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GATE Civil Engineering Old Papers - Extract - Extract

GATE Civil Engineering old papers with solutions from the years 2012 to 2021.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

555 views402 pages

GATE Civil Engineering Old Papers - Extract - Extract

GATE Civil Engineering old papers with solutions from the years 2012 to 2021.

Uploaded by

vimal bhojani

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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GATE Civil Engineering

Old Papers With
Solution
(From 2013 to 2022)
This Book is prepared for the students of Civil Engineering. This book is also useful for the students
who are preparing for GATE Civil Engineering Exam.

This book is proudly prepared by –

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2013 CIVIL ENGINEERING - CE

CE:CIVIL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100

Please read the following instructions carefully:

General Instructions:

1. Total duration of examination is 180 minutes (3 hours).

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display
the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the
examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.

3. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using
one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the
question for review.

You have answered the question, but marked it for review.

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that
question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question
will be considered in the evaluation.

Navigating to a Question

4. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question. Use the virtual numeric keypad to enter
a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save and Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next
question.
d. Click on Mark for Review and Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it
for review, and then go to the next question.
e. Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you
navigate to another question directly by clicking on its question number.

5. You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. Note that the options for
multiple choice type questions will not be shown.

CE 1/16

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Answering a Question

6. Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:

a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the
Clear Response button
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Next button. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered
in the evaluation.

7. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad
b. A fraction (eg.,-0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without ‘0’ before the decimal
point
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Next button. If an
answer is entered for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered
in the evaluation.

8. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for
answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

9. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be
considered for evaluation.

CE 2/16

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Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

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Q. 1 – Q. 25carries one mark each.
Q.1 There is no value of x that can simultaneously satisfy both the given equations.Therefore, find the
‘least squares error’ solution to the two equations, i.e., find the value of that minimizes the sum of
squares of the errors in the two equations. __________

2 3
4 1

Q.2 What is the minimum number of multiplications involved in computing the matrix product PQR?
Matrix has 4 rows and 2 columns, matrix has 2 rows and 4 columns, and matrix has 4 rows and
1 column. __________

Q.3 A 1-h rainfall of 10 cm magnitude at a station has a return period of 50 years. The probability that
a 1-h rainfall of magnitude 10 cm or more will occur in each oftwo successive years is:
(A) 0.04 (B) 0.2 (C)0.02 (D) 0.0004

Q.4 Maximum possible value of Compacting Factor for fresh (green) concrete is:
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0

Q.5 As per IS 800:2007, the cross-section in which the extreme fiber can reach the yield stress, but
cannot develop the plastic moment of resistance due to failure by local buckling is classified as

(A) plastic section (B) compact section

Q.6 The creep strains are

(A) caused due to dead loads only
(B) caused due to live loads only
(C) caused due to cyclic loads only
(D) independent of loads

Q.7 As per IS 456:2000 for M20 grade concrete and plain barsin tension the design bond stress
1.2 .Further, IS 456:2000 permits this design bond stress value to be increased by 60 %
for HSD bars. The stress in theHSDreinforcing steel barsin tension, 360 . Find the
required development length, , for HSD barsin terms of the bar diameter, . __________

Q.8 The ‘plane section remains plane’ assumption in bending theory implies:
(A) strain profile is linear
(B) stress profile is linear
(C) both strain and stress profiles are linear
(D)shear deformations are neglected

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Q.9 Two steel columns P (length and yield strength 250 ) and Q (length 2 and yield
strength 500 ) have the same cross-sections and end-conditions. The ratio of buckling
load of column P to that of column Q is:
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 4.0

Q.10 The pin-jointed 2-D truss is loaded with a horizontal force of 15 at joint S and another 15
vertical force at joint U, as shown.Find the force in member RS (in ) and report your answer
taking tension as positive and compression as negative. __________

4m 4m 4m

R S
15

Q V U T

4m
15
W

Q.11 A symmetric I-section (with width of each flange 50 , thickness of each flange 10 ,
depth of web = 100 mm, and thickness of web 10 ) of steel is subjected to a shear force of
100 . Find the magnitude of the shear stress(in / in the web at its junction with the top
flange. __________

Q.12 In its natural condition, a soil sample has a mass of 1.980 and a volume of0.001 . After
being completely dried in an oven, the mass of the sample is 1.800 .Specific gravity is 2.7.
Unit weight of water is 10 / . The degree of saturation of the soil is:

(A) 0.65 (B) 0.70 (C) 0.54 (D) 0.61

Q.13 The ratio Nf/Nd is known as shape factor, where Nf is the number of flow lines and Nd is the
number of equipotential drops. Flow net is always drawn with a constant b/a ratio, where b and a
are distances between two consecutive flow lines and equipotential lines, respectively. Assuming
that b/a ratio remains the same, the shape factor of aflow net will change if the

(A) upstream and downstream heads are interchanged

(B) soil in the flow space is changed
(C) dimensions of the flow space are changed
(D) head difference causing the flow is changed

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Q.14 Following statementsare made on compacted soils, wherein DS stands forthe soils compacted on
dry side of optimum moisture content and WS stands for thesoils compacted on wet side of
optimum moisture content. Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) Soil structure is flocculated onDS and dispersed on WS.
(B) Construction pore water pressure is low on DS and high on WS.
(C)On drying, shrinkage is high on DS and low on WS.
(D)On access to water, swelling is high on DS and low on WS.

Q.15 Four columns of a building are to be located within a plot size of 10 m x 10 m. The expected load
on each column is 4000 kN. Allowable bearing capacity of the soil deposit is 100 kN/m2. The type
of foundation best suited is
(A) isolated footing (B) raft foundation
(C) pile foundation (D)combined footing

Q.16 For subcritical flow in an open channel, the control section for gradually varied flow profiles is
(A) at the downstream end (B) at the upstream end
(C) at both upstream and downstream ends (D) at any intermediate section

Q.17 Group-I contains dimensionless parameters and Group- II contains the ratios.

Group-I Group -II

P. Mach Number 1. Ratio of inertial force and gravitational force
Q. Reynolds Number 2. Ratio of fluid velocity and velocity of sound
R. Weber Number 3. Ratio of inertial force and viscous force
S. Froude Number 4. Ratio of inertial force and surface tension force

The correct match of dimensionless parameters in Group- I with ratios in Group-II is:

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

Q.18
For a two dimensional flow field, the stream function  is given as  
3 2
2

y  x 2 . The
magnitude of discharge occurring between the stream lines passing through points (0,3) and (3,4)
is:
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 1.5 (D) 2

Q.19 An isohyet is a line joining points of

(A) equal temperature (B) equal humidity
(C) equal rainfall depth (D) equal evaporation

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Q.20 Some of the water quality parameters are measured by titrating a water sample with a titrant.
Group-I gives a list of parameters and Group-IIgives the list of titrants.

Group-I Group-II

P.Alkalinity 1. N/35.5 AgNO3

Q. Hardness 2. N/40 Na2S2O3
R. Chloride 3. N/50 H2SO4
S. Dissolved oxygen 4. N/50 EDTA

The correct match of water quality parameters in Group-I with titrants in Group-II is:
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B)P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C)P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.21 A water treatment plant is designed to treat 1 m3/s of raw water. It has 14 sand filters. Surface area
of each filter is 50 m2. What is the loading rate (in ) with two filters out of service for routine
∙
backwashing? __________

Q.22 Selectthe strength parameter of concrete usedindesign of plain jointed cement concrete pavements
from the following choices:

(A) Tensile strength

(B) Compressive strength
(C) Flexural strength
(D) Shear strength

Q.23 It was observed that 150 vehicles crossed a particular location of a highway ina duration of 30
minutes. Assuming that vehicle arrival follows a negative exponential distribution, find out the
number of time headways greater than 5 seconds in the above observation? __________

Q.24 For two major roads with divided carriageway crossing at right angle,a full clover leaf interchange
with four indirect ramps is provided. Following statements are made on turning movements of
vehiclesto all directions from both roads. Identify the correct statement:

(A) Merging from left is possible,butdiverging to left is notpossible.

(B) Both merging from left and diverging to left arepossible.
(C) Merging from left is not possible,butdiverging to left is possible.
(D) Neithermergingfrom left nordivergingto leftispossible.

Q.25 The latitude and departure of a line AB are +78 m and -45.1 m, respectively. The whole circle
bearing of the line AB is:

(A) 30° (B) 150° (C) 210° (D) 330°

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Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The state of 2D-stress at a point is given by the following matrix of stresses:

100 30
30 20

What is the magnitude of maximum shear stressin MPa?

(A) 50 (B) 75 (C) 100 (D) 110

Q.27 Find the magnitude of the error (correct to two decimal places) in the estimation of following
1
integral using Simpson’s Rule. Take the step length as 1. __________
3
4

 x 
 10 dx
4

Q.28  6

 cos 3 sin 3 6 d is:

4
The solution for
0

1 8
(A) 0 (B) (C) 1 (D)
15 3

Q.29 Find the value of λ such that the function f (x ) is a valid probability density function. __________

f ( x)   ( x  1)(2  x) for 1  x  2
0 otherwise

Q.30 Laplace equation for water flow in soils is given below.

2H 2H 2H

  0
x 2 y 2 z 2

Head H does not vary in y and z directions.

dH
Boundary conditions are: at x = 0, H = 5;and  1 .
dx

What is the value of H at x = 1.2? __________

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Q.31 All members in the rigid-jointed frame shown are prismatic and have the same flexural stiffness .
Find the magnitude of the bending moment at Q (in ) due to the given loading. __________

3m 4m

P T R

100 kNm
2m

Q.32 A uniform beam in the form of a quarter-circle of radius is fixed at end

and free at the end , where a load is applied as shown. The vertical downward displacement,
, at the loaded point is given by: . Find the value of (correct to 4-decimal
places). __________
Q

W
R
P

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E
Q.33 A uniform
u m weighing 1800
beam 1 is suupported at E and F by cable ABCD. Determine the tension
(in in segmeent AB of thiis cable (corrrect to 1-deccimal place). Assume thee cables ABC
CD, BE and
CF to be weightless. ___________

Q.34 Beaam haas internal hiinges in spanns and as shownn. The beammmay be sub bjected to a
moving distribuuted verticall load of maaximum intensity 4 ⁄ of any leength anywh here on the
beaam. The maaximum absoolute value of o the shear force
f (in ) that can occcur due to this
t loading
justt to the right of support Q shall be:

P Q R S

5m 5m 20 m 5m 5m

(A
A) 30 (B
B) 40 (C) 45 ((D) 55

Q.35 A rectangular
r c
concrete beamm 250 w
wide and 600 deep is pre-stresseed by meanss of 16 high
tensile wires, each
e of 7 mm m diameter, located at200 fromm the bottom m face of th he beamat a
givven section. If the effective pre-streess in the wires is700 , what is the maximu um sagging
bennding momennt (in ) (correct to 1-decimal
1 plaace) due to live
l loadthat this sectiono
of the beam
cann withstand without
w caussing tensile stress
s at the bottom face of the beam m? Neglect th he effect of
deaad load of beam. ___________

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Q.36 The soil profile below a lake with water level at elevation 0 m and lake bottom at elevation
10 m is shown in the figure, where k is the permeability coefficient. A piezometer (stand pipe)
installed in the sand layer shows a reading of +10 m elevation. Assume that thepiezometric headis
uniform in the sand layer. The quantity of water (in m3/s) flowing into the lake from the sand layer
through the silt layer per unit area of the lake bed is:

Stand pipe
+10

0
Lake Lake bottom
-10

Silt (k = 10-6 m/s)

-30
Sand
(under artesian pressure)
-40
Rock

(A) 1.5 x 10-6 (B) 2.0 x 10-6

Q.37 The soil profile above the rock surface for a 25oinfinite slope is shown in the figure, where su is the
undrained shear strength and t is total unit weight. The slip will occur at a depth of

(A) 8.83 m (B) 9.79 m (C) 7.83 m (D) 6.53 m

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Q.38 Two different soil types (Soil 1 and Soil 2) are used as backfill behind a retaining wall as shown in
the figure, where t is total unit weight, and c' and ' are effective cohesion and effective angle of
shearing resistance. The resultant active earth forceper unit length (in kN/m) acting on the wall is:

Retaining wall

Soil 1:
2 m t = 15 kN/m3; c' = 0; ' = 30o

Soil 2:
2 m t = 20 kN/m3; c' = 0; ' = 40o

(A) 31.7 (B) 35.2 (C) 51.8 (D) 57.0

Q.39 A 2 km long pipe of 0.2 m diameter connects two reservoirs. The difference between water levels
in the reservoirs is 8 m. The Darcy-Weisbachfriction factor of the pipe is 0.04. Accounting for
frictional, entry and exit losses, the velocity in the pipe (in m/s) is:
(A) 0.63 (B)0.35 (C) 2.52 (D) 1.25

Q.40 The normal depth in a wide rectangular channel is increased by 10%. The percentage increase in
the discharge in the channel is:
(A) 20.1 (B) 15.4 (C) 10.5 (D) 17.2

Q.41 The transplantation of rice requires 10 days and total depth of water required during transplantation
is 48 cm. During transplantation, there is an effective rainfall (useful for irrigation) of 8 cm. The
duty of irrigation water (in hectares/cumec) is:
(A) 612 (B) 216 (C)300 (D) 108

Q.42 A settling tank in a water treatment plant is designed for a surface overflow rate of30 .
∙
Assumespecific gravity of sedimentparticles = 2.65, density of water (ρ) = 1000 kg/m3, dynamic
viscosity of water (µ)=0.001 N.s/m2,and Stokes’ lawisvalid.The approximate minimum size of
particles that would be completely removed is:

(A) 0.01mm (B) 0.02 mm(C) 0.03 mm(D) 0.04 mm

Q.43 A student began experiment for determination of 5-day, 20°C BOD on Monday. Since the 5thday
fell on Saturday, the final DO readings were taken on next Monday. On calculation, BOD (i.e. 7
day, 20°C) was found to be 150 mg/L. What would be the5-day, 20°C BOD (in mg/L)? Assume
value of BOD rate constant (k) at standard temperature of 20°C as 0.23/day (base e). __________

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Q.44 Elevation and temperature data for a place are tabulated below:

Elevation, m Temperature, °C
4 21.25
444 15.70

Based on the above data, lapse rate can be referred as:

(A) Super-adiabatic (B) Neutral (C) Sub-adiabatic (D) Inversion

Q.45 The percent voids in mineral aggregate (VMA) and percent air voids (Vv) in a compacted
cylindrical bituminous mix specimen are 15 and 4.5respectively. The percent voids filled with
bitumen (VFB) for this specimen is:

(A) 24 (B) 30 (C) 54 (D) 70

Q.46 Following bearings are observed while traversing with a compass.

Line Fore Bearing Back Bearing

AB 126°45´ 308°00´
BC 49°15´ 227°30´
CD 340°30´ 161°45´
DE 258°30´ 78°30´
EA 212°30´ 31°45´

After applying the correction due to local attraction, the corrected fore bearing of line BC will be:

(A) 48°15´ (B)50°15´ (C) 49°45´ (D) 48°45´

Q.47 A theodolite is set up at station A and a 3 m long staff is held vertically at station B. The depression
angle reading at 2.5 m marking on the staffis 6°10´. The horizontal distance between A and B is
2200 m. Height of instrument at station A is 1.1 m and R.L. of A is 880.88 m.Apply the curvature
and refraction correction, and determine the R.L. of B (in m). __________

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A propped cantilever made of a prismatic steel beam is subjected to a concentrated load P at mid span as
shown. P

1.5m 1.5m

Q.48 If load 80 ,find the reaction (in ) (correct to 1-decimal place)using elastic analysis.
__________

Q.49 If the magnitude of load is increased till collapse and the plastic moment carrying capacity of steel
beam section is 90 , determine reaction (in )(correct to 1-decimal place) using plastic
analysis. __________

CE 13/16

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Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

For a portion of national highway where a descending gradient of 1 in 25 meets with an ascending gradient
of 1 in 20, a valley curve needs to be designed for a vehicle travelling at 90 kmphbased on the following
conditions.

(i) headlight sight distance equalto the stopping sight distance (SSD) of a level terrain
consideringlength of valley curve> SSD.
(ii) comfort condition with allowablerate of change of centrifugal acceleration = 0.5 m/sec3.

Assume total reaction time = 2.5 seconds; coefficient of longitudinal friction of the pavement= 0.35; height
of head light of the vehicle =0.75 m; andbeam angle = 1°.

Q.50 What is the length of valley curve (in m) based on the head light sight distance condition?
__________

Q.51 What is the length of valley curve (in m)based on the comfort condition? __________

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

A multistory building with a basement is to be constructed. The top 4 m consists of loose silt, below which
dense sand layer is present up to a great depth. Ground water table is at the surface. The foundation consists
of the basement slab of 6 m width which will rest on the top of dense sand as shown in the figure. For
dense sand, saturated unit weight = 20kN/m3, and bearing capacity factors Nq = 40 and N = 45. For loose
silt, saturated unit weight = 18kN/m3, Nq = 15 and N = 20.Effective cohesion c' is zero for both soils.Unit
weight of water is 10 kN/m3. Neglect shape factor and depth factor.

Average elastic modulus E and Poisson’s ratio  of dense sand is 60 x 103kN/m2 and 0.3 respectively.

Ground surface

Loose silt Loose silt

Basement
4 m
Foundation slab

6 m
Dense sand

Q.52 Using factor of safety = 3, the net safe bearing capacity (in kN/m2) of the foundation is:

(A) 610 (B) 320 (C) 983 (D) 693

Q.53 The foundation slab is subjected to vertical downward stresses equal to net safe bearing capacity
derived in the above question. Using influence factor If = 2.0, and neglecting embedment depth and
rigidity corrections, the immediate settlement of the dense sand layer will be:
(A) 58 mm (B) 111 mm (C) 126 mm (D) 179 mm

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Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

At a station, Storm I of 5 hour duration with intensity 2 cm/h resulted in a runoff of 4 cm and Storm II of 8
hour duration resulted in a runoff of 8.4 cm. Assume that the ϕ-index is the same for both the storms.
Q.54 The ϕ-index (in cm/h) is:

(A)1.2 (B)1.0 (C)1.6 (D) 1.4

Q.55 The intensity of storm II (in cm/h) is:

(A) 2.00 (B)1.75 (C)1.50 (D)2.25

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is:
(A) 91 (B) 93 (C) 89 (D) 96

Q.57 The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class.

I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.58 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:

Primeval
(A) Modern (B) Historic
(C) Primitive (D) Antique

Q.59 Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations.

(A) cordial

(B) intimate

(D) pleasant

Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
Medicine: Health
(A) Science: Experiment (B) Wealth: Peace
(C) Education: Knowledge (D) Money: Happiness

CE 15/16

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2013 CIVIL ENGINEERING - CE
Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.
Q.61 X and Y are two positive real numbers such that 2 6 and 2 8. For which of the
following values of , the function , 3 6 will give maximum value?
(A) (4/3, 10/3)

(B) (8/3, 20/3)

(C) (8/3, 10/3)

(D) (4/3, 20/3)

Q.62 If |4 7| 5 then the values of 2 | | | | is:

(A) 2, 1/3 (B) 1/2, 3 (C) 3/2, 9 (D) 2/3, 9

Q.63 Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010
and 2011.

Category 2010 2011

Raw material 5200 6240
Power & fuel 7000 9450
Salary & wages 9000 12600
Plant & machinery 20000 25000
Advertising 15000 19500
Research & Development 22000 26400

In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?
(A) Raw material and Salary & wages
(B) Salary & wages and Advertising
(C) Power & fuel and Advertising
(D) Raw material and Research & Development

Q.64 A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is
earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price
should be increased to maintained the same profit level.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 30

Q.65 Abhishek is elder to Savar.

Savar is younger to Anshul.

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above
statements?
(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul
(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek
(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age
(D) No conclusion follows

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

CE 16/16

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SESSION - 1

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GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.

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Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.

11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.

Choosing a Section :

13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will

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only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.

Changing the Optional Section :

18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.

19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section?” If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.

20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.

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GATE 2014 Examination

CE: Civil Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.

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GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength

14
Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.

Q.4
20
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1
(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of −1

Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
E
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?
AT

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK
G

Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal

(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4
(B) 2 6 5 1 3 4
(C) 4 2 6 3 1 5
(D) 2 4 6 1 3 5

GA 1/2

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GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA
Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25

Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)

14
20
E
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
AT

(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
G

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 2/2

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GATE 2014 SET-1 CIVIL – CE

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1  x + sin x 
Lim  equals to
x →∞  x 

(A) − ∞ (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) ∞

Q.2 3 2 1  1
Given the matrices J = 2 4 2 and K =  2  , the product K T JK is ___________
 
1 2 6 − 1

)
14
Q.3 The probability density function of evaporation E on any day during a year in a watershed is given
by

1
0 ≤ E ≤ 5 mm/day

20

f (E) = 5
0 otherwise

The probability that E lies in between 2 and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed is (in decimal)
_____________
E
AT
Q.4 The sum of Eigen values of the matrix, [M] is

215 650 795

where [M ] = 655 150 835
(G

485 355 550

(A) 915 (B) 1355 (C) 1640 (D) 2180

Q.5 With reference to the conventional Cartesian (x, y) coordinate system, the vertices of a triangle
have the following coordinates: (x1, y1) = (1, 0); (x2, y2) = (2, 2); and (x3, y3) = (4, 3). The area of
the triangle is equal to
C

3 3 4 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 5 2

CE 1/13

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Q.6 Match the information given in Group – I with those in Group - II.

Group – I Group – II
P Factor to decrease ultimate strength to 1 Upper bound on ultimate load
design strength
Q Factor to increase working load to 2 Lower bound on ultimate load
ultimate load for design
R Statical method of ultimate load 3 Material partial safety factor
analysis

)
S Kinematical mechanism method of 4 Load factor
ultimate load analysis

14
(A) P - 1; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 4 (B) P - 2; Q - 1; R - 4; S - 3
(C) P - 3; Q - 4; R - 2; S - 1 (D) P - 4; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 1

20
Q.7 The possible location of shear centre of the channel section, shown below, is
E
P Q R S
AT

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.8 The ultimate collapse load (P) in terms of plastic moment Mp by kinematic approach for a propped
cantilever of length L with P acting at its mid-span as shown in the figure, would be
E1

X Y
L L
2 2
C

2M p 4M p 6M p 8M p
(A) P = (B) P = (C) P = (D) P =
L L L L

Q.9 While designing, for a steel column of Fe250 grade, a base plate resting on a concrete pedestal of
M20 grade, the bearing strength of concrete (in N/mm2) in limit state method of design as per
IS:456-2000 is ________________

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Q.10 A steel section is subjected to a combination of shear and bending actions. The applied shear force
is V and the shear capacity of the section is Vs. For such a section, high shear force (as per IS:800-
2007) is defined as

(A) V > 0.6Vs (B) V > 0.7Vs (C) V > 0.8Vs (D) V > 0.9Vs

Q.11 The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid jointed frame PQR supported as shown in the figure is

)
y

14
Cable

45°
R

20
EI

90°
x
Q EI P
E
(A) zero (B) one (C) two (D) unstable
AT

Q.12 In a beam of length L, four possible influence line diagrams for shear force at a section located at a
L
distance of from the left end support (marked as P, Q, R and S) are shown below. The correct
4
(G

influence line diagram is

0.75 1.0
0.6 0.5
E1

0.25
0.6 0.5
L 3L L 3L L 3L L 3L
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
C

P Q R S

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.13 The degree of disturbance of the sample collected by the sampler is expressed by a term called the
"area ratio". If the outer diameter and inner diameter of the sampler are Do and Di respectively, the
area ratio is given by

𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 −𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 −𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 −𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 −𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2

CE 3/13

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Q.14 For a saturated cohesive soil, a triaxial test yields the angle of internal friction (φ) as zero. The
conducted test is

(A) Consolidated Drained (CD) test (B) Consolidated Undrained (CU) test
(C) Unconfined Compression (UC) test (D) Unconsolidated Undrained (UU) test

Q.15 The action of negative skin friction on the pile is to

(A) increase the ultimate load on the pile

(B) reduce the allowable load on the pile

)
(C) maintain the working load on the pile

14
(D) reduce the settlement of the pile

Q.16 A long slope is formed in a soil with shear strength parameters: c' = 0 and φ' = 34°. A firm stratum

20
lies below the slope and it is assumed that the water table may occasionally rise to the surface, with
seepage taking place parallel to the slope. Use γsat = 18 kN/m3 and γw = 10 kN/m3. The maximum
slope angle (in degrees) to ensure a factor of safety of 1.5, assuming a potential failure surface
parallel to the slope, would be
E
(A) 45.3 (B) 44.7 (C) 12.3 (D) 11.3
AT

Q.17 An incompressible homogeneous fluid is flowing steadily in a variable diameter pipe having the
large and small diameters as 15 cm and 5 cm, respectively. If the velocity at a section at the 15 cm
diameter portion of the pipe is 2.5 m/s, the velocity of the fluid (in m/s) at a section falling in 5 cm
portion of the pipe is ___________
(G

Q.18 A conventional flow duration curve is a plot between

(A) Flow and percentage time flow is exceeded

(B) Duration of flooding and ground level elevation

(C) Duration of water supply in a city and proportion of area receiving supply exceeding this
duration
(D) Flow rate and duration of time taken to empty a reservoir at that flow rate
C

Q.19 In reservoirs with an uncontrolled spillway, the peak of the plotted outflow hydrograph

(A) lies outside the plotted inflow hydrograph

(B) lies on the recession limb of the plotted inflow hydrograph
(C) lies on the peak of the inflow hydrograph
(D) is higher than the peak of the plotted inflow hydrograph

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Q.20 The dimension for kinematic viscosity is

(A)
L
(B)
L L2 (D)
ML
(C)
MT T2 T T

Q.21 Some of the nontoxic metals normally found in natural water are

(A) arsenic, lead and mercury (B) calcium, sodium and silver
(C) cadmium, chromium and copper (D) iron, manganese and magnesium

)
14
Q.22 The amount of CO2 generated (in kg) while completely oxidizing one kg of CH4 to the end products
is ____________

20
Q.23 The minimum value of 15 minute peak hour factor on a section of a road is

(A) 0.10 (B) 0.20 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.33

Q.24 The following statements are related to temperature stresses developed in concrete pavement slabs
E
with free edges (without any restraint):
AT

P. The temperature stresses will be zero during both day and night times if the pavement slab
is considered weightless
Q. The temperature stresses will be compressive at the bottom of the slab during night time if
the self-weight of the pavement slab is considered
(G

R. The temperature stresses will be compressive at the bottom of the slab during day time if
the self-weight of the pavement slab is considered

The TRUE statement(s) is(are)

(A) P only (B) Q only (C) P and Q only (D) P and R only
C

Q.25 The Reduced Levels (RLs) of the points P and Q are +49.600 m and +51.870 m respectively.
Distance PQ is 20 m. The distance (in m from P) at which the +51.000 m contour cuts the line PQ
is

(A) 15.00 (B) 12.33 (C) 3.52 (D) 2.27

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Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 If the following equation establishes equilibrium in slightly bent position, the mid-span deflection
of a member shown in the figure is

d2y P
+ y=0
dx 2 EI
y

EI x
P y P

)
M L N

14
If a is amplitude constant for y, then

1 2πx  1 2πx 

20
(A) y = 1 − a cos  (B) y = 1 − a sin 
P L  P L 

nπx nπx
(C) y = a sin (D) y = a cos
L L
E
Q.27 A box of weight 100 kN shown in the figure is to be lifted without swinging. If all forces are
AT
coplanar, the magnitude and direction (θ) of the force (F) with respect to x-axis should be

y
40 kN
(G

90 kN
45° F
30° θ
x
100 kN
E1

(A) F = 56.389 kN and θ = 28.28° (B) F = −56.389 kN and θ = −28.28°

Q.28 A particle moves along a curve whose parametric equations are: x = t 3 + 2t , y = −3e −2t and
z = 2 sin (5t ), where x, y and z show variations of the distance covered by the particle (in cm)
with time t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle (in cm/s2) at t = 0 is ________

Q.29 A traffic office imposes on an average 5 number of penalties daily on traffic violators. Assume that
the number of penalties on different days is independent and follows a Poisson distribution. The
probability that there will be less than 4 penalties in a day is ___________

CE 6/13

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Q.30 Mathematical idealization of a crane has three bars with their vertices arranged as shown in the
figure with a load of 80 kN hanging vertically. The coordinates of the vertices are given in
parentheses. The force in the member QR, FQR will be

P (0, 4)
22.84°

80 kN
y

)
14
x 104.03° 53.13°

Q (1, 0) R (3, 0)

20
(A) 30 kN Compressive (B) 30 kN Tensile
(C) 50 kN Compressive (D) 50 kN Tensile
E
Q.31 For the cantilever beam of span 3 m (shown below), a concentrated load of 20 kN applied at the
free end causes a vertical displacement of 2 mm at a section located at a distance of 1 m from the
fixed end. If a concentrated vertically downward load of 10 kN is applied at the section located at a
AT

distance of 1 m from the fixed end (with no other load on the beam), the maximum vertical
displacement in the same beam (in mm) is __________

20 kN
2 mm
(G

1m 2m
E1

Q.32 For the truss shown below, the member PQ is short by 3 mm. The magnitude of vertical
displacement of joint R (in mm) is _______________
C

3m
P Q

4m 4m

CE 7/13

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Q.33 A rectangular beam of width (b) 230 mm and effective depth (d) 450 mm is reinforced with four
bars of 12 mm diameter. The grade of concrete is M20 and grade of steel is Fe500. Given that for
M20 grade of concrete the ultimate shear strength, τuc = 0.36 N/mm2 for steel percentage, p = 0.25,
and τuc = 0.48 N/mm2 for p = 0.50. For a factored shear force of 45 kN, the diameter (in mm) of
Fe500 steel two legged stirrups to be used at spacing of 375 mm, should be

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 16

Q.34 The tension and shear force (both in kN) in each bolt of the joint, as shown below, respectively are

)
14
4

20
3
5
Pu = 250 kN
E
(A) 30.33 and 20.00 (B) 30.33 and 25.00
(C) 33.33 and 20.00 (D) 33.33 and 25.00
AT

Q.35 For a beam of cross-section, width = 230 mm and effective depth = 500 mm, the number of rebars
of 12 mm diameter required to satisfy minimum tension reinforcement requirement specified by
IS:456-2000 (assuming grade of steel reinforcement as Fe500) is _____________
(G

Q.36 In a reinforced concrete section, the stress at the extreme fibre in compression is 5.80 MPa. The
depth of neutral axis in the section is 58 mm and the grade of concrete is M25. Assuming linear
elastic behavior of the concrete, the effective curvature of the section (in per mm) is
E1

(A) 2.0×10−6 (B) 3.0×10−6 (C) 4.0×10−6 (D) 5.0×10−6

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Q.37 Group I contains representative load-settlement curves for different modes of bearing capacity
failures of sandy soil. Group II enlists the various failure characteristics. Match the load-settlement
curves with the corresponding failure characteristics.

Load

J K L

Settlement

)
Group I Group II

14
P. Curve J 1. No apparent heaving of soil around the footing
Q. Curve K 2. Rankine’s passive zone develops imperfectly
R. Curve L 3. Well defined slip surface extends to ground surface

20
(A) P - 1, Q - 3, R - 2 (B) P - 3, Q - 2, R - 1
(C) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2 (D) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3
E
Q.38 A given cohesionless soil has emax = 0.85 and emin = 0.50. In the field, the soil is compacted to a
mass density of 1800 kg/m3 at a water content of 8%. Take the mass density of water as
AT
1000 kg/m3 and Gs as 2.7. The relative density (in %) of the soil is

(A) 56.43 (B) 60.25 (C) 62.87 (D) 65.71

Q.39 The following data are given for the laboratory sample.

σo' = 175 kPa ; eo = 1.1 ; σo' + Δσo' = 300 kPa ; e = 0.9

If thickness of the clay specimen is 25 mm, the value of coefficient of volume compressibility is
___________ ×10˗4 m2/kN
C

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Q.40 The flow net constructed for the dam is shown in the figure below. Taking the coefficient of
permeability as 3.8×10−6 m/s, the quantity of flow (in cm3/s) under the dam per meter of dam is
______________

)
14
Q.41

20
A horizontal jet of water with its cross-sectional area of 0.0028 m2 hits a fixed vertical plate with a
velocity of 5 m/s. After impact the jet splits symmetrically in a plane parallel to the plane of the
E
plate. The force of impact (in N) of the jet on the plate is

(A) 90 (B) 80 (C) 70 (D) 60

Q.42 A venturimeter, having a diameter of 7.5 cm at the throat and 15 cm at the enlarged end, is installed
in a horizontal pipeline of 15 cm diameter. The pipe carries an incompressible fluid at a steady rate
of 30 litres per second. The difference of pressure head measured in terms of the moving fluid in
(G

between the enlarged and the throat of the venturimeter is observed to be 2.45 m. Taking the
acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the coefficient of discharge of the venturimeter (correct up
to two places of decimal) is ______________
E1

Q.43 A rectangular channel having a bed slope of 0.0001, width 3.0 m and Manning’s coefficient ‘n’
0.015, carries a discharge of 1.0 m3/s. Given that the normal depth of flow ranges between 0.76 m
and 0.8 m. The minimum width of a throat (in m) that is possible at a given section, while ensuring
that the prevailing normal depth is not exceeded along the reach upstream of the contraction, is
approximately equal to (assume negligible losses)
C

(A) 0.64 (B) 0.84 (C) 1.04 (D) 1.24

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Q.44 Three rigid buckets, shown as in the figures (1), (2) and (3), are of identical heights and base areas.
Further, assume that each of these buckets have negligible mass and are full of water. The weights
of water in these buckets are denoted as W1, W2, and W3 respectively. Also, let the force of water
on the base of the bucket be denoted as F1, F2, and F3 respectively. The option giving an accurate
description of the system physics is

)
14
(1) (2) (3)

(A) W2 = W1 = W3 and F2 > F1 > F3

20
(B) W2 > W1 > W3 and F2 > F1 > F3
(C) W2 = W1 = W3 and F1 = F2 = F3
(D) W2 > W1 > W3 and F1 = F2 = F3
E
Q.45 An incompressible fluid is flowing at a steady rate in a horizontal pipe. From a section, the pipe
AT
divides into two horizontal parallel pipes of diameters d1 and d2 (where d1 = 4d2) that run for a
distance of L each and then again join back to a pipe of the original size. For both the parallel pipes,
assume the head loss due to friction only and the Darcy-Weisbach friction factor to be the same.
The velocity ratio between the bigger and the smaller branched pipes is _________
(G

Q.46 16 MLD of water is flowing through a 2.5 km long pipe of diameter 45 cm. The chlorine at the rate
of 32 kg/d is applied at the entry of this pipe so that disinfected water is obtained at the exit. There
is a proposal to increase the flow through this pipe to 22 MLD from 16 MLD. Assume the dilution
coefficient, n = 1. The minimum amount of chlorine (in kg per day) to be applied to achieve the
E1

same degree of disinfection for the enhanced flow is

(A) 60.50 (B) 44.00 (C) 38.00 (D) 23.27

Q.47 The potable water is prepared from turbid surface water by adopting the following treatment
sequence.

(A) Turbid surface water → Coagulation → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Filtration →

Disinfection → Storage & Supply
(B) Turbid surface water → Disinfection → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Filtration →
Coagulation → Storage & Supply
(C) Turbid surface water → Filtration → Sedimentation → Disinfection → Flocculation →
Coagulation → Storage & Supply
(D) Turbid surface water → Sedimentation → Flocculation → Coagulation → Disinfection →
Filtration → Storage & Supply

CE 11/13

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Q.48 For a sample of water with the ionic composition shown in the figure below, the carbonate and non-
carbonate hardness concentrations (in mg/l as CaCO3), respectively are:

meq/l 0 4 5 7

Ca2+ Mg2+ Na+

HCO3– SO42–

meq/l 0 3.5 7

)
(A) 200 and 50 (B) 175 and 75

14
(C) 75 and 175 (D) 50 and 200

Q.49 A straight 100 m long raw water gravity main is to carry water from an intake structure to the jack

20
well of a water treatment plant. The required flow through this water main is 0.21 m3/s. Allowable
velocity through the main is 0.75 m/s. Assume f = 0.01, g = 9.81 m/s2. The minimum gradient (in
cm/100 m length) to be given to this gravity main so that the required amount of water flows
without any difficulty is ___________
E
Q.50 A traffic survey conducted on a road yields an average daily traffic count of 5000 vehicles. The
axle load distribution on the same road is given in the following table:
AT

Axle load (tonnes) Frequency of traffic (%)

18 10
(G

14 20
10 35
8 15
6 20
E1

The design period of the road is 15 years, the yearly traffic growth rate is 7.5% and the load safety
factor (LSF) is 1.3. If the vehicle damage factor (VDF) is calculated from the above data, the design
C

traffic (in million standard axle load, MSA) is ____________

Q.51 The perception-reaction time for a vehicle travelling at 90 km/h, given the coefficient of
longitudinal friction of 0.35 and the stopping sight distance of 170 m (assume g = 9.81 m/s2), is
_____________ seconds.

Q.52 The speed-density (u−k) relationship on a single lane road with unidirectional flow is
u = 70 − 0.7 k , where u is in km/hr and k is in veh/km. The capacity of the road (in veh/hr) is
___________

CE 12/13

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Q.53 An isolated three-phase traffic signal is designed by Webster's method. The critical flow ratios for
three phases are 0.20, 0.30, and 0.25 respectively, and lost time per phase is 4 seconds. The
optimum cycle length (in seconds) is ___________

Q.54 A levelling is carried out to establish the Reduced Levels (RL) of point R with respect to the Bench
Mark (BM) at P. The staff readings taken are given below.

Staff
BS IS FS RL
Station

)
P 1.655 m 100.000 m

14
Q -0.950 m -1.500 m
R 0.750 m ?

20
If RL of P is +100.000 m, then RL (in m) of R is

(A) 103.355 (B) 103.155 (C) 101.455 (D) 100.355

E
Q.55 Group I lists tool/instrument while Group II lists the method of surveying. Match the
tool/instrument with the corresponding method of surveying.
AT

Group I Group II

P. Alidade 1. Chain surveying

Q. Arrow 2. Levelling
(G

R. Bubble tube 3. Plain table surveying

S. Stadia hair 4. Theodolite surveying

(A) P – 3; Q – 2; R – 1; S – 4 (B) P – 2; Q – 4; R – 3; S – 1
(C) P – 1; Q – 2; R – 4; S – 3 (D) P – 3; Q – 1; R – 2; S – 4
E1

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

CE 13/13

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GATE 2014
Answer Keys for CE ‐ Civil Engineering
SESSION ‐ 1 SESSION ‐ 1
Section Q. No. Section Q. No.
Key / Range Marks Key / Range Marks
GA 1 A 1 CE 24 C 1
GA 2 B 1 CE 25 B 1
GA 3 D 1 CE 26 C 2
GA 4 C 1 CE 27 A 2
GA 5 1300 to 1300 1 CE 28 12 to 12 2
GA 6 D 2 CE 29 0.26 to 0.27 2
GA 7 B 2 CE 30 A 2
GA 8 180 to 180 2 CE 31 1 to 1 2
GA 9 D 2 CE 32 1.0 to 2.5 2
GA 10 B 2 CE 33 A 2
CE 1 C 1 CE 34 D 2
CE 2 23 to 23 1 CE 35 2 to 2 2
CE 3 0.4 to 0.4 1 CE 36 C 2
CE 4 A 1 CE 37 A 2
CE 5 A 1 CE 38 D 2
CE 6 C 1 CE 39 7.6 to 8.0 2
CE 7 A 1 CE 40 7.10 to 7.85 2
CE 8 C 1 CE 41 C 2
CE 9 9 to 9 1 CE 42 0.93 to 0.96 2
CE 10 A 1 CE 43 B 2
CE 11 A 1 CE 44 D 2
CE 12 A 1 CE 45 2 to 2 2
CE 13 A 1 CE 46 A 2
CE 14 D 1 CE 47 A 2
CE 15 B 1 CE 48 B 2
CE 16 D 1 CE 49 4.7 to 4.9 2
CE 17 22 to 23 1 CE 50 307 to 310 2
CE 18 A 1 CE 51 3.1 to 3.2 2
CE 19 B 1 CE 52 1750 to 1750 2
CE 20 C 1 CE 53 90 to 95 2
CE 21 D 1 CE 54 C 2
CE 22 2.7 to 2.8 1 CE 55 D 2
CE 23 C 1

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SESSION - 2

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GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

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You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

Choosing a Section :

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Changing the Optional Section :

20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.

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GATE 2014 Examination

CE: Civil Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

Declaration by the candidate:

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GATE 2014 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease short-term memory loss.

(A) experienced (B) has experienced
(C) is experiencing (D) experiences

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.

)
14
(A) Contentment (B) Ambition (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger

Q.3 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below?

20
“As a woman, I have no country.”
(A) Women have no country.
(B) Women are not citizens of any country.
(C) Women’s solidarity knows no national boundaries.
(D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

Q.4
E
In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the
Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes
AT
is ____ years.

Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would
it take to double at this growth rate?
(G

(A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years
02

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the
group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
A

Statements
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
G

2. Shiv is elder to Som.

(A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child.
(B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child.
(C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child.
(D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.

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GATE 2014 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA
Q.7 Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of
exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of
the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with
exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data
point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis.
From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier

The main point of the paragraph is:

(A) The twenty-first century is a digital world
(B) Big data is obsessed with exactness
(C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data
(D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis

)
Q.8 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below.
The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of

14
exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through
export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total
revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1
per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

20
Exports Revenues

Item 6
16%
Item 1
11%
E Item 6
19%
Item 1
12%
AT
Item 5 Item 2
12% 20% Item 2
Item 5 20%
20%
Item 3
Item 4 19%
Item 4 Item 3
22%
(G

6% 23%
02

(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1

Q.9 X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is

1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?
A

(A) 1 (B) √2 (C) √3 (D) 2

10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this
G

Q.10
kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV− individuals 89% of the time. A
particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the
individual is actually positive is _______

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four times in succession and resulted in the following outcomes:
(i) Head, (ii) Head, (iii) Head, (iv) Head. The probability of obtaining a 'Tail' when the coin is
tossed again is

1 4 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2 5 5

Q.2 0 1 2 3
1 0 3 0
The determinant of matrix 

)
is _____________
2 3 0 1
 

14
3 0 1 2

Q.3 2 − 3i

20
z= can be expressed as
−5+i

(A) − 0.5 − 0.5i (B) − 0.5 + 0.5i

(C) 0.5 − 0.5i E (D) 0.5 + 0.5i
AT
Q.4 dP
The integrating factor for the differential equation + k 2 P = k1 Lo e − k1t is
dt

(A) e − k1t (B) e − k 2t (C) e k1t (D) e k2t

Q.5 If {x} is a continuous, real valued random variable defined over the interval (− ∞, + ∞) and its
1 𝑥𝑥 −𝑎𝑎 2
1 − � �
occurrence is defined by the density function given as: 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑒𝑒 2 𝑏𝑏 where 'a' and 'b'
√2𝜋𝜋∗𝑏𝑏
are the statistical attributes of the random variable {x}. The value of the integral
2

1 𝑥𝑥−𝑎𝑎 2
𝑎𝑎 1 − � �
∫−∞ √2𝜋𝜋∗𝑏𝑏 𝑒𝑒 2 𝑏𝑏 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 is
E0

π
(A) 1 (B) 0.5 (C) π (D)
2
C

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Q.6 Group I contains representative stress-strain curves as shown in the figure, while Group II gives the
list of materials. Match the stress-strain curves with the corresponding materials.
Stress
J

L Group I Group II
K
P. Curve J 1. Cement paste
Q. Curve K 2. Coarse aggregate
R. Curve L 3. Concrete

)
Strain

14
(A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2 (B) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 1
(C) P - 3; Q - 1; R - 2 (D) P - 3; Q - 2; R - 1

20
Q.7 The first moment of area about the axis of bending for a beam cross-section is
E
(A) moment of inertia (B) section modulus
(C) shape factor (D) polar moment of inertia
AT

Q.8 Polar moment of inertia (Ip), in cm4, of a rectangular section having width, b = 2 cm and depth,
d = 6 cm is ________________
(G

Q.9 The target mean strength fcm for concrete mix design obtained from the characteristic strength fck
and standard deviation σ, as defined in IS:456-2000, is

(A) fck + 1.35σ (B) fck + 1.45σ

(C) fck + 1.55σ (D) fck + 1.65σ

Q.10 The flexural tensile strength of M25 grade of concrete, in N/mm2, as per IS:456-2000 is
__________
C

Q.11 The modulus of elasticity, E = 5000 f ck where f ck is the characteristic compressive strength of
concrete, specified in IS:456-2000 is based on

(A) tangent modulus (B) initial tangent modulus

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Q.12 The static indeterminacy of the two-span continuous beam with an internal hinge, shown below, is
______________

Q.13 As per Indian Standard Soil Classification System (IS: 1498 - 1970), an expression for A-line is

(A) Ip = 0.73 (wL − 20) (B) Ip = 0.70 (wL − 20)

)
14
Q.14 The clay mineral primarily governing the swelling behavior of Black Cotton soil is

(A) Halloysite (B) Illite (C) Kaolinite (D) Montmorillonite

20
Q.15 The contact pressure for a rigid footing resting on clay at the centre and the edges are respectively

(A) maximum and zero (B) maximum and minimum

(C) zero and maximum (D) minimum and maximum
E
AT
Q.16 A certain soil has the following properties: Gs = 2.71, n = 40% and w = 20%. The degree of
saturation of the soil (rounded off to the nearest percent) is __________
(G

Q.17 x y
A plane flow has velocity components u = , v=− and w = 0 along x, y and z directions
T1 T2
respectively, where T1 (≠ 0) and T2 (≠ 0) are constants having the dimension of time. The given
flow is incompressible if
2

T2 T2
(A) T1 = −T2 (B) T1 = − (C) T1 = (D) T1 = T2
2 2
E0

Q.18 Group I lists a few devices while Group II provides information about their uses. Match the devices
with their corresponding use.
C

Group I Group II

P. Anemometer 1. Capillary potential of soil water

Q. Hygrometer 2. Fluid velocity at a specific point in the flow stream
R. Pitot Tube 3. Water vapour content of air
S. Tensiometer 4. Wind speed

(A) P - 1; Q -2; R - 3; S - 4 (B) P - 2; Q - 1; R - 4; S- 3

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Q.19 An isolated 3-h rainfall event on a small catchment produces a hydrograph peak and point of
inflection on the falling limb of the hydrograph at 7 hours and 8.5 hours respectively, after the start
of the rainfall. Assuming, no losses and no base flow contribution, the time of concentration (in
hours) for this catchment is approximately

(A) 8.5 (B) 7.0 (C) 6.5 (D) 5.5

Q.20 The Muskingum model of routing a flood through a stream reach is expressed as
O2 = K 0 I 2 + K1 I1 + K 2O1 , where K 0 , K1 and K 2 are the routing coefficients for the concerned
reach, I1 and I 2 are the inflows to the reach, and O1 and O2 are the outflows from the reach
corresponding to time steps 1 and 2 respectively. The sum of K 0 , K1 and K 2 of the model is

)
14
(A) −1 (B) − 0.5 (C) 0.5 (D) 1

20
Q.21 The dominating microorganisms in an activated sludge process reactor are

(A) aerobic heterotrophs (B) anaerobic heterotrophs

(C) autotrophs (D) phototrophs
E
Q.22 The two air pollution control devices that are usually used to remove very fine particles from the
flue gas are
AT
(A) Cyclone and Venturi Scrubber
(B) Cyclone and Packed Scrubber
(C) Electrostatic Precipitator and Fabric Filter
(G

(D) Settling Chamber and Tray Scrubber

Q.23 The average spacing between vehicles in a traffic stream is 50 m, then the density (in veh/km) of
the stream is ________________
2
E0

Q.24 A road is being designed for a speed of 110 km/hr on a horizontal curve with a super elevation of
8%. If the coefficient of side friction is 0.10, the minimum radius of the curve (in m) required for
safe vehicular movement is

(A) 115.0 (B) 152.3 (C) 264.3 (D) 528.5

Q.25 The survey carried out to delineate natural features, such as hills, rivers, forests and man-made
features, such as towns, villages, buildings, roads, transmission lines and canals is classified as

(A) engineering survey (B) geological survey

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Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 𝑥𝑥 𝛼𝛼 −1
The expression lim𝛼𝛼 →0 is equal to
𝛼𝛼

(A) log 𝑥𝑥 (B) 0 (C) 𝑥𝑥 log 𝑥𝑥 (D) ∞

Q.27 An observer counts 240 veh/h at a specific highway location. Assume that the vehicle arrival at the
location is Poisson distributed, the probability of having one vehicle arriving over a 30-second time

)
interval is ____________

14
Q.28 6 0 4 4 

The rank of the matrix − 2 14 8 18  is _______________

20
 14 − 14 0 − 10

Q.29 Water is flowing at a steady rate through a homogeneous and saturated horizontal soil strip of 10 m
E
length. The strip is being subjected to a constant water head (H) of 5 m at the beginning and 1 m at
d 2H
the end. If the governing equation of flow in the soil strip is = 0 (where x is the distance
AT
dx 2
along the soil strip), the value of H (in m) at the middle of the strip is ___________

Q.30 The values of axial stress (σ) in kN/m2, bending moment (M) in kNm, and shear force (V) in kN
(G

acting at point P for the arrangement shown in the figure are respectively

Cable Frictionless
Pulley
2

P Beam Q
E0

(0.2 m × 0.2 m)

3m
C

50 kN

(A) 1000, 75 and 25 (B) 1250, 150 and 50

CE 5/11

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Q.31 The beam of an overall depth 250 mm (shown below) is used in a building subjected to two
different thermal environments. The temperatures at the top and bottom surfaces of the beam are
36°C and 72°C respectively. Considering coefficient of thermal expansion (α) as 1.50×10−5 per °C,
the vertical deflection of the beam (in mm) at its mid-span due to temperature gradient is ________

36 °C
250 mm

72 °C
1.5 m 1.5 m

)
Q.32 The axial load (in kN) in the member PQ for the arrangement/assembly shown in the figure given

14
below is _______________

20
2m
E
AT
160 kN

R
Q Beam
(G

S
2m 2m
2

Q.33 Considering the symmetry of a rigid frame as shown below, the magnitude of the bending moment
E0

(in kNm) at P (preferably using the moment distribution method) is

24 kN/m

4Ic P 4Ic
C

6m
Ic Ic Ic

8m 8m

(A) 170 (B) 172 (C) 176 (D) 178

CE 6/11

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Q.34 A prismatic beam (as shown below) has plastic moment capacity of Mp, then the collapse load P of
the beam is
P
P 2

L L L
2 2 3

)
2M p 4M p 6M p 8M p

14
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L L L L

20
Q.35 The tension (in kN) in a 10 m long cable, shown in the figure, neglecting its self-weight is

3m 3m
S
P Q
ECable
y
Cable
R
AT
120 kN

(A) 120 (B) 75 (C) 60 (D) 45

Q.36 For the state of stresses (in MPa) shown in the figure below, the maximum shear stress (in MPa) is
_______________
2

4
4
E0

2 2
C

Q.37 An infinitely long slope is made up of a c-φ soil having the properties: cohesion (c) = 20 kPa, and
dry unit weight (γd) = 16 kN/m3. The angle of inclination and critical height of the slope are 40° and
5 m, respectively. To maintain the limiting equilibrium, the angle of internal friction of the soil (in
degrees) is _________________

CE 7/11

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Q.38 Group I enlists in-situ field tests carried out for soil exploration, while Group II provides a list of
parameters for sub-soil strength characterization. Match the type of tests with the characterization
parameters.

Group I Group II

P. Pressuremeter Test (PMT) 1. Menard’s modulus (Em)

Q. Static Cone Penetration Test (SCPT) 2. Number of blows (N)
R. Standard Penetration Test (SPT) 3. Skin resistance (fc)
S. Vane Shear Test (VST) 4. Undrained cohesion (cu)

)
14
(A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 4 (B) P - 1; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 4
(C) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 4; S - 1 (D) P - 4; Q - 1; R - 2; S - 3

20
Q.39 A single vertical friction pile of diameter 500 mm and length 20 m is subjected to a vertical
compressive load. The pile is embedded in a homogeneous sandy stratum where: angle of internal
friction (φ) = 30°, dry unit weight (γd) = 20 kN/m3 and angle of wall friction (δ) = 2φ/3.
Considering the coefficient of lateral earth pressure (K) = 2.7 and the bearing capacity factor
(Nq) = 25, the ultimate bearing capacity of the pile (in kN) is _______________
E
Q.40 A circular raft foundation of 20 m diameter and 1.6 m thick is provided for a tank that applies a
AT
bearing pressure of 110 kPa on sandy soil with Young's modulus, Es' = 30 MPa and Poisson's ratio,
υs = 0.3. The raft is made of concrete (Ec = 30 GPa and υc = 0.15). Considering the raft as rigid, the
elastic settlement (in mm) is

(A) 50.96 (B) 53.36 (C) 63.72 (D) 66.71

Q.41 A horizontal nozzle of 30 mm diameter discharges a steady jet of water into the atmosphere at a
rate of 15 litres per second. The diameter of inlet to the nozzle is 100 mm. The jet impinges normal
2

to a flat stationary plate held close to the nozzle end. Neglecting air friction and considering the
density of water as 1000 kg/m3, the force exerted by the jet (in N) on the plate is _________
E0

Q.42 A venturimeter having a throat diameter of 0.1 m is used to estimate the flow rate of a horizontal
pipe having a diameter of 0.2 m. For an observed pressure difference of 2 m of water head and
coefficient of discharge equal to unity, assuming that the energy losses are negligible, the flow rate
C

(in m3/s) through the pipe is approximately equal to

(A) 0.500 (B) 0.150 (C) 0.050 (D) 0.015

Q.43 A rectangular channel of 2.5 m width is carrying a discharge of 4 m3/s. Considering that
acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the velocity of flow (in m/s) corresponding to the critical
depth (at which the specific energy is minimum) is _______

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Q.44 Irrigation water is to be provided to a crop in a field to bring the moisture content of the soil from
the existing 18% to the field capacity of the soil at 28%. The effective root zone of the crop is 70
cm. If the densities of the soil and water are 1.3 g/cm3 and 1.0 g/cm3 respectively, the depth of
irrigation water (in mm) required for irrigating the crop is ________

Q.45 With reference to a standard Cartesian (x, y) plane, the parabolic velocity distribution profile of
fully developed laminar flow in x-direction between two parallel, stationary and identical plates that
are separated by distance, h, is given by the expression

ℎ2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑦𝑦 2
𝑢𝑢 = − �1 − 4 � � �
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 ℎ

)
14
In this equation, the y = 0 axis lies equidistant between the plates at a distance h/2 from the two
plates, p is the pressure variable and µ is the dynamic viscosity term. The maximum and average
velocities are, respectively

20
ℎ 2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 2
(A) 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = − and 𝑢𝑢𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 3
ℎ2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 2
(B) 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = and 𝑢𝑢𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 3
ℎ2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
E 3
(C) 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = − and 𝑢𝑢𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 8
AT
ℎ2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 3
(D) 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = and 𝑢𝑢𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 8
(G

Q.46 A suspension of sand like particles in water with particles of diameter 0.10 mm and below is
flowing into a settling tank at 0.10 m3/s. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2, specific gravity of particles = 2.65,
and kinematic viscosity of water =1.0105×10−2 cm2/s. The minimum surface area (in m2) required
for this settling tank to remove particles of size 0.06 mm and above with 100% efficiency is
_______________
2
E0

Q.47 A surface water treatment plant operates round the clock with a flow rate of 35 m3/min. The water
temperature is 15 oC and jar testing indicated an alum dosage of 25 mg/l with flocculation at a Gt
value of 4×104 producing optimal results. The alum quantity required for 30 days (in kg) of
C

operation of the plant is ____________

Q.48 An effluent at a flow rate of 2670 m3/d from a sewage treatment plant is to be disinfected. The
laboratory data of disinfection studies with a chlorine dosage of 15 mg/l yield the model
N t = N o e −0.145t where Nt = number of micro-organisms surviving at time t (in min.) and
No = number of micro-organisms present initially (at t = 0). The volume of disinfection unit (in m3)
required to achieve a 98% kill of micro-organisms is ______________

CE 9/11

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Q.49 A waste water stream (flow = 2 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 90 mg/l) is joining a small river (flow =
12 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 5 mg/l). Both water streams get mixed up instantaneously. Cross-
sectional area of the river is 50 m2. Assuming the de-oxygenation rate constant, k' = 0.25/day, the
BOD (in mg/l) of the river water, 10 km downstream of the mixing point is

(A) 1.68 (B) 12.63 (C) 15.46 (D) 1.37

Q.50 In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.324 and 2.546
respectively. The sample includes 5% of bitumen (by total weight of mix) of specific gravity 1.10.
The theoretical maximum specific gravity of mix is 2.441. The void filled with bitumen (VFB) in

)
the Marshall sample (in %) is ___________

14
Q.51 A student riding a bicycle on a 5 km one-way street takes 40 minutes to reach home. The student
stopped for 15 minutes during this ride. 60 vehicles overtook the student (assume the number of

20
vehicles overtaken by the student is zero) during the ride and 45 vehicles while the student stopped.
The speed of vehicle stream on that road (in km/hr) is

(A) 7.5 (B) 12 (C) 40 (D) 60

Q.52
E
On a section of a highway the speed-density relationship is linear and is given by v = [80 −
2
3
k] ;
where 𝑣𝑣 is in km/h and 𝑘𝑘 is in veh/km. The capacity (in veh/h) of this section of the highway would
AT
be

(A) 1200 (B) 2400 (C) 4800 (D) 9600

Q.53 A pre-timed four phase signal has critical lane flow rate for the first three phases as 200, 187 and
210 veh/hr with saturation flow rate of 1800 veh/hr/lane for all phases. The lost time is given as 4
seconds for each phase. If the cycle length is 60 seconds, the effective green time (in seconds) of
the fourth phase is ______________
2

Q.54 A tacheometer was placed at point P to estimate the horizontal distances PQ and PR. The
E0

corresponding stadia intercepts with the telescope kept horizontal, are 0.320 m and 0.210 m,
respectively. The ∠QPR is measured to be 61o 30' 30". If the stadia multiplication constant = 100
and stadia addition constant = 0.10 m, the horizontal distance (in m) between the points Q and R is
_________________
C

CE 10/11

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Q.55 The chainage of the intersection point of two straights is 1585.60 m and the angle of intersection is
140o. If the radius of a circular curve is 600.00 m, the tangent distance (in m) and length of the
curve (in m), respectively are

(A) 418.88 and 1466.08 (B) 218.38 and 1648.49

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

)
14
20
E
AT
(G
2
E0
C

CE 11/11

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GATE 2014
Answer Keys for CE ‐ Civil Engineering
SESSION ‐ 2 SESSION ‐ 2
Section Q. No. Section Q. No.
Key / Range Marks Key / Range Marks
GA 1 D 1 CE 24 D 1
GA 2 A 1 CE 25 D 1
GA 3 C 1 CE 26 A 2
GA 4 25 to 25 1 CE 27 0.25 to 0.28 2
GA 5 A 1 CE 28 2.0 to 2.0 2
GA 6 A 2 CE 29 3.0 to 3.0 2
GA 7 C 2 CE 30 B 2
GA 8 D 2 CE 31 2.38 to 2.45 2
GA 9 C 2 CE 32 50.0 to 50.0 2
GA 10 0.48 to 0.49 2 CE 33 C 2
CE 1 B 1 CE 34 C 2
CE 2 88 to 88 1 CE 35 B 2
CE 3 B 1 CE 36 5.0 to 5.0 2
CE 4 D 1 CE 37 21.0 to 23.0 2
CE 5 B 1 CE 38 A 2
CE 6 B 1 CE 39 6150 to 6190 2
CE 7 B 1 CE 40 B 2
CE 8 40.00 to 40.00 1 CE 41 318 to 319 2
CE 9 D 1 CE 42 C 2
CE 10 3.5 to 3.5 1 CE 43 2.45 to 2.55 2
CE 11 B 1 CE 44 91 to 91 2
CE 12 0 to 0 1 CE 45 A 2
CE 13 A 1 CE 46 31.0 to 32.0 2
CE 14 D 1 CE 47 37800 to 37800 2
CE 15 D 1 CE 48 49.0 to 51.0 2
CE 16 81.0 to 81.5 1 CE 49 C 2
CE 17 D 1 CE 50 62 to 66 2
CE 18 D 1 CE 51 D 2
CE 19 D 1 CE 52 B 2
CE 20 D 1 CE 53 14.0 to 18.0 2
CE 21 A 1 CE 54 28.0 to 29.0 2
CE 22 C 1 CE 55 C 2
CE 23 20.0 to 20.0 1

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SESSION - 1

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Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering

Notations :

Question Paper Name: CE: CIVIL ENGINEERING 8th Feb Shift1

Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0

Number of Questions: 10
Section Marks: 15.0

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
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Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
2006

Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Number of Questions: 55
Section Marks: 85.0

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Question Number : 11 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
4.49 to 4.51

Question Number : 12 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 13 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
0.23 to 0.25

Question Number : 14 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 15 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 16 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 17 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 18 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
6.38 to 6.42

Question Number : 19 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
5

Question Number : 20 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0

Question Number : 21 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 22 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 23 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 24 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 25 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 26 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 27 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 28 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 29 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 30 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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Question Number : 31 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 32 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
8

Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 34 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 35 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 36 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 37 Question Type : NAT

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https://civilenggascent.com

Correct Answer :
2.32 to 2.34

Question Number : 38 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 39 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 40 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
-5.72 to -5.70

Question Number : 41 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
49.5 to 51.0

Question Number : 42 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
155 to 156.3

Question Number : 43 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
42 to 43

Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
3.30 to 3.40

Question Number : 45 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
14.5 to 15.5

Question Number : 46 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
25

Question Number : 47 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
5

Question Number : 48 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 49 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
50 to 55

Question Number : 50 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
4.0 to 5.0

Question Number : 51 Question Type : NAT

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https://civilenggascent.com

Correct Answer :
10.0 to 12.0

Question Number : 52 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
434 to 444

Question Number : 53 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer:
0.140 to 0.142

Question Number : 54 Question Type :NAT

Correct Answer :
4.75 to 4.85

Question Number : 55 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.0031 to 0.0033

Question Number : 56 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 57 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer:
1093 to 1094

Question Number : 58 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
21.9 to 22.1

Question Number : 59 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.010 to 0.012

Question Number : 60 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
20.0 to 24.0

Question Number : 61 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
895 to 905

Question Number : 62 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 63 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
141.84 to 142.32

Question Number : 64 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 65 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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SESSION - 2

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Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering

Notations :

Question Paper Name: CE: CIVIL ENGINEERING 8th Feb Shift2

Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0

Number of Questions: 10
Section Marks: 15.0

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
4536

Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
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Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Number of Questions: 55
Section Marks: 85.0

Question Number : 11 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 12 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
0.3 to 0.4

Question Number : 13 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 14 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 15 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 16 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
0.25

Question Number : 17 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 18 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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Question Number : 19 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 20 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 21 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 22 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 23 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 24 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 25 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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Question Number : 26 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 27 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
540

Question Number : 28 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 29 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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Question Number : 30 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.05

Question Number : 31 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 32 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 34 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
97.44

Question Number : 35 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 36 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
1.06 to 1.07

Question Number : 37 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
18

Question Number : 38 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 39 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
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1.36 to 1.37

Question Number : 40 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 41 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.05

Question Number : 42 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
3.0 to 3.3

Question Number : 43 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
1.78 to 1.79

Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
0.09 to 0.10

Question Number : 45 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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Question Number : 46 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 47 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
0.70 to 0.72

Question Number : 48 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
313.0 to 316.0

Question Number : 49 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer :
1620.0 to 1630.0

Question Number : 50 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 51 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 52 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer:
1.4 to 1.5

Question Number : 53 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
29.3 to 29.5

Question Number : 54 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 55 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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Question Number : 56 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.56 to 0.58

Question Number : 57 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
13.6 to 13.8

Question Number : 58 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
144

Question Number : 59 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

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Question Number : 60 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
112.0 to 113.0

Question Number : 61 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
1750

Question Number : 62 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 63 Question Type : MCQ

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Options :

Question Number : 64 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 65 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
100

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GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-5

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and
usage.

(A) I will not leave the place until the minister does not meet me.

(B) I will not leave the place until the minister doesn’t meet me.

(D) I will not leave the place until the minister meets me.

Q.2 A rewording of something written or spoken is a ______________.

(A) paraphrase (B) paradox (C) paradigm (D) paraffin

Q.3 Archimedes said, “Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum on which to place it, and I will move
the world.”

The sentence above is an example of a ___________ statement.

(A) figurative (B) collateral

(C) literal (D) figurine

Q.4 If ‘relftaga’ means carefree, ‘otaga’ means careful and ‘fertaga’ means careless, which of the
following could mean ‘aftercare’?

(A) zentaga (B) tagafer (C) tagazen (D) relffer

Q.5 A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit. After it is built, one cubic block is removed
from every corner of the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in square units) after the
removal is __________.

(A) 56 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 96

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Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 A shaving set company sells 4 different types of razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive.
Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs. 173 per piece. The
table below shows the numbers of each razor sold in each quarter of a year.

Quarter \ Product Elegance Smooth Soft Executive

Q1 27300 20009 17602 9999
Q2 25222 19392 18445 8942
Q3 28976 22429 19544 10234
Q4 21012 18229 16595 10109

Which product contributes the greatest fraction to the revenue of the company in that year?

(A) Elegance (B) Executive (C) Smooth (D) Soft

Q.7 Indian currency notes show the denomination indicated in at least seventeen languages. If this is not
an indication of the nation’s diversity, nothing else is.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?
(A) India is a country of exactly seventeen languages.

(B) Linguistic pluralism is the only indicator of a nation’s diversity.

(D) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of India’s diversity.

Q.8 Consider the following statements relating to the level of poker play of four players P, Q, R and S.

I. P always beats Q
II. R always beats S
III. S loses to P only sometimes
IV. R always loses to Q

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?

(i) P is likely to beat all the three other players

(ii) S is the absolute worst player in the set

(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii)

Q.9 If f(𝑥𝑥) = 2𝑥𝑥 7 + 3𝑥𝑥 − 5, which of the following is a factor of f(x)?

(A) (x3+8) (B) (x-1) (C) (2x-5) (D) (x+1)

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Q.10 In a process, the number of cycles to failure decreases exponentially with an increase in load. At a
load of 80 units, it takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load is halved, it takes 10000 cycles for
failure. The load for which the failure will happen in 5000 cycles is ________.

(A) 40.00 (B) 46.02 (C) 60.01 (D) 92.02

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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GATE 2016 Civil Engineering Set-1

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each

Q.1 Newton-Raphson method is to be used to find root of equation 3𝑥𝑥 − 𝑒𝑒 𝑥𝑥 + sin 𝑥𝑥 = 0. If the initial
trial value for the root is taken as 0.333, the next approximation for the root would be _________
(note: answer up to three decimal)

Q.2 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑃𝑃 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑃𝑃 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑃𝑃 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕

The type of partial differential equation 𝜕𝜕𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝜕𝜕𝑦𝑦 2 + 3 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 + 2 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 − 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 = 0 is

(A) elliptic (B) parabolic (C) hyperbolic (D) none of these

Q.3 If the entries in each column of a square matrix 𝑀𝑀 add up to 1, then an eigenvalue of 𝑀𝑀 is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

Q.4 Type II error in hypothesis testing is

(A) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected
(B) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is true and should be accepted
(C) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected
(D) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is true and should be accepted

Q.5 ∂u ∂ 2u
The solution of the partial differential equation = α 2 is of the form
∂t ∂x

[
(A) C cos(kt ) C1e
( k α )x
+ C2 e −( )
kα x
]
[
(B) Ce kt C1e
( k α )x
+ C2 e −( )
kα x
]
[
(C) Ce kt C1 cos ( )
k α x + C2 sin( − k α ) x ]
[
(D) C sin (kt ) C1 cos ( )
k α x + C 2 sin( − k α ) x ]

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Q.6 Consider the plane truss with load P as shown in the figure. Let the horizontal and vertical reactions
at the joint B be HB and VB, respectively and VC be the vertical reaction at the joint C.

A G
L

60°
L 60°

E F
P
L

60° 60°
B D C
L L

Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of VB, HB and VC?
(A) VB = 0; HB = 0; VC = P

(B) VB = P/2; HB = 0; VC = P/2

(C) VB = P/2; HB = P (sin 60°); VC = P/2

(D) VB = P; HB = P (cos 60°); VC = 0

Q.7 In shear design of an RC beam, other than the allowable shear strength of concrete (τ c ) , there is
also an additional check suggested in IS 456-2000 with respect to the maximum permissible shear
stress (τ c max ) . The check for τ c max is required to take care of

(A) additional shear resistance from reinforcing steel

(B) additional shear stress that comes from accidental loading
(C) possibility of failure of concrete by diagonal tension
(D) possibility of crushing of concrete by diagonal compression

Q.8 The semi-compact section of a laterally unsupported steel beam has an elastic section modulus,
plastic section modulus and design bending compressive stress of 500 cm3, 650 cm3 and 200 MPa,
respectively. The design flexural capacity (expressed in kNm) of the section is _________

Q.9 Bull's trench kiln is used in the manufacturing of

(A) lime (B) cement (C) bricks (D) none of these

Q.10 The compound which is largely responsible for initial setting and early strength gain of Ordinary
Portland Cement is
(A) C3A (B) C3S (C) C2S (D) C4AF

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Q.17 Pre-cursors to photochemical oxidants are

(A) NOX, VOCs and sunlight
(B) SO2, CO2 and sunlight
(C) H2S, CO and sunlight
(D) SO2, NH3 and sunlight

Q.18 Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by:

(A) H2S (B) CO2 (C) CH4 (D) NH3

Q.19 It was decided to construct a fabric filter, using bags of 0.45 m diameter and 7.5 m long, for
removing industrial stack gas containing particulates. The expected rate of airflow into the filter is
10 m3/s. If the filtering velocity is 2.0 m/min, the minimum number of bags (rounded to nearest
higher integer) required for continuous cleaning operation is
(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 32

Q.20 Match the items in Group – I with those in Group – II and choose the right combination.

Group - I Group - II
P. Activated sludge process 1. Nitrifiers and denitrifiers
Q. Rising of sludge 2. Autotrophic bacteria
R. Conventional nitrification 3. Heterotrophic bacteria
S. Biological nitrogen removal 4. Denitrifiers

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Q.21 During a forensic investigation of pavement failure, an engineer reconstructed the graphs P, Q, R
and S, using partial and damaged old reports.

Theoretically plausible correct graphs according to the 'Marshall mixture design output' are
(A) P, Q, R (B) P, Q, S (C) Q, R, S (D) R, S, P

Q.22 In a one-lane one-way homogeneous traffic stream, the observed average headway is 3.0 s. The
flow (expressed in vehicles/hr) in this traffic stream is________

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Q.23 The minimum number of satellites needed for a GPS to determine its position precisely is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 24

Q.24 The system that uses the Sun as a source of electromagnetic energy and records the naturally
radiated and reflected energy from the object is called
(A) Geographical Information System
(B) Global Positioning System
(C) Passive Remote Sensing
(D) Active Remote Sensing

Q.25 The staff reading taken on a workshop floor using a level is 0.645 m. The inverted staff reading
taken to the bottom of a beam is 2.960 m. The reduced level of the floor is 40.500 m. The reduced
level (expressed in m) of the bottom of the beam is

(A) 44.105 (B) 43.460 (C) 42.815 (D) 41.145

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each

Q.26 Probability density function of a random variable X is given below

0.25 if 1 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 5
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = �
0 otherwise

P(X ≤ 4) is
3 1 1 1
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8

Q.27 ∞ 1 ∞ sin 𝑥𝑥
The value of ∫
0 1+𝑥𝑥 2
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 + ∫0 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 is
𝑥𝑥
𝜋𝜋 3𝜋𝜋
(A) (B) π (C) (D) 1
2 2

Q.28 The area of the region bounded by the parabola 𝑦𝑦 = 𝑥𝑥 2 + 1 and the straight line 𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 = 3 is

59 9 10 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 2 3 6

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Q.29 The magnitudes of vectors P, Q and R are 100 kN, 250 kN and 150 kN, respectively as shown in
the figure.

P
45°
90°
R 60°
x

The respective values of the magnitude (in kN) and the direction (with respect to the x-axis) of the
resultant vector are
(A) 290.9 and 96.0° (B) 368.1 and 94.7° (C) 330.4 and 118.9° (D) 400.1 and 113.5°

Q.30 The respective expressions for complimentary function and particular integral part of the solution
d4y d2y
of the differential equation 4
+ 3 2
= 108 x 2 are
dx dx

[ ]
(A) c1 + c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 3 x − 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
[ ]
(B) c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 5 x − 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
[ ]
(C) c1 + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 3 x − 12 x + c[ 4 2
]
[ ]
(D) c1 + c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 5 x − 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
Q.31 A 3 m long simply supported beam of uniform cross section is subjected to a uniformly distributed
load of w = 20 kN/m in the central 1 m as shown in the figure.

w = 20 kN/m

P EI = 30×106 N⋅m2 Q
1m 1m 1m

If the flexural rigidity (EI) of the beam is 30 x 106 N-m2, the maximum slope (expressed in radians)
of the deformed beam is
(A) 0.681 × 10-7 (B) 0.943 × 10-7 (C) 4.310 × 10-7 (D) 5.910 × 10-7

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Q.32 Two beams PQ (fixed at P and with a roller support at Q, as shown in Figure I, which allows
vertical movement) and XZ (with a hinge at Y) are shown in the Figures I and II respectively. The
spans of PQ and XZ are L and 2L respectively. Both the beams are under the action of uniformly
distributed load (W) and have the same flexural stiffness, EI (where, E and I respectively denote
modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia about axis of bending). Let the maximum deflection
and maximum rotation be δmax1 and θmax1, respectively, in the case of beam PQ and the
corresponding quantities for the beam XZ be δmax2 and θmax2, respectively.

P Q
L

Figure I

w w

Hinge
X Y Z

L L
Figure II

Which one of the following relationships is true?

(A) δmax1 ≠ δmax2 and θmax1 ≠ θmax2

(B) δmax1 = δmax2 and θmax1 ≠ θmax2
(C) δmax1 ≠ δmax2 and θmax1 = θmax2
(D) δmax1 = δmax2 and θmax1 = θmax2

Q.33 A plane truss with applied loads is shown in the figure.

20 kN

J 10 kN

K 1m
10 kN H
1m
G L
U V
F M 1m

E N 1m
T S R Q P

2m 2m 2m 2m 2m 2m

The members which do not carry any force are

(A) FT, TG, HU, MP, PL (B) ET, GS, UR, VR, QL
(C) FT, GS, HU, MP, QL (D) MP, PL, HU, FT, UR

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Q.34 A rigid member ACB is shown in the figure. The member is supported at A and B by pinned and
guided roller supports, respectively. A force P acts at C as shown. Let RAh and RBh be the horizontal
reactions at supports A and B, respectively, and RAv be the vertical reaction at support A. Self-
weight of the member may be ignored.

P B
2m

1.5 m 1.5 m

Which one of the following sets gives the correct magnitudes of RAv, RBh and RAh ?
1 2
(A) RAv = 0; RBh = P; and RAh = P
3 3
2 1
(B) RAv = 0; RBh = P; and RAh = P
3 3
3 1.5
(C) RAv = P; RBh = P; and RAh = P
8 8
1.5 1.5
(D) RAv = P ; RBh = P ; and RAh = P
8 8

Q.35 A reinforced concrete (RC) beam with width of 250 mm and effective depth of 400 mm is
reinforced with Fe415 steel. As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, the minimum and maximum
amount of tensile reinforcement (expressed in mm2) for the section are, respectively
(A) 250 and 3500 (B) 205 and 4000
(C) 270 and 2000 (D) 300 and 2500

Q.36 For M25 concrete with creep coefficient of 1.5, the long-term static modulus of elasticity
(expressed in MPa) as per the provisions of IS:456-2000 is ________

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Q.37 A propped cantilever of span L carries a vertical concentrated load at the mid-span. If the plastic
moment capacity of the section is Mp, the magnitude of the collapse load is
8M p 6M p 4M p 2M p
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L L L L

Q.38 Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size 10 mm and subjected to tension, as shown in the
figure. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the ultimate tensile stress of
steel are 250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively. The welding is done in the workshop (γmw = 1.25).
P
100 mm

150 mm
P

As per the Limit State Method of IS 800: 2007, the minimum length (rounded off to the nearest
higher multiple of 5 mm) of each weld to transmit a force P equal to 270 kN (factored) is
(A) 90 mm (B) 105 mm (C) 110 mm (D) 115 mm

Q.39 The Optimistic Time (O), Most likely Time (M) and Pessimistic Time (P) (in days) of the activities
in the critical path are given below in the format O-M-P.

8-10-14 6-8-11 5-7-10 7-12-18

E F G H I

The expected completion time (in days) of the project is _________

Q.40 The porosity (n) and the degree of saturation (S) of a soil sample are 0.7 and 40%, respectively. In a
100 m3 volume of the soil, the volume (expressed in m3) of air is _________

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Q.41 A homogeneous gravity retaining wall supporting a cohesionless backfill is shown in the figure.
The lateral active earth pressure at the bottom of the wall is 40 kPa.

Cohesionless
Gravity
backfill
Retaining
6m
Wall

The minimum weight of the wall (expressed in kN per m length) required to prevent it from
overturning about its toe (Point P) is
(A) 120 (B) 180 (C) 240 (D) 360

Q.42 An undisturbed soil sample was taken from the middle of a clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below GL), as
shown in figure. The water table was at the top of clay layer. Laboratory test results are as follows:

Natural water content of clay : 25%

Preconsolidation pressure of clay : 60 kPa
Compression index of clay : 0.50
Recompression index of clay : 0.05
Specific gravity of clay : 2.70
Bulk unit weight of sand : 17 kN/m3

A compacted fill of 2.5 m height with unit weight of 20 kN/m3 is placed at the ground level.

GL
1m

Sand
GWT
1m

Clay

Hard stratum

Assuming unit weight of water as10 kN/m3, the ultimate consolidation settlement (expressed in
mm) of the clay layer is ____________

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Q.43 A seepage flow condition is shown in the figure. The saturated unit weight of the soil γsat = 18
kN/m3. Using unit weight of water, γw = 9.81 kN/m3, the effective vertical stress (expressed in
kN/m2) on plane X-X is ________

5m
Soil
γsat = 18 kN/m3

X X
1m

Q.44 A drained triaxial compression test on a saturated clay yielded the effective shear strength
parameters as c' = 15 kPa and ϕ' = 22o. Consolidated Undrained triaxial test on an identical sample
of this clay at a cell pressure of 200 kPa developed a pore water pressure of 150 kPa at failure. The
deviator stress (expressed in kPa) at failure is _________

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Q.45 A concrete gravity dam section is shown in the figure. Assuming unit weight of water as 10 kN/m3
and unit weight of concrete as 24 kN/m3, the uplift force per unit length of the dam (expressed in
kN/m) at PQ is _________

65 m
Drain
holes

5m
P Q
40 m
10 m

Q.46 Seepage is occurring through a porous media shown in the figure. The hydraulic conductivity
values (k1, k2, k3) are in m/day.

Impervious

15 m 10 m
P
3m k1 = 2 k2 = 3 k3 = 1 3m

Q
20 m 10 m 20 m 10 m

The seepage discharge (m3/day per m) through the porous media at section PQ is

7 1 9 3
(A) 12 (B) 2 (C) 16 (D) 4

Q.47 A 4 m wide rectangular channel, having bed slope of 0.001 carries a discharge of 16 m3/s.
Considering Manning's roughness coefficient = 0.012 and g = 10 m/s2, the category of the channel
slope is
(A) horizontal (B) mild (C) critical (D) steep

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Q.48 A sector gate is provided on a spillway as shown in the figure. Assuming g = 10 m/s2, the resultant
force per meter length (expressed in kN/m) on the gate will be __________

Sector gate 5m

30°
30°

Spillway

Q.49 A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel section has a uniform flow depth of 2 m. The bed
width (expressed in m) of the channel is __________

Q.50 Effluent from an industry 'A' has a pH of 4.2. The effluent from another industry 'B' has double the
hydroxyl (OH-) ion concentration than the effluent from industry 'A'. pH of effluent from the
industry 'B' will be __________

Q.51 An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with 5600 m2 of collector plate area is 96 percent efficient in
treating 185 m3/s of flue gas from a 200 MW thermal power plant. It was found that in order to
achieve 97 percent efficiency, the collector plate area should be 6100 m2. In order to increase the
efficiency to 99 percent, the ESP collector plate area (expressed in m2) would be ______

Q.52 The 2-day and 4-day BOD values of a sewage sample are 100 mg/L and 155 mg/L, respectively.
The value of BOD rate constant (expressed in per day) is _________

Q.53 A two lane, one-way road with radius of 50 m is predominantly carrying lorries with wheelbase of
5 m. The speed of lorries is restricted to be between 60 kmph and 80 kmph. The mechanical
widening and psychological widening required at 60 kmph are designated as 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ,60 and 𝑤𝑤𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝,60 ,
respectively. The mechanical widening and psychological widening required at 80 kmph are
designated as 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ,80 and 𝑤𝑤𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝,80 , respectively. The correct values of 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ,60 , 𝑤𝑤𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 ,60 , 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ,80 ,
𝑤𝑤𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝,80 , respectively are
(A) 0.89 m, 0.50 m, 1.19 m, and 0.50 m (B) 0.50 m, 0.89 m, 0.50 m, and 1.19 m
(C) 0.50 m, 1.19 m, 0.50 m, and 0.89 m (D) 1.19 m, 0.50 m, 0.89 m, and 0.50 m

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Q.54 While traveling along and against the traffic stream, a moving observer measured the relative flows
as 50 vehicles/hr and 200 vehicles/hr, respectively. The average speeds of the moving observer
while traveling along and against the stream are 20 km/hr and 30 km/hr, respectively. The density
of the traffic stream (expressed in vehicles/km) is _________

Q.55 The vertical angles subtended by the top of a tower T at two instrument stations set up at P and Q,
are shown in the figure. The two stations are in line with the tower and spaced at a distance of 60
m. Readings taken from these two stations on a leveling staff placed at the benchmark (BM =
450.000 m) are also shown in the figure. The reduced level of the top of the tower T (expressed in
m) is _________
T

16.5o
2.555
0.555 10.5o

Q
BM 450.000 P
60 m

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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Q. No Type Section Key Marks

1 MCQ GA D 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA A 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA D 1
6 MCQ GA B 2
7 MCQ GA D 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA B 2
1 NAT CE-1 0.355 : 0.365 1
2 MCQ CE-1 C 1
3 MCQ CE-1 D 1
4 MCQ CE-1 A 1
5 MCQ CE-1 B 1
6 MCQ CE-1 A 1
7 MCQ CE-1 D 1
8 NAT CE-1 99.9 : 100.1 1
9 MCQ CE-1 C 1
10 MCQ CE-1 B 1
11 MCQ CE-1 B 1
12 MCQ CE-1 D 1
13 MCQ CE-1 D 1
14 NAT CE-1 21.5 : 21.7 1
15 MCQ CE-1 B 1
16 NAT CE-1 13.6 : 13.7 1
17 MCQ CE-1 A 1
18 MCQ CE-1 A 1
19 MCQ CE-1 B 1
20 MCQ CE-1 A 1
21 MCQ CE-1 B 1
22 NAT CE-1 1199 : 1201 1
23 MCQ CE-1 C 1
24 MCQ CE-1 C 1
25 MCQ CE-1 A 1
26 MCQ CE-1 A 2
27 MCQ CE-1 B 2
28 MCQ CE-1 B 2
29 MCQ CE-1 C 2
30 MCQ CE-1 A 2
31 MCQ CE-1 MTA 2
32 MCQ CE-1 D 2
33 MCQ CE-1 A 2
34 MCQ CE-1 D 2
35 MCQ CE-1 B 2
36 NAT CE-1 9999 : 10001 2
37 MCQ CE-1 B 2
38 MCQ CE-1 B 2
39 NAT CE-1 37 : 38 2

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40 NAT CE-1 41 : 43 2
41 MCQ CE-1 A 2
42 NAT CE-1 36 : 38 2
43 NAT CE-1 65.3 : 65.6 2
44 NAT CE-1 100 : 110 2
45 NAT CE-1 10490 : 10510 2
46 MCQ CE-1 B 2
47 MCQ CE-1 B 2
48 NAT CE-1 126 : 128 2
49 NAT CE-1 2.29 : 2.32 2
50 NAT CE-1 4.4 : 4.6 2
51 NAT CE-1 8000 : 8040 2
52 NAT CE-1 0.29 : 0.31 2
53 MCQ CE-1 B 2
54 NAT CE-1 2.9 : 3.1 2
55 NAT CE-1 476.500 : 477.500 2

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GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-7

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 If I were you, I __________ that laptop. It’s much too expensive.

(A) won’t buy (B) shan’t buy

(C) wouldn’t buy (D) would buy

Q.2 He turned a deaf ear to my request.

What does the underlined phrasal verb mean?

(A) ignored (B) appreciated (C) twisted (D) returned

Q.3 Choose the most appropriate set of words from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

___ _ is a will, _____ is a way.

(A) Wear, there, their (B) Were, their, there

(C) Where, there, there (D) Where, their, their

Q.4 (x % of y) + (y % of x) is equivalent to .

(A) 2 % of xy (B) 2 % of (xy/100) (C) xy % of 100 (D) 100 % of xy

Q.5 The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits
is greater than the original number by 54, find the original number.

(A) 39 (B) 57 (C) 66 (D) 93

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Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Two finance companies, P and Q, declared fixed annual rates of interest on the amounts invested
with them. The rates of interest offered by these companies may differ from year to year. Year-wise
annual rates of interest offered by these companies are shown by the line graph provided below.

P Q

10
9.5
9 9
8 8 8 8
7.5
7
6.5 6.5
6

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006

If the amounts invested in the companies, P and Q, in 2006 are in the ratio 8:9, then the amounts
received after one year as interests from companies P and Q would be in the ratio:
(A) 2:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 6:7
(D) 4:3

Q.7 Today, we consider Ashoka as a great ruler because of the copious evidence he left behind in the
form of stone carved edicts. Historians tend to correlate greatness of a king at his time with the
availability of evidence today.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?

(A) Emperors who do not leave significant sculpted evidence are completely forgotten.

(B) Ashoka produced stone carved edicts to ensure that later historians will respect him.

(C) Statues of kings are a reminder of their greatness.

(D) A king’s greatness, as we know him today, is interpreted by historians.

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Q.8 Fact 1: Humans are mammals.

Fact 2: Some humans are engineers.
Fact 3: Engineers build houses.

If the above statements are facts, which of the following can be logically inferred?

I. All mammals build houses.

II. Engineers are mammals.
III. Some humans are not engineers.

(A) II only. (B) III only.

(C) I, II and III. (D) I only.

Q.9 A square pyramid has a base perimeter x, and the slant height is half of the perimeter. What is the
lateral surface area of the pyramid?

2 2 2 2
(A) x (B) 0.75 x (C) 0.50 x (D) 0.25 x

Q.10 Ananth takes 6 hours and Bharath takes 4 hours to read a book. Both started reading copies of the
book at the same time. After how many hours is the number of pages to be read by Ananth, twice
that to be read by Bharath? Assume Ananth and Bharath read all the pages with constant pace.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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GATE 2016 Civil Engineering Set-2

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each

Q.1 The spot speeds (expressed in km/hr) observed at a road section are 66, 62, 45, 79, 32, 51, 56, 60,
53, and 49. The median speed (expressed in km/hr) is _________
(Note: answer with one decimal accuracy)

Q.2 The optimum value of the function f(x) = x2 – 4x +2 is

(A) 2 (maximum) (B) 2 (minimum) (C) −2 (maximum) (D) −2 (minimum)

Q.3 The Fourier series of the function,

𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 0, −𝜋𝜋 < 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 0

= 𝜋𝜋 − 𝑥𝑥, 0 < 𝑥𝑥 < 𝜋𝜋

in the interval [−𝜋𝜋, 𝜋𝜋] is

𝜋𝜋 2 cos 𝑥𝑥 cos 3𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑥𝑥 sin 2𝑥𝑥 sin 3𝑥𝑥

𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = + � + + ………� + � + + + … … . �.
4 𝜋𝜋 12 32 1 2 3

The convergence of the above Fourier series at 𝑥𝑥 = 0 gives

∞
1 π2 ∞
(−1) n +1 π 2
(A) ∑ 2
= (B) ∑ n2
=
12
n =1 n 6 n =1
∞
1 π2 ∞
(−1) n +1 π
(C) ∑
n =1 ( 2n − 1)
= (D) ∑ =
−
2
8 n =1 2 n 1 4

Q.4 X and Y are two random independent events. It is known that P( X ) = 0.40 and
(
P X ∪Y C
) = 0.7. Which one of the following is the value of P( X ∪ Y ) ?
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.3

Q.5 xy
What is the value of lim ?
x →0
y →0
x + y2
2

(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 0 (D) Limit does not exist

Q.6 The kinematic indeterminacy of the plane truss shown in the figure is

(A) 11 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 0

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Q.7 As per IS 456-2000 for the design of reinforced concrete beam, the maximum allowable shear
stress (τ c max ) depends on the

(A) grade of concrete and grade of steel

(B) grade of concrete only
(C) grade of steel only
(D) grade of concrete and percentage of reinforcement

Q.8 An assembly made of a rigid arm A-B-C hinged at end A and supported by an elastic rope C-D at
end C is shown in the figure. The members may be assumed to be weightless and the lengths of the
respective members are as shown in the figure.

A D

L P L
Rigid arm Rope

B C
L L

Under the action of a concentrated load P at C as shown, the magnitude of tension developed in the
rope is

3P P 3P (D) 2P
(A) (B) (C)
2 2 8

Q.9 As per Indian standards for bricks, minimum acceptable compressive strength of any class of burnt
clay bricks in dry state is
(A) 10.0 MPa (B) 7.5 MPa (C) 5.0 MPa (D) 3.5 MPa

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Q.10 A construction project consists of twelve activities. The estimated duration (in days) required to
complete each of the activities along with the corresponding network diagram is shown below.

Activity Duration (days) Activity Duration (days)

A Inauguration 1 G Flooring 25
B Foundation work 7 H Electrification 7
C Structural construction-1 30 I Plumbing 7
D Structural construction-2 30 J Wood work 7
E Brick masonry work 25 K Coloring 3
F Plastering 7 L Handing over function 1

E F
4 6 8
C J
A B K L
1 2 3 10 11 12
D I
G H
5 7 9

Total floats (in days) for the activities 5-7 and 11-12 for the project are, respectively,
(A) 25 and 1
(B) 1 and 1
(C) 0 and 0
(D) 81 and 0

Q.11 A strip footing is resting on the surface of a purely clayey soil deposit. If the width of the footing is
doubled, the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil
(A) becomes double (B) becomes half (C) becomes four-times (D) remains the same

Q.12 The relationship between the specific gravity of sand (G) and the hydraulic gradient (i) to initiate
quick condition in the sand layer having porosity of 30% is
(A) G = 0.7i + 1 (B) G = 1.43i − 1
(C) G = 1.43i + 1 (D) G = 0.7i − 1

Q.13 The results of a consolidation test on an undisturbed soil, sampled at a depth of 10 m below the
ground level are as follows:

Saturated unit weight : 16 kN/m3

Pre-consolidation pressure : 90 kPa

The water table was encountered at the ground level. Assuming the unit weight of water as 10
kN/m3, the over-consolidation ratio of the soil is
(A) 0.67 (B) 1.50 (C) 1.77 (D) 2.00

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Q.14 Profile of a weir on permeable foundation is shown in figure I and an elementary profile of
'upstream pile only case' according to Khosla's theory is shown in figure II. The uplift pressure
heads at key points Q, R and S are 3.14 m, 2.75 m and 0 m, respectively (refer figure II).

1m Gate

3m Weir

Floor
P
5m
10 m 5m 25 m

Figure I

R S
5m
40 m
Q
Figure II

What is the uplift pressure head at point P downstream of the weir (junction of floor and pile as
shown in the figure I)?

(A) 2.75 m (B) 1.25 m (C) 0.8 m (D) Data not sufficient

Q.15 Water table of an aquifer drops by 100 cm over an area of 1000 km2. The porosity and specific
retention of the aquifer material are 25% and 5%, respectively. The amount of water (expressed in
km3) drained out from the area is _________

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Q.16 Group I contains the types of fluids while Group II contains the shear stress - rate of shear
relationship of different types of fluids, as shown in the figure.

Group I Group II 5
P. Newtonian fluid 1. Curve 1

Shear stress
Q. Pseudo plastic fluid 2. Curve 2
R. Plastic fluid 3. Curve 3 4
S. Dilatant fluid 4. Curve 4 2
5. Curve 5
3

Yield stress
1
The correct match between Group I and Group II is
Rate of shear

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Q.17 The atmospheric layer closest to the earth surface is

(A) the mesosphere (B) the stratosphere
(C) the thermosphere (D) the troposphere

Q.18 A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500 m3/day of water. A settling column analysis
indicates that an overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth of 3.1 m.
It is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel. The required diameter (expressed in m)
of the settling tanks is __________

Q.19 The hardness of a ground water sample was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3. A softener containing
ion exchange resins was installed to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as CaCO3 before
supplying to 4 households. Each household gets treated water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the
efficiency of the softener is 100%, the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day) is _________

Q.20 The sound pressure (expressed in µPa) of the faintest sound that a normal healthy individual can
hear is
(A) 0.2 (B) 2 (C) 20 (D) 55

Q.21 In the context of the IRC 58-2011 guidelines for rigid pavement design, consider the following pair
of statements.

I: Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to modulus of elasticity of concrete and inversely
related to Poisson's ratio
II: Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of subgrade
reaction.

Which one of the following combinations is correct?

(A) I: True; II: True (B) I: False; II: False
(C) I: True; II: False (D) I: False; II: True

Q.22 If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000, the minimum
percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30

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Q.23 Optimal flight planning for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering
(A) only side-lap
(B) only end-lap
(C) either side-lap or end-lap
(D) both side-lap as well as end-lap

Q.24 The reduced bearing of a 10 m long line is N30°E. The departure of the line is
(A) 10.00 m (B) 8.66 m (C) 7.52 m (D) 5.00 m

Q.25 A circular curve of radius R connects two straights with a deflection angle of 60°. The tangent
length is
(A) 0.577 R (B) 1.155 R (C) 1.732 R (D) 3.464 R

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each

Q.26 Consider the following linear system.

𝑥𝑥 + 2𝑦𝑦 − 3𝑧𝑧 = 𝑎𝑎
2𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑦𝑦 + 3𝑧𝑧 = 𝑏𝑏
5𝑥𝑥 + 9𝑦𝑦 − 6𝑧𝑧 = 𝑐𝑐

This system is consistent if 𝑎𝑎, 𝑏𝑏 and 𝑐𝑐 satisfy the equation

(A) 7𝑎𝑎 − 𝑏𝑏 − 𝑐𝑐 = 0 (B) 3𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 − 𝑐𝑐 = 0 (C) 3𝑎𝑎 − 𝑏𝑏 + 𝑐𝑐 = 0 (D) 7𝑎𝑎 − 𝑏𝑏 + 𝑐𝑐 = 0

Q.27 If 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are two probability density functions,

𝑥𝑥
⎧ +1 ∶ −𝑎𝑎 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 < 0
⎪ 𝑎𝑎
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥
⎨ − 𝑎𝑎 + 1 ∶ 0 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 𝑎𝑎
⎪
⎩ 0 ∶ 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
𝑥𝑥
⎧− ∶ −𝑎𝑎 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 < 0
⎪ 𝑎𝑎
𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥
⎨ 𝑎𝑎 ∶ 0 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 𝑎𝑎
⎪
⎩ 0 ∶ 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) Mean of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are same; Variance of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are same
(B) Mean of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are same; Variance of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are different
(C) Mean of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are different; Variance of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are same
(D) Mean of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are different; Variance of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are different

Q.28 The angle of intersection of the curves 𝑥𝑥 2 = 4𝑦𝑦 and 𝑦𝑦 2 = 4𝑥𝑥 at point (0, 0) is

(A) 0o (B) 30o (C) 45o (D) 90o

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Q.29 The area between the parabola 𝑥𝑥 2 = 8𝑦𝑦 and the straight line y = 8 is _________.

Q.30 The quadratic approximation of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥 3 − 3𝑥𝑥 2 − 5 at the point 𝑥𝑥 = 0 is

(A) 3𝑥𝑥 2 − 6𝑥𝑥 − 5 (B) −3𝑥𝑥 2 − 5
(C) −3𝑥𝑥 2 + 6𝑥𝑥 − 5 (D) 3𝑥𝑥 2 − 5

Q.31 An elastic isotropic body is in a hydrostatic state of stress as shown in the figure. For no change in
the volume to occur, what should be its Poisson's ratio?

σy

σx

σz

(A) 0.00 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.50 (D) 1.00

Q.32 For the stress state (in MPa) shown in the figure, the major principal stress is 10 MPa.
5

5 5

τ
5

The shear stress τ is

(A) 10.0 MPa (B) 5.0 MPa (C) 2.5 MPa (D) 0.0 MPa

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Q.33 The portal frame shown in the figure is subjected to a uniformly distributed vertical load w (per unit
length).
w

Q R

L/2

P S

The bending moment in the beam at the joint ‘Q’ is

wL2
(A) zero (B) (hogging)
24
wL2 wL2
(C) (hogging) (D) (sagging)
12 8

Q.34 Consider the structural system shown in the figure under the action of weight W. All the joints are
hinged. The properties of the members in terms of length (L), area (A) and the modulus of elasticity
(E) are also given in the figure. Let L, A and E be 1 m, 0.05 m2 and 30 × 106 N/m2, respectively, and
W be 100 kN.

90°
P L
A, E A, E

Q 45° 2A, E 45° R

45° 45°

A, E A, E
S
90°

Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of the force, stress and change in length of
the horizontal member QR?
(A) Compressive force = 25 kN; Stress = 250 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0118 m
(B) Compressive force = 14.14 kN; Stress = 141.4 kN/m2; Extension = 0.0118 m
(C) Compressive force = 100 kN; Stress = 1000 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0417 m
(D) Compressive force = 100 kN; Stress = 1000 kN/m2; Extension = 0.0417 m

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Q.35 A haunched (varying depth) reinforced concrete beam is simply supported at both ends, as shown in
the figure. The beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed factored load of intensity 10 kN/m.
The design shear force (expressed in kN) at the section X-X of the beam is ______

X
5m
10 kN/m

400 mm
600 mm

X
effective span = 20 m

Q.36 A 450 mm long plain concrete prism is subjected to the concentrated vertical loads as shown in the
figure. Cross section of the prism is given as 150 mm × 150 mm. Considering linear stress
distribution across the cross-section, the modulus of rupture (expressed in MPa) is ________

11.25 kN 11.25 kN
P S
Q R

150 mm 150 mm 150 mm

Q.37 Two bolted plates under tension with alternative arrangement of bolt holes are shown in figures 1
and 2. The hole diameter, pitch, and gauge length are d, p and g, respectively.

P d P P g P
p
Figure 1 Figure 2

Which one of the following conditions must be ensured to have higher net tensile capacity of
configuration shown in Figure 2 than that shown in Figure 1 ?
(A) p > 2 gd (B) p < 4 gd (C) p > 4 gd (D) p > 4 gd
2 2 2

CE(2) 9/15

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Q.38 A fixed-end beam is subjected to a concentrated load (P ) as shown in the figure. The beam has
( )
two different segments having different plastic moment capacities M p ,2 M p as shown.

2L/3

2M P MP

L
L

The minimum value of load (P ) at which the beam would collapse (ultimate load) is

(A) 7.5M P L (B) 5.0 M P L (C) 4.5M P L (D) 2.5M P L

Q.39 The activity-on-arrow network of activities for a construction project is shown in the figure. The
durations (expressed in days) of the activities are mentioned below the arrows.

Q T W
30 70
3 5 3

X
80 90
2
P R U
10 20 40 50
2 4 3

S V
60
3 2

The critical duration for this construction project is

(A) 13 days (B) 14 days (C) 15 days (D) 16 days

Q.40 The seepage occurring through an earthen dam is represented by a flownet comprising of 10
equipotential drops and 20 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is 3 mm/min
and the head loss is 5 m. The rate of seepage (expressed in cm3/s per m length of the dam) through
the earthen dam is _________

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Q.41 The soil profile at a site consists of a 5 m thick sand layer underlain by a c-φ soil as shown in
figure. The water table is found 1 m below the ground level. The entire soil mass is retained by a
concrete retaining wall and is in the active state. The back of the wall is smooth and vertical. The
total active earth pressure (expressed in kN/m2) at point A as per Rankine's theory is _________

1m γbulk = 16.5 kN/m3

Sand
4m γsat = 19 kN/m3, γw = 9.81 kN/m3,
φ ' = 32°

3m c-φ soil
γsat = 18.5 kN/m3, γw = 9.81 kN/m3
A c' = 25 kN/m2, φ ' = 24°

Q.42 OMC-SP and MDD-SP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained
from standard Proctor compaction test, respectively. OMC-MP and MDD-MP denote the optimum
moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from the modified Proctor compaction test,
respectively. Which one of the following is correct?
(A) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP
(B) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP
(C) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP
(D) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP

CE(2) 11/15

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Q.43 Water flows from P to Q through two soil samples, Soil 1 and Soil 2, having cross sectional area of
80 cm2 as shown in the figure. Over a period of 15 minutes, 200 ml of water was observed to pass
through any cross section. The flow conditions can be assumed to be steady state. If the coefficient
of permeability of Soil 1 is 0.02 mm/s, the coefficient of permeability of Soil 2 (expressed in
mm/s) would be ________

600 mm

300 mm Q
P Soil 1 Soil 2

150 mm 150 mm

CE(2) 12/15

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Q.44 A 4 m wide strip footing is founded at a depth of 1.5 m below the ground surface in a c-φ soil as
shown in the figure. The water table is at a depth of 5.5 m below ground surface. The soil properties
are: c' = 35 kN/m2, φ' = 28.63°, γsat = 19 kN/m3, γbulk = 17 kN/m3 and γw = 9.81 kN/m3. The values
of bearing capacity factors for different φ' are given below.

φ' Nc Nq Nγ
15° 12.9 4.4 2.5
20° 17.7 7.4 5.0
25° 25.1 12.7 9.7
30° 37.2 22.5 19.7
.

1.5 m

5.5 m 4m

Using Terzaghi's bearing capacity equation and a factor of safety Fs = 2.5, the net safe bearing
capacity (expressed in kN/m2) for local shear failure of the soil is __________

Q.45 A square plate is suspended vertically from one of its edges using a hinge support as shown in
figure. A water jet of 20 mm diameter having a velocity of 10 m/s strikes the plate at its mid-point,
at an angle of 30° with the vertical. Consider g as 9.81 m/s2 and neglect the self-weight of the plate.
The force F (expressed in N) required to keep the plate in its vertical position is _________

Water jet

300 Plate
20 mm

200 mm

Q.46 The ordinates of a one-hour unit hydrograph at sixty minute interval are 0, 3, 12, 8, 6, 3 and 0 m3/s.
A two-hour storm of 4 cm excess rainfall occurred in the basin from 10 AM. Considering constant
base flow of 20 m3/s, the flow of the river (expressed in m3/s) at 1 PM is _________

CE(2) 13/15

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Q.47 A 3 m wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 6 m3/s. The depth of flow at a section P is 0.5 m.
A flat-topped hump is to be placed at the downstream of the section P. Assume negligible energy
loss between section P and hump, and consider 𝑔𝑔 as 9.81 m/s 2 . The maximum height of the hump
(expressed in m) which will not change the depth of flow at section P is _________

Q.48 A penstock of 1 m diameter and 5 km length is used to supply water from a reservoir to an impulse
turbine. A nozzle of 15 cm diameter is fixed at the end of the penstock. The elevation difference
between the turbine and water level in the reservoir is 500 m. Consider the head loss due to friction
as 5% of the velocity head available at the jet. Assume unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3 and
acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s2. If the overall efficiency is 80%, power generated
(expressed in kW and rounded to nearest integer) is _______________

Q.49 A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of
water surface in Well-2 is 3 m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15%, the
coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day) is
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.45 (C) 1.00 (D) 5.00

Q.50 A sample of water has been analyzed for common ions and results are presented in the form of a
bar diagram as shown.

meq/L 0 2.65 4.10 6.35 6.85

Ca2+ Mg2+ Na+ K+

HCO3− SO42− Cl−

meq/L 0 3.30 3.90 6.75

The non-carbonate hardness (expressed in mg/L as CaCO3) of the sample is

(A) 40 (B) 165 (C) 195 (D) 205

Q.51 A noise meter located at a distance of 30 m from a point source recorded 74 dB. The reading at a
distance of 60 m from the point source would be _________

Q.52 For a wastewater sample, the three-day biochemical oxygen demand at incubation temperature of
20°C (BOD3day, 20°C) is estimated as 200 mg/L. Taking the value of the first order BOD reaction rate
constant as 0.22 day-1, the five-day BOD (expressed in mg/L) of the wastewater at incubation
temperature of 20°C (BOD5day, 20°c) would be _________

Q.53 The critical flow ratios for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25, and 0.25. The total time
lost in the cycle is 10 s. Pedestrian crossings at this junction are not significant. The respective
Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the nearest integer) for the three phases are
(A) 34, 28, and 28 (B) 40, 25, and 25 (C) 40, 30, and 30 (D) 50, 25, and 25

CE(2) 14/15

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Q.54 A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a highway needs to take the next exit, which has a speed limit
of 50 km/h. The section of the roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade of 3% and
coefficient of friction ( f ) is 0.35. In order to enter the ramp at the maximum allowable speed limit,
the braking distance (expressed in m) from the exit ramp is _________

Q.55 A tall tower was photographed from an elevation of 700 m above the datum. The radial distances of
the top and bottom of the tower from the principal points are 112.50 mm and 82.40 mm,
respectively. If the bottom of the tower is at an elevation 250 m above the datum, then the height
(expressed in m) of the tower is _________

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

CE(2) 15/15

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Q. No Type Section Key Marks

1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA C 1
4 MCQ GA A 1
5 MCQ GA A 1
6 MCQ GA D 2
7 MCQ GA D 2
8 MCQ GA B 2
9 MCQ GA D 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 NAT CE-2 54.49 : 54.51 1
2 MCQ CE-2 D 1
3 MCQ CE-2 C 1
4 MCQ CE-2 A 1
5 MCQ CE-2 D 1
6 MCQ CE-2 A 1
7 MCQ CE-2 B 1
8 MCQ CE-2 B 1
9 MCQ CE-2 D 1
10 MCQ CE-2 C 1
11 MCQ CE-2 D 1
12 MCQ CE-2 C 1
13 MCQ CE-2 B 1
14 MCQ CE-2 B 1
15 NAT CE-2 0.19 : 0.21 1
16 MCQ CE-2 C 1
17 MCQ CE-2 D 1
18 NAT CE-2 6.8 : 7.0 1
19 NAT CE-2 380 : 390 1
20 MCQ CE-2 C 1
21 MCQ CE-2 B 1
22 MCQ CE-2 A 1
23 MCQ CE-2 D 1
24 MCQ CE-2 D 1
25 MCQ CE-2 A 1
26 MCQ CE-2 B 2
27 MCQ CE-2 B 2
28 MCQ CE-2 D 2
29 NAT CE-2 85.0 : 85.5 2
30 MCQ CE-2 B 2
31 MCQ CE-2 C 2
32 MCQ CE-2 B 2
33 MCQ CE-2 A 2
34 MCQ CE-2 C 2
35 NAT CE-2 64 : 66 2
36 NAT CE-2 2.9 : 3.1 2
37 MCQ CE-2 C 2
38 MCQ CE-2 A 2
39 MCQ CE-2 C 2

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40 NAT CE-2 495 : 505 2

41 NAT CE-2 69.0 : 70.5 2
42 MCQ CE-2 B 2
43 NAT CE-2 0.04 : 0.05 2
44 NAT CE-2 298 : 300 2
45 NAT CE-2 7.4 : 8.0 2
46 NAT CE-2 59 : 61 2
47 NAT CE-2 0.19 : 0.21 2
48 NAT CE-2 6560 : 6580 2
49 MCQ CE-2 D 2
50 MCQ CE-2 A 2
51 NAT CE-2 67 : 69 2
52 NAT CE-2 275 : 278 2
53 MCQ CE-2 A 2
54 NAT CE-2 92 : 93 2
55 NAT CE-2 120 : 121 2

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SESSION - 1

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Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Civil Engineering 12th Feb 2017 Session 1

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100

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Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 2 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 3 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 4 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 5 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 6 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 7 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 8 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 9 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 10 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 11 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 12 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 13 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 14 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 15 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 16 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 17 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 18 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 19 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 20 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 21 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 22 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 23 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 24 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 25 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 26 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 27 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 28 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 29 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 30 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 31 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 32 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 33 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 34 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 35 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 36 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 37 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 38 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 39 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 40 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 41 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 42 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 43 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 44 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 45 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 46 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 47 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 48 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 49 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 50 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 51 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 52 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 53 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 54 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 55 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 56 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 57 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 58 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 59 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 60 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 61 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 62 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 63 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 64 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 65 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Q. No. Type Section Key Marks

1 MCQ CE-1 C 1
2 MCQ CE-1 B 1
3 MCQ CE-1 B 1
4 MCQ CE-1 A 1
5 MCQ CE-1 A or B 1
6 MCQ CE-1 B 1
7 MCQ CE-1 C 1
8 MCQ CE-1 C 1
9 MCQ CE-1 C 1
10 MCQ CE-1 D 1
11 MCQ CE-1 C 1
12 MCQ CE-1 B 1
13 MCQ CE-1 B 1
14 MCQ CE-1 D 1
15 MCQ CE-1 D 1
16 MCQ CE-1 A 1
17 MCQ CE-1 C 1
18 MCQ CE-1 B 1
19 MCQ CE-1 C 1
20 NAT CE-1 35.9 to 36.1 1
21 NAT CE-1 -1.1 to -0.9 1
22 NAT CE-1 1765 to 1775 1
23 NAT CE-1 0.60 to 0.63 1
24 NAT CE-1 15 to 15 1
25 NAT CE-1 0.1276 to 0.1372 1
26 MCQ CE-1 B 2
27 MCQ CE-1 D 2
28 MCQ CE-1 A 2
29 MCQ CE-1 A 2
30 MCQ CE-1 D 2
31 MCQ CE-1 C 2
32 MCQ CE-1 A 2
33 MCQ CE-1 B 2
34 MCQ CE-1 C 2
35 MCQ CE-1 Mark to all 2
36 MCQ CE-1 A 2

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37 NAT CE-1 7.95 to 8.05 2

38 NAT CE-1 4.5 to 5.0 2
39 NAT CE-1 34.9 to 35.1 2
40 NAT CE-1 59.0 to 61.0 2
41 NAT CE-1 199 to 201 2
42 NAT CE-1 7.9 to 8.3 2
43 NAT CE-1 5.9 to 6.1 2
44 NAT CE-1 5.4 to 5.6 2
45 NAT CE-1 51 to 51 2
46 NAT CE-1 385 to 392 2
47 NAT CE-1 34.0 to 34.5 2
48 NAT CE-1 0.80 to 0.83 2
49 NAT CE-1 2.50 to 3.75 2
50 NAT CE-1 25.5 to 27.0 2
51 NAT CE-1 149.0 to 151.0 2
52 NAT CE-1 79 to 81 2
53 NAT CE-1 0.3 to 0.5 2
54 NAT CE-1 20.0 to 22.0 2
55 NAT CE-1 17.9 to 18.1 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA C 1
58 MCQ GA D 1
59 MCQ GA C 1
60 MCQ GA D 1
61 MCQ GA B 2
62 MCQ GA B 2
63 MCQ GA B 2
64 MCQ GA A 2
65 MCQ GA C 2

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SESSION - 2

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Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Civil Engineering 12th feb 2017 session 2

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100

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Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 2 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 3 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 4 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 5 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 6 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 7 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 8 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 9 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 10 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 11 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 12 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 13 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 14 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 15 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 16 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 17 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 18 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 19 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 20 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 21 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 22 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 23 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 24 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 25 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 26 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 27 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 28 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 29 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 30 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 31 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 32 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 33 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 34 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 35 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 36 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 37 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 38 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 39 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 40 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 41 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 42 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 43 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 44 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 45 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 46 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 47 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 48 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 49 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 50 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 51 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 52 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 53 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 54 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 55 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 56 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 57 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 58 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 59 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 60 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 61 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 62 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 63 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 64 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Question Number : 65 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Q. No. Type Section Key Marks

1 MCQ CE-2 A 1
2 MCQ CE-2 C 1
3 MCQ CE-2 D 1
4 MCQ CE-2 A 1
5 MCQ CE-2 C 1
6 MCQ CE-2 Mark to all 1
7 MCQ CE-2 C 1
8 MCQ CE-2 A 1
9 MCQ CE-2 B 1
10 MCQ CE-2 B 1
11 MCQ CE-2 B 1
12 MCQ CE-2 C 1
13 MCQ CE-2 D 1
14 MCQ CE-2 B 1
15 MCQ CE-2 C 1
16 MCQ CE-2 A or D 1
17 MCQ CE-2 B 1
18 NAT CE-2 209 to 219 1
19 NAT CE-2 133.9 to 134.1 1
20 NAT CE-2 0.5 to 0.5 1
21 NAT CE-2 1.6 to 1.6 1
22 NAT CE-2 199.99 to 200.01 1
23 NAT CE-2 1.9 to 2.1 1
24 NAT CE-2 0.98 to 1.00 1
25 NAT CE-2 1.49 to 1.51 1
26 MCQ CE-2 A 2
27 MCQ CE-2 A 2
28 MCQ CE-2 A 2
29 MCQ CE-2 A 2
30 MCQ CE-2 A 2
31 MCQ CE-2 A 2
32 MCQ CE-2 C 2
33 MCQ CE-2 D 2
34 MCQ CE-2 A 2
35 MCQ CE-2 A 2
36 MCQ CE-2 A 2

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37 MCQ CE-2 A 2
38 NAT CE-2 89 to 91 2
39 NAT CE-2 20 to 25 2
40 NAT CE-2 0.14 to 0.16 2
41 NAT CE-2 59 to 61 2
42 NAT CE-2 0.9 to 1.1 2
43 NAT CE-2 Mark to all 2
44 NAT CE-2 187.0 to 192.0 2
45 NAT CE-2 20.70 to 20.76 2
46 NAT CE-2 1.06 to 1.08 2
47 NAT CE-2 286.9 to 287.9 2
48 NAT CE-2 5150 to 5250 2
49 NAT CE-2 65.0 to 69.0 2
50 NAT CE-2 3850 to 3900 2
51 NAT CE-2 0.22 to 0.24 2
52 NAT CE-2 8 to 8 2
53 NAT CE-2 300 to 300 2
54 NAT CE-2 1.9 to 2.1 2
55 NAT CE-2 32.5 to 33.5 2
56 MCQ GA B 1
57 MCQ GA B 1
58 MCQ GA C 1
59 MCQ GA B 1
60 MCQ GA B 1
61 MCQ GA A 2
62 MCQ GA C 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA D 2
65 MCQ GA D 2

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SESSION - 1

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GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-7

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “The driver applied the _______ as soon as she approached the hotel where she wanted to
take a ________.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) brake, break (B) break, break

Q.2 “It is no surprise that every society has had codes of behaviour; however, the nature of
these codes is often _________.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) unpredictable (B) simple (C) expected (D) strict

Q.3 Hema’s age is 5 years more than twice Hari’s age. Suresh’s age is 13 years less than 10
times Hari’s age. If Suresh is 3 times as old as Hema, how old is Hema?

(A) 14 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19

Q.4 Tower A is 90 m tall and tower B is 140 m tall. They are 100 m apart. A horizontal
skywalk connects the floors at 70 m in both the towers. If a taut rope connects the top of
tower A to the bottom of tower B, at what distance (in meters) from tower A will the rope
intersect the skywalk?

(A) 22.22 (B) 50 (C) 57.87 (D) 77.78

Q.5 The temperature 𝑇 in a room varies as a function of the outside temperature 𝑇0 and the
number of persons in the room 𝑝, according to the relation 𝑇 = Κ (Θ𝑝 + 𝑇0 ), where Θ and
Κ are constants. What would be the value of Θ given the following data?

𝑻𝟎 𝒑 𝑻
25 2 32.4
30 5 42.0

(A) 0.8 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 10.0

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GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-7
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 A fruit seller sold a basket of fruits at 12.5% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 108 more, he
would have made a 10% gain. What is the loss in Rupees incurred by the fruit seller?

(A) 48 (B) 52 (C) 60 (D) 108

Q.7 The price of a wire made of a superalloy material is proportional to the square of its length.
The price of 10 m length of the wire is Rs. 1600. What would be the total price (in Rs.) of
two wires of lengths 4 m and 6m?

(A) 768 (B) 832 (C) 1440 (D) 1600

Q.8 Which of the following function(s) is an accurate description of the graph for the range(s)
indicated?

(i) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 4 for −3 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ −1
(ii) 𝑦 = |𝑥 − 1| for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2
(iii) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| − 1| for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2
(iv) 𝑦 = 1 for 2 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only.

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only.
(C) (i) and (iv) only.
(D) (ii) and (iv) only.

Q.9 1 1
Consider a sequence of numbers 𝑎1 , 𝑎2 , 𝑎3 , ⋯ , 𝑎𝑛 where 𝑎𝑛 = − , for each integer
𝑛 𝑛+2
𝑛 > 0. What is the sum of the first 50 terms?

1 1 1 1
(A) (1 + 2) − 50 (B) (1 + 2) + 50
1 1 1 1 1
(C) (1 + 2) − ( 51 + 52) (D) 1 − ( 51 + 52)

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GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-7

Q.10 Each of the letters arranged as below represents a unique integer from 1 to 9. The letters are
positioned in the figure such that (A × B × C), (B × G × E) and (D × E × F) are equal.
Which integer among the following choices cannot be represented by the letters A, B, C, D,
E, F or G?
A D
B G E
C F
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 9

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 3/3

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GATE 2018 Civil Engineering (Set 1)

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which one of the following matrices is singular?

 2 5 3 2 2 4 4 3
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
 1 3 2 3 3 6 6 2

Q.2 For the given orthogonal matrix Q,

3/7 2/7 6/7
𝑄 = [−6/7 3/7 2/7 ]
2/7 6/7 −3/7
The inverse is

3/7 2/7 6/7

(A) [ −6/7 3/7 2/7 ]
2/7 6/7 −3/7

−3/7 −2/7 −6/7

(B) [ 6/7 −3/7 −2/7]
−2/7 −6/7 3/7

3/7 −6/7 2/7

−3/7 6/7 −2/7

(D) [−2/7 −3/7 −6/7]
−6/7 −2/7 3/7

Q.3 At the point 𝑥 = 0, the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 has

(A) local maximum
(B) local minimum
(C) both local maximum and minimum
(D) neither local maximum nor local minimum

Q.4 A column of height h with a rectangular cross-section of size a×2a has a buckling load of
P. If the cross-section is changed to 0.5a × 3a and its height changed to 1.5h, the buckling
load of the redesigned column will be

(A) P/12 (B) P/4 (C) P/2 (D) 3P/4

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Q.5 A steel column of ISHB 350 @72.4 kg/m is subjected to a factored axial compressive load
of 2000 kN. The load is transferred to a concrete pedestal of grade M20 through a square
base plate. Consider bearing strength of concrete as 0.45fck, where fck is the characteristic
strength of concrete. Using limit state method and neglecting the self weight of base plate
and steel column, the length of a side of the base plate to be provided is

(A) 39 cm (B) 42 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 48 cm

Q.6 The Le Chatelier apparatus is used to determine

(A) compressive strength of cement (B) fineness of cement
(C) setting time of cement (D) soundness of cement

Q.7 The deformation in concrete due to sustained loading is

(A) creep (B) hydration (C) segregation (D) shrinkage

Q.8 A solid circular beam with radius of 0.25 m and length of 2 m is subjected to a twisting
moment of 20 kNm about the z-axis at the free end, which is the only load acting as shown
in the figure. The shear stress component 𝜏𝑥𝑦 at Point ‘M’ in the cross-section of the beam
at a distance of 1 m from the fixed end is

20 kNm

(A) 0.0 MPa (B) 0.51 MPa (C) 0.815 MPa (D) 2.0 MPa

Q.9 Two rectangular under-reinforced concrete beam sections X and Y are similar in all aspects
except that the longitudinal compression reinforcement in section Y is 10% more. Which
one of the following is the correct statement?
(A) Section X has less flexural strength and is less ductile than section Y
(B) Section X has less flexural strength but is more ductile than section Y
(C) Sections X and Y have equal flexural strength but different ductility
(D) Sections X and Y have equal flexural strength and ductility

Q.10 The percent reduction in the bearing capacity of a strip footing resting on sand under
flooding condition (water level at the base of the footing) when compared to the situation
where the water level is at a depth much greater than the width of footing, is approximately
(A) 0 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 100

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GATE 2018 Civil Engineering (Set 1)

Q.11 The width of a square footing and the diameter of a circular footing are equal. If both the
footings are placed on the surface of sandy soil, the ratio of the ultimate bearing capacity of
circular footing to that of square footing will be
(A) 4/3 (B) 1 (C) 3/4 (D) 2/3

Q.12 Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for

(A) viscous and compressible fluid flow
(B) inviscid and compressible fluid flow
(C) inviscid and incompressible fluid flow
(D) viscous and incompressible fluid flow

Q.13 There are 20,000 vehicles operating in a city with an average annual travel of 12,000 km
per vehicle. The NOx emission rate is 2.0 g/km per vehicle. The total annual release of
NOx will be

(A) 4,80,000 kg (B) 4,800 kg (C) 480 kg (D) 48 kg

Q.14 A bitumen sample has been graded as VG30 as per IS : 73-2013. The ‘30’ in the grade
means that

(A) penetration of bitumen at 25C is between 20 and 40

(B) viscosity of bitumen at 60C is between 2400 and 3600 Poise
(C) ductility of bitumen at 27C is more than 30 cm
(D) elastic recovery of bitumen at 15C is more than 30%

Q.15 The speed-density relationship for a road section is shown in the figure.
Speed

Density

The shape of the flow-density relationship is

(A) piecewise linear

(B) parabolic
(C) initially linear then parabolic
(D) initially parabolic then linear

Q.16 A well-designed signalized intersection is one in which the

(A) crossing conflicts are increased
(B) total delay is minimized
(C) cycle time is equal to the sum of red and green times in all phases
(D) cycle time is equal to the sum of red and yellow times in all phases

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Q.17 A flow field is given by 𝑢 = 𝑦 2 , 𝑣 = −𝑥𝑦, 𝑤 = 0. Value of the z-component of the

angular velocity (in radians per unit time, up to two decimal places) at the point (0, −1, 1)
is ______

Q.18 The frequency distribution of the compressive strength of 20 concrete cube specimens is
given in the table.

f (MPa) Number of specimens with

compressive strength equal to f
23 4
28 2
22.5 5
31 5
29 4

If 𝜇 is the mean strength of the specimens and 𝜎 is the standard deviation, the number of
specimens (out of 20) with compressive strength less than 𝜇 − 3𝜎 is ______

Q.19 In a fillet weld, the direct shear stress and bending tensile stress are 50 MPa and 150 MPa,
respectively. As per IS 800: 2007, the equivalent stress (in MPa, up to two decimal places)
will be ______

Q.20 In a shrinkage limit test, the volume and mass of a dry soil pat are found to be 50 cm3 and
88 g, respectively. The specific gravity of the soil solids is 2.71 and the density of water is
1 g/cc. The shrinkage limit (in %, up to two decimal places) is ______

Q.21 A core cutter of 130 mm height has inner and outer diameters of 100 mm and 106 mm,
respectively. The area ratio of the core cutter (in %, up to two decimal places) is ______

Q.22 A 1:50 model of a spillway is to be tested in the laboratory. The discharge in the prototype
spillway is 1000 m3/s. The corresponding discharge (in m3/s, up to two decimal places) to
be maintained in the model, neglecting variation in acceleration due to gravity, is ______

Q.23 A 10 m wide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 20 m3/s under critical condition.
Using g = 9.81 m/s2, the specific energy (in m, up to two decimal places) is ______

Q.24 For routing of flood in a given channel using the Muskingum method, two of the routing
coefficients are estimated as C0   0.25 and C1  0.55. The value of the third coefficient
C2 would be ______

Q.25 A city generates 40×106 kg of municipal solid waste (MSW) per year, out of which only
10% is recovered/recycled and the rest goes to landfill. The landfill has a single lift of 3 m
height and is compacted to a density of 550 kg/m3. If 80% of the landfill is assumed to be
MSW, the landfill area (in m2, up to one decimal place) required would be ______

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GATE 2018 Civil Engineering (Set 1)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The value of the integral ∫𝜋 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 is

(A) π2/8 (B) π2/4 (C) π2/2 (D) π2

Q.27 A cantilever beam of length 2 m with a square section of side length 0.1 m is loaded
vertically at the free end. The vertical displacement at the free end is 5 mm. The beam is
made of steel with Young’s modulus of 2.0×1011 N/m2. The maximum bending stress at the
fixed end of the cantilever is

(A) 20.0 MPa (B) 37.5 MPa (C) 60.0 MPa (D) 75.0 MPa

Q.28 A cylinder of radius 250 mm and weight, W = 10 kN is rolled up an obstacle of height

50 mm by applying a horizontal force P at its centre as shown in the figure.

All interfaces are assumed frictionless. The minimum value of P is

(A) 4.5 kN (B) 5.0 kN (C) 6.0 kN (D) 7.5 kN

Q.29 A plate in equilibrium is subjected to uniform stresses along its edges with magnitude
𝜎𝑥𝑥 = 30 MPa and 𝜎𝑦𝑦 = 50 MPa as shown in the figure.

The Young’s modulus of the material is 2×1011 N/m2 and the Poisson’s ratio is 0.3. If 𝜎𝑧𝑧 is
negligibly small and assumed to be zero, then the strain 𝜀𝑧𝑧 is

(A) -120×10-6 (B) - 60×10-6 (C) 0.0 (D) 120 ×10-6

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Q.30 The figure shows a simply supported beam PQ of uniform flexural rigidity EI carrying two
moments M and 2M.

The slope at P will be

(A) 0 (B) ML/(9EI) (C) ML/(6EI) (D) ML/(3EI)

Q.31 A 0.5 m × 0.5 m square concrete pile is to be driven in a homogeneous clayey soil having
undrained shear strength, cu = 50 kPa and unit weight, γ = 18.0 kN/m3. The design capacity
of the pile is 500 kN. The adhesion factor α is given as 0.75. The length of the pile required
for the above design load with a factor of safety of 2.0 is
(A) 5.2 m (B) 5.8 m (C) 11.8 m (D) 12.5 m

Q.32 A closed tank contains 0.5 m thick layer of mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) at the bottom.
A 2.0 m thick layer of water lies above the mercury layer. A 3.0 m thick layer of oil
(specific gravity = 0.6) lies above the water layer. The space above the oil layer contains
air under pressure. The gauge pressure at the bottom of the tank is 196.2 kN/m2. The
density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. The value
of pressure in the air space is
(A) 92.214 kN/m2 (B) 95.644 kN/m2 (C) 98.922 kN/m2 (D) 99.321 kN/m2

Q.33 A rapid sand filter comprising a number of filter beds is required to produce 99 MLD of
potable water. Consider water loss during backwashing as 5%, rate of filtration as 6.0 m/h
and length to width ratio of filter bed as 1.35. The width of each filter bed is to be kept
equal to 5.2 m. One additional filter bed is to be provided to take care of break-down,
repair and maintenance. The total number of filter beds required will be

(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 22

Q.34 A priority intersection has a single-lane one-way traffic road crossing an undivided two-
lane two-way traffic road. The traffic stream speed on the single-lane road is 20 kmph and
the speed on the two-lane road is 50 kmph. The perception-reaction time is 2.5 s,
coefficient of longitudinal friction is 0.38 and acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. A
clear sight triangle has to be ensured at this intersection. The minimum lengths of the sides
of the sight triangle along the two-lane road and the single-lane road, respectively will be
(A) 50 m and 20 m (B) 61 m and 18 m
(C) 111 m and 15 m (D) 122 m and 36 m

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Q.35 The following details refer to a closed traverse:

Line Consecutive coordinate

Northing (m) Southing (m) Easting (m) Westing (m)
PQ ---- 437 173 ----
QR 101 ---- 558 ----
RS 419 ---- ---- 96
SP ---- 83 ---- 634

The length and direction (whole circle bearing) of closure, respectively are
(A) 1 m and 90°
(B) 2 m and 90°
(C) 1 m and 270°
(D) 2 m and 270°

Q.36 A square area (on the surface of the earth) with side 100 m and uniform height, appears as
1 cm2 on a vertical aerial photograph. The topographic map shows that a contour of 650 m
passes through the area. If focal length of the camera lens is 150 mm, the height from
which the aerial photograph was taken, is
(A) 800 m (B) 1500 m (C) 2150 m (D) 3150 m

Q.37 The solution at 𝑥 = 1, 𝑡 = 1 of the partial differential equation 𝜕2 𝑢 𝜕2 𝑢

= 25 subject to
𝜕𝑥 2 𝜕𝑡 2
𝜕𝑢
initial conditions of 𝑢(0) = 3𝑥 and (0) = 3 is ______
𝜕𝑡

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6

Q.38 The solution (up to three decimal places) at 𝑥 = 1 of the differential equation
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦
+ 2 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 subject to boundary conditions 𝑦(0) = 1 and 𝑑𝑥 (0) = −1 is ______
𝑑𝑥 2

Q.39 Variation of water depth (𝑦) in a gradually varied open channel flow is given by the first
order differential equation
10
𝑑𝑦 1 − 𝑒 − 3 ln(𝑦)
=
𝑑𝑥 250 − 45𝑒 − 3ln(𝑦)
Given initial condition: 𝑦(𝑥 = 0) = 0.8 𝑚. The depth (in m, up to three decimal places) of
flow at a downstream section at x = 1 m from one calculation step of Single Step Euler
Method is ______

Q.40 An RCC short column (with lateral ties) of rectangular cross section of 250 mm × 300 mm
is reinforced with four numbers of 16 mm diameter longitudinal bars. The grades of steel
and concrete are Fe415 and M20, respectively. Neglect eccentricity effect. Considering
limit state of collapse in compression (IS 456 : 2000), the axial load carrying capacity of
the column (in kN, up to one decimal place), is ______

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Q.41 An RCC beam of rectangular cross section has factored shear of 200 kN at its critical
section. Its width b is 250 mm and effective depth d is 350 mm. Assume design shear
strength 𝜏𝑐 of concrete as 0.62 N/mm2 and maximum allowable shear stress 𝜏𝑐,𝑚𝑎𝑥 in
concrete as 2.8 N/mm2. If two legged 10 mm diameter vertical stirrups of Fe250 grade steel
are used, then the required spacing (in cm, up to one decimal place) as per limit state
method will be ______

Q.42 The dimensions of a symmetrical welded I-section are shown in the figure.
140

6.1
200

9
140

(All dimensions are in mm)

The plastic section modulus about the weaker axis (in cm3, up to one decimal place) is
______

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Q.43 Consider the deformable pin-jointed truss with loading, geometry and section properties as
shown in the figure.

Given that E = 2×1011 N/m2, A = 10 mm2, L = 1 m and P = 1 kN. The horizontal

displacement of Joint C (in mm, up to one decimal place) is ______

Q.44 At a construction site, a contractor plans to make an excavation as shown in the figure.

Proposed Elevation: +20 m

20
Elevation (in m)

Excavation

10 River
3
Clay, Unit weight, γ = 20 kN/m
0

Highly Pervious Sand

-10

The water level in the adjacent river is at an elevation of +20.0 m. Unit weight of water is
10 kN/m3. The factor of safety (up to two decimal places) against sand boiling for the
proposed excavation is ______

Q.45 A conventional drained triaxial compression test was conducted on a normally consolidated
clay sample under an effective confining pressure of 200 kPa. The deviator stress at failure
was found to be 400 kPa. An identical specimen of the same clay sample is isotropically
consolidated to a confining pressure of 200 kPa and subjected to standard undrained
triaxial compression test. If the deviator stress at failure is 150 kPa, the pore pressure
developed (in kPa, up to one decimal place) is ______

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Q.46 The void ratio of a soil is 0.55 at an effective normal stress of 140 kPa. The compression
index of the soil is 0.25. In order to reduce the void ratio to 0.4, an increase in the
magnitude of effective normal stress (in kPa, up to one decimal place) should be ______

Q.47 A rigid smooth retaining wall of height 7 m with vertical backface retains saturated clay as
backfill. The saturated unit weight and undrained cohesion of the backfill are 17.2 kN/m3
and 20 kPa, respectively. The difference in the active lateral forces on the wall (in kN per
meter length of wall, up to two decimal places), before and after the occurrence of tension
cracks is ______

Q.48 Rainfall depth over a watershed is monitored through six number of well distributed rain
gauges. Gauged data are given below

Rain Gauge Number 1 2 3 4 5 6

Rainfall Depth (mm) 470 465 435 525 480 510
Area of Thiessen Polygon (×104 m2) 95 100 98 80 85 92

The Thiessen mean value (in mm, up to one decimal place) of the rainfall is ______

Q.49 The infiltration rate 𝑓 in a basin under ponding condition is given by 𝑓 = 30 + 10𝑒 −2𝑡 ,
where, 𝑓 is in mm/h and t is time in hour. Total depth of infiltration (in mm, up to one
decimal place) during the last 20 minutes of a storm of 30 minutes duration is ______

Q.50 In a laboratory, a flow experiment is performed over a hydraulic structure. The measured
values of discharge and velocity are 0.05 m3/s and 0.25 m/s, respectively. If the full scale
structure (30 times bigger) is subjected to a discharge of 270 m3/s, then the time scale
(model to full scale) value (up to two decimal places) is ______

Q.51 A water sample analysis data is given below.

Ion Concentration, mg/L Atomic Weight

Ca2+ 60 40
Mg2+ 30 24.31
HCO3- 400 61

The carbonate hardness (expressed as mg/L of CaCO3, up to one decimal place) for the
water sample is ______

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Q.52 The ultimate BOD (𝐿0 ) of a wastewater sample is estimated as 87% of COD. The COD of
this wastewater is 300 mg/L. Considering first order BOD reaction rate constant k (use
natural log) = 0.23 per day and temperature coefficient θ = 1.047, the BOD value (in mg/L,
up to one decimal place) after three days of incubation at 27oC for this wastewater will be
______

Q.53 A waste activated sludge (WAS) is to be blended with green waste (GW). The carbon (C)
and nitrogen (N) contents, per kg of WAS and GW, on dry basis are given in the table.

Parameter WAS GW
Carbon (g) 54 360
Nitrogen (g) 10 6

The ratio of WAS to GW required (up to two decimal places) to achieve a blended C:N
ratio of 20:1 on dry basis is ______

Q.54 Given the following data: design life n = 15 years, lane distribution factor D = 0.75, annual
rate of growth of commercial vehicles r = 6%, vehicle damage factor F = 4 and initial
traffic in the year of completion of construction = 3000 Commercial Vehicles Per Day
(CVPD). As per IRC:37-2012, the design traffic in terms of cumulative number of standard
axles (in million standard axles, up to two decimal places) is ______

Q.55 An aircraft approaches the threshold of a runway strip at a speed of 200 km/h. The pilot
decelerates the aircraft at a rate of 1.697 m/s2 and takes 18 s to exit the runway strip. If the
deceleration after exiting the runway is 1 m/s2, then the distance (in m, up to one decimal
place) of the gate position from the location of exit on the runway is ______

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

1 MCQ GA A 1

2 MCQ GA A 1

3 MCQ GA D 1

4 MCQ GA Marks to All 1

5 MCQ GA B 1

6 MCQ GA C 2

7 MCQ GA B 2

8 MCQ GA B 2

9 MCQ GA C 2

10 MCQ GA B 2

1 MCQ CE C 1

2 MCQ CE C 1

3 MCQ CE D 1

4 MCQ CE A 1

5 MCQ CE D 1

6 MCQ CE D 1

7 MCQ CE A 1

8 MCQ CE A 1

9 MCQ CE A 1

10 MCQ CE C 1

11 MCQ CE C 1

12 MCQ CE C 1

13 MCQ CE A 1

14 MCQ CE B 1

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

15 MCQ CE C 1

16 MCQ CE B 1

17 NAT CE 1.50 to 1.50 1

18 NAT CE 0 to 0 1

19 NAT CE 173.10 to 173.30 1

20 NAT CE 19.50 to 20.50 1

21 NAT CE 12.30 to 12.40 1

22 NAT CE 0.05 to 0.06 1

23 NAT CE 1.10 to 1.20 1

24 NAT CE 0.70 to 0.70 1

25 NAT CE 27271 to 27274 1

26 MCQ CE B 2

27 MCQ CE B 2

28 MCQ CE D 2

29 MCQ CE A 2

30 MCQ CE C 2

31 MCQ CE C 2

32 MCQ CE A 2

33 MCQ CE C (or) D 2

34 MCQ CE C 2

35 MCQ CE A (or) C 2

36 MCQ CE C 2

37 MCQ CE D 2

38 NAT CE 0.36 to 0.37 2

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

39 NAT CE 0.78 to 0.80 2

40 NAT CE 815 to 830 (or) 905 to 920 2

41 NAT CE 7.0 to 9.0 2

42 NAT CE 88.0 to 92.0 2

43 NAT CE 2.60 to 2.80 2

44 NAT CE 1.00 to 1.03 2

45 NAT CE 124 to 126 2

46 NAT CE 416.0 to 420.0 2

47 NAT CE 45 to 49 (or) ‐49 to ‐45 2

48 NAT CE 478.5 to 479.5 2

49 NAT CE 11.0 to 12.0 2

50 NAT CE 0.15 to 0.25 2

51 NAT CE 272.0 to 274.0 2

52 NAT CE 154.0 to 161.0 2

53 NAT CE 1.60 to 1.70 2

54 NAT CE 75.00 to 78.00 2

55 NAT CE 311.0 to 319.0 2

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GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “His face ___________ with joy when the solution of the puzzle was _______ to him.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) shone, shown (B) shone, shone

Q.2 “Although it does contain some pioneering ideas, one would hardly characterize the work
as _________.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) innovative (B) simple (C) dull (D) boring

Q.3 𝑎 + 𝑎 + 𝑎 + ⋯ + 𝑎 = 𝑎2 𝑏 and ⏟
⏟ 𝑏 + 𝑏 + 𝑏 + ⋯ + 𝑏 = 𝑎𝑏 2 , where 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑛 and 𝑚 are
𝑛 times 𝑚 times
natural numbers. What is the value of
(𝑚
⏟ + 𝑚 + 𝑚 + ⋯ + 𝑚) (𝑛
⏟ + 𝑛 + 𝑛 + ⋯ + 𝑛)?
𝑛 times 𝑚 times

(A) 2𝑎2 𝑏 2 (B) 𝑎4 𝑏 4 (C) 𝑎𝑏(𝑎 + 𝑏) (D) 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2

Q.4 A three-member committee has to be formed from a group of 9 people. How many such
distinct committees can be formed?

(A) 27 (B) 72 (C) 81 (D) 84

Q.5 For non-negative integers, 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, what would be the value of 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 if

log 𝑎 + log 𝑏 + log 𝑐 = 0?

(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) −1

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 In manufacturing industries, loss is usually taken to be proportional to the square of the
deviation from a target. If the loss is Rs. 4900 for a deviation of 7 units, what would be the
loss in Rupees for a deviation of 4 units from the target?

(A) 400 (B) 1200 (C) 1600 (D) 2800

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Q.7 A faulty wall clock is known to gain 15 minutes every 24 hours. It is synchronized to the
correct time at 9 AM on 11th July. What will be the correct time to the nearest minute when
the clock shows 2 PM on 15th July of the same year?

(A) 12:45 PM (B) 12:58 PM (C) 1:00 PM (D) 2:00 PM

Q.8 The annual average rainfall in a tropical city is 1000 mm. On a particular rainy day
(24-hour period), the cumulative rainfall experienced by the city is shown in the graph.
Over the 24-hour period, 50% of the rainfall falling on a rooftop, which had an obstruction-
free area of 50 m2, was harvested into a tank. What is the total volume of water collected in
the tank in liters?

(A) 25,000 (B) 18,750 (C) 7,500 (D) 3,125

Q.9 log 𝑃 log 𝑄 log 𝑅

Given that = = = 10 for 𝑥 ≠ 𝑦 ≠ 𝑧, what is the value of the product
𝑦−𝑧 𝑧−𝑥 𝑥−𝑦
𝑃𝑄𝑅?

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 𝑥𝑦𝑧 (D) 10𝑥𝑦𝑧

Q.10 Each of the letters in the figure below represents a unique integer from 1 to 9. The letters
are positioned in the figure such that each of (A+B+C), (C+D+E), (E+F+G) and (G+H+K)
is equal to 13. Which integer does E represent?

A B C
D
E F G
H
K
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 2/2

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GATE 2018 Civil Engineering (Set 2)

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 dy
The solution of the equation x + y = 0 passing through the point (1,1) is
dx

(A) x (B) x2 (C) x -1 (D) x -2

Q.2 The graph of a function f(x) is shown in the figure.

2h
f(x)

0 1 2 3
x

For f(x) to be a valid probability density function, the value of h is

(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 1 (D) 3

Q.3 A probability distribution with right skew is shown in the figure.

f(x)

The correct statement for the probability distribution is

(A) Mean is equal to mode

(B) Mean is greater than median but less than mode
(C) Mean is greater than median and mode
(D) Mode is greater than median

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Q.4 All the members of the planar truss (see figure), have the same properties in terms of area
of cross-section (A) and modulus of elasticity (E).

For the loads shown on the truss, the statement that correctly represents the nature of forces
in the members of the truss is:

(A) There are 3 members in tension, and 2 members in compression

(B) There are 2 members in tension, 2 members in compression, and 1 zero-force member
(C) There are 2 members in tension, 1 member in compression, and 2 zero-force members
(D) There are 2 members in tension, and 3 zero-force members

Q.5 The setting time of cement is determined using

(A) Le Chatelier apparatus (B) Briquette testing apparatus
(C) Vicat apparatus (D) Casagrande’s apparatus

Q.6 A structural member subjected to compression, has both translation and rotation restrained
at one end, while only translation is restrained at the other end. As per IS 456 : 2000, the
effective length factor recommended for design is

(A) 0.50 (B) 0.65 (C) 0.70 (D) 0.80

Q.7 A vertical load of 10 kN acts on a hinge located at a distance of L/4 from the roller support
Q of a beam of length L (see figure).
10 kN
P Q

3L/4 L/4

The vertical reaction at support Q is

(A) 0.0 kN (B) 2.5 kN (C) 7.5 kN (D) 10.0 kN

Q.8 A flownet below a dam consists of 24 equipotential drops and 7 flow channels. The
difference between the upstream and downstream water levels is 6 m. The length of the
flow line adjacent to the toe of the dam at exit is 1 m. The specific gravity and void ratio of
the soil below the dam are 2.70 and 0.70, respectively. The factor of safety against piping is

(A) 1.67 (B) 2.5 (C) 3.4 (D) 4

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Q.9 The contact pressure and settlement distribution for a footing are shown in the figure.

The figure corresponds to a

(A) rigid footing on granular soil
(B) flexible footing on granular soil
(C) flexible footing on saturated clay
(D) rigid footing on cohesive soil

Q.10 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) When the water content of soil lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil is
said to be in plastic state.
(B) Boussinesq’s theory is used for the analysis of stratified soil.
(C) The inclination of stable slope in cohesive soil can be greater than its angle of internal
friction.
(D) For saturated dense fine sand, after applying overburden correction, if the Standard
Penetration Test value exceeds 15, dilatancy correction is to be applied.

Q.11 The clay mineral, whose structural units are held together by potassium bond is
(A) Halloysite (B) Illite (C) Kaolinite (D) Smectite

Q.12 Dupuit’s assumptions are valid for

(A) artesian aquifer
(B) confined aquifer
(C) leaky aquifer
(D) unconfined aquifer

Q.13 For a given discharge in an open channel, there are two depths which have the same
specific energy. These two depths are known as
(A) alternate depths (B) critical depths
(C) normal depths (D) sequent depths

Q.14 As per IS 10500:2012, for drinking water in the absence of alternate source of water, the
permissible limits for chloride and sulphate, in mg/L, respectively are
(A) 250 and 200 (B) 1000 and 400 (C) 200 and 250 (D) 500 and 1000

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Q.15 In the figures, Group I represents the atmospheric temperature profiles (P, Q, R and S) and
Group II represents dispersion of pollutants from a smoke stack (1, 2, 3 and 4). In the
figures of Group I, the dashed line represents the dry adiabatic lapse rate, whereas the
horizontal axis represents temperature and the vertical axis represents the altitude.

Group I Group II

The correct match is

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Q.16 Peak Hour Factor (PHF) is used to represent the proportion of peak sub-hourly traffic flow
within the peak hour. If 15-minute sub-hours are considered, the theoretically possible
range of PHF will be

(A) 0 to 1.0 (B) 0.25 to 0.75 (C) 0.25 to 1.0 (D) 0.5 to 1.0

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Q.17 As per IRC:37-2012, in order to control subgrade rutting in flexible pavements, the
parameter to be considered is
(A) horizontal tensile strain at the bottom of bituminous layer
(B) vertical compressive strain on top of subgrade
(C) vertical compressive stress on top of granular layer
(D) vertical deflection at the surface of the pavement

Q.18 The initial concavity in the load-penetration curve of a CBR test is NOT due to
(A) uneven top surface
(B) high impact at start of loading
(C) inclined penetration plunger
(D) soft top layer of soaked soil

Q.19 Probability (up to one decimal place) of consecutively picking 3 red balls without
replacement from a box containing 5 red balls and 1 white ball is ______

Q.20 The quadratic equation 2 x2  3x  3  0 is to be solved numerically starting with an initial

guess as x0  2 . The new estimate of x after the first iteration using Newton-Raphson
method is ______

Q.21 As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum percentage of tension reinforcement (up to two decimal
places) required in reinforced-concrete beams of rectangular cross-section (considering
effective depth in the calculation of area) using Fe500 grade steel is ______

Q.22 A reinforced-concrete slab with effective depth of 80 mm is simply supported at two

opposite ends on 230 mm thick masonry walls. The centre-to-centre distance between the
walls is 3.3 m. As per IS 456 : 2000, the effective span of the slab (in m, up to two decimal
places) is ______

Q.23 A fillet weld is simultaneously subjected to factored normal and shear stresses of 120 MPa
and 50 MPa, respectively. As per IS 800 : 2007, the equivalent stress (in MPa, up to two
decimal places) is ______

Q.24 The intensity of irrigation for the Kharif season is 50% for an irrigation project with
culturable command area of 50,000 hectares. The duty for the Kharif season is 1000
hectare/cumec. Assuming transmission loss of 10%, the required discharge (in cumec, up
to two decimal places) at the head of the canal is ______

Q.25 A culvert is designed for a flood frequency of 100 years and a useful life of 20 years. The
risk involved in the design of the culvert (in percentage, up to two decimal places) is
______

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Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26  2 4 
The matrix   has
 4 2 
(A) real eigenvalues and eigenvectors
(B) real eigenvalues but complex eigenvectors
(C) complex eigenvalues but real eigenvectors
(D) complex eigenvalues and eigenvectors

Q.27 The Laplace transform F  s  of the exponential function, f  t   eat when t  0 , where a
is a constant and  s  a   0 , is

1
(A)
sa
1
(B)
sa
1
(C)
as
(D) 

Q.28 The rank of the following matrix is

 1 1 0 2 
 
2 0 2 2 
4 1 3 1 
 

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.29 Two rigid bodies of mass 5 kg and 4 kg are at rest on a frictionless surface until acted upon
by a force of 36 N as shown in the figure. The contact force generated between the two
bodies is

36 N 5 kg
4 kg

(A) 4.0 N (B) 7.2 N (C) 9.0 N (D) 16.0 N

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Q.30 Four bolts P, Q, R and S of equal diameter are used for a bracket subjected to a load of 130
kN as shown in the figure.

Centre-line

200 mm

130 kN

240 mm
Q P

R S

100 mm

The force in bolt P is

(A) 32.50 kN (B) 69.32 kN (C) 82.50 kN (D) 119.32 kN

Q.31 A singly-reinforced rectangular concrete beam of width 300 mm and effective depth 400
mm is to be designed using M25 grade concrete and Fe500 grade reinforcing steel. For the
beam to be under-reinforced, the maximum number of 16 mm diameter reinforcing bars
that can be provided is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

Q.32 A 3 m high vertical earth retaining wall retains a dry granular backfill with angle of internal
friction of 30° and unit weight of 20 kN/m3. If the wall is prevented from yielding (no
movement), the total horizontal thrust (in kN per unit length) on the wall is
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 270

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Q.33 Three soil specimens (Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil 3), each 150 mm long and 100 mm diameter,
are placed in series in a constant head flow set-up as shown in the figure. Suitable screens
are provided at the boundaries of the specimens to keep them intact. The values of
coefficient of permeability of Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil 3 are 0.01, 0.003 and 0.03 cm/s,
respectively.

560 mm

Soil 1 Soil 2 Soil 3 100 mm

150 mm 150 mm 150 mm

The value of h in the set-up is

(A) 0 mm (B) 40 mm (C) 255 mm (D) 560 mm

Q.34 In a 5 m wide rectangular channel, the velocity u distribution in the vertical direction y is
1
given by u  1.25 y 6 . The distance y is measured from the channel bed. If the flow depth is
2 m, the discharge per unit width of the channel is

(A) 2.40 m3/s/m (B) 2.80 m3/s/m (C) 3.27 m3/s/m (D) 12.02 m3/s/m

Q.35 A car follows a slow moving truck (travelling at a speed of 10 m/s) on a two-lane two-way
highway. The car reduces its speed to 10 m/s and follows the truck maintaining a distance
of 16 m from the truck. On finding a clear gap in the opposing traffic stream, the car
accelerates at an average rate of 4 m/s2, overtakes the truck and returns to its original lane.
When it returns to its original lane, the distance between the car and the truck is 16 m. The
total distance covered by the car during this period (from the time it leaves its lane and
subsequently returns to its lane after overtaking) is
(A) 64 m (B) 72 m (C) 128 m (D) 144 m

Q.36 A level instrument at a height of 1.320 m has been placed at a station having a Reduced
Level (RL) of 112.565 m. The instrument reads 2.835 m on a levelling staff held at the
bottom of a bridge deck. The RL (in m) of the bottom of the bridge deck is
(A) 116.720 (B) 116.080 (C) 114.080 (D) 111.050

Q.37 The value (up to two decimal places) of a line integral


C
F (r )  dr , for F(r )  x 2i  y 2 j
along C which is a straight line joining (0,0) to (1,1) is ______

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Q.38 An 8 m long simply-supported elastic beam of rectangular cross-section (100 mm × 200

mm) is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m over its entire span. The
maximum principal stress (in MPa, up to two decimal places) at a point located at the
extreme compression edge of a cross-section and at 2 m from the support is ______

Q.39 A prismatic beam P-Q-R of flexural rigidity EI  1104 kNm2 is subjected to a moment of
180 kNm at Q as shown in the figure.

180 kNm

P Q R

5m 4m

The rotation at Q (in rad, up to two decimal places) is ______

Q.40 A prismatic propped cantilever beam of span L and plastic moment capacity M p is
Mp
subjected to a concentrated load at its mid-span. If the collapse load of the beam is  ,
L
the value of  is ______

Q.41 A 6 m long simply-supported beam is prestressed as shown in the figure.

Neutral axis 50 mm

Prestressing cable
(straight profile)

The beam carries a uniformly distributed load of 6 kN/m over its entire span. If the
effective flexural rigidity EI = 2×104 kNm2 and the effective prestressing force is 200 kN,
the net increase in length of the prestressing cable (in mm, up to two decimal places) is
______

Q.42 A cable PQ of length 25 m is supported at two ends at the same level as shown in the
figure. The horizontal distance between the supports is 20 m. A point load of 150 kN is
applied at point R which divides it into two equal parts.
20 m

P Q
R

150 kN

Neglecting the self-weight of the cable, the tension (in kN, in integer value) in the cable
due to the applied load will be ______

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Q.43 The compression curve (void ratio, e vs. effective stress, 𝜎v′ ) for a certain clayey soil is a
straight line in a semi-logarithmic plot and it passes through the points (e = 1.2; σvʹ = 50
kPa) and (e = 0.6; σvʹ = 800 kPa). The compression index (up to two decimal places) of the
soil is ______

Q.44 The total horizontal and vertical stresses at a point X in a saturated sandy medium are 170
kPa and 300 kPa, respectively. The static pore-water pressure is 30 kPa. At failure, the
excess pore-water pressure is measured to be 94.50 kPa, and the shear stresses on the
vertical and horizontal planes passing through the point X are zero. Effective cohesion is
0 kPa and effective angle of internal friction is 36. The shear strength (in kPa, up to two
decimal places) at point X is ______

Q.45 A group of nine piles in a 3 × 3 square pattern is embedded in a soil strata comprising
dense sand underlying recently filled clay layer, as shown in the figure. The perimeter of an
individual pile is 126 cm. The size of pile group is 240 cm × 240 cm. The recently filled
clay has undrained shear strength of 15 kPa and unit weight of 16 kN/m3.

Recently
2m
filled clay

5m Dense sand

240 cm

The negative frictional load (in kN, up to two decimal places) acting on the pile group is
______

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Q.46 A three-fluid system (immiscible) is connected to a vacuum pump. The specific gravity
values of the fluids (S1, S2) are given in the figure.

To Vacuum Pump

p
1
S1= 0.88
Fluid I
patm 1.5 m
S2= 0.95 patm
1.0 m
Fluid II 0.5 m

Fluid III: Water

Unit weight of water, γw = 9.81 kN/m3
Atmospheric Pressure, patm = 95.43 kPa

The gauge pressure value (in kN/m2, up to two decimal places) of 𝑝1 is ______

Q.47 The total rainfall in a catchment of area 1000 km2, during a 6 h storm, is 19 cm. The
surface runoff due to this storm computed from triangular direct runoff hydrograph is
1×108 m3. The index for this storm (in cm/h, up to one decimal place) is ______

Q.48 A rough pipe of 0.5 m diameter, 300 m length and roughness height of 0.25 mm, carries
water (kinematic viscosity  0.9×106 m2/s) with velocity of 3 m/s. Friction factor (f) for
laminar flow is given by f = 64/Re, and for turbulent flow it is given by
1 r
 2log10    1.74 , where, Re = Reynolds number, r = radius of pipe, k = roughness
f k
height and g  9.81 m/s2. The head loss (in m, up to three decimal places) in the pipe due to
friction is ______

Q.49 A flocculation tank contains 1800 m3 of water, which is mixed using paddles at an average
velocity gradient G of 100/s. The water temperature and the corresponding dynamic
viscosity are 30oC and 0.798×10-3 Ns/m2, respectively. The theoretical power required to
achieve the stated value of G (in kW, up to two decimal places) is ______

Q.50 A coal containing 2% sulfur is burned completely to ash in a brick kiln at a rate of 30
kg/min. The sulfur content in the ash was found to be 6% of the initial amount of sulfur
present in the coal fed to the brick kiln. The molecular weights of S, H and O are 32, 1 and
16 g/mole, respectively. The annual rate of sulfur dioxide (SO2) emission from the kiln (in
tonnes/year, up to two decimal places) is ______

CE 11/13

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GATE 2018 Civil Engineering (Set 2)

Q.51 At a small water treatment plant which has 4 filters, the rates of filtration and backwashing
are 200 m3/d/m2 and 1000 m3/d/m2, respectively. Backwashing is done for 15 min per day.
The maturation, which occurs initially as the filter is put back into service after cleaning,
takes 30 min. It is proposed to recover the water being wasted during backwashing and
maturation. The percentage increase in the filtered water produced (up to two decimal
places) would be ______

Q.52 A schematic flow diagram of a completely mixed biological reactor with provision for
recycling of solids is shown in the figure.

Aeration tank
S = 15 mg/L
X = 3000 mg/L Secondary
Detention time = 2 h settling tank

Q = 15000 m3/d Q  Qw = 14950 m3/d

S0 = 100 mg/L S = 15 mg/L
X0 ~ 0 mg/L Xe  0 mg/L

Qr = 5000 m3/d
S = 15 mg/L
Xu = 10000 mg/L Qw = 50 m3/d
S = 15 mg/L
Sludge return Xu =10000 mg/L

S0, S = readily biodegradable soluble BOD, mg/L

Q, Qr, Qw = flow rates, m3/d
X0, X, Xe, Xu = microorganism concentrations (mixed-liquor volatile suspended solids or
MLVSS), mg/L

The mean cell residence time (in days, up to one decimal place) is ______

Q.53 The space mean speed (kmph) and density (vehicles/km) of a traffic stream are linearly
related. The free flow speed and jam density are 80 kmph and 100 vehicles/km
respectively. The traffic flow (in vehicles/h, up to one decimal place) corresponding to a
speed of 40 kmph is ______

Q.54 A 7.5 m wide two-lane road on a plain terrain is to be laid along a horizontal curve of
radius 510 m. For a design speed of 100 kmph, super-elevation is provided as per IRC: 73-
1980. Consider acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2. The level difference between the
inner and outer edges of the road (in m, up to three decimal places) is ______

CE 12/13

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GATE 2018 Civil Engineering (Set 2)

Q.55 An aerial photograph of a terrain having an average elevation of 1400 m is taken at a scale
of 1:7500. The focal length of the camera is 15 cm. The altitude of the flight above mean
sea level (in m, up to one decimal place) is ______

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

CE 13/13

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

1 MCQ GA A 1

2 MCQ GA A 1

3 MCQ GA B 1

4 MCQ GA D 1

5 MCQ GA A 1

6 MCQ GA C 2

7 MCQ GA B 2

8 MCQ GA C 2

9 MCQ GA B 2

10 MCQ GA B 2

1 MCQ CE C 1

2 MCQ CE A 1

3 MCQ CE C 1

4 MCQ CE D 1

5 MCQ CE C 1

6 MCQ CE D 1

7 MCQ CE A 1

8 MCQ CE D 1

9 MCQ CE A 1

10 MCQ CE B 1

11 MCQ CE B 1

12 MCQ CE D 1

13 MCQ CE A 1

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

14 MCQ CE B 1

15 MCQ CE A 1

16 MCQ CE C 1

17 MCQ CE B 1

18 MCQ CE B 1

19 NAT CE 0.5 to 0.5 1

20 NAT CE 1 to 1 1

21 NAT CE 0.17 to 0.17 1

22 NAT CE 3.15 to 3.15 1

23 NAT CE 147.50 to 148.50 1

24 NAT CE 27.00 to 28.00 1

25 NAT CE 17.50 to 18.50 1

26 MCQ CE D 2

27 MCQ CE B 2

28 MCQ CE B 2

29 MCQ CE D 2

30 MCQ CE B 2

31 MCQ CE C 2

32 MCQ CE C 2

33 MCQ CE B 2

34 MCQ CE A 2

35 MCQ CE B 2

36 MCQ CE A 2

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

37 NAT CE 0.60 to 0.70 2

38 NAT CE 0.0 to 0.0 2
0.01 to 0.01 (or)
39 NAT CE 2
‐0.01 to ‐0.01
40 NAT CE 6.0 to 6.0 2

41 NAT CE 0.10 to 0.12 2

42 NAT CE 125 to 125 2

43 NAT CE 0.45 to 0.55 2

44 NAT CE 51.50 to 53.50 2

45 NAT CE 472.00 to 472.50 2

46 NAT CE ‐9.0 to ‐8.0 2

47 NAT CE 1.50 to 1.50 2

48 NAT CE 4.50 to 4.70 2

49 NAT CE 14.00 to 15.00 2

50 NAT CE 590.00 to 595.00 2

51 NAT CE 7.75 to 7.95 2

52 NAT CE 7.5 to 7.5 2

53 NAT CE 2000.0 to 2000.0 2

54 NAT CE 0.520 to 0.530 2

55 NAT CE 2520.0 to 2530.0 2

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SESSION - 1

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SESSION - 2

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SESSION - 1

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GATE 2020 IIT Delhi

Organising Institute
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2020
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CE1: Civil Engineering

GA - General Aptitude

Q1 - Q5 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 3

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 4

(A)

(B)

Q.No. 5

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q6 - Q10 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 6

(A)

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https://civilenggascent.com

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 7

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 8

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 9

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 10

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

CE1: Civil Engineering

Q1 - Q25 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 3

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 4

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 5

(A)

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https://civilenggascent.com
(B)

Q.No. 6

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 7

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 8

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 9

(A)

(B)

Q.No. 10

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https://civilenggascent.com
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 11

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 12

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 13

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 14

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 15

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 16

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 17

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 18

Q.No. 19

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https://civilenggascent.com
Q.No. 20

Q.No. 21

Q.No. 22

Q.No. 23

Q.No. 24

Q.No. 25

Q26 - Q55 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 26

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 27

(A)

(B)

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https://civilenggascent.com
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 28

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 29

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 30

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 31

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 32

https://civilenggascent.com
https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 33

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 34

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 35

(A)

(B)

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https://civilenggascent.com
Q.No. 36

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 37

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 38

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 39

Q.No. 40

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 41

Q.No. 42

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 43

Q.No. 44

Q.No. 45

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 46

Q.No. 47

Q.No. 48

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 49

Q.No. 50

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 51

Q.No. 52

Q.No. 53

Q.No. 54

Q.No. 55

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GATE 2020 IIT Delhi

Organising Institute
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2020
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Answer Key - CE1: Civil Engineering

Q.No. Session Que.Type Sec. Name Key Marks

1 7 MCQ GA B 1

2 7 MCQ GA C 1

3 7 MCQ GA A 1

4 7 MCQ GA B 1

5 7 MCQ GA D 1

6 7 MCQ GA D 2

7 7 MCQ GA A 2

8 7 MCQ GA C 2

9 7 MCQ GA A 2

10 7 MCQ GA C 2

1 7 MCQ CE C 1

2 7 MCQ CE B 1

3 7 MCQ CE B 1

4 7 MCQ CE C 1

5 7 MCQ CE C 1

6 7 MCQ CE C 1

7 7 MCQ CE C 1

8 7 MCQ CE B 1

9 7 MCQ CE A 1

10 7 MCQ CE A 1

11 7 MCQ CE C 1

12 7 MCQ CE A 1

13 7 MCQ CE A 1

14 7 MCQ CE A 1

15 7 MCQ CE C 1

16 7 MCQ CE B 1

17 7 MCQ CE B 1

18 7 NAT CE 0.59 to 0.61 1

19 7 NAT CE 95 to 97 1

20 7 NAT CE 5 to 5 1

21 7 NAT CE 4.0 to 4.0 1

22 7 NAT CE 36 to 38 1

23 7 NAT CE 0.59 to 0.61 1

24 7 NAT CE 2.35 to 2.55 1

25 7 NAT CE 2.45 to 2.65 1

26 7 MCQ CE C 2

27 7 MCQ CE A 2

28 7 MCQ CE B 2

29 7 MCQ CE B 2

30 7 MCQ CE C 2

31 7 MCQ CE B 2

32 7 MCQ CE MTA 2

33 7 MCQ CE C 2

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34 7 MCQ CE B 2

35 7 MCQ CE D 2

36 7 MCQ CE A 2

37 7 MCQ CE C 2

38 7 MCQ CE C 2

39 7 NAT CE 3 to 3 2

40 7 NAT CE 3 to 3 2

41 7 NAT CE 129 to 131 2

42 7 NAT CE 393.5 to 399.1 2

43 7 NAT CE 158.00 to 158.80 2

44 7 NAT CE 39 to 41 2

45 7 NAT CE MTA 2

46 7 NAT CE 21.00 to 23.00 2

47 7 NAT CE 8.70 to 9.30 2

48 7 NAT CE 18.40 to 19.50 2

49 7 NAT CE 97.2 to 97.8 2

50 7 NAT CE 1.40 to 1.60 2

51 7 NAT CE 0.50 to 0.54 2

52 7 NAT CE 14.0 to 15.0 2

53 7 NAT CE 0.9 to 1.1 2

54 7 NAT CE 49.00 to 50.00 2

55 7 NAT CE 44.00 to 45.00 2

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SESSION - 2

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https://civilenggascent.com

GATE 2020 IIT Delhi

Organising Institute
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2020
Home Information Brochure GATE International Pre Examination Important Dates FAQs Contact Us

CE2: Civil Engineering

GA - General Aptitude

Q1 - Q5 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 3

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 4

(A)

(B)

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https://civilenggascent.com

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 5

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q6 - Q10 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 6

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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https://civilenggascent.com
Q.No. 7

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 8

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 9

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 10

(A)
(B)

CE2: Civil Engineering

Q1 - Q25 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 2

(A)

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https://civilenggascent.com
(B)

Q.No. 3

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 4

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 5

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 6

(A)

(B)

https://civilenggascent.com
https://civilenggascent.com
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 7

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 8

(A)
(B)

Q.No. 9

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 10

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 11

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 12

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 13

(A)

(B)

Q.No. 14

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 15

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 16

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 17

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 18

Q.No. 19

Q.No. 20

Q.No. 21

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 22

Q.No. 23

Q.No. 24

Q.No. 25

Q26 - Q55 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 26

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 27

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 28

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 29

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 30

(A)

(B)

(C)

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https://civilenggascent.com
(D)

Q.No. 31

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 32

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 33

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

Q.No. 34

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 35

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 36

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https://civilenggascent.com

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 37

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 38

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 39

Q.No. 40

Q.No. 41

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 42

Q.No. 43

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 44

Q.No. 45

Q.No. 46

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 47

Q.No. 48

Q.No. 49

Q.No. 50

Q.No. 51

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https://civilenggascent.com

Q.No. 52

Q.No. 53

Q.No. 54

Q.No. 55

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Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2020
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Answer Key - CE2: Civil Engineering

Q.No. Session Que.Type Sec. Name Key Marks

1 8 MCQ GA B 1

2 8 MCQ GA A 1

3 8 MCQ GA D 1

4 8 MCQ GA C 1

5 8 MCQ GA C 1

6 8 MCQ GA A 2

7 8 MCQ GA C 2

8 8 MCQ GA C 2

9 8 MCQ GA B 2

10 8 MCQ GA MTA 2

1 8 MCQ CE B 1

2 8 MCQ CE C 1

3 8 MCQ CE D 1

4 8 MCQ CE D 1

5 8 MCQ CE C 1

6 8 MCQ CE D 1

7 8 MCQ CE C 1

8 8 MCQ CE D 1

9 8 MCQ CE D 1

10 8 MCQ CE A 1

11 8 MCQ CE B 1

12 8 MCQ CE B 1

13 8 MCQ CE C 1

14 8 MCQ CE B 1

15 8 MCQ CE C 1

16 8 MCQ CE B 1

17 8 MCQ CE A 1

18 8 NAT CE 0.190 to 0.200 1

19 8 NAT CE 2.0 to 2.4 1

20 8 NAT CE 12.30 to 12.40 1

21 8 NAT CE 1021 to 1024 1

22 8 NAT CE 19.00 to 19.50 1

23 8 NAT CE 0.78 to 0.88 1

24 8 NAT CE 0.45 to 0.49 1

25 8 NAT CE 1.40 to 1.42 1

26 8 MCQ CE B 2

27 8 MCQ CE D 2

28 8 MCQ CE D 2

29 8 MCQ CE B 2

30 8 MCQ CE C 2

31 8 MCQ CE C 2

32 8 MCQ CE B 2

33 8 MCQ CE C 2

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34 8 MCQ CE A 2

35 8 MCQ CE MTA 2

36 8 MCQ CE MTA 2

37 8 MCQ CE A 2

38 8 MCQ CE B 2

39 8 NAT CE -6.61 to -6.55 2

40 8 NAT CE 5.180 to 5.200 2

41 8 NAT CE 3.8 to 4.7 2

42 8 NAT CE -31 to -29 2

43 8 NAT CE 220 to 224 2

44 8 NAT CE 400 to 420 2

45 8 NAT CE 154 to 178 2

46 8 NAT CE 74.00 to 76.00 2

47 8 NAT CE 0.70 to 0.73 2

48 8 NAT CE 2.4 to 2.6 2

49 8 NAT CE 2.40 to 2.70 2

50 8 NAT CE 1.70 to 1.76 2

51 8 NAT CE 15.00 to 16.00 2

52 8 NAT CE 3.8 to 4.1 2

53 8 NAT CE 6963 to 6967 2

54 8 NAT CE 0.24 to 0.27 2

55 8 NAT CE 257.200 to 257.600 2

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SESSION - 1

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https://civilenggascent.com

SESSION - 2

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