WEEKLY EXAM 5

Chemical Calculations, Flow of Fluids, Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer

& Evaporation

1. The equivalent diameter of a concentric annular space where 1-in OD pipe is

located inside a 2-in ID pipe is
A. 1 in B. 1.5 in C. π/4 in D. 2 in

2. A heavy hydrogen oil (Cp=2.30 kJ/kg-K) is being cooled in a countercurrent

double pipe heat exchanger from 371oK to 349oK and flows inside the inner pipe’1ft
3630 kg/hr. Water is used for cooling at a rate of 1450 kg/hr and enters the annulus
at 288.6K. The outlet temperature of water should be
A. 319.1oF B. 319.1oK C. 280oF D. 280oK

3. From the data in problem #2, the logarithmic mean temperature difference is
A. 60oK B. 50oK C. 57oK D. 69oK

4. Methyl alcohol flowing in the inner pipe of a double pipe exchanger is cooled with
water flowing in the jacket. The inner pipe is made from 1-inch schedule 40 steel
pipe, k of steel is 26 Btu/hr-ft-oF. The individual coefficients and fouling factor are
ho=300 Btu/hr-ft2-oF, hi=180, hdo=500 and hdi=1000. What is the overall heat
transfer coefficient, based on the outside area of the inner in Btu/hr-f 2t-oF?
A. 89 B. 71 C. 26 D. 98

5. Two liquids of different densities (1500 kg/m 3 and 500 kg/m3) are poured together
into a 100-liter tank, filling it. if the resulting density of the mixture is 800 kg/m 3,
find the respective mass of the liquids used.
A. 45kg & 35kg B. 40kg & 40kg C. 50kg & 30kg D. 55kg & 25kg

6. A fluid moves in a steady flow manner between two sections in a flow line. At
section 1: A1=1 f2t, V1=1000 fpm and v1 = 4 ft3/lb. At section 2: A2=2ft2, p2=0.20
lb/ft3. Calculate the velocity at section 2.
A. 3.2 m/s B. 2.8 m/s C. 2.4 m/s D. 2.0 m/s

7. Two gases stream enter a combining tube and leave as single mixture. These
data apply at the entrance sections: For one gas, A1=75in 2, V1=500fps,
v1=10ft3/lb; for the other gas, A2=50 in2, m2=60,000 lb/hr, p2=0.12 lb/ft3. At exit,
V3=350 fps, v3=7ft3/lb. find the velocity V2 at section 2.
A. 250 ft/s B. 300 ft/s C. 350 ft/s D. 400ft/s

8. From the data problem #7, find the mass flow rate at the exit section.
A. 144,400 lb/hr B. 148,200 lb/hr C. 153,750 lb/hr D. 154,800 lb/hr

9. From the data from problem #7, find the cross sectional area ta the exit.
A. 115 in2 B. 123 in2 C. 128 in2 D. 133 in2

10. If 6L of a gas at a pressure of 100 kPa abs are compressed reversibly according
to pv2=C until the volume becomes 2 L, find the final pressure.
A. 800 kPa abs B. 850 kPa abs C. 900 kPa abs D. 950 kPa abs
11. From the data in problem #10, find the work.
A. 1.2 kJ B. 2.7 kJ C. 3.2 kJ D. 3.8 kJ

12. Work is done by a substance in a reversible non-flow manner according to

v=100/p-ft3, where p is in psia. Evaluate the work done on or by the substance as
the pressure increases from 10 psia to 100 psai.
A. 28987 ft-lb B. 33157 ft-lb C. 34550 ft-lb D. 35675 ft-lb

13. If 6 lb argon undergo a constant pressure heating process from 80 oF to 230oF,

determine the heat needed.
A. 112 Btu B. 242 Btu C. 312 Btu D. 455 Btu

14. From the data in problem #13, calculate the change in internal energy.
A. 412 Btu B. 345 Btu C. 210 Btu D. 67 Btu

15. A closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible process during which 25 Btu
are rejected, the volume changing from 5 f 3t to 2 ft3, and the pressure remains
constant at 50 psia. Find the change iof internal energy.
A. 2.76 Btu B. 12.4 Btu C. 18.9 Btu D. 24.5 Btu

16. A 10 ft3 drum contains saturated vapor at 100oF. What are the pressure and
mass of vapor in the drum if the substance is water?
A. 10.5 psia, 0.3 lb B. 0.95 psia, 0.03 lb C. 21.0 psia, 2.4 lb D. 32 psia, 10.5 lb

17. A 10 ft3 drum contains saturated vapor at 100oF. What are the pressure and
mass of vapor in the drum if the substance is ammonia?
A. 20.5 psia,1.25 lb B. 75.2 psia, 23.4 lb C. 212psia, 7.14 lb D. 11 psia, 0.56 lb

18. A 10 ft3 drum contains saturated vapor at 100oF. What are the pressure and
mass of vapor in the drum if the substance is Freon 12r?
A. 130 psia, 32.3 lb B. 98 psia, 24.5 lb C. 65.4 psia, 18.9 lb D. 34.2 psia, 8.9 lb

19. A liquid with specific gravity of 4.7 and a viscosity of 1.3 cp flows through a
smooth pipe of unknown diameter, resulting in a pressure drop of 0.183 lbf/in 2 for
1.73 mi. What is the pipe diameter in inches if the mass flow rate is 5900 lb/hr?
A. 3.64 in B. 0.44 in C. 5.74 in D. 0.005 in

20. The equivalent of 45oTw in the Baume scale is

A. 28.32 B. 32.48 C. 26.63 D. 42.56

21. One drier will dry a material from 45% moisture (wet basis) to 20% moisture
(dry basis) from here the material enters another drier where the H 2O content is
further reduced to a give a final product weighing 1000 kg. If the total evaporation
form both driers is 800 kg, the moisture is
A. 5% B. 2% C. 3% D. 1%

22. A mill produces wet paper containing 15% water by weight (wet basis). This
water paper is fed in a continuous steady-state operation through a drier where the
water content is reduced to 6% by weight. If the heating cost is 5 centavos for every
pound of water removed from the paper in the drying operation, what is the heating
cost per 100 lb of wet paper fed into the dryer?
A. P1.50 B. P0.36 C. P0.48 D. P2.00

23. Battery acid has a density of 1286 g/ml and contains 38.0% by weight H 2SO4.
How many grams of pure H2SO4 ore contained in a liter battery acid?
A. 430 B. 442 C. 475 D. 488
24. A dehumidifier sprays 50 lb of cool water per minute into a stream of air. One
hundred pounds of wet air per minute enters the dehumidifying chamber. The
absolute humidity of the entering air is 0.05 water/lb dry air and that of the leaving
air is 0.01 lb water/lb dry air. What is the weight of wet air leaving per minute?
A. 3.81 B. 50 C. 53.81 D. 96.2

25. What volume of 0.125 M H2SO4 is required to completely precipitate all of the
barium in 10.00 mL of a 0.150 M Barium nitrate solution?
A. 12.0 mL B. 24.0 mL C. 6.00 mL D. 0.206 mL

26. The fermentation of glucose, C6H12O6, produces ethyl alcohol, C2H5OH, and
carbon dioxide, C6H12O6(aq)  2 C2H5OH(aq) +2CO2(g). How many grams of ethanol
can be produced from 10 grams of glucose?
A. 10.0 g B. 2.56 g C. 5.11 g D. 4.89 g

27. If the reaction of 3.82 g magnesium nitride with 7.73 g of water produced 3.6 g
of magnesium oxide, what is the percent yield of this reaction?
A. 94.5 % B. 78.8 % C. 46.6 % D. 49.4 %

28. A certain stoichiometric problem was solved on the basis of 100 moles dry flue
gas (DFG). The given conditions at the stack outlet are as follows: 780 mmHg, 970 K
and the partial pressure of H2O is 24 mmHg. The computed total moles of H2O is
A. 2.340 B. 4.232 C. 3.175 D. 6.225

29. A certain stoichiometric problem was solved on the basis of 100 moles dry flue
gas (DFG). The given conditions at the stack outlet are as follows: 780 mmHg, 970 K
and the partial pressure of H2O is 24 mmHg. The partial pressure of H2O is equal to
_____in Hg
A. 0.88 B. 0.80 C. 0.85 D. 0.94

30. A certain stoichiometric problem was solved on the basis of 100 moles dry flue
gas (DFG). The given conditions at the stack outlet are as follows: 780 mmHg, 970 K
and the partial pressure of H2O is 24 mmHg. The volume of the wet gas is
A. 6.098 m3 B. 8.001 m3 C. 8719 L D. 592 L

31. A certain stoichiometric problem was solved on the basis of 100 moles dry flue
gas (DFG). The given condition at the stack outlet is as follows: 780 mmHg, 970 K
and the partial pressure of H2O is 24 mmHg. Pressure of the gas stream in psia is:
A. 15.09 B. 14.7 C. 22.34 D. 21.71

32. A certain stoichiometric problem was solved on the basis of 100 mole dry flue
gas (DFG). The given condition at the stack outlet is as follows: 780 mmHg, 970 K
and the partial pressure of H2O is 24 mmHg. Actual volume occupied by the
computed moles of H2O is
A. 246.22 L B. 256.33 L C. 24.9 L D. 25.6 L

33. A certain stoichiometric problem was solved on the basis of 100 moles dry flue
gas (DFG). The given condition at the stack outlet is as follows: 780 mmHg, 970 K
and the partial pressure of H2O is 24 mmHg. Flue gas temperature in oF is
A. 613 B. 1472 C. 323 D. 1287

34. A furnace completely burns coal containing 80% C. Analysis of the fuel gas
shows 14.5% CO2, 3.76% O2 and no CO. What is the percentage of the net hydrogen
in the coal?
A. 6.37% B. 8.90% C. 10.12% D. 14.25%

35. One kilogram of water (c=4.2 kJ/kg-K) is heated by 300 Btu energy. What is the
change in temperature in K?
A. 73.8 B. 17.9 C. 74.4 D. 75.4

36. What is the needed to raise 1 molecule of water by 10 oC in ergs?

A. 1.3E-14 B. 2.6E-12 C. 2.6E-14 D. 1.2E-12

37. What is the resulting pressure when one pound of air at 50 psia and 200 F is
heated at constant volume to 800 F?
A. 52.1 psia B. 36.4 psia C. 75.3 psia D. 95.5 psia

38. What is the change in entropy of 1 lbmol of an ideal gas which is initially at
120oF and 10 atm pressure is expanded irreversibly to 1 atm and 70 oF? The molar
heat capacity at constant pressure is 7 Btu/lbmol- oF.
A. 4.58 B. 3.95 C. 0.63 D. 0

39. A Carnot engine rejects 80 MJ of energy every hour by transferring heat to a

reservoir at 10oC. Determine the high-temperature reservoir in oC if the rate of
energy addition is 40 kW.
A. 120 C B. 230 C. 239 D. 275

40. A heat engine (Carnot Cycle) has its intake and exhaust temperature of 157 C
and 100 C respectively. What is the efficiency?
A. 12.65% B. 14.75% C. 15.35% D. 13.25%

41. A heat engine absorbd heat from the combustion of gasoline at 2200 oC. The
gasoline has a specific gravity of 0.8 and a heat of combustion of 11,200 cal/gram.
The engine rejects heat at 1200oC. The maximum work in calories that can be
obtained from the combustion of 1 liter gasoline is
A. 3.62E6 cal B. 4.53E4 cal C. 3.78E5 cal D. 4.22E6 cal

42. A Carnot engine requires 35 kJ/s from the hot source. The engine produces 15
kW of power and the temperature of the sinks is 26 oC. What is the temperature of
the hot source in oC?
A. 245.7 B. 210.10 C. 250.18 D. 260.68
43. A heat engine operates on a Carnot cycle with an efficiency of 75%. What CCP
would a refrigerator operations on the same cycle have? The low temperature is 0
C.
A. 0.45 B. 0.57 C. 0.67 D. 0.33

44. The density of ice is 917 kg/m3, and the approximate density of sea water in
which an iceberg floats is 1025 kg/m 3. What fraction of iceberg is beneath the water
surface?
A. 0.45 B. 0.71 C. 0.89 D. 0.29
45. An iceberg has a specific weight of 9000 N/m 2 in ocean water, with a specific
weight of 10000 N/m2. Above the water surface, it was observed that a volume of
2800 m3 of the iceberg protruded. Determine the volume of the iceberg below the
free surface of the ocean.
A. 23000 m3 B. 25000 m3 C. 35000 m3 D. 38000 m3
46. An ice berg has a density of 57.1 lb /ft 3. If it floats in fresh water, what percent
of the iceberg’s volume will be visible?
A. 10.5% B. 7.5% C. 8.5% D. 5.5%

47. Water at 60 deg F flows through a 3-inch schedule 40 pipe. A pitot tube in the
pipe shows a 3-inch Hg differential. If the pitot tube is located at the center of the
pipe, what is the mass flow rate of the water in lb/s?
A. 11.61 B. 14.24 C. 31.7 D. 37.1

48. Water is flowing in a pipe. At point 1 the inside diameter is 0.25 m and the
velocity is 2 m/s. what is the velocity at point 2 where the inside diameter is 0.125
m?
A. 24.2 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 8 ft/s D. 24.2 ft/min

49. Water is flowing in a 5 centimeter diameter pipe at a velocity of 5 m/s. the pipe
expands to 10-centimeter diameter pipe. Find the velocity in the 10-centimeter
pipe.
A. 1.25 m/s B. 1.50 m/s C. 1.75 m/s D. 2.00 m/s
50. Water is flowing in a 5 centimeter diameter pipe at a velocity of 5 m/s. the pipe
expands to 10-centimeter diameter pipe. Find the volumetric flow rate in the 10-
centimeter diameter pipe.
A. 589 L/min B. 610 L/min C. 615 L/min D. 621 L/min

51. Water is flowing in a pipe of varying cross-sectional area, and at all points the
water completely fills the pipe. The cross-sectional area at point 1 is 0.80 m 2, and
the velocity of is 3.5 m/s. compute the fluid’s velocity at point 2 where the cross
sectional area is 0.60 m2
A. 5.22 m/s B. 2.57 m/s C. 4.67 m/s D. 3.25 m/s

52. At which critical speed which the flow of water in a long cylindrical pipe of
diameter 2 cm becomes turbulent considering that the temperature is 20 oC,
viscosity is 1E-3 Pa-s, and the critical Reynold’s number is 3000.
A. 0.350 m/s B. 0.250 m/s C. 0.234 m/s D. 0.150 m/s
53. Oil at 1190oF (SG=0.826) is flowing at a rate of 105 lb/min through a 0.75-in
diameter galvanized pipe that is 12 feet long; the kinematic viscosity of the oil
0.000862 ft2/sec. The loss due to friction is 112 lbf/ft2 per ft of pipe. Determine the
Reynold’s number.
A. 400 B. 800 C. 1200 D. 1600

54. At 68F water has a dynamic viscosity of about 2.11E-5 lb-s/ft 2. Which of the
following is the kinematic viscosity in ft2/s of water whose specific gravity is 0.998
at this temperature?
A. 1.09E-5 B. 3.12E-5 C. 2.10E-7 D. 4.25E-5

55. SAE 10 oil at 20C with absolute (dynamic) viscosity of 0.0017 lb-s/ft 2 is sheared
between two parallel plates 0.02 in apart with lower fixed and the upper plate
moving at 15 ft/s. Compute the shear stress in the oil.
A. 15.3 lb/ft2 B. 24.7 lb/ft2 C. 16.3 lb/ft2 D. 12.3 lb/ft2

56. Oil with viscosity 30cp and a density of 600 lb/ft 3 flows through a ½ inch ID tube.
Determine the velocity in ft/s below which the flow is laminar.
A. 13.1 B. 169 C. 87.9 D. 0.63

57. Water is flowing in a 5 centimeter diameter pipe at a velocity of 5 m/s. the pipe
expands 10-centimeter diameter pipe. Calculate the Reynold’s number in the 5-
centimeter diameter section of pipe. The kinematic viscosity of water is 1.12E-6
m2/s.
A. 1.2 E 4 B. 1.2 E 5 C. 2.2 E 4 D. 2.2 E 5

58. 98% sulfuric acid of viscosity 0.025 N-s/m2 and a density 1840 kg/m3 is pumped
at 685 cm3/s through a 25 mm line. Calculate the value of the Reynold’s number.
A. 1200 B. 1745 C. 2100 D. 2572

59. An astronaut weighs 730 N in Houston, Texas, where the local acceleration of
gravity is g=9.792 m/s2 what is the astronauts weight on the moon, where g=1.67
m/s2?
A. 210 N B. 175 N C. 143 N D. 125 N

60. Steam at 200 psia and 600oF (state 1) enters a turbine through a standard 3-in
pipeline with a velocity of 10 ft/s. The exhaust from the turbine is carried through a
standard 10-in pipeline and is at 4 psia and 160 oF (state 2). Data: H1=1321.4
BTU/lb, V1=3.059 ft3/lb, H2=1129.3 BTU/lb, V2=92.15 ft3/lb. what is the power
output of the turbine in Hp, assuming no heat losses.
A. 40.2 B. 43.1 C. 45.6 D. 47.5

61. Water at 20oC is flowing in a pipe of radius 1.0 cm. The viscosity of water of
20oC is 1.005 centipoise. If the flow speed at the center is 0.200 m/s and the flow is
laminar, find the pressure drop along a 5 m section pipe.
A. 20.4 Pa B. 40.2 Pa C. 13.4 Pa D. 45.8 Pa

62. What is the pressure drop in psi of 60 oF water flowing through 65 ft of horizontal
1-inch schedule 40 pipe at 20 gpm?
A. 1.2 B. 7.1 C. 21.0 D. 0.008
63. What is the Fanning friction factor for smooth pipes when Reynold’s number is
1E7?
A. 0.0015 B. 0.002 C. 0.0025 D. 0.003

64. The Fanning friction factor for a 10-mm galvanized iron pipe when Reynold’s
number is 2E7 is approximately
A. 0.011 B. 0.014 C. 0.015 D. 0.01

65. Find the diameter of a square edged orifice used to measure a 150 gpm water
flow at 60oF in a 4-inch schedule 40 pipe with a pressure differential of 3 psi.
A. 0.637 in B. 1.243 in C. 1.765 in D. 2.008 in

66. Natural gas (viscosity=0.11 cP) is flowing through a 6-in schedule 40 pipe
equipped with a 2-in orifice with flanged taps. The manometer reading is 50 in H 2O
at 60oF, k for natural gas is 1.3. Calculate the rate of the gas through the line in
pounds per hour. Assume the molecular weight of the gas is 16.
A. 11150 lb/hr B. 1212 lb/hr C. 1361 lb/hr D. 1540 lb/hr

67. Air at 1500 kN/m2 and 370 K, flows through an orifice of 30 mm2 to atmospheric
pressure. If the coefficient of discharge is 0.65, the critical pressure ratio 0.527, and
the ratio of the specific heats is 1.4, calculate the mass flowrate.
A. 0.000061 kg/s B. 0.0061 kg/s C. 0.061 kg/s D. 6.1 kg/s

68. A venture meter having a throat diameter of 38.9 mm is installed in a line

having an inside diameter of 102.3 mm. it meters water having a density of 999
kg/m3. The measured pressure drop across the venture coefficient Cv is 0.98.
Calculate the flow rate in gal/min.
A. 0.02 B. 330 C. 245 D. 125

69. A heat exchanger is required to cool 20 kg/s of water from 360 K to 340 K by
means of 25 kg/s water entering at 300 K if the overall coefficient of heat transfer is
constant at 2 kW/m2K calculate the surface area required in a co-current concentric
tube exchanger.
A. 17.5 sq. m. B. 21.3 sq. m. C. 19.8 sq. m. D. 24.3 sq. m.

70. Find the thermal conductivity of 0.5 m thick material with an area of 5 m 2 and a
temperature difference of 10 K if the heat transmitted during 2 hour test is 2000 kJ?
A. 2.78 W/m-K B. 3.67 W/m-K C. 1.52 W/m-K D. 4.41 W/m-K

71. A furnace has an area of 1000 ft2 exposed to surrounding. The furnace is made
of 6 inch thick insulating bricks with a thermal conductivity of 0.15 BTU/hr-ft- oF. The
change in temperature across the brick is 150 oF. How much fuel is required in lb/day
to heat the furnace if the fuel has a heating value of 15000 BTU/lb?
A. 342 B. 26 C. 72 D. 610

72. A furnace wall is constructed of firebrick, 6 in. thick. The temperature of the
inside of the wall is 1300oF, and the temperature of the outside of the wall is 175 o-F.
If the mean thermal conductivity of the brick under these conditions is 0.17 Btu/hr-
oF-ft, what is the rate of heat loss through 10 sq. ft of wall surface?
A. 1200 Btu/hr B. 1940 Btu/hr C. 2400 Btu/hr D. 3825 Btu/hr

73. Find the heat loss per square meter of surface through a brick wall 0.5 m thick
when the inner surface is at 400 K and the outside is at 300 K. The thermal
conductivity of the brick may be taken as 0.7 W/mK.
A. 140 W/sq.m. B. 145 W/sq.m. C. 150 W/sq.m. D. 155 W/sq.m.

74. A plane wall is 2 m high by 3 m wide and is 20 cm thick. It is made of a material

which has a thermal conductivity of 0.5 W/m-K. At temperature difference of 60 oC is
imposed on the two large faces. Find the heat flux in W/m 2.
A. 150 B. 145 C. 160 D. 155

75. A plane wall is 2 m high by 3 m wide and is 20 cm thick. It is made of a material

which has a thermal conductivity of 0.5 W/m-K. At temperature difference of 60 oC is
imposed on the two large faces. Find the heat loss in watts.
A. 950 B. 790 C. 850 D. 900

76. A furnace is constructed with 0.20 m of firebrick (1.4 W/mK), 0.10 m insulating
brick (k=0.21 W/mK), and 0.20 m of building b rick (k=0.70 W/mK). The inside
temperature is 1200 K and the outside temperature 330 K. find the heat loss per
unit area in W/sq.m.
A. 700 B. 750 C. 850 D. 960

77. A furnace is constructed with 0.20 m of firebrick (1.4 W/mK), 0.10 m insulating
brick (k=0.21 W/mK), and 0.20 m of building b rick (k=0.70 W/mK). The inside
temperature is 1200 K and the outside temperature 330 K. Calculate the
temperature at the junction of the firebrick and the insulating brick.
A. 800 K B. 1080 K C. 1063 K D. 985 K

78. A furnace wall consists of an inner layer of refractory brick 20 cm thick and an
outer layer of insulating brick 20 cm thick. The fire side of the refractory brick is at
1000oC while the outside wall of the insulating brick is at 80 oC. The thermal
conductivities of the refractory brick and the insulating brick are 1.52 W/m- oC and
0.14 W/m-oC respectively. The temperature at the junction of the two brick is
A. 342oC B. 948oC C. 888oC D. 550oC

79. Calculate the heat loss per linear foot from 2-in nominal pipe (2.375-in outside
diameter) covered with 1-in of an insulating material having an average thermal
conductivity of 0.0375 BTY/ht-ft-oF, Assume that the inner and outer surface
temperatures of the insulation are 390oF and 80oF respectively.
A. 110 BTU/hr-ft B. 120 BTU/hr-ft C. 118 BTU/hr-ft D. 126 BTU/hr-ft

80. A metallic tube ha a 3” inside diameter and 6” outside diameter. The inner side
is maintained at 300oC while the outside is maintained at 100oC. What is the heat
loss per foot of the pipe in Btu/hr-ft? k= 45 Btu/ht-f-ft
A. 71200 B. 71280 C. 72040 D. 73424

81. A steel pipeline, 2-in schedule 40 (thickness, 3.91 mm and inside diameter,
52.50 mm), contains saturated steam at 121.1oC. The line is insulated with 25.4 mm
asbestos (k=0.182 W/m-K). Assuming that the inside surface temperature of the
metal wall is at 121.1oC and the
outer surface of the insulation is at 26.7oC, calculate the heat loss for 30.5 m, of
pipe ksteel is 45 W/m-K.
A. 5384 W B. 4718 W C. 3055 W D. 5200 W

82. A 10% wt NaOh solution at 80oF is to be concentrated in a single effect

evaporator to 40% wt. Steam is supplied at 20 psig and the vacuum pressure of the
barometric condenser is 26 inHg. One hundred gallons per minute of water at 70 oF
is fed to the condenser and the water leaving the condenser which includes the
condensate, is at 100oF. The overall heat transfer coefficient of the evaporator is
200 BTU/hr-ft2-F. Calculate the heating surface required for the evaporator in square
feet.
A. 910 B. 127 C. 520 D. 1400

83. The temperature of 100 g liquid water at 0 C is raised by 1 C. how many calories
are consumed?
A. 4.18 cal B. 80 cal C. 100 cal D. 1000 cal

84. Air at 1 bar and 25oC enters a compressor at low velocity, discharge at 3 bars,
and enters a nozzle in which it expands to a final velocity of 600 m/s at the initial
conditions of pressure and temperature. If the work of compression is 240
kJ/kilogram of air, how much heat must be removed during compression in kJ/kg?
A. -60 B. 180 C. 240 D. 300

85. What is the maximum work which can be obtained by the reversible isothermal
expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas at 0oC from 2.24 to 22.4 L?
A. 1200 cal B. 1220 cal C. 1240 cal D. 1250cal

86. Calculate the temperature increase of helium if a mole is compressed

adiabatically and reversibly from 44.8 liters at 0oC to 22.4 liters. Cv= 3 cal/mol-oC.
A. 324.4 K B. 159.3 K C. 235.1 K D. 306.5 K

87. Calculate the final pressure of helium if a mole is compressed adiabatically and
reversibly from 44.8 liters at 0oC to 22.4 liters. Cv= 3 cal/mol-oC.
A. 1.35 atm B. 1.43 atm C. 1.52 atm D. 1.59 atm

88. Ten liters of nitrogen at 1 atm and 25oC is allowed to expand reversibly and
adiabatically to 20 liters. Calculate the final pressure in atm.
A. 0.280 B. 0.342 C. 0.379 D. 0.402

89. Ten liters of nitrogen at 1 atm and 25oC is allowed to expand reversibly and
adiabatically to 20 liters. Calculate the final temperature in K.
A. 226 B. 230 C. 134 D. 238

90. What is the potential energy (in ft-lnf) of a 10-lb mass 6 ft above a certain
datum plane anywhere on earth? The variation in gravity over the entire earth’s
surface rarely exceeds one quarter of one percent, so that the acceleration due to
gravity, within limits of engineering accuracy, is 32.17 ft/s 2 anywhere on earth.
A. 60 B. 65 C. 70 D. 75
91. What is the pressure (in lbf/ft 2) exerted at the bottom of a 10-ft column of water
(at 60oF) anywhere on earth by virtue only the earth’s attraction on the water (not
including pressure cause by the earth’s atmosphere?
A. 648 B. 642 C. 632 D. 624

92. What is the kinetic energy (in ft-lnf) of a 6-lb mass at the instant it is moving
with a velocity of 10 ft/s?
A. 8.78 B. 9.12 C. 9.33 D. 9.80

93. Ammonia weighing 22 kg is confined inside a cylinder equipped with a piston

has an initial pressure of 413 kPa at 38oC. If 2900 kJ of heat is added to the
ammonia until its pressure and temperature are 413 kPa and 100 oC, respectively.
What is the amount of work done by the fluid in kJ?
A. 667 B. 420 C. 304 D. 502

94. Twenty grams of oxygen gas are compressed at constant temperature of 30 oC to

5% its original volume. Find the work done on the system.
A. 944 cal B. 1124 cal C. 924 cal D. 1144 cal

95. Compute the pressure ratio (P1/P2) of nitrogen that is expanded isentropically
from 620oF to 60oF.
A. 14.5 B. 12.9 C. 11.5 D. 15.4

96. Nitrogen is isentropically expanded from 620oF to 60oF with volumetric ratio
equal to 6.22. Compute the work done by the gas.
A. 67.87 Btu/lb B. 87.57 Btu/lb C. 99.22 Btu/lb D. 54.67 Btu/lb

97. Two pounds of air initially at 60 psia and 600 oF expands isentropically until the
temperature is 200oF. Compute the work done by the gas.
A. 127 Btu B. 145 Btu C. 345 Btu D. 137 Btu

98. A motor is used to stir a 5 kg water at 0.4 Hp. Assuming that there was no
losses and all the work went into heating, how long will it take to increase the
temperature of water by 6oC?
A. 7 min B. 5 min C. 10min D. 12 min

99. A steady state device has the following conditions of the working substance at
the entrance: pressure equals 100 psia and density is 62.4 lb/ft 3. If 10,000 ft3/min of
this fluid enters the system, determine the exit velocity if the exit area is 2 ft 2.
A. 5000 ft/min B. 4500 ft/min C. 3000 ft/min D. 4000 ft/min

100. The stream flow of a steam turbine is 50,000 lb/hr with steam specific volume
of 0.831 ft3/lb, determine the exit velocity.
A. 72.6 ft/s B. 87.6 ft/s C. 65.9 ft/s D. 88.7 ft/s

--------------------------------------NOTHING
FOLLOWS--------------------------------------
 SNAP EXAM
Chemical Calculations, Thermodynamics, & Fluid Flow

1. Pig iron is prepared in a blast furnace from a hematite ore. The ore contains 83%
iron oxide (Fe2O3), the pig iron produced is 96% iron and the iron in the stag
contains 10% of the iron in the ore. How many tons of pig iron is produced for every
500 tons of ore?
A. 156 B. 272 C. 150 D. 353

2. A solution containing 15% dissolved solids is to be concentrated to 60% dissolved

solids. If the evaporator will evaporate 20,000 kg of water per hour, what must be
the feed rate in kilograms per hour?
A. 16803 B. 17782 C. 23333 D. 26667

3. Feed consisting of 20% benzene and 80% inert solid. Pure nitrogen is used to
absorb the benzene and 0.7 lb of benzene is absorbed per pound of nitrogen. What
amount of nitrogen is required to absorbed all the benzene per pound of solid?
A. 0.286 B. 0.700 C. 0.451 D. 0.527

For numbers 4 to 6 …
A fuel containing methane and ethane is burned in excess air. The analysis of the
dry stack gas is given as follows: 4.62% CO 2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2 by
mole. Determine the following:

4. The percentage of excess air

A. 33.61% B. 49.81% C. 67.21% D. 74.72%

5. The mole percentage of methane in the fuel

A. 18.57% B. 20.36% C. 40.71% D. 81.43%

6. If the fuel is composed mainly of a saturated hydrocarbon, what is the ratio of

carbon to hydrogen in the fuel?
A. 271 B. 0.346 C. 0.587 D. 0.603

7. A furnace completely burns coal containing 70%C. Analysis of the flue gas shows
15%CO2, 4%O22, 81% N2 and no CO. what is the % of the net hydrogen in the coal?
A. 6.126% B. 1.53% C. 2.38% D. 3.94%

8. A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. Orsat analysis of the
product of combustion shows 9.08% CO2, 1.63% CO, 5.28 % O2 and no free H2. The
formula of the hydrocarbon is
A. C3H8 B. C2H6 C. C4H10 D. C2H2

9. A furnace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture, 18% VCM, 67% FC, and 9%
ash. The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23% FC and 62% ash. The higher heating
value of the coal “as fired” is 14,300 BTU/lb. Calculate the percentage of the
heating value of the coal that is
lost in the refuse. The moisture in the refuse is due to “wetting down” to prevent
dusting. It is not moisture from the original coal.
A. 4.68% B. 5.72% C. 9.08% D. 12.92%
10. Coal fired in a furnace has a heating value of 13800 BTU/lb and contains
78.05%C and 1.2%S. The proximate analysis shows 4% M, 24% FC, 8% ash and the
analysis of the refuse shows 8% VCM, 25% FC and 32% ash. Calculate the % of C
lost in the refuse.
A. 8.0% B. 4.22% C. 9.5% D. 17.0%

11. The furnace at the Bataan refinery is using a fuel gas which contains methane,
ethane and 20% nitrogen. The Orsat analysis shows 4%M, 24% FC, 8% ash and the
analysis of the refuse shows 8% VCM, 25% FC and 32% ash. Calculate the % of C
lost in the refuse.
A. 22.76 B. 57.24 C. 50.20 D. 63.25

12. 19.6 grams of carbon disulfide reacted with excess oxygen to form carbon
dioxide and sulfur dioxide. What is the amount of sulfur dioxide formed?
A. 33 g B. 24 g C. 9.5 g D. 16.3 g

13. The flue gas analysis is 4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2. Find
the % excess if all fuel is burnt.
A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50%

14. A gaseous fuel is composed of 20% methane (CH 4), 40% ethane (C2H6), and
40% propane (C3H8), where all percentages are by volume. The volumetric analysis
of the dry products of combustion (ie. Everything except the water) for this fuel
gives 10.6 % carbon dioxide (CO2), 3% oxygen (O2), 1% carbon monoxide (CO) and
85.4% nitrogen (N2). Determine the air fuel ratio on a mass basis for this reaction.
A. 1 B. 18 C. 23 D. 33

15. If the reaction of 3.82 g of magnesium nitride with 7.73 g of water produced 3.6
g of magnesium oxide what is the percent yield of this reaction?
A. 94.5% B. 78.8% C. 46.6% D. 49.4%

16. A saturated solution containing 1500 kg of potassium chloride at 360 K is cooled

in an open tank to 290 K. if the specific gravity of the solution is 1.2, the solubility of
potassium chloride per 100 parts of water is 53.55 at 360 K and 34.5 at 290 K,
calculate the amount of crystals obtained assuming that loss of water by
evaporation is negligible.
A. 4301 kg B. 1500 kg C. 966 kg D. 534 kg

17. An ideal gas undergoes the following reversible process: from an initial state of
70oC and 1 bar, it is compressed adiabatically to 150 oC; then it is cooled from 150 to
70oC at constant pressure and the final expanded isothermally to its original state.
Calculate Q for the entire cycle. Take Cv=3R/2.
A. -168 Btu/lbmol B. -1663 Btu/lbmol C. 1495 Btu/lbmol D. -998 Btu/lbmol

18. Determine the value of n in the process PV n = constant if this process has the
following end state: 100 psia, 1 cu ft; 20 psia, 6 cu ft.
A. 0.80 B. 0.90 C. 0.75 D. 0.98
19. What is the change in the entropy in Btu/ oF of 1 lbmol of an ideal gas which is
initially at 120oF and 1 atm pressure is expanded irreversibly to 1 atm and 70 oF? the
molar heat capacity at constant pressure is 7 Btu/lbmol- oF.
A. 4.58 B. 8.95 C. 0.63 D. 0

20. A steel casting [Cp=0.5 kJ/kg-K] weighing 40 kg at a temperature of 450 oC is

quenched in 150 kg of oil [Cp=2.5 kJ/kg-K] at 25 oC. If there are no heat losses, what
is the change in entropy of the casting?
A. 26.13 kJ/K B. -16.33 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K D. 0

21. A 10-L insulated container is divided into two par ts by a thin membrane. One
part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25 oC and the other part is vacuum.
Calculate the entropy change of the gas after the thin membrane burst?
A. -1.26 J/K B. 1.86 J/K C. 2.21 J/K D. 2.35 J/K
22. Ninety kilograms of ice at 0oC are completely melted. Find the entropy change,
in kJ/K if T2=0 C.
A. 0 B. 45 C. 85 D. 110

23. A newly designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 watts and an input rating
of 735 watts. The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is
A. 5.67 B. 4.27 C. 3.26 D. 4.44

24. A 30 MW geothermal electric power plant uses hot steam from the earth at 157
deg C to heat and vaporize isobutene, which turns a turbine that is connected to a
generator. The isobutene is subsequently cooled to 27 deg C using fans and
condensed back to a liquid. The overall efficiency of the plant is 40% of the ideal
(Carnot) efficiency. How many joules of heat must be released to the atmosphere
per second?
A. 2.5E8 B. 2.2E8 C. 3E7 D. 5.2E8

25. Steam generated in a power plant at aa pressure of 8600 kPa and a temperature
of 500oC is fed to a turbine. Exhaust from the turbine enters a condenser at 10 kPa,
where it is condensed to saturated liquid, which is then pump to the boiler. What is
the thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle operating at these conditions?
A. 39.7% B. 46.2% C. 50.8% D. 61.2%

26. Calculate the force necessary to accelerate a 20 000 lbm rocket vertically
upward at the rate of 100 ft/sec2.
A. 82 100 lbf B. 10 000 lbf C. 90 000 lbf D. 70 000 lbf

27. 1.05 x 106 kJ of heat is added to 22.8 kilomoles of methane flowing at steady
state at a temperature of 200oC. What is the change in enthalpy in kJ/kmol?
A. 46052.6 B. 52098.0 C. 54200.5 D. 56904.1

28. What is the heat needed to raise 1 molecule of water by 10 oC in ergs?

A. 1.3E-15 B. 2.6E-12 C. 2.6E-14 D. 1.3E-12
29. 10.4 g of Ag at 100oC is mixed with 28 g of water. The temperature of water
changes from 25oC to 26.31oC. What is the Cp of Ag? Hint: Cp of water is 4.184 J/g-
oC.
A. 0.329 B. 0.113 C. 0.226 D. 0.256

30. A sample is consisting of 1.00 mole of Argon gas is expanded isothermally and
reversibly at 0oC from 22.4 L to 44.8 L. The heat absorbed by the system is
A. 0 B. +1.13 kJ C. +1.57 kJ D. +2.27 kJ

31. A steel casting [ Cp=0.5 kJ/kg-K] weighing 40 kg and at a temperature of 450 oC

is quenched in 150 kg of oil [Cp=2.5 kJ/kg-K] at 25 oC. If there are no heat losses,
what is the change in entropy of the oil?
A. 26.13 kJ/K B. -16.33 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K D. 0

32. A steel casting [ Cp=0.5 kJ/kg-K] weighing 40 kg and at a temperature of 450 oC

is quenched in 150 kg of oil [Cp=2.5 kJ/kg-K] at 25 oC. If there are no heat losses,
what is the change in entropy of the oil and casting considered together?
A. 26.13 kJ/K B. -16.33 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K D. 0

33. A 10-L insulated container is divided into two parts by a thin membrane. One
part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25 oC and the other part is vacuum.
Calculate the entropy change of the surroundings?
A. 0 B. 1.2 J/K C. 1.8 J/K D. 2.4 J/K

34. Air is to be compressed reversibly from an initial condition of 1 atm and 60 oF to

a final state of 5 atm and 60oF by isothermal compression. At these conditions, air
may be considered an ideal gas having the constant heat capaci ties Cv=5 and
Cp=7 Btu/lbmolo-F. Calculate the work required for the process.
A. 1676 Btu/lbmol B. -1676 Btu/lbmol C. 2030 Btu/lbmol D. -2030 Btu/lbmol

35. A fuel furnishes 7000 calories of heat per gram of fuel. Calculate the maximum
work in calorie per gram of fuel which can be obtained from this heat in an engine
which is operated with water between its boiling point and 40 oC.
A. 1126 B. 1425 C. 1870 D. 2021

36. A 10-L insulated container is divided into two parts by a thin membrane. One
part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25 oC and the other part is vacuum.
Calculate the pressure after the thin membrane burst?
A. 2 atm B. 1.5 atm C. 1.0 atm D. 0.5 atm

37. A refrigerator is rated at a COP of 4. The refrigerated space that it cools requires
a peak cooling rate of 30,000 kJ/hr. What size electrical motor (rated in horsepower)
is required for the refrigerator.
A. 3.45 Hp B. 1.67 Hp C. 2.79 Hp D. 3.90 Hp

38. If during an expansion process the volume of a gas changes from 5 to 15 cu ft

and the pressure changes according to the equation p=1000(0.30v + 1), what is the
work done in ft-lb by the gas?
A. 5.76x108 B. 3.85x106 C. 6.95x108 D. 4.38x108
39. Twenty five liters of hydrogen is produced at a total pressure of 1 atm by the
action of acid on a metal. Calculate the work done by the gas in pushing back the
atmosphere in joules.
A. 35.1 B. 847 C. 3540 D. 3540E7

40. Twenty five liters of hydrogen is produced at a total pressure of 1 atm by the
action of acid on a metal. Calculate the work done by gas in pushing back the
atmosphere in calories.
A. 35.1 B. 847 C. 3540 D. 3540E7

41. Two pounds of air is compressed from 20 psia to 200 psia while maintaining the
temperature constant at 100oF. Calculate the heat transfer needed to accomplish
this process.
A. -100.6 BTU B. -390.1 BTU C. -1796.7 BTU D. -241.7 BTU

42. A child’s balloon filled at 27oC has a radius of 10 cm. If the balloon is taken
outside on a very hot day when the temperature is 50 oC. What is its new radius?
A. 10.45 cm B. 10.25 cm C. 10.40 cm D. 10.55 cm

43. Two kg of air is compressed in an insulated cylinder from 400 kPa to 15 000 kPa.
Determine the work necessary if the initial temperature is 200 C.
A. -1620 kJ B. -1230 kJ C. 3000 kJ D. 1320 kJ

44. The work of a polyprotic (n=1.21) compression of air (Cp/Cv=1.40) in a system

with moving boundary from P1=15 psia, V1=1.0 ft3 to P2=150 psia. V2=0.15 ft3 is
A. 35.5 ft-lb B. 1080 ft-lb C. 2700 ft-lb D. 5150 ft-lb

45. Calculate the percentage of CaO in CaCO 3.

A. 42.7% B. 45.6% C. 52.0% D. 56.0%

46. A sample of impure cuprite Cu2O contains 66.6% copper. What is the percentage
of pure Cu2O in the sample?
A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. 75%
47. A 5.82 g silver is dissolved in nitric acid. When sodium chloride is added to the
solution, all the silver is precipitated as AgCl. The AgCl precipitated weighs 7.20 g.
Determine the percentage silver in the coin.
A. 83.2% B. 89.6% C. 93.1% D. 96.8%

48. A sample of impure sulfate ore contains 42.43 % Zn. Find the percentage of Pure
ZnS in the sample.
A. 67.10% B. 63.10% C. 56.05% D. 52.15%

49. The “roasting” of 100 g of copper ore yielded 75.4 g of 89.5 % pure copper. If
the ore is composed of Cu2S and CuS with 11.0% inert impurity, calculate the
percent of Cu2S in the ore.
A. 62% B. 38% C. 74% D. 28%

50. A 1.2048 g sample of impure NaCO3 is dissolved and allowed to react with a
solution of CaCl2. The resulting CaCO3, after precipitation, filtration, and drying, was
found to weight 1.0362 g. Assuming that the impurities do not contribute to the
weight of the precipitate, calculate the percent purity of the Na 2CO3.
A. 86.2% B. 88.9% C. 91.9% D. 93.2%

51. An 8.24-gram sample of a hydrated salt is heated until it has a constant mass of
6.20 grams. What was the percent by mass of water contained in the original
sample?
A. 14.1% B. 32.9% C. 24.8% D. 75.2%

52. A furnace is fired with petroleum oil containing 80%C, 13% H, 3%S, 1% N and
3% O. Determine the moles theoretical air required for the combustion of one
kilogram of oil.
A. 0.09917 B. 99.17 C. 0.4722 D. 472.2

53. A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. Orsat analysis of the
products of combustion shows 9.08% CO2, 1.63% CO, 5.28% O2 and no free H2.
Calculate the formula of hydrocarbon.
A. C2H6 B. C3H8 C. C4H10 D. C5H12

54. A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. Orsat analysis of the
products of combustion shows 9.08% CO2, 1.63% CO, 5.28% O2 and no free H2.
Calculate the percent excess air supplied.
A. 20% B. 25% C. 30% D. 35%

55. A 100-kg batch of clay contains 20% water. It was dried to a water content of
5%. How much water is removed?
A. 15.8 lbs B. 27.2 lbs C. 15.8 kgs D. 27.2 kgs

56. A log mass 40 kg is dropped into a river at 0 oC. If the relative density of the log
is 0.80, what will be the volume of the log above the surface?
A. 0.020 cu.m. B. 0.040 cu.m. C. 0.08 cu.m. D. 0.01 cu.m.

57. Water flows through an 8-in (ID=7.891 in) steel pipe at an average velocity of 6
ft/s. Downstream the pipe splits into an 8-in main and a 2 in (ID=2.067 in) bypass
pipes. If the velocity in the bypass is twice the velocity of the main pipe, the
volumetric flow rate [f3t/s] in the main pipe is
A. 10.58 B. 5.29 C. 1.84 D. 0.25

58. A pressure tank contains a fluid with weight density 81.5 lbf/ft 3. The pressure in
the air space is 100 psia. Fluid exits to the atmosphere from the bottom of the tank.
What is the exit velocity v? The distance from the surface of the fluid exit point is 10
feet.
A. 25.4 ft/s B. 98.5 ft/s C. 101.7 ft/s D. 106.6 ft/s

59. Water at 100oF is flowing through a straight 4-in schedule 40 pipe at a rate of 1
gal/min. The length of the pipe is 10 feet.
A. 0.0378 B. 0.0454 C. 0.0504 D. 0.0252

60. Water enters a boiler at 18.33oC and 137.9 kPa through a pipe at an average
velocity of 1.52 m/s. Exit steam at a height of 15.2 m above the liquid inlet leaves at
137.9 kPa, 148.9oC, and 9.14 m/s in the outlet line. At steady state how much heat
must be added per kg mass of steam? The flow in the two pipes is turbulent.
A. 2.69E6 J B. 3.21E8 J C. 5.12E7 J D. 7.0E5 J

61. Water at 60 deg F is flowing through a 3-inch I.D. smooth horizontal pipe. If the
Reynolds number is 35,300the pressure drop in pressure drop in psi per 100 ft of the
pipe is
A. 1.67 B. 0.17 C. 6.85 D. 2.22

62. A water storage tank assumes the supply water into a factory. Water is supplied
to the tank through a booster pimp installed in the water line. The theoretical pump
horsepower required is 3.25 hp. What is the monthly operating cost of the pump if
electric power cost on the average is PhP 3.73/kWh. The pump is 65% efficient and
operates for 12 hr a day.
A. P 3300 B. P 5000 C. P 7000 D. P 12000

63. Water at 60 deg F is flowing through a 3-inch I.D. smooth horizontal pipe. A pitot
tube shows a 3-inch Hg differential. If the pitot tube is located at the center of the
pipe, what is the mass flow rate of the water [lb/s]?
A. 11.61 B. 14.24 C. 31.7 D. 37.1

64. What size sharp-edged orifice [inches] was in use if a flow of 120 gpm produced
a 4-in Hg differential in a 4-in Schedule 40 pipe. The fluid, measured at 60 deg F,
has a viscosity of 1 cSt and a specific gravity of 1
A. 2.21 B. 1.35 C. 4.67 D. 2

65. A pump requires 5 Hp to transport the liquid from a lake to a reservoir. I f the
pump efficiency is 65% and the electricity costs P0.30/kWh, what is the monthly
cost if the pump operates 12 hours per day?
A. P280 B. P680 C. P220 D. P620

66. The increase in power requirement of a centrifugal pump when the speed is
increased by 20% is approximately
A. 100% B. 44% C. 73% D. 14.5%

67. Oil with the viscosity of 30 cp and density of 60lb/ft 3 flows through a ½ in ID
tube. Determine the velocity in ft/s below which flow is laminar?
A. 13.1 B. 16.9 C. 87.2 D. 0.63

68. The distance between plates is Δy=0.5 cm, Δv=10 cm/s and the fluid is ethyl
alcohol at 273 K having a viscosity of 1.77 cp. Calculate the shear stress in dyne per
square centimeter.
A. 0.210 B. 0.354 C. 0.540 D. 0.720

69. One method of determining the radius of capillary tube is to measure the rate of
flow of a viscous fluid through a tube. Given the following:
Length of the capillary =50.2 cm
Kinematic viscosity of the fluid =0.000043 m2/s
Density of fluid =9.55 kg/m3
Pressure drop across horizontal tube =4.77 atm
 Mass rate of flow through tube =0.003 kg/sec
The radius of the capillary in mm is
A. 0.18 B. 0.45 C. 0.14 D. 0.75
70. The friction factor for flow through a pipe with a relative roughness of 0.004 at a
Reynolds No. of 80,000 is approximately equal to.
A. 0.052 B. 0.025 C. 0.03 D. 0,038

71. Air at 250C [viscosity =0.018 cP] enters a section of 2-in schedule 40
commercial steel pipe at a gauge pressure of 310 kPa and a flowrate of 1200 kg/h.
Assuming isothermal flow, what is the pressure drop [kPa} in 60 m of pipe?
A. 350 B. 155 C. 101.3 D. 61

72. Sulfuric acid is pumped at 3 kg/s through a 60-m length of smooth 25 mm pipe.
If the pressure drop falls by one-half, what will be the new flow rate [kg/s]? Assume
the following properties of sulfuric acid SG=1.84, viscosity= 25 cP.
A. 3 B. 2 C. 0.2 D. 0.124

73. A rectangular duct 4 ft by 1.5 ft in cross section carries conditioned air. In

determining the pressure drop through the duct, the equivalent diameter in feet,
may be used in the case is
A. 4 B. 1.5 C. 2.18 D. 2.75

74. Water at 60 deg F flows through a 3-inch inside diameter smooth horizontal
pipe. If the Reynold’s number is 353000, calculate the ratio of maximum velocity to
average velocity.
A. 1.05 B. 1.22 C. 1.72 D. 1.89

75. Which of the following meters will have the highest permanent pressure loss?
A. Pitot tube B. orifice C. venturi D. rotameter

76. The most economical valve for use with a large diameter pipes.
A. butterfly B. globe C. needle D. gate

77. Multistage compressors are used in industry because, they

A. reduce the cost compressor
B. resemble closely to isothermal compression
C. reduce the size requirement
D. are easy to control

78. The pressure drop through a gate valve is lowest when

A. fully open B. ¾ open C. ½ open D. ¼ open

79. Property of fluid that converts kinetic energy to heat energy.

A. viscosity B. fluidity C. shear D. resistance

80. Which of the following is an extensive property?

A. temperature B. velocity C. pressure D. mass
81. If the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the pressure is inversely
proportional to the volume. This is known as:
A. Charles Law B. Archimedes Principle C. Boyle’s Law D. Dalton’s Law

82. Which of the following is the most efficient?

A. Carnot B. Brayton C. Otto D. Diesel

83. The achievement of a temperature below that of the intermediate surroundings

is
A. air conditioning B. drying C. refrigeration D. evaporation

84. Work is a
A. property of the system
B. state function
C. path function
D. state description of a system

85. Throttling process is

A. a reversible and isothermal process
B. a reversible and constant entropy process
C. an irreversible and constant entropy
D. constant enthalpy process

86. In a 3-stage compressor system whose isentropic efficiencies are reported to be

0.75, 0.85 and 0.84, respectively, steam initially at 10kPa is compresses to a final
pressure of 500 kPa. The overall efficiency of the system is
A. greater than 0.85
B. less than 0.75
C. in between 0.75 and 0.85
D. in between 0.84 and 0.90

87. A vertical furnace is made up of an inner wall of firebrick 20 cm thick followed

by insulating brick 15 cm thick and an outer wall of steel 1 cm thick. The surface
temperature of the wall adjacent to the combustion chamber is 1200 oC while that of
the outer surface of steel is 50oC. The thermal conductivities of the wall material
W/m-K are firebrick, 10; insulating brick 0.26; and steel, 45. Neglecting the film
resistance and contact resistance of joints, determine the heat loss per sq. m. of
wall area.
A. 2.55 W/m2 B. 1.93 W/m2 C. 0.93 W/m2 D. 1.45 W/m2

88. A hollow sphere is heated so that the inside wall temperature is 300 oF. The
sphere has an internal diameter of 6 inches and is 2 inches thick. What is the heat
loss from the sphere if the outer surface is maintained at 212 oF? The thermal
conductivity of metal is 8 Btu/hr-ft-oF.
A. 4200 Btu/hr B. 5080 Btu/hr C. 5529 Btu/hr D. 6024 Btu/hr

{89-90} At a temperature of 366.4oK, the vapor pressure of n-hexane and octane

are 1480 and 278 mmHg, respectively. Assume the n-hexane-octane system obey
Raoult’s law and the metal is 8 Btu/hr- ft-oF.
89. Calculate the equilibrium liquid composition (in mole fraction) of the more
volatile component.
A. 0.401 B. 0782 C. 0.653 D. 0.236

90. Calculate the equilibrium vapor composition (in mole fraction) of more volatile
component.
A. 0.245 B. 0.544 C. 0.781 D. 0942

91. An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is based on the
oxidation of sulfur to sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by
reaction with water in fuming sulfuric acid.
A. Bayer process
B. Lead chamber process
C. Leblanc process
D. Contact process

92. Compounds added to the glass to give it the white opaque appearance so
characteristics of vitreous enamels.
A. fluxes B. opacifiers C. electrolytes D. whiteners

93. The union of the nonvolatile inorganic oxides resulting from the decomposition
and fusion of alkali and alkaline earth compounds, sand, and other constituents,
ending in a product with random atomic structure. It is a rigid, undercooled liquid
having no definite melting point and sufficiently high viscosity to prevent
crystallization.
A. ceramics B. glass C. cements D. refractories

94. A small hole in the wall of a cavity in an object of any kind behaves like a
blackbody because any radiation that falls on it is trapped inside by reflections from
the cavity wall until it is absorbed. At what rate does radiation escape from a hole of
area 20 cm2 in the wall surface whose interior temperature is 800 oC?
A. 150 W B. 142 W C. 135 W D. 146 W

95. An equipment used to separate liquids where there is sufficient differences in

density between the liquids for the droplets to settle readily.
A. decanters B. hydrocyclones C. coalescers D. centrifuge
96. A principle type of gas-solids separator employing centrifugal force.
A. cyclones
B. air filter
C. gravity settler
D. impingement separator

97. A fluid has a velocity of 100 ft/s when entering a piece of apparatus. With what
velocity must the fluid leave the apparatus so that the difference in entering and
leaving kinetic energies is equivalent to 1 BTU/lb of the fluid?
A. 185 ft/s B. 210 ft/s C. 245 ft/s D. 254 ft/s
98. A distillation column separates 10,000 kg/hr of benzene-toluene mixture as
shown in the figure below. Xf, Xd, and Xw represents the weight fractions of
benzene in the feed, distillate and residue respectively.

Find the reflux ratio

A. 0.5 B. 0.6 C. 1.0 D. 2.0

99. Petroleum oil of specific gravity 0.9 and viscosity 13 centipoise flows
isothermally through a horizontal sch 40, 3-in pipe. a pitot tube is inserted at the
center of the pipe, and its leads are filled with the same oil and attached to a U-tube
containing water. The reading on the manometer is 3 ft. Calculate the volumetric
flow of oil (ft3/min)
A. 0.11 B. 1.12 C. 11.12 D. 112

100. A Carnot machine operates between a hot reservoir at 200 oC and a cold
reservoir at 20oC. When it operates as an engine, it receives 10000 kJ/kg, find the
coefficient of performance (COP), when operated as a refrigerator.
A. 1.77 B. 1.81 C. 1.63 D. 1.97
--------------------------------------NOTHING
FOLLOWS--------------------------------------

Chemical Engineering Principles

Chemical Reaction Engineering & Unit Operations Economics

1. A multiple effect evaporator produces 10,000 kg of salt from a 20% brine solution
per day. One kg of steam evaporates 0.7 N kg of water in N effects at a cost of P25
per 1000 kg of steam. The cost of the first effect is P450,000 and the additional
effects at P300,000 each. The life of the evaporator is 10 year with no salvage
value. The annual average cost of repair and maintenance is 10% and taxes and
insurance is 5%. The optimum number of effects for minimum annual cost is
A. 3 effects B. 5 effects C. 4 effects D. 2 effects

2. The material cost at erection site for a 10,000 bbl/stream day vacuum distillation
unit is P600000. Estimate the cost of a similar unit with a capacity of 30,000
bbl/stream day?
A. P715,300 B. P1,180,000 C. P890,650 D. P934,200
3. An organic chemical is produced by a batch process. In this process chemical X
and Y react to form Z. Since the reaction rate is very high, the total time required
per bath has been found to be independent of the amount of materials and each
batch required requires 2 hr, including time for charging, heating and dumping. The
following equation shows the relation between the pound of Z produced (lbz.) and
the pound of X (lbx) and Y (lby) supplied: Lbz = 1.5(1.1lbx lbz + 1.3 lbylbz-lbx lby)0.5.
Chemical X costs P0.09 per pound, chemical Y costs P 0.04 per pound and chemical
Z sell for P0.8 per pound. If half of the selling price for chemical Z is due to cost
other than raw materials, the maximum profit obtainable per pound of chemical Z is
A. P0.3 per lbz B. P0.5 per lbz C. P0.12 per lbz D. P0.25 per lbz

4. The rate of formation of B in terms of r A (where r A=-kC ACB2) is

A. 1/2r A B. r A C. 2r A D. -1/2r A

5. What is the reaction rate constant, K, for third order reaction?

A. (L/mol)/s B. (L/mol)/s2 C. (L/mol)2/s D. (L/mol)3/s

6. Consider the reaction 2H2 + O2  2H2O. What is the ratio of the initial rate of
appearance of water to the initial rate of disappearance of oxygen?
A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 2:2 D. 3:2

7. The net rate of reaction of an intermediate is

A. 0 B. 2 C. >0 D. <0

8. A catalyst can
A. shift the equilibrium reaction
B. increase the rate constant of the forward reaction
C. diminish the activation energy
D. decrease the pressure

9. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because ______.

A. The heat is more evenly distributed
B. The boiling point is elevated
C. The higher pressure tenderizes the food
D. A large flame must be used

10. What is the order of the reaction wherein the half-life increases as the initial
concentration increases?
A. 1st order B. zero order C. 2nd order D. 3rd order

11. Catalyst is a substance which

A. Increase the speed of chemical re action
B. Decrease the speed of chemical reaction
C. Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction
D. Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction

12. For the reaction 2A(g) + 3B(g) D(g) + 2E(g) with rD = kC ACB2 the reaction is said to
be
A. non-homogeneous B. elementary C. non-elementary D. consecutive
13. It is the amount of energy in excess of the average energy level which the
reactants must have in order for the reaction to proceed.
A. bond energy B. activation energy C. free energy D. heat energy

14. A reaction A3B is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting with pure
A, the volume of the reaction mixture increase 3 times in 6 minutes. The final
conversion is
A. 0.33
B. 1
C. 0.50
D. Data insufficient, can’t be predicted

15. A gas decomposition reaction has an activation energy of 245 kJ/mol. The rate of
the reaction can be accelerated by using a platinum catalyst where the activation
energy for the resulting catalyzed reaction is lower at 136 kJ/mol. Using Arrhenius
law and assuming the frequency factor remains the same, the catalyzed reaction is
faster than the original reaction by a factor of
A. over 100,000 but less than a mil lion
B. over 20 million
C. over 100 but less than 200
D. over 2 but less than 3

16. A batch reaction 2D + E  F has a conversion factor expressed by the equation

r=0.24t0.5 where r = conversion factor based on the reactant E; t = time in hours
which ranges from 0.5 to 16 hours per batch depending upon the process variables.
The average molecular weight of the feed is 60 and a density of 1.4 g/cc. The feed
consists of 2 kgmole of D and 1 kgmole of E. the charging, cleaning and discharging
time per batch is 2.5 hrs and the volume of the reactor is twice the volume of the
feed. Assume 300 days per year and 12 hours operation/day. The volume of the
reactor in liters is
A. 257 B. 275 C. 300 D. 527

17. An optimum number of the effects for a given application is a function of the
A. capacity B. economy C. efficiency D. none of these

18. A method of selecting alternates by the comparison of all the pertinent annual
direct costs plus the capital recovery costs.
A. present worth method
B. pay-out time method
C. annual cost method
D. rate-of-return method

19. In economic balance in evaporation, the common variable is the number of

effects, an increasing number of which ____ the fixed costs.
A. increases
B. does not affect
C. decrease
D. may increase or decrease
20. It is measure of profitability defined as the annual profit before taxes, divided by
the fixed-capital investment.
A. return on investment B. payback period C. annual return D. present worth

21. Gross income less gross expense before deducting provision for income tax is
A. net income B. gross proceeds C. gross profit D. gross sales

22. It is also known as the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
A. discount B. principal C. amortization D. interest

23. Factors other than economic ones which at present time cannot be evaluated in
terms of dollars and cents.
A. reducible factors B. irreducible factors C. indirect costs D. sunk cost

24. The realization value of a plant or equipment which is still reusable is still
reusable is the
A. scrap value B. par value C. salvage value D. book value

25. It is the design of equipment or the selection of operations conditions whereby

the increasing costs are balance by the decreasing costs to give the greatest
economic return.
A. replacement
B. break-even analysis
C. economic balance
D. equivalent alternates

26. When using net present worth calculation to compare two projects; which of the
following could invalidate calculation?
A. differences in the magnitude of the project
C. mutually exclusive projects
B. evaluating over different time periods
D. non-conventional cash flow

27. The uniform annual end of year payment to repay a debt in years, with an
interest rate I, is determined by multiplying the capital recovery factor by the
A. average debt
B. initial debt plus interest
C. initial debt
D. average debt plus interest
28. What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives
have?
A. identical salvage values
B. identical equivalent uniform annual cash flow
C. different salvage values
D. different equivalent uniform annual cash flow

29. Design based on conditions giving the least cost per unit time or maximum
profit per unit of production
A. limit
B. plant design
C. breakeven
D. optimum economic design

30. Cost in index use to estimate equipment cost of

A. quotations given for different equipment capacity
B. quotations of different time period
C. similar equipment quotations indifferent years
D. equipment cost quoted at different capacities

31. It is equal to the gross annual sales divided by the fixed-capital investment.
A. turnover ratio B. capital ratio C. investment ratio D. acid ratio

32. It is the rate of earning that must be achieved by an investment in order for it to
be acceptable for the investor.
A. MARR B. ROI C. PBP D. acid ratio

33. The initial cost of a dam is P25 M. the annual maintenance cost is P0.20 M. If the
interest rate is 10% per year, determine the capitalized cost.
A. P27M B. P28.5 C. P30M D. P32M

34. The projected annual after-tax profit of a project which would need an
investment of P1M is as follows;
Year Annual after-tax profit
1 P 100,000
2 P 200,000
3 P 300,000
4 P 400,000
5 P 500,000
60
Find the ROI in %
A. 0.25 B. 0.025 C. 2.5 D. 25

35. An old highway bridge may be strengthened at a cost of P9000 or it may be

replaced for P40,000. The present salvage value of the old bridge is P13,000. It is
estimated that the reinforced bridge will last for 20 years with an annual cost of
P500 and will have a salvage value P10,000 at the end of 20 years. The estimated
salvage value of the new bridge after 25 years is P15,000. The maintenance for the
new bridge will be P100 annually. Which is the best alternative at 8%? Assume the
bridge will be there forever.
A. keep old bridge B. replace old bridge C. need more data D. either

36. A present investment of P10, 000 is expected to yield an income of P15 00/yr for
15 years. What is the equivalent rate of return?
A. 10.2% B. 12.4% C. 14.1% D. 16.5%

37. The following table contains the summary of how a project’s balance changes
over its 5-year service life at 10% interest (MARR).
End of period Project balance
0 $-1,000
 1 $-1,500
2 $600
3 $900
4 $1,500
5 $2,000
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. The required additional investment at the end of period 1 is $500
B. The net present worth of the project at 10% interest is $1,242
C. The net future worth of the project at 10% interest is $2,000
D. The rate of return of the project should be greater than 10%

38. A company invests $2000 in a project over five years. At the end of every year,
for the first three years the project generates $500. At the end of the fourth year
the project generates no money. At the end of the fifth year, the project is
terminated. How much must the project generate at the end of the fifth year to
realize a 13% return on the initial investment?
A. $1400<X<=$1430 B. $1430<X<=$1490 C. $1490<X<=$1520 D. X>1520

39. Company X is considering the purchase of a helicopter for connecting services

between their base airport and the new inter-country airport being built about 30
miles away. It is believed that the chopper will be needed only for 6 years until the
Rapid Transit Connection is phased in. The estimates on two

Assuming that the Whirl 2B will be available in the future with identical costs, what
is the annual cost advantage of selecting The whirl 2B? (use an interest rate of 10%)
A. cost more than $4,000
B. save between $3,000 and $2,000
C. cost between $4,000 and $3,000
D. save more than $4,000

40. You are considering two types of electric motors to power an assembly line in
your factory. The financial information and the operating characteristics of the two
motors are given below. If you operate the assembly line for 6,0000 hours annually,
what is the total cost savings per operating hour associated with the more efficient
brand (Brand B) at an interest rate of 10%? The motor is requires for a period of 5.

Current electricity price: $0.08/kWh

Note: 1HP=0.745
A. less than or equal 1 cent
B. greater than 1 cent but less than or equal to 3 cents
C. greater than 3 cents but less than or equal to 5 cents
D. greater than 5 cents but less than or equal to 7 cents

41. What is the present worth of the following cash flow series?
End of period: Project
Balance:
1 $1,900
2 $-1000
3 $700

The interest for the first two years will be 12% compounded monthly and then it will
change to 10% compounded quarterly.
A. $1,380 B. $1,400 C. $1,425 D. $1,600

42. How long will it take for an investment to triple at an interest rate 7%,
compounded monthly?
A. between 10 and 12 years
B. between 15 and 16 years
C. between 12 and 14 years
D. between 17 and 50 years

43. Company Z is considering the purchase of a new equipment for a replacement.

Its initial cost is $250,000. The equipment requires an annual maintenance cost of
$15,000. Also to be taken into account is an additional overhauling cost (at the end
of every 7 years) of $80,0000. The company plans to use the equipment for an
infinite period. Find the capitalized equivalent cost of this investment at an interest
rate of 12%.
A. between $439,001 and $442,0 00
B. between $445,001 and $448,000
C. between $442,001 and $445,000
D. greater than $448,000

44. Assume that you deposited $100,000 in a savings account paying an interest of
6% compounded monthly. You wish to withdraw $2000 at the end of each month.
How many months will it take to delete the balance?
A. less than 47 months
B. between 52 and 55 months
C. between 48 and 51 months
D. between 56 and 59 months

45. What is the acid test ratio?

A. the ratio of owners’ equity to total current liabilities
B. the ratio of all assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
C. the ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
D. the ratio of profit after taxes to equity

--------------------------------------NOTHING
FOLLOWS--------------------------------------
 Chemical Engineering Principles

1. As a particle size is reduced

A. screening becomes progressively more difficult
B. screening becomes progressively easier
C. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
D. surface area of solid decreases

2. No heat cycle is possible without the rejection of some heat. One of the useful
statements of the second law of thermodynamics.
A. false B. partly false C. does not follow D. true

3. When the thermodynamics system undergoes a cyclic process its internal energy
change is
A. infinite B. negative C. positive D. zero

4. Reversible adiabatic operation has no change in

A. heat B. enthalpy C. temperature D. entropy

5. The work output of every heat engine

A. equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
B. equals that of a Carnot engine with the same intake and exhaust temperatures
C. depends only on its intake temperature
D. depends only on its exhaust temperature

6. The area enclosed by the p-V graph of a complete heat engine cycle equals
A. the heat intake per cycle
C. the work done on the engine per cycle
B. the heat output per cycle
D. the work done by the engine per cycle

7. A frictionless heat engine can be 1 00% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is
A. equal to its input temperature
C. 0oC
B. less than its input temperature
D. 0K

8. A process not involved in the operating cycle of a Carnot engine is

A. an isothermal expansion
C. an adiabatic compression
B. an isobaric expansion
D. an adiabatic expansion

9. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made several periods after the beginning of the payment
A. deferred annuity C. delayed annuity B. progressive annuity D. simple annuity

10. Heat transfer by conduction occurs

A. only in liquids
C. only in gases and liquids
B. only in solids
D. in gases, liquids, and solids

11. Heat transfer by conduction occurs

A. only in gases
C. only in gases and liquids
D. only in liquids
D. in gases, liquids, and solids

12. What is the equivalent of Prandtl number in convective transfer?

A. Sc B. Sh C. Bi D. Pe

13. What are the two contacting phase in leaching?

A. extract phase and raffinate phase
B. feed phase and solvent phase
C. solvent phase and solute phase
D. overflow and underflow

14. To determine the minimum ratio of the extraction solvent to feed solvent, one
has to know
A. the distribution coefficient
B. only the concentration of solute in the feed solvent
C. only the concentration of solute in the extraction solvent
D. number of stages in the system

15. Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is

A. 1 B. <1 C. >1 D. 0

16. It is a dimensionless group which is proportional to the ratio of inertial force and
surface tension force.
A. Bond number B. Froude number C. Weber number D. Power number

17. A machine or device for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as

A. compressor B. motor C. pump D. turbine

18. What do you call the heating of an ore to bring about reaction with the furnace
atmosphere.
A. smelting B. leaching C. roasting D. calcination

19. The falling rate period in the drying of a solid is characterized by

A. increase in rate of drying
B. increase temperature both on the surface and within the solid
C. decrease temperature
D. none

20. The dew point of air indicates

A. the actual temperature of the air
B. the temperature at which its volume per unit weight of dry air is calculated
C. the temperature at which its enthalpy is calculated
D. the temperature at which its water content will start to condense
21. It is defined as the percentage ratio of the partial pressure of the vapor to vapor
pressure of the liquid at the existing temperature.
A. relative saturation B. percentage saturation C. relative humidity D. saturation

22. It refers to adherence to a surface.

A. adsorption B. absorption C. desorption D. osmosis

23. A control structure with two feedback controller with the output of the primary
controller changes the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to
the final controller.
A. feedforward control B. ratio control C. cascade control D. override control

24. Which control system is used for multi-input, multi-output system?

A. cascade control
B. feedbackward control
C. feedforward control
D. model predictive control

25. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35 oC and 18oC
respectively) is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15 oC. The air
will be
A. cooled and humidified
B. cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature
C. cooled at the same relative humidity
D. cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature

26. Which product is produced commercial by the Haber process?

A. sulfuric acid B. ammonia C. propane D. calcium

27. Which of the following types of radiation will be stopped by a piece of paper?
A. alpha B. neutron C. gamma ray D. x-ray

28. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as
A. D ɑ T B. D ɑ T0.5 C. D ɑ T1.5 D. D ɑ T3

29. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
A. D ɑ T1.5 B. D ɑ 1/P0.5 C. D ɑ 1/P D. D ɑ 1/P1.5

30. In case of an absorber, the operating

A. line always lies above the equilibrium curve
B. line always lies below the equilibrium curve
C. line can be either above or below the equilibrium curve
D. velocity is more than the loading velocity

31. In case of desorber (stripper)

A. the operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve
B. the operating line always lies below the equilibrium line
C. temperature remains unaffected
D. temperature always increase

32. Absorption factor is defined as

A. slope of the equilibrium curve / slope of the operating line
B. slope of the operating line / slope of the equilibrium curve
C. slope of the operating line-slope of the equilibrium curve
D. slope of the operating line x slope of the equilibrium curve

33. If G = insoluble gas in gas stream and L=non-volatile solvent in liquid stream,
then the slope of the operating line for the absorber is
A. L/G B. G/L C. always<1 D. none of these

34. 200 mesh screens means

A. 200 openings/cm2 B. 200 opening/cm C. 200 opening/inch D. 200 opening/in 2

35. It is a portable platform on which packaged material can be handled and stored
A. pallets B. steel drums C. hopper trucks D. baler bags

36. It is the angle at which a material will rest on a pile.

A. angle of inclination B. angle of repose C. contact angle D. banking angle

37. Drag coefficient in hindered settling is

A. less than in free settling
B. not necessarily quarter than in free settling
C. equal to that in free settling
D. greater than in free settling

38. Aqua regia is prepared by adding conc. HNO 3 to

A. conc. H2SO4 B. conc. H3PO4 C. conc. HCl D. conc. HBr

39. Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s sensitivity to changes in
viscosity with changes in temperature?
A. viscosity index B. viscosity factor C. coefficient of viscosity D. viscosity ratio

40. A screen is said to be blinded when

A. oversizes are present in undersize fraction
B. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
C. the screen is plugged with solid particles
D. its capacity is abruptly increased

41. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent
surface is called
A. intermediate material B. minus material C. plus material D. oversize

42. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes.
A. butterfly B. globe C. needle D. gate

43. Multistage compressors are in industry because, they

A. reduce the cost compressor
B. resemble closely to isothermal compression
C. reduce the size requirement
D. are easy to control

44. The pressure drop through a gate valve is lowest when

A. fully open B. ¾ open C. ½ open D. ¼ open

45. Found exclusively in the milk of mammals

A. lactose B. fructose C. glucose D. maltose

46. Which of the following provides the basis of radiation heat transfer?
A. Newton’s law B. Torricelli’s theorem C. Stefan Boltzmann Law D. Fourier’s Law

47. What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given
temperature?
A. absorptivity B. conductivity C. emissivity D. reflectivity

48. If one end of the manometer opens to the air, what do you call this manometer?
A. continuous manometer
B. free end manometer
C. open manometer
D. differential manometer

49. An instrument use to measure small pressure

A. venturi B. orifice C. aneroid D. manometer

50. If Ca is plotted versus time and a straight line is observed, the reaction is said to
be
A. first order B. second order C. zero order D. fractional order

51. The overall order of reaction for the elementary reaction A + 2B  C is

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

52. A reaction is known to be first order in A. A straight line will be obtained by

plotting
A. log C A versus time
B. log C A versus reciprocal time
C. C A versus time
D. 1/C A versus time

53. Falling drops of water becomes spherical due to

A. surface tension B. viscosity C. compressibility D. capillarity

54. When evaporation occurs, the liquid that remains is cooler because
A. the pressure on the liquid decrease
B. the slowest molecules remain behind
C. the volume of the liquid decreases
D. the fastest molecules remain behind

55. When a volume of air is heated,

A. the amount of water vapor it can hold does not change
B. it can hold less water vapor
C. its relative humidity to increase
D. it can hold more water vapor

56. Cooling saturated air causes

A. its ability to take up water vapor to increase
B. some of its water content to condense out
C. its relative humidity to increase
D. its relative humidity to decrease

57. Malt is produced from barley by

A. steeping, germination, and kilning
B. mashing, addition of hops, and fermentation
C. steeping, mashing, and lagering
D. mashing, kilning, and fermentation

58. A plot of shear stress versus shear rate for a fluid in simple shear flow.
A. stress-strain diagram B. rheogram C. histogram D. anagram

59. It is a dimensionless group which is proportional to the ratio of inertial force and
surface-tension force.
A. Bond number B. Froude number C. Weber number D. Power number

60. A mechanical pressure gauge which indicates pressure by the amount of

deflection under internal pressure of an oval tube bent in an arc of a circle and
closed at one end.
A. diaphragm gauge B. Bourdon-tube gauge C. compound gauges D. manometer

61. Which of the following fluid flow is characterized by erratic, small whirlpool-like
circles?
A. steady flow B. laminar flow C. uniform flow D. turbulent flow

62. If the Reynolds number is less than 2100, what is the classification of the fluid
flow?
A. laminar liquid B. critical flow C. turbulent flow D. uniform flow

63. How do you classify liquids that vaporized easily?

A. ideal liquid B. saturated liquid C. volatile liquid D. osmotic liquid

64. What do you call the power required to deliver a given quantity of a fluid against
a given head with no losses in the pump?
A. wheel power B. brake power C. hydraulic power D. specific power

65. Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s sensitivity to change in
viscosity with changes in temperature?
A. viscosity index B. viscosity ratio C. viscosity factor D. coefficient of viscosity

66. Viscosities can change with time assuming all other conditions to be constant. If
the viscosities increases with time up to a finite value how do you call the fluid?
A. pseudoplastic fluid B. colloidal fluid C. rheopectic fluid D. thixotropic fluid
67. A machine or device for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as
A. compressor B. motor C. pump D. turbine

68. The breakdown of glucose to products such as lactic acid or ethanol.

A. glycolysis B. glucolysis C. mitosis D. photosynthesis

69. If the pressure of the fluid suction line drops, some liquid flashes into vapors.
The flashing is called
A. channeling B. cavitation C. flooding D. vaporization

70. An isotope of hydrogen is

A. neptunium B. plutonium C. thorium D. tritium

71. Crystallization occurs in a solution that is

A. concentrated B. unsaturated C. supersaturated D. saturated

72. It is used primarily in operations requiring high flame temperature, such as

welding and metal cutting.
A. coal gas B. acetylene C. blue water gas D. carbureted gas

73. It is the variation of temperature with height above the ground.

A. inversion aloft B. ground-level inversion C. lapse rate D. greenhouse effect

74. It is the portion of the coal which when heated in the absence of air under
prescribed conditions is liberated as gases or vapors.
A. fixed carbon B. volatile matter C. total carbon D. net hydrogen

75. The heating value obtained when the water is not condensed.
A. high heating value B. low heating value C. calorific value D. gross calorific value

76. A type of valve which permits only one direction of flow.

A. gate valve B. butterfly valve C. globe valve D. check valve

77. One common problem in conveyors is to cut out the driving force when a
conveyor jams _____ devices are often used, as are electrical controls which cut
power to the drive motor.
A. torque limiting B. holdback C. brake D. cleaners

78. It is an algebraic expression for the dynamic relation between a selected input
and output of the process model.
A. Laplace transform B. complex numbers C. transfer function D. quadratic equation

79. It is the time the process output takes to first the new steady-state values.
A. rise time B. settling time C. overshoot D. decay ratio

80. A type screening equipment operated with a shaking motion, a long stroke at
low frequency.
A. vibrating screens
B. reciprocating screens
C. oscillating screens
D. revolving screens

81. A device used to the classification of particles size ranges below 10 micrometer.
A. thickeners B. hydraulic jigs C. centrifuge D. tables

82. Which of the following media can trap particles of size 0.005 micrometer?
A. woven wire B. membranes C. woven cloth D. cellulose

83. Also known as flash dryers

A. spray dryers B. pneumatic dryers C. rotary dryers D. tray dryers
84. Hydrogen sulfide is removed from water by contacting the solution with warm
air. The operation is
A. distillation B. leaching C. absorption D. stripping

85. Sulfur is undesirable is petroleum because

A. it cause engine knocking
B. it poisons the catalyst in the refining process
C. it increases the boiling point of fuel
D. all that are mentioned

86. Materials added to detergent formulation to enhance cleaning performance by

exhibiting synergistic cleaning effects with surfactant.
A. fillers B. brighteners C. builders D. perfume

87. An inherent disadvantage of this control system is that it results in continuous

cycling of the controlled variable and thus produces excessive wear in the final
element.
A. on-off control B. P-only control C. Pl-only control D. PID control

88. Plasticizers are added to paints to

A. make it corrosion resistant
B. give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film
C. make glossy surface
D. increase atmospheric oxidation

89. Molasses is the starting material for

A. alcohol B. essential oil C. fatty acids D. ether

90. Third aspect in plant design.

A. environment B. education C. religion D. morality

91. Under the same temperature gradient across various metal plates of the same
thickness, the heat conducted per unit surface area will be more across
A. iron B. nickel C. copper D. lead

92. A dryer in which the solid is directly exposed to a hot gas, usually air is called
A. indirect dryer B. adiabatic dryer C. circulating dryer D. continuous dryer

93. Metallurgical processes that utilizes high temperature are collective called
A. hydrometallurgy B. pyrometallurgy C. electrometallurgy D. alloying

94. It is the lowest temperature at which the material will ignite from an open flame.
A. flash point B. flammability limit C. autoignition temperature D. flame traps

95. It is a sudden, catastrophic, release of energy, causing a pressure wave (blast

wave)
A. ignition B. deflagration C. detonation D. explosion

96. The differential height between two points through which a fluid has to be
transported is the
A. pressure head B. dynamic head C. velocity head D. potential head

97. BET apparatus is used to determine the

A. Specific surface of porous catalyst
B. Pore diameter
C. Pore size distribution
D. Porosity of the catalyst bed

98. An elementary reaction has k=0.18 L /mol-s, the order of the reaction is
A. zero B. first C. second D. third

99. What do you call a system in which there is a flow of matter through the
boundary? This system usually encloses the device that involves mass flow, such
as: compressor, turbine, or nozzle.
A. closed system B. open system C. isolated system D. all of these

100. What is the entropy of a pure substance at a temperature of absolute zero?

A. unity B. zero C. infinity D. 100

101. It pertains to the production and use of extreme cold at temperature below-
100oC
A. cryogenics B. air conditioning C. low temperature industry D. refrigeration

102. An amorphous carbon that has been treated with steam and heat until it has a
very great affinity for absorbing many materials.
A. lampblack B. carbon black C. activated carbon D. graphite

103. It is very finely divided, essentially nonporous type of carbonaceous material

which is produced in a precisely controlled pyrolytic petrochemical process.
A. carbon black B. soot C. anthracite D. bituminous

104. Which acid is used in removing ink spots?

A. oxalic acid B. citric acid C. tartaric acid D. formic acid

105. A bet saddle is used so that

A. one can easily ride a horse
B. to increase mass transfer rate
C. the one with the higher melting point
D. the one with the higher boiling point
106. In binary distillation, the first component to condense in the distillate flask will
be
A. the one with the lower melting point
B. the one with the lower boiling point
C. the one with higher melting point
D. the one with the higher boiling point

107. To increase the life an incandescent lamp it is

A. filled with neon gas B. filled with argon gas C. filled with CO 2 gas D. evacuated

108. Lanolin is widely used in cosmetics, derived from ____.

A. cottonseed oil B. coconut oil C.sheep’s wool D. palm oil

109. Compounds added to the glass to give it the while opaque appearance so
characteristics of vitreous enamels.
A. fluxes B. opacifiers C. electrolytes D. whiteners

110. A pure finely divided calcium carbonate prepared by wet grinding and
levitating natural chalk.
A. flourspar B. putty C. lactate D. whiting

111. Ratio of the maximum controllable flow to the minimum controllable flow.
A. rangeability
B. zero-span ratio
C. hysteresis
D. installed flow characteristics

112. Which of the following is true if the resulting combustible lost in refuse is coked
coal?
A. has lost only its moisture content
B. has lost both moisture and VCM content
C. has FC and VCM as its main constituent
D. the FC/VCM in green coal is equal to FC/VCM in refuse

113. Calorific value as determined by bomb calorimeter is

A. higher calorific value at constant volume
B. lower calorific value at constant pressure
C. gross calorific value at constant pressure
D. net calorific value at constant volume

114. Coolers and boilers are ordinarily operated at ______ condition.

A. isobaric B. isenthalpic C. isothermal D. isentropic

115. Otto cycle consist of

A. two isentropic and two constant volume processes
B. two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. two isothermal and two constant volume process
116. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to
A. reduce the over-all pressure drop
B. reduce liquid hold-up
C. avoid channeling
D. avoid flooding

117. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying
A. cracks develop on the surface of the solid
B. surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
C. rate of drying decrease abruptly
D. none of these

118. An equation relating the temperature dependence of the equilibrium constant

to the enthalpy change in the reaction.
A. rate equation B. Arrhenius equation C. Van’t Hoff equation D. Raoult’s law

119. The statement that states that the entropy of vaporization for a liquid is
approximately 88 J/mol-K or 21 cal/mol-K.
A. Trouton’s rule
B. mixing rule
C. Gibb’s phase rule
D. Third law of thermodynamics

120. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that
converted into unwanted product is called.
A. Operational yield B. Relative yield C. Selectivity D. None of these

121. Which of the following is a unit of kinematic viscosity

A. centipoise B. pascal-second C. centistokes D. lb/ft-s

122. Bear pump

A. is a positive displacement pump
B. is a non-positive displacement pump
C. is a centrifugal pump
D. can be started with delivery valve closed

123. Rittinger’s crushing law states that

A. Work required to form a particle of any size is proportional to the square of the
surface to volume ratio of the product.
B. Work required to form a particle of a particular size is proportional to the square
root of the surface to volume ratio of the product.
C. Work required in crushing is proportional to the new surface created
D. for a given machine and feed, crushing efficiency is dependent on the sizes of
feed and product

124. This is also known as the volume fraction of the voids in packed beds.
A. porosity B. Superficial velocity C. Specific volume D. sphericity

125. Diatomaceous earth is

A. explosive B. filter aid C. filter medium D. none of these
126. Mass transfer in a flowing fluid may be correlated by
A. Sherwood, Nusselt & Reynold’s number
B. Peclet, Reynold’s & Schmidt number
C. Sherwood, Reynolds & Schmidt number
D. Prandtl, Schimdt & Reynolds number

127. Which of the following ratios describe Reynolds number?

A. inertial force/viscous forces
B. buoyant forces/inertial forces
C. drag forces/buoyant forces
D. viscous forces/drag forces

128. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity

A. gasoline B. glycerin C. water D. alcohol

129. Heat transfer in turbulent flow may be described through an empirical equation
correlating
A. Nusselt, Stanton and Reynold’s numbers
B. Peclet, Stanton and Prandtl numbers
C. Nusselt, Prandtl and Reynold’s numbers
D. Schmidt, Peclet, and friction numbers

130. It is frequently caused by crystallization of a material whose solubility at the

wall temperature is lower than at the bulk liquid temperature.
A. scaling B. salting C. fouling D. boiling

131. The boiling point of a given solution is a linear function of the boiling point of
pure water at the same pressure.
A. Steffi’s rule B. Duhring’s rule C. Haviuck rule D. McCabe Thiele rule

132. Schmidt number is

A. μ/ρD AD B. Re.Pe C. Sh x Pe D. Re/Pe

133. Operating velocity in a packed tower is usually

A. half the flooding velocity
B. equal to flooding velocity
C. twice the flooding velocity
D. more than the flooding velocity

134. Flooding in a column results due to

A. high pressure drop B. low pressure drop C. low velocity of the liquid D. high
temperature

135. Which of the following provides maximum contacts surface for a liquid-vapor
system?
A. packed tower
B. sieve-plate column
C. bubble-cup plate column
D. wetted wall column
136. Weeping in distillation or absorption column
A. increase tray efficiency
B. results due to low gas velocity
C. provides larger surface for mass transfer
D. is due to bubble cups

137. Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just begins when______. Note: p = partial

pressure of the vapor and P = vapor pressure of the liquid.
A. ρ=P B. ρ>P C. ρ<P D. ρ>=P

138. Which of the following parameters remains almost constant during adiabatic
saturation of unsaturated air?
A. dry bulb temperature B. wet bulb temperature C. absolute humidity D. dew point

139. Percentage saturation is _______ the relative saturation.

A. always smaller than B. always greater than C. not related to D. none of these
140. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures become identical at
A. 100% saturation curve
B. 78% saturation curve
C. 50% saturation curve
D. 10% saturation curve

141. Extraction of coffee from its seeds is done by

A. liquid-liquid extraction B. extractive distillation C. steam distillation D. leaching

142. Which product is produced commercially by the Haber process?

A. sulfuric acid B. ammonia C. propane D. calcium

143. Which of the following is pearl ash?

A. Na2CO3 B. K2CO3 C. Al2O3 D. CaO

144. Which of the following is also known as black diamond?

A. bort B. fullerenes C. carbonado D. carbon fibers

145. The unit operation for separating a particular gaseous component from a
mixture of gases due to difference in solubility of the gases in a liquid phase is
A. adsorption B. absorption C. extraction D. distillation

146. It is characterized by simple vegetative bodies from which reproductive

structures are elaborated. It contains no chlorophyll and therefore requires sources
of complex organic molecules.
A. algae B. fungi C. virus D. protozoa

147. It is the most abundant metal of the earth’s crust.

A. iron B. aluminum C. lithium D. sodium

148. It is commonly applied to any process used to effect partial or complete

demineralization of highly saline waters such as seawater (35,000 ppm of dissolved
salts) and brackish waters.
A. purification B. desalting C. deaeration D. electrodialysis

149. It converts solar energy into electricity directly.

A. electrolytic cell B. electrochemical cell C. photovoltaic cell D. fuel cell

150. It is usually applied to cooling below ambient temperature.

A. air conditioning B. refrigeration C. thermal conduction D. heat transfer

151. An unwanted input signal that affects the system’s output signal.
A. disturbance signal
B. sensor signal
C. error signal
D. controlled variable signal

152. The device that cause the process to provide the output.
A. sensor B. transmitter C. adaptor D. actuator

153. The amount of radiation emitted in all directions and over all wavelengths by a
perfect emitter is proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature of
the emitter. This is the statement of
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law B. Kirchhoff’s law C. Wien’s Law D. Planck’s Law

154. An ideal surface that absorbs all incident radiation regardless of wavelength
and direction and is also considered as a perfect emitter is referred to as a
A. gray body B. black body C. pin hole D. black hole

155. The reason for insulating the pipes is

A. they may not break under pressure
B. capacity to withstand pressure is increased
C. there is minimum corrosion
D. heat loss from the surface is minimized

156. A heat transfer device that is normally used to liquefy vapors is

A. evaporator B. condenser C. boiler D. cooler

157. The separation of a dilute slurry or suspension by gravity settling into a clear
fluid and slurry or suspension by gravity settling into a clear fluid and a slurry of
high solids content is called.
A. thickening B. classification C. sorting D. centrifugation

158. Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that of the
pure liquid at the same temperature is
A. unbound moisture
B. free moisture
C. Critical moisture
D. bound moisture

159. Liquid-fluid extraction is possible when there is a difference in this property of

a given solute between two immiscible solvents.
A. viscosity B. solubility C. vapor pressure D. temperature
160. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that
A. the time required to process one reactor volume of feed (measured at specified
conditions) is 3 hour
B. three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour
C. it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction with feed
D. conversion is cent per cent after three hours

161. This is an operation whereby components of a liquid mixture are separated by

boiling because of their difference in vapor pressure.
A. distillation B. drying C. evaporation D. leaching

162. The _____ efficiency is the efficiency for a single plate of distillation column.
A. specific B. point C. murphree D. local

163. Moisture contain by a substance in excess of the equilibrium moisture is called

A. unbound moisture B. free moisture C. critical moisture D. bound moisture
--------------------------------------NOTHING
FOLLOWS--------------------------------------

Chemical Engineering Principles

1. The Bond work index for a mesh-of-grind of 200 mesh for a rock consisting mainly
of quartz is 17.5 kWh/ton. How much power (in kW) is needed to reduce the
material in a wet-grinding ball mill from an 80 percent passing size of 1100 μm to
an 80 percent passing size of 80 μm at a capacity of 10 to per hour?
A. 120 kW B. 143 kW C. 176 kW D. 200 kW

2. Calculate the terminal velocity for a spherical droplets of coffee extract, 400
microns in diameter, falling through air. The specific gravity of coffee extract is 1.03
and the air is 300oF.
A. 3.57 ft/s B. 8.5 ft/s C. 0.56 ft/s D. 10.4 ft/s

3. If coal having a heat of combustion of 14,000 BTU/lb is used in a heating plant of

50% efficiency, how many pounds of steam of 50% quality and 212 oF temperature
can be made per pound of this coal from water whose initial temperature is 70 oF?
A. 11.12 lb B. 12.04 lb C. 12.76 lb D. 13.21 lb

4. It is planned to lift and move logs from almost inaccessible forest areas by means
of balloons. Helium at atmospheric (101.325 kPa) and temperature 21.1 oc is to be
used in balloons. What minimum balloon diameter (assume spherical shape) will be
required for gross lifting force of 20,000 kg? gas constant for air and Helium are
287.08 and 2077.67 J/kg-K, respectively
A. 16.65 m B. 33.3 m C. 44.4 m D. 48.4 m

5. 100 lb of saturated liquid water at 50 psia contained in a closed vessel are heated
until 80% of water is vaporized. The amount of heat added to the system is closest
to?
A. 90876 Btu B. 73920 Btu C. 65200 Btu D. 48200 Btu

6. 80 kg of water at 95oC is adiabatically mixed with 20 kg of cold water at 40 oC.

The entropy change for the process is closest to
A. 0.8473 kJ/K B. 5.0 kJ/K C. -0.8473 kJ/K D. -5.0 kJ/K

7. If the total percentage of particles larger than the screen opening in the fee,
oversize, undersize are 36%, 89% and 3%, respectively the effectiveness of the
screen if the undersize is the product is
A. 0.98 B. 0.89 C. 0.78 D. 0.65

8. At what critical speed which the flow of water in a long cylindrical pipe of
diameter 2 cm becomes turbulent considering that the temperature is 20 oC,
viscosity is 1E-3 Pa-s, and the critical Reynolds number is 3000.
A. 0.350 m/s B. 0.250 m/s C. 0.234 m/s D. 0.150 m/s

For question 9-10, refer to the following; 10 kmols of the fuel gas (composition by
volume: methane 85%, ethane 10.5%, nitrogen 4,5%) is burned with 15% excess
air. If complete combustion is assumed;

9. Total number of moles after combustion per 10 kmols of gas is

A. 123.64 B. 272 C. 33.9 D. 124

10. If the total pressure is 100.6 kPa, the partial pressure of water vapor (in kPa) is
A. 16.4 B. 2.7 C. 0.16 D. 2.38

11. What is the ratio of the average velocity to maximum velocity for water flowing
in a 1” schedule 40 pipe?
A. 0.8 B. 0.9 C. 0.6 D. 0.5

12. Water at 60 deg F flows through a 3-inch inside diameter smooth horizontal
pipe. If the Reynold’s number is 353000, calculate the ratio of maximum velocity to
average velocity.
A. 1.05 B. 1.22 C. 1.72 D. 1.89

13. Four kg of water is placed in an enclosed volume of 1 m 3. Heat is added until the
temperature is 150oC. Find the pressure of the vapor.
A. 465.9 kPa B. 470.2 kPa C. 475.8 kPa D. 477.2 kPa

14. From the data in problem #13, find the mass of the vapor.
A. 2.542 kg B. 2.650 kg C. 2.721 kg D. 2.782 kg

15. From the data in problem #13, find the volume of the vapor.
A. 0.8845 m3 B. 0.9240 m3 C. 0.9791 m3 D. 0.9985 m3

16. A certain stoichiometric problem was solved on the basis of 100 mole dry flue
gas (DFG). The given conditions at the stack outlet are as follows: 780 mmHg, 970 K
and the partial pressure of H2O is 24 mmHg. The computed total moles of H2O is
A. 2.340 B. 4.232 C. 3.175 D. 6.225
17. From data in problem #16, the partial pressure of H2O is equal to ____ in Hg.
A. 0.88 B. 0.80 C. 0.85 D. 0.94

18. From data in problem #16, the volume of the wet flue gas is
A. 6.098 m3 B. 8.001 m3 C. 8719 L D. 592 L

19. From data in problem #16, Pressure of the gas stream in psia is:
A. 16.09 B. 14.7 C. 22.34 D. 21.71

20. From data in problem #16, Actual volume occupied by the computed moles of
H2O is
A. 246.22 L B. 256.33 L C. 24.9 L D. 25.6 L

21. From data in problem #16, flue gas temperature in oF is

A. 613 B. 1472 C. 323 D. 1287

22. A mill produces wet paper containing 15% water by weight (wet basis). This wet
paper is fed in a continuous steady-state operation through a drier where the water
content is reduced to 6% by weight. If the heating cost is 5 centavos for every
pound of water removed from the paper in the drying operation, what is the heating
cost per 100 lb of wet paper fed into the dryer?
A. P1.50 B. P0.36 C. P0.48 D. P2.00

23. Calculate the volume (cubic feet at STP) of air required for the complete
combustion of 500 cu ft of coal gas that has the following composition: 49.0 per
cent hydrogen, 34.8 per cent methane, 4.2 percent ethylene (C 2H4), 6.0 per cent
carbon monoxide, 4.0 per cent nitrogen, 1 per cent carbon dioxide.
A. 2150 B. 2420 C. 2590 D. 2636

24. A volume of moist air of 1000 cu ft at a total pressure of 740 mmHg and a
temperature of 30oC contains water vapor in such proportions that its partial
pressure is 22 mmHg. Without the total condensation. After cooling it is found that
the partial pressure of the water vapor is 12.7 mmHg. Calculate the volume of the
gas after cooling.
A. 750 ft3 B. 820 ft3 C. 938 ft3 D. 1022 ft3

25. From data in problem 24, calculate the weight of water removed.
A. 0.563 lb B. 1.58 lb C. 2.98 lb D. 3.75 lb

26. A quantity of ice at 0.0oC was added to 40 g of water at 19oC in an insulated

container. All of the ice melted, and the water temperature decreased to 0.0 oC. How
many grams of ice were added?
A. 9.52 g B. 12.4 g C. 14.1 g D. 16.8 g

27. A homogenous gas reaction A 3R has a reported rate at 215oC of -rA =10-2C A0.5,
[mole/liter-sec] Find the space time needed for 80% conversion of a 50% A – 50%
inert feed a plug flow reactor operating at 215 oC and 5 atm (C Ao=0.0625 mol/liter).
A. 33.2 sec B. 56.6 sec C. 2.1 min D. 4.5 min
28. The gas phase irreversible reaction A + B C is elementary. The entering flow
rate of A is 10 mol/min and is equal molar in A and B. The entering concentration of
A is 0.4 mol/L. What CSTR volume [L] is necessary to achieve 90% conversion?
A. 113 B. 227 C. 851 D. 900

29. Steam generated in a power plant at a pressure of 8600 kPa and a temperature
of 500oC is fed to a turbine. Exhaust from the turbine enters a condenser at 10 kPa,
where it is condensed to a saturated liquid, which is then pump to the boiler. What
is the thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle operating at these conditions?
A. 39.7% B. 46.2% C. 50.8% D. 61.2%

30. A steel casting [Cp=0.5 kJ/kg-K] weighing 40 kg and at a temperature of 450 oC

is quenched in 150 kg of oil [Cp=2.5 kJ/kg-K] at a 25 oC. If there are no heat losses,
what is the change in entropy of the oil?
A. 26.13 kJ/K B. -16.33 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K D. 0

31. From data in problem #30, what is the change in entropy of the oil and casting
considered together?
A. 26.13 kJ/K B. -16.33 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K D. 0

32. A horizontal piston/cylinder arrangement is placed in a constant-temperature

bath. The piston slides in the cylinder with negligible friction, and an external force
holds it in place against an initial gas pressure of 14 bar. The initial gas volume is
0.03 m3. The external force on the piston is reduced gradually, and the gas expands
isothermally as its volume doubles. If the volume of the gas is related to its pressure
so that the product PV is constant, what is the work done by the gas in moving the
external force?
A. -29.11 kJ B. -32.08 kJ C. -33.25 kJ D. -34.08 kJ

33. A gaseous fuel is composed of 20% methane (CH 4), 40% ethane (C2H6) and 40%
propane (C3H8), where all percentage are by volume. The volumetric analysis of the
dry products of combustion (ie. Everything except the water) for this fuel gives 10.6
% carbon dioxide (CO2), 3% oxygen (O2), 1% carbon monoxide (CO) and 85.4%
nitrogen (N2). Determine the air fuel ratio on a mass basis for this reaction.
A. 1 B. 18 C. 23 D. 33

34. A solid steel sphere of specific gravity of 7.85 and diameter of 0.02 m is falling
at its terminal velocity through water. What is its velocity in ft/s?
A. 1488 B. 4880 C. 6.21 D. 0.42

35. What is the settling time [sec] for galena particles to settle under free settling
conditions through 5 ft of water at 50degF? Galena is spherical in shape. With
specific gravity and 0,01 inch diameter
A. 38.1 B. 18.3 C. 13.8 D. 5

36. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 15:1 that is; the air in the cylinder is
compressed to 1/15 of its initial volume. Find the final pressure after compressing an
atmospheric air of temperature 27 C.
A. 44 atm B. 47 atm C. 40 atm D. 41 atm
37. A mole of steam is compressed at 100oC, and the water is cooled to 0oC and
frozen to ice. What is the entropy change of the water in cal/ oK?
A. -36.9 B. -35.1 C. -34.8 D. -34.3

38. A floating cyl inder 8 cm in diameter and weighing 9.32 Newtons is placed in a
cylindrical container that is 20 cm in diameter and partially full of water. The
increase in the depth of water when the float is placed in it is
A. 10 cm B. 5 cm C. 3 cm D. 2 cm

39. A fluid at 690 kPa has a specific volume of 0.25 m 3/kg and enters an apparatus
with a velocity of 15 m/s. Heat radiation losses in the apparatus are equal to 25
kJ/kg of fluid supplied. The fluid leaves the apparatus at 135 kPa with a specific
volume of 0.9 m3/kg and a velocity of 300 m/s. In the apparatus, the shaft work
done by the fluid is equal to 900 kJ/kg. does the internal energy of the fluid increase
or decrease, and how much is the change?
A. 858 kJ/kg (increase)
B. 858 kj/kg (decrease)
C. 908 kJ/kg (increase)
D. 908 kJ/kg(decrease)

40. Exhaust steam from a turbine exhaust into a surface condenser at a mass flow
rate of 4000 kg/hr, 9.59 kPa, and 92 % quality. Cooling water enters the condenser
at 15oC and leaves at the steam inlet temperature. The cooling water mass rate in
kg/hr is closest to
A. 157,200 B. 70,200 C. 95,000 D. 88,000

41. A solution of Na2SO4 in water is saturated at 50oC. When a saturated solution of

Na2SO4 is cooled, crystals of Na2SO4-10H2O separate from the solution. If 1000 kg of
this solution is cooled to 10oC, the percentage yield obtain is nearly
A. 91% B. 90% C. 100% D. 80%

42. A heat engine absorbs 1055 kJ at 427oC and rejects heat at 38oC. the work done
in kJ by the engine if its efficiency is 50% of the Carnot efficiency is close to
A. 496.6 B. 293.3 C. 1265 D. 320

For question 43-44, refer to the following; A liquid phase reaction AR is carried out
in a series of three completely mixed stirred tank reactors of equal size. The
reaction rate constant k is 0.066/min. Overall conversion is 90%. The feed rate is 10
liters/min and the feed contains only A in concentration of 1 gmol/L.

43. The over-all space-time in minutes for the three-reactor system is

A. 5.24 B. 524 C. 52.4 D. 17.5

44. The concentration from the second reactor is

A. 0.2148 B. 0.1 C. 0.35 D. 0.5

45. A tank holds 500 m3 of brine. Brine containing 2 kg/m 3 of salt flows into the tank
at the rate of 5 m3/min and the mixture kept uniform, flows at the rate of 10
m3/min. If the maximum amount of the salt is found in the tank at the end of 20
minutes, what is the initial salt content of the tank?
A. 375 kg B. 500 kg C. 750 kg D. 600 kg

46. A gas whose viscosity of 200 μP flows through a capillary tube 2 mm in diameter
and 2 meters long. If 5 liters of gas pass through the tube every 10 seconds, what
must be the pressure head in dynes/cm2 under which the gas is flowing?
A. 5.09E5 B. 7.56E5 C. 8.31E5 D. 9.04E5

47. Air at 1 atm and 68oF is flowing in a long, rectangular duct whose cross section
is 1 ft by 0.5 ft, with average velocity of 40 ft/s. the roughness of the duct is
0.00006 in. What is the pressure drop in Pa per meter length?
A. 2.8 B. 6.8 C. 10.2 D. 14.1

48. The temperatures of three different liquids are maintained at 15 oC, 20oC, and
25oC respectively. When equal masses of the first two liquids are mixed, the final
temperature is 18oC, and when equal masses of the last two liquids are mixed, the
final temperature is 24oC.
What temperature will be achieved by mixing equal masses of the first and the last
liquid?
A. 8.65oC B. 10.30 oC C. 15.83 oC D. 23.57 oC

49. A gaseous reaction A2B + C takes place isothermally in a constant pressure

reactor. Starting with a gaseous mixture containing 50% A and the rest inert
materials, the ratio of final to initial volume is found to be 1.8. The percent
conversion of A is
A. 80% B. 50% C. 60% D. 74%

50. A sample of lignite was found to contain 34.55% moisture, 22.91% FC, 7.2%
ash, 1.1%S and 0.57% N with a calorific value of 16.45 MJ/kg. Calculate % C in the
coal.
A. 46.15% B. 49.09% C. 65.76% D. 55.40

51. The flue gas from the combustion of a hydrocarbon fuel has the following Orsat
analysis: 5.68% CO2, 2.43% CO, 6.4% O2 and 85.4 % N2. The percent excess air
supplied is
A. 30.0% B. 34.8% C. 38.6% D. 42.5%

52. A furnace is fired with coal with a velocity of 20 m/s and enthalpy of 3140 kJ/kg.
The coal has a heating of 32,000 kJ/kg and the refuse was analyzed to contain 4.8%
VCM, 12.6% FC and 82.6% ash. The percentage of the carbon lost in the refuse is
A. 2.16% B. 2.97% C. 3.02% D. 2.98%

53. A furnace is fired with coal with the following proximate analysis: 5%M, 60%FC,
25%VCM and 10% ash. Its calorific value is 31.33 MJ/kg. Calculate the % VCM lost in
the refuse if the refuse analyzes 25% FC, 4.4 % VCM, 70.6% ash.
A. 5.1 B. 4.59 C. 2.21 D. 3.45

54. 1.8 kg/s of steam enter a turbine with a velocity of 20 m/s and enthalpy of 3140
kJ/kg. The steam enters the condenser after being expanded to 2500 kJ/kg at 38
m/s. There is a total heat loss from the turbine casing of 53 kJ/s. Potential energy
changes are insignificant. What power is generated at the turbine shaft?
A. 875 kW B. 1098 kW C. 1515 kW D. 1480 kW

55. Water at 20oC is flowing in a pipe of radius 1.0 cm. The viscosity of water at
20oC is 1.005 centipoise. If the flow speed at the center is 0.200 m/s and the flow is
laminar, find the pressure drop along a 5 m section pipe.
A. 20.4 Pa B. 40.2 Pa C. 13.4 Pa D. 45.8 Pa

56. An oil is in laminar flow in a ½ -in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. The oil viscosity is 300
centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/f3t. Calculate the pressure drop per foot pipe
length in psia.
A. 0.45 B. 112 C. 42.1 D. 7.84

57. From the data in problem #56, calculate the velocity at the center of the tube in
ft/s.
A. 5.4 B. 12.5 C. 19.6 D. 9.8

58. From the data in problem #56, calculate the radial position at which the pint
velocity is equal to the average velocity in inches.
A. 0.177 B. 0.085 C. 0.244 D. 0.221

59. The solubility of a substance A at 25oC is 25 g/L and at 50oC its solubility is 75
g/L. If 500 mL of a saturate solution of A is cooled from 50 oC to 25oC, how many
grams of solute A will be crystallized? Assume volume of solute in the solution is
negligible.
A. 12.5 g B. 37.5 g C. 25 g D. 32.5 g

60. Air at 394.3 K flows through a packed bed of cylinders having a diameter of
0.0127 m and a length the same as the diameter. The bed void fraction is 0.40 and
the length of the packed bed is 3.66 n. The air enters the bed at 2.20 atm abs at the
rate of 2.45 kg/m2-s based on the empty cross section of the bed. Calculate the
pressure drop of air in the bed.
A. 12.3 kPa B. 15.47 kPa C. 18.20 kPa D. 20.35 kPa

--------------------------------------NOTHING
FOLLOWS--------------------------------------
 WEEKLY EXAM 6
Chemical Engineering Principles
.
1. Calculate the terminal velocity of a steel bar 2 mm diameter and of density 7870
kg/m3 in an oil of density 900 kg/m3 and viscosity 50 mN·s/m2.
A. 0.189 m/s B. 4.55 m/s C. 8.12 m/s D. 14.8 m/s

2. What is the mass of a sphere of material of density 7500 kg/m 3 whose terminal
velocity in a large deep tank of water is 0.6 m/s?
A. 0.029 g B. 2.9 g C. 0.00029 g D. 29.0 g

3. A solution containing 10 per cent of caustic soda is to be concentrated to a 35 per

cent solution at a rate of 180000 kg/day during a year of 300 working days. A
suitable single-effect evaporator for this purpose, neglecting the condensing plant,
costs $1600 and for a multiple effect evaporator the cost may be taken as $1600N,
where N is the number of effects. Boiler steam may be purchased at $0.20/1000 kg
and the vapour produced may be assumed to be 0.85N kg/kg of boiler steam.
Assuming the interest on capital, depreciation, and other fixed charges amount to
45 per cent of the capital involved per annum, and that the cost of labour is
constant and independent of the number of effects employed, determine the
number of effects which, based on the data given, will give the maximum economy.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

4. A single effect evaporator operates at 13 kN/m2. What will be the heating surface
necessary to concentrate 1.25 kg/s of 10 per cent caustic soda to 41 per cent,
assuming a value of U of 1.25 kW/m2·K, using steam at 390K? the heating surface is
1.2 m below the liquid level. The boiling-point rise of the solution is 30 deg K, the
feed temperature is 291K, the specific heat capacity of the feed is 4.0 kJ/kg·K, the
specific heat capacity of the product is 3.26 kJ/kg·K and the density of the boiling
liquid is 1390 kg/m3.
A. 45 m2 B. 75 m2 C. 107 m2 D. 142 m2

5. A single effect evaporator is used to concentrate 0.075 kg/s of a 10 per cent

caustic soda liquor to 30 per cent. The unit employs forced circulation in which the
liquor is pumped through the vertical tubes of the calandria which are 32 mm o.d.
by 28 mm i.d. and 1.2 m long. Steam is supplied at 394K, dry the saturated, and the
boiling point rise of the 30 per cent solution is 15 deg K. if the overall heat transfer
coefficient is 1.75 kW/m2·K, how many tubes should be used. The latent heat of
vaporization under these conditions is 2270 kJ/kg.
A. 45 B. 68 C. 93 D. 115

6. 2.5 kg/s of a solution at 288K containing 10 per cent of dissolved solids is fed to a
forward feed double-effect evaporator, operating at 14 kN/m 2 in the last effect. If the
product is to consist of a liquid containing 50 per cent by mass of dissolved solids
and dry saturated steam is fed to the steam coils, what should be the pressure of
the steam? The surface in each effect is 50m 2 and the coefficient for the heat
transfer in the first and second effects are 2.8 and 1.7 kW/m 2·K respectively. It may
be assumed that the concentrated solution exhibits a boiling point rise of 5 deg K,
and the latent heat has a constant value of 2260 kJ/kg and that the specific heat
capacity of the liquid stream is constant at 3.75 kJ/kg·K.
A. 75 kN/m2 B. 98 kN/m2 C. 115 kN/m2 D. 130 kN/m2

7. A saturated solution containing 1500 kg of potassium chloride at 360 K is cooled

in an open tank to 290K. if the density of the solution is 1200 kg/m 3 the solubility of
potassium chloride/100 parts of water by mass is 53.55 at 330K and 34.5 at 290K,
calculate the capacity (in m3) of the tank required.
A. 1.27 m3 B. 3.58 m3 C. 7.88 m3 D. 12.4 m3

8. From the data in problem #7, the mass of crystals obtained, neglecting any loss
of water by evaporation
A. 375 kg B. 455 kg C. 534 kg D.588 kg

9. The heat required when 1 kmol of MgSO 4·7H2O is dissolved isothermally at 291 K
in a large mass of water is 13.3 MJ. What is the heat of crystallization per unit mass
of the salt?
A. 47.8 kJ/kg B. 53.9 kJ/kg C. 62.1 kJ/kg D. 68.6 kJ/kg

10. 2000 kg/h of a mixture consisting of 60 wt% benzene and 40 wt% toluene is to
be separated in a distillation column. The distillate is to contain 98 wt% benzene
and 95% of feed benzene is to be recovered as distillate. What is the flow rate of the
distillate?
A. 820 kg/h B. 980 kg/h C. 1163 kg/h D. 1544 kg/h

11. From the data in problem #10, calculate the flow rate of the bottom product.
A. 745 kg/h B. 837 kg/h C. 988 kg/h D. 1025 kg/h

12. From the data in problem #10, calculate the percentage of benzene in the
bottom product.
A. 7.2% B. 92.8% C. 12.5% D. 87.5%

13. 100 kg of a mixture of sodium sulfate crystals (Na 2SO4·10H2O) and sodium
chloride (NaCl) is heated to drive all the water. Final weight of the dry mixture is
58.075 kg. calculate the mass of sodium sulfate crystal in the original mixture.
A. 75 kg B. 50 kg C. 25 kg D. 10 kg

14. From the data in problem #13, calculate the mass of sodium chloride in the
original mixture.
A. 75 kg B. 50 kg C. 25 kg D. 10 kg

15. From the data in problem #13, calculate the molar ratio of dry NaSO 4 and NaCl
in the original mixture.
A. 0.45 B. 0.55 C.0.65 D. 0.75

16. Calculate the amount of H2S in cubic meters measured at 49˚C and at a
pressure of 0.2 barG, which may be produced from 10 kg of FeS.
A. 2.5 m3 B. 3.0 m3 C. 3.5 m3 D. 4.0 m3

17. A piston cylinder initially contains 100 gmol of an ideal gas at a pressure of
516.3 kN/m2 and 10˚C. External pressure is 101.3 kN/m2. The piston is weighted
with 100 kg of weight and held in place with latches. The temperature is kept
constant. When latches are released, the piston moves up and comes to rest when
the forces are balanced. Calculate the work done during this expansion. Area of
cross section of piston is 0.0029 m2.
A. 20 kJ B. 25 kJ C. 30 kJ D. 35 kJ

18. From the data in problem 17, next the mass is remove and the cylinder is
allowed to come to equilibrium against the external pressure. What is the work done
in this step?
A. 216 kJ B. 178 kJ C. 157 kJ D. 125 kJ

19. From the data in problem #17, what would be the work done if the gas were
expanded reversibly against the external pressure?
A. 275 kJ B. 383 kJ C. 126.7 kJ D. 65.4 kJ
20. Two Carnot engines are operating in series. The first one absorbs heat at a
temperature of 1111 K and rejects heat to the second engine at a temperature T.
the second engine receives the heat at the intermediate temperature T and rejects
it to a reservoir at 300 K. Calculate T if the efficiencies of the two engines are equal.
A. 498 K B. 577 K C. 645 K D. 722 K

21. From the data in problem #20, calculate T if the work done by the two engines
are equal.
A. 488 K B. 585 K C. 705 K D. 645 K

22. Calculate the specific volume (in m3/kmol) of CH3Cl at 1379 kPa and 205˚C
using the Van der Waals equation. Van der Waals constant for CH3Cl are a=757.4
kPa·m6/kmol2 and b=0.034 m3/kmol.
A. 2.76 B. 3.65 C. 4.23 D. 4.99

23. A Carnot engine operates in a closed system by absorbing heat at 927˚C and
rejecting heat at 27˚C and produces 5021 kJ of net work. Determine the heat input
of the engine.
A. 6695 kJ B. 6422 kJ C. 5988 kJ D. 5465 kJ

24. From the data in problem #23, determine the heat output of the engine.
A. 1422 kJ B. 1674 kJ C. 1877 kJ D. 1988 kJ

25. The constant pressure specific heat of acetonitrile vapor at low pressure is given
by the equation Cp=21.3 + 11.562E-2T-3.812E-5T 2 where T in K and Cp is in
kJ/kgmol·K. Estimate specific heat ratio (Cp/Cv) for acetonitrile at 1000 K.
A. 1.09 B. 1.76 C. 2.15 D. 2.67

26. 25 kg of carbon dioxide are to be heated from 300 to 700 K at constant volume.
Calculate the number of kJ to be supplied. Specific heat of carbon dioxide is given
by Cp=43.26 +0.0115T where Cp is in kJ/kmol·K and T is in degrees Kelvin.
A. 7655 kJ B. 8675 kJ C. 8822 kJ D. 9249 kJ
27. Liquid allyl alcohol has a vapor pressure of 53.32 kPa at 80.2˚C and its normal
boiling point is 96.6˚C. calculate the heat of vaporization over the temperature
range of 80.2 to 96.6˚C.
A. 35678 kJ/kmol B. 42472 kJ/kmol C. 48855 kJ/kmol D. 52344 kJ/kmol

28. In a refrigeration cycle using HFC-143a, the refrigerant enters the expansion
valve as saturated liquid at 10 barA and 40˚C, the downstream pressure is 1.38
barA. What is the entropy increase (kJ/kg·K) in the expansion?
A. 0.0057 B. 0.035 C. 0.65 D. 2.14

29. Aa certain reaction has the rate given by –r A=0.01C A2 mol/cm3·min. If the rate
is to be expressed in kmol/liter2 ·h, what is the value of the rate constant?
A. 0.6 L/kmol·h B. 0.6 L/kmol·min C. 0.8 L/kmol·h D. 0.8 L/kmol·min

30. For a gas phase elementary reaction, A → 3R, what is fractional volume change
assuming the volume varies linearly between zero and complete conversion? The
reaction mixture initially contains 40% by volume inerts.
A. 0.8 B. 1.0 C. 1.2 D. 1.4

31. A substance A decomposes by first order kinetics. In a batch reactor, 50% A is

converted in 5 min. How much longer would it take to reach 90% conversion?
A. 12.4 min B. 16.6 min C. 18.9 min D. 21.4 min

32. The reaction CO2 + H2 ↔ CO + H2O is carried out by heating to 1000K and
allowing the reaction to come to equilibrium at 50 bar total pressure. 60% of CO 2 is
found to be converted. What is the value of the equilibrium constant Kp if the initial
mixture consisted of only CO2 and H2 in equimolar proportion? Assume ideal
behavior of components.
A. 1.12 B. 2.25 C. 2.88 D. 3.15

33. From the data in problem #32, what is the partial pressure of CO in the mixture?
A. 8 barA B. 12 barA C. 15 barA D. 18 barA

34. A liquid phase reaction A → R is carried out in a CFSTR. The reaction rate is 1
mol/liter/h. Feed is 5% converted. Find the size of the reactor needed for 80%
conversion of feed is to be processed at a rate of 1200 mol/h.
A. 600 L B. 800 L C. 900 L D. 1000 L

35. From the data in problem #34, if the feed rate is doubled, what is the size of the
reactor needed?
A. 1200 L B. 1350 L C. 1500 L D. 1800 L

36. A homogeneous liquid phase second-order reaction 2A → R is carried out in a

plug-flow reactor with 60% conversion. What will be the new conversion in a plug-
flow reactor two times as large if all other variables remain the same, and if the
reaction takes place without a volume change? Feed to the reactor is pure A.
A. 0.75 B. 0.70 C. 0.65 D. 0.60

37. Production of a chemical plant of a rated manufacturing capacity 100,000 tons

of chemical per year involves the following costs:
 Plant investments………………...$10,000,000.00
Overhead costs…………………...$1,000,000.00/yr
Manufacturing costs………………$50/ton
Selling price………………………..$100/ton
Assuming depreciation of 10%, calculate the breakeven capacity as a percent of
rated capacity of the chemical plant.
A. 30% B. 40% C. 50% D. 60%

38. The inside temperature of a composite wall is maintained at 2000˚F, and the
outside ambient air temperature is maintained at 70˚F. The composite wall consists
of three layers of materials; their thickness from the hotter to the colder surface is
12, 12 and 10 inches, respectively. The corresponding thermal conductivities are
0.4, 0.2 and 0.1 Btu/hr·ft·˚F, respectively. Assume that thermal conductivities are
invariant with temperature and inside heat transfer resistance is negligible. The
outside air film heat transfer coefficient is 2 Btu/hr·ft2·˚F. Calculate the heat loss
through the composite wall in Btu/hr·ft 2.
A. 118 B. 124 C. 132 D. 138

39. From the data in problem #38, calculate the outside surface temperature.
A. 89˚F B. 98˚F C. 112˚F D. 129˚F

40. A 2200-kg automobile travelling at 90 kph (25 m/s) hits the rear of s stationary,
1000-kg automobile. After the collision, the large automobile slows to 50 kph (13.89
m/s) the smaller vehicle has a speed of 88 kph (24.44 m/s). what has been the
increase in internal energy, taking both the vehicles as the system?
A. 120.7 kJ B. 176.6 kJ C. 145.2 kJ D. 15.1 kJ

41. Air at 1 bar and 25˚C enters a compressor at low velocity, discharges at 3 bar
and enters a nozzle in which it expands to a final velocity of 600 m/s at the initial
conditions of pressure and temperature. If the work of compression is 240
kJ/kilogram of air, how much heat must be
removed during compression in kJ/kg?
A. 60 B. 180 C. 240 D. 300

42. Assume that spheres having diameters of 0.005 cm and a density of 1.2 g/cm 3
are settling in water (0.01 poises) under free settling conditions where the particles
do not interfere with each other. What would be the free settling velocity in cm per
seconds?
A. 2.05 B. 1.08 C. 0.57 D. 0.027

43. A water cooler uses 50 lb/hr of melting ice to cool running water from 80˚F to
42˚F. Based on the inside coil area, Ui=110 Btu/hr·ft 2·˚F. Find the logarithmic mean
temperature difference.
A. 17.42˚F B. 19.85˚F C. 22.15˚F D. 24.24˚F

44. From the data in problem #43, calculate the inside area of the coil in ft 2.
A. 1.410 B. 2.664 C. 3.080 D. 4.120
45. From the data in problem #43, calculate the gpm of water cooled.
A. 0.285 B. 0.380 C. 0.431 D. 0.489

46. Water is flowing at a velocity of 1 m/s in a pipe0.4 m in diameter. In the pipe is

an orifice with a hole diameter 0.20 m. What is the measured pressure drop across
the orifice?
A. 1.76 psi B. 2.21 psi C. 2.83 psi D. 3.76 psi

47. Liquid water at 212˚Fand 1 atm has an internal energy (on an arbitrary basis) of
180.2 BTU/lb. what is its enthalpy? The scientific volume of liquid water at these
conditions is 0.01672 ft3/lb.
A. 120 BTU/lb B. 140 BTU/lb C. 160 BTU/lb D. 180 BTU/lb

48. A flat sign board is circular and 20 ft in diameter. Weight of air is

0.0807lb/ft3.there is a drag coefficient of 1.12 for a wind force normal to the sign
surface. For a wind velocity of 40 mph, the normal force on the sign will be:
A. 1,480 lbs B. 1.520 lbs C. 1,600 lbs D. 1,720 lbs

49. The turbines in a hydroelectric plant are fed by water falling from a height of
100 ft. Assuming 95% efficiency in converting the potential to electrical energy, and
10% loss of resulting power in transmission, how many tons of water per hour are
needed to keep a 100 W lightbulb burning?
A. 1.10 tons B. 1.32 tons C. 1.55 tons D. 1.75 tons

50. A fluid has a velocity of 100 ft/s when entering a piece of apparatus. With what
velocity must the fluid leave the apparatus so that the difference in entering and
leaving kinetic energies is equivalent to 1 BTU/lb of the fluid?
A. 185 ft/s B. 210 ft/s C. 245 ft/s D. 254 ft/s

51. What is the enthalpy of saturated steam at 30 psia?

A. 218.93 BTU/lb B. 1164.1 BTU/lb C. 1087.9 BTU/lb D. 231.8 BTU/lb

52. What is the enthalpy of saturated liquid water at 48.675 kPag?

A. 467.13 kJ/kg B. 2693.4 kJ/kg C. 338.7 kJ/kg D. 2482.5 kJ/kg

53. What is the enthalpy of saturated steam at 26.325 kPa vacuum pressure?
A. 384. 45 kJ/kg B. 384.45 BTU/lb C. 2663 kJ/kg D. 2663 BTU/lb

54. What is the enthalpy of superheated steam at 200 kPa and 200˚C?
A. 2870. 5 kJ/kg B. 2540.2 kJ/kg C. 2310.1 kJ/kg D. 2215.4 kJ/kg

55. What is the enthalpy of superheated steam at 20 psia and 400˚F?

A. 1239.2 kJ/kg B. 430 BTU/lb C. 2876 kJ/kg D. 540 kJ/kg

56. The inside dimeter of a 2-inch schedule 40 steel pipe is

A. 2.245 in B. 2.000 in C. 2.067 in D. 1.939 in

57. The outside diameter of a 1/2-inch schedule 10 steel pipe is

A. 0.840 in B. 0.5 in C. 1.050 in D. 0.546 in
58. A 2.2 kW refrigerator or heat pump operates between -17˚C and 38˚C. The
maximum theoretical heat that can be transferred from the cold reservoir is nearest
to
A. 7.6 kW B. 4.7 kW C. 15.6 kW D. 10.2 kW

59. The ideal Otto cycle consists of which of the following processes?
A. Two constant-volume and two isentropic process
B. Two constant-pressure and two isentropic process
C. Two constant-volume and two isothermal process
D. Two constant-pressure and two isothermal process

60. A het engine absorbs 1055 kJ at 427˚C and rejects heat at 38˚C. The work done
in kJ by the engine if its efficiency is 50% of the Carnot efficiency is closest to
A. 496.6 B. 293.3 C. 1265 D. 320

61. Is a major expense in crushing and grinding a feed material.

A. cost of labor B. cost of material C. cost of equipment D. cost of power

62. Which of the following is the hardest?

A. talc B. apatite C. topaz D. quartz

63. An ore of lead.

A. silica B. spinel C. galena D. cementite

64. The residue remaining after sugarcane has been crushed by pressure rolls.
A. charcoal B. bagasse C. foundry coke D. pitch coke

65. How long could a 2000 hp motor be operated on the heat energy liberated by 1
m3l of ocean water when the temperature of the water is lowered by 1˚C and if all
these heat were converted to mechanical energy?
A. 371.56 yrs B. 245.65 yrs C. 210.92 yrs D. 177.42 yrs

66. Priming needed in a

A. reciprocating pump B. centrifugal pump C. diaphragm pump D. gear pump

67. An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is based on the
oxidation of sulfur to sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by
reaction with water in fuming sulfuric acid.
A. Bayer process C. Leblanc process
B. Lead chamber process D. contact process

68. At STP the density of chlorine is 3.22 kg/cubic meter. What weight of this gas is
contained in a flask of 100 cubic centimeters at 24˚C and 100 kPa?
A. 0.563 g B. 0.292 g C. 0.420 g D. 0.321 g

69. A 0.7 m3 tank contains 4.5 kg of an ideal gas. The gas has a molecular weight of
44 and is at 21˚C. What is the pressure of the gas?
A. 289.6 kPa B. 310.8 kPa C. 326.7 kPa D. 357.2 kPa
70. Calculate the equivalent diameter of a rectangular conduit 0.6 meters wide and
0.3 meters high.
A. 0.4 m B. 0.45 m C. 0.50 m D. 0.55 m

71. Calculate the hydraulic radius for a square with sides of length 10 mm.
A. 2.0 mm B. 2.5 mm C. 3.0 mm D. 3.5 mm

72. A pump is driven by an electric motor moves 25 gal/min of water from reservoir
A to reservoir B, lifting the water to a total head of 245 ft. The efficiency of the
pump and the motor are 64% and 84% respectively. What size of motor in Hp is
required?
A. 3 Hp B. 5 Hp C. 2 Hp D. 7 Hp

For numbers 73 to 75…

A fuel containing methane and ethane is burned in excess air. The analysis of the
dry stack gas is given as follows: 4.62% CO 2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2 by
mole. Determine the following:

73. The percentage excess air

A.33.61% B. 49.81% C. 67.21% D. 74.72%

74. The mole percentage of methane in the fuel.

A. 18.57% B. 20.36% C. 40.71% D. 81.43%

75. If the fuel is composed mainly of a saturated hydrocarbon, what is the ratio of
the carbon to hydrogen in the fuel?
A. 0.271 B. 0.346 C. 0.587 D. 0.603

76. A furnace completely burns coal containing 70% C. Analysis of the flue gas
shows 15% CO2, 4% O2 81% N2 and no CO. What is the % of the net hydrogen in the
coal?
A. 6.126% B. 1.53% C. 2.38% D. 3.94%

77. A steel casting (Cp=0.5 kJ/kg·K) weighing 40 kg and at a temperature of 450˚C

is quenched in 150 kg of oil (Cp=2.5 kJ/kg·K) at 25˚C. If there are no heat losses,
what is the change in entropy of the casting?
A. 26.13 kJ/K B. -16.33 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K D. 0

78. A 10-L insulated container is divided into two parts by a thin membrane. One
part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25˚C and the other part is vacuum.
Calculate the entropy change of the gas after the thin membrane burst.
A. 1.26 J/K B. 1.86 J/K C. 2.21 J/K D. 2.35 J/K

79. Ninety kilograms of ice at 0˚C are completely melted. Find the entropy change,
in kJ/K if T2=0˚C.
A. 0 B. 45 C. 85 D. 110

80. A newly designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 watts and an input rating
of 735 watts. The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is
A. 5.67 B. 4.27 C. 3.26 D. 4.44
81. A 30 MW geothermal electric power plant uses hot steam from the earth at 157
deg C to heat and vaporize isobutane; which turns a turbine that is connected to a
generator. The isobutane is subsequently cooled to 27˚C using fans and condensed
back to a liquid. The overall efficiency of the plant is 40% of the ideal (Carnot)
efficiency. How many joules of heat must be released to the atmosphere per
second?
A. 2.5E8 B. 2.2E8 C. 3E7 D. 5.2E8

82. A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. Orsat analysis of the
products of combustion shows 9.08% CO2, 1.63% CO, 5.28 O2 and no free H2.
Calculate the percent excess air supplied.
A. 20% B. 25% C. 30% D. 35%

83. A 100-kg batch of clay contains 20% water. It was dried to a water content of
5%. How much water i s removed?
A. 15.8 lbs B. 27.2 lbs C. 15.8 lbs D. 27.2 lbs

84. A log of mass 40 kg is dropped into a river at 0˚C. if the relative density of the
log is 0.80, what will be the volume of the log above the surface?
A. 0.02 cu. m. B. 0.040 cu. m. C. 0.08 cu. m. D. 0.01 cu. m.

85. Water flows through an 8-in (ID=7.981 in) steel pipe at an average velocity of 8
ft/s. Downstream the pipe splits into an 8-in main and a 2- in (ID=2.067 in) bypass
pipes. If the velocity in the bypass is twice the velocity of the main pipe, the
volumetric flow rate (ft3/s) in the main pipe is
A. 10.58 B. 5.29 C. 1.84 D. 0.25

86. The friction factor for flow through a pipe with relative roughness of 0.004 at a
Reynold’s No. of 80,000 is approximately equal to
A. 0.052 B. 0.025 C. 0.03 D. 0.038

87. Air at 250°C (viscosity=0.018 cP) enters a section of 2-in schedule 40

commercial steel pipe at a gauge pressure of 310 kPa and a flow rate of 1200kg/h.
assuming isothermal flow, what is the pressure drop (kPa) in 60 m of pipe?
A. 350 B. 155 C. 101.3 D. 61

88. Sulfuric acid is pumped at 3 kg/s through a 60-m length of smooth 25 mm pipe.
If the pressure drop falls by one-half, what will be the new flow rate (kg/s)? Assume
the following properties of sulfuric acid: SG=1.84, viscosity=25 cP.
A. 3 B. 2 C. 0.2 D. 0.124

89. Property of fluid that converts kinetic energy to heat energy.

A. viscosity B. fluidity C. shear D. resistance

90. Which of the following is an extensive property?

A. temperature B. velocity C. pressure D. mass

91. If the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the pressure is inversely

proportional to the volume. This is known as:
A. Charles law B. Archimedes principle C. Boyle's law D. Dalton's law

92. Which of the following is the most efficient?

A. Carnot B. Brayton C. Otto D. Diesel

93. The achievement of a temperature below that of the immediate surroundings is

A. air conditioning B. drying C. refrigeration D. evaporation

94. Work is a
A. property of the system C. path function
B. state function D. state description of a system

95. Throttling process is

A. a reversible and isothermal process C. an irreversible and constant entropy
B. a reversible and constant entropy process D. constant enthalpy

96. In the reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas at 300 K from 1 to 10

liters, where the gas has an initial pressure of 20 atm, calculate the change in
entropy of the gas in cal/°K.
A. 3.20 B.3.46 C. 3.72 D. 3.86

97. To have an efficiency of 40 percent, a heat engine that exhausts heat at 350°K
must absorb heat at no less than
A. 210 K B. 875 K C. 583 K D. 1038 K

98. If a Carnot engine absorbs 10kJ of heat per cycle when it operates between 500
and 400 K, the work it does per cycle is
A. 2 kJ B. 8 kJ C. 2.5 kJ D. 10kJ

99. Calculate the entropy change in cal/°K if 350 grams of water at 5°C is mixed
with 500 grams of water at 70°C.
A. 4.485 B. 4.580 C. 4.652 D. 4.789

100. A rigid tank contains hot fluid that is cooled while being stirred by a paddle
wheel. The internal energy of fluid is 800 kJ and loses 500 kJ of heat during cooling
process with the paddle work of 100 kJ applied on the fluid. Neglecting the energy
stored in the paddle wheel, determine the final internal energy of the fluid.
A. 430 kJ B. 340 kJ C. 400 kJ D. 500 kJ

--------------------------------------NOTHING
FOLLOWS--------------------------------------
 Chemical Engineering Principles

1. How many cubic feet per minute of entering air is needed to evaporate 10 lb of
water per hour from a rayon, if the air enters at 80°F and 25% humidity and leaves
at 170°F and 55% relative humidity. The operating pressure is 14.3 psia.
A. 12.7 cfm B. 145.8 cfm C. 255.1 cfm D. 322.5 cfm

2. A nitrogen-hydrogen chloride mixture (10 vol% hydrogen chloride) is to be

scrubbed with water to remove the hydrogen chloride. To satisfy environmental
concerns, 99% of the inlet HCl must be removed. Assuming that the gas leaving the
scrubber will be at 125°F and 1 atm saturated with water, what will be the volume
of the gas leaving if we must process 200 lbmol/hr of dry entering gas.
A. 88630 ft3/hr B. 71000 ft3/hr C. 61210 ft3/hr D. 57441 ft3/hr

3. From the data in problem #2, calculate the percentage hydrogen chloride of the
gas leaving.
A. 2% B. 0.1% C. 0.0001% D. 0.02%

4. 0.6 m3/s (measured at STP) of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a
dew point of 277.5 K. how much water must be removed? Vapour pressure of water
at 294 K is 2.5 kN/m2. Vapour pressure of water at 277.5 K is 0.85 kN/m 2.
A. 2.1 kg/s B. 0.75 kg/s C. 0.0071 kg/s D. 0.00009 kg/s

5. From the data in problem #4, what will be the volume of the gas after drying
measured at STP?
A. 0.59 m3/s B. 2.18 m3/s C. 4.52 m3/s D. 6.78 m3/s

6. Wet material, containing 70% moisture on a wet basis, is to be dried at a rate of

0.15 kg/s in a counter-current dryer to give a product containing 5% moisture (both
on a wet basis). The drying medium consists of air heated to 373 K and containing
water vapour with a partial pressure of 1.0 kN/m 2. The air leaves the dryer at 313 K
and 70% saturated. Calculate how much air will be required to remove the moisture.
The vapour pressure of water at 313 K may be taken as 7.4 kN/m 2.
A. 0.54 kg/s B. 3.78 kg/s C. 12.1 kg/s D. 45.1 kg/s

7. 30,000 m3 of cool gas (measured at 289 K and 101.3kN/m 2 saturated with water
vapour) is compressed to 340 kN/m2 pressure, cooled to 289 K and the condensed
water is drained off. Subsequently the pressure is reduced to 170 kN/m 3 and the gas
is distributed at this pressure and 289 K. What is the percentage absolute humidity
after this treatment? The vapour pressure of water at 289 K is 1.8 kN/m 2.
A. 30% B. 40% C. 50% D. 60%

8. When a porous solid was dried under constant-drying conditions, 5 hours were
required to reduce the moisture from 30 to 12 lb H 2O/lb dry solid. Critical moisture
content is 18 lb H2O/lb dry solid and the equilibrium moisture is 5 lb H 2O/lb dry solid.
If the drying rate during the falling-rate period is a straight line through the origin,
determine the time needed to dry the solid from 30 to 8 lb H 2O/lb dry solid.
A. 3.44 hr B. 7.74 hr C. 1.25 hr D. 2.88 hr
9. For acetone at 20°C and 1 bar, volume expansivity (β) =1.478 E-3/°C, isothermal
compressibility (κ) =62 E-6/bar and specific volume (V) =1.287 cm 3/g. The value of
(∂P/∂T)V is
A. 24 bar/°C B. 42 bar/°C C. 10 bar/°C D. 33 bar/°C

10. For acetone at 20°C and 1 bar, volume expansivity (β) =1.478 E-3/°C,
isothermal compressibility (κ) =62 E-6/bar and specific volume (V) =1.287 cm 3/g.
The pressure generated when acetone is heated at constant volume from 20°C and
1 bar to 30°C is
A. 241 bar B. 110 bar C. 177 bar D. 220 bar

11. For acetone at 20°C and 1 bar, volume expansivity (β) =1.478 E-3/°C,
isothermal compressibility (κ) =62 E-6/bar and specific volume (V) =1.287 cm 3/g.
The volume change in (cm3/g) when acetone is changed from 20°C and 1 bar to 0°C
and 10 bar.
A. 0.038 B. -0.038 C. 0.144 D. -0.144

12. A boiler plant raises 5.2 kg/s of steam at 1825 kN/m 2 pressure, using coal of
calorific value of 27.2 MJ/kg. If the boiler efficiency is 75%, how much coal is
consumed per day?
A. 0.12 kg/s B. 0.71 kg/s C. 4.22 kg/s D. 10.12 kg/s

13. From the data in problem #12, if the steam is used to generate electricity, what
is the power generation in kilowatts assuming a 20% conversion efficiency of the
turbines and generators?
A. 1 MW B. 3 MW C. 5 MW D. 7 MW

14. Compare the costs of electricity at P1.00 per kWh and gas at P15.00 per therm.
A. Cost of electricity is P0.14 per MJ
B. Cost of gas is P0.28 per MJ
C. Cost of electricity is P0.14 per MJ less than cost of gas
D. Cost of electricity is P0.14 per MJ more than cost of gas

15. A refrigerator is proposed that will require 10 hp to extract 3 MJ of energy each

minute from a space which is maintained at -18°C. The outside air is at 20°C. Is this
possible?
A. maybe B. no C. cannot be determined D. yes

16. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of

A. kinematic viscosity B. surface tension C. refractive index D. optical activity

17. An instrument for the detection of high energy decay products of radioactive
nuclei, which is based on the counting of light pulses produced by radiation when it
enters a crystal.
A. scintillation counter B. voltmeter C. radiograph D. spectrometer

18. A tube containing a salt solution that is used to connect two-half cells in an
electrochemical cell. It allows passage of ions, but prevents mixing of the half-cell
electrolytes.
A. salt bridge B. membrane C. capillary tube D. brine
19. The Brinell number of a material is a measure of
A. specific gravity B. density C. specific heat D. hardness

20. A gas turbine cycle consisting of two adiabatic steps and two isobaric steps.
A. Brayton cycle B. Sterling cycle C. Rankine cycle D. Otto cycle

21. At low Reynold's number

A. viscous forces are unimportant
B. viscous forces control
C. viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant
D. gravity forces control

22. At high Reynold's number

A. inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant
B. viscous forces predominates
C. inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
D. none of these

23. Channeling is most severe

A. in towers packed with stacked packing C. in dumped packing of regular units
B. in towers packed randomly with crushed solids D. at very high liquid flow rate

24. The most common filter aid is

A. diatomaceous earth B. calcium silicate C. sodium carbonate D. sphalerite

25. An example of a collector for flotation of metallic sulfides and native metals is
A. xanthates B. sodium silicate C. sodium sulfide D. sphalerite

26. The operating speed of a ball mill should be

A. less than the critical speed C. at least equal to the critical speed
B. much more than the critical speed D. none of these

27. Boiler feed pump is usually a

A. reciprocating pump C. multistage centrifugal pump
B. gear pump D. diaphragm pump

28. Plunger pumps are used for

A. higher pressure B. Slurries C. Viscous mass D. none of these

29. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance the connector used
should be a
A. union B. tee C. reducer D. elbow

30. Tea percolation employs

A. a liquid-liquid extraction B. absorption C. leaching D. adsorption

BRINGHOME EXAM
1. A 5 dm3 flask containing N2 at 5.0 bar was connected to a 4.0 dm3 flask containing
He at 4.0 bar, and the gases were allowed to mix isothermally. Calculate the total
pressure of the resulting mixture.
A. 4.6 bar B. 1.8 bar C. 2.8 bar D. 1.2 bar

2. Assume that an atom of neon is 0.065 nm in radius and that 1 mol of the gas
occupies 22.4 dm3. What fraction of the volume is occupied by the atoms?
A. 0.031 B. 0.0031 C. 0.00031 D. 0.000031

3. What is the difference in the density of dry air at 1 atm and 25°C and moist air
with 50% relative humidity under the same conditions?
A. 1.185 kg/m3 B. 1.178 kg/m3 C. 1.987 kg/m3 D. 0.007 kg/m3
4. The coefficient of viscosity for water vapor at 150°C and 1.01 bar is 1.445E-5
Pa.s. Calculate the molecular diameter for a water molecule under these conditions.
A. 0.402 nm B. 5.644 nm C. 0.0056 nm D. 75.65 nm

5. A light machinery oil has viscosity of 5E-2 Pa .s and density of 970 kg/m3 at 25°C,
how long will it take for a sample to pass through a viscometer of water under the
same conditions takes 1 minute?
A. 57.9 min B. 45.8 min C. 38.8 min D. 27.9 min

6. Assuming the cubic expansion coefficient (α) is 2.21E-5 K-1, and the isothermal
compressibility (κ) is 1.32E-6 bar- 1, and density of 2.702E3 kg/m3, find the
difference between Cp and Cv for Al at 25°C.
A. 0.078 J/mol.K B. 0.11 J/mol.K C. 0.87 J/mol.K D. 1.25 J/mol.K

7. The heat of combustion of H2(g) to form H2O(l) under constant-pressure conditions

is -285.83 kJ/mol at 25°C. If the water if formed at 1 bar and has a density of 1000
kg/m3, calculate the change in internal energy for this reaction.
A. -187 kJ/mol B. -210 kJ/mol C. -282 kJ/mol D. -310 kJ/mol

8. What would be the final volume occupied by 1.00 mol of an ideal gas initially at
0°C and 1.0 bar if q=1000 J during a reversible isothermal expansion?
A. 27.8 dm3 B. 31.2 dm3 C. 35.3 dm3 D. 38.9 dm3

9. Five moles of a diatomic gas is allowed to expand isothermally at 25°C from 0.02
to 0.10 m3. Calculate the work if the expansion is performed reversibly.
A. -19.94 kJ B. -25.44 kJ C. -32.18 kJ D. -35.77 kJ

10. Consider an adiabatic calorimeter in which 1kg of water at 98.3°C is mixed with
0.10 kg of water at 0°C. What is the final temperature of the 1.1 kg of water?
A. 89.4°C B. 82.1°C C. 78.4°C D. 74.3°C

11. From the data in problem #10, if the 0.10 kg of water were originally ice at 0°C,
what would be the final temperature of the mixture?
A. 89.4°C B. 82.1°C C. 78.4°C D. 74.3°C
12. An oxygen bomb calorimeter was calibrated using a 0.325-g sample of benzoic
acid (ΔU=6316 cal/g), which gave a change in temperature of 1.48°C. What is the
calorimeter constant in J/K?
A. 4245 B. 5120 C. 5803 D. 6221

13. From the data in problem #12, a 0.69-g sample of gasoline was oxidized in the
calorimeter, resulting in a temperature change of 4.89°C. What is the ΔU for 1 g of
gasoline?
A. -34.5 kJ B. -41.1 kJ C. -49.8 kJ D. 53.2 kJ

14. A system absorbs 1.5 kJ at 25°C from its surroundings and later releases 1.5 kJ
to its surrounding at 75°C. Calculate the overall entropy change for the system
assuming both processes are reversible.
A. 0.1 J/K B. 0.7 J/K C. 1.5 J/K D. 2.2 J/K
15. Calculate the percent conversion to PCl 5 at 1.00 bar total pressure and 400 K for
the reaction PCl(g) + Cl2(g)↔ PCl5(g) if the original reaction mixture contained 1.0 mol
PCl3 and 2.0 mol Cl2. For this reaction G at 400°K is 3533J.
A. 45.3% B. 52.1% C. 57.8% D. 62.6%

16. From the data in problem #15, calculate the partial pressure of PCl 5 at
equilibrium.
A. 0.09 bar B. 0.26 bar C. 4.22 bar D. 8.77 bar

17. It is the transfer of heat from one body to another body, not in contact with it,
by means of wave motion through space.
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. evaporation

18. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material on a heat-transfer

surface.
A. scaling B. salting C. fouling D. boiling
19. It occurs when the fluid flow rate is great enough so that the pressure drop
across the bed equals the weight of the bed.
A. fluidization B. cavitation C. channeling D. pressure drop

20. The resistance of a layer of fluid to flow over the next layer is measured by
A. viscosity B. friction factor C. surface tension D. density

21. A method of enzyme immobilization where its means of capture is by coating a

liquid droplet containing enzymes with some semipermeable materials formed in
situ.
A. adsorption B. covalent bonding C. entrapment D. encapsulation

22. Lower BWG means

A. lower thickness tube C. lower cross-section of tube
B. outer diameter of tube D. inner diameter of tube

23. What device is used to protect the pipe line from bursting due to pressure rise
when the water in the pipe line is brought to rest?
A. surge tank B. check valve C. sluice gate D. float
24. Ratio of viscosity to density.
A. absolute viscosity B. kinematic viscosity C. relative viscosity D. threshold
viscosity

25. Which of the following heat exchangers where fluid flow in the same direction
and both are of changing temperatures?
A. parallel flow B. cross flow C. counter flow D. mixed flow

26. Which of the following is not a heat exchanger?

A. condenser B. boilers C. evaporators D. water hammer

27. The thermal conductivity does not depend on which of the following?
A. chemical composition C. temperature and pressure
B. physical state or texture D. gravitational pull

28. Which of the following is not a unit of the rate of heat transfer?
A. Watt B. BTU/hr C. cal/s D. BTU/hp-hr

29. The half-life of a material undergoing second order decay is

A. proportional to the square of initial concentration
B. inversely proportional to the initial concentration
C. independent of initial concentration
D. proportional to initial concentration

30. A dimensionless number which is the ratio of the characteristic relaxation time
of the fluid and the characteristic time scale of flow.
A. Deborah number B. Grashof number C. Poclet number D. Froude number

31. It measure the tendency of the coal to swell when burned or gasified in fixed or
fluidized bed.
A. Fisher assay B. Hardgrove index C. free-swelling index D. friability

32. It is the residue for the destructive distillation of wood.

A. shale oil B. charcoal C. bagasse D. char

33. Let c be the concentration of a reagent. For a first order reaction, what would be
a plot in ln c versus t yield?
A. a straight line whose slope is k.
B. a straight line whose slope is -k.
C. a horizontal line with an intercept of the ln c axis at ln c=k.
D. a logarithmic curve approaching a value of k.

34. Which of the following statements is false?

A. When temperature is raised, the rate of any reaction is always increased.
B. In general, when any two compounds are unmixed, a large number of reactions
may be possible, but those which proceed the fastest are the ones observed.
C. It is possible to influence the products of a chemical change by controlling the
factors which affect reaction rates.
D. Heterogeneous reactions are the reactions that takes place at the boundary
surface between two faces.

35. Which of the following statements is false?

A. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and
reform reactants.
B. The net rate at which reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward
rate minus the reverse rate.
C. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero.
D. The differential rate law is a mathematical expression that shows how the rate of
reaction depends on volume.

36. Silicone rubbers are

A. polysiloxanes B. polyethylene C. polypropylene D. elastomer

37. It is defined as the average distance a molecule traverses before colliding with
other molecules.
A. mean free path B. collision distance C. collision length D. translation

38. What fraction of crude petroleum has 20 or more carbon atoms in a molecule?
A. kerosene B. gas-oil C. wax D. residue

39. An acid found in vinegar.

A. citric acid B. formic acid C. stearic acid D. acetic acid

40. Who determined that energy is radiated only when an electron falls from a
higher energy level to a lower energy level?
A. Einstein B. Rutherford C. Heisenberg D. Bohr

41. Who determined the charge of an electron by means of oil droplet experiment?
A. Rutherford B. Heisenberg C. Millikan D. de Broglie

42. What alloying element is added in stainless steel to impart corrosion resistance?
A. chromium B. vanadium C. titanium D. copper

43. Which of the following metals reacts violently with water?

A. sodium B. calcium C. diamond D. aluminum

44. A freezer is to be maintained at a temperature of -40°F on a summer d ay when

the ambient temperature is 80°F. In order to maintain the freezer box at -40°F it is
necessary to remove heat from it at the rate of 70 BTU/min. what is the minimum
power that must be supplied to the freezer?
A. 2.5 hp B. 5 hp C. 1.2 hp D. 0.47 hp

45. A cylinder of cork is floating upright in a container partially filled with water. A
vacuum is applied to the container that partially removes the air within the vessel.
The cork will
A. rise somewhat in the water C. remain stationary
B. sink somewhat in the water D. turn over on its side
46. It is equal to the gross annual sales divided by the fixed capital investments.
A. turnover ratio B. capital ratio C. investment ratio D. acid ratio

47. The cost of a glass lined receiver with a nominal capacity of 1000 gallons is
P22,000. Find the estimated cost of a similar receiver but with a nominal capacity of
2000 gallons.
A. P44,000 B. P33,000 C. P50,000 D. P25,000

48. Which of the following is an ore of mercury?

A. bauxite B. galena C. sphalerite D. cinnabar

49. Which of the following is the present process for the manufacture of soda ash
(Na2CO3)?
A. LeBlanc process C. Solvay process
B. Deacon process D. Weldon process

50. A device in which the kinetic energy of one fluid (primary fluid) is used to pump
another fluid (secondary fluid).
A. pumps B. compressors C. ejectors D. nozzle

51. Fluid the amount of steam at 212°C which must be blown into 400 lb of water
originally at 70°F in order to make the final temperature 212°F. Heat loses amount
to 2000 Btu. The latent heat at 212°F is 970.3 Btu/lb.
A. 42.1 lbs B. 48.0 lbs C. 50.9 lbs D. 60.6 lbs

52. A steam turbine is operating in the following conditions: steam to turbine at

900°F and 120 psia, velocity=250 ft/s; steam existing turbine at 700°F and 1 atm,
velocity=100 ft/s. calculate the rate at which work can be obtained from this turbine
if the steam flow is 25000lb/h and the turbine operation is steady state adiabatic.
A. 875.2 Hp B. 949.4 Hp C. 1020.3 Hp D. 1120.5 Hp

53. Which of the following adsorbent is used to decolorize yellow glycerine?

A. silica gel B. Fuller's earth C. activated carbon D. alumina

54. Air enters a drier at a temperature of 240°F with a dew point of 55°F. The drier
may be assumed to approach adiabatic vaporization in its operation, all the heat
being supplied by the air. If the air leaves the drier saturated with water vapor, how
much water per 1000 cu ft of entering wet air?
A. 21.05 lb B. 15.22 lb C. 8.754 lb D. 1.912 lb

55. A 190-cm3 sample of argon gas at 25°C required 8.5 seconds to flow through a
1.00 m tube of 1.0 mm radius. The inlet pressure for the gas was 1.02bar, the outlet
pressure was 1.007 bar. The volume of the gas was measured at 1.007 bar. What is
the viscosity of the gas in Pa.s?
A. 4.6 E-6 B. 2.3 E-5 C. 8.9 E-4 D. 5.1 E-3

56. Solid lithium hydroxide is used in space vehicle to remove exhaled carbon
dioxide. The lithium hydroxide reacts with gaseous carbon dioxide to form solid
lithium carbonate and liquid water. How many grams of carbon dioxide can be
absorbed by each 1 g of lithium hydroxide?
A. 0.875 B. 0.919 C. 1.055 D. 1.120

57. In roll crushers, it is the angle formed by the tangents to the roll faces at the
point of contact with the particle to be crushed.
A. angle of repose B. angle of nip C. angle of sliding D. contact angle

58. It is a measure of the rate of grinding of materials in a particular mill.

A. reducibility B. malleability C. grindability D. ductility

59. The hardness of a mineral is a criterion of its resistance to crushing. Which of

the following is an example of a hard material?
A. talc B. calcite C. sapphire D. feldspar

60. It is the tendency of a material to break into smaller sizes in the course of
handling.
A. brittleness B. hardness C. friability D. toughness

61. It is defined as the total surface of a unit weight or volume of a solid.

A. surface area B. specific surface C. specific volume D. particle size

62. Natural convection is characterized by

A. Reynold's number C. Grashof number
B. Peclet number D. Prandtl number

63. The Graetz number is concerned with

A. mass transfer between a gas and a liquid C. absorption with chemical reaction
B. heat transfer in turbulent flow D. heat transfer in laminar flow

64. Plaster of Paris is obtained by calcining

A. bauxite B. gypsum C. kankar D. limestone

65. When ice cubes melts in a glass of water, the temperature of the resulting
mixture of water and ice
A. increases B. decreases C. stays constant

66. In all natural occurring processes, the entropy of the universe

A. increases B. stays the same C. decreases D. may increase or decrease

67. An inventor seeking a patent claims that the building may be comfortably
heated in winter by a device that draws heat into the building from the earth, even
though the temperature of the earth is lower than the desired temperature inside
the building. He further claims that the quantity of heat supplied in the building in a
given time period can significantly exceed the work done by the device during the
same period. If you were a patent clerk (like the young Albert Einstein), what should
be your recommendation about the application?
A. the application should be rejected because it violates the first law of
Thermodynamics.
B. the application should be rejected because it violates the second law of
Thermodynamics.
C. the application should be rejected because it violates the 1 st and 2nd law of
Thermodynamics.
D. the application should be given full consideration because it does not violate any
laws of thermodynamics.

68. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated is very
small (as in milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is
A. disc bond centrifuge C. batch basket centrifuge
B. sharpless supercentrifuge D. sparkler filter

69. A substance that appears in but one incoming stream and one outgoing stream.
A. tie substance B. dry component C. solute D. solvent

70. The ratio of the total quantity of the reactant present in the reactor feed of a
recycling operation to the quantity of the same reactant entering the operation as
fresh feed is the
A. recycle ratio C. combined feed ratio
B. reactant ratio D. fresh-feed conversion
71. It is known as the blood sugar.
A. glucose B. sucrose C. fructose D. galactose

72. The ____ was responsible for an epidemic of an incurable hemorrhagic fever in
Zaire, Africa in1995.
A. AIDS B. bird flu virus C. Anthrax virus D. Ebola virus

73. A debutanizer is a
A. heat transfer equipment C. fluid transfer equipment
B. mass transfer equipment D. size reduction equipment

74. The continuity equation of fluid flow is applicable to which if the following
conditions?
I. The flow of fluid is one dimensional
II. The flow of fluid is steady
III. The velocity of flow is uniform over the cross section
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

75. Hydrometer is used to find out

A. specific gravity of liquids C. specific gravity of solids
B. specific gravity of gases D. relative humidity

76. It refers to the type of boiling experienced when the heating surface is
surrounded by a relatively large body of fluid which is not flowing at any appreciable
velocity and is agitated only by the motion of the bubbles and by natural-convection
currents.
A. film boiling B. nucleate boiling C. pool boiling D. dropwise boiling

77. The overall heat transfer coefficient of a jacketed vessel in which steam is the
jacket fluid and water is the vessel fluid with stainless steel as the wall material is
_____ W/m2-K.
A. 150-300 B. 400-800 C. 850-1700 D. 5000-10000

78. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material on a heat-transfer

surface.
A. scaling B. salting C. fouling D. boiling

79. It is frequently caused by crystallization of a material whose solubility at the wall

temperature is lower than at the bulk liquid temperature.
A. scaling B. salting C. fouling D. boiling

80. In tubes having small diameters, liquids are observed to rise or fall relative to
the level of the surrounding liquid. What do you call this phenomenon?
A. fluidity B. capillarity C. surface tension D. viscosity

81. Which of the following statements characterized the laminar flow?

I. The velocity is zero at the pipe wall
II. The velocity is minimum at the center
III. The velocity distribution is circular
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II and III

82. It consist of inherent moisture and bed moisture in coal.

A. combined water B. total moisture C. equilibrium moisture D. moisture

83. The terms "sweet" and "sour" in natural gas terminology, are used to denote the
absence or presence of ____.
A. CO B. methane C. H2S D. glucose

84. It is the solid, cellular, infusible material remaining after the carbonization of
coal, pitch, petroleum residue and certain other carbonaceous materials.
A. coke B. char C. wood D. peat

85. Which of the following is a hard material?

A. gypsum B. fluorite C. apatite D. corundum

86. It states that the energy needed during size reduction is proportional to the new
surface produced.
A. Bond law B. Rittinger's law C. Kirchoff's law D. Boltzmann Law

87. A process in which fuel is mixed with the ore and burned on the grate.
A. sintering B. annealing C. cold working D. heat hardening
--------------------------------------NOTHING
FOLLOWS--------------------------------------

SNAP EXAM

1. The parameter which completely describes the behavior of the response to a

disturbance of a second order system is the
A. time constant B. damping coefficient C. rise time D. overshoot
2. Which of the following can be adjusted by human operator in a closed feedback
control loop?
A. set point B. controller output C. process variable D. load variable

3. Deadtime is a function of distance and

A. momentum B. acceleration C. time D. velocity

4. Neoprene is a
A. monomer B. synthetic rubber C. polyester D. pigment

5. The process involved in converting rubber into a thin sheet or coating it on fabric
is called
A. extrusion B. mastication C. vulcanization D. calendaring

6. Silicone is
A. thermoplastic C. thermoseeting plastic
B. an inorganic polymer D. a monomer

7. Plasticizers are added to paint to

A. make it corrosion resistance C. make glossy surface
B. give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film D. increase atmospheric oxidation

8. Alkyl benzene sulfonate (ABS) is a

A. detergent B. rubber C. pesticide D. polyester

9. Varnish does not contain

A. pigment B. dryer C. anti-skinning agent D. thinner

10. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by

A. decoloration B. hydrogenation C. oxidation D. purification

11. Water insoluble cell binders of wood

A. pulp B. cellulose C. xylem D. lignin

12. Molasses is a by product of raw sugar from the _____ process.

A. milling B. extraction C. evaporation D. crystallization

13. Kraft process is a common name for

A. sulfate pulping B. sulfite pulping C. bleaching D. calendaring

14. DDT means

A. diphenyldichlorotriphenylethane C. dichlorodiphenyldichloroethane
B. dichlorodiphenyltrichlorobutane D. diphenyldichlorotriphenylbutane

15. A fluid is flowing on the surface, which contains a component that leaches out to
the fluid. Assuming that all the 3 regions of mass transfer
are present, in which of these regions is diffusion controlling?
A. Knudsen region B. buffer region C. turbulent region D. viscous sublayer
16. In unsteady state mass transfer, the quantity D AMt/r m2 is referred to as
A. unaccomplished change C. relative time
B. relative resistance D. relative position

17. If Kx > Ky, then the controlling phase is

A. the liquid phase B. the gas phase C. the interface D. either of the bulk phases

18. In two phase-mass transfer, equilibrium may exist

A. the interface B. the gas phase C. in the liquid phase D. in either film

19. A fibrous material left after cane sugar has been milled is commonly called as
A. bagasse B. pulp C. cellulose D. waste

20. The binder for all the powder materials of paint

A. pigment B. vehicle C. opacifier D. filler

21. Carbon black is added to rubber compounding as

A. activator B. curing agent C. retarders D. fillers

22. Principal chemical conversion in the production of resin from monomer

A. condensation B. hydration C. polymerization D. alkylation

23. Polyethylne is an example of ____ polymerization.

A. condensation B. addition C. copolymerization D. alkylation

24. Which is not true at the interphase of a gas scrubbing operation?

A. the solute concentration of the gas is less than that of the bulk
B. the solute concentration of the liquid is less than that of the bulk
C. the solute concentration of the liquid and gas phase are equal
D. the solute concentration of the gas is greater than the liquid

25. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is

A. cm2/s B. cm/s C. cm3/s D. cm2/s2

26. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of homogeneity (area

covered by bimodal curve)
A. decreases B. increases C. remains the same

27. The suitable evaporator for concentration of foaming liquid is

A. long tube evaporator C. short tube evaporator
B. vacuum evaporator D. falling film evaporator

28. Macroscopic transfer of mass between moving fluid and surface which is of
different concentration is called
A. molecular diffusion C. unsteady-state diffusion
B. convective mass transfer D. all of these
29. For packed column the main purpose of packing is to
A. strengthen the column C. increase the surface area
B. increase the pressure drop in the tower D. reduce the flow rate across the column
30. In a gas absorption operation, when the operating line crosses the equilibrium
curve
A. the NTU is zero C. the liquid flow rate is maximum
B. the gas flow rate is maximum D. the number of stages is infinite

31. The overhead product composition decreases with time in

A. batch distillation with reflux C. continuous distillation with reflux
B. continuous distillation without reflux D. distillation operating with reflux

32. For a binary mixture with low relativity, continuous rectification to get pure
products will require
A. low reflux ratio B. less number of trays C. small cross section D. high reflux ratio

33. Chemisorption is
A. the same as van der Waals C. characterized by adsorption of heat
B. an irreversible phenomenon D. always in equilibrium

34. The stage efficiency in leaching depends on the

A. time of contact between the solid and the solution
B. rate of diffusion of the solute through the solid and into the liquid
C. both A and B
D. either A or B because these two mean the same thing

35. Disregarding the costs, which is the best solvent for the extraction of acetic acid
from an aqueous solution at 25°C?
A. caproic acid B. chloroform C. 3-heptanol D. toluene

36. A chemical engineer who designed and built a new type of reactor and for three
years, sold many units to the public can still patent his reactor.
A. TRUE B. FALSE C. not governed by law D. it depends

37. In RA 318, a person who pass the Chemical Licensure Examination can take
his/her oath as a chemical engineer if his/her age is not less than ___ years.
A. 18 B. 19 C. 21 D. 23

38. Which of the following is not a requirement for utility registration?

A. inventive step C. novelty
B. industrial applicability D. a technical solution to problem

39. A document issued by the DENR secretary indicating that the proposed project
will cause significant negative environmental impact.
A. Environmental Impact Statement C. Environmental Compliance Certificate
B. Environmental Impact Assessment D. Environmental Critical Project

40. In the Philippines, sulfur for sulfuric acid manufacturing is sourced from _____
industry.
A. paper B. cement C. petroleum D. detergents
41. Water is in a vapor-liquid equilibrium situation at 1.2 atm in a piston cylinder
assembly. You inject 5 cm3 of air into the system but keeping the pressure and
temperature constant. What happens?
A. all the water vaporizes C. all the water condenses
B. some water vaporizes D. some water condenses

42. A tube is specified by its

A. thickness only C. outer diameter
B. thickness and outer diameter both D. inner diameter

43. Identification of pipelines carrying different liquids and gases is done by

A. diameter of the pipe C. the altitude of at which pipe is located
B. color of the pipe D. none of these

44. Surge tanks are provided in large diameter gas carrying pipelines to
A. store a definite quantity of water all the time
B. reduce water hammer
C. facilities easy dismantling of pipeline for cleaning and maintenance
D. none of these

45. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter gas carrying pipelines to
A. keep the pipe in proper orientation
B. make the pipe leak-proof
C. account for contraction/expansion of pipe due to temperature changes of the
surrounding
D. account for pressure variation inside the pipelines

46. This is the actual temperature of a vapor-gas mixture as ordinarily determined

by immersion of a thermometer in the mixture.
A. wet-bulb temperature C. dew point temperature
B. saturation temperature D. dry-bulb temperature

47. If the partial pressure of the vapor in a gas-vapor mixture is for any reason less
than the equilibrium vapor pressure of the liquid at the same temperature the gas
mixture is
A. saturated B. unsaturated C. supersaturated D. none of these

48. H3PO3 is
A. a tribasic acid B. a dibasic acid C. neutral D. a monobasic acid

49. Brass is an alloy of copper and ____.

A. tin B. zinc C. aluminum D. silver

50. If C A is plotted versus time and a straight line is observed, the reaction is said to
be ____.
A. 1st order B. 2nd order C. zero order D. fractional order

51. The hydrogen carrier in metabolic reaction is ____.

A. ADP B. ATP C. NAD D. UDP
52. Which of the following define Koettstorfer number?
A. it is used to determine the number of theoretical stages in distillation
B. it is the mg of KOH needed to saponify a gram of oil
C. it is the ratio of momentum force to viscous force
D. it is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force

53. The adsorbent used in the purification of hydrocarbon products is _____.

A. alumina B. bone char C. fuller's earth D. silica gel

54. Proximate analysis is ASTM procedure no.

A. D3172 B. D3176 C. D0409 D. D1589

55. Which of the following structures is a ketohexose?

A. altrose B. idose C. fructose D. talose

56. It is a simply fixed medium biological reactor with the waste water being spread
over the surface of a solid medium where the microbes are growing.
A. lagoons B. grit chambers C. neutralization tank D. trickling filters

57. In hindered settling, particles are

A. placed farther from wall C. near each other
B. not affected by other particles D. none of these

58. In continuous fluidization

A. solids are completely entrained C. there is no entrainment of so lids
B. the pressure drop less than that for batch fluidization D. velocity of the fluid is
very small

59. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor is

A. less than that in a similar packed bed reactor
B. same as that in a similar packed bed reactor
C. more than that in a similar packed bed reactor
D. none of these

60. Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by

A. using tall narrow vessel
B. using deep bed solids
C. the proper choice of particle size and by using shallow beds of solids
D. using very large particles

61. Minimum porosity for fluidization is

A. that corresponding to static bed
B. that corresponding to completely fluidized bed
C. the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins
D. less than that of the static bed

62. In a fluidized bed reactor

A. temperature gradients are very high C. temperature is more or less uni form
B. hot spot formed D. segregation of the solids occurs
63. Lower BWG means
A. lower thickness tube C. lower cross-section of tube
B. outer diameter of tube D. inner diameter of tube

64. Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when

A. the suction pressure < vapor press ure of the liquid at that temperature
B. the suction pressure > vapor pressure of the liquid at that temperature
C. the suction pressure = vapor pressure
D. the suction pressure = developed head

65. Cavitation can be prevented by

A. suitably designing the pump
B. maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than the vapour pressure

66. Priming needed in a

A. reciprocating pump B. centrifugal pump C. diaphragm pump D. gear pump

67. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
A. dependent on the speed N of the pump C. dependent on the power of the p ump
B. 34 feet D. 150 feet

68. Plunger pumps are used for

A. higher pressure B. slurries C. viscous mass D. none of these

69. Molten soap mass is transported by a

A. diaphragm pump B. reciprocating pump C. centrifugal pump D. gear pump

70. To handle smaller quantity of fluid at high discharge pressure use

A. reciprocating pump B. rotary vacuum pump C. centrifugal pump D. volute pump

71. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no significant
compression is required?
A. reciprocating compressor C. blower
B. axial flow compressor D. centrifugal compressor

72. Which of the following adsorbent is used to decolorize yellow glycerine?

A. silica gel B. Fuller's earth C. activated carbon D. alumina

73. CO2 cab be adsorbed by

A. hot cupric oxide B. cold Ca(OH)2 C. heated charcoal D. alumina

74. Popular apparatus in extracting essences and aroma substances and antibiotics
in pharmaceutical industry.
A. disc separator B. robatel extractor C. grasser contractor D. reflux drum

75. Metal plates with holes

A. sieve tray B. thermo siphon C. packing support D. contactor

76. Acetylene is used as a starting material for the preparation of plastics, synthetic
rubber and synthetic fiber called
A. Narlon B. Corlon C. Orlon D. Forlon

77. In a drying operation, the critical moisture content is at

A. the middle of the falling rate period C. the middle of the constant rate p eriod
B. the end of the falling rate period D. the end of the constant rate period

78. What device is used to protect the pipeline from bursting due to pressure rise
when the water in the pipeline is brought to rest?
A. surge tank B. check valve C. sluice gate D. float

79. There is the minimum capacity for each blower, at every speed, below which
operation becomes unstable. The instability is accompanied by a characteristic
noise known as
A. purge B. surge C. water hammer D. draft

80. Defines the classification of water resource

A. DAO 34 B. DAO 14 C. DAO29 D. DAO 18

81. A more volatile substance will have a _____ vapor pressure

A. lower B. higher C. constant D. any of these

82. Formation of the smallest aggregate of molecules in a supersaturated solution

capable of growing into a large precipitate particle is called _____.
A. crystal growth B. nucleation C. peptization D. creeping

83. The following may be used in the process of disinfection except

A. sulfuric acid B. ozone C. chlorine D. UV ray

84. Dispersion of solid or liquid particles of microscopic size in gaseous media is

______.
A. soot B. mist C. vapor D. aerosol

85. Heat transfer in turbulent flow may be described by the following dimensionless
groups except
A. Nusselt B. Prandtl C. Schmidt D. Reynolds

86. The following is a state function except

A. entropy B. enthalpy C. internal energy D. heat

87. Type of evaporation operation where the temperature decreases from effect to
effect.
A. feedbackward B. feedforward C. parallel feed D. all of these

88. Which of the following is the reason why one gram of steam at 100°C causes
more serious burn than 1 gram of water at 100°C?
A. steam is less dense than boiling water
B. steam is everywhere thus it strikes greater force
C. the steam has the highest specific heat
D. steam contains more internal energy
89. Calcite is
A. potassium carbonate B. calcium carbonate C. sodium hydroxide D. calcium
hydroxide

90. To prevent a bridge from being destroyed, soldiers marching on the bridge are
ask to break their steps. Which of the following is responsible for such danger?
A. Doppler effect B. resonance C. beats D. vibration

91. Which is not a reason that sometimes ozone is preferred over chlorine as a
disinfectant for water?
A. ozone is cheaper C. chlorine imparts an unpleasant taste to water
B. ozone is better for killing viruses D. chlorine forms toxic by-products

92. A farmer's cattle frequently abort spontaneously. Some baby pigs are born blue
in color. His well water is found to be contaminated with
A. nitrates B. phosphates C. lead D. bacteria

93. A solids whose particles have no orderly structure.

A. polycrystalline B. crystalline C. amorphous D. melt

94. Quartz is
A. LiO2 B. SiO2 C. N2O D. S2O3

95. Which crystal structure has a unit cell with two atoms?
A. body centered cubic C. face centered cubic
B. hexagonal closed packed D. simple cubic

96. It is the number of particles immediately surrounding a particle in the crystal

particle.
A. atomic packing factor C. crystal density
B. coordination number D. atomic diameter

97. When light waves pass through a narrow slit, they are scattered in such a way
that the waves are seems to spread out. This physical phenomenon is
A. refraction B. rarefraction C. diffraction D. reflection

98. He coined the term "polymer" to denote molecular substances of high molecular
mass formed by the polymerization (joining together) of monomers, molecules of
low molecular mass.
A. Arthur Little B. Antoine Lavoiser C. Jons Jakob Berzellus D. John Dalton

99. Predictions about future organizational and environmental circumstances that

will influence plans, decisions and goal attainment
A. horoscope B. forecast C. programming D. synergy

100. A process can be termed spontaneous if

A. ΔG is positive
B. ΔG is negative
C. ΔG is zero
D. ΔG is zero in the beginning and positive at the end of the reaction
101. Which of the following is not correct?
A. ΔG is zero for a reversible process C. ΔG is positive for a spontaneous process
B. ΔH is positive for a spontaneous reaction D. ΔS increases for a spontaneous
reaction

102. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its

A. enthalpy increases C. enthalpy remains unaffected
B. enthalpy reduces to zero D. internal energy decreases

103. Which of the following has the greatest mass?

A. positron B. neutron C. proton D. alpha particle

104. Which of the following particle has the smallest mass?

A. alpha particle B. proton C. neutron D. positron

105. Who discovered positron?

A. Anderson B. Pauli C. Heisenberg D. Bohr

106. Sound waves does not travel in:

A. air B. material medium C. vacuum D. none of these

107. Two objects are released at the same height at the same time, and one has
twice the weight of the other. Ignoring air resistance
A. the heavier object hits the ground first
B. whichever hits the ground first depends on the distance dropped
C. the lighter object hits the ground first
D. they both hit at the same time

108. Water molecules move back and forth between the liquid and the gaseous
state
A. only when air is saturated
B. at all times, with evaporation condensation and saturation defined by the net
movement
C. only when the outward movement of the vapor molecules produces a pressure
equal to the atmospheric pressure
D. only at the boiling point

109. A heat engine is designed to

A. drive heat from a cool surface to a warmer location
B. drive heat from a warm surface to a cooler location
C. convert mechanical energy to heat
D. convert heat to mechanical energy

110. An observer on the ground will hear a sonic boom from an airplane travelling
faster than the speed of the sound
A. only when the airplane breaks the sound barrier
B. when the plane is directly overhead
C. as the airplane is approaching
D. after the plane has passed by
111. An image that is not produced by light rays coming from the image, but is the
result of your brain's interpretations of light rays is called a/an
A. real image B. imagined image C. virtual image D. phony image

112. Light travelling at some angle as it moves from water into the air is refracted
away from the normal as it enters the air, so the fish you see under the water is
actually (draw a sketch if needed)
A. above the refracted image C. below the refracted image
B. beside the refracted image D. in the same place as the refracted image

113. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in some
materials is called
A. the critical angle C. total internal reflection
B. the law of reflection D. the index of refraction

114. Using the laws of motion for moving particles and the laws of electrical
attraction, Bohr calculated that electrons could
A. move only in orbits of certain allowed radii
B. move, as do planets, in orbits at any distance from the nucleus
C. move in orbits at any distance from the nucleus that matched the distances
between colors in the spectrum
D. move in orbits at variable distances from the nucleus that are directly
proportional to the velocity of the electrons

115. According to the Bohr model, an electron gains or loses energy only by
A. moving faster or slower in an allowed orbit C. jumping from one allowed orbit to
another
B. being completely removed from an atom D. jumping from one atom to another
atom

116. When an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit farther from the
nucleus to an orbit closer to the nucleus, it
A. emits a single photon with an energy equal to the energy difference of the orbits
B. emits four photons, one for each of the color lines observed from the spectrum of
hydrogen
C. emits a number of photons dependent on the number of orbit levels jumped over
D. none of the above is correct

117. The Bohr model of the atom

A. explained the color lines in the hydrogen spectrum
B. could not explain the line spectrum of atoms larger than hydrogen
C. had some made-up rules without explanations
D. all of the above is correct

118. An alcohol with two hydroxyl groups per molecule is called

A. ethanol B. glycerine C. glycerol D. glycol

119. Insulin, a hormone, is chemically a

A. fat B. steroid C. protein D. carbohydrates
120. Formation of soap involves
A. hydrolysis B. polymerization C. esterification D. condensation

121. Penicillin was first discovered by

A. Fleming B. Tence and Salke C. S.A. Waksna D. Lewis

122. A vitamin which is a steroid is

A. vitamin A B. vitamin B C. vitamin C D. vitamin D

123. The indicator used in titrating oxalic acid with caustic soda solution is
A. methyl orange B. methyl red C. phenolphthalein D. fluorescein

124. If a given gas has a compressibility factor, z<1, this means that ____ exist
between the molecules of gases
A. attractive forces B. repulsive forces C. no force of attraction D. none of these

125. Duralumin is an alloy of

A. aluminum, copper and manganese C. aluminum, nickel and silicon
B. aluminum and nickel D. none of these

126. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its

A. cutting ability B. corrosion resistance C. tensile strength D. none of these

127. Caustic soda can be stored in

A. steel drums B. cast iron drums C. brass drum D. gun metal drum

128. Monel metal is an alloy of

A. molybdenum and nickel C. nickel and copper
B. molybdenum and aluminum D. molybdenum and zinc

129. A low density material, usually domestic refuse, straw or woodchips which is
mixed with compost to permit air circulation while the compost is digesting.
A. catchment B. bulking agent C. foaming agent D. thermal plume

130. Dense, smoky fog, the formation of which is promoted by reactions between
unsaturated hydrocarbons and oxides of nitrogen in the presence of sunlight and
under stable meteorological conditions.
A. smoke B. aerosols C. fog D. smog

131. The clear, fluid portion of blood both lacking blood cells and fibrinogen. It is the
fluid remaining after coagulation of plasma, the noncellular liquid fraction of blood.
A. WBC B. RBC C. hemoglobin D. serum

132. A basin used during water purification to chemically precipitate out fine
particles, microorganism and organic material by coagulation or flocculation.
A. catch basin B. settling basin C. lagoon D. neutralization tank
133. A general term for the precipitated solid matter produced during water and
sewage treatment, solid particles composed of organic matter and microorganisms
that are involved in aerobic sewage treatment.
A. residue B. ash C. sludge D. solid waste

134. The removal of sewage of inorganic nutrients, heavy metals, viruses etc., by
chemical and biological means after microorganisms have degraded dissolved
organic material.
A. preliminary treatment C. primary treatment
B. secondary treatment D. tertiary treatment

135. Brix scale is used for

A. sugar solutions B. LPG C. petroleum D. water

136. Which will dissolve fastest in water?

A. lump sugar in hot coffee C. granular sugar in hot coffee
B. granular sugar in cold coffee D. lump sugar in cold coffee

137. Class ____ is used for recreation such as bathing, swimming, and skin diving.
A. A B. B C. C D. D

138. According to Bronsted-Lowry theory, an acid is a substance that can

A. accept an electron pair C. donate an electron pair
B. accept a proton D. donate a proton

139. Calcium carbonate is also known as

A. lime B. soda C. chalk D. ash

140. The rate of microbial growth is temperature-dependent. Bacteria which grow

over the temperature range 7-45°C are called
A. thermophiles B. mesophiles C. psychrophiles D. endophiles

141. Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 30 to 45°C are
called
A. thermophiles B. mesophiles C. psychrophiles D. endophiles

142. If the reaction 2A → B + C is second order, which of the following plots will give
a straight line?
A. CA2 vs time B. 1/CA vs time C. log CA vs time D. CA vs time

143. Which of the following will change the value of the equilibrium constant for the
reaction between the Hg(g) and I2(g)?
A. adding a catalyst C. increasing the pressure (temperature constant)
B. increasing the temperature D. increasing the concentration of the reactants

144. What would happen if the electrodes were put in a saturated solution of
glucose dissolved in water?
A. light bulb would glow C. light bulb would remain dark
B. apparatus would combust D. glucose molecules would dissociate
145. A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding
compound that prevents ____ from entering the clotting process.
A. potassium citrate B. vitamin K C. sodium ion D. calcium ion

146. The end products of glucose metabolism are

A. oxygen, carbon and energy C. the starting materials for citric acid cycle
B. the starting materials for photosynthesis D. hydrogen, carbon and energy

147. What are the units of rate constant for the reaction in solution that has an
overall reaction order of two? (M is molarity, s in seconds)
A. 1/s B. 1/M-s C. 1/M2-s D. M/s

148. Which conditions will increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

A. decrease temperature and decrease concentration of reactants
B. decrease temperature and increase concentration of reactants
C. increase temperature and decrease concentration of reactants
D. increase temperature and increase concentration of reactants

149. Retinal, retinol, retinoic acid are stable forms of

A. vitamin A B. vitamin B C. vitamin C D. vitamin D

150. Measurement of the slats dissolved in seawater taken from various locations
throughout the world shows that seawater has
A. a uniform chemical composition and a variable concentration
B. a variable chemical composition and a variable concentration
C. a uniform chemical composition and a uniform concentration
B. a variable chemical composition and a uniform concentration

151. The percentage of dissolved salts of seawater averages about

A. 35% B. 3.5% C. 0.35% D. 0.035%

152. The salinity of sea water is increased locally by

A. the addition of water from a larger river C. the formation of sea ice
B. heavy precipitation D. none of the above

153. Considering only the available light and the ability of gases in seawater, more
abundant life should be found in a
A. cool, relatively shallow ocean C. warm, relatively shallow Ocean
B. warm, very deep ocean D. cool, very Deep Ocean

154. Without any heat being added or removed, a parcel of air that is expanding is
becoming
A. neither warmer nor cooler C. cooler
B. warmer D. the temperature of the surrounding air

155. A parcel of air shoved upward into the atmospheric air in a state on instability
will expand and become cooler,
A. but not as cool as the surrounding
B. and thus colder than the surrounding air
C. reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air
D. then warmer than the surrounding air

156. A parcel of air shoved upward into the atmospheric air in a state on stability
will expand and become cooler,
A. but not as cool as the surrounding
B. and thus colder than the surrounding air
C. reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air
D. then warmer than the surrounding air

157. Your ear makes a "pop" sound as you descend in an elevator because
A. air is moving from the atmosphere into your eardrum
B. air is moving from your eardrum into the atmosphere
C. air is moving into or out of your eardrum
D. of none of the above

158. Of the following elements, the one with the greatest electron holding ability is
A. sodium B. zinc C. iron D. mercury

159. Of the following elements, the one with the greatest chemical reactivity is
A. aluminum B. zinc C. iron D. mercury

160. The mass of any isotope is based on the mass of

A. hydrogen, which is assigned the n umber 1 since it is the lightest element
B. oxygen, which is assigned a mass 16
C. an isotope of carbon, which is assigned a mass of 12
D. its most abundant isotope as found in nature

161. The lines of color in a line spectrum for a given element

A. change in color with changes in temperature
B. are always the same, with regular spacing pattern
C. are randomly spaced, with no particular pattern
D. have the same colors, with a spacing pattern that varies with temperature

162. The sky appears to be blue when the sun is high in the sky because
A. blue is the color of air, water and other fluids in large amounts
B. red light is more scattered than blue
C. blue light more than the other colors
D. none of the above

163. The photoelectric effect proved to be a problem for a wave model of light
because
A. the number of electrons ejected varied directly with the intensity of light
B. the light intensity had no effect on the energy of the ejected electrons
C. the energy of the ejected electrons varied inversely with the intensity of light
D. the energy of the ejected electrons varied directly with the intensity of light

164. Latent heat is "hidden" because it

A. goes into or comes out of internal potential energy
B. is a fluid (caloric) that cannot be sensed
C. does not actually exist
D. is form of internal kinetic energy

165. As a solid undergoes a phase change to a liquid state, it

A. releases heat while remaining at a constant temperature
B. absorbs heat while remaining at a constant temperature
C. releases heat as the temperature decreases
D. absorbs heat as the temperature decreases

166. The condensation of water vapor actually

A. warms the surrounding
B. cools the surrounding

167. In calculating the upward force required to lift an object, it is necessary to use
g if the mass is given in kg. the quantity of g is not needed if the weight is given in
lb because
A. the rules of measurement is different in the English system
B. the symbol for the metric mass has the letter g in it, and the symbol for pound
does not
C. a pound is defined as the measure of force and a kilogram is not
D. a kilogram is a unit of weight

168. The potential energy of a box on a shelf, relative to the floor, is a measure of
A. the work that was required to put the box on the shelf from floor
B. the weight of the box times the distance above the floor
C. the energy of the box has because of its position above the floor
D. all of the above

169. A rock on the ground is considered to have a zero potential energy. In the
bottom of the well, then, the rock would be considered to have
A. zero potential energy, as before
B. negative potential energy
C. positive potential energy
D. zero potential energy, but will require work to bring it back to the ground level

170. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal

A. develops a non-luminous flame C. develops a low temperature flame
B. can be done with less excess air D. provides a lower rate of heat release

171. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended use of
pulverized coal in boiler firing?
A. ash disposal problem
B. excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
C. high power consumption in its transportation
D. erosion of induced draft fan blades

172. The terms "sweet" and "sour" in natural gas terminology, are used to denote
the absence or presence of _____.
A. CO B. methane C. H2S D. glucose
173. It is the solid, cellular, infusible material remaining after the carbonization of
coal, pitch, petroleum residue and certain other
carbonaceous materials.
A. coke B. char C. wood D. peat

174. An amorphous carbon that has been treated with steam and heat unti l it has a
very great affinity for adsorbing many materials.
A. lampblack B. carbon black C. activated carbon D. graphite

175. It is the enrichment of water with nutrients

A. putrefaction B. eutrophication C. thermal stratification D. decomposition

176. It is a wet, partially decomposed organic matter

A. lignite B. peat C. charcoal D. asphalt

177. A hormone that enables the cells to utilize glucose is

A. gastrin B. insulin C. testosterone D. cortisone

178. Tobacco smoke contains

A. caffeine B. nicotine C. niacine D. morphine

179. Rod-shaped bacteria are called

A. bacilli B. spirilla C. cocci D. streptococci

180. Which one of the following is incorrect?

A. the equilibrium constant is not affected by temperature changes
B. equilibrium is dynamic, as some molecules are always reacting
C. if an equilibrium constant is large, relatively large numbers of products are
formed.

181. Nitrogen oxides from automobile exhausts are chiefly associated with a
pollution problem called
A. acid rain B. greenhouse effect C. smog D. annoying

182. Who showed that electrons can be considered to have both particle character
and wave character?
A. Thompson B. Moseley C. Heisenberg D. de Broglie

183. Which isotope are particularly useful for both diagnostic and therapeutic work
with the thyroid gland?
A. cobalt-60 B. technetium-99 C. iodine-131 D. tritium

184. Another instrument besides a Geiger counter that is useful in detecting

radiations is the
A. dosimeter B. anemometer C. calorimeter D. chomatograph

185. A radioactive isotope that is now widely used in cancer treatment is

A. cobalt-60 B. tritium C. deuterium D. sodium-24

186. A radioactive isotope useful in establishing the age of ancient objects is

A. nitrogen-14 B. lead-20 C. potassium-39 D. carbon-14

187. The smallest known cells are

A. protozoa B. algae C. fungi D. bacteria

188. Which of the following plastics is use in making Styrofoam, disposable cups,
forks, spoons and food containers?
A. polyethylene B. polyvinyl chloride C. polypropylene D. polystyrene

189. The color of bromine is

A. white B. violet C. black D. brown reddish

190. Which of the following generates the most ions in dilute aqueous solution?
A. C2H5OH B. MgCl2 C. NaCl D. NaHSO4
191. Metal oxide + water →?
A. carbon dioxide B. acid C. salt D. metal

192. Metal oxide + acid →?

A. salt B. base C. salt + water D. base + water

193. The molecular geometry of NO2 is

A. bent B. linear C. trigonal planar D. octahedral

194. This is the early period of growth where the organisms adjust to its new
environment.
A. stationary phase B. logarithmic phase C. lag phase D. decline phase

195. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the following
gives a higher yield?
A. large reactor followed by smaller one
B. small reactor followed by larger one
C. either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield
D. data insufficient; can't be predicted
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