SEM-II PROJECT MANAGEMENT (S3C13)

Chapter 01: An Overview of Project Management Quiz1

Que1: The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one?
(i) Permanent
(ii) Temporary
(iii) Answer 1 and Answer 2
(iv) Answer 1 or Answer 2
Que2: Project Management Involves?
(i) Planning
(ii) Arranging
(iii) Managing project activities
(iv) All of the Options
Que3: In which Project Organization structure the Project Manager has little or very less authority?
(i) Projectile
(ii) Matrix
(iii) Functional
(iv) None of the above
Que4: Which are the advantages of the Projectile Structure?
(i) Better control
(ii) Faster Decision making
(iii) Easy communication
(iv) All of the options
Que5: Which is the longest phase of the Project Life cycle?
(i) Initiation
(ii) Execution
(iii) Control
(iv) Closing
Que6: Which Phase in Project Life Cycle will determine what approach you will take to execute the project?
(i) Initiation
(ii) Planning
(iii) Control
(iv) Closure
Que7: Which of these options cannot be considered as a project?
(i) Summer internship
(ii) Pune metro
(iii) Manufacturing of car
(iv) Building of Dam
Que8: Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of a project
management?
(i) Initiation
(ii) Planning
(iii) Control
(iv) Closure
Que9: Project management processes fall into ----- groups?
(i) 2
(ii) 5
(iii) 10
(iv) 8
Que10: Behavioral Aspects in Project Management deals with?
(i) Communication
(ii) Culture
(iii) Team building
(iv) All of the options

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 SEM-II PROJECT MANAGEMENT (S3C13)
Chapter 02: Selecting a Project Quiz2
Que1: The process of Project Selection starts with ______________?
(i) Project Initiation Analysis
(ii) Project Feasibility Analysis
(iii) Project Kickoff Meeting
(iv) None of the options
Que2: The _____feasibility analysis evaluates whether a project would be able to meet the customer's needs?
(i) Technical
(ii) Economic
(iii) Market
(iv) None of the options
Que3: An environmental feasibility analysis evaluates how a project will potentially affect the ________?
(i) People & Society
(ii) Surrounding Environment
(iii) Technology
(iv) None of the options
Que4: ____is a decision-making step which requires SWOT analysis, feasibility study and adequate market research?
(i) Operational feasibility
(ii) Project selection
(iii) Project screening
(iv) None of the options
Que5: These are the objectives of project selection?
(i) To execute a project in a structured manner
(ii) To select the most feasible idea
(iii) To access the return on investment of a project
(iv) All of the options
Que6: During project selection, the project with the _______________NPV is selected?
(i) Highest
(ii) Lowest
(iii) Moderate
(iv) None of the options
Que7: The internal rate of return (IRR) is the interest rate at which the NPV is __?
(i) 1
(ii) 1
(iii) 0
(iv) None of the options
Que8: Projects with a ____benefit-cost ratio (or lower cost-benefit ratio) are preferred over other projects?
(i) Higher
(ii) Lower
(iii) Neutral
(iv) None of the options
Que9: Unavailability of Skilled Staff is a __________ risk?
(i) Cost
(ii) Schedule
(iii) Resource
(iv) Performance
Que10: _______ tolerance indicates that organizations are open to embrace high risks, while low tolerance shows
resistance of organizations towards risks.
(i) Low
(ii) Medium
(iii) Weighted
(iv) High

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Chapter 03: Project Initiation Quiz3
Que1: _____is basically a statement of work that provides an idea to the project team on the work that needs to be
performed to accomplish project goals?
(i) Project objective
(ii) Project scope of work
(iii) Project Initiation
(iv) None of the options
Que2: Terms of reference includes __________?
(i) Project Goal
(ii) Objectives
(iii) Scope and Structure
(iv) All of the Options
Que3: ____ is the organizational body or entity assigned various responsibilities related to the centralised and coordinated
management of those projects under its domain?
(i) PMI
(ii) PMO
(iii) Project Manager
(iv) None of the Options
Que4: According to the PMI, a project charter is “a document issued by the project _____ that formally authorizes the existence
of a project, and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.”
(i) Project Initiator or Sponsor
(ii) PMO
(iii) Project Team
(iv) Customer
Que5: The purpose of the __________________ is to inform project sponsors whether the project has achieved its
objectives to date?
(i) Phase Initiation
(ii) Phase Review
(iii) Project Initiation
(iv) All of the Options
Que6: The project __________________ defines the role and level of authority of the project manager, project sponsor
and other authorized persons responsible for resource allocation and control?
(i) Objectives
(ii) Authority
(iii) Scope and structure
(iv) None of the options
Que7: A project _______________ is an individual, a group or an organisation that has an interest in the project and can
exert some sort of influence on the project?
(i) Sponsor
(ii) Manager
(iii) Stakeholder
(iv) All of the options
Que8: For the success of a project, it is important to align stakeholder’s _________with project objectives?
(i) Expectations
(ii) Beliefs
(iii) Value
(iv) None of the options
Que9: There are total ____ types of PMO?
(i) 2
(ii) 3
(iii) 10
(iv) 8
Que10: ___is the reasoning for initiating a project?
(i) TOR
(ii) Project Scope of Work
(iii) Business Case
(iv) None of the options

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Chapter 04: Project Planning and Scope Management Quiz4
Que1: Project Planning includes __________?
(i) Indentifying Activities
(ii) Method of these activities
(iii) Time & Resource Requirement
(iv) All of the Options
Que2: The First step in Project planning is ________?
(i) Developing Supporting Plan
(ii) Develop Project Schedule
(iii) Develop Project Schedule
(iv) None of the Options
Que3: Following things are a part of Project Schedule?
(i) Timeframe of execution
(ii) Resource Required
(iii) List of tasks & Milestones
(iv) All of the Options
Que4: Project Budget involves every _______ detail related to cost?
(i) Major
(ii) Minor
(iii) Auxiliary
(iv) None of the Options
Que5: A hierarchical tree-structure that divides large, complex project activities into smaller, manageable tasks is called
as_____?
(i) Task Breakdown Structure
(ii) Project Organization Structure
(iii) Work Breakdown Structure
(iv) All of the Options
Que6: Scope Baseline is an output of _____________?
(i) Scope Planning
(ii) WBS
(iii) Project Budgeting
(iv) None of the Options
Que7: Do you agree WBS is Time consuming activity?
(i) Yes
(ii) No
(iii) Sometimes
(iv) None of the Options
Que8: Project Deliverables are _________?
(i) Quantifiable
(ii) Relative
(iii) Qualitative
(iv) All of the Options
Que9: Supporting Plans are developed for ______?
(i) Quality
(ii) HR
(iii) Risk
(iv) All of the options
Que10: Project Requirements must be _______?
(i) Measurable
(ii) Aligned with objectives
(iii) Testable
(iv) All of the options

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Chapter 05: Project Scheduling Quiz5
Que1: Project Scheduling communicates the discipline for completing a project within ____________?
(i) Set Budget
(ii) Set Time Frame
(iii) Defined Resources
(iv) All of the Options
Que2: The First step in Project scheduling is _________?
(i) Taking Resources
(ii) Develop project Schedule
(iii) Review Project Charter
(iv) None of the Options
Que3: Following is the Project Scheduling Tool?
(i) MS project
(ii) Oracle Primavera
(iii) Jira
(iv) All of the Options
Que4: WBS includes ____ % of the work & deliverables?
(i) 10
(ii) 100
(iii) 0
(iv) None of the Options
Que5: Project Scheduling helps _____?
(i) Indentify Risk
(ii) Monitor Progress
(iii) Highlight issues
(iv) All of the Options
Que6: Following is the Project Scheduling Technique?
(i) GANTT Chart
(ii) PERT
(iii) CPM
(iv) All of the Options
Que7: PERT has____time estimates?
(i) All
(ii) 4
(iii) 3
(iv) No
Que8: Crashing is done by devoting ______ resources?
(i) Less
(ii) More
(iii) Equal
(iv) No
Que9: Time & Cost are ______ related?
(i) Directly
(ii) Inversely
(iii) Not
(iv) Marginally
Que10: In fast tracking the activities are done in ______?
(i) Sequence
(ii) Serial
(iii) Parallel
(iv) Isolation

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Chapter 06: Project Cost and Quality Planning Quiz6
Que1: Project Costs include following cost?
(i) Total
(ii) Fixed
(iii) Variable
(iv) None of the options
Que2: Direct costs are directly accountable & ________?
(i) Easy to compute
(ii) Easily traceable
(iii) Difficult to synthesize
(iv) None of the options
Que3: Overhead costs & Administration costs are part of _______ costs?
(i) Direct
(ii) Indirect
(iii) Fixed
(iv) Variable
Que4: Lease expense is a _______ cost?
(i) High
(ii) Medium
(iii) Low
(iv) Sunk
Que5: Project cost management is the process of planning, administering and controlling all cost related to ____?
(i) People
(ii) Product
(iii) Project
(iv) All of the options
Que6: Project Budget provides __________ roadmap of the project?
(i) General
(ii) Financial
(iii) Approximate
(iv) All of the options
Que7: EVA stands for?
(i) Evasive Velocity Award
(ii) Extra Value Analysis
(iii) Earned Value Analysis
(iv) None of the options
Que8: Cost Variance is Earned Value _________ Actual Cost?
(i) Plus
(ii) Minus
(iii) Multiplied by
(iv) Divided by
Que9: In top down budgeting the top down management decides project cost?
(i) Totally agree
(ii) Totally disagree
(iii) Sometimes
(iv) None of the options
Que10: Bottom Up Budgets are created using activity-based costing?
(i) Totally agree
(ii) Totally disagree
(iii) Sometimes
(iv) None of the options

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 SEM-II PROJECT MANAGEMENT (S3C13)
Mid Term Quiz from Chapter 01 to Chapter 06
Que1: Behavioral Aspects are very critical for any Project's success & they correspond to__________?
(i) Efficiency of system
(ii) Human side
(iii) Project performance
(iv) None of the options
Que2: The project manager meets with the project team to review lessons learned from previous projects. In what activity
is the team involved?
(i) Performance Management
(ii) Scope Identification
(iii) Risk Identification
(iv) Project team status Meeting
Que3: A ______ feasibility study analyses whether the organization’s technical capacity and expertise meet the technical
requirements of a project?
(i) Technical
(ii) Technological
(iii) Operational
(iv) None of the Options
Que4: An organization chooses only those projects that have good chances of success, provide maximum monetary
rewards and can effectively use the team’s skills and competence. The method to eliminate unsuitable projects is called _?
(i) Project Planning
(ii) Project Initiation
(iii) Project Screening
(iv) All of the Options
Que5: EVA is the value created in excess of the required return on capital. It is an estimate of the net profit after the
deduction of taxes and capital expenditure. In the case of selection between multiple projects, the project with the
_______ EVA is preferred?
(i) Lowest
(ii) Highest
(iii) Balanced
(iv) Weighted
Que6: SOW articulates a detailed description of the exact nature of work, methodology, and supporting activities of the
project which is required at the _________ phase?
(i) Project planning
(ii) Project initiation
(iii) Project execution
(iv) Project closure
Que7: The PMO is a group or a branch that defines and maintains the standards for project management within the
organization. Its purpose is to ________so that each project running within the organization yields the desired results?
(i) Procurement
(ii) Budgeting
(iii) Guide and support project managers
(iv) All of the options
Que8: A WBS is a hierarchical tree structure that divides large, complex project activities or tasks into smaller,
manageable activities or tasks. WBS describes ___________ needed to complete a project?
(i) Deliverables
(ii) Budgeting
(iii) Quality
(iv) Personnel

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Que9: Project managers can use a variety of scheduling techniques to develop, monitor and control project schedules. The
oldest and simplest project scheduling technique is the _________, which tracks the progress of project activities over the
estimated durations after taking into account the dependencies and resource availability?
(i) Control chart
(ii) GANTT Chart
(iii) Run Chart
(iv) None of the options
Que10: The PERT technique is easy to use, but it does not consider the impact of uncertainty, such as weather, equipment
failure, or absenteeism, in the estimation of activity time. On the other hand, the CPM model considers uncertainty in
activity completion time. This model is thus mostly used for projects having a risk of time, such as research and
development projects where correct time cannot be estimated. Do you agree?
(i) Yes
(ii) No
(iii) Maybe
(iv) Can’t Say
Que11: This is the most objective method of estimating the time of project activities. This method calculates the expected
time of completion of each activity based on the optimistic time (to), most likely time (tm), and pessimistic time (tp).
Which is this Technique?
(i) Parametric estimating
(ii) Comparative estimating
(iii) Expert opinion
(iv) Mathematical derivation
Que12: These are indirect costs incurred for keeping the organisation operational. Examples include taxes, general
indirect expenses, and general administrative, accounting and legal service costs. Which is this category?
(i) Direct Costs
(ii) Indirect Costs
(iii) Overhead Costs
(iv) Administrative Costs
Que13: Cost variance is the difference between the cost incurred on the completed work and the ____ cost?
(i) Planned
(ii) Actual
(iii) Accrual
(iv) Direct
Que14: Quality is defined as the degree to which the inherent characteristics of an entity meet requirements. In the context
of project management, requirements are expressed through _________?
(i) Project Planning
(ii) Project Scope Management
(iii) Project Budget
(iv) Project Closure
Que15: To control Project Quality, Project Manager can use ________?
(i) Control Chart
(ii) Benchmarking
(iii) Fishbone Diagrams
(iv) All of the Options

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Chapter 07: Managing Project Risk Quiz7
Que1: Quality of the Project is decided through triple constraints of _____________?
(i) Time, Money & people
(ii) Time, Cost & Risk
(iii) Time, Cost & Scope
(iv) None of the Options
Que2: Project risk management is the process of identifying, evaluating and then ______________ to risks that may occur
during the life cycle of a project?
(i) Reacting
(ii) Resolving
(iii) Responding
(iv) Recalibrating
Que3: Which one of the answers is showing a correct order?
(i) Risk Identification, Risk Assessment, Risk Response
(ii) Risk Response, Risk Identification, Risk Assessment
(iii) Risk Identification, Risk Response, Risk Assessment’
(iv) None of the options
Que4: __ document provides a list of the identified risks, along with their description and ranking in terms of priority to
meeting project objectives?
(i) Risk Assessment Charter
(ii) Risk Report
(iii) Risk Register
(iv) All of the options
Que5: _____cannot be an advantage of the Qualitative Risk Assessment?
(i) Convenient method
(ii) Simple Calculation
(iii) Subjective Evaluation
(iv) Quick Method
Que6: EMV + Estimated cost of the Project are called ___________?
(i) Surplus Fund
(ii) Cost Benefit Fund
(iii) Emergency Fund
(iv) None of the Options
Que7: EMV stands for?
(i) Expected Monetary Value
(ii) Extra Money Value
(iii) Earned Machine Value
(iv) None of the options
Que8: Level of Impact of Risk is on a ______ point scale?
(i) Plus
(ii) Minus
(iii) Three
(iv) Five
Que9: The best way to deal with a threat (negative risk) is to _______ it?
(i) Face
(ii) Avoid
(iii) Mitigate
(iv) Enhance
Que10: ______ cannot be a source of risk?
(i) Schedule
(ii) Scope
(iii) Resource
(iv) Project Report

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Chapter 08: Procurement Management Quiz8
Que1: Procurement refers to the act of acquiring necessary products or services for an organisation from an _____ source?
(i) Internal
(ii) External
(iii) Both External & Internal
(iv) None of the options
Que2: A procurement contract is an agreement between a buyer and a ___to use specific products/services in a project?
(i) Internal Stakeholder
(ii) External Stakeholder
(iii) Seller
(iv) None of the Options
Que3: The primary advantage of fixed-price contracts is that both the buyer and the seller know the __ &___ beforehand?
(i) Project Scope, Project Cost
(ii) Project Risk, Project Schedule
(iii) Project Plan, project Resources
(iv) All of the Options
Que4: Identify which answer is showing steps in in-correct order?
(i) Project Planning, Contract Method Selection, Bid Solicitation
(ii) Bid Evaluation, Contract Awarding, Contract Management
(iii) Bidder Qualification, RFQ, RFP
(iv) Monitoring & Controlling Supplier Performance, Bidder Qualification, Bid Evaluation
Que5: The eligibility of the supplier is determined on the basis of ________?
(i) Quality
(ii) Cost
(iii) Timeline
(iv) All of the Options
Que6: The _____ requires more detailed information than the ________?
(i) RFP, RFQ
(ii) RFQ, RFP
(iii) RFF, RFE
(iv) None of the options
Que7: To find an appropriate contract method, the project team considers __________?
(i) Type of Project
(ii) Kind of Contractual Relationship
(iii) Most Appropriate method to approach a contractor
(iv) All of the Options
Que8: ________ cannot be a type of contract?
(i) Supplier Contract
(ii) Vendor Contract
(iii) Partnership Contract
(iv) Employee Contract
Que9: ________ is one of the types of Procurement Contracts?
(i) Cost Reimbursable Contract
(ii) Scope Contract
(iii) Employee Contract
(iv) Partnership Contract
Que10: ________ is the subset of __________?
(i) Procurement, Sourcing
(ii) Logistics, Procurement
(iii) Sourcing, Procurement
(iv) Vendor, Employee

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Chapter 09: Project Execution Quiz9
Que1: While managing project execution, the project manager needs to take into consideration ____________?
(i) Risk
(ii) Quality
(iii) Safety and environment management
(iv) All of the options
Que2: Project execution is the_________ and most action-oriented stage of a project?
(i) Shortest
(ii) Critical
(iii) Longest
(iv) None of the options
Que3: These are the main activities involved in any project?
(i) Kick-off meetings
(ii) Keep a track of output of activities performed
(iii) Reviewing the status of project
(iv) All of the options
Que4: _______ is the desirable characteristic of the project team?
(i) To attain the final deliverables
(ii) To manage the progress & performance
(iii) To prepare a project plan
(iv) To update project schedule
Que5: _______ is the desirable characteristic of the project team?
(i) Technically Incompetent
(ii) Self-Oriented
(iii) Self aware
(iv) Self-proclaimed
Que6: A lack of or ineffective coordination between the team and the project manager creates conflicts between the
management and the team, thereby hampering the _________?
(i) Project Risks
(ii) Project Performance
(iii) Project Quality
(iv) None of the option
Que7: _____ is one of the major reasons of cultural differences?
(i) Culture
(ii) Language
(iii) Environment
(iv) All of the options
Que8: The project management team consists of people responsible for carrying out ________activities?
(i) Day to Day
(ii) Engineering
(iii) Project related
(iv) Special
Que9: Managing project communication comprises of ___________based on communication plan?
(i) Recording
(ii) Storing
(iii) Retrieving
(iv) All of the option
Que10: Project documentation is mandatory in order to maintain ________ of project activities?
(i) Track
(ii) Cost
(iii) Quality
(iv) None of the options

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Chapter 10: Project Monitoring and Evaluation Quiz10

Que1: ________ include information about the verbal elements, including cooperation among team members, the team's
morale, and open communication between the team and customers?
(i) Verbal Measures
(ii) Oral Measure
(iii) Written Measure
(iv) All of the above
Que2: ______ discuss any exceptional decision made for the project?
(i) Exception reports
(ii) Variance reports
(iii) Risk reports
(iv) Status reports
Que3: ____contain financial details, such as total income, expenditure, and cash inflow and outflow, of an organization?
(i) Financial statements
(ii) Financial ratio
(iii) Commitment of traders
(iv) Balance sheet
Que4: Outburst indicators are a project indicator?
(i) True
(ii) False
Que5: The reporting system sometimes includes non-value-add additional information?
(i) True
(ii) False
Que6: Which of the following statements is incorrect? The project manager monitors project activities to?
(i) Identify the main cause of delay in completing a project
(ii) Encourage the factor that affect the project progress’s
(iii) Measure the actual performance of the project
(iv) Assess the risks involved in a project
Que7: EVA is also known as?
(i) Performance measurement
(ii) Management of objectives
(iii) Budgeted cost of work performed
(iv) All of the options
Que8: In which of the following forms data cannot be collected?
(i) Frequency counts
(ii) Raw numbers
(iii) Units of measurements
(iv) Subjective numeric rating
Que9: How many types of reports are discussed in the chapter?
(i) 4
(ii) 3
(iii) 5
(iv) 6
Que10: Which of the following is an advantage of efficient reporting system?
(i) Developing non-cooperation among different management levels
(ii) Identifying sales opportunity in the project
(iii) Avails information regarding the progress of parallel activities
(iv) Keep quiet about any expected delay in the project

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Chapter 11: Project Closure Quiz11

Que1: Closure by extinction is also known as _________?
(i) Closure by murder
(ii) Closure by addition
(iii) Closure by integration
(iv) Closure by starvation
Que2: Closure by addition is mainly used for __________ projects?
(i) Expansion
(ii) Balancing
(iii) Capital work
(iv) None of the above
Que3: In the absence of any standard guidelines for project termination, the termination decision becomes a _____ issue?
(i) Subjective
(ii) Objective
(iii) Both A and B
(iv) None of the above
Que4: Closure by integration is considered as no closure at all?
(i) True
(ii) false
Que5: A project can be terminated if it fails to generate adequate returns?
(i) True
(ii) False
Que6: In which of the following cases, closure by extinction is not the right choice?
(i) Suspension of the project due to external factors, such as recession in the market or a change in technology
(ii) Failure to achieve the pre-defined objectives
(iii) Adequate support from the management
(iv) Exceeding the estimated project costs
Que7: In closure by addition?
(i) The project is made a part of an organization after closure
(ii) The project is abandoned after closure
(iii) The project is sold to other organization
(iv) The project is advertized in the market
Que8: Which of the following questions does not help organisation take project termination decisions?
(i) Are the goals and objectives of a project in line with organizational goals?
(ii) Is the project likely to achieve its minimum expected goals?
(iii) Will the project be profitable if it achieves its minimum expected goals?
(iv) Is the management willing to sell the project?
Que9: Which of the following is a practical question added to the list of questions created by Buell?
(i) Have competitors launched similar products or services recently?
(ii) Have the government made changes in the tax policy that affects the organisation managing the project?
(iii) Is the project output still marketable?
(iv) Has the risk of the project changed due to a change in business environment?
Que10: Dean (1968) conducted a survey on R&D projects in 36 organizations. He found out two main reasons for project
termination. What are those two reasons?
(i) Technical and market factors
(ii) Technical and others
(iii) Economic and market factors
(iv) Economic and other factors

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Chapter 12: Project Management Information System Quiz12

Que1: The execution phase begins after the __________ phase is finalized?
(i) Planning
(ii) Organizing
(iii) Controlling
(iv) Scheduling
Que2: _______ reviews project plan and ensures that all project requirements are fulfilled?
(i) Project Team
(ii) Implementation Team
(iii) Pre Sales Team
(iv) None of these
Que3: _____ refers to a network of distributed communication framework?
(i) Client Server
(ii) Proxy Server
(iii) Application Server
(iv) Database Server
Que4: Technical limitation refers to inadequate skill set and technical knowledge of project team members?
(i) True
(ii) False
Que5: Measuring the project's progress and performance is done by PMIS in the executive and control phase?
(i) True
(ii) False
Que6: Which of the following is not a role of PMIS in the initiation phase?
(i) Defining the project’s scope
(ii) Preparing project budget
(iii) Creating project schedule and network
(iv) Managing cost
Que7: In the closing phase, PMIS helps in?
(i) Reviewing the projects performance
(ii) Analyzing productivity
(iii) Making final project report
(iv) All of the above
Que8: According to __________, "Project management software is widely used to assist with schedule development.
These products automate the calculation of mathematical analysis and resource leveling, and thus allow for rapid
consideration of many schedule alternatives. They are also widely used to print or display the outputs of schedule
development”?
(i) Project Manager Body of Knowledge
(ii) Project Management Body of knowledge
(iii) Project Management Institute of knowledge
(iv) Project Management Board of Knowledge
Que9: Which of the following is not a key feature of project management software?
(i) Indentifying problems at an early stage
(ii) Increasing resource use
(iii) Updating the plan as and when required
(iv) Accommodating changes in project schedule and team members roles
Que10: Which of the following is a project management software programme?
(i) Gantt chart
(ii) Project Evaluation and Review Technique
(iii) Work Breakdown Structure
(iv) MS Excel

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End Term Quiz from Chapter 07 to Chapter 12

Que1: In qualitative risk assessment, each identified risk is ranked according to its likelihood of occurrence and impact on
a project. Do you feel this statement is TRUE?
(i) Sometimes
(ii) No
(iii) Yes
(iv) Rarely
Que2: Quantitative risk assessment is conducted only after risks are _______ during qualitative risk analysis?
(i) Indentified
(ii) Avoided
(iii) Mitigated
(iv) Prioritized
Que3: ________method requires participation from the entire project Stakeholders?
(i) Risk Appraisal & Analysis
(ii) Risk Identification & Mitigation
(iii) Risk Performance
(iv) None of the Options
Que4: ______ is the subset of ______which requires extensive strategic planning and research in order to gain maximum
value and highest quality?
(i) Procurement, Sourcing
(ii) Sourcing, Procurement
(iii) Pricing, Sourcing
(iv) None of the Options
Que5: Do you agree 'A Fixed Price Contract' is used in case of uncertainty in scope of the project and the buyer bears the
risk, as he pays for all the costs?
(i) Sometimes
(ii) Yes
(iii) No
(iv) Rarely
Que6: _____is to seek pricing, delivery information, and terms and conditions from the potential suppliers?
(i) RFP
(ii) RFQ
(iii) RPF
(iv) RQF
Que7: ______ is one of the key objectives of Project Execution?
(i) To attain deliverables
(ii) To manage Performance
(iii) To update schedule
(iv) All of the options
Que8: PM Team will get ______ from client and will have _____________ going out?
(i) Project Requirement, Project Communication
(ii) Project Communication, Project Requirement
(iii) Project Performance, Project Analysis
(iv) None of the Options
Que9: Project details and sent to the ____________ by the Project management team?
(i) Finance team
(ii) Technical team
(iii) Client
(iv) Admin team
Que10: Successful completion of a project depends on the ________of the monitoring system?
(i) Effectiveness
(ii) Productivity
(iii) Economy
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 SEM-II PROJECT MANAGEMENT (S3C13)
(iv) All of the options

Que11: Do you agree that Project Audit is conducted in the Project Initiation Phase only?
(i) No
(ii) Yes
(iii) Sometimes
(iv) Maybe
Que12: _____ is the industry standard method of measuring project’s progress at any given point of time?
(i) Project Audit
(ii) Project benchmarking
(iii) Earned Value Analysis
(iv) Early Value Analysis
Que13: Do you think a failed project also needs to be closed formally?
(i) Always
(ii) Sometimes
(iii) No
(iv) Rarely
Que14: PMIS helps in ____________ in the Initiation Phase?
(i) Preparing the Projects Budget
(ii) Defining Project Scope
(iii) Create Project Schedule
(iv) All of the Options
Que15: ________ is a latest cloud based Project Management Software?
(i) MS project
(ii) Oracle Primavera
(iii) ASANA
(iv) None of the options

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 SEM-II PROJECT MANAGEMENT (S3C13)

Final Exam Probability Questions

Que1: Project management is required to which of the following options?
(i) Accomplish a project's objectives within the given time frame and the allocated budget
(ii) Revive a project's performance
(iii) Maximize risks
(iv) Sell resource
Que2: Which project organisation structure works well in a stable work environment?
(i) Pure
(ii) Matrix
(iii) Functional
(iv) Managed
Que3: In which stage is feasibility of a project analyzed?
(i) Appraisal
(ii) Identification
(iii) Preparation
(iv) Presentation
Que4: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project?
(i) General purpose
(ii) Uniqueness
(iii) Specified time
(iv) Interdependencies among projects
Que5: Interdependencies of the activities need to be taken into consideration in which stage of a project's life cycle?
(i) Concept
(ii) Termination
(iii) Dependencies among activities
(iv) Specified time
Que6: Which phase requires the maximum efforts?
(i) Initiation
(ii) Planning
(iii) Execution
(iv) Controlling
Que7: Which behavioral aspect will best demonstrate to the project team that their project manager trusts them?
(i) Remaining calm under a stressful condition
(ii) Resolving interpersonal conflicts
(iii) Delegating work
(iv) Showing enthusiasm
Que8: Which one is the longest stage in the project management life cycle?
(v) Initiation
(vi) Planning
(vii) Execution
(viii) Controlling
Que9: Which of the following is a feature of matrix organisation structure?
(i) Division of authority
(ii) Clear unity of command
(iii) No unity of command
(iv) Clear unity of command
Que10: Which of the following is not an advantage of project management?
(i) Aligning a project with the strategic goals of an organization
(ii) Maximizing risks associated with a project
(iii) Increasing the project success ratio
(iv) Delivering the desired results

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 SEM-II PROJECT MANAGEMENT (S3C13)

Que11: A company has won the bid to construct a new airport in the outskirts of a city. To develop the airport, the
government has procured land from the farmers in the proposed site. Before starting the construction, the company wants
to evaluate the impact of land acquisition and airport construction on the local farmers. Which feasibility analysis should
it undertake?
(i) Social feasibility analysis
(ii) Environment feasibility analysis
(iii) Market feasibility analysis
(iv) Economic and financial feasibility analysis
Que12: Which tool will help you pass on the most suitable projects to the project- selection stage for consideration?
(i) Business case
(ii) Project feasibility report
(iii) Project screening matrix
(iv) Project report
Que13: Which statement is true about benefit measurement methods?
(i) They are decision model
(ii) They are used for large products
(iii) They are financial models of project selection
(iv) Hey optimize an objective function with respect to some variables
Que14: What is the purpose of project screening?
(i) Select the most unsuitable projects
(ii) Find whether project are double
(iii) Fund the most suitable projects
Que15: What will SWOT analysis indicate about a project?
(i) Whether it is safe for the general public
(ii) Whether it is capable of entering into a new market
(iii) Whether it fits with corporate objectives
(iv) Whether it maintains the competitive position of the organisation
Que16: Which model estimates value created in excess of the required return on capital?
(i) EVA Model
(ii) OC Model
(iii) NPV Model
(iv) IRR Model
Que17: Which feasibility study evaluates the level to which a project is capable of meeting organizational objectives?
(i) Economic and financial feasibility analysis
(ii) Technical feasibility analysis
(iii) Operational feasibility analysis
(iv) Legal and regulatory analysis
Que18: Which question does not answer financial feasibility analysis?
(i) Who benefits from a project?
(ii) Who will repay project costs?
(iii) Who are the buyers of the proposed product/service?
(iv) Are they able to meet repayment obligations?
Que19: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of project feasibility analysis?
(i) Generate new idea
(ii) Bury the weak points of a project
(iii) Identify reasons for not proceeding on a project
(iv) Provide information Go/ No-Go decision
Que20: Which algorithm will help you simplify a complex problem by dividing it into multiple simpler problems?
(i) Dynamic programming
(ii) Non-linear programming
(iii) Linear programming
(iv) Multiple objective programming

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 SEM-II PROJECT MANAGEMENT (S3C13)

Que21: What do you mean by earned value?

(i) Money spent for the work actually done
(ii) Budgeted cost for work scheduled
(iii) Difference between the project's current value of cash inflow and the current value of cash outflow
(iv) Budgeted cost of work performed
Que22: Sumeru Corporation wants to develop robots for doing household work on a massive scale. The idea has
generated considerable interest from stakeholders. However, before launching the project, the organisation wants to
evaluate whether there will be adequate benefits in return of the investment cost required for the project. What should be
done to find this information?
(i) A marketing requirements document should be created.
(ii) Terms of reference should be established.
(iii) A project charter should be drafted.
(iv) An economic feasibility study should be conducted.
Que23: You want to find out whether a project is capable of meeting organizational objectives in the prevailing business
environment. Which type of feasibility analysis will you conduct?
(i) Market feasibility analysis
(ii) Operational Feasibility analysis
(iii) Environmental feasibility analysis
(iv) Social feasibility analysis
Que24: Which information is not provided in Terms of Reference?
(i) Justification for carrying on a project
(ii) Key issues that must be addressed for smooth implementation of the project
(iii) Implementation methodology of a project
(iv) Go/no-go decision about the project
Que25: What is CSSQ?
(i) Cost, Schedule, Solution Quality
(ii) Customers, Suppliers, Shareholder, Quantity
(iii) Cost, Scope, Schedule, Quality
(iv) Company, Stakeholders, Shareholders, Quality

Thank!ng You!

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