Q1: Let and .

Then, B :
(A) is an empty set

(B) contains exactly two elements

(C) contains exactly three elements

(D) is an infinite set

Q1: Let and .
Then, B :
(A) is an empty set

(B) contains exactly two elements

(C) contains exactly three elements

(D) is an infinite set

Solution:

has infinite set.

Q2: The remainder when is divided by 5 is
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4
Q2: The remainder when is divided by 5 is
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Solution:

( is integer)

Remainder = 4
Q3: The surface area of a balloon of spherical shape being inflated, increases at a constant
rate. If initially, the radius of balloon is 3 units and after 5 seconds, it becomes 7 units, then its
radius after 9 seconds is :
(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 12
Q3: The surface area of a balloon of spherical shape being inflated, increases at a constant
rate. If initially, the radius of balloon is 3 units and after 5 seconds, it becomes 7 units, then its
radius after 9 seconds is :
(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 12

Solution:

Let r be the radius of spherical balloon

S = Surface area

(constant)

(C is constant of integration)

For

For

for t = 9

Q4: Bag A contains 2 white, 1 black and 3 red balls and bag B contains 3 black, 2 red and n
white balls. One bag is chosen at random and 2 balls drawn from it at random, are found to
be 1 red and 1 black. If the probability that both balls come from Bag A is then n is equal
to .................... .
(A) 13

(B) 6

(C) 4

(D) 3
Q4: Bag A contains 2 white, 1 black and 3 red balls and bag B contains 3 black, 2 red and n
white balls. One bag is chosen at random and 2 balls drawn from it at random, are found to
be 1 red and 1 black. If the probability that both balls come from Bag A is then n is equal
to .................... .
(A) 13

(B) 6

(C) 4

(D) 3
Solution:

= denotes selection for 1st bag

denotes selection for 2nd bag

A = selected balls are 1 red & 1 black

Q5: Let be a circle passing through (0, 6) and touching

the parabola at (2, 4). Then is equal to ................. .
(A) 16

(B) 88/5

(C) 72

(D) –8
Q5: Let be a circle passing through (0, 6) and touching
the parabola at (2, 4). Then is equal to ................. .
(A) 16

(B) 88/5

(C) 72

(D) –8

Solution:

is passing through (0, 6)

The tangent of the parabola at (2, 4) is

The tangent of circle at (2, 4) is

From Equation (1) and (2)

From equation (3) and (4)

Q6: The number of values of for which the system of equations :

is inconsistent, is
(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3
Q6: The number of values of for which the system of equations :

is inconsistent, is
(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3
Solution:

Has inconsistent solution

for

For the system of equation has inconsistent solution.

Q7: If the sum of the squares of the reciprocals of the roots and of the equation
is 15, then is equal to :
(A) 18

(B) 24

(C) 36

(D) 96
Q7: If the sum of the squares of the reciprocals of the roots and of the equation
is 15, then is equal to :
(A) 18

(B) 24

(C) 36

(D) 96

Solution:

Here roots of equation

Now

Q8: The set of all values of for which is the

interval :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q8: The set of all values of for which is the
interval :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Let

Q9: Let and is odd}

Let

If is equal to

(A) 218

(B) 221

(C) 663

(D) 1717
Q9: Let and is odd}

Let

If is equal to

(A) 218

(B) 221

(C) 663

(D) 1717

Solution:

and n is odd}

25 terms

Q10: which one of the following is

NOT correct ?
(A) f is increasing in (1, 2) and decreasing in

(B) has exactly two solutions

(C)

(D) has a root in the interval

Q10: which one of the following is
NOT correct ?
(A) f is increasing in (1, 2) and decreasing in

(B) has exactly two solutions

(C)

(D) has a root in the interval

Solution:

For

For (option 1 is correct)

has two solution (option 2 is correct)

(option 4 is correct)

(option c is incorrect)
Q11: The tangent at the point on the curve passes through the
origin, then does NOT lie on the curve :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q11: The tangent at the point on the curve passes through the
origin, then does NOT lie on the curve :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

The tangent at to the curve

passing through origin

And lies on the curve

From equation (1) and (2)

Hence the equation of curve

This curve does not intersect

Q12: The sum of absolute maximum and absolute minimum values of the function

in the interval is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q12: The sum of absolute maximum and absolute minimum values of the function

in the interval is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

For

For

local minima at and local maxima at

Q13: If where n is an even integer, is an arithmetic progression with common

difference 1, and then is equal to :

(A) 48

(B) 96

(C) 92

(D) 104
Q13: If where n is an even integer, is an arithmetic progression with common

difference 1, and then is equal to :

(A) 48

(B) 96

(C) 92

(D) 104

Solution:

From equation (2) and (1)

Q14: If is the solution of the differential equation

then is equal to :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q14: If is the solution of the differential equation

then is equal to :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

For

Q15: Let be a tangent to the hyperbola Then

is equal to :
(A) –2

(B) –4

(C) 2

(D) 4
Q15: Let be a tangent to the hyperbola Then
is equal to :
(A) –2

(B) –4

(C) 2

(D) 4

Solution:

is a tangent to the curve

then

Disc. = 0

Q16: Let be unit vectors. If be a vector such that the angle between and is
and then is equal to
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q16: Let be unit vectors. If be a vector such that the angle between and is
and then is equal to
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

So
Q17: If a random variable X follows the Binomial distribution B (33, p) such that
then the value of is equal to

(A) 1320

(B) 1088

(C)

(D)
Q17: If a random variable X follows the Binomial distribution B (33, p) such that
then the value of is equal to

(A) 1320

(B) 1088

(C)

(D)

Solution:

let probability of success is and

= 1320
Q18: The domain of the function is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q18: The domain of the function is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

after taking intersection

after taking intersection of each solution

Q19: Let
If then is equal

(A)

(B) 9

(C)

(D) 10
Q19: Let
If then is equal

(A)

(B) 9

(C)

(D) 10

Solution:

which is not possible

Q20: The number of choices of such that

is a tautology, is
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4
Q20: The number of choices of such that

is a tautology, is
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Solution:

For tautology must be true.

This is possible only when

Q21: The number of one-one function f : {a, b, c, d} {0, 1, 2, ........., 10} such that 2f (a) – f
(b) + 3f (c) + f (d) = 0 is .................... .
Q21: The number of one-one function f : {a, b, c, d} {0, 1, 2, ........., 10} such that 2f (a) – f
(b) + 3f (c) + f (d) = 0 is .................... .
31.00

Solution:

2f (a) + 3f (c) = f (d) – f (b)

Using fundamental principle of counting

Number of one-one function is 31

Q22: In an examination, there are 5 multiple choice questions with 3 choices, out of which
exactly one is correct. There are 3 marks for each correct answer, –2 marks for each wrong
answer and 0 mark if the question is not attempted. Then, the number of ways a student
appearing in the examination gets 5 marks is .......... .
Q22: In an examination, there are 5 multiple choice questions with 3 choices, out of which
exactly one is correct. There are 3 marks for each correct answer, –2 marks for each wrong
answer and 0 mark if the question is not attempted. Then, the number of ways a student
appearing in the examination gets 5 marks is .......... .
40.00

Solution:

Only one possibilities 3, 3, 3, –2, –2

Number of ways is
Q23: Let be a fixed point in the xy-plane. The image of A in y-axis
be B and the image of B in x-axis be C. If is a point in the fourth
quadrant such that the maximum area of is 12 square units, then ‘a’ is equal to
..........
Q23: Let be a fixed point in the xy-plane. The image of A in y-axis
be B and the image of B in x-axis be C. If is a point in the fourth
quadrant such that the maximum area of is 12 square units, then ‘a’ is equal to
..........
8.00

Solution:

Area of ACD

max values of function is

a=8
Q24: Let a line having direction ratios 1, –4, 2 intersect the lines

and

at the point A and B. Then is equal to ..................... .

Q24: Let a line having direction ratios 1, –4, 2 intersect the lines

and

at the point A and B. Then is equal to ..................... .

84.00

Solution:

DR's of AB

Taking first (2)

Taking second & third

After solving above two equation

Q25: The number of points where the function

[t] denotes the greatest integer is discontinuous is .................. .

Q25: The number of points where the function

[t] denotes the greatest integer is discontinuous is .................. .

7.00

Solution:

Q26: Let .Then the value of

is ............... .
Q26: Let .Then the value of

is ............... .

1.00
Solution:

Let

A = 2B ................(1)

B = (A + 1) 2.1

2A + 2 – B = 0 .............. (2)

After solving

=1
Q27: Let and

If then is equal to

................ .
Q27: Let and

If then is equal to

................ .
34.00
Solution:

so critical point is x = 1 in [0, 2]

So and

After solving

Q28: If two tangents drawn from a point lying on the ellipse to the
parabola are such that the slope of one tangent is four times the other, then the
value of equals ................. .
Q28: If two tangents drawn from a point lying on the ellipse to the
parabola are such that the slope of one tangent is four times the other, then the
value of equals ................. .
2929.00

Solution:

Equation of tangent to

It passes through

It has two roots and where

After eliminating and

Q29: Let S be the region bounded by the curves and The curve
divides S into two regions of areas and

If max then is equal to .................... .

Q29: Let S be the region bounded by the curves and The curve
divides S into two regions of areas and

If max then is equal to .................... .

19.00
Solution:

So,
Q30: If the shortest distance between the line and
is then the integral value of a is equal to
Q30: If the shortest distance between the line and
is then the integral value of a is equal to
2.00

Solution:

dr's of line (1)

dr's of line (2)

Squaring an both the side

After solving
Q31: If a rocket runs on a fuel (C15H30) and liquid oxygen, the weight of oxygen required and
CO2 released for every litre of fuel respectively are:

(Given: density of the fuel is 0.756 g/mL)

(A) 1188 g and 1296 g

(B) 2376 g and 2592 g

(C) 2592 g and 2376 g

(D) 3429 g and 3142 g

Q31: If a rocket runs on a fuel (C15H30) and liquid oxygen, the weight of oxygen required and
CO2 released for every litre of fuel respectively are:

(Given: density of the fuel is 0.756 g/mL)

(A) 1188 g and 1296 g

(B) 2376 g and 2592 g

(C) 2592 g and 2376 g

(D) 3429 g and 3142 g

Solution:

Density of fuel = 0.756 g/mL

Mass of fuel in 1 L = 0.756 x 1000 = 756 g

Number of moles of fuel

1 mole fuel requires moles O2

3.6 mole fuel requires = 2592 g O2

1 mole fuel produces 15 moles CO2

3.6 moles fuel produces 15 x 3.6 x 44g CO2 = 2376 g CO2

Q32: Consider the following pairs of electrons

(A)

(B)

(C)

The pairs of electrons present in degenerate orbitals is/are:

(A) Only (A)

(B) Only (B)

(C) Only (C)

(D) (B) and (C)

Q32: Consider the following pairs of electrons

(A)

(B)

(C)

The pairs of electrons present in degenerate orbitals is/are:

(A) Only (A)

(B) Only (B)

(C) Only (C)

(D) (B) and (C)

Solution:

The given set of Quantum numbers represent

(A) (a) 3p Orbital

(b) 3d Orbital

(B) (a) 3d Orbital

(b) 3d Orbital 

(C) (a) 4d Orbital

(b) 3d Orbital 

Only (B) are the pair of electrons present in degenerate orbitals.

Q33: Match List – I with List – II

List-I List-II
(A) [PtCl4]2– (I) sp3d
(B) BrF5 (II) d2sp3
(C) PCl5 (III) dsp2
(D) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (IV) sp3d2

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) – (II); (B) – (IV); (C) – (I), (D) – (III)

(B) (A) – (III); (B) – (IV); (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

(C) (A) – (III); (B) – (I); (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

(D) (A) – (II); (B) – (I); (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

Q33: Match List – I with List – II

List-I List-II
(A) [PtCl4]2– (I) sp3d
(B) BrF5 (II) d2sp3
(C) PCl5 (III) dsp2
(D) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (IV) sp3d2

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) – (II); (B) – (IV); (C) – (I), (D) – (III)

(B) (A) – (III); (B) – (IV); (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

(C) (A) – (III); (B) – (I); (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

(D) (A) – (II); (B) – (I); (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

Solution:

[PtCl4]2– has square planar geometry & dsp2 hybridisation.

BrF5 has sp3d2 hybridisation

PCl5 has sp3d hybridisation

[Co(NH3)6]3+ has d2sp3 hybridisation & octahedral geometry.

Q34: For a reaction at equilibrium

the relation between dissociation constant (K), degree of dissociation ( ) and equilibrium
pressure (p) is given by:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q34: For a reaction at equilibrium

the relation between dissociation constant (K), degree of dissociation ( ) and equilibrium
pressure (p) is given by:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Total mole

Putting the value we get the solution

Q35: Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Emulsions of oil in water are unstable and sometimes they separate into two
layers on standing.

Statement II : For stabilisation of an emulsion, excess of electrolyte is added.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q35: Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Emulsions of oil in water are unstable and sometimes they separate into two
layers on standing.

Statement II : For stabilisation of an emulsion, excess of electrolyte is added.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Solution:

Emulsions of oil in water are unstable and sometimes they separate into two layers on standing. For stabilization of an
emulsion, an emulsifying agent is usually added.
Q36: Given below are the oxides : Na2O, As2O3, N2O, NO and Cl2O7

Number of amphoteric oxides is :

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3
Q36: Given below are the oxides : Na2O, As2O3, N2O, NO and Cl2O7

Number of amphoteric oxides is :

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

Solution:

Na2O = Basic;  As2O3 = Amphoteric

N2O = Neutral;  NO = Neutral

Cl2O7 = Acidic
Q37: Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II
(A) Sphalerite (I) FeCO3
(B) Calamine (II) PbS
(C) Galena (III) ZnCO3
(D) Siderite (IV) ZnS

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) (A) – (IV); (B) – (III); (C) – (II); (D) – (I)

(B) (A) – (IV); (B) – (I); (C) – (II); (D) – (III)

(C) (A) – (II); (B) – (III); (C) – (I); (D) – (IV)

(D) (A) – (III); (B) – (IV); (C) – (II); (D) – (I) 

Q37: Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List - II
(A) Sphalerite (I) FeCO3
(B) Calamine (II) PbS
(C) Galena (III) ZnCO3
(D) Siderite (IV) ZnS

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) (A) – (IV); (B) – (III); (C) – (II); (D) – (I)

(B) (A) – (IV); (B) – (I); (C) – (II); (D) – (III)

(C) (A) – (II); (B) – (III); (C) – (I); (D) – (IV)

(D) (A) – (III); (B) – (IV); (C) – (II); (D) – (I) 

Solution:

Calamine ZnCO3

Galena PbS

Sphalerite ZnS

Siderite FeCO3
Q38: The highest industrial consumption of molecular hydrogen is to produce compounds of
element :
(A) Carbon

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Oxygen

(D) Chlorine
Q38: The highest industrial consumption of molecular hydrogen is to produce compounds of
element :
(A) Carbon

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Oxygen

(D) Chlorine

Solution:

Ammonia  (NH3) production represents 55% of total global hydrogen use. 

Q39: Which of the following statements are correct ? 
(A) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol.
(B) The oxides Li2O and MgO combine with excess of oxygen to give superoxide.
(C) LiF is less soluble in water than other alkali metal fluorides. 
(D) Li2O is more soluble in water than other alkali metal oxides.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) (A) and (C) only

(B) (A), (C) and (D) only

(C) (B) and (C) only

(D) (A) and (D) only

Q39: Which of the following statements are correct ? 
(A) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol.
(B) The oxides Li2O and MgO combine with excess of oxygen to give superoxide.
(C) LiF is less soluble in water than other alkali metal fluorides. 
(D) Li2O is more soluble in water than other alkali metal oxides.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) (A) and (C) only

(B) (A), (C) and (D) only

(C) (B) and (C) only

(D) (A) and (D) only

Solution:

(A) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol.

(B) Li and Mg do not form superoxide.

(C) LiF has high lattice energy. Hene, it is less soluble in water than other alkali metal fluorides.

(D) Li2O is least soluble in water than other alkali metal oxides.
Q40: Identify the correct statement for B2H6 from those given below. 
(A) In B2H6, all B – H bonds are equivalent. 
(B) In B2H6, there are four 3 -centre-2-electron bonds. 
(C) B2H6 is a Lewis acid. 
(D) B2H6 can be synthesized from both BF3 and NaBH4.

(E) B2H6 is a planar molecule.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) (A) and (E) only

(B) (B), (C) and (E) only

(C) (C) and (D) only

(D) (C) and (E) only

Q40: Identify the correct statement for B2H6 from those given below. 
(A) In B2H6, all B – H bonds are equivalent. 
(B) In B2H6, there are four 3 -centre-2-electron bonds. 
(C) B2H6 is a Lewis acid. 
(D) B2H6 can be synthesized from both BF3 and NaBH4.

(E) B2H6 is a planar molecule.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) (A) and (E) only

(B) (B), (C) and (E) only

(C) (C) and (D) only

(D) (C) and (E) only

Solution:

B2H6 is a lewis acid & it can be synthesized from BF3 & NaBH4

3NaBH4 + 4BF3 3NaBF4 + 2B2H6

Q41: The most stable trihalide of nitrogen is :
(A) NF3

(B) NCl3

(C) NBr3

(D) NI3
Q41: The most stable trihalide of nitrogen is :
(A) NF3

(B) NCl3

(C) NBr3

(D) NI3

Solution:

Nitrogen is an element of second period and it cannot hold 3 larger halogen atoms efficiently, hence NF3 is the most stable
halide.
Q42: Which one of the following elemental forms is not present in the enamel of the teeth ?
(A) Ca2+

(B) P3+

(C) F–

(D) P5+
Q42: Which one of the following elemental forms is not present in the enamel of the teeth ?
(A) Ca2+

(B) P3+

(C) F–

(D) P5+

Solution:

Calcium phosphate, Ca(PO4)3 is present in tooth enamel and it is known as hydroxyapatite which is basic in nature. So, Ca2+
and P+5 ions are present in it

Fluorides (F-) are also present in tooth enamel. P3+ form of phosphorus is not present in tooth enamel.
Q43: In the given reaction sequence, the major product ‘C’ is :

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)
Q43: In the given reaction sequence, the major product ‘C’ is :

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)
Solution:
Q44: Two statements are given below:

Statement I : The melting point of monocarboxylic acid with even number of carbon atoms is
higher than that of with odd number of carbon atoms acid immediately below and above it in
the series.

Statement II : The solubility of monocarboxylic acids in water decreases with increase in

molar mass.

Choose the most appropriate option :

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q44: Two statements are given below:

Statement I : The melting point of monocarboxylic acid with even number of carbon atoms is
higher than that of with odd number of carbon atoms acid immediately below and above it in
the series.

Statement II : The solubility of monocarboxylic acids in water decreases with increase in

molar mass.

Choose the most appropriate option :

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Solution:

I. Better packing efficiency of monocarboxylic acids with even number of carbon atoms results in higher melting point.

II. As molar mass increases, hydrophobic size increases and hence solubility decreases.
Q45: Which of the following is an example of conjugated diketone?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q45: Which of the following is an example of conjugated diketone?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

is a conjugated diketone.
Q46:

The major product of the above reactions is :

(A)
(B)

(C)
 (D)
 
Q46:

The major product of the above reactions is :

(A)
(B)

(C)
 (D)
 
Solution:
Q47: Which of the following is an example of polyester ?
(A) Butadiene-styrene copolymer

(B) Melamine polymer

(C) Neoprene

(D) Poly- -hydroxybutyrate-co- -hydroxyvalerate 

Q47: Which of the following is an example of polyester ?
(A) Butadiene-styrene copolymer

(B) Melamine polymer

(C) Neoprene

(D) Poly- -hydroxybutyrate-co- -hydroxyvalerate 

Solution:

Poly- -hydroxybutyrate-co- -hydroxyvalerate is an example of polyester

 
Q48: A polysaccharide ‘X’ on boiling with dil H2SO4 at 393 K under 2 – 3 atm pressure yields
 
 
 
‘Y’. ‘Y’ on treatment with bromine water gives gluconic acid. ‘X’ contains -glycosidic linkages
only. Compound ‘X’ is :
(A) starch

(B) cellulose

(C) amylose

(D) amylopectin
 
Q48: A polysaccharide ‘X’ on boiling with dil H2SO4 at 393 K under 2 – 3 atm pressure yields
 
 
 
‘Y’. ‘Y’ on treatment with bromine water gives gluconic acid. ‘X’ contains -glycosidic linkages
only. Compound ‘X’ is :
(A) starch

(B) cellulose

(C) amylose

(D) amylopectin

Solution:
Q49: Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic ?
(A) Vancomycin

(B) Ampicillin

(C) Ofloxacin

(D) Penicillin G
Q49: Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic ?
(A) Vancomycin

(B) Ampicillin

(C) Ofloxacin

(D) Penicillin G

Solution:

Among the given options, penicillin G is not a broad spectrum antibiotic, it is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic.
Q50: During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y2+, addition of a reagent (X) to alkaline
solution of the salt gives a bright red precipitate. The reagent (X) and the cation (y2+) present
respectively are :
(A) Dimethylglyoxime and Ni2+

(B) Dimethylglyoxime and Co2+

(C) Nessler's reagent and Hg2+

(D) Nessler's reagent and Ni2+

Q50: During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y2+, addition of a reagent (X) to alkaline
solution of the salt gives a bright red precipitate. The reagent (X) and the cation (y2+) present
respectively are :
(A) Dimethylglyoxime and Ni2+

(B) Dimethylglyoxime and Co2+

(C) Nessler's reagent and Hg2+

(D) Nessler's reagent and Ni2+

Solution:

Ni compounds react with dimethyl glyoxime in ammoniacal solution to form red precipitate of nickel dimethylglyoxime.

2DMG + NiCl2 + 2NH4OH NiDMG2 (redppt) + 2NH4Cl + 2H2O

Q51: Atoms of element X form hcp lattice and those of element Y occupy of its tetrahedral
voids. The percentage of element X in the lattice is _____. (Nearest integer)
Q51: Atoms of element X form hcp lattice and those of element Y occupy of its tetrahedral
voids. The percentage of element X in the lattice is _____. (Nearest integer)
43.00

Solution:

X is hcp

So atom per unit cell = 6

Y at 2/3 of T-void = x 12 = 8

% of X = 
 x 100 = 42.85%
Q52:

At 300 K, ozone is fifty percent dissociated. The standard free energy change at this
temperature and 1 atm pressure is (–) _____J mol–1 (Nearest integer)

[Given : ln 1.35 = 0.3 and R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1]

Q52:

At 300 K, ozone is fifty percent dissociated. The standard free energy change at this
temperature and 1 atm pressure is (–) _____J mol–1 (Nearest integer)

[Given : ln 1.35 = 0.3 and R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1]

747

Solution:

Total moles = 0.5 + 0.75 = 1.25 mol

Q53: The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.47 bar at 300 K. To inject glucose to a patient
intravenously, it has to be isotonic with blood. The concentration of glucose solution in gL–1
is_____. (Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol–1
R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1) (Nearest integer)
Q53: The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.47 bar at 300 K. To inject glucose to a patient
intravenously, it has to be isotonic with blood. The concentration of glucose solution in gL–1
is_____. (Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol–1
R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1) (Nearest integer)
54.00

Solution:

= 0.3 moles glucose in 1 L

Strength of Glucose (g/L) = 0.3 x 180 = 54 g/L

Q54: The cell potential for the following cell

is 0.576 V at 298 K. The pH of the solution is _____. (Nearest integer)

(Given : and )
Q54: The cell potential for the following cell

is 0.576 V at 298 K. The pH of the solution is _____. (Nearest integer)

(Given : and )
5.00

Solution:

Q55: The rate constants for decomposition of acetaldehyde have been measured over the
temperature range 700 – 1000 K. The data has been analysed by plotting ln K vs graph.
The value of activation energy for the reaction is _____ kJ mol–1. (Nearest integer)
(Given : R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1).

Q55: The rate constants for decomposition of acetaldehyde have been measured over the
temperature range 700 – 1000 K. The data has been analysed by plotting ln K vs graph.
The value of activation energy for the reaction is _____ kJ mol–1. (Nearest integer)
(Given : R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1).

154

Solution:
Q56: The difference in oxidation state of chromium in chromate and dichromate salts is_____.
Q56: The difference in oxidation state of chromium in chromate and dichromate salts is_____.
0.00

Solution:

Oxidation number of Cr in chromate ion (CrO42–) is +6

Oxidation number of Cr in dichromate ion (Cr2O72–) is also +6.

Difference in their oxidation states = 6 - 6 = 0
Q57: In the cobalt-carbonyl complex: [Co2(CO)8], number of Co – Co bonds is “X” and
terminal CO ligands is “Y”. X + Y = _____.
Q57: In the cobalt-carbonyl complex: [Co2(CO)8], number of Co – Co bonds is “X” and
terminal CO ligands is “Y”. X + Y = _____.
7.00

Solution:

X = 1 and Y = 6
X+Y=7
Q58: A 0.166 g sample of an organic compound was digested with conc. H2SO4 and then
distilled with NaOH. The ammonia gas evolved was passed through 50.0 mL of 0.5 N H2SO4.
The used acid required 30.0 mL of 0.25 N NaOH for complete neutralization. The mass
percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is_____.
Q58: A 0.166 g sample of an organic compound was digested with conc. H2SO4 and then
distilled with NaOH. The ammonia gas evolved was passed through 50.0 mL of 0.5 N H2SO4.
The used acid required 30.0 mL of 0.25 N NaOH for complete neutralization. The mass
percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is_____.
63.00

Solution:

Mass of compound = 0.166 g

Vol. of H2SO4 = 50 mL

Normality of H2SO4 = 0.5 N

Vol. of NaOH = 30 mL

Normality of NaOH = 0.25 N

m. eq. of H2SO4 = 50 x 0.5 = 25

m. eq. of NaOH = 7.5

N1V1 = 7.5 m. eq.

0.5 x V1 = 7.5

V1 = = 15 mL
Volume of acid used = 15 mL

Q59: Number of electrophillic centres in the given compound is_____.

Q59: Number of electrophillic centres in the given compound is_____.

3.00

Solution:

This compound has 3 electrophilic centers.

Q60: The major product ‘A’ of the following given reaction has _____ sp2 hybridized carbon
atoms

Q60: The major product ‘A’ of the following given reaction has _____ sp2 hybridized carbon
atoms

2.00

Solution:

Q61: The bulk modulus of liquid is The pressure required to reduce the
volume of liquid by 2% is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q61: The bulk modulus of liquid is The pressure required to reduce the
volume of liquid by 2% is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Q62: Assertion: In an uniform magnetic field, speed and energy remains the same for
moving charged particle.

Reason: Moving charged particle experiences magnetic force perpendicular to its direction of
motion.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(B) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(C) If assertion is true, but reason is false.

(D) If both the assertion and reason are false.

Q62: Assertion: In an uniform magnetic field, speed and energy remains the same for
moving charged particle.

Reason: Moving charged particle experiences magnetic force perpendicular to its direction of
motion.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(B) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(C) If assertion is true, but reason is false.

(D) If both the assertion and reason are false.

Solution:

Q63: Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are connected in parallel across a parallel
combination of two resistors each of resistance . A voltmeter connected in the circuit
measures 1.2 V. The internal resistance of each cell is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q63: Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are connected in parallel across a parallel
combination of two resistors each of resistance . A voltmeter connected in the circuit
measures 1.2 V. The internal resistance of each cell is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Resultant circuit

Q64: Identify the pair of physical quantities which have different dimensions
(A) Wave number and Rydberg's constant

(B) Stress and Coefficient of elasticity

(C) Coercivity and Magnetisation

(D) Specific heat capacity and Latent heat

Q64: Identify the pair of physical quantities which have different dimensions
(A) Wave number and Rydberg's constant

(B) Stress and Coefficient of elasticity

(C) Coercivity and Magnetisation

(D) Specific heat capacity and Latent heat

Solution:

So, 
Specific heat capacity and Latent heat have different dimensions.
Q65: A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 m/s at an angle with the horizontal. After t
seconds its inclination with horizontal becomes zero. If R represents horizontal range of the
projectile, the value of will be [ use g = 10 m/s2]
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q65: A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 m/s at an angle with the horizontal. After t
seconds its inclination with horizontal becomes zero. If R represents horizontal range of the
projectile, the value of will be [ use g = 10 m/s2]
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Q66: A block of mass 10 kg starts sliding on a surface with an initial velocity of 9.8 ms-1. The
coefficient of friction between the surface and block is 0.5. The distance covered by the block
before coming to rest is [use g = 9.8 ms-2]
(A) 4.9 m

(B) 9.8 m

(C) 12.5 m

(D) 19.6 m
Q66: A block of mass 10 kg starts sliding on a surface with an initial velocity of 9.8 ms-1. The
coefficient of friction between the surface and block is 0.5. The distance covered by the block
before coming to rest is [use g = 9.8 ms-2]
(A) 4.9 m

(B) 9.8 m

(C) 12.5 m

(D) 19.6 m

Solution:

Q67: A boy ties a stone of mass 100 g to the end of a 2 m long string and whirls it around in a
horizontal plane. The string can withstand the maximum tension of 80 N. If the maximum
speed with which the stone can revolve is rev/min. The value of K is

(Assume the string is massless and unstretchable)

(A) 400

(B) 300

(C) 600

(D) 800
Q67: A boy ties a stone of mass 100 g to the end of a 2 m long string and whirls it around in a
horizontal plane. The string can withstand the maximum tension of 80 N. If the maximum
speed with which the stone can revolve is rev/min. The value of K is

(Assume the string is massless and unstretchable)

(A) 400

(B) 300

(C) 600

(D) 800

Solution:

Q68: A vertical electric field of magnitude 4.9 X105 N/C just prevents a water droplet of a
mass 0.1 g from falling. The value of charge on the droplet will be : (Given g =9.8 m/s2)
(A) 1.6 x 10-9 C

(B) 2.0 x 10-9 C

(C) 3.2 x 10-9 C

(D) 0.5 x 10-9 C

Q68: A vertical electric field of magnitude 4.9 X105 N/C just prevents a water droplet of a
mass 0.1 g from falling. The value of charge on the droplet will be : (Given g =9.8 m/s2)
(A) 1.6 x 10-9 C

(B) 2.0 x 10-9 C

(C) 3.2 x 10-9 C

(D) 0.5 x 10-9 C

Solution:

Q69: A particle experiences a variable force in a horizontal x-y plane.

Assume distance in meters and force in newton. If the particle moves from point (1, 2) to point
(2, 3) in the x-y plane, then Kinetic Energy changes by
(A) 50.0 J

(B) 12.5 J

(C) 25.0 J

(D) 0J
Q69: A particle experiences a variable force in a horizontal x-y plane.
Assume distance in meters and force in newton. If the particle moves from point (1, 2) to point
(2, 3) in the x-y plane, then Kinetic Energy changes by
(A) 50.0 J

(B) 12.5 J

(C) 25.0 J

(D) 0J

Solution:

Using work energy theorem

Q70: The approximate height from the surface of earth at which the weight of the body
becomes of its weight on the surface of earth is

 [Radius of earth R=6400 km and

(A) 3840 km

(B) 4685 km

(C) 2133 km

(D) 4267 km
Q70: The approximate height from the surface of earth at which the weight of the body
becomes of its weight on the surface of earth is

 [Radius of earth R=6400 km and

(A) 3840 km

(B) 4685 km

(C) 2133 km

(D) 4267 km

Solution:

h =?

Q71: A resistance of is connected to a source of alternating current rated 220 V, 50 Hz.

Find the time taken by the current to change from its maximum value to the rms value :
(A) 2.5 ms

(B) 1.5 ms

(C) 2.5 s

(D) 0.25 s
Q71: A resistance of is connected to a source of alternating current rated 220 V, 50 Hz.
Find the time taken by the current to change from its maximum value to the rms value :
(A) 2.5 ms

(B) 1.5 ms

(C) 2.5 s

(D) 0.25 s

Solution:

Q72: The equations of two waves are given by

These waves are simultaneously passing through a string. The amplitude of the resulting
wave is
(A) 2 cm

(B) 4 cm

(C) 5.8 cm

(D) 8 cm
Q72: The equations of two waves are given by

These waves are simultaneously passing through a string. The amplitude of the resulting
wave is
(A) 2 cm

(B) 4 cm

(C) 5.8 cm

(D) 8 cm

Solution:

Q73: A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a medium of relative permeability 1.61 and
relative permittivity 6.44. If magnitude of magnetic intensity is 4.5 x 10-2 Am-1 at a point, what
will be the approximate magnitude of electric field intensity at that point ? (Given :
Permeability of free space speed of light in vacuum c = 3 x 108 ms-
1)

(A) 16.96 Vm-1

(B) 2.25 x 10-2 Vm-1

(C) 8.48 Vm-1

(D) 6.75 x 106 Vm-1

Q73: A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a medium of relative permeability 1.61 and
relative permittivity 6.44. If magnitude of magnetic intensity is 4.5 x 10-2 Am-1 at a point, what
will be the approximate magnitude of electric field intensity at that point ? (Given :
Permeability of free space speed of light in vacuum c = 3 x 108 ms-
1)

(A) 16.96 Vm-1

(B) 2.25 x 10-2 Vm-1

(C) 8.48 Vm-1

(D) 6.75 x 106 Vm-1

Solution:

Q74: Choose the correct option from the following options given below
(A) In the ground state of Rutherford's model electrons are in stable equilibrium. While in Thomson's model electrons
always experience a net-force.

(B) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a Rutherford's model but has a highly non-uniform mass
distribution in Thomson's model

(C) A classical atom based on Rutherford's model is doomed to collapse.

(D) The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in Rutherford's model but not in Thomson's
model
Q74: Choose the correct option from the following options given below
(A) In the ground state of Rutherford's model electrons are in stable equilibrium. While in Thomson's model electrons
always experience a net-force.

(B) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a Rutherford's model but has a highly non-uniform mass
distribution in Thomson's model

(C) A classical atom based on Rutherford's model is doomed to collapse.

(D) The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in Rutherford's model but not in Thomson's
model

Solution:

In Rutherford model electron finally merge in nucleus.

Q75: Nucleus A is having mam number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5.6 MeV. It
splits in two fragments 'B' and 'C of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy of
nucleons in 'B' and 'C’ is 6.4 MeV per nucleon. The energy Q released per fission will be
(A) 0.8 MeV

(B) 275 MeV

(C) 220 MeV

(D) 176 MeV

Q75: Nucleus A is having mam number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5.6 MeV. It
splits in two fragments 'B' and 'C of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy of
nucleons in 'B' and 'C’ is 6.4 MeV per nucleon. The energy Q released per fission will be
(A) 0.8 MeV

(B) 275 MeV

(C) 220 MeV

(D) 176 MeV

Solution:

Q76: A baseband signal of 3.5 MHz frequency is modulated with a carrier signal of 3.5 GHz
frequency using amplitude modulation method. What should be the minimum size of antenna
required to transmit the modulated signal ?
(A) 42.8 m

(B) 42.8 mm

(C) 21.4 mm

(D) 21.4 m
Q76: A baseband signal of 3.5 MHz frequency is modulated with a carrier signal of 3.5 GHz
frequency using amplitude modulation method. What should be the minimum size of antenna
required to transmit the modulated signal ?
(A) 42.8 m

(B) 42.8 mm

(C) 21.4 mm

(D) 21.4 m

Solution:
Q77: A Carrot engine whose heat sinks at 27°C, has an efficiency of 25%. By how many
degrees should the temperature of the source be changed to increase the efficiency by 100%
of the original efficiency ?
(A) Increases by 18oC

(B) Increases by 200oC

(C) Increases by 120oC

(D) Increases by 73oC

Q77: A Carrot engine whose heat sinks at 27°C, has an efficiency of 25%. By how many
degrees should the temperature of the source be changed to increase the efficiency by 100%
of the original efficiency ?
(A) Increases by 18oC

(B) Increases by 200oC

(C) Increases by 120oC

(D) Increases by 73oC

Solution:

Efficiency increased by 100%, so new efficiency

So change in temperature = 600-400 = 200K

Q78: A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates each of area separated by 1
mm. A material of dielectric strength 3.6 x107 Vm-1 is filled between the plates. If the
maximum charge that can be stored on the capacitor without causing any dielectric
breakdown is 7 x 10-6 the value of dielectric constant of the material is :

(A) 1.66

(B) 1.75

(C) 2.25

(D) 2.33
Q78: A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates each of area separated by 1
mm. A material of dielectric strength 3.6 x107 Vm-1 is filled between the plates. If the
maximum charge that can be stored on the capacitor without causing any dielectric
breakdown is 7 x 10-6 the value of dielectric constant of the material is :

(A) 1.66

(B) 1.75

(C) 2.25

(D) 2.33
Solution:

A, d, E = Given

K = ?

Q79: The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r, due to current I flowing
through it, is B. The magnetic field at a point along the axis at a distance from the centre is
(A) B/2

(B) 2B

(C)

(D)
Q79: The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r, due to current I flowing
through it, is B. The magnetic field at a point along the axis at a distance from the centre is
(A) B/2

(B) 2B

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Magnetic field on the axis of the loop :

Q80: Two metallic blocks M1 and M2 of same area of cross-section are connected to each
other (as shown in figure). If the thermal conductivity of M2 is K then the thermal conductivity
of M1 will be: [Assume steady state heat conduction]

(A) 10 K

(B) 8K

(C) 12.5 K

(D) 2K
Q80: Two metallic blocks M1 and M2 of same area of cross-section are connected to each
other (as shown in figure). If the thermal conductivity of M2 is K then the thermal conductivity
of M1 will be: [Assume steady state heat conduction]

(A) 10 K

(B) 8K

(C) 12.5 K

(D) 2K

Solution:

Q81: 0.056 kg of Nitrogen is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature of 127oC. The amount of

heat required to double the speed of its molecules is _________k cal.

(Take R = 2 cal mole-1 K-1)

Q81: 0.056 kg of Nitrogen is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature of 127oC. The amount of
heat required to double the speed of its molecules is _________k cal.

(Take R = 2 cal mole-1 K-1)

12.00

Solution:

Q82: Two identical thin biconvex lenses of focal length 15 cm and refractive index 1.5 are in
contact with each other. The space between the lenses is filled with a liquid of refractive index
1.25. The focal length of the combination is ________ cm.
Q82: Two identical thin biconvex lenses of focal length 15 cm and refractive index 1.5 are in
contact with each other. The space between the lenses is filled with a liquid of refractive index
1.25. The focal length of the combination is ________ cm.
10.00
Solution:

Q83: A transistor is used in common-emitter mode in an amplifier circuit. When a signal of 10

mV is added to the base-emitter voltage, the base current changes by 10μ A and the collector
current changes by 1.5 mA. The load resistance is 5 kΩ. The voltage gain of the transistor will
be __________
Q83: A transistor is used in common-emitter mode in an amplifier circuit. When a signal of 10
mV is added to the base-emitter voltage, the base current changes by 10μ A and the collector
current changes by 1.5 mA. The load resistance is 5 kΩ. The voltage gain of the transistor will
be __________
750.00

Solution:

Q84: As shown in the figure an inductor of inductance 200 mH is connected to an AC source

of emf 220 V and frequency 50 Hz. The instantaneous voltage of the source is 0V when the
peak value of current is The value of a is ___________

Q84: As shown in the figure an inductor of inductance 200 mH is connected to an AC source

of emf 220 V and frequency 50 Hz. The instantaneous voltage of the source is 0V when the
peak value of current is The value of a is ___________

242.00
Solution:

Q85: Sodium light of wavelength 650 nm and 655 nm is used to study diffraction at a single
slit of aperture 0.5 mm. The distance between the slit and the screen is 2.0 m. The separation
between the positions of the first maxima of diffraction patten obtained in the two cases is
_______ x 10-5 m
Q85: Sodium light of wavelength 650 nm and 655 nm is used to study diffraction at a single
slit of aperture 0.5 mm. The distance between the slit and the screen is 2.0 m. The separation
between the positions of the first maxima of diffraction patten obtained in the two cases is
_______ x 10-5 m
03.00

Solution:

Q86: When light of frequency twice the threshold frequency is incident on the metal plate, the
maximum velocity of emitted electron is v1. When the frequency of incident radiation is
increased to five times the threshold value, the maximum velocity of emitted electron
becomes If the value of x will be_______
Q86: When light of frequency twice the threshold frequency is incident on the metal plate, the
maximum velocity of emitted electron is v1. When the frequency of incident radiation is
increased to five times the threshold value, the maximum velocity of emitted electron
becomes If the value of x will be_______
02.00

Solution:

From (2)/(1)

Q87: From the top of a tower, a ball is thrown vertically upward which reaches the ground in
6s. A second ball thrown vertically downward from the same position with the same speed
reaches the ground in 1.5 s. A third ball released, from the rest from the same location, will
reach the ground in ________s.
Q87: From the top of a tower, a ball is thrown vertically upward which reaches the ground in
6s. A second ball thrown vertically downward from the same position with the same speed
reaches the ground in 1.5 s. A third ball released, from the rest from the same location, will
reach the ground in ________s.
03.00

Solution:

After solving
Q88: A ball of mass 100 g is dropped from a height h = 10 cm on a platform fixed at the top of
a vertical spring (as shown in figure). The ball stays on the platform and the platform is
depressed by a distance The spring constant is __________ Nm-1. (use g = 10 ms-2)

Q88: A ball of mass 100 g is dropped from a height h = 10 cm on a platform fixed at the top of
a vertical spring (as shown in figure). The ball stays on the platform and the platform is
depressed by a distance The spring constant is __________ Nm-1. (use g = 10 ms-2)

120.00
Solution:

Q89: In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell gives a balancing point at 75 cm length of wire.

This cell is now replaced by another cell of unknown emf. If the ratio of the emf’s of two cells
respectively is 3 : 2, the difference in the balancing length of the potentiometer wire in above
two cases will be _______ cm.
Q89: In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell gives a balancing point at 75 cm length of wire.
This cell is now replaced by another cell of unknown emf. If the ratio of the emf’s of two cells
respectively is 3 : 2, the difference in the balancing length of the potentiometer wire in above
two cases will be _______ cm.
25.00

Solution:

Difference = 75 – 50 = 25 cm
Q90: A meter scale is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass
10 g are put one on the top of the other at the 10.0 cm mark the scale is found to be balanced
at 40.0 cm mark. The mass of the metre scale is found to be The value of x is
_________.
Q90: A meter scale is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass
10 g are put one on the top of the other at the 10.0 cm mark the scale is found to be balanced
at 40.0 cm mark. The mass of the metre scale is found to be The value of x is
_________.
06.00

Solution: