609-GEOLOGY

(FINAL)

1. The Earth was formed

(A) 13.8 billion years ago
(B) 4.56 billion years ago
(C) 2.50 billion years ago
(D) 0.54 billion years ago

2. Which of the following planet is predominantly composed of silicate rock materials?

(A) Jupiter
(B) Saturn
(C) Venus
(D) Uranus

3. The Universe is predominantly composed of

(A) Ni, Cr
(B) Si, Al
(C) Li, Be
(D) H, He

4. Mohorovicic discontinuity below the continental crust is situated

approximately at which of the following depths?

(A) 35 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 70 km
(D) 220 km

5. The seismic wave velocity is highest in

(A) Inner core

(B) Lower mantle
(C) Upper mantle
(D) Lower crust
6. Which of the following elements is the most abundant in earth?

(A) Silicon
(B) Iron
(C) Magnesium
(D) Oxygen

7. The average density of the earth is

3
(A) 3.20 g/cm
3
(B) 2.50 g/cm
3
(C) 5.52 g/cm
3
(D) 4.00 g/cm

8. Which of the following layer/discontinuity is responsible for

tectonic movement of lithospheric plate?

(A) Moho
(B) LVZ
(C) D”
(D) Conrad

9. Which of the following tectonic domain show highest heat flow?

(A) Subduction zone

(B) Stable craton
(C) Mid oceanic ridge
(D) Collisional orogen

10. A radioactive isotope A decays to radioactive isotope B with half life of 10 thousand
years. If initially 1000 atoms of A were present, how many atoms of A and B will be
respectively present after 30 thousand years?

(A) 500, 500

(B) 250, 750
(C) 750, 250
(D) 125, 875

11. The tilt of the earth’s rotation axis with reference to perpendicular of orbital plane is

(A) 17.5°
(B) 23.5°
(C) 27.5°
(D) 32.5°
12. San Andreas fault represents

(A) Continental transform fault

(B) Oceanic transform fault
(C) Transcurrent fault
(D) Normal fault

13. Which of the following Earth’s feature is NOT related to plate tectonics?

(A) Spreading centre

(B) Hotspot
(C) Island arc
(D) Collisional mountain belt

14. The supercontinent Pangea came into existence during ……………….. period.

(A) Cambrian
(B) Silurian
(C) Carboniferous
(D) Triassic

15. Find the hardest mineral from the following.

(A) Plagioclase
(B) Microcline
(C) Quartz
(D) Corrundum

16. The mineral ……………….. do not show double refraction.

(A) Quartz
(B) Fluorite
(C) Calcite
(D) Apatite

17. Which of the mineral will NOT yield streak in a streak plate?

(A) Hematite
(B) Calcite
(C) Galena
(D) Topaz
18. Which is the highest pressure polymorph of quartz?

(A) Stishovite
(B) Coesite
(C) Cristobalite
(D) Tridymite

19. Which of the following mineral pair is NOT a polymorph?

(A) Pyrite ‒ Marcasite

(B) Andalusite ‒ Kyanite
(C) Albite ‒ Anorthite
(D) Calcite ‒ Aragonite

20. Which of the following minerals belongs to tektosilicates?

(A) Hornblende
(B) Albite
(C) Biotite
(D) Pyroxene

21. Identify the phosphate mineral from this group.

(A) Fluorite
(B) Apatite
(C) Magnetite
(D) Calcite

22. If a symmetry element is present at a lattice point in a crystal, then

(A) the same element would be present at each lattice point

(B) it need not be present in its unit-cell
(C) it would be absent from some of the lattice points
(D) its external manifestation would depend on the physical property of the crystal

23. Which of the following symmetry point groups belongs to the orthorhombic system?

(A) 222
(B) 322
(C) 432
(D) 622
24. A body diagonal of a simple cube of the Normal Class of the Isometric system is a

(A) 1-fold axis of rotation

(B) 2-fold axis of rotation
(C) 3-fold axis of rotation
(D) 4-fold axis of rotation

25. What point group would result if a center of symmetry is added to point group 2 mm?

(A) 2mm
(B) 2/m 22
(C) 2/m2/m2/m
(D) m22

26. The symbol for the zone axis containing the faces (010), (110) and (1 10) is

(A) [100]
(B) [010]
(C) [001]
(D) [1 10]

27. What is the Weiss symbol for a face whose Miller index is (341)?

(A) 4a : 3b : 12c
(B) 3a : 4b : 1c
(C) 1a : 4b : 3c
(D) 4a : 3b : 1c

28. In crystal class 2/m if 2-fold axis is along the b-axis, then the face (011) would belong
to which of the following forms?

(A) {011} dome

(B) {011} sphenoid
(C) {011} prism
(D) {011} pyramid

29. Angle between two sets of 2-fold axes in point group 622 is

(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
30. Which one of the following crystal systems has the maximum types of unit cells?

(A) Isometric
(B) Tetragonal
(C) Orthorhombic
(D) Monoclinic

31. Which of the following crystal defects may lead to development of

slip planes under stress?

(A) Schottky defect

(B) Frenkel defect
(C) Impurity defect
(D) Edge dislocation

32. For which of the following crystallographic systems, face (001) is not necessarily
perpendicular to the C-axis?

(A) Cubic
(B) Hexagonal
(C) Tetragonal
(D) Triclinic

33. A primitive unit cell contains

(A) One lattice point

(B) 2 lattice points
(C) 3 lattice points
(D) 4 lattice points

34. The low-pressure polymorph of the alumino-silicate is

(A) Sillimanite
(B) Kyanite
(C) Epidote
(D) Andalusite

35. Which of the following is a sodic amphibole?

(A) Cummingtonite
(B) Tremolite
(C) Pargasite
(D) Glaucophane
36. In India, economic chromite ore deposit is situated at

(A) Malanjkhand, Madhya Pradesh

(B) Zawar, Rajasthan
(C) Sukinda, Orissa
(D) Ukhrul, Manipur

37. Which of the following process is responsible for formation of

porphyry type copper ore deposits?

(A) Sedimentary
(B) Magmatic
(C) Magmatic hydrothermal
(D) Supergene enrichment

38. Largest copper ore deposit of India is situated at

(A) Malanjkhand, Madhya Pradesh

(B) Khetri, Rajasthan
(C) Surda, Jharkand
(D) Mosabani, Jharkhand

39. Find the odd one amongst the following copper ore minerals.

(A) Chalcopyrite
(B) Cuprite
(C) Chalcocite
(D) Bornite

40. Which of the following represent chemical composition of pyrrhotite?

(A) FeS2
(B) FeS
(C) Fe1 – XS
(D) Fe1 + XS

41. Which one of the following is the most abundant metal in the Earth’s crust?

(A) Chromium
(B) Manganese
(C) Titanium
(D) Iron
42. Which one of the following occur as native metal in the Earth’s crust?

(A) Copper
(B) Gold
(C) Iron
(D) Zinc

43. Which of the following metals do NOT form sulphide mineral?

(A) Copper
(B) Uranium
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Nickel

44. Which of the following is example of syngenetic ore deposit?

(A) Banded iron ore deposit

(B) VMS type Pb-Zn deposit
(C) SEDEX type Pb-Zn deposit
(D) Lode gold deposit

45. Bauxite is an example of

(A) Magmatic ore deposit

(B) Residual ore deposit
(C) Placer deposit
(D) Hydrothermal ore deposit

46. The fauna which comprises exclusively of active swimmers is described as

(A) Plankton
(B) Nekton
(C) Benthic
(D) Pelagic

47. Echinoid fauna was evolved during

(A) Cambrian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Silurian
(D) Devonian
48. Echinoid fauna represent following environmental conditions

(A) Marine
(B) Estuarine
(C) Lacustrine
(D) Terrestrial

49. Lamellibranchs with two unequal adductors are called

(A) Isomyaria
(B) Aniosomyria
(C) Monomyria
(D) Dimyaria

50. The criteria for becoming index fossil is that the organism lived for a

(A) brief time over a wide area

(B) brief time over a small area
(C) long time over a small area
(D) long time over a wide area

51. Which of the following Era is termed as ‘The Age of the Reptiles’?

(A) Mesozoic
(B) Cenozoic
(C) Paleozoic
(D) Tertiary

52. Trace fossils are also known as ……………….. fossils.

(A) Reworked
(B) Ichno
(C) Chemical
(D) Pseudo

53. Two valves of Brachiopoda are jointed at

(A) Posterior
(B) Didductor
(C) Hinge line
(D) Commissure line
54. Gastropoda exhibit ……………….. symmetry.

(A) Bilateral
(B) Radial
(C) Biradial
(D) No symmetry

55. What is the time of extinction of Ammonoids?

(A) Lower Carboniferous

(B) Upper Jurassic
(C) Upper Cretaceous
(D) Middle Permian

56. The thorax and the pygidium of a Trilobite is differentiated according to their

(A) shape and size

(B) the nature of furrows
(C) movable and immovable character
(D) None of the above

57. Belemnites belongs to

(A) Bivalvia
(B) Gastropoda
(C) Brachiopoda
(D) Cephalopoda

58. Which of the following Mollusca exclusively live under marine conditions?

(A) Bivalvia
(B) Cephalopoda
(C) Gastropoda
(D) Slugs

59. Modern day squids belong to following class

(A) Cephalopoda
(B) Bivalvia
(C) Gastropoda
(D) Scaphopoda
60. ‘Aristotle Lantern’ is a part of ……………….. of Echinoidea.

(A) periproct
(B) peristome
(C) apical disc
(D) corona

61. Nautilus is an example of

(A) Living fossil

(B) Index fossil
(C) Ichnofossil
(D) Body fossil

62. Stromatolites are ……………….. types of fossils

(A) Body fossils

(B) Trace fossils
(C) Living fossils
(D) Mold fossils

63. Taphonomy is a branch of palaeontology that deals with

(A) reconstruction of paleo-environments by means of fossils

(B) study of types of fossils
(C) study of fossil pollens and spores
(D) study of the conditions of preservation of fossils

64. The process through which hard parts of organisms either change to more stable
minerals or small crystals turn into larger crystals, is termed as

(A) Recrystallization
(B) Replacement
(C) Permineralization
(D) Carbonization

65. Hinge structure of the Bivalvia in which cardinal and lateral teeth are present is

(A) taxodont
(B) heterodont
(C) desmodont
(D) schizodont
66. The most fundamental unit of lithostraigraphy is

(A) supergroup
(B) group
(C) formation
(D) member

67. The oldest rock from India is recorded in

(A) Dharwar craton

(B) Bastar craton
(C) Singhbhum craton
(D) Aravalli craton

68. The Eparchean unconformity denote boundary between

(A) Hadean and Archean

(B) Archean and Proterozoic
(C) Proterozoic and Cambrian
(D) Permian and Triassic

69. The Deccan basalt was erupted ~65 million years ago,
the time represent boundary between

(A) Precambrian and Cambrian

(B) Permian and Triassic
(C) Triassic and Jurrasic
(D) Cretaceous and Paleogene

70. Which of the following stratigraphic boundary represent most

profound changes in life forms?

(A) Archean-Proterozoic
(B) Mesoproterozoic-Neoproterozoic
(C) Neoproterozoic-Cambrian
(D) Paleozoic-Mesozoic

71. Vempalle Dolomite Formation belong to

(A) Aravalli supergroup

(B) Cudappah supergroup
(C) Vindhyan supergroup
(D) Chattisgarh supergroup
72. Muth quartzites of Spiti valley was deposited during

(A) Cambrian
(B) Orovician
(C) Silurian
(D) Devonian

73. Majority of world’s petroleum resources are restricted to

the following geological time period

(A) Mesozoic
(B) Permo-Carboniferous
(C) Cambro-Ordovician
(D) Neoproterozoic

74. The majority of economic coal bearing strata in India is found in

(A) Vindhyan basin

(B) Cuddapah basin
(C) Gondwana basin
(D) Siwalik basin

75. Which of the following lithostratigraphic unit record evidences of glaciation?

(A) Talchir boulder beds

(B) Karharbari conglomerate
(C) Barakar sandstone
(D) Raniganj sandstone

76. Intersection of an inclined plane with an imaginary horizontal surface is known as

(A) pitch
(B) strike
(C) dip
(D) plunge

77. The true dip direction of an inclined plane is always

(A) parallel to the strike

(B) perpendicular to the strike
(C) at 45° to the strike
(D) oblique to the strike
78. A fold with horizontal fold axis and vertical axial plane will be

(A) inclined horizontal fold

(B) upright plunging fold
(C) upright horizontal fold
(D) recumbent fold

79. Surface joining adjoining inflection lines of a fold is called

(A) median surface

(B) enveloping surface
(C) axial surface
(D) form surface

80. The relative displacement between two adjacent points on either side of
the fault plane is known as

(A) offset
(B) off lap
(C) net slip
(D) throw

81. Pitch of a linear structure represents the angle measured between

(A) the linear structure and the strike line of the bed
(B) the linear structure and dip direction of the bed
(C) the linear structure and its horizontal projection
(D) the linear structure and true geographic north

82. The axial plane of a recumbent fold is

(A) horizontal
(B) vertical
(C) inclined
(D) curved

83. The distance between median surface and adjacent enveloping surface is
a measure of fold

(A) wavelength
(B) amplitude
(C) arc length
(D) axial thickness
84. Elongation (ε) is measured as the ratio between

(A) final length to change in length

(B) change in length to final length
(C) final length to initial length
(D) change in length to initial length

85. An oblique slip fault where hanging wall moves down and to the left
with respect to footwall is known as

(A) left reverse

(B) right reverse
(C) left normal
(D) right normal fault

86. Hanging wall of a fault always lies on the ……………….. of the fault plane.

(A) up-dip direction

(B) down-dip direction
(C) along the strike direction
(D) 30° anticlockwise from the strike direction

87. Which of the following faults generally do NOT cause change in topography?

(A) Normal fault

(B) Reverse fault
(C) Oblique slip fault
(D) Strike slip fault

88. Normal faults are characteristic feature of

(A) convergent plate margin

(B) divergent plate margin
(C) passive plate margin
(D) transform plate margin

89. Horst and graben is characteristic feature of

(A) thrust fault

(B) strike slip fault
(C) intersecting normal faults
(D) conjugate normal faults
90. Stratigraphic inversion is a common feature in the

(A) normal limb of an overturned fold

(B) overturned limb of an overturned fold
(C) short limb of an asymmetric fold
(D) long limb of an asymmetric fold

91. Pyroclastic rocks form by

(A) a lava cooling on the surface of the Earth

(B) violent, explosive volcanic eruption
(C) a magma cooling slowly in the subsurface
(D) two phases of cooling, one fast and one slow

92. Which of following minerals crystallize first during cooling and

solidification of basaltic magma?

(A) Andesine
(B) Olivine
(C) Quartz
(D) Pyroxene

93. The volcanic equivalent of granite is

(A) Andesite
(B) Dacite
(C) Rhyolite
(D) Basalt

94. The rate of cooling of a magma or lava is reflected by the ……………….. of the rock.

(A) mineralogy
(B) texture
(C) colour
(D) density

95. The difference between Pahoehoe and aa lava flow is that

(A) Pahoehoe flow would have a smooth surface but aa flow

would have rough and clinkery surface
(B) Aa flow would have smooth surface but pahoehoe flow
would have rough surface
(C) Aa flow would have ropy structures
(D) Pahoehoe flow would be completely devoid of vesicles
96. The mineralogical composition of Upper Mantle is

(A) Olivine + Plagioclase + Hornblende

(B) Biotite + Plagioclase + Quartz
(C) Olivine + Orthopyroxene + Clinopyroxene + an Aluminous phase
(D) Olivine + Spinel + Plagioclase + a Calcic phase

97. Temperature inside the Earth

(A) increases constantly with approximately 25°c / km rate

(B) increases slowly within crust but rapidly in mantle as depth increases
(C) increases rapidly within crust but follows an adiabatic gradient in
mantle as depth increases
(D) increases rapidly in crust but decreases in mantle as depth increases

98. In a thin section of extrusive igneous rock, well developed plagioclase

crystals are surrounded by smaller grains of pyroxene and plagioclase,
the resultant texture is called

(A) Poikilitic
(B) Porphyritic
(C) Hyaloporphyritic
(D) Xenoblastic

99. The plutonic equivalent of trachyte is

(A) Granite
(B) Gabbro
(C) Diorite
(D) Syenite

100. Why do magmas rise toward Earth's surface?

(A) Magmas are more viscous than solid rocks in the crust and upper mantle
(B) Most magmas are richer in silica than most crustal and upper mantle rocks
(C) Magmas, being melts and having gases, are less dense than the adjacent
solid rock
(D) Magmas are denser than the surrounding rocks

101. Steep sided volcanoes composed of both lavas and fragmental materials are termed as

(A) Composite
(B) Dome
(C) Maar
(D) Shield
102. Which of the following magma has highest temperature?

(A) Rhyolitic
(B) Basaltic
(C) Andesitic
(D) Komatiitic

103. A thin section of dolerite dyke rock show that plagioclase laths are partly enclosed in
pyroxene crystals, the texture is termed as

(A) Ophitic
(B) Sub-ophitic
(C) Porphyritic
(D) Graphic

104. A coarse grained plutonic rock is composed of 45% quartz, 35% alkali feldspar and
20% plagioclase. The rock can be classified as

(A) Tonalite
(B) Granodiorite
(C) Granite
(D) Alkali feldspar granite

105. The following is the example of silica under-saturated rock

(A) Biotite granite

(B) Nepheline syenite
(C) Monzodiorite
(D) Tonalite

106. Different mineral assemblages of rocks metamorphosed under

the same physical conditions (P & T) represent

(A) different metamorphic grade

(B) different bulk composition
(C) different zones of metamorphism
(D) different types of metamorphism

107. In regional metamorphism, the source of increased temperature and pressure is

(A) a local intrusive heat source

(B) impact metamorphism
(C) increase in temperature with increasing depth of burial
(D) due to increased rate of radioactive decay
108. Within a 50 km traverse you move from a shale into a slate into a phyllite.
You are walking in the direction of

(A) increasing metamorphic grade

(B) decreasing metamorphic grade
(C) increasing degree of contact metamorphism
(D) decreasing degree of contact metamorphism

109. The protolith of marble is

(A) Granite
(B) Limestone
(C) Sandstone
(D) Shale

110. A rock that has undergone cataclastic metamorphism would most likely display

(A) preserved sedimentary layering

(B) pulverized rock fragments
(C) new minerals
(D) large olivine crystals

111. What is the most prominent textural feature of regional metamorphic rocks?

(A) Lineation
(B) Bedding
(C) Cataclasis
(D) Foliation

112. Slaty cleavage results regional metamorphism of a pelitic sedimentary rock by

(A) formation of fine grained micaceous minerals along a preferred orientation

(B) formation of pressure solution of quartz
(C) replacement of quartz by mica along the crenulations
(D) precipitation of quartz in pressure shadow range

113. Which of the following index mineral forms at the highest metamorphic grade?

(A) Chlorite
(B) Biotite
(C) Sillmanite
(D) Garnet
114. Which of the following metamorphic rocks forms in the forearc of a subduction zone?

(A) Green schist

(B) Blue schist
(C) Gneiss
(D) Granofels

115. Which of the following rocks can be considered gradational between

an igneous rock and a metamorphic rock?

(A) Gneiss
(B) Quartzite
(C) Migmatite
(D) Eclogite

116. Which of the following show highest degree of sorting?

(A) River sand

(B) Beach sand
(C) Aeolian sand
(D) Colluvial sand

117. Which of the following clastic rock show highest degree of textural and
mineralogical maturity?

(A) Arkose
(B) Greywacke
(C) Quartz wacke
(D) Quartz arenite

118. Which of the following sedimentary structure can NOT be used for finding
paleocurrent direction?

(A) Trough cross bed

(B) Current ripple
(C) Flute marks
(D) Graded bedding

119. In a geological succession a lagoonal mudstone is overlain by well sorted beach

sandstone, this may be the result of

(A) transgression
(B) regression
(C) aggradation
(D) offlap
120. Which of the following sedimentary structure can be used for
identifying top and bottom of asequence?

(A) Planar cross bedding

(B) Trough cross bedding
(C) Plane lamination
(D) Current ripples

121. A clastic sedimentary rock contain 60% quartz, 35% feldspar,

5% rock fragment, the rock is

(A) Quartz arenite

(B) Sub arkose
(C) Arkose
(D) Greywacke

122. Which of the following bedform represent highest stream power?

(A) Ripple
(B) Dune
(C) Plane bed
(D) Antidune

123. Spherical carbonate particles having concentric or radial internal structure, are called

(A) Intraclasts
(B) Fossils
(C) Oolites
(D) Pellets

124. Presence of Herringbone cross beds in sedimentary rocks indicate deposition under

(A) fluvial condition

(B) shallow marine tidal condition
(C) deep marine turbidity current
(D) shallow marine geostrophic current

125. Which one of the following is NOT a depositional feature?

(A) Ripple
(B) Dune
(C) Flute marks
(D) Cross bedding
126. An abrupt shift of a river segment to a new course (channel) is termed as

(A) stream piracy

(B) avulsion
(C) meander migration
(D) cutoff

127. Which of the following requires minimum velocity for entrainment in stream flow?

(A) Clay
(B) Silt
(C) Fine sand
(D) Gravel

128. Potholes are related to

(A) wave action

(B) glacial erosion
(C) fluvial erosion
(D) wind erosion

129. Which of the following is NOT an endogenic geomorphic process?

(A) Isostacy
(B) Exfoliation
(C) Orogenesis
(D) Epeirogenesis

130. Which of the following is related to glaciers?

(A) Thalweg
(B) Gorge
(C) Esker
(D) Pediment

131. Which of the following is NOT related to karst?

(A) Clint and gryke

(B) Zeugen
(C) Sink hole
(D) Polje
132. A drainage pattern that would develop on gently folded and eroded alternating
resistant and non-resistant strata is

(A) Dendritic
(B) Radial
(C) Trellis
(D) Deranged

133. Meandering streams deposit sand on the inside of a meander.

These deposits are termed as

(A) mid-channel bars

(B) point bars
(C) fluvial bars
(D) barrier bars

134. The total length of stream channels divided by the basin area is

(A) stream frequency

(B) drainage density
(C) bifurcation ratio
(D) relief

135. The sediment transport on hill slopes done by overland flow is termed as

(A) mass wasting

(B) slope wash
(C) sapping
(D) soil creep

136. Benioff zone is a dipping planar zone of earthquakes that coincides with

(A) subducting plate

(B) mid ocean ridges
(C) transform faults
(D) collisional mountains

137. The transfer of heat by the physical movement of material is called

(A) conduction
(B) convection
(C) radiation
(D) scattering
138. Magnetic material having negative magnetic susceptibility is termed

(A) Ferromagnetic
(B) Para magnetic
(C) Diamagnetic
(D) Ferrimagnetic

139. The principle of continents being in buoyant equilibrium is known as

(A) isostasy
(B) the principle of buoyant equilibrium
(C) elastic rebound theory
(D) None of the above

140. The value of Gravity becomes zero at

(A) the surface of the earth

(B) the centre of the earth
(C) the equator
(D) the poles

141. Natural earthquakes are generated due to

(A) plastic flow of rocks and release of plastic strain energy

(B) folding of rock layers
(C) sudden release of elastic strain energy during fracture propagation
(D) sudden release of viscous strain accumulated in rocks

142. Longitudinal waves cannot pass through

(A) air
(B) vacuum
(C) liquid
(D) solid

143. Geostationary satellites revolve around

(A) fixed height

(B) any height
(C) height depends on accuracy
(D) height depends on wavelength
144. A device which can record the reflected/emitted radiation is called

(A) camera
(B) scanner
(C) sensor
(D) None of the above

145. Among the following, which is an Indian satellite?

(A) Landsat
(B) SPOT
(C) IKONOS
(D) Cartosat

146. For getting stereovision, the forward overlap between successive photographs must be

(A) 30%
(B) more than 60%
(C) 30-60%
(D) no overlap

147. Porous and permeable formation that easily store and transmits water is called

(A) aquifer
(B) aquitard
(C) aquiclude
(D) aquifuge

148. During the drilling of a borehole, water is first encountered at 10 feet depth. Soon
after, water level stabilizes at 5 feet depth. Which of the following is true?

(A) Aquifer is unconfined

(B) Aquifer is anisotropic
(C) Aquifer is heterogeneous
(D) Aquifer is artesian

149. In a coastal aquifer, water table lies 5 m above the sea level. What would be the depth
of freshwater-saline water interface from the sea level?

(A) 100 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 200 m
(D) 250 m
150. A line connecting points of equal rainfall is

(A) isobar
(B) isotherm
(C) isohyet
(D) isochron
 FINAL ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 609 GEOLOGY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 D 61 A 91 B 121 C
2 C 32 D 62 B 92 B 122 D
3 D 33 A 63 D 93 C 123 C
4 A 34 D 64 A 94 B 124 B
5 B 35 D 65 B 95 A 125 C
6 D 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 B
7 C 37 C 67 C 97 C 127 B
8 B 38 A 68 B 98 B 128 C
9 C 39 B 69 D 99 D 129 B
10 D 40 C 70 C 100 C 130 C
11 B 41 D 71 B 101 A 131 B
12 A 42 B 72 D 102 D 132 C
13 B 43 B 73 A 103 B 133 B
14 C 44 A 74 C 104 C 134 B
15 D 45 B 75 A 105 B 135 B
16 B 46 B 76 B 106 B 136 A
17 D 47 B 77 B 107 C 137 B
18 A 48 A 78 C 108 A 138 C
19 C 49 B 79 A 109 B 139 A
20 B 50 A 80 C 110 B 140 B
21 B 51 A 81 A 111 D 141 C
22 A 52 B 82 A 112 A 142 B
23 A 53 C 83 B 113 C 143 A
24 C 54 D 84 D 114 B 144 C
25 C 55 C 85 C 115 C 145 D
26 C 56 C 86 B 116 C 146 B
27 A 57 D 87 D 117 D 147 A
28 C 58 B 88 B 118 D 148 D
29 A 59 A 89 D 119 A 149 C
30 C 60 B 90 B 120 B 150 C