Date: 16-April-2023 Part Test- 01 Class 11th

PHYSICS
SECTION – A
Q1. A vernier callipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale which
match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier callipers, the least count is :
(a) 0.02 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 0.2 mm

Q2. If mass of box is 1.0 kg and mass of gold ring is 30gm. Then total mass of box and ring in siginificant figure
is:
(a) 1.030 kg
(b) 1.03 kg
(c) 1.0 kg
(d) None.

watt
Q3. kelvin is the unit of :
(a) Stefan's constant
(b) Wien's constant
(c) Cooling's constant
(d) Thermal conductance

V
Q4. The resistance R = where V = (100 ± 5) volts and i = (10 ± 0.2) amperes. What is the total error in R :
i
(a) 5%
(b) 0.7 ohm
(c) 5.2%
(d) 2.5 ohm

abc 2
Q5. A physical quantity P = is determined by measuring a, b, c, d and e separately with the percentage
d3 e1/ 3
error of 2%, 3%, 2%, 1% and 6% respectively. Minimum amount of error in measurement is contributed by :
(a) b
(b) a
(c) c
. (d) e

Q6. If mass is measure in units of  kg, length in m and time in s then 1 newton would be :
(a) –1–12 unit
(b) –2 unit
(c) –1–1–2 unit
(d) 2 unit

Q7. If force (F) work (W) and velocity (v) are taken as fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of time
(T) is:
(a) [W1F–1v–1]
(b) [W–1F2v–1]
(c) [W1F1v–2]
(d) [W1F1v1]

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b−x 2
P=
Q8. Power P is related to distance x and time t as at . Find the dimensional formula for 𝑏
𝑎
(a) [M–1L–2T2]
(b) [M–1L2T–2]
(c) [ML–2T2]
(d) [ML2T–2]

Q9. Dimension formula for Boltzmann's constant (k) :

(a) [MLT–2 –1]
(b) [ML2T–1 –1]
(c) [ML2T–2 –1]
(d) [ML2T–2 ].

Q10. A force F is given by 𝐹 = 𝑎𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡 2 , what t is time. The dimensions of a and b are

(a) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −3 ] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −4 ]
(b) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −4 ] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −3 ]
(c) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −1 ] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 ]
(d) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 ] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [𝑀𝐿𝑇 0 ]

Q11. A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of distance covered in nth second
to that covered in n seconds is :
2 1
(a) −
n2 n
2 1
(b) 2 +
n n
2 1
(c) − 2
n n
2 1
(d) + 2
n n

Q12. Which of the following statements is true for a car moving on the road :
(a) With respect to the frame of reference attached to the ground, the car is at rest
(b) With respect to the frame of reference attached to the person sitting in the car, the car is at rest
(c) With respect to the frame of reference attached to the person outside the car, the car is at rest
(d) None of these

Q13. The x-t graph representing an object at rest is :

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q14. If a body starts from rest, the time in which it covers a particular displacement with uniform acceleration
is :
(a) inversely proportional to the square root of the displacement
(b) inversely proportional to the displacement
(c) directly proportional to the displacement

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Date: 16-April-2023 Part Test- 01 Class 11th
(d) directly proportional to the square root of the displacement

Q15. The coordinates of object with respect to a frame of reference at t = 0 are (–1, 0, 3). If t = 5 s, its
coordinates are (–1, 0, 4), then the object is in :
(a) motion along Z-axis
(b) motion along X-axis
(c) motion along Y-axis
(d) rest position between t = 0s and t = 5 s

Q16. The position-time graph for a uniform motion is represented as :

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q17. A ball projected vertically upwards direction with initial velocity 55 m/s. The distance travelled in 6th
second of motion will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 2.5 m
(b) 1.25 m
(c) Zero
(d) 6 m

Q18. A body thrown vertically upwards direction it passes from same height at 4 sec and 6 sec respectively.
Then find maximum height reached by body (g=10 m/s2)
(a) 150 m
(b) 125 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 250 m

Q19. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the ground.
What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds :
(a) h/9 metres from the ground
(b) 7h/9 metres from the ground
(c) 8h/9 metres from the ground
(d) 17h/18 metres from the ground

Q20. The displacement of a particle is given by x(t) = (t – 2)2, where x is in metres and t in seconds. The
distance covered by the particle in first 4 s is
(a) 8 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 16 m

Q21. A river flows from West to East at the rate of 5 ms –1. A swimmer who can swim at the rate of 13 ms–1
in still water wants to reach on opposite point of the other bank. In what direction with up stream he should
swim :
5
(a) sin  =
8
3
(b) sin  =
5
12
(c) sin  =
13

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3
(d) sin  =
8

Q22. A girl riding a bicycle with a speed of 5 ms–1 towards North direction sees raindrops falling vertically
downwards. On increasing the speed to 15 ms–1 rain appears to fall making an angle of 45° of the vertical.
Find the magnitude of velocity of rain.
(a) 5 ms–1
−1
(b) 5 5 ms
(c) 25 ms–1
(d) 10 ms–1.

Q23. A car driver is moving towards a upward fired rocket with a speed of 8 ms –1. He observed the rocket to
be moving with a speed of 10 ms–1. A stationary observed will see the rocket to be moving with a speed of :
(a) 5 ms–1
(b) 6 ms–1
(c) 7 ms–1
(d) 8 ms–1.

Q24. The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x = 18t and 2 y = 54t – 9.8t2. The angle  of projection
is:
(a) tan–1 (3)
(b) tan–1 (1.5)
2
sin−1
(c) 3
2
cos−1
(d) 3

Q25. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in the ratio 4 2 : 5 acquired the same height. If A is thrown
at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, then angle of projection of B will be :
(a) 30o
(b) 37o
(c) 42o
(d) 53o

Q26. A man can throw a stone to a maximum distance of 80 m. The maximum height upto which he can throw
with same speed :
(a) 30 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 40 m

Q27. Three particles A, B and C projected from the same point with the same initial speeds making angle 30°,
45° and 60°, respectively with the horizontally. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A, B and C have unequal ranges
(b) Ranges of A and C are less than that of B
(c) Ranges of A and C are equal and less than that of B
(d) A, B and C have equal ranges.

Q28. The speed of a projectile at the maximum height is 1/2 its initial speed. Find the ratio of range of projectile
to the maximum height attained :
(a) 4 3

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Date: 16-April-2023 Part Test- 01 Class 11th
4
(b) 3
3
(c) 4
(d) 6

Q29. The ceiling of a hall is 100 m high. A ball is thrown with 60 ms–1 at an angle , so that maximum horizontal
distance may be covered. The angle of projection  is given by :
5
sin  =
(a) 9
1
sin  =
(b) 6
8
sin  =
(c) 9
(d) None of these.

Q30. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 ms–1 at angle  with the horizontal.
Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms–1 at the same angle follows a trajectory of
the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms–2) is
(given, g = 9.8ms–2) :
(a) 3.5
(b) 5.9
(c) 16.3
(d) 110.8

Q31. Find angle of projection with the horizontal in terms of maximum height attained and horizontal range :
2H
tan−1
(a) R
4R
tan−1
(b) H
4H
tan−1
(c) R
H
tan−1
(d) R

(2iˆ + ˆj)ms−1
Q32. A projectile is given an initial velocity of , where 𝑖̂ is along the ground and 𝑗̂ is along vertical. If
g = 10ms–2, the equation of its trajectory is :
(a) y = x – 5x2
(b) y = 2x – 5x2
(c) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(d) 4y = 2x – 25x2.

Q33. A block of mass m is resting on a smooth horizontal surface. One end of a uniform rope of mass (m/3) is
fixed to the block, which is pulled in the horizontal direction by applying a force F at the other end. The tension
in the middle of the rope is :
8
(a) F
7
1
(b) F
7
1
(c) F
8
7
(d) F
8

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Date: 16-April-2023 Part Test- 01 Class 11th
Q34. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should
be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration a :
ma
(a) g+a
ma
(b) g−a
2ma
(c) g+a
2ma
(d) g−a

Q35. A particle of mass m is moving in a straight line with momentum p. Starting at time t = 0, a force
F = kt acts in the same direction on the moving particle during time interval T so that its momentum change
from p to 3p. Here k is a constant. The value of T is :
p
2
(a) k
2p
(b) k
2k
p
(c)
k
2
p
(d)

SECTION – B

Q36. A bullet of mass 20 g has an initial speed of 1 ms–1, just before it starts penetrating a mud wall of
thickness 20 cm. If the wall offers a mean resistance of 2.5 × 10–2 N, the speed of the bullet after emerging
from the other side of the wall is close to :
(a) 0.4 ms–1
(b) 0.1 ms–1
(c) 0.3 ms–1
(d) 0.7 ms–1.

Q37. A man (mass = 50 kg) and his son (mass = 20 kg) are standing on a frictionless surface facing each
other. The man pushes his son so that he starts moving at a speed of 0.70 ms–1 with respect to the man. The
speed of the man with respect to the surface is :
(a) 0.20 ms–1
(b) 0.14 ms–1
(c) 0.47 ms–1
(d) 0.28 ms–1

Q38. A mass of 10 kg is suspended by a rope of length 4m, from the ceiling. A force F is applied horizontally
at the mid-point of the rope such that the top half of the rope makes an angle of 45o with the vertical. Then F
equals (Take g = 10 ms–2 and the rope to be massless) :
(a) 100 N
(b) 90 N
(c) 75 N
(d) 70 N.

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Date: 16-April-2023 Part Test- 01 Class 11th
Q39. In the figure given below, the position-time graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown. The impulse at t
= 2 sec is :
x(m)

6
4
2
t(sec)
2 4 6
(a) 0.2 kg m sec–1
(b) –0.2 kg m sec–1
(c) 0.1 kg m sec–1
(d) –0.4 kg m sec–1.

Q40. The figure shows the position – time (x – t) graph of one dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4kg.
The magnitude of each impules is :

(a) 0.2 Ns
(b) 0.4 Ns
(c) 0.8 Ns
(d) 1.6 Ns

Q41. The acceleration of system of two bodies over the wedge as shown in figure is :

(a) 1 ms–2
(b) 2 ms–2
(c) 0.5 ms–2
(d) 10 ms–2.

Q42. When forces F1, F2, and F3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2 are F3 are mutually
perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary. If force F1 is now removed then the acceleration of the
particle is :
(a) F1/m
(b) F2F3/mF1
(c) (F2 – F3)/m
(d) F2/m

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Q43. A body of weight 64N is pushed with just enough force to start it moving across a horizontal floor and the
same force continues to act afterwards. If the coefficients of static and dynamic friction are 0.6 and 0.4
respectively. The acceleration of the body will be (acceleration due to gravity = g) :
g
(a)
6.4
(b) 0.64 g
g
(c)
32
(d) 0.2 g

44. Tension in the massless string joining A and B is (g = 10 m/s2) :

A B
2 kg 3 kg 16 N

 = 0.4
(a) 4N
(b) 8N
(c) 12 N
(d) 16 N

Q45. If µk is the coefficient of kinetic friction and µs is the coefficient of static friction then generally :
(a) µk < µs
(b) µs < µk
(c) µk = µs
(d) µs µk

Q46. A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of static friction between the
block and the surface is 0.6 . If the acceleration of the truck is 5 m/s2. The force of static friction acting on the
block is: (g = 10 ms2);
(a) 3 N
(b) 4 N
(c) 5 N
(d) 6 N

Q47. Two masses of 4 kg and 5 kg are connected by a string passing through a frictionless pulley and are
kept on a frictionless table as shown in the figure. The acceleration of 5 kg mass is :
4 kg

5 kg

(a) 49 m/s2
(b) 5.44 m/s2
(c) 19.5 m/s2
(d) 2.72 m/s2

Q48. Mass of body is 2.0 kg, acceleration of body is 5m/s2 and the force remain in the body for 2.0 sec. Then
the impulse of force is :
(a) 0.2 N-s
(b) 10 N-s
(c) 20 N-s
(d) None of these

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l
Q49. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by T = 2 where 'l' is about 100 cm and is
g
known to have 1 mm accuarcy. The time period is about 2s. The time of 50 oscillations is measured by a stop
watch of least count 0.1 s. The percentage error in g is :
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.3%
(d) 0.8%

Q50. Match the following two columns :

Column I Column II
A. Electric resistance p. ML3T–3A–2
B. Electric potential q. ML2T–3A–2
C. Specific resistance r. ML2T–3A–1
D. Specific conductance s. None of these
(a) A-q, B-s, C-r, D-p
(b) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s
(c) A-p, B-q, C-s, D-r
(d) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
Q51. Select the incorrect statement :
(a) The size of the orbitals increases with increase in n.
(b) The region where probability density function reduces to zero is called node.
(c) 4f orbital has l=4
(d) For single electron species, energy of the orbitals depends only on n.

Q52. The nodal plane of pz orbital is :

(a) xz
(b) zy
(c) xy
(d) x2–y2

Q53. The one having maximum energy of 2s orbital :

(a) E2s (Na)
(b) E2s (Li)
(c) E2s (K)
(d) E2s (H)

Q54. Calculate the wave number of yellow radiation having wavelenth 5800 Å :
(a) 1.724×104 m–1
(b) 1.824×10–4 m–1
(c) 1.43×104 cm–1
(d) 1.724×104 cm–1

37 Cl
Q55. The number of sub-atomic particles in 17 is/are :
(a) 17 electrons
(b) 17 neutrons
(c) 20 neutrons
(d) Both 1 and 3

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Q56. The number of exchanges of electrons possible for d5 configuration are :

(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 10
(d) 0

Q57. Choose the correct statement among the following:

(a) All the d-orbitals have same shape
(b) The energy of 4s is less than 3d for H-atom
(c) For 3p subshell, n=3, l=1
(d) All are correct

Q58. The orbital angular momentuam for 3p electron is :

(a) 2 h
h
(b)
2
1.5 h
(c)

3h
(d)
2

Q59. The number of nucleons in S2– are :

(a) 34
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 32

Q60. If 3 values are allowed for spin quantum number then how many electrons can be filled in 4p subshell:
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 9

Q61. 10 g of A is mixed with 15 g of B. Find the mass % of A in the binary solution :

(a) 40%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 67%

Q62. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.9 gL–1, what will be the molarity of glucose in
blood?
(a) 5 M
(b) 50 M
(c) 0.005 M
(d) 0.5 M

Q63. The number of significant figures in 6.002 are :

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) Infinite
(d) 4

Q64. The number of atoms in 120 amu of Ca are :

(a) 10

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Date: 16-April-2023 Part Test- 01 Class 11th
(b) 3
(c) 3 NA
(d) 30 NA

Q65. If the ratio of molar mass and empirical mass is 2, the find the molecular formula of the compound
having empirical formula as CH2Cl :
(a) CH2Cl
(b) CH4Cl2
(c) C2H4Cl2
(d) C2H4Cl

Q66. The final volume of the solution of NaOH (0.2 M, 200 mL) if it is diluted to 0.05 M will be :
(a) 600 mL
(b) 800 mL
(c) 4000 mL
(d) 1000 Ml

Q67. Find the molality of the solution if 4 g of NaOH is present in 44 g of the solution :
(a) 2.5 m
(b) 0.25 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 90.9 m

Q68. The volume of CO2 evolved when 50% impure limestone weighing 100 g is heated :
(a) 22.4 L
(b) 67.2 L
(c) 11.2 L
(d) 44.8 L

Q69. The internal energy of one mole of a monoatomic gas is:

3
(a) RT
2
1
(b) KT
2
1
(c) RT
2
3
(d) KT
2

Q70. The average K.E. of an ideal gas in calories per mole is approximately equal to :
(a) Three times the absolute temperature
(b) Absolute temperature
(c) Two times the absolute temperature
(d) 1.5 times the absolute temperature

Q71. For a real gas, deviations from ideal gas behaviour are maximum at :
(a) –10oC and 5.0 atm
(b) –10oC and 2.0 atm
(c) 0oC and 1.0 atm
(d) 100oC and 2.0 atm

Q72. The rates of diffusion of SO3, CO2, PCl3 and SO2 are in the following order-
(a) PCl3 > SO3 > SO2 > CO2

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Date: 16-April-2023 Part Test- 01 Class 11th
(b) CO2 > SO2 > PCl3 > SO3
(c) SO2 > SO3 > PCl3 > CO2
(d) CO2 > SO2 > SO3 > PCl3

 a 
Q73. At low pressure, van der Waals' equation is reduced to P + 2  V = RT . The compressibility factor can
 V 
be given as :
a
(a) 1 −
RTV
RTV
(b) 1 −
a
a
(c) 1 +
RTV
RTV
(d) 1 +
a

Q74. The term that corrects for the attractive forces present in a real gas in the van der Waal's equation is:
(a) nb
an2
(b)
V2
an2
(c) −
V2
(d) –nb

Q75. V versus T curves at constant pressure p1 and p2 for an ideal gas are shown in figure. Which is correct
:

(a) P1 > P2
(b) P1 < P2
(c) P1 = P2
(d) All of these

Q76. A cylinder was filled with gaseous mixture containing CO and N2 (equal masses). The ratio of their
partial pressure in cylinder is :
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 3

Q77. For the equilibrium, PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

KC = 2 / (1–)V. temperature remaining constant.
(a) KC will increase with the increase in volume
(b) KC will increase with the decrease in volume

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(c) KC will not change with the change in volume
(d) KC may increase or decrease with the change in volume depnding upon its numerical value

Q78. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1×1020 at 300 K. The standard Gibbs energy change for this
reaction is :
(a) –115 kJ
(b) +115 kJ
(c) +166 kJ
(d) –166 kJ

Q79. The equilibrium constant for the disproportionation of HgCl2 into HgCl+ and HgCl3– is ...............
Given, HgCl+ + Cl– HgCl2; K1 = 3×106
HgCl2 + Cl– HgCl3–; K2 = 9.0
(a) 27×106
(b) 3.3×10–7
(c) 3.3×10–6
(d) 3×10–6

Q80. The equilibrium constants for the two complex formation are :
4K+ + Fe(CN)64– → K4[Fe(CN)6]; K=3.8×10–38
3K+ + Fe(CN)63– → K3[Fe(CN)6]; K=5×10–18
(a) K4Fe(CN)6 is more stable
(b) K3Fe(CN)6 is more stable
(c) Both are equally stable
(d) Stability of complexes can not be decreases

Q81. Sulphanilic acid is a/an :

(a) Arrhenious acid
(b) Lewis base
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these

Q82. In the equilibrium

CH3COOH + HF CH3COOH2– + F–
(a) F– is the conjugate base of HF
(b) F– is the conjugate acid of HF
(c) CH3COOH is the conjugate acid of CHCOOH2+
(d) CH3COOH2+ is the conjugate base of CH3COOH

Q83. Four species are listed below :

i. HCO4–
ii. H3O+
iii. HSO4–
iv. HSO3F
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acid strength :
(a) ii < iii < i < iv
(b) i < iii < ii < iv
(c) iii < i < iv < ii
(d) iv < ii < iii < i

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Q84. pH of pure water at 800C will be :

(a) < 7
(b) > 7
(c) = 7
(d) Can't predicted

Q85. For the reversible process, the value of S is given by the expression :
(a) qrev. / T
(b) T – qrev.
(c) qrev. × T
(d) qrev. – T

SECTION – B
Q86. Which one of the following is an extensive property :
(a) Enthalpy
(b) Molarity
(c) Density
(d) Viscosity

Q87. What will be the heat of formation of methane, if the heat of combustion of carbon is '–x' kJ, heat of
formation of water is '–y' kJ and heat of combustion of methane is '- z' kJ :
(a) (– x – y + z) kJ
(b) (+ z – x + 2y) kJ
(c) (– x – 2y –z) kJ
(d) (– x – 2y + z) kJ

Q88. The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, cyclohexene and H2 are respectively –3920, –3000 and –
241 kJ mol–1. The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is:
(a) –679 kJ mol–1
(b) 679 kJ mol–1
(c) –242 kJ mol–1
(d) 242 kJ mol–1

Q89. Considering entropy(S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process
is :
(a) Ssystem + Ssurroundings > 0
(b) Ssystem – Ssurroundings > 0
(c) Ssystem > 0 only
(d) Ssurroundings > 0 only

Q90. In which of the following case, H=0

(a) Cyclic process
(b) Reversible process
(c) Adiabatic irreversible
(d) All of the above

Q91. Find U if H=50 kJ/mol for the reaction

H2O(l) → H2O(g)
When temperature = 1000C for vapourisation of 2 mole of water.
(a) –50 kJ/mol

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Date: 16-April-2023 Part Test- 01 Class 11th
(b) 46.89 kJ/mol
(c) 6150 kJ/mol
(d) 61.50 kJ/mol

Q92. The heat of an isolated system is :

(a) not constant
(b) constant
(c) equal to zero
(d) none

Q93. Which one of the following statements is not correct :

(a) Oxidation state of S in (NH4)2S2O8 is +6
(b) Oxidation number of Os in OsO4 is +8
(c) Oxidation state of S in H2SO5 is +6
(d) Oxidation number of O in Cl2O is +2

Q94. When ZnS is boiled with strong nitric acid, the products are zinc nitrate, sulphuric acid and nitrogen
dioxide. What are the changes in the oxidation numbers of Zn, S and N :
(a) +2, +4, –1
(b) +2, +6, –2
(c) 0, +2, –2
(d) 0, +8, +1

Q95. The reaction

5H2O2 +XClO2 +2OH– → XCl– + YO2 + 6H2O
is balanced if :
(a) X = 5, Y = 2
(b) X = 2, Y = 5
(c) X = 4, Y = 13
(d) X = 5, Y = 5

Q96. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below :
F2(g) + 2e– → 2F– (aq.); E0 = +2.85 V
Cl2(g) + 2e– → 2Cl–(aq.); E0 = +1.36 V
Br2(l) + 2e– → 2Br– (aq.); E0 = +1.06 V
I2(s) + 2e– → 2I– (aq.); E0 = +0.53 V
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are :
(a) F2 and I–
(b) Br2 and Cl–
(c) Cl2 and Br–
(d) Cl2 and I2

Q97. When Br2 reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of bromine
changes from :
(a) Zero to –1 and zero to +3
(b) Zero to +1 and zero to –3
(c) Zero to +1 and zero to –5
(d) Zero to –1 and zero to +5

Q98. Volume of 0.02 M KMnO4 required to oxidise 3.92 gm of Mohr's salt in acidic medium will be :
(a) 200 ml
(b) 100 ml

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(c) 300 ml
(d) 400 ml

Q99. The oxidation number of N atom in NH4NO3

(a) +3, +5
(b) –3, +5
(c) –3, –5
(d) +3, –5

Q100. The oxidation number of Cl in NOClO4 is :

(a) +11
(b) +9
(c) +7
(d) +5
BOTANY
SECTION – A
Q101. Which is incorrect statement :
(a) Calvin was born in Minnesota in April 1911
(b) Calvin along with Bassham studied reactions in green plants forming sugar and other substances
(c) Calvin got Noble prize in 1976
(d) Calvin served as Professor of Chemistry.

Q102. Which of the following wall of guard cells is thick:

(a) Side wall
(b) Middle wall
(c) Inner wall
(d) Outer wall

Q103. Which statement is incorrect for diffusion :

(a) Diffusion is passive
(b) No energy expenditure
(c) Molecules move in random fashion
(d) Diffusion is a fast process and dependent on living system

Q104. Which is incorrect for facilitated diffusion :

(a) Substance soluble in lipid diffuse through membrane faster
(b) Special protein help movement of substance across membrane without expenditure of ATP energy
(c) Facilitated diffusion is not specific
(d) Transport rate reaches a maximum when all the protein transporters are being used

Q105. When a cell is plasmolysed, it becomes :

(a) Flaccid and its TP becomes zero
(b) Turgid and its TP becomes zero

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(c) Turgid and TP becomes equal to OP
(d) Flaccid and its TP becomes maximum

Q106. Hydroponics is succesful in commercial production of vegetable such as :

(a) Tomato
(b) Seedless cucumber
(c) Lettuce
(d) All of these

Q107. Which is correct for potassium :

(a) Absorb in the form of K+

(b) Help in maintaining turgidity of cell
(c) Help to maintain an anion - cation balance in cell
(d) All of these

Q108. Element that mainly leads to oxygen evolution :

(a) Mn++ and Cl–

(b) Mn++ and Mg

(c) Cl– and Cu2+

(d) Mo and Mn++

Q109. Nitrate present in the soil is also reduced to nitrogen by the process of denitrification. Denitrification is
carried by the bacteria of :
(a) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus
(b) Pseudomonas and Nitrobactor
(c) Thiobacillus and Nitrosomonas
(d) Rhizobium and Pseudomonas

Q110. Identify A
N  N ⎯⎯
A
→ NH3

(a) Transferase
(b) Ammoniase
(c) Nitrogenase
(d) Urease.

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Q111. Raw material used in dark reaction of photosynthesis is :
(a) CO2

(b) O2

(c) Light
(d) Both 1 and 3

Q112. The reaction centre in PS II is :

(a) P500

(b) P680
(c) P780
(d) P400

Q113. How many glucose molecules are produced by use of 18 ATP and 12 NADPH in photosynthesis-
(a) Six
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Two

Q114. Oxaloacetic acid is first stable products of :

(a) C2 plants
(b) C3 plants
(c) C4 plants
(d) All above

Q115. What is the correct sequence regarding non cylic scheme :

(a) P700 → e acceptor → ETS → P680 → e acceptor

(b) P680 (PSI) → e acceptor → ETS → P700 (PSII) → e acceptor

(c) P700 → H+ acceptor → ETS → P680 → e acceptor

(d) P680 (PSII) → e acceptor → ETS → P700 (PSI)

Q116. Glycolysis terms has originated from greek words:

(a) Glucose and lysis
(b) Glycos and lysis
(c) Glyco and lysis
(d) Gluco and lysis

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Q117. Enzyme found and attached to inner membrane of mitochondria instead of matrix is/are
(a) Malic dehydrogenase
(b) Succinic dehydrogenase
(c) Cytochrome c oxidase
(d) Both 2 and 3

Q118. The process by which partial oxidation of glucose occurs:

(a) Kreb's cycle
(b) E.T.S
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Glycolysis

Q119. Fermentation occurs in :

(a) Yeast
(b) Bacteria
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Q120. Citric acid cycle was elucidated by :

(a) Hans krebs
(b) Dr. P.J. Kurian
(c) Kary Mullious
(d) Pristlay.

Q121. What is the R.Q. value of protein :

(a) Less than 1
(b) More than 1
(c) 1
(d) None.

Q122. Match the plant hormones listed in column- I with their major role listed in column-Il. Select the correct
option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column -ll
a. Auxin l. Fruit ripeing
b. Cytokinins ll. Apical dominance
c. Abscisic acid lll. Antagonist to GAs
d. Ethylene lV. Stomatal opening and closing
V. Growth of lateral buds

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(a) a - IV, b - V, c - III, d - I
(b) a - Il, b - lV, c - III, d - I
(c) a - Il, b - V, c - III, d - I
(d) a - Ill, b - IV, c - II, d – I

Q123. The graph given below shows a geometrical growth rate.

Which of the following statement regarding the above graph is incorrect:

(a) The initial growth is slow, thereafter exponential phase and then stationary phase.
(b) A sigmoidal curve is a characteristic of living organism growing in a natural environment.
(c) With limited nutrient supply, the growth rate increases rapidly leading to a exponential phase.
(d) Geometrical growth is typical for all cells, tissues and organs of a plant.

Q124. Select the incorrect option.

(a) Primary growth is the increase in girth of axis due to activity of apical meristem
(b) Secondary growth is the increae in girth due to activity of lateral meristem (vascular cambium and cork
cambium)
(c) Elongation of plant is the primary growth
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q125. Which of the following option correct :

(a) Embryonic leaves known as cotyledon
(b) Epicotyl is the portion above the cotyledonary node
(c) Hypocotyl is the portion bellow the cotyledonary node
(d) All of these

Q126. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A) :
All solutions have a lower water potential than pure water at S.T.P.
Reason (R) :
The concentration (free energy) of water decreases, reducing its water potential.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q127. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A) :
The diffusion of any substance across a membrane also depends on its solubility in lipids.
Reason (R) :

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Substances soluble in lipids diffuse through the membrane faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q128. Which statement correct for porins are :

(a) Lipid that form pores in the inner membrane of plastid
(b) Cholesterol that form pores in inner membrane of mitochondria
(c) Carbohydrate that form pores in inner membrane of plastid
(d) Protein allowing molecules upto the size of small proteins to pass through

Q129. Uphill transport is a property, which is found in the process of :

(a) Simple diffusion
(b) Facilitated transport
(c) Active transport
(d) Both 1 and 2

Q130. Which of the following is incorrect :

(a) Water is essential for all physiological activities of plants and play a very important role in all living organism
(b) Main content of protoplasm is water
(c) A watermelon has 62% water
(d) A mature corn plant absorb almost 3 litres of water in a day

Q131. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A) :
Nitrifying bacteria are chemoautotrophs
Reason (R) :
The nitrite is oxidised to nitrate with the help of the bacterium nitrobacter and synthesis of ATP.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q132. Given below are two statements :

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Statement I :
Chlorosis is the loss of chlorophyll leading to yellowing in leaves.
Statement II :
Boron is absorbed as BO33– or B4 O72–
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct

Q133. Auxin is synthesized with the help of :

(a) Mg
(b) Zn
(c) Cu
(d) B

Q134. Boron is absorbed as :

(a) BO33–
(b) B4O72–
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) BO22–.

Q135. Mo required for the activity of :

(a) Nitrogenase
(b) Nitrate reductase
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

SECTION – B
Q136. The sequential stages of calvin cycle are :
(a) Carboxylation, Reduction and Regeneration
(b) Carboxylation, Regeneration and Reduction
(c) Reduction, Corboxylaton and Regeneration
(d) Regeneration, Reduction and Carboxylation.

Q137. As compared to a Chlorella how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of
one molecule of hexose sugar by sugarcane :
(a) Two
(b) Six
(c) Zero
(d) Twelve

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Q138. Which statements is correct for photosynthesis is
(a) Endergonic, photochemical, anabolic and reductive process
(b) Exergonic, reductive and catabolic process
(c) Exergonic, reductive and anabolic process
(d) Exergonic and chemosynthetic process

Q139. RuBisCO have higher affinity for

(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) both 1 and 2 with equal affinity
(d) PGA

Q140. The colour of chlorophyll b is

(a) Yellow green
(b) Yellow orange
(c) Blue green
(d) Violet green

Q141. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalysed
by:
(a) Phosphofructokinase
(b) Aldolase
(c) Hexokinase
(d) Enolase

Q142. All of the following processes can release CO2 except

(a) Alcoholic fermentation
(b) Oxidative decarboxylation and Krebs' cycle
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation
(d) Conversion of −ketoglutaric acid to succinic acid

Q143. Protein enters the Kreb’s cycle as

(a) Amino acid after deamination
(b) Pyruvate
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) All of these

Q144. When fats are broken down what will formed :

(a) Fatty acid and glycerol
(b) Fatty acid and ethanol

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(c) Fatty acid and carbinol
(d) Glycerol and pyruvic acid.

Q145. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is :

(a) Cyt, b, c, a3, a
(b) Cyt, c, b, a, a3
(c) Cyt. a, a, b, c
(d) Cyt. b, c1,c, a, a3

Q146. Which of the following auxin is not obtained from plants

(a) IAA
(b) IBA
(c) NAA
(d) All of these

Q147. Spraying of which plant growth regulator on sugarcane crop increases the yield by 20 tonnes/acre
(a) auxin
(b) abscisic acid
(c) gibberellin
(d) Ethylene

Q148. Substances like cytokinin like activity is

(a) Zeatin
(b) 2,4-D
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) None of these

Q149. Natural cytokinins are synthesised in

(a) Root apices
(b) Developing shoot buds
(c) Young fruits
(d) All of these

Q150. Plant follows different pathways in response to environment to form different kind of structures called
(a) Senescence
(b) Plasticity
(c) Differentiation
(d) Dedifferentiation

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ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
Q151. Which is a correct matching set
Column I Column II
(a) Compound epithelium (i) Tendon
(b) Exocrine gland (ii) Insulin
(c) Endocrine gland (iii) Digestive enzyme
(d) Dense regular tissue (iv) Skin
(a) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(b) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(c) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(d) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

Q152. Select the correct option for the given diagram

(a) A type of connective tissue

(b) A type of neural tissue
(c) A type of muscular tissue
(d) A type of epithelial tissue

Q153. Which of the following are correct statement with reference to cockroach
(a) Arthrodial membrane is a flexible membrane
(b) Sternite is the ventral sclerite
(c) Labrum is a external genitalia
(d) 7th sternum of female cockroach is boat shaped
(a) Only a & b
(b) a & c
(c) Only a & d
(d) a, b, d

Q154. Which is a correct statement regarding cockroach :

(a) Hepatic caeca are 6-8 in number and help in reproduction
(b) Gizzard is also called as gonapophysis
(c) Hindgut is narrower than midgut

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(d) Spiracles help in respiration
(a) a & b
(b) b & c
(c) c, d
(d) Only d

Q155. The exoskeleton of cockroach is made up of :

(a) Chitin
(b) Lipoglycans
(c) Keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(d) Vitamin

Q156. The wings of cockroach which are opaque dark and leathery called as :
(a) Fore wings
(b) Mesothoracic wings
(c) Tegmina
(d) All of these

Q157. Head of cockroach is formed by how many segment:

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10

Q158. Dense connective tissue are divided into dense regular and dense irregular tissue on the basis of which
feature:
(a) Orientation of fibre
(b) Length of fibre and fibroblast
(c) Type of ground substance
(d) Mast cell

Q159. Wall of artery contain which type of muscle :

(a) Striated muscle
(b) Voluntary muscle
(c) Smooth muscle
(d) Skeletal muscle

Q160. Which is a correct matching set with reference to cockroach

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Column-I Column-II
(a) Ommatidia (i) Ootheca
(b) Phallomere (ii) Bundles of sperm
(c) Spermatophore (iii) Chitinous structure
(d) Collaterial gland (iv) Unit of compound eye
(a) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(b) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(c) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(d) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Q161. Which statement is incorrect :

(a) Mouth part of cockroach are sucking type
(b) Cuboidal epithelium found in ducts of glands
(c) In proximal convoluted tubule cuboidal epithelium found
(d) The epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule has microvilli

Q162. Ligament connects

(a) Bone to bone
(b) Muscle to muscle
(c) Bone to muscle
(d) Both 1 and 2

Q163. A group of similar cells alongwith intercellular substances perform a specific function. Such an
organisation is called :
(a) Organ
(b) Organ system
(c) Tissue
(d) Body

Q164. Which one of the following are correct statements for the given diagram

A B

I. A–Irregular boundaries and found in the alveoli of lungs

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II. B–Found in tubular part of Nephrons
III. C–Help in secretion and absorptions
IV. A–Found in duct of glands and phagocytic
V. C–Their function is to move particles or mucus
(a) I, II, V
(b) I, II, IV
(c) I, II, III
(d) I, III, V

Q165. The chemical nature of matrix of connective tissue is:

(a) Lipid
(b) Modified polysaccharides
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Steroidal

Q166. Which is a secretion of exocrine gland :

(a) Milk
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Saliva
(d) Both 1 and 3

Q167. Which is a correct match :

(a) Glandular epithelium – Tendon
(b) Exocrine gland – Without duct
(c) Endocrine gland – With duct
(d) Connective tissue – Linking and supporting function

Q168. How many matching are correct with reference to Digestive Gland of Human:
a. Gall bladder – Cystic duct
b. Liver – Hepatic duct
c. Salivary glands – Five pairs
d. Pancreas – Largest gland of Body
e. Bile – Secreted by hepatic cells of Gall bladder
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) One

Q169. How many matching are correct :

a. PEM – Marasmus
b. PEM – Kwashiorkar
c. Indigestion – Inadequate enzyme
d. Vomiting – Ejection of stomach content
(a) Three
(b) Four

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(c) One
(d) Two

Q170. How many matching are correct with reference to cells or gland and their secretion:
a. Goblet cells – Mucus
b. Chief cells – Pepsinogen
c. Parietal cells – Intrinsic factor
d. Oxyntic cells – HCl
e. Brunners gland – Lipase, HCl
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) One

Q171. Which one of the following are Incorrect match with reference to absorption of digested product:
(a) Glucose – Active Transport
(b) Glucose – Simple diffusion
(c) Glucose and amino acid –Facilitated transport
(d) None of these

Q172. Assertion: The type of Human Dentition are called Diphyodont

Reason: An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are of four different types
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q173. Assertion: Secretion of Parietal cell are important for protein digestion in stomach
Reason: Secretion of Parietal cell are Alkaline fluid that are Necessory to make Alkaline pH in stomach
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q174. Which arrangement is correct from outside to inside of the wall of alimentary canal
(a) Serosa → submucosa → mucosa →muscularis
(b) Serosa → Muscularis → Submucosa → Mucosa
(c) Mucosa → Submucosa → Muscularis → Serosa
(d) Mucosa → Muscularis → Submucosa → Serosa
(a) a
(b) c
(c) d
(d) b

Q175. Glisson's capsule is found in

(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver

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(c) Gastric gland
(d) Intestine

Q176. Which salivary gland present below the tongue

(a) Sublingual
(b) Submandibular
(c) Parotid
(d) Submaxillary

Q177. How much starch is digested by saliva in the buccal cavity

(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 40%
(d) 60%

Q178. Brunner's gland is located in

(a) Mucosa
(b) Submucosa
(c) Serosa
(d) Muscularis

Q179. Absorption of alcohol takes place in

(a) Mouth
(b) Small intestine
(c) Stomach
(d) Caecum

Q180. Gastric juice contains

(a) Pepsin, lipase and rennin
(b) Trypsin, lipase and rennin
(c) Trypsin, pepsin and lipase
(d) Trypsin, pepsin and rennin

Q181. Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II
(a) Bilirubin and biliverdin (i) Parotid
(b) Hydrolysis of starch (ii) Bile
(c) Digestion of fat (iii) Lipase
(d) Salivary gland (iv) Amylase
(a) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(b) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(c) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(d) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

Q182. Which secrete enzyme enterokinase :

(a) Gastric gland

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(b) Intestinal gland
(c) Pancreas
(d) Liver

Q183. Which cell is essential for absorption of vitamin B12 :

(a) Chief cell
(b) Peptic cell
(c) Parietal cell
(d) Zymogen cell

Q184. The opening of the stomach into duodenum is guarded by :

(a) Pyloric sphincter
(b) Epiglottis
(c) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(d) Sacculus rotundus

Q185. Which of the following match is wrong regarding transport of gases during respiration
(a) 97% O2, RBCs
(b) 3% O2 dissolved in plasma
(c) 70% CO2 bicarbonate
(d) 3% CO2 dissolved in plasma

SECTION – B

Q186. Identify A and B in given diagram of an alveolus with a pulmonary capillary :

(a) Mesothelium, Alveolar wall

(b) Red blood cell, Alveolar wall
(c) Alveolar wall, Basement membrane
(d) Basement substance, Red blood cell

Q187. Which is a incorrect statement

a. External intercostal muscles have no role in inspiration
b. Normal breathing rate is 12-16/minute
c. Pulmonary function can be assessed by spirometry
d. Tidal volume is 600 ml
(a) a & b

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(b) b & c
(c) c & d
(d) a & d

Q188. Which statement is true

(a) In blood CO2 comparatively diffuse easily because of its high solubility
(b) Approximately 18-19% CO2 is transported by plasma
(c) CO2 diffuses into blood passes into RBCs and reacts with H2O to form H2CO3
(d) Chloride ions diffuse from plasma into RBCs to maintain ionic balance
(a) a, b and c
(b) a, c and d
(c) b, c and d
(d) b and d only

Q189. Given below are two statements

Statement I:
A very significant contribution of meiosis is cell repair
Statement II :
Mitotic divisions takes place in meristematic tissue of plant.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Q190. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is :

(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear
(d) Hypobolic

Q191. A molecule of haemoglobin carries oxygen molecules:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q192. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is called :
(a) Inspiratory Capacity
(b) Expiratory Capacity
(c) Functional Residual Capacity
(d) Vital Capacity

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Q193. Normal inspiration is initiated by
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Relaxation in external intercostal muscles
(c) Contraction in internal intercostal muscles
(d) Both 1 and 3

Q194. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers how much CO2 to the alveoli
(a) 4 ml
(b) 8 ml
(c) 10 ml
(d) 15 ml

Q195. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery also can recognise changes in which chemical
concentration and send necessary signals to the rhythms centre for remedial actions:
(a) CO2 only

(b) H+ concentration only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) O2, CO2 and H+ concentration

Q196. The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a apparatus which
helps in clinical assessment of pulmonary functions. This apparatus is :
(a) Monometer
(b) Potometer
(c) Spirometer
(d) Osmometer

Q197. How many matching is/are correct

(a) Branchial respiration – Fish
(b) Pulmonary respiration – Snake
(c) Pulmonary respiration – Bird
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of these

Q198. Which one of the following are incorrect match

Animal Respiratory Organ

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 Part Test- 01 Class 11th
(a) Earthworm – Moist cuticle
(b) Birds – Lungs
(c) Insect – Tracheal tubes
(d) Earthworm – Gills

Q199. Rate and depth of respiration shall increase when

(a) O2 conc. increases
(b) CO2 conc. increases
(c) Haemoglobin increases
(d) Vitamin-B decreases

Q200. Which is a correct matching

Column-I Column-II
(a) Opening of nasal chamber i. Pleura
(b) Respiration in adult frog ii. Gills
(c) Respiration in aquatic arthropod iii. Lungs
(d) Membrane around lungs iv. Nasopharynx
(a) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(b) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(c) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(d) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

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