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Module 13 B2
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Terms in this set (575)

1. Flaps at landing position c) decrease landing

a) decrease take off and
landing speeds,,
b) decrease take off..
c) decrease landing

2. Lowering of the flaps.. a) increases drag and lift

a) increases drag and lift
b) increases drag
c) increases lift

3. Pushing the left rudder a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing
pedal will rise
a) yaws the aircraft left and
possibly the right wing will rise
b) yaws the aircraft left and
possibly the left wing will rise
c) yaws the aircraft left but has
no effect on the

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Combine
4. What preventative c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment
Embed
maintenance can be carried
out in case
Report
of HIRF?
a) Check of aircraft structure..
b) Bonding and insulation tests
c) Shielding of all sensitive
equipment

5. What do ruddervators do? a) Control pitch and yaw

a) Control pitch and yaw
b) Control pitch and roll
c) Control yaw and roll

6. On a helicopter what is b) Movement of each blade horizontally about

dragging? their vertical
a) Movement of each blade hinge
vertically about their lateral
hinges
b) Movement of each blade
horizontally about their
vertical
hinge
c) Contact of the blade tips on
the ground

7. What controls pitch and roll c) Elevons

on a delta wing aircraft?
a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
c) Elevons

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8. If you add an aerial, to a) an internal

strengthen the airframe you
a) an internal
b) external
c) an intercostals

9. What does a trim tab do? a) Eases control loading for pilot
a) Eases control loading for
pilot
b) Allows the C of G to be
outside the normal limit
c) Provides finer control
movements by the pilot
column

10. How does a balance tab c) In the opposite

move?
a) In the same direction
proportional to the control
surface
it is attached to
b) In the same direction a
small amount
c) In the opposite

11. Satellite transmits updates c) 2nd orbit

on every
a) 13th orbit
b) 9th orbit
c) 2nd orbit

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12. Galley and cabin lighting b) AC bus

operate on
a) DC bus
b) AC bus
c) GND services

13. Buffer amp on transmitter is b) local oscillator and modulator

between
a) modulator and power amp
b) local oscillator and
modulator
c) local oscillator and
demodulator

14. Aircraft is North of VOR c) 180

beacon on a course of 090
RMI pointer,
points
a) 0
b) 090
c) 180

15. What is power at pulse? a) Peak power

a) Peak power
b) Pulsed power
c) Average power

16. What frequency increases b) Low

radar relative range?
a) High
b) Low
c) Radar relative range can not
be increased by frequency
change

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17. If radar pulse is reduced c) no effect

there is
a) increased relative range
b) reduced relative range
c) no effect

18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable a) 80 ohm

is connected to an 80 ohm
dipole
aerial, resistance would be
a) 80 ohm
b) 160 ohm
c) 0 ohm

19. Adding 6 foot of cable to c) 12 foot error

TX RX aerials on rad. alt would
give you
a) 3 ft error
b) 6ft error
c) 12 foot error

20. Maximum power on a wave c) number of joints and bends

guide is governed by the
a) widest width
b) narrowest width
c) number of joints and bends

21. Which side of the pilot is a) Left

the collective?
a) Left
b) Right
c) In-between

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22. What effect does the a) Increases lift

ground have on a helicopter?
a) Increases lift
b) No effect
c) Increases thrust

23. What damps vibrations on a) Bifilar damper

a helicopter?
a) Bifilar damper
b) Swash plate
c) Scissor levers

24. What design factors a) Weight of blade

govern RPM of a helicopter
rotor?
a) Weight of blade
b) Engine and gearbox
c) Fineness ratio

25. Relative velocity of rotor a) increases at fwd traveling blade

a) increases at fwd traveling
blade
b) increases at retreating
blade
c) is equal for all blades

26. When OAT increases what b) Decrease

happens to an helicopter
operating
ceiling?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No effect

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27. How many satellites b) 4

required for GNS?
a) 8
b) 4
c) 6 90º apart

28. If on a lead-acid battery, c) recharging

several cell checks of SG read
consistently low Battery needs
a) topping up with distilled
water
b) replacing
c) recharging

29. What happens when a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit

battery master is switched off
in flight?
a) Battery disconnected from
charge circuit
b) No effect
c) Electrical systems shut
down

30. In MLS, what is the beam b) 15 degrees

angle away from runway
a) 20 degrees
b) 15 degrees
c)10 degrees

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31. A full operational autopilot c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in
system will ensure that the event
a) the automatic pilot will of a single failure
automatically disengage
whenever
any failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will
automatically cause the
aircraft to
overshoot if any failure is
detected
c) the aircraft will continue its
automatic landing in the event
of a single failure

32. What is the 'Q' code for b) QDM

runway heading?
a) QDH
b) QDM
c) QDR

33. During an automatic b) radio altimeters

landing, the aircraft descent
rate is
sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers

34. The aircraft describing c) heading errors

signal, used during auto-land,
originates from
a) roll errors
b) localizer deviation errors
c) heading errors

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35. An automatic throttle, c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant

engaged in the EPR mode, will engine power
control setting
a) the aircraft altitude to
maintain constant engine input
pressure
b) the engine throttles to
maintain a constant
acceleration
rate
c) the engine throttles to
maintain a constant engine
power
setting

36. Overshoot or go-around b) after glide slope capture

mode can be initiated
a) only when autopilot is
engaged
b) after glide slope capture
c) at any time

37. The wheel height at which a) decision height

the approach path has been
visually
assessed as satisfactory to
continue the approach to a
landing is
known as the
a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height

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38. The International Civil c) operation down to and along the surface of the
Aviation Organization weather runway
category with RVR of 200 meters
3A is
a) operation down to and
along the surface of the
runway
without external reference
b) operation down to sixty
meters and RVR of 800 meters
c) operation down to and
along the surface of the
runway
with RVR of 200 meters

39. Runway visual range in c) one set of instruments the threshold of the
(RVR) is obtained by runway
a) information obtained the
local Meteorological Office
b) three sets of instruments at
the side of the runway
c) one set of instruments the
threshold of the runway

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40. A category 3B aircraft b) no decision height

using fail operational
automatic landing
equipment which fail
operational control and roll
out guidance
will have
a) a decision height of about
50 feet
b) no decision height
c)a decision height depending
upon the RVR

41. The purpose of a yaw c) block the Dutch roll frequency

damper is to
a) assist the aerodynamic
response
b) produce a coordinated turn
c) block the Dutch roll
frequency

42. In a triplex system, the b) the failed system and carry on with an auto land
detection of a failure of one
simplex
system will disconnect
a) all channels
b) the failed system and carry
on with an auto land
c) the failed system and
continue with a manual
approach

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43. Stand off errors on c) integrating course error

localizer approach are
washed out by
a) differentiating deviation
signal
b) integrating deviation signal
c) integrating course error

44. With auto-throttle selected b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM

in the SPEED MODE
compatible
autopilot modes are
a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
c) V/S and ALT ARM

45. Which modes are c) HDG + V/S HOLD

incompatible
a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
c) HDG + V/S HOLD

46. To carry out an autopilot b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed
check first
a) switch off all power
b) ensure all control surfaces
are unobstructed
c) switch on NAV receivers

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47. FAIL PASSIVE means b) system self monitors, failure does affect system
a) system self monitors, failure
does not affect system
b) system self monitors, failure
does affect system
c) system is duplicated, failure
allows aircraft to continue
auto-land

48. On the approach the c) fly parallel to the beam

autopilot loses the LOC signal;
the
aircraft would
a) fly a circle
b) increase its drift angle
c) fly parallel to the beam

49. VOR capture can be a) a predetermined level of the course error signal
determined by away
a) a predetermined level of from the selected radial
the course error signal away
from the selected radial
b) is computed from the
vectorial summation of the
course
error and radio deviation
signals
c) a predetermined level of
the VOR deviation signal away
from the selected radial

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50. Versine is generated by b) synchros resolvers

a) torque receiver synchros
b) synchros resolvers
c) control synchro
transformers

51. Automatic trim is used to a) maintain level flight

a) maintain level flight
b) prevents standing loads on
the elevator
c) allow full authority to be
regained by the aileron

52. An over station sensor b) rate of change of radio deviation

(OSS) is triggered by
a) measured radio deviation
b) rate of change of radio
deviation
c) rate of change of course

53. Synchronization circuits in b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero
autopilots ensure demand
a) that the trim indicators will conditions engagement
read zero prior to
engagement
b) that the autopilot control
circuits are at zero demand
conditions engagement
c) that the aircraft will always
be returned to straight and
level flight when the autopilot
is engaged

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54. In the FMS vertical a) maintaining a computed EPR

navigation (V NAV) climb
mode the throttles
are used for
a) maintaining a computed
EPR
b) controlling to a maximum
thrust
c) correction minor speed
deviations

55. The GA mode is usually b) pressing a button on thrust levers

initiated by
a) pressing a button on the
control wheel
b) pressing a button on thrust
levers
c) making a selection on the
mode control panel

56. On selection of the c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the

Turbulence Mode airframe
a) the gain is doubled to
reduce oscillation
b) the gain remains the same
but signals are phase
advanced
c) the gain is reduced to
prevent stresses to the
airframe

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57. To know the valid data b) call up the relevant page on the CDU
base on the FMS
a) perform a BITE check
b) call up the relevant page on
the CDU
c) call up the relevant current
status

58. Coordinated autopilot ...

turns are achieved by
* a) yaw rate gyro signals
b) aileron to rudder cross-
feed
c) aileron to elevator cross-
feed

59. A yaw damper system c)low range frequencies

operates on
a) all yaw frequencies
b) only mid range frequencies
c)low range frequencies

60. A GCR will trip if what is c) Over current and over frequency
detected?
a) Under frequency and over
frequency
b) Over frequency and under
current
c) Over current and over
frequency

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61. What is the impedance of c) 50 ohms

VOR or HF aerial cables?
a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) 25 ohms
c) 50 ohms

62. To improve the image or b) use shorter bursts

picture when using the WRX
(weather radar receiver)
a) scan at a lower rate
b) use shorter bursts
c) use longer bursts

63. In a vibrator type voltage a) the resistor is in series with the field
regulator
a) the resistor is in series with
the field
b) parallel with the field
c) in series with the voltage
coil

64. Where does it state what a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4

emergency equipment and
what
levels of emergency
equipment should be carried
on an
aircraft
a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
b) JAR OPS (M)
c) Maintenance Manual

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65. If a section of the c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where
emergency floor proximity the
lights are defect can be fixed
inoperative
a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e.
grounded until the defect
is fixed
b) the aircraft can fly but the
section with the problem is
not used/shut off
c) the aircraft is allowed to fly
back to base where the
defect can be fixed

66. The tail Nav. light. What c) 140 degrees

angle of divergence should it
have?
a) 180 degrees
b) 120 degrees
c) 140 degrees

67. When changing the a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
brushes on a DC generator
the brushes
must be bedded first, this can
be done
a) with the generator fitted to
the aircraft
b) the generator taken off the
aircraft and bedding done on
the bench
c) at the manufacturers only

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68. What must be taken into a) The temperature

account when measuring the
SG or
relative density of a lead acid
battery?
a) The temperature
b) The ambient pressure
c) The ambient humidity

69. The polythene coating on a) to prevent precipitation static build up

a HF antenna wire is provided
a) to prevent precipitation
static build up
b) to prevent the wire from
corroding
c)to prevent the wire from
chafing

70. Weather radar domes are b) bonding strips

protected from lightning
strikes by
a) the use of special
conductive paint
b) bonding strips
c) special conducting or non-
conducting grease

71. An elevator tab moves a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy
down
a) to counteract for the aircraft
flying nose heavy
b) to make the nose go down
c) to counteract for the aircraft
flying tail heavy

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72. The electrolyte in a Ni-cad a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed
battery can be checked by
checking
a) one cell at a time until all
cells are completed
b) only the end cell as all the
others will be the same
c) any single cell as all the
others will be the same

73. In a RVSM system what is c) 80ft

the tolerance level of
separation
i.e.. + or - feet
a) 400ft
b) 160ft
c) 80ft

74. In a fly by wire system, b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
pitch and roll control positions
are
known by using
a) LVDTs for roll control
surfaces and RVDTs for pitch
control surfaces
b) LVDTs for roll and pitch
control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch
control surfaces

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75. In a CMC aircraft, flight c) the engine indicating and crew alert system
deck indications and warnings (EICAS)
are
managed and provided by
a) the central warning
computer (CWC)
b) the electronic interface
units (EIU)
c) the engine indicating and
crew alert system (EICAS)

76. What type of memory do b) Non-volatile

C.M.C.s have?
a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Hard

77. What is the purpose of the b)To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
tail cone in helicopters?
a) To provide a balance for C.
of G.
b)To hold the stabilizers and
tail rotor
c) To provide vibration
damping to the tail rotor

78. An aircraft in climb a) Higher than its IAS

maintains the same IAS. What
is it's
true airspeed?
a) Higher than its IAS
b) Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS

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79. The stall margin is a) EPR limits

controlled by
a) EPR limits
b) speed bug cursor
c) angle of attack and flap
position

80. When can the FMS be c) only after take off

engaged with the auto-
throttle
a) only with the Flight Director
selected
b) With either the Flight
Director or the Digital flight
Control
System (DFCS) engaged
c) only after take off

81. A full authority Digital b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
Engine Control System
(FADEC)
consists of
a) electronic engine control
unit only
b) electronic engine control
unit and all its sensors
c) electronic engine control
unit and throttle position
transmitter

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82. A FADEC system does not c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers
have the following system?
a) An automatic starting
capability
b) Control of thrust reverser
operation
c) Automatic control of engine
fire extinguishers

83. Which is the correct b) Localizer capture, glide slope capture, attitude
sequence for an auto-land? hold
a) Glide slope capture, and flare
altitude hold and flare
b) Localizer capture, glide
slope capture, attitude hold
and flare
c) Localizer capture, glide
slope capture, flare and
attitude
hold

84. The wheel height at which a) decision height

the approach path has been
visually
assessed as satisfactory to
continue the approach to a
landing
is know as the
a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height

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85. The ICAO weather c) operation down to and along the surface of the
category 3A is runway
a) operation down to and with RVR of 200m
along the surface of the
runway
without external reference
b) operation down to 60 m
and 800 m
c) operation down to and
along the surface of the
runway
with RVR of 200m

86. A category II facility b) 60 m

performance ILS has an
intercept height of
a)15 m
b) 60 m
c) 0 m

87. The facility performance a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path
ILS intersect height is the point signal
a) where the aeroplane
receives the first glide path
signal
b) the localizer and glide path
signals cross each other
c) where the aeroplanes first
receives both the localizer
and
glide path signals

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88. The average risk of auto- b) 1 x 10-7

land should not contribute a
rate of
fatal accidents per landing
greater than
a) 1 x 10-6
b) 1 x 10-7
c) 1 x 10-8

89. Before an aeroplane is able c) ILS system must be working

to make an automatic landing
the
a) ground radio aids must be
at least CAT II
b) ground radio aids must be
at CAT III
c) ILS system must be working

90. For an aeroplane to be a) mandatory

certified for automatic landing
an
auto-throttle system is
a) mandatory
b) a matter of choice for the
operator
c) dependent upon the
operation of the aeroplane at
slow speed

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91. The overshoot or go c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum

around mode is initiated
a) automatically
b) by a selector on the throttle
control panel
c) by pushing the throttles
forward to maximum

92. The aeroplanes autopilot is c) start of flare phase

programmed to leave the
glide
slope at
a) 300 ft
b) the decree phase
c) start of flare phase

93. Overshoot or go-around b) at any time after auto-land has been engaged
mode can be initiated
a) only when the autopilot is
engaged
b) at any time after auto-land
has been engaged
c) at any time

94. The following modes may c) IAS and steering or heading

be retained when overshoot
has
been initiated after the
selection of auto-land
a) ILS localizer and IAS
b) IAS and glide slope
c) IAS and steering or heading

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95. If go-around has been c) increase speed and rotate nose up

initiated after auto-land has
been
selected, the aeroplane will
a) increase speed
b) rotate nose up
c) increase speed and rotate
nose up

96. V NAV can be selected c) only if A/T selected

a) alone
b) only if A/P and F/D
selected
c) only if A/T selected

97. If during auto-land the c) a go-around is initiated

LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in
final
approach
a) the system degrades to CAT
II
b) the auto-land is continued
c) a go-around is initiated

98. The order of auto-land a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE

approach is
a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD

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99. Purpose of an auto-land c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch
de-crabbing maneuver is to down
a) assist with localizer tracking
b) assist with glide slope
tracking
c) point the aircraft down the
runway at touch down

100. An auto-land failure c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in
monitoring system must the
ensure that event of single failure
a) the automatic pilot will
automatically disengage
whenever any failure is
detected
b) the automatic pilot will
automatically cause the
aircraft
to overshoot if any failure is
detected
c) the aircraft will continue its
automatic landing in the
event of single failure

101. The effective gain of the c) is decreased as the aircraft descends

glide path receiver
a) is increased as the aircraft
descends
b) remains constant as the
aircraft descends
c) is decreased as the aircraft
descends

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102. During an automatic b) radio altimeters

landing , the aircraft descent
rate is
sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers

103. An autopilot with two b) fail operational

separate power supplies is
a) fail passive
b) fail operational
c) fail redundant

104. On touchdown, autopilot a) remains engaged ready for G/A

a) remains engaged ready for
G/A
b) drives the throttles forward
c) disconnects after a short
time

105. When will the decision b) before D.H.

height aural warning sound
a) at D.H.
b) before D.H.
c) after D.H.

106. Automatic steering of the b) the runway localizer

aircraft after touch down is
affected by
a) the area navigation system
b) the runway localizer
c) the airfield marker beacon

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107. The flare maneuver may a) radio altimeter

be controlled by signals from
a) radio altimeter
b) the glide slope receiver
c) the localizer receiver

108. A triplex system looses b) fail operational

one channel, the system is
now,
a) fail passive
b) fail operational
c) fail redundant

109. A fail passive system in the b) produce no significant out of trim condition
event of failure will
a) produce a significant out of
trim condition
b) produce no significant out
of trim condition
c) ensure the aircraft can still
land automatically

110. A triplex system loses one b) duplex system

channel, the system becomes
a
a) simplex system
b) duplex system
c) dual-dual system

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111. The two parameters used c) decision height and runway visual range
for category classification are
a) radio height/runway visual
range
b) localizer and glide slope
c) decision height and runway
visual range

112. What is the controlling b) Radio altimeter

factor in the automatic flare
mode?
a) Decision height
b) Radio altimeter
c) Glide slope signal

113. CAT-3b allows b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50

a) approach land and runway meters
guidance with zero DH
and RVR
b) approach land and RVR in
the order of 50 meters
c) approach land and runway
guidance with taxing
visibility in the order of 50
meters

114. The definition of fail b) continue to control after any first fault
operational is the ability of a
system to
a) disconnect and leave the
aircraft in trim
b) continue to control after
any first fault
c) disconnect but leave the
aircraft out of trim

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115. What is added to the flare a) Nose down bias

computation at touchdown?
a) Nose down bias
b) Nose up bias
c) No signal

116. What controls are used in c) Nose-wheel steering or rudder pedals

response to the PVD?
a) Ailerons
b) Throttles
c) Nose-wheel steering or
rudder pedals

117. The ground run monitor b) ground speed and distance to go

(GRM) presents
a) distance to go
b) ground speed and distance
to go
c) take off speed and distance
to go

118. For a vertical Gyro which is b) Longitudinal

moved in pitch, which gimble
would be moved to correct
the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
b) Longitudinal
c) Normal

119. Versine is used in which a) Pitch

channel?
a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw

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120. With airspeed hold b) decreased

engaged whilst flying with
Flight Director
engaged, a down command
means your speed has
a) increased
b) decreased
c) is the same

121. A Master Warning is issued a) over-speed and cabin altitude occurs

when
a) over-speed and cabin
altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and a low oil
quantity occurs
c) engine fire and generator
trip occurs

122. The total static resistance a) 50 milliohms

along the length of an aircraft
is
a) 50 milliohms
b) 1 ohms
c) 1M - 100,000 ohms

123. In the ATA zoning where is b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the
section 100 in on an aircraft pressure
a) in the undercarriage bay bulkhead
including the doors
b) at the lower section of the
cabin up to the pressure
bulkhead
c) at the rear of the fuselage
behind the bulkhead

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124. Sparking in a generator a) low spring tension

would be caused by
a) low spring tension
b) bedding of brushes
c) brushes on the Magnetic
Neutral Axis

125. Which is the most a) Visual inspections

important part of preventative
maintenance on HIRF
installations?
a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications

126. What should be done to a c) Leave the terminals open circuit

transformer secondary
connections which are open
circuit?
a) Short the terminals together
b) Put a set resistance across
the terminals
c) Leave the terminals open
circuit

127. An RMI in VOR mode, its b) Move right

pointer is showing a course of
000,
if the course knob is adjusted
to 010 what happens to the
pointer?
a) Move left
b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right

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128. If a fault is detected c) Simplex system

during an auto-land approach
the system
will totally disconnect if it is a
a) Triplex system
b) Duplex system
c) Simplex system

129. A Glass Reinforced Plastic a) painted in a conductive paint

surface on an aircraft, to
reduce the
risk of high potential
differences would be
a) painted in a conductive
paint
b) painted in a non-conductive
paint
c) bonded to the primary
structure

130. The VHF aerial resistance a) 50 ohms

and transmission line
resistance is
a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 and 50 ohms
respectively

131. TAS uses which inputs c) Mach and Temp

a) Pitot and Static
b) Pitot and Static, Mach and
Temperature
c) Mach and Temp

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132. Other than spoilers, where c) Either side of the Fuselage

are speed brakes located?
a) On the wing
b) Under the Fuselage
c) Either side of the Fuselage

133. With a trailing edge flap a)Tend to increase

being lowered, due to rising
gusts what will
happen to the angle of attack?
a)Tend to increase
b) Tend to decrease
c) Stay the same

134. If a fly-by-wire system c) remains in the previous position

fails, the rudder
a) remains at the neutral
position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
c) remains in the previous
position

135. A poor oscillator in a b) poor audio output

receiver would cause
a) poor channel selectivity
b) poor audio output
c) poor volume output

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136. The Ground Proximity b) A low range altimeter and configuration of

Warning Computer in mode 4 aircraft
would use which inputs to
issue a warning?
a) A low range altimeter and
rate of change of low
range altimeter
b) A low range altimeter and
configuration of aircraft
c) A low range altimeter and
GPS

137. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made

a) a decision of whether to
land is made
b) an alert of the altitude of
the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the ground
proximity is made

138. When downgrading an b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding
Auto-land system what needs
to be done?
a) Placards in the cockpit
b) An entry in the log book
and cockpit placarding
c) Crew retraining

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139. If a drain trap in a pitot b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing
static system is removed but found
nothing
was found
a) no leak test is required
unless the drain trap contains
water
b) a leak test must be carried
out even if nothing found
c) a leak test is never required

140. TCAS transmits and a) 1030mhz and 1090mhz respectively

receives on a frequency of
a) 1030mhz and 1090mhz
respectively
b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz
respectively
c) 1090mhz

141. When an aircraft is aligned c) 5 degree

for a compass swing check
to be carried out it will be
aligned with an error of plus
or minus
a) 1 degree
b) 3 degree
c) 5 degree

142. The quad-rental error in b) 045

ADF is maximum at a heading
of
a) 000
b) 045
c) 090

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143. Circulating currents is b) AC generators

caused by an unbalanced
a) DC generators
b) AC generators
c) AC & DC generators

144. A device used do dump a) spoiler

lift from an aircraft is the
a) spoiler
b) leading edge flaps
c) trailing edge flaps

145.Runway turn of lights have c) 50 degree

a beam width of
a) 10 degree
b) 110 degree
c) 50 degree

146. Stall warning will be given a) that are higher than stall speed
at speeds
a) that are higher than stall
speed
b) that are lower than stall
speed
c) at the actual stall speed

147. when a helicopter lands b) Turning off the anti-collision lights

how does the pilot signal to
the ground staff that it is safe
to approach the aircraft?
a) Turning on and off the NAV
lights
b) Turning off the anti-collision
lights
c) Flashing the landing light

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148. An aircraft will capture the a) 1500 ft

auto land system at
a) 1500 ft
b) 2500 ft
c) 3500 ft

149. FADEC system gets its b) channel A and B from separate windings of a
power supply from dedicated
a) channel A and B from the Generator
same windings of a dedicated
Generator
b) channel A and B from
separate windings of a
dedicated
Generator
c) emergency Batt. bus

150. Loss of an electrolyte in a a) excessive charging current

battery is due to
a) excessive charging current
b) insufficient charging current
c) excessive charging voltage

151. An autopilot interlock c) both a & b

circuit is to
a) prevent the system
engagement if a fault exists
b) disconnect the system if a
fault appears
c) both a & b

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152. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is b) amber

indicated in the WXR by a
a) green color
b) amber
c) red color

153. The international b) 121.5

emergency frequency used in
VHF COMM.s is
a) 131.55
b) 121.5
c) 118.00

154. In a modern aircraft a b) continuously when the systems are working

BITE is carried out
a) on the ground only
b) continuously when the
systems are working
c) only in the air

155. The electrical A/H has a c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch

movement of
a) 85 degree in pitch and roll
b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch

156. When working on a a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power

hydraulic operated flight
control it is
sensible to
a) remove/disconnect
hydraulic power
b) remove/disconnect
electrical power
c) pull the appropriate CB

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157. Emergency electronic c) JAR OPS

equipment requirement will be
found in
a) CAAIPs
b) Maintenance Manual
c) JAR OPS

158. When an aircraft is at a b)120 nm

height of 9500ft and the QNH
is 500 ft
what is the distance that VHF
Com cover?
a) 100 nm
b)120 nm
c) 140 nm

159. When the VOR ref and b) 090 degree radial

Vari. phase are in phase
quadrature ,
the aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
b) 090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial

160. A unit with two springs a) an accelerometer

and a mass pick off is
a) an accelerometer
b) a gyroscope
c) a tachogenerator

161. The units of vibration are c) relative amplitude

measured in
a) phones
b) decibels
c) relative amplitude

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162. A fuel flow measurement c) cannot be adjusted

system can be adjusted for
a) maximum flow rate
b) minimum flow rate
c) cannot be adjusted

163. Magnetic variation is the a) true north and magnetic north

difference in angle between
a) true north and magnetic
north
b) magnetic heading and
aircraft heading
c) the compass north and
magnetic north

164. GPWS mode 1 is excessive c) rate of descent

a) terrain closure
b) rate of ascent
c) rate of descent

165. How many bits make up b) 24

the mode "S" address
a) 12
b) 24
c) 36

166. The applied pressure to a) square of the speed

an ASI varies with the
a) square of the speed
b) square root of the speed
c) cube root of the speed

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167. Temperature a) capsule elasticity

compensation is required on
an altimeter because of
a) capsule elasticity
b) capsule shape
c) non linear pressure/height
relationship

168. The loss of the vertical b) aircraft to over-bank

gyro signal to the flight
director system
would cause
a) aircraft to under-bank
b) aircraft to over-bank
c) aircraft to remain in level
flight

169. The Doppler VOR beacon a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency
reference signal
a) amplitude modulates the
carrier frequency
b) amplitude modulates the
sub carrier frequency
c) frequency modulates the
sub carrier frequency

170. During flare mode auto- a) retard throttles to idle

throttle will
a) retard throttles to idle
b) disconnect auto-throttle
c) select reverse thrust

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171. A CSD is monitored for b) high temperature and low oil pressure
a) low temperature and high
oil pressure
b) high temperature and low
oil pressure
c) high temperature and high
oil pressure

172. As the rotor head is tilted a) Increases

to travel forward what
happens to
the reward traveling blades
pitch angle?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No change

173. In a fully fly by wire c) it is centralized by the airflow

system if the rudder becomes
disconnected
a) it is centralized by a spring
b) its control is maintained by
electric trim
c) it is centralized by the
airflow

174. What is the power supply c) High voltage stepped up

to cabin flow tubes?
a) 115v ac
b) 200v ac
c) High voltage stepped upv

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175. When all three leads of a a) zero

bonding tester are connected
together the output reading is
a) zero
b) full scale deflection
c) centre scale

176. In a capacitive fuel b) increase capacitance

gauging system an increase in
fuel level
would
a) increase capacitive
reactance
b) increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance

177. Float fuel gauge system is c) cannot be adjusted

a) adjusted when tanks are full
b) adjusted when tanks are
empty
c) cannot be adjusted

178. A vertical structural a) bulkheads

member forming part or full
walls are
a) bulkheads
b) longerons
c) frame

179. Low electrolyte in a Ni- a) excessive electrical loading

cad battery is caused by
a) excessive electrical loading
b) high charge current
c) low charge current

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180. With engine stopped, EPR b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
indicator reads slightly above
1.
a) This is normal
b) You would change the Tx as
the datum is shifted
c) You would adjust the Tx

181. To ensure the compass is b) damping and pivot friction check

serviceable before installation
you
would carry out
a) damping and periodicity
checks
b) damping and pivot friction
check
c) damping and alignment
checks

182. The specific gravity a) Cell is defective

readings of a lead-acid cell
taken twice
after charging shows
substantially lower value.
a) Cell is defective
b) You top up the cell with
distilled water
c) You replace the cell

183. Suppressor line is c) all L band equipments including TCAS

required for
a) ATC and DME only
b) TCAs only
c) all L band equipments
including TCAS

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184. Differential GPS requires c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter

a) 3 satellites and two ground
based transmitters
b) 4 satellites and 2 ground
based transmitters
c) 4 satellites and 1 ground
based transmitter

185. GPS has b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits

a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits

186. When the captain calls a) a high/low chime and pink light comes on
attendant
a) a high/low chime and pink
light comes on
b) a low chime and blue light
comes on
c) a high chime and pink light
comes on

187. In ACARS, if an upcoming c) a chime sounds in the cockpit

message is received
a) a designated light comes on
b) a selcall light along with a
chime comes on
c) a chime sounds in the
cockpit

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188. A manual trim wheel, b) the up movement authority is effected

when fully moved in the
direction
of tail
a) the authority of elevators
not effected
b) the up movement authority
is effected
c) the down movement
authority is effected

189. If on an ILS approach, b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway

LOC signal is lost
a) aircraft continues descent
with an accumulating drift
b) aircraft descends in a
parallel path to runway
c) aircraft moves in a circle

190. IDG output voltage b) voltage is regulated by GCU

a) does not require voltage
regulation as RPM is constant.
b) voltage is regulated by
GCU
c) voltage is regulated by IDG

191. The over-station sensor is b) rate of radio deviation signal

activated by
a) radio deviation signal
b) rate of radio deviation
signal
c) deviation and course error

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192. When moving the control a) sensors located under the control column
column produces
a) sensors located under the a signal
control column produces
a signal
b) sensor located along the
control run produces
a signal
c) sensor in the AFCS
computer produces a signal

193. In the reversed camber c) there is an increased tailplane down-force

horizontal stabilizer as shown
a) the elevator causes tail
down movement i.e. increases
tail plane down force
b) there is an increases tail
plane up-force
c) there is an increased
tailplane down-force

194. Equivalent airspeed is c) calibrated airspeed corrected for

a) indicated airspeed compressibility
corrected for IE and PE
b) rectified airspeed corrected
for compressibility
c) calibrated airspeed
corrected for compressibility

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195. In an Auto-land, auto- c) manually after landing

throttle is disengaged
a) after reverse thrust is
applied
b) after affixed period of the
time after landing
c) manually after landing

196. What is the maximum limit a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll
of the artificial horizon?
a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360
degrees in roll
b) 360 degrees in pitch and
roll
c) 85 degrees pitch and 110
degrees in roll

197. Acceleration error b) a false indication of right bank

produces
a) a false indication of left
bank
b) a false indication of right
bank
c) a false indication of climb

198. The normal axis of a b) through the centre of intersection of

helicopter passes through longitudinal and
a) the centre of rotor disc lateral axis
b) through the centre of
intersection of longitudinal
and
lateral axis
c) a line parallel to rotor axis

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199. Zone 500 indicates as per b) Left wing

ATA 100
a) Door
b) Left wing
c) Right wing

200. Shock stall b) occurs at high speeds

a) is a flap down stall
b) occurs at high speeds
c) occurs at low speeds

201. Drooping of helicopter c) centrifugal force

blades is compensated by
a) flapping
b) dragging
c) centrifugal force

202. During a turn c) rudder to be maintained in centre position

a) left rudder to be used
b) right rudder to be used
c) rudder to be maintained in
centre position

203. Align light flashes during a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be
alignment turned off
a) A fault has occurred and
system needs to be turned off
b) It is attracting operators
attention
c) It is indicating progress of
alignment

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204. During decent with b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the
power on in a helicopter helicopter
a) lift, drag and thrust are
acting on the helicopter
b) lift, drag, thrust and weight
are acting on the helicopter
c) lift, weight and thrust are
acting on the helicopter

205. To transmit position a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability

feedback for actuators of roll
and pitch control
surfaces, in a fly by wire
system
a) LVDT is used hence
ensuring interchangeability
b) LVDT and RVDT are used
for pitch and roll
c) Synchros are used

206. The compensator in a fuel b) K value of fuel

tank measures
a) specific gravity of fuel
b) K value of fuel
c) fuel quantity

207. What is the error signal b) Course error and Deviation

used for in a fixed angle
approach in
LOC coupling?
a) Heading and Deviation
b) Course error and Deviation
c) Heading ,Course error and
Deviation

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208. In modern aircraft, power a) BPCU

distribution of Generators are
controlled by
a) BPCU
b) PCDU (power control
distribution unit)
c) SPCU

209. As you approach a) total drag is increased

supersonic speed
a) total drag is increased
b) lift is reduced
c) thrust is reduced

210. Range resolution is b) shorter pulse width

obtained by
a) high PRF
b) shorter pulse width
c) shorter beam width

211. In weather radar, short a) larger pulse width

range targets are missed by
a) larger pulse width
b) larger beam width
c) larger frequency

212. When the trailing edge c) CP move rearward

flap is extended
a) the CP moves forward and
the pitching moment changes
to
nose up
b) the CP moves forward but
the CG does not change
c) CP move rearward

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213. During take off if an input b) throttle hold is annunciated

to auto throttle is fails
a) auto throttle disengages
b) throttle hold is annunciated
c) fail light illuminates

214. Flight director command a) direction in which aircraft is to be maneuvered

bars indicate
a) direction in which aircraft is
to be maneuvered
b) direction in which aircraft is
flying
c) direction in which the
beacon is

215. Mode S has b) 24 address bits

a) 12 address bits
b) 24 address bits
c) 36 address bits

216. If an aircraft is on east of c) phase quadrature

VOR beacon, the reference
and
variable phases are
a) n phase
b) opposite phase
c) phase quadrature

217. RVSM, Vertical minimum a) 80 ft

separation error allowed is
a) 80 ft
b) 300 ft
c) 500 ft

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218. In a radio altimeter system c) 9 inch

if you decide to increase the
TX cable and RX cable each
by 3 inch the total correction
factor is
a) 3 inch
b) 6 inch
c) 9 inch

219 If you momentarily short b) tester reads full scale

the two spikes of bonding
tester
a) tester reads zero
b) tester reads full scale
c) tester would be zero
centered

220. For bonding, the two b) a corrugated bonding jumper

ends of a rubber pipe are
joined by
a) a thick metallic bonding
strip
b) a corrugated bonding
jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal
legs at both ends

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221. What is the minimum c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area
resistance between all isolated which ever
electrostatic conducting parts is less
which may be subjected to
appreciable charge and main
earth system
a) 0.5 ohm
b) 1 ohm
c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000
ohm/sq.ft. surface area which
ever
is less

222. Mach trim in some aircraft a) longitudinal stability

assists
a) longitudinal stability
b) lateral stability
c) vertical stability

223. In case the airplane is a) it must be installed on LH side

wired for dual installation of
the
Central Maintenance
Computers and only one
computer is
to be installed
a) it must be installed on LH
side
b) it must be installed on RH
side
c) it may be installed either on
LH or RH side

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224. Main electric pitch trim is a) a switch on control wheel

controlled by
a) a switch on control wheel
b) a switch installed on centre
pedestal panel
c) a wheel on the centre
pedestal

225. If the static line is b) lower mach number

disconnected in the cabin, the
Mach meter
reading would be
a) higher mach number
b) lower mach number
c) not effected

226. In a dual FMC installation, c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes

if one FMC is defective place
a) one CDU blanks
b) both CDU blanks
c) not be affected as
automatic transfer takes place

227. While carrying out a leak b) indicate decent

check of the altimeter, if the
static
is leaking, the VSI would
a) indicate climb
b) indicate decent
c) not be affected

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228. In a combined pitot-static b) VSI

probe, while carrying out a
leak check,
which instrument is most likely
to be effected by over
pressure?
a) ASI
b) VSI
c) Altimeter

229. The correction for a c) It may be rotated either direction

positive error for coefficient A
in a compass
a) is to rotate clockwise
b) is to rotate anticlockwise
c) It may be rotated either
direction

230. Radiated interference of c) putting the affected cable in a single conduit

current carrying cables can be
minimized by
a) having filters in power
supply lines
b) separating the affected and
affecting cables
c) putting the affected cable in
a single conduit

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231. During compass swing, b) 5 degree

using a datum compass, the
error
permitted in aligning the
aircraft is
a) 1 degree
b) 5 degree
c) 10 degree

232. If two aircraft decide to a) The one with the higher address
issue the same RA for a
potential
conflict, which aircraft
changes the decision?
a) The one with the higher
address
b) The one with the smaller
address
c) Neither changes the
decision

233. What is the authority of a) 10%

series actuator on an
helicopters
autopilot?
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 100%

234. GPS antenna is c) circular polarized

a) vertically polarized
b) horizontally polarized
c) circular polarized

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235. The cyclic stick in an c) in the centre

helicopter is
a) to the left
b) to the right
c) in the centre

236. An autopilot computer a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR

a) is more sensitive to ILS than
to VOR
b) is more sensitive to VOR
than to ILS
c) is the same sensitivity for
VOR and ILS

237. What type of flap is this? a) Split flap

a) Split flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Plain flap

238. Purpose of the bellcrank b) reverse direction and transmit motion

is to
a) transmit motion
b) reverse direction and
transmit motion
c) adjust friction

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239. In an FDS, the attitude a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of
gyro is coupled with the FD FD computer
computer
by means of transformer
coupling. The purpose of this
arrangement is
a) to protect the attitude gyro
in case of failure of FD
computer
b) to protect FD computer in
case of attitude gyro failure
c) to minimize power losses

240. DH is based on a) aircraft characteristics

a) aircraft characteristics
b) experience of the crew
c) RVR transmitted by ATC

241. In a horizontal gyro the c) flux valve slaving

random precession of the
inner ring is
corrected by
a) mercury switches on the
inner ring
b) mercury switches on the
outer ring
c) flux valve slaving

242. Index error is c) misalignment of compass lubber line

a) coefficient B
b) Coefficient P
c) misalignment of compass
lubber line

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243. Helicopter derives its lift a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low
from pressure above it
a) the blade of the helicopter
creates a low pressure above
it
b) rotor acts as a airscrew
c) air is pushed downward

244. A two bladed helicopter b) semi rigid rotor

rotor on a central gimbal is
called
a) rigid rotor
b) semi rigid rotor
c) fully articulated rotor

245. Use of a diplexer in a c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers

receiver is
a) to enable signals to be
distributed to different
receivers
b) to amplify the RF signal
c) to impedance match the
aerial and receivers

246. If the 'Q' feel in a c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal
powered control system fails
a) the failed system stops and
it remains in this position
b) the pilot feels air loads
higher than normal
c) the pilot feels air loads
lower than normal

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247. Doppler flag comes on b) no signal

when it receives
a) excessive ground clutter
b) no signal
c) excess signals

248. When the bank angle limit b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the
is applied to the autopilot , it autopilot
means
a) the max aileron angle that
can be commanded
b) the max roll angle that can
be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection

249. Servo tabs b) move in such a way as to help move the control
a) enable the pilot to bring the surface
control surface back to
neutral
b) move in such a way as to
help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel

250. Spring Tabs b) move in such a way as to help move the control
a) enable the pilot to bring the surface
control surface back to
neutral
b) move in such a way as to
help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel

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251. Back beam scanning in an a) 20 degrees per millisecond

MLS is at a rate of
a) 20 degrees per millisecond
b) 30 degrees per millisecond
c) 15 degrees per millisecond

252. Omega ground stations a) transmit pulses of CW

a) transmit pulses of CW
b) carrier modulated by three
audio tones
c) series of CW

253. During testing of ATC a) 1013.25 mb

altitude function the pressure
altimeter
is set
a) 1013.25 mb
b) sea level pressure
c) prevailing pressure

254. When secondary stops b) after the primary stops

are utilized in control surfaces,
they
come in contact
a) before the primary stops
b) after the primary stops
c) at the same time as the
primary stops

255. EICAS indicates a) engine performance and aircraft system

a) engine performance and malfunctions
aircraft system malfunctions
b) engine performance only
c) engine performance and
aircraft status

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256. Helicopter cyclic stick is a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right

turned to the right
a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the
right
b) pitch operating arms
lengthen in one direction and
shorten in another
c) rotating aerofoil tilts
forward

257. Magnetic heading errors a) positive if easterly

will be
a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly

258. What will happen with a b) It move as the aircraft moves

flux valve in a turn?
a) It moves once the aircraft is
established on a new
heading
b) It move as the aircraft
moves
c) It stays fixed on magnetic
north

259. When will a mode C a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1

interrogation be ignored?
a) When the P2 pulse is higher
amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is anti-
phase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1

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260. An aircraft with auto-land b)records all faults in non-volatile memory

is fitted with a CMC
a) records all faults in volatile
memory
b)records all faults in non-
volatile memory
c) all memory is erased when
aircraft lands

261. A helicopter autopilot a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric
uses altitude
a) radio altitude for height for altitude
hold and barometric altitude hold
for altitude
hold
b) barometric altitude for
height hold and radio altitude
for altitude hold
c) barometric altitude for both
height and altitude hold

262. On an ILS approach what a) Radio deviation

will cause the aircraft to fly
onto
the beam?
a) Radio deviation
b) Glide slope deviation
c) Course deviation

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263. Which of the following b) Attitude, flare, rollout

modes does a autopilot go
through
in correct sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare

264. When can other autopilot b) When reached a desired altitude

modes be select once Go
Around has been
selected?
a) When aircraft has reached
5000ft
b) When reached a desired
altitude
c) Disengage and reengage
the AFCS system

265. Once the G/S has been a) No other pitch modes are available
captured what other pitch
modes are
available?
a) No other pitch modes are
available
b) Only when the aircraft is
above the glide slope beam
c) All are continuously
available

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266. A spring balance control a) can move the control surface on the ground
system you
a) can move the control
surface on the ground
b) can move the control
surface only by moving the
tab
c) cannot move the control
surface on the ground

267. Why is a wire HF antenna b) To prevent precipitation static

covered in polythene?
a) To prevent corrosion
b) To prevent precipitation
static
c) To provide lightning
protection

268. What is a versine signal b) Increase in altitude

attenuated with?
a) Increase in airspeed
b) Increase in altitude
c) Decrease in altitude

269.How long is the time b) 8 micro seconds

between the start of the P1
pulse and
the P3 Pulse ignoring the P2
pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds

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270. If a VOR RMI indicates b) FROM

000 degrees and the course
selected
is 000 degrees what will the
TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
b) FROM
c) Neither

271. What does the Radar c) Alter the video amplifier

contour button do?
a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier

272. A radar response takes b) 25 miles

309 micro seconds. How far
away
is the target?
a) 12 miles
b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles

273. What controls are used in a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
response to PVD display?
a) Nose wheel steering or
rudder pedals
b) Control wheel
c) PVD control unit

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274. DME transponder c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12

transmits on receipt microseconds
a) of any interrogation
b) of pilot input command
request
c) of a pair of pulses
separated by 12 microseconds

275. Mode S transponders c) 24bits

transmits a binary code of
a) 12bits
b) 64bits
c) 24bits

276. Artificial feel is gained by b) spring bias unit

using a
a) hydraulic damper
b) spring bias unit
c) 'feel' generator

277. A mode C transponder a) can be used for TCAS

a) can be used for TCAS
b) cannot be used for TCAS
c) can be used for TCAS on
ILS approach only

278. The audio select panel b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple other
allows the crew to
a) transmit on one channel,
listen on one
b) transmit on one channel,
listen on multiple other
c) receive on one channel,
transmit on multiple others

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279. The crew select DH on c) the rad. alt display

a) the altimeter
b) the DH annunciator panel
c) the rad. alt display

280. When substituting the b) the speed of propagation of rad. alt signal
radio altimeter antenna cables,
you should consider
a) power requirements
b) the speed of propagation
of rad. alt signal
c) the diameter of cables

281. GPS has a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4

a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4
b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6
c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9

282. Audio select panel voice b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal
switch
a) allows voice ident. of DME
b) cuts "beeps" from DME
signal
c) disables DME voice ident.

283. GPS frequency is b) 1575 MHz

a) 1575 GHz
b) 1575 MHz
c) 1525 MHz

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284. Radio switches are a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C

normally
a) sprung on R/T, latched on
I/C
b) latched on R/T, sprung on
I/C
c) latched on R/T, latched on
I/C

285. On TCAS, with aircraft a) systems is disabled

below 1700ft
a) systems is disabled
b) no traffic will be shown
c) all traffic produces aural
alert

286. Mode S pulses. Which are a) F1,F2,F4,F5

used?
a) F1,F2,F4,F5
b) s1,p1,p3,p4
c) s1,s2,p1,p2

287. In a superheat receiver, b) it improves signal to noise ratio

the advantage of an RF
amplifier is
a) it amplifies output stages
b) it improves signal to noise
ratio
c) it couples noise factors

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288. Fluorescent tubes for the c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast
cabin lighting are powered units
from
a) 115 volts from ac bus
b) 200 volts from ac bus
c) high voltage produced by
transformer ballast units

289. In air speed hold mode, a b) speed decrease

down displacement of the
flight
director pitch command bar
signifies
a) speed increase
b) speed decrease
c) height decrease

290. Back beam is captured a) by manually selecting the back beam mode
a) by manually selecting the
back beam mode
b) this automatically trips the L
NAV mode
c) by manually selecting the L
NAV mode

291. With a bonding meter a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe
a) the long lead is attached to and
the aircraft airframe and short lead to item
short lead to item
b) the short lead to the aircraft
airframe and long lead to the
item
c) it does not matter which
lead goes where

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292. DME reply pulses are c) higher or lower

63MHZ
a) higher
b) lower
c) higher or lower

293. Flight director a) VOR and glide slope

incompatible modes are
a) VOR and glide slope
b) heading and altitude hold
c) VOR and altitude hold

294. What is VHF comm. range b) 120 nm

at 9000 feet?
a) 110 nm
b) 120 nm
c) 130 nm

295. GPS sends L1 and L2. b) c/a code and P code

What is on L1?
a) c/a code only
b) c/a code and P code
c) P code only

296. Mode 4 of GPWS derives b) rad. alt decrease

warnings from
a) rad. alt to barometric
b) rad. alt decrease
c) approach along localizer
with reference to runway
threshold

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297. On power up, the IRS b) longitude from previous position

obtains position
a) latitude from previous
position
b) longitude from previous
position
c) latitude and longitude from
previous position

298. Electronic stab trim a) control column

switches are found on the
a) control column
b) flight control panel
c) behind thrust levers

299. Carbon microphones a) DC supply

require
a) DC supply
b) AC supply
c) no supply

300. Microwave landing b) phase drift keying

systems are modulated with
a) FM
b) phase drift keying
c) Manchester code

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301. A CVR is found to be c) flights must not continue after 72 hours

unserviceable
a) flight can continue with
serviceable FDR provided
they are not combined
b) flights must not continue
after four days
c) flights must not continue
after 72 hours

302. The maximum azimuth c) +/-60 degrees

coverage by a MLS facility is
a) +/- 35 degrees
b) +/-40 degrees
c) +/-60 degrees

303. The bearing of a NDB b) 90 degrees

measured by ADF is 060
degrees
relative to aircraft heading of
030 degrees. The RMI pointer
indicates
a) 30 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 60 degrees

304. Fiber glass parts are c) earth primary conductors

protected from lightning
strikes and
dangerous voltages by
a) non conductive paint
b) conductive paint
c) earth primary conductors

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305. In MLS, the 12 bit c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and
preamble consists of carrier
a) carrier and 5 bits time
reference and 7 bits
information
b) 5 bits time function and
carrier and 7 bits function
c) 7 bits function and 5 bits
time reference and carrier

306. The pseudo-random c) the c/a code

code used by all civilian GPS
users is
a) the y code
b) the p code
c) the c/a code

307. The respective band b) narrow and wide

widths for a radar IF amplifier
and
Video amplifier, for good
pulse shape, should be
a) wide and narrow
b) narrow and wide
c) wide and wide

308. On localizer approach b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading
the radio deviation signal is
lost
a) the aircraft flies in a circle
b) aircraft flies off centre line
on pre-set heading
c) aircraft flies heading with
increasing drift angle

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309. 'Q' feel for the stabilizer c) pitot and static

requires
a) pitot only
b) static only
c) pitot and static

310. When the aircraft nose a) the right

yaws to the left, the yaw
damper
will apply corrective rudder to
a) the right
b) the left
c) the left with some aileron
assistance

311. A yaw damper will apply c) rate of yaw

rudder proportional to
a) amount of aircraft
disturbance
b) attitude of aircraft
c) rate of yaw

312. Glide slope deviation a) DC polarity sensitive

signals are
a) DC polarity sensitive
b) AC phase sensitive
c) DC positive going only

313. A triplex system loses one a) pilot can continue with auto-land
channel
a) pilot can continue with
auto-land
b) pilot can use auto approach
c) pilot must make a full
manual approach and land

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314. Stall warning will be given a) before stall

a) before stall
b) after stall
c) at stall

315. With on-board a) log relevant maintenance data

maintenance (OBM) systems,
the purpose
of central maintenance
function (CMF) is to
a) log relevant maintenance
data
b) transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect
action

316. How are spoilers normally a) Hydraulic actuator

operated?
a) Hydraulic actuator
b) Air pistons
c) Electrical motors

317. A differential relay in a c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before
twin generator system will they are
cause paralleled
a) only one generator can
supply a bus bar at a time
b) one generator always
comes on line before the
other
c) the generator voltages are
nearly equal before they are
paralleled

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318. Distilled or de-mineralized c) in the charging room only

water would be added to an
Alkaline battery
a) in the aircraft
b) when the battery is fully
charged
c) in the charging room only

319. When removing the load a) short the terminals

from a current transformer
a) short the terminals
b) place a resistor across each
terminal
c) leave the terminals open

320. Wing steady light must be b) 110 degrees

visible through
a) 70 degrees
b) 110 degrees
c) 180 degrees

321. On AC ground power the c) e and f

interlock system is operated
by pins
a) a and b
b) c and d
c) e and f

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322. When paralleling two AC b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be
generators brought on
a) it is important that they are in either ABC or CBA
in phase, and should be
brought
on in sequence ABC
b) it is important that they are
in phase, and can be brought
on
in either ABC or CBA
c) they do not need to be in
phase

323. The neutral shift sensor a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align
ensures that with the
a) after an auto trim, the stabilizer
elevator is moved to align with
the
stabilizer
b) after a mach trim, the
stabilizer is moved to align
with the
elevator
c) after an auto trim, the
stabilizer is moved to align
with the
elevator

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324. Aileron to rudder cross- c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite

feed is applied in autopilot direction to
systems to the turn
a) assist the aircraft back to
datum after disturbance in yaw
b) prevents slip and skid in
yaw
c) prevents aircraft yawing in
the opposite direction to
the turn

325. Stand off errors on c) integrating course error signals

localizer approach are
washed out by
a) differentiating deviation
signals
b) integrating deviation signals
c) integrating course error
signals

326. An open circuit in the c) the pointer to read full scale

temperature bulb as used in
the
DC ratio-meter would cause
a) the pointer to read zero
b) the pointer to read mid
scale
c) the pointer to read full
scale

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327. The instantaneous VSI is a) overcome the inherent lag by utilizing an

designed to accelerometer
a) overcome the inherent lag
by utilizing an accelerometer
b) use an accelerometer to
give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output
during acceleration greater
than 1g

328. With a constant torque b) decrease with a higher rotor speed

applied to a gyroscope, the
rate of
precession will
a) increase with a higher rotor
speed
b) decrease with a higher
rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor
speed

329. A gyroscope with a b) longitudinal axis

vertical spin axis has the roll
torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
b) longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis

330. The glide slope b) UHF band

equipment operates in the
a) HF band
b) UHF band
c) VHF band

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331. The loss of the vertical b) aircraft to over-bank

gyro signal to a flight director
system would cause
a) aircraft to under-bank
b) aircraft to over-bank
c)aircraft to remain in level
flight

332. Fuel quantity test set b) capacitance bridge

consists of
a) resistance decade
b) capacitance bridge
c) inductance decade

333. EICAS provides the b) engine parameters and system warnings

following
a) engine parameters
b) engine parameters and
system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine
parameters

334. DSR TK (desired track) b) a great circle path on surface of earth

means connecting
a) the bearing to capture the two way points
track
b) a great circle path on
surface of earth connecting
two way points
c) distance left or right from
desired track

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335. On aircraft an auto land a) retard the throttle

during auto flare the auto
throttle will
a) retard the throttle
b) reverse thrust
c) control throttle for a IAS

336. If an FM signal c)rate of frequency chang

modulated by an audio signal
the frequency
of the audio would relate to
the
a) amplitude
b) frequency
c)rate of frequency chang

337. A GPS aerial is polarized c) right hand circular

a) vertically
b) horizontally
c) right hand circular

338. Mach trim threshold are c) manufacture

set by the
a) pilot
b) engineer using aircraft
maintenance manual
c) manufacture

339. An RMI requires the a) Heading and radio deviation

following inputs:
a) Heading and radio
deviation
b) Course and radio deviation
c) Radio deviation only

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340. GPS Telemetry consists of b) satellite position information

a) week number and time
label
b) satellite position
information
c) 8 bits of preamble and
position information

341. A DME is in auto stand by b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
when
a) the ATC transponder is
transmitting
b) the DME receives 200 - 300
pulses a second
c) the TCAS is transmitting

342. Cat-2 auto-land DH limits a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
are
a) below 200 feet but not less
than 100 ft
b) below 500 feet but not less
than 400 ft.
c) below 300 feet and not less
than 200 ft.

343. Cat-1 auto-land DH limits b) not less than 200 ft.

are
a) not less than 100 ft.
b) not less than 200 ft.
c) below 200 ft but not less
than 100 ft

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344. The controlling signal in a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.

pitch channel in the Flare
mode are
a) integrated pitch and radio
altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio
altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S
deviation

345. Rollout guidance after a) automatic rudder control and nose-wheel

touch down is by steering
a) automatic rudder control
and nose-wheel steering
b) visual indication and nose
wheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder
control

346. During auto-land failure b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
of one channel is detected
a) all channels will disconnect
in triplex system.
b) all channels will disconnect
in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect
in dual-dual system.

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347. In triplex auto-land b) disconnect the failure channel and continue

system failure of one channel auto-land
will approach
a) disconnect all channels
b) disconnect the failure
channel and continue auto-
land
approach
c) disconnect the failure
channel and continue with a
manual
approach

348. During the flair mode the a) retard throttle to idle.

A/T- throttle will
a) retard throttle to idle.
b) disconnect auto-throttle
c) select reverse thrust.

349. Roll out mode occurs a) after flare

a) after flare
b) before flare
c) at alert height

350. High and low signal to a) averaged

voter are
a) averaged
b) removed
c) added

351. Basic monitoring is b) signal comparison

function of
a) voting
b) signal comparison
c) signal summing

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352. In series rudder system b) the pilot can input to the system
a) the pilot cannot input to the
system
b) the pilot can input to the
system
c) yaw damping is only
possible signal input

353. If a pointer is not b) the control system is out of trim

centralized on a trim
indicators,
it means that
a) the indicator is not
serviceable
b) the control system is out of
trim
c) the system is trimmed

354. In parallel rudder system, b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder
a) The pilot can input on movement
rudder pedals
b) The rudder pedals move in
response to rudder
movement
c) The rudder pedals are
disconnected

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355. The aileron/rudder signal c) DC output whose polarity is related to the

is demodulated in the rudder phase of
channel amplifier. This means it AC input
is
a) AC
b) DC
c) DC output whose polarity is
related to the phase of
AC input

356. An increase in mach a) C of P to move rearwards giving less downwash

number will cause the on
a) C of P to move rearwards the tail plane
giving less downwash on
the tail plane
b) C of P to move rearwards
giving more downwash on
the tail plane
c) C of P to move forwards
giving less downwash on the
tail plane

357. If one FMS fails in a duel c) FMS display transfers automatically from
system serviceable
a) system operation will not be computer
affected
b) FMS CDU on fail side goes
blank
c) FMS display transfers
automatically from serviceable
computer

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358. To carry out FMS b) insert new EPROM

database update on FMS
a) use database loader
b) insert new EPROM
c) insert new data on CDU

359.To know the valid b) call up relevant page on CDU

database on FMS
a) perform bite check
b) call up relevant page on
CDU
c) call up relevant current
status

360. Magnetic heading errors a) positive if easterly

will be
a) positive if easterly
b)negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly

361. What will happen with a b) Move as the aircraft moves

flux valve in a turn?
a) It will move once the
aircraft is established on a new
heading
b) Move as the aircraft moves
c) Stay fixed on magnetic
north

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362. When will a mode C a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1

interrogation be ignored?
a) When the P2 pulse is higher
amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is anti-
phase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1

363. A helicopter autopilot a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric
uses altitude
a) radio altitude for height for altitude hold
hold and barometric altitude
for altitude hold
b) barometric altitude for
height hold and radio altitude
for altitude hold
c) barometric altitude for both
height and altitude hold

364. On an ILS approach what c) Course deviation

will cause the aircraft to fly
onto
the beam?
a) Height Deviation
b) Radio deviation
c) Course deviation

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365. When can other autopilot b) When reached a desired altitude

modes can be select once
go-Around has been
selected?
a) When aircraft has reached
5000ft
b) When reached a desired
altitude
c) Disengage and reengage
the AFCS system

366. Once the G/S has been a) No other pitch modes are available
captured what other pitch
modes
are available?
a) No other pitch modes are
available
b) Only when the aircraft is
above the glide slope beam
c) All are continuously
available

367. Forces on a helicopter in a) lift, drag thrust, weight

a power-on descent are
a) lift, drag thrust, weight
b) lift, drag, thrust
c) weight, drag, lift

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368. What is the primary a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabilizer
purpose of a helicopter tail and
arm? anti torque rotor
a) Provide a structure for
mounting the stabilizer and
anti torque rotor
b) Acts to help balance the
centre of gravity of the
helicopter
c) Provide directional control

369. With a spring balance a) move the control surface on the ground
control system you can
a) move the control surface on
the ground
b) move the control surface
only by moving the tab
c) not move the control
surface on the ground

370. Alert Height is when a) a decision of whether to land is made

a) a decision of whether to
land is made
b) an alert of the altitude of
the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the position of
the aircraft is made

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371. A Master Warning is a) over-speed & cabin altitude occurs

issued when
a) over-speed & cabin altitude
occurs
b) cargo smoke & low oil
quantity occurs
c) engine fire & generator trip
occurs

372. An aircraft flying on a b) 060

heading of 030 receives an
ADF
signal 030 relative to the
aircraft, what is the ADF
pointer
indicating?
a) 030
b) 060
c) 090

373. If a control surface that is c) It is moved automatically in the opposite

fitted with a balance tab is direction as
moved, the surface
what will happen to the tab?
a) It is moved manually in the
opposite direction to
the surface
b) It is moved automatically in
the same direction as
the surface
c) It is moved automatically in
the opposite direction as
the surface

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374. At which two points on a a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe

gas turbine engine is
EPR measured?
a) Compressor inlet and jet
pipe
b) Combustion chamber and
jet pipe
c) Jet pipe and combustion
chamber

375. If a stall is approaching, a) Stick Shaker

what indication does the pilot
get?
a) Stick Shaker
b) Stick Nudger
c) EICAS warning

376. Flap asymmetry causes b) go one wing down‫ﺭ‬

the aircraft to
a) nose up
b) go one wing down
c) nose down

377. On a coupled approach a) It will fly straight down the original course but
what happens to the aircraft if will drift
it
looses the localizer signal?
a) It will fly straight down the
original course but will drift
b) It will fly in circles
c) It will fly on the heading the
aircraft was on

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378. If an autopilot is fed with b) it will fly in circles

radio deviation
a) it will stand off the centre
line by a fixed amount
b) it will fly in circles
c) it will fly on the heading the
aircraft was on

379. What color are the auto- b) Amber

land indication lights next to
the
pilots instruments with excess
deviation?
a) Red
b) Amber
c) White

380. If an aircraft moves in yaw a) Normal

what axis is it moving about?
a) Normal
b) Longitudinal
c) Lateral

381. The neutral shift system b) elevator

augments control of the
a) stabilizer
b) elevator
c) spoilers

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382. On a full time Fly-by-wire a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the
system a nose up command stabilizer to
causes move up
a) the two elevator surfaces
on each side of the stabilizer
to
move up
b) all the elevators on each
wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each
wing to move up

383. What are ground spoilers a) To dump lift

used for?
a) To dump lift
b) To assist the aircraft coming
to a stop
c) To slow the aircraft

384. If the aircraft is to be a) Control Wheel

rolled to the right where does
the
pilot feed in this command?
a) Control Wheel
b) Control Column
c) Rudder Pedals

385. What is the typical aircraft a) 3000 psi

hydraulic system pressure?
a) 3000 psi
b) 1000 psi
c) 300 psi

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386. If a bonding lead is found a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the
to be broken and a spare is same type
unavailable you must but larger
a) replace with a self
manufactured cable of the
same type
but larger
b) defer the defect until
correct spares are available
c) splice the broken lead

387. What is the minimum size b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable

cable, which is not likely to
carry
all the current from a primary
structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG
cable
b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG
cable
c) No smaller than 18AWG

388. What is the bonding value b) 1 ohm

between secondary structure?
a) 0.5 ohms
b) 1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and
500,000 ohms

389. What is the diagonal part a) Drag Strut

of the landing gear called?
a) Drag Strut
b) Drag Wire
c) Shock Absorber

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390. What is the advancing a) Increasing in lift

blade on a helicopter doing?
a) Increasing in lift
b) Going to the highest point
c) Increasing in drag

391. In a series actuator fitted a) 10% approx

to a helicopter how much
authority
does it have?
a) 10% approx
b) 100%
c) 50%

392. What does an INS b) Last known latitude

calculate on power up?
a) Last known longitude
b) Last known latitude
c) Last known longitude &
latitude

393. If a series actuator is b) The cyclic lever will not move

fitted in the cyclic control
circuit of a
helicopter what effect will an
autopilot input have?
a) The cyclic lever will move in
proportion to the autopilot
input
b) The cyclic lever will not
move
c) The flight director bars only
will move

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394. On an aircraft fitted with a a) Through the ground test function

CMC how do you get to the
system
pages?
a) Through the ground test
function
b) Through the Existing faults
function
c) Through the Present Leg
faults function

395. What is the purpose of a) The voltage activity in the servo amp
the autopilot trim indication?
a) The voltage activity in the
servo amp
b) Trim tab position
c) Control surface position

396. What is the entry angle of b) 42°°

an MLS installation +/-?
a) 62°°
b) 42°°
c) 20°

397. What does a piezo c) Pressure changes

electric type vibration sensor
detect?
a) Disturbances
b) Velocity
c) Pressure changes

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398. What should be carried a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off

out prior to working on or
near
surfaces?
a) Ensure Hydraulics are
selected off
b) Pull & tag circuit breakers
c) Wear ear protection

399. What is the glide slope c) 329 - 335 Mhz

frequency range?
a) 108 - 112 Mhz
b) 108 - 112 Ghz
c) 329 - 335 Mhz

400. What would indicate the b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte

state of charge of a lead acid
battery?
a) Fluctuations in the level of
the electrolyte
b) Fluctuations in the SG of the
electrolyte
c) Fluctuations in the terminal
voltage

401. Up-wash on a helicopter a) increase in lift without an increase in power

would result in
a) increase in lift without an
increase in power
b) decrease in lift
c) decrease in speed

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402. What is the aural warning b) Clacking sound

of an aircraft ,over-speeded?
a) Bell sound
b) Clacking sound
c) Horn sound

403. What is a slot used for? a) To reinforce the boundary layer

a) To reinforce the boundary
layer
b) Increased angle of attack
during approach
c) Increase the speed of the
airflow

404. A Boost Gauge reads b) absolute pressure

a) above or below ambient
atmospheric pressure
b) absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA
atmospheric pressure

405. Angle of Attack is the a) relative air flow

angle between cord line and
a) relative air flow
b) tip path plane
c) horizontal axis

406. What is the Speed of an c) 100 KHz

ARINC 429 system
a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b) 2 - 6 GHz
c) 100 KHz

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407. A high lift device is used a) take off and landing

for
a) take off and landing
b) take off only
c) landing only

408. What is the major vertical b) Bulkhead

component of an airframe that
is a load bearing part of the
structure that can be used as
walls or partial walls?
a) Frame
b) Bulkhead
c) Stringer

409. What is jitter used for in a a) To make an installation recognize it's own
DME transmission? transmission
a) To make an installation
recognize it's own transmission
b) To make sure only strong
signals are replied to in a
dense area
c) To make an aircraft
recognize a DME in a quiet
area

410. What is the minimum c) 20

candela of an anti-collision
beacon?
a) 100
b) 50
c) 20

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411. What is the calibration law b) Material of the sensing element

of a Ratio-meter?
a) Material of the coil
b) Material of the sensing
element
c) Material of the indicator
needle

412. How is a spoiler a) Spoiler to aileron

interconnected to other flight
control systems?
a) Spoiler to aileron
b) Spoiler to flap
c) Spoiler to elevator

413. What is audio clipping b) To enable consonants to be heard better

used for in voice
communication?
a) To enable vowels to be
heard better
b) To enable consonants to be
heard better
c) To enable numbers to be
heard better

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414. If a QFE is set at an c) it will probably not need resetting and will read
airfield and flown to another zero
airfield
at the same level above sea
level then
a) it will not need resetting
and will read zero
b) it will display the airfield
height above sea level
c) it will probably not need
resetting and will read zero

415. What is aileron droop? c) The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on

a) The leading edge of both
ailerons presented to the
airflow
b) One aileron lowered
c) The droop of ailerons with
no hydraulics on

416. How is the output of a c) By a swash-plate

constant speed drive fed AC
generator
controlled?
a) Hydraulic feedback to a
governor
b) No control as the generator
is fed via a constant speed
drive
c) By a swash-plate

417. Earths atmosphere is a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen

a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen

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418. thermocouple b) cannot be shortened

a) capacitance and inductance
cannot be added
b) cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened

419. How is temperature a) Bellows and diaphragm

compensation achieved in the
fluid of
a compass?
a) Bellows and diaphragm
b) Alcohol is used as it does
not get effected by
temperature
c) Press relief valve

420. When installing an aerial, c) inner plate

added support is needed for
the
structure. This is achieved by
a) webs
b) outer plate
c) inner plate

421. Relative airflow over a a) increases at the tip

helicopter blade
a) increases at the tip
b) increases at the root
c) is unaffected by blade
position

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422. TCAS II is b) 24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radius

a) 1 aircraft per square nautical
mile
b) 24 aircraft per 5 nautical
mile radius
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles
square

423. RMI in ADF mode, the b) loop voltage

pointer is moved by a
a) servomotor
b) loop voltage
c) Chinaman

424. FMC changes movement b) flight control computer

via
a) A/P actuator
b) flight control computer
c) straight to the actuator

425. Aircraft condition a) certain parameters

monitoring monitors
a) certain parameters
b) with a fault detector and
tells master warning computer
c) and compares the faults on
the aircraft with the CMC

426. Radio signals chance of a) increase with the frequency

penetration of ionosphere
a) increase with the frequency
b) decrease with frequency
c) is not affected by frequency

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427. What is lapse rate? b) Temperature changes with altitude

a) Pressure changes with
altitude
b) Temperature changes with
altitude
c) Density changes with
altitude

428. In an amplitude a) sidebands only

modulated wave, the
intelligence is contained in the
a) sidebands only
b) carrier only
c) sidebands and carrier
equally

429 What happens when a c) Elevator up, right aileron down

control stick is pulled back
and to the left?
a) Elevator up, left aileron
down
b) Elevator down, right aileron
down
c) Elevator up, right aileron
down

430. DC power into the GCU a) main battery bus

comes from
a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and
ground service
c) ground service

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431. In a boost gauge system b) 2 capsules

the sensing element contains
a) 1 capsule
b) 2 capsules
c) 3 capsules

432. If an elevator is fitted with a) move up

a fixed tab in the down
position,
the control surface will
a) move up
b) move down
c) remain at the same place

433. Spring tabs c) cannot be adjusted

a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b) can be adjusted in the flight
deck
c) cannot be adjusted

434. Rising gust in front of the a) increase

leading edge with flaps
lowered,
AoA will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain

435. If an aircraft moves in roll c) longitudinal axis

it is moving about the
a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
c) longitudinal axis

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436. LOC signal modulation is b) 20 %

a) 50 %
b) 20 %
c) 10 %

437. What instrument uses ram a) ASI

air pressure and atmospheric
pressure?
a) ASI
b) altimeter
c) VSI

438. If increasing altitude at b) increase

constant IAS, TAS will
a) decrease
b) increase
c) remain the same

439. How does a delta wing b) Elevon

aircraft move about the pitch
and
roll axis?
a) Elevator
b) Elevon
c) Ailerons

440. If a roll was commenced, a) Up Elevator

what command would the
versine
generator give?
a) Up Elevator
b) Left rudder
c) Down elevator

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441. Which signal would be a) Heading error

integrated to get onto
Localizer centerline?
a) Heading error
b) Course error
c) Radio deviation

442. What does a vibration b) Frequency of deflections

type sensor measure?
a) Maximum deflection
b) Frequency of deflections
c) Direction of flexing

443. The result of the equation a) Coefficient B

(Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as
a) Coefficient B
b) Coefficient A
c) Coefficient C

444. A 'q' feel system supplies b) The pilot with ever increasing awareness of
a) aerodynamic damping speed
b) The pilot with ever
increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort
relief

445. Cat IIIB landing, up to b) Flare

what phase is LOC signal
used?
a) Roll out
b) Flare
c) Touchdown

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446. FMC mode that can be c) CRZ

selected through the CDU is
a) DME Freq
b) LNAV
c) CRZ

447. Mode C responses a) 21 microseconds

a) 21 microseconds
b) 12 microseconds
c) 8 microseconds

448. A DGPS system installed a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites

on an aircraft requires
a) 1 ground station and 4
satellites
b) 2 ground stations and 4
satellites
c) 1 ground station and 6
satellites

449. The term 'circulating a) AC generators

currents' refer to
a) AC generators
b) AC and DC Generators
c) DC generators

450. Speed control on an c) swash plate

emergency hydraulic driven
generator is via the
a) IDG
b) CSD
c) swash plate

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451. WX radar display the time a) saw tooth wave form

base is
a) saw tooth wave form
b) trapezoidal wave form
c) rectangular wave form

452. Flight director on G/S a) to increase GS signal

capture, the pitch integration
is
a) to increase GS signal
b) to decrease GS signal
c) to maintain GS signal

453. If the inductance in a b) decreases

parallel tuned circuit is
increased in
value, the resonant frequency
a) remains the same
b) decreases
c) increases

454. When an AM carrier is a) increases

modulated, its bandwidth
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same

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455. Transformer coupling a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer

between an ADI and a flight failure
director
computer is
a) to protect the ADI in event
of a FD computer failure
b) to protect the FD computer
in case of an ADI failure
c) to protect the FD computer
in case of an HSI failure

456. Control loop gain with an a) dependent on aircraft altitude

autopilot is usually
a) dependent on aircraft
altitude
b) 100%
c) chosen as a compromise

457. With no.1 HF. system c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive
transmitting the interlock
circuit
a) allows no.2 H.F. to receive
only
b) allows no.2 H.F. to transmit
and receive
c) does not allow no.2 to
transmit or receive

458. MLS azimuth range is b) +/- 42

a) +/- 30
b) +/- 42
c) +/- 62

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459. In an auto trim horizontal a) flaps are retracted

stabilizer, 'low' speed mode is
when
a) flaps are retracted
b) landing gear up and locked
c) flaps extended

460. An aircraft receives a a) 96 nautical miles

response from a DME station,
1236
microseconds after
transmitting the interrogation.
What is
the slant range to the station?
a) 96 nautical miles
b) 100 nautical miles
c) 104 nautical miles

461. If the VOR track error is 2 a) 10

dots, how many degrees off
track
is the aircraft?
a) 10
b) 5
c) 2.5

462. What frequency range b) 118-136 MHz

does ACARS operate in?
a) 2-30 MHz
b) 118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz

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463. On an Auto-land coupled b) audio and Visual warning

approach, a GPWS warning
a) would initiate a Go Around
b) audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only

464. A Doppler VOR station's a) can be received and processed with a

transmissions conventional
a) can be received and VOR receiver
processed with a conventional
VOR receiver
b) can not be received and
processed with a conventional
VOR receiver
c) can be received but not
processed with a conventional
VOR receiver

465. When checking the b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb

altitude reporting of the
transponder
a) set the barometric altimeter
to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter
to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad. alt to 0 feet

466. Standing waves in a co- c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and

axial feeder cable are antenna
proportional to
a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch
between transmitter and
antenna

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467. Compass error remaining b) 3 degrees

after all the corrections, which
is
used for entry on the
deviation card should not
exceed
a) 2 degrees
b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees

468. Stick shaker activates at a b) 7%

speed which is above the
stalling speed by
a) 4%
b) 7%
c) 10.321%

469. Oscillation and hunting of a) Tachogenerator

flight control surface are
prevented by
a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control
surface
c) Feedback from servo motor

470. When an hydraulic system c) droop

is un pressurized, the position
of flight
control surfaces are
a) down
b) neutral
c) droop

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471. Radar beam-width c) bearing resolution

improves
a) range resolution
b) range accuracy
c) bearing resolution

472. A transformer has a c) 460V

power input of 115V AC. What
is
the output voltage?
a) 115V
b) 345V
c) 460V

473. A shunt wound generator a) in series with the field winding

fitted on an aircraft, a preset
potentiometer is fitted
a) in series with the field
winding
b) in parallel with the field
winding
c) in series with the generator
output

474. Battery trays are b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
a) metal for earthling
purposes
b) metal with PVC coating and
anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up
electrolyte

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475. When installing multiple c) either parallel or series and switched

batteries on aircraft they between as an option
are connected in
a) parallel
b) series
c) either parallel or series and
switched
between as an option

476. Maximum battery a) 115 Degrees F

temperature on charging
before protection
circuit starts is
a) 115 Degrees F
b) 144 Degrees F
c) 144 Degrees C

477. Battery charging b) Chapter 24 Section 31

procedures can be found in
ATA
a) Chapter 24 Section 21
b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21

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478. In a carbon pile regulator b) in series with the field and changes resistance
the resistive element is with surface
a) in series with the field and area contact
changes resistance with
changing
length
b) in series with the field and
changes resistance with
surface
area contact
c) in parallel with the field and
changes resistance with
changing
length

479. The output of a carbon a) stationary

pile regulator with no variation
of loading is
a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating

480. In a transistor voltage c) zeners and transistors

regulator the voltage output is
controlled by
a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers
c) zeners and transistors

481. Paralleled relay for DC c) voltage and current coil

system is energized and
connected by
a) voltage coil
b) current coil
c) voltage and current coil

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482. Increasing the real load c) increases output voltage and increases
primarily frequency
a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
c) increases output voltage
and increases frequency

483. Inductive reactive load c) increase in torque only

causes
a) no effect on torque but
produces extra heat dissipated
b) increase in torque and
increase in heat dissipated
c) increase in torque only

484. The power factor of an c) real power from the generator that does work
AC generator identifies the
proportion of
a) apparent power from the
generator that does work
b) reactive power from the
generator that does work
c) real power from the
generator that does work

485. Differential protection in c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults

an AC system protects against
* a) A reverse current flowing
from the battery
b) short circuits
c) line-line, line-line-line, line-
earth faults

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486. When resetting the CSD c) rotating at Nsync

on the ground, the engine
should be
a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync

487. One of the main purposes a) enable generators to be paralleled

of a CSD is to
a) enable generators to be
paralleled
b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on
the generator

488. In a under-volt condition a) activation of the time delay circuit

in an AC generator system, the
most likely consequence is
a) activation of the time delay
circuit
b) de-activation of the field
regulatory TRs
c) energies the bus tie relay

489. If voltage and frequency a) CSD drives shaft had sheared

of the generator drop to zero
in flight,
it would be an indication that
the
a) CSD drives shaft had
sheared
b) phase sequence detection
circuit has operated
c) bus tie interlock is
inoperative

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490. In an aircraft VOR c) 30 Hz reference signal is compared with 9960

receiver Hz variable
a) 108 MHz reference signal is phase signal
compared with 9960 Hz
variable phase signal
b) 30 Hz modulated reference
signal is compared with
30 Hz variable phase signal
c) 30 Hz reference signal is
compared with 9960 Hz
variable
phase signal

491. In CVOR, 9960 c/s AM b) REF phase

sub-carrier is used in
a) VAR phase
b) REF phase
c) station identification Morse
code

492. A secondary surveillance b) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing

radar (SSR) interrogation depending
operates on on mode of interrogation
a) a frequency of 1030 MHz
and pulse spacing of
20.3 microseconds
b) a frequency of 1030 MHz
and pulse spacing depending
on mode of interrogation
c) a frequency of 1090 MHz
and pulse spacing 20.3
microseconds

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493. In ILS, the glide slope b) vertical steering

provides
a) lateral steering
b) vertical steering
c) distance checks

494. The components of an b) A localizer, a glide slope and the marker

ILS are: beacons
a) A localizer and a glide
slope
b) A localizer, a glide slope
and the marker beacons
c) A localizer and the marker
beacons

495. Localizer modulation b) 20%

depth is
a) 2%
b) 20%
c) 50%

496. The VSWR of a VHF b) 2:1

system with a forward power
of 100W
and a reflected power of 4W
will be
a) 1.5:1
b) 2:1
c) 2.5:1

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497. When an ADF antenna is a) reverse R1+R2 connections only

repositioned from the bottom
of the
fuselage to the top, the wiring
of the bearing indicator must
be
a) reverse R1+R2 connections
only
b) reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2
connections
c) reverse R1+S2 connections

498. The mode S squatter a) trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogation
pulse will
a) trigger the TCAS mode S all
call interrogation
b) contain the aircraft identity
c) contain the aircraft range
and altitude in

499. When using the GPS b) once the database card has expired the system
a) database card must be will
replaced every 28 days continue to operate with a warning message
b) once the database card has
expired the system will
continue to operate with a
warning message
c) once the database expires
the system will not operate

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500. When the ILS marker b) increased by 10 to 12db

hi/lo switch is set to lo
a) receiver sensitivity is
reduced by 10 to 12db
b) increased by 10 to 12db
c) marker lamps are
illuminated by a lower signal
level

501. In a CVR system hot mics a) are as selected by the boom/mic switches
a) are as selected by the
boom/mic switches
b) is a term applied to all the
aircrafts mics
c) get their power supply from
the selected Tx via the r/t
switch

502. A DME receives a ground b) 200 nm

transponder reply after 2472
microseconds, the slant range
to the transponder is
approximately
a) 196 nm
b) 200 nm
c) 200 statute miles

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503. A laser dither mechanism a) optical backscatter does not cause the contra
ensures that rotating beams to lock together
a) optical backscatter does
not cause the contra
rotating beams to lock
together
b) the contra rotating beams
are synchronized together
c) that the two contra rotating
beams are each at different
frequencies

504. Which modes of the a) modes 1, 3, 4a, 6

GPWS may be inhibited
a) modes 1, 3, 4a, 6
b) modes 2, 4, 5
c) modes 4b, 5

505. DFDR (digital flight data c) 8

recorder) RINC 573 data bus
has how
many sub-frames?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8

506. The middle marker is a) dots

keyed with
a) dots
b) dashes
c) alternate dots and dashes

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507. What is the millivolt c) 75/75

deflection per dot on ILS/VOR
a) 25/75
b) 25/5
c) 75/75

508. An accelerometer has c) high inertia, free suspension

a) low inertia, free suspension
b) high inertia, restrained
c) high inertia, free suspension

509. When a compass is in the c) the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or
slave mode synchronizer
a) the azimuth gyro will circuit
wander uncompensated
b) azimuth gyro will be
corrected by long term
monitoring
of the flux valve
c) the azimuth gyro is slaved
to the annunciator or
synchronizer
circuit

510. Dome lights on the flight b) battery bus bar or ground services
deck are powered by the
a) battery bus bar
b) battery bus bar or ground
services
c) ground services

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511. Bandwidth of HF b) 1.5khz

transmission is
a) 1khz
b) 1.5khz
c) 3khz

512. A flux valve becomes c) Remote compass will indicate in one direction
permanently magnetized. only
What will be the
effect?
a) More deviation
b) More variation
c) Remote compass will
indicate in one direction only

513. During a system overload, a) galley services

load sharing will first affect
a) galley services
b) IFE
c) first officers transfer bus

514. What maneuver does a) TA

TCAS II advise the pilot to
make
a) TA
b) RA
c) either RA or TA

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515. What are the shapes of b) White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
traffic shown on a TCAS
display ?
a) White diamonds, red
squares and amber circles
b) White squares, red
diamonds and amber circles
c) White circles, red diamonds
and amber squares

516. A RAT provides AC power a) 7.5 kva

of around
a) 7.5 kva
b) 63 kva
c) 28 VAC

517. If voltage and frequency a) Phase sequence detection circuit has operated
of the generator drop to zero
in flight,
it would be an indication that
the
a) Phase sequence detection
circuit has operated
b) CSD drive shaft has sheared
c) bus tie interlock is
inoperative

518. Paralleling in AC constant b) Generator Control Unit (GCU)

frequency is affected by
a) contactors
b) Generator Control Unit
(GCU)
c) Buss Tie Barker (BTB)

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519. The power factor of an c) real power from the generator that does work
AC generator identifies the
proportion of
a) reactive power from the
generator that does work
b) apparent power from the
generator that does work
c) real power from the
generator that does work

520. Parallel distribution c) aircraft with 4 or more engines only

systems can typically be found
on all
a) twin-engine aircraft
b) aircraft with 3 or more
engines
c) aircraft with 4 or more
engines only

521. Aircraft generators are b) series to the bus-bar, series to the load and the
connected in loads
a) series to the bus-bar, parallel to each other
parallel to the load and the
loads
parallel to each other
b) series to the bus-bar, series
to the load and the loads
parallel to each other
c) parallel to the bus-bar,
series to the load and the
loads
parallel to each other

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522. Mach trim counters b) lateral instability

a) longitudinal instability
b) lateral instability
c) vertical instability

523. Non-essential loads such a) Ground services bus

as galleys and cabin lighting
operate from
a) Ground services bus
b) Ground handling bus
c) Transfer bus

524. TCAS will issue a traffic c) a collision is within 35-40 seconds of occurring
advisory if
a) aircraft are within 6 nautical
miles laterally and
1200 feet vertically of each
other
b) a collision is within 25-35
seconds of occurring
c) a collision is within 35-40
seconds of occurring

525. The auto gain voltage of a) in the workshop

a weather radar is set
a) in the workshop
b) by the manufacturer
c) by adjusting the gain
control until optimum picture
quality is obtained

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526. When servicing an RVSM b) the alt. alert must be serviceable

aircraft
a) all pitot/static instruments
must be serviceable
b) the alt. alert must be
serviceable
c) the alt hold must be
serviceable

527. A GNS satellite system b) horizontally polarized

transmissions are
a) vertically polarized
b) horizontally polarized
c) right hand circular

528. An anti-servo tab c) moves in the opposite direction to the control

a) assists the pilot to move the surface
controls back to neutral to assist the pilot
b) moves in the same direction
as the control surface to
assist the pilot
c) moves in the opposite
direction to the control
surface
to assist the pilot

529. A typical Ratiometer a) 3 phase AC

indicating system would use
a) 3 phase AC
b) Single phase AC for the
indicator and transmitter
c) Single phase AC for the
indicator and DC for the
transmitter

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530. Cat 2 RVR if the alert b) 400m

height is 100 feet will be
a) 300m
b) 400m
c) 800m

531. A plain flap b) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing
a) When stowed makes up edge
part of the wing trailing edge upper surface
lower surface
b) When stowed makes up
part of the wing trailing edge
upper surface
c) when deployed increases
the camber of the wing

532. ICAO Standard c) relevant to set parameters

atmosphere is
a) taken from data measured
at the equator
b) taken from data measured
at 45 degrees North
c) relevant to set parameters

533. On the ASP how many Rx b) multiple Rx and multiple Tx

and Tx can be selected at any
one time ?
a) multiple Rx and only one Tx
b) multiple Rx and multiple Tx
c) only one Rx and only one
Tx

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534. DME squitter comes from a) DME station

a) DME station
b) interrogator
c) test set

535. How do the crew select a) selected on the main altimeter

decision height?
a) selected on the main
altimeter
b) Selected on the radio
altimeter display
c) selecting a switch on the
control panel

536. What type of signal is b) Switchable a.c

used for trigger height trip
signals?
a) Switchable d.c
b) Switchable a.c
c) variable d.c

537. The AFCS remains in a) until 2 seconds after touchdown

control:
a) until 2 seconds after
touchdown
b) until reverse thrust is
selected
c) until disengaged by flight
crew

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538. The plane of polarization c) E and H fields are parallel

is defined as the plane in
which the
a) E field lies
b) H field lies
c) E and H fields are parallel

539. The stability of an RF a) direct coupling to an RF amplifier

oscillator can be improved by
a) direct coupling to an RF
amplifier
b) a buffer amplifier
c) tight coupling to an RF
amplifier

540. What does a current b) Allow high current to flow for 5 seconds
limiter fuse do?
a) Limit current to a
predetermined level to
prevent circuit
damage
b) Allow high current to flow
for 5 seconds
c) React when the circuit gets
warm

541. When terminating an b) Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc
aluminum cable, what oxide
preparations would be
carried out before crimping?
a) Just terminate
b) Apply a mixture of 50%
petroleum jelly and zinc oxide
c) Degrease stripped cable

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542. The distance over which b) to radio line of sight

VHF communication may be
achieved is
limited
a) by local weather conditions
in the troposphere
b) to radio line of sight
c) to conditions in the
ionosphere

543. A Mach meter b) does not compensate for square law

a) compensates for square law
b) does not compensate for
square law
c) uses a spring and bar

544. At its resonant frequency, a) maximum impedance

a parallel tuned circuit has
a) maximum impedance
b) minimum impedance
c) the same impedance as at
any other frequency

545. Crystals operate reliably a) 1000MHz

at fundamental frequencies up
to
a) 1000MHz
b) 100MHz
c) 30MHz

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546. The RF resistance of an c) is independent of frequency

inductor
a) decreases as frequency is
increased
b) increases as frequency is
increased
c) is independent of frequency

547. At its resonant frequency, b) has minimum voltage developed across it

a parallel tuned circuit
a) offers minimum impedance
b) has minimum voltage
developed across it
c) has maximum circulating
currents

548. In a dual FMS, a failure of c) no effect on the CDU

one computer will result in
a) Completely blank display
on one CDU
b) down-grade of the landing
category
c) no effect on the CDU

549. When can, the FMS be c) Only with the autopilot engaged
engaged with the auto-
throttle?
a) Before takeoff
b) After takeoff
c) Only with the autopilot
engaged

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550. Tx output stages are a) because the efficiency is high

normally run in class C
a) because the efficiency is
high
b) so that the output is rich in
harmonics
c) as higher gains can be
obtained

551. Which of the following a) Hartley

has the best frequency
stability?
a) Hartley
b) Colpitts
c) Tuned collector tuned base

552. A quartz crystal has the b) high 'Q' resonant circuit

characteristics of a
a) resistive bridge network
b) high 'Q' resonant circuit
c) pair of tuned circuits

553. Air density compensation b) altitude

requires
a) OAT
b) altitude
c) altitude and OAT

554. Time base of PPI display c) a trapezoid

is
a) a ramp
b) a square wave
c) a trapezoid

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555. The maximum acceptable c) 3 : 1

tuning ratio of an RF amplifier
is
a) 9 : 1
b) 6 : 1
c) 3 : 1

556. Single Side Band filters b) 1Khz

are
a) 3Khz
b) 1Khz
c) 6Khz

557. Delayed Automatic Gain a) decrease for low signal

Control is inoperative, the
sensitivity
of the receive
a) decrease for low signal
b) increase for low signal
c) increase for high signal

558. Rollout guidance by the a) 80 knots

rudder is effective to about
a) 80 knots
b) 110 knots
c) 30 knots

559. Go-around mode can be a) after glide slope capture

initiated
a) after glide slope capture
b) at any time
c) below 2000ft

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560. Vortex ring start requires c) power on descent

a) retreating blade stall
b) advancing blade stall
c) power on descent

561. Man made noise causes c) mainly below 12 Mhz

interference
a) mainly above 12 Mhz.
b) only in the LF band
c) mainly below 12 Mhz

562. Signals used during the c) Rad. alt and integrated pitch
flare are
a) GS and rad. alt
b) GS and integrated pitch
c) Rad. alt and integrated pitch

563. A single side band c) One half of the high level modulation
transmission is equal to
a) High level modulation
b) Low level modulation
c) One half of the high level
modulation

564. Glide slope gain b) altitude above MSL and radio altitude
programming is based on
a) pressure altitude
b) altitude above MSL and
radio altitude
c) radio altitude

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565. Radio waves are said to c) from about 10 MHz upwards

have line-of-sight propagation
a) above about 100MHz
b) not below 1000MHz
c) from about 10 MHz upwards

566. To check side lobe a) select ATC on ASP

suppression
a) select ATC on ASP
b) use a ramp test set
c) carry out a self test

567. On an FMCS CDU, you b) VNAV

can select
a) N1 Thrust
b) VNAV
c) VOR

568. What is Track angle? a) The angle, measured clockwise, between true
a) The angle, measured north
clockwise, between true north and the aircraft ground track
and the aircraft ground track
b) The angle, measured
clockwise, between true north
and the aircraft longitudinal
axis
c) The angle between true
heading (HGD) and ground
track

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569. In color WXR AGC is set a) in workshop

a) in workshop
b) automatically on receiver
noise level
c) by operator on manually
adjusted gain control

570. Tail rotor effects the b) Horizontal

helicopter in
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Pitch and Roll

571. What is needed for RHO- b) 1 VOR and 1 DME signals

RHO navigation?
a) 2 DME signals
b) 1 VOR and 1 DME signals
c) 1 VOR/DME signal

572. The loop aerial polar a) cardioid

diagram is a
a) cardioid
b) figure 8
c) circle

573. Single Side Band filters b) 1Khz

are
a) 3Khz
b) 1Khz
c) 6Khz

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574. The frequency spectrum a) infinitely wide

of noise is
a) infinitely wide
b) restricted to the audio band
c) restricted to the HF band

575. Man made noise causes a) mainly above 12Mhz

interference
a) mainly above 12Mhz
b) only in the LF band
c) mainly below 12Mhz

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