to Z. More than two people sit
between B and C when counted from both sides. Not more than one people sit between C and X. N sits 2nd to the left
of X. N does not sit at the midpoint of the side of this table.

How many people sit between N and C when counted from the left of N?
  A. One B. Two
  C. Three D. Four
  E. None of these
97. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of V?
  A. Z B. B
  C. X D. C
  E. None of these
98. Who among the following sits 2nd to the left of C?
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  A. Z B. V
  C. F D. M
  E. None of these
99. Who among the following sits 4th to the right of F?
  A. Z B. B
  C. X D. C
  E. None of these
100. How many people sit between Z and B when counted from the right of Z?
  A. One B. Two
  C. Three D. Four
  E. None of these
101. Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Ten people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y live on ten different floors in a building but not necessarily in the same
order. The ground floor is numbered one and the top floor is numbered ten. Only three people live below X. Only
two people live between R and X. Three people live between V and R. Three people live between Y and V. Two
people live between Q and Y. P lives immediately above T, who does not live on an odd-numbered floor. Two people
live between W and S, who does not live on the top floor.     

Who lives on the top floor?

  A. Y B. W
  C. U D. S
  E. None of these
102. Who lives between U and Q?
  A. P B. X
  C. V D. S
  E. None of these
103. Who lives on the sixth floor?
  A. U B. S
  C. V D. Q
  E. None of these
104. Find the correct combination.
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  A. R – 2nd floor B. Y – 10th floor

  C. V – 4th floor D. P – 3rd floor
  E. None is correct
105. How many people live between W and X?
  A. Three B. Seven
  C. Five D. Two
  E. None of these
106. Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Six people R, S, T, U, V, and W like six different colors and lives in six different states. S does not live in Karnataka.
The one, who likes Grey or Brown, do not live in Bihar. V and W do not like Green. S likes Brown and U lives in
Haryana, who does not like White or Grey. Neither V nor T likes Yellow. The one, who likes Pink, does not live in
Karnataka or Assam. The one, who likes Green, lives in Punjab. W does not live in Kerala and does not like White.
The one, who likes Yellow, lives in Kerala.

Who lives in Karnataka?

  A. The one, who likes White B. R
  C. The one, who likes Grey D. V
  E. None of these
107. The one, who likes Brown, lives in-
  A. Haryana B. Kerala
  C. Bihar D. Assam
  E. None of these
108. Who among the following likes Pink?
  A. T B. R
  C. V D. U
  E. None is true
109. T lives in which of the following states?
  A. Karnataka B. Assam
  C. Haryana D. Punjab
  E. None of these
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110. Find the odd one.

  A. R - Kerala B. Green - Punjab
  C. V - White D. Grey - Karnataka
  E. S - Pink
111. Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

A reason why people at school read books is to please their teacher. The teacher has said that this, that, or the other is
a good book and that it is a sign of good taste to enjoy it. So a number of boys and girls, anxious to please their
teacher get the book and read it. Two or three of them may genuinely like it for its own sake, and be grateful to the
teacher for putting it in their way. But many will not honestly like it, or will persuade themselves that they like it.
And that does a great deal of harm.

The people who cannot like that book run the risk of two things happening to them. Let us suppose the book was
David Copperfield – either they put off the idea of classical novels or they take a dislike to Dickens, and decide
firmly never to waste their time on anything of the sort again, or they get a guilty conscience about the whole thing,
they feel that they do not like what they ought to like and therefore there is something wrong with them. They are
quite mistaken, of course.

There is nothing wrong with them. The mistake has all been on the teacher’s side. What has happened is that they
have been shoved up against a book before they were ready for it. It is like giving a young child food only suitable
for an adult. It results in indigestion, violent stomach–ache, and a rooted dislike of that article of food evermore. The
writer says that teachers should
  A. prevent children from reading any book B. compel children to read moral stories
C. stop compelling children to read books recommended
  D. carefully supervise what children read
by them
112. The passage is about what
  A. we should do to make children read B. we should not do when we ask children to read
  C. teachers should teach in the classroom D. treatment is to be given for indigestion
113. “The mistake has been on the teacher’s side: Here the ‘mistake refers to
B. asking the children to read books which teachers do not
  A. making the children to please the teacher
like
  C. discouraging children from reading more books D. recommending them the books intended for adults
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114. According to the author, many boys and girls read books to
  A. win the favour of their teachers B. spend money in a useful way
  C. lose the trust of their teachers D. show others that they are lovers of books
115. Indigestion and violent stomachache will be the result if the child
  A. reads books suitable for his age B. does not read any book
  C. is forced to eat food meant for adults D. is not taken to doctor regularly
116. Direction: Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Can be read clearly
  A. eligible B. intangible
  C. illegible D. legible
117. Direction: Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

A person who dishonestly pretends to be somebody else

  A. imperialist B. impression
  C. implore D. imposter
118. Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the
response (A), (B), (C) or (D) which is the most appropriate expression, and mark your response in the Answer Sheet
accordingly.

All his ducks in a row

  A. Get someone in a line B. Well organized
  C. Always scores a zero D. Never gets confused
119. Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the
response (A), (B), (C) or (D) which is the most appropriate expression and mark your response in the Answer Sheet
accordingly.

Not make head or/nor tail of

  A. To be unable to face it B. To be unable to tolerate it
  C. To be unable to remember it D. To be unable to understand (something)
120. Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence alternatives to the
bold part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. Most
children are liking ice cream.
  A. likes B. like
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  C. were liking D. No improvement

121. Direction: Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement
required, select ‘no Improvement’.

He is absent from the meeting.

  A. at B. in
  C. during D. No improvement
122. Direction: In the sentence, identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. If the sentence has no error,
then select 'No error'.

A music and dance show have been organized to raise funds for the orphanage on the first Saturday of next month.
  A. A music and dance show have been B. organized to raise funds for the
  C. orphanage on the first Saturday of next month D. No Error
123. Direction: In the sentence, identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

We did helped the poor people by giving them food and clothes to put on.
  A. We did helped B. the poor people
  C. by giving them food and D. clothes to put on
124. In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. If the sentence has no error, then
select 'No error'.

He says that he has a car beside a scooter. 

  A. he says that B. he has a car
  C. beside a scooter D. No Error
125. Direction: In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of
a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is
(D), i.e. No error.

He is (A)/ taller (B)/ than me. (C)/ No error (D)

  A. Sentence A B. Sentence B
  C. Sentence C D. No Error
126. Direction: Select the correctly spelled word.
  A. tolaration B. absolete
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  C. deplorable D. indipendent
127. Direction: In this section, a word is spelled in four different ways. You are to identify the one which is correct.
Choose the correct response (a), (b), (c) or (d) and indicate on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
  A. Relinquish B. Relenquish
  C. Relinquush D. Relinquesh
128. Direction: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Our busy and absent-minded father would never worry about us, children; our mother did worry. Yet, she allowed us
to go off onto the hills immediately after breakfast and did not complain when we came back long after supper-time.
Though she had a bad head for heights, she never restrained us from climbing in dangerous places; and we never got
hurt. Having, a bad head for heights myself, I trained myself deliberately and painfully to over-come it. The children
regularly went to the hill
  A. for the greater part of the day B. for a couple of hours
  C. for the afternoon only D. after sunset till supper-time
129. In this passage, ‘restrained’ implies:–
  A. refused B. suspected
  C. forced D. held back
130. The phrase ‘deliberately and painfully' implies
  A. pleasure B. fear
  C. determination D. effort
131. The father did not worry about the children because
  A. he was always occupied B. he knew their mother did
  C. he did not care about them D. men worry less than women do
132. Which of the following statements best expresses the main thought of this passage?
B. The mother trusted her children and in spite of normal
A. The indifference of the parents led to the children's
  anxiety, gave them freedom to explore the countryside and
growing up wild.
they came to no harm.
C. His mother's fear of heights spurred on the author to D. The mother never complained when her children were
 
conquer the same fear in himself. climbing.
133. Direction: A sentence, split into four parts, has been given. Choose the best order which produces the original
sentence:
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and even by children almost all over the world (1)/ one of the most widely spread bad habits (2)/ smoked or chewed
often by women (3)/ is the use of tobacco which is now (4)
  A. 2431 B. 1342
  C. 3241 D. 4213
134. Direction: Given below is a famous saying the words of which have been jumbled up and numbered. Choose the
right order from the given options: your world (1)/ and you can (2)/ change (3)/ your thoughts (4)/ change (5)
  A. 34251 B. 45123
  C. 45231 D. 34521
135. Direction: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

KEMP
  A. polygon B. lint
  C. plethora D. mint
136. Direction: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

BLUNDER
  A. blemish B. danger
  C. worry D. mistake
137. Direction: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

UNRULY
  A. cooperative B. disobedient
  C. compliant D. yielding
138. Direction: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

RISE
  A. rash B. smooth
  C. pride D. fall
139. Direction: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

GALLANT
  A. chivalrous B. indispensably
  C. amorous D. cowardly
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140. Direction: Find a word that is the antonym of the given word. ANNEX
  A. adjoin B. firm
  C. steadfast D. disjoin
141. In a 225m race, A runs at a speed of 27 km/hr. He gives a start of 27m to B and still defeats him by 3 sec. What is the
speed of B?
  A. 23.4 km/hr B. 21.6 km/hr
  C. 24 km/hr D. 21 km/hr
  E. None of the above/More than one of the above
142. If 60% A’s income is equal to 75% of B’s income, then B’s income is equal to x% of A’s income. The value of x is:
  A. 70 B. 60
  C. 80 D. 90
143. In an election, a candidate got 45% of the total valid votes. 4% of the total votes were declared invalid. If the total
number of votes is 244000, then the number of valid votes polled in favour of the candidate is:
  A. 156506 B. 106650
  C. 101048 D. 105408
  E. 105056
144. The average of three consecutive even numbers is 20 less than the sum of these three numbers. Find the smallest
number.
  A. 8 B. 10
  C. 12 D. 14
145. In a school with 550 students, the average age of the boys is 11 years and that of the girls is 12 years. If the average
age of the school is 11 years and 6 months, then the number of girls in the school is –
  A. 275 B. 260
  C. 255 D. 230
146. A trader sold an article at a loss of 10% but when he increased the selling price by Rs. 90 he gained 5% on the cost
price. If sells the same article at Rs. 720, what is the profit percentage?
  A. 10% B. 20%
  C. 25% D. 32%
  E. 15%
147. A is twice as efficient a workman as B. Together they finish a work in 18 days. In how many days will A alone can
finish the work?
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  A. 27 B.
  C. D. 22
148. When two equal amounts are deposited for 5 years and 3 years at the rate of 7% and 9% per annum respectively and
the difference of their simple interest is Rs. 475. Then find the deposited amount.
  A. Rs. 5,837.5 B. Rs. 6,037.5
  C. Rs. 5,992.5 D. Rs. 5,937.5
149. Heena and Veena started a garment store with the ratio of their investments as 2:3 and at the end of year they share
their profits in the ratio 5:6 . If Heena had withdrawn her total investment after 5 months, then for how many months
Veena had invested her amount?
  A. 6 months B. 5 months
  C. 4 months D. 3 months
  E. 4.5 months
150. The numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is decreased by 20%. The value of the fraction
becomes 4/5. The original fraction is:

  A. B.

  C. D.

  E. None of the above/More than one of the above

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Solutions
1. B
Sol. Arul is a minor and under the Indian law, a minor is not competent to contract. Therefore, the
contract is void ab initio.
2. C
Sol. Lakshita and Zainab are public personalities and their reputation is of utmost importance to
them. The statement made by Lakshita was defamatory in nature and was made without any
valid claim. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
3. A
Sol. The offer for acceptance was never posted by Q. Therefore, there was no contract that existed
between P and Q and in accordance with the principle, option A is the correct answer.
4. D
Sol. Naren did not have the means to identify the misappropriation. Therefore, in accordance with
the principle, the contract is voidable at the option of Naren due to misrepresentation.
5. B
Sol. Girish is not liable because he was an illiterate man and his son took advantage of this fact to
use for his own personal gain. Therefore, in accordance with the principle, option B is the
correct answer.
6. D
Sol. The offer made by S to pay Rs 4000 lapsed when he made the counteroffer to pay a higher
price. Hence, according to the principle, S is liable to pay the amount of Rs5500 to the
shopkeeper.
7. C
Sol. A taxi driver plying on the road only constitutes an invitation to offer due to which the contract
entered into with any prospective customer is voidable at the option of the driver. Hence,
Option C is the correct answer.
8. B
Sol. There is an absence of the relationship that is necessary to subsist in order to constitute a
master and servant relationship. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
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9. B
Sol. The principle states that the violation of a legal right without causing damage to an individual
gives rise to a tort. However, in this case, there was no violation of any legal right vested in
Farhan. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
10. D
Sol. David voluntarily purchased the ticket to the cricket match and this purchase followed by him
actually arriving at the stadium to spectate the match shows that he consented to any such
injury that may arise from spectating the match. Therefore, in accordance with the principle,
option C is the correct answer.
11. C
Sol. The claim of self-defence fails when the danger is self-invited but in this case, Reena had not invited the friends.
 
12. A
Sol. Anirudh was a mental patient who was unable to understand the consequences of his actions and is therefore not
responsible for the death of the lady.
 
13. D
Sol. The cost of delivery will be the only amount that is paid to Hadley as this was the only direct loss suffered by him.
 
 
14. B
Sol. The shopkeeper is seen to have believed that the pack contained brown rice as it was labelled that way therefore he is
not responsible for misrepresentation.
 
15. C
Sol. The employer being held liable for the acts of the employee does not exempt the employee from the liability.
 
16. C
Sol. Any statutory law remains unaffected by the Laws of Contract and is binding on people.
 
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17. D
Sol. The question doesn’t mention the religion of Isabella and it is wrong to assume anyone’s religion by their name.
 
18. D
Sol. The high walls built by Ram were enough to take care of people not falling in the well but the boy made
extraordinary advances in his attempt.
 
 
19. B
Sol. The government is not responsible for the sovereign functions discharged negligently by the police.
20. A
Sol. India uses the cases of the UK so it follows a municipal law system with common law traditions.
21. B
Sol. B would be the correct answer as coating the price was only an invitation to offer not the real offer. Mere quoting the
price does not the bind Shyamu to sell the car to Ramu. There ought to be the express consent required to be present
in the proposal.

22. A
Sol. A would be the right answer as it is very much clear from the principle that contracts made at the interval of sound
state of mind would stand valid even if the person is generally of unsound mind. As per facts, the contract was
entered at the time when Latika was in sound state of mind hence, A would be the right answer.

23. C
Sol. The correct answer is C. In the present set of facts, the situation did not allow X to say anything including positive or
negative about the state of mind of the horse. Have he been asked directly, his answer would have been relevant.
Hence, C would be the right answer.

24. A
Sol.  A would be the right answer as principal expressly stated that If the consideration or object of an agreement is
forbidden by law, or is of such a nature that would defeat the provisions of any law, or is fraudulent, or is injurious to
the person or property of another or, the Court regards it as immoral, or opposed to public policy, then the object or
consideration shall be deemed unlawful. Even if it was just a 10 gm of drugs, it would be invalid hence A will be the
right answer.
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25. B
Sol.  B would be the right answer as X had no rightful title to take away the car from garage. Principle is silent about the
mental intent behind the act hence B would be the right answer. Wrongful belief does not fall under the purview of
lawful justification.

26. C
Sol.  C would be the right answer as the right to conduct classes in her own flat cannot be considered to be unlawful and
causing nuisance to the public at large hence C would be the correct answer. Here, the problem of Deepti is person
specific.

27. C
Sol.  It is clearly mentioned in the principle that ‘, to any person for whose benefit it is done in good faith Here the
operation being conducted by fake doctor cannot be considered as good faith hence C would be the right answer.

28. B
Sol.  Doctor would not be guilty as the operation conducted by the doctor and the treatment given to him was done in
good faith hence he would not be held guilty for an offence. Applying the said principle in the set of facts, B would
be the right answer.

29. A
Sol. As it is clearly mentioned in the principle that facts which are impossible will be void. In the present set of facts, to
discover the treasure trove by magic is an impossible act hence the act would be void so, A would be the correct
answer. .

30. D
Sol. In the present set of facts communication was not complete you to act of God. Communication must be complete in
order to enforce the contract. Hence there is no acceptance offer. So d would be the correct answer.

31. B
Sol. Critically reading the principal, it says that if a person is of sound mind at the time he makes the contract he would be
considered capable of understanding it. As per the facts presented X had made the contract at intervals when he was
sound minded hence X’s refusal to perform the contract would not save her from the liability and Y can force the
performance of the contract. Onus of proof of a fact is always on the person one who asserts the same. Hence B
would be the correct answer

32. A
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Sol.   A would be the correct answer as principle talks about only the illegality of the willful rash driving. As per the facts,
he was just driving after having alcohol. It does not talk about if he was driving rashly or not hence A would be the
right answer.

33. C
Sol. Principal very clearly state that ignorance of factors excuse my ignorance of law is no excuse. As per the fact, there
was a violation of law made by government of India, it will qualify under experience of law hence C would be the
correct answer.

34. B
Sol.  B is the correct answer as trespass of good is a wrong a again a possession, not ownership. Though, Z was the real
owner of the watch but its possession was under shopper hence he would be liable for trespass of goods.

35. A
Sol. A would be the right answer. Principal state drive if there is unreasonable interference to the right of the other person,
only then it will fall under the purview of nuisance. In the present set of playing music would not have been an
unreasonable act if it would have been done in any other time except morning, when people sleep. Hence, this would
qualify as an unreasonable interference and A would be the right answer.
 

36. B
Sol.  B would be the correct answer as principle clearly state that court can declare any law as invalid if it invalidates
Fundamental Rights. Also principle gives the power to the court to ask parliament to enact new laws hence B would
be the right answer.

37. B
Sol.  B would be the correct option. As Lala intentionally made the statement with higher amount to deceive Rai to buy
his cements hence, B would stand corrected.
 
38. B
Sol.  Consideration cannot be unlawful. The same has been stated in the principle. In the given set of facts, Consideration
was to kill Priya which was an offence and hence unlawful. So, B would be the right answer.
 
39. A
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Sol.  Going exactly by the principle. Offer of 3 lakh was superseded by the counter offer of Rs 2.5 lakhs. Hence, in order
to validate the offer, new offer offer of Rs 3 lakh have to be made. So, A would be the correct answer.
 

40. B
Sol.  As per the principle, A contract which is not possible would be void. As per the facts, after the death of the horse,
the contract would not have been complied at any cost and the contract would be void, hence B would be the correct
option.
 

41. A
Sol. ● Recently, the fifth India Water Impact Summit- IWIS was organized by the National Clean Ganga Mission and
Center for Ganga River Basin Management and Studies.

● Theme was (Arth Ganga – River Conservation Synchronised Development).

● The National Clean Ganga Mission (NMCG) is an implementing unit of the National Ganga River Basin
Authority.

 
42. D
Sol. ● Dashavatar Temple Devgarh, (Lalitpur) -Gupta Temple, Mathangeshwar Temple of
Khajuraho - Lord Shiva.
● Khajuraho is a major city located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh, which is famous for
its ancient and medieval temples. It is located in Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh.
● Built between 950 - 1050 CE by the Chandela dynasty, Khajuraho temples are one of the
most important specimens of Indian art.
 
43. B
Sol. ● The National Social Assistance Programme(NSAP) was launched on 15th August, 1995.
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) represents a significant step towards the
fulfillment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 and 42 of the Constitution recognizing the
concurrent responsibility of the Central and the State Governments in the matter.
 
44. D
Sol. ● Lok Adalat is a formal Indian judicial alternative dispute resolution forum that serves to settle
cases pending findings of a Panchayat (an elected village council) or at the pre-litigation stage
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in a court of law.
● The Lok Adalat is presided over by Members of Lok Adalat; they act as statutory conciliators
only and they can, therefore, only persuade the parties to come to a settlement, rather than
order them.
 
45. A
Sol. ● Under the Constitution, the President shall cause every recommendation made by the
Finance Commission together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken
thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament.
 
46. B
Sol. ● A State Finance Commission has functions similar to that of the Central Finance
Commission. It allocates resources of a state to its Panchayati Raj institutions at all three
levels in terms of taxes, duties and levies to be collected by the state and the local bodies.
● Its job is similar to that of the Central Finance Commission constituted by the President of
India under Article 280 of the Constitution, which divides the central taxes between the Union
government and state governments.
 
47. C
Sol. ● This amendment implements the Article 40 of the DPSP which says that “State shall take
steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may
be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government” and have upgraded them
from non-justifiable to justifiable part of the constitution and has put constitutional obligation
upon states to enact the Panchayati Raj Acts as per provisions of the Part IX.
 
48. B
Sol. ● Consolidated Fund of India is formed under the Constitution. The taxes received by
government including central tax, income tax, excise tax and certain non tax revenues are
credited in Consolidated Fund. All expenditures of the Govt. are incurred from this fund.
Authority of Parliament is required for withdrawing any amount from this fund.
 
49. C
Sol. ● Distribution of power between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based
on the Government of India Act, 1935.
● The Features of this act were as follows;
(1) It provided for the establishment of all India federation consisting of provinces and princely
states as units.
(2) The act divided the powers between center and units in terms of three lists:
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● Federal list.
● Provincial list.
● The concurrent list.
 
50. A
Sol. ● Adjournment motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha to draw the attention of the House
to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
● It is regarded as an extraordinary device as it interrupts the normal business of the House. It
needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. The discussion on this motion should last for
not less than two hours and thirty minutes.
51. B
Sol. ● The International Day of Non-Violence is observed on 2 October, the birthday of Mahatma
Gandhi, leader of the Indian independence movement and pioneer of the philosophy and
strategy of non-violence.
● On 15 June 2007 the United Nations General Assembly voted to establish 2 October as the
International Day of Non-Violence. The 2020 theme for the International Day of Peace is
“Shaping Peace Together.”
 
52. C
Sol. ● International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers is celebrated on May 29 every year.
● The International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers is celebrated to pay tribute to the
uniformed and civilian personnel’s indispensable contribution.
● The theme for this year’s Day is “Women in Peacekeeping: A Key to Peace” to help mark
the 20th anniversary of the adoption of UN Security Council Resolution 1325 on Women,
Peace and Security.
● The first UN peacekeeping mission was established on 29th May 1948, when the Security
Council authorized the deployment of a small number of UN military observers to the Middle
East.
 
53. A
Sol. ● NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Association of India Limited) was
established on 2 October 1958.
● The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation implements the PSS for procurement of oil
seeds, pulses and cotton, through NAFED which is the Central nodal agency, at the MSP
declared by the government.
 
54. B
Sol. ● Food security means providing proper food supplies to those who are deprived of basic
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nutrition.
● Food security has been a major concern in India, according to the UN-India, there are about
19.5 million malnourished people in India, which accounts for a quarter of global starvation.
About 43% of children in India are malnourished for a long time.
 
55. C
Sol. ● Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme launched in April 1973 by the Government
of India during Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's tenure.
● The much-needed project was launched in Jim Corbett National Park, Uttrakhand under the
leadership of Indira Gandhi.
● India is home to 50 Tiger reserves which are all run by the Project Tiger. Kailash Sankhala
was the first director of Project Tiger.
 
56. B
Sol. ● Bandhavgarh National Park is one of the finest national parks in India. It is one of the most
favourable places to see a tiger in the wild. This reserve was the last refuge for the white tiger
which has now disappeared from the wilderness.
 
57. C
Sol. ● The Partnership for Peace (PfP) is a North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) program
aimed at creating trust between NATO and other states in Europe and the former Soviet
Union.
● It was formally launched on January 10–11, 1994 at the NATO summit in Brussels, Belgium.
● The Northern Atlantic Treaty Organization (North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)) is a
military alliance established on 04 April 1949. It is headquartered in Brussels (Belgium).
 
58. A
Sol. ● Mother Teresa of India, who has been recognized as a 'Saint of the Gutters' for her service
in slums, has also been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (1979).
● She was also granted saint status by the Roman Catholic Church in the year 2016.
● Teresa, born in 1910 in Kosovar, Macedonia, moved to Kolkata in 1950. Before coming here,
she had been a citizen of Ottoman, Serbia, Bulgaria and Yugoslavia.
 
59. B
Sol. ● Bordoloi Trophy also known as the Bharat Ratna Lokopriya Gopinath Bordoloi Trophy is an
Indian football tournament held in Guwahati and organized by Guwahati Sports Association.
The tournament was first started in 1952 and is named after Assam's first chief minister
Gopinath Bordoloi.
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60. D
Sol. ● Vinoba Bhave was the 1st Magsaysay Award winner. Human rights activist Vinoba Bhave
was among the first five individuals to receive the Ramon Magsaysay Award in its year of
inception in 1958. Bhave received the Community Leadership award for his dedication to
"propagation of a new kind of social revolution in India".
 
61. C
Sol. • Mamata Banerjee Chief Minister of West Bengal inaugurated the 7 day 26th edition of the
Kolkata International Film Festival (KIFF) 2021 (From 8th to 15th January 2021).
• Bollywood actor Shah Rukh Khan, the brand ambassador of West Bengal virtually attended
the inaugural ceremony from Mumbai.
• As a part of the 26th KIFF, 81 full length movies and 50 short films and documentaries from
more than 45 countries will be screened at 8 venues which include the state run halls,
Nandan, Rabindra Sadan, Calcutta Information centre, Sisir Mancha and others.
• “Apur Sansar” by Satyajit Ray was screened as the inaugural film.
62. B
Sol. • Total 11 private Indian firms have made it to the list of 500 most valuable companies across
the world, and the country is ranked 10th on the chart.
• The total value of these 11 companies grew 14 per cent and has been pegged at $805 billion
or nearly a third of the Indian GDP.
• All these companies in the list of non-state enterprises have gained in value during 2020,
which was hit by the pandemic, barring tobacco major ITC and second largest private sector
lender ICICI Bank, as per the Hurun Global 500 report.
• Mukesh Ambani-led Reliance Industries leads among the local enterprises with a 20.5 per
cent jump in valuation to $168.8 billion as of December 1 and is ranked 54th globally, as per
the list.
63. B
Sol. • Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
the North East Cane and Bamboo Development Council (NECBDC) to promote Bamboo
Cultivation and related entrepreneurship in the region.
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• The North East Cane and Bamboo Development Council (NECBDC) will provide technical
guidance in cultivating various species of Bamboo in the region.
• This will promote development of Bamboo based industries in Jammu & Kashmir leading to
exports of bamboo based products.
• The MoU was in line with the Prime Minister’s vision to encourage tree plantation on farm
land “Har Medh Par Ped” mission.
64. C
Sol. • V.I. Il’Ichev Pacific Oceanological Institute (POI), Russia along with CSIR- National Institute
of Oceanography (CSIR-NIO), Goa & CSIR-National Geophysical Research Institute (CSIR-
NGRI), Hyderabad have signed a Memorandum of Understanding in the field of Marine
Sciences and Technology.
• The POI is the largest research institution in the Far Eastern Branch of Russian Academy of
Sciences comprising 31 research units equipped with modern scale devices.
• Whereas, CSIR-NIO and CSIR-NGRI, the constituent research laboratories of the Council of
Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) are world renowned Institutes in the fields of
Oceanography and Earth Sciences respectively.
65. C
Sol. • Chief Minister of Odisha, Naveen Patnaik virtually inaugurated India’s first ‘Fire Park’ at
Bhubaneshwar, Odisha.
• On that occasion CM Patnaik also launched the virtual platform ‘Agnishama Seva’ to provide
through which 16 fire related services can be availed.
• The Fire Park is a first of its kind initiative to provide awareness on fire safety measures,
mainly focusing on School and College students.
• It is located under the premises of the Odisha Fire and Disaster Academy in Bhubaneswar.
• The Fire Park will be open to the public on every Saturday from 3.30 pm to 5.30 pm.
66. B
Sol. • Bharat Dynamics and Thales have signed a Teaming Agreement to work in partnership on
the STARStreak Air Defence system with the support of both the Governments of India and
the United Kingdom.
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• The Teaming Agreement was signed at a virtual ceremony held on 13 January 2021.
• BDL will become a part of the STARStreak global supply chain, providing the opportunity for
export of the system to existing and future STARStreak Air Defence customers, including the
UK Armed Forces through this agreement.
• BDL, as a part of its Global Outreach, is endeavouring to forge alliance with foreign
companies to take the "Make in India" mission further.
• Earlier, Thales and BDL have signed a "Memorandum of Understanding‟ to assess the
opportunity for the transfer of technology for STARStreak.
67. A
Sol. • Germany has topped the list of countries in terms of powerful passports, having a mobility
score of 134.
• Sweden, Finland and Spain all ranked second, with a mobility score of 133. While all the
passport holders of all the three countries require visas for 65 countries, the Swedish passport
holders can go to 99 countries without requiring a visa, and to 34 countries on a visa-on-arrival
arrangement.
• Passports of Denmark, Norway, Switzerland and New Zealand ranked at the third place, with
all the countries having a mobility score of 132, requiring a visa for 66 countries.
• The index placed India at the 61st position, along with Philippines, Bhutan, Benin, Gabon,
and Algeria, with all the six countries having a mobility score of 52. Holders of the Indian
passport have visa-free access to 18 countries, and require a visa on arrival for 34 countries.
68. D
Sol. • Sunil Kothari (87 years) was an eminent dance historian and critic.
• He was instrumental in establishing the School of Arts and Aesthetics at the Jawaharlal
Nehru University and mentored many art scholars
69. A
Sol. • Defence manufacturing group of Larsen and Toubro, L&T Defence received ‘green channel
status’ from Defence Ministry.
• It has received the status from the Directorate General Quality Assurance (DGQA) under the
Ministry of Defence for its major naval weapon delivery systems.
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• L&T became the first private sector defence company to be granted this (green channel)
status for delivery of major naval systems.
• Green Channel Policy was introduced in March 2017 by the Defence Ministry, as part of the
‘Make in India’ initiative.
70. D
Sol. * Federation of Indian Commerce and Industry (FICCI) virtually presented India Sports
Awards-2020, to sports personalities for their outstanding contributions in the field of sports.
* Wrestler Bajrang Punia and Shooter Elavenil Valarivan received the highest honour
“Sportsperson of the Year of Men & Female” Award respectively.
* Elavenil Valarivan Represents India in the sport of Shooting, She won gold medal in 2018
ISSF Junior World Cup, She won Silver medal at World University Games in 2019.She won
Gold medal at World Cup Suhl in 2019 & she will represent India in Tokyo Olympics 2021.
71. D
Sol. All the other are reptiles except whale which is a marine mammal.
72. B
Sol. N > B ≤ U ≥ S > Y
Check for conclusion I: N > B ≤ U ≥ S > Y
We can't compare N and U together
Check for conclusion II. N > B ≤ U ≥ S > Y
U > Y holds true.
73. B
Sol. Statements: X > E > Q = M < L
Check for conclusion I: X > E > Q = M < L
X = L does not hold true.
Check for conclusion II. X > E > Q = M < L
E > M holds true.
74. A
Sol. Statements: I > E < U < S = M
Check for conclusion I: I > E < U < S = M
M > E holds true.
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Check for conclusion II. I > E < U < S = M

U > M does not hold true.
75. D
Sol. Statements: O = D < W > Z > L
Check for conclusion I: O = D < W > Z > L
W > O holds true.
Check for conclusion II. O = D < W > Z > L
W > L holds true. Both conclusions I and II follow.
76. D
Sol. Here, FREQUENCY is a meaningful word.

Below is the table which represents the code for the word FREQUENCY after rearrangement.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

77. D
Sol. After rotating the faces south and goes 7.5 km south too so he is in south-east direction from the starting point.
3600 x 3 = 10800 but here it is 1170 so it is 900 more which will make him face south then he goes 7.5 km more.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

78. C
Sol. From the information given in the question,
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He is in North direction with respect to his initial position.

Hence, option C is the correct response.
79. B
Sol. 1) Three persons sit between D and G who sits at the end.

Here, we have two possible cases i.e. Case 1 and Case 2.

2) A sits second to the right of D.

3) Two persons sit between D and W who doesn’t sit adjacent to G.

4) The number of persons sit between W and A is same as the number of persons sit between W and F.

5) F sits second to the left of T.

6) Two persons sit between T and R who sits second to the left of H.
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7) The number of persons sit to the right of D is same as the number of persons sit to the left of R.

8) U sits second to the left of R and to the immediate right of S.

9) One person sits between S and Y.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated and we have the final arrangement:

Clearly, eighteen persons are sitting in a row.

80. C
Sol. 1) Three persons sit between D and G who sits at the end.

Here, we have two possible cases i.e. Case 1 and Case 2.

2) A sits second to the right of D.

3) Two persons sit between D and W who doesn’t sit adjacent to G.

4) The number of persons sit between W and A is same as the number of persons sit between W and F.

5) F sits second to the left of T.

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6) Two persons sit between T and R who sits second to the left of H.

7) The number of persons sit to the right of D is same as the number of persons sit to the left of R.

8) U sits second to the left of R and to the immediate right of S.

9) One person sits between S and Y.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated and we have the final arrangement:

Clearly, R sits ninth to the left of the one who sits third to the right of W.
81. B
Sol. 1) Three persons sit between D and G who sits at the end.

Here, we have two possible cases i.e. Case 1 and Case 2.

2) A sits second to the right of D.

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3) Two persons sit between D and W who doesn’t sit adjacent to G.

4) The number of persons sit between W and A is same as the number of persons sit between W and F.

5) F sits second to the left of T.

6) Two persons sit between T and R who sits second to the left of H.

7) The number of persons sit to the right of D is same as the number of persons sit to the left of R.

8) U sits second to the left of R and to the immediate right of S.

9) One person sits between S and Y.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated and we have the final arrangement:

Clearly, Y sits 7th to the left of the one who sits third to the left of D.
82. D
Sol. 1) Three persons sit between D and G who sits at the end.

Here, we have two possible cases i.e. Case 1 and Case 2.

2) A sits second to the right of D.

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3) Two persons sit between D and W who doesn’t sit adjacent to G.

4) The number of persons sit between W and A is same as the number of persons sit between W and F.

5) F sits second to the left of T.

6) Two persons sit between T and R who sits second to the left of H.

7) The number of persons sit to the right of D is same as the number of persons sit to the left of R.

8) U sits second to the left of R and to the immediate right of S.

9) One person sits between S and Y.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated and we have the final arrangement:

Clearly, eight persons sit between the one who sits at second position from the left end and W.
83. C
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Sol. 1) Three persons sit between D and G who sits at the end.

Here, we have two possible cases i.e. Case 1 and Case 2.

2) A sits second to the right of D.

3) Two persons sit between D and W who doesn’t sit adjacent to G.

4) The number of persons sit between W and A is same as the number of persons sit between W and F.

5) F sits second to the left of T.

6) Two persons sit between T and R who sits second to the left of H.

7) The number of persons sit to the right of D is same as the number of persons sit to the left of R.

8) U sits second to the left of R and to the immediate right of S.

9) One person sits between S and Y.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated and we have the final arrangement:

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If O sits fourth to the left of D:

Clearly, four persons sit between O and R.

84. C
Sol. Only I & II conclusion follow

85. B
Sol. Here we have to find the conclusion which definitely does not logically follow. Hence, conclusion II does not
follow.

86. D
Sol. The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements will be as shown:
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Conclusions:

I. All bags are lips – It is not definite in least possible Venn diagram. Hence, it is false.

II. Some hands are not bags – It is not definite in least possible Venn diagram. Hence, it is false.

Hence, neither I nor II follows.

87. B
Sol.

All Turtle are Cat ====> not follows

Some Dog are Fish ====> follows

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

88. C
Sol.
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From statements I and IV, we get the code for ‘Idea’ is ‘sa’.

Clearly, ‘sa’ is the code for the word ‘Idea’.

89. B
Sol.

From statements I and II, we get the code for ‘Creative’ is ‘ka’.

From statements II and III, we get the code for ‘Boost’ is ‘ba’.

Clearly, ‘kaba’ are the codes for the words ‘Creative Boost’.
90. D
Sol.

From statements I and III, we get the code for ‘Life’ is ‘da’.

Clearly, ‘Life’ is coded as ‘da’.

91. C
Sol.
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From statements III and IV, we get the code for ‘Logic’ is ‘wa’.

Clearly, ‘wa’ is the code for the word ‘Logic’.

92. B
Sol.

From only statement I, we get the code for ‘Normal’ is ‘pa’.

From statements II and IV, we get the code for ‘Mind’ is ‘ta’.

Clearly, ‘Normal Mind’ are coded as ‘pa ta’.

93. B
Sol. E is Sister-in-law of A

94. D
Sol. R is Niece of C
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95. B
Sol. T is Grand-daughter of D

96. D
Sol. Eight people -Z, X, C, V, B, N, M and F.

1. F sits 2nd to the right of Z. Two people sit between Z and M.

2. B sits 2nd to the left of M. B does not sit near to Z.

3. More than two people sit between B and C when counted from both side.
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4. Not more than one people sit between C and X. N sits 2nd to the left of X.

5. N does not sit at the midpoint of side of this table.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated so, final answer is:

Hence, four people sit between N and C when counted from the left of N
97. A
Sol. Eight people -Z, X, C, V, B, N, M and F.

1. F sits 2nd to the right of Z. Two people sit between Z and M.

2. B sits 2nd to the left of M. B does not sit near to Z.

3. More than two people sit between B and C when counted from both side.
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4. Not more than one people sit between C and X. N sits 2nd to the left of X.

5. N does not sit at the midpoint of side of this table.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated so, final answer is:

Hence, Z sits to the immediate left of V.

98. D
Sol. Eight people -Z, X, C, V, B, N, M and F.

1. F sits 2nd to the right of Z. Two people sit between Z and M.

2. B sits 2nd to the left of M. B does not sit near to Z.

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3. More than two people sit between B and C when counted from both side.

4. Not more than one people sit between C and X. N sits 2nd to the left of X.

5. N does not sit at the midpoint of side of this table.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated so, final answer is:

Hence, M sits 2nd to the left of C.

99. C
Sol. Eight people -Z, X, C, V, B, N, M and F.
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1. F sits 2nd to the right of Z. Two people sit between Z and M.

2. B sits 2nd to the left of M. B does not sit near to Z.

3. More than two people sit between B and C when counted from both side.

4. Not more than one people sit between C and X. N sits 2nd to the left of X.

5. N does not sit at the midpoint of side of this table.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated so, final answer is:

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Hence, X sits 4th to the right of F.

100. B
Sol. Eight people -Z, X, C, V, B, N, M and F.

1. F sits 2nd to the right of Z. Two people sit between Z and M.

2. B sits 2nd to the left of M. B does not sit near to Z.

3. More than two people sit between B and C when counted from both side.

4. Not more than one people sit between C and X. N sits 2nd to the left of X.

5. N does not sit at the midpoint of side of this table.

Here, Case 1 gets eliminated so, final answer is:

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Hence, two people sit between Z and B when counted from the right of Z.
101. B
Sol. 1) Only three people live below X.

2) Only two people live between R and X.

3) Three people live between V and R.

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4) Three people live between Y and V.

(Here, case 2 will be eliminated and we will continue with the case 1)

5) Two people live between Q and Y.

6) P lives immediately above T, who does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

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7) Two people live between W and S, who does not live on the top floor.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

102. D
Sol. 1) Only three people live below X.

2) Only two people live between R and X.

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3) Three people live between V and R.

4) Three people live between Y and V.

(Here, case 2 will be eliminated and we will continue with the case 1)
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5) Two people live between Q and Y.

6) P lives immediately above T, who does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

7) Two people live between W and S, who does not live on the top floor.
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Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

103. D
Sol. 1) Only three people live below X.

2) Only two people live between R and X.

3) Three people live between V and R.

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4) Three people live between Y and V.

(Here, case 2 will be eliminated and we will continue with the case 1)

5) Two people live between Q and Y.

6) P lives immediately above T, who does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

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7) Two people live between W and S, who does not live on the top floor.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

104. D
Sol. 1) Only three people live below X.

2) Only two people live between R and X.

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3) Three people live between V and R.

4) Three people live between Y and V.

(Here, case 2 will be eliminated and we will continue with the case 1)
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5) Two people live between Q and Y.

6) P lives immediately above T, who does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

7) Two people live between W and S, who does not live on the top floor.
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Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

105. C
Sol. 1) Only three people live below X.

2) Only two people live between R and X.

3) Three people live between V and R.

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4) Three people live between Y and V.

(Here, case 2 will be eliminated and we will continue with the case 1)

5) Two people live between Q and Y.

6) P lives immediately above T, who does not live on an odd-numbered floor.

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7) Two people live between W and S, who does not live on the top floor.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

106. C
Sol. 1) Neither V nor T like Yellow.

2) The one, who likes Yellow, lives in Kerala.

3) S likes Brown and U live in Haryana, who does not like White or Grey.
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4) W does not live in Kerala and does not like White.

5) V and W do not like Green.

6) The one, who likes Green, lives in Punjab.

(Refer points 3 and 4)

7) The one, who likes Grey or Brown, do not live in Bihar.

(Refer point 3)

8) The one, who likes Pink, do not live in Karnataka or Assam.

9) S does not live in Karnataka.

Hence, the one, who likes Grey, lives in Karnataka.

107. D
Sol. 1) Neither V nor T like Yellow.

2) The one, who likes Yellow, lives in Kerala.

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3) S likes Brown and U live in Haryana, who does not like White or Grey.

4) W does not live in Kerala and does not like White.

5) V and W do not like Green.

6) The one, who likes Green, lives in Punjab.

(Refer points 3 and 4)

7) The one, who likes Grey or Brown, do not live in Bihar.

(Refer point 3)

8) The one, who likes Pink, do not live in Karnataka or Assam.

9) S does not live in Karnataka.

Hence, the one, who likes Brown, lives in Assam.

108. D
Sol. 1) Neither V nor T like Yellow.
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2) The one, who likes Yellow, lives in Kerala.

3) S likes Brown and U live in Haryana, who does not like White or Grey.

4) W does not live in Kerala and does not like White.

5) V and W do not like Green.

6) The one, who likes Green, lives in Punjab.

(Refer points 3 and 4)

7) The one, who likes Grey or Brown, do not live in Bihar.

(Refer point 3)

8) The one, who likes Pink, do not live in Karnataka or Assam.

9) S does not live in Karnataka.

Hence, U likes Pink.

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109. D
Sol. 1) Neither V nor T like Yellow.

2) The one, who likes Yellow, lives in Kerala.

3) S likes Brown and U live in Haryana, who does not like White or Grey.

4) W does not live in Kerala and does not like White.

5) V and W do not like Green.

6) The one, who likes Green, lives in Punjab.

(Refer points 3 and 4)

7) The one, who likes Grey or Brown, do not live in Bihar.

(Refer point 3)

8) The one, who likes Pink, do not live in Karnataka or Assam.

9) S does not live in Karnataka.

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Hence, T lives in Punjab.

110. D
Sol. 1) Neither V nor T like Yellow.

2) The one, who likes Yellow, lives in Kerala.

3) S likes Brown and U live in Haryana, who does not like White or Grey.

4) W does not live in Kerala and does not like White.

5) V and W do not like Green.

6) The one, who likes Green, lives in Punjab.

(Refer points 3 and 4)

7) The one, who likes Grey or Brown, do not live in Bihar.

(Refer point 3)

8) The one, who likes Pink, do not live in Karnataka or Assam.

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9) S does not live in Karnataka.

S does not like Pink.

111. C
Sol. In the passage, the author has talked about the disadvantages of compelling chldren to read books recommended by
teachers. There are a lot of negative impacts of this on their mind. So, the correct answer is option C.
112. B
Sol. The whole passage revolves around the disadvantages of making the students read a book advised by their teacher.
Few students might like it for its content, few might not like it. Those who don't like it still read it for many reasons.
They might read it to please their teacher and many will just persuade themselves that the book is good and there is
something wrong with them. So, we can say that the aim of the passage is to educate us about what should not be
done when we ask children to read. Hence, option B is correct.
113. D
Sol. As per the context of the passage, the "mistake" has been refered to the teacher's recommending any particular book
to his/her students. This book might not be suitable for their minds or it might be for adults. So, the correct answer is
option D.
114. A
Sol. The line of the passage, "a number of boys and girls, anxious to please their teacher get the book and read it" gives us
the answer of the question. Option C is the correct answer.
115. C
Sol. In the passage, the author says that a book is like food. If food suitable only for adults is given to a young child, it
will cause many problems like indigestion, violent stomach–ache, and a permanent dislike for that food. So, the
correct answer is option C.
116. D
Sol. Eligible = having the right to do or obtain something.

Intangible = unable to be touched.

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Illegible = not clear enough to be read.

Legible = clear enough to read.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

117. D
Sol. Imperialist = of or relating to imperialism.

Impression = a vague idea in which some confidence is placed.

Implore = call upon in supplication; entreat.

Imposter = a person who dishonestly pretends to be somebody else.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

118. B
Sol. The idiom "have all your ducks in a row" means to have made all the preparations needed to do something; to be
well organized. Thus, option B conveys the correct meaning of the idiom.
119. D
Sol. It means failure to understand something. Something so strange or difficult that it becomes tougher or even
impossible to understand it.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
120. B
Sol. Instead of present continuous tense, the tense here should be present simple. Since it can be generalized that most
students like Ice-Cream, it is better to switch to present simple tense.
121. D
Sol. Direction: The sentence is already grammatically correct, hence no improvement is needed.
122. A
Sol. Since subject word 'show' is singular, use singular verb 'has'.
123. A
Sol. The sentence is grammatically incorrect and the error lies in part A. The auxiliaries followed by the bare infinitive
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form of the main verb can be used in affirmative sentences to express emphasis. Therefore, either replace the main-
verb 'helped' with its base form 'help' or omit the auxiliary 'did'.
124. C
Sol. The sentence is grammatically incorrect and error lies in option C.
The use of "beside" is incorrect here and should be replaced by "besides".
Even though these words are very close to each other in spelling, it's best to observe the distinctions that
separate beside vs. besides.
Beside is a preposition that means nearby; at the side of.
Besides is an adverb and a preposition and means in addition to; as well and apart from.
The correct sentence will be: He says that he has a car besides a scooter. 

125. C
Sol. Here, replace me (Objective case) by I (Nominative).
126. C
Sol. Option C has the correctly spelt word as "deplorable" which means deserving strong condemnation; completely
unacceptable.

Meaning of other words with their correct spellings are :-

Toleration = the practice of tolerating something, in particular differences of opinion or behaviour.

Independent = free from outside control; not subject to another's authority.

Absolute = not qualified or diminished in any way; total.

127. A
Sol. Option A has the correctly spelt word. Relinquish means to give up something such as a responsibility or claim.
128. A
Sol. In the passage, it is given that the children retured from the hills long after the supper-time. Supper time is ususally
referred to the time between 5pm to 7pm. This gives us the clue that the children used to spend the greater part of the
day on hills. So, the correct answer is "for the greater part of the day".
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
129. D
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Sol. In the context of the passage, the word "restrained" means to hold back from action. So, the correct answer is "held
back".
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
130. C
Sol. The author was afraid of heights. However, the author still used to go onto the hills. This gives us the sense that the
author was determined to overcome the fear of heights. So, the correct answer is "determination".
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
131. A
Sol. The first line of the passage tells us that the father of the author was a busy and absent-minded person, so, the correct
answer is "he was always occupied".
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
132. C
Sol. It is clear from the passage that like his mother, the author also had fear of heights. But the mother never restrained
the author to go onto the hills. The author was also determined to overcome his fear. So, the correct answer is  "His
mother's fear of heights spurred on the author to conquer the same fear in himself."
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
133. A
Sol. The first part of the sentence would be (1) as it consists of the subject of the sentence. Segment (4) mentions the
habit and it will be the next part. Segment (3) and (1) complete the whole sentence. Therefore, the sequence is 2431.
134. A
Sol. The correct and complete sentence is "Change your thoughts and you change your world. To solve such para
jumbles, we can take the help of option. The correct order of the sentences is 34251.
135. B
Sol. Let us understand the meaning of the given words:
Kemp = a short, coarse, brittle fiber, used chiefly in the manufacture of carpets.
Lint = short, fine fibres which separate from the surface of cloth or yarn during processing.
Polygon = a plane figure with at least three straight sides and angles.
Plethora = a large or excessive amount of something.
Mint = a place where the new coins of a country are made.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
136. D
Sol. Let's first learn the meanings of the words :-
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Blunder = to make a stupid or careless mistake.

Blemish = a mark that detracts from appearance, like a pimple or a scar.

The other two words are self-explanatory. 

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

137. B
Sol. Let's understand the meaning of the given words:

Unruly = noisy and lacking in restraint or discipline.

Cooperative = ready to work with others.

Disobedient = refusing to obey rules or someone in authority.

Complaint = a statement that something is unsatisfactory or unacceptable.

Yielding = inclined to yield to argument, influence or control.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

138. D
Sol. Let's understand the meaning of the given words:-

Rise = move from a lower position to a higher one

e.g. "She pushed back her chair and rose"

Rash = acting or done without careful consideration of the possible consequences

Smooth= having an even and regular surface

Pride = the consciousness of one's own dignity

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Fall = move from a higher to a lower level

e.g. "She fell down at school today"

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

139. D
Sol. Let us understand the meaning of the given words :- 

Chivalrous = courteous and gallant, especially towards women.

Cowardly = lacking courage.

e.g. This was a particularly brutal and cowardly attack.

Gallant = (of a person or their behaviour) brave; heroic.

e.g. The defenders of the fort made a gallant stand.

Amorous = showing, feeling, or relating to sexual desire.

Indispensably = absolutely necessary, essential, or requisite.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

140. D
Sol. Let's first learn the meaning of the words:

Annex(शामिल करना) = add as an extra or subordinate part.

Adjoin(जुड़ा होना) = to add or join something to.

 
Firm(दृढ़) = solid or resilient.
 
Steadfast(स्थिर) = resolutely or dutifully firm and unwavering.
 
Disjoin(अलग करना) = to separate or disunite something.
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Hence, option D is the correct answer.

141. B
Sol. Speed of A = 27 km/hr = 7.5 m/s

Time taken by A to complete the race = 225/7.5 = 30 seconds

B took 3 more seconds to complete the race and A also gave him a start of 27 m.

Therefore, distance travelled by B in 33 (30 + 3) seconds = 198 m (225m – 27m)

Hence, speed of B = 198/33 = 6 m/s = 21.6 km/hr

142. C
Sol. Let A’s income = ₹ a and B’s income = ₹ b

Now,

143. D
Sol.  
 

Valid votes = 244000 ×  = 234240

Number of valid votes polled in favour of the candidate

= 234240
= 105408
 
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144. A
Sol. let the nos. be a, (a+2), (a+4)

Average of these 3 numbers =

According to question,

a+(a+2)+(a+4) = (a+2)+20

a = 8, (a+2) =10, (a+4) = 12

Hence, the smallest no is 8.

145. A
Sol. Number of girls = x
Number of boys = 550 – x
 
ATQ –

 
Hence, option A is the correct response.
146. B
Sol. 1.05 CP – 0.90 CP=90
CP=Rs. 600

Profit(%)= * 100=20%
Hence, option B.
147. A
Sol. Let A's 1 day work = 2 units
Then, B's 1 day work = 1 unit
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(A+B)'s 1 day work = 3 units 

Total work = 18 × 3 = 54 units 

A alone will finish the work in = 54/2 = 27 days
148. D
Sol. Let, 100k is the sum of money to be deposite

D.

Difference in S.I. = (5 × 7 – 3 × 9)k = 475

⇒ 8k = 475

⇒ k = 475/8

100k = 100 × 475/8

= Rs. 5937.5.
149. C
Sol.  
Let the amount invested by Heena and Veena is 2k and 3k.
Let the time for which Veena had invested her amount = n months
According to the basic Partnership formula i.e. Ratio of Profits = Ratio of Investment × Time ,
we get
Profit ratio = 2k x 5: 3k x n

60 = 15n
n=4
150. B
Sol. Let the original fraction be x/y. 
Now, according to the question,
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