Full đề và đáp án phần Reading
Full đề và đáp án phần Reading
Full đề và đáp án phần Reading
Bài 2 - VII/ (ID: 80497 ) Read the following passage on commuting, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.
Many folk cures which have been around for centuries may be more therapeutic than previously
suspected. A case in point is that of penicillin Alexander Fleming did not just randomly choose cheese molds to
study when he discovered this very important bacteria-killing substance. Moldy cheese was frequently given to
patients as a remedy for illness at one time Fleming just isolated what it was about the cheese which cured the
patients.
In parts of South America, a powder obtained from grinding sugar cane is used for healing infections in wounds and
ulcers. This usage may date back to pre-Colombian times. Experiments carried out on several hundred patients
indicate that ordinary sugar in high concentrations is lethal to bacteria. Its suction effect eliminates dead cells and it
generates a glasslike layer which protects the wound and ensures healing. Another example of folk medicine which
scientists are investigating is that of Arab fishermen who rub their wounds with a venomous catfish to quicken
healing. This catfish excretes a gel like slime which scientist found to contain antibiotics coagulant that helps close
injured blood vessels, anti-inflammatory agents, and a chemical that directs production of a glue-like material that
aids healing. It is hoped that by documenting these folk remedies and experimenting to see if results are indeed
beneficial, an analysis of the substance be made, and synthetic substances be developed for human consumption.
Câu 51: This passage is mainly about ________.
A. isolating antibiotics in cheese, sugar, and slime
B. antibiotics in the field of medicine
C. using folk medicines in place of modern medicines
D. the validity of folk remedies and their use for advances in modem medicine
Câu 52: The word "therapeutic" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. medicinal
B. traditional
C. psychological
D. physiological
Câu 53: It can be inferred from the Message that Alexander Fleming ________.
A. suspected medicinal properties of mold
B. discovered moldy cheese
C. enjoyed eating cheese
D. isolated infectious patients
Câu 54: The word "eliminates" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. kills off
B. disposes of
C. excretes
D. cleanses
Câu 55: To the passage, ________.
A. bacteria feed on sugar
B. sugar kills unhealthy cells
C. lass is formed from sugar
D. sugar promotes healing
Câu 56: The gellike substance which promotes healing comes from ________.
A. Arab fishermen
B. catfish bodies
C. catfish venom
D. coagulants
Câu 57: Which one of the following is NOT an important quality of the catfish slime?
A. It prohibits inflammation
B. It stops bleeding
C. It produces mold
D. It fights bacteria
Câu 58: The word "consumption" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to________.
A. utilisation
B. destruction
C. experimentation
D. manipulation
Câu 59: In what way are cheese molds, sugar, and catfish slime similar?
A. They eliminate dead cells
B. They heal wounds
C. They fight bacteria
D. They cause blood clots
Câu 60: According to the passage, why is it important to study folk medicine?
A. To perpetuate superstitions
B. To advance modern medical practices
C. To experiment with synthetic substances
D. To document cultural heritages.
Bài 3 - Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question ( 55-64) below.
By far the most important United States export product in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries was
cotton, favored by the European textile industry over flax or wool because it was easy to process and soft to tile
touch. Mechanization of spinning and weaving allowed significant centralization and expansion in the textile
industry during
this period, and at the same time the demand for cotton increased dramatically. American producers were able to
meet this demand largely because of tile invention of the cotton gin by Eli Whitney in 1793. Cotton could be grown
throughout the South, but separating the fiber – or lint – from the seed was a laborious process. Sea island cotton
was relatively easy to process by hand, because its fibers were long and seeds were concentrated at the base of the
flower, but it demanded a long growing season, available only along the nation's eastern seacoast. Short-staple
cotton required a much shorter growing season, but the shortness of the fibers and their mixture with seeds meant
that a worker could
hand-process only about one pound per day. Whitney's gin was a hand-powered machine with revolving drums and
metal teeth to pull cotton fibers away from seeds. Using the gin, a worker could produce up to 50 pounds of lint a
day. The later development of larger gins, powered by horses, water, or steam, multiplied productivity further.
The interaction of improved processing and high demand led to the rapid spread of the cultivation of cotton
and to a surge in production. It became the main American export, dwarfing all others. In 1802, cotton composed
14 percent of total American exports by value. Cotton had a 36 percent share by 1810 and over a 50 percent share
in 1830. In 1860, 61 percent of the value of American exports was represented by cotton. In contrast, wheat and
wheat flour composed only 6 percent of the value of American exports in that year. Clearly, cotton was king in the
trade of the young republic. The growing market for cotton and other American agricultural products led to
an unprecedented expansion of agricultural settlement, mostly in the eastern half of the United States---west of
the Appalachian Mountains and east of the Mississippi River.
55. The main point of the passage is that the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries were a time when
A. the European textile industry increased its demand for American export products
B. mechanization of spinning and weaving dramatically changed the textile industry
C. cotton became a profitable crop but was still time-consuming to process
D. cotton became the most important American export product
56. The word "favored" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
A. preferred B. recommended C. imported D. included
57. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as reasons for the increased demand for cotton EXCEPT
A. cotton's softness B. cotton's ease of processing
C. a shortage of flax and wool D. the growth that occurred in the textile industry.
58. The word "laborious" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. unfamiliar B. primitive C. skilled D. difficult
59. According to the passage, one advantage of sea island cotton was its
A. abundance of seeds B. long fibers
C. long growing season D. adaptability to different climates
60. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about cotton production in the United States after the
introduction of Whitney's cotton gin?
A. More cotton came from sea island cotton plants than before.
B. More cotton came from short-staple cotton plants than before.
C. Most cotton produced was sold domestically.
D. Most cotton produced was exported to England.
61. The word "surge" in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. sharp increase B. sudden stop C. important change D. excess amount
62. The author mentions "wheat and wheat flour" in line 17 in order to
A. show that Americans exported more agricultural products than they imported.
B. show the increase in the amount of wheat products exported.
C. demonstrate the importance of cotton among American export products.
D. demonstrate that wheat farming was becoming more profitable.
63. The word "unprecedented" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. slow B. profitable C. not seen before D. never explained
64. According to the passage, the Mississippi River was
A. one of the boundaries of a region where new agricultural settlement took place
B. a major source of water for agricultural crops
C. the primary route by which agricultural crops were transported
D. a main source of power for most agricultural machinery
Bài 4 - Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 21 to 30.
We are descendants of the ice age. Periods of glaciation have spanned the whole of human existence for the past 2
million years. The rapid melting of the continental glaciers at the end of the last ice age spurred one of the most
dramatic climate changes in the history of the planet. During this inter-glacial time, people were caught up in a
cataclysm of human accomplishment, including the development of agriculture and animal husbandry. Over the
past few thousand years, the Earth's climate has been extraordinarily beneficial, and humans have prospered
exceedingly well under a benign atmosphere.
Ice ages have dramatically affected life on Earth almost from the very beginning. It is even possible that life itself
significantly changed the climate. All living organisms pull carbon dioxide out of the atmosphere and eventually
store it in sedimentary rocks within the Earth's crust. If too much carbon dioxide is lost, too much heat escapes out
into the atmosphere. This can cause the Earth to cool enough for glacial ice to spread across the land.
In general the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has been equalized by the input of carbon
dioxide from such events as volcanic eruptions. Man, however, is upsetting the equation by burning fossil fuels and
destroying tropical rain forests, both of which release stored carbon dioxide. This energizes the greenhouse effect
and causes the Earth to warm. If the warming is significant enough, the polar ice caps eventually melt.
The polar ice caps drive the atmospheric and oceanic circulation systems. Should the ice caps melt, warm tropical
waters could circle the globe and make this a very warm, inhospitable planet.
Over the past century, the global sea level has apparently risen upwards of 6 inches, mainly because of the melting
of glacial ice. If present warming trends continue, the seas could rise as much as 6 feet by the next century. This
could flood coastal cities and fertile river deltas, where half the human population lives. Delicate wetlands, where
many marine species breed, also would be reclaimed by the sea. In addition, more frequent and severe storms
would batter coastal areas, adding to the disaster of the higher seas.
The continued melting of the great ice sheets in polar regions could cause massive amounts of ice to crash into the
ocean. This would further raise the sea level and release more ice, which could more than double the area of sea
ice and increase correspondingly the amount of sunlight reflected back into space. The cycle would then be
complete as this could cause global temperatures to drop enough to initiate another ice age.
Question 21. According to the passage, carbon dioxide is stored in each of the following EXCEPT
A. polar ice caps. B. sedimentary rocks. C. rain forests. D. fossil fuel.
Question 22. What does the final paragraph of the passage mainly discuss?
A. The relationship between the ocean and the sun
B. The amount of sunlight reflected into space
C. A rise in global temperatures
D. The conditions that could lead to an ice age
Question 23. Which of the following does the author NOT mention as a consequence of a large rise in global sea
level?
A. The destruction of wetlands B. The flooding of cities
C. A more diverse marine population D. Severe storms
Question 24. According to the passage, what is the relationship between carbon dioxide and the Earth's climate?
A. Carbon dioxide, which is trapped in glacial ice, is released when warm temperatures cause the ice melt.
B. The greenhouse effect, which leads to the warming of the climate, is result of too much carbon stored in the
Earth's crust.
C. Rain causes carbon dioxide to be washed out of the atmosphere and into the ocean.
D. An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide results in the warming of the climate.
Question 25. The word "beneficial" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. calm B. inviting C. thoughtful D. favorable
Question 26. The word "massive" can be replaced to
A. wide B. huge C. dense D. thick
Question 27. It can be inferred from the passage that the development of agriculture
A. preceded the development of animal husbandry.
B. withstood vast changes in the Earth's climate.
C. did not take place during an ice age.
D. was unaffected by the greenhouse effect.
Question 28. The word "this" in the third paragraph refers to
A. man's upsetting the equation
B. the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide.
C. a volcanic eruption
D. the melting of the polar ice caps
Question 29. The word "inhospitable" is closest in meaning to
A. imperfect. B. uninhabitable. C. unlikable D. cruel.
Question 30. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The possibility that the popular ice caps will melt
B. The coming of another ice age
C. Man's effect on the carbon dioxide level in the atmosphere
D. The climate of the Earth over the years.
Bài 5 –
Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard to accomplish the
important reforms in education that he advocated. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother died, and
he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended school only two
or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and become a member of
the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles.
While serving in the Massachusetts legislature, he signed an historic education bill that set up a state board of
education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first secretary
of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction that brought
into existence the American graded elementary school as a substitute for the older district school system. Under his
leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months,
and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms that came into existence under
Mann’s guidance included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in service
teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrumental in improving salaries for teachers
and creating school libraries.
Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in the twelve annual reports to the state of
Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education. Considered quite radical at the time, the
Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation’s educational system. Mann was formally recognized
as the father of public education.
During his lifetime, Horace Mann worked tirelessly to extend educational opportunities to agrarian families and the
children of poor laborers. In one of his last speeches he summed up his philosophy of education and life: “Be
ashamed to die until you have won some victory for humanity.” Surely, his own life was an example of that
philosophy.
Enormous = Besar
Paragraph 2: While serving in the Massachusetts legislature, he signed an historic education bill that set up a state
board of education.
Paragraph 3: Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in the twelve annual reports to the
state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education.
Paragraph 4: During his lifetime, Horace Mann worked tirelessly to extend educational opportunities to agrarian
families and the children of poor laborers.
b. happy situations
c. Influential people
d. difficult times
4. The word there refers to …
a. the Massachusetts legislature
c. excellent
d. basic
6. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?
a. Horace Mann’s influence on American education was very great
b. A small but important influence on American education was exerted by Horace Mann
c. Few educators fully understood Horace Mann’s influence on American education
d. The influence on American education by Horace Mann was not accepted or appreciated
9. With which of the following statements would Horace Mann most probably agree?
a. Think in new ways
b. Help others
c. Study as much as possible
d. Work hard
Bài Reading mới;
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 4 to 10.
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions of women during the colonial period
and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not
considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren
produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised
great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these
contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors writing about women. These writers,
like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their
selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping records of activities in which women
were engaged. National, regional, and local women's organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper
clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women's history in the United
States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College.
Such sources have provided valuable materials for later Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century, most of the writing about women
conformed to the "great women" theory of History, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on "great men." To
demonstrate that women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote
biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers,
activists working for women's right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the great of ordinary woman. The lives of
ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.
Câu 1: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth - century "great women" EXCEPT
________
● A. reformers
● B. politicians
● C. activists for women's rights
● D. authors
● Câu 2:Mã câu hỏi: 45507
The word "they" in the 2nd paragraph refers to________
o A. sources
o B. efforts
o C. authors
o D. counterparts
● Câu 3:Mã câu hỏi: 45508
In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that ________.
o A. satisfied
o B. typical
o C. distinctive
o D. supportive
● Câu 5:Mã câu hỏi: 45510
In the 2nd paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out?
o A. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
o B. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
o C. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
o D. They put too much emphasis on daily activities.
● Câu 6:Mã câu hỏi: 45511
What use was made of the nineteenth-century women's history materials in the Schlesinger Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
Because the low latitudes of the Earth, the areas near the equator, receive more heat than the latitudes near the poles, and because the nature of heat is to
expand and move, heat is transported from the tropics to the middle and high latitudes. Some of this heat is moved by winds and some by ocean currents, and some
gets stored in the atmosphere in the form of latent heat. The term “latent heat” refers to the energy that has to be used to convert liquid water to water vapor. We
know that if we warm a pan of water on a stove, it will evaporate, or turn into vapor, faster than if it is allowed to sit at room temperature. We also know that if we
hang wet clothes outside in the summertime, they will dry faster than in winter, when temperature are colder. The energy used in both cases to change liquid water to
water vapor is supplied by heat – supplied by the stove in the first case and by the Sun in the latter case. This energy is not lost. It is stored as vapor in the atmosphere
as latent heat. Eventually, the water stored as vapor in the atmosphere will condense to liquid again, and the energy will be released to the atmosphere.
In the atmosphere, a large portion of the Sun’s incoming energy is used to evaporate water, primarily in the tropical oceans. Scienctists have tried to quantify
this proportion of the Sun’s energy. By analyzing temperature, water vapor, and wind data around the globe, they have estimated the quantity to be about 90 watts per
square meter, or nearly 30 percent of the Sun’s energy. Once this latent heat is stored within the atmosphere, it can be transported, primarily to higher latitudes, by
prevailing, large – scale winds. Or it can be transported vertically to higher levels in the atmosphere, where it forms clouds and subsequent storms, which then release
the energy back to the atmosphere.
Question 47: The passage mentions that the tropics differ from the Earth’s polar regions in which of the following ways?
A. The height of cloud formation in the atmosphere.
Question 49: Why does the author mention “the stove” in line 9th ?
A. To describe the heat of the Sun. B. To illustrate how water vapor is stored.
Question 50: According to the passage, most ocean water evaporation occurs especially_________
Question 51: According to the passage, 30 percent of the Sun’s incoming energy_________
Question 55: All of the following words/ phrases are defined in the passage EXCEPT________
19. The name of Scott Joplin's most famous composition probably came from
A. the name of a saloon where he performed
B. the maple tree near his Sedalia home
C. the name of the town where he was born
D. the school where he learned to play the piano
Reality television is genre of television programming which, (it is claimed), presents unscripted dramatic or humorous
situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form
of artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of
television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble
the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai),
to surveillance- or voyeurism- focused productions such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a
modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes
coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other
post-production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example,
on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to
scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent
and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some
degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles of
program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living-
environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities
and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically
select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular
behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and
avoids the word “reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is
unscripted drama.”
Question 61: In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because _____.
A. they are agree with the statement
B. everyone agrees with the statement
C. no one agrees with the statement
D. they want to distance themselves from the statement
Question 62: Reality television has __________.
A. always been this popular
B. been popular since before 2000
C. only been popular since 2000
D. been popular since approximately 2000
Question 63: Japan _____ .
A. is the only one place to produce demeaning TV shows
B. has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere
C. produced Big Brother
D. invented surveillance focused productions
Question 64: People have criticized reality television because_____
A. it is demeaning
B. it uses exotic locations
C. the name is inaccurate
D. it shows reality
Question 65: Reality TV appeals to some because _________
A. it shows eligible males dating women
B. it uses exotic locations
C. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances
D. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities
Question 66: Pop Idol _____.
A. turns all its participants into celebrities
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
C. is less likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
D. is a dating show
Question 67: The term “reality television” is inaccurate __________.
A. for all programs
B. just for Big Brother and Survivor
C. for talent and performance programs
D. for special-living-environment programs
Question 68: Producers choose the participants _____.
A. on the ground of talent
B. only for special-living- environment shows
C. to create conflict among other things
D. to make a fabricated world
Question 69: Paul Burnett _______.
A. was a-participant on Survivor
B. is a critic of reality TV
C. thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate
D. writes the script for Survivor
Question 70: Shows like Survivor_____.
A. are definitely reality TV
B. are scripted
C. have good narratives
D. are theatre
Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country’s impressive
population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada’s
population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of
the 1930s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom
continued through the decade of the 1950s, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five yea
rs
from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada’s history, in the decade b
efore 1911, when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950s
supported a
growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in t
he average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in
the world.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it
stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and th
e
war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer, more wo
men were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living
standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the tre
nd toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the
Industrial Revolution.
Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the
1960s was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed o
f the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in postwar Canada D. Standards of living in Canada
Question 2. The word “five” in bold refers to
A. Canadians B. years C. decades D. marriages
Question 3. The word “surging” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising
Question 4. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s
A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married
C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high
Question 5. The word “trend” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. tendency B. aim C. growth D. directive
Question 6. The word “peak” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. pointed B. dismal C. mountain D. maximum
Question 7. The author mention all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT
A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier
C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses
Question 8. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution
A. families were larger B. population statistics were unreliable
C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad
Question 9. The word “it” in bold refers to
A. horizon B. population wave C. nine percent D. first half
Question 10. The phrase “prior to” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. behind B. since C. during D. preceding
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of time elapses, however, the
numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way
to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is
of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted theory comes from
George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of
information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or
number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying
similar information together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory
being passed on to long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people engage in "rote
rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of
memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it
has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by
repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone
call, he will likely forget the number instantly.* Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the
short term to long term memory.* A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal".* This involves assigning semantic
meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories.*
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or
recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory
seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the
more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of
memorization.
Reading Comprehension questions:
1. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A) They revert from the long term memory.
B) They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C) They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D) They enter via the nervous system.
2. The word elapses in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A) passes
B) adds up
C) appears
D) continues
3. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the:
A) STM
B) long term memory
C) sensory storage area
D) maintenance area
4. Why does the author mention a dog's bark?
A) To give an example of a type of memory
B) To provide a type of interruption
C) To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D) To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell
5. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A) By organizing it
B) By repeating it
C) By giving it a name
D) By drawing it
6. The author believes that rote rotation is:
A) the best way to remember something
B) more efficient than chunking
C) ineffective in the long run
D) an unnecessary interruption
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month
of their lives, babies’ responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of
auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At
first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at
the end of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables
pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies’
emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is
playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, the
volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed
babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax,
short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that
when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words.
They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies can make
relatively fine distinction between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely
those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too; even as young as nine months old they will listen to songs or stories,
although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than
the route to convey meaning that it often is for adults.
Câu 21
B.how babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds
D. how babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development
Câu 22
Câu 23
The author mentions syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflection in order to ____ .
B.illustrate that a six-week-old baby can already distinguish some language differences
D. give a reason for babies’ difficulty in distinguishing one adult from another
Câu 24
A. observed
B.disagreed
C. theorized
D. requested
Câu 25
A. mothers
B.words
C. babies
D. investigation
Câu 26
All of the following are mentioned as ways adults use to modify their speech when talking to babies EXCEPT_______.
A. the mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak
C. babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to a single language
Câu 28
The point the author makes to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire languages is that____ .
Câu 29
According to the author, babies listen to songs and stories even though they cannot understand them because____.
All of the following are true about young babies EXCEPT that they____.
A. Stress
B. Leave out
C. explain
D. repeat
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that have existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a
species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species' death vary from
situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures
may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will
then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment,
resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred
throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions, many species became extinct
at the same time- a mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with
the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225
million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinction can be caused by a relatively rapid
change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something
were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affecting even
organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.One interesting, and
controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intensive every 26 million
years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth's orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is
purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species
may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species' survival may have nothing to do with its ability
or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
1. The word “it” in line 2 refers to
A. environment
B. Species
C. extinction
D. 99 percent
2. The word “ultimately” in line 7 is closest meaning to
A. exceptionally
B. dramaticall
C. eventually
D. unforunately
3. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history? • • • • . C
A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms
B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
C. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
D. They are no longer in existence
4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change? • • • •
A. Temperature changes
B. Availability of food resources
C. Introduction of new species
D. Competition among species
5. The word “demise” in line 12 is closest in meaning to
A. Change
B. recovery
C. help
D. death
6. Why is “ plankton” mentioned in line 16?
A. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
B. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.
C. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean
D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.
7. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
B. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive
C. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
8. The word “finding” in line 19 is closest in meaning to
A. published information
B. research method
C. ongoing experiment
D. scientific discovery
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it
B. evidence to support the theory has recently been found.
C. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
D. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
10. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species‟ survival?
A. It reflects the interrelationship of may species.
B. It may depend on chance events.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species
D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.
11. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occurred _______.
A. 26 million years ago
B. 250 million
C. 225 million
D. 65 million
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a
group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice
of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language
itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the
utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal
levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone
can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm
or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is
highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and/or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and
in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will
determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be
indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality
traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an
overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation
can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the
voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of
the depressed.
Câu 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Communication styles.
Câu 2: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's ______.
A. vocal quality
C. ability to communicate
D. personality
Câu 3: The word "evidenced" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. indicated
B. questioned
C. exaggerated
D. repeated
A. obtained
B. discussed
C. registered
D. prepared
Câu 5: Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in paragraph 1?
A. shyness
B. strength
C. hostility
D. friendliness
A. self-image
B. personality
C. tone of voice
D. psychological
Câu 8: What does the author mean by staring that "At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen"?
C. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
A. interpersonal interaction
B. The tone
C. ideas and feelings
D. words chosen
Câu 10: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy
B. Depression
C. Boredom
D. Anger
A. Severely
B. Easily
C. exactly
D. frequently
Around the year 1500, hunting people occupied the entire northern third of North America. They lived well from the animals with which
they shared these lands. Hunters of sea mammals had colonized the Arctic coasts of Canada and Greenland between four and five thousand
years before. Land-hunting people had lived throughout much of the northern interior for at least 12,000 years.
Northern North America is part of a larger circumpolar ecological domain that continues across the narrow Bering Strait into Siberia and
northern Europe. The overall circumpolar environment in the 1500's was not very different from the environment of the present. This vast
landmass had a continental climate and was dominated by cold arctic air throughout a long winter and spring season. Summer temperature
ranged from near freezing to the mid-20's Celsius, while winter temperature were often as low as 40 degrees below zero Celsius.
...
Câu hỏi số 1:
Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage?
A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks.
B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica.
C. ants belonging to the genus Poiyergus have an unusual relationship with ants genus belonging to the Formica.
D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies.
Câu hỏi số 2:
Câu hỏi số 3: The author mentions “cuckoos and cowbirds” in paragraph 1 because they ________ .
A. share their nests with each other
B. are closely related species
C. aise the young of their birds
D. are social parasites
Câu hỏi số 4:
The word “it” in parasraph 1 refers to ____________ .
A. species
B. nest
C. egg
D. female
Câu hỏi số 5:
What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants ... are the supreme social parasites”?
A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica.
B. The Formica have developed specialized roles.
C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica.
D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves.
Câu hỏi số 6: Which of the following is a task that an ant of the genus Polyergus might do?
A. look for food
B. raid another nest
C. care for the young
D. clean its own nest
Câu hỏi số 8:
The word “recruit” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________ .
A. create
B. enlist
C. endure
D. capture
Câu hỏi số 9: What happens when a mixed colony of Polyergus and Formica ants become too large?
A. The Polyergus workers enlarge the existing nest.
B. The captured Fonnica workers return to their original nest.
C. The Polyergus and the Formica build separate nests.
D. The Polycrgus and the Formica move to a new nest.
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the decorativearts and many
house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection displayed in a greatcountry house. Passing through
successive generations of a single family, Winterthur has been a privateestate for more than a century. Even after the
extensive renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, thehouse remained a family residence. This fact is of importance to
the atmosphere and effect of the museum.The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor: the rooms look as if
they were vacated only ashort while ago whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the
housecan be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection offurniture and
architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organicstructure; the house, as well as the
collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed overthe years. The changes have coincided with developing
concepts of the American arts, increasedknowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the
achievement of a historicaleffect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained
thecharacter of a private house
21. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The reason that Winterthur was redesigned
(B) Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum
(C) How Winterthur compares to English country houses
(D) Historical furniture contained in Winterthur
22. The phrase “devoted to”in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) surrounded by
(B) specializing in
(C) successful with
(D) sentimental about
23. What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931 ?
(A) The owners moved out.
(B) The house was repaired.
(C) The old furniture was replaced.
(D) The estate became a museum.
24. What does the author mean by stating “The impression of a lived-in
house is apparent to the visitor”(line 7) ?
(A) Winterthur is very old.
(B) Few people visit Winterthur.
(C) Winterthur does not look like a typical museum.
(D) The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable
25. The word “assembled”in line 11 is closest in meaning to
(A) summoned
(B) appreciated
(C) brought together
(D) fundamentally changed
26. The word “it”in line 12 refers to
(A) Winterthur
(B) collection
(C) English country house
(D) visitor
27. The word “developing”in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) traditional
(B) exhibiting
(C) informative
(D) evolving
28. According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the
following EXCEPT
(A) date
(B) style
(C) place of manufacture
(D) past ownership
29. What si the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?
(A) The second paragraph explains a term that was mentioned in the
first paragraph.
(B) Each paragraph describes a dafferent approach to the display of
objects in a museum.
(C) The second paragraph of explains a philosophy art appreciation that
contrasts with the philosophy explained in the first paragraph.
(D) Each paragraph describes a different historical period.
30. Where is the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have
changed?
(A) Lines 1-3
(B) Lines 5-6
(C) Lines 7-10
(D) Lines 13-16
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in the late nineteenth
century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer. The first
regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today’s Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in William Randolph
Hearst’s rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.
Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale of papers.
The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic character in the United States,
whose creator, Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The “Yellow Kid” was in many ways
a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later strips, and it introduced the speech
balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters’ heads.
The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s “Katzenjammer Kids”, based on Wilhelm Busch’s
Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897, served as the prototype for
future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of characters, and was divided into small
regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics.
Question 61: In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. In the order in which they were created.
B. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.
C. In alphabetical order by title.
D. From most popular to least popular.
Question 62: According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. characterize city life in a humorous way
B. include dialogue inside a balloon
C. feature the same character in each episode
D. appear in a Chicago newspaper
16. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that all of the following
may have made and used tools EXCEPT
(A) Australopithecus robustus
(B) Home erectus
(C) Home habilis
(D) Australopithecus robustus' ancestors
17. Which of the following does the author mention as the most important
recent discovery made in the Swartkrans cave?
(A) Tools
(B) Teeth
(C) Plant fossils
(D) Hand bones
18. What does the third paragraph mainly discuss?
(A) Features of Australopithecus robustus' hand
(B) Purposes for which hominids used tools
(C) Methods used to determine the age of fossils
(D) Significant plant fossils found in layers of sediment
19. It can be inferred from the description in the last paragraph that
Australopithecus robustus was so named because of the species'
(A) ancestors
(B) thumb
(C) build
(D) diet
20. The word “supplant”in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) exploit
(B) displace
(C) understand
(D) imitate
21. The word “them” in line 25 refers to
(A) tools
(B) Homo habilis
(C) Australopithecus robustus
(D) experts
22. The word “innate” in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) inherent
(B) incidental
(C) objective
(D) irrelevant
23. What does the author suggest is unclear about Australopithecus robustus?
(A) whether they used tools
(B) what they most likely ate
(C) whether they are closely related to humans
(D) why they became extinct
24. word “extensive” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) Numerous
(B) Exposed
(C) Ancient
(D) Valuable
25. The phrase “reliance on” in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) impact on
(B) dependence on
(C) tolerance of
(D) discovery of
A distinctively American architecture began with Frank Lloyd Wright, who had taken
to heart the admonition that form should follow function, and who thought of buildings
not as separate architectural entities but as parts of an organic whole that included the
Line land, the community, and the society. In a very real way the houses of colonial New
(5) England and some of the southern plantations had been functional, but Wright was the
first architect to make functionalism the authoritative principle for public as well as for
domestic buildings.
As early as 1906 he built the Unity Temple in Oak Park, Illinois, the first of those
churches that did so much to revolutionize ecclesiastical architecture in the United
(10) States. Thereafter he turned his genius to such miscellaneous structures as houses,
schools, office buildings, and factories, among them the famous Larkin Building
in Buffalo, New York, and the Johnson Wax Company Building in Racine, Wisconsin.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The architecture of public buildings
(B) An architectural pioneer
(C) New England architecture
(D) principles of architecture
2. The phrase “taken to heart” in lines 1-2 is closest in meaning to which
of the following?
(A) Taken seriously
(B) Criticized
(C) Memorized
(D) Taken offence
3. The word “admonition” in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) monition
(B) support
(C) discussion
(D) consideration
4. The word “entities” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) principles
(B) existences
(C) subtractions
(D) properties
5. In what way did Wright's public buildings differ from most of those
built by earlier architects?
(A) They were built on a larger scale.
(B) Their materials came from the southern United States.
(C) They looked more like private homes.
(D) Their designs were based on how they would be used.
6. The author mentions the Unity Temple because it
(A) was Wright's first building
(B) influenced the architecture of subsequent churches
(C) demonstrated traditional ecclesiastical architecture
(D) was the largest church Wright ever designed
7. Which of the following statements best reflects one of Frank Lloyd Wright's
architectural principles?
(A) Beautiful design is more important than utility.
(B) Ecclesiastical architecture should be derived from traditional designs.
(C) A building should fit into its surroundings.
(D) The architecture of public buildings does not need to be revolutionary.
8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a type of structure Frank Lloyd
Wright made ?
(A) houses
(B) factories
(C) southern plantations
(D) churches
After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally
destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks
before his death, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to
mankind. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economics was added in
1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony. Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and
the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from
125,000. Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards (gold medal, illuminated diploma, and
money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges' decisions. Americans have
won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the
beginning of World War II. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes. No awards
were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War 11. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare;
others have shared their prizes.
Câu 1: The word "foresaw" in the first paragraph is nearest in meaning to ________.
A. prevailed
B. postponed
C. prevented
D. predicted
Câu 2: The Nobel prize was established in order to ________.
A. recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity
B. resolve political differences
C. honor the inventor of dynamite
D. spend money
Câu 3: In which area have Americans received the most awards?
A. Literature
B. Peace
C. Economics
D. Science
Câu 4: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ________.
A. Awards vary in monetary value
B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention
C. Politics plays an important role in selecting the winners
D. A few individuals have won two awards
C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.
D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.
Câu 2: What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” in
paragraph 1?
A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.
A. rules
B. experiences
C. limits
D. expectation
A. slices of reality
B. similar textbooks
C. boundaries
D. seats
Câu 5: The phrase “For example,” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of....
A. similar textbooks
A. unplanned
B. unusual
C.lengthy
D.lively
The issue of equality for women in British society first attracted national attention in the early 20th century, when the suffragettes won for
women the right to vote. In the 1960s feminism became the subject of intense debate when the women’s liberation movement encouraged women
to reject their traditional supporting role and to demand equal status and equal rights with men in areas such as employment and pay.
Since then, the gender gap between the sexes has been reduced. The Equal Pay Act of 1970, for instance, made it illegal for women to be paid less
than men for doing the same work, and in 1975 the Sex Discrimination Act aimed to prevent either sex having an unfair advantage when applying
for jobs. In the same year the Equal Opportunities Commission was set up to help people claim their rights to equal treatment and to publish
research and statistics to show where improvements in opportunities for women need to be made. Women now have much better employment
opportunities, though they still tend to get less well-paid jobs than men, and very few are appointed to top jobs in industry.
In the US the movement that is often called the “first wave of feminism” began in the mid 1800s. Susan B. Anthony worked for the right to vote,
Margaret Sanger wanted to provide women with the means of contraception so that they could decide whether or not to have children, and
Elizabeth Blackwell, who had to fight for the chance to become a doctor, wanted women to have greater opportunities to study. Many feminists
were interested in other social issues.The second wave of feminism began in the 1960s. Women like Betty Friedan and Gloria Steinem became
associated with the fight to get equal rights and opportunities for women under the law. An important issue was the Equal Rights Amendment
(ERA), which was intended to change the Constitution. Although the ERA was not passed, there was progress in other areas. It became illegal for
employers, schools, clubs, etc. to discriminate against women. But women still find it hard to advance beyond a certain point in their careers, the
so-called glass ceiling that prevents them from having high-level jobs. Many women also face the problem of the second shift, i.e. the household
chores.
In the 1980s, feminism became less popular in the US and there was less interest in solving the remaining problems, such as the fact that most
women still earn much less than men. Although there is still discrimination, the principle that it should not exist is widely accepted.
Câu hỏi số 1:
It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that in the 19th century, ______.
A. British women did not have the right to vote in political elections
B. most women did not wish to have equal status and equal rights
C. British women did not complete their traditional supporting role
D. suffragettes fought for the equal employment and equal pay
Câu hỏi số 2:
The phrase “gender gap” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the social distance between the two sexes
B. the difference in status between men and women
C. the visible space between men and women
D. the social relationship between the two sexes
Câu hỏi số 3:
Susan B. Anthony, Margaret Sanger, and Elizabeth Blackwell are mentioned as ______.
A. American women who had greater opportunities
B. American women who were more successful than men
C. pioneers in the fight for American women’s rights
D. American women with exceptional abilities
Câu hỏi số 4:
The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) ______.
A. supported employers, schools and clubs
B. was brought into force in the 1960s
C. was not officially approved
D. changed the US Constitution
Câu hỏi số 5:
In the late 20th century, some information about feminism in Britain was issued by ______.
A. the Equal Pay Act of 1970
B. the Sex Discrimination Act
C. the Equal Opportunities Commission
D. the Equal Rights Amendment
Câu hỏi số 6:
Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. The US movement of feminism became the most popular in the late 20th century.
B. The women’s liberation movement in the world first began in Britain.
C. The movement of feminism began in the US earlier than in Britain.
D. The British government passed laws to support women in the early 20th century.
Câu hỏi số 7:
The phrase “glass ceiling” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. an overlooked problem
B. a ceiling made of glass
C. an imaginary barrier
D. a transparent frame
Câu hỏi số 8:
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Many American women still face the problem of household chores.
B. An American woman once had to fight for the chance to become a doctor.
C. British women now have much better employment opportunities.
D. There is now no sex discrimination in Britain and in the US.
Câu hỏi số 9:
It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. the belief that sex discrimination should not exist is not popular in the US
B. women in Britain and the US still fight for their equal status and equal rights
C. the British government did not approve of the women’s liberation movement
D. women do not have better employment opportunities despite their great efforts
Câu hỏi số 10:
Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Women and the Right to Vote
B. Opportunities for Women Nowadays
C. The Suffragettes in British Society
D. Feminism in Britain and the US
Passage 2
The development of so-called keyhole surgery means that the surgeon’s knife may soon disappear altogether as it is replaced by
miniature cameras, microscopic scissors and staplers. Instead of making long cuts in the patient’s body, surgeons look at the site through
an “endoscope”, or operating telescope. This is passed into the body through a small hole that will barely leave a scar.
As long as the operation is carried out skillfully by an experienced surgeon, keyhole surgery damages the patient far less than a
conventional operation. “Minimal access surgery is a real breakthrough,” says Alf Cuschieri, a leading endoscopic surgeon. “I wish we’d
developed it years ago. Not only does it reduce the trauma to the patient – it also means that we no longer have to make major incisions
to perform major operations.”
The viewing technology that allows doctors to see what is happening deep inside the human body has been borrowed from the aerospace
industry. Although in the 1960s flexible scopes were developed by technicians in order to check engine interiors without them having to
be taken apart, today’s endoscopes are not just simple tubes you can see through; they are equipped with very small television cameras.
An image of the operation – magnified eight times – is transmitted by the camera onto a strategically placed TV screen. Doctors and nurses
needn’t crowd round to look into the wound. Instead, they keep their eyes on the screen with straight backs and plenty of elbow room. As
surgeons cannot work in the dark, light is beamed into the area of the body being operated on through optical fibres – strands of special
glass, each as thin as a human hair, through which light travels.
Keyhole surgeons hope that miniaturization will make it possible for patients to have their operations performed by robots small enough
to crawl through the patient’s body. Despite the fact that, until now, even the smallest robots have been too large to be exploited in
endoscopic surgery, in Massachusetts the Institute of Technology’s Artificial Intelligence and Robotics Laboratory is working on ever-
smaller miniature and microrobots. These robots could be used for filming, taking biopsy specimens or on-the-spot analysis.
One of the most exciting future developments involves telesurgery, where doctors will operate by remote control. This means that a
patient can be operated on by two surgeons who are hundreds of kilometresaway from each other – and from the patient.
Some believe that such techniques will have been perfected in the next ten years or so.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. How to operate an endoscope B. Different uses of optical fibres
C. Robots used in medicine in the future D. How surgery can benefit from new technology
2. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. Miniature camera B. Stapler C. Endoscope D. A human hair
3. What does the word “conventional” mean?
A. early B. small C. traditional D. convenient
4. According to the passage, which statement is true?
A. Keyhole surgery cannot be used in major operations.
B. Keyhole surgeons have to keep straight backs and should not enjoy plenty of elbowroom.
C. The smallest robots have long been exploited in endoscopic surgery.
D. The viewing technology that endoscopic doctors are making use of has been borrowed from the aerospace industry.
5. According to the passage, Alf Cuschieri______ .
A. is the father of keyhole surgery
B. wished that endoscopic surgery had been developed earlier
C. is a leading technician in telesurgery
D. is experimenting with microrobots operated by remote control
6. What was the main use of flexible scopes in the 1960s?
A. to check the inside of an engine
B. to see what is happening deep inside the human body
C. to film, take biopsy specimens or on-the-spot analysis
D. to transmit images onto a strategically placed TV screen
7. Compared to the original image, how large is the image ofthe operation transmitted by the camera onto a strategically placed TV
screen?
A. eight times reduced B. eight times enlarged
C. the same D. as many times at will
8. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about optical fibres?
A. they are strands of special glass
B. they are equipped with television cameras
C. they are as thin as a human hair
D. they can carry light into an area of the body
9. Which of the following is NOT MENTIONED as one of the advantages of keyhole surgery?
A. rarely leaving a scar
B. making smaller incisions to perform major operations
C. allowing surgeons to work in the dark
D. damaging the patient far less
10. What can we expect for future surgery?
A. Surgery will be carried out by microrobots only.
B. Two patients can be operated at the same time.
C. The surgeon can operate on a patient from a distance.
D. Keyhole surgery will become successful.
The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting
definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census
officially distinguished the nation's “urban” from its “rural” population for the first
Line time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants
(5) or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or
more inhabitants.
Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to take
account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now
included those who lived in
(10) unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban
fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of
50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and
social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan
Statistical Area (SMSA).
(15) Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or
more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic
and social purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000,
the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area included
the county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found to
(20) be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the county
of the central city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was
living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the
central cities.
While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA
(25) (by 1969 there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to
describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of terms came into
use : “metropolitan regions,”
“polynucleated population groups,” “conurbations,” “metropolitan clusters,” “megalopolises,” and so on.
40. According to the passage, the population of the United States was
first classified as rural or urban in
(A) 1870
(B) 1900
(C) 1950
(D) 1970
43. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition
of urban in 1950?
(A) City borders had become less distinct.
(B) Cities had undergone radical social change.
(C) Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition.
(D) New businesses had relocated to larger cities.
48. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live in
an SMSA?
(A) 3/4 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/2 (D) 1/3
As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for
example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from
the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in
Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually
developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of
Black Peter.
Santa's transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem " A Visit from Saint Nicholas ", which Clemen
Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Amercians to the story of a kindly saint who flew over
housestops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the
legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered
toys to all good children. By the late 19th century, he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when
Virginia O'Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer : " Yes, Virginia, there is a
Santa Claus ".
Question 1: Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage ?
A. Sinter Klaas
B. Saint Nicholas
C. A German
D. Dutch settlers
B. Europe
C. North America
A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appeanrance from the traditional one.
A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figure.
D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter.
C. religious figure
B. natural qualities
C. effects
D. symbols of a person
Question 10: The answer Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus is an illustration for the fact that
Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after Earth was formed.
Yet another three billion years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared
on the continents. Life's transition from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an
Line evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.
(5) What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle ? The
traditional view of the first terrestrial organisms is based on megafossils ― relatively
large specimens of essentially whole plants and animals. Vascular plants, related to
modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive megafossil record. Because
of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected
(10) the evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants
first colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the
plants, and lastly by animals that preyed on the plant-eaters. Moreover, the megafossils
suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the boundary
between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million
(15) years ago.
Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments
below this Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be
extracted from these sediments by putting the rocks in an acid bath.The technique has
uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited near the shores of the
(20) ancient oceans ― plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many
instances the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although
they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils
consist of the organic remains of the organism.
These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously
(25) unknown organisms, but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by
multicellular organisms. Our views about the nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with
those revisions come new speculations
about the first terrestrial life-forms.
29. According to the theory that the author calls “the traditional view,” what was the
first form of life to appear on land?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Meat-eating animals
(C) Plant-eating animals
(D) Vascular plants
30. According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?
(A) Many terrestrial life-forms died out.
(B) New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.
(C) The megafossils were destroyed by floods.
(D) Life began to develop in the ancient seas.
32. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in lines 17-20 ?
(A) They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.
(B) They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.
(C) They are older than the megafossils.
(D) They consist of modern life-forms.
36. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?
(A) The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised.
(B) Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.
(C) The origins of primitive sea life were explained.
(D) Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.
37. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
(A) The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of
life itself.
(B) The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial
life evolved.
(C) New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last
400 million years.
(D) The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate
determinations about ages of fossils.
Televisions show sounds and pictures. They get data from cables, discs, or over-the-air signals. They turn this data into sounds and
images. People watch news and shows on them. You probably call them TVs.
John Baird made the first TV in 1925. It had one color. It could only show 30 lines. This was just enough room for a face. It didn't work
well, but it was a start.
The first TV station was set up in 1928. It was in New York. Few people had TVs. The broadcasts were not meant to be watched. They
showed a Felix the Cat doll for two hours a day. The doll spun around on a record player. They were experimenting. It took many years
to get it right.
By the end of the 1930s, TVs were working well. America got its first taste at the 1939 World's Fair. This was one of the biggest events
ever. There were 200 small, black and white TVs set up around the fair. The U.S. President gave a speech over the TVs. The TVs were
only five inches big but the people loved it.
They wanted TVs. But World War II was going on during this time. Factories were busy making guns and bombs. When the war was
over, TV spread across the country. By 1948 there were 4 big TV networks in America. They aired their shows from 8 to 11 each night.
Local shows were aired at other times. Most of the time, nothing was shown at all.
TV was not "always on" like it is now. Color TVs came out in 1953. They cost too much money for most. Also, shows were aired in
black and white. By 1965, color TVs were cheaper. TV stations started airing shows in color. People had to switch if they wanted to see
the shows.
Now most TVs are high-def. This means that they have many lines on them. This makes the image clear. TVs have come a long way
since Baird's 30 line set. High-def TVs have 1080 lines. There are state of the art sets called 4K TVs. These TVs have 3,840 lines. Some
people watch TV in 3D. I wonder what they will come up with next. Smell-o-vision anyone?
1. When did color TVs come out?
a. 1925
b. 1953
c. 1939
d. 1965
4. Why did the first TV station only show Felix the Cat for two hours a day?
a. They were running tests.
b. Felix the Cat was really popular.
c. Felix the Cat had been a big radio star.
d. Felix the Cat was the only show that they had.
Thunderstorms, with their jagged bursts of lightning and roaring thunder, are actually one of nature’s primary mechanisms for
transferring heat from the surface of the earth into the atmosphere. A thunderstorm starts when low-lying pockets of warm air from
the surface of the earth begin to rise. The pockets of warm air float upward through the air above that is both cooler and heavier. The
rising pockets cool as their pressure decreases, and their latent heat is released above the condensation line through the formation of
cumulus clouds.What will happen with these clouds depends on the temperature of the atmosphere. In winter, the air temperature
differential between higher and lower altitudes is not extremely great, and the temperature of the rising air mass drops more slowly.
During these colder months, the atmosphere, therefore, tends to remain rather stable. In summer, however, when there is a high
accumulation of heat near the earth’s surface, in direct contrast to the considerably colder air higher up, the temperature differential
between higher and lower altitudes is much more pronounced. As warm air rises in this type of environment, the temperature drops
much more rapidly than it does in winter; when the temperature drops more than 4 degrees Fahrenheit per thousand feet of altitude,
cumulus clouds aggregate into a single massive cumulonimbus cloud, or thunderhead.In isolation, a single thunderstorm is an
impressive but fairly benign way for Mother Earth to defuse trapped heat from her surface; thunderstorms, however, can appear in
concert, and the resulting show, while extremely impressive, can also prove extraordinarily destructive. When there is a large-scale
collision between cold air and warm air masses during the summer months, a squall line, or series of thunderheads, may develop. It is
common for a squall line to begin when an advancing cold front meets up with and forces itself under a layer of warm and moist air,
creating a line of thunderstorms that races forward at speeds of approximately forty miles per hour. A squall line, which can be
hundreds of miles long and can contain fifty distinct thunderheads, is a magnificent force of nature with incredible potential for
destruction. Within the squall line, often near its southern end, can be found supercells, long-lived rotating storms of exceptional
strength that serve as the source of tornadoes.
A. machines
B. motions
C. methods
D. materials
A. there is not a great temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes
B. the greater temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes makes thunderstorms more likely to occur
D. the temperature of rising air drops more slowly than it does in winter
A. harmless
B. beneficial
C. ferocious
D. spectacular
Câu 5: The expression “in concert” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ________.
A. as a chorus
C. as a cluster
D. in a performance
A. a large-scale collision
B. a squall line
Câu 7: All of the following are mentioned in the passage about supercells EXCEPT that they ________.
A. Geography
B. Meteorology
C. Marine Biology
D. Chemistry
The oxidation of exhaust gases is one of the primary sources of the world’s pollution. The brown haze that is poised over
some of the world’s largest cities is properly called photochemical smog; it results from chemical reactions that take place in the air,
using the energy of sunlight. The production of smog begins when gases are created in the cylinders of vehicle engines. It is there that
oxygen and nitrogen gas combine as the fuel burns to form nitric oxide (NO), a colorless gas. The nitric oxide is forced out into the air
through the vehicle tailpipe along with other gases.
When the gas reaches the air, it comes into contact with available oxygen from the atmosphere and combines with the oxygen to
produce nitrogen dioxide (NO2), which is a gas with a brownish hue. This nitrogen dioxide plays a role in the formation of acid rain in
wetter or more humid climates and tends to decompose back into nitric oxide as it releases an oxygen atom from each molecule; the
released oxygen atoms quickly combine with oxygen (O2) molecules to form ozone (O3). The brownish colored nitrogen dioxide is
partially responsible for the brown color in smoggy air; the ozone is the toxic substance that causes irritation to eyes.
1. The word "poised" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
a) interacting
b) sitting
c) blowing
d) poisoning
2. The phrase "take place" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
a) position themselves
b) visit
c) are seated
d) occur
a) obliged
b) required
c) pushed
d) commanded
a) color
b) odor
c) thickness
d) smoke
a) makes fun of
b) serves a function in
d) moves about in