REVIEW TEST 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. windmill B. prohibit C. infinite D. subscribe
 Question 2: A. sure B. safe C. solar D. sun
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. distribute B. stimulate C. subscribe D. affect
 Question 4: A. renewable B. alternative C. potential D. infinite
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: “Could you tell me how to get to the post office?” “_________”
   A. Sorry, it’s not very far. B. Excuse me. Is it easy to get there?
   C. It’s at the end of this street, opposite the church D. Yes, I could
Question 6:     Nam: Personally, I believe wind power is cheap, clean and safe.
Hoa: _________, but if the wind doesn’t blow, there is no wind energy.
   A. That might be true B. Don’t mention it C. You’re welcome D. No matter what
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: Geothermal energy is produced from the heat stored in _________ earth’s core.
   A. no article B. the C. an D. a
Question 8: A lot of ____ from several countries competed in many Asian Game.
   A. spectators B. viewers C. athletes D. audience
Question 9: Listener is a person _________ to the concert or music program.
   A. listened B. to listen C. being listened D. listening
Question 10: The mother _________ son was caught by the police was very sad.
   A. which B. whose C. whom D. who
Question 11: It’s necessary that all high building be equipped _________smoke detector
   A. in B. with C. by D. for
Question 12: Peter, _________ lives about three miles away, was my former teacher.
   A. whom B. that C. who D. whose
Question 13: This is the bus_________we’ll go to school.
   A. in that B. on which C. by which D. from which
Question 14: The woman _________ we are talking is a professor.
   A. about whom B. who C. whom D. from whom
Question 15: Water power gives us energy _________ pollution.
   A. without B. of C. in D. with
Question 16: In Vietnam, many species have become _______ due to the irresponsible activities of people.
   A. endangered B. endanger C. dangerous D. danger
Question 17: He is the youngest athlete _________the prize in this field.
   A. winning B. won C. to win D. to be won
Question 18: The Asian Games ______________ place every four years.
   A. taking B. take C. took D. taken
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 19: I am not 16 years old, so my parents don't allow me to ride a motorbike.
   A. Unless I am 16 years old, my parents wouldn’t allow me to ride a motorbike.
   B. If I am 16 years old, my parents will allow me to ride a motorbike.
   C. Unless I were 16 years, old my parents would allow me to ride a motorbike.
   D. If I were 16 years old, my parents would allow me to ride a motorbike.
Question 20: Nam refused to go to the cinema with me. He hated action films.
   A. Nam, that hated action films, refused to go to the cinema with me.
   B. Nam, of whom hated action films, refused to go to the cinema with me.
   C. Nam, who hated action films, refused to go to the cinema with me.
   D. Nam, whose hated action films, refused to go to the cinema with me.
Question 21: The boy is standing in the yard. He was punished by his teacher.
   A. The teacher who was punished the boy is standing in the yard.
   B. Standing in the yard, the teacher punished the boy.
   C. The boy punished by his teacher is standing in the yard.
   D. The boy was standing in the yard was punished by his teacher.
Question 22: Explosives are used for catching fish and other sea animals.
   A. People use explosives to catch fish and other sea animals.
   B. People catch fish and other sea animals by use explosives.
   C. Fish and other sea animals are caught explosives used.
   D. Fish and other sea animals are caught to use explosives.
Question 23: The police caught the burglar climbing over the garden wall.
   A. The police caught the burglar and they climbed over the garden wall.
   B. The police caught the burglar who is climbing over the garden wall.
   C. The police were catching the burglar who was climbing over the garden wall.
   D. The burglar who was climbing over the garden wall was caught by the police.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: We can start our journey towards the mountain at dawn.
   A. set out B. take off C. go away D. turn round
Question 25: I don’t think a horse can ever stay at the same speech as a car.
   A. keep up with B. get on with C. run away from D. look up at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: The pollution problem is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefit
people.
   A. completed B. enormous C. sophisticated D. simple
Question 27: Factories discharge much of the material that pollutes the air and water, but factories give
employment to a large number of people.
   A. unload B. burn C. give off D. take in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: .Most of the food what elephants eat is brought to their mouths by their trunks.
   A. Most B. by C. is brought D. what
Question 29: Many species have become extinction because of the interferences of human beings.
   A. Many species B. of C. interferences D. extinction
Question 30: Thank you for you letter, in that you invited me to your birthday party.
   A. for B. in that C. to D. birthday party

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Energy is fundamental to human beings, especially to poor people – the one-third of humanity that does
not have modern energy supplies like electricity or natural gas, with which their life could be improved.
Many people who live in countryside and mountainous areas have to gather fuel wood. This takes a lot of
time. Moreover, it causes indoor air pollution because of heavy smoke. For many people living in rural areas
in developing countries of the world, biogas is the large energy resources available and costs almost nothing.
The main use of biogas is for cooking and heating, but it can also provide energy for public transport. As
biogas is smoke-free, it helps solve the problem of indoor air pollution. Moreover, plant waste and animal
manure cost almost nothing.
The tendency to use renewable energy sources in developing countries is on the increase when non-
renewable ones are running out. In the near future, people in the developing countries may use wind or sea
waves as the environment-friendly energy sources.
Question 31: What is the role of energy to human beings?
A. unimportant B. fundamental
C. unnecessary D. not very necessary
Question 32: What do poor people in countryside do to have energy?
A. They look for coal             B. They look for oil
C.  They gather fuel wood    D. They use gas cookers
Question 33: How long does it take to gather fuel wood in the countryside?
A. A lot of time B. Not much time
C. Very little time D. Half an hour a day
Question 34: According to the passage, what energy sources do poor people often use for fuel?
A.  oil     B. wood B. nuclear energy D. petrol
Question 35: According to the passage, what is the most awful effect of using fuel wood?
A. It may cause fire. B. It damages their houses.
C. It affects the local scenery.D. It causes indoor air pollution
Question 36: What is the main use of biogas?
A. It is used mainly for cooking and heating B. It is mainly used for lighting.
C. It is mainly used for operating. D. It is mainly used for producing in factories.
Question 37: Why, according to the passage, is biogas introduced to poor people?
A. Because it is easy to use
B. Because it is the largest energy resource available in the countryside and cheap
C. Because it is not harmful D. Because they like it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36to 40
 Coal, oil, and natural gas supply modern civilization (36).............with most of its power. However, not
only are supplies of these fuels limited, but they are a major source of pollution. If the energy demands of
the future are to be met without seriously harming the environment, existing (37)........energy sources must
be improved or further explored and developed. These include nuclear, water, solar, wind, and geothermal
power, as well as energy from new, (38)...........   nonpolluting types of fuels. Each of these alternatives,
however, has advantages and disadvantages.
Nuclear power plants efficiently produce large amounts of electricity without polluting the atmosphere;
however, they are costly to build and maintain, and they pose the daunting problem of what to do with
nuclear wastes. Hydroelectric power is (39)........ and environmentally safe, but impractical for communities
located far from moving water. Harnessing energy from tides and waves has similar drawbacks. Solar power
holds great promise for the future but methods of collecting and –concentrating sunlight are as yet
(40).........., as are methods of harnessing wind power.
Question 38: A. on B. for C. with D. of
 Question 39: A. alternate B. alternatively C. alternative D. alter
 Question 40: A. polluted B. pollution C. nonpolluting D. polluting
 Question 41: A. expensively B. inexpensively C. inexpensive D. expensive
 Question 42: A. efficient B. efficiently C. inefficient D. inefficiently
 

Rewrite the sentences as directed (2 points)

Question 43. Students who cheat in the final test will get zero mark. (Reducing Relative clause)
 .........................................................................................................................................................
Question 44. The last person who was interviewed yesterday was Jack. (Reducing Relative clause)
 ............................................................................................................................................................
Question 45. The officers work 8 hours a day. Their salary is too low to support the family.
(Using Relative pronoun )
...............................................................................................................................................................
Question 46. The examination lasted 2 days. I was successful in this exam. (use pre + relative pronoun)
 ..............................................................................................................................................................
Question 47. Sydney is the largest Australian city. It is not the capital of Australia.
(using relative pronoun)
 ..............................................................................................................................................................
Question 48. He’s the criminal. The police are looking for him. (preposition + whom/which)
 ..............................................................................................................................................................
Question 49. The small man was Lisa’s husband. Nobody recognized him. (relative pronoun)
 ..............................................................................................................................................................
Question 50. Ms Kim Anh will be our History teacher next semester. You talked with her yesterday
(omit relative pronoun)
 ..............................................................................................................................................................
 TRƯỜNG THPT THE  MID- 2ND TERM TEST ON ENGLISH
  GRADE 11. SCHOOL YEAR: 2022-2023
  Time allowance: 45 minutes
(40 MCQs)
ĐÁP ÁN
CÂU ĐỀ
1 D
2 A
3 C
4 D
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 D
9 D
10 B
11 B
12 C
13 C
14 A
15 A
16 A
17 C
18 B
19 D
20 C
21 C
22 A
23 D
24 A
25 A
26 D
27 D
28 D
29 D
30 B
31 C
32 D
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 C
37 C
38 C
39 C
40 C