Cambridge International AS & A Level: Business 9609/22 February/March 2022
Cambridge International AS & A Level: Business 9609/22 February/March 2022
BUSINESS 9609/22
Paper 2 Data Response February/March 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 60
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
• The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
• If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
• Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
• Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
Knowledge Marks
A correct definition 2
No creditable content 0
Content
• One mark for understanding of the concept of aims and values (mission)
• One mark for understanding that it defines a company or organisation’s
reason for being (statement)
Content
All members of the business (1) take part in the decision-making process,
often by voting (1). If Rehana is a democratic leader then she will ask for the
local artists to help her make decisions (1).
1(b)(i) Refer to table 1.1. Calculate the acid test ratio for RR. 3
*May be implied
Rationale Marks
Formula*/attempt to calculate 1
No creditable content 0
CA 1 Attempt to correctly
CL calculate using one correct
figure (CL).
14 000
= 1.75:1
8000
1(b)(i)
Answer Mark Rationale
= 4:1 (400%)
=4
0 No creditable content 0
Content
Indicative content
AO1 Knowledge and understanding
AO2 Application
• Context of RR.
• Use of Table 1.1
1(b)(ii)
Exemplar Mark Rationale
1(c) Analyse two benefits for RR of having a unique selling point (USP). 8
Knowledge and
Analysis
Level Application Marks Marks
(4 marks)
(4 marks)
0 No creditable content
AO2 Application
• RR is a sole trader / small business and is likely to have limited resources
• RR makes unique vases and glassware products
• RR’s mission statement ‘to make waste beautiful’.
• Markets products as ‘lovely for the planet, lovely for you’.
• RR has a strong local brand image.
• RR’s USP is recycling waste (assumption can be made that no other
competitors do this).
• RR employs two local artists, who are environmentally aware.
• Employees are skilled.
• RR uses job production.
• Table 1.1.
• Demand has grown and Rehana needs to increase output.
• Rehana wants to increase output by either employing more artists or
changing to batch production.
Annotation
Annotation
Analysis and
Marks
Marks
Knowledge and
Evaluation
Application (4 marks)
(7 marks)
Justified evaluation 7
Developed evaluation 6
EVAL + EVAL
based on argument in
context.
An evaluative 5
statement based on EVAL
argument in context.
1(d)
Annotation
Annotation
Analysis and
Marks
Marks
Knowledge and
Evaluation
Application (4 marks)
(7 marks)
AN + AN
job/batch production job/batch production
K+K
Shows one piece of 1 Limited analysis of one 1
AN
knowledge about factor influencing
K
No creditable content
Content
AO2 Application
• RR is a sole trader / small business and is likely to have limited resources
• RR makes unique vases and glassware products
• RR’s mission statement ‘to make waste beautiful’.
• Markets products as ‘lovely for the planet, lovely for you’.
• RR has a strong local brand image.
• RR’s USP is recycling waste (assumption can be made that no other
competitors do this).
• RR employs two local artists, who are environmentally aware.
• Employees are skilled.
• RR uses job production.
• Table 1.1.
• Demand has grown and Rehana needs to increase output.
• Rehana wants to increase output by either employing more artists or
changing to batch production.
For batch:
• will meet the increase in demand boosting revenue
• The only way to cost effectively increase her output
• Costs of recruiting skilled artists may be too expensive
Against batch:
• Amount of raw materials (waste bottles) available may not be sufficient
for expansion
• Impact on recent marketing focusing on USP may be negative
• Batch production/machinery skills of two local artists/herself may not be
sufficient leading to waste
• Amount of liquidity available for investment (0.25:1 acid test ratio) may be
too low for investment
For job:
• Maintain USP of RR
• Utilise skilled workers who are already employed by RR
Against job:
• High cost of skilled workers
• High unit cost for production of handmade products
• May not be able to meet demand
AO4 Evaluation
• A recommendation about a whether RR should introduce batch
production (or not).
• A judgement over the relative suitability of production methods.
• Elements that the recommendation/judgement could depend upon.
• Weighing up of the impacts on RR of the change.
• Weighing up of the likely advantages/disadvantages of batch production.
Knowledge Marks
A correct definition 2
No creditable content 0
Content
Content
The least amount of inputs (1) to make the maximum output (1) to reduce
waste (1)
2(b)(i) Refer to Table 2.1 and other information. Calculate BB’s total annual 3
cost if it uses the proposed new machinery.
Rationale Marks
No creditable content 0
Content
0 No creditable content 0
Indicative content
AO1 Knowledge and understanding
AO2 Application
Knowledge and
Analysis
Level Application Marks Marks
(4 marks)
(4 marks)
0 No creditable content
Content
AO3 Analysis
Disadvantages could include;
• Increased labour turnover; increase in BB’s recruitment costs – may
mean that producing beds for the online market, where profit margins are
lower, is unprofitable.
• Increased recruitment costs; increase in BB’s FC’s – may reduce the
impact of the 10% saving of the new machinery and make the business
unprofitable.
• Increased training costs; lowers the ability of BB to compete in the online
market – BB cannot take advantage of this growing market.
• Decreased efficiency; less beds being produced – may mean that BB
cannot match the demands of the growing online market and lose market
share.
• Increased trade union action; may lead to industrial action – reduce
productivity so that BB cannot produce enough to meet the online
demand and sales fall.
Annotation
Annotation
Analysis and
Marks
Marks
Knowledge and
Evaluation
Application (4 marks)
(7 marks)
A justified 7
recommendation based
A developed 6
EVAL + EVAL
recommendation based
on developed
arguments
A basic 5
EVAL
recommendation based
on developed
arguments
2(d)
Annotation
Annotation
Analysis and
Marks
Marks
Knowledge and
Evaluation
Application (4 marks)
(7 marks)
AN + AN
K+K
producer (B2B) market consumer (B2C) market
and limited analysis of
focussing on the
producer (B2B) market
AN
K
or limited analysis of
focussing on the
producer (B2B) market
No creditable content
Content
AO3 Analysis
For B2C
• B2C online sales increasing
• Hotels want to reduce prices
• No increase in demand from hotels
For B2B
• A constant demand from hotels aids planning
• Less marketing needed for hotels
• Limited bed range may increase production as less downtime needed for
repurposing machines
AO4 Evaluation
• A recommendation about a whether RR should focus on the consumer
(B2C) or producer (B2B) market.
• A judgement over the relative suitability of each market.
• Elements that the recommendation/judgement could depend upon.
• Weighing up of the impacts on choosing a market.
• Weighing up of the likely advantages/disadvantages of each market.