CARDIOVASCULAR AND THORACIC SURGERY

Single choice test

1. Among the following, the risk factor for the development of CHD is:
a)Medication
b) Drugs
c) Hormonal therapy
d) Contraceptives
e) All listed, if they occur during pregnancy
2. In open heart surgeries, the most common acces is:
a)Longitudinal sternotomy
b) Left Thoracotomy
c) Transverse sternotomy
d) Right thoracotomy
e) Access through both pleurae
3. For the wide permeable arterial canal, which of the following auscultatory murmur is
characteristic:
a. Systolic murmur
b. Systolo- diastolic murmur
c. Diastolic murmur
d. Lack of murmu
e. Blow Graham Steel
4. What is observed at the auscultation of sound II at the level of the pulmonary artery in the
presence of the patent ductus arteriosus with pulmonary hypertension?
a. sound II dissociation
b. Sound II accentuation
c. Sound II attenuation
d. Sound II does not change
e. All above
5. Emergency surgery immediately after PDA ligation - is required in the following situation:
a. Horner syndrome
b. The appearance of subcutaneous emphysema
c. Abundant drainage of blood on drain catheter
d. The appearance of air in the pleural cavity
e. Lung lobe atelectasis
6. In the presence of aorto-pulmonary window with small diameter, auscultative we can determined:
a. Systolic murmur
b. Diastolic murmur
c. Systolo-diastolic murmur
d. No murmur is present
e. Systolic murmur on the pulmonary artery
7. In case of a large aorto – pulmonary window, on the pulmonary artery, sound II is:
a. It doesn't change
b. It is weak
c. It is dissociated
d. It is accentuated
e. Missing
8. For VSD with left-right shunt, the overfill is determined in:
a. Right ventricle
b. Left ventricle
c. Both ventricles
d. Right atrium
e. Left atrium
9. Self-closure of VSD is usually possible at the age of:
a. up to 1 year
b. Up to 4 years
c. After 4 years
d. DSV never shuts down on its own
e. At any age
10. The following form of isolated pulmonary artery stenosis is most common:
a) Supravalvular
b) Valvular
c) Subvalvular
d) Combined
e) All of the above
11. The formation of "heart-hump" in patients with VSD and pulmonary hypertension is formed by:
a. Left ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Right atrium
e. All listed
12. In patients with VSD, the dissociation of heart sound II is found in:
a. Pulmonary hypertension
b. Large left - right shunt
c. Shunt reversal
d. Shunt matching
e. It does not depend on the level of pulmonary presion
13. Surgical access to the perimebranous VSD is preferably through:
a. Right ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. The trunk of the pulmonary artery
d. Left ventricle
e. Aorta
14. Of all the types of VSD, the most common is self-closing:
a. Small muscular DSV
b. DSV perimembrane inlet
c Subsortal DSV
d. Subpulmonary VSD
e. DSV double arterial
15. In the presence of the partially open atrioventricular canal, the pulmonary flow is:
a.Decreased
b. Usual
c. Increased by arterial flow
d. There are signs of pulmonary hypertension
e. It has collateral vessels present
16. Anatomically, the partially open atrioventricular canal is characterized by:
a. OS type ASD
b. POF
c. OP type ASD with atrioventricular valve development abnormality
d. VSD
e. Pulmonary vein drainage abnormality
17. Double outlet of right ventricle (DORV) is characterized by:
a. Presence of both vessels with exit from right ventricle
b. Presence of the VSD
c. Lack of the mitro - aortic region
d. Presence of pulmonary hypertension or pulmonary artery stenosis
e. Presence of all those listed above
18. The most common type of single ventricle is:
a. Type A (left ventricle)
b. Type B (right ventricle)
c. Type C (lack of interventricular septum)
d. Type D (represented as infundibular region)
e. All types meet with the same frequency
19. The most common CHD associated with Down syndrome is:
a. Pulmonary artery stenosis
b. Aortic coarctation
c. VSD
d. Atrioventricular canal
e. Pulmonary artery atresia
20. Acyanotic CHD are classified as follows, except:
a. Shunt from left to right
b. Shunt from right to left
c. Obstructive lesions of the left side of the heart
d. Obstructive lesions of the right side of the heart
e. Arteriovenous fistulas
21. The key point in the pathogenesis of acyanotic CHD is:
a.Pulmonary hypoflux
b. Pulmonary hyperflux
c. Obstruction of the right ventricular ejection tract
d. Obstruction of the left ventricular ejection tract
e. The mixture of venous and arterial blood
22. What is the most common form of aortic stenosis?
a. Valvular
b. Subvalvular
c. At the ascending Ao level
d. At the level of the descending Ao
e. At the level of the aortic bulb
23. The following cardioplegic solution is used to stop the heart intraoperatively:
a. Electric shock
b. Beta-blocking drugs
c. Solution with a high content of potassium ions
d. Ca2+ canals blocking drugs
e. Patient cooling
24. Spontaneous restart of the heart occurs due to:
a. Stark-Franklin Law
b. Patient heating
c. Protamine infusion
d. Infusion of solution containing Chlorine ions
e. Connecting to pacemaker
25. For surgical correction of PDA or aortic coarctation, the preferable surgical approach is:
a. Left thoractomy
b. Median sternotomy
c. Right thoractomy
d. Mini sternotomy
e. Thoracoscopy
26. In the Tetralogy of Fallot, the degree of hemodynamic disorders depends on the presence of:
a. Dextraposition of the aorta
b. DSV
c. Narrowing of the pulmonary artery
d. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
e. Left ventricular hypoplasia

27. Tetralogy of Fallot is most commonly characterized by the following location of the VSD:
a. Intratrabecular in the interventricular muscular septum
b. Subtricuspidal
c. Subpulmonary
d. Subaortic
e. Muscular input
28. Which of the following drugs keep the permeable arterial canal open, in case of ductal-
dependent heart defects, by continuous infusion,?
a. Vasoprostan
b. Amphotericin B
c. Indomethacin
d. Captopril
e. Sildenafil
29. Which of the following is not a component of the Tetralogy of Fallot?
a. Subaortic VSD
b. Common atrioventricular valve
c. Displacement of the aorta
d. Right ventricular hypertrophy
e. Stenosis of the right ventricular ejection tract
30. What is the most common cyanogenic CHD?
a. Pulmonary artery atresia
b. The Tetralogy of Fallot
c. Transposition of great arteries
d. Ebstein's disease
e. The common arterial trunk
31. The drug used to prevent hypercyanotic spell is:
a. Captopril
b. Anaprilin
c. Sildenafil
d. Amlodipine
e. Metoprolol
32. What is the specific palliative procedure in case of the transposition of the great arteries?
a. The Rashkind procedure
b. Blalock-Taussing intersystemic anastomosis
c. Arterial switch
d. Pulmonary artery banding
e. Anastomosis Glenn
33. What is the final choice in case of tricuspid valve atresia?
a. Fontan Operation
b. Rashkind procedure
c. Conn
d. Anastomosis Blalock - Taussing
e. None of the above
34. Which of the following characterizes Glenn's bidirectional anastomosis?
a. Anastomosis of the inferior vena cava to the pulmonary artery
b. Anastomosis of the inferior vena cava to the pulmonary vein
c. Anastomosis of the superior vena cava to the pulmonary artery
d. Anastomosis of the inferior vena cava to the anonymous vein
e. Anastomosis of the subclavian artery to the pulmonary artery
35. What characterizes Ebstein's disease?
a. The atresia of the tricuspid valve
b. Mitral valve atresia
c. Placing the mitral valve cusps in different planes
d. Placing the tricuspid valve cusps in different planes
e. Incomplete separation of mitro-tricuspid valves
36. What is the usual choice of intervention for Ebstein's disease?
a. Operation Fontan
b. Rashkind procedure
c. Surgery in cone
d. Anastomosis Blalock - Taussing
e. None of the above
37. The causes of heart defects are:
a. Genetic changes
b. Intrauterine infections
c. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
d. Smoking during pregnancy
e. It is multifactorial
38. The clinical manifestation of chronic hypoxia is:
a. Enlarged cheast
b. Increased oxygenation index
c. „Drum fingers”
d. Hot peripheral limb
e. All listed above
39. Of the primary benign tumors, the most common in adults is:
a. Cardiac myxoma
b. Lipoma
c. Fibroma
d. Rhabdamyoma
e. Myosarcoma
40. Of the primary benign tumors, the most common in chidren is:
a. Cardiac myxoma
b. Lipoma
c. Fibroma
d. Rhabdomyoma
e. Myosarcoma
41. What do the symptoms of heart tumors depend on?
a. Location
b. Gender of the patient
c. Type of tumor
d. Cytological origin
e. Age of the patient
42. The location of the tumor in the endocardium will produce:
a. Rhythm disorders
b. Accumulation of pericardial fluid
c. Obstruction of blood flow
d. Accumulation of pleural fluid
e. Valvulopathies
43. The location of the tumor in the myocardium will produce:
a. Rhythm disorders
b. Accumulation of pericardial fluid
c. Obstruction of blood flow
d. Accumulation of pleural fluid
e. Valvulopathies
44. The location of the tumor in the epicardium will cause:
a. Rhythm disorders
b. Accumulation of pericardial fluid
c. Obstruction of blood flow
d. Accumulation of pleural fluid
e. Valvulopathies
45. The most common location for cardiac myxoma is :
 a. Left atrium
b. Right atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
e. Interventricular septum
46. The imminent danger of cardiac myxoma is:
a. To sink into the aortic valve
b. To be included in the mitral valve
c. Destroying the heart's conduction system
d. Creating symptoms of cardiac hypertrophy
e. None of the statements above are correct
47. Which of the following is a tumor that affects the heart valves?
a.Mixoma
b. Fibroma
c. Fibroelastoma
d. Rhabdomyoma
e. Lipoma
48. The most common location of mediastinal tumors is in:
a. Anterior mediastinum
b. Posterior mediastinum
c. The upper mediastinum
d. The middle mediastinum
e. Mediastinal tumors have an equal distribution in the mediastinal compartments
49. The most common type of mediastinal tumor found in the anterior mediastinum is:
a. Neurogenic tumors
b. The thymoma
c. Myxoma
d. Germ cell tumors
e. Metastases from the thyroid gland
50. The Specific Investigation to determine the presence and location of mediastinal tumors is:
A. Chest X-ray
B. Cardiac ultrasound
C. Simple Computed Tomography of the chest
D. Scintigraphy
E. CT of the chest in angio mode
51. Which one of the following IS Not a symptom of mediastinal tumors:
A. Hoarse voice
B. Cardiac Tamponade
C. Cough
D. Dysphagia
E. Palpitations
52. The most common tumors in the posterior mediastinum are:
A. Benign neurogenic tumors
B. Malignant neurogenic tumors
C. Benign germ cell tumors
D. Malignant germ cell tumors
E. Lymphomas
53. Pulmonary hypertension is the consequence of:
A. Hypovolemia in the small circuit
B. Hypervolemia in the small circuit
C. Hypervolemia in the large circuit
D. Hypovolemia in the large circuit
E. None of the above
54. Normal blood pressure in the heart-to-lung is:
A.5-10 mm Hg
B. 15-20 mm Hg
C. 20-25 mm Hg
D. 30-40 mm Hg
E. 0-5 mm Hg
55. Pulmonary hypertension is defined as follows:
A. Increased average pulmonary arterial pressure more than 25 mm Hg at rest, determined by cardiac
catheterization
B. Increased systolic pulmonary arterial pressure by more than 25 mm Hg on exertion due to cardiac
catheterization
C. Increased mean pulmonary arterial pressure more than 15 mm Hg at rest, determined by cardiac
catheterization
D. Increased mean pulmonary venous pressure more than 25 mm Hg at rest, determined by lung radiography
E. Increased pulmonary venous pressure
56. Which one can be the cause of pulmonary hypertension caused by the pathology of the left side of the
card?
A. Insufficiency of the tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve stenosis
C. Ebstein's disease
D. Atrial septal defect
E. Transposition of great arteries
57. The homografts are:
A. Taken from the patient concerned
B. Taken from human corpses
C. Made of porcine pericardium
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
58. The folowing are causes of acute aortic insufficiency, except:
A. Acute endocarditis
B. Aortic dissection
C. Marfan's disease
D. Syphilitic aortitis
E. Chest trauma
59. In the evolution of an acute myocardial infarction, the appearance of a holosystolic murmur „in the
wheel spokes” is suggestive of:
A. Ischemic mitral regurgitation
B. Right ventricular infarction associated with a lower infarction
C. Rupture of the ventricular free wall
D. Rupture of the interventricular septum
E. Pulmonary embolism with severe tricuspid regurgitation
60. Which are the three predisposing factors for venous thrombosis, described by Virchow?
A. lower limb edema, hypercoagulability, stasis;
B. local trauma of the vessel wall, pregnancy, hypercoagulability;
C. local trauma of the vessel wall, hypercoagulability, stasis;
D. obesity, hypercoagulability, pregnancy;
E. pregnancy, stasis, hypercoagulability.
61. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Seldinger puncture arteriography is most commonly done by brachial artery puncture
B. Renal impairment is not a contraindication for arteriography
C. The femoral path is preferable when the pulses in the femurs are weak or absent.
D. Direct puncture of a vascular prosthesis is preferred.
E. Cross-over arteriography is indicated in the absence of a pulse in the contralateral femur.
62. In order to save the extremity in optimal conditions, the period of time between the onset of ischemia
and the beginning of the treatment (respectively in the restoration of arterial flow) must be shorter than:
A. 1-2 hours
B. 4-6 hours
C. 6-8 hours
D. 10-12 hours
E. 12-24 hours
63. Given the fact that in most patients who have suffered vascular injury the collateral circulation is poorly
developed (patients are rather young, with normal arteries) -irreversible ischemia occurs:
A. Earlier
B. Later
C. Cannot appear
D. As a result of muscle mass trauma
E. As a result of nerve damage
64. A number of factors directly influence the prognosis in vascular treatments, with the exception of:
A. The period of time between the moment of the trauma and the appropriate therapeutic intervention.
B. Young age
C. Anatomical location
D. Associated bone lesions
E. Associated nerve damage.
65. Which of the following statements is false:
A. In vascular trauma, aerteriography is the most accurate diagnostic procedure for diagnosing a vascular
lesion.
B. Negative arteriography excludes an arterial lesion in a patient with equivocal signs
C. Arteriography specifies the exact location, nature and extent of the vascular lesion (s) for treatment.
D. Arteriography is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients
E. Intraoperative atheroscopy is preferred.
66. Therapeutic attitude in case of arterial lesions associated with other lesions involves the following,
except:
A. If the arterial lesion is associated with a venous lesion, the last one will generally be resolved first.
B. In case of association of bone lesions, the vascular lesion will be resolved first, regardless of the
severity of the ischemia.
C. Life-threatening associated lesions are among the few indications for ligation and not for arterial repair.
D. indication for amputation is represented by bone loss over 6 cm
E. The presence of shock or associated multiple lesions are relative indications for amputation.
67. The first therapeutic step in acute ischemia due to embolism should be:
A. Administration of a bolus of heparin
B. Heating of the ischemic limb
C. Perform the embolectomy as soon as possible.
D. Administration of strong analgesics such as morphine or pethidine
E. Administration of mannitol along with alkalinization of urine to prevent acute renal failure.
68. Select the false statement:
A. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia has a good vital and functional prognosis
B. Thrombocytopenia occurs in 1-2% of heparin treatments, usually between the 5th and 7th day and is
manifested by venous or arterial thrombotic phenomena
C. Mechanism of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is immunoallergic
D. The risk of thrombocytopenia is similar for all types of heparin
E. The first therapeutic action in heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is to stop the administration
69. The treatment with Antagonists of Vit. K is contraindicated in the following situations, except:
A. In case of hemorrhagic diathesis
B. Malignant hypertension
C. If the psycho-social context of the patient does not allow adequate supervision of treatment
D. At age <75 years
E. At age> 75 years
70. Which of the following statements is false?
A. The main determinant of the long-term permeability of a graft is the condition of the peripheral vascular
bed
B. The 5-year permeability of a femuropopliteal graft exceeds 90%
C. The 5-year permeability of an aortofemoral graft exceeds 90%
D. Extra-anatomical bypass is a procedure used in high-risk patients and is intended to avoid major intra-
abdominal intervention
E. The best long-term patent is observed when using venous grafts
71. The choice of vascular graft does not take into consideration:
A. The diameter of the native vessel to be replaced or bypassed
B. The presence of infection
C. Crossing or not of an articular region
D. Availability or not of an autogenous duct
E. The cost of a synthetic graft
72. In cases of aortic-iliac disease with severe ischemia, the following are present, except:
A. declivity erythrosis
B. pallor when lifting the limb
C. trophic changes in the skin of the foot and leg
D. Presence of peripheral pulse
E. Absence of peripheral pulse
73. The term critical limb ischemia is defined by:
A. Continuous resting pain requiring analgesia lasting more than two weeks
B. Ischemic ulcer
C. Gangrene of the foot
D. Systolic pressure at the ankle greater than 50 mmHg
E. Ankle systolic pressure less than 50 mmHg
74. What is the correct strategy in compartment syndrome:
A. faciotomy
B. myomectomy
C. drainage
D. compression
E. observation
75. The most common complication of arterial revascularization is:
A. reperfusion edema
B. infection
C. paresthesia
D. dermatoscelrosis
E. none of the above
76. When can we exclude the compartment syndrome?
A. compartment pressure> 30-35 mmHg
B. compartment pressure 10-15 mmHg
C. combined arterial-venous trauma
D. massive edema
E. absence of capillary flow
77. Which of the following investigation is the most accurate in detecting lower limb artery axis injuries:
A. magnetic resonance angiography
B. computed tomography
C. Seldinger puncture arteriography
D. venography
E. lymphography
78. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute traumatic ischemia of the lower limbs:
A. fungal aneurysm
B. closed traumas
C. open trauma
D. aortic dissection.
E. arterial spasm.
79. Which of the following statements about superficial thrombophlebitis are false:
A. can be caused by trauma
B. Superficial thrombophlebitis is found in a number of malignancies
C. may be migratory in Buerger's disease
D. Is most often complicated by pulmonary embolism
E. Thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast (Mondor's disease) is a very rare entity.
80. Treatment with oral anticoagulants in deep vein thrombosis shall be conducted according to:
A. INR
B. Howel time
C. Bleeding time
D. The value of antithrombin III
E. APTT
81. In fetal circulation: How many umbilical arteries are present in the fetus?
A.1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
82. In fetal circulation: How many umbilical veins are present in the fetus?
A. 1
B. 2
C.3
D. 4
E. 5
83. In the fetal circulation: Where do umbilical arteries in the fetus originate from?
A. Aorta
B. The iliac arteries
C. Left ventricle
D. Left atrium
E. Renal arteries
84. How does most of the blood in the umbilical vein bypass (avoid) the liver?
A. Directly through the inferior vena cava
B. The venous duct
C. Vein hemiazigos
D. Vena azigos
E. Upper vena cava
85. In the fetal circulation: the blood in the inferior vena cava directed to the left atrium through the patent
oval foramen by which anatomical entity?
A. The tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Eustachian's valve
D. Thebesius' valve
E. Aortic valve
86. In the fetal circulation: what determinates the direction of blood flow through the arterial duct?
A. Age of the fetus in the intrauterine period
B. The anatomical position of the arterial duct
C. Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
D. Low oxygen concentration in the right ventricle
E. Good function of the tricuspid valve.
87. What anatomical structures connect the chordae tendineae of the mitral valve?
A. Papillary muscles with mitral valve cusps
B. Myocardium of the left ventricle with the mitral valve cusps
C. Papillary muscles with mitral valve ring
D. Myocardial left ventricle with mitral valve ring
E. Mitral valve ring with mitral valve cusps
88. Which coronary artery can be damaged by placing sutures on the mitral valve ring in cardiac surgery?
A. Anterior descending artery
B. Circumflex artery
C. Right coronary artery
D. Left coronary artery
E. Descending posterior artery
89. What is the main function of the chordae tendineae?
A. Prevents the prolapse of cusps during ventricular systole
B. Prevents the prolapse of cusps during atrial systole
C. Prevents the prolapse of cusps during ventricular diastole
D. Prevents systolic dysfunction of the atrium
E. Prevents valve ring dysfunction.
90. Which of the following coronary arteries pass around the anterior ring of the tricuspid valve in the
anterior atrioventricular sulcus?
A. Anterior descending artery
B. Circumflex artery
C. Right coronary artery
D. Left coronary artery
E. Descending posterior artery
91. Which coronary artery can be damaged when sutures are placed on the ring of the tricuspid valve in
cardiac surgery?
A. Anterior descending artery
B. Circumflex artery
C. Right coronary artery
D. Left coronary artery
E. Descending posterior artery
92. What anatomical-functional structure can be damaged when sutures are placed in the region of the
apex of the Koch triangle?
A. Damage to the right coronary artery
B. Injury to the atrioventricular node
C. Damage to the circumflex artery
D. Coronary sinus injury
E. Damage to the sinoatrial node
93. Which of the following is the surgical approach to the tricuspid valve?
A. Left atriotomy
B. Right atriotomy
C. Septotomy
D. Right ventriculotomy
E. Left ventriculotomy
94. Which of the illustrious surgeons, considered that "the surgeon who decides to apply a suture on the
heart risks losing the esteem of his colleagues"?
A. Theodor Billroth
B. Ludwig Rehn
C. Friedrich Trendelenburg
D. Mr. Robert Gross
E. Alfred Blalock
95. Who applied the first suture on the heart (officially recognized)?
A. Åke Senning
B. Ludwig Rehn
C. Robert Gross
D. Mr. Alain Carpentier
E. René Favaloro
96. Who first described the operation for pulmonary embolectomy in 1908?
A. Friedrich Trendelenburg
B. Robert Gross
C. Alain Carpentier
D. René Favaloro
E. Alfred Blalock
97. Who of the following performed the first removal (resection) of Aortic Aneurysm in 1931?
A.C.W. Lillehem
B. Robert Gross
C. Emil Karl Frey
D. Ferdinand Sauerbruch
E. Dwight Harken
98. Who of the following performed the surgical closure of the Botallo duct (PDA) in 1938?
A.Emil Karl Frey in Düsseldorf and Robert Gross in Boston
B. Friedrich Trendelenburg in Berlin and Henry T. Bahnson in Pittsburgh
C. Henry Swan in Denver and Ernst Derra in Düsseldorf
D. Åke Senning in Stockholm and Dwight Harken in Boston
E. Albert Starr in Portland and Alain Carpentier in France.
49. By which surgeon was performed the first intersystemic vascular anastomosis in 1944?
A. Friedrich Trendelenburg
B. Robert Gross
C. Alain Carpentier
D. René Favaloro
E. Alfred Blalock
99. Who has applied general hypothermia to the body - to correct congenital heart malformation for the
purpose of prophylaxis of cerebral hypoxia?
A. Emil Karl Frey in Düsseldorf and Robert Gross in Boston
B. Friedrich Trendelenburg in Berlin and Henry T. Bahnson in Pittsburgh
C. Henry Swan in Denver and Ernst Derra in Düsseldorf
D. Åke Senning in Stockholm and Dwight Harken in Boston
E. Albert Starr in Portland and Alain Carpentier in France
100. Who is considered the founder of open heart operations?
A. C.W. Lillehei
B. Robert Gross
C. Emil Karl Frey
D. Ferdinand Sauerbruch
E. Dwight Harken
101. The first pacemaker was implanted in 1958 by?
A. Åke Senning
B. Ludwig Rehn
C. Robert Gross
D. Alain Carpentier
E. René Favaloro
102. The first anastomosis between the internal mammary artery and the anterior interventricular branch
was applied in 1967 by?
A. A.P. Kolessov
B. Robert Gross
C. Alain Carpentier
D. René Favaloro
E. Alfred Blalock
103. The first heart transplant was performed in?
A. United States of America
B. Germany
C. South Africa
D. India
E. China
104. What degree of severity of the disease in aortic stenosis indicates an average pressure gradient of 45
mm Hg?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Critical
E. Unimportant degree
105. Which structural change of the heart is most commonly associated with any patient with aortic
stenosis, regardless the etiology?
A. Dilation of the left ventricular cavities
B. Concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle
C. Left atrial hypertrophy
D. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
E. Dilation of the left atrium
106. What concomitant cardiac pathology can be detected in the patient with aortic stenosis of rheumatic
etiology?
A. Stenosis of the tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve stenosis
C. Mitral valve insufficiency
D. Pulmonary artery valve stenosis
E. Pathology of the pericardium
107. What is the mechanism or the etiology of angina symptoms in aortic stenosis?
A. The need for oxygen in the myocardium is bigger than the supply of oxygen
B. Hypotension in the ascending aorta
C. Extravascular compression of the coronary arteries
D. Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries
E. Poststenotic dilation of the ascending aorta.
108. What is the classical mechanism or the etiology of syncope symptoms in aortic stenosis?
A. Brain hypoperfusion due to low cardiac output
B. Ventricular arrhythmia
C. Atrial arrhythmia
D. Vasovagal syncope
E. Bradyarrhythmia
109. What is the first-line treatment for a symptomatic patient with severe aortic stenosis?
A. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
B. Beta - blockers
C. Diuretics
D. Spironolactone
E. Aortic valve replacement
110. Which of the following treatments should not be delayed in acute aortic valve failure?
A. Drugs that reduce post-pregnancy
B. Beta-blocking preparations
C. Surgical treatment
D. Applying the counterpulsation balloon
E. Inotropic drugs
111. Does chronic aortic insufficiency of rheumatic etiology have one of the following characteristics?
A. Dystrophic involvement of the aortic valve and / or aortic ring and / or ascending aorta
B. It is the most common etiology in industrialized countries
C. The valves are thickened, then calcified, the commissures fuse, retract, and their mobility is
diminished
D. It is associated with the aortic bicuspid
E. It occurs frequently in Marfan syndrome
112. Corrigan's pulse which is characteristic of severe chronic aortic insufficiency, is defined by?
A. Systolic swelling and rapid diastolic collapse of the carotid artery in the orthostatic patient
B. Turgor of the jugular veins
C. Capillary pulsation determined at the tips of the fingers or lips
D. Decreased pulsation on the femoral arteries
E. Visualization of apex shock
113. Quincke's pulse, described in severe chronic aortic insufficiency, is characterized by?
A. Systolic swelling and rapid diastolic collapse of the carotid artery in the orthostatic patient
B. Turgor of the jugular veins
C. Capillary pulsation determined at the tips of the fingers or lips
D. Decreased pulsation on the femoral arteries
E. Visualization of apex shock