Answers & Solutions JEE (Main) - 2023 (Online) Phase-2: Memory Based
Answers & Solutions JEE (Main) - 2023 (Online) Phase-2: Memory Based
Answers & Solutions JEE (Main) - 2023 (Online) Phase-2: Memory Based
Morning
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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.
(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
PHYSICS
4. Two bodies having same linear momentum have
SECTION - A
ratio of kinetic energy as 16 : 9. Find the ratio of
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 masses of these bodies.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices 9 4
(1) (2)
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 16 3
0 0
M R 2 0
3
6. The work function for two metals are 9 eV and
(3) (4) 4.5 eV. Find the approx. difference between their
threshold wavelengths. (Use hC = 1240 eV–nm)
(1) 138 nm (2) 130 nm
Answer (1) (3) 112 nm (4) 145 nm
Sol. d = T.E – P.E Answer (1)
= K.E ( Total energy is conserved) 1240 1240
Sol. = − nm
4.5 9
1
= m2 ( A2 − x 2 ) 7. In the given figure, find the speed of bird as seen
2
by fish.
3. A dipole of charge 0.01 C and separation 0.4 mm,
is placed in an electric field of strength 10 dyne/C.
Find the maximum torque exerted on the dipole in
the field.
(1) 4 × 10–9 Nm (2) 2 × 10–10 Nm
(3) 4 × 10–10 Nm (4) 2 × 10–9 Nm
Answer (3)
Sol. P = 0.01 × 0.4 × 10–3 = 4 × 10–6 cm
E = 10 × 10–5 N
| | = | P E |= 4 10−6 10 10−5 = 4 10−10 Nm
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
(1) 24 m/s (2) 16 m/s 10. For the given radioactive decay
(3) 20 m/s (4) 12 m/s ⎯⎯→ 294
92Y + 2 + Q-value ,
298 4
94 X
Answer (1)
binding energy per nucleon of X, Y and are a, b
v b/f −8 ( −12 )
Sol. = + and c. The Q-value is equal to
4 4 1
3 3 (1) (294b + 4c – 298a) (2) (92b + 2c – 94a)
8. Select increasing order of power consumption. (3) (294b + 4c + 298a) (4) (92b + 2c + 94a)
Answer (1)
Sol. Q-value = (B.E.)product – (B.E.)reaction
11. Energy of He+ in 2nd orbit is –13.6 eV then energy
of Be+++ in n = 4.
(1) – 3.4 eV (2) – 27.2 eV
(3) – 13.6 eV (4) – 54.4 eV
Answer (3)
(1) P1 < P2 < P4 < P3
Z2
(2) P3 < P4 < P1 < P2 Sol. E = −13.6 eV
n2
(3) P4 < P3 < P1 < P2
22
(4) P2 < P1 < P4 < P3 For He+ (Z = 2, n = 2), E = −13.6 2 eV
2
Answer (4)
Sol. Suppose battery of emf is applied across each = –13.6 eV
circuit.
42
For Be+++ (Z = 4, n = 4), E = −13.6 2 eV
2
2
2
4
P1 = = = 0.67
Req 3R R
2 = – 13.6 eV
12. A line charge of linear charge density and a large
2 2 2
P2 = = = 0.33 non-conducting sheet of charge density are
Req 3R R
placed parallel to each other as shown. Find ratio
2 2 2 of electric field at A to that at B.
P3 = = =3
Req R R
3
2 2 2
P4 = = = 1.5
Req 2R R
3
Increasing order is → P2 < P1 < P4 < P3 3 − 3 4 − 3
4 + 4 3 − 4
(1) (2)
9. Pressure for polytropic process P varies with
volume V as P = aV–3, find out the bulk modulus. 2 − 4 3 − 4
3 − 3 2 − 3
(3) (4)
(1) 3V (2) 3P
(3) P (4) V Answer (2)
Answer (2)
Sol. P = aV–3 −
3 20
20
dP
= −3aV −4
E
Sol. A =
dV EB
−
4 20
−V
dP
dV
( )
= 3aV −3 = (3P ) 20
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
13. Which of the following show time varying magnetic Sol. v A = − 3 ˆj m/s
field?
aA = 9iˆ m/s2
(1) Linearly varying
(2) Permanent magnet
(3) Antenna signal
(4) Constant electric field
Answer (3)
Sol. Antenna signal carries sinusoidal EM wave where
E and B both varying with time. 16. The input signal is given below for the circuit
3H 7H
(3) (4)
4 8
Answer (1)
H / 2 H / 2 5H
Sol. dapp = + = (2)
4/3 2 8
15. If a particle is moving in a uniform circular motion of
radius 1 m, is having velocity 3 jˆ m/s at point B.
What are the velocity ( v ) and acceleration ( a ) at
diametrically opposite point A.
(3)
(1) v A = 3 jˆ m/s
aA = −9iˆ m/s2
(2) v A = − 3 ˆj m/s
aA = + 9 ˆj m/s2
V 2
Sol. P0 = 0
AA = (2R )2 + ( R )2 R
1
2
1
(
mv 2 = m2 A2 − x 2 = 200
2
)
1 K
m ( 0.16 − 0.12 ) = 200
2 m
400
K= = 10000 N/m
19. 0.04
20.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
P =
1
2
(
602 − 102 )
Sol.
1
1 1 = 1000 ( 3600 − 100 )
L = ICOM and K = ICOM 2 + Mv 02 2
2 2
3500
2 = 1000
2 v 1 2 v 1 2
L = MR 2 0 K = MR 2 02 + Mv 02
5 R 25 R 2
= 175 × 104
2MRv 0 7
L= K= Mv 02 26. Train A of length l is moving with speed 108 km/hr.
5 10
Another train B of length 4l is moving parallel to
L 4R 4 22
Ratio = = = 7 = 4 train A with speed 72 km/hr. They both move
K 7 v 0 22 7 22
through a tunnel of length 60l and train B takes
24. If m = 5 + 0.2 and v = 20 + 0.4, calculate percentage
35 s more time than train A to pass through the
error in measurement of K.E.
tunnel, if they enter the tunnel simultaneously. Find
Answer (8)
the length (in m) of tunnel.
0.2
Sol. % error in m = 100 = 4%
5 Answer (1575)
𝑙+60𝑙 4𝑙+60𝑙
0.4 Sol. 𝑡𝐴 = , 𝑡𝐵 =
% error in v = 100 = 2% 30 20
20
Also, tB – tA = 35
1
% error in mv 2 = (% error in m) + 2 (% error in v) 64𝑙
−
61𝑙
= 35
2 20 30
= 4 + 2 (2) = 8% 𝑙 ≈ 30𝑚
25. Water is flowing inside the conical type tube having Length of tunnel = 60(𝑙) = 1800𝑚
ratio of area of cross-section 6 : 1. If the speed of
water outlet through smaller area is 60 m/s, then the 27.
pressure difference across these two cross-section
28.
is x × 104 Pa, find the value of x. (Assume
incompressible fluid, density of water = 1000 kg/m3) 29.
30.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
CHEMISTRY
4. What is the major product formed in the following
SECTION - A
reaction
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
CH3 — (CH2 )4 — CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Anhy. AlCl3
HCl,
→ Major product
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
O2 + O ⎯⎯
→ O3
Answer (3)
CF2Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯
→ Cl + CF2Cl
UV
Sol. n-Alkanes on heating in this presence of anhydrous
AlCl3 and hydrogen chloride gas isomerise to
Cl + O3 ⎯⎯
→ ClO + O2
branched chain alkanes. The major product has
ClO + O ⎯⎯
→ Cl + O2 one methyl side chain.
2. In which of the following option the species changes
from paramagnetic to diamagnetic and bond order
increases?
(1) N2 → N2+
5. Which one of the following shows incorrect method
(2) O2 → O2–
2 of refining?
(3) NO → NO+ (1) Zinc : Liquation
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
(1) Both ring will be 5-membered 9. Which one of the following compounds has the
(2) Both ring will be 6-membered highest dipole moment?
(3) One ring is 5-membered and other is
6-membered (1) (2)
(4) One of the rings is 4-membered
Answer (2)
(3) (4)
Sol.
Answer (2)
Sol. Among the given compounds, the following
compound has the highest dipole moment because
both the +ve and –ve ends acquire aromaticity.
Answer (3)
Sol.
Eu : [Xe] 4f 7 6s2 Exceptionlly high IE due to half 11. Incorrect statement about Borazine is
Sol. y
filled & full filled configurations
14 2
Yb : [Xe] 4f 6s (1) It has Banana shape bonds
(2) It has electron delocalisation
8. ClF5 exist in which state at room temperature? (3) It reacts with water
(1) Gaseous state and square pyramidal, (4) Cyclic in nature
colourless Answer (1)
(2) Liquid state and trigonal bipyramidal, Sol. Borazine is B3N3H6
colourless
(3) Gaseous state and trigonal bipyramidal,
colourless
(4) Liquid state and square pyramidal, colourless
Answer (4)
Sol. ClF5 is a colourless liquid with square pyramidal
structure. Hence the correct option is (4).
[Reference : NCERT] Banana bonds are not present in B3N3H6.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
12. Match the Column-I and Column-II Answer (3)
Sol. Thermosphere : From 85 to ~ 700 km from sea
Column-I Column-II
level
A Nylon-6 1 Caprolactum Mesosphere : From 50 to 85 km from sea level
Stratosphere : From 10 – 50 km from sea level
B Natural rubber 2 Chloroprene
Troposphere : Upto 10 km from sea level
C Vulcanized rubber 3 Isoprene
15. Energy of first Bohr orbit E1 is –2.18 × 10–18 J, then
D Neoprene 4 Sulfur find energy of third Bohr orbit for hydrogen
containing (1) 3E1 (2) 9E1
rubber
E1 E1
(1) A → 1; B → 3; C → 4; D → 2 (3) (4)
9 27
(2) A → 1; B → 2; C → 4; D → 3
Answer (3)
(3) A → 4; B → 3; C → 1; D → 2
Z2
(4) A → 2; B → 3; C → 4; D → 1 Sol. E3 = −2.18 10−18
n2
Answer (1)
E1 E1
Sol. Nylon-6 – Caprolactum E3 = 2
=
(3) 9
Natural rubber – Isoprene
16. Which one of the following is the best method for
Vulcanized rubber – Sulfur containing rubber
the removal of hardness of water?
Neoprene – Chloroprene
(1) Boiling
13. Consider a reaction.
(2) Treatment with washing soda
Be(OH)2 + Sr(OH)2 ⎯→ Product
(3) Permutit process
Incorrect statement regarding the product is
(4) Synthetic resin method
(1) Be is tetrahedrally bonded in the product
(2) Be forms cationic part Answer (4)
(3) It is an acid-base reaction Sol. Boiling of hard water removes temporary hardness
only. Treatment with washing soda as well as
(4) Be(OH)2 acts as a Lewis acid permutit process are useful in removing Ca2+ and
Answer (2) Mg2+ ions from hard water but do not remove Cl–
Sol. Be(OH)2 + Sr(OH)2 ⎯→ Sr2+[Be(OH)4]2– and SO2- 4 ions. Synthetic resin method enables us
As Be is present in the anionic part, option (2) is to remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions as well as Cl– and
incorrect. SO2-4 ions. Therefore, synthetic resin method is the
14. Following two columns are given best method to remove hardness of water.
Column I Column II i. HCN
17. Glyceraldehyde A +B
(a) Troposphere (p) From 10 to 50 km ii. H3 O+
from sea level
iii HNO3
(b) Stratosphere (q) Upto 10 km from sea
level Then select the correct option about the product A
(c) Mesosphere (R) From 85 km to 100 and B
km from sea level (1) Both are optically active
(d) Thermosphere (s) From 50 km to 85 km (2) Both are optically inactive
from sea level
(1) a(p); b(q); c(r); d(s) (3) One is optically active and another is optically
inactive
(2) a(r); b(s); c(p); d(q)
(3) a(q); b(p); c(s); d(r) (4) None of these
(4) a(s); b(r); c(p); d(q) Answer (3)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
Sol
Sol. (I)
(II)
(1)
(2)
(I)
(4)
(II)
Answer (3)
and identify the correct statement.
Sol.
(1) In reaction (I), mechanism is SN1 and the 20.
SECTION - B
product is Numerical Value Type Questions: This section contains
10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five questions out
(2) In reaction (II), mechanism is SN1 and the of 10. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical
product is value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30,
(3) In reaction (I), mechanism is SN2 and the 30.27, –27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
product is 21. Radius of 2nd orbit of He is r0. Radius of 4th orbit
of Be+3 is xr0.
(4) In reaction (II), mechanism is SN2 and the
Find x.
product is Answer (02.00)
(4)
Answer (2) Sol. r0 = 0.529
2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
= 0.529 × 2 Å 8 8
x= = 5.63
2
(3 − 8) 1.42
(4)
rBe+3 = 0.529
4 25. A solution is isotonic with glucose having
1/2 27.
1
24. If 1 + v av = vrms , then x is (Nearest integer)
x 28.
1 8
1 + = 3
x
8x + 8 = 3x
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A dy
3. If = y + 7 & y (0) = 0, then the value of y(1) =
dx
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1) 7(e – 1) (2) 2(e – 1)
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (3) 7e (4) None of these
Choose the correct answer: Answer (1)
1. Find the sum of series
dy
2 × 22 – 2 × 32 + 2 × 42 ………. (20 terms) Sol. = dx
y +7
(1) 462 (2) –462
log| y + 7 | = x + c
(3) 460 (4) –460
Answer (4) y(0) = 0
3 =
7!
= 42 1 1
Sol. 1 1 1 1 1 4 5. If 3f ( x ) + 2f = – 10, then f(3) =
5! x x
7! (2) –3
1 1 1 1 3 3 2 = = 105 (1) 2
4! 2!
(3) –4 (4) None of these
7!
2 2 2 3 1 1 1 = = 140 Answer (2)
3! 3!
1 1
7! Sol. 3f ( x ) + 2f = – 10 ...(i)
2 2 2 2 2 1 1 = = 21 x x
5! 2!
1
7! x→
1 1 1 1 4 2 2 = = 105 x
4! 2!
1
Total = 413 3f + 2f ( x ) = x – 10 ...(ii)
x
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
3(i) – 2(ii) (1) ~(A B)
3 (2) ~A
9f ( x ) – 4f ( x ) = – 30 – 2 x + 20
x (3) A
3 (4) None of these
5f ( x ) = – 2 x – 10
x Answer (2)
x=3 Sol. Let P = (((A (B C)) (B C)) A
5f(3) = 1 – 6 –10 = –15
P = ~(((A (B C)) (B C)) A
f(3) = –3
= ~((~(A (B C)) (B C)) A
6. Find area bounded by the curves y = max {sinx,
= ((A (B C) (B C)) A
cosx} and x-axis between x = – and x =
=A
(1) 2 + 2 (2) 2 2
PA
(3) 1 + 2 (4) 4 ~P ~A
Answer (4) 1
8. f ( x ) = x – 2sin x cos x +
sin3 x, x [0, ] then
3
maximum value of f(x) is
5 3 1
Sol. (1) + + (2) 0
6 2 3
5 3 1 5
(3) + – (4)
6 2 3 6
Answer (1)
1
Sol. f ( x ) = x – sin2 x + sin3 x
3
Area enclosed = f ( x ) = 1– 2cos2x + cos3 x = 0
3𝜋 𝜋
− −
4 𝜋 2 5
x= ,
= || ∫ sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 || + |∫ sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 | + | ∫ cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 | 6 6
𝜋 3𝜋
−𝜋
4 −
4 f(x) = 4sin2x – 3sin3x
𝜋
4 5
f(x) at is < 0
+ | ∫ cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 | 6
−
𝜋
5
2 is point of maxima
−
3𝜋
−
𝜋 6
= |(− cos 𝑥)−𝜋4 | + |(− cos 𝑥)𝜋𝜋 | + |(sin 𝑥) 2
3𝜋 |
4 −
4 5 5 3 1
𝜋 f = + +
6 6 2 3
+ |(sin 𝑥) 4 𝜋 |
−
If a = 2iˆ + 3 jˆ + 5kˆ
2
9.
1 1 1 1
=| − 1| + |1 + | + |−1 + |+| + 1|
√2 √2 √2 √2 b = 3iˆ + 3 jˆ + 7kˆ
2 2
= 2+ +2− =4
√2 √2 c = 7iˆ + 8 ˆj + 9kˆ
If a b = c + d then d is
Answer (1)
(
)
sin x 2 + x + 5 − cos x 2 + x + 5
2
(( ))
Sol. a b = 6iˆ + jˆ − 3kˆ
d = −iˆ − 7 jˆ − 12kˆ 5
sin − cos5 = 1 − ( −1) = 2
2
|𝑑⃗| = √194
dy
1 12. = 6e x + e 2 x + e3 x
10. Statement 1: lim 2
(1 + 2 + 3+. . . . . +𝑛) = 1 dx
𝑛→∞ 𝑛
1
Sol. y (2) − y (0) = 0
(6e x + e 2 x + e 3 x )dx
Sol : Statement 1: lim (1 + 2 + 3+. . . . . +𝑛)
𝑛→∞ 𝑛2 2
e 2 x e3 x
= lim
1
×
𝑛(𝑛+1)
=
1 = 6e + +x
𝑛→∞ 𝑛2 2 2 2 3 0
1
Statement 2: lim (115 + 215 +. . . . . +𝑛15 ) e 4 e 6 41
𝑛→∞ 𝑛16 = 6e 2 + + −
2 3 6
∑𝑛
𝑟=1 𝑟
𝑘 1
∵ lim = 𝑘+1
𝑛→∞ 𝑛𝑘+1 6
13. The integral e3 x + 6e2x + 11e x + 6 dx
Here, 𝑘 = 15 0
∑ 𝑟 15 1 (1) ln 32 (2) ln 27
∴ lim = 16
𝑛→∞ 𝑛16
32 27
(3) ln (4) ln
x +1 x 27 32
11. If sin−1 − sin−1 = (For x
2
x + 2x + 2 x2 + 1 4 Answer (3)
( ) (( ))
0) then sin x 2 + x + 5 − cos x 2 + x + 5 is 6
Sol. I =
(e + 1)(e )( )
dx
2 x x
+ 2 ex + 3
0
(1) 0 (2) 2
1 1
(3) 1 (4) None of these
−1
= 6 2 + + 2
dx
x x x
0 e + 1 e + 2 e + 3
Answer (2)
Sol. tan−1 ( x + 1) − tan−1 x =
4 e− x e − x dx e− x
= 3 dx − 6 + 3 dx
−x −x −x
x + 1− x 0 1+ e 0 1 + 2e 0 1 + 3e
tan−1 =
1 + x ( x + 1) 4
( ) ( )
1
= 3 − ln 1 + e − x + 6 ln 1 + 2e − x
1 = 1 + x(x + 1) 0 2 0
x = 0 or – 1. rejected
( )0
3
− ln 1 + 3e − x
x=0 3
2 18.
= 3ln + ln 4
3
19.
32
= ln 20.
27
SECTION - B
14. Plane P3 is passing through (1, 1, 1) and point of
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
intersection of P1 and P2 where P1 : 2x – y + z = 5 contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
and P2 : x + 3y + 3z + 2 = 0, then distance of
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
(1, 1, 10) from P3 is correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
(1)
53 e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
85 the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer.
(2) 85
21. Let the number of matrices of order 3 × 3 are
54 possible using the digits {0, 1, 2, 3, …….., 10} is
(3)
85 mn, then (m + n) is, (where m is a prime number)
Answer (20)
(4) 53
Sol. So, we have 9 places and 11 numbers
Answer (3)
Number of matrices = 119
Sol. P1 + P2 = 0 m + n = 20.
22. Remainder when 22022 is divided by 15 is equal to
(2x – y + z – 5) + (x + 3y + 3z + 2) = 0
Answer (4)
Passing though (1, 1, 1)
( )
252
Sol. 28 26
(2 – 1 + 1 – 5) + (1 + 3 + 3 + 2) = 0
= (255 + 1)252 64
–3 + (9) = 0
1
= ( 252C0 (255)252 + 252 C1(255)251 + ....
=
3
)
+ 252C252 (255)0 64
P3 = 3(2x – y + z – 5) + (x + 3y + 3z + 2) = 0
= 64 (15k + 1)
7x + 6z = 13 Remainder = 4
23. Let 10 APs are there whose first terms are
Distance of (1, 1, 10) is
(1, 2, 3, ___, 10) respectively & common
7 1 + 6 10 − 13 7 + 60 − 13 differences are (1, 3, 5, ___) respectively and Si
= 10
49 + 36
si is
2 2
7 +6 denotes sum of 10 terms of ith A.P then
i =1
54
= unit Answer (5050)
85
10
Sol. Si = 2i + (10 – 1)( 2i – 1)
15. 2
= 5[2i + 18i – 9]
16.
= 5[20i – 9]
17.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
10
10 11 8
Si = 5 20
2
– 9 10
=
5
i =1
= 5[1100 – 90] 4 42 + 24 22 + 28 02 + 16 22 + 8 42
2 =
= 5 × 1010 = 5050 80
fi 4 24 28 3 3 16
= = 08
2 8 22
M + +
If mean of data is 5 and mean deviation about
5 5
3
mean is M and variance is 2 then
( )
is
M + 2 25.
26.
Answer (08)
4 + 72 + 140 + 7 + 72 27.
Sol. x = =5
( 64 + ) 28.
= 16
29.
4 4 + 24 2 + 28 0 + 16 2 + 8 4
Now M = 30.
80
❑ ❑ ❑
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