Neuro-Oncology Explained Through Multiple Choice Questions: Joe M Das

Neuro-Oncology
Explained Through
Multiple Choice
Questions
Joe M Das
123
Neuro-Oncology Explained Through Multiple
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Joe M Das
Neuro-Oncology Explained
Through Multiple Choice
Questions
Joe M Das
Consultant Neurosurgeon
Bahrain Specialist Hospital
Juffair, Bahrain
ISBN 978-3-031-13252-0 ISBN 978-3-031-13253-7 (eBook)

https://doi.org/10.1007/978-3-031-13253-7
© The Editor(s) (if applicable) and The Author(s), under exclusive license to Springer Nature
Switzerland AG 2023
This work is subject to copyright. All rights are solely and exclusively licensed by the Publisher, whether
the whole or part of the material is concerned, specifically the rights of translation, reprinting, reuse of
illustrations, recitation, broadcasting, reproduction on microfilms or in any other physical way, and
transmission or information storage and retrieval, electronic adaptation, computer software, or by similar
or dissimilar methodology now known or hereafter developed.
The use of general descriptive names, registered names, trademarks, service marks, etc. in this publication
does not imply, even in the absence of a specific statement, that such names are exempt from the relevant
protective laws and regulations and therefore free for general use.
The publisher, the authors, and the editors are safe to assume that the advice and information in this book
are believed to be true and accurate at the date of publication. Neither the publisher nor the authors or the
editors give a warranty, expressed or implied, with respect to the material contained herein or for any
errors or omissions that may have been made. The publisher remains neutral with regard to jurisdictional
claims in published maps and institutional affiliations.
This Springer imprint is published by the registered company Springer Nature Switzerland AG
The registered company address is: Gewerbestrasse 11, 6330 Cham, Switzerland
Dedicated to my late father,
Dr Mariadas S.
Foreword
The rapid progress of neuro-oncology and the numerous researches conducted in

this field make it next to impossible for a neurosurgeon or an oncologist to remain
up to date.
I have known the main author, Joe M. Das, since the time he had been doing a
post-doctoral fellowship in skull base neurosurgery at the Sree Chitra Tirunal
Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology. It is indeed a pleasure and an honor
for me to be invited to write a foreword to this excellent book, Neuro-oncology
Explained Through Multiple Choice Questions.
This book is highly scientific, educational, and informative. Almost all the topics
in the field have been included, and the multiple-choice question (MCQ) format
makes it more appealing for the reader to test their knowledge.
For a question author, a well-crafted MCQ is not always just about writing the
best correct answer, it is also about creating deeply convincing false answers or
distractors. This takes more time than a simple fill-in-the-blank or essay question. I
highly appreciate the effort put forth by Dr Das and his co-authors in completing
such amazing work with precise and updated explanations.
As a professor in neurosurgery, I came to know many finer details in neuro-oncology
after going through the book. It delivers comprehensive information on neuro-oncol-
ogy in the form of brainstorming questions, succinct explanations, and answers.
I am sure it will be wonderful teaching and learning material for everyone work-
ing in the fields of neuroscience and oncology—residents, trainees, faculty, and
consultants.
I heartily congratulate Dr Das for this outstanding work and hope he keeps it up
with newer editions and contributes to the growth and development of neuro-
oncology. I wish him all the best.
Suresh Nair
Former Dean & Prof (Senior Grade) of Neurosurgery
Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute of Medical Sciences
Trivandrum, India
Hinduja National Hospital

Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
vii
Preface
This is our humble attempt to summarize the major neurosurgical concepts in neuro-
oncology with the help of multiple-choice questions. I sincerely thank all the con-
tributors who have given their best in adding quality content. We have tried to keep
the facts as simple as possible, especially the molecular classification. Medical sci-
ence, especially neuro-oncology, is a rapidly changing field. We have taken efforts
to keep the contents up to date. One peculiarity of the book is that we have intro-
duced many updates and nuances, which may be difficult to comprehend.
Hot topics like artificial intelligence and nanotheranostics are added.
This book is intended for those in neurosurgery and oncology training and will
act as a refresher for consultant neurosurgeons, neurologists, and medical/radiation
oncologists. The book is written assuming that the reader already knows the basics
of neurosurgery and neuro-oncology. We are sure that this book will help to increase
your existing level of knowledge on the subject and inspire reading.
It is almost impossible to include every topic in neuro-oncology in a single book.
This book excludes spinal and pediatric oncology.
The book contains both multiple-choice and matching questions, both formats
are likely to be interesting to the reader. We have tried to avoid giving the names of
trials, and percentages have been rounded off.
In addition, we would invite readers to explore the Springer Nature Flashcards
available with individual chapters. The cards are intended to help with consolidating
knowledge from the text. Download the Springer Nature Flashcards app for free
(https://flashcards.springernature.com/login) and use this exclusive additional mate-
rial to consolidate your knowledge.
“Errare humanum est.”—Latin proverb.
As mentioned by Dade Lunsford, the field of neurosurgery has been part of an
enormous paradigm shift over the last decade of the twentieth century and the initial
years of the twenty-first century. We have started applying molecular and laboratory
data in the operating room rather than going back to the laboratory from the operat-
ing room. We totally stand by his concept and have included more molecular aspects
of oncology in our book.
We sincerely wish you happy reading.
Juffair, Bahrain Joe M. Das
ix
Acknowledgment
I would like to thank my wife (Dr Salini) and daughter (Miss Aarika) for always
being there for me and excusing me for doing academic activities during times that
could have been spent with them.
I thank my mother (Ms Daisy) and my friends (Drs Prasanth TS, Kiran N and
Sreeganesh K) for supporting me in all the things I do.
xi
Abbreviations
F-FDG 2-Deoxy-2-[fluorine-18]fluoro-D-glucose
18
F-FDOPA
18
3,4-Dihydroxy-6-(18F) fluoro-L-phenylalanine
3D Three dimensional
ABC ATP-binding cassette
ABR Auditory brainstem response
ACTH Adrenocorticotropic hormone
ACVR1 Activin A receptor Type 1
ADC Apparent diffusion coefficient
AED Antiepileptic drug
AFP Alpha-fetoprotein
AIDS Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
ALKBH5 alkB homolog 5 (alkB - Alkane hydroxylase gene)
APC Adenomatous polyposis coli
ASV Anterior septal vein
ATM Ataxia telangiectasia mutated
ATP Adenosine triphosphate
ATRX Alpha-thalassemia/mental retardation, X-linked
BAER Brainstem auditory evoked response
BAP1 BRCA1-associated protein 1 (BRCA1 - Breast cancer type 1)
BCOR BCL6 Corepressor (Bcl-6 - B-cell lymphoma 6)
b-FGF Basic fibroblast growth factor
BMI Body Mass Index
BMP Bone morphogenetic protein
B-RAF Rapidly accelerated fibrosarcoma-B
BRG-1 Brahma-related gene-1
BTK Bruton tyrosine kinase
BTSC Brain tumor stem cell
C11orf95 (ZFTA) Zinc finger translocation associated
CARD11 Caspase recruitment domain family member 11
CD Cluster of differentiation
Cdk Cyclin-dependent kinase
xiii
xiv Abbreviations
CDKN2A Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A

CIC Capicua transcriptional repressor
CITED2 Cbp/P300 interacting transactivator with Glu/Asp rich
carboxy-terminal domain 2
CMAP Compound muscle action potentials
CNS Central nervous system
CP Carotid paraganglioma
CP Cerebellopontine
CREB cAMP-response element-binding protein (cAMP—Cyclic
adenosine monophosphate)
CREBBP Cyclic adenosine monophosphate response element binding
protein binding protein
CRL4CRBN Cullin-Ring ligase 4 E3 ubiquitin ligase complex
CSF Cerebrospinal fluid
CT Computed tomogram
CTLA4 Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4
CTNNB1 Catenin beta 1
CXCL12 C-X-C motif chemokine 12
CXCR-4 C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4
DAL-1 Differentially expressed in adenocarcinoma of the lung-1
DCC Deleted in colorectal carcinoma
DGCR8 DiGeorge syndrome critical region 8
DICER Gene encoding endoribonuclease dicer
DLK1 Delta-like non-canonical notch ligand 1
DNA Deoxyribonucleic acid
DROSHA Gene encoding drosha ribonuclease III
DTI Diffusion tensor imaging
E.coli Escherichia coli
ECM Extracellular matrix
ECOG Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group
EGFR Epidermal growth factor receptor
EMA Epithelial membrane antigen
EORTC The European Organisation for Research and Treatment
of Cancer
ERCC2 Excision repair cross-complementation group 2
ERK Extracellular signal-regulated kinases
ETV Endoscopic third ventriculostomy
EZHIP Enhancer of zest homologs inhibitory protein
FET FUS (Fused in liposarcoma), EWS (Ewing sarcoma) and
TAF15 (TATA binding-associated factor 15)
FGFR Fibroblast growth factor receptor
FIPA Familial isolated pituitary adenoma
FLAIR Fluid-attenuated inversion recovery
fMRI Functional magnetic resonance imaging
Abbreviations xv
FOS FBJ Murine osteosarcoma viral oncogene homolog

(FBJ - Finkel-Biskis-Jinkins)
FOXR2 Forkhead box R2
FTO Fat mass and obesity associated
GAP GTPase-accelerating protein
GBM Glioblastoma
Gd Gadolinium
GDP Guanosine diphosphate
GFAP Glial fibrillary acidic protein
GFI1 Growth factor independence-1
GH Growth hormone
GI Gastrointestinal
GLI Glioma-associated oncogene
GLK1 Glucokinase-1
GNA11 G protein subunit alpha 11
GNAQ Guanine nucleotide-binding protein alpha-Q
GNAT1 G Protein subunit alpha transducin 1
GRE Gradient echo sequence
GTP Guanosine triphosphate
Gy Gray
H3 G34 Codon 34 in the H3 histone, family 3A
H3K27M Lys-27-Met mutations in histone 3 genes
HER2 Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2
HGF-SF Hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) or scatter factor (SF)
HGG High-grade glioma
HHT Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
HIF Hypoxia-inducible factor
HIV Human immunodeficiency virus
HMGB1 High mobility group protein B1
HNP Head-and-neck paragangliomas
hnRNPC Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein C
HSP Heat shock protein
HSV Herpes simplex virus
ICG Indocyanine green
ICV Internal cerebral vein
IDH Isocitrate dehydrogenase
IFN Interferon
IHC Immunohistochemistry
IL Interleukin
INI1 Integrase interactor 1
IR Infrared
ISF Interstitial fluid
JC virus John Cunningham virus
JP Jugular paraganglioma
KBTBD4 Kelch repeat and BTB domain-containing 4
xvi Abbreviations
KIAA Kazusa DNA Research Institute

KLF4 Krüppel-like factor 4
L1CAM L1 Cell adhesion molecule
LAM Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
LDH Lactate dehydrogenase
LGG Low grade glioma
LP Laryngeal paraganglioma
mAb Monoclonal antibody
MAPK Mitogen-activated protein kinase
MBEN Medulloblastoma with extensive nodularity
MEK Mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase
MEN1 Multiple endocrine neoplasia 1
MET Mesenchymal epithelial transition factor
METTL3 Methyltransferase‐like 3
MGMT O-6-Methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase
MIB1 Mindbomb homolog 1
miRNA microRNA
MLF Medial longitudinal fasciculus
MLH1 mutL homolog 1
MMP Matrix metalloproteinase
MNX1 Motor neuron and pancreas homeobox 1
MRA Magnetic Resonance Angiogram
MRI Magnetic resonance imaging
mRNA Messenger RNA
MSH2 MutS homolog 2
MTD Mean tumor diameter
mTOR Mechanistic target of rapamycin
MYB Myeloblastosis
MYBL1 MYB proto-oncogene Like 1
MYCN Master regulator of cell cycle entry and proliferative
metabolism-N
MYD88 Myeloid differentiation primary response 88
NAA N-acetylaspartate
NAB2 NGFI-A binding protein 2 (NGF – Nerve growth factor)
NADPH Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
NANOG Tìr nan Òg (the mythical Celtic land of youth)
NBS Nijmegen breakage syndrome
NCAM Neural cell adhesion molecule
NE Neutrophil elastase
NEO1 Neogenin 1
NeuN Neuronal nuclei
NF1 Neurofibromatosis type 1
NIH National Institutes of Health
NIR Near-Infrared
NLGN Neuroligin
Abbreviations xvii
NRAS Rat sarcoma virus-N

NSAID Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
OC Ordospora colligata
OLIG2 Oligodendrocyte transcription factor 2
OPG Optic pathway glioma
PAK p21-Activated serine/threonine kinases
PAS Periodic acid-Schiff
PCNSL Primary central nervous system lymphoma
PDGFRA Platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha
PET Positron Emission Tomogram
PI3K Phosphoinositide 3-kinase
PIK3CA Phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase, catalytic sub-
unit alpha
PIT-1 Pituitary-specific positive transcription factor 1
PMS2 Postmeiotic segregation increased 2
PNET Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
PPT Pineal parenchymal tumor
PRAME Preferentially expressed antigen of melanoma
PRKAR1A Protein kinase CAMP-dependent type I regulatory sub-
unit alpha
PRKCA Protein kinase C alpha
PTCH1 Protein patched homolog 1
PTEN Phosphatase and tensin homolog
PTPR Papillary tumor of the pineal region
PUMA Programmable Universal Machine for Assembly
PVS-RIPO Poliovirus Sabin rhinovirus IRES poliovirus open reading
frame (IRES - Internal ribosomal entry site)
QD Quantum Dot
RB1 Retinoblastoma 1
RBM15 RNA-binding motif protein 15
RCT Randomized controlled trial
RELA v-rel avian reticuloendotheliosis viral oncogene homolog A
RNA Ribonucleic acid
ROSA Robotic surgical assistant
rRNA Ribosomal ribonucleic acid
SDF-1 Stromal cell-derived factor 1
SDH Succinate dehydrogenase
SEGA Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
SF-1 Steroidogenic factor 1
SHH Sonic hedgehog signaling molecule
SIADH Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (ADH - Antidiuretic
hormone)
SLC12A1 Solute carrier family 12 member 1
SMA Supplementary motor area
xviii Abbreviations
SMARCA4 SWI/SNF-related, matrix-associated, actin-dependent regula-

tor of chromatin, subfamily A, member 4
SMARCB1 SWI/SNF-related, matrix associated, actin-dependent regula-
tor of chromatin, subfamily B, member 1 (SWI/SNF - SWItch/
Sucrose non-fermentable)
SMARCE1 SWI/SNF-related, matrix-associated, actin-dependent regula-
tor of chromatin, subfamily E, member 1
SNP Single nucleotide polymorphism
snRNA Small nuclear RNA
SOX-2 Sex determining region Y-box 2
SRS Stereotactic radiosurgery
STAT Signal transducer and activator of transcription
SUFU Suppressor of fused
SWI Susceptibility-weighted imaging
SWS Sturge-Weber syndrome
TERT Telomerase reverse transcriptase
TGF Transforming growth factor
TIFF-1 Trefoil factor 1
TIMP-1 Tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinases 1
TMZ Temozolomide
TOX Thymocyte selection-associated high mobility group box
TP Tympanic paraganglioma
TP53 Tumor protein P53
T-PIT Pituitary-restricted transcription factor
TRAF7 TNF receptor-associated factor 7 (TNF - tumor necrosis factor)
TSC Tuberous sclerosis
TSH Thyroid-stimulating hormone
TTF-1 Thyroid transcription factor-1
UBO Unidentified bright object
UCLA The University of California at Los Angeles
UNC Uncoordinated
US FDA The United States Food and Drug Administration
USP8 Ubiquitin-specific peptidase 8
VEGF Vascular endothelial growth factor
VHL Von Hippel-Lindau
VIRMA Vir-like M6A methyltransferase associated
VP Vagal paraganglioma
VTE Venous thromboembolism
WHO World Health Organization
WNT Wingless-related integration site—wg (from the Drosophila
gene wingless) and int (from the proto-oncogene
integration-1)
WTAP Wilm tumor 1 (WT1)-associating protein
XRT Radiotherapy
YAP1 Yes-associated protein 1
Abbreviations xix
YTHDC2 YTH domain containing 2

YTHDF2 YTH N6-Methyladenosine RNA binding protein 2 (YTH -
YT521-B homology)
ZC3H13 Zinc finger CCCH-type containing 13
α KG α-Ketoglutarate
β-hCG Beta human chorionic gonadotropin
Contents
1 Classification of Brain Tumors �� 1

Joe M Das
2
Molecular Genetics and Syndromes�� 13
Joe M Das
3 Angiogenesis �� 25
Joe M Das
4 Epidemiology�� 31
Joe M Das
5 White Matter Fiber Tracts�� 37
Dia R. Halalmeh and Marc D. Moisi
6 Intraoperative Adjuncts in Tumor Surgery�� 63
Rajesh Krishna Pathiyil
7 Neuroradiology�� 87
Joe M Das
8 Chemotherapy�� 95
Ebtesam Abdulla, Luis Rafael Moscote-Salazar,
Amit Agrawal, and Daulat Singh
9 Radiotherapy�� 103
Joe M Das
10 Immunotherapy�� 109
Joe M Das
11 Stem Cells �� 117
Joe M Das
12 Nanotheranostics�� 125
Joe M Das
xxi
xxii Contents
13 Metastatic Brain Tumors�� 133

Joe M Das
14 Low-Grade Gliomas�� 139
Joe M Das
15 High-Grade Gliomas�� 147
Joe M Das
16 Meningiomas�� 157
Joe M Das
17 Ependymal and Embryonal Tumors�� 163
Ryan M. Hess and Mohamed A. R. Soliman
18 Pituitary and Sellar Tumors�� 177
Ahmed A. Najjar and Mohammed Jawhari
19 Pineal Region Tumors�� 189
Joe M Das
20 Vestibular Schwannoma�� 197
Joe M Das
21 Intraventricular Tumors�� 203
Joe M Das
22 Miscellaneous Skull Base Tumors�� 211
Joe M Das
23 Primary CNS Lymphoma�� 217
Joe M Das
24 Palliative Care�� 223
Amr Maani, Abduelmenem Alashkham, and Jacek Baj
Contributors
Ebtesam Abdulla Department of Neurosurgery, Salmaniya Medical Complex,

Manama, Bahrain
Amit Agrawal Department of Neurosurgery, All India Institute of Medical
Sciences, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, India
Abduelmenem Alashkham Edinburgh Medical School, The University of
Edinburgh, Edinburgh, UK
Jacek Baj Chair and Department of Anatomy, Medical University of Lublin,
Lublin, Poland
Joe M. Das Consultant Neurosurgeon, Bahrain Specialist Hospital, Juffair, Bahrain
Dia R. Halalmeh Department of Neurosurgery, Hurley Medical Center,
Flint, MI, USA
Ryan M. Hess Department of Neurosurgery, Jacobs School of Medicine and
Biomedical Sciences, University at Buffalo, Buffalo, NY, USA
Department of Neurosurgery, Buffalo General Medical Center, Kaleida Health,
Buffalo, NY, USA
Mohammed Jawhari Neurosurgery Resident, King Fahad General Hospital,
Medina, Saudi Arabia
Amr Maani Department of Anatomy, Medical University of Lublin, Lublin, Poland
Marc D. Moisi Department of Neurosurgery, Hurley Medical Center, Flint, MI, USA
Luis Rafael Moscote-Salazar Colombian Clinical Research Group in Neurocritical
Care, Bogota, Colombia
Ahmed A. Najjar College of Medicine, Taibah University, Medina, Saudi Arabia
Rajesh Krishna Pathiyil Department of Clinical Neurosciences, University of
Calgary, Calgary, AB, Canada
Daulat Singh Department of Radiation Oncology, Govt Doon Medical College &
Hospital, Dehradun, Uttarakhand, India
Mohamed A. R. Soliman Department of Neurosurgery, Faculty of Medicine,
Cairo University, Cairo, Egypt
xxiii
Chapter 1
Classification of Brain Tumors
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of a diffuse midline glioma?

(a) Has a glial phenotype
(b) More common in children
(c) H3K27M mutation is seen
(d) IDH2 mutation is seen
Answer: d
Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered is a new entity added in 2016 and
modified in the 2021 WHO classification.
The Criteria for Diagnosis are
• K27M mutation in either the H3 Histone Family Member 3A (H3F3A) or
Histone Cluster 1 H3 Family Member B/C (HIST1H3B/C) gene
• Have a glial phenotype
• Be located in the midline and
• Show a diffuse growth/infiltrating pattern
Other points about H3 K27M mutations and diffuse midline gliomas:
• Not exclusive to midline gliomas
• Occur primarily in children
• Prognosis is very poor
• 2-year survival rate is below 10%
• Mean survival of 9 months
• Other changes (TP53, ACVR1, PDGFRA, EGFR, EZHIP mutations) can also
define this tumor entity in addition to the K27M mutations.
J. M. Das (*)
Consultant Neurosurgeon, Bahrain Specialist Hospital, Juffair, Bahrain
e-mail: [email protected]
© The Author(s), under exclusive license to Springer Nature 1

Switzerland AG 2023
J. M. Das, Neuro-Oncology Explained Through Multiple Choice Questions,
https://doi.org/10.1007/978-3-031-13253-7_1
2 J. M. Das
According to the latest WHO classification, pediatric-type diffuse gliomas have

been classified into low-grade and high-grade:
Pediatric-type diffuse low-grade gliomas Pediatric-type diffuse high-grade gliomas
•
Diffuse astrocytoma, MYB- or •
Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered
MYBL1-altered
•
Angiocentric glioma •
Diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant
•
Polymorphous low-grade neuroepithelial •
Diffuse pediatric-type high-grade glioma,
tumor of the young (PLNTY) H3-wildtype and IDH-wildtype
•
Diffuse low-grade glioma, MAPK •
Infant-type hemispheric glioma
pathway-altered
The term “glioblastoma” is no longer used in the pediatric setting.
2. Which of the following is false with regard to IDH mutation?

(a) Glioblastomas with IDH1/IDH2 mutations are termed primary
glioblastomas
(b) The overall survival of IDH wild-type grade 3 astrocytoma is worse than
IDH mutant grade 4 tumor
(c) Almost 90% of the IDH mutations involve IDH1R132H
(d) IDH1/IDH2 mutations occur at a lower frequency in glioblastoma multi-
forme when compared to grade 2 and 3 astrocytomas
Answer: a
Adult-type diffuse gliomas are classified as follows in 2021 WHO
classification:
•
Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant—graded as WHO grades 2, 3, or 4 (the presence of
CDKN2A/B homozygous deletion results in a CNS WHO grade of 4)
•
Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant, and 1p/19q-codeleted
•
Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype
IDH1 gene—located on 2q34 (cytosol); IDH2 gene—located on 15q26.1

(mitochondria) converts isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate, producing NADPH (out-
side the normal citric acid cycle). → α-KG needed for prolyl hydroxylases to
hydroxylate and promote the degradation of Hypoxia-inducible factor
(HIF)-1 α.
• Gain-of-function mutation of IDH1 → Isocitrate to d-2-hydroxyglutarate
(abnormal) → Inhibits histone demethylation and affects the level of HIF-1
α → Impaired cellular differentiation.
• Glioma precursor cell
→ IDH1 mutation +1p19q deletion → Grade 2 oligodendroglioma
→ IDH1 and p53 mutation → Grade 2 astrocytoma → Secondary GBM
→ EGFR amplification, PTEN deletion → Primary GBM
1 Classification of Brain Tumors 3
• Gliomas with mutated IDH1 and IDH2 have improved prognoses compared
to gliomas with wild-type IDH.
• IDH1/IDH2 mutations are less common in glioblastomas compared to grade
2 and 3 diffuse astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas, and oligoastrocytomas.
• The most common form of IDH mutation is a missense one in IDH1 (Arginine
at position 132 → Histidine) (IDH1 R132H). This accounts for 90% of the
IDH mutations in gliomas and is being used for immunohistochemical staining.
• IDH-mutated glioma shows markedly reduced glycolysis—the metabolic
hallmark of highly proliferating malignancies.
• Outside the central nervous system, IDH mutations are found in acute myeloid
leukemia, intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, and central/periosteal
chondrosarcoma.
3. A patient undergoes resection of a frontal lesion. The preoperative diagnosis

was oligodendroglioma. On histological examination, the lesion appears to be a
low-grade astrocytoma. Which of the following feature if present, would sug-
gest a grade 4 behavior with a poor prognosis of this tumor?
(a) The presence of TERT promoter mutation
(b) EGFR gene amplification
(c) Combined gain of whole chromosome 7 and loss of chromosome 10
(d) All the above
Answer: d
The Gliomas, Glioneuronal Tumors, and Neuronal Tumors are Divided
into Six Different Families in the 2021 WHO Classification
• Adult-type diffuse gliomas

• Pediatric-type diffuse low-grade gliomas
• Pediatric-type diffuse high-grade gliomas
• Circumscribed astrocytic gliomas
• Glioneuronal and neuronal tumors; and
• Ependymomas
The following factors in a histologically lower grade, diffuse, IDH-wildtype

astrocytoma make it behave like a WHO grade 4 glioblastoma
• The presence of a TERT promoter mutation and/or
• EGFR gene amplification and/or
• Combined gain of whole chromosome 7 plus loss of whole chromosome 10
Points to remember on TERT, ATRX, and TP53:
• Oligodendrogliomas (IDH-mutant, 1p/19q-codeleted) have activating muta-
tions in the telomerase reverse transcriptase gene (TERT) promoter region.
• Astrocytomas (IDH-mutant) frequently carry an alpha-thalassemia/mental
retardation syndrome X-linked gene (ATRX—negative staining by IHC) and
a tumor protein p53 gene (TP53—positive staining by IHC) mutation.
4 J. M. Das
4. Which of the following mutations is found in the majority of pediatric supraten-

torial ependymomas?
(a) EGFR
(b) ATRX
(c) TERT
(d) ZFTA
Answer: d
There are seven subgroups of ependymal tumors, based on DNA methyla-
tion profiling analysis:
Supratentorial ependymoma
Supratentorial ependymoma, ZFTA fusion-positive
Supratentorial ependymoma, YAP1 fusion-positive
Posterior fossa ependymoma
Posterior fossa ependymoma, group PFA
Posterior fossa ependymoma, group PFB
Spinal ependymoma
Spinal ependymoma, MYCN-amplified
Myxopapillary ependymoma
Subependymoma (encompassing spinal, supratentorial, and
infratentorial).
Supratentorial ependymoma, ZFTA fusion-positive:
• Majority of pediatric supratentorial ependymal tumors
• Fusion of RELA + effector of NF-jB signaling + C11orf95 → activation of
NF kappa B pathway
• Fusion secondary to chromothripsis (massive and clustered genomic rear-
rangements) of chromosome 11
• L1CAM and cyclin D1 expression are useful surrogate markers.
• Has a predilection for lateral and third ventricles and is associated with a
worse outcome
Points to remember on ependymomas:
• The most common genomic aberration in pediatric intracranial ependymo-
mas is the gain of chromosome 1q.
• The likely cells of origin for ependymoma are the Radial Glial Cells.
• The term “anaplastic ependymoma” is no longer used.
• The myxopapillary ependymoma is now considered CNS WHO grade 2.
5. Match the following mutations with their corresponding frequently associ-

ated tumor
(a) BRAF V600E Aggressive meningiomas
(b) CTNNB1 Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor
(c) MYB Diffuse meningeal melanocytic tumors

(d) PRKCA Pilocytic astrocytoma
(e) NAB2-STAT6 gene fusion Diffuse meningeal melanocytic tumors
(f) TERT promoter mutation Chordoid glioma
(g) NRAS Solitary fibrous tumor and hemangiopericytoma
(h) FGFR1 Angiocentric glioma
(i) SMARCB1/SMARCA4 loss Adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma
(j) KIAA1549-BRAF gene Papillary craniopharyngioma
fusion
Answer:
(a) BRAF V600E Papillary craniopharyngioma
(b) CTNNB1 Adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma
(c) MYB Angiocentric glioma
(d) PRKCA Chordoid glioma
(e) NAB2-STAT6 gene fusion Solitary fibrous tumor and hemangiopericytoma
(f) TERT promoter mutation Aggressive meningiomas
(g) NRAS Diffuse meningeal melanocytic tumors
(h) FGFR1 Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor
(i) SMARCB1/SMARCA4 loss Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor
(j) KIAA1549-BRAF gene Pilocytic astrocytoma
fusion
6. Which of the following is true regarding TERT mutation?

(a) Present in almost all IDH-mutant, 1p/19q-codeleted oligodendrogliomas
(b) Frequent in IDH-wildtype GBM
(c) TERT promoter mutation in histologically lower-grade, IDH-wildtype
astrocytoma indicates aggressive behavior (‘molecular glioblastoma’)
(d) All the above
Answer: d
TERT (Telomerase Reverse Transcriptase) (5p15.33):
• The most frequently mutated gene in gliomas (oligodendrogliomas and pri-
mary GBM).
• TERTp mutations are mostly associated with poor outcomes, except for 1p19q
codeleted grade 2 and grade 3, and EGFR amplified grade 3 and grade 4.
• Found mostly in glioblastomas (IDH wildtype, 1p19q not co-deleted) and
oligodendrogliomas (IDH mutant, 1p19q co-deleted)
• If a tumor is IDH mutated, the key differentiating factor that delineates an
oligodendroglioma from an astrocytoma is 1p/19q codeletion.
• Triple positive low-grade glioma (positive for TERT, IDH, and 1p/19q co-
deletion) have the best overall survival. LGG with TERT mutation alone has
the worst survival.
6 J. M. Das
7. Which of the following is the correct order of chance of survival of different

grades of astrocytomas?
(a) IDH-wild grade 3 > IDH-mutant grade 3 > IDH-wild grade 4 > IDH-
mutant grade 4
(b) IDH-mutant grade 3 > IDH-wild grade 3 > IDH-mutant grade 4 > IDH-
wild grade 4
(c) IDH-mutant grade 3 > IDH-mutant grade 4 > IDH-wild grade 3 > IDH-
wild grade 4
(d) IDH-wild grade 3 > IDH-wild grade 4 > IDH-mutant grade 3 > IDH-
mutant grade 4
Answer: c
Grade 2 IDH mutant and 1p19q co-deleted have the best prognosis.
8. Which of the following histological types is not included in IDH-wild type

glioblastoma?
(a) Gliomatosis cerebri
(b) Epithelioid glioblastoma
(c) Giant cell glioblastoma
(d) Gliosarcoma
Answer: a
The three recognized variants of glioblastoma are:
• Giant cell glioblastoma
• Gliosarcoma
• Epithelioid glioblastoma
The term “gliomatosis cerebri” has been removed from the latest WHO
(2016) classification.
Epithelioid glioblastoma:
• New addition to the WHO 2016 and recognized in the current classification.
• Occurs in younger patients
• Half of them show BRAF V600E mutations
• Differential diagnoses are anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytomas, rhab-
doid meningiomas, atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors, metastatic tumors, and
melanomas.
9. Which gene mutation is not included in triple-positive gliomas?

(a)
TERT promoter mutations
(b)
IDH mutations
(c) 1p/19q codeletion

(d) ATRX mutation
Answer: d
Based on the presence or absence of TERT promoter mutations, IDH muta-
tions, and 1p/19q codeletion, diffuse gliomas are classified into five molecu-
lar groups:
• Triple-positive
• TERT- and IDH-mutated
• IDH-mutated only
• TERT-mutated only
• Triple-negative
10. The MGMT gene is located in which of the following chromosomes?

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 10
(d) 19
Answer: c
• The MGMT gene (chromosome 10) encodes the MGMT protein, which plays
a role in repairing the DNA damage from alkylating agents (including
temozolomide).
• Methylation of the MGMT promoter region → silencing of gene expression
(40–50% of glioblastomas).
• The tumors with low MGMT are deficient in repairing the DNA damage
induced by TMZ → Higher chemosensitivity.
11. What are the possible grades for an oligodendroglioma that is IDH-mutant, and
1p/19q-codeleted?
(a) 1, 2
(b) 2, 3
(c) 3,4
(d) 1, 2, 3
Answer: b
•
Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant, and 1p/19q-codeleted can be of
grades 2 or 3.
8 J. M. Das
12. What is the grade of diffuse hemispheric glioma?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: d
Diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant
• Malignant and infiltrative glioma added to the 2021 WHO classification
• Typically involves the cerebral hemispheres
• Caused by a missense mutation in the H3F3A gene → G34R/V substitution
of histone H3.
13. Which of the following is false about the polymorphous low-grade neuroepithe-
lial tumor of the young (PLNTY)?
(a) It is associated with a history of epilepsy in young people
(b) Shows a diffuse growth pattern
(c) CD34 immunoreactivity is typically absent
(d) Shows MAPK pathway-activating genetic abnormalities
Answer: c
Polymorphous Low-grade Neuroepithelial Tumor of the Young (PLNTY)
• Glial neoplasm
• Associated with a history of epilepsy in young people
• Shows diffuse growth patterns
• Presence of oligodendroglioma-like components
• Calcification present
• CD34 immunoreactivity strongly present
• MAPK pathway-activating genetic abnormalities
14. What is the typical location of a myxoid glioneuronal tumor?

(a) Lateral ventricle
(b) Third ventricle
(c) Fourth ventricle
(d) Thalamus
Answer: a
Myxoid glioneuronal tumor
• Typically arises in the septal region and involves the lateral ventricle
• Characterized by a proliferation of oligodendrocyte-like tumor cells embed-
ded in a prominent myxoid stroma
• Often includes a mixture of floating neurons, neurocytic rosettes, and/or peri-

vascular neuropil
• Dinucleotide mutation in the PDGFRA gene.
15. Which of the following is false regarding medulloblastomas in the latest WHO
classification?
(a) All true desmoplastic/nodular medulloblastomas and MBENs belong to the
SHH-1 and SHH-2 subgroups
(b) Nearly all WNT tumors have a classic morphology
(c) Most large cell/anaplastic tumors belong either to the SHH-3 subgroup or
to the Group 3/4 subgroup
(d) Nearly all WNT tumors have a large cell/anaplastic morphology
Answer: d
16. Which of the following molecular subtypes of pineoblastoma is associated with

a good prognosis?
(a) Pineoblastoma, miRNA processing-altered 1
(b) Pineoblastoma, miRNA processing-altered 2
(c) Pineoblastoma, MYC/FOXR2-activated
(d) Pineoblastoma, RB1-altered
Answer: b
Pineoblastomas—4 molecular subtypes:
• Pineoblastoma, miRNA processing-altered 1
– Children
– DICER1, DROSHA, or DGCR8 mutations
• Pineoblastoma, miRNA processing-altered 2
– Mostly older children
– Least chance of metastasis
– Relatively good prognosis
– DICER1, DROSHA, or DGCR8 mutations
• Pineoblastoma, MYC/FOXR2-activated
– Infants—males are more prone
– MYC activation and FOXR2 overexpression
• Pineoblastoma, RB1-altered
– Infants—females are more prone
– Similarities to retinoblastoma
– 100% chance of metastasis
10 J. M. Das
17. Match the following types of meningiomas with their characteristic molecular
features/mutations.
(a) SMARCE1 WHO grade 3

(b) BAP1 Secretory subtype
(c) KLF4/TRAF7 Clear cell subtype
(d) TERT promoter Rhabdoid and papillary subtypes
Answer:
1. SMARCE1 Clear cell subtype
2. BAP1 Rhabdoid and papillary subtypes
3. KLF4/TRAF7 Secretory subtype
4. TERT promoter mutation WHO grade 3
• H3K27me3 loss of nuclear expression is associated with a worse prognosis in

meningiomas
18. Which of the following is false regarding pediatric-type diffuse glioma?
(a) Shares overlying histology with their adult counterpart
(b) Generally indolent despite anaplastic histological features
(c) Characterized by IDH mutation and 1p/19q codeletion
(d) Usually harbors MAPK-pathway alteration
Answer: c
• The genetic hallmark of adult-type gliomas is IDH mutation and 1p/19q
codeletion. But pediatric-type diffuse gliomas lack this mutation.
19. Which of the following is not a central nervous system soft tissue tumor of
uncertain differentiation?
(a) Intracranial mesenchymal tumor, FET-CREB fusion-positive
(b) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(c) Primary intracranial sarcoma, DICER1-mutant
(d) Ewing sarcoma
Answer: b
• Soft tissue tumors of uncertain differentiation:
– Intracranial mesenchymal tumor, FET-CREB fusion-positive
– CIC-rearranged sarcoma
– Primary intracranial sarcoma, DICER1-mutant
– Ewing sarcoma
20. CNS tumor with BCOR internal tandem duplication is included provisionally
under which group in the WHO 2021 classification?
(a) Mesenchymal, non-meningothelial tumors
(b) Hematolymphoid tumors
(c) Embryonal tumors
(d) Glioneuronal and neuronal tumors
Answer: c
CNS tumor with BCOR internal tandem duplication
• Mostly solid growth pattern
• Uniform oval or spindle-shaped cells
• Dense capillary network
• Focal pseudorosette formation
• Internal tandem duplication (ITD) in exon 15 of the BCOR gene.
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Bibliography
1. Louis DN, Perry A, Wesseling P, Brat DJ, Cree IA, Figarella-Branger D, Hawkins C, Ng
HK, Pfister SM, Reifenberger G, Soffietti R, von Deimling A, Ellison DW. The 2021
WHO classification of tumors of the central nervous system: a summary. Neuro-Oncology.
2021;23(8):1231–51. https://doi.org/10.1093/neuonc/noab106.
Chapter 2
Molecular Genetics and Syndromes
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following is the most common neoplasm of the central nervous
system associated with neurofibromatosis type 1?
(a) Neurofibroma
(b) Optic pathway glioma
(c) Optic nerve sheath meningioma
(d) Sphenoid wing meningioma
Answer: b
Optic Pathway Glioma
• The most common central nervous system tumor seen in patients with NF1.
• WHO grade 1 pilocytic astrocytoma, histologically.
• The second most common tumor in the CNS in such patients is a brain
stem glioma.
NF1
• The most common genetically inherited neurological disorder
• 1 in 3000 to 4000 live births
• NF1 tumor suppressor gene (chromosome 17q11.2)
• Encodes neurofibromin (a cytoplasmic protein) which is a negative regula-
tor of the RAS-MAP kinase pathway involved in cell proliferation.
• Autosomal dominant
• 50% of patients may present with de novo mutations
• Lifetime cancer risk—59.6%
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
14 J. M. Das
• Penetrance is complete, but tumor development cannot be predicted in any

one patient.
• Pilocytic astrocytomas are the most common CNS neoplasm associated
with NF1.
• In the form of optic pathway glioma (two-thirds of CNS tumors in patients
with NF1)
• Leading cause of death—Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumors
• Five-fold increased chance for developing glioblastoma
• Intramedullary lesions are more frequently low-grade astrocytomas
• Diagnostic criteria include at least two of the following (NIH):
(a) Six or more café-au-lait macules with the greatest diameter—>5 mm
(pre-pubertal) and >15 mm longest diameter (post-pubertal)
(b) Two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma
(c) Intertriginous freckling—axillary or inguinal
(d) Optic pathway glioma (OPG)
(e) Two or more iris hamartomas (or Lisch nodules)
(f) Distinctive osseous lesions (e.g., sphenoid wing dysplasia, thinning of
long bones with or without pseudoarthrosis)
(g) First-degree relative with NF1.
• Screening children with NF1:
(a) Screening for OPG with yearly comprehensive ophthalmologic evalua-
tion until puberty → Screening every 2 years
(b) In patients with known lesions, an MRI of the brain (with orbits) with
Gd + ophthalmologic evaluation
• Clinical indications for treatment in OPG:
(a) Progressive visual decline
(b) Severe exophthalmos
(c) Precocious puberty
(d) Radiographic progression
• Clinical indications for surgery in OPG: Visual loss, hydrocephalus
• Treatment of OPG: Chemotherapy (regimen including carboplatin with
vincristine), everolimus
• Five-year survival—90% following chemotherapy
• Extraoptic gliomas (brainstem, diencephalon, cerebellum, or rarely
cerebrum):
(a) Surveillance imaging
(b) Surgical biopsy if rapid growth
(c) High grade → Maximal safe resection, radiation, and chemotherapy
• UBOs:
(a) Explanations: hamartomas, altered myelination, or heterotopias
(b) Vacuoles (5–100 μm) in the myelin sheath and increase of extracellular-
like intracellular water correlating to intramyelinic edema.
2 Molecular Genetics and Syndromes 15
2. The initial treatment of optic pathway glioma presenting with precocious puberty
in a patient with neurofibromatosis type 1 is
(a) Surgical decompression
(b) Radiotherapy
(c) Chemotherapy
(d) Hormone therapy
Answer: d
• Clinical indications for treatment in OPG:
(a) Progressive visual decline
(b) Severe exophthalmos
(c) Precocious puberty not responding to hormonal therapy
(d) Radiographic progression
• Clinical indication for surgery in OPG: Visual loss, hydrocephalus
• Treatment of OPG: Chemotherapy (regimen including carboplatin with vin-
cristine), everolimus
• Five-year survival—90% following chemotherapy
3. The unidentified bright objects seen in the MRI scan of the craniospinal neuraxis
of occasional patients with neurofibromatosis are structurally
(a) Neurofibromas
(b) Schwannomas
(c) Hamartomas
(d) Intramyelin edema
Answer: d
UBOs are derived from
• altered microstructural compartmentalization
• increase in intracellular water
• intramyelinic edema
4. Which of the following is not a major criterion for the diagnosis of tuberous
sclerosis?
(a) Shagreen patch
(b) Fibrous cephalic plaque
(c) Retinal hamartoma
(d) “Confetti” skin lesions
Answer: d
Diagnostic Criteria for TSC:
Dermatologic and dentistry
Major criteria:
Hypomelanotic macules (≥3, at least 5 mm diameter)
Angiofibromas (≥3) or fibrous cephalic plaque
16 J. M. Das
Ungual fibromas (≥2)

Shagreen patch
Minor criteria:
“Confetti” skin lesions
Dental enamel pits (≥3)
Intraoral fibromas (≥2)
Ophthalmologic
Major criterion:
Retinal hamartoma
Minor criterion:
Retinal achromic patch
Brain structure, tubers, and tumors
Major criteria:
Cortical dysplasia
Subependymal nodules
SEGA
Cardiology and pulmonary
Major criteria:
Cardiac rhabdomyoma
LAM
Nephrology
Major criterion:
Angiomyolipomas (≥2)
Minor criterion:
Multiple renal cysts
Other (endocrine, GI)
Minor criterion:
Nonrenal hamartomas
Extra-nervous System Manifestations
Cutaneous angiofibromas, subungual fibromas, cardiac rhabdomyomas,
intestinal polyps, visceral cysts, pulmonary lymphangioleiomyomatosis, and
renal angiomyolipomas.
Central Nervous System Manifestations
Cortical hamartomas called tubers, subcortical glioneuronal hamartomas,
subependymal nodules, and retinal and subependymal giant cell astrocytomas
(SEGAs).
5. Which of the following drugs has been approved by the US FDA for the treat-
ment of progressive and inoperable plexiform neurofibromas in symptomatic
children?
(a) Trametinib
(b) Cabozantinib
(c) Nilotinib
(d) Selumetinib
Answer: d
• Selumetinib—oral selective inhibitor of mitogen-activated protein kinase
(MEK or MAPK/ERK kinase) 1 and 2.
• Indications: Symptomatic children ≥2 years with inoperable and progres-
sive plexiform neurofibromas.
6. Which of the following genetic mutations have been identified as a major deter-
mining pathomechanism in Sturge Weber syndrome?
(a) GNAQ
(b) GNAT-1
(c) PIK3CA
(d) ERCC2
Answer: a
Genes Associated with Neurogenetic Syndromes
• Ataxia telangiectasia ATM (11q22)

• Cowden PTEN (10q23)
• Gorlin PTCH1 (9q22), SUFU (10q24)
• Li-Fraumeni TP53 (17p13)
• Multiple endocrine neoplasia type I MEN1 (11q13)
• NF-1 Neurofibromin (17q11)
• NF-2 Merlin (22q12)
• Tuberous sclerosis complex TSC1 (9q34), TSC2 (16q13)
• Turcot MLH1 (3p22), MSH2 (2p21), PMS2
(7p22), APC (5q21)
• Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome VHL (3p25)
• Sturge Weber syndrome GNAQ (9q21)
• Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia HHT1 (ENG-9q34) and HHT2
(ACVRL1-12q13)
• Rubinstein Taybi syndrome CREBBP (16p13)
• Melanoma astrocytoma syndrome CDKN2A (9p21)
• Carney complex PRKAR1A (17q22–24)
• Rhabdoid tumor predisposition syndrome SMARCB1 (22q11)
• Melanoma-astrocytoma syndrome CDKN2A (9p21)
• Retinoblastoma RB1 (13q14.2)
• Nijmegen breakage syndrome NBS1 (8q21)
18 J. M. Das
7. Which of the following modalities has shown promise in the treatment of pres-
ymptomatic patients with Sturge-Weber syndrome?
(a) Antiplatelet medications
(b) Anticonvulsants
(c) Antiplatelet medications and anticonvulsants
(d) Observation alone
Answer: c
75% of children with brain involvement due to SWS develop seizures in the
first year of life.
Early onset of seizures → poor neurological outcome.
Treatment to be started at an early age
8. Which of the following is not a major criterion in the diagnosis of Gorlin
syndrome?
(a) Odontogenic keratocysts of the jaw
(b) Palmar/plantar hyperkeratosis
(c) Bilamellar calcification of the falx cerebri
(d) Ovarian or cardiac fibroma
Answer: d
Gorlin-Glotz Syndrome
Major criteria:
• Basal cell carcinoma <20 years of age
• Odontogenic keratocysts of the jaws—histologically proven
• ≥3 Palmar or plantar pits
• Bilamellar calcification of the falx cerebri
• First-degree relative with the same syndrome
Minor criteria:
• Macrocephaly
• Cleft lip or palate
• Hand/feet/rib/vertebral anomalies
• Ovarian fibroma
• Medulloblastoma
2 major +1 minor OR 1 major +3 minor criteria are necessary to establish a
diagnosis.
9. Curaçao clinical criteria are used in the diagnosis of which neurocutaneous
syndrome?
(a) Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
(b) Gorlin syndrome
(c) Tuberous sclerosis

(d) Sturge Weber syndrome
Answer: a
Curaçao Diagnostic Criteria for HHT (Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome)
• Spontaneous and recurrent epistaxis
• Multiple telangiectases— lips, oral cavity, fingers, nose
• Visceral vascular lesions—gastrointestinal telangiectasia; pulmonary, cere-
bral, hepatic, spinal AVMs
• Family history—first-degree relative with HHT
Three or more criteria to be present for the diagnosis.
10. What is the most common presenting symptom in HHT?
(a) Bleeding port-wine stain
(b) Epistaxis
(c) Hemoptysis
(d) Melena
Answer: b
Epistaxis is the most common symptom that brings a patient with HHT to
medical attention.
11. Infantile spasms in tuberous sclerosis can be effectively treated with which of
the following medicines?
(a) Lamotrigine
(b) Levetiracetam
(c) Vigabatrin
(d) Topiramate
Answer: c
Oral ganaxolone—phase III evaluation in the treatment of tuberous sclerosis
complex-related epilepsy.
12. The genetic cause of Gorlin syndrome is a mutation in the gene located in
which of the following chromosomes?
(a) 9p
(b) 9q
(c) 14p
(d) 14q
Answer: b
20 J. M. Das
13. Which of the following tumor syndromes is less likely to have an association
with medulloblastoma formation?
(a) Gorlin syndrome
(b) Ataxia-telangiectasia
(c) Li-Fraumeni syndrome
(d) Cowden syndrome
Answer: d
The syndromes usually associated with medulloblastoma are
• Gorlin syndrome (nevoid basal cell carcinoma)
• Li Fraumeni syndrome
• Turcot syndrome
• Rubinsten-Taybi syndrome
• Nijmegen breakage syndrome (NBS1 gene—chromosome 8q21)
• Neurofibromatosis
• Ataxia-telangiectasia
14. The NF-1 mutation is located on locus 17q.11.2 which encodes neurofibromin.
What is the normal function of this protein?
(a) Inhibition of the mTOR pathway
(b) Activation of the mTOR pathway
(c) Accelerates the inactivation of Ras
(d) Accelerates the activation of Ras
Answer: c
• The most common tumor-predisposing disease in humans—NF1
• NF1 gene—17q11.2 locus
• Neurofibromin—Tumor suppressor protein
• Neurofibromin = GTPase-activating protein of Ras (Ras-GAP) → increases
the intrinsic GTPase activity of Ras → promotes the hydrolysis of the active
form of Ras (GTP-bound Ras) to an inactive form of Ras (GDP-bound
Ras) → downregulates the Ras signaling pathway
15. Which is the most common intramedullary spinal cord tumor associated

with NF-2?
(a) Astrocytoma
(b) Schwannoma
(c) Ependymoma
(d) Ganglioglioma
Answer: c
NF2:
• Autosomal dominant
• 1 in 33,000 to 40,000 live births
• NF2 tumor suppressor gene (chromosome 22q12)

• Encodes merlin (Moesin-ezrin-radixin-like protein) or schwannomin (a
cytoplasmic protein) which is an enzyme involved in linking membrane-
associated proteins to the actin cytoskeleton
• Acts through Ras/Rac/PAK cell proliferation pathway
• Complete penetrance—50% of patients will harbor de novo mutations
• Clinical Criteria:
1. Bilateral VIII nerve masses seen with appropriate imaging (CT or MRI)
OR First-degree relative with NF-2
AND
2. Either: Unilateral VIII nerve mass, OR
Two of the following:
(i) Neurofibroma
(ii) Meningioma
(iii) Glioma
(iv) Schwannoma
(v) Juvenile posterior subcapsular lenticular opacity
• Dermal tumors are typically schwannomas.
• Bilateral VS (WHO grade I) are pathognomonic for NF2.
• Collision tumors are composed of both meningioma and schwannoma.
• Initial evaluation of a patient with confirmed or suspected NF2:
–– Comprehensive history and physical examination
–– Audiometry including pure tone threshold and word recognition
–– MRI of the brain with axial and coronal fine cuts through the auditory
canal (3-mm slice thickness)
–– MRI of the cervical spine to evaluate for spinal ependymoma.
–– A baseline ophthalmologic examination to assess for posterior subcapsu-
lar cataracts (the juvenile form being pathognomonic for NF2)
Surveillance:
• Neuroimaging of suspicious lesions and audiometry every 6 months
• Patients with VS—annual neuroimaging with fine cuts through the internal
auditory canal and audiometry.
Goals of treatment:
• Preservation of function—hearing
• Maximizing quality of life.
Causes of hearing loss:
• Vestibular nerve compression
• Cochlear aperture obstruction
• Intralabyrinthine protein accumulation
• Primary hair cell dysfunction
22 J. M. Das
Bilateral VS arise from the superior and inferior vestibular branches of the
eighth cranial nerve.
There is no consensus on the management of VS Less than 3 cm—Surgery
vs SRS.
Indications for Surgery:
1. Tumor >3 cm
2. Brainstem compression or hydrocephalus
3. Patients not interested in SRS
Drug shown to be effective in the management of NF2-associated VS—Bev-
acizumab.
Surgery for NF2 meningiomas—Rapid tumor growth or symptomatic neuro-
logical decline.
Spinal ependymomas have an indolent course and are typically observed.
16. Which of the following genetic syndromes is associated with Lhermitte- Duclos
disease?
(a) Gorlin syndrome
(b) Ataxia-telangiectasia
(c) Li-Fraumeni syndrome
(d) Cowden syndrome
Answer: d
17. Which of the following is the least common central nervous system tumor asso-
ciated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome?
(a) Choroid plexus carcinoma
(b) Medulloblastoma
(c) Astrocytoma
(d) Ependymoma
Answer: d
18. Which of the following are the most common brain tumors associated with Li-
Fraumeni syndrome?
(a) Choroid plexus carcinoma
(b) Medulloblastoma
(c) Astrocytoma
(d) Ependymoma
Answer: c
19. What is the first-line treatment for subependymal giant cell astrocytoma associ-
ated with tuberous sclerosis?
(a) Mammalian target of rapamycin inhibitor
(b) Surgical excision
(c) Radiotherapy
(d) Laser therapy
Answer: a
20. The most common genetic mutation in Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome is in which
of the following genes?
(a) CREBBP
(b) C-MYB
(c) C-FOS
(d) CITED2
Answer: a
21. Which is the most common type of pituitary adenoma associated with Multiple
Endocrine Neoplasia type 1?
(a) Growth Hormone adenoma
(b) Non-functioning adenoma
(c) Corticotroph adenoma
(d) Prolactinoma
Answer: d
22. Which CNS tumor is most commonly associated with Turcot syndrome 1?
(a) Meningioma
(b) Hemangioblastoma
(c) Medulloblastoma
(d) Glioma
Answer: d
“Springer Nature Flashcards” app to access questions using https://sn.pub/3HwHCw
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org/10.1177/0883073812446485. Epub 2012 Jun 29
5. Jawa DS, Sircar K, Somani R, Grover N, Jaidka S, Singh S. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome. J Oral
Maxillofac Pathol. 2009;13(2):89–92. https://doi.org/10.4103/0973-029X.57677.
6. McDonald J, Bayrak-Toydemir P, DeMille D, Wooderchak-Donahue W, Whitehead K. Curaçao
diagnostic criteria for hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is highly predictive of a patho-
genic variant in ENG or ACVRL1 (HHT1 and HHT2). Genet Med. 2020;22(7):1201–5. https://
doi.org/10.1038/s41436-020-0775-8. Epub 2020 Apr 17
7. Garg N, Khunger M, Gupta A, Kumar N. Optimal management of hereditary hemorrhagic tel-
angiectasia. J Blood Med. 2014;15(5):191–206. https://doi.org/10.2147/JBM.S45295.
8. Carta R, Del Baldo G, Miele E, Po A, Besharat ZM, Nazio F, Colafati GS, Piccirilli E, Agolini
E, Rinelli M, Lodi M, Cacchione A, Carai A, Boccuto L, Ferretti E, Locatelli F, Mastronuzzi
A. Cancer predisposition syndromes and Medulloblastoma in the molecular era. Front Oncol.
9. Bergoug M, Doudeau M, Godin F, Mosrin C, Vallée B, Bénédetti H. Neurofibromin structure,
functions and regulation. Cell. 2020;9(11):2365. https://doi.org/10.3390/cells9112365.
Chapter 3
Angiogenesis
Joe M Das
1. Match the following genes with the corresponding property related to

angiogenesis
(a) Angiogenesis promoter
(b) Angiogenesis inhibitor
i. VEGF
ii. HGF-SF
iii. bFGF
iv. Angiopoietin 2
v. Interferon-α
vi. IL-6
vii. TIMP 1
Answer:
• Angiogenesis promoters VEGF, HGF-SF, bFGF, IL-6
• Angiogenesis inhibitors Angiopoietin 2, interferon-α, TIMP 1
• Other important proangiogenic factors include CXCL12 (SDF1α), HIF1α,

angiopoietin 1, TGF-β1, IL-1a, IL-6, and IL-8.
• Other important proangiogenic factors include CXCL12 (SDF1α), HIF1α,
angiopoietin 1, TGF-β1, IL-1a, IL-6, and IL-8.
? Cause → Hypoxia → Release of proangiogenic factors (PAF) → Binding
of PAF with receptors on the endothelial cell membrane → Dissolution of
the blood vessel wall → Degradation of the endothelial cell basement mem-
brane and ECM → Remodeling the ECM components by MMP → Stromal
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
26 J. M. Das
cells create new matrix → migration and proliferation of endothelial

cells → endothelial tube-like structure → a mature vascular basement mem-
brane is formed around this → Mural cells (pericytes and smooth muscle
cells) surrounding it resulting in a stable new vessel.
2. Which of the following is the main mediator in hypoxia-induced tumor growth?
(a) VEGF A
(b) VEGF B
(c) VEGF C
(d) VEGF D
Answer: a
• Overexpression of VEGF and VEGF-R1 in the low-grade astrocyto-
mas → dismal prognosis like high-grade lesions.
• VEGF-A is the most potent angiogenic factor (gene located on the short arm
of chromosome six)
3. Which of the following MMPs are highly expressed in patients with WHO
grade 3 brain tumors?
(a) MMP 1 and 2
(b) MMP 2 and 9
(c) MMP 4 and 9
(d) MMP 1 and 4
Answer: b
• Gelatinase-A (MMP-2) and gelatinase-B (MMP-9) are highly expressed in
patients with WHO grade 3 brain tumors
4. Match the following therapeutic agents with their molecular targets:
(a) Cilengitide HIF 1A
(b) Bevacizumab VEGFR2, EGFR
(c) Panzem® Integrins ανβ3 and ανβ5
(d) Vandetanib VEGF A
Answer:
1. Cilengitide Integrins ανβ3 and ανβ5
2. Bevacizumab VEGF A
3. Panzem® HIF 1A
4. Vandetanib VEGFR2, EGFR
5. Which of the following is false regarding Bevacizumab?

(a) It is approved for use in recurrent glioblastoma in the US
(b) The usual dose is 15–20 mg/kg
(c) Mild epistaxis is the most common form of bleeding seen as a side effect
(d) Hypertension is one of the most commonly seen side effects
Answer: b
3 Angiogenesis 27
6. Which of the following molecules is being tried to overcome resistance to beva-

cizumab by cancer cells?
(a) Nintedanib
(b) Sunitinib
(c) Sorafenib
(d) Pazopanib
Answer: a
Nintedanib (BIBF 1120): triple angiokinase (tyrosine kinase) inhibitor
(inhibitor of VEGFR, PDGFR, and FGFR)
7. Which of the following anti-parasitic agent has been used as a low-toxicity
treatment against angiogenesis in medulloblastoma?
(a) Hydroxychloroquine
(b) Albendazole
(c) Mebendazole
(d) Ivermectin
Answer: c
8. Which of the following viruses can promote all the stages of angiogenesis and
is considered a target for the treatment of glioblastoma?
(a) Human immunodeficiency virus
(b) Cytomegalovirus
(c) Herpes simplex virus
(d) JC virus
Answer: b
9. Which type of glioblastoma has shown the maximum response to anti-
angiogenic treatment?
(a) IDH1 wild-type, proneural glioblastoma
(b) IDH1 mutant, proneural glioblastoma
(c) IDH1 wild-type, proliferative glioblastoma
(d) IDH1 mutant, proliferative glioblatoma
Answer: a
10. Match the following therapeutic agents with their mechanism of action:
(a) Bevacizumab: Inhibitor of mTOR.
(b) Aflibercept: Inhibitor of PI3K pathway
(c) Sunitinib: Binds to VEGF A and renders it unavailable to bind to receptors
(d) Sorafenib: Prevents binding of VEGF-A to receptors
(e) Wortmannin: Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
(f) Everolimus: Inhibits MAPK signaling
(g) Lonafarnib: Inhibitor of intracellular Raf kinase and targets MAPK, Raf/MEK/ERK
signaling pathways
28 J. M. Das
Answer:
(a) Bevacizumab: Prevents binding of VEGF-A to receptors.
(b) Aflibercept: Binds to VEGF A and renders it unavailable to bind to receptors
(c) Sunitinib: Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
(d) Sorafenib: Inhibitor of intracellular Raf kinase and targets MAPK, Raf/MEK/ERK
signaling pathways
(e) Wortmannin: Inhibitor of PI3K pathway
(f) Everolimus: Inhibitor of mTOR.
(g) Lonafarnib: Inhibits MAPK signaling
11. Which of the following microRNAs is most important in the intercellular com-
munication from glioblastoma to endothelial cells and astrocytes?
(a) miR-21
(b) miR-301a
(c) miR-124-3p
(d) miR-5096
Answer: d
12. Glioma cells move towards and along the pre-existing tissue blood vessels and
utilize them to support tumor growth, survival, and metastasis. What is this
process known as?
(a) Angiogenic switch
(b) Vessel co-option
(c) Vasculogenic mimicry
(d) Intussusception
Answer: b
Angiogenic switch:
• It is a time-restricted event during tumor progression.
• The balance between pro- and anti-angiogenic factors favors a pro-
angiogenic outcome during this event.
• This results in the transition: Dormant avascularized hyperpla-
sia → Vascularized tumor → Malignant tumor progression.
Key steps:
• Gene mutation / Hypoxia → Glioma cells release VEGF / bFGF → Activate
brain endothelial cells (Switch event) → Angiogenic phenotype.
• VEGF binds to endothelial cell receptors → Activate signal transduction
pathways → Endothelial cell proliferation
• Sprouting vessels → Urokinase and MMPs → Vessels migrate toward the
tumor using αβ integrins.
Vessel Co-option
• Glioma cells surround the host vessels → Migration along these vessels
away from the main tumor mass → Protected environment (vascular niche)
3 Angiogenesis 29
• The critical size of the glioma cluster 5 × 105 cells → Recruitment of its own
additional vessels → The process is repeated
Vasculogenic mimicry
• Tumor cells → trans-differentiation → Obtain features of endothelial
cells → Form vessel-like structures lacking endothelium → Connect with
blood vessels to supply blood to the tumor.
Intussusception (Intussusceptive or Splitting Angiogenesis)
• Formation of new blood vessels by splitting off existing vessels. The capil-
lary wall extends into the single blood vessel lumen in two.
Angiotherapy
• Decreasing the tumor volume by inhibiting angiogenesis
Vasculogenesis
• Differentiation of precursor cells (angioblasts) or bone marrow−derived
cells → Endothelial cells → Formation of a primitive vascular network
Angiogenesis
• The proliferation of endothelial cells from local preexisting vessels.
13. Bevacizumab is not approved by FDA in the treatment of
(a) Metastatic colorectal cancer
(b) Metastatic renal cell cancer
(c) Newly diagnosed glioblastoma
(d) Recurrent glioblastoma
Answer: c
14. Which is not a histological pattern of secondary structures of Scherer?
(a) Subpial spread
(b) Perineuronal satellitosis
(c) Perivascular satellitosis
(d) Subarachnoid spread
Answer: d
Secondary Structures of Scherer
The glioma cells migrate away from the main tumor mass through the brain
parenchyma. These are called secondary structures of Scherer.
Four types of spread:
• Subpial spread
• Perineuronal satellitosis
• Perivascular satellitosis
• Invasion along white matter tracts
30 J. M. Das
15. Which of the following markers and their receptors are expressed by most of
the different cell types of the glioblastoma microenvironment?
(a) DCC
(b) NEO1
(c) Netrin-1
(d) UNC5
Answer: c
Bibliography
1. Buruiană A, Florian ȘI, Florian AI, Timiș TL, Mihu CM, Miclăuș M, Oșan S, Hrapșa I,
Cataniciu RC, Farcaș M, Șușman S. The roles of miRNA in Glioblastoma tumor cell commu-
nication: diplomatic and aggressive negotiations. Int J Mol Sci. 2020;21(6):1950. https://doi.
org/10.3390/ijms21061950.
2. Hara A, Kanayama T, Noguchi K, Niwa A, Miyai M, Kawaguchi M, Ishida K, Hatano Y, Niwa
M, Tomita H. Treatment strategies based on histological targets against invasive and resistant
Glioblastoma. J Oncol. 2019;2019:2964783. https://doi.org/10.1155/2019/2964783.
3. Vásquez X, Sánchez-Gómez P, Palma V. Netrin-1 in Glioblastoma neovascularization: the new
partner in crime? Int J Mol Sci. 2021;22(15):8248. https://doi.org/10.3390/ijms22158248.
Chapter 4
Epidemiology
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following factors is not associated with better survival in patients
with glioblastoma?
(a) IDH mutation
(b) Less contrast enhancement on MRI scan
(c) Young age
(d) Involvement of splenium
Answer: d
The variables associated with better prognosis of glioblastoma:
• Younger age
• IDH mutation in the tumor
• Higher Karnofsky Performance Scale score
• Greater extent of resection and capacity for complete resection
• Lower degree of tumor necrosis
• Less contrast enhancement in the tumor on preoperative magnetic resonance
imaging studies
• Decreased volume of residual disease
• Smaller preoperative and postoperative tumor size
• More favorable tumor location (poorer survival is associated with tumor
infiltration of the splenium, basal ganglia, thalamus, or midbrain)
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
32 J. M. Das
2. Match the following mutations with the glioblastoma subtype in which they are
commonly seen.
(a) Classical SLC12A
(b) Mesenchymal EGFR amplification
(c) Proneural Hemizygous deletion of NF1
(d) Proneural PDGFRA mutation
Answer:
Classical EGFR amplification
Mesenchymal Hemizygous deletion of NF1
Proneural PDGFRA mutation
Neural SLC12A5
3. Which is the familial tumor syndrome most frequently associated with glioma?
(a) Li-Fraumeni syndrome
(b) Multiple endocrine neoplasia—I
(c) Multiple endocrine neoplasia—II
(d) Neurofibromatosis—1
Answer: a
4. Which single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) is associated with a six-fold
increased risk of developing an IDH-mutant glioma?
(a) 8q24.21 SNP
(b) 8p24.21 SNP
(c) 10q21.24 SNP
(d) 10p21.24 SNP
Answer: a
5. Which of the following interleukins present in allergic conditions reduce the
risk of gliomagenesis?
(a) IL-1 and IL-3
(b) IL-2 and IL-14
(c) IL-3 and IL-8
(d) IL-4 and IL-13
Answer: d
6. Smoking has been inversely related to the risk of development of which of the
following tumors?
(a) Low-grade glioma
(b) High-grade glioma
(c) Meningioma
(d) Acoustic neuroma
Answer: d
4 Epidemiology 33
7. Which of the following is the most common type of secondary brain tumor fol-
lowing cranial radiotherapy?
(a) Low-grade glioma
(b) High-grade glioma
(c) Meningioma
(d) Acoustic neuroma
Answer: c
8. Which of the following cancers is the most common primary to be identified in
a patient with CNS metastasis?
(a) Lung and bronchus
(b) Breast
(c) Melanoma
(d) Kidney
Answer: a
9. Which of the following countries/continents has the lowest mortality due to
brain tumors?
(a) United States of America
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Australia
(d) Japan
Answer: d
10. What is the position of brain tumors in the hierarchical order of average years
of life lost due to the disease?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer: d
Testes, cervix, and Hodgkin Lymphoma occupy the first, second, and third
positions respectively.
11. Which of the following tumors has the highest rate of CNS metastasis among
all cancer types?
(a) Lung and bronchus
(b) Breast
(c) Melanoma
(d) Kidney
Answer: c
34 J. M. Das
12. World Brain Tumor Day is celebrated on

(a) April 11
(b) June 8
(c) October 25
(d) October 29
Answer: b
• April 11—World Parkinson Disease Day
• October 25—World Spina Bifida and Hydrocephalus Day
• October 29—World Stroke Day
13. Worldwide age-standardized annual incidence of primary malignant brain

tumors is
(a) 1.3 per 100,000 males
(b) 2.6 per 100,000 males
(c) 3.9 per 100,000 males
(d) 4.8 per 100,000 males
Answer: c
• Worldwide age-standardized annual incidence of primary malignant brain
tumors is:
–– ~3.9 per 100,000 for males
–– ~3 per 100,000 for females
• Worldwide age-standardized mortality of primary malignant brain tumors is:
–– ~3.2 per 100,000 for males
–– ~2.4 per 100,000 for females
14. Which of the following statements regarding brain tumors is false?
(a) Most malignant primary brain tumors occurring in the cerebral cortex
develop in the frontal lobe
(b) Brain malignancy contributes to the fourth highest number of years of life
lost due to cancer
(c) Mortality rates in some Asian countries are lower due to brain cancer when
compared to Western countries
(d) Up to 50% of people with primary cancers in other parts of the body will
develop metastases to the brain
Answer: d
Up to 30% of people with primary cancers in other parts of the body will
develop metastases to the brain.
4 Epidemiology 35
15. Which of the following is a protective factor against pediatric brain tumors?
(a) Male sex
(b) Non-Hispanic/White ethnicity
(c) Parental age
(d) Early life exposure to infections
Answer: d
Risk Factors:
• Ionizing radiation
• Hereditary cancer syndromes
• Birth defects
• Male sex
• Non-Hispanic/White ethnicity
• Paternal age and high socioeconomic status
• Dietary n-nitroso compounds
• High birth weight
Allergic and atopic conditions are protective factors.
Bibliography
1. Oktay Y, Ülgen E, Can Ö, Akyerli CB, Yüksel Ş, Erdemgil Y, Durası IM, Henegariu OI, Nanni
EP, Selevsek N, Grossmann J, Erson-Omay EZ, Bai H, Gupta M, Lee W, Turcan Ş, Özpınar A,
Huse JT, Sav MA, Flanagan A, Günel M, Sezerman OU, Yakıcıer MC, Pamir MN, Özduman
K. IDH-mutant glioma specific association of rs55705857 located at 8q24.21 involves MYC
deregulation. Sci Rep. 2016;10(6):27569. https://doi.org/10.1038/srep27569.
2. Gould J. Breaking down the epidemiology of brain cancer. Nature. 2018;561(7724):S40–1.
https://doi.org/10.1038/d41586-018-06704-7.
3. Tawbi H, To TM, Bartley K, Sadetsky N, Burton E, Haydu L, McKenna E. Treatment patterns
and clinical outcomes for patients with melanoma and central nervous system metastases: a
real-world study. Cancer Med. 2022;11(1):139–50. https://doi.org/10.1002/cam4.4438. Epub
2021 Dec 7
4. Sung H, Ferlay J, Siegel RL, Laversanne M, Soerjomataram I, Jemal A, Bray F. Global cancer
statistics 2020: GLOBOCAN estimates of incidence and mortality worldwide for 36 cancers
in 185 countries. CA Cancer J Clin. 2021;71(3):209–49. https://doi.org/10.3322/caac.21660.
Epub 2021 Feb 4
5. Adel Fahmideh M, Scheurer ME. Pediatric brain tumors: descriptive epidemiology, risk fac-
tors, and future directions. Cancer Epidemiol Biomark Prev. 2021;30(5):813–21. https://doi.
org/10.1158/1055-9965.EPI-20-1443. Epub 2021 Mar 2
Chapter 5
White Matter Fiber Tracts
Dia R. Halalmeh and Marc D. Moisi
1. A 54-year-old man is being evaluated for muscle weakness. The patient drinks
alcohol daily and has been binge drinking for the past 2 days. He has had no
numbness, vision changes, or dizziness. The patient’s only other medical condi-
tion is hypertension for which he takes captopril and chlorthalidone. This morn-
ing, the patient stumbled and fell several times while trying to get to the
bathroom. Physical examination shows right lower extremity weakness but sen-
sation to touch and vibration is normal. MRI was performed and revealed
2 cm × 4 cm irregular lesion in the left hemisphere with mild midline shift. A
diagnosis of glioblastoma multiforme was made and surgical resection was rec-
ommended. Over the 2 weeks following surgery, the patient gradually devel-
oped slurred speech and his wife, who accompanied him, says “he sounds like
a robot when he speaks”. Diffusion tractography would show disruption to
which of the following white matter tracts in this patient?
(a) Corticospinal tract
(b) Inferior longitudinal fasciculus
(c) Superior longitudinal fasciculus (branch III)
(d) Optic radiation
(e) Arcuate fasciculus
Answer: c
This patient’s speech difficulty manifesting as slurred, robot-like speech is
consistent with acquired dysarthria. In the context of surgical resection of a
brain tumor (glioblastoma in this case), his symptoms are most likely due to
damage to a key pathway involved in the motor articulatory aspect of speech.
Of the given choices, superior longitudinal fasciculus (branch III) (SLF) is
D. R. Halalmeh (*) · M. D. Moisi

Department of Neurosurgery, Hurley Medical Center, Flint, MI, USA

Switzerland AG 2023
38 D. R. Halalmeh and M. D. Moisi
the most likely correct answer. SLF is a recently discovered association tract
located laterally to the centrum semiovale and typically connects the pars oper-
cularis and inferior portion of premotor cortex to supramarginal gyrus. Damage
to any of these components usually results in dysarthric or anarthric speech.
Therefore, diffusion tractography (DT) has been investigated in many studies to
predict recovery of postoperative language deficits. Preservation of parietotem-
poral and arcuate fibers (part of the SLF) has been associated with preserved
language postoperatively.
Points to remember
The Superior Longitudinal Fasciculus represents a major association tract
that links the pars operculum in the frontal lobe to the supramarginal gyrus in
the parietal lobe. Damage to this white matter tract can result in dysarthria or
anarthria. Early postoperative diffusion tractography facilitates the evaluation
of SLF integrity along with its associated fibers, and therefore, the prognosis of
language preservation and recovery can be easily predicted.
2. A 62-year-old, right-handed woman is brought to the emergency department by
her husband due to confusion. This morning, the husband found her confused and
disoriented on the bed. She had also urinated on herself. Temperature is 36.8 °C
(98.2 F), blood pressure is 140/84 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are
20/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. On physical examination, the
patient is somnolent but rouses to voice. Pupils are equal and briskly reactive.
There is no facial droop, but a small laceration on the lateral border of the tongue
is present. MRI imaging demonstrates a large infiltrative tumor involving the
corpus callosum and right middle frontal gyrus, and does not enhance with con-
trast. The patient undergoes frontoparietal craniotomy. Which of the following
imaging modalities will be most useful in maximizing tumor resection while
minimizing injury to subcortical tracts and structures prior to the surgery?
(a) Computed tomography (CT) with contrast
(b) Computed tomography (CT) without contrast
(c) Fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR)
(d) Diffusion tensor (DT) imaging
(e) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
(f) Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR) imaging
Answer: d
This patient with an infiltrative brain tumor (as seen in MRI) developed
a seizure (evidenced by urinary incontinence and lateral tongue biting in this
patient). This is a common initial presentation for most infiltrative cerebral neo-
plasms. In many patients, surgical resection is typically recommended.
However, surgical planning and postoperative potential complications should
be discussed with the patient. The risks of adverse outcomes should be weighed
against the benefit of adequate surgical resection. This is usually a challenging
issue that encounters most neurosurgeons when making the final physician-
patient shared decision, particularly in a patient with infiltrative lesions.
5 White Matter Fiber Tracts 39
Therefore, a variety of imaging modalities have been developed to facilitate

the delicate identification of the long white matter tracts within the brain paren-
chyma. Of these, diffusion tensor (DT) imaging, a diffusion-weighted (DW)-
based neuroimaging, has been successfully used to map white matter tracts in
the brain and to delineate anatomical directions of these tracts that otherwise
cannot be identified using the standard functional MRI. Furthermore, the integ-
rity of such tracts can be easily characterized using color-coded DT maps.
Points to remember
Detailed anatomical characterization of white matter tracts as well as evalu-
ating the integrity of these pathways minimize injury associated with surgical
resection and help improves postoperative outcomes and recovery. Diffusion
Tensor (DT) mapping is a useful tool for surgical planning in patients with
infiltrative brain tumors.
3. A 58-year-old Hispanic male presents to the office due to gradually worsening
headaches and changes in concentration. The patient developed these head-
aches a month ago and since then has had continuous throbbing pain over the
left side of his head that is associated with nausea. He has had no trauma, neck
stiffness, fever, double or blurry vision, or photophobia. The patient appears
diaphoretic and uncomfortable on examination. Blood pressure is 130/75 mm
Hg and pulse is 110/min. Neurological examination is unremarkable. A non-
contrast head CT scan revealed a bihemispheric hypodense lesion crossing the
midline to the contralateral parietal lobe with surrounding edema. Direct exten-
sion along which of the following white matter tracts most likely explains this
patient’s radiographic appearance?
(a) Corona radiata
(b) Optic radiation
(c) Fornix
(d) Acoustic radiation
(e) Commissural fibers
(f) Uncinate fascicle
Answer: e
This patient’s presenting symptoms and radiographic findings are consistent
with an expanding intracranial neoplasm. The presence of an intra-axial heter-
ogenous mass with bilateral cerebral hemisphere involvement is highly sugges-
tive of glioblastoma multiforme, the most common primary brain tumor in
adults. This “butterfly” configuration is most commonly due to direct extension
along the corpus callosum. The corpus callosum (the largest white matter in
the brain) is composed of a bundle of commissural subcortical fibers connect-
ing the two hemispheres and allowing for rapid communication. It is typically
resistant to infiltration except for aggressive tumors such as grade 4 astrocy-
toma (glioblastoma multiforme). Therefore, any lesion across the midline
should raise suspicion for glioblastoma.
Points to remember
Clinicians should have a high index of suspicion with a low threshold for
investigation of suspected glioblastoma multiforme. The aggressive tumor is
notorious for its involvement of both cerebral hemispheres by direct extension
along the corpus callosum; normally an infiltration-resistant subcortical
structure.
4. A daughter brings her 69-year-old mother to the office for evaluation of her
facial appearance. She reports that she woke up this morning with unusually
excessive saliva on her pillow. Her medical history is notable for poorly con-
trolled, long-standing hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Medications include
aspirin, metoprolol, valsartan, hydrochlorothiazide, amlodipine, atorvastatin,
and metformin. She has a 20-pack-year smoking history but quit 8 years ago.
The patient is retired and lives with her only daughter. Blood pressure is
177/100 mm Hg in the left arm and 180/100 mm Hg in the right. A focused
neurological examination shows right-sided weakness in the upper extremity
that is most noticeable in the hand as well as facial asymmetry. She has no dif-
ficulty closing her eyes tight, however, drooping of the right corner of the mouth
on the right side is noted. Which of the following fibers subtypes is most likely
affected in this patient?
(a) Commissural fibers
(b) Projection fibers
(c) Association fibers
(d) Cerebellopontine fibers
(e) Optic pathway
Answer: b
This patient presents with acute, focal neurologic deficits, which should
raise concern for stroke. The presence of unilateral facial symptoms along with
sparing of the forehead is consistent with an upper motor neuron lesion of the
connection from the motor cortex to the facial nucleus in the pons.
Based on their connectivity, white matter tracts are typically classified into
projection, association, and commissural fibers. The projection fibers connect
the cortical grey matter with subcortical structures (eg, basal ganglia, head and
face nuclei in the brain stem, cerebellum, and spinal cord). The corticobulbar
tract, part of the projection white matter fibers, generally provides upper motor
control of the contralateral brain stem nuclei, except for the facial and hypo-
glossal nuclei which receive bilateral input from both hemispheres. In this
patient, the anterior limb (ie corticospinal tract, explaining her right-sided
weakness) and genu (corticobulbar tract, explaining her facial palsy) of
the internal capsule are most likely affected by the stroke.
Points to remember
White matter tracts are classified into three fiber bands based on their con-
nectivity: projection, association, and commissural fibers. Projection fibers rep-
resent tracts between the grey matter and subcortical structures.
5. A 51-year-old woman comes to the clinic for recurrent seizures. After evalua-
tion, she is diagnosed with WHO grade 2 “Diffuse” astrocytoma. The neurosur-
geon discusses surgical removal with the patient and informed consent was
obtained. Due to the infiltrative nature of the tumor, the surgeon bilaterally
resects part of the posterior fibers of the inferior longitudinal fasciculus (ILF)
tract. Based on the above information, which of the following is most likely to
result from this patient’s surgical intervention?
(a) Dysarthria
(b) Pure alexia
(c) Hearing loss
(d) Aphasia
(e) Paresis
(f) Hypertonia
Answer: b
This patient’s surgical intervention resulted in injury to the inferior longitu-
dinal fasciculus (ILF), particularly the posterior fibers. This white matter tract
is typically involved in a variety of brain functions, however; its posterior por-
tion plays a major role in visual processing and visually associated behaviors
(eg, reading). Therefore, ILF disruption in this patient would most likely lead to
alexia. Other visual functions such as object and face recognition may also be
impaired. Bilateral lesions are usually required for the full clinical picture as
injury to one tract can be compensated for by the contralateral portion.
Moreover, it has been shown that disturbances in ILF are the basis for visual
hallucinations in some disorders (especially schizophrenia).
Points to remember
Inferior longitudinal fasciculus (ILF) can be injured during surgical resec-
tion of infiltrative brain tumors. This typically results in visually associated
symptoms such as visual agnosia, prosopagnosia, and alexia.
6. A 54-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of right-sided arm
weakness and numbness over the past month. Brain MRI revealed a left fronto-
parietal lesion predominantly involving the postcentral gyrus. Glioblastoma is
suspected and further evaluation is required. Which of the following is the most
appropriate imaging modality for surgical planning in this patient?
(a) Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR) imaging
(b) Diffusion tensor (DT) imaging
(c) CT scan of the head
(d) Fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR)
(e) Functional MRI (fMRI)
(f) High-definition fiber tractography (HDFT)
Answer: e
This patient right-sided upper extremity weakness along with numbness
suggests the involvement of the precentral and postcentral gyrus. The cortico-
spinal tract is typically responsible for controlling motor function and thus
tumor displacement of this tract would most likely result in a weakness (as seen
in this patient). Given the patient’s age and gradual worsening of the symptoms,
this most likely represents a growing neoplastic lesion (particularly malignant
due to the rapid progression within 1 month).
Although the conventional white matter tractography, diffusion tensor imag-
ing (DTI), is usually used for preoperative planning to maximize surgical resec-
tion while preserving adjacent tracts, some cases are quite complex due to the
involvement of multiple crossing fibers. This issue has been resolved by using
a more advanced imaging modality, the high-definition fiber tractography
(HDFT), particularly in the setting of edematous zones surrounding high-grade
cerebral neoplasms. The characterization of the fiber bundles provided by
HDFT is superior to that of traditional DTI due to its ability to delineate the
spatial relationship of white matter tracts in a 3D manner. Therefore, this allows
the surgeon to accurately plan the optimal surgical approach and minimize oth-
erwise unavoidable extensive resection.
Points to remember
For patients with infiltrative high-grade brain gliomas that involve multiple
white matter tracts, a 3D characterization of the spatial anatomical orientation
can be provided by high-definition fiber tractography.
7. A 65-year-old woman is brought to the office by her spouse due to cognitive
impairment. The patient has been mildly forgetful over the past 4 months,
with a further significant decline in the last 2 months. She performs most daily
activities independently but must be reminded frequently to perform basic self-
care. She has had no gait abnormalities, motor weakness, or other neurological
deficits. She still enjoys spending time with family and friends. She was recently
diagnosed with an advanced primary brain tumor for which she has received
partial brain radiotherapy. Which of the following subcortical structures would
be most susceptible to radiotherapy-induced damage?
(a) Basal ganglia
(b) Thalamus
(c) Fornix
(d) Internal capsule
(e) Optical radiation
(f) Inferior longitudinal fasciculus
(g) Superior longitudinal fasciculus
Answer: c
This patient’s 4-month memory deficit in the setting of recent brain radiation
is highly suggestive of radiation-induced white matter damage. White mat-
ter fibers that comprise the limbic system are the most susceptible white matter
tracts to radiotherapy of the brain. Of these, fornix, cingulum, and corpus cal-
losum are the most affected. This typically occurs in a dose-dependent fashion.
Radiosensitivity of the limbic system and resultant dysfunction of cognitive
abilities following radiotherapy indicates that these white matter fibers play a
critical role in memory formation.
Points to remember
Fornix, cingulum bundles, and corpus callosum are the most susceptible
white matter tracts to radiotherapy of the brain.
8. A 9-year-old boy is brought to the office by his parents due to worsening head-
aches over the past month. Gait is slow and unsteady. A brain MRI revealed a
posterior fossa mass consistent with medulloblastoma. Surgical removal of the
tumor was successfully performed without postoperative complications. A fol-
low-up evaluation after 2 years revealed a generalized decrease in cognitive
performance which was noted by his parents as deteriorating academic perfor-
mance. A teacher has expressed concern that his grades have dropped from a B
to a C average, that he is not engaged in class, and that his work has become
“sloppy.” Diffusion MRI demonstrated decreased fractional anisotropy (FA)
associated with white matter volume loss. Which of the following is the most
likely explanation of this patient current presentation?
(a) Recurrence of medulloblastoma
(b) Metastasis of medulloblastoma to supratentorial region
(c) Microstructural damage to supratentorial frontal white matter
(d) Hydrocephalus
(e) Inadequate surgical removal of the tumor.
Answer: c
The 9-year-old child has undergone surgical removal of medulloblastoma
and the subsequent cognitive decline and academic deterioration are suggestive
of damage to supratentorial frontal white matter fibers. Survivors of medul-
loblastoma frequently have reduced white matter volume associated with neu-
rocognitive dysfunction following surgery but prior to radiation and
chemotherapy. The presentation may include a decline in working memory,
intelligence, academic performance, and attention span (as seen in this patient).
Diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (DWI) classically shows a
decrease in fractional anisotropy (FA) which is most predominant in corona
radiata and corpus callosum. This highlights the effect of surgical removal of
posterior fossa tumors as well as the tumor itself on distant supratentorial white
matter tracts, particularly frontal fibers.
Points to remember
Volume loss of supratentorial, frontal white matter fibers following surgical
removal of posterior fossa tumors (eg, medulloblastoma) is responsible for the
neurocognitive decline in survivors.
9. A 56-year-old man is being evaluated for a recent diagnosis of low-grade gli-

oma. On neuroimaging, the tumor is found to be extending along the inferior
fronto-occipital fasciculus (IFOF). The patient will most likely exhibit abnor-
mality in which of the following high cortical functions?
(a) Spatial awareness
(b) Interpretation of sensory stimuli
(c) Executive functioning
(d) Semantic language
(e) Memory formation
Answer: d
The inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus (IFOF) is a long white matter tract
that connects the occipital and frontal lobe on either side of the claustrum. It
courses superficially to the temporal horn and laterally to the optic radiation
before terminating variably at several areas of the cerebrum. Given this ana-
tomical characterization, the IFOF plays a role in semantic language skills,
especially naming. In addition, the tract links fibers from auditory and visual
association cortices to the prefrontal area. This best explains the spread of dis-
ease between those areas, particularly the frontal and occipital lobes. It has been
also implicated in the pathophysiology of Alzheimer disease, schizophrenia,
and amnesia.
Points to remember
Dysfunction of inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus (IFOF) may lead to lan-
guage disorders, especially semantic deficit. The spread of diseases along this
tract can explain the spatial relationship between the area of deficit and the con-
nected cortices.
10. A 58-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to an episode
of syncope, as stated by his wife who is a nurse practitioner. On physical exami-
nation, the patient is oriented to time, place, and person, but there is short-term
memory impairment. Mild weakness of the left-sided extremities and a prona-
tor drift of the left arm are present. Evidence of tongue biting is observed. An
MRI of the brain shows a tumor involving the area anterior to the precentral
gyrus in the right hemisphere. A brain biopsy revealed a malignant neoplasm
and the patient was admitted to the hospital for surgical removal. The surgery
was uncomplicated, and he is doing well. On postoperative day 4, the patient is
found to be unable to move the left side of his body in addition to an inability
to speak. Deep tendon reflexes are normal throughout. Which of the following
is the most likely cause of this patient’s current symptoms?
(a) Iatrogenic injury to the precentral gyrus
(b) Intracranial hemorrhage
(c) Postoperative stroke
(d) Supplementary motor area syndrome
(e) Inadequate removal of the tumor
Answer: d
This patient’s left-sided hemiparesis with normal deep tendon reflexes fol-
lowing surgical removal of brain tumor involving supplementary motor area
(SMA) is concerning for SMA syndrome. SMA is located anterior to the pri-
mary motor cortex (as seen in this patient). Importantly, the frontal aslant tract
connects the precentral gyrus with the supplementary motor area. Damage to
this fasciculus is thought to be responsible for the manifestations of SMA syn-
drome. These include transient loss of motor function usually on the contralat-
eral side as well as mutism. Symptoms typically resolve completely within
weeks to months. SMA syndrome most commonly results from neurosurgical
resection of a tumor within this territory. Patients should be counseled about
this syndrome and the transient nature of its symptoms.
Points to remember
The frontal aslant tract is a white matter tract that connects the primary
motor cortex with the supplementary motor area. Neurosurgical resection of
this tract can lead to SMA syndrome which typically presents as contralateral
motor weakness and speech deficit.
11. A neurosurgery resident is looking at diffusion tensor (DT) tractography for a
patient diagnosed with glioblastoma multiforme who is scheduled for surgery.
The resident noticed a fiber tract extending from the anterior temporal lobe to
the inferior frontal and orbital gyri. Which of the following white matter tracts
is the resident currently observing?
(a) Middle longitudinal fasciculus
(b) Uncinate fasciculus (of Russell)
(c) Inferior longitudinal fasciculus
(d) Superior longitudinal fasciculus
(f) Cingulum
Answer: b
Uncinate fasciculus (of Russell) is a group of white matter association
fibers that connects the anterior temporal lobe (particularly anterior parahippo-
campus and amygdala) with the inferior frontal and orbital gyri (ie. Orbitofrontal
cortex). It is the last white matter tract to complete development in the human
brain. The fibers course above the M1 segment of the middle cerebral artery in
the anterior portion of the tract. Due to its anatomical distribution between the
limbic system and orbitofrontal cortex, it is thought that damage to this tract is
responsible for severe retrograde memory loss, especially following a trauma.
Moreover, learning of associations through a trial and error method is strongly
related to the microstructure of uncinate fasciculus.
Points to remember
Uncinate fasciculus (of Russel) is an association white matter tract that links
the temporal lobe to the frontal lobe. It plays a crucial role in the maintenance
of retrograde memory.
12. A 62-year-old woman with high-grade glioma is scheduled for surgery.

Preoperative MRI reveals an infiltrative hyperintense lesion located deep to
the corpus callosum and runs parallel to the superior longitudinal fasciculus
posteriorly along the dorsal border of the caudate nucleus. Which of the follow-
ing is most likely to appear in this patient after resection of this tumor?
(a) Visual impairment
(b) Auditory deficit
(c) Language deficit
(d) Impaired dexterity
(e) Executive dysfunction
(f) Impaired spatial awareness
Answer: f
This patient’s tumor extension along the dorsal border of the caudate nucleus
posteriorly, and its proximity to the superior longitudinal fasciculus is most
likely involving the superior occipitofrontal fasciculus (SOFF). This white
matter association tract connects the frontal and parietal lobes. It runs deep to
the corpus callosum and then courses posteriorly adjacent to the dorsal border
of the caudate nucleus and medial to superior longitudinal fasciculus, particu-
larly the second branch (SLF II). The anterior portion of SOFF lies within the
anterior limb of the internal capsule before terminating at the frontal lobe.
Injury to this tract results in abnormal spatial contextual awareness. It is
important to note that the nomenclature of this tract is relatively confusing as
these fibers do not involve the occipital lobe.
Points to remember
The superior occipitofrontal fasciculus (SOFF) lies medial to the second
branch of the superior longitudinal fasciculus SLF and is responsible for spatial
awareness.
13. A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due
to frequent staring episodes. The parents report that the patient’s head usually
tilts to the left, followed by left arm arbitrary movements during these episodes.
The patient then begins swallowing and chewing his lips and rubbing his fin-
gers. Each episode lasts 2–3 min and the patient appears lethargic and confused
afterward. He had no incontinence during the event but was unable to move his
right arm for 5–10 min afterward. The patient has no other medical conditions
or allergies. He was previously doing well in school, but his grades have
declined over the past few months, and his teacher has noted that he seems
intermittently distracted. Vital signs are normal. The neurological exam is unre-
markable. MRI of the brain showed diffuse hyperintensity involving white mat-
ter fibers located in angular, supramarginal, precentral, and postcentral gyri and
terminating at the middle frontal gyrus. Which of the following is the most
likely affected white matter tract?
(a) Inferior longitudinal fasciculus
(b) Middle longitudinal fasciculus
(c) Superior longitudinal fasciculus (branch II)

(d) Superior longitudinal fasciculus (branch III)
(f) Uncinate fasciculus
Answer: c
This patient likely had a focal seizure, defined as a seizure originating from
a single hemisphere. Focal seizures can also spread to involve both cerebral
hemispheres and cause impaired awareness, as seen with this patient’s subse-
quent staring episode. This patient’s clinical presentation indicates a structural
lesion that triggered his seizure episodes. The MRI of the brain showed a hyper-
intense lesion most likely involving the superior longitudinal fasciculus
(branch II) which normally connects the prefrontal cortex with the inferior
parietal cortex. The tract courses through the following gyri: angular, supramar-
ginal, pre- and post-central, and middle frontal gyri. Because of the involvement
of the parietal lobe (generally responsible for the interpretation of sensory stim-
uli) and parts of the temporal lobe (partly responsible for memory formation),
these fibers are typically involved in abnormalities of spatial working memory
needed for orientation in space and navigation around familiar environments.
Points to remember
Damage to the superior longitudinal fasciculus (branch II) can lead to disor-
ders of spatial memory.
14. A 73-year-old male comes to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of
confusion, ataxia, nausea, and disorientation. The patient was recently diagnosed
with systemic melanoma that is controlled with a nivolumab regimen. An initial
computed tomography (CT) scan revealed an area of left hypodensity measuring
3 × 4 cm adjacent to and compressing a fiber tract that courses caudally on the
roof and lateral wall of the temporal horn of the ventricular system, along with
other multiple lesions throughout the brain. Surgical removal of this lesion will
most likely decompress which of the following tracts in this patient?
(a) Auditory tract
(d) Optic radiation
(e) Fornix
(f) Corona radiata
Answer: d
This patient’s history of systemic melanoma suggests a distant spread to the
brain. Metastatic disease of the CNS is the most common cause of brain tumors.
The hypodense lesion seen in this patient is consistent with a metastatic mela-
noma lesion. The superior and lateral anatomical location around the temporal
horn of the ventricular system most likely involves the optic radiation which
typically originates from the lateral geniculate bodies bilaterally. This white
matter tract is composed of three major bundles: posterior, central, and anterior
bundles. The latter is also known as “Meyer’s loop” due to its curved nature
around the tip of the temporal horn. This patient’s metastatic lesion has com-
pressed Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation. Superior quadrantanopia is also
expected to be found in this patient as Meyer’s loop receives optic information
from the inferior lateral part of the retina.
Points to remember
Optic radiation projects from the lateral geniculate body. Its anterior bundle
“Meyer’s loop” courses on the roof and around the tip of the temporal horn.
15. A researcher is studying the anatomical characterization of the various white
matter tracts in the human brain. She learned that the superior longitudinal fas-
ciculus (SLF) is composed of three major bundles. Damage in which of the
following branches of SLF is most likely to result in aphasia?
(a) SLF (branch I)
(b) SLF (branch II)
(c) SLF (branch III)
(d) Temporo-parietal branch of SLF (SLF-tp)
Answer: d
The superior longitudinal fasciculus is an association white matter tract that
connects the four lobes of the brain. Although there is no clear consensus on the
subcomponents of this tract, it has been shown that there are several major
branches that are consistently seen in diffusion tensor (DT) imaging. These are
the SLF branches I, II, III, and the temporoparietal branch (SLF-tp). The
SLF-tp. As the name implies, this branch connects the temporal lobe with the
parietal lobe and is thought to participate in language processing, especially
interpretation. Therefore, a lesion in this branch would typically result in recep-
tive or “fluent” aphasia due to the proximity of these fibers from Wernicke’s area.
Points to remember
There are several major branches of the superior longitudinal fasciculus:
SLF I, II, III, and tp. The SLF-tp bundle is language-related and injury to this
area results in aphasia.
16. During the dissection of a human brain for teaching purposes, an anatomist
found two semi-parallel bundles of white matter running immediately below
the splenium of the corpus callosum. Rostrally, they form the anterior wall of
the lateral ventricle before they course superomedially to the thalamus. Which
of the following structures represent the origin and terminal destination of these
fibers, respectively?
(a) Thalamus, hippocampus
(b) Cingulum, pineal gland
(c) Mamillary body, supraoptic nucleus
(d) Tectum, hypothalamus
(e) Hippocampus, mamillary bodies
Answer: e
The observed white matter tract most likely represents the fornix, which is
comprised of two thick bundles inferior to the corpus callosum. The fornix
initially originates as a thin, efferent group of fibers from the hippocampus.
These fibers thicken to form the crura of the fornix bilaterally prior to being
connected by the hippocampal commissure. The crura then fuse anterior to the
splenium of the corpus callosum into the body of fornix, passing freely in the
inferior border of the septum pellucidum. At this level, the fornix aligns with
the foremen of Monro and forms the anterior wall of the lateral ventricle. It then
bifurcates into the columns of the fornix before joining the mammillary bodies
on each side. The mammillothalamic tract continues from the mamillary bodies
to the anterior nucleus of the thalamus.
Points to remember
The fornix originates in the hippocampus, runs inferiorly to the corpus cal-
losum, and then terminates at the mamillary bodies.
17. A 32-year-old, left-handed, African American woman comes to the emergency
room due to confusion and severe headaches. Her husband noted that the patient
was running into furniture lately, especially on the right side. He also reports
that his wife was weak on her right side where she has been dropping objects.
MRI of the brain was immediately obtained revealing a large left-sided
temporal-parietal-occipital lesion with heterogenous enhancement and exten-
sive adjacent edema. After stabilization, the patient was counseled on the avail-
able management plans, including surgical intervention. The neurosurgeon
explained the benefits and adverse effects of the surgery as well as alternative
treatments. The patient agreed to surgical removal of the lesion and emphasized
the importance of preserving her language function as she works as a motiva-
tional speaker in a well-known international company. Which of the following
is the most appropriate intraoperative technique for this patient?
(a) Craniotomy with transcranial motor mapping
(b) Awake craniotomy with direct electrical stimulation
(c) Awake craniotomy without electrical stimulation
(d) Craniotomy under general anesthesia with intraoperative navigation based
on preoperative MRI
(e) Craniotomy under general anesthesia with intraoperative fluores-
cence imaging
Answer: b
This young patient has subacute nature of symptom progression. Given her
symptoms and MRI characteristics, this patient most likely has high-grade gli-
oma. In order to achieve safe, maximal resection while preserving the language
area (due to the eloquent location of the tumor, right side in this patient), con-
tinuous intraoperative monitoring is required. This is typically achieved by per-
forming the surgery in an awake manner with direct electrical stimulation
and intraoperative navigation. Therefore, this patient requires left-sided,
awake craniotomy for tumor resection with cortical and subcortical direct
electrical stimulation and mapping, particularly for language function.

Intraoperative brain mapping can be also used for preserving other brain areas
such as those involved in sensorimotor, visual, spatial, and cognitive functions.
Points to remember
Awake craniotomy with direct electrical stimulation and intraoperative navi-
gation can be used for functional mapping and maximizing the resection of
infiltrative lesions within or surrounding the language region in the elo-
quent cortex.
18. A 36-year-old male presented to the clinic secondary to dull aching headaches
involving the right side of the skull and spreading toward the posterior left side
occasionally. MRI of the brain revealed a homogenous FLAIR hyperintense
lesion located in the right insula. An intraoperative awake mapping with corti-
cal and subcortical electrostimulation is recommended to preserve the language
region. To avoid provoking seizures while providing sufficient stimulation,
which of the following pairs of stimulation frequency and current form should
be maintained during the electrostimulation and intraoperative mapping?
(a) 20 Hz, 18 mA
(b) 10 Hz, 25 mA
(c) 2 Hz, 4 mA
(d) 55 Hz, 6 mA
(e) 80 Hz, 20 mA
Answer: d
This young patient likely has low-grade glioma in the right insular lobe.
Operative resection was recommended due to symptoms, the accessible loca-
tion of the tumor, and the patient’s age. Surgical removal for this patient’s tumor
typically requires an intraoperative mapping with cortical and subcortical direct
electrostimulation to maximize resection. Safety and sufficient stimulation
should be taken into consideration simultaneously when performing brain func-
tional mapping. Consequently, the probe electrode should be set on alternating
monopolar square wave pulses (1 ms), low-frequency range of (50–60 Hz),
a stimulus duration of 3–5 s, and slowly increasing the current power up to
8 mA. Of the given choices, choice (D) with 55 Hz, 6 mA is considered safe and
sufficient. The subdural electrode measures are similar to the probe electrode
except that the power of current can be increased up to 15 mA. Importantly,
post-stimulation discharges, represented by false positive responses, should be
carefully monitored and suppressed by icy ringer solution and propofol at all
times during the mapping.
Points to remember
Care should be taken to avoid provoking seizures during awake craniotomy
with brain mapping when using the electrodes during stimulation. An accept-
able safe range of frequency and current power is 50–60 Hz and 2–8 mA (probe
electrode), 2–15 (subdural electrode).
19. During awake craniotomy for removal of low-grade glioma in the left insular
lobe, an electrostimulation with cortical and subcortical mapping was per-
formed. After sensorimotor mapping, the neurosurgeon attempted to preserve
language function due to the involvement of the dominant insula using subcorti-
cal language mapping. Which of the following white matter tracts most likely
runs through the insula and hence must be preserved when possible?
(a) Inferior fronto-occipital tract
(c) Arcuate fasciculus
(d) Superior longitudinal tract
(e) Inferior longitudinal tract
Answer: a
Language processing is typically carried out through dorsal and ventral path-
ways. The dorsal pathway deals with the integration of auditory and motor
functions for optimal articulation. In contrast, the ventral pathway matches
sounds and their meaning in the brain. Notably, the ventral pathway with its two
major tracts; uncinate fasciculus and inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus pass
through the insula. To benefit from continuous monitoring during the assess-
ment of real-time language function in generally anesthetized patients, awake
craniotomy with subcortical mapping is usually required. Therefore, subcorti-
cal language mapping is of paramount importance during the resection of
tumors within the dominant insula.
Points to remember
Subcortical language mapping during awake craniotomy for insular lesions
is important to preserve language function.
20. A 55-year-old male presented with right-sided upper extremity weakness and
numbness over the past several weeks. The patient says, “I think it all began last
month when my wife and I started to fight more than usual”. The symptoms
became more severe today. He has a history of hypercholesterolemia and hyper-
tension. He has no known psychiatric history. Due to the subacute nature of his
symptoms, his primary physician ordered a brain MRI which revealed left-
sided hyperintense, ill-defined frontoparietal lesion with extensions to the
region adjacent to the frontal operculum and external to the claustrum with no
contrast enhancement. The decision was made to undergo awake surgical resec-
tion using intraoperative brain mapping with direct electrical stimulation. Based
on the tumor location, which of the following tasks should be assessed intraop-
eratively while mapping the frontal operculum and adjacent temporal lobe?
(a) Continuous movement with his hands
(b) Disturbance of tongue movement after stimulation of the corresponding area
(c) Visual acuity
(d) Automated speech and object naming
(e) Sensory function
Answer: d
The clinical presentation and brain MRI of this patient are suggestive of a
low-grade glioma. Several studies have shown overall prolonged survival with
early maximal resection. Optimization of surgical removal is key to the suc-
cessful management of these tumors as well as better survival rates. For this
purpose, intraoperative navigation with direct electrical stimulation for func-
tional brain mapping is usually indicated. In this patient, the tumor is located in
the proximity of the frontal operculum and the superior portion of the temporal
lobe, a region occupied by the inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus (IFOF). This
white matter tract is heavily involved in language processing, particularly
semantic language, and naming. As a result, tasks such as automated speech
(eg, counting, reciting days of the week), and object naming (eg, in response to
pictures) during the surgery are used to map language, preserving perilesional
white matter tracts responsible for language production and processing.
Points to remember
Task such as object naming is typically used to map language areas during
awake surgical removal of tumors that are located in the eloquent cortex and
adjacent to main language bundles.
21. A previously healthy, 44-year-old farmer is brought to the emergency depart-
ment due to new-onset confusion and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. In the
emergency department, blood pressure is 174/130 mm Hg, the pulse is 98/min,
and the pulse oximetry is 98% on 100% FiO2. On examination, he is found to
have weakness in his right extremities, more pronounced in his upper arms.
Non-contrast CT scan of the head demonstrated a left frontoparietal hypodense
lesion with extensive surrounding edema. MRI of the brain was then ordered
which confirmed the physician’s suspicion of malignant neoplasm, likely glio-
blastoma multiforme. Following stabilization, the patient was counseled about
the risks and benefits of surgery as well as the prognosis. Which of the following
factors is significantly implicated in the assessment of this patient’s prognosis?
(a) Gender
(b) Concomitant comorbidities and family history
(c) Migration along white matter tracts
(d) Time from symptoms to diagnosis
(e) Degree of adjacent edema
Answer: c
This patient has glioblastoma multiforme (GBM), one of the most aggres-
sive primary brain tumors in adults. The prognosis is still dismal despite the
current advancements in medical and surgical therapies. Survival can be mod-
erately predicted by several factors including but not exclusive to age, postop-
erative residual tumor, and adjuvant therapy. GBM is notorious for infiltrating
and migrating along subcortical white matter tracts. GBMs that intersect white
matter tracts like inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus, and inferior longitudinal
fasciculus (ILF), tend to have a poor prognosis regardless of any therapy. This
is attributed to the ability of the tumor to reach vital areas, especially in
the brainstem, responsible for cardiopulmonary function (eg, breathing and
hemodynamic stability). Interestingly, involvement of left ILF has been associ-
ated with decreased progressing-free survival but not overall survival. This indi-
cates that white matter tract infiltration plays a key role in predicting prognosis
in patients with GBM.
Points to remember
Intersection and migration of malignant gliomas along white matter tracts
may correlate with poor prognosis.
22. A 35-year-old musician is undergoing awake operative removal for low-grade
glioma in a functional area. The neurosurgeon is utilizing intraoperative naviga-
tion with direct electrical stimulation to minimize postoperative functional defi-
cits. During subcortical stimulation of the perilesional region, specifically
inferior and lateral to the temporal horn and under the optic pathways, the
patient exhibited disturbances in spontaneous speech and picture naming.
Which of the following fiber tracts was the neurosurgeon specifically targeting?
(a) Superior longitudinal fasciculus
(d) Inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus
(e) Optic radiation
(f) Uncinate fasciculus
(g) Arcuate fasciculus
Answer: c
This patient’s intraoperative speech difficulties following direct electrical
stimulation are consistent with targeting the inferior longitudinal fasciculus
(ILF). ILF is a long association white matter tract that connects the occipital
lobe with the anterior portion of the temporal lobe. It lies in close contact with
the lateral wall of the temporal horn at the level of the inferior temporal gyrus
and courses beneath the optic radiation. ILF has been strongly associated with
language function, especially visual processing of written language and lan-
guage comprehension. The surgeon targeted the ILF in this patient which
explains the language abnormalities during electrical stimulation.
Points to remember
The inferior longitudinal fasciculus runs near the temporal horn in the supe-
rior temporal gyrus. Intraoperative stimulation of this fiber tract may result in
speech disturbances and semantic deficits.
23. A neurosurgery resident is assisting with a sleep-awake-sleep operative removal
of high-grade glioma in a 43-year-old male patient, using brain mapping and
electrical stimulation. While approaching the lesion through the transsylvian
route, the attendant surgeon asked the resident about an important landmark to
help localize the inferior longitudinal fasciculus and inferior occipitofrontal

fasciculus. Which of the following anatomical landmarks was the attendant
questioning the resident about?
(a) Frontal horns of lateral ventricles
(b) Sylvian fissure
(c) Middle cerebral artery
(d) Lenticulostriate artery
(e) Roof of temporal horn
(f) Central sulcus
Answer: e
Inferior longitudinal fasciculus (ILF) and inferior occipitofrontal fasciculus
(IFOF) are both white matter association tracts that run in close proximity to
each other. An important anatomical landmark that facilitates distinguishing the
two tracts is the roof of the temporal horn of lateral ventricles. This land-
mark is bounded inferiorly by ILF and superiorly by IFOF. It is also important
to note that ILF courses laterally and inferiorly to optic pathways. IFOF, on the
other hand, runs superiorly and medially to optic radiations.
Points to remember
The roof of the temporal horn is a useful anatomical landmark in localizing
the inferior longitudinal fasciculus (ILF) and inferior occipitofrontal fasciculus
(IFOF). ILF runs inferior to the temporal horn whereas IFOF runs superior to it.
24. A 75-year-old, left-handed woman is brought to the emergency department by
her daughter for behavioral issues. Her daughter explains that she has “not been
herself” since visiting her a few months ago. The patient has become increas-
ingly irritable with her daughter for no clear reason. The daughter says, “my
mom inconsistently has had difficulties differentiating between sounds during
the same period. Yesterday, she complained of hearing the sound of a plane tak-
ing off when I was using the microwave”. MRI of the brain was obtained and
revealed a hyperintense lesion involving the right superior temporal lobe in
addition to a low T1 signal involving the left temporal lobe, indicating previous
ischemic stroke. On brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER), long-latency
responses (LLR), and middle latency responses (MLR) are completely abol-
ished. The physician suspects malignant lesions affecting a major white matter
tract. Which of the following structures are anatomically connected via the
most likely involved fiber tract?
(a) Cingulum and anterior thalamus
(b) Lateral geniculate body and occipital lobe
(c) Right and left hemisphere
(d) Orbital cortices and hippocampus
(e) Anterior thalamus and hippocampus
(f) Medial geniculate body and Broadman area 41/42
Answer: f
This patient’s difficulties differentiating environmental sounds and bilateral

involvement of temporal lobes on MRI is consistent with cortical deafness, a
rare form of sensorineural hearing loss. Although the anatomy of the ear is nor-
mal, patients are typically unaware of the sounds (inability to process auditory
information). This is usually the result of bilateral damage to the primary audi-
tory cortex in the superior temporal lobes, as seen in this patient. The auditory
pathway (acoustic radiation) is comprised of heavily myelinated fibers that run
from the medial geniculate body of the thalamus toward the primary audi-
tory cortex (Broadman are 41 and 42).
Points to remember
Bilateral damage to acoustic radiation results in a rare form of sensorineural
hearing loss, cortical (cerebral) deafness. Patients typically present with
an inability to interpret environmental sounds manifested as deafness despite
normal peripheral auditory structures.
25. A 32-year-old, previously healthy woman comes to the office due to worsening
symptoms of menstrual irregularities. Five months ago, the patient began miss-
ing menstrual periods irregularly. A trial of progesterone failed to improve
the patient’s symptoms. She reports that she has been walking into objects over
the same duration. This morning, the patient developed a double vision that
spontaneously resolved within minutes. An initial CT scan of the head demon-
strated a large 3 × 2.4 × 2.2 cm suprasellar lesion with a displacement of the
optic chiasm. A staged endonasal and transcranial resection was recommended.
During the surgery, the surgeon pointed at a structure crossing the midline
immediately above the optic tracts. Which of the following represents the most
likely structure being addressed here?
(a) Optic nerve
(b) Anterior cerebral artery
(c) Anterior commissure
(d) Anterior communicating artery
(e) Preoptic nucleus
Answer: c
Anterior commissure represents an interhemispheric white matter tract that
crosses the midline immediately superior to the optic tracts and inferior to the
rostrum of the corpus callosum. At the midline, it begins as a compact bundle
of fibers below the globus pallidus and within the caudate nucleus; then it fans
out into the temporal and orbitofrontal cortex on each side. It lies anterior to the
columns of the fornix and contains decussating fibers from olfactory tracts.
Additionally, the anterior commissure serves to connect the amygdalae bilater-
ally. The majority of fibers composing this tract merge lateroposteriorly with
the inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus, with some fibers joining the uncinate
fasciculus. It is thought that anterior commissure contributes to a variety of
brain functions, especially pain perception olfaction, and sexual function.
Points to remember
The anterior commissure is one of the interhemispheric white matter tracts
and is located superiorly to the optic tracts and inferior to the rostrum of the cor-
pus callosum across the midline.
26. A diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) of a 55-year-old male with low-grade glioma
shows an involvement of a distinct white matter tract extending from the poles
of temporal lobes, coursing through the substance of the superior temporal
gyrus toward the inferior part of the parietal lobe around the angular gyrus.
Which of the following represents the structure being described in this patient?
(a) Superior longitudinal fasciculus
(d) Inferior occipito-frontal fasciculus
(e) Uncincate fasciculus
Answer: b
The first description of middle longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) was in mon-
keys. It has been shown that this white matter tract that connects the inferior
parietal lobules with the superior temporal gyri bilaterally. This was then con-
firmed in human brains via modern imaging techniques such as diffusion tensor
imaging (DTI). MLF contributes to language function through participation in
both the ventral and dorsal routes responsible for language processing. However,
this fascicle may not be essential to the processing of language as removal of
this fiber bundle or intraoperative electrostimulation have not been associated
with postoperative language deficit or abnormalities in picture naming, respec-
tively. MLF fibers run parallel to the extreme capsule and may extend to occipi-
tal lobes posteriorly. The function of this bundle is still not established despite
the anatomical relation to language tracts.
Points to remember
Tumor involvement of the middle longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) may not
lead to an apparent language deficit as this white matter tract is not essential for
language processing.
27. A 59-year-old man is brought to the office by his wife due to personality
changes. She says, “he began behaving strangely over the past 4 months and
became very irritable and agitated almost all the time. He recently lost his job
due to involvement in an altercation with his coworker which he used to like
ever since he began this job.” On neurological examination, mild weakness in
the right lower extremity is noted. The patient reports that he has had syncopal
episodes during the same period. MRI of the brain was ordered and revealed a
parieto-occipital homogenous signal on T1 and T2 images with distinct borders
just above the corpus callosum. A brain biopsy confirmed the diagnosis of
grade-2 oligodendroglioma. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) was obtained for
presurgical planning. The images show the involvement of a collection of fibers
extending from the area above the corpus callosum toward the entorhinal cor-
tex. Which of the following white matter bundles is most likely to be affected in
this patient?
(a) Subcallosal fasciculus
(b) Superior longitudinal fasciculus
(c) Arcuate fasciculus
(d) Cingulum
(e) Uncinate fasciculus
Answer: d
This patient has seizures, lower extremity weakness, and personality changes
which along with radiographical characteristics on MRI and the subacute nature
of symptoms are consistent with a malignant brain neoplasm. This was con-
firmed through a biopsy which showed low-grade (2) oligodendroglioma.
According to the updated WHO classification of CNS tumors, diagnosis of oli-
godendroglioma is made by identifying an infiltrative glioma with IDH muta-
tion and 1p19q codeletion. In this patient, the tumor has infiltrated the cingulum,
as seen in DT imaging. The cingulum is a collection of white matter fibers
located centrally right above the corpus callosum. It terminates at the entorhinal
cortices bilaterally and plays a role in emotion, pain, and memory (limbic sys-
tem). It has been also shown that fibers frequently exiting and entering the cin-
gulum contribute to the connection of parietal, frontal, and temporal lobes in
both hemispheres. Because of this parallel fashion of fibers arrangement, lesion
to the cingulum results only in mild neurological deficits.
Points to remember
The cingulum extends from the cingulate gyrus right above the corpus cal-
losum to the entorhinal cortices. It is involved in pain, emotion, and memory
formation, among other limbic system functions.
28. According to the recent model for language processing, it has been suggested
that the dual stream model is composed of two main pathways: the dorsal and
ventral routes. The dorsal route was found to be formed from the fibers of
the arcuate fasciculus (AF) and the third subcomponent of the superior longitu-
dinal fasciculus (SLFIII). A diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) of a 77-year-old-
man shows disruption of the dorsal stream integrity due to metastatic lesions
and resultant adjacent edema. Which of the following speech functions is pri-
marily affected in this patient?
(a) Sensory-motor integration
(b) Mapping sound to meaning
(c) Auditory perception
(d) Visual-auditory integration
(e) Vocabulary access
Answer: a
This patient’s DTI shows metastatic lesions along the dorsal stream of
speech pathway, which is mainly involved in mapping auditory afferent infor-
mation to motor speech functions (ie sensory-motor integration). The recent

model of language processing is typically subdivided into two major routes: the
dorsal and ventral streams. The uncinate fasciculus (UF) and third branch of
superior longitudinal fasciculus (SLF-III) form the dorsal pathway, whereas the
ventral stream is comprised of the inferior longitudinal fasciculus (ILF), the UF,
and the inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus (IFOF). The latter is responsible for
semantic language and language comprehension (ie integration of auditory
stimuli to sound meanings) via connecting the middle temporal lobe with the
prefrontal area. On the other hand, the dorsal pathway connects the superior
temporal lobes with the frontal area, specifically the premotor cortices. Of note,
the middle longitudinal fasciculus is involved in both streams.
Points to remember
The language function can be categorized anatomically into ventral and dor-
sal streams. The dorsal stream is responsible for sensory-motor integration
whereas the ventral route contributes to auditory comprehension of language.
29. A 64-year-old woman was referred for evaluation of right-sided hemiparesis
and aphasia. She has daily temporal headaches and feels quite fatigued. The
patient used to smoke cigarettes but now uses vaporized nicotine. Her medical
history is unremarkable. Temperature is 36.6 °C (97.8 F), blood pressure is
128/74 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. She is well-appearing. There are sensory
deficits in her feet, but her reflexes and strength are mildly diminished. Brain
MRI shows a large left frontoparietal mass. Diffusion tensor (DT) imaging
shows displacement of the fibers connecting the thalamus and cerebral cortex.
Which of the following functions is primarily supported by the affected white
matter tract in this patient?
(a) Emotion and memory formation
(b) Control of appetite
(c) Regulation of internal body temperature
(d) Relay of sensory and motor information
(e) Spatial awareness
Answer: d
This patient has headaches, fatigue, hemiparesis, and aphasia. In combina-
tion with the left frontoparietal mass, this is most likely suggestive of a malig-
nant lesion compressing the motor strip. The DT calculation shows displacement
of thalamocortical radiation, a critical white matter tract with reciprocal con-
nections that is larger and more complex in humans than in other mammals.
These fibers pass through the internal capsule, particularly the anterior and ret-
rolenticular segments. Its superior extension represents the corona radiata
before terminating widely at the cerebral cortex (layer IV). Of the functions
mentioned above, relaying sensory and motor information to the post- and
pre-central gyrus, respectively, is the most likely correct answer. Other func-
tions include carrying visual and auditory input through the lateral and medial
geniculate nuclei.
Points to remember
Thalamic radiation is a white matter fiber tract that receives major sensory
and motor inputs and relays it to appropriate cortical connections for processing
and integration.
30. A 22-year-old male presented to the emergency department with severe nausea,
vomiting, tinnitus, and frontal headaches. The headaches worsen with bending
forward and are simultaneously associated with double vision. Recently, he fell
while getting up at night to use the bathroom. Vital signs are normal without
orthostasis. On examination, he has difficulty getting up from a chair. BMI is
22 kg/m2. An emergent non-contrast CT scan of the head demonstrated an exo-
phytic brainstem tumor arising from the fourth ventricle with a vague area of
distorted architecture surrounding the tumor. A diagnosis of pilocytic astrocy-
toma was suspected. MRI of the spine and brain could not distinguish the semi-
infiltrative region seen in CT from vasogenic edema. Which of the following
imaging techniques allows for determining whether the patient is a good candi-
date for surgery?
(a) Functional MRI
(b) PET scan
(c) Contrast CT scan of the head
(d) MRA
(e) Fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR)
(f) Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR) imaging
(g) Diffusion Tensor Imaging (DTI)
Answer: g
This patient with nausea, vomiting, headaches, tinnitus, visual changes, diz-
ziness (falling down while getting up), and evidence of mass in the fourth ven-
tricle on the CT scan has an exophytic cervicomedullary junction tumor. These
tumors typically extend rostrally and caudally into the medulla and cervical
spinal cord, respectively. The neurosurgeon should weigh the benefits of surgi-
cal removal against resultant morbidity. Therefore, the decision on whether to
perform surgery depends on the radiographic appearance of the MRI (CT is not
reliable due to bone artifact at the level of the foramen magnum). Surgery is
recommended when low-grade tumors are suspected and improvement in neu-
rological deficits can be achieved with total or maximal resection. When the
conventional imaging techniques cannot characterize a low-grade and local
tumor, surgery is deferred until more accurate anatomical delineation can be
obtained, as the resultant morbidity from debulking an otherwise high-grade
invasive tumor will be detrimental to the patient. For this purpose, conventional
imaging combined with diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) can differentiate
between white matter tract infiltration and displacement in this highly com-
pacted region of the spinal cord. Observation of normal anatomical integrity of
these white matter tracts (by the ability to trace tracts in relation to an adjacent
tumor with no direct infiltration) indicates low-grade tumors, and that the
patient is a good candidate for surgical removal.
Points to remember
Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) is critical to determine resectability of cervi-
comedullary junction tumors.
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Chapter 6
Intraoperative Adjuncts in Tumor Surgery
Rajesh Krishna Pathiyil
1. The disadvantages of frame-based stereotaxy when used intraoperatively

include all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Interferes with the surgical field in major procedures.
(b) Frame needs to be placed before imaging, and cannot be removed till the
procedure is completed.
(c) Accuracy is less compared to frameless neuronavigation machines.
(d) It is difficult to change the trajectory intraoperatively.
Answer: c
Frame-based stereotaxy, which was earlier in use, has several limitations
when used intraoperatively. The frame needs to be applied even before the
acquisition of preoperative imaging which causes significant patient discom-
fort, especially in pediatric cases. The frame needs to remain in place through-
out the entire duration of the procedure. This makes visualization and access to
the surgical field difficult for the surgeon. There is no way to see the tip of the
inserted needle in real-time. Planning needs to be done before the procedure
and changing the trajectory intraoperatively is cumbersome.
Frameless stereotaxy used in modern neuronavigation systems avoids the
need for a rigid frame which creates problems both for the patient and the sur-
geon. The tip of the surgical instrument can be tracked in real-time, and the
position can be projected on the preoperative imaging which is fed into the
navigation system. The earlier systems which used ultrasonic waves, and later
electromagnetic waves to locate the tip of instruments, were not accurate
enough. Most of the current systems use optical digitalization technology using
two infrared cameras, with improved accuracy.
R. K. Pathiyil (*)
Department of Clinical Neurosciences, University of Calgary, Calgary, AB, Canada

Switzerland AG 2023
64 R. K. Pathiyil
Frameless neuronavigation systems have three essential components: (i) a

preoperative image set of sufficient resolution that includes the area of interest
and surface landmarks/ fiducials needed for registration, (ii) a trackable local-
izer tool, and (iii) a reference framework for the calculation of the relationship
between the patient’s anatomy and the preoperative image (like infrared cam-
eras and reference array).
Framed stereotaxy remains the gold standard for stereotactic procedures,
and has the best accuracy as the reference frame is fixed to the skull bone while
taking preoperative imaging and no registration with additional hardware is
involved, which is a step where inaccuracies can creep in. However, the present
frameless neuronavigation systems have greatly improved accuracy, compara-
ble to framed systems. The accuracy of surface registration can be improved by
the use of fiducials. Scalp fiducials are easy to use and hence commonly
employed, but this can lead to inaccuracies if the fiducials are placed over the
mobile scalp or hair. Skull implanted fiducials help to get over this problem and
have improved accuracy [1].
2. All of the following statements regarding errors in frameless stereotactic neuro-
navigation systems are true EXCEPT:
(a) In surface-based registration using the patient’s facial features, the accu-
racy declines toward the occipital regions.
(b) Ferromagnetic interference can lead to inaccuracies when electromagnetic
device tracking technology is used.
(c) Brain shifts do not always occur in the direction of gravity.
(d) Once registration is completed using dynamic reference frames (DRFs),
re-registration is always required for any change in the position of the
patient’s head.
Answer: d
In surface-based registration, the accuracy is best near the area where sur-
face points are taken and declines as we move farther away from that area.
While using the patient’s facial features, the accuracy declines toward the
occipital regions [2]. This can be reduced by supplementing surface-based reg-
istration with paired point registration using anatomical landmarks or scalp
fiducials [1].
Electromagnetic device tracking technology involves the generation of a
magnetic field and the presence of coils in tracking devices. Hence, ferromag-
netic interference can lead to inaccuracies when this technology is used [3, 4].
The advantages of this technology are that small coils can be attached to even
suction devices and small catheters, and tracking does not require a free line of
sight to be maintained.
Neuronavigation systems assume a patient’s head to be a rigid body. Once
CSF is released after dural opening and the brain deflates, brain shift generally
occurs vertically down towards the center of the earth. By positioning the head
6 Intraoperative Adjuncts in Tumor Surgery 65
in such a way that the surgical trajectory is vertical, one needs to adjust for a
shift only in one direction.
However, this explanation of brain shift is an oversimplification of the actual
process. One should be aware that brain shift is a more complex spatiotemporal
phenomenon that does not occur always in the direction of gravity. It is a slow
phenomenon and continues to happen throughout the surgery. In addition to
gravity and CSF loss, many other factors contribute to brain shifts including
tissue manipulation, deformation of the tumor during resection, tumor size, and
use of medications like mannitol [5]. The maximum brain shift occurs at the
center of the craniotomy; the larger the craniotomy, the more the brain shift.
The least deformation occurs towards the midline and skull base structures.
Other methods to reduce or compensate for brain shift include minimizing
diuretics and hyperventilation, avoiding cyst puncture or ventricle puncture at
the start of resection, attempting to remove the tumor en-bloc avoiding internal
debulking, mechanically expanding the resection cavity with cottonoids if
internal debulking is needed, resecting the most critical boundaries in the begin-
ning when the shift is minimum, placing markers(fence posting) at critical
boundaries before starting resection, and using intraoperative imaging modali-
ties like ultrasound or MRI [1, 6].
Dynamic reference frames (DRFs) consist of a set of markers that are linked
to the patient’s head and usually attached to the patient’s head holder. The reg-
istration remains valid as long as the head is moved along with the head holder
without changing the position of the head relative to the DRF.
3. Which of the following statements regarding the incorporation of functional
MRI (fMRI) and Diffusion Tensor Imaging (DTI) into standard navigation
is TRUE?
(a) Diffusion tractography helps to improve the extent of resection in high-
grade gliomas, as compared to neuronavigation with standard
sequences alone.
(b) DTI conclusively distinguishes fiber tract disruption due to tumor infiltra-
tion from that due to vasogenic edema.
(c) Precise language localization provided by fMRI obviates the need for
awake surgery to localize these areas.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: a
The addition of Diffusion Tensor Imaging (DTI) to standard neuronaviga-
tion has been shown to improve the extent of resection and improve survival in
high-grade gliomas (level II evidence from a prospective RCT) [7]. DTI also
helps to reduce postoperative deficits, resulting in better functional status. One
of the limitations of DTI is that it cannot conclusively distinguish between fiber
tract disruption due to tumor infiltration and vasogenic edema [8, 9].
66 R. K. Pathiyil
Functional MRI (fMRI) has replaced the Wada test for language lateraliza-
tion [10], but it has a sensitivity of less than 60% in precisely localizing the
language areas [11–14]. fMRI shows activation of all the regions which are
involved in the task being tested, but it does not tell us which region is function-
ally required, or which area is involved in what aspect of a particular function.
On the other side, some areas which may be only transiently activated but func-
tionally important, might not show up on fMRI. Awake surgery with intraopera-
tive direct electrical stimulation (DES) remains the gold standard for language
mapping.
4. Advantages of high field strength over low field strength intraoperative MRI
(iMRI) include all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Better quality images.
(b) Surgery need not be interrupted.
(c) Allows multimodality imaging.
(d) Can be used for routine diagnostic imaging while not in use.
Answer: b
Intraoperative MRI (iMRI) is in use in Neurosurgery since 1994. The most
common use of iMRI is to assess the extent of tumor resection and to identify
surrounding functioning neural tissues, avoiding damage to them. It also helps
to compensate for brain shifts. iMRI can be used for targeted procedures like
brain biopsy or cyst drainage.
iMRI may be broadly divided into low field strength (0.5 T or less) and high
field strength (1.5–3 T) devices. The first system developed by GE, which was
nicknamed “the double doughnut”, was designed in such a way that the surgeon
operates between two vertically placed magnets, offering 0.5 T field strength.
Though ergonomics of such an operative room setting were not optimum, it
provided real-time imaging, unlike most high field strength systems that were
marketed later. Low field strength iMRI devices are much less expensive than
high field strength devices and may be operated with a local Faraday shielding,
obviating the need to shield the walls of the operating room. While the lower
resolution of low field strength iMRI might not be much of a problem in high-
grade glioma surgeries, it might be troublesome in cases of low-grade gliomas
where margins are not well-delineated [15].
In addition to better image resolution, high-field systems also benefit from
their ability to include other advanced techniques like MR spectroscopy, func-
tional MRI, MR angiography, chemical shift imaging, and diffusion-weighted
imaging [5]. But they come at a very high cost. Also, the installations are very
heavy, putting a higher demand on the construction of the operating room. One
advantage of high field strength iMRI is that it can be used for doing regular
diagnostic MRI scans when not in use as an intraoperative adjunct.
The main limitation of iMRI is its cost including the investment for MR
compatible surgical instruments and modification of the operating room. It also
results in interruption of surgery and longer operating times.
5. Which of the following statements regarding intraoperative ultrasound (iUS)

is FALSE?
(a) Air between the probe and the brain results in artifacts.
(b) A large craniotomy is not always required for performing intraoperative
ultrasound.
(c) iUS may delineate low-grade glioma margins better than MRI in some cases.
(d) iUS can’t be integrated with a navigation system as they are registered on
preoperative MRI or CT images.
Answer: d
The use of intraoperative ultrasound (iUS) was first described in Neurosurgery
by Reid in 1978. iUS provides real-time updates regarding brain shifts and
completeness of resection. It is less expensive compared to iMRI, but it involves
a learning curve as Neurosurgeons are more used to interpreting MRI and CT
images. Air bubbles and blood produce imaging artifacts, making it more dif-
ficult for the inexperienced. While using it, the air between the probe and the
brain should be eliminated by filling up the cavity with saline and maintaining
proper contact with the brain surface. Positioning the patient’s head in such a
way that the surgical trajectory is perpendicular to the floor, helps to keep the
saline column from flowing out.
Though large craniotomies are preferred for iUS-guided resection of large
tumors like diffuse insular gliomas, small burr hole probes are also available for
doing procedures like iUS-guided brain biopsy.
Studies have shown that in non-enhancing gliomas, tumor margins may be
delineated better by iUS than from the T2/FLAIR hyperintensities of the preop-
erative MRI. Many non-enhancing gliomas which are categorised as moder-
ately delineated on preoperative MRI have relatively well-delineated margins
on iUS images [16, 17].
Sweeps of 2D ultrasound scans with probes attached to a trackable localizer can
be reconstructed into 3D volumes and then superimposed onto the preoperative
MRI images in the Neuronavigation system. This helps the surgeon to appreciate
the orientation of the images acquired by 3D ultrasound better. It also helps us to
estimate the brain shift that has occurred after initial registration [18]. The naviga-
tion accuracy of 3D ultrasound-based neuronavigation is comparable to standard
MR image-based neuronavigation systems [19]. Navigated iUS have been shown
to improve the extent of resection in gliomas while reducing morbidity [16, 20, 21].
6. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding contrast-enhanced ultra-
sonography (CEUS)?
(a) The contrast agent consists of thin-shelled microbubbles.
(b) It is contraindicated in patients with renal impairment.
(c) It has not shown to be of much use in intraoperative neuro sonography.
(d) Low-grade gliomas appear hypoechoic on post-contrast ultrasound
scan images.
Answer: a
68 R. K. Pathiyil
Intraoperative contrast-enhanced ultrasonography (CEUS) is useful in high-

lighting the tumor better when compared with standard B-mode imaging and
showing its perfusion patterns. The afferent and efferent blood vessels can be
identified. CEUS also helps to define tumor margins better, especially in high-
grade gliomas and also helps to differentiate viable and necrotic areas of the
tumor. The contrast agent is made up of microbubbles of air or inert gas encap-
sulated in a layer of proteins or polymers, which are typically 5 μm in diameter
and can therefore be transported into the smallest capillaries and across the
lungs. The passage across the lungs allows imaging of the arterial system with
a venous injection [22]. It doesn’t have major adverse effects. The contrast
agent remains purely intravascular and does not extravasate. Elimination of
microbubbles occurs through fragmentation and diffusion and is not dependent
on renal or hepatic mechanisms [23]. In general, glioblastomas, metastases, and
meningiomas appear hyperechoic on CEUS. Low-grade gliomas and anaplastic
astrocytomas appear isoechoic to mildly hyperechoic [22].
7. Which of the following statements regarding ultrasound probes is TRUE?
(a) High-frequency probes have higher depth penetration.
(b) All the probes used in intraoperative ultrasonography have fixed
frequencies.
(c) A linear array probe covers a wider area at a distance away from the probe
compared to a phased array probe.
(d) Spatial resolution normal to the scan plane (elevation resolution) is a key
parameter in 3D reconstruction.
Answer: d
The iUS image quality depends on its spatial resolution, which in turn
depends on the frequency of the probe used. High-frequency probes have higher
resolution and better image quality but do not have good depth penetration.
Lower frequency probes have better depth penetration but show poorer image
resolution. Hence higher frequency probes are better suited for surface imaging
while low-frequency ones are for depth imaging.
One of the reasons why iUS image quality has improved over the recent
years is because the probes can be electronically tuned for a range of frequen-
cies, which provides optimum image quality at multiple depths. The probe
commonly used in brain surgeries is a 5 MHz probe which can usually be elec-
tronically tuned over a range of frequencies from 4 MHz to 8 MHz. This gives
optimum images at a depth of 2.5–6 cm where most supratentorial lesions are
seen. For surface cerebral lesions or lesions in the posterior fossa, medulla or
spinal cord a high frequency 10 MHz probe can be used which provides the best
image quality at 0.5–4 cm depths.
Linear transducers have piezoelectric crystals arranged linearly and the
shape of the beam is rectangular. The extension of the image is limited to the
width of the probe. Its near-field resolution is good and is optimal for imaging
superficial lesions where the bone is removed over the lesion. Hockey stick
probes used in Neurosurgery are modifications of linear probes with a smaller

footprint.
In a convex transducer, the piezoelectric crystal arrangement is curvilinear.
The beam shape is convex and the transducer is good for in-depth examinations.
Smaller micro-convex craniotomy probes with smaller footprints of about 3 cm,
and operating over a wide range of frequencies of 5–13 MHz are available in
the market, and this provides optimum image quality for most neurosurgical
procedures, including the acquisition of 3D ultrasound images.
Phased array probes have a small footprint and low frequencies. It consists
of arrays of ultrasound transducers that are fired multiple times with different
degrees of steering to create an image. The beam point is narrow but it fans out
depending on the applied frequency. The beam shape is almost triangular and
the near-field resolution is poor.
As mentioned earlier, spatial resolution determines the image quality. The
resolution along the transmitted beam, which is called the radial resolution,
equals approximately the transmitted pulse length. The resolution normal to the
beam is called lateral resolution. It is equal to the beamwidth. Elevation resolu-
tion is the one that is normal to the scan plane. The elevation resolution is a key
parameter for the 3D reconstruction which is done by putting many 2D frames
together [18].
8. The advantages of intraoperative 3D ultrasound compared to iMRI include all
of the following EXCEPT:
(a) 3D ultrasound is less expensive.
(b) It gives better orientation compared to iMRI.
(c) It is faster to acquire.
(d) Surgery is interrupted to a lesser extent.
Answer: b
Even the best ultrasound machine is much cheaper than setting up an iMRI
facility of the lowest field strength. It does not require additional special instal-
lations or special compatible instruments. The time for acquisition of a 3D iUS
interval scan during surgery is around 2–4 min, and is real-time, without much
interruption to the surgery. Newer high-end ultrasound devices have been
reported to be comparable to or even better than MRI in delineating tumor mar-
gins, especially with non-enhancing gliomas [16, 17].
But there is a learning curve for interpreting iUS images, as Neurosurgeons
are more familiar with CT and MRI images. The images are obtained in unfa-
miliar planes and not in the conventional axial, sagittal, and coronal planes. The
non-availability of the wholesome view of the brain also makes interpretation
of iUS images difficult. Superimposing 3D iUS images onto the preoperative
MRI images in the neuronavigation system helps to improve our orientation
while interpreting these images. Some authors also feel that iUS increases the
chances of infection as compared to iMRI as the former is not a contactless
technique.
70 R. K. Pathiyil
9. Which of the following statements regarding intraoperative sonoelastography

is TRUE?
(a) Shear-wave elastography (SWE) is a qualitative evaluation, whereas axial
strain elastography (SE) provides more quantitative data.
(b) All cerebral metastases are stiffer than normal brain parenchyma.
(c) Color coding in sonoelastography is usually done in such a way that green-
ish shades indicate softer tissues while stiffer areas are shown in red.
(d) Margins of low-grade gliomas are more discernable in B-mode ultrasound
scans than by using sonoelastography.
Answer: c
Sonoelastography is a tactile imaging technique that transcribes manual pal-
pation into ultrasonography images. It represents the mechanical property of
the tissue, defined by the relationship between stress (applied force) and strain
(proportional deformation), which is extremely variable between different tis-
sues. This allows for excellent contrast.
Two frequently used techniques in Neurosurgery are shear wave elastogra-
phy (SWE) and axial-strain elastography (SE). SWE uses focused ultrasound to
induce very small tissue displacements; this generates shear waves that propa-
gate in the orthogonal plane to tissue displacement. SWE is a quantitative tech-
nique that measures the absolute stiffness of tissues, but it is not available in
many commercially available systems. On the other hand, SE is a commonly
available qualitative sonoelastography method that involves the acquisition of
ultrasound scans before and after applying a deformation force. Deformation
can be obtained either with multiple cycles of gentle pressure release on the US
probe or by utilizing tissue motion caused by brain arterial pulsations [24]. It
measures relative (not absolute) tissue stiffness. In SE, the information is
obtained real-time, whereas quantitative SWE data requires post-processing;
hence SE might be easier to use in an operating room, whereas SWE provides
more accurate information for research purposes.
Low-grade gliomas tend to be stiffer than normal brain parenchyma, while
most high-grade gliomas are softer. In most cases, the glioma margins are better
delineated using sonoelastography than in B-mode scans, both in low-grade and
high-grade gliomas.
Some metastases are stiffer than the brain (renal cell carcinoma, colon carci-
noma), while some others are softer than the brain (endometrial cancer, lung
cancer). Hemangioblastomas can be softer than the brain, while germ cell
tumors and lymphomas are stiffer.
Sonoelastography has been reported to show epileptogenic lesions like focal
cortical dysplasias which are not even seen in MRI [25].
10. Which of the following intraoperative modalities helps to compensate for brain
shifts by assessing cortical surface deformation?
(a) Intraoperative 3D ultrasound.
(b) Laser Range Scanner.
(c) StereoVision.
(d) b and c.
Answer: d
Modalities like Laser Range Scanners (LRS) and StereoVision acquire the
intraoperative cortical surface deformation which is then integrated into a pre-
computed patient-specific biomedical model to estimate the volumetric defor-
mation. Stereovision is the process of extracting 3D information from digital
images taken by two cameras displaced horizontally from one another to obtain
two different views of the same scene. The reconstructed images are displayed
over the patient’s preoperative images in the physical space. Stereovision sys-
tems can be coupled to operating microscopes. This helps to estimate intraop-
erative brain shifts in real-time without interrupting the surgery. This technology
is relatively less expensive and contactless [5, 26].
11. Which of the following is a telesurgical robot used in Neurosurgery?
(a) ROSA.
(b) NeuroMate.
(c) NeuroArm.
(d) SpineAssist.
Answer: c
The surgical robots were first used in the field of Neurosurgery. PUMA- 200
robot which was originally designed for industrial use, was used for CT-guided
needle biopsy. The first FDA-approved robot was NeuroMate. The robots cur-
rently in use are classified into three categories [27]:
(i) Telesurgical robot (Master-slave)—In this type, the surgeon controls the
robot from a remote workstation outside the operating room. It can even
provide tactile feedback to the surgeon. e.g.: NeuroArm
(ii) Supervisory surgeon-controlled robot—In this type, the robot assists the
surgeon and helps to improve precision. The main use of these robots has
been taking stereotactic biopsies in brain tumors and improving the preci-
sion of screw placement in the spine. e.g.: PUMA- 200, Minerva,
Pathfinder, SpineAssist.
Handheld shared/controlled systems—In these systems, the surgeon
(iii)
and the robot jointly control the instruments. The precision contributed by
the robotic system and the manual dexterity and manipulative skills con-
tributed by the Neurosurgeon leads to better instrument handling. The
robot can also mark out the safe zone, which prevents the surgeon from
straying and injuring important structures. It can also reduce surgeon’s
hand tremors and fatigue. eg: Steady hand system, Evolution 1, ROSA.
72 R. K. Pathiyil
12. Disadvantages of using robots in Neurosurgery include all of the follow-

ing EXCEPT:
(a) Reduced range of manipulation.
(b) Impairs situational awareness.
(c) Surgeon’s hands tend to get fatigued earlier with hand-held systems.
(d) Steep learning curve.
Answer: c
Hand held surgical robots reduce hand fatigue and surgeon’s tremors. They
also serve as a resting stand which avoids unnecessary straying, thus preventing
accidental injury to critical structures.
The main difficulties in using robotic systems are that they are expensive and
have a steeper learning curve. Most of the systems do not provide tactile feed-
back to the surgeon. It can reduce the surgeon’s situational awareness, and this
can lead to errors during the procedure. The robotic arms may also have a lim-
ited range of movements and dexterity [27].
13. Which intraoperative modality is the gold standard while operating upon tumors
near eloquent brain regions?
(a) Intraoperative fluorescence with 5-ALA.
(b) Neuronavigation with fMRI and DTI data integrated.
(c) Awake surgery with cortical and subcortical mapping.
(d) Robot-assisted tumor resection.
Answer: c
Awake surgery with cortical and subcortical mapping using direct electrical
stimulation (DES) remains the gold-standard technique to improve the extent of
resection and reduce morbidity while resecting tumors near eloquent brain
areas. Monitoring brain functions other than motor function, like language and
complex neurocognitive functions, requires the patient to be awake. Awake
brain mapping has led to an expansion of surgical targets to those areas which
were previously considered to be surgically inaccessible. It has also led to the
appreciation of the phenomenon of cortical plasticity and has led to the rejec-
tion of some of the classical localization theories of brain organization.
14. All of the following statements are true regarding awake intraoperative map-
ping EXCEPT:
(a) Modalities like language and higher neuropsychological functions can only
be tested during awake mapping.
(b) General anesthesia with muscle relaxants should be administered in the
event of intraoperative seizures.
(c) Awake surgery with intraoperative mapping allows supratotal resection
of tumors.
(d) Awake mapping allows testing of the volitional aspects of movement.
Answer: b
Except for the primary motor cortex and motor tracts, mapping of any func-
tional brain area requires the patient to be awake. Even for the primary motor
cortex, spatial fidelity for mapping is better when awake. Awake mapping
allows for testing of volitional aspects of movement, for instance, negative
motor areas in supplementary motor and parietal regions [14, 28, 29].
Subcortical stimulation of areas underlying SMA can induce deficits of com-
plex motor coordination like bimanual coordination or coordination of contra-
lateral upper and lower limbs, which will be missed if the mapping is not done
in an awake state.
Glioma should be looked upon as a disease of the brain, rather than a discrete
tumor entity. The fact that gliomas extend well beyond the radiological margins
is well appreciated, especially in low-grade tumors. So, the current concept is
to map the functional boundaries with DES and resect the tumor beyond its
‘radiological margins’ until ‘functional margins’ are reached (supratotal resec-
tion). This improves the extent of resection while reducing morbidity, thus
improving the progression-free survival as well as the quality of life of these
patients. Awake mapping should become the rule rather than an exception.
Seizures occurring during awake mapping are generally aborted by cessation
of stimulus and irrigating the cortical surface with ice-cold saline. The occur-
rence of seizures can be reduced by starting with a lower current strength, and
avoiding continuous or repeated stimulation over the same gyrus (which leads
to temporal summation). Using muscle electrodes to monitor motor response
instead of looking for overt muscle contraction, obviates the need for higher
current strengths.
15. Which of the following patients is NOT a good candidate for awake mapping?
(a) Pediatric patients.
(b) Patients with contralateral limb power less than 3/5.
(c) >25% error rate on preoperative language tests.
Answer: d
Patients with already existing major deficits might not yield reliable infor-
mation on mapping with DES. Patients with less than antigravity strength in the
muscles to be monitored or those with significant preoperative language deficit
(error rate > 25% in preoperative language tests) are not good candidates for
mapping. Pediatric patients, as well as patients who do not co-operate well for
awake mapping like those with major neurocognitive impairment or anxiety,
should not be offered awake craniotomy [14]. Using awake mapping in this
scenario can be counterproductive. Proper patient selection is key to successful
awake surgery. Patient’s co-operation is imperative. If the patient becomes
uncooperative or restless, there should be an alternative option to anesthetize
him before proceeding; otherwise, the surgeon might unnecessarily hurry
through the procedure resulting in a suboptimal resection or additional morbid-
ity. Asleep monitoring or a more conservative resection using anatomical land-
marks should be considered for these patients.
74 R. K. Pathiyil
In prolonged surgeries, as in diffuse insular gliomas, patients might get tired

and monitoring higher neurocognitive functions might become unreliable as the
surgery proceeds. In these cases, a ‘asleep-awake-asleep’ approach is a good
option where the patient is asleep till craniotomy is performed, made awake
while doing dural opening, and then made to sleep again after necessary func-
tions are mapped. This improves patient cooperation. One should consider dis-
secting tumor margins close to areas that require a high level of patient
cooperation and alertness while monitoring at the earlier stages of surgery [30].
In cases of tumors where torrential bleeding is expected intraoperatively, anes-
thetic management might be difficult with the patient remaining awake.
16. Which of the following statements regarding language mapping is TRUE?
(a) Language mapping usually starts with a demonstration of speech arrest
over the ventral premotor cortex.
(b) While doing picture naming, it is important to record responses in complete
sentences.
(c) In multilingual patients, cotical representations of the same function for
different languages can be distinct.
Answer: d
Language mapping usually starts with simple number counting and demon-
strating speech arrest over the ventral premotor cortex. This lies within the ante-
rior precentral gyrus, and not over the classically described Broca’s area which
is in the pars opercularis and pars triangularis of the inferior frontal gyrus [14,
31]. This also helps to identify the stimulation threshold for that particular
patient while doing further language mapping.
The next test performed is picture naming. DES over the cortex is given just
before changing the picture. Each stimulation-associated picture can be alter-
nated with one presented without stimulation, which acts as an internal control.
One should look for speech arrest, anomia, phonemic or semantic paraphasia,
or perseveration. One should insist that the patient responds in complete sen-
tences, to differentiate anomia from speech arrest.
Bilinguals have language-specific sites as well as shared language sites.
Studies showed that posterior regions possess language-specific sites for sec-
ondary language, whereas anterior regions generally lack such sites. It was also
shown that secondary language areas in bilinguals are restricted from certain
perisylvian areas [32]. Hence it is necessary to map both the languages in
bilinguals.
17. Which of the following responses is seen on stimulation of inferior fronto-
occipital fasciculus (IFOF) in the dominant hemisphere?
(a) Semantic paraphasia.
(b) Phonological paraphasia.
(c) Speech arrest.

(d) Reading difficulty.
Answer: a
The subcortical language pathways consist of dorsal and ventral pathways.
The dorsal stream, which is the phonological pathway, consists of the arcuate
fasciculus and superior longitudinal fasciculus (SLF III). The ventral semantic
stream is formed by inferior fronto-occipital fasciculus (IFOF). IFOF, which is
the longest fiber bundle in humans, has a broader role in multimodal semantic
processing. On stimulation, the superficial layer of IFOF produces semantic
paraphasia while performing picture naming, whereas the deeper layer causes
disorders in semantic association tasks.
Inferior longitudinal fasciculus (ILF) connects anterior temporal and occipi-
tal lobes. The posterior part of ILF has a critical role in reading. Intraoperative
stimulation of posterior ILF elicits reproducible visual paraphasia and dys-
lexia [14].
In addition to white matter tracts, mapping of deep nuclei can also be done
while testing for language functions. Stimulation of the caudate nucleus elicits
perseveration while doing picture naming task. Stimulation of the lentiform
nucleus produces dysarthria.
18. All of the following statements are true regarding subcortical monitoring during
insular glioma resection EXCEPT:
(a) Eliciting phonological paraphasia marks the deeper limit of resection in the
temporal stem.
(b) Posterior deeper limit of resection is the posterior limb of the internal
capsule.
(c) Resection of tumor involving uncinate fasciculus, anterior ILF, and anterior
MLF will not produce significant postoperative dysfunction.
(d) Lentiform nucleus, stimulation of which produces articulatory distur-
bances, marks the medial limit of resection.
Answer: a
The deeper limits of resection in insular glioma are [30, 33]:
(i) Posterior limb of the internal capsule (pyramidal tract) in the posterior
insular quadrant.
(ii) The dorsal language pathway, which involves arcuate fasciculus/superior
longitudinal fasciculus complex in the depths of the frontal lobe; stimula-
tion elicits speech apraxia, phonological paraphasia, and repetition
difficulty
(iii) The ventral semantic pathway (IFOF) in the anterior part of the insula
marks the limit of resection in the temporal stem. Stimulation of IFOF in
the dominant hemisphere elicits semantic paraphasia. In the non-dominant
hemisphere, it elicits non-verbal semantic disturbances. Ventral IFOF
compensates for the functions of uncinate fasciculus, anterior ILF, and
76 R. K. Pathiyil
anterior MLF. Hence tumors involving these tracts can be resected safely

without much post-operative deficit.
(iv) The lentiform nucleus forms the deeper limit behind the temporal stem. It
can be identified during surgery by its characteristic nutmeg appearance. It
has a role in articulation planning and stimulation of this area induces
articulatory disturbances.
(v) The anterior perforated substance with the lenticulostriate vessels,
medially.
19. In which of the following scenarios is somatosensory evoked potential (SSEP)
least useful?
(a) To monitor during resection of intramedullary tumors.
(b) To monitor cervical cord compression or brachial plexus stretch during
positioning of the patient for surgery.
(c) To identify motor cortex during cranial surgeries.
(d) To monitor during resection of posteriorly placed intradural extramedul-
lary tumors.
Answer: a
For SSEP monitoring, peripheral sensory nerves are stimulated and the
response is measured along the sensory pathway or the primary somatosensory
cortex. The recorded activity primarily reflects the conduction along the poste-
rior column sensation pathways. The major cortical responses recorded corre-
spond to the thalamocortical projections to the primary sensory cortex. So
SSEP helps to monitor the sensory pathway along the peripheral nerves, spinal
cord, brain stem, and subcortical structures.
SSEP is useful in monitoring during spinal cord surgeries. Generally, a
decrease in amplitude by 50% or an increase in peak latency by 10% is consid-
ered to be significant. Unlike motor evoked potential (MEP) monitoring which
cannot be monitored continuously, SSEP can be monitored continuously
throughout the surgery without interruption. One of the disadvantages of SSEP
in spinal cord surgeries is that motor deficits are known to occur even with pre-
served SSEP responses. This is because SSEP monitors the posterior spinal
cord supplied by the posterior spinal artery, whereas motor tracts are located
anteriorly in the area supplied by the anterior spinal artery. SSEP (with periph-
eral sensory nerve stimulation) is also not sensitive to detecting individual root
injury, as multiple roots contribute to the cortical response; CMAPs recorded
during MEP are more sensitive to detecting root injury. Dermatomal evoked
potential (DEP), obtained by stimulating each dermatome, is a more specific
response for each root, but it is not commonly used.
SSEP also helps to identify physiological insults like hypotension, nerve
compression, nerve stretch, or cervical spinal cord compression that might
occur during patient positioning.
SSEP can be used to identify the motor cortex by phase reversal of the
response (response changes from positive to negative) which can be demon-
strated by placing cortical strip electrodes across the central sulcus [34].
20. Which of the following statements regarding H reflex is FALSE?
(a) It monitors sensory and motor components of the nerve, as well as the spi-
nal grey matter.
(b) It is the electrical equivalent of deep tendon reflex.
(c) It is less sensitive than SSEP to detect spinal cord injury cephalad to the
level of the monitored nerve.
(d) None of the above.
Answer: c
When a peripheral motor nerve is stimulated, the initial compound muscle
action potential (CMAP) recorded from the muscle is called M-response. The
stimulation of sensory fibers in the nerve causes impulses to travel proximally,
which passes through the spinal reflex arc and travels back along the motor
fibers, creating a response called H-reflex. The stimulation also produces a
depolarization that travels along the motor nerve centrally towards the cord and
is then reflected, producing a response, which is called an F wave.
The suprasegmental tracts influence the spinal reflex response and hence
alter the H-reflex. These changes have been shown to appear earlier than SSEP
changes [34].
21. All of the following complications have been reported with MEP monitor-
ing except:
(a) Sore muscles.
(b) Neuropsychiatric disease.
(c) Kindling.
(d) Cardiac arrhythmias.
Answer: b
Sore muscles and tongue lacerations are the most common complications of
transcranial MEP monitoring. There are also reports of cardiac arrhythmias,
scalp burns, and jaw fractures. Kindling is direct cortical thermal injury, which
is an extremely rare complication [34].
22. The advantages of D-wave monitoring include all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Altered little by anesthetics.
(b) Differentiate laterality of injury.
(c) Not affected by muscle relaxants.
(d) More sensitive than SSEP to motor tract injury.
Answer: b
Transcranial stimulation of motor tracts produces a wave of depolarization
that can be recorded using electrodes placed in the spinal epidural or subdural
78 R. K. Pathiyil
space. This is called D wave (direct wave). I waves (indirect waves) are a series
of smaller waves that follows the D wave. I waves are a result of additional
trans-synaptic activation of internuncial neurons in the cortex. D and I waves
summate over the anterior horn cells, producing a peripheral response (CMAP).
As the D wave is measured before the first synapse, it is the least affected by
anesthetic agents. Obviously, muscle relaxants do not alter this response. But
the epidural/subdural electrodes can record potentials from either side, hence
not very useful in differentiating the laterality of the injury.
In contrast to SSEP monitoring which monitors the posterior column sup-
plied by the posterior spinal arteries, D waves represent the motor tracts located
in the anterior spinal artery territory and hence are more valuable in predicting
postoperative motor deficits [34].
23. Which of the following brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) waves can
be lost even in patients with preserved hearing?
(a) Wave I.
(b) Wave III.
(c) Wave V.
(d) None of the above.
Answer: c
Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) refers to the auditory responses
recorded from cranial nerve VIII and the brain stem usually during the first
10 ms after auditory stimulation. It has five peaks labeled from I to V, of which
I, III, and V are more prominent.
I—extracranial cranial nerve VIII.
II—cochlear nucleus.
III—superior olivary complex (lower pons).
IV—lateral lemniscus.
V—inferior colliculus (midbrain).
BAER is used for monitoring auditory nerve and brain stem injury during
posterior fossa tumor surgeries. Loss of peaks or prolongation of interpeak
latencies points towards damage at corresponding locations. Changes in wave
V have the least correlation with the outcome as it can be lost due to desynchro-
nization in the pathways even when hearing is preserved.
Response to auditory stimulation recorded over the sensory cortex is termed
mid latency auditory evoked response. It is usually used as an index of anes-
thetic effect [34].
24. What is the normal latency for facial nerve EMG response when the nerve is
stimulated in the CP angle?
(a) 3–4 ms.
(b) 6–8 ms.
(c) 14–16 ms.
(d) 30–32 ms.
Answer: b
Electromyography (EMG) is commonly used in neurosurgery for intraoper-

ative monitoring. Here muscle responses are utilized to monitor neural tracts.
Electrical responses can be played through a loudspeaker which provides real-
time feedback to the operating surgeon.
Nerve irritation can produce responses, which can be short bursts or long
trains. Short bursts (“blurps”), which last less than 200 ms, represent synchro-
nous motor discharges when multiple axons of the nerve are stimulated simul-
taneously by retraction, mechanical or thermal irritation. Long trains of
continuous discharges (“popcorn” or “bomber” sounds) lasting 1 to 30 s or
more, represent impending nerve injury due to compression, traction, or
ischemia.
Intentional stimulation with low intensity (0.5–5 mA), short duration
(0.5–1 ms) current is used to check the continuity of the nerve or to locate the
nerve fascicles as in cerebellopontine angle tumor surgeries.
Unlike cortical responses, EMG responses -spontaneous as well as in
reponse to nerve stimulation—are resistant to the effects of anesthetics but are
affected by neuromuscular blockade [34].
When stimulated in the CP angle, the normal latency for facial nerve
response is about 6–8 ms while that of trigeminal nerve responses is 3–4 ms.
This helps in differentiating true signals from the facial muscles from the arti-
facts produced from strong contractions of temporalis or masseter.
25. Which of the following statements regarding navigated transcranial magnetic
stimulation (nTMS) for cortical mapping is TRUE?
(a) It is noninvasive.
(b) nTMS hot spots can be utilized to improve the accuracy of DTI.
(c) Motor maps generated using nTMS were found to be more concordant with
DES than the language maps.
Answer: d
Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is a non-invasive method that
involves using a single pulsed magnetic field to activate small volumes of the
brain close to the cortical surface. TMS software can be integrated with the
navigation device (nTMS), which allows precise delivery of magnetic fields for
cortical stimulation. nTMS motor maps have been demonstrated to correlate
well with DES [35, 36]. Language maps generated using nTMS also correlate
with maps generated by DES, but they are not as concordant as in the case of
motor maps. Negative language mapping is more important as it was found to
correlate well in both modalities. In contrast to single pulses of the magnetic
field used in TMS motor mapping, language mapping utilizes short bursts of
TMS pulses called repetitive TMS.
nTMS generated primary motor cortex hot spots have been utilized to gener-
ate highly accurate tractography of corticospinal tracts. Similar utility was also
80 R. K. Pathiyil
demonstrated with regards to language subcortical tracts. nTMS was also shown
to be useful in mapping the primary visual cortex. It is also being tried for map-
ping complex neuropsychological functions involving frontal and parietal lobes
[37]. Maps generated using nTMS can be generated preoperatively. This helps
to plan the surgical approach well in advance.
TMS-induced seizure is seen in <1% of cases. US FDA recommends that
TMS should not be used for preoperative mapping in patients with poorly con-
trolled seizures (>1 seizure/week). Other complications reported include pain,
headache, and high-frequency hearing loss [37].
26. Which of the following responses is least affected by inhalational anes-

thetic agents?
(a) Muscle CMAPs.
(b) D wave.
(c) Cortical SSEP.
(d) BAER.
Answer: b
Anesthetic agents act to reduce synaptic transmission. In SSEP, the first syn-
apses occur at the level of nucleus cuneatus and gracilis. So, the anesthetic
drugs have little effect on SSEPs recorded at the level of the cervical spine.
Similarly, during MEP monitoring, D-waves are not affected by anesthetic
agents as there are no synapses involved, whereas the I wave and muscle
CMAPs are reduced. In general, inhalational anesthetic agents have the most
profound influence on slowing synaptic transmission, hence total intravenous
anesthesia (TIVA) is preferred, especially when MEPs are monitored. Propofol
is currently the most common sedative used in TIVA, although depression of
MEPs can occur at higher doses. Ketamine has an enhancement effect on corti-
cal SSEP responses and CMAPs in MEP monitoring. Hence, the use of ket-
amine along with propofol helps to reduce the depressant effect of the latter.
Opioids cause only mild depression of responses. Dexmedetomidine also
appears to have minimal effect on the responses. Thiopental and midazolam
cause long-lasting depression in MEP responses. Etomidate can cause high cor-
tical excitability, resulting in increased amplitude of cortical sensory responses,
hence has been used with SSEP monitoring and not commonly with MEP mon-
itoring. Neuromuscular blockade interferes with MEP and EMG monitoring. A
technique called post-tetanic MEPs may be useful in patients in whom partial
paralysis is desired. In this technique, a tetanic stimulus is delivered to the
peripheral nerve before the MEPs to enhance the responses. Other factors
including hypoxemia, hypotension, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, electrolyte
abnormalities, anemia, and raised intracranial tension, also affect the responses
during monitoring.
27. What is the dose and route of 5-aminolevulinic acid administered for intraop-
erative tumor fluorescence?
(a) 20 mg /kg orally.
(b) 20 mg/kg slow iv.
(c) 2 mg/kg orally.
(d) 2 mg/kg iv.
Answer: a
5-aminolevulinic acid (5-ALA) is a precursor in hemoglobin synthesis. It is
metabolized inside tumor cells into fluorescent protoporphyrin IX (PpIX)
which emits a red-violet fluorescence under blue light. Solid red fluorescence
corresponds to highly proliferating tumor tissue, whereas vague pink fluores-
cence corresponds to the infiltrating tumor cells in the transitional area between
the tumor and normal brain. Necrotic areas in high-grade gliomas do not fluo-
resce. It differs from other fluorescing agents like fluorescein, which penetrates
malignant glioma via the defective blood-brain barrier. 5- ALA is administered
orally at a dose of 20 mg/kg dissolved in 50 ml of water about 3 h (range 2–4 h)
before induction of anesthesia.
Stummer et al. reported that the rates of complete resection as well as
6-month progression-free survival in malignant glioma were doubled with the
use of 5-ALA [38]. Another advantage of intraoperative tumor fluorescence
when compared to other modalities like iMRI and intraoperative ultrasound is
that it does not interrupt the surgery.
Disadvantages of 5-ALA [39]:
(i) Expensive
(ii) Skin reactions (photosensitivity). Exposure to sunlight or strong room
light should be avoided for 24 h after administration of 5-ALA.
(iii) Difficult to operate continuously under blue light.
(iv) Many other pathologies also show fluorescence.
28. Which of the following fluoresce least after 5-ALA administration?
(a) Low-grade glioma.
(b) Grade I meningioma.
(c) Cerebral inflammation.
(d) Cerebral metastasis.
Answer: a
The utility of 5-ALA tumor fluorescence is well studied for high-grade glio-
mas (level I evidence) where it has a sensitivity of around 85%. It is not useful
in low-grade glioma resection where the sensitivity was reported from 0 to 16%
in various studies. 5-ALA is a good marker of tumor anaplasticity. Meningiomas
also show fluorescence. Though grade II/III meningiomas have increased sen-
sitivity to 5-ALA tumor fluorescence, approximately 70% of grade I meningio-
mas also fluoresce. The sensitivity of ALA fluorescence for cerebral metastasis
is lower (54%). Studies have also shown that PpIX accumulates in peritumor
82 R. K. Pathiyil
tissues around the metastases emitting a vague fluorescence with high false-
positive rates [40]. Fluorescence is also seen in areas of cerebral inflammation,
fungal and bacterial abscesses, CNS lymphoma, radiation necrosis, multiple
sclerosis, and some normal brain tissues like ventricular ependyma [41].
29. Which of the following statements regarding 5-ALA tumor fluorescence

is FALSE?
(a) Prolonged exposure to the microscope light can result in photobleaching of
porphyrins resulting in reduced fluorescence.
(b) 5-ALA obviates the need for electrophysiological mapping and monitoring.
(c) If surgery is delayed, but not beyond 12 h of 5-ALA administration, repeat
administration of the dye is not required.
(d) Neon ambient lighting can interfere with fluorescence signal.
Answer: b
It was shown that 5-ALA tumor fluorescence decayed to 36% in 25 minutes
for violet-blue, and 87 minutes for white light [42]. This happens only in
exposed areas of the tumor. Fluorescence may be refreshed by suction and
removal of superficial cell layers.
5-ALA fluorescence is more sensitive than MRI in delineating tumor mar-
gins. Fluorescing tumor volume is usually larger than the volume in contrast-
enhanced MRI sequences. The tumor infiltrating into functioning brain areas
also fluoresce. Studies have shown that even though 5-ALA improves the extent
of resection, there can be a higher incidence of neurological deficits when this
modality is used alone for gliomas near eloquent areas. Awake intraoperative
monitoring is required while operating near functional brain areas to reduce
deficits [40].
The peak plasma levels of PpIX are reached 7–8 h after oral administration
[43]; excellent tumor fluorescence is obtained for at least 9 h. Then it rapidly
declines over the next 20 h and is not detectable by 48 h. If the surgery is
delayed by more than 12 h, surgery should be preferably re-scheduled for the
next day or later. There is no robust data available on the safety of repeat admin-
istration of ALA on the same day.
Neon ambient lighting contains substantial red and infrared light. Red wave-
lengths are selectively amplified by the detection equipment. This leads to red-
dish discoloration of non-tumor tissue, which is otherwise normally perceived
as being blue. Standard surgical lights are usually filtered in the red and infrared
wavelengths. The operating rooms have to be darkened for daylight.
30. All of the following statements regarding sodium fluorescein tumor fluores-
cence are true EXCEPT:
(a) Tumor fluorescence can be seen under white light.
(b) Tumor fluorescence is best visualized under blue light.
(c) Sodium fluorescein helps to identify dural tail in meningiomas.
(d) For tumor fluorescence sodium fluorescein needs to be administered intra-

thecally once the patient is inside the operating room.
Answer: d
Fluorescein is a red or dark orange colored powder which turns yellow when
mixed with water. Sodium fluorescein is relatively inexpensive and easily
accessible, and helps to improve the percentage of complete resection similar to
5-ALA [44]. Once injected into the blood it leaks into the tissues where blood-
brain barrier is lacking. It is administered at a dose of 2–20 mg/kg intravenously
[39]. Though the dye is best viewed using a yellow light filter (Y560) which
allows blue light to pass through, higher doses have been shown to exhibit good
tumor fluorescence in white light as well [39, 45]. In addition to high-grade
gliomas, its use has also been reported with other brain tumors like cerebral
metastases, PCNSL, meningiomas, craniopharyngiomas, acoustic neuromas,
and pituitary adenomas. It has been shown to be helpful in identifying the dural
tail of meningiomas which could represent tumor infiltration [39, 46].
Fluorescein sodium can cause transient yellowish discoloration of skin and
urine. It has been reported to cause intraoperative hypotension and rarely, ana-
phylactic reaction [47, 48]. It should be used with caution in patients having
hepatic or renal dysfunction, pulmonary spasm, and a history of allergic reac-
tions to contrast dyes.
Intrathecal administration of fluorescein is commonly used in cases of CSF
leak to identify the site of the leak intraoperatively.
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Chapter 7
Neuroradiology
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following features in an MRI scan does not help to differentiate a
brain abscess from a glioblastoma?
(a) Susceptibility Weighted Imaging
(b) Deep Transfer Learning
(c) Hand-crafted Radiomics
(d) Contrast-enhanced MRI
Answer: d
• Cerebral abscesses on SWI—high-intensity line (granulation tissue) lies
internal to the low-intensity rim—The dual rim sign
2. Which of the following is not a characterizing magnetic resonance spectros-
copy finding in a glioblastoma?
(a) Increased choline
(b) Increased myoinositol
(c) Increased lactate
(d) Increased lipids
Answer: b
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
88 J. M. Das
3. Match the following subtypes of medulloblastomas with the corresponding

likely location or spectroscopy feature.
(a) WNT Midline
(b) SHH Cerebellar peduncle/foramen of Luschka
(c) Group 3 or 4 Cerebellar hemisphere
(c) SHH Taurine peak
(d) Group 3 or 4 No taurine
Answer:
(a) WNT Cerebellar peduncle/foramen of Luschka
(b) SHH Cerebellar hemisphere
(c) Group 3 or 4 Midline
(c) SHH No taurine
(d) Group 3 or 4 Taurine peak
4. What is the usual location of a posterior fossa type A ependymoma?

(a) Apex of the fourth ventricle
(b) Lateral recess of the fourth ventricle
(c) The midline of the fourth ventricle near the obex
(d) Superior medullary velum
Answer: b
• PFA Ependymoma—Lateral recess of the fourth ventricle
• PFB Ependymoma—Midline of the fourth ventricle near the obex
5. Match the following radiological signs with the corresponding tumors.
(a) Periwinkle sign Brain stem glioma
(b) Yin-yang sign Primary CNS lymphoma
(c) Notch sign Solitary fibrous tumor of the dura
(d) Spoke wheel sign Meningioma
(e) Mother-in-law sign on angiography Leptomeningeal carcinomatosis
(f) Pool sign Supratentorial ependymoma
(g) Flat floor of fourth ventricle sign Metastatic adenocarcinoma
(h) Bright rim sign Dyembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor
(i) T2-FLAIR mismatch sign Vestibular schwannoma
(j) Trumpeted internal acoustic meatus sign Meningioma
(k) Snowman sign Meningioma
(l) Volcano sign Diffuse astrocytoma
(m) Sugar coating sign Pituitary macroadenoma
Answer:
(a) Periwinkle sign Supratentorial ependymoma
(b) Yin-yang sign Solitary fibrous tumor of the dura
(c) Notch sign Primary CNS lymphoma
(d) Spoke wheel sign Meningioma
7 Neuroradiology 89
(e) Mother-in-law sign on angiography Meningioma

(f) Pool sign Metastatic adenocarcinoma
(g) Flat floor of fourth ventricle sign Brain stem glioma
(h) Bright rim sign Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor
(i) T2-FLAIR mismatch sign Diffuse astrocytoma
(j) Trumpeted internal acoustic meatus sign Vestibular schwannoma
(k) Snowman sign Pituitary macroadenoma
(l) Volcano sign Meningioma
(m) Sugar coating sign Leptomeningeal carcinomatosis
6. Match the following terms with their corresponding explanations.

(a) Artificial intelligence Combines quantitative data from medical images
with genomic phenotypes and creates a prediction
model
(b) Machine learning Feed-forward networks used for image-based
problems
(c) Deep learning Learning based on neural networks that have a large
number of layers
(d) Convolutional neural networks A task performed by a computer that normally needs
human intelligence
(e) Radiomics Method for quantitative description of medical
images
(f) Delta-radiomics Use of an individual’s genetic profile to guide
prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases
(g) Radiogenomics Changes in radiomic features from one point in time
to the next
(h) Personalised medicine A branch of data science which makes computers
capable of learning from existing training data
without accurate programming
Answer:
(a) Artificial intelligence A task performed by a computer that normally needs
human intelligence
(b) Machine learning A branch of data science which makes computers
capable of learning from existing training data
without accurate programming
(c) Deep learning Learning based on neural networks that have a large
number of layers
(d) Convolutional neural networks Feed-forward networks used for image-based
problems
(e) Radiomics Method for quantitative description of medical
images
(f) Delta-radiomics Changes in radiomic features from one point in time
to the next
(g) Radiogenomics Combines quantitative data from medical images with
genomic phenotypes and creates a prediction model
(h) Personalised medicine Use of an individual’s genetic profile to guide
prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases.
90 J. M. Das
7. The term “pseudoprogression” refers to the occurrence of a progressively

enhancing lesion on magnetic resonance imaging scan within what duration of
radiotherapy?
(a) 4 weeks
(b) 8 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(d) 24 weeks
Answer: c
8. Which of the following is a characteristic feature present in vasogenic tumoral
edema that differentiates it from cytotoxic edema on imaging?
(a) Violates the boundary at gray matter-white matter junction
(b) Does not violate the boundary at gray matter-white matter junction
(c) Follows a circular pattern
(d) Follows an oval pattern
Answer: b
Cytotoxic edema affects predominantly the gray matter causing a loss of gray-
white differentiation.
9. Match the following tumors with their peculiar metabolites on magnetic reso-
nance imaging:
(a) PNET GLX (Glutamate, Glutamine, GABA)
(b) Meningioma Alanine
(c) Glioblastoma Myoinositol
(d) Low-grade astrocytomas Taurine
(e) Oligodendroglioma, demyelination Glycine
Answer:
(a) PNET Taurine
(b) Meningioma Alanine
(c) Glioblastoma Glycine
(d) Low-grade astrocytomas Myoinositol
(e) Oligodendroglioma, demyelination GLX (Glutamate, Glutamine, GABA)
10. Which of the following is used as the internal reference standard for character-
izing other peaks during MRS?
(a) Choline
(b) Creatinine
(c) NAA
(d) Lactate
Answer: b
7 Neuroradiology 91
11. Gallium-68 DOTATATE PET scan is useful in the characterization of

(a) High-grade glioma
(b) Low-grade glioma
(c) Metastases
(d) Meningioma
Answer: d
12. Which tumor is not a part of the MISME syndrome?
(a) Schwannoma
(b) Meningioma
(c) Ependymoma
(d) Medulloblastoma
Answer: d
MISME—Multiple Inherited Schwannomas, Meningiomas, and
Ependymomas.
13. Which of the following is not a criterion to be met for a positive “dural tail” sign?
(a) The tail should be seen on two consecutive images through the tumor
(b) The tail should taper away from the tumor
(c) The tail should enhance more than the tumor
(d) The tail should be shorter than half the diameter of the tumor
Answer: d
14. The tram-track sign on contrast-enhanced CT/MRI helps differentiate which of
the following conditions?
(a) Tuberculum sellae and suprasellar meningioma
(b) Cerebellopontine angle schwannoma and meningioma
(c) Optic nerve sheath meningioma and glioma
(d) Falx meningioma from petroclival meningioma
Answer: c
• Tram-track sign—Two enhancing areas of tumor separated by the negative
defect due to optic nerve.
• Classically seen in optic nerve sheath meningioma and absent in optic glioma.
• Also seen in orbital pseudotumor, perioptic neuritis, sarcoidosis, and
lymphomas.
15. The “bare orbit” sign is seen in which condition?
(a) Orbital pseudotumor
(b) Neurofibromatosis 1
(c) Orbital lymphangioma
(d) Orbital hemangioma
Answer: b
92 J. M. Das
Bare orbit sign:

• Seen in a frontal radiograph
• Absence of innominate line (projection of greater wing of sphenoid)
• Seen in sphenoid wing dysplasia—neurofibromatosis 1
16. Radial bands sign is seen in
(a) Neurofibromatosis 1
(b) Neurofibromatosis 2
(c) Tuberous sclerosis
(d) Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Answer: c
Radial bands sign:
• Linear signal intensities from periventricular to subcortical regions in
FLAIR sequences.
• Seen in tuberous sclerosis (also known as Bourneville disease or
Bourneville-Pringle disease)
• Abnormal migration of dysplastic stem cells.
17. Match the following imaging techniques with the information they provide.
(a) Amide proton transfer imaging Separation of perfusion from diffusion
(b) Contrast-enhanced susceptibility- Tumor vascular normalization and drug
weighted imaging delivery efficacy
(c) Arterial spin labeling Tumor proliferation and provides information
regarding the pH of tissue
(d) Dynamic contrast-enhanced perfusion Tumor necrosis and vessels.
MRI
(e) Dynamic susceptibility contrast Estimation of cytoarchitectonic complexities of
perfusion MRI gray and white matters
(f) Diffusion Kurtosis Imaging (DKI) Microvessel density or area
(g) Intravoxel Incoherent Motion (IVIM) Identification of immature hyperpermeable
vessels
Answer:
(a) Amide proton transfer imaging Tumor proliferation and provides information
regarding the pH of tissue
(b) Contrast-enhanced susceptibility- Tumor necrosis and vessels.
weighted imaging
(c) Arterial spin labeling Tumor vascular normalization and drug
delivery efficacy
(d) Dynamic contrast-enhanced perfusion Identification of immature hyperpermeable
MRI vessels.
(e) Dynamic susceptibility contrast Microvessel density or area
perfusion MRI
(f) Diffusion Kurtosis Imaging (DKI) Estimation of cytoarchitectonic complexities of
gray and white matters
(g) Intravoxel Incoherent Motion (IVIM) Separation of perfusion from diffusion
7 Neuroradiology 93
Bibliography
1. Bo L, Zhang Z, Jiang Z, Yang C, Huang P, Chen T, Wang Y, Yu G, Tan X, Cheng Q, Li D,

Liu Z. Differentiation of brain abscess from cystic glioma using conventional MRI based on
deep transfer learning features and hand-crafted radiomics features. Front Med (Lausanne).
2021;8:748144. https://doi.org/10.3389/fmed.2021.748144.
2. Rudie JD, Rauschecker AM, Bryan RN, Davatzikos C, Mohan S. Emerging applications of arti-
ficial intelligence in neuro-oncology. Radiology. 2019;290(3):607–18. https://doi.org/10.1148/
radiol.2018181928. Epub 2019 Jan 22
3. van Timmeren JE, Cester D, Tanadini-Lang S, Alkadhi H, Baessler B. Radiomics in medical
imaging-“how-to” guide and critical reflection. Insights Imaging. 2020;11(1):91. https://doi.
org/10.1186/s13244-020-00887-2.
4. Lo Gullo R, Daimiel I, Morris EA, Pinker K. Combining molecular and imaging met-
rics in cancer: radiogenomics. Insights Imaging. 2020;11(1):1. https://doi.org/10.1186/
s13244-019-0795-6.
5. www.genome.gov
6. Kocher M, Ruge MI, Galldiks N, Lohmann P. Applications of radiomics and machine learning
for radiotherapy of malignant brain tumors. Strahlenther Onkol. 2020;196(10):856–67. https://
doi.org/10.1007/s00066-020-01626-8. Epub 2020 May 11
7. Jha SK. Cerebral edema and its management. Med J Armed Forces India. 2003;59(4):326–31.
https://doi.org/10.1016/S0377-1237(03)80147-8. Epub 2011 Jul 21
8. Verma A, Kumar I, Verma N, Aggarwal P, Ojha R. Magnetic resonance spectroscopy—revisit-
ing the biochemical and molecular milieu of brain tumors. BBA Clin. 2016;5:170–8. https://
doi.org/10.1016/j.bbacli.2016.04.002.
9. Ivanidze J, Roytman M, Lin E, Magge RS, Pisapia DJ, Liechty B, Karakatsanis N, Ramakrishna
R, Knisely J, Schwartz TH, Osborne JR, Pannullo SC. Gallium-68 DOTATATE PET in the
evaluation of intracranial meningiomas. J Neuroimaging. 2019;29(5):650–6. https://doi.
org/10.1111/jon.12632.
10. Gupta A, Gupta C, Sachan M, Singh S. Extensive cranial nerves involvement in
Neurofibromatosis: a rare presentation. J Pediatr Neurosci. 2018;13(1):74–7. https://doi.
org/10.4103/JPN.JPN_32_18.
11. Chavhan GB, Shroff MM. Twenty classic signs in neuroradiology: a pictorial essay. Indian J
Radiol Imaging. 2009;19(2):135–45. https://doi.org/10.4103/0971-3026.50835.
12. Kim M, Kim HS. Emerging techniques in brain tumor imaging: what radiologists need to
know. Korean J Radiol. 2016;17(5):598–619. https://doi.org/10.3348/kjr.2016.17.5.598.
Chapter 8
Chemotherapy
Ebtesam Abdulla, Luis Rafael Moscote-Salazar, Amit Agrawal,

and Daulat Singh
1. You are evaluating a 28-year-old man with a known history of HIV infection
who presented with persistent headaches. Imaging demonstrated a classic
appearance of primary CNS lymphoma. What is the best initial treatment for
these lesions?
(a) Observation
(b) Gross total resection
(c) Chemotherapy with methotrexate
(d) Chemotherapy with Hydroxyurea
Answer: c
Primary CNS lymphoma is highly radiosensitive and methotrexate-sensi-

tive. Methotrexate is the most effective first therapy. Gross complete resection
is contraindicated because of the substantial postoperative morbidity.
Hydroxyurea is used to treat meningiomas [1].
E. Abdulla (*)
Department of Neurosurgery, Salmaniya Medical Complex, Manama, Bahrain
L. R. Moscote-Salazar
Colombian Clinical Research Group in Neurocritical Care, Bogota, Colombia
A. Agrawal
Department of Neurosurgery, All India Institute of Medical Sciences,
Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, India
D. Singh
Department of Radiation Oncology, Govt Doon Medical College & Hospital,
Dehradun, Uttarakhand, India

Switzerland AG 2023
96 E. Abdulla et al.
2. A tumor was resected from a 61-year-old man with convulsions. The pathologi-
cal evaluation of the specimen was consistent with WHO grade 4 glioblastoma
multiforme (GBM). A chemotherapeutic temozolomide was commenced. What
is the most common side effect of temozolomide?
(a) Renal toxicity
(b) Liver toxicity
(c) Keratitis
(d) Bone marrow suppression
Answer: d
Temozolomide is a chemotherapeutic agent that is well tolerated. It may
nevertheless cause thrombocytopenia and neutropenia. Temozolomide has also
been associated with severe hematologic side effects, including myelodysplas-
tic syndrome and aplastic anemia [2].
3. What tumor type listed below is most likely to respond to the ICE regimen
(ifosfamide, carboplatin, etoposide)?
(a) Germ cells tumors
(b) Medulloblastoma
(c) Glioblastoma multiforme
(d) Primary CNS lymphoma
Answer: a
Two cycles of the ICE regimen, which consists of ifosfamide (2 gm/m2),
carboplatin (400 mg/m2), and etoposide (20 mg/m2), followed by autologous
hematopoietic progenitor cell support, is a potential treatment for germ cell
malignancies [3].
4. Which one of the following chemotherapy options is LEAST likely to be uti-
lized in the context of anaplastic oligodendroglioma?
(a) Procarbazine
(b) Lomustine
(c) Etoposide
(d) Vincristine
Answer: c
It is possible to treat anaplastic oligodendroglioma with a combination of
radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. For the treatment of low-grade
glioma, studies have mostly focused on the three-drug combination of procarba-
zine, lomustine, and vincristine (PCV) or a single dosage of temozolomide [4].
5. Which one of the following statements regarding vinca alkaloids is LEAST
accurate?
(a) They prevent tubulin polymerization and thus microtubule formation
(b) Induce cell apoptosis by arresting growing cells in the S phase.
8 Chemotherapy 97
(c) Peripheral neuropathy is a possible side effect

(d) Vincristine is an example of a first-generation agent.
Answer: b
Vinca alkaloids, which belong to a family of cell cycle phase M-specific
anti-tubulin medicines, were among the first plant alkaloids identified for use
in humans as anti-cancer drugs. Vinca rosea (Catharanthus roseus) alkaloids
include first-generation (vincristine, vinblastine), second-generation semisyn-
thetic derivatives (vinorelbine, vindesine), and third-generation alkaloids
(vinflunine). Some have also classed vinflunine as a second-generation
agent [5].
6. Which one of the following chemotherapy options is used for subependymal
giant cell astrocytoma (SEGA)?
(a) Everolimus
(b) Methotrexate
(c) Vincristine
(d) Erlotinib
Answer: a
Over 5 years of therapy, everolimus continues to have a sustained impact on
SEGA tumor regression. It was determined that Everolimus was well tolerated
and that no new safety concerns had arisen [6].
7. Which one of the following chemotherapy options is a vascular endothelial
growth factor (VEGF) inhibitor?
(a) Carmustine
(b) Tamoxifen
(c) Everolimus
(d) Bevacizumab
Answer: d
Bevacizumab (Avastin®), a VEGF inhibitor, has been utilized as a salvage
treatment for patients with recurrent GBM in the United States since 2009 [7].
8. You are monitoring a 19-year-old man with medulloblastoma for which surgery
was done. Concurrent chemotherapy was started. The patient developed hear-
ing loss. Which chemotherapeutic agent was used?
(a) mTOR inhibitor
(b) Alkylating agent
(c) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
(d) Platinum alkylating agent
Answer: d
Widely used to treat medulloblastoma, cisplatin is a very efficient chemo-
therapeutic drug. However, its usage has been linked to substantial adverse
effects, including bilateral, gradual, irreversible, dose-dependent neurosensory

hearing loss [8].
9. Which of the following chemotherapeutic option is used as a wafer for GBM?
(a) Cisplatin
(b) Lomustine
(c) Temozolomide
(d) Carmustine
Answer: d
Carmustine wafers show potential as an effective therapy for GBM patients
compared to alternative treatment options. Carmustine wafers should be studied
further in bigger randomized controlled trials for the treatment of GBM patients
as a monotherapy or combo therapy [9].
10. What metabolic derangement does chemotherapy lead to?
(a) Hypercalcemia
(b) Hypokalemia
(c) Hypocalcemia
(d) Hypophosphatemia
Answer: c
Acute renal failure and severe electrolyte imbalances are common symp-
toms of tumor lysis syndrome, an oncologic emergency. The condition often
manifests in individuals with lymphoproliferative cancers, typically after the
commencement of chemotherapy. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyper-
uricemia, and hypocalcemia are defining characteristics [10].
11. The final pathology of a tumor resected from a 42-year-old woman’s brain is
mixed oligoastrocytoma. The patient started on the PCV regimen. What dietary
to AVOID while on the PCV regimen?
(a) Sugar-containing food
(b) Tyramine-containing food
(c) Iodine-containing food
(d) Estrogen-rich food
Answer: b
When taken with tyramine-containing meals, procarbazine, an alkylating
medication, causes malignant hypertension in the patient [11].
12. Concerning the delivery of chemotherapy to the brain, which of the following
is LEAST likely to contribute to the low permeability of the blood-brain bar-
rier (BBB)?
(a) Increased pinocytic activity reflecting a low level of transcellular transport
(b) Interaction of astrocytic processes and pericytes with brain endothelial cells
8 Chemotherapy 99
(c) Presence of ATP-binding cassette transporters

(d) Presence of insulin receptors
Answer: a
Between the blood and the brain lies a barrier known as the blood-brain bar-
rier (BBB), which is a highly selective barrier. The low pinocytic activity reflects
a low level of transcellular transport, the interaction of astrocytic processes and
pericytes with brain endothelial cells, presence of ATP-binding cassette trans-
porters, insulin receptors, multidrug resistance–associated proteins, and transfer-
rin receptors, lack of lymphatic drainage, and absence of major histocompatibility
complex all contribute to the low permeability of the BBB [12].
13. Which of the following brain tumors is NOT typically treated with

chemotherapy?
(a) Chordoma
(b) Ependymoma
(c) Meningioma
(d) Astrocytoma
Answer: b
Following astrocytoma and medulloblastoma, ependymoma is the third most
frequent pediatric brain tumor, with an estimated 200 new occurrences each
year. The importance of neurosurgeons in the treatment of ependymomas in
children is highlighted by the high probability of cure for patients who have an
extensive complete resection. The standard of treatment is complete gross
resection followed by radiation. Typically, chemotherapy is not part of the treat-
ment protocol [13].
14. You are asked to evaluate an NF1 child with optic pathway glioma (OPG)
depicted in the MRI. The patient presented with progressive visual decline, and
severe exophthalmos. What is the best initial treatment for this condition?
(a) Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy
(b) Surgery
(c) Observation
(d) Chemotherapy alone
Answer: d
Chemotherapy is the cornerstone of treatment, with most regimens consist-
ing of carboplatin and vincristine. The five-year survival rate exceeds 90 per-
cent with chemotherapy alone and may significantly delay or postpone radiation
treatment for children with OPG. Surgical intervention may be considered if
eyesight has been lost. Radiation treatment for NF1 poses a substantial risk of
subsequent malignancy, cognitive impairment, and vascular stenosis, and
should be undertaken with caution [14].
15. You are evaluating a patient with a recurrent systemic Langerhans Cell

Histiocytosis involving the CNS. What targeted gene therapy is likely effective
in this patient?
(a) VEGF inhibitor
(b) BRAF inhibitor
(c) PTEN inhibitor
(d) P53 inhibitor
Answer: b
Surgery is the treatment for Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis. Persistence or
recurrence of these lesions, however, may demand further treatment, such as
low-dose chemotherapy or, in rare instances, low-dose radiation therapy. The
findings of targeted treatment with BRAF inhibitors for systemic illness are
promising [15].
16. What is the best management of a patient with a biopsy-proven, non-AIDS-
related primary CNS lymphoma?
(a) Surgical resection followed by XRT
(b) Surgical resection followed by methotrexate chemotherapy
(c) Surgical resection followed by XRT and methotrexate chemotherapy
(d) XRT and methotrexate chemotherapy
Answer: d
The most effective treatment for primary CNS lymphoma in patients without
AIDS is a combination of X-ray radiotherapy and methotrexate chemotherapy.
There is no justification for surgical excision [16].
17. What is the best management of a patient with biopsy-proven, metastatic non-
small-cell lung cancer?
(a) Erlotinib
(b) Avastin
(c) Methotrexate
(d) Vincristine
Answer: a
Erlotinib is an oral tyrosine kinase inhibitor that targets the human epidermal
receptor type 1/ epidermal growth factor receptor. It was recently authorized by
the FDA for the treatment of patients with locally advanced or metastatic non-
small-cell lung cancer who have failed more than one or two previous chemo-
therapy regimens [17].
18. What is the following chemotherapy agent contributing to delayed wound
healing?
(a) Erlotinib
(b) Avastin®
8 Chemotherapy 101
(c) Tamoxifen
(d) Methotrexate
Answer: b
Using Avastin® may result in bleeding or infection as a consequence of
wounds not healing properly. The patient must discontinue bevacizumab at
least 28 days before undergoing any form of surgery. After surgery, Avastin®
should not be resumed for at least 28 days, or until the surgical incision has
healed [18].
19. You are evaluating a 60-year-old patient, known to have colorectal cancer, and
recently diagnosed with GBM. Which of the following concerns of starting
bevacizumab in this case?
(a) Megacolon
(b) Bowel perforation
(c) Liver metastasis
(d) Mesenteric venous thrombosis
Answer: b
The majority of bowel perforations caused by Avastin® (bevacizumab) have
occurred when the tumor penetrates the colon’s wall. Avastin® causes the
tumor to disintegrate, leaving behind a void. With Avastin®, the tumor disap-
pears, but scar tissue does not develop since the tumor is unable to generate its
blood supply [19].
20. You are evaluating a patient with brain lymphoma who developed generalized
tonic-clonic convulsions after intrathecal injection. Which of the following che-
motherapeutic agent was likely given?
(a) Lomustine
(b) Vincristine
(c) Cisplatin
(d) Methotrexate
Answer: d
The intrathecal injection of methotrexate may achieve therapeutic concentra-
tions in the cerebrospinal fluid without the use of intravenous methotrexate at
large doses. 3-to-40 percent of individuals receiving intrathecal methotrexate
have been documented to have major neurologic problems. Dosage, methotrexate
concentration in CSF, patient age, anatomical and physiological abnormalities in
the CNS, type of dilutional vehicle, intracranial radiation, and intravenous metho-
trexate are all factors that contribute to the development of neurotoxicity [20].
Bibliography
1. Bernstein B. Neuro-oncology: the essentials. 3rd ed. Thieme; 2015. p. 439–48.

2. Scaringi C, De Sanctis V, Minniti G, et al. Temozolomide-related hematologic toxicity.
Onkologie. 2013;36(7–8):444–9.
3. Lotz JP, André T, Bouleuc C, et al. The ICE regimen (ifosfamide, carboplatin, etoposide)
for the treatment of germ-cell tumors and metastatic trophoblastic disease. Bone Marrow
Transplant. 1996;18(Suppl 1):S55–9.
4. Webre C, Shonka N, Smith L, et al. PC or PCV, that is the question: primary anaplastic
Oligodendroglial tumors treated with Procarbazine and CCNU with and without vincristine.
Anticancer Res. 2015;35(10):5467–72.
5. Loh K. Know the medicinal herb: Catharanthus roseus (Vinca rosea). Malays Fam Physician.
2008;3(2):123.
6. Franz DN, Agricola K, Mays M, et al. Everolimus for subependymal giant cell astrocytoma:
5-year final analysis. Ann Neurol. 2015;78(6):929–38.
7. Kreisl TN, Kim L, Moore K, et al. Phase II trial of single-agent bevacizumab followed by
bevacizumab plus irinotecan at tumor progression in recurrent glioblastoma. J Clin Oncol.
2009;27(5):740–5.
8. Callejo A, Sedó-Cabezón L, Juan ID, Llorens J. Cisplatin-Induced ototoxicity: effects, mecha-
nisms and protection strategies. Toxics. 2015;3(3):268–93.
9. Zhang YD, Dai RY, Chen Z, et al. Efficacy and safety of carmustine wafers in the treatment of
glioblastoma multiforme: a systematic review. Turk Neurosurg. 2014;24(5):639–45.
10. Davidson MB, Thakkar S, Hix JK, et al. Pathophysiology, clinical consequences, and treat-
ment of tumor lysis syndrome. Am J Med. 2004;116(8):546–54.
11. Collado-Borrell R, Escudero-Vilaplana V, Romero-Jiménez R, Iglesias-Peinado I, Herranz-
Alonso A, Sanjurjo-Sáez M. Oral antineoplastic agent interactions with medicinal plants and
food: an issue to take into account. J Cancer Res Clin Oncol. 2016;142(11):2319–30.
12. Zou L, Ma JL, Wang T, et al. Cell-penetrating peptide-mediated therapeutic molecule delivery
into the central nervous system. Curr Neuropharmacol. 2013;11:197–208.
13. McGuire CS, Sainani KL, Fisher PG. Incidence patterns for ependymoma: a surveillance,
epidemiology, and end results study. J Neurosurg. 2009;110(4):725–9.
14. Laithier V, Grill J, Le Deley MC, et al. Progression-free survival in children with optic path-
way tumors: dependence on age and the quality of the response to chemotherapy--results of
the first French prospective study for the French Society of Pediatric Oncology. J Clin Oncol.
2003;21(24):4572–8.
15. Grana N. Langerhans cell histiocytosis. Cancer Control. 2014;21(4):328–34.
16. Batchelor T, Carson K, O'Neill A, et al. Treatment of primary CNS lymphoma with methotrex-
ate and deferred radiotherapy: a report of NABTT 96-07. J Clin Oncol. 2003;21(6):1044–9.
17. Smith J. Erlotinib: small-molecule targeted therapy in the treatment of non-small-cell lung
cancer. Clin Ther. 2005;27(10):1513–34.
18. Zhang H, Huang Z, Zou X, Liu T. Bevacizumab and wound-healing complications: a systematic
review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials. Oncotarget. 2016;7(50):82473–81.
19. Heinzerling JH, Huerta S. Bowel perforation from bevacizumab for the treatment of metastatic
colon cancer: incidence, etiology, and management. Curr Surg. 2006;63(5):334–7.
20. Pui CH, Howard SC. Current management and challenges of malignant disease in the CNS in
paediatric leukaemia. Lancet Oncol. 2008;9:257–68.
Chapter 9
Radiotherapy
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following medicines has been tried to ameliorate the neurocogni-
tive effects of whole-brain radiotherapy?
(a) Trastuzumab
(b) Folic acid
(c) Memantine
(d) Folinic acid
Answer: c
Memantine—n- methyl-d-aspartate-receptor antagonist
2. Match the following side effects to the period when they occur following radia-
tion therapy.
(a) Radiation-induced seizures Days to weeks
(b) Cerebral edema 1-6 months
(c) Radiation necrosis 1-6 months
(b) Alopecia Days to weeks
(e) Neuropraxia Days to weeks
(f) Somnolence syndrome 6-24 months
Answer:
(a) Radiation-induced seizures Days to weeks
(b) Cerebral edema Days to weeks
(c) Radiation necrosis 6–24 months
(b) Alopecia Days to weeks
(e) Neuropraxia 1–6 months
(f) Somnolence syndrome 1–6 months
J. M. Das (*)
Switzerland AG 2023
104 J. M. Das
3. Which part of the brain is spared during intensity-modulated radiotherapy in an

attempt to reduce cognitive decline?
(a) Periventricular stem cells
(b) Dorsal medulla
(c) Ventral medulla
(d) Hippocampal neural stem cells
Answer: d
4. What is the current standard of care for glioblastoma after tumor debulking
surgery?
(a) Radiation (60 Gy in 30 fractions) + Temozolomide followed by
Temozolomide alone for 6 months
(b) Radiation (60 Gy in 30 fractions) followed by Temozolomide alone for
6 months
(c) Radiation (60 Gy in 60 fractions) + Temozolomide followed by
Temozolomide alone for 12 months
(d) Radiation (30 Gy in 60 fractions) followed by Temozolomide alone for
6 months
Answer: a
5. Which of the following is a biomarker to predict the outcome and subsequent
increased risk of radiotherapy before starting irradiation?
(a) Micronuclei
(b) TGF-β
(c) FGF-2
(d) Ang-1
Answer: a
• Predictive biomarkers: IL-1, IL-6, micronuclei
• Prognostic biomarkers: TGF-β, FGF-2
6. Tumour-treating fields (TTFields) treatment should be administered continu-
ously, for at least how many hours per day?
(a) 6 h
(b) 12 h
(c) 18 h
(d) 24 h
Answer: c
• TTFields are nonionizing
• Delivered at an intermediate frequency (200 kHz for GBM) and low intensi-
ties (1–3 V/cm)
9 Radiotherapy 105
7. What is the most common device-related adverse event reported with TTFields
treatment?
(a) Seizures
(b) Skin toxicity
(c) Infection
(d) Insomnia
Answer: b
8. Which of the following is not an unfavorable prognostic factor for survival in a
patient with low-grade glioma according to the European Organisation for
Research and Treatment of Cancer Trials (EORTC)?
(a) Age less than 40 years
(b) Astrocytoma histology
(c) Tumor diameter more than 6 cm
(d) Tumor crossing midline
Answer: a
High-risk features in patients with low-grade glioma:
• Age 40 or older
• Astrocytoma histology
• Tumor diameter ≥ 6 cm
• Tumor crossing the midline
• The presence of neurologic deficit before surgery
9. Which of the following is not included in the 4Rs involved in the radiobiology
of ionizing radiation?
(a) Repair
(b) Regeneration
(c) Repopulation
(d) Reoxygenation
Answer: b
The biological effect of ionizing radiation to a given tissue is determined by:
• Repair capacity of cells
• Repopulation of surviving tumor stem cells
• Redistribution of cells between the cell cycle
• Reoxygenation of hypoxic tumor cells
10. Which part of the brain is most radioresistant?
(a) Frontal lobe
(b) Parietal lobe
(c) Temporal lobe
(d) Cerebellum
Answer: a
106 J. M. Das
• The radiosensitivity increases in the following order:

Frontal region < parietal region < temporal lobe < cerebellar and brainstem
< thalamus/basal ganglia.
11. Which drug has shown some promise in treating post-radiation cognitive

symptoms?
(a) Galantamine
(b) Rivastigmine
(c) Donepezil
(d) Aducanumab
Answer: c
12. Mitotically active neural stem cells are located within which part of the

hippocampus?
(a) Subpyramidal zone of the dentate gyrus
(b) Subgranular zone of the dentate gyrus
(c) Subpyramidal zone of the hippocampal gyrus
(d) Subgranular zone of the hippocampal gyrus
Answer: b
13. The maximum dose of radiation that can be given over the optic chiasm via
stereotactic radiosurgery as per Quantitative Analysis of Normal Tissue Effects
in the Clinic (QUANTEC) is
(a) 2 Gy
(b) 4 Gy
(c) 6 Gy
(d) 8 Gy
Answer: d
• Brainstem—maximum radiation—54 Gy; with SRS—12.5 Gy
• Cochlea—12-14 Gy
14. Which hormone is most susceptible to irradiation among the hypothalamic-
pituitary hormones?
(a) Prolactin
(b) Growth hormone
(c) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
(d) Thyroid stimulating hormone
Answer: b
9 Radiotherapy 107
15. Which pediatric brain tumor is most commonly treated with proton therapy?
(a) Medulloblastoma
(b) Atypical teratoid rhabdoid tumor
(c) Brainstem glioma
(d) Craniopharyngioma
Answer: a
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with brain metastases: complications, treatments, and the emerging role of memantine. J
Oncol Pharm Pract. 2019;25(3):657–62. https://doi.org/10.1177/1078155218798176. Epub
2018 Sep 10
2. Wujanto C, Vellayappan B, Chang EL, Chao ST, Sahgal A, Lo SS. Radiotherapy to the brain:
what are the consequences of this age-old treatment? Ann Palliat Med. 2021;10(1):936–52.
Epub 2020 Jul 29
3. Barani IJ, Larson DA. Radiation therapy of glioblastoma. Cancer Treat Res. 2015;163:49–73.
https://doi.org/10.1007/978-3-319-12048-5_4.
4. Sultana N, Sun C, Katsube T, Wang B. Biomarkers of brain damage induced by radiotherapy.
Dose Response. 2020;18(3):1559325820938279. https://doi.org/10.1177/1559325820938279.
5. Trusheim J, Dunbar E, Battiste J, Iwamoto F, Mohile N, Damek D, Bota DA, Connelly
J. A state-of-the-art review and guidelines for tumor treating fields treatment planning and
patient follow-up in glioblastoma. CNS Oncol. 2017;6(1):29–43. https://doi.org/10.2217/
cns-2016-0032. Epub 2016 Sep 15
6. Pignatti F, van den Bent M, Curran D, Debruyne C, Sylvester R, Therasse P, Afra D, Cornu
P, Bolla M, Vecht C, Karim AB, European Organization for Research and Treatment of
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with cerebral low-grade glioma. J Clin Oncol. 2002;20(8):2076–84. https://doi.org/10.1200/
JCO.2002.08.121.
7. Pajonk F, Vlashi E, McBride WH. Radiation resistance of cancer stem cells: the 4 R's of radio-
biology revisited. Stem Cells. 2010;28(4):639–48. https://doi.org/10.1002/stem.318.
8. Santacroce A, Kamp MA, Budach W, Hänggi D. Radiobiology of radiosurgery for the central
nervous system. Biomed Res Int. 2013;2013:362761. https://doi.org/10.1155/2013/362761.
Epub 2013 Dec 29
9. Brown PD, Ahluwalia MS, Khan OH, Asher AL, Wefel JS, Gondi V. Whole-brain radiotherapy
for brain metastases: evolution or revolution? J Clin Oncol. 2018;36(5):483–91. https://doi.
org/10.1200/JCO.2017.75.9589.
10. Mizumoto M, Oshiro Y, Yamamoto T, Kohzuki H, Sakurai H. Proton beam therapy for pediat-
ric brain tumor. Neurol Med Chir (Tokyo). 2017;57(7):343–55. https://doi.org/10.2176/nmc.
ra.2017-0003.
11. Ruggi A, Melchionda F, Sardi I, Pavone R, Meneghello L, Kitanovski L, Zaletel LZ, Farace
P, Zucchelli M, Scagnet M, Toni F, Righetto R, Cianchetti M, Prete A, Greto D, Cammelli
S, Morganti AG, Rombi B. Toxicity and clinical results after proton therapy for pediatric
Medulloblastoma: a multi-centric retrospective study. Cancers (Basel). 2022;14(11):2747.
https://doi.org/10.3390/cancers14112747.
Chapter 10
Immunotherapy
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following cells is involved in critical functions including cytotox-

icity, phagocytosis, and T-cell activation through antigen presentation?
(a) Oligodendroglia
(b) Microglia
(c) Astrocyte
(d) NG2-glia
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is false regarding NG2-glia?
(a) Expresses surface chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 3
(b) First described as progenitors for oligodendrocytes
(c) They retain their proliferative ability throughout life
(d) They help to repair the brain in demyelinating diseases
Answer: a
NG2 cells = oligodendrocyte precursor cells (OPCs) = polydendrocytes.
Key features of neuron-glia antigen 2 (NG2) glia:
• Expression of surface chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 4
• First described as progenitors for oligodendrocytes
• Recognized as a fourth neuroglial cell type in the mammalian central ner-
vous system
• Retain their proliferative ability throughout life
• Maintenance of neuronal function and survival by regulating the neuroim-
munological functions in the mature CNS
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
110 J. M. Das
• NG2 glia helps in brain repair in demyelinating disease by proliferating and

differentiating into myelinating oligodendrocytes.
3. What is the purpose of the immune reaction in CNS pathology?
(a) To activate microglia
(b) To promote phagocytosis
(c) To stimulate the production of oligodendrocytes
(d) To allow neurons to function undisturbed
Answer: d
4. Which of the following is the most selective barrier for limiting the entry of
different substances into the brain?
(a) Blood-meningeal barrier
(b) Blood-brain barrier
(c) Choroid plexus barrier
(d) Blood-CSF barrier
Answer: b
• Blood-brain barrier (BBB)—Between the vasculature of the brain paren-
chyma and the brain parenchyma itself
• Blood-meningeal barrier (BMB)- Barrier between the meningeal blood ves-
sels and the meninges themselves
• Choroid plexus barrier (blood-CSF barrier—BCSFB)—Prevents the entry
of molecules in the blood into the ventricular CSF.
• Immune cells can cross the BCSFB and the BMB as the endothelial cells are
fenestrated.
5. The primary site of entry of immune cells in pathological states is via
(a) Blood-meningeal barrier
(b) Blood-brain barrier
(c) Choroid plexus barrier
(d) Blood-CSF barrier
Answer: a
• Immune cells will enter primarily via the meningeal vessels across the BMB
into the pia and infiltrates the cerebral parenchyma when there is a patho-
logical condition.
6. Which of the following is false regarding dendritic cells in relation to the cen-
tral nervous system?
(a) They are typically not found in normal brain parenchyma
(b) They are present in the choroid plexus and meninges
(c) They do not secrete IFN alfa
(d) They migrate to the brain and spinal cord via afferent lymphatics or high
endothelial venules
Answer: c
10 Immunotherapy 111
• Normal dendritic cells secrete IFNα that helps in T-cell maturation, whereas
brain tumor-associated dendritic cells will not secrete IFNα.
7. Which of the following does not usually correlate with an improved prognosis
is glioblastoma?
(a) Increased calreticulin
(b) Increased HSP70
(c) Decreased HMGB1
(d) Decreased ratio of infiltrated CD8+ to CD4+ T-cells
Answer: d
Damage-Associated Molecular Patterns (DAMPs):
• Increased calreticulin
• Increased HSP70
• Decreased HMGB1
8. Match the following vaccines with the corresponding types
(a) Peptide vaccine Ofranergene obadenovec (ofra-vec; VB-111)
(b) Dendritic cell vaccine Ipilimumab (anti–CTLA-4 mAb)
(c) Immune checkpoint inhibitor Rindopepimut®
(d) Non-replicative viral therapy Sipuleucel-T
Answer:
(a) Peptide vaccine Rindopepimut®
(b) Dendritic cell vaccine Sipuleucel-T
(c) Immune checkpoint inhibitor Ipilimumab (anti–CTLA-4 mAb)
(d) Non-replicative viral therapy Ofranergene obadenovec (ofra-vec; VB-111)
• Ipilimumab—a monoclonal antibody inhibitor for cytotoxic T-lymphocyte–

associated protein type 4 (CTLA-4) used to treat stage IV melanoma
• Sipuleucel-T (Provenge®)—dendritic cell vaccine—used to treat stage IV
metastatic castrate-resistant prostate cancer.
9. What is the molecular target for Rindopepimut®?
(a) EGFRvIII
(b) FGFR
(c) Hepatocyte Growth Factor Receptor (MET)
(d) Sprouty2 (SPRY2)
Answer: a
• Rindopepimut® (CDX-110) is a peptide vaccine used for brain tumors.
Trials have shown a mixed response to this drug.
• Peptide vaccine → In vivo dendritic cell maturation → Promotes the produc-
tion of activated T-cells → Antigen presentation to T-cells → Brain cancer
cell damage
112 J. M. Das
10. The most common target for antibody-based drugs for GBM is
(a) VEGF-A
(b) Programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1)
(c) Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4)
(d) HER-2
Answer: a
11. Which of the following is a Programmed cell death—ligand 1 (PD-L1) inhibi-
tor that is being studied for the treatment of glioblastoma?
(a) Nivolumab
(b) Cemiplimab
(c) Pembrolizumab
(d) Atezolizumab
Answer: d
• Nivolumab, cemiplimab, and pembrolizumab—Anti–PD-1 (programmed
death—1) monoclonal antibodies
• Atezolizumab, durvalumab, and avelumab—PD-L1 inhibitors
12. The recombinant oncolytic poliovirus, PVS-RIPO, is administered through
which route?
(a) Intraventricular
(b) Intratumoral
(c) Intravenous
(d) Intraarterial
Answer: b
• PVS-RIPO contains recombinant, live-attenuated type 1 (Sabin) poliovirus
vaccine.
• Carries internal ribosomal entry site (IRES) of human rhinovirus 2.
• Enters the neoplastic cells via the polio receptor CD155, expressed in
solid tumors.
• Has found initial promise in patients with recurrent glioblastoma.
13. Neurons support tumor cell proliferation via secretion of
(a) Neuroligin-1
(b) Neuroligin-2
(c) Neuroligin-3
(d) Neuroligin-4
Answer: c
• NLGN3 expression strongly predicts survival in human high-grade gliomas.
14. Indolamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO) which is known to suppress the anti-

glioblastoma immune response is involved in the metabolism of which of the
following amino acids?
(a) Glycine
(b) Glutamine
(c) Tyrosine
(d) Tryptophan
Answer: d
• Tryptophan is the least abundant amino acid.
• IDO1 converts tryptophan into kynure nines.
• Navoximod and linrodostat are IDO inhibitors being tried in preclinical
models of glioblastoma.
• Indoximod, another IDO inhibitor, is being tried in pediatric brain tumors.
15. Which of the following DNA viruses has shown promising results in the treat-
ment of gliomas?
(a) Reovirus
(b) Newcastle Disease Virus (NDV)
(c) Measles virus
(d) Adenovirus
Answer: d
• The following viruses have shown promising results in oncolytic therapy of
gliomas:
–– DNA viruses: Modified HSV1, Adenovirus
–– RNA viruses: Reovirus, NDV
16. The most abundant cell types in the tumor mass of glioblastoma are
(a) Astrocytes
(b) Tumor-associated macrophages
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Oligodendrocytes
Answer: b
• Tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) are the most abundant cells in the
GBM microenvironment,
• CD11b, also known as integrin alpha M, is often used to identify TAMs.
• CD14 is widely used for human TAMs.
17. The glymphatic system is a brain-wide perivascular pathway driven by which
of the following aquaporins?
(a) Aquaporin 1
(b) Aquaporin 2
114 J. M. Das
(c) Aquaporin 3
(d) Aquaporin 4
Answer: d
“Glymphatic system” was discovered in 2012 by Iliff et al.
It helps in:
• Clearing the interstitial solutes in the brain parenchyma
• Para-arterial influx of subarachnoisd CSF into the brain interstitium,
• Exchanging of CSF with interstitial fluid
• Para-venous efflux of ISF
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2. Jin X, Riew TR, Kim HL, Choi JH, Lee MY. Morphological characterization of NG2 glia and
their association with neuroglial cells in the 3-nitropropionic acid-lesioned striatum of rat. Sci
Rep. 2018;8(1):5942–17. https://doi.org/10.1038/s41598-018-24385-0.
3. Srivastava S, Jackson C, Kim T, Choi J, Lim M. A characterization of dendritic cells and
their role in immunotherapy in glioblastoma: from preclinical studies to clinical trials. Cancers
(Basel). 2019;11(4):537. https://doi.org/10.3390/cancers11040537.
4. Hernandez C, Huebener P, Schwabe RF. Damage-associated molecular patterns in cancer: a
double-edged sword. Oncogene. 2016;35(46):5931–41. https://doi.org/10.1038/onc.2016.104.
5. Muth C, Rubner Y, Semrau S, Rühle PF, Frey B, Strnad A, Buslei R, Fietkau R, Gaipl
US. Primary glioblastoma multiforme tumors and recurrence: comparative analysis of the
danger signals HMGB1, HSP70, and calreticulin. Strahlenther Onkol. 2016;192(3):146–55.
https://doi.org/10.1007/s00066-015-0926-z.
6. Han S, Zhang C, Li Q, Dong J, Liu Y, Huang Y, Jiang T, Wu A. Tumour-infiltrating
CD4(+) and CD8(+) lymphocytes as predictors of clinical outcome in glioma. Br J Cancer.
2014;110(10):2560–8.
7. Swartz AM, Li QJ, Sampson JH. Rindopepimut: a promising immunotherapeutic for the treat-
ment of glioblastoma multiforme. Immunotherapy. 2014;6(6):679–90. https://doi.org/10.2217/
imt.14.21.
8. Razpotnik R, Novak N, Čurin Šerbec V, Rajcevic U. Targeting malignant brain tumors with
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9. Khasraw M, Reardon DA, Weller M, Sampson JH. PD-1 inhibitors: do they have a future
in the treatment of glioblastoma? Clin Cancer Res. 2020;26(20):5287–96. https://doi.
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10. Beasley GM, Nair SK, Farrow NE, Landa K, Selim MA, Wiggs CA, Jung SH, Bigner DD,
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fonc.2021.790821.
Chapter 11
Stem Cells
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following is an example of a suicide gene that is carried by neural

stem cells during their administration to prevent their uncontrolled
proliferation?
(a) Fumarase
(b) Thymidine kinase
(c) Aconitase
(d) DNA helicase
Answer: b
Usual strategies to induce cell suicide include:
• Cytosine deaminase gene of E. coli (converts 5-Fluorocytosine to
5-Fluorouracil)
• Herpes simplex virus thymidine kinase gene (converts ganciclovir to ganci-
clovir monophosphate) → Delay in S phase and G2-phase → Apoptosis
2. Which type of stem cell is closest to the ependymal layer of the ventricle in the
subventricular zone?
(a) Type A
(b) Type B
(c) Type C
(d) Type D
Answer: a
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
118 J. M. Das
• Adult neural stem cells (NSCs) are present in:

– The subventricular zone (SVZ) of the lateral ventricles and
– The subgranular layer of the hippocampal dentate gyrus.
• NSCs (quiescent type B cells) → rapidly dividing type C cells → type A
cells (neuroblasts)
• Type A cells are separated only by a single layer of ependymal cells.
• Type A cells directly divide to form new neurons.
3. The most likely location of glioma stem cell (GSC) niche in which the GSC
reside is around which of the following type of blood vessels?
(a) Arteriole
(b) Venule
(c) Capillary
(d) Venous sinus
Answer: a
GSC niches
• The protective microenvironments in glioblastomas
• Hypoxic
• Located in a periarteriolar fashion
4. Which is the most developed brain tumor stem cell marker?
(a) Prominin-1
(b) Sox2
(c) Nestin
(d) Musashi1
Answer: a
Prominin-1 (Cluster of Differentiation 133—CD133):
• Pentaspan transmembrane glycoprotein
• Located on cell protrusions
• Detected in patients with familial macular degeneration
• First used to enrich tumor-populating cells in leukemia
Nestin and CD133: the most sensitive markers for both adult NSCs
and BTSCs.
5. Which of the following is the best-known RNA marker that is associated with
the progression of glioblastoma?
(a) ψ
(b) m1A
(c) m6A
(d) m6Am
Answer: c
11 Stem Cells 119
• RNA modifications = RNA epigenetics

• Present in almost all the cellular RNAs.
• N6-methyladenosine (m6A) modification: essential for tumor development
• Most prevalent and abundant modification that occurs in mRNAs, rRNAs,
and snRNAs.
• Occurs in nuclear speckles
RNA markers elevated in glioblastoma:
• m6A writers: WTAP and RBM15
• m6A eraser: ALKBH5
• m6A reader: YTHDF2
RNA markers decreased in glioblastoma:
• m6A writers: METTL3, VIRMA, and ZC3H13
• m6A eraser: FTO
• m6A readers: YTHDC2 and hnRNPC
6. Which of the following drugs inhibits the SHH-GLI pathway and reduces the
growth of human medulloblastomas and gliomas?
(a) Cyclopamine
(b) BMP
(c) Bevacizumab
(d) STAT3
Answer: a
SHH inhibitor—Inhibits stem cell proliferation.
Differentiation therapy—BMP—Depletes stem cells.
Anti-angiogenic therapy—Bevacizumab—Disrupts angiogenic niche.
STAT3
• Pro-survival and pro-inflammatory transcription factor
• Abnormally active in GBM
• A master regulator of tumorigenesis
• A mediator of therapeutic resistance
7. Which of the following cyclins is the chief promoter of the proliferation of stem
cells in the subventricular zone?
(a) Cyclin D1
(b) Cyclin D2
(c) Cyclin D3
(d) Cyclin D4
Answer: b
• Three D-type cyclins—Cyclin D1, D2, and D3
• Checkpoint regulators of the human cell cycle
120 J. M. Das
• Promote the transition from G1 to S phase through:

– Activation of the cyclin-dependent kinase Cdk4/6
– Phosphorylation of retinoblastoma suppressor protein (pRB)
– Suppression of pRB inhibitory function on E2F transcription factors
• Cyclin D2—predominant cyclin D in the human subventricular zone
8. Which of the following glioma stem cell markers is expressed in Down
syndrome?
(a) CD44
(b) SOX2
(c) Nestin
(d) Olig2
Answer: d
Stem cell markers expressed in glioblastoma—CD44, SOX2, Nestin,
and Olig2.
• CD44
– Surface glycoprotein—chromosome 11
– A marker for CNS development and malignant transformation to gliomas
– Also prognostic
• SOX2
– Transcription factor—chromosome 3
– Maintains the self-renewal capacity of undifferentiated stem cells
• Nestin
– Type IV intermediate filament—NE gene (19q23.1)
– Responsible for the mechanical integrity of the cell
– Expressed in nerve cells during the initial phase of development
• OLIG2
– Transcription factor—gene 21q22.11
– Defines oligodendroglial differentiation
– Anti-neurogenic or pro-neurogenic during different stages of CNS
development
– Expressed in Down syndrome and CNS tumors (Glioblastomas, astro-
cytomas, and oligodendrogliomas)
9. Which of the following is not a definitive functional characteristic of a cancer
stem cell?
(a) Sustained self-renewal
(b) Persistent proliferation
11 Stem Cells 121
(c) Tumor initiation upon secondary transplantation

(d) Stem cell marker expression
Answer: d
Cancer stem cells share some common features with somatic stem cells.
• Frequency within the tumor
• Ability to generate progeny of multiple lineages
• Stem cell marker expression
10. Which of the following stem cell type is characterized by the generation of a
tumor, which lacks the capacity for self-renewal, upon secondary
transplantation?
(a) Cancer stem cell
(b) Cancer stem-like cell
(c) Cancer-initiating cell
(d) Cancer-propagating cell
Answer: c
11. Which is a cytoplasmic protein delineated as a cancer stem cell marker?
(a) Musashi-1
(b) Oc4
(c) Nanog
(d) Sox2
Answer: a
Cancer Stem Cells:
• Glycans attached to cell surface proteins or lipids:
– CD133, CD44, CD15, CD24, CD90, CD49f, CXCR4, L1CAM and
ABC efflux transporters.
• Cytoplasmic proteins:
– Nestin, Musashi-1, and aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH1)
• Nuclear proteins:
– Oc 4, Nanog, and Sox2
12. What is the cut-off of molecular weight and the number of hydrogen bonds In a
molecule to be able to cross the blood-brain barrier by lipid-mediated diffusion?
(a) Molecular weight < 100 Da and < 2 hydrogen bonds
(b) Molecular weight < 200 Da and < 4 hydrogen bonds
(c) Molecular weight < 300 Da and < 6 hydrogen bonds
(d) Molecular weight < 400 Da and < 8 hydrogen bonds
Answer: d
122 J. M. Das
13. Match the following molecules with the corresponding mechanisms of action.
(a) Cyclopamine STAT3 inhibitor
(b) Resveratrol Induces stem cell differentiation
(c) Metformin Shh inhibition
(d) Napabucasin Permeability glycoprotein inhibitor
(e) Epigallocatechin gallate Activates autophagy
(f) Curcumin Modulates the Wnt pathway
(g) Bone Morphogenetic Protein 4 (BMP4) Inhibits AKT signaling
Answer:
(a) Cyclopamine Shh inhibition
(b) Resveratrol Modulates the Wnt pathway
(c) Metformin Inhibits AKT signaling
(d) Napabucasin STAT3 inhibitor
(e) Epigallocatechin gallate Permeability glycoprotein inhibitor
(f) Curcumin Activates autophagy
(g) Bone Morphogenetic Protein 4 (BMP4) Induces stem cell differentiation
14. Which is a highly selective aurora-A kinase inhibitor that inhibits colony for-
mation in glioma stem cells and potentiates the effects of temozolomide and
radiation in glioblastoma?
(a) Honokiol
(b) Alisertib
(c) Pazopanib
(d) Cyclopamine
Answer: b
• Honokiol—Inhibits PI3K/mTOR signaling activation in gliomas
• Pazopanib—Oral multitarget angiogenesis inhibitor
• Cyclopamine—Specifically inhibits the Hedgehog pathway
15. As of now, which of the following neural stem cell lines has been approved for
human clinical trials in glioblastoma?
(a) HB1.F3.CD
(b) ReNCell VM
(c) ReNCell CX
(d) Hoechst 33342 SP
Answer: a
11 Stem Cells 123
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5. Calinescu AA, Kauss MC, Sultan Z, Al-Holou WN, O'Shea SK. Stem cells for the treatment
of glioblastoma: a 20-year perspective. CNS. Oncologia. 2021;10(2):CNS73. https://doi.
org/10.2217/cns-2020-0026.
6. Rich JN, Eyler CE. Cancer stem cells in brain tumor biology. Cold Spring Harb Symp Quant
Biol. 2008;73:411–20. https://doi.org/10.1101/sqb.2008.73.060. Epub 2009 Mar 27
Chapter 12
Nanotheranostics
Joe M Das
1. What is meant by theranostic nanomedicine?

(a) Nanomedicine combined with diagnostics
(b) Nanomedicine combined with therapeutics
(c) Nanomedicine combined with diagnostics and therapeutics
(d) Nanomedicine combined with teratology
Answer: c
• Nanotheranostics:
–
Injection of the nanotheranostic agent via different drug parti-
cles → reaches the target area of the body → the shell of the medicine
disintegrates → release of the agent
• Nanocapsules—vesicular systems in which a drug is confined to a cavity
surrounded by a polymer membrane
• Nanospheres—matrix systems in which the drug is physically and uni-
formly dispersed.
2. The only theranostic tool approved for use in the clinical treatment of glioblas-
toma in Europe consists of nanoparticles, the cores of which are formed by
(a) Fe3O2
(b) Fe2O3
(c) Fe3O4
(d) Fe4O3
Answer: c
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Switzerland AG 2023
126 J. M. Das
• The only theranostic tool approved for use in the clinical treatment of glio-
blastoma in Europe is the magnetic fluid MFL AS-1 (NanoTherm®,
MagForce AG, Berlin, Germany).
• Aqueous dispersion of superparamagnetic nanoparticles.
• An iron concentration of 112 mg/ml.
• Nanoparticles are formed as magnetite (Fe3O4) cores of approx. 12 nm
diameter
• Coating is given by aminosilane, an inert, enzymatically not cleavable
silicium compound with a positively charged surface.
• This product is applied directly on the tumor either stereotactically or
post-resection.
• Externally applied alternating magnetic field creates heat through relaxation
processes.
3. Which of the following is the most used quantum dot nanomaterial for diagnos-
tic purposes?
(a) Polydentate phosphine-coated QDs
(b) Cadmium selenide/Zinc sulfide (CdSe@ZnS)
(c) Nitrogen and sulfur co-doped carbon dots (N,S/CDs)
(d) Polyacrylic acid-coated Cu2(OH)PO4 quantum dots (Cu2(OH) PO4@
PAA QDs)
Answer: b
4. Which of the following nanoparticles has a low chance of producing
cytotoxicity?
(a) Gold nanoparticles
(b) Magnetic nanoparticles
(c) Quantum dots
(d) Carbon nanotubes
Answer: a
• Gold nanoparticles—Low cytotoxicity—2–60 nm
• Magnetic nanoparticles—Potential cytotoxicity—7–20 nm
• Quantum dots—Potential cytotoxicity—2–50 nm
• Carbon nanotubes—Potential cytotoxicity—0.4–40 nm
5. Match the following lipid-based nanosystems with their composition
(a) Niosomes Solid lipid, emulsifier, and water/solvent.
(b) Cubosomes Nanostructured liquid crystalline particles
(c) Cubosomes and hexosomes Physiological and biocompatible lipids, surfactants,
and co-surfactants.
(d) Transferosomes Biodegradable natural or synthetic phospholipids.
(e) Ethosomes Unsaturated long-chain monoglycerides emulsified in
water
12 Nanotheranostics 127
(f) Liposomes Nonionic surfactants

(g) Monoolein aqueous dispersion Phospholipids, alcohol, and water
(h) Solid lipid nanoparticles Phosphatidylcholine and an edge activator
(SLNs)
(i) Nanostructured lipid carriers Lipid cubic phase and stabilized by a polymer-based
(NLCs) outer corona.
Answer:
(a) Niosomes Nonionic surfactants
(b) Cubosomes Lipid cubic phase and stabilized by a polymer-based
outer corona.
(c) Cubosomes and hexosomes Nanostructured liquid crystalline particles
(d) Transferosomes Phosphatidylcholine and an edge activator
(e) Ethosomes Phospholipids, alcohol, and water.
(f) Liposomes Biodegradable natural or synthetic phospholipids
(g) Monoolein aqueous dispersion Unsaturated long-chain monoglycerides emulsified in
water
(h) Solid lipid nanoparticles Solid lipid, emulsifier, and water/solvent
(SLNs)
(i) Nanostructured lipid carriers Physiological and biocompatible lipids, surfactants,
(NLCs) and co-surfactants.
6. Which of the following are nano-sized, radially symmetric molecules with a

well-defined, homogeneous, and monodisperse structures consisting of tree-
like arms or branches?
(a) Carbon nanotubes
(b) Dendrimers
(c) Quantum dots
(d) Metal organic frameworks
Answer: b
Quantum Dots (QDs)
• Nanoscale semiconductor crystals
• First described by Ekimov and Onushenko
• Ranging between 1 and 10 nm in size
• Possess optical and electronic properties different from those of larger par-
ticles of bulk material, due to quantum mechanics.
Metal Organic Frameworks (MOFs)
• Crystalline porous solids
• Composed of a three-dimensional (3D) network of metal ions
• Held in place by multidentate organic molecules
Carbon Nanotubes (CNTs)
• Cylinder-shaped allotropic forms of carbon
• Most widely produced under chemical vapor deposition
128 J. M. Das
7. Which is the most widely used magnetic nanoparticle that has intrinsic imaging
properties for T2 contrast?
(a) Gold
(b) Iron oxide
(c) Manganese oxide
(d) Gadolinium
Answer: b
• Manganese and Gadolinium are T1-contrast agents.
8. Which of the following medicines helps to induce radiosensitivity in glioma
stem cells (bearing CD133) by inhibiting the Notch signaling pathway?
α-secretase inhibitor
(a)
β-secretase inhibitor
(b)
γ-secretase inhibitor
(c)
δ-secretase inhibitor
(d)
Answer: c
9. What is a nanoparticle?
(a) A particle with at least one dimension smaller than 100 nanometers (nm)
(b) A particle with at least two dimensions smaller than 100 nm
(c) A particle with all three dimensions smaller than 100 nm
(d) A particle with all three dimensions smaller than 1 nm
Answer: a
Nanoparticles are classified into:
• Inorganic—Metallic, non-metallic
• Organic—Organic lipid nanomaterials, organic polymeric nanomaterials
10. What is the optimum size for nanoparticles to avoid immediate clearance by the
lymphatic system?
(a) 100 nm
(b) 200 nm
(c) 300 nm
(d) 400 nm
Answer: a
Nanoparticle with a size of 100 nm→
• Restricted nanoparticle accumulation around tumor blood vessels
• Poor penetration into the tumor parenchyma
Nanoparticles <10 nm are cleared by renal excretion and phagocytosis.
11. Optoacoustic imaging, also known as photoacoustic imaging, is based on what

principle?
(a) Light-in, sound-in
(b) Light-out, sound-out
(c) Light-in, sound-out
(d) Light-out, sound-in
Answer: c
• Nanoparticles can be loaded with small-molecule organic dyes with high
photothermic conversion efficiency, eg. IR780 or ICG, to make them
imageable.
12. NBTXR3, used in Computed Tomography nanotheranostics is composed of
(a) Magnesium oxide
(b) Manganese oxide
(c) Hafnium oxide
(d) Zirconium oxide
Answer: c
NBTXR3
• Hafnium oxide (HfO2) crystalline nanoparticles
• Functionalized with anionic phosphate coating
• 50 nm size
• Acts as radioenhancers to increase energy deposition in the tumor during
radiotherapy
• CT contrasts allows visualization of their accumulation in tumors.
13. Which is the most promising protein for the synthesis of carbon quantum dots?
(a) Albumin
(b) Globulin
(c) Myosin
(d) Keratin
Answer: a
Carbon Quantum Dots
• Special class of carbon nanomaterial
• Made up of carbon nanoparticles
• Size <10 nm
14. What is the size of an ultra small superparamagnetic iron oxide nanoparticle
(USPION)?
(a) <10 nm
(b) 10–50 nm
130 J. M. Das
(c) 50–180 nm
(d) >180 nm
Answer: b
• Superparamagnetic iron oxide nanoparticle (SPION)—50–180 nm
• Ultra small superparamagnetic iron oxide nanoparticle (USPION)—10–50 nm
• Very small superparamagnetic iron oxide nanoparticle (SPION)—<10 nm
15. Which compound is tried as a radiosensitizer and MRI contrast-enhancing
nanoparticle?
(a) AGuIX
(b) Manganese oxide
(c) Lipid-coated perfluoropropane
(d) Magnesium oxide
Answer: a
AGuIX (Activation and Guidance of Irradiation by X-ray)
• Sub-5 nm nanoparticles
• Composed of a polysiloxane matrix with gadolinium cyclic chelates
• Covalently grafted on inorganic matrix
The commercial organic microbubbles or liposomes used in ultrasound
imaging are lipid-coated perfluoropropane microbubbles—Phase transition
temperature of 56 °C.
Bibliography
1. Zhang P, Zhang L, Qin Z, Hua S, Guo Z, Chu C, et al. Genetically engineered liposome-like
nanovesicles as active targeted transport platform. Adv Mater. 2018;30:1705350. https://doi.
org/10.1002/adma.201705350.
2. Muthu MS, Leong DT, Mei L, Feng SS. Nanotheranostics - application and further develop-
ment of nanomedicine strategies for advanced theranostics. Theranostics. 2014;4(6):660–77.
https://doi.org/10.7150/thno.8698.
3. Martinelli C, Pucci C, Ciofani G. Nanostructured carriers as innovative tools for cancer diag-
nosis and therapy. APL Bioeng. 2019;3(1):011502. https://doi.org/10.1063/1.5079943.
4. d’Angelo M, Castelli V, Benedetti E, et al. Theranostic nanomedicine for malignant gliomas.
Front Bioeng Biotechnol. 2019;7:325. [published correction appears Front Bioeng Biotechnol.
2020 7:468], Published 2019 Nov 14. https://doi.org/10.3389/fbioe.2019.00325.
5. Bozzato E, Bastiancich C, Préat V. Nanomedicine: a useful tool against Glioma stem cells.
Cancers (Basel). 2020;13(1):9. https://doi.org/10.3390/cancers13010009.
6. Buzea C, Pacheco II, Robbie K. Nanomaterials and nanoparticles: sources and toxicity.
Biointerphases. 2007;2(4):M17–71. https://doi.org/10.1116/1.2815690.
7. Pijeira MSO, Viltres H, Kozempel J, Sakmár M, Vlk M, İlem-Özdemir D, Ekinci M,
Srinivasan S, Rajabzadeh AR, Ricci-Junior E, Alencar LMR, Al Qahtani M, Santos-
Oliveira R. Radiolabeled nanomaterials for biomedical applications: radiopharmacy in the
era of nanotechnology. EJNMMI Radiopharm Chem. 2022;7(1):8. https://doi.org/10.1186/
s41181-022-00161-4.
8. Rizvi SA, Saleh AM. Applications of nanoparticle systems in drug delivery technology. Saudi
Pharm J. 2018;26(1):64–70. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.jsps.2017.10.012.
9. Zein R, Sharrouf W, Selting K. Physical properties of nanoparticles that result in improved
cancer targeting. J Oncol. 2020;2020:1–16. https://doi.org/10.1155/2020/5194780.
10. Barua S, Mitragotri S. Challenges associated with penetration of nanoparticles across cell and
tissue barriers: a review of current status and future prospects. Nano Today. 2014;9(2):223–43.
https://doi.org/10.1016/j.nantod.2014.04.008.
11. Dennahy IS, Han Z, MacCuaig WM, Chalfant HM, Condacse A, Hagood JM, Claros-Sorto JC,
Razaq W, Holter-Chakrabarty J, Squires R, Edil BH, Jain A, McNally LR. Nanotheranostics
for image-guided cancer treatment. Pharmaceutics. 2022;14(5):917. https://doi.org/10.3390/
pharmaceutics14050917.
12. Naik K, Chaudhary S, Ye L, Parmar AS. A strategic review on carbon quantum dots for
cancer-diagnostics and treatment. Front Bioeng Biotechnol. 2022;18(10):882100. https://doi.
org/10.3389/fbioe.2022.882100.
13. Cortajarena AL, Ortega D, Ocampo SM, Gonzalez-García A, Couleaud P, Miranda R,
Belda-Iniesta C, Ayuso-Sacido A. Engineering iron oxide nanoparticles for clinical settings.
Nanobiomedicine (Rij). 2014;1(1):2. https://doi.org/10.5772/58841.
Chapter 13
Metastatic Brain Tumors
Joe M Das
1. The most common underlying cause of brain metastasis is

(a) Breast cancer
(b) Prostate cancer
(c) Lung cancer
(d) Colorectal cancer
Answer: c
2. Which malignancy has the strongest propensity to metastasize to the brain?
(a) Breast cancer
(b) Choriocarcinoma
(c) Lung cancer
(d) Melanoma
Answer: d
• Choriocarcinoma, although very rare, is the most common gynecologic
tumor to metastasize to the CNS.
3. Which of the following types of metastases is radiosensitive?
(a) Renal cell carcinoma
(b) Melanoma
(c) Sarcoma
(d) Small cell lung cancer
Answer: d
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134 J. M. Das
4. Which metastasis is most likely to bleed?

(a) Breast cancer
(b) Choriocarcinoma
(c) Lung cancer
(d) Melanoma
Answer: d
Bleed is common in brain metastasis caused by
• Melanoma
• Renal cell carcinoma
• Choriocarcinoma
5. The most common presentation of brain metastasis is
(a) Headache
(b) Seizure
(c) Neurological deficit
(d) Cognitive decline
Answer: a
6. Which drug, in combination with trastuzumab and capecitabine, was the first
one to obtain FDA approval for the treatment of patients with breast cancer and
brain metastases?
(a) Acalabrutinib
(b) Ripretinib
(c) Pemigatinib
(d) Tucatinib
Answer: d
7. Which statement regarding intracranial metastases is false?
(a) Metastases of small cell lung carcinoma are equally distributed in all
regions of the brain
(b) Pelvic and gastrointestinal tumors commonly metastasize to the poste-
rior fossa
(c) HER-2–expressing breast cancer also has a higher incidence of brain
metastasis compared with HER-2–negative breast cancer.
(d) Non-small-cell lung cancer is more likely to metastasize to the brain than
small-cell lung cancer
Answer: d
8. Which is not an indication for surgery in brain metastasis?
(a) Large lesions (>3 cm)
(b) Fewer than three resectable lesions
13 Metastatic Brain Tumors 135
(c) KPS <70

(d) Limited systemic disease
Answer: c
• KPS > 70 is needed.
9. Supramarginal resection implies the removal of how much of normal-appearing
perifocal tissue?
(a) 1 mm
(b) 2 mm
(c) 3 mm
(d) 5 mm
Answer: c
10. Which is not an FDA-approved indication for Bevacizumab?
(a) Recurrent glioblastoma
(b) Advanced non–small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
(c) Metastatic renal cell cancer
(d) Initial diagnosis of glioblastoma
Answer: d
11. The most common form of bleeding linked to bevacizumab is
(a) Epistaxis
(b) Hemoptysis
(c) Intracranial hemorrhage
(d) Melena
Answer: a
12. What is the treatment of choice for patients with an ECOG performance status
of 0–2 and up to 4 intact brain metastases, the largest being <2 cm in size?
(a) Single fraction SRS
(b) Multi-fraction SRS
(c) Surgical resection
(d) Whole brain radiation therapy
Answer: a
• Single fraction SRS dose—2000–2400 cGy
13. For brain metastases patients having a favorable prognosis and those receiving
WBRT or hippocampal avoidance WBRT, the addition of which of the follow-
ing drugs is recommended?
(a) Memantine
(b) Temozolomide
136 J. M. Das
(c) Bevacizumab
(d) Dexamethasone
Answer: a
14. Hippocampal avoidance while administering whole brain radiation therapy is
not appropriate in which of the following conditions?
(a) Patients with favorable prognosis
(b) Leptomeningeal disease
(c) Patients with a seizure disorder
(d) Breast cancer metastases
Answer: b
• Lesions located close to the hippocampus are another contraindication for
hippocampal avoidance.
15. What is the treatment recommendation for a patient with a limited number of
brain metastases having an ECOG performance status of 3–4 with stable sys-
temic disease and the largest metastasis measuring <4 cm with no mass effect?
(a) Single fraction SRS
(b) Multi-fraction SRS
(c) Surgical resection
(d) Whole brain radiation therapy
Answer: d
• For a patient with a limited number of brain metastases having an ECOG
performance status 0–2 with the largest metastasis measuring <2 cm can be
managed with single fraction SRS.
• Lesions >4 cm or mass effect need neurosurgical consultation.
WHO Classification of Metastases to the CNS
• Metastases to the brain and spinal cord parenchyma
• Metastases to the meninges
Bibliography
1. Morgan AJ, Giannoudis A, Palmieri C. The genomic landscape of breast cancer brain metas-
tases: a systematic review. Lancet Oncol. 2021;22(1):e7–e17. https://doi.org/10.1016/
S1470-2045(20)30556-8.
2. Jaray H, Wang MD, Lily C. Brain metastases. Ferri’s Clinical Advisor. 2022:271–2.
13 Metastatic Brain Tumors 137
3. Mayer SA, Marshall RS. Chapter 23: Neuroncology. In: On Call Neurology. Elsevier. p. 358–77.
4. Kotecha R, Ahluwalia MS, Siomin V, McDermott MW. Surgery, stereotactic radiosur-
gery, and systemic therapy in the Management of Operable Brain Metastasis. Neurol Clin.
2022;40(2):421–36. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.ncl.2021.11.002.
5. Ghiaseddin A, Peters KB. Use of bevacizumab in recurrent glioblastoma. CNS Oncol.
2015;4(3):157–69. https://doi.org/10.2217/cns.15.8.
6. Brem S, Desai A, Bagley SJ, Fan Y, Wong ET. Angiogenesis and brain tumors: scientific prin-
ciples, current therapy, and future. Youmans Winn Neurol Surg. 140:970–970.e33.
7. Gondi V, Bauman G, Bradfield L, Burri SH, Cabrera AR, Cunningham DA, Eaton BR,
Hattangadi-Gluth JA, Kim MM, Kotecha R, Kraemer L, Li J, Nagpal S, Rusthoven CG, Suh
JH, Tomé WA, Wang TJC, Zimmer AS, Ziu M, Brown PD. Radiation therapy for brain metasta-
ses: an ASTRO clinical practice guideline. Pract Radiat Oncol. 2022;12(4):265–82. https://doi.
org/10.1016/j.prro.2022.02.003. S1879-8500(22)00054-6, Epub ahead of print
Chapter 14
Low-Grade Gliomas
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following statements about gliomas is false?

(a) The 10-year overall survival rate for patients having WHO grade 2 astrocy-
tomas is 35%
(b) Low-Grade Gliomas (LGGs) are primarily most commonly reported in the
frontal lobes, followed by temporal lobes
(c) LGGs originating in the cerebellar region are associated with a worse prog-
nosis than those originating supratentorially
(d) The most common initial clinical presentation of patients with LGGs is
seizures
Answer: c
The only agreed-upon surgical standard for adults with suspected or known
supratentorial non–optic pathway LGGs is to obtain a tissue diagnosis before
active treatment commences.
2. Which anticonvulsant is preferentially used for the control of seizures in
patients with intracranial tumors?
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Levetiracetam
(c) Sodium valproate
(d) Oxcarbazepine
Answer: b
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140 J. M. Das
3. Which of the following is used as a biomarker for IDH mutation in gliomas

during magnetic resonance spectroscopy?
(a) l-2-hydroxyglutarate
(b) d-2-hydroxyglutarate
(c) Alpha-ketoglutarate
(d) Beta-ketoglutarate
Answer: b
4. Before anaplastic progression, LGGs have been shown to grow linearly at a
mean velocity of diametric expansion of
(a) 2 mm / year
(b) 4 mm / year
(c) 6 mm / year
(d) 8 mm / year
Answer: b
• Velocity of diametric expansion (VDE) has been used as a measure of tumor
growth rate.
• Tumor volume (V) is measured using axial images and manual
segmentation.
• Mean tumor diameter = (2 × V)1/3
• VDE is calculated from the linear regression of MTD over time.
5. Which of the following features is not suggestive of a low-grade gli-
oma on MRI?
(a) High axial diffusivity (AD)
(b) High radial diffusivity (RD)
(c) High apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC)
(d) High regional cerebral blood volume
Answer: d
6. Which of the following is not a common pattern of the secondary structures of
Scherer?
(a) Perineuronal satellitosis
(b) Perivascular aggregation
(c) Subpial condensation
(d) Pial calcification
Answer: d
Patterns of infiltrative growth frequently observed in diffuse gliomas = sec-
ondary structures of Scherer
• Perineuronal satellitosis
• Perivascular aggregation
• Subpial condensation
14 Low-Grade Gliomas 141
7. Which of the following mitotic figures is the cut-off for defining anaplasia in an
oligodendroglioma?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer: b
> 6 mitotic figures per 10 high-power fields as a generally accepted cut-off
for designation of anaplasia.
8. Which is the most common mutation present in IDH-mutant diffuse gliomas?
(a) R132H
(b) R321H
(c) R231H
(d) R312H
Answer: a
• The most common mutation present in approximately 90% of IDH-mutant
diffuse gliomas—p.R132H
9. Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q co-deleted is characterized by
(a) Presence of IDH1 or IDH 2 mutation with whole-arm codeletion of
1p and 19q
(b) Presence of IDH1 and IDH 2 mutation with whole-arm codeletion of
1p and 19q
(c) Presence of IDH1 or IDH 2 mutation with whole-arm codeletion of
1p or 19q
(d) Presence of IDH1 and IDH 2 mutation with whole-arm codeletion of
1p or 19q
Answer: a
• Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q co-deleted—WHO
grade 2 tumor
• Genetically defined by:
– The presence of either an IDH1 p.R132 or IDH2 p.R172 missense
mutation +
– Whole-arm co-deletion of chromosomes 1p and 19q
10. Standard chemotherapeutic regimens for low-grade glioma patients do

not include
(a) Procarbazine
(b) Lomustine
(c) Vincristine
(d) Carboplatin
Answer: d
142 J. M. Das
• Standard chemotherapy in diffuse low-grade gliomas includes:

Alkylating chemotherapeutics—temozolomide and PCV (procarbazine,
CCNU or lomustine, and vincristine)
11. Which of the following is a key event in the evolution of IDH-mutant diffuse
low-grade gliomas?
(a) Increased production of 2-hydroxyglutarate
(b) Decreased production of 2-hydroxyglutarate
(c) Increased concentration of α-ketoglutarate
(d) Decreased concentration of β-ketoglutarate
Answer: a
• ↑
2-hydroxyglutarate and ↓α-ketoglutarate appear to be key events in the
evolution of IDH-mutant diffuse low-grade gliomas.
12. Which of the following measures the motor cortex and supplementary motor
area activity in the brain leading to voluntary muscle movement?
(a) Bereitschaftspotential
(b) Readiness potential
(c) Premotor potential
(d) All the above
Answer: d
13. 5-aminolevulinic acid (5-ALA) is converted to which of the following fluores-
cent metabolites in the malignant brain tumor cells?
(a) Porphobilinogen
(b) Protoporphyrin IX
(c) Phytochromobilin
(d) Uroporphyrinogen I
Answer: b
• 5-ALA is metabolized to protoporphyrin IX (PPIX), a fluorescent metabo-
lite, inside the malignant tumor cells.
• This is due to decreased levels of ferrochelatase and selective uptake by
ABCB6 (ATP-binding cassette transporter).
• This product emits violet-red fluorescence after excitation with 405 nm
wavelength blue light.
• PPIX plasma levels peak 4 hours after oral administration of 5-ALA
(20 mg/kg).
14. The chicken-wire histopathological appearance of oligodendroglioma is

given by
(a) Cell membranes
(b) Capillaries
(c) Calcifications
(d) Chromatin
Answer: b
15. Which of the following is not protective against the development of a glioma?
(a) Eczema
(b) Asthma
(c) Psoriasis
(d) Avoiding cell phones
Answer: d
• Immunologic illnesses such as allergic rhinitis, asthma, eczema, and psoria-
sis remain protective against the risk of developing a glioma.
• Regular cellular phone use is no longer questioned as a risk factor for devel-
oping a glioma.
• The initial step in the management of patients with suspected diffuse low-
grade glioma—surgery to provide a specimen for tissue
diagnosis ± cytoreduction.
16. Which of the following is not a risk factor for survival of low-grade glioma
based on EORTC 22844 and 22845 trials?
(a) Age older than 40 years
(b) Astrocytoma histology
(c) Tumor crossing the midline
(d) Seizure at presentation
Answer: d
Identified Five Risk Factors for Survival
• Age older than 40 years
• Astrocytoma histology
• Tumor maximum diameter ≥ _6 cm
• Tumor crossing the midline
• The presence of neurologic impairments at the time of diagnosis
144 J. M. Das
17. Cortical rim of hyperintensity on T1-weighted images and a stalk-like exten-

sion to the adjacent ventricle on T2-weighted images are pathognomonic of
(a) Astroblastoma
(b) Angiocentric glioma
(c) Chordoid glioma
(d) Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma
Answer: a
18. The most frequently mutated gene in pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma is
(a) P53
(b) EGFR
(c) BRAF
(d) NF1
Answer: c
WHO Classification of Gliomas

Adult-type diffuse gliomas
• Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant
• Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant, and 1p/19q-codeleted
• Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype
Pediatric-type diffuse low-grade gliomas
• Diffuse astrocytoma, MYB- or MYBL1-altered
• Angiocentric glioma
• Polymorphous low-grade neuroepithelial tumor of the young
• Diffuse low-grade glioma, MAPK pathway-altered
Pediatric-type diffuse high-grade gliomas
• Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered
• Diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant
• Diffuse pediatric-type high-grade glioma, H3-wildtype and IDH-wildtype
• Infant-type hemispheric glioma
Circumscribed astrocytic gliomas
• Pilocytic astrocytoma
• High-grade astrocytoma with piloid features
• Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma
• Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
• Chordoid glioma
• Astroblastoma, MN1-altered
Bibliography
1. Sim HW, Nejad R, Zhang W, Nassiri F, Mason W, Aldape KD, Zadeh G, Chen EX. Tissue
2-Hydroxyglutarate as a biomarker for Isocitrate dehydrogenase mutations in gliomas. Clin
Cancer Res. 2019;25(11):3366–73. https://doi.org/10.1158/1078-0432.CCR-18-3205. Epub
2019 Feb 18
2. Altieri R, Hirono S, Duffau H, Ducati A, Fontanella MM, La Rocca G, Melcarne A, Panciani
PP, Spena G, Garbossa D. Natural history of de novo high grade glioma: first descrip-
tion of growth parabola. J Neurosurg Sci. 2020;64(4):399–403. https://doi.org/10.23736/
S0390-5616.17.04067-X.
3. Civita P, Valerio O, Naccarato AG, Gumbleton M, Pilkington GJ. Satellitosis, a crosstalk
between neurons, vascular structures and neoplastic cells in brain Tumours; early mani-
festation of invasive behaviour. Cancers (Basel). 2020;12:3720. https://doi.org/10.3390/
cancers12123720.
4. Shaikh N, Brahmbhatt N, Kruser TJ, Kam KL, Appin CL, Wadhwani N, Chandler J, Kumthekar
P, Lukas RV. Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma: a brief review. CNS Oncol. 2019;8(3):CNS39.
https://doi.org/10.2217/cns-2019-0009. Epub 2019 Sep 19
Chapter 15
High-Grade Gliomas
Joe M Das
1. Tumor treating fields (TTFields) disrupt tumor cells by emitting alternating

electric fields at
(a) 100 kHz
(b) 200 kHz
(c) 500 kHz
(d) 1000 kHz
Answer: b
2. TTFields act by which of the following mechanisms?
(a) Causes cellular blebbing
(b) Dispersal of septin
(c) Triggers cytoplasmic stress response
(d) All the above
Answer: d
3. The most common sites of occurrence of gliosarcoma are in the following order
of frequency
(a) Frontal > parietal > temporal > occipital lobes
(b) Frontal > temporal > parietal > occipital lobes
(c) Temporal > parietal > frontal > occipital lobes
(d) Temporal > frontal > parietal > occipital lobes
Answer: c
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
148 J. M. Das
4. Which of the following is not a typical feature of a secondary glioblastoma?

(a) PTEN mutation
(b) Associated with mutations in TP52 tumor suppressor gene
(c) Overexpression of platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR)
(d) Loss of heterozygosity of chromosome 10q
Answer: a
Primary Glioblastomas
• Age > 50 years
• EGFR amplification and mutations
• Loss of heterozygosity of chromosome 10q
• Deletion of the phosphatase and tensin homolog on chromosome 10
• Deletion of chromosome p16
Secondary Glioblastomas
• Younger patients
• Transform over a period of several years into glioblastoma.
• Less common than primary glioblastomas
• TP53 tumor suppressor gene mutation
• Overexpression of platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR)
• Abnormalities in the p16 and retinoblastoma (Rb) pathways
• Loss of heterozygosity of chromosome 10q
5. What is the usual range of MIB-1/Ki-67 labeling index for glioblastomas?
(a) 5–10%
(b) 10–20%
(c) 20–30%
(d) 30–50%
Answer: b
6. What is the usual dosage of Temozolomide chemotherapy?
(a) 100–150 mg/m2, orally, 5 days per week
(b) 150–200 mg/m2, orally, 5 days per week
(c) 200–250 mg/m2, orally, 5 days per week
(d) 250–300 mg/m2, orally, 5 days per week
Answer: b
7. Which is the most important prognostic factor for high-grade glioma?
(a) Age
(b) Karnofsky Performance Scale score
(c) The extent of resection
(d) All the above
Answer: d
15 High-Grade Gliomas 149
The Most Significant Prognostic Factors for HGG:

• Age
• KPS score
• The extent of resection
8. What is the most common symptom of anaplastic oligodendroglioma?
(a) Headaches
(b) Vision changes
(c) Weakness
(d) Seizures
Answer: d
9. Gambogic acid, used as an anti-tumor agent, delivered as a microbubble com-
plex acts by inducing vacuolization-associated cell death. This phenomenon is
known as
(a) Apoptosis
(b) Paraptosis
(c) Necroptosis
(d) Pyroptosis
Answer: b
Gambogic acid—polyprenylated xanthone derived from the resin of Garcinia
hanburyi.
Kills cancer cells by
• Paraptosis—vacuolization-associated cell death
• Apoptosis
• Megamitochondria formation
10. What is the cut-off diameter of a nanoparticle enabling it to cross the blood-
brain barrier?
(a) <0.4 nm
(b) <4 nm
(c) <40 nm
(d) <400 nm
Answer: c
11. Glucose transporter 1 uses which of the following methods of transport to facil-
itate transport across the blood-brain barrier?
(a) Carrier-mediated transport
(b) Receptor-mediated transcytosis
(c) Adsorptive-mediated transcytosis
(d) Cell-mediated transport
Answer: a
150 J. M. Das
Carrier-Mediated Transport
• Glucose transporter 1 (GLUT1)
• Monocarboxylate transporter 1 (MCT1)
• Large neutral amino acid transporter 1 (LAT1)
• Cationic amino acid transporter type 1 (CAT1)
• Concentrative nucleoside transporter type 2(CNT2)
Receptor-Mediated Transcytosis
• Transferrin (TfR)
• LDL receptor-related protein 1 and 2 (LRP-1, LRP-2)
• Insulin (InsR)
• Leptin
• Epidermal growth factor
• Tumor necrosis factor
Adsorptive-Mediated Transcytosis
• Cationic substance passing through BBB via electrostatic interaction
with the plasma membrane
Cell-Mediated Transport
• Leukocytes directly migrate through the cytoplasm of endothelial cells
12. For people with multiple large metastatic brain tumors, whole-brain radiother-
apy remains the standard approach. What is the dose of radiation given in this?
(a) 30 Gy in 20 fractions
(b) 30 Gy in 10 fractions
(c) 60 Gy in 20 fractrions
(d) 60 Gy in 10 fractions
Answer: b
13. fMRI uses which of the following as contrast agent?
(a) Ratio of oxyhemoglobin to deoxyhemoglobin
(b) Ratio of deoxyhemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin
(c) Oxyhemoglobin
(d) Deoxyhemoglobin
Answer: a
14. Which of the following is not a common feature of IDH-mutant glioma?
(a) Arises in the frontal lobe
(b) A unilateral pattern of growth
(c) Sharp tumor margin
(d) Brilliant contrast enhancement
Answer: d
15. Which of the following is a specific radiological marker for astrocytic glioma?
(a) T2/FLAIR matching
(b) T2/FLAIR mismatch
(c) T2/T2* matching
(d) T2/T2* mismatch
Answer: b
• T2–FLAIR mismatch sign—T2-weighted hyperintensity often accompa-
nied by relative hypointensity on fluid-attenuated inversion recovery
(FLAIR) sequences.
• Seen in astrocytoma IDH-mutant CNS WHO grades 2 and 3 tumors.
16. What is the most common location of astrocytoma, IDH-mutant?
(a) Frontal lobe
(b) Temporal lobe
(c) Parietal lobe
(d) Occipital lobe
Answer: a
17. The absence of which of the following is a defining feature of IDH-mutant
astrocytoma WHO grade 3, that differentiates it from grade 4?
(a) Hypercellularity
(b) Nuclear atypia
(c) Significant mitoses
(d) Microvascular proliferation and necrosis
Answer: d
• Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, CNS WHO grade 2—A single mitosis or a low
mitotic count
• Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, CNS WHO grade 3—Hypercellular, multinucle-
ated tumor cells, nuclear atypia, and significant mitosis. Absent microvascu-
lar proliferation and necrosis.
• Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant, CNS WHO grade 4—Focal necrosis or
CDKN2A/B homozygous deletion
• Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype—Large areas of ischemic necrosis or palisad-
ing necrosis
18. Which is not a feature of oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and 1p/19q code-
leted, CNS WHO grade 3 tumor?
(a) ≥6 mitoses/10 high-power fields (HPFs)
(b) Microvascular proliferation
(c) Necrosis
(d) Low MIB1 labeling index
Answer: d
152 J. M. Das
19. Cintredekin besudotox (CB), used for convection-enhanced delivery in malig-

nant glioma, contains which interleukin conjugated to truncated Pseudomonas
exotoxin?
(a) IL-4
(b) IL-6
(c) IL-10
(d) IL-13
Answer: d
20. The most commonly used median prescription dose of stereotactic radiosurgery
for recurrent glioblastoma is
(a) 8 Gy
(b) 12 Gy
(c) 16 Gy
(d) 20 Gy
Answer: c
21. Which of the following drugs, when administered along with stereotactic radio-
surgery, has been shown to improve survival, decrease the incidence of radia-
tion necrosis, and allow safe dose escalation of SRS?
(a) Bevacizumab
(b) Cetuximab
(c) Brentuximab
(d) Ado-trastuzumab
Answer: a
22. ONC201, being tried in the treatment of H3 K27M-mutant diffuse midline gli-
oma, targets which receptor?
(a) Dopamine
(b) Glutamate
(c) Glycine
(d) Glutathione
Answer: a
ONC201 is a selective antagonist of dopamine receptor D2/3 (DRD2/3).
23. Which of the following is known as “tumor paint” and is a targeted fluorophore
used in Fluorescent-Guided Surgery?
(a) Indocyanine green
(b) BLZ-100
(c) Cetuximab-IRDye800
(d) Alkyl Phosphocholine Analogs
Answer: b
• BLZ-100 (Tozuleristide)—commonly known as “tumor paint”

• Conjugate of NIR with the tumor-specific peptide chlorotoxin
• Extracted from scorpion venom
• Chlorotoxin binds to the cell surface of low- and high-grade glial tumors
• Can be visualized with a NIR camera
24. Match the following subgroups of glioblastoma with their corresponding

mutations.
(a) Proneural type Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) loss
(b) Mesenchymal type Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)
amplifications and homozygous loss of CDKN2A/B
(c) Classical type Cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and platelet-
derived growth factor alpha (PDGFRɑ) amplification
Answer:
(a) Proneural type Cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and platelet-
derived growth factor alpha (PDGFRɑ) amplification
(b) Mesenchymal type Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) loss
(c) Classical type Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)
amplifications and homozygous loss of CDKN2A/B
25. Match the following drugs being used in the trials for glioblastoma treatment
with their corresponding mechanisms of action.
(a) Dichloroacetate Tyrosine kinase inhibitor of MET
(b) Anhydrous enol-oxaloacetate Inhibitor of tubulin polymerization
(c) Napabucasin Produces glutamate scavenger
(d) Durvalumab (anti-CD274) Glycolysis inhibitor
(e) Fuzuloparib Prevents binding of PD-1 on PD-1 receptor
(f) Vorinostat Proteasome inhibitor
(g) Marizomib Histone deacetylase inhibitor
(h) Eribulin Signal transducer and activator of transcription 2
(STAT3) inhibitor
(i) Cabozantinib Induction of DNA double-strand breaks
Answer:
(a) Dichloroacetate Glycolysis inhibitor
(b) Anhydrous enol-oxaloacetate Produces glutamate scavenger
(c) Napabucasin Signal transducer and activator of transcription 2
(STAT3) inhibitor
(d) Durvalumab (anti-CD274) Prevents binding of PD-1 on PD-1 receptor
(e) Fuzuloparib Induction of DNA double-strand breaks
(f) Vorinostat Histone deacetylase inhibitor
(g) Marizomib Proteasome inhibitor
(h) Eribulin Inhibitor of tubulin polymerization
(i) Cabozantinib Tyrosine kinase inhibitor of MET
154 J. M. Das
26. Epithelioid glioblastomas are associated very frequently with a mutation in

which of the following genes?
(a) BRAF V600E
(b) IDH 1
(c) IDH 2
(d) EGFR
Answer: a
27. What is the usual location for chordoid glioma?
(a) Temporal lobe
(b) Anterior hypothalamus
(c) Trigone
(d) Occipital horn
Answer: b
Chordoid glioma—WHO grade 2
Usually involves anterior third ventricle and hypothalamus
28. Which of the following is the most common gene fusion noted in

glioblastoma?
(a) Neurotrophic tyrosine receptor kinase (NTRK)
(b) Fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR)
(c) Mesenchymal-epithelial transition factor (MET)
(d) Focal adhesion kinase (FAK)
Answer: b
WHO Classification of Gliomas:

Adult-type diffuse gliomas
• Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant
• Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant, and 1p/19q-codeleted
• Glioblastoma, IDH-wildtype
Pediatric-type diffuse low-grade gliomas
• Diffuse astrocytoma, MYB- or MYBL1-altered
• Angiocentric glioma
• Polymorphous low-grade neuroepithelial tumor of the young
• Diffuse low-grade glioma, MAPK pathway-altered
Pediatric-type diffuse high-grade gliomas
• Diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27-altered
• Diffuse hemispheric glioma, H3 G34-mutant
• Diffuse pediatric-type high-grade glioma, H3-wildtype and IDH-wildtype
• Infant-type hemispheric glioma
Circumscribed astrocytic gliomas

• Pilocytic astrocytoma
• High-grade astrocytoma with piloid features
• Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma
• Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
• Chordoid glioma
• Astroblastoma, MN1-altered
Bibliography
1. Oberheim-Bush NA, Shi W, McDermott MW, Grote A, Stindl J, Lustgarten L. The safety pro-
file of Tumor Treating Fields (TTFields) therapy in glioblastoma patients with ventriculoperito-
neal shunts. J Neuro-Oncol. 2022;158:453–61. https://doi.org/10.1007/s11060-022-04033-4.
2. Meena US, Sharma S, Chopra S, Jain SK. Gliosarcoma: a rare variant of glioblastoma
multiforme in paediatric patient: case report and review of literature. World J Clin Cases.
2016;4(9):302–5. https://doi.org/10.12998/wjcc.v4.i9.302.
3. Wick W, Platten M, Weller M. New (alternative) temozolomide regimens for the treatment
of glioma. Neuro-Oncology. 2009;11(1):69–79. https://doi.org/10.1215/15228517-2008-078.
4. Seo MJ, Lee DM, Kim IY, Lee D, Choi MK, Lee JY, Park SS, Jeong SY, Choi EK, Choi
KS. Gambogic acid triggers vacuolization-associated cell death in cancer cells via disrup-
tion of thiol proteostasis. Cell Death Dis. 2019;10(3):187–16. https://doi.org/10.1038/
s41419-019-1360-4.
5. Chen WL, Wagner J, Heugel N, Sugar J, Lee YW, Conant L, Malloy M, Heffernan J, Quirk
B, Zinos A, Beardsley SA, Prost R, Whelan HT. Functional near-infrared spectroscopy and
its clinical application in the field of neuroscience: advances and future directions. Front
Neurosci. 2020;14:724. https://doi.org/10.3389/fnins.2020.00724.
6. Santosh V, Rao S. A review of adult-type diffuse gliomas in the WHO CNS5 classification
with special reference to Astrocytoma, IDH-mutant and Oligodendroglioma, IDH-mutant and
1p/19q codeleted. Indian J Pathol Microbiol. 2022;65:S14–23. https://doi.org/10.4103/ijpm.
ijpm_34_22.
7. Kunigelis KE, Vogelbaum MA. Therapeutic delivery to central nervous system. Neurosurg Clin
N Am. 2021;32(2):291–303. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.nec.2020.12.004. Epub 2021 Feb 18
8. Bunevicius A, Sheehan JP. Radiosurgery for glioblastoma. Neurosurg Clin N Am.
2021;32(1):117–28. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.nec.2020.08.007. Epub 2020 Nov 5
9. Chi AS, Tarapore RS, Hall MD, Shonka N, Gardner S, Umemura Y, Sumrall A, Khatib Z,
Mueller S, Kline C, Zaky W, Khatua S, Weathers SP, Odia Y, Niazi TN, Daghistani D, Cherrick
I, Korones D, Karajannis MA, Kong XT, Minturn J, Waanders A, Arillaga-Romany I, Batchelor
T, Wen PY, Merdinger K, Schalop L, Stogniew M, Allen JE, Oster W, Mehta MP. Pediatric and
adult H3 K27M-mutant diffuse midline glioma treated with the selective DRD2 antagonist
ONC201. J Neurooncol. 2019;145(1):97–105. https://doi.org/10.1007/s11060-019-03271-3.
Epub 2019 Aug 27
10. Butte PV, Mamelak A, Parrish-Novak J, Drazin D, Shweikeh F, Gangalum PR, Chesnokova A,
Ljubimova JY, Black K. Near-infrared imaging of brain tumors using the tumor paint BLZ-100
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to achieve near-complete resection of brain tumors. Neurosurg Focus. 2014;36(2):E1. https://

doi.org/10.3171/2013.11.FOCUS13497.
11. Melhem JM, Detsky J, Lim-Fat MJ, Perry JR. Updates in IDH-wildtype glioblastoma.
Neurotherapeutics. 2022;31:1–19. https://doi.org/10.1007/s13311-022-01251-6. Epub ahead
of print
12. Pająk B. Looking for the holy grail-drug candidates for glioblastoma Multiforme chemother-
apy. Biomedicine. 2022;10(5):1001. https://doi.org/10.3390/biomedicines10051001.
13. Huang C, Gan D, Huang B, Luo J, Zhou X, Wang W, Wang Y. Chordoid glioma in the thalamus
of a child: rare location and atypical imaging findings. BJR Case Rep. 2021;7(3):20200108.
https://doi.org/10.1259/bjrcr.20200108.
14. Afonso M, Brito MA. Therapeutic options in neuro-oncology. Int J Mol Sci. 2022;23(10):5351.
https://doi.org/10.3390/ijms23105351.
Chapter 16
Meningiomas
Joe M Das
1. DAL-1, a tumor suppressor gene identified in around 40% of sporadic meningio-

mas, is located in which chromosome?
(a) 18p
(b) 18q
(c) 22p
(d) 22q
Answer: a
The most common gene mutation in >50% of sporadic meningiomas—
the NF2 gene (chromosome 22)
2. Match the following locations of meningiomas with their likely gene mutations.
(a) Anterior skull base NF2
(b) Falx/parasagittal SMARCE1
(c) Spinal meningioma in conjunction with Smoothened (SMO) and v-akt murine
cranial meningioma in a young patient thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1 (AKT1)
Answer:
(a) Anterior skull base Smoothened (SMO) and v-akt murine
thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1 (AKT1)
(b) Falx/parasagittal NF2
(c) Spinal meningioma in conjunction with SMARCE1
cranial meningioma in a young patient
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
158 J. M. Das
3. Which is not a feature of an atypical meningioma?

(a) 4–19 mitotic figures in 10 consecutive high-powered fields (HPF)
(b) 3 or more of 5 atypical features
(c) Tumor invasion into brain
(d) Predominant rhabdoid and papillary morphology
Answer: d
Atypical Features
• Small cells with a high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio
• Increased cellularity
• Prominent nucleoli
• Sheet-like growth
• Spontaneous necrosis
4. The loss of SMARCE1, resulting from SMARCE1 mutations, is pathogno-
monic for
(a) Rhabdoid meningioma
(b) Clear cell meningioma
(c) Papillary meningioma
(d) Chordoid meningioma
Answer: b
Chordoid and clear cell meningiomas—WHO grade 2.
Rhabdoid and papillary meningioma—WHO grade 3.
5. Inactivation of the breast cancer BRCA1-associated protein (BAP1) or poly-
bromo-1 (PBRM1) is associated with which of the following types of
meningiomas?
(a) Rhabdoid
(b) Clear cell
(c) Transitional
(d) Chordoid
Answer: a
6. Which of the following is not a feature of WHO grade 3 meningioma?
(a) Homozygous loss of the tumor suppressor gene cyclin—dependent kinase
inhibitor 2A/B (CDKN2A/B)
(b) More than 19 mitotic figures in 10 consecutive HPFs
(c) Mutations in the telomerase reverse transcriptase (TERT) gene promoter
(d) Clear cell morphology
Answer: d
16 Meningiomas 159
7. Which statement is incorrect about the post-operative management of

meningiomas?
(a) Small, asymptomatic recurrence of a WHO grade 1 meningioma does not
warrant radiotherapy
(b) Radiotherapy has good local control rates if administered because of

the progressive growth of a benign meningioma
(c) WHO grade 3 meningioma does not need adjuvant radiotherapy if the
resection is complete
(d) Observation is suitable for WHO grade 2 meningiomas after complete
resection
Answer: c
• Adjuvant radiotherapy is indicated in WHO grade 3 meningiomas regard-
less of the extent of resection.
• Radiotherapy has good local control rates of 92% at 15 years in benign
meningiomas when administered due to:
– Progressive growth or
– Contraindication to surgical excision.
8. Which is a receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitor, with activity against VEGFR and
platelet-derived growth factor receptor, being tried in the management of recur-
rent WHO grade 3 meningioma?
(a) Pasireotide
(b) Vismodegib
(c) Sunitinib
(d) Sandostatin
Answer: c
• Pasireotide, Sandostatin—Somatostatin analogs
• Vismodegib—SMO inhibitor
9. Which of the following is not a classification for posterior fossa meningiomas?
(a) Bradac
(b) Sekhar and Wright
(c) Castellano
(d) Sekhar-Mortazavi
Answer: d
10. Match the following classification systems with their corresponding location of
meningiomas.
(a) Desgeorges and Sterkers Tentorial notch
classification
(b) Al-Mefty classification Spine
(c) Bassiouni classification Sphenoid wing
160 J. M. Das
(d) Yasargil classification Anterior midline skull base

(e) Brotchi and Pirotte classification Posterior petrous
(f) Bayoumi classification Falx meningioma
(g) Mohr classification Tentorial
(h) Zuo classification Clinoidal
(i) Sekhar-Mortazavi classification Optic nerve sheath
(j) Shick classification Planum sphenoidale and tuberculum sellae
Answer:
(a) Desgeorges and Sterkers Posterior petrous
classification
(b) Al-Mefty classification Clinoidal
(c) Bassiouni classification Tentorial notch
(d) Yasargil classification Tentorial
(e) Brotchi and Pirotte classification Sphenoid wing
(f) Bayoumi classification Spine
(g) Mohr classification Anterior midline skull base
(h) Zuo classification Falx meningioma
(i) Sekhar-Mortazavi classification Planum sphenoidale and tuberculum sellae
(j) Shick classification Optic nerve sheath
11. Which of the following is not a classification of sinus invasion in parasagittal

meningioma?
(a) Sindou and Alvernia
(b) Merrem-Krause
(c) Bonnal-Brotchi
(d) Dulguerov
Answer: d
12. What are the contents in a Psammoma body?
(a) Calcium apatite and elastin
(b) Calcium apatite and collagen
(c) Magnesium apatite and collagen
(d) Magnesium apatite and elastin
Answer: b
13. Modified Shinshu grade or Okudera-Kobayashi grade is used to denote
(a) The grading of meningioma
(b) The extent of resection of meningioma
(c) The degree of brain invasion in a meningioma
(d) The radiological response to adjuvant radiation therapy in a partially

resected grade 2 meningioma
Answer: b
16 Meningiomas 161
14. Hirsch grading system is used to denote

(a) The degree of facial nerve involvement in cerebellopontine angle
meningioma
(b) The encasement of cavernous carotid in cavernous sinus meningioma
(c) The encasement of the vertebral artery in foramen magnum meningioma
(d) The degree of abducens nerve involvement in falcotentorial meningioma
Answer: b
WHO Classification
Meningiomas
• Meningioma
Mesenchymal, non-meningothelial tumors
• Soft tissue tumors
– Fibroblastic and myofibroblastic tumors
Solitary fibrous tumor
– Vascular tumors
Hemangiomas and vascular malformations
Hemangioblastoma
– Skeletal muscle tumors
Rhabdomyosarcoma
– Uncertain differentiation
Intracranial mesenchymal tumor, FET-CREB fusion-positive
CIC-rearranged sarcoma
Primary intracranial sarcoma, DICER1-mutant
Ewing sarcoma
Melanocytic tumors
• Diffuse meningeal melanocytic neoplasms
– Meningeal melanocytosis and meningeal melanomatosis
• Circumscribed meningeal melanocytic neoplasms
– Meningeal melanocytoma and meningeal melanoma
Bibliography
1. McFaline-Figueroa JR, Kaley TJ, Dunn IF, Bi WL. Biology and treatment of Meningiomas:
a reappraisal. Hematol Oncol Clin North Am. 2022;36(1):133–46. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.
hoc.2021.09.003.
Chapter 17
Ependymal and Embryonal Tumors
Ryan M. Hess and Mohamed A. R. Soliman
17.1 Ependymal (Questions 1–12)
1. In the pediatric population, which of the following factors is associated with a

reduced survival in regard to ependymoma?
(a) Spinal location
(b) Older age at diagnosis
(c) Gross total resection
(d) Diagnosis at younger than 3 years of age
(e) Supratentorial location
Answer: d
The answer is younger age at diagnosis. Regarding survival, factors associ-
ated with an increased chance at survival include spinal location, older age at
diagnosis, and gross total resection of the lesion. There is no difference in sur-
vival in patients with supratentorial lesions compared to infratentorial lesions in
large population-based studies. Younger age at diagnosis is associated with
R. M. Hess
Department of Neurosurgery, Jacobs School of Medicine and Biomedical Sciences,
University at Buffalo, Buffalo, NY, USA
Department of Neurosurgery, Buffalo General Medical Center, Kaleida Health,
Buffalo, NY, USA
M. A. R. Soliman (*)
Department of Neurosurgery, Faculty of Medicine, Cairo University, Cairo, Egypt

Switzerland AG 2023
164 R. M. Hess and M. A. R. Soliman
reduced chance of survival according to available data. Other important factors

include extent of disease at diagnosis, histologic grade, and molecular sub-
type [1, 2].
2. The most common location for an ependymoma in the adult population is which
location?
(a) Lateral ventricle
(b) Third ventricle
(c) Floor of the fourth ventricle
(d) Roof of the fourth ventricle
(e) Ependyma of the central canal of the spinal cord
Answer: e
In adults, the most common location of an ependymoma is the ependyma of
the central canal of the spinal cord. This contrasts with the pediatric population
in which 80–90% of ependymomas arise intracranially [3].
3. Which of the following genetic alterations is most commonly seen in pediatric
WHO Grade 2 or 3 ependymomas?
(a) WNT
(b) SHH
(c) RELA fusion
(d) 1p/19q co-deletion
(e) INI1
Answer: c
The RELA fusion mutation has recently been identified as a key genetic
mutation in >70% of supratentorial ependymomas in the pediatric population.
Another commonly seen mutation in supratentorial ependymomas is the YAP-1
oncogene fusion. The WNT and SHH mutations are commonly seen in medul-
loblastomas. The 1p/19q co-deletion is associated with oligodendroglioma.
Finally, INI1 mutations are most commonly seen in rhabdoid tumors [4–6].
4. Which of the following statements regarding the molecular subtypes of poste-
rior fossa ependymomas is not true?
(a) Group A tumors are associated with a worse prognosis
(b) Group A tumors more commonly occur in a medial location
(c) Group B tumors are associated with a more favorable prognosis
(d) Group B tumors tend to occur in older patients with a median age of
20 years at diagnosis
(e) Group A tumors tend to occur in a younger patient population with a
median age of 2.5 years at diagnosis
Answer: b
Posterior fossa ependymomas can be sub-categorized based on gene profile
and behavior into two groups: A and B. The A group is more laterally located,
17 Ependymal and Embryonal Tumors 165
more aggressive, occurs in a younger population (median age of 2.5), has a

higher risk of recurrence, and is associated with an overall poor prognosis. This
is contrasted with the group B sub-classification which is seen in an older popu-
lation of patients (median age of 20), is more medially located, are less aggres-
sive, and are associated with a more favorable prognosis [7].
5. Which of the following ependymoma subtypes is classically located in the
conus medullaris of an adult patient?
(a) Subependymoma
(b) Tanycytic
(c) Clear cell
(d) Myxopapillary
(e) Anaplastic
Answer: d
Myxopapillary ependymomas are WHO Grade 1 ependymomas that are
most commonly found in the conus medullaris in the adult population but can
also be located within the cauda equina [8].
6. A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by his mother for evalua-
tion of progressive headaches and vomiting over the past 2 weeks. An MRI was
performed which demonstrated a large posterior fossa mass. The patient was
taken for surgical resection and the pathology is shown below:
Based on the pathology slide, [9] which of the following diagnosis is most
likely the daignosis?
(a) Medulloblastoma
(b) Ependymoma
(c) Meningioma
(d) Choroid plexus papilloma
(e) Astrocytoma
Answer: b
The above pathology slide demonstrates a perivascular pseudo-rosette, com-
monly seen in ependymoma specimens. The other answer choices typically do
not have this finding on frozen section. Medulloblastoma can have a similar
finding called a Homer-Wright rosette, however cells surround eosinophilic
neuropil and not a blood vessel [10].
7. A five-year old female undergoes resection of a posterior fossa ependymoma
found on work-up for progressive morning headaches. Gross total resection is
achieved based upon post-operative MRI. Which of the following represents
the most appropriate next step in the patient’s treatment?
(a) Observation
(b) Chemotherapy alone
(c) Radiotherapy alone
(d) Chemotherapy and radiation therapy
Answer: c
Following surgical resection, post-operative radiotherapy plays an important
role in the treatment of ependymomas. Studies have demonstrated improved
rates of survival and local disease control in patients who undergo post-opera-
tive radiotherapy following resection. Unfortunately, the role of chemotherapy
is not clear with current data not demonstrating a clear benefit of chemotherapy
to the treatment paradigm [11–13].
8. Following surgical resection of an ependymoma, residual tumor greater than
which threshold has been associated with a less favorable outcome?
(a) 0.5 cm3
(b) 1 cm3
(c) 1.5 cm3
(d) 2 cm3
(e) 2.5 cm3
Answer: c
It has been shown that residual tumor burden following resection >1.5 cm3
has been associated with worse outcome in patients with the diagnosis of epen-
dymoma [14].
9. Regarding ependymoma, which of the following factors is the most important

determinant of outcome?
(a) Extent at diagnosis
(b) Location
(c) Age at diagnosis
(d) Extent of resection
(e) Molecular classification
Answer: d
Though all the other answers are predictors of outcome, extent of surgical
resection is the most important variable in determination of long-term progno-
sis in patients diagnosed with ependymoma. This has been demonstrated across
several studies with survival rates being reported between 67–80% compared to
22–47% 5-year survival in patients with significant residual tumor burden
[15–17].
10. Regarding the WHO classification of ependymoma subtypes, which of the fol-
lowing statements is true?
(a) Papillary ependymomas are WHO grade 1 lesions
(b) Pancytic ependymomas are WHO grade 3 lesions
(c) Myxopapillary ependymomas are WHO grade 3 lesions
(d) Subependymomas are WHO grade 1 lesions
(e) Anaplastic ependymomas are WHO grade 1 lesions
Answer: d
Of the available answer choices, only C is correct. Subependymomas and
Myxopapillary ependymomas are WHO grade 1. Tanycytic, papillary, and clear
cell ependymomas are WHO grade 2. Anaplastic ependymomas are WHO
grade 3 [8].
11. Patients with which of the following genetic conditions are predisposed to
developing spinal ependymomas?
(a) Neurofibromatosis I
(b) Neurofibromatosis II
(c) Gorlin Syndrome
(d) Turcot Syndrome
(e) Angelman Syndrome
Answer: b
Patients with neurofibromatosis type II have a genetic predisposition to
develop spinal ependymomas due to the chromosomal mutation on chromo-
some 22 they harbor, as many ependymomas have mutations in chromosome 22
as well. However, it is likely that several areas of the chromosome are respon-
sible for this predisposition as even patients without neurofibromatosis type II
can have genetic mutations in chromosome 22 [18, 19].
12. Other than RELA mutations, what other genetic mutation is characteristic of
pediatric supratentorial ependymomas?
(a) Chromosome 22
(b) INI1
(c) YAP1
(d) PTEN
(e) P53
Answer: c
In addition to RELA mutations, the YAP1 mutation is characteristic of pedi-
atric supratentorial ependymomas. The YAP1 protein is a downstream mediator
of the tumor suppressing Hippo pathway [4, 20, 21].
17.2 Embryonal Tumors (Questions 1–13)
1. Based on the 2021 WHO Classification of Tumors of the Central Nervous sys-
tem guidelines, which of the following is no longer considered to be a distinct
pathologic entity?
(a) Medulloblastoma
(b) Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors (AT/RT)
(c) CNS neuroblastoma
(d) Primitive neuroepithelial tumors (PNET)
(e) CNS tumor with BCOR internal tandem duplication
Answer: d
In the current iteration of the WHO Classification of Tumors of the Central
Nervous System, the term “PNET” was removed and replaced with embryonal
tumors in order to reflect this version focus on molecular characterization.
Broadly, embryonal tumors are poorly differentiated, hypercellular neoplasms
that bear resemblance to the embryonic CNS, hence the name. In the past,
tumors that had these characteristics on pathologic evaluation were labeled as
PNETs, sometimes being subclassified based on location (medulloblastoma in
posterior fossa for example). However, the ever-developing field of genomics
has allowed for families of these tumors to be identified based on molecular
subtypes. Currently, embryonal tumors include the following: medulloblas-
toma, AT/RT, CNS neuroblastoma, embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes,
CNS embryonal tumor not-otherwise specified, CNS tumor with BCOR inter-
nal tandem duplication, and cribriform neuroepithelial tumor [22].
2. A 2-year-old male is found to have a posterior fossa mass on work-up for
increased lethargy and vomiting. The frozen specimen obtained during surgical
resection is shown below. Based on the specimen, which diagnosis is most likely?
(a) AT/RT
(b) medulloblastoma
(c) ependymoma
(d) choroid plexus papilloma
(e) pilocytic astrocytoma
Answer: a
The Answer is AT/RT. The pathology slide shows classic histological find-
ings of AT/RT which is the appearance of rhabdoid cells [23]. These cells are
small and possess eccentric nuclei as well as globular eosinophilic inclusions.
Mitotic figures are also common [24].
3. Which of the following mutations is most commonly associated with atypical
teratoid/rhabdoid tumors?
(a) YAP1
(b) RELA
(c) KIAA1549-BRAF fusion
(d) SMARCB1 (INI1)
(e) Wnt
Answer: d
AT/RT is commonly associated with SMARCB1 (INI1) inactivation. It is
occasionally associated inactivation of SMARCB4 as well. YAP1 and RELA
are mutations associated with ependymomas. The KIAA1549-BRAF fusion is
associated with pilocytic astrocytomas. Wnt mutations are commonly seen in

medulloblastomas [25].
4. Outcome following diagnosis of an embryonal tumor is dictated by which of
the following?
(a) Age at diagnosis
(b) Extent of surgical resection
(c) Presence of metastatic disease
(d) Only B and C
(e) All of the above
Answer: e
Age at diagnosis, extent of surgical resection, and presence of metastatic
disease all influence outcome in patients diagnosed with embryonal tumors.
Patients diagnosed younger than 3 years old, those with metastatic disease, and
those with significant residual tumor volume following resection are more
likely to have a poor outcome [26, 27].
5. Which of the following subgroups of embryonal tumors is not associated with
alterations of C19MC microRNAs on chromosome 19?
(a) Ependymoblastoma
(b) Medulloepithelioma
(c) Embryonal tumor with abundant neuropil and true rosettes (ETANTR)
(d) Embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes (ETMR)
(e) CNS neuroblastoma
Answer: e
The Answer is E. Answers A-D are currently considered to be under the
ETMR C19MC sub-group of embryonal tumors due to all these entities having
in common alterations of C19MC microRNAs on chromosome 19. Historically,
these entities were considered separate diagnosis, however the recent iteration
of WHO Classification of Tumors of the Central Nervous System has grouped
them into one family of tumors due to the unifying presence of this mutation.
This was done to better categorize an otherwise heterogeneously appearing
group of tumors on pathology slides in order to better guide the development of
treatment protocols [22, 28].
6. Which of the following is not considered one of the four main molecular sub-
types of medulloblastoma?
(a) Wnt
(b) SHH
(c) Group 3
(d) YAP1
(e) Group 4
Answer: d
The four main molecular subtypes of medulloblastoma are Wnt, SHH, group
3, and group 4. Proper identification of the subtype through molecular testing is
critical for treatment and determining prognosis, as each group behaves as its
own pathologic entity. YAP1 is a mutation associated with some forms of epen-
dymoma [29].
7. Which of the four molecular subtypes of medulloblastoma has the best
prognosis?
(a) Wnt
(b) SHH
(c) Group 3
(d) Group 4
Answer: a
Of the four subtypes of medulloblastoma, Wnt has the best prognosis while
group 3 has the worst prognosis [30].
8. Which of the following is the most common subtype of medulloblastoma?
(a) Group 3
(b) Group 4
(c) Wnt
(d) SHH
(e) RELA
Answer: b
Group 4 medulloblastoma is the most common, accounting for 35% of cases.
The Wnt subtype is the least common, accounting only for 10% of medulloblas-
toma cases [30].
9. Which genetic abnormality seen in the group 3 subtype of medulloblastoma is
associated with the worst prognosis?
(a) SMARCA4
(b) GFI1
(c) Isochromosome 17q
(d) KBTDB4
(e) MYC
Answer: e
Unlike the Wnt and SHH subtypes of medulloblastoma, the group 3 subtype
is not defined by abnormalities in a specified signaling pathway. Instead, it is a
heterogenous group composed of tumors with similar underlying behavior and
genetic abnormalities. Group 3 medulloblastomas can be subcategorized into 3
alpha, 3 beta, and 3 gamma. Group 3 gamma is associated with mutations in the
MYC gene and has the worse prognosis of any group 3 medulloblastoma.
5-year survival is only 41% [31].
10. In patients with medulloblastoma, residual tumor volume greater than what
threshold has been associated with worse outcome?
(a) 0.5 cm3
(b) 1.0 cm3
(c) 1.5 cm3
(d) 2.0 cm3
(e) 2.5 cm3
Answer: c
Patients with medulloblastoma with residual tumor burden of >1.5 cm3 fol-
lowing surgical resection have been shown to have lower odds of survival and
reduced progression free survival [32].
11. Which of the following statements regarding post-operative adjuvant radiother-
apy in patients with medulloblastoma is most accurate?
(a) Chemotherapy is commonly deferred in children younger than three until
recurrence or until they reach the age of three
(b) All patients older than 3 years receive 36 Gy of craniospinal irradiation
followed by a boost to 54 Gy to the posterior fossa regardless of molecu-
lar subtype
(c) There are attempts to limit radiation dose in patients older than 3 years of
age with low risk or average risk medulloblastoma by using chemothera-
peutics during radiotherapy treatments
(d) A and C
(e) A and B
Answer: c
Currently, there have been several attempts to use the molecular classifica-
tion schemes in order to modify treatment regimens for patients with medullo-
blastoma. Radiotherapy is a good example of this given its association with
delayed toxicity. As such, irradiating all patients with the previous standard
36 Gy of craniospinal irradiation followed by a boost to 54 Gy to the posterior
fossa is becoming less common. There is evidence suggesting that patients with
low or average risk medulloblastoma have favorable outcomes with reduced
radiation dosing if chemotherapy is given along with it. However, high risk
patients with aggressive forms of medulloblastoma continue to receive the stan-
dard dosage regimen of radiation. Similarly, recent data has shown favorable
outcomes in patients younger than 3 years of age if they are treated first with
chemotherapy and radiation is deferred until they are older than 3 or there is
recurrence [33–35].
12. Which of the following clinical features of medulloblastoma are associated
with poor outcome?
(a) Age younger than 3 at the age of diagnosis
(b) Residual tumor >1.5cm3 after resection
(c) Leptomeningeal spread at diagnosis

(d) Only A and C
Answer: e
Age younger than 3 at diagnosis, residual tumor >1.5 cm3, and leptomenin-
geal spread are all clinical features associated with poor prognosis in patients
with medulloblastoma. Patients with these characteristics have traditionally
been termed “high-risk” [36, 37].
13. A 6-year-old male is diagnosed with a posterior fossa mass after presenting to
the emergency room with 1 month of morning headaches. He is taken for surgi-
cal resection and the patient is found to have the SHH variant of medulloblas-
toma. Broadly speaking, which of the following answer choices best
characterizes his adjuvant treatment?
(a) No adjuvant treatment, only observation is recommended
(b) Chemotherapy with a combination of cisplatin, carboplatin, and vincris-
tine only
(c) 36 Gy of craniospinal irradiation followed by a boost to 54 Gy to the pos-
terior fossa only
(d) Chemotherapy with need for and dosing of craniospinal irradiation

based on risk
(e) Stereotactic radiosurgery to the resection bed followed by an inhibitor of
the SHH signaling pathway
Answer: d
In general, adjuvant chemotherapy followed by risk-based radiotherapy is
the standard treatment following surgical resection in patients with medullo-
blastoma. The importance of molecular subtypes is highlighted by this treat-
ment paradigm, as patients with less aggressive subtypes, such as Wnt, may be
treated successfully with chemotherapy only, or receive radiotherapy in a
reduced dose. Other less fortunate patients with metastatic disease at presenta-
tion or high-risk subtypes, like group 3, require aggressive craniospinal irradia-
tion in addition to chemotherapy. At this time, there is not a clear role for
stereotactic radiosurgery in the treatment of medulloblastoma, though it has
been used as salvage therapy in recurrent disease. Finally, advanced biologics
that target specific signaling mediators are not yet widely available. Additionally,
large clinical trials demonstrating their benefit are not yet available but are cur-
rently being conducted [33, 38–41].
WHO Classification of Ependymal Tumors

Supratentorial ependymoma
• Supratentorial ependymoma, ZFTA fusion-positive
• Supratentorial ependymoma, YAP1 fusion-positive
Posterior fossa ependymoma
• Posterior fossa ependymoma, group PFA
• Posterior fossa ependymoma, group PFB
Spinal ependymoma
• Spinal ependymoma, MYCN-amplified
• Myxopapillary ependymoma
• Subependymoma
WHO Classification of Embryonal Tumors

Medulloblastoma
• Medulloblastomas, molecularly defined
– Medulloblastoma, WNT-activated
– Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated and TP53-wildtype
– Medulloblastoma, SHH-activated and TP53-mutant
– Medulloblastoma, non-WNT/non-SHH
• Medulloblastomas, histologically defined
Other CNS embryonal tumors
• Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor
• Cribriform neuroepithelial tumor
• Embryonal tumor with multilayered rosettes
• CNS neuroblastoma, FOXR2-activated
• CNS tumor with BCOR internal tandem duplication
• CNS embryonal tumor
Image attributions:
1. WebPathology
2. Nirupama Singh, M.D., Ph.D., and PathologyOutlines.com.
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Chapter 18
Pituitary and Sellar Tumors
Ahmed A. Najjar and Mohammed Jawhari
1. Which of the following is the most common type of metastatic tumors to the
sellar region in men?
(a) Liver
(b) Lung
(c) Prostate
(d) Colon
Answer: b
Lung and breast cancers are the most common types of cancers in both sexes.
Prostate cancer does not usually give distant metastases to the sellar region. Liver
cancer usually spreads to the lungs and bones. Colon cancer metastasis to the
brain is also very rare and indicates a very aggressive disease.
2. Which of the following is the most common type of metastatic tumors to the
sellar region in women?
(a) Breast
(b) Ovaries
(c) Uterus
(d) Lung
Answer: a
A. A. Najjar (*)
College of Medicine, Taibah University, Medina, Saudi Arabia
M. Jawhari
Neurosurgery Resident, King Fahad General Hospital, Medina, Saudi Arabia

Switzerland AG 2023
178 A. A. Najjar and M. Jawhari
Breast cancer is the most common source of brain metastases in females.

Lung cancer is also common but not as common as breast cancer in females.
Uterine and ovarian cancer metastasize the brain but much less frequently.
3. All the following anatomical structures can be a source of sellar extension of a
meningioma except
(a) Tuberculum sellae
(b) Dorsum sellae
(c) Diaphragma sellae
(d) Olfactory grove
Answer: d
Meningiomas of the sellar region can arise from adjacent structures.
Olfactory groove meningiomas usually need to be very large to reach the sellar
area but they don’t most of the time. The sellar area is subject to invasion from
adjacent structures commonly tuberculum sellae, planum sphenoidal, dia-
phragma sellae, anterior clinoid, cavernous sinus, and dorsum sellae.
4. Which of the following is the most typical histological feature found in granu-
lar cell tumors of the pituitary stalk?
(a) PAS positive granules
(b) High Ki-67 index
(c) Beta Catenin
(d) EMA
Answer: a
Granular cell tumor of the pituitary stalk is a rare entity. The most typical
feature is the abundance of periodic acid-Schiff granules in the ample cyto-
plasm. Typically, it is a benign tumor. Beta-catenin and epithelial membrane
antigen (EMA) are positive for craniopharyngiomas.
5. Which of the following is the most common subtype of functioning pituitary
adenoma?
(a) Prolactinoma
(b) Acromegaly
(c) Cushing disease
(d) TSH-producing pituitary adenoma
Answer: a
Pituitary neuroendocrine tumors (PitNETs) and pituitary adenomas are very
common. Prolactinoma is the most common functioning subtype. TSH-
secreting adenomas are the least common type.
18 Pituitary and Sellar Tumors 179
6. Factors affecting the recurrence of pituitary adenomas include all the follow-
ing except
(a) Tumor size
(b) Post-operative residue
(c) Invasive tumor
(d) Post-operative radiotherapy
Answer: d
Pituitary adenomas are very common. Treatment usually is effective. Factors
that affect recurrence include the size of the tumor, preoperative hormone lev-
els, invasiveness of the tumor, and younger age. Post-operative radiotherapy is
associated with a lower recurrence rate.
7. The histologic feature predicting the metastatic potential of pituitary adenomas
includes
(a) P53
(b) Ki-67
(c) Cell type
(d) Mitotic activity
Answer: d
There is no World Health Organization (WHO) grade for pituitary adenomas
according to the 2017 classification. The use of P53 and Ki-67 alone for grading
is largely abandoned. The concept of lineage-specific classification was intro-
duced. Pituitary adenomas should be assessed according to their proliferation
(mitotic count and Ki-67 indices), tumor invasiveness, and functional status.
8. After resection of a pituitary adenoma, histology shows the presence of large
dysmorphic ganglionic cells that are positive for neuronal markers and negative
for glial markers. What is the histologic diagnosis?
(a) Pleurihormonal PIT-1 positive adenoma
(b) Ganglioglioma
(c) Mixed Pituitary Adenoma-Gangliocytoma
(d) Prolactinoma
Answer: c
Mixed Pituitary Adenoma- Gangliocytoma is a rare tumor. It represents the
neuronal metaplasia of adenoma cells. Usually, it is reactive to neuronal mark-
ers and negative for glial markers. They can be positive for pituitary hormones.
9. A 53-year-old lady, known to have Hashimoto thyroiditis, presents with an
enhancing sellar mass. You decided to operate. Histology shows lymphocytic
heavy infiltration. Which is the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Pituitary adenoma
(b) Hypophysitis
(c) Lymphoma
(d) Pituiticytoma
Answer: b
Hypophysitis is a rare mimicker to pituitary tumors. There is usually a his-
tory of autoimmune disease or the use of checkpoint inhibitors or other targeted
therapies. Histopathology confirms the diagnosis. The prognosis generally
depends on the cause with primary hypophysitis having a bit better prognosis
than secondary hypophysitis.
10. Differential diagnoses of a sellar cystic mass include all of the following except
(a) Rathke cleft cyst
(b) Arachnoid cyst
(c) Meningioma
(d) Epidermoid cyst
Answer: c
Cystic sellar and suprasellar masses are common. Meningioma is usually
solid in sellar and suprasellar region. Rathke pouch and arachnoid cysts are
developmental in origin. Epidermoid cyst can be mistaken for a Rathke pouch
cyst and may need histopathology to distinguish between the two entities.
11. Which of the following histologic markers is a hallmark of pituicytomas?
(a) Galectin-3
(b) TTF-1
(c) PIT-1
(d) EMA
Answer: b
Pituicytomas arise from the posterior hypophysis. TTF-1 positivity is a char-
acteristic feature of tumors of posterior hypophysis origin. Galactin-3 is not
positive in pituicytomas as well as PIT-1. EMA is positive for epithelial tumors.
12. Which of the following histological appearances is suggestive of brain invasion
in adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma?
(a) Dense nodules and trabeculae of squamous epithelium bordered by a pali-
sade of columnar epithelium
(b) Yellow-brown, cholesterol-rich fluid
(c) The presence of an isolated nest of tumor cells surrounding brain tissue
(d) Well-differentiated surface epithelium lacking surface maturation
Answer: c
Admantinomatous craniopharyngioma is a distinct histopathological entity.
Pathologically, they are characterized by dense nodules and trabeculae of squa-
mous epithelium bordered by columnar epithelium. The cystic part contains
yellow-brown cholesterol-rich fluid. On the other hand, the papillary type is
rarely cystic and has well-differentiated surface epithelium lacking maturation.

Invasiveness criteria are controversial but having brain tissue surrounded by
tumor cells isolated from the rest of the tumor is an accepted criterion to define
invasiveness.
13. A 45-year-old male came to your clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. He
is generally healthy and has been with the same partner for the last 15 years.
You order labs that come back as showing normal prolactin, low luteinizing
hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone, and very low testosterone, with
normal thyroid-stimulating hormone. What is the next step?
(a) Prescribe a low dose of sildenafil
(b) Order an MRI brain with IV contrast
(c) Reassure and educate
(d) Prescribe testosterone
Answer: b
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is associated with very low levels of tes-
tosterone (less than 150 ng/dl). Usually, the MRI of the brain will reveal a
tumor in the pituitary gland. Prescribing a low dose of sildenafil at this stage is
not helpful. Testosterone might help, but it is not the first step. Gonadotropin-
releasing hormone hypo-functioning adenomas can affect also other hormones
in the anterior pituitary.
14. The most sensitive test to detect visual field defects in patients with pituitary
adenoma is
(a) Fundoscopy
(b) Central visual field test
(c) Peripheral visual field test
(d) Slit-lamp examination
Answer: c
Visual field defects are common in cases of macroadenomas. Peripheral
visual field testing is the most sensitive test to detect defects. Central visual
field tests are less sensitive as the compression is usually on the optic chiasm.
Slit-lamp examination is not used for visual field testing.
15. Regarding Atypical Teratoid/Rhabdoid Tumor (AT/RT), which of the following
is true?
(a) It is common in adults
(b) It is usually a benign tumor
(c) Leptomeningeal dissemination is common in pediatrics
(d) Usually positive for GFAP and IDH1 mutation
Answer: c
AT/RT is a rare type of brain tumor in adults. It is a malignant tumor most
commonly in children younger than 3 years. Leptomeningeal metastasis is
common in children, up to 25%. It is diagnosed histologically by loss of INI-1

or BRG1 proteins or genetic alterations in the SMARCB1 or SMARC4A genes.
16. A 13-year-old boy presents with a headache, visual defects, and imbalance for
the past few weeks. CT and MRI brain revealed the presence of hydrocephalus
as well as sellar and pineal region masses. A preliminary diagnosis of germ
cell tumor is made. Surgery was done and a biopsy was taken from the pineal
lesion that confirmed the diagnosis of germinoma. What is true regarding
germinoma?
(a) Isochromosome 12p is commonly seen
(b) It is morphologically distinct from seminoma
(c) The treatment of choice is surgery
(d) The most common presenting symptom is diabetes insipidus
Answer: d
Intracranial germ cell tumors including germinoma represent 5% of intracra-
nial lesions. They are morphologically similar to seminomas. Though isochro-
mosome 12p is a characteristic of seminoma, it is rarely present in intracranial
germinoma. The treatment is usually radiation therapy and surgery alone is not
curative.
17. For pituitary apoplexy which of the following is the most sensitive MRI sequence
for infarcted pituitary?
(a) T1- weighted imaging with gadolinium
(b) T2-weighted images
(c) Diffusion-weighted images (DWI)
(d) Gradient echo sequences (GRE)
Answer: c
Diffusion-weighted imaging is very useful to document pituitary infarction
in ischemic (non-hemorrhagic) apoplexy. It demonstrates the infarcted area
within a few minutes of arterial compromise. T1 with gadolinium is used for
enhancing lesions like tumors. GRE is sensitive to blood products and is not the
first choice for ischemia. T2-weighted images are not used to detect pituitary
infarction.
18. Regarding outcomes of endoscopic endonasal surgery (EES) for large pituitary
adenomas, which statement is true?
(a) Cavernous sinus invasion, large size, intraventricular extension, and firm
consistency were significant factors in determining the extent of resec-
tion (EoR)
(b) Redo-surgery in 50% of cases
(c) CSF leak happens in 50% of the cases
(d) Radiotherapy is needed in more than 30% of cases
Answer: a
EES is very effective and nowadays becoming more frequently used for
large pituitary adenomas. The rate of gross total resection is 50% of the cases.
Factors affecting the extent of resection include the size, degree of invasion of
the adjacent structures, and tumor-related factors. Redo surgery occurs only in
about 3% of the cases. CSF leak occurs in 10–20% of the cases. Radiotherapy
is needed in only 5% of treated cases.
19. Regarding sellar and suprasellar dermoid and epidermoid cysts, which state-
ment is true?
(a) The most common location is in the sella
(b) They are treated medically
(c) Epidermoid is usually midline and dermoid is off midline
(d) Surgical treatment, when indicated, is the mainstay of management
Answer: d
Dermoid and epidermoid lesions are rare intracranial pathologies that are
rarely purely sellar. They usually extend to the sella from suprasellar or rarely
sphenoidal locations. Dermoid is usually midline while epidermoid is off mid-
line. Surgery remains the main form of therapy when indicated with a recur-
rence of up to 26%.
20. Which of the following is the most common pituitary tumor in McCune-
Albright syndrome?
(a) GH-secreting adenomas
(b) Prolactinomas
(c) TSH-secreting adenomas
(d) Nonfunctioning adenomas
Answer: a
McCune-Albright syndrome (MAS) is a rare genetic disease. It has the triad
of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, and café-au-lait spots. It is
caused by a post-zygotic spontaneous mutation of the GNAS gene. GH-secreting
adenomas are the most common. Other types of adenomas typically do not
occur in MAS. The prognosis is worse than in isolated cases.
21. All of the following are considered a syndromic familial pituitary ade-

noma except
(a) MEN 1
(b) MEN 4
(c) USP8-related syndrome
(d) FIPA
Answer: d
Familial Pituitary Adenomas are of two kinds: syndromic or isolated.
Isolated familial pituitary adenomas (FIPA) are less common and they usually
occur in younger patients. The mutation is in the aryl hydrocarbon receptor-
interacting protein (AIP) gene. The other 3 options are syndromic having pitu-
itary adenomas plus other body tumors. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1 and 4
are associated with MEN1 and MEN 4 mutations, respectively. Ubiquitin-
specific peptidase 8 gene mutations predispose to delayed development of pitu-
itary adenomas, dysmorphic features as well as lung disease.
22. Regarding sellar glomus tumors, which statement is true?
(a) They are common
(b) They can be easily diagnosed with the help of an MRI
(c) They are classified as benign, of uncertain malignancy, or malignant
(d) The treatment of choice is medical
Answer: c
Sellar glomus tumors are very rare mesenchymal tumors. They can be easily
misdiagnosed as pituitary adenoma. The MRI is not specific. Histologically,
they are classified as benign, of uncertain malignancy, or malignant based on
nuclear atypia and mitosis. The treatment of choice is complete surgical
resection.
23. Craniopharyngioma can be treated successfully with all of the following except
(a) BRAF-V600E- inhibitors like dabrafenib and trametinib
(b) Temozolomide
(c) Interferon-a
(d) Bleomycin
Answer: b
Papillary and adamantinomatous types of craniopharyngiomas are distinct
histopathologies. BRAF-V600E mutation-positive tumors can be successfully
treated with BRAF-V600E- inhibitors. Interferon-alfa is used very successfully
for the cysts associated with adamantinomatous craniopharyngiomas.
Bleomycin is used in the same way as interferon but with more toxicity.
Temozolomide is not a medical treatment for craniopharyngiomas. It is mainly
used for malignant gliomas.
24. The most sensitive pituitary adenoma to gamma knife therapy is
(a) Prolactinoma
(b) ACTH-secreting adenomas
(c) Non-functioning pituitary adenoma
(d) Growth hormone (GH)-secreting adenoma
Answer: c
Gamma Knife radiation therapy has been used successfully in the treatment
of pituitary adenomas. With appropriate size, non-functioning tumors respond
the most to radiation. Prolactinomas respond the least with about 50% achiev-
ing remission. Other functioning adenomas have a response rate of 60%.
25. The following are correct matches of immunohistochemical markers for pitu-
itary tumors except
(a) PIT-1: Somatotrophs, lactotrophs, and thyrotrophs
(b) T-PIT: Corticotrophs
(c) SF-1: Gonadotrophs
(d) TIFF-1: Germ cells
Answer: d
TIFF-1 is an immunohistochemical marker that is useful to differentiate
tumors originating from the pituitary gland from metastases. It is positive in
pulmonary and some extrapulmonary tumors. All other matches are correct,
and they must be done for each case of pituitary adenomas.
26. Which is true concerning the medical management of Cushing disease?
(a) Has no role
(b) Surgery is curative in 100% of cases
(c) Retinoic acid, gefitinib, and seliciclib are new treatments
(d) Dopamine agonists work effectively
Answer: c
Cushing disease is caused by pituitary adenomas primarily secreting
ACTH. Surgery is still not curative in a large proportion of patients. New medi-
cal therapies directly targeting ACTH and cortisol secretion such as retinoic
acid provide promise. Gefitinib and seliciclib are anti-EGFR and anti-CDK,
respectively. Clinical trials are undergoing assessing their effectiveness.
Dopamine agonists are used for prolactinomas and are not frequently used for
Cushing disease.
27. With the 2017 WHO new classification of endocrine tumors, silent corticotroph
adenomas (SCA) were introduced as a new entity. Which is true regarding this
new entity?
(a) It is introduced as a subtype of functioning adenomas
(b) They are reportedly aggressive and highly invasive
(c) Low-risk tumors
(d) They are positive for PIT-1
Answer: b
SCA is introduced as a new entity in the 2017 WHO classification of endo-
crine tumors. They are a subtype of non-functioning pituitary adenomas. They
are usually aggressive and highly invasive, so they were classified as high risk
in the WHO classification. They are of corticotroph lineage positive for T-PIT,
T BOX family member. PIT-1 is for cells of somatotroph, lactotroph, and thy-
rotroph lineage.
28. The true statement regarding pituitary stalk interruption syndrome is

(a) Triad of ectopic posterior pituitary tissue, thin or absent pituitary stalk, and
hypoplastic anterior pituitary
(b) SIADH, syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, is the main present-
ing feature
(c) Symptoms are due to the anterior hypophysis
(d) It is a common radiological finding
Answer: a
Pituitary stalk interruption syndrome is a very rare disease. It is character-
ized by hypoplasia of the anterior hypophysis, thin or absent stalk, and ectopic
posterior pituitary near the lamina terminalis. It presents with central diabetes
insipidus in 10% of cases. The treatment is symptomatic.
29. Differential diagnosis of pituitary carcinoma includes all of the following except
(a) Aggressive pituitary adenoma
(b) Renal cell carcinoma
(c) Multiple myeloma
(d) Colon cancer
Answer: d
Primary pituitary carcinoma is very rare. It is necessary to have distant
metastasis with histological resemblance to the primary tumor to make the
diagnosis. There is no histological criteria to differentiate it from aggressive
pituitary adenomas. It can resemble many cancers. Chromogranin-A and syn-
aptophysin are useful to distinguish the origin of the tumor.
30. All of the following are complications of the transsphenoidal approach except
(a) Internal carotid artery injury
(b) New cranial nerve palsy
(c) Cerebrospinal fluid leak
(d) Seizure
Answer: d
Transsphenoidal surgery for pituitary, sellar, and suprasellar lesions is
becoming the standard surgical approach. Internal carotid artery injury occurs
in about 2% of cases and is a very serious occurrence. New cranial nerve palsy
occurs in 7% of the cases. CSF leak occurs in about 5% of the cases. Seizure is
not known to happen as a direct complication of the transsphenoidal approach.
WHO Classification of Tumors of the Sellar Region

• Adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma
• Papillary craniopharyngioma
• Pituicytoma, granular cell tumor of the sellar region, and spindle cell oncocytoma
• Pituitary adenoma/PitNET
• Pituitary blastoma
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2. Albano L, Losa M, Barzaghi LR, et al. Gamma knife radiosurgery for pituitary tumors: a sys-
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3. Altay T, Krisht KM, Couldwell WT. Sellar and parasellar metastatic tumors. Int J Surg Oncol.
2012;2012:647256.
4. Barry S, Korbonits M. Update on the genetics of pituitary tumors. Endocrinol Metab Clin N
Am. 2020;49:433–52.
5. Bogusławska A, Gilis-Januszewska A, Korbonits M. Genetics of pituitary adenomas.
In: Tamagno G, Gahete MD, editors. Pituitary adenomas: the European neuroendocrine
Association’s young researcher committee overview. Cham: Springer International Publishing;
2022. p. 83–125.
6. Burcea I, Poiana C. Updates in aggressive pituitary tumors. Acta Endocrinol (Buchar).
2020;16:267–73.
7. Cheng Y, Tang H, Wu ZB. Sellar Glomus tumor misdiagnosed as pituitary adenoma: a case
report and review of the literature. Front Endocrinol (Lausanne). 2022;13:895054.
8. Chibbaro S, Signorelli F, Milani D, et al. Primary endoscopic Endonasal Management of Giant
Pituitary Adenomas: outcome and pitfalls from a large prospective multicenter experience.
Cancers (Basel). 2021;13:3603.
9. Fetcko K, Dey M. Primary central nervous system germ cell tumors: a review and update. Med
Res Arch. 2018;6(3):1719.
10. Gregoire A, Bosschaert P, Godfraind C. Granular cell tumor of the pituitary stalk: a rare and
benign entity. J Belg Soc Radiol. 2015;99:79–81.
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sis, mechanisms, clinical features, and management. Cancers (Basel). 2021;13
12. Lara-Velazquez M, Mehkri Y, Panther E, et al. Current advances in the management of adult
craniopharyngiomas. Curr Oncol. 2022;29:1645–71.
13. Li Z, Liu R, Liu P. McCune-Albright syndrome associated with pituitary adenoma: a clinico-
pathological study of ten cases and literature review. Br J Neurosurg. 2021:1–10.
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15. Nussbaum PE, Nussbaum LA, Torok CM, Patel PD, Yesavage TA, Nussbaum ES. Case report
and literature review of BRAF-V600 inhibitors for treatment of papillary craniopharyngiomas:
a potential treatment paradigm shift. J Clin Pharm Ther. 2022;47(6):826–31.
16. Ouyang T, Zhang N, Xie S, et al. Outcomes and complications of aggressive resection strat-
egy for pituitary adenomas in Knosp grade 4 with Transsphenoidal endoscopy. Front Oncol.
2021;11:693063.
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Practice Guidelines for the management of aggressive pituitary tumours and carcinomas. Eur
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18. Sahakian N, Castinetti F, Brue T, Cuny T. Current and emerging medical therapies in pituitary
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20. Tavakol S, Catalino MP, Cote DJ, Boles X, Laws ER Jr, Bi WL. Cyst type differentiates Rathke
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Publishing; 2016. p. 245–50.
Chapter 19
Pineal Region Tumors
Joe M Das
1. Which of the following structures is located ventral to the pineal gland?

(a) Corpus callosum
(b) Habenular commissure
(c) Posterior commissure
(d) Superior cerebellar cistern
Answer: c
The Relations of the Pineal Gland are
• Ventral—posterior commissure
• Superior—corpus callosum
• Dorsal—habenular commissure
• Postero-inferior—Superior cerebellar cistern
2. Which of the following blood vessels does not provide blood supply to the
pineal gland?
(a) Medial choroidal arteries
(b) Lateral choroidal arteries
(c) Pericallosal artery
(d) Posterior communicating artery
Answer: d
The arterial supply to the pineal gland is by
• Medial choroidal artery
• Lateral choroidal artery
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
190 J. M. Das
The anastomoses supplying these vessels are formed by

• Pericallosal arteries
• Posterior cerebral arteries
• Superior cerebellar arteries
• Quadrigeminal arteries
3. Which of the following tumors in the pineal region is likely to displace the deep
venous system structures ventrally and inferiorly?
(a) Germinoma
(b) Teratoma
(c) Velum interpositum meningioma
(d) Pineocytoma
Answer: c
• Pineal tumors usually displace the deep venous system structures superi-
orly, except:
– Velum interpositum meningiomas
– Epidermoid or other tumors originating in the corpus callosum
• The latter two displace the venous structures ventrally and inferiorly.
4. Which is the most aggressive form of gestational trophoblastic disease?
(a) Pineal choriocarcinoma
(b) Pineal teratoma
(c) Pineal germinoma
(d) Pineal embryonal carcinoma
Answer: a
5. A 30-year-old lady presents with headaches and an MRI scan of the head shows
a lesion in the pineal region without hydrocephalus. Her serum alfa-feto protein
levels are high. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
(a) Surgical resection
(b) Endoscopic third ventriculostomy and biopsy
(c) Stereotactic needle biopsy
(d) Chemo/radiotherapy
Answer: d
• The patient is having the diagnosis of an endodermal sinus tumor, as the
alfa-feto protein levels are high - which is pathognomonic.
• Since she is not having hydrocephalus, ETV is not indicated.
• Biopsy is not needed in this condition as the serum markers are high,
which is quite diagnostic.
• Pineal region tumors that should be treated based on high tumor marker
levels and without a tissue diagnosis—nongerminomatous malignant
germ cell tumors.
19 Pineal Region Tumors 191
• These include:
– Endodermal sinus tumors
– Choriocarcinomas
– Embryonal carcinomas
6. Which of the following are the second most common pineal tumors?
(a) Germinomas
(b) Choriocarcinomas
(c) Teratomas
(d) Pineal parenchymal tumors
Answer: c
The most common pineal gland neoplasms—Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)
(60%)—include germinoma, mature/immature teratoma, embryonal carci-
noma, yolk sac tumor, choriocarcinoma, and mixed GCT.
The next common pineal gland tumor is PPT (half as common as the GCT).
7. Which surgical approach is suitable for tumors that extend inferiorly into the
quadrigeminal plate?
(a) Supracerebellar infratentorial
(b) Occipital transtentorial
(c) Interhemispheric transcallosal
(d) b or c
Answer: d
Either the occipital transtentorial or the interhemispheric transcallosal
approach is preferable in the following conditions:
• Tumors that extend superiorly, involving or destroying the posterior
aspect of the corpus callosum and deflecting the deep venous system in a
dorsolateral direction
• Tumors that extend laterally to the region of the trigone
• Tumors that extend inferiorly into the quadrigeminal plate
• In rare cases in which the tumor displaces the deep venous system in a
ventral direction
8. Lateral Supracerebellar Infratentorial approach is over the surface of which lob-
ule of the cerebellum?
(a) Gracile
(b) Quadrangular
(c) Biventral
(d) Semilunar
Answer: b
192 J. M. Das
9. What is the initial line of management for a 5-year-old child with

pineoblastoma?
(a) Biopsy
(b) Surgery
(c) Chemotherapy
(d) Radiotherapy
Answer: b
• The initial line of management for children ≤3 years:
Biopsy followed by chemotherapy
• The initial line of management for children >3 years:
Surgery followed by adjuvant radiotherapy ± adjuvant chemotherapy
10. What is the common mutation found in the desmoplastic myxoid tumor of the
pineal region?
(a) SMARCB1
(b) SMARCB2
(c) SMARCB3
(d) SMARCB4
Answer: a
Desmoplastic myxoid tumor (DMT), SMARCB1-mutant
• Recently proposed brain tumor.
• Occurs in the pineal region of adults.
• Characterized by desmoplastic stroma and various degrees of a myx-
oid matrix.
11. Which of the following statements regarding pineal tumor markers is false?
(a) Embryonal carcinomas, immature teratomas, and endodermal sinus tumors
can cause elevated AFP
(b) Choriocarcinomas and germinomas can be associated with elevated β-hCG
(c) Germinomas with elevated β-hCG may have a good prognosis.
(d) Germinomas can be associated with elevated LDH and pALP
Answer: c
• Germinomas associated with elevated β-hCG may have a poor prognosis.
• Mature teratomas tend to be negative for serum and cerebrospinal fluid
alpha-fetoprotein.
12. The standard treatment for pineal parenchymal tumors is
(a) Surgery
(b) Radiation
(c) Chemotherapy
(d) Chemoradiation
Answer: b
13. The most common initial symptom of a pineal tumor is

(a) Headache
(b) Diplopia
(c) Upgaze palsy
(d) Day-time somnolence
Answer: a
• Headache is usually due to hydrocephalus occurring secondary to aque-
ductal compression.
14. Which of the following is not seen in Parinaud syndrome?
(a) Lid retraction
(b) Convergence-retraction nystagmus
(c) Light-near pupillary dissociation
(d) Downgaze paralysis
Answer: d
The classical features of Parinaud syndrome are:
• Paralysis of upgaze
• Convergence-retraction nystagmus
• Light-near pupillary dissociation
• Dorsal midbrain compression → lid retraction (the Collier sign) or ptosis.
Further midbrain compression → Sylvian aqueduct syndrome → paralysis of
downgaze/horizontal gaze from further midbrain compression.
15. What is the cell of origin of the papillary tumor of the pineal region?
(a) Ependyma of the third ventricle
(b) Ependyma of subcommissural organ
(c) Choroid plexus papillae
(d) Capillary cells in the medial choroidal artery
Answer: b
16. Spinal MRI to look for spinal seeding is not required for patients with which of
the following tumors?
(a) Pineal cell tumors
(b) Malignant germ cell tumors
(c) Ependymomas
(d) Germinomas
Answer: d
17. What is the most common site of origin of metastasis in the pineal region?
(a) Lung
(b) Breast
194 J. M. Das
(c) Prostate
(d) Pancreas
Answer: a
18. Which is a novel marker useful for the grading and prognostic evaluation of
pineal parenchymal tumors of intermediate differentiation?
(a) CD4
(b) CD24
(c) CD44
(d) CD144
Answer: b
CD24 and PRAME are novel markers for pineal parenchymal tumors of
intermediate differentiation.
WHO classification of pineal tumors
• Pineocytoma
• Pineal parenchymal tumor of intermediate differentiation
• Pineoblastoma
• Papillary tumor of the pineal region
• Desmoplastic myxoid tumor of the pineal region, SMARCB1-mutant
WHO classification of germ cell tumors

• Mature teratoma
• Immature teratoma
• Teratoma with somatic-type malignancy
• Germinoma
• Embryonal carcinoma
• Yolk sac tumor
• Choriocarcinoma
• Mixed germ cell tumor
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Treatment (PDQ®).
4. Matsumura N, Goda N, Yashige K, Kitagawa M, Yamazaki T, Nobusawa S, Yokoo
H. Desmoplastic myxoid tumor, SMARCB1-mutant: a new variant of SMARCB1-deficient
tumor of the central nervous system preferentially arising in the pineal region. Virchows Arch.
2021;479(4):835–9. https://doi.org/10.1007/s00428-020-02978-3. Epub 2021 Jan 9
5. Carr C, O'Neill BE, Hochhalter CB, Strong MJ, Ware ML. Biomarkers of pineal region tumors:
a review. Ochsner J. 2019;19(1):26–31. https://doi.org/10.31486/toj.18.0110.
6. Li J, Recinos PF, Orr BA, Burger PC, Jallo GI, Recinos VR. Papillary tumor of the pineal
region in a 15-month-old boy. J Neurosurg Pediatr. 2011;7(5):534–8. https://doi.org/10.317
1/2011.2.PEDS10434.
7. Alaminus G, Frappaz D, Kortmann RD, Krefeld B, Saran F, Pietsch T, Vasiljevic A, Garre ML,
Ricardi U, Mann JR, Göbel U, Alapetite C, Murray MJ, Nicholson JC. Outcome of patients
with intracranial non-germinomatous germ cell tumors-lessons from the SIOP-CNS-GCT-96
trial. Neuro-Oncology. 2017;19(12):1661–72. https://doi.org/10.1093/neuonc/nox122.
8. Wu X, Wang W, Lai X, Zhou Y, Zhou X, Li J, Liang Y, Zhu X, Ren X, Ding Y, et al. CD24
and PRAME are novel grading and prognostic indicators for pineal parenchymal tumors of
intermediate differentiation. Am J Surg Pathol. 2020;44:11–20. https://doi.org/10.1097/
PAS.0000000000001350.
Chapter 20
Vestibular Schwannoma
Joe M Das
1. Which is the most common extra-axial posterior fossa tumor in adults?

(a) Meningioma
(b) Metastasis
(c) Vestibular schwannoma
(d) Osteoma
Answer: c
2. What is the most common presentation of a patient with vestibular schwannoma?
(a) Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
(b) Tinnitus
(c) Vertigo
(d) Unsteadiness
Answer: a
3. Which is not a heavily T2-weighted MRI sequence used to evaluate the vestibu-
locochlear nerve and its branches in relation to a vestibular schwannoma?
(a) FIESTA
(b) CISS
(c) DRIVE
(d) PROPELLER
Answer: d
• FIESTA—Fast Imaging Employing Steady-state Acquisition
• CISS—Constructive Interference in Steady State
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Switzerland AG 2023
198 J. M. Das
• DRIVE—Driven equilibrium pulse

• PROPELLER—Periodically Rotated Overlapping Parallel lines with
Enhanced Reconstruction—used to reduce motion artifact in
T2-weighted images
4. Which of the following statements is false regarding the variants of vestibular
schwannomas?
(a) Cellular schwannoma is characterized by the predominance of Antoni A
pattern and absence of properly formed Verocay bodies
(b) Melanotic schwannoma expresses HMB45
(c) There is a 10% risk for malignant transformation in melanotic schwannoma
(d) Psammomatous melanotic schwannoma is always associated with the
Carney complex
Answer: d
• Psammomatous melanotic schwannoma has a 50% association with the
Carney complex.
• Melanotic schwannomas are associated with mutations ins GNAQ/
GNA11, BRAF, and pTERT.
5. A vestibular schwannoma protruding into the cerebellopontine angle but not
touching the brain stem belongs to which Koos grade?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer: b
• Grade 1: Small intracanalicular tumor
• Grade II: Tumor protruding into the cerebellopontine angle but not touch-
ing the brain stem (<2 cm)
• Grade III: Tumor occupying CP angle cistern with no displacement of the
brainstem (<3 cm)
• Grade IV: Brainstem and cranial nerve displacement (>3 cm)
6. Which is not a factor that influences the preservation of serviceable hearing
after microsurgery?
(a) Tumor size <1 cm
(b) Presence of distal internal auditory canal CSF fundal cap
(c) Good preoperative hearing function
(d) Age < 80 years
Answer: d
20 Vestibular Schwannoma 199
7. What is the dose of radiation used in stereotactic radiosurgery for vestibular

schwannoma?
(a) 6–10 Gy
(b) 11–14 Gy
(c) 15–20 Gy
(d) 21–24 Gy
Answer: b
8. The maximum threshold dose of radiation at the modiolus of the cochlea
reported for functional hearing preservation is
(a) 1 Gy
(b) 2 Gy
(c) 3 Gy
(d) 4 Gy
Answer: d
9. What is the only known environmental risk factor for sporadic vestibular
schwannoma?
(a) High-dose ionizing radiation
(b) Use of mobile phone
(c) Ebstein-Barr Virus infection
(d) Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
Answer: a
10. Which drug is used in the treatment of neurofibromatosis type 2 patients with
progressive vestibular schwannomas?
(a) Bebtelovimab
(b) Bevacizumab
(c) Tixagevimab
(d) Cilgavimab
Answer: b
11. What is the treatment of choice for a patient with a small vestibular schwan-
noma with impaired hearing?
(a) Observation
(b) Stereotactic radiosurgery
(c) Retrosigmoid approach and tumor resection
(d) Translabyrinthine approach and tumor resection
Answer: b
• Symptomatic small tumor with impaired hearing (Koos grade I-II) is
managed better with SRS as it provides a lower risk of facial paresis
compared to surgery
200 J. M. Das
12. What is the definition of serviceable hearing?

(a) Pure-tone average of ≥50 dB and a speech discrimination score of ≤50%
(b) Pure-tone average of ≤25 dB and a speech discrimination score of ≥75%
(c) Pure-tone average of ≤ 50 dB and a speech discrimination score of ≥ 50%
(d) Pure-tone average of ≥25 dB and a speech discrimination score of ≤75%
Answer: c
“Good” hearing is defined as a speech discrimination score of 70% or
greater.
13. Which are the most important waves in BAER while performing surgery on
vestibular schwannoma?
(a) Acoustic nerve, Superior olives, Inferior colliculi
(b) Acoustic nerve, Lateral lemniscus, Inferior colliculi
(c) Cochlear nuclei, Superior olives, Inferior colliculi
(d) Cochlear nuclei, Lateral lemniscus, Medial geniculate body
Answer: a
Wave I—Acoustic nerve
Wave II—Cochlear nuclei
Wave III—Superior olives
Wave IV—Lateral lemniscus tracts and nuclei
Wave V—Inferior colliculi
Waves VI—Medial geniculate body
Wave VII— Auditory radiations to the temporal lobe
Waves I, III, and V are the most important ones during intraoperative
monitoring.
14. The most common location of the facial nerve in relation to a vestibular
schwannoma is
(a) Anterosuperiorly
(b) Anteroinferiorly
(c) Posterosuperiorly
(d) Posteroinferiorly
Answer: a
15. What are the anterior and posterior limits of drilling the internal auditory canal?
(a) Anterior limit—Trigeminal ganglion; posterior limit—Glasscock’s triangle
(b) Anterior limit—Kawase’s triangle; posterior limit—Arcuate eminence
(c) Anterior limit—Trigeminal ganglion, posterior limit—Kawase’s triangle
(d) Anterior limit—Foramen spinosum, posterior limit—Arcuate eminence
Answer: b
20 Vestibular Schwannoma 201
16. Which is not a poor prognostic factor for hearing preservation during vestibular
schwannoma surgery?
(a) Abnormal ABR Latency
(b) Inferior vestibular nerve origin
(c) Superior vestibular nerve origin
(d) Opacification of the fundus of the internal auditory canal by tumor
Answer: c
• Poor prognostic signs for hearing preservation include the following:
– Abnormal auditory brainstem response latency
– Inferior vestibular nerve origin
– Fundus opacification by the tumor
17. Changes to the latency or amplitude of the which cochlear nerve action poten-
tial (CNAP) wave peak suggests neural injury while performing vestibular
schwannoma surgery?
(a) P1
(b) P2
(c) N1
(d) N2
Answer: c
WHO classification of cranial and paraspinal nerve tumors
• Schwannoma
• Neurofibroma
• Perineurioma
• Hybrid nerve sheath tumor
• Malignant melanotic nerve sheath tumor
• Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
• Paraganglioma
Bibliography
1. Goldbrunner R, Weller M, Regis J, Lund-Johansen M, Stavrinou P, Reuss D, Evans DG, Lefranc

F, Sallabanda K, Falini A, Axon P, Sterkers O, Fariselli L, Wick W, Tonn JC. EANO guideline
on the diagnosis and treatment of vestibular schwannoma. Neuro-Oncology. 2020;22(1):31–45.
https://doi.org/10.1093/neuonc/noz153.
202 J. M. Das
2. Mohindra N, Neyaz Z. Magnetic resonance sequences: practical neurological applications.

Neurol India. 2015;63(2):241–9. https://doi.org/10.4103/0028-3886.156293.
3. Sartoretti-Schefer S, Kollias S, Valavanis A. Spatial relationship between vestibular schwan-
noma and facial nerve on three-dimensional T2-weighted fast spin-echo MR images. AJNR
Am J Neuroradiol. 2000;21(5):810–6.
4. Hoa M, Drazin D, Hanna G, Schwartz MS, Lekovic GP. The approach to the patient with inci-
dentally diagnosed vestibular schwannoma. Neurosurg Focus. 2012;33(3):E2. https://doi.org/1
0.3171/2012.6.FOCUS12209.
Chapter 21
Intraventricular Tumors
Joe M Das
1. The venous angle is formed between

(a) Anterior septal vein and thalamostriate vein
(b) Thalamostriate vein and internal cerebral vein
(c) Anterior septal vein and internal cerebral vein
(d) Thalamostriate vein and thalamocaudal vein
Answer: b
• The U-shaped angle at the junction of the thalamostriate and internal
cerebral veins—venous angle
• Anatomic landmark for access to the third ventricle via the lateral ventricle.
• True venous angle is adjacent to the posterior margin of the foramen
of Monro.
• False venous angle lies behind it.
• The location of the anterior septal vein (ASV)–internal cerebral vein
(ICV) junction determines the limit of posterior enlargement of the fora-
men of Monro.
• An ASV terminating at the ICV at the venous angle → disadvantage for
surgical exposure
• An ASV joining the trunk of the ICV → advantage for surgical exposure
• Türe et al., subclassified the true (type I) and false (type II) venous angles
further into subtypes:
– A, in which the ASV–ICV junction is located at the venous angle
– B, in which the ASV joins the main stem of the ICV beyond the
venous angle.
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Switzerland AG 2023
204 J. M. Das
• 4 venous angle types (IA, IB, IIA, IIB).

• Typically, this junction is located 3 to 7 mm posterior to the foramen
of Monro.
2. The inferior choroidal point is located at which edge of the uncus?
(a) Anterosuperior
(b) Posterosuperior
(c) Anteroinferior
(d) Posteroinferior
Answer: b
• The anterior choroidal artery enters the choroidal fissure at the inferior
choroidal point.
• Located at the posterosuperior edge of the uncus and anterior limit of the
body of the hippocampus.
• Represents the inferolateral end of the choroidal fissure.
• The anterior choroidal artery enters the choroidal fissure at the inferior
choroidal point.
• Foramen of Monro corresponds to the superior choroidal point.
3. Which statement is false regarding velum interpositum?
(a) It is a space between the two layers of the tela choroidea in the roof of the
third ventricle
(b) The contents include the internal cerebral veins and their tributaries and
lateral posterior choroidal arteries
(c) The space above the velum interpositum between the hippocampal com-
missure and splenium is called the cavum vergae
(d) It may have an opening situated between the splenium and pineal body that
communicates with the quadrigeminal cistern to form the velum interposi-
tum cistern.
Answer: b
The contents include the internal cerebral veins and their tributaries and
medial posterior choroidal arteries.
4. If a patient is noted to have right homonymous hemianopsia with macular spar-
ing preoperatively, extensive damage to the splenium during a posterior inter-
hemispheric transcallosal approach results in
(a) Alexia with agraphia
(b) Alexia without agraphia
(c) Agraphia without alexia
(d) Color agnosia
Answer: b
21 Intraventricular Tumors 205
5. The supracerebellar transtentorial approach to the ventricular atrium is

done via the
(a) Collateral sulcus
(b) Occipitotemporal sulcus
(c) Calcarine sulcus
(d) Rhinal sulcus
Answer: a
6. Which is not a structure forming the roof of the third ventricle?
(a) Fornix
(b) Choroid plexus
(c) Velum interpositum
(d) Thalamus
Answer: d
The roof of the third ventricle is formed by:
• Fornices
• Superior membrane of the tela choroidea
• Velum interpositum (containing the internal cerebral veins and medial
posterior choroidal artery)
• Inferior membrane of the tela choroidea
• Third ventricular choroid plexus
7. Posterior third ventricle is difficult to be accessed via which of the following
approaches?
(a) Transforaminal transchoroidal
(b) Transforaminal subchoroidal
(c) Transforaminal
(d) Interforniceal
Answer: c
8. Which is the most accurate variable for determining the prognosis of central
neurocytoma?
(a) MIB-1 labeling index
(b) Mitotic index
(c) Degree of positive staining for NeuN
(d) The presence of Oligodendrocyte transcription factor 2 (Olig2)
Answer: a
Olig2 is generally absent in central neurocytoma, but present in
oligodendroglioma.
206 J. M. Das
9. What is the most common location of a central neurocytoma?

(a) Frontal horn of right lateral ventricle
(b) Frontal horn of left lateral ventricle
(c) Body of right lateral ventricle
(d) Body of left lateral ventricle
Answer: b
• The majority of ventricular meningiomas are located in the lateral ven-
tricle atrium—left side.
• Most choroid plexus papillomas are located in the lateral ventricle atrium
(left > right) in pediatric patients. In adults, a fourth ventricular location
is the most common.
• Ependymomas arise anywhere within the ventricular system with a pre-
dilection for the fourth ventricle, especially in pediatric patients.
10. Which is a sensitive and specific marker for choroid plexus papilloma?
(a) Stanniocalcin-1
(b) CD7
(c) CD20
(d) Microtubule-associated protein
Answer: a
• Both sensitive and specific—Kir7.1 and stanniocalcin-1
• CK7+/CD20−—to differentiate choroid plexus tumor from meta-
static tumor
• Choroid plexus tumors—positive for E-cadherin and negative for NCAM
• Ependymomas-negative for E-cadherin and positive for NCAM.
• PTPRs can be distinguished from choroid plexus tumors by their expres-
sion of microtubule-associated protein 2 and NCAM.
• The most common underlying genetic mechanism identified in choroid
plexus carcinomas is TP53 dysfunction.
11. Which is not a component of the colloid cyst risk score?
(a) Age
(b) Axial diameter
(c) FLAIR hyperintensity
(d) Presence of hydrocephalus
Answer: d
Criterion Points
Age < 65 years Yes-1 No-0
Headache Yes-1 No-0
Axial diameter ≥ 7 mm Yes-1 No-0
FLAIR hyperintensity Yes-1 No-0
Risk zone Yes-1 No-0
• Zone 1: Extending from the lamina terminalis posteriorly to a tangent

line between the mammillary bodies and the anterior aspect of the mass
intermedia. Cysts in zone 1 are considered at risk of occluding the fora-
men of Monro.
• Zone 2: Extending from the posterior aspect of zone 1 to the anterior
border of the cerebral aqueduct. Cysts in zone 2 are considered at low
risk of obstructing CSF flow.
• Zone 3: Extends from the posterior aspect of zone 2 to the posterior bor-
der of the third ventricle. Cysts in zone 3 are considered at risk of occlud-
ing the cerebral aqueduct.
A colloid cyst risk score of ≥4 is high risk and associated with obstruc-
tive hydrocephalus, while a score ≤ 2 represents a low-risk group.
12. Which radiological feature is present in both colloid cyst and Rathke cleft cyst?
(a) T2 dot sign
(b) Polka dot sign
(c) Murphy sign
(d) Salmon patch sign
Answer: a
13. What is the most common type of intraventricular meningioma?
(a) Transitional
(b) Fibrous
(c) Meningothelial
(d) Psammomatous
Answer: b
14. A newborn baby is noted to have anorectal malformation, sacral agenesis, and
a doubtful epidermoid tumor in the presacral region. What is the most common
mutation associated with this condition?
(a) DLK1
(b) GLK1
(c) MEN1
(d) MNX1
Answer: d
The patient has the Currarino triad - most commonly associated with MNX1
mutation.
15. What is the mitotic activity that defines an atypical choroid plexus papilloma
(WHO grade 2)?
(a) >2 per 10 high power fields (HPFs)
(b) >5 per 10 HPFs
(c) >7 per 10 HPFs
(d) >10 per 10 HPFs
Answer: a
208 J. M. Das
WHO classification of glioneuronal and neuronal tumors

• Ganglioglioma
• Desmoplastic infantile ganglioglioma/desmoplastic infantile astrocytoma
• Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor
• Diffuse glioneuronal tumor with oligodendroglioma-like features and nuclear
clusters
• Papillary glioneuronal tumor
• Rosette-forming glioneuronal tumor
• Myxoid glioneuronal tumor
• Diffuse leptomeningeal glioneuronal tumor
• Gangliocytoma
• Multinodular and vacuolating neuronal tumor
• Dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma (Lhermitte-Duclos disease)
• Central neurocytoma
• Extraventricular neurocytoma
• Cerebellar liponeurocytoma
WHO classification of choroid plexus tumors

• Choroid plexus papilloma
• Atypical choroid plexus papilloma
• Choroid plexus carcinoma
Bibliography
1. Brzegowy K, Zarzecki MP, Musiał A, Aziz HM, Kasprzycki T, Tubbs RS, Popiela T, Walocha
JA. The internal cerebral vein: new classification of branching patterns based on CTA. AJNR
Am J Neuroradiol. 2019;40(10):1719–24. https://doi.org/10.3174/ajnr.A6200.
2. Altafulla JJ, Suh S, Bordes S, Prickett J, Iwanaga J, Loukas M, Dumont AS, Tubbs
RS. Choroidal fissure and choroidal fissure cysts: a comprehensive review. Anat Cell Biol.
2020;53(2):121–5. https://doi.org/10.5115/acb.20.040.
3. Zohdi A, Elkheshin S. Endoscopic anatomy of the velum interpositum: a sequen-
tial descriptive anatomical study. Asian J Neurosurg. 2012;7(1):12–6. https://doi.
org/10.4103/1793-5482.95689.
4. Rupareliya C, Naqvi S, Hejazi S. Alexia without agraphia: a rare entity. Cureus.
2017;9(6):e1304. https://doi.org/10.7759/cureus.1304.
5. Zhao X, Borba Moreira L, Cavallo C, Belykh E, Gandhi S, Labib MA, Tayebi Meybodi A,
Mulholland CB, Liebelt BD, Lee M, Nakaji P, Preul MC. Quantitative endoscopic com-
parison of contralateral interhemispheric Transprecuneus and Supracerebellar Transtentorial
Transcollateral sulcus approaches to the atrium. World Neurosurg. 2019;122:e215–25. https://
doi.org/10.1016/j.wneu.2018.09.214.
6. Lee SJ, Bui TT, Chen CH, Lagman C, Chung LK, Sidhu S, Seo DJ, Yong WH, Siegal TL,
Kim M, Yang I. Central neurocytoma: a review of clinical management and histopathologic
features. Brain Tumor Res Treat. 2016;4(2):49–57. https://doi.org/10.14791/btrt.2016.4.2.49.
Epub 2016 Oct 31
7. Park SJ, Jung TY, Kim SK, Lee KH. Tumor control of third ventricular central neurocytoma
after gamma knife radiosurgery in an elderly patient: a case report and literature review.
Medicine (Baltimore). 2018;97(50):e13657. https://doi.org/10.1097/MD.0000000000013657.
8. Safaee M, Oh MC, Bloch O, et al. Choroid plexus papillomas: advances in molecular biol-
ogy and understanding of tumorigenesis. Neuro-Oncology. 2013;15(3):255–67. https://doi.
org/10.1093/neuonc/nos289.
9. Beaumont TL, Limbrick DD Jr, Rich KM, Wippold FJ 2nd, Dacey RG Jr. Natural his-
tory of colloid cysts of the third ventricle. J Neurosurg. 2016;125(6):1420–30. https://doi.
org/10.3171/2015.11.JNS151396. Epub 2016 Mar 11
10. Ravindran K, Sim K, Gaillard F. Magnetic resonance characterization of the ‘dot sign’ in
colloid cysts of the third ventricle. J Clin Neurosci. 2019;62:133–7. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.
jocn.2018.11.042. Epub 2018 Nov 27
11. Luo W, Xu Y, Yang J, Liu Z, Liu H. Fourth ventricular Meningiomas. World Neurosurg.
2019;127:e1201–9. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.wneu.2019.04.097. Epub 2019 Apr 17
12. Baalaan KP, Gurunathan N. Currarino triad. Pan Afr Med J. 2022;41:143. https://doi.
org/10.11604/pamj.2022.41.143.33419.
Chapter 22
Miscellaneous Skull Base Tumors
Joe M Das
1. What is the most common sign of a skull base chordoma or chondrosarcoma?

(a) Oculomotor nerve involvement
(b) Abducens nerve involvement
(c) Trigeminal motor involvement
(d) Trigeminal sensory involvement
Answer: b
2. Match the following paragangliomas with their sites of origin.
(a) Carotid body tumors Auricular branch of the vagus
(b) Glomus jugulare tumors Carotid bifurcation
(c) Glomus tympanicum tumors Inferior vagal ganglion
(d) Glomus vagale tumors Superior vagal ganglion
Answer:
(a) Carotid body tumors Carotid bifurcation
(b) Glomus jugulare tumors Superior vagal ganglion
(c) Glomus tympanicum tumors Auricular branch of the vagus
(d) Glomus vagale tumors Inferior vagal ganglion
3. Weinstein-Boriani-Biagini classification system is used for

(a) Pituitary tumors
(b) Paragangliomas
(c) Skull base meningiomas
(d) Spinal tumors
Answer: d
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Switzerland AG 2023
212 J. M. Das
• Fisch and Mattox classification—Jugular Paragangliomas

• Jackson-Glasscock classification—Jugulotympanic Paragangliomas
• Netterville-Glasscock classification—Vagal paragangliomas
• Shamblin classification—Carotid body tumors
4. Physaliphorous cells are characteristic of
(a) Chordoma
(b) Chondrosarcoma
(c) Paraganglioma
(d) Choroid plexus papilloma
Answer: a
5. Which is the characteristic marker to identify a chordoma at biopsy?
(a) Brachyury/T
(b) S-100
(c) K18
(d) K19
Answer: a
Brachyury—a T-box transcription factor (6q27) that is essential for noto-
chordal development.
6. Which is not a differentiating feature of ecchordosis physaliphora from chor-
doma on radiological imaging?
(a) Ecchordosis physaliphora are usually found to invade adjacent segments
and the surrounding soft tissues
(b) Ecchordosis physaliphora is osteosclerotic on computed tomogram scans
(c) Ecchordosis physaliphora lacks significant contrast enhancement on
MR images
(d) Ecchordosis physaliphora has a negative uptake on technetium 99 m (99mTc)
methylene diphosphonate bone scans
Answer: a
Notochordal rests- also known as benign notochordal cell tumors (BNCTs)
or ecchordosis physaliphora (if located in the clivus).
Ring-and-arc mineralization demonstrated with CT—chondrosarcoma
7. The usual line of treatment of chordomas and chondrosarcomas involves
(a) En bloc R0 resection followed by high-dose radiotherapy
(b) En bloc R0 resection
(c) Neo-adjuvant radiotherapy followed by en bloc R0 resection
(d) En bloc R0 resection followed by chemotherapy
Answer: a
22 Miscellaneous Skull Base Tumors 213
8. What is the most common type of succinate dehydrogenase mutation seen in

hereditary head and neck paraganglioma?
(a) SDHA
(b) SDHB
(c) SDHC
(d) SDHD
Answer: d
• The highest prevalence and penetrance of all the SDH subunit muta-
tions—SDHD mutation
• The highest risk of developing head and neck tumors is seen in relation
to-SDHD (PGL1) and SDHAF2 (PGL2).
• The highest risk for multiple PGLs—Mutations in SDHD
• The most commonly mutated gene in pheochromocytomas and extra-
adrenal abdominal paragangliomas—SDHB
• The highest rate of metastasis in head and neck paragangliomas—
Carriers of SDHB variants
• The highest risk for multifocal HNPGLs—Carriers of SDHD/SDHAF2
mutations
9. Fontaine sign is clinically seen in
(a) Carotid paraganglioma
(b) Tympanic paraganglioma
(c) Jugular paraganglioma
(d) Vagal paraganglioma
Answer: a
• Carotid paraganglioma can usually be moved laterally, but not up or
down due to its confinement within the carotid sheath—Fontaine sign
• Rising sun sign—Tympanic Paragangliomas
• Moth-eaten appearance of temporal bone— Jugular Paragangliomas
• The most aggressive paragangliomas and having the highest rate of
metastasis—vagal paraganglioma
10. Which is the most sensitive tool for diagnosing head and neck paraganglioma?
(a)
18
F-FDOPA PET
(b)
68
Ga-DOTA-SST PET
(c)
18
F-FDG PET
(d)
111
In–labeled pentetreotide scintigraphy
Answer: b
Gallium 68–labeled dodecane tetraacetic acid-somatostatin analog
(68Ga-DOTA-SSTa) PET-CT
214 J. M. Das
• Detects very small tumors, which can be missed by 18F-FDOPA PET-CT

• The most sensitive tool for the detection of HNPs.
11. Preoperative embolization is not indicated in
(a) Carotid paraganglioma
(b) Tympanic paraganglioma
(c) Jugular paraganglioma
(d) Vagal paraganglioma
Answer: b
• First-line surgery—TPs and for CPs of Shamblin class I < 5 cm espe-
cially in young and relatively healthy patients.
• Surgery contraindicated in—bilateral synchronous CPs, due to the risk of
baroreflex failure.
• Preoperative embolization to be considered in—JPs, CPs, and VPs
• No indication for preoperative embolization in TPs and LPs.
• First-line RT—large and growing JPs and VPs and large CPs.
12. Hyams grading system is used for
(a) Squamous cell carcinoma of paranasal sinuses
(b) Adenocarcinoma of paranasal sinuses
(c) Esthesioneuroblastoma
(d) Trigeminal schwannoma
Answer: c
Kadish and UCLA Staging Systems for-Esthesioneuroblastoma
Clavien–Dindo classification is a broadly accepted surgical complications
classification system.
13. The Radkowski modification of the Sessions staging system is used for
(a) Squamous cell carcinoma of paranasal sinuses
(b) Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
(c) Esthesioneuroblastoma
(d) Trigeminal schwannoma
Answer: b
Other staging systems—Chandler, Fisch, Önerci.
WHO Classification of Chondro-osseous Tumors
• Chondrogenic tumors
– Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma
– Chondrosarcoma
• Notochordal tumors
– Chordoma (including poorly differentiated chordoma)
22 Miscellaneous Skull Base Tumors 215
Bibliography
1. Volpe NJ, Liebsch NJ, Munzenrider JE, Lessell S. Neuro-ophthalmologic findings in chordoma
and chondrosarcoma of the skull base. Am J Ophthalmol. 1993;115(1):97–104. https://doi.
org/10.1016/s0002-9394(14)73531-7.
2. Pandiar D, Thammaiah S. Physaliphorous cells. J Oral Maxillofac Pathol. 2018;22(3):296–7.
https://doi.org/10.4103/jomfp.JOMFP_265_18.
3. Jo VY, Hornick JL, Qian X. Utility of brachyury in distinction of chordoma from cyto-
morphologic mimics in fine-needle aspiration and core needle biopsy. Diagn Cytopathol.
2014;42(8):647–52. https://doi.org/10.1002/dc.23100. Epub 2014 Feb 19
4. Guha A, Vicha A, Zelinka T, Musil Z, Chovanec M. Genetic variants in patients with mul-
tiple head and neck Paragangliomas: dilemma in management. Biomedicine. 2021;9(6):626.
Published 2021 May 31. https://doi.org/10.3390/biomedicines9060626.
5. Withey SJ, Perrio S, Christodoulou D, Izatt L, Carroll P, Velusamy A, Obholzer R, Lewington
V, Jacques AET. Imaging features of succinate dehydrogenase-deficient Pheochromocytoma-
Paraganglioma syndromes. Radiographics. 2019;39(5):1393–410. https://doi.org/10.1148/
rg.2019180151.
6. Lin EP, Chin BB, Fishbein L, Moritani T, Montoya SP, Ellika S, Newlands S. Head and
neck Paragangliomas: an update on the molecular classification, state-of-the-art imaging,
and management recommendations. Radiol Imaging Cancer. 2022;4(3):e210088. https://doi.
org/10.1148/rycan.210088.
7. Vuong HG, Ngo TNM, Dunn IF. Consolidating the Hyams grading system in esthesioneuro-
blastoma - an individual participant data meta-analysis. J Neuro-Oncol. 2021;153(1):15–22.
https://doi.org/10.1007/s11060-021-03746-2. Epub 2021 Mar 26
Chapter 23
Primary CNS Lymphoma
Joe M Das
1. What is the most common type of primary CNS lymphoma?

(a) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
(b) Burkitt lymphoma
(c) T-lymphoblastic lymphoma
(d) Follicular lymphoma
Answer: a
2. Which of the following is the approximate 5-year survival rate for PCNSL?
(a) 25%
(b) 35%
(c) 45%
(d) 55%
Answer: b
The 5- and 10-year relative survival rates for PCNSL are 35.2% and 27.5%,
respectively.
3. Which of the following is the only established risk factor for PCNSL?
(a) Childhood exposure to radiation
(b) Immunodeficiency
(c) Infection with Ebstein-Barr Virus
(d) Infection with JC virus
Answer: b
J. M. Das (*)

Switzerland AG 2023
218 J. M. Das
4. Which of the following is not a pan-B-cell marker?

(a) CD2
(b) CD19
(c) CD20
(d) CD79a
Answer: a
• Most tumors express pan– B-cell markers, including CD19, CD20,
CD22, and CD79a.
• T-cell markers include CD2 and CD3.
5. Which subtype of PCNSL has the worst prognosis?
(a) Type 2 large B-cell lymphoma
(b) Type 3 large B-cell lymphoma
(c) Germinal center B-cell-like lymphoma (GCB)
(d) Activated B-cell–like (ABC) lymphoma
Answer: d
Three molecular subclasses are defined by gene expression profiling
• Type 3 large B-cell lymphoma
• Germinal center B-cell-like lymphoma (GCB)
• Activated B-cell–like (ABC) lymphoma
PCNSL has a high prevalence of the ABC gene expression profile sub-
type → relatively inferior prognosis of this lymphoma.
6. Which of the following mutations is found commonly in PCNSL?
(a)
TOX
(b)
CARD11
(c)
TNFAIP3
(d)
MYD88
Answer: d
Pathogenesis of PCNSL is by two mechanisms:
• MYD88 and CD79B mutations lead to Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling.
• Concurrent B-cell receptor pathway activation
The most common mutation of MYD88 is missense mutation at L265P.
7. Which of the following is an unlikely MRI brain finding in PCNSL?
(a) Restricted diffusion leading to a hyperintense signal b-1000
(b) Hypointense signal on ADC images
(c) Large choline peak
(d) Large NAA peak
Answer: d
23 Primary CNS Lymphoma 219
8. Which of the following is not a poor prognostic factor for PCNSL?

(a) Elevated serum level of lactate dehydrogenase
(b) Elevated CSF protein
(c) Involvement of non-hemispheric areas of the brain
(d) Age < 60 years
Answer: d
9. Which is the most effective chemotherapeutic agent for the treatment of PCNSL?
(a) Methotrexate
(b) Vincristine
(c) Paclitaxel
(d) Carboplatin
Answer: a
• The most effective treatment for PCNSL is intravenous, high-dose metho-
trexate (>3 g/m2). The induction treatment should include Rituximab as well.
10. Early intervention with which of the following drugs can reduce nephrotoxicity
due to high dose methotrexate?
(a) Thioredocin
(b) Polyhistidine
(c) Glutathione S-transferase
(d) Glucarpidase
Answer: d
• Glucarpidase is a recombinant form of carboxypeptidase-G2 produced
from Escherichia coli.
11. Ibrutinib, used in the treatment of PCNSL, works by which of the following
mechanisms?
(a) PI3K inhibitor
(b) BTK inhibitor
(c) mTOR inhibitor
(d) Dual PI3K/mTOR inhibitor
Answer: b
• Temsorolimus is an mTOR inhibitor.
• Buparlisib is a pan-PI3K inhibitor.
12. Which of the following is a novel prognostic marker for PCNSL?
(a) Neutrophil-to-lymphocyte ratio
(b) Derived neutrophil-to-lymphocyte ratio
(c) Lactate dehydrogenase-to-lymphocyte ratio
(d) Glutathione reductase-to-lymphocyte ratio
Answer: c
220 J. M. Das
13. Which of the following is not a component in the International Extranodal

Lymphoma Study Group (IELSG) prognostic score?
(a) Age
(b) CSF protein concentration
(c) Deep brain involvement
(d) Sex
Answer: d
The components of the IELSG Score are:
• Age
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance score
• Lactate dehydrogenase level
• CSF protein concentration and
• Deep brain involvement (periventricular regions, basal ganglia, brainstem,
and/or cerebellum)
2-year survival rate
• 0–1 risk factors—80%
• 2–3—48%
• 4–5—15%
14. Which of the following drugs is not a part of the MATRix regimen that has been
shown to be associated with better survival in primary CNS lymphoma?
(a) Methotrexate
(b) Cytarabine
(c) Cyclophosphamide
(d) Thiotepa
Answer: c
15. The most frequent genomic aberrations in primary CNS lymphoma involve the
losses and deletions involving which chromosome?
(a) 6p21
(b) 22p21
(c) 6q21
(d) 22q21
Answer: a
16. Match the following novel agents being tried in the treatment of primary CNS
lymphoma with their mechanisms of action:
(a) Lenalidomide Inhibition of PI3K
(b) Ibrutinib Small molecule inhibitor of mTOR
(c) Temsirolimus Modulation of the substrate specificity of the
CRL4CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase
(d) Buparlisib Bruton’s tyrosine kinase inhibitor
23 Primary CNS Lymphoma 221
Answer:
(a) Lenalidomide Modulation of the substrate specificity of the
CRL4CRBN E3 ubiquitin ligase
(b) Ibrutinib Bruton’s tyrosine kinase inhibitor
(c) Temsirolimus Small molecule inhibitor of mTOR
(d) Buparlisib Inhibition of PI3K
17. A 40-year-old immunocompetent patient comes to the outpatient department

with complains of mild headaches and left-sided weakness for the past week.
Clinically, he is conscious and oriented. Pronator drift is positive on the left
side. There is no papilledema. An MRI scan of the brain shows a T1 and T2
hypointense lesion in the right basal ganglia region measuring 2 × 1 cm which
shows a reduced ADC and mild perilesional edema. It is enhancing strongly on
contrast administration. Given the suspicion of CNS lymphoma, what is the
next step in the management of this patient?
(a) Whole body contrast-CT scan
(b) Stereotactic biopsy
(c) Ophthalmological evaluation
(d) CSF examination
Answer: a
• The initial line of investigation involves physical examination, routine
blood studies, contrast CT scan of the whole body, 18FDG PET, and an
ultrasound scan of the testes.
WHO classification of hematolymphoid tumors of the CNS
Lymphomas
• CNS lymphomas
– Primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the CNS
– Immunodeficiency-associated CNS lymphoma
– Lymphomatoid granulomatosis
– Intravascular large B-cell lymphoma
• Miscellaneous rare lymphomas in the CNS
– MALT lymphoma of the dura
– Other low-grade B-cell lymphomas of the CNS
– Anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALK+/ALK−)
– T-cell and NK/T-cell lymphomas
Histiocytic tumors
• Erdheim-Chester disease
• Rosai-Dorfman disease
• Juvenile xanthogranuloma
• Langerhans cell histiocytosis
• Histiocytic sarcoma
222 J. M. Das
Bibliography
1. Grommes C, DeAngelis LM. Primary CNS lymphoma. J Clin Oncol. 2017;35(21):2410–8.

https://doi.org/10.1200/JCO.2017.72.7602. Epub 2017 Jun 22
2. Ostrom QT, Cioffi G, Gittleman H, Patil N, Waite K, Kruchko C, Barnholtz-Sloan JS. CBTRUS
statistical report: primary brain and other central nervous system tumors diagnosed in the
United States in 2012–2016. Neuro-Oncology. 2019;21(Suppl 5):v1–v100. https://doi.
org/10.1093/neuonc/noz150.
3. Gerstner ER, Batchelor TT. Primary central nervous system lymphoma. Arch Neurol.
2010;67(3):291–7. https://doi.org/10.1001/archneurol.2010.3.
4. Kumar V, Shrivastava SM, TrishalaMeghal T, Chandra BA. Recent advances in diffuse large
B cell lymphoma. In: Guenova M, Balatzenko G, editors. Hematology - latest research and
clinical advances [Internet]. London: IntechOpen; 2018. [cited 2022 Jun 15]. https://www.
intechopen.com/chapters/60573. https://doi.org/10.5772/intechopen.74263.
5. Chen K, Ma Y, Ding T, Zhang X, Chen B, Guan M. Effectiveness of digital PCR for MYD88L265P
detection in vitreous fluid for primary central nervous system lymphoma diagnosis. Exp Ther
Med. 2020;20(1):301–8. https://doi.org/10.3892/etm.2020.8695. Epub 2020 Apr 29
6. Lukas RV, Stupp R, Gondi V, et al. Primary central nervous system lymphoma-PART 1:
Epidemiology, diagnosis, staging, and prognosis. Oncology (Williston Park). 2018;32(1):17–22.
7. Schaff LR, Lobbous M, Carlow D, Schofield R, Gavrilovic IT, Miller AM, Stone JB,
Piotrowski AF, Sener U, Skakodub A, Acosta EP, Ryan KJ, Mellinghoff IK, DeAngelis LM,
Nabors LB, Grommes C. Routine use of low-dose glucarpidase following high-dose metho-
trexate in adult patients with CNS lymphoma: an open-label, multi-center phase I study. BMC
Cancer. 2022;22(1):60. https://doi.org/10.1186/s12885-021-09164-x.
8. Robak E, Robak T. Bruton’s kinase inhibitors for the treatment of immunological diseases:
current status and perspectives. J Clin Med. 2022;11(10):2807. https://doi.org/10.3390/
jcm11102807.
9. Gao Y, Wei L, Kim SJ, Wang L, He Y, Zheng Y, Bertero L, Pellerino A, Cassoni P, Tamagnone
L, Theresa PK, Deutsch A, Zhan H, Lai J, Wang Y, You H. A novel prognostic marker for
primary CNS lymphoma: lactate dehydrogenase-to-lymphocyte ratio improves strati-
fication of patients within the low and intermediate MSKCC risk groups. Front Oncol.
10. Ferreri AJM. Therapy of primary CNS lymphoma: role of intensity, radiation, and novel agents.
Hematology Am Soc Hematol Educ Program. 2017;2017(1):565–77. https://doi.org/10.1182/
asheducation-2017.1.565.
11. Fink EC, Ebert BL. The novel mechanism of lenalidomide activity. Blood.
2015;126(21):2366–9. https://doi.org/10.1182/blood-2015-07-567958. Epub 2015 Oct 5
Chapter 24
Palliative Care
Amr Maani, Abduelmenem Alashkham, and Jacek Baj
1. A 61-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with a history of headaches

and current personality changes. An MRI of the brain has confirmed a diagnosis
of Grade 4 astrocytoma. What is the approximate survival rate for a patient with
glioblastoma?
(a) 3–5 years
(b) 1–1.5 years
(c) 12–15 years
(d) 1–2 months
(e) None of the above
Answer: b
A patient with grade 4 astrocytoma has approximately a survival time
between 12 and 18 months. On the other hand, the approximate survival time
for grade 2 is 5–10 years and for grade 3 it is 2–3 years. The prognosis can be
altered by certain factors such as age, neurologic deficits, treatment options, etc.
Treatment options can play a role in survival. For example, the use of temozolo-
mide alongside radiotherapy showed a higher median survival rate compared to
the use of radiotherapy alone.
2. A 62-year-old female is diagnosed with an incurable brain tumor. End-of-life
(EoL) treatment decisions are provided for the alleviation of the symptoms in
A. Maani (*)
Department of Anatomy, Medical University of Lublin, Lublin, Poland
A. Alashkham
Edinburgh Medical School, The University of Edinburgh, Edinburgh, UK
J. Baj
Chair and Department of Anatomy, Medical University of Lublin, Lublin, Poland

Switzerland AG 2023
224 A. Maani et al.
incurable brain tumor patients. They include withholding, withdrawing, and

terminal sedation. Which of the following option best describes withdrawing?
(a) Not to accept symptomatic therapies which were otherwise warranted in a
planned decision
(b) Symptomatic treatment withdrawal that has been ongoing
(c) Complete loss of consciousness by the pharmacologically induced reduc-
tion of vigilance up to abolish or reduce the perception of symptoms that
could be intolerable
(d) Options a and b are correct
Answer: b
Not accepting symptomatic therapies which were otherwise warranted in a
planned decision describes withholding. Symptomatic treatment withdrawal
that has been ongoing correctly describes withdrawing. Lastly, a complete loss
of consciousness by the pharmacologically induced reduction of vigilance up
describes terminal sedation.
3. A 64-year-old male patient presented to the clinic with complaints of frequent
episodes of epilepsy. He has been recently diagnosed with high-grade glioma
and is currently undergoing chemotherapy sessions. As interactions of AEDs,
steroids, and chemotherapy are common, which is the preferred drug of choice
that will help in the management of this patient?
(a) Gabapentin
(b) Levetiracetam
(c) Valproic acid
(d) Options a and b
(e) Bevacizumab
Answer: d
Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant recommended for treating epilepsy in
patients undergoing chemotherapy. Levetiracetam is also a drug of choice in
patients with epilepsy who are undergoing chemotherapy sessions. Valproic
acid is normally the first-choice agent. However, it may increase the toxicity
of chemotherapy as an enzyme inhibitor. Thus, both drugs are considered to
be the best-tolerated drugs as well as the most effective. Bevacizumab is not
applicable for treating epilepsy as well as not recommended in managing VTE
in malignant glioma patients because it may further increase the risk of VTE.
4. A 83-year-old female patient undergoing whole brain radiotherapy for the past
6 months for a high-grade brain tumor presented with complaints of memory
disturbances, and a deterioration of complex intellectual functions with mood
and personality changes. The patient also complains of slowed thinking and
processing of information. Complaints of aphasias, apraxias, and agnosias are
absent. Frontal sub-cortical dementia is suspected. What would be the drug of
choice for this patient?
24 Palliative Care 225
(a) Methylprednisolone
(b) Methylphenidate
(c) Valproic acid
(d) Rivastigmine
Answer: b
Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that is used for anti-inflammatory
purposes. Methylphenidate is proven effective in dealing with irreversible fron-
tal subcortical dementia in elderly patients undergoing whole-brain radiother-
apy or chemotherapy. Valproic acid is an anticonvulsant used to treat seizures.
Rivastigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor used for the treatment of mild to mod-
erate degenerative brain disorders causing memory and thinking problems.
However, it is not effective in irreversible subcortical dementia.
5. A 64-year-old male patient being treated for an end-stage glioma is complain-
ing of myalgias and arthralgias. He has been taking steroids for the past
12 months, which could result in myopathy and osteoporosis. Which would be
the best course of action in dealing with patients if steroids are a necessary part
of treatment in advanced stages?
(a) Provide adequate nutritional support to the patient (calcium, protein,
vitamin D)
(b) Suggest an adequate daily physical activity
(c) Recommend physiotherapy sessions
(d) If needed, a slow tapering of steroids is recommended
Answer: e
Option A is correct as adequate nutrition helps in decreasing the rate of
osteoporosis as well as increasing muscle strength. Physical activity is neces-
sary to load the weakened muscles and increase their strength. A diffuse myal-
gia/arthralgia withdrawal syndrome is usually caused by a fast tapering of
steroids. A slower tapering of steroids is recommended. Thus, all of the options
combined are the best course of action in dealing with this issue.
6. A 32-year-old male is diagnosed with end-stage brain cancer. He has been
experiencing fatigue daily. What is the best course of action that will help brain
cancer patients with their fatigue?
(a) Light daily exercise
(b) Methylphenidate
(c) Ginseng
(d) Erythropoietin and darbepoetin-alpha
(e) Options a and d
Answer: e
226 A. Maani et al.
Fatigue in end-stage brain cancer is a very common symptom. Daily exer-

cise in a tolerance zone is recommended in brain cancer patients to counter
fatigue symptoms as well as to preserve conditioning. Currently, a combination
therapy with ginseng and methylphenidate is under review for dealing with
fatigue in brain cancer patients regarding its efficacy and safety. Darbopoietin
alpha and erythropoietin are considered to be common treatment options for
chemotherapy-related anemia that causes fatigue. Weekly, as well as bimonthly
administration, helps in the patient’s day-to-day life.
7. A 61-year-old male patient is undergoing treatment for low-grade glioma. The
patient has presented to the clinic with complaints of changes in appetite and
weight loss. Which of the following treatments can help in increasing the appe-
tite of this patient?
(a) Steroids
(b) Valproic acid
(c) Topiramate
(d) Options a and b
Answer: d
Steroids are indicated in brain tumor patients, especially in end-stage treat-
ment. They are known to increase the appetite of the patient. Just like steroids,
valproic acid also increases the appetite of the patient. Thus, both options A and
B are correct in this case. Topiramate has the opposite effect in which it
decreases the appetite in patients.
8. A 34-year-old female patient diagnosed with high-grade glioma presented to
the emergency department with frequent episodes of seizures. The prognosis of
this patient is poor and she is currently being treated at home. What should the
preferred mode of AEDs administration be for this patient?
(a) Oral
(b) Intravenous
(c) Intramuscular
(d) Oral and intravenous
Answer: c
The oral route for AEDs can be problematic for patients having end-stage
brain tumors owing to swallowing difficulties, mostly those caused by altera-
tions of consciousness as well as dysphagia. The intravenous route is preferred
in medical facilities for fast response. Thus, intramuscular along with transder-
mal, rectal, and subcutaneous routes are preferred in home settings.
9. A 56-year-old male patient is diagnosed with glioblastoma multiforme. Even
after aggressive and multidisciplinary treatment with chemotherapy, radiother-
apy, and surgery, the prognosis for both primary as well as metastatic brain
tumors continues to be poor. What is the median survival rate for glioblastoma
multiforme?
(a) 7 to 8 years
(b) 12 to 15 months
(c) 2 to 5 years
(d) 3 to 4 years
Answer: b
Typically, the prognosis for metastatic brain and the primary tumors is poor.
Malignant gliomas are considered to have the poorest outcome. Thus, 12 to
15 months is the median survival rate for glioblastoma multiforme. On the other
hand, 2 to 5 years is the survival rate for anaplastic gliomas. The rest of the
options are incorrect.
10. A 73-year-old female patient, known to have a glioma presented to the clinic
with complaints of headache and dizziness. The patient also suffered from fre-
quent episodes of vomiting and neck stiffness. On MRI, peritumoral brain
edema has been confirmed. The physician is planning to prescribe either dexa-
methasone or methylprednisolone for the chronic treatment of peritumoral
brain edema. What should the recommended dosage of dexamethasone and
methylprednisolone respectively be?
(a) 96 mg and 8 mg given once or twice daily
(b) 8 mg and 96 mg are given once or twice daily
(c) 96 and 8 mg given thrice daily
(d) 8 mg and 96 mg given thrice daily
(e) 8 mg and 96 mg are given only once daily
Answer: b
A corticosteroid such as dexamethasone is considered to be an effective drug
in reducing tissue edema by reducing vascular permeability. It has a longer half-
life, which allows patients to take it once a day. Methylprednisolone is a corti-
costeroid that is used for anti-inflammatory purposes. Thus, option B is the
recommended dosage respectively.
11. A 60-year-old female patient who is diagnosed with malignant glioma. It has been
shown in previous studies that malignant glioma patients are usually at a high risk
of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE). Certain drugs are used to help in
both the treatment of symptomatic VTE as well as the prevention of recurrent VTE
among cancer patients but not in malignant glioma patients. What are those drugs?
(a) Bevacizumab
(b) Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
(c) Erythropoietin
(d) Darbopoietin-alpha
(e) Bevacizumab and LMWH
Answer: e
228 A. Maani et al.
In spite of the fact that there is doubt about the efficacy of the use of pri-
mary prophylaxis among cancer patients, certain drugs such as bevacizumab
and LMWH are used in both the treatment of symptomatic VTE and its pre-
vention. However, bevacizumab is not recommended for managing VTE in
malignant glioma patients because it may further increase the risk of VTE.
12. A 63-year-old male patient who is diagnosed with high-grade glioma presents
with gradual shortness of breath and chest tightness. The patient’s body tem-
perature is also increased and there is audible wheezing. The patient is taking
steroids for the past 6 months for his brain tumor. What could be the most prob-
able diagnosis?
(a) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonitis (PJP)
(b) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
(c) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia (LIP)
(d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Answer: a
A clinically major suppression of the immune system is produced from com-
mon use of corticosteroids, which could lead to opportunistic infections to
occur such as PJP. ARDS normally appears in patients who are in critical condi-
tion. The main symptom is severe shortness of breath (SOB) which occurs
within a few hours or days after an infection or an injury. Since this patient
developed SOB gradually, ARDS is not the correct option. LIP is associated
with lymphoproliferative and autoimmune disorders, which include pernicious
anemia, rheumatoid arthritis, myasthenia gravis, and Hashimoto thyroiditis.
LIP is a syndrome of fever, dyspnea, and cough, along with bibasilar pulmonary
infiltrates comprising dense interstitial buildups of plasma cells and lympho-
cytes. COPD causes airflow obstruction and breathing-associated complica-
tions, which includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
13. A 54-year-old male patient, a diagnosed case of glioma presented to you with
complaints of frequent headaches. You suspect it to be due to vasogenic edema.
What would be the first choice to treat this type of headache?
(a) Dexamethasone
(b) Opioids
(c) Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
(d) Anticonvulsants
(e) Opioids along with anticonvulsants
Answer: a
Dexamethasone is the first choice of clinicians in managing headaches in
glioma patients due to vasogenic edema. Options B and C are used for manag-
ing pain in glioma patients, but they are not the first choice. Option D is mainly
used for seizure management.
14. A 63-year-old male patient presents with subacute onset of apraxia and new head-
aches. The headaches are present when the patient first awakens and, at times,
they wake him from sleep. More recently, they have been associated with nausea
and vomiting. An MRI scan shows the single nature of the lesion and the hetero-
geneous nonspherical enhancement pattern, which suggests a diagnosis of a high-
grade primary brain tumor such as glioblastoma, the most common glioma in
adults. Which of the following is associated with a greater survival in glioblastoma?
(a) Bevacizumab added to up-front treatment with radiation therapy and
temozolomide
(b) Age greater than 65 years at diagnosis
(c) MGMT promoter methylation presence
(d) Neoadjuvant chemotherapy before radiation therapy
(e) All except option c
Answer: c
Evidence does not support the use of up-front treatment with bevacizumab,
an anti-vascular endothelial growth factor antibody, added to chemoradiation
with temozolomide in the majority of patients with glioblastoma. Advanced
age, in general, represents a significant survival disadvantage.
O6-methylguanine-DNA-methyltransferase (MGMT) is a repair enzyme that
removes excessive methyl groups from DNA, mitigating the effects of DNA
damage induced by chemotherapy agents and radiation therapy. Silencing of
the MGMT gene via methylation of its promoter is a favorable prognostic bio-
marker. It also predicts prolonged survival with the use of temozolomide for
glioblastoma. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy has been investigated in newly diag-
nosed glioblastoma. At this time, there is no evidence to support the use of
chemotherapy before radiation therapy in this tumor type.
15. A 70-year-old male patient with complaints of headache, nausea, vomiting,
vision disorders (double vision), and deteriorating consciousness. The patient is
a known case of glioma and is currently on chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
Dexamethasone is considered the standard choice for dealing with vasogenic
brain edema. Which of the following is the main reason behind choosing this
corticosteroid to treat vasogenic brain edema?
(a) Longer half-life
(b) The absence of mineralocorticoid effect
(c) Low inhibition of leucocyte migration
(d) Options b and c
Answer: e
Dexamethasone has a longer half-life as compared to the other corticoste-
roids. Dexamethasone does not have any mineralocorticoid effect. There is low
inhibition of leucocytic migration when dexamethasone is used. Thus, the entire
characteristics mentioned in the rest of the answers make dexamethasone the
drug of choice.
230 A. Maani et al.
16. Glioma patients are at a greater risk of acquiring Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
Tumor surgery could also lead to a hypercoagulable state, in which a release of
thrombotic microparticles could occur. Neurosurgical data recommends a “tri-
ple” prophylaxis to DVT in glioma patients, which consists of?
(a) Limb setting, pneumatic compression, and Low Molecular Weight
Heparin (LMWH)
(b) Preventive aspirin and Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)
(c) Pneumatic compression and limb setting
(d) Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)
(e) Limb setting and preventive aspirin
Answer: a
Neurosurgical data recommends a “triple” prophylaxis to Deep Vein
Thrombosis (DVT), which includes limb setting, pneumatic compression, and
Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH). However, aspirin is not recom-
mended for the prevention of DVT in glioma patients.
17. A 72-year-old female patient presented to your clinic with complaints of head-
ache. Based on your research, a prescription of dexamethasone is given to this
patient. Which of the following can be an associated symptom of dexametha-
sone that becomes worse with the increase in the dosage or duration of the
treatment in patients with glioma?
(a) Cushing’s effect
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Muscle weakness
(d) Malignant hyperthermia
(e) All except option d
Answer: e
Cushing’s effect, muscle weakness, and diabetes are the most common symp-
toms associated with the use of dexamethasone in patients with glioma.
Nonetheless, dexamethasone is the preferred choice of drug to manage headaches
in a patient with glioma. Malignant hyperthermia is not a side effect of dexa-
methasone. It is a side effect of succinylcholine, which is an anesthetic agent.
18. A 38-year-old male patient is being treated for a grade 4-brain tumor that has a
very poor prognosis. Based on current evidence regarding the patient’s condi-
tion, which of the following symptoms is most common at the end of life in
such patients?
(a) Swallowing disorders
(b) Headaches
(c) Insomnia
(d) Epilepsy
(e) Delirium
Answer: a
Swallowing disorders are usually present in 85% of end-of-life cases.

Headaches are present in 36% of the cases. Epilepsy is present in 30% of the
cases. Insomnia is incorrect. Delirium is present in 15% of the cases. Thus,
option A is correct.
19. A 54-year-old patient presented to the emergency room with complaints of
episodes of seizures and motor weakness. The patient is drowsy and has dif-
ficulty speaking. The patient’s caregiver reports personality changes in the
patient for the past few months. You suspect a malignant brain tumor. Which
of the following tumors is the largely common malignant central nervous sys-
tem (CNS) tumor?
(a) Grade 4; Low-grade gliomas
(b) Grade 4; High-grade gliomas
(c) Grade 4; Ependymoma
(d) Grade 4; Meningioma
(e) Options b and c
Answer: b
The largely common primary malignant central nervous system (CNS)
tumor is Grade 4 high-grade gliomas according to the World Health Organization
(WHO). Episodes of seizures, motor weakness, personality changes, drowsi-
ness, and difficulty in speaking can occur in common primary CNS tumors.
Thus, the rest of the options are incorrect.
20. A neuro-oncology physician is seeing multiple brain cancer patients in an
oncology ward and the majority of them have seizure complaints. The physi-
cian is directed to choose a drug depending on each patient’s comorbidities and
other medications. After research, the physician finds out that levetiracetam is
the most commonly used drug to treat seizures. Which of the following options
makes this drug a favorable choice?
(a) Less interaction with mood disorders
(b) Less interaction with anxiety disorders
(c) Metabolism through the liver
(d) Ease of titration
(e) Options c and d
Answer: d
Options A and B are not correct because the main common cause to discon-
tinue levetiracetam is irritability. Thus, it is usually avoided in patients with
anxiety or a mood disorder. Levetiracetam is a favorable choice due to its ease
of titration, which results in a favorable side effect profile. Lastly, option C is
incorrect, since it is metabolized through the kidney and not the liver.
21. Palliative care is an important aspect of dealing with patients suffering from
incurable brain tumors with poor prognoses. Which of the following best
describes the “patient and caregiver needs” aspect of palliative care?
232 A. Maani et al.
(a) Multidisciplinary support programs that address the patient’s problem,

which help to reduce the burden on the patient and caregivers.
(b) Care strategies must be changed after every evaluation.
(c) Palliative care only deals with the medical needs of the patient
(d) Psychological support is not a part of palliative care
(e) Our main concern in palliative care is to prolong the life of the patient at
any cost.
Answer: a
Palliative care via multidisciplinary programs is applied to address patients’
needs and help to reduce their burden. Standards of care might also be enhanced
proactively, thus extending care goals beyond medical needs. Continuous re-
evaluation of the patient’s support needs and the need for information is neces-
sary because the patient’s needs may change with the progression of the disease.
Care strategies should be amended accordingly (It is not mandatory to change
strategies after every evaluation). Palliative care is aimed to provide the best
available support to the patient. This may also extend beyond just medical
needs. Psychological support is also included in palliative care as it addresses
the symptoms like depression, especially at the end-of-life stage.
22. A 63-year-old male patient is seen for grade 2 meningioma and he has been
using high-dose corticosteroids (dexamethasone) for the past 6 months.
Recently, the patient has been experiencing significant side effects which led to
a worsening in his quality of life. Thus, the patient’s physician decided to initi-
ate a tapering plan. Which of the following options is an indicator that the phy-
sician can start tapering the dose of corticosteroids?
(a) The tumor is a response to the patient’s systemic treatment
(b) Post-radiation edema is being resolved with time
(c) Surgical removal of the tumor previously
(d) The tumor has been surgically debulked
Answer: e
If high doses of corticosteroids are used for long durations, significant side
effects can develop that can paradoxically lead to deterioration in the patient’s
quality of life. Thus, the dosage of corticosteroids should be tapered slowly if
the tumor is responding to systemic treatment. If post-radiation is resolving
with time, it is also an indication of initiating a tapering plan. There is no need
for high-dose steroids if the tumor has been removed surgically.
23. A 55-year-old female patient was diagnosed with a primary brain tumor. While
the prognosis of primary brain tumor patients continues to remain poor, a vari-
ety of treatment options are used. Cytotoxic chemotherapy is considered to be
part of the care provided for the majority of glioma patients. Which of the fol-
lowing is a common side effect of chemotherapy with vincristine?
(a) Delayed wound healing
(b) Pulmonary fibrosis
(c) Neuropathy
(d) Skin rash
(e) Hypertension
Answer: c
Option A is incorrect, delayed wound healing is a main side effect of
Bevacizumab. Option B is incorrect, pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect of
Lomustine. Neuropathy is a common side effect of vincristine, thus, C is cor-
rect. Option D is incorrect; skin rash is a common side effect of temozolomide
and procarbazine. Hypertension is considered to be a common side effect of
bevacizumab.
24. A 67-year-old male patient who was diagnosed with grade 2 astrocytoma pre-
sented to emergency with a single episode of seizure. The patient is in fear of
getting hospitalized and is restless. What should be the acute treatment of sei-
zures used for brain tumor patients?
(a) Benzodiazepine
(b) Succinylcholine
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Benzodiazepine and phenytoin
(e) Succinylcholine and phenytoin
Answer: d
Benzodiazepine is usually used to terminate status epilepticus or a seizure.
In addition, intravenous (IV) phenytoin is also used to prevent a recurrence.
Succinylcholine is not considered to be an anesthetic agent.
25. A 43-year-old female patient, diagnosed case of glioblastoma has presented to
the emergency department (ED) with complaints of body aches, gradual mus-
cular weakness, and dry skin. The patient’s blood pressure (BP) is 179/100 and
respiratory rate (RR) is 24. On inquiring, the ED physician gets to know that the
patient has been taking corticosteroids for the past 2 years. To avoid any further
complications, the physician plans to switch this patient from corticosteroid to
another alternative drug. Which drug is most likely to be recommended?
(a) Dexamethasone
(b) Valproic Acid
(c) Bevacizumab
(d) Options a and b
Answer: c
Dexamethasone is a steroid and cannot be used, as it will further aggravate the
symptoms of this patient. Valproic acid is an anticonvulsant and is not suitable
for this patient, as his primary complaints do not include seizures. Bevacizumab
therapy is favored for its use in recurrent high-grade glioma. It can also be taken
into consideration in an event when a patient is incapable to be weaned off or
reduced to a low dose of corticosteroids. This monoclonal antibody binds to the
234 A. Maani et al.
vascular endothelial growth factor. Due to its angioedema characteristics, this

drug could be a palliative medication that is beneficial for patients.
26. A 39-year-old female patient was diagnosed with a primary brain cancer tumor
(glioma). Although the patient’s prognosis remains generally poor, a variety of
treatment options can be used as standard care such as cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Which of the following is a common side effect of chemotherapy combined
with temozolomide?
(a) Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome
(b) Hypertension
(c) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
(d) Skin rash
(e) Delayed wound healing
Answer: c
Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome is a common side effect
of bevacizumab as well as hypertension, thus, options A and B are incorrect.
Option C is correct; Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is a common side effect
of temozolomide. Option D is incorrect since skin rash is a common side effect
of temozolomide as well as procarbazine. Delayed wound healing is a main
side effect of bevacizumab.
27. Which of the following is the main reason behind the disability in patients with
end-stage brain tumors that also increases the risks of thromboembolic
complications?
(a) Epilepsy
(b) Fatigue
(c) Headache
(d) Focal deficits
(e) Stiffness syndrome
Answer: d
Epilepsy or seizures is a major symptom in patients with brain tumors, espe-
cially near the end-of-life stage but that does not increase the risk of thrombo-
embolic complications. Fatigue is also the main complaint in patients with a
brain tumor but is not related to the given scenario. Headache is the major
complaint in brain tumors mostly because of the extra stress of the tumor mass
or increased intracranial pressure, but that is not the reason behind the disability
of the patient. However, focal deficits, mainly the motor ones, impair the quality
of life and autonomy of the patient which exposes the patient to thromboem-
bolic complications and eventually, leads to physical disability.
28. A 63-year-old male patient, diagnosed case of low-grade glioma, presented to
the emergency department with complaints of cognitive issues. The patient is
taking multiple medications for his tumor for the past 1-year. Which of the fol-
lowing might be the reason behind the intellectual impairment in this patient?
(a) Anti-epileptic drugs

(b) Corticosteroids
(c) NSAIDs
(d) Chemotherapy
(e) Radiotherapy
Answer: a
Recent studies found that in patients with low-grade glioma the use of anti-
epileptic drugs is the main reason behind cognitive impairments. Corticosteroids
are associated with complaints of weakness along with Cushing’s effect and
diabetes mellites. The use of NSAIDs is not associated with cognitive compli-
cations in people with brain tumors. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy are also
associated with cognitive impairments in brain tumor patients, but AEDs are the
most likely reason behind cognitive impairments in patients with low-
grade glioma.
29. A 43-year-old female patient having grade 4 glioblastoma presented to the
clinic due to worsening symptoms. The prognosis for this patient is poor. What
should be the role of a multidisciplinary brain tumor program in palliative care?
(a) To deliver a tailored understanding of the diagnosis
(b) To provide needed knowledge about the prognosis
(c) To offer information regarding the treatment options
(d) To deliver tailored education regarding the recurrence as well as end-of-
life care
(e) All of the above are correct
Answer: e
To prolong life is not the goal of palliative care at all. Quality of life should
be maintained or improved throughout the progression of the disease as much
as possible. Education about the prognosis is a part not the main role of the
multidisciplinary brain tumor program. Treating just the symptoms is not the
complete approach of a multidisciplinary program. Thus, providing knowledge
regarding the diagnosis, treatment options, prognosis, recurrence, and end-of-
life care helps in reducing the psychosocial effect in patients.
30. A corticosteroid such as dexamethasone is a commonly prescribed medication
for patients who are diagnosed with a brain tumor. What is the mechanism of
this analgesic agent?
(a) Decreases vascular permeability
(b) Offers low potency
(c) Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandin
(d) Has a short half-life
(e) Options a and c
Answer: e
236 A. Maani et al.
A corticosteroid such as dexamethasone is an effective drug in controlling

the symptoms in patients with a brain tumor. This drug is known to cause less
fluid retention and helps in reducing tissue edema by reducing vascular perme-
ability. It has a longer half-life which allows patients to take it once daily.
Lastly, it reduces inflammation as a result of inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
31. A 66-year-old female patient with a history of glioma is currently undergoing
chemotherapy. The patient was discharged from the hospital to hospice 5 days
later when she started having a strange mild cognitive change, suicidal thoughts,
and altered mental status. Which of the following options can explain this
patient’s strange behavior?
(a) Hypocalcemia
(b) Steroid psychosis
(c) Hypernatremia
(d) Hyperglycemia
(e) Vincristine encephalitis
Answer: b
Hypocalcemia can result from tumor lysis syndrome, a complication of che-
motherapy. Other options do not apply here. Therefore, the usage of high doses
of steroids such as dexamethasone can cause cognitive changes such as
psychosis.
32. A 45-year-old female presents with an ongoing onset of blurry vision and
severe headache. The patient is currently undergoing chemotherapy for ovarian
cancer. On examination, the patient appears to have bilateral papilledema.
Which of the following might help in improving the patient’s condition?
(a) Diuretics
(b) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
(c) Corticosteroids
(d) Tetracycline
Answer: c
The patient’s symptoms mostly describe a common mild visual impairment
during chemotherapy known as Carboplatin-Induced Bilateral Papilledema.
Although no treatment has been shown to be effective, in certain cases, an
empiric corticosteroid is suggested. Similarly, the patient’s condition can be
confused with idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), which occurs due to a
high pressure could be caused by CSF buildup located in the subarachnoid
space. It is common among the female gender (20–50 years old). Acetazolamide
is an example of a diuretic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor medication that
treats the symptoms caused by IIH.
33. A 57-year-old female patient with persistent glioblastoma has been transferred
to hospice care. Her daughter called to state that recently all the mother desires
to do is nap during the day as well as nights of sleep for 13–14 h up to the fol-
lowing day. What should be the next step in the management?
(a) Provide frequent position changes to maintain good skincare
(b) Continue anticonvulsants if the patient can swallow
(c) Continue steroids if the patient can swallow
(d) Position the head of the bed at 30 degrees
(e) All of the above are correct
Answer: e
Drowsiness is one of the main often-reported symptoms that glioblastoma
patients experience in their final weeks of life. Great care should be delivered to
retain skin integrity as well as prevent aspiration by positioning the head of the
bed at 30 degrees. Lastly, if the patient can swallow, anticonvulsants and ste-
roids can be used to improve the patient’s symptoms only for a short time.
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Neuro-Oncology

Your personal SN Flashcards link is provided in one of the first chapters.

ISBN 978-3-031-13252-0 ISBN 978-3-031-13253-7 (eBook)

The rapid progress of neuro-oncology and the numerous researches conducted in

Hinduja National Hospital

Juffair, Bahrain Joe M. Das

CDKN2A Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A

FOS FBJ Murine osteosarcoma viral oncogene homolog

KIAA Kazusa DNA Research Institute

NRAS Rat sarcoma virus-N

SMARCA4 SWI/SNF-related, matrix-associated, actin-dependent regula-

YTHDC2 YTH domain containing 2

1 Classification of Brain Tumors �������������������������������������������������������������� 1

13 Metastatic Brain Tumors������������������������������������������������������������������������ 133

Ebtesam Abdulla Department of Neurosurgery, Salmaniya Medical Complex,

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of a diffuse midline glioma?

© The Author(s), under exclusive license to Springer Nature 1

According to the latest WHO classification, pediatric-type diffuse gliomas have

The term “glioblastoma” is no longer used in the pediatric setting.

2. Which of the following is false with regard to IDH mutation?

IDH1 gene—located on 2q34 (cytosol); IDH2 gene—located on 15q26.1

3. A patient undergoes resection of a frontal lesion. The preoperative diagnosis

• Adult-type diffuse gliomas

The following factors in a histologically lower grade, diffuse, IDH-wildtype

4. Which of the following mutations is found in the majority of pediatric supraten-

5. Match the following mutations with their corresponding frequently associ-

(c) MYB Diffuse meningeal melanocytic tumors

6. Which of the following is true regarding TERT mutation?

7. Which of the following is the correct order of chance of survival of different

8. Which of the following histological types is not included in IDH-wild type

9. Which gene mutation is not included in triple-positive gliomas?

(c) 1p/19q codeletion

10. The MGMT gene is located in which of the following chromosomes?

12. What is the grade of diffuse hemispheric glioma?

14. What is the typical location of a myxoid glioneuronal tumor?

• Often includes a mixture of floating neurons, neurocytic rosettes, and/or peri-

16. Which of the following molecular subtypes of pineoblastoma is associated with

(a) SMARCE1 WHO grade 3

• H3K27me3 loss of nuclear expression is associated with a worse prognosis in

© The Author(s), under exclusive license to Springer Nature 13

• Penetrance is complete, but tumor development cannot be predicted in any

Ungual fibromas (≥2)

• Ataxia telangiectasia ATM (11q22)

(c) Tuberous sclerosis

• NF2 tumor suppressor gene (chromosome 22q12)

1. Billiet T, Mädler B, D'Arco F, Peeters R, Deprez S, Plasschaert E, Leemans A, Zhang H, den

1. Match the following genes with the corresponding property related to

• Other important proangiogenic factors include CXCL12 (SDF1α), HIF1α,

© The Author(s), under exclusive license to Springer Nature 25

cells create new matrix → migration and proliferation of endothelial

5. Which of the following is false regarding Bevacizumab?

6. Which of the following molecules is being tried to overcome resistance to beva-

© The Author(s), under exclusive license to Springer Nature 31

12. World Brain Tumor Day is celebrated on

D. R. Halalmeh (*) · M. D. Moisi

© The Author(s), under exclusive license to Springer Nature 37

Therefore, a variety of imaging modalities have been developed to facilitate

9. A 56-year-old man is being evaluated for a recent diagnosis of low-grade gli-

12. A 62-year-old woman with high-grade glioma is scheduled for surgery.

Juffair, Bahrain Joe M. Das

1 Classification of Brain Tumors �� 1

13 Metastatic Brain Tumors�� 133

• Adult-type diffuse gliomas

• Often includes a mixture of floating neurons, neurocytic rosettes, and/or peri-

• H3K27me3 loss of nuclear expression is associated with a worse prognosis in

• Penetrance is complete, but tumor development cannot be predicted in any

• Other important proangiogenic factors include CXCL12 (SDF1α), HIF1α,

electrical stimulation and mapping, particularly for language function.

• Ipilimumab—a monoclonal antibody inhibitor for cytotoxic T-lymphocyte–

14. Indolamine 2,3-dioxygenase 1 (IDO) which is known to suppress the anti-