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HW 1 Sol

This document contains solutions to 4 problems from a homework assignment: 1) It proves a formula for the nth Fibonacci number using mathematical induction. 2) It derives a formula for the sum of cubes from 1 to n using known formulas, and proves it by induction. 3) It identifies a mistake in a "proof" that any two natural numbers are equal - the induction assumption does not apply when the numbers subtracted by 1 are not natural. 4) It proves a property of a sequence defined by Fn = 2^2^n + 1 holds for all n by induction, and uses this to prove the set of prime numbers is infinite.

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Indranil Ghosh
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
12 views3 pages

HW 1 Sol

This document contains solutions to 4 problems from a homework assignment: 1) It proves a formula for the nth Fibonacci number using mathematical induction. 2) It derives a formula for the sum of cubes from 1 to n using known formulas, and proves it by induction. 3) It identifies a mistake in a "proof" that any two natural numbers are equal - the induction assumption does not apply when the numbers subtracted by 1 are not natural. 4) It proves a property of a sequence defined by Fn = 2^2^n + 1 holds for all n by induction, and uses this to prove the set of prime numbers is infinite.

Uploaded by

Indranil Ghosh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Solutions to selected problems from homework 1

(1) The Fibonacci sequence is the sequence of numbers F (0), F (1), . . .


defined by the following recurrence relations:
F (0) = 1, F (1) = 1, F (n) = F (n − 1) + F (n − 2) for all n > 1.
For example, the first few Fibonacci numbers are 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, . . .
Prove that
√ √
1 h 1 + 5 n+1  1 − 5 n+1 i
F (n) = √ −
5 2 2
for all n ≥ 0.
Solution
We prove the formula by induction on n.
First let’s check that the formula holds h
for n√=0 and n = 1.
√ 1 i
1
For n = 0 we have F (0) = 1 and √15 1+2 5 − 1−2 5 =
√ √ √
1+ 5−(1+ 5)
√1
5 2 = 22√55 = 1.
Thus the formula holds for n = 0. h √ 2  √ 2 i
√1 1+ 5 1− 5
For n = 1 we have F (1) = 1 and 5 2 − 2 =
√ √ √
6+2 5−(6−2 5) 4√5
√1 = = 1.
5 4 4 5
Thus the formula also holds for n = 1.
Induction step. Suppose the formula holds for all k = 0, 1, . . . n
for some n ≥ 1. We need to show that
√ √
1 h 1 + 5 n+2  1 − 5 n+2 i
F (n + 1) = √ −
5 2 2
√ √
Using that 1+2 5 and 1−2 5 satisfy the equation 1 + x = x2 we
compute
By the induction assumption
√ √ √ √
1 h 1 + 5 n  1 − 5 n i 1 h 1 + 5 n+1  1 − 5 n+1 i
F (n+1) = F (n−1)+F (n) = √ − +√ −
5 2 2 5 2 2
√ √ √
 1 − 5 n √
1 h 1 + 5 n 1+ 5 1− 5 i
=√ (1 + )− (1 + )
5 2 2 2 2
√ √ √ √
1 h 1 + 5 n 1 + 5 2  1 − 5 n 1 − 5 2 i
=√ ( ) − ( )
5 2 2 2 2
√ √
1 h 1 + 5 n+2  1 − 5 n+2 i
=√ −
5 2 2
(2) Using the method from class find the formula for the sum
13 + 2 3 + . . . + n3
Then prove the formula you’ve found by mathematical induction.
Solution
1
2

We’ve proved in class that 1 + 2 + . . . + n = n(n+1)


2 and 12 + 22 +
. . . + n2 = n(n+1)(2n+1)
6 .
Let’s find an such that a1 + a2 + . . . + an = n4 . We have n4 =
(a1 + . . . + an−1 ) + an = (n − 1)4 + an and hence an = n4 − (n − 1)4 =
n4 − (n4 − 4n3 + 6n2 − 4n + 1) = 4n3 − 6n2 + 4n − 1.
Thus
n4 = (4·13 −6·12 +4·1−1)+(4·23 −6·22 +4·2−1)+. . .+(4·n3 −6·n2 +4·n−1) =

= 4(13 + 23 + . . . + n3 ) − 6(12 + 22 + . . . n2 ) + 4(1 + 2 + . . . + n) − n =


n(n + 1)(2n + 1) n(n + 1)
= 4(13 + 23 + . . . + n3 ) − 6 · +4· −n
6 2
Therefore,

4(13 + 23 + . . . + n3 ) = n4 + n(n + 1)(2n + 1) − 2n(n + 1) + n


n4 + n(n + 1)(2n + 1) − 2n(n + 1) + n n(n + 1) 2
13 + 23 + . . . + n3 = =
4 2
Now that we have found the formula we can also prove it by induc-
tion.
First check that it holds for n = 1: 13 = 1 = ( 1·2 2
2 ) . This verifies
the base of induction. 2
Induction step: Suppose 13 + 23 + . . . + n3 = n(n+1) 2 for some
n ≥ 1. 2
We need to show that 13 + 23 + . . . + n3 + (n + 1)3 = (n+1)(n+2)
2 .
3 3 3 3 n(n+1) 2 3
We have 1 + 2 + . . . + n + (n + 1) = 2 + (n + 1) =
(n+1)(n+2) 2
2 . .
(3) Find a mistake in the following ”proof”.
Claim. Any two natural numbers are equal.
We’ll prove the following statement by induction in n: Any two
natural numbers ≤ n are equal.
We prove it by induction in n.
a) The statement is trivially true for n = 1.
b) Suppose it’s true for n ≥ 1. Let a, b be two natural numbers
≤ n + 1. Then a − 1 ≤ n and b − 1 ≤ n. Therefore, by the
induction assumption
a−1=b−1
Adding 1 to both sides of the above equality we get that a =
b. Thus the statement is true for n + 1. By the principle of
mathematical induction this means that it’s true for all natural
n. .
3

Solution
The mistake is in step b) in the implication that since a − 1 ≤
n, b − 1 ≤ n they must be equal by the induction assumption. The
induction assumption is only valid for natural numbers which are all
≥ 1. However a − 1, b − 1 need not natural. one or both of them
can be 0 which is not a natural number and therefore the induction
assumption need not be applicable to a − 1, b − 1. For example this
happens if n = 1, a = 1, b = 2. Then a − 1 = 0, b − 1 = 1.
(4) #14 from the book.
Solution
2 n
(a) We have that Fn = 2 + 1 for n = 0, 1, . . . and we need to show
that F0 · . . . · Fn−1 + 2 = Fn for n ≥ 1. We do this by induction
in n.
0
First we check the formula for n = 1. F0 = 22 + 1 = 21 + 1 =
1
3, F1 = 22 + 1 = 5 and F0 + 2 = 3 + 2 = 5 = F1 . Thus the
formula holds for n = 1.
Induction step. Suppose we know that F0 · . . . · Fn−1 + 2 = Fn
for some n ≥ 1. We need to show that F0 · . . . · Fn + 2 = Fn+1 .
n+1 n n
We have Fn+1 = 22 + 1 = 22·2 + 1 = (22 )2 + 1 = (Fn −
1)2 + 1 = Fn2 − 2Fn + 1 + 1 = Fn (Fn − 2) + 2. By the induction
assumption Fn − 2 = F0 · . . . · Fn−1 and therefore
Fn+1 = (Fn − 2)Fn + 2 = F0 · . . . · Fn−1 · Fn + 2.
(b) Let us first prove the following
Claim Fn , Fm have no common prime factors for n 6= m.
Let m < n. Suppose p is a common prime factor for both
Fn , Fm . Then p|Fn and p|F0 . . . Fn−1 because the latter product
contains Fm as a factor. Thus we can write Fn = ap, F0 . . . Fn−1 =
bp for some natural a, b. By part a) we know that F0 . . . Fn−1 +
2 = Fn which means that bp + 2 = ap. Hence 2 = ap − bp =
p(a − b) and p divides 2. Therefore p = 2 since that’s the only
divisor of 2 bigger than 1. However p can not be 2 since all Fer-
mat numbers are odd. This is a contradiction and hence Fn , Fm
have no common prime divisors. This proves the Claim.
Next, for any n ≥ 1 pick pn to be some prime divisor of Fn .
This gives us a sequence of prime numbers p1 , p2 , p3 , . . .. By the
Claim above they are all distinct which implies that the set of
prime numbers is infinite.

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