Indian Polity: Historical Background

03
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 947
INDIAN POLITY
Analysing the previous year question papers of CDS examination, the Polity section has a great relevance.
Around 14-16 questions are asked from this section. The topics which are asked include Fundamental
Rights, Executive, Legislative and Judiciary system of India, Panchayati Raj system, Important Articles,
Important Constitutional Amendment Acts, Schedules of the Constitution etc.
The British Government has introduced a series of constitutional reforms to regulate and control the affairs of India. These
constitutional reforms were guided towards ensuring responsible governance in India. The emergence of India as an
independent and sovereign democratic republic has its roots in the history of British rule in India.
The evolution of Indian Polity and Constitution can be better understood, only if we start with brief reviews of
constitutional development during British rule.
HISTORICAL BACKGROUND
• The very genesis of Indian Constitution can be traced from 1773 as it was first constitutional intervention by British
Government to control and regulate the affairs of East India Company in India. British rule in India till 1858 was
basically that of the East India Company because after that British Government took the governance of India in its
hands directly.
• With rising activities and responsibilities of company, need was felt to regulate and control the affairs which resulted in
various enactments by British Parliament.
• The period of British constitutional experiment in India can be divided into two phases for better understanding that is
constitutional experiments during the rule of East India Company (1773-1857) and the constitutional experiments under
the British crown (1857-1947).
Constitutional Development Under East India Company

Regulating Act (1773)
• The Governor of Bengal was elevated to the position of the Governor-General of Bengal.
• The Parliament got the right to intervene in the affairs of the company. The dual government was abolished. A Supreme
Court was set-up at Calcutta headed by Elijah Impey.
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Pitts India Act (1784) Constitutional Development Under

• The act established six commissioners for the
affairs of India. This body known as the British Crown
Board of Control was to exercise an effective
control over the Board of Directors, who Government of India Act (1858)
possessed the charge of the administration of • As a result of the Sepoy Mutiny, the power to govern was
the company. transferred from the East India Company to the British crown.
• The control of the Governor-General in • A post of Secretary of State (a member of British Council) for India
council over the presidencies of Madras and was created. He was assisted by a 15 Member Council (called Indian
Bombay was clearly defined and rendered Council). He was to exercise the powers of the crown.
more effective. • The Board of Control and the court of directors were abolished.
The Governor-General was given the title Viceroy. He represented
The Charter Act (1793) Secretary of State, who was assisted by an Executive Council which
• The powers of Board of Control were consisted of high officials of the government.
concentrated in the hands of the President, • The viceroy’s status was reduced to a subordinate authority in
who virtually became the Cabinet Minister relation to the British Government in matters of policy as well as
for India. execution of policy. He was aided by an Executive Council of 5
• The salaries of the members of the Board of members, who were heads of different departments.
Control and that of the President were to be
drawn from the Indian exchequer. Indian Council Act (1861)
• Provincial Legislative Council members introduced. Council of
The Charter Act (1813) Governor was known as Imperial Legislative Council. Non-official
Asserted the crown’s sovereignty over British (Indians) were added.
India. Company’s monopoly overtrade • Portfolio system was introduced. High Courts (1865) established
abolished except trade with China, allotted (High Court Act, 1861). Indian Civil Service Act, 1861 was passed.
money to promote education in Indian masses.
Christian missionaries were permitted. Indian Council Act (1892)
• It provided for nomination of some non-official members to Central
The Charter Act (1833) Legislative Council and Provincial Legislative Council.
• The act abolished the trading activities of the • This act made the provision for election for filling the some
company and hence forth, it became a purely non-officials seats in central and provincial legislative councils for
administrative body. the first time in the constitutional development of India.
• The Governor-General of Bengal was
designated as the Governor-General of India. Morley-Minto Reforms (1909)
William Bentinck thus became the first • The Morley-Minto Reforms or the Indian Council Act, 1909.
Governor-General of India. Separate electorate for muslims was introduced.
• Abolition of the power of different • Direct election (non-official members who are directly elected). They
presidencies to make law for themselves and could discuss the budget and also cross questioning could be done.
giving power to the Governor-General in • A bicameral legislature at the centre was provided. Dyarchy in the
council to make laws. provinces which unlike its dictionary meaning of two bodies :
• In order to enable the council to discharge Transferred and Reserved.
the important functions efficiently, a new • Separate electorates were further extended to Sikh in the Punjab and
member with expert knowledge of law was non-Brahmins in Madras. Right to Vote for women was provided.
added to it.
Government of India Act (1919)
The Charter Act (1853) • This is also known as Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, after the
• The number of directors were reduced and secretary of state Edwin Montague and the Viceroy Chelmsford.
the power of patronage was taken away • The Executive Council was enlarged and Central Legislature was
from them by instituting and open thoroughly remodelled and made bicameral, two chambers being the
competitive examination for the recruitment Council of State and the Legislative Council.
of civil servants.
• The legislature had virtually no control over the Viceroy and his
• The approval of the crown was made
Executive Council which the Central Government had unrestricted
necessary for all appointments of councillors, control over the Provincial Government. The Act introduced
both central and provincial. dyarchy or dual government in the provinces.
The Government of India Act (1935) Members of Interim Government

• The act provided for the establishment of an all India Viceroy and Governor-General of India Viscount Wavell
Federation. It divided the powers into three lists Vice-President Jawaharlal Nehru
i. Federal List, Home Affairs, Information and Vallabhbhai Patel
Broadcasting
ii. Provincial List and
Agriculture and Food Rajendra Prasad
iii. Concurrent List
Commerce Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar
• Residuary powers were with the Governor-General. (Muslim League)
• Act of 1935 introduced the provincial autonomy and Education and Arts C Rajagopalachari
abolition of Dyarchy. The provincial legislatures were Defence Baldev Singh
made bicameral for the first time in 6 provinces (i.e. Finance Liquat Ali Khan (Muslim League)
Bengal, Madras, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Health Ghazanfar Ali Khan (Muslim
Assam). League)
Industries and Supplies John Mathai
The Indian Independence Act (1947) Labour Jagjivan Ram
• The act provided for setting up of two independent Law Jogendra Nath Mandal
dominions, to be known as India and Pakistan from 15th (Muslim League)
August, 1947. Posts and Air Abdur Rab Nishtar (Muslim League)
• The territories of the dominion of India would include Railways and Communication Asaf Ali
the whole British India exclusive of the territories Work, Mines and Power CH Bhabhan
consisting Pakistan. The legislature of each dominion
would have full power to make laws for that dominion. Drafting Committee
• With effect from 15th August, 1947, the British
• On 29th August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly set-up a
Government would cease to have any responsibility for
the Government of British. India and all treaties and Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of
agreements between his majesty’s government and the Dr BR Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution for
rulers of Indian states. India.
• The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th
• The two dominions as the provinces would be
governed as nearly as may be in accordance with the November, 1949 and the honourable members appended
Act of 1935. their signatures to it on that day. In all, 284 members
actually signed the Constitution. 26th November, 1949 is
• Provision was made for the division of the armed forces also mentioned in the Preamble as the date on which the
and the civil services between the new dominions. Each people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves
dominion would exercise authority over its armed and the Constitution.
civil services.
Constitution Committees and their Chairmen
MAKING OF THE Major Committees

Drafting Committee
Chairmen
Dr BR Ambedkar
CONSTITUTION Members
1. N Gopalaswami Ayyangar
• The demand that India’s political destiny should be 2. AK Ayyar
determined by the Indians themselves had been put 3. KM Munshi
forward by Mahatma Gandhi as early as in 1922. The 4. Mohammed Sadullah
idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put 5. BL Mittar
forward for the first time by MN Roy in 1934. 6. DP Khaitan
• The demand for the Constituent Assembly was first Union Power Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
accepted by the British in August offer (1940). The Union Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
Constituent Assembly was set-up as per the Cabinet Provincial Constitution Committee Sardar Patel
Mission Plan of 1946. An interim government was Advisory Committee on Fundamental Sardar Patel
formed on September 1946 from the newly elected Rights and Minorities, Tribal Affairs
Constituent Assembly. The first meeting was held on Rules of Procedure Committee Dr Rajendra Prasad
9th December, 1946 with Sachidanand Sinha, as the States Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
interim or provisional President. On 11th December, Steering Committee Dr Rajendra Prasad
1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President
Special Committee to Examine the Draft Sir Alladi Krishna Swamy lyer
of the Constituent Assembly. Constitution
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XII Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits 264 to 300 A

Borrowed Features of the Chapter I Finance 264 to 291
Constitution of India Chapter II Borrowing 292 to 293
Chapter III Property, Contracts, Rights 294 to 300
• From UK (England) Parliamentary System, Lower Liabilities, Obligations and Suits
House more powerful, Prime Minister, Cabinet System Chapter IV Right to Property 300 A
of Ministers, Single Citizenship, Bicameral Parliament, XIII Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the 301 to 307
Provision of Speaker in Lok Sabha, Council of Ministers Territory of India
responsible to Lower House, Nominal Head—President. XIV Services under the Union and the States 308 to 323
Chapter I Services 308 to 314
• From USA Written Constitution, Post of Vice-President,
Fundamental Rights, Supreme Court, Head of the State Chapter II Public Service Commission 315 to 323
known as President, Provision of States and Judicial XIVA Tribunals 323 A to 323 B
Review. XV Elections 324 to 329 A
• From France Republic and ideals of liberty, equality XVI Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes 330 to 342
and faternity. XVII Official Language 343 to 351
• From Australia Concurrent List, Centre-State Chapter I Language of the Union 343 and 344
Relationship, Language of the Preamble. Chapter II Regional Languages 345 to 347
• From USSR Fundamental Duties and Five Year Plan. Chapter III Language of the Supreme Court, the 348 and 349
High Courts and so on
• From Germany Emergency provisions. Chapter IV Special Directives 350 to 351
• From Japan Procedure established by law. XVIII Emergency Provisions 352 to 360
• From Canada Federal system and Residuary powers. XIX Miscellaneous 361 to 367
• From South Africa Procedure of Constitutional XX Amendments of the Constitution 368
Amendment. XXI Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions 369 to 392
• From Ireland Concept of Directive Principles of State XXII Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in 393 to 395
Policy (originally, it was borrowed from Spain). Hindi and Repeals
Constitution at a Glance î Part-VII (Article 238) deals with states was repealed in 1956 by
the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Articles
Part Subject Matter Covered Schedules in Constitution
I The Union and its Territory 1 to 4
II Citizenship 5 to 11 First Schedule List of States and Union Territories.
III Fundamental Rights 12 to 35 Second Schedule Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges,
Judges of High Court and Supreme Court,
IV Directive Principles of State Policy 36 to 51
Comptroller and Auditor General.
IV A Fundamental Duties 51 A
Third Schedule Forms of Oaths and Affirmations.
V The Union 52 to 151
Chapter I The Executive 52 to 78 Fourth Schedule Allocate seats for each State of India in Rajya Sabha.
Chapter II Parliament 79 to 122
Chapter III Legislative Powers of the President 123 Fifth Schedule Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and
Tribes.
Chapter IV The Union Judiciary 124 to 147
Chapter V Comptroller and Auditor General of 148 to 151 Sixth Schedule Provisions for administration of Tribal Area in Assam,
India Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
VI The States 152 to 237 Seventh Schedule Gives allocation of powers and functions between
Chapter I General 152 Union and States. It contains three lists
Chapter II The Executive 153 to 167 1. Union List (for Central Govt.): 97 subjects
Chapter III The State Legislature 168 to 212 2. States List (Power of State Govt.): 66 subjects
3. Concurrent List (Both Union and States): 47
Chapter IV Legislative Powers of the Governors 213 subjects
Chapter V The High Courts 214 to 232 List of 22 languages of India recognised by
Chapter VI Subordinate Courts 233 to 237 Eighth Schedule Constitution.
VIII The Union Territories 239 to 242 Ninth Schedule Added by 1st Amendment in 1951. Contains acts
IX The Panchayats 243 to 243-0 and orders related to land tenure, land tax, railways
IX A The Municipalities 243 P to 243 ZG and industries.
IX B Cooperatives 243 ZG to Tenth Schedule Added by 52nd Amendment in 1985. Contains
243ZT provisions of disqualification on grounds of defection.
X The Scheduled and the Tribal Areas 244 to 244 A Eleventh By 73rd Amendment in 1992. Contains provisions of
XI Relations between the Union and the States 245 to 263 Schedule Panchayati Raj.
Chapter I Legislative Relations 245 to 255 Twelfth Schedule By 74th Amendment in 1992. Contains provisions of
Chapter II Administrative Relations 256 to 263 Municipal Corporation.
Salient Features of the National Symbols

Constitution National Flag It was designed by Pingali Venkayya of Andhra
Pradesh. On 22nd July, 1947, it was adopted by Constituent
The salient features of the Constitution, as it
Assembly. It follows 3 : 2 ratio between length and breadth of
stands today, are as follows :
the flag. It has three colours saffron, white and green. Middle
i. Lengthiest Written Constitution The portion has Ashoka Chakra, in blue with 24 spokes.
Indian Constitution is the lengthiest in the
world. Originally, the Constitution had 395 National Emblem It has been taken from the Sarnath (Varanasi)
Articles, 8 Schedules and 22 parts. Pillar of Ashoka and on 26th January, 1950. It was adopted by
ii. Blend of Rigidity and Flexibility The Government of India. The word Satyameva Jayate which was
procedure of amendment of the Indian written at the base in Devanagari script (taken from Mundaka
Constitution is partly flexible and partly Upanishad) is the National Motto of India.
rigid. Some provisions can be amended easily National Anthem It was written by Rabindra Nath Tagore. Its
and some provisions can only be amended by recitation period is 52 seconds. First time it was sung in Calcutta
passage in both Union Parliament and half of
the State Legislatures. Congress Session on 27th December, 1911. On 24th January,
1950, Constituent Assembly adopted it (Jan Gan Man).
iii. Parliamentary Government India has a
parliamentary system of government both, at National Song Vandemataram taken from Bankim Chandra
the centre and in the states. The President is Chatterji’s work Anandmath, was officially adopted on 24th
the head of the Union of India and the January, 1950. It was sung for the first time as Kolkata session of
governors are head of the states. But they act Congress in 1896.
on the advice of the Council of Ministers. National Calendar Based on the Saka Era, Chaitra is its first
They have nominal powers.
month and a normal year of 365 days along with the Gregorian
iv. Independent Judiciary There is a single, calendar. It was adopted by the Central Government on 22nd
integrated and unified judiciary in India. The
March, 1957.
Supreme Court is the highest court of the
land. Both Supreme Court and high courts National Animal It is tiger. It has eight species around the world
have been given extensive powers to interpret and Indian species is known as Royal Bengal Tiger. The
the Constitution and law under various majestic tiger (Panthera Tigris) is the National Animal of India.
provisions of the Constitution of India. National Bird Indian peacock (Pavo Cristatus). It is fully protected
v. Federal System with Unitary under the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Features Our Constitution contains federal
features of government like division of
powers, written Constitution, independent The Preamble
judiciary and bicameralism but, also a large • The Preamble means introduction or preface of the Constitution
number of unitary features like a strong or essence of the Constitution.
centre, single citizenship, flexibility of
• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is based on the
Constitution, integrated judiciary emergency
provisions etc. Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru and
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
vi. Secular State The Indian Constitution
• The idea of justice, social, economic and political have been taken
stands for a secular state i.e. all religions in
our country have the same right and support from the Russian Revolution (1917).
from the state, it does not uphold any • The idea of liberty, equality and fraternity have been taken from
particular religion as the official religion of the the French Revolution (1789-1799).
Indian state.
vii. Universal Adult Franchise Every Indian Preamble of India
citizen (above 18 years) has a right to vote in We, the People of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute
the elections without any discrimination of India into a sovereign socialist, secular, democratic, republic and
caste, sex, relation etc. secure to all its citizens.
viii. Emergency Provisions Indian Constitution Justice, social, economic and political.
has special provisions to meet any
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
extraordinary situation or emergency. During
emergency the Central Government becomes Equality of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all.
powerful and state comes under the total Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and
control of it. During emergency our federal integrity of the nation.
system becomes unitary without any
In our Constituent Assembly on this 26th day of November, 1949, do
amendment of the Constitution.
hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.
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Amendability of the Preamble CITIZENSHIP

• Whether, the Preamble can be amended under
The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship. There
Article 368 or not, this question arose for the first
is no separate citizenship of state. According to the
time in Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973). In this
Constitution, the following three categories of persons are
case, Supreme Court held that Preamble is the part
entitled to citizenship
of the Constitution and can be amended, subject to
the condition that no amendment is done to the i. Persons domiciled in India.
basic features of the Constitution. ii. Refugees, who migrated to India from Pakistan.
• The Preamble has been amended only once so far, iii. Indians living in other countries.
in 1976, by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, • Article 5 Citizenship at the commencement of the
which added three new words Socialist, Secular and Constitution.
Integrity. This amendment was held to be valid. • Article 6 Rights of Citizenship of certain persons, who have
migrated to India from Pakistan.
• Article 7 Rights of Citizenship of certain migrants to
IMPORTANT PROVISIONS Pakistan.
• Article 8 Rights of Citizenship of certain persons of Indian
OF THE CONSTITUTION origin residing outside India.
• Article 9 Persons voluntarily acquiring Citizenship of a
The Union and its Territories Foreign State not to be citizens.
• Article 10 Continuance of the Rights of Citizenship.
Article 1 to 4 under part-1 of the Constitution deal
with the Union and its Territory. • Article 11 Parliament to regulate the Right of Citizenship
by Law.
• Article 1 Deals with name and territory of the
Union. It describes India, that is Bharat as Union
of States. The Territory of India includes territories
Acquisition of Citizenship
of states, union territories and territories that may The act provides for the acquisition of Indian citizenship after
be acquired by the Government of India at any the commencement of the Constitution in five ways, i.e. birth,
time. descent registration, naturalisation and incorporation of
• Article 2 Admission or establishment of new states. territory.
• Article 3 Formation of new states and alteration of By Birth
areas, boundaries or names of the existing states.
Every person born in India on or after 26th January, 1950 shall
• Article 4 Laws made under Articles 2 and 3 to be a citizen of India by law of soil, provided either or both of
provide for the amendment of the first and the his/her parents are citizens of India at the time of his/her birth.
fourth schedules and supplemental, incidental and But this law does not apply where his/her father is a diplomat
consequential matters. of any other country or is an enemy alien at the time of
his/her birth.
Reorganisation of State
• In 1953, State Reorganisation Commission was By Descent
set-up under the Chairmanship of Fazl Ali, HN Broadly, a person born outside India on or after 26th January,
Kanzu and KN Panikkar were the other two 1950, is a citizen of India by descent if his/her either of the
members of the commission. It suggested the parents is a citizen of India at the time of that person’s birth.
reorganisation of 27 States of various categories in
16 States and 3 Union Territories. By Registration
• The State Reorganisation Act, 1956 was passed by The prescribed authority may, on application, register as a
Parliament as a result 14 States and 6 Union citizen of India, any person who is not a citizen by virtue of
Territories were created on 1st November, 1956. Constitution or the provisions of the Citizenship Act.
This mode of acquiring citizenship is available to any of the
New Sates UT’s Created After, 1956 following categories :
Maharashtra and Gujarat 1960, Dadra and Nagar • Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India
Haveli 1961, Goa, Daman and Diu 1961, Pondicherry for 7 years immediately before making an application for
1962, Nagaland 1963, Haryana, Chandigarh 1966, registration.
Himachal 1971, Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya 1972, • Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in any
Sikkim 1975, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa country or place outside undivided India.
1987, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand 2000 and • Women who are or have been married to citizens of India.
Telangana 2014. Minor children of persons who are citizens of India.
By Naturalisation – Who are now citizen of another country but was citizen of
India at time of or at any time after commencement of
• Citizenship by naturalisation can be acquired by
Constitution.
making an application in the prescribed manner.
The qualifications for naturalisation are as
– Who were citizen of other country but were eligible to
follows : become citizen of India at time of commencement of
Constitution. Who is citizen of another country but belonged
– He must be a person of full age and capacity.
to a territory that became part of India.
– He must not be a citizen of a country where
– Child/grand child/ great grand child of the above such
Indian citizens are prevented from becoming citizens. Person of Pakistan and Bangladesh can’t get an OCI.
citizens by naturalisation. He has renounced Recently, government has merged people of Indian origin card
the citizenship of the other country. with overseas citizen card.
– He has either resided in India or has been in
Government service for 12 months before the Non-Resident Indian
date of making the application for • A citizen of India, having Indian passport and staying
naturalisation or during 7 years prior to these temporarily in another country for purpose of employment,
12 months, he has resided or has been in the education for more than 6 months.
Government service for not less than 4 years. • NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries
– He must take an oath of allegiance.
or not are eligible to vote. Eligible NRIs have to register by
– He is of a good character. filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office. They must
– He has an adequate knowledge of a language be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their
recognised in the eight schedule to the franchise.
Constitution.
Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas
By Incorporation of Territories • It is celebrated on 9th January every year to recognise
If any new territory becomes a part of India, after a contribution of overseas Indian community in the development
popular verdict, the Government of India shall of India. 9th January is selected because on this date, Mahatma
specify the person of that territory to be the citizen Gandhi returned to India from South Africa. This celebration
of India. provide opportunity to overseas citizen to interact with
government and people of their homeland. Pravasi Bharatiya
Diwas started from year 2003.
Loss of Citizenship • The 14th Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas was held on 9th January,
The Citizenship Act, 1955 also lays down three 2017 in Bengaluru (Karnataka). The event was attended by
modes by which an Indian citizen may lose his/ her Portugal Prime Minister, Dr. Antonio Costa. The theme of this
citizenship. These are renunciation, termination and edition is “Redefining Engagement with the Indian Diaspora”.
deprivation
Renunciation It is a voluntary act by which a The Citizenship (Amendment)
person, after acquiring the citizenship of
another country, gives up his Indian Bill, 2015
citizenship. This provision is subject to certain • Parliament of India passed the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill,
conditions. 2015 on 9th January, 2015 to bring parity between provisions
Termination Takes place by operation of law for Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) and Overseas Citizens of
when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the Indian (OCI) cardholders.
citizenship of another country. He • Now, the benefits under the PIO scheme would be extended to
automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen OCI cardholders with recognition granted to their great grand
(Article 9). children which was earlier limited to grand children.
Deprivation It is a compulsory termination of the
citizenship of India obtained by registration or THE CITIZENSHIP (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019
naturalisation, by the Government of India, on ●
It amends the Citizenship Act, 1955.
charges of using fraudulent means to acquire ●
The Amended Act provides that the Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists,
citizenship. Jains, Parsis and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and
Pakistan, who entered India before 31st December, 2014 will
Overseas Citizen of India not be treated as illegal migrants and will be eligible for grant
of citizenship.
• Government of India recognises those person and ●
It also reduces the period of naturalisation for such group of
provide them overseas citizen of Indian card, persons from 11 years to 5 years.
who have following credentials
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• Article 21 (A) Right to education from age 6 to 14 years

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS was made a Fundamental Right by 86th Amendment,
2002.
• The Fundamental Rights have been described in
• Article 22 It entails protection against arrest and
Articles 12 to 35, Part III of Indian Constitution.
detention in certain cases. This right is not available to an
• Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles have a enemy alien and a person arrested or detained under a law
common origin. Nehru Report 1928 incorporated some providing preventive detention (detention of a person
Fundamental Rights. The framers of Constitution without trial).
derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA i.e.
Bill of Rights. Part III of Constitution is rightly Right Against Exploitation
described as Magna Carta of India. (Articles 23 and 24)
– Article 12 Definition of ‘State’.
• Article 23 It entails prohibition of traffic in human
– Article 13 Laws inconsistent with or in derogation beings and bonded labour, forced labour.
of the Fundamental Rights. • Article 24 No child below the age of 14 can be employed
Originally Fundamental Rights were seven in numbers viz in factories or mines or in hazardous employment.
i. Right to Equality
ii. Right to Freedom
Right to Freedom of Religion
iii. Right against Exploitation
(Articles 25 to 28)
iv. Right to Freedom of Religion • Article 25 Freedom of conscience and free profession,
practice and propagation of religion.
v. Cultural and Educational Rights
• Article 26 Freedom to manage religious affairs.
vi. Right to Constitutional Remedies
• Article 27 Freedom as to payment of taxes for
vii. Right to Property
promotion of any particular religion.
Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18) • Article 28 It prohibits any religious instruction in
educational institutions wholly maintained by state funds.
• Article 14 Equality before law and equal protection of
In other instructions aided and recognised by the state,
law.
every person will be free not to participate in religious
• Article 15 Social Equality It prohibits discrimination instruction or worship.
only on the ground of religion, race, sex, caste, place or
birth. Cultural and Educational Rights
• Article 16 It entails to equality of opportunity in the (Articles 29 to 30)
matter of public employment. • Article 29 It allows every community to conserve its
• Article 17 It deals with the abolition of untouchability. distinct language, script or culture. It also bars disallowing
a citizen admission to any educational institution
• Article 18 It deals with abolition of titles. Except maintained or aided by the state only on grounds of
military and academic. religion, race, caste or language.
Right to Freedom (Articles 19 to 22) • Article 30 Right of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions.
• Article 19 It guarantees freedom to the citizen of
India. Following six fundamental freedoms are as follow Right to Property (Article 31)
i. Freedom of speech and expression (freedom of • Article 31 Right to property, repealed by the 44th
press, media). Amendment Act, 1978. Now, it is only a legal right.
ii. To assemble peacefully and without arms.
iii. To form association or unions. Right to Constitutional Remedies
iv. To move freely throughout the territory of India. (Article 32)
v. To reside and settle in any part of the territory • Article 32 It provides the right to the citizens to move to
of India. the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the
vi. Freedom to choose any profession and business. enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and it empowers
the Supreme Court to issue directions or writs for the
• Article 20 It gives protection in respect of conviction enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
for offences.
• The writs include Habeas, Corpus, Mandamus,
• Article 21 It gives protection of life and personal Prohibition, Quo-waranto and Certiorari, Dr BR
liberty to both citizens and non-citizens. Articles 20 Ambedkar termed the Right to Constitutional Remedies
and 21 remain in force even during emergency. as the heart and soul of the Constitution.
Forms of Writs Suspension of Fundamental

Habeas Corpus Rights
• It literally means ‘have the body’ i.e. to be produced
before the court. • The Constitution contains provisions for automatic
suspension of the Fundamental Rights under certain
• This kind of writ is issued to protect personal liberty
circumstances, e.g. during the National Emergency under
of an individual against the arbitrary action of both
Article 352 (i.e. war or external aggression).
the state and private individuals. The aggrieved person
can even claim for compensation against such action. • Under Article 358, when National Emergency is
proclaimed on the grounds of war or external aggression
Mandamus (and not armed rebellion), the Fundamental Rights under
• It literally means ‘command’. Article 19 are automatically suspended.
• This kind of writ is issued against a public authority • The Constitution empowers the President, under
or an officer and inferior courts for compelling the Article 359 to suspend any or all the Fundamental Rights
authority to do a particular work that it ought to do by issuing a separate proclamation during a National
but has not done. This writ cannot be issued against Emergency. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 prohibits the
the President and the Governors. Private rights cannot suspension of Articles 20 and 21 (protection in respect of
be enforced by the writ of the Mandamus. conviction for offences and protection of life and personal
Prohibition liberty, respectively) even during a National Emergency.
• It means ‘to forbid’.
• This kind of writ is issued by the higher courts to the DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF
lower courts or the quasi-judicial bodies when the
latter exceed their judicial authority. STATE POLICY (DPSP)
• The objective is to keep the inferior courts or the • Dr BR Ambedkar described the DPSPs as ‘novel feature of
quasi-judicial bodies within the limits of their the Constitution’. DPSPs are constitutional instructions or
respective jurisdiction. guidelines to state in the legislative, executive and
• The difference between ‘Mandamus’ and ‘Prohibition’ administrative affairs. It provides the social and economic
is that while the former can be issued against judicial base of a genuine democracy. Granville–Austin has
as well as administrative authorities, the latter is described the “FR’s and DPSP as conscience of
issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial Constitution’’.
authorities. • The purpose of directive principles of state policy is to lay
down positive instructions which would guide state policy
Certiorari
at all levels.
• It means ‘to be certified’.
• However, on the basis of their content and direction, they
• This writ is issued to quash the order of a lower can be classified into three broad viz socio-economic
court or the decision of a tribunal in excess of its principles, Gandhian and liberal principles.
jurisdiction. The purpose of this writ is to secure that
the jurisdiction of an inferior court or tribunal is Socio-Economic Principles
properly exercised and that it does not usurp the
jurisdiction, it does not possess. (Articles 38 and 39)
Quo Warranto • To provide adequate means of livelihood.
• It literally means ‘by what authority or warrent’. • To prevent concentration of wealth and means of wealth
• This kind of writ is issued to ensure that the person and material resources.
holding a public office is qualified to hold the office. • To secure equal pay for equal work for both men and
• Besides the normal writs issued on violation of women.
Fundamental Rights, there has been a progressive • To ensure a decent standard of living and leisure for all
strengthening of the Fundamental Rights by the workers.
judiciary. • To provide necessary opportunities and facilities to children
î The principle of ‘Locus Standi’ applies only to the writs of and youth to prevent their exploitation.
Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari i.e. only aggrieved • To make efforts to secure the right to work, education and
person is entitled to seek these writs. public assistance in case of unemployment, sickness, old
age etc.
956 CDS Pathfinder
Gandhian Principles Difference between Fundamental Rights

and Directive Principles
• Article 40 The establishment of village
panchayats and make them powerful Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy
enough to function as a units of The democratic political system has been The economic welfare of the state is established
self-government. established by providing the FRs. by the implementation of the DPSPs.
• Article 43 To promote cottage FRs are subject to court of law at any point While DPSPs are not enforceable by the court of
of time if anybody feels that his FR are law.
industries. being violated.
• Article 45 State shall endeavour to FRs can be suspended except the right DPSP can never be suspended under any
provide early childhood care and mentioned in Articles 20 and 22 during condition.
education for all children until they emergency.
complete the age of 6 years. FRS are assumed negatively sometimes, DPSP are always affirmative because they
because of their restrictive attitudes direct the states for definite activity.
• Article 46 The promotion of educational towards the states.
and economic interest of weaker sections.
The Fundamental Rights are a bit limited in While, the scope of Directive Principle of State
• Article 47 The prohibition of its scope. policy is endless. In DPSP, the political
administrative, economic and subjects like
intoxicating drugs and drinks. international peace are also included.
• Article 48 Prevention of the slaughter of
cows and other milk cattle.
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
Western Liberal (ARTICLE 51 A)
Principles • The Fundamental Duties in the Constitution serve as a reminder to the
• Article 39 A equal opportunity for citizens that while enjoying their rights, they should also be conscious
justice and free legal aid. of their duties towards the country. Formed on the recommendation of
• Article 43 A Securing the participation Swarn Singh committee.
of workers in the management of • They were added by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 under Article 51 A. It
industries. contains the duties of the citizens. They are as follow
• Article 44 A Uniform civil code. – To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions,
the National Flag and the National Anthem.
• Article 45 Provision for free and
– To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national
compulsory education for children.
struggle for freedom.
• Article 46 Promotion of educational and
– To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
economic interests of Scheduled Castes,
– To defend the country and render national service when called upon
Scheduled Tribes and other weaker
sections. to do so.
– To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst
• Article 47 Duty of the state to raise the
level of nutrition and the standard of all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or
living and to improve public health. sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of
women.
• Article 48 Organisation of agriculture – To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
and animal husbandry.
– To protect and improve the natural environment including forests,
• Article 48A Protection and lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
improvement of environment and – To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry
safeguarding of forests and wildlife. and reform.
• Article 49 Protection of monuments and – To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective
places and objects of national activity so that the nation constantly rise to higher level of endevour
importance. and achievement.
• Article 50 Separation of judiciary from – To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
executive. – For every citizen who is a parent or guardian, to provide
• Article 51 Promotion of international opportunities for education to his child or as the case may be ward
peace and security. between the age of 6 and 14 years (86th Constutional Amendment).
Term of Office and Salary

THE UNION EXECUTIVE Tenure Under Article 56, the Presidents shall hold the
It deals with Union Government. It consists of the office for 5 years. There is no limit, as to how many times
President, the Vice-President and the Council of Ministers a person can become President. He can give his resignation
headed by Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. to the Vice-President before the full term completes. The
President may be removed from office before the expiry of
The President (Articles 52 to 78) his tenure through a special procedure called Impeachment.
On 11th September, 2008, the Government of India
The President of India is the highest executive authority. increased the salary of the President to 1.5 lakh.
The Constitution vests in him all the executive powers of
Union. All executive actions are taken on his name. He is Presidents of India
the head of the state and represents the Republic of India Tenure
and he is the first citizen of India.
Name From To
Dr Rajendra Prasad 26.01.1950 13.05.1962
Qualifications
Dr S Radhakrishnan 13.05.1962 13.05.1967
Article 58 deals with the qualification of a person to be Dr Zakir Hussain 13.05.1967 03.05.1969
the President of India.
V V Giri (Vice-President) 03.05.1969 20.07.1969
• Must be a citizen of India.
Justice M Hidayatullah 20.07.1969 24.08.1969
• Should have completed the age of 35 years.
V V Giri 24.08.1969 24.08.1974
• Should not hold any office of profit under the
F Ali Ahmed 24.08.1974 11.02.1977
government.
BD Jatti 11.02.1977 25.02.1977
• He should be qualified to become a member of the
N Sanjeeva Reddy 25.07.1977 25.07.1982
Lok Sabha.
Giani Zail Singh 25.07.1982 25.07.1987
Election (Articles 54, 55 and 71) R Venkataraman 25.07.1987 25.07.1992

Dr SD Sharma 25.07.1992 25.07.1997
• The President of India is not directly elected by the
people, but by the members of electoral college KR Narayanan 25.07.1997 25.07.2002
consisting of Dr APJ Abdul Kalam 25.07.2002 25.07.2007
– the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament. Mrs Pratibha Patil 25.07.2007 25.07.2012
– the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Shri Pranab Mukherjee 25.07.2012 25.07.2017
the State. Ram Nath Kovind 25.7.2017 Till Date
– the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of
Delhi and Puducherry. Impeachment
• Nominated members do not take part in the election of Article 61 The President can be impeached only on the
the President. ground of violation of the Constitution.
• Election is held through the system of proportional • The procedure for impeachment can be initiated in either
representation by means of the single transferable vote house of Parliament.
by secret ballot. The candidate who gets minimum 50% • The charges are contained in a notice which has to be
of votes, is considered elected. signed by atleast one-fourth of the total members of that
• States have different representation in the presidential houses. Notice is sent to the President before 14 days.
election depending on the population and the number of • Impeachment procedure is quasi-judicial in nature
elected members of Legislative Assembly. because after resolution to this effect is passed by the
• Value of vote of an MLA = (State population ÷ Total two-third majority. The other house can set-up a
numbers of elected MLAs) × 1000. committee to investigate the charges against President.
• Value of vote of an MP = Total value of MLAs of all • President can defend himself by taking service of
states ÷ Total number of elected MPs (Lok Sabha and Attorney General of India or any other lawyer.
Rajya Sabha).
This formula secures the uniformity between all the states Vacancy (Article 62)
on one hand and the Parliament on the other. • In the case of vacant seat due to any reason e.g. death,
• Only Supreme Court enquires all disputes regarding resignation or removal then the Vice-President acts as the
presidential election. President, if he is not available the Chief Justice of India,
• President takes oath in presence of Chief Justice of India
if not then the seniormost Judge of Supreme Court.
and in his absence, the seniormost judge of Supreme • The election is to be held within 6 months for the
Court administers oath to the President. vacancy.
958 CDS Pathfinder
Powers and Functions (Article 77) Reprieve It means a stay of execution of sentence pending
• The President has a very important role in our
a processing pro pardon or commutation.
democracy. He has vast powers to be exercised during Remission The power of remission reduces the amount of
normal time as well as during emergency period. sentence without changing its character. e.g. a sentence
• These powers however are actually exercised by the of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be
Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. remitted to rigorous imprisonment for 1 year.
Respite The power to grant respite means awarding a lesser
Executive Powers of President sentence instead of the prescribed penalty in view of
• He appoints Prime Minister who enjoys the support of some special facts. e.g. pregnancy of woman offender.
the majority in the Lok Sabha, appoints the members for Commutation It merely substitutes one form of the
the Council of Ministers and distributes portfolios
punishment for another of a lighter character. e.g. a
among them on the advice of the Prime Minister.
death sentence may be commuted to rigorous
• He appoints Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court imprisonment.
and High Court, Chairman and Members of UPSC,
CAG, Attorney General, Chief Election Commissioner Financial Powers
and other members of Election Commission, Governors, • All Money Bills can originate in Parliament only on the
members of Finance Commission, Ambassadors etc. recommendation of the President.
• He can seek any information relating to the • Appointment of Finance Commissioner every 5th year.
administration of affairs of the Union and the proposal • Can make advances out of the Contingency Fund of
for legislation from the Prime Minister.
India to meet any unforseen expenditure.
Legislative Powers
Diplomatic Powers
• The President of India is an integral part of the
All kinds of international treaties and agreements
Parliament. Though legislation is the primary
concluded on his behalf.
responsibility of Parliament.
The President has the right to influence the legislative • He represents country on the international forum.
process in following ways • He sends ambassadors and receives diplomats.
– The summoning dissolution and propogation of Lok
Military Powers (Article 53)
Sabha.
He is the Supreme Commander of armed forces. He
– Right of President to address and he can also summon
appoints the chiefs of army, navy and airforce staff. He
a joint sitting of both the House of Parliament, which declares wars or conclude peace subject to approval of
is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Parliament.
– Nomination of the members of Parliament (12
members to Rajya Sabha from amongst person having Emergency Powers
special knowledge or practical experience in literature, The President of India can proclaim emergency in three
science, art and social services and 2 members from conditions after getting the written recommendation of the
Anglo-Indian community in Lok Sabha). Cabinet, which are as follow
– Laying down some reports at the floor of the National Emergency (Article 352) arising out of war,
Parliament. external aggression or armed rebellion within the
– Prior consent on some bills. (e.g. Money Bill) country.
– Article 123 of the Constitution empower the President Constitutional Emergency (Article 356) arising out of the
to promulgate ordinances during the recess of failure of the constitutional machinery in the states. It
Parliament. These ordinance have the same force and is also known as President’s Rule.
effect as and act of Parliament, but are in the nature of Financial Emergency (Article 360) arising out of a threat
temporary laws. to financial stability or credit of India.
Judicial Powers (Article 72)
President can grant pardon or reduce the sentence of any
Discretionary Powers
convicted person under central laws. • The President of India almost always acts on the aid and
advice of the Council of Ministers except under the
Various Pardoning Power of the President following circumstances where he/she acts on his/her
(Article 72) discretion
Pardon It removes both the sentences and the conviction – In appointing the Prime Minister from among the
and completely absolves the offender from all contenders when no single party attains majority after
punishments and disqualifications. elections to the Lok Sabha.
President can refer a decision of an individual

–
minister for the collective consideration of Council
The Vice-President
of Ministers. • As per the Article 63, there shall be a Vice-President of
– When the Houses of the Parliament do not meet India. He occupies the second highest office in the country.
regularly, the President may act in his/her • In absence or illness of the President, the Vice-President
discretion and summon both the Houses of the performs the functions of the President. If the President
Parliament. resigns or dies, the Vice-President officiates as a President,
– While exercising a pocket veto. till a new President is elected.
– Can return the advice of the Council of Ministers Election
once for its reconsideration.
• The Vice-President is elected by an ‘Electoral College’
– Can return the bill passed by the Parliament once for
constituted by the members of both Houses of the
its reconsideration.
Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of single transferable vote and the
Veto Powers vote being secret.
The President enjoys three veto powers which he/she
• Nominated members also participate in the election.
can use to deny the execution of an action
Supreme Court enquires all disputes regarding
recommended by Parliament. They are as follows : Vice-President election.
Absolute Veto When a Bill other than a Money Bill
passed by Parliament, the President may decline to Qualifications
give assent to the Bill altogether. • Must be a citizen of India.
Suspensive Veto When a Bill other than a Money Bill • Should have completed the age of 35 years.
is passed by Parliament and the President may • Must be eligible to become a member of Rajya Sabha.
resend the Bill to Parliament for further • Must not hold any government post.
consideration with a message to amend certain
provisions of a Bill. However, if the Parliament Terms and Functions
passes it again with or without amendment, the • He is elected for 5 years and can be re-elected.
President is bound to give assent on it. • He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Pocket Veto This veto power is used when the • All bills, resolution, motion can be taken in Rajya Sabha
President feels that the party in power is likely to after his consent.
face destability and may disincline to assent to a Removal
Bill passed and neither communicate it to the
• The Vice-President can be removed from his office by a
Council of Ministers nor send it back for
resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all
Parliament for reconsideration. The Bill lies in the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the
President’s office for an indefinite period. In case House of People (Lok Sabha). Regarding Vice-President,
of a Money Bill the President may assent to it or there is no formal impeachment.
decline to do so but cannot send it back to • The Vice-President may also resign from his office by
Parliament. In case of Constitutional Amendment writing to the President.
Bills, the President is bound to give his/her assent
to it e.g. APJ Abdul Kalam with holding Office of Vice-Presidents of India
Profit Bill. Vice-President Tenure
Dr Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan 1952-1962
IMPORTANT FACTS Dr Zakir Hussain 1962-1967
●
Presidents who died on their posts—Zakir Hussain Varahagiri Venkatagiri 1967-1969
and Fakruddin Ali Ahmed. Gopal Swarup Pathak 1969-1974
●
Only President elected unopposed— Neelam BD Jatti 1974-1979
Sanjeeva Reddy. Justice Mohammed Hidayatullah 1979-1984
●
President who served as Speaker of Lok Sabha R Venkataraman 1984-1987
before becoming President—Neelam Sanjeeva
Dr Shanker Dayal Sharma 1987-1992
Reddy.
KR Narayanan 1992-1997
●
Only Chief Justice who acted as President—Justice
Hidayatullah. Krishan Kant (Died) 1997-2002
●
Only President who was elected twice—Dr Bhairon Singh Shekhawat 2002-2007
Rajendra Prasad. Mohammed Hamid Ansari 2007-2017
M. Venkaiah Naidu 2017 till date
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Council of Ministers Prime Ministers of India

Tenure
• Council of Ministers is formed as soon as Prime Minister Name
is sworn in. Only Prime Minister alone can constitute From To
Council of Ministers. After 91st Amendment Act, 2003, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru 15.08.1947 27.05.1964
Article 75(1)(A) states that, strength of Union Council of Gulzari Lal Nanda 27.05.1964 09.06.1964
Ministers shall not be more than 15% of total strength of Lal Bahadur Shastri 09.06.1964 11.01.1966
the Lok Sabha. Gulzari Lal Nanda 11.01.1966 24.01.1966
• The Council of Ministers consist of three categories of Indira Gandhi 24.01.1966 24.03.1977
Minister namely; Cabinet Minister, Ministers of State and Morarji Desai 24.03.1977 28.07.1979
Deputy Ministers. Charan Singh 28.07.1979 14.01.1980
• The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible Indira Gandhi 14.01.1980 31.10.1984
to the House of People. There are three types of Rajiv Gandhi 31.10.1984 01.12.1989
Ministers VP Singh 21.12.1989 10.11.1990
i. Cabinet Ministers They are incharge of important Chandra Shekhar 10.01.1990 21.06.1991
portfolios. They are the real policy makers. The PV Narsimha Rao 21.06.1991 16.05.1996
cabinet meetings are not attended by other
Atal Bihari Vajpayee 16.05.1996 01.06.1996
ministers.
HD Deve Gowda 01.06.1996 21.04.1997
ii. Minister of State One, who hold independent
I K Gujral 21.04.1997 19.03.1998
charge of some ministries or are placed under a
Cabinet Minister.
iii. Deputy Ministers One, who assist Cabinet
Dr Manmohan Singh 22.05.2004 25.05.2014
Ministers and Ministers of States.
Narendra Modi 26.5.2014 Till date
• A person can remain a minister without being a member
of either house maximum upto 6 months.
Powers and Functions
The Prime Minister • In Relation to the Council of Ministers If a
difference in opinion arises between the Prime Minister
• The position of Prime Minister in the Council of and any of his subordinate ministers, he can ask the
Minister is described as ‘Primus Inter Pares’ i.e. first minister to resign or can advise President to dismiss
among the equals. He is the real executive as President is him.
nominal executive.
• In Relation of President Regarding the appointment
• The Prime Minister is the head of the Union of important officials like Attorney General of India,
Government. All the executive powers of the Central CAG, Chairman of UPSC, EC, Chairman of Finance
Government are formally vested with the President of Commission, etc the Prime Minister can advice the
India, but these powers are actually exercised by the President.
Council of Ministers under the leadership of the Prime
• He advises the President with regard to summoning and
Minister.
proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.
• The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.
• He can recommend dissolution of Lok Sabha to
[Article 75]
President at any time.
• Prime Minister allocates portfolios among the ministers
and he also can drop any minister. Deputy Prime Minister
• The Prime Minister is the chairperson of the Planning There is no mention of Deputy Prime Minister in the
Commission. Constitution. Deputy Prime Minister is appointed mostly
• The Prime Minister, who is not a member of Parliament due to political compulsion. Sardar Patel was the first
has to acquire its membership within 6 months of his Deputy Prime Minister during Prime Minister Nehru’s
appointment. time. Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, Jagjivan Ram, YB
• Even a Rajya Sabha member can become a Prime Charan, Devilal and LK Advani also worked as Deputy
Minister. Prime Minister during the period of various Prime
Minister’s.
Attorney General Presiding Officer

The Attorney General of India is appointed by the • Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya
President of India under Article 76 of the Constitution. A Sabha. He presides over the proceedings of the Rajya
person qualified to be a Judge of Supreme Court is Sabha as long as he does not act as the President of
appointed to such a post. He is the first legal officer of the India during a vacancy in the office of the President of
Government of India. India.
He is consulted in all important cases. He also appears in • Also a Deputy Chairman is elected from among its
the Supreme Court on behalf of Government of India to members.
conduct cases. He has the right of audience in all the • In Rajya Sabha any bill can originate, apart from Money
courts and can take part in the proceedings of either house Bill (including budget).
of Parliament, but he is not entitled to vote. He holds • Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to
office during the pleasure of the President. He is dissolution unlike Lok Sabha.
prohibited to take appointment as director in any company
without permission of government, but he is not debarred Special Powers of the Rajya Sabha
from private legal practice. • A resolution seeking the removal of the Vice-President
can originate only in the Rajya Sabha.
• If, the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of
PARLIAMENT not less than two-third of the members present and
According to Article 79, the Parliament consists of the voting that it is necessary in the national interest that
President, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter
enumerated in the State List. It shall be lawful for
House of the People (Lok Sabha). Though, the President is
Parliament to make law for a period of not more than
not a member of either of the house, he is an integral part
1 year. (Article 249)
of it.
• If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of
Rajya Sabha (Article 80) not less than two-third of the members present and
voting, then it is necessary in the national interest to
• Maximum Strength 250 (Out of these, President create one or more All-India Services, Parliament by
nominates 12 members amongst persons having special law, provides for such service or services. (Article 312)
knowledge or practical experience in the fields of
literature, science, art and social service). Lok Sabha
• Presently, the Parliament, by law has provided for 233
• Maximum Strength 550 + 2 (530 : States, 20 : UTs).
seats for the States and the Union Territories. The total
membership of Rajya Sabha is 245. • Present Strength of Lok Sabha (543 +2).
• All the states and only 2 Union Territories, Delhi and • Lok Sabha is not a permanent body and is subject to
Puducherry are represented in the Rajya Sabha. dissolution.
• Representatives of the state are elected by members of • The normal tenure of the Lok Sabha is 5 years, but it
State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of proportional may be dissolved earlier by the President.
representation through a single transferable vote. States
are represented on the basis of their population. Tenure
• There are no seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and • The life of the Lok Sabha can be extended by the
Scheduled Tribes in Rajya Sabha. Parliament beyond the 5 years term, when a
proclamation of emergency under Article 352 is in force.
Membership But, the Parliament cannot extend the normal life of the
Conditions to be a member of Rajya Sabha are as follow Lok Sabha for more than 1 year at a time, but in any
case such extension cannot continue beyond a period of
• Citizen of India.
6 months after the proclamation of emergency comes to
• 30 years of age. an end.
• Be a parliamentary elector in the State, in which he is • Quorum for Either House Article 100 (c) Quorum is
seeking election. the minimum number of members required to be present
• Others as prescribed by Parliament from time-to-time. before it can transact any business. It is 1/10th of the
• For 6 years, as one-third members retire every 2 years. total number of members.
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Membership Deputy Speaker

Conditions to be a member of Lok Sabha • The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the
• Citizen of India. Vice-Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha, the
• At least 25 years of age.
Lower House of Parliament of India. He acts
as the Presiding Officer in case of leave or
• Must not hold any office of profit.
absence caused by death or illness of the
• He must not be of unsound mind/insolvent. Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• He must be a registered voter in any parliamentary constituency.
• The Deputy Speaker is elected in the very first
A member can be disqualified meeting of the Lok Sabha after the General
• if, he voluntarily gives up the membership of party. Elections for a term of 5 years from among
• if, he over rules the ‘whip’. the Members of the Lok Sabha.
• if, he remains absent for 60 days without intimation.
Powers of Lok Sabha
Presiding Officers • Money and the Financial Bills originate only in
• Presiding officer in Lok Sabha is the Speaker (in his/her absence, Lok Sabha. The confidence and no confidence
Deputy Speaker). The members among themselves elect him/her. motions can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.
• Article 352 says that the Lok Sabha in a
• The Speaker continues in office even after the dissolution of the
Lok Sabha till a newly elected Lok Sabha meets. special sitting can disapprove the continuance
of National Emergency, even when the Rajya
The speaker has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following Sabha rejects such a resolution.
three cases
i. If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha; Power, Privileges and Immunities
ii. If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; of the Members of Parliament
iii. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the Parliamentary privileges are special rights,
members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be removed immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two
only after giving 14 days’ advance notice. Houses of Parliament, their committees and
• Usually the Speaker, after his election cuts-off all connections with their members. Without these privileges the
his party and acts in an impartial manner. He does not vote in the Houses can neither maintain their authority,
first instance, but exercises his casting vote only to remove a dignity and honour nor can protect their
deadlock. members from any obstruction in the discharge
• Charges his salary from the Consolidated Fund of India. of their Parliamentary responsibilities.
Parliamentary privileges don’t extent to the
• The majority of the total membership can remove speaker after
President who is also an integral part of the
giving a 14 days notice. During this time, he does not preside over Parliament.
the meetings. After his removal, continues in office till his
successor takes charge. Parliamentary privileges can be classified into two
broad categories, which are as follows
Powers and Functions of Speaker i. Those that are enjoyed by each House of
• The Speaker presides at the meetings of the House of the People Parliament collectively.
as well as joint setting of two Houses of Parliament. ii. Those that are enjoyed by the members
• The Speaker gives permission to the members to speak in the individually.
house. Some of the privileges and immunities enjoyed by
• If, the Quorum (presence of only one-tenth of the total strength the members of the Parliament, are as follows
of the house) is not complete, the Speaker can adjourn the house.
• Freedom of speech in the House subject to the
• He decides as to whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.
rules framed by the House. The members are
• He appoints the Chairman as well as Deputy Chairman of all the not permitted to discuss the conduct of the
committees of the house. Speaker takes the final decision as to judges of the Supreme Court and High Court,
disqualify a member on grounds of defection. except when the removal of a Judge is being
considered by Parliament.
PRO-TEM SPEAKER
• Immunity from proceedings in any court in
The first meeting after election, in which Speaker and Deputy respect of publication of any report, paper or
Speaker is elected by Members of Parliament is head under the
proceedings under the authority of either
seniormost Member of Parliament, he is called Pro-Tem
Speaker. House of Parliament.
• Exemption from liability to serve as Jurors.
Sessions of Parliament Mechanisms of Parliamentary

• Begins with the consent of the President. Proceedings
• Gap between two sessions should not be more than Question Hour
6 months. The Parliament generally meets in three
The first hour of a sitting of the Lok Sabha devoted to
sessions in a year, which are as follow
questions and that hours is called the Question Hour.
i. Budget Session (February-May) It is the longest
session. The questions are of three types
ii. Monsoon Session (July-August). i. A Starred Questions It is one to which a member
desires an oral answer from the Minister in the House
iii. Winter Session (November-December) It is the and is required to be distinguished by him/her with
shortest session. an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be
Termination of Sitting followed by supplementary questions by members.
The sitting of a house may be terminated by ii. An Unstarred Question It is one to which written
Dissolution The Lok Sabha is subject to dissolution. answer is desired an oral answer from the Minister in
Dissolution takes place when the President exercises the House and is required to be distinguished by
him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question
his power under Article 85(2). It can be dissolved by
may be followed by supplementary questions by
efflux of time i.e. on the expiry of its term of 5 years
members.
of the terms as extended during a proclamation of
iii. Short Notice Question A member may give a notice
emergency.
of question on a matter of public importance and of
Prorogation It means the termination of a session of the urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than
house by an order made by the President under 15 days prescribed as the minimum period of notice
Article 85 (2) (a) of the Constitution. for asking a question in ordinary course. Such a
Adjournment It does not put an end to the existence of question is known as Short Notice Question.
a session of Parliament, but it merely postpones the Zero Hour
further transaction of business for a specified time,
hours, days or weeks. Adjournment generally does not The period follows the question hours and it starts at the
noon and its duration is one hour (from 12 noon to 1pm).
have any effect on pending business.
During the Zero Hour various issues of public importance
Joint Session are raised without prior notice.
• It is ordered by the President to consider a particular
bill in case Parliamentary Proposal
– Bill passed by one house and rejected by the other.
Some parliamentary proposal in Lok Sabha are as follows
– The amendments made by the other house are not
Calling Attention Motion With the prior permission of
acceptable to the house where the bill originated. the Speaker, any Member of the Parliament may call
– When a bill remains pending or unpassed for more
the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public
than 6 months. importance. The minister may make a brief statement
• Joint session of Parliament is presided over by the about the matter or he may ask for time to make a
Speaker of the Lok Sabha. In his absence, by the Deputy statement later.
Speaker, or in his absence by the Deputy Chairman of
Privilege Motion It is a motion moved by a member of
Rajya Sabha or in his absence any other member of the
Parliament. He charges the minister with committing a
Parliament who is acceptable to both the houses.
breach of the privilege of the house by withholding or
• Deadlock over the bill is resolved by a majority of the
distoring facts.
members of both the Houses of Parliament present and
voting. Adjournment Motion It is introduced in the Parliament
to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of
• No fresh amendment can be done in joint session.
urgent public importance and needs the support of 50
• There is no provision of joint session for passing Money
members to be admitted. It can only be moved in
Bills and Constitutional Amendment Acts. Lower House of the Parliament. It should not raise
In Indian history, only three bills have been referred to the any matter which is under adjudication by a court.
joint sitting
No-Confidence Motion It is a resolution introduced by
i. Dowry Prohibition Bill — 1961 the opposition claiming that the house has lost its
ii. Banking Service Commission Bill — 1978 confidence in the government. If it is passed, then
iii. POTA Bill — 2002 government must resign from the office.
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It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Rajya President Assent to the Bills
Sabha does not enjoys this power because Article • After a Bill has been passed by both the Houses of
75 says that Council of Minister shall be Parliament, it is presented to the President for his/her assent.
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This
• The President may either assent to the Bill, withhold his/her
motion requires the support of 50 members to be assent or return the Bill, if it is not a Money Bill, with a
admitted. message for reconsideration of the Bill or any specified
Censure Motion The motion seeks to censure the provisions thereof, or for considering the desirability of
government for its lapses. If the censure motion is introducing any such amendments as he may recommend in
passed against the government, it should pass a his/her message.
confidence motion as soon as possible to regain the • The President may either give or withhold his/her assent to
confidence of the house. And government, does not a Money Bill. A Money Bill cannot be returned to the
need to resign immediately unlike in case of House by the President for reconsideration.
No-Confidence Motion. It can be moved against an • Also, the President is bound to give his/her assent to
individual minister for specific policies or actions. Constitution Amendment Bill passed by Parliament by the
This motion should state the reason for its prescribed special majority and where necessary, ratified by
adoption. It is in practice since 1954. the requisite number of State Legislatures.
Legislative Procedure in Parliament CONSOLIDATED FUND OF INDIA

[ARTICLE 266 (1)]
The proposal for a law is called Bill. Until a bill is
passed through a proper procedure, it cannot be a law
●
All revenues received by the government by way of
or an act. Only Speaker of Lok Sabha decides whether taxes like income tax, central excise, customs and other
receipts flowing to the government in connection with
the bill is a Money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.
the conduct of government business i.e. non-tax
Ordinary Bill revenues are credited into the Consolidated Fund
constituted under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of
• All the bills other than Financial bills, Money bills
India.
and the Constitutional Amendment are Ordinary ●
All loans raised by the government by issue of public
bills. notifications, treasury bills (internal debt) and loans
• An Ordinary Bill can be introduced in any of the obtained from foreign government and international
two Houses of Parliament. The Ordinary Bill can be institutions (external debt) are credited into this fund.
introduced by either a Minister of the Government All expenditure of the government is incurred from this
or any Member of the House. fund and no amount can be withdrawn from the fund
without authorisation from the Parliament; Article 114
Money Bill (in effect that of Lok Sabha).
No Money Bill can be introduced without the consent CONTINGENCY FUND OF INDIA (ARTICLE 267)
of the President of India (Article 110). ●
The Contingency Fund of India records the transactions
• It can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. The Speaker connected with Contingency Fund set by the
certifies a bill to be a Money Bill and his decision is Government of India under Article 267 of the
final in this regard. (Article 110) Constitution of India.
• Money Bills relate to bills seeking imposition or
●
This fund acts more or less like an imprest account of
abolition of taxes, matters pertaining to borrowing of Government of India and is held on behalf of President
money by the government, custody and maintenance by the Secretary to the Government of India, Ministry
of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs. At
of consolidated funds etc.
present, it is 500 crore.
• When, the Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it
is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. PUBLIC ACCOUNT [ARTICLE 266(2)]
Rajya Sabha can delay, it only for 14 days. It’s final ●
In the public account, constituted under Article 266 (2)
approval lies with Lok Sabha only. of the Constitution, the transactions relate to debt other
than those included in the Consolidated Fund in India.
Financial Bill ●
The transactions under debt, deposits and advances in
• Any bill dealing with revenues or expenditure, but this part are those in respect of which government
not certified as, Money Bill by the speaker is a incurs a liability to repay the money received or has a
claim to recover the amounts paid.
Financial Bill.
●
The receipts under public account do not constitute
• Financial Bill only be introduced in Lok Sabha on
normal receipts of government. Parliamentary
the recommendation of President. authorisation for payments from the public account is
therefore not required.
Budget in Parliament Estimates Committee

• ‘Budget’ is the popular name for the ‘annual financial • The origin of this committee can be traced to the
statement’ that has been dealt with in Article 112 of the standing financial committee set-up in 1921.
Constitution. The budget is a statement of the estimated
• The first Estimates Committee in the
receipts and expenditure of the Government of India in a
post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on
financial year.
the recommendation of John Mathai.
• Till 2016, the Government of India has two budgets– the
• Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its
Railway Budget and the General Budget. On the
membership was raised to 30. All the 30 members
recommendations of Bibek Debroy Committee, the
are from Lok Sabha only.
Government of India has announced that there will be single
General Budget 2017 onwards. The Finance Minister • These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every
presents the General Budget. year from amongst its own members, according to
the principles of proportional representation by
Parliamentary Committees means of a single transferable vote.
• Committees have been created so that members of • The function of the committee is to examine the
Parliament can discuss and debate on the working of a estimates included in the budget and suggest
certain department of the government. Most of the ‘economies’ in public expenditure.
committees function under the direction of the Speaker and
essentially of the Lok Sabha. Committee on Public Undertakings
• Committees are classified under two heads, which are as • This committee was created in 1964 on the
follow recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
i. Adhoc Committees They are created for a temporary • Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the Lok
period. They can be divided into two categories, i.e. Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in
Inquiry Committees and Advisory Committees. 1974, its membership was raised on 22 (15 from the
Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
ii. Standing Committees They are broadly classified into
the following categories: Committees of Enquires • The members of this committee are elected by the
Committees to Scrutinise, Financial Committees, Parliament every year from amongst its own
Committees of Administrative Character, Committees members according to the principle of proportional
with provision of facilities to member. representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• The term of office of the members is one year. A
• The Chairman of all the committees (except the Joint
minister cannot be elected as a member of the
Committees on salaries and allowances of MPs) are
committee.
appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members of the
committees. In case, Speaker is a member of a committee, he
becomes Ex-officio chairman of the committee. THE STATE EXECUTIVE
Public Accounts Committee It deals with the government at state level. It consists
• This committee was set-up first in 1921 under the provisions of Governor and Council of Minister headed by Chief
of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been Minister.
in existence.
• At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Governor
Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The Constitution provides for an office of the
• The members are elected by the Parliament every year from Governor in the states under Article 153.
amongst its members according to the principle of
proportional representation by means of the single, Appointment
transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in • Appointed by the President, on the advice of the
it. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
• The function of the committee is to examine the annual Same person can be appointed Governor for more
audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of than one state.
India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the • Constitution prescribes a 5 years term, but it is
President. subject to the pleasure of the President.
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Qualification and Oath Emergency Powers

• The Governor exercises important power during
Under Article 158, the Constitution lays down the following
conditions for the Governors office emergency, which is also known as ‘President Rule’
(Article 356).
• He must be a citizen of India.
• His powers are exercised by the Council of Ministers
• He should be more than 35 years of age.
headed by the Chief-Minister. But the Governor can
• He should not be a member of either House of exercise certain discretionary powers independently
Parliament and the State Legislature. also.
• He must not hold any government office of profit.
Other Powers
• The oath to the Governor is given by the Chief Justice of
Receives and tables the report by Controller Auditor
High Court (Article 159). General, Act as Chancellor of state universities and
appoints Vice-Chancellor.
Powers
Executive Powers Chief Minister
• Appoints the Council of Ministers (on the advice of CM).
• Acticle 164(1) Appointed by Governor, generally the
• Appoints the Advocate General, the Chairman and majority party leader is appointed. A Chief Minister is
Members of the State Public Service Commission. the elected Head or Government of the State and is
• Acts as the representative of the President. vested with most of the executive power.
Legislative Powers • He enjoys the supports of legislators of the political
party or coalition commanding an assembly majority.
• He summons and prorogues the session of the State
Legislative. • The Governor is the Nominal Executive (de-jure
executive) and the Chief Minister is the Real
• He can dissolve the State Assembly before the expiry of
Executive (defacto executive).
its full term.
• He addresses the first session of the Legislature after every
• There are no educational or other qualification about
election and first session every year. his appointment. Under the Constitution, all that is
needed is that such a person is a citizen of India and
• He can issue ordinances, appoints 1/6th members of possesses such qualifications, as are required for
Legislative Council on the advice of Chief Minister. becoming a member of the Legislative Assembly.
• Nominates one member from the Anglo-Indian
• Such a person could be Member of either House of the
community (if not properly representated).
Legislature or even an outside though in case he is not a
• Gives assent to the bills to make it a law. Member of State Legislative can be appointed CM, but
The Governor has three alternatives, which are as follows : he has to get himself elected within 6 months otherwise
i. He can give his assent to the Bill. would have to be removed.
ii. He can return it (other than a Money Bill) for • The Governor may first appoint the Chief Minister
reconsideration, suggestion, alterations. But, such bills then ask him to prove his majority in the Legislative
when passed again, have to be given assent. Assembly within a reasonable period.
iii. He may reserve the bill for the assent of the President. • If the Chief Minister resigns, entire ministry resigns.
Financial Powers Advocate General
Ensures that the budget is laid. Money Bills can be • Article 165 of the Constitution provides for the office
introduced on his recommendation only. of the Advocate General for the states. He is the
Judicial Powers highest law officer in the state and appointed by the
• He is consulted by the President of India for the Governor.
appointment of judges in the High Court. • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed
• Appoints judges of courts below the High Court, can a judge of a High Court. The term of office of the
grant pardon, (same point) reprieve or remission of Advocate General is not fixed by the Constitution. He
punishment for offence against state laws. holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Strength
THE STATE LEGISLATURE The strength of Legislative Assemblies cannot be more
• Every State has a Legislature. Some of the State than 500 and not less than 60.
Legislatures have two houses Legislative Assembly
(Vidhan Sabha), the Lower House and Legislative Council Qualifications
(Vidhan Parishad), the Upper House. • A citizen of India, age not less than 25 years. Speaker
• States having Bicameral Legislature Uttar Pradesh, and Deputy Speaker chosen from among its members.
Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. State • Must not possess other qualifications prescribed
Legislative Council can be created and abolished by the by Parliament, under the Representation of People
Parliament on the recommendation of Legislative Act, 1951.
Assembly.
The Union Territories
Legislative Council • The states are the members of the federal system in
India and share a distribution of power with the
It is known as Upper House, it cannot be dissolved. The centre. On the other hand, the union territories are
maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the those areas which are under the direct control and
total strength of the Assembly and minimum strength is administration of the Central Government.
Legislative Council are elected in accordance with the system
• Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution
of proportional representation by means of the Single
deal with the union territories.
Transferable Vote.
• Every Union Territory is administered by the President
Strength and Election acting through an administrator appointed by him.
• It cannot be larger than one-third of the Legislative • The President can specify the designation of an
Assembly of the State. One-third are elected by the local administrator; it may be Lieutenant Governor or Chief
government bodies like Zila Parishad, Municipalities. Commissioner or Administrator.
Another one-third are elected by Members of Legislative • At present, it is Lieutenant Governor in the case of
Assembly of the state. One-twelfth are elected by a Delhi, Puducherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
constituency of graduates and another one-twelfth by and Administrator in the case of Chandigarh, Dadra
teachers of secondary schools, colleges and universities. and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu and Lakshadweep.
• One-sixth of the total members are nominated by the • The Union Territories of Puducherry (in 1963) and
Governor from the persons of special knowledge or Delhi (in 1992) are provided with a Legislative
practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative Assembly and a Council of Ministers headed by a
movement and social service. Chief Minister.
Qualifications and Tenure

A citizen of India, age not below 30 years. Chairman and
JUDICIARY
Vice-Chairman elected from among its members. 6 years • We have an integrated judicial set-up (taken from
tenure with one-third members retiring every 2 years. Government of India Act, 1935) in our country. The
Constitution of India is the supreme legal document.
Legislative Assembly • It’s Part V and Part VI dealing with Union and State
• Like the Lok Sabha, the Legislative Assembly is not a Governments respectively.
continuing chamber. Its normal term is 5 years from the • Indian Constitution has established an integrated
date of its first meeting after the General Election. It can judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top.
be dissolved before its term too. Term can be extended by • Judiciary is independent of other two organs of the
1 year during national emergency. state i.e. executive and legislature. Independence of the
• The Constitution says that the Governor may appoint ane judiciary does not imply arbitrariness or absense of
member from the Anglo-Indian Community if it is not accountability.
adequately represented in the house. • Judiciary is a part of the democratic structure of the
• Rest of the member are elected directly by the people country. It is therefore, democratic traditions and to
from the territorial constituencies. Article 170(1) holds the people of the country.
that the Legislative Assembly of each state shall consist of • The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies
not more than 500 and not less than 60, members chosen from state to state.
by direct election from territorial constituencies in the
State.
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Supreme Court of India Jurisdiction

The functions and responsibilities of the Supreme Court
(Articles 124-147) are defined by the Constitution.
• The Supreme Court came into being on 28th January, The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be categorised
1950. Supreme Court is a federal court. It’s only seat as
located at Delhi. It’s bench can be established at other Original Jurisdiction (Article 131)
places also.
• Disputes between the Government of India and one or
• It is the Apex court of justice in India. Having one Chief more states.
Justice + Not more than 33 other judges. • Dispute between the Government of India and one or
more states on one side and one or more state on the
Appointment other side.
The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the • Disputes between two or more states (e.g. Cauvery
President. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President water dispute between Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and
after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court Puducherry).
and High Court as he/she deems necessary.
Qualifications PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION (PIL)

In PIL the court gives judgement in public interest on such
A citizen of India. Any person who has been a judge of a
matters as the basic needs of life, exploitation,
High Court for 5 years (or) an eminent jurist or has been a environment, child labour, exploitation of women etc. If
practising advocate in High Court for 10 years. some person or institution just informs the court. The court
investigate the matter and decides in the context of facts.
Functions Such cases constitute what is PIL?
It hears certain appeals of civil and criminal cases from the
High Court. It hears disputes between the Union SP Gupta vs Union of India Case, 1982, Supreme Court
Government and the states. It can issue writs for the held that any member of the public can approach the
enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights conferred courts for violation of Fundamental Rights of others, (who
by the Constitution. may not have sufficient resources to reach the courts) even
through a post card, PN Bhagwati and CR Krishna
Term and Removal of a Judge Aiyar were the prominent justices to have laid down the
• The judges hold the office upto the age of 65 years. A conditions for such appeals, popularly called Public
Judge of Supreme Court can only be removed from Interest Litigation (PIL). But PILs must work for public
office by an order of the President after an address by interest alone. The concept of PIL originated in USA.
each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the Writ Jurisdiction
total membership of the house and by a majority of not
• The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as
less than two-third of the members present and voting
on the ground on the guarantor and defender of Fundamental Rights of
the citizen.
i. proved misbehaviour ii. incapacity
– Habeas Corpus Implies that a person imprisoned or
The Constitution of India has ensured that detained by the law can enquire from the court of
• they can be removed by Parliament (by complex law, under what authority he has been imprisoned or
procedure). detained.
• after retirement, they cannot practise in any Indian – Mandamus Literally means a ‘Command’ issued by
Court. the court commanding a person or a public authority
to do or forbade to do something in the nature of
Salary public duty.
• Salary is given from consolidated fund, which is not – Quo Warranto An order issued by the court to
deducted (except during financial emergency). prevent a person from holding office to which he is
• Chief Justice’s salary ` 2.8 lakh. not entitled and to out him from that office.
– Certiorari It is a writ, which orders the removal of a
Independence of Judges suit from an inferior court to superior court.
• Decisions and actions of judges cannot be criticised. – Prohibition By a higher court to stop proceedings
• Any type of conduct of judges cannot be discussed in in a lower court on the ground of overstepping
Parliament except in the case of removal. of jurisdiction or isolation of the rules of natural
• Chief Justice of India is appointed on seniority basis. justice.
Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143)

High Courts
As the highest court in the country, the Supreme Court
can be consulted by the President on certain issues, if the The Constitution provides High Court for every state. But
President feels that an important legal question or fact of even two or more states can have a common High Court if
public interest has come to him he can ask the Supreme provided by the Parliament.
Court for its advice. The Supreme Court in such cases i. Presently there are 25 High Courts in India
would consider it and give its opinion to the President, but ii. The High Court consists of a Chief Justice and some
such an opinion is not binding on the President. other judges appointed by the President of India.
Appellate Jurisdiction iii. There is no upper limit on the number of judges.
(Articles 132 (1), 133 (1) or 134)
Three type of appeals can be made to the Supreme Court, Qualifications
these are as follows : He/she must be a citizen of India. Must have held a
i. There can be an appeal against any decision or order judicial office for at least 10 years or be a distinguished
of a High Court, if the High Court gives a certificate jurist in the opinion of the President.
that it involves some question of interpretation of the Or
Constitution. He should have for at least 10 years been an advocate in
ii. There can be an appeal against civil cases decided by a High Court or of two or more such courts in succession.
High Court, if the High Court gives a certificate that
the case involves a substantial question of law. Appointment
iii. In respect of criminal cases too there can be an appeal • For the appointment of the Chief Justice of a High
to the Supreme Court. If a High Court has on appeal Court the President consults the Chief Justice of India
reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and Governor of the concerned state. Other judges are
and sentenced him to death or if by withdrawing a also appointed according to the same procedure.
case from the lower court to itself it has sentenced a • The Constitution bench of Supreme Court held that the
person to death, one can go for an appeal to Supreme opinion of Chief Justice (Supreme Court and High
Court. Court) will be given priority in both the appointment as
Review Jurisdiction (Article 137) well as transfer of senior judges.
The Supreme Court can review any judgement given by
itself. The Supreme Court is also given the power under our
Term, Boundation and Removal
Constitution to transfer a case that is being decided in any • A judge of High Court holds office till he attains the
court and bring it to itself. If it feels that an important age of 62 years. Their term can be shortened, if he gives
question of law is involved, Parliament can confer on the resignation and can be cut short if removed by the
Supreme Court more powers by passing a law. President.
• Retired Judge of a High Court can practice in the High
Election Jurisdiction
Court from where he has been retired and only in the
The Supreme Court has obligation to decide on the
Supreme Court.
disputes regarding the election of the President and the
Vice-President. • Judges of one High Court can be transferred to another
High Court.
Court of Record (Article 129)
• They can be removed through the same procedure as
All the decisions and proceedings of the Supreme Court followed in the case of a Judge of the Supreme Court
are kept as records and are quoted as precedents in the (Parliament passes the resolution by a two-third majority
court. The court can punish for its own contempt, if any of its members present and voting).
one does not abide by its decision. So, the Supreme Court
is called a ‘Court of Record’. Jurisdiction of High Court
Power of Judicial Review At present, a High Court enjoy the following jurisdiction
Supreme Court has power to make Judicial review of and powers
constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive • Original jurisdiction • Writ jurisdiction
orders of both centre and state. If the orders are found • Appellate jurisdiction • Supervisory jurisdiction
violative, they can be declared null and void. • Control over subordinate courts
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Jurisdiction and Seats of High Courts Subordinate Courts

Established Territorial Articles 233 to 237 in Part VI of the Constitution makes
Name Seat
in the Year Jurisdiction
the provision to regulate the organisation of subordinate
Madhya 1956 Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur courts and to ensure their independence from the
Pradesh (Benches at executive. The appointment, posting and promotion of
Gwalior and
Indore) district judges in a state are made by the governor of the
State in consultation with the High Court.
Bombay 1862 Maharashtra, Dadra Mumbai (Bench
and Nagar Haveli, Goa, at Nagpur, Panaji
Daman and Diu and Aurangabad) Lok Adalat
Calcutta 1862 West Bengal and Kolkata (Circuit Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal
Andaman and Nicobar Bench at Port
islands Blair) mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes or cases pending
in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled or
Madras 1862 Tamil Nadu and Chennai
Puducherry
compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given
statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
Allahabad 1866 Uttar Pradesh Allahabad (Bench 1987. The First Lok Adalat was held in Gujarat in 1982.
at Lucknow)
Karnataka 1884 Karnataka Bengaluru

LOCAL SELF GOVERNMENT
Patna 1916 Bihar Patna
• It deals with the Panchayats and Municipalities. It
Orissa 1948 Odisha Cuttack
consists of two parts
Guwahati 1948 Assam, Nagaland, Guwahati
Mizoram and (Benches at
i. It contains 29 subjects related to Panchayati Raj
Arunachal Pradesh Kohima and (Administrative powers) and added by 73rd
Aizawl and Amendment Act, 1992, contains a new schedule
itanagar)
‘Schedule Eleven’.
Rajasthan 1949 Rajasthan Jodhpur (Bench at ii. It contains 18 subjects related to Municipalities
Jaipur)
(Administrative powers) and added by 74th
Andhra 1954 Andhra Pradesh and Hyderabad Amendment Act, 1992, contains a new schedule,
Pradesh Telengana
‘Schedule Twelve’. Panchayati Raj in India signifies
Kerala 1958 Kerala and Ernakulam the system of rural local self government. Local
Lakshadweep government is a subject of the State List.
Jammu and 1928 Jammu and Kashmir Srinagar and Various recommendation for Panchayati Raj Institution,are
Kashmir Jammu
as follows :
Gujarat 1960 Gujarat Ahmedabad • Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 1957 establishment of
Delhi 1966 Delhi Delhi three tier Panchayati Raj System, which includes Zila
Punjab and 1875 Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
Parishad at District level, Panchayati Samiti at Block
Haryana Chandigarh level and Gram Panchayat at Village level.
Himachal 1971 Himachal Pradesh Shimla • Ashok Mehta Committee The three tier system should
Pradesh be replaced by two tier system that is Zila Parishad at
Sikkim 1975 Sikkim Gangtok
District level and below it the Mandal Panchayat
consisting of a group of village comprising a population
Uttarakhand 2000 Uttarakhand Nainital of 15000 to 20000.
Jharkhand 2000 Jharkhand Ranchi • LM Singhvi Committee 1986 The Panchayati Raj
Chhattisgarh 2000 Chhattisgarh Bilaspur Institution should be constitutionally recognised,
protected and preserved.
Manipur 2013 Manipur Imphal
• PESA (Panchayat Extention to Schedule Areas) Act,
Meghalaya 2013 Meghalaya Shillong 1996 or PESA law enacted by the Government of India
Tripura 2013 Tripura Agartala they cover the schedule areas which are not covered in
the 73rd Amendment of Panchayati Raj Act of Indian
Telangana 2019 Telangana Hyderabad
Constitution.
Panchayats Constitutional Bodies

The idea of Panchayati Raj forms the basis of Constitutional body is the body that has its name mentioned
Gandhian philosophy that considers village councils as in the Constitution of India. It derives power directly from
the units of self-governance. Rajasthan was the first the Constitution. Any type of change in mechanism of this
state to set-up Panchayati Raj on 2nd October, 1959 body needs constitutional amendment. Such bodies are as
followed by Andhra Pradesh. follows
Duration and Election Election Commission

• Its duration five years from the day appointed for its • The Election Commission is a permanent and an
first meeting. independent body established by the Constitution of India
• Before the expiry of its duration. directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
• Before the expiry of a period of 6 months from the • Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of
date of its dissolution. Provided that where the superintendence, direction and control of elections to
remainder of the period for which the dissolved Parliament, state legislatures, the office of President of India
• Panchayat would have continued is less than and the office of Vice-President of India shall be vested in
6 months, it shall not be necessary to hold any the election commission.
election for such period. • The Election Commission shall consists of the Chief
• Minimum age required to contest for election is 21 Election Commissioner and such number of other election
years. commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to
time fix. They hold office for a term of 6 years or until they
Reservation of Seats attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Seats shall be compulsorily reserved for women • He can be removed by the President on the basis of a
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Seats to be resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of
reserved for backward classes is left at the discretion of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of
the State Government one-third of the seats are proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
reserved for women. In some states like Bihar, 50%
seats are reserved for women. NATIONAL PARTY
It should secure not less than 6% of the total valid votes
Municipalities polled in its state during a general election. Besides, it has
attained at least 4 members to Lok Sabha.
• They are eight types of urban local body in India –
Notified Area Committee, Town Area Committee, STATE PARTY
Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Cantonment It should secure not less than 6% of the total valid votes in
Board, Township, Port trust and Special Purpose that state in general election, besides attaining at least two
Agency. members to the Legislative Assembly of that state at the
last assembly elections.
• The first municipal corporation was established in
Madras Presidency in 1688.
Public Service Commission
Duration and Election The Public Service Commission is divided into two categories
• Election must be held before the expiry of its namely; Union Public Service Commission and State Public
duration of 5 years. Service Commission.
• Election must be held before the expiration of a Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
period of 6 months from the date of its dissolution. • It is the central recruiting agency in India. Articles 315 to
323 in Part XIV of the Constitution deal with the UPSC.
Reservation of Seats
• The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members
• There will be the reservation of seats for the
appointed by the President of India. The strength of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in every Commission has been decided by the President.
municipality in proportion of their population to the
total population in the municipal area. • The chairman and members of the Commission hold office
for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65
• It also provides for the reservation of not less than
years, whichever is earlier.
one-third of the total number of seats for women
(including the number of seats reserved for women • The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed
belonging to the SCs and STs). from office by the President only in the manner and on the
grounds mentioned in the Constitution.
972 CDS Pathfinder
State Public Service Commission (SPSC) • 13th Finance Commission, headed by Vijay Kelkar,
• Parallel to UPSC at the Centre, there is a SPSC in a submitted its report for the period 2010-15. Finance
state. It consists of a chairman and other members Commission, headed by YV Reddy, has been appointed. Its
appointed by the Governor of the State. report will apply for the period 2015-20.
• The chairman and members of the Commission hold • The 14th Finance Commission has been specifically asked
office for a term of six years or until they attain the to recommend how non-priority PSUs be relinquished,
age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. besides its other constitutional duties.
National Commission for Functions

Scheduled Castes It is duty of the Finance Commission to make
• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs)
recommendations to the President as to :
is a constitutional body in the sense that it is directly • the distribution between the Union and States of net
established by Article 338 of the Constitution. proceeds of the taxes which are divisible between the
Union and the States.
• The main function of the Commission is to investigate
and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional • the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of a
and other legal sageguards for the SCs and to evaluate revenue to the states out of Consolidated Funds of India.
their working. • any other matter referred to the commission by the
• The Commission also has to investigate all matters President in the interest of sound finance.
relating to the constitutional and other legal
safeguards for the OBCs and the Anglo-Indian Comptroller and
Community and report to the President upon their
working. Auditor General of India
• They are appointed by the President by warrant under He is appointed by the President for control and audit of
his hand and seal. Their conditions of service and public accounts. He does not hold his office till the pleasure
tenure of office are also determined by the President. of the President. He is not eligible for further office.
• The Commission presents an annual report to the
President. It can also submit a report as and when it
Functions
thinks necessary. His main functions are as follows :
• He audits the account related to all expenditure from
National Commission for consolidated and contingency fund of India, each state and
Scheduled Tribes UT’s having a Legislative Assembly.
• The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs) • He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public
is a constitutional body in the sense that it is directly Account Committee of the Parliament.
established by Article 338-A of the Constitution. • To keep a vigilant watch on the finance of Union and the
• The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 States.
bifurcated and combined National Commission for • To submit periodic reports to the President and Governors
SCs and STs into two separates bodies namely; of State for consideration of Parliament and State
National Commission for Scheduled Castes (under Legislature.
Article 338) and National Commission for Scheduled • To see that the amount voted by the legislature are spent
Tribes (under Article 338-A). under appropriate heads and they are not exceeded.
• The main function of the Commission is to investigate
and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional Non-Constitutional Bodies
and other legal safeguards for the STs and to evaluate Non-Constitutional bodies are the bodies that are established
their working. either by an executive resolution of the Government of India
or by a legislation enacted by the Parliament or even by any
Finance Commission (Article 280) official Gazette notification issued by the Central
Government.
Composition
• Under Article 280 of the Constitution, provision has Planning Commission
been made for the Constitution of a Finance The Planning Commission was an institution in the
Commission within two years of the commencement Government of India, which formulated India’s Five-Year
of the Constitution and thereafter on the expiry of Plans. The Government has replaced Planning Commission
5th year. It consists of a Chairman and four other with a new institution named NITI Aayog (National
members appointed by the President. Institution for Transforming India).
National Development Council Salient Features of Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act

• It is the open body for decision making and • Lokpal bill consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight
deliberation on development matters in India members of which 50% shall be judicial members. 50% of
presided over by Prime Minister. members of Lokpal shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and
women.
• The council comprises the Prime Minister, the
Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all • The selection of chairperson and members of Lokpal shall be
States, Representation of the Union Territories through a selection committee consist of
and members of the planning commission. 1. Prime Minister
• It is an extra-constitutional and non-statutory 2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
body. It is the listed as an advisory body to 3. Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha
planning commission but its advice is not 4. Chief Justice of India or a sitting Judge of Supreme Court
binding. nominated by CJI.
5. Eminent jurist on the basis of recommendations of the first
NITI Aayog four members of the selection committee. Prime Minister
• The institution will serve as ‘Think Tank’ of the has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal.
Government, a directional and policy dynamo.
• NITI Aayog will provide governments and the National Human Rights Commission
central and state levels with relevant strategic and • The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.
technical advice across the spectrum of key It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the
elements of policy. This includes matters of Parliament. The Commission is a multi-member body
national and international important PM is the consisting of a chairman and four members. The chairman
ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog. should be retired chief justice of India. In case State Human
Functions of NITI Aayog Rights Commission, the chairperson should be a retired Chief
Justice of a High Court.
• To foster cooperative federalism through
• The chairman and members hold office for a term of
structured support initiatives and mechanisms
with the states on a continuous basis, recognising 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is
that strong states make a strong nation. earlier. After their tenure, the chairman and members are not
eligible for further employment under the Central or a State
• To develop mechanisms to formulate credible
Government.
plans at the village level and aggregate these
progressively at higher levels of government. National Commission for Minorities (NCM)
• To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred • The Union Government set-up the National Commission for
to it, that the interest of national security are Minorities under the National Commission for Minorities Act,
incorporated in economic strategy and policy. To 1992. Six religious communities namely; Muslims, Christians,
pay special attention to the sections of our Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Jains have been notified as
society that may be at risk of not benefitting minority communities by the Union Government.
adequately from economic progress.
• The Commission has one Chairperson and five Members
• To provide advice and encourage partnerships represented five minority communities. The Commission
between key stakeholders and national and consists of President, a Vice-President and five other members
international like-minded Think Tanks, as well as from minorities group.
educational and policy research institutions.
State Finance Commission CENTRE-STATE RELATION

There is a provision of State Finance Commission The Constitution of India, being federal in structure, divides all
to review the financial position of Panchayats and powers (legislative, executive and financial) between the centre and
recommended grant-in-aid. It shall make the the states.
following recommendation to the governor.
The centre-state relations can be studied under three heads, which
Lokpal and Lokayuktas are as follow
i. Legislative relations
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 was made by
the Parliament to provide for the establishment of ii. Administrative relations
body of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for iii. Financial relations
state to inquire into allegations of corruptions It deals with the relations between union and states. The centres
against certain public functionaries and for matters and states are an essential feature of federalism.
concerning them.
974 CDS Pathfinder
Legislative Relations Western Zonal Council Maharashtra, Goa, Gujarat and UTs
• The Constitution divides the subjects into the Union
of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman Diu. Headquarter
List (100 subjects), the State List (61 subjects) and the Mumbai
Concurrent List (52 subjects). Enumerated in the Southern Zonal Council Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu,
Seventh Schedule under Article 246. Parliament has Karnataka, Kerala and UT of Puducherry. Headquarter
exclusive power to legislate on subjects mentioned in Chennai
the Union List. This list contains subjects like defence, North-Eastern Council It was created in 1971 by a
foreign affairs, atomic energy etc. separate Act of Parliament for Assam, Manipur, Tripura,
• State legislatures have exclusive power to legislate on Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
subjects mentioned in the State List. The State List In 1994, Sikkim was included in it.
contains subjects like health, sanitation, public order,
agriculture etc. Both Parliament and State Legislatures î The issues in centre-state relations have been under
can legislate on subjects mentioned in the Concurrent consideration. Time to time government appoints commission for
List. This list contains subjects like criminal law, betterment of the relation.
forests, education, marriage and divorce etc.
• Residual Powers (i.e. subjects not included in any of SARKARIA COMMISSION
the list) rest with Union Government. It was set-up in June, 1983, by the Central Government of
India to examine the relationship and balance of power
Administrative Relations between states and centre. It was headed by Justice
The states are expected to comply with the Laws of the Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired Judge of the Supreme
Court of India.
Parliament and not impede the exercise of the Executive
Powers of the Union (Articles 256 and 257). In this PUNCHHI COMMISSION
regard, the Union Government can issue necessary In April, 2007, a new commission was set-up to re-examine
directives to the states. All disputes between states centre-state relations. The commission was headed by
regarding the use, distribution or control of water are former Chief Justice of India MM Punchhi.
decided by the centre (Article 262).
Financial Relations Inter-State Council

• The states are greatly dependent on the Central • Inter-State Council serves a purposeful mechanism to bring
Government for finance. The State Governments have various autonomous executive agencies of the state
been provided independent sources of revenue, but machinery, both the union and the states, and coordinate
these are inadequate. amongst them the ways and means of execution and
• The Union Government has the power to borrow implementation of policies concerning common interests,
from within India or outside, subject to the limits laid both regional as well as national.
down by the Parliament, the borrowing power of the • Although a provision was made in the Constitution under
states is subject to several limitations and the cannot Article 262 for the formation of such Inter-State Council,
borrow from outside India. it was not until 1990, a formal Inter-State Council was
established.
Zonal Councils • This measure was taken after the Sakaria Commission
Six zonal councils have been established to discuss and pitched for the formation of such a council.
advise on matters of common interest. The Union Home
Minister has been nominated to be the common Types of Emergency
Chairman of all Zonal Councils. Set-up under State The President is empowered to promulgate three kinds of
Reorganisation Act, 1956. emergencies which are as follows :
Northern Zonal Council Consist of Punjab, i. On the ground of threat to the security of India or of
Rajasthan, Haryana, Jammu and Kashmir, any part of the territory by war or an external
Himachal Pradesh, Chandigarh and Delhi. aggression or an armed rebellion (Article 352) known as
Headquarter New Delhi National Emergency.
Central Zonal Council Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, ii. On the ground of the failure of the constitutional
Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh. Headquarter machinery in a state. (Article 356) known as the
Allahabad President’s Rule or State Emergency.
Eastern Zonal Council Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal iii. On the ground of threat to the financial stability or
and Odisha. Headquarter Kolkata credit of India or any part of the territory (Article 360),
known as Financial Emergency.
National Emergency (Article 352) • The National Emergency and Financial Emergency have
no time limit. They can continue to be extended without
• If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists
any limit. But the State emergency has a time limit. It
whereby the security of India or any part of India is
cannot go beyond 3 years.
threatened, whether by a war or an external aggression
or an armed rebellion, he/she may proclaim a state of
emergency for the whole of India or part of the territory
E-Governance
thereof. The word electronic in the term e-Governance implies
• A proclamation of emergency can be made by the technology driven governance. e-Governance is the
President, even before the actual occurrence of war or application of Information and Communication
external aggression or armed rebellion, if he/she is Technology (ICT) for delivering government services.
satisfied that there is an imminent danger. e-Governance is basically a move toward SMART
• When a national emergency is declared on the ground of Governance i.e. Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive and
‘war’ or ‘external aggression’ it is known as External Transparent Governance.
Emergency. On the other hand, when it is declared on There are four types of interactions in e-Governance
the ground of ‘armed rebellion’ it is known as Internal 1. G2B : Government to Business
Emergency.
2. G2C : Government to Citizens
President’s Rule or State Emergency 3. G2E : Government to Employees
(Article 356) 4. G2G : Government to Government
• The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Articles
DIGITAL INDIA
355, 356 and 365. Article 355 says it shall be the duty
of the union to protect every state against external It is a flagship e-Governance programme of Government
aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that of India with a vision to transform India into a digitally
empowered society and knowledge economy.
the government of every state is carried on in accordance
with the provisions of this Constitution. The focus is to bring transformation to realise
IT +IT IT
• Article 356 says that if the President, on receipt of a
report from the Governor of a State or otherwise, is (Indian Talent) (Information Technology) (India Tomorrow)
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the
Government of the State cannot be carried on in Mission Mode Projects (MMPs)
accordance with the provisions of this Constitution,
he/she may issue a proclamation. A Mission Mode Project (MMP) is an individual project
within the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) that
• Article 365 administration says that whenever a state focuses on one aspect of e-Governance, such as banking,
fails to comply with or give effect to any direction from land records or commercial taxes etc. Within NeGP,
the centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that Mission Mode Project implies that projects have clearly
a situation has arisen in which the government of the defined objectives, scopes and implementation timelines
state cannot be carried on in accordance with the and milestones, as well as measurable outcomes and service
provisions of the Constitution. levels. NeGP comprises 31 Mission Mode Projects
(MMPs), which are further classified as State, Central or
Financial Emergency (Article 360) Integrated Projects. Each State Government can also define
• Article 360 provides that if the President is satisfied that five MMPs specific to its individual needs.
a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability of
India or the credit of India or of any part of India is E-Panchayat
threatened, he/she may make a declaration to that effect.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India has
Under such situation, the executive and legislative powers
initiated e-Panchayat, a flagship project, computerisation of
will go to the center. This article has never been invoked
till date. Gram Panchayats on a mission mode basis. After a
detailed system study by NIC (National Informatics
• The proclamation of Financial Emergency shall
Centre), the department prioritised the applications to be
ordinarily remain in force for a period of 2 months. automated for Gram Panchayats. The application areas are
However, it can continue to stay beyond 2 months if
birth and death registrations, house tax assessment and
before the expiry of the 2 months period, the
demand collections and trade licences. The applications
proclamation has been approved by both the Houses of
the Parliament. were developed and implemented in 475 Gram Panchayats
identified by department. The software is web enabled and
• If, at the time of proclamation of Financial Emergency,
hosted on NIC central servers. The capacity building had
the Lok Sabha stands dissolved, the proclamation needs been taken up at various levels by conducting State and
to be approved by the Lok Sabha within 30 days of its
District level workshops and the e-Panchayat project was
meeting after its reconstitution, provided in the meantime
initiated by Commissioner PR&RE in 2005.
the Rajya Sabha has approved it.
976 CDS Pathfinder
E-Choupal Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. Such

e-court was established first time in Hyderabad High
It is an India-based business initiative by ITC (India
Court on 18th July, 2016.
Tobacco Company) Limited that provides internet access
to rural farmers. The purpose is to inform and empower Official Languages (Articles 343-351)
them and, as a result to improve the quality of agricultural
goods and the quality of life for farmers. ITC Limited is a Article 343 mentions that the official language of the
consumer product and agribusiness conglomerate in India Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. Article 348
known for their production of cigarettes, speciality paper, mentions that English will be language to be used in the
food products and packaging services. Supreme Court and in the high courts and for acts, bills,
etc. This part is related to the official languages,
Mobile Governance promotion of Hindi as well as mother tongues at least in
Mobile Government or m-Government, is the extension of primary education.
e-Government to mobile platforms and also the strategic
use of government services and applications which are only Amendment
possible using cellular/mobile telephones, laptop • An Amendment (Article 368) of the Constitution can be
computers, Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs) and wireless initiated only by the introduction of a bill for purpose
internet infrastructure. in either House of Parliament and not in the State
Legislatures.
E-Courts
• The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a
The e-Courts project was conceptualised on the basis of
private member and does not require prior permission of
the ‘National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation
the President.
of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in
the Indian Judiciary 2005’ submitted by e-Committee • Each house must pass the bill separately. No provision
(Supreme Court of India), with a vision to transform the of joint setting.
IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS

An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated in either House of the Parliament and there is no provision of joint
session here. President has to, under all conditions, provide his consent to such a bill. He cannot withhold his assent nor
can be return it.
• 1st Amendment, 1951 to overcome certain practical • 42nd Amendment, 1976 provided supremacy of
difficulties related to Fundamental Rights. Also added 9th Parliament and gave primacy to Directive Principles over
Schedule (Act and Regulation), Land Reform Act. Fundamental Rights. It also added 10 Fundamental Duties
• 7th Amendment, 1956 necessitated on account of to the Constitution. The Preamble of the Constitution was
reorganisation of states on linguistic basis and introduced also altered to ‘Sovereign’, ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and
changes in the 1st and 4th Schedule. ‘Democratic Republic’. It is also called Mini Constitution.
• 9th Amendment, 1960 gave effect to transfer certain • 44th Amendment, 1978 restored the normal duration of
territories to Pakistan following the 1958 Indo-Pak the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly to 5 years. The
agreement. Right to Property was deleted from Part III. Also
limited the power of the government to proclaim
• 10th Amendment, 1961 incorporated Dadra and Nagar
internal emergency. The national emergency shall not be
Haveli in India.
proclaimed except on the written recommendation of the
• 12th Amendment, 1962 incorporated Goa, Daman and Cabinet.
Diu in India. • 52nd Amendment, 1985 10th Schedule was added
• 13th Amendment, 1962 created Nagaland as a state. through this (Anti-Defection Law).
• 14th Amendment, 1963 incorporated Pudicherry in • 61st Amendment, 1989 reduced the voting age from 21
India from France. to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as Assemblies.
• 18th Amendment, 1966 reorganised Punjab into Punjab, • 62nd Amendment, 1989 extended reservation of seats
Haryana and UT of Chandigarh. for SC/ST till AD 2000.
• 27th Amendment, 1971 established Manipur and Tripura • 69th Amendment, 1991 accorded a special status to the
as states and Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh as UT. Union Territory of Delhi as a National capital territory
• 31st Amendment, 1973 increased the elective strength of of Delhi.
Lok Sabha from 525 to 545. The upper limit of • 70th Amendment proposed to grant statehood to Delhi.
representatives of state went up from 500 to 525.
• 73rd Amendment, 1992 (Panchayati Raj) to provide • 95th Amendment, 2010 To extend the reservation of
among other things Gram Sabha in villages, Constitution seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and States
of Panchayats at the village and other levels, direct Assemblies from 60 to 70 years.
elections to all seats in Panchayats and reservation of • 96th Amendment, 2011 Substituted ‘Odia’ for ‘Oriya’.
seats for the SC and ST and fixing of tenure of 5 years
• 97th Amendment, 2012 To give right to form
for Panchayats.
co-operative societies and give a framework for their
• 74th Amendment, 1992 (Nagar Palika) To provide for, working.
among other things, Constitution of three types of
• 98th Amendment, 2013 To empower the Governor of
municipalities, reservation of seats in every municipality
Karnataka to take steps to develop the Hyderabad-
for the SC and ST, women and the backward classes.
Karnataka region.
• 76th Amendment Act, 1994 It provides reservation in
• 99th Amendment, 2014 National Judicial Appointments
educational institutions and posts in state services.
Commission was established. But on 16th October, 2015
• 84th Amendment, 2001 Creation of the new states of Supreme Court struck down the NIAC as
Chhattisgarh, Uttaranchal and Jharkhand. unconstitutional.
• 86th Amendment, 2002 Article 21 (A), which makes • 100th Amendment, 2015 To the acquiring of territories
primary education a Fundamental Right to children by India and transfer of territories to Bangladesh in
between age of 6-14 years was added. pursuance of the agreements and its protocol between
– Article 45 of Directive Principle. India and Bangladesh.
– 11th Fundamental Duties were added through this. • 101st Amendment, 2016 It is related to goods and
• 91st Amendment, 2003 The provision of 10th Schedule services tax.
(Anti-Defection Law) pertaining to exemption from • 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 Provides the
disqualification in case of split of 1/3rd member of the constitutional status to National Commission for
legislature party has been deleted. It means that defectors Backward classes.
have no more protection on grounds of splits.
• 103rd Amendment Act, 2019 Provides 10% reservation
• 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 Four languages were added to the Economically Backward Classes of society.
in 8th Schedule—Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali. • 104th Amendment Act, 2020 Extends the reservation of
• 93rd Amendment Added clause (5) to Article 15 making seats for SC/ST in Lok Sabha for 10 years (2021 to 2030)
special provisions for advancement of any socially and and State Assembly removed reserved seats for
educationally backward classes. Anglo-Indian and community.
• 94th Amendment, 2006 To provide for a Minister of • 105th Amendment Act, 2021 To restore the power of
Tribal Welfare in newly created Jharkhand and the State Government and Union Territories to identify
Chhattisgarh states and deletion of Bihar’s name. and specify socially and Economically Backward Classes
(SEBCs).
978 CDS Pathfinder
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which of the following provisions 4. Consider the following Select the correct answer using the
were made in the Charter Act of statement(s) codes given below.
1833? 1. Ministry of Parliamentary (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
1. The commercial functions of Affairs constitute Consultative (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
the East India Company came Committees of Members of 8. Match the following
to an end and now it had only both the Houses of Parliament.
political functions. 2. The main purpose of these List I List II
2. Government services in India Committees are to provide a A. Establishment of Board 1. Regulating
were thrown open to all forum for formal discussions of Control Act, 1773
Indians. between the Government and B. Establishment of 2. Pitt’s India
3. The designation of the Members of Parliament on Supreme Court Act, 1784
Governor-General of Bengal polices and programmes of the C. Christian missionaries 3. Charter Act,
was changed as the Governor- Government. were allowed to 1813
General of British India. spread their religion
Which of the statement(s) given in India
4. An Indian was to be appointed above is/are correct? D. Governor General of 4. Charter Act,
as a Law Member in the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Bengal as Governor 1833
Governor-General’s council. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 General of India
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
5. Which of the following pairs is Codes
incorrectly matched? A B C D A B C D
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (a) 9th December, : Constituent (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
1947 Assembly’s first
2. Which of the following pairs are 9. Consider the following statements
meeting
not correctly matched? about the Government of India Act,
(b) 26th November, : The people of India
1. Government of India : Dyarchy 1949 adopted, enacted 1935 provide for
Act, 1919 and gave to 1. the provincial autonomy.
2. Government of India : Provincial themselves the 2. the establishment of federal court.
Act, 1335 autonomy Constitution 3. all India Federation at the
3. Minto-Morley Reforms : Separate (c) 24th January, : The Constitution Centre.
electorate 1950 was finally
4. Mountbatten Plan : Constituent signed by the
Which of the statements given above
Assembly members of the are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
5. Cabinet Mission Plan, : Partition of Constituent
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
1946 India Assembly
Codes (d) 26th January, : The date of 10. Consider the following statement(s)
1950 commencement the 1. The Charter Act, 1853 abolished
(a) 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 5 (d) 2 and 3 Constitution East India company’s monopoly of
Indian trade.
3. Which of the following are among 6. Match the following
2. Under the Government of India
the provisions of the Act of 1858? List I List II Act, 1858, the British Parliament
1. The administration of India A. Bill of Rights and 1. England abolished the East India Company
and the Indian Territories was Judicial Review altogether and undertook the
transferred to the Crown. B. Parliamentary system 2. Ireland responsibility of ruling India
2. The East India Company was of Democracy directly.
abolished. C. Directive Principles 3. USA Which of the statement(s) given
3. The Governor-General of India D. Residuary powers 4. Canada above is/are correct?
was to be known as the with the centre (a) Only 1
Viceroy of India and a Codes (b) Only 2
Secretary of State for India (c) Both 1 and 2
was also appointed. A B C D A B C D
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 3 4
4. The administrative power of
India was to be shared (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 4 11. Which one of the following Schedules
between the East India 7. Who among the following were of the Constitution of India includes
Company and the Crown of the members of the Drafting the disqualification of a Legislator on
England. Committee of the Constitution? grounds of defection?
Select the correct answer using 1. KM Munshi (a) 8th Schedule
the codes given below. 2. Jawaharlal Nehru (b) 7th Schedule
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 3. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar (c) 5th Schedule
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these 4. Sardar Patel (d) 10th Schedule
12. Which one of the following 17. Who among the following have the 22. What are the Gandhian principles
statements regarding the office of the Vice-President of incorporated in the Indian
Speaker is correct? India? Constitution?
(a) He holds office during the 1. Mohammed Hidayatullah 1. Efforts to be made for the
pleasure of the President development for weaker or
2. Fakh-ru-ddin Ali Ahmed
(b) He need not be a Member of the backward sections of the society.
House at the time of his election, 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma 2. Prohibition on the use of
but has to become a Member of
intoxicating liquor except for
the House within six months from Select the correct answer using the
the date of his election
medicinal purposes.
codes given below. 3. Organisation of Village
(c) He loses his office, if the House (a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
is dissolved before the end of its Panchayats.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these 4. Establishment of cottage and
normal tenure
(d) If, he intends to resign the letter 18. Which of the following taxes is/are small-scale industries in rural
of his resignation is to be levied by the Union and collected areas.
addressed to the President and appropriated by states? Select the correct answer using the
13. The Indian Parliamentary (a) Stamp Duties codes given below.
system is different from the (b) Passenger and Goods Tax (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Estate Duty (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
British Parliamentary system, in
that India has (d) Taxes on Newspapers 23. Which of the following are a
(a) both real and nominal executive 19. Which of the following can be Directive Principle of State Policy?
(b) a system of collective termed ‘Gandhian’ among the 1. Equal pay for equal work for men
responsibility Directive Principles? and women.
(c) bicameral legislation 1. Prevention of cow slaughter. 2. Equal right to an adequate means
(d) the system of judicial review 2. Promotion of cottage industries. of livelihood.
14. Which of the following is a basic 3. Establishment of Village 3. Abolition of untouchability.
Panchayats. 4. Just and human condition of
feature of the Presidential
4. Uniform civil code for the work.
Government?
(a) Rigid Constitution country. Select the correct answer using the
(b) Single Executive Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(c) Supremacy of the Legislature codes given below. (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) Residual powers of the State (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 24. Consider the following statement(s)
15. Which of the following is the
common features of a Federal 20. Among the ‘Socialistic’ Directive 1. The Union Executive consists of
Constitution? Principles may be listed the President and the Council of
1. prevention of concentration of Ministers with the Prime Minister
1. A written and rigid
wealth. as the head.
Constitution.
2. right to work. 2. The President may, by writing
2. Division of power between the
3. separation of judiciary from under his hand addressed to the
centre.
executive. Vice-President, resign his office.
3. Separation of powers between
4. organising agriculture along 3. Executive power of the Union is
the Legislature and Executive.
scientific lines. vested in the Prime Minister.
4. Bicameral National Legislature.
Select the corect answer using the Which of the statement(s) given
Select the correct answer using above is/are correct?
the codes given below. codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
16. Match the following 21. What is meant by saying that the 25. Which of the following determines
Directive Principle of State Policy that the Indian Constitution is
List I List II federal?
(Features of the Indian (Borrowed
are non-justiciable?
1. In case they are violated, the (a) A written and rigid Constitution
Constitution) from)
matter cannot be taken to the (b) An Independent Judiciary
A. Fundamental Rights 1. UK court. (c) Vesting of residuary power with the
B. Parliamentary System 2. USA 2. Courts are debarred from centre
of Government (d) Distribution of powers between centre
consideration of Directive
C. Emergency provisions 3. Ireland and states
Principles.
D. Directive Principle of State 4. Germany
Policy 3. The law of the land does not 26. Which of the followig pairs is
recognise the existence. correctly matched?
Codes 4. They are sacrosanct. (a) Amendment Procedure : Article 268
A B C D A B C D Select the correct answer using the (b) Duties of Prime Minister : Article 74
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 1 3 4 codes given below. (c) President’s Rule : Article 365
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 2 4 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(d) Inter-State Council : Article 263
980 CDS Pathfinder
27. Which of the following authorities 3. Right to Information is 2. Withdrawal of moneys from
recommends the principles available only for citizen to Consolidated Fund of India only
governing the grant in aid of the citizens of India. after passing the Appropriation
revenues to states out of Select the correct answer using Bill.
consolidated fund of India? the codes given below. 3. Provisions of supplementary
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
grants and vote-on-account.
(a) Finance Commission
4. A periodic or atleast a mid-year
(b) Planning Commission
review of programme of the
(c) Union Ministry of Finance Government against
32. Which of the following provisions
(d) Inter-State Council macro-economic forecast and
of the Constitution of India have
28. The Parliament can legislate on expenditure by a Parliamentary
a bearing on Education? Budget Office.
any subject in the State List. 1. Directive Principles of State 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the
1. If, the Rajya Sabha declares Policy. Parliament.
by a 2/3rd majority resolution 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies. Select the correct answer using the
that it is expedient to do so in 3. 5th Schedule. codes given below.
national interest.
4. 6th Schedule. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 4
2. For the implementation of (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) All of these
5. 7th Schedule.
international treaties.
3. If, two or more states make a Select the correct answer using 36. Consider the following statements
request to Parliament to do so. the codes given below. 1. While members of the Rajya
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3, 4 and 5 Sabha are associated with
4. When Article 356 is imposed
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) All of these Committees on Public Accounts
in the state.
33. Under which one of the following and Public Undertakings,
Which of the statements given members of Committee on
above are correct? Constitution Amendment Acts,
Estimates are drawn entirely from
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 four languages were added to the Lok Sabha.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these languages under the Eighth 2. The Ministry of Parliamentary
Schedule of the Constitution of Affairs works under the overall
29. Which of the following
India, thereby raising their direction of Cabinet Committee on
statement(s) is/are stated in the
number to 22? Parliamentary Affairs.
Constitution of India?
(a) Constitution (90th Amendment) Act 3. The Minister of Parliamentary
1. The President shall not be a
(b) Constitution (91st Amendment) Act Affairs nominates Members of
member of either Houses of Parliament on Committees,
(c) Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act
Parliament. Councils, Boards and Commissions
(d) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act
2. The Parliament shall consist of etc set up by the Government of
the President and two houses. 34. Consider the following statements India in the various ministries.
Select the correct answer using 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has Which of the statements given above
the codes given below. the power to adjourn the are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 House sine die but, on (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 prorogation, it is only the (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
President, who can summon
30. Which of the following the house. 37. Which of the following special powers
statement(s) is/are correct? 2. Unless sooner dissolved or have been conferred on the Rajya
1. The Directive Principle are there is an extension of the Sabha by the Constitution of India?
meant to establish Political term, there is an automatic (a) To change the existing territory of a
Democracy. dissolution of the Lok Sabha state and to change the name of a
by efflux of time, at the end of state
2. The Directive Principle are the period of 5 years, even if
meant to establish Social no formal order of dissolution (b) To pass a resolution empowering the
Democracy. is issued by the President. Parliament to make laws in the State
3. The Directive Principle is List and to create one or more all
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
India Services
meant to establish Economic continues in office even after
the dissolution of the house (c) To amend the election procedure of
Democracy. the President and to determine the
and until ‘immediately before
Select the correct answer using the first meeting of the house’. pension of the President after his/her
the codes given below. retirement
Which of the statements given (d) To determine the functions of the
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these above are correct? Election Commission and to determine
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 the number of Election Commissioners
31. Which of the following (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
statement(s) is/are correct? 38. Consider the following statement(s)
35. Which of the following are the 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy methods of Parliamentary control power to declare that it would be
legal supremacy over Directive over public finance in India? in national interest for the
Principles. Parliament to legislate with
1. Placing Annual Financial
2. Right to Education is available Statement before the respect to a matter in the State
to foreigners in India. Parliament. List.
2. Resolutions approving the 42. Who among the following can be Which of the statement(s) given
Proclamation of Emergency are the Chairperson of the National above is/are correct?
passed only by the Lok Sabha. Human Rights Commission? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Which of the statement(s) given (a) A Member of either House of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
above is/are correct? Parliament
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 47. Which of the following statement(s)
(b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Court of India regarding Money Bill are incorrect,
(c) A social worker actively involved in except?
39. Consider the following (a) A Money Bill can only be introduced in
the promotion of human rights
statements Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has no
(d) Any sitting Judge of High Court or
1. The joint sitting of the two Supreme Court power to make a change in it against
Houses of the Parliament in the will of Lok Sabha.
India is sanctioned under 43. The objective of including (b) A Money Bill may be introduced in
Article 108 of the Directive Principles of State Rajya Sabha but it must be approved
Constitution. Policy says that the state shall by both the houses.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok seek to ensure (c) A Money Bill can only be introduced in
Sabha and Rajya Sabha was (a) to establish a welfare state Lok Sabha, but it must also be
held in the year 1961. (b) to provide best opportunities for approved by Rajya Sabha.
3. The second joint sitting of the development (d) A Money Bill can be introduced in
two Houses of Indian either house but the decision of Lok
(c) to establise a democratic state
Parliament was held to pass Sabha thereon shall prevail.
(d) to check the arbitrary action of the
the Banking Service 48. Match the following
Government
Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of the statements given 44. Which of the following List I
above are correct? statement(s) are incorrect? (Articles of the List II
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Constitution (Provisions)
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Money Bill. of India)
2. Rajya Sabha can make A. Article 14 1. The state shall not
40. Which of the following statement recommendations on a Money discriminate against any
is correct? Bill. citizen on grounds only of
(a) The Parliamentary form of religion, race, caste, sex,
3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject place of birth or any of them
government emphasises on the Money Bill.
interdependence between the B. Article 15 2. The state shall not deny to
4. Rajya Sabha should return the any person equality before
legislative and executive organs
Money Bill to the Lok Sabha the law or the equal
(b) Only a member of the Rajya within 14 days. protection of laws within the
Sabha can contest for the office territory of India
5. Rajya Sabha cannot amend a
of the Vice-President
Money Bill. C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished
(c) While a candidate to the Lok and its practice in any form
Sabha can contest from any State Select the correct answer using is forbidden
in India, a candidate to the Rajya the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 5 D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of
Sabha should ordinary be a opportunity for all citizens in
resident of the state from where (c) 1 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 matters relating to
he is contesting 45. Which of the following employment or appointment
(d) The Constitution explicity prohibits to any office under the state
Constitutional Amendments
the appointment of a nominated Codes
states that the total number of
member of the Rajya Sabha to the A B C D A B C D
post of minister Ministers, including the Prime
Minister in the Council of (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
41. Consider the following Minister shall not exceed 15% of (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
statement(s) the total number of members of 49. Consider the following statement(s)
1. Union Territories are not the house of the people? 1. The maximum number of the
represented in the Rajya (a) 90th (b) 91st Judges of the Supreme Court of
Sabha. (c) 92nd (d) 93rd India is prescribed in the
2. It is within the purview of the Constitution of India.
Chief Election Commissioner 46. Consider the following
statement(s) 2. The maximum number of the
to adjudicate the election members of the Union Public
disputes. 1. The Chairman of the
Service Commission is prescribed
3. According to the Constitution Committee on Public Accounts
in the Constitution of India.
of India, the Parliament is appointed by the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha. Which of the statement(s) given
consists of the Lok Sabha and
2. The Committee on Public above is/are correct?
the Rajya Sabha only. (a) Only 1
Accounts comprises members of
Which of the statement(s) given (b) Only 2
Lok Sabha, members of Rajya
above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
Sabha and a few eminent
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
persons of industry and trade.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these
982 CDS Pathfinder
50. Consider the following statements Which of the statement(s) given 57. Consider the following statement(s)
1. Superintendence, direction and above is/are correct? 1. A person, who has held office as
conduct of free and fair (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 a permanent Judge of a High
elections. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Court cannot plead or act in any
2. Preparation of electoral rolls court or before any authority in
54. Which of the following statements India except the Supreme Court.
for all elections to the regarding Fundamental Duties
Parliament, State Legislature 2. A person is not qualified for
are correct? appointment as a Judge of a High
and the Office of the President 1. To preserve the rich heritage
and the Vice-President. Court in India unless he has for
of the nation’s composite at least 5 years held a judicial
3. Giving recognition to political culture. office in the territory of India.
parties and allotting election 2. To cherish and follow the
symbols to political parties and noble ideals of the freedom Which of the statement(s) given
individuals contesting the struggle. above is/are correct?
3. To renounce practice (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
election.
derogatory to the dignity of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Proclamation of final verdict in
the case of election disputes. women. 58. Who among the following determines
4. 11th Fundamental Duty was the authority who shall readjust the
Which of the above are the
added by 68th Constitutional allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha
functions of the Election Amendment 2000.
Commission of India? to the states and division of each
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using State into territorial constituencies?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 the codes given below. (a) The President of India
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (b) The Parliament of India
51. Financial distribution between (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner of
the Union and the State takes India
55. Consider the following statements
place on the basis of the (d) The Lok Sabha alone
1. The highest criminal court of
recommendations of which one of the district is the Court of
the following? 59. Consider the following statements
District and Sessions Judge.
(a) The National Development Council 1. Fundamental Duties added to
2. The District Judges are
(b) The Inter-State Council Constitution on the
appointed by the Governor in
(c) The Planning Commission recommendation of Swarn Singh.
consultation with the High
(d) The Finance Commission Court. 2. Fundamental Duties were added
3. A person to be eligible for by 44th Amendment Act, 1976.
52. Consider the following 3. Fundamental Rights meant to
appointment as a District
statement(s) Judge should be an advocate establish Political Democracy.
1. Part IX of the Constitution of or a pleader of 7 years 4. Fundamental Rights based on
India contains provisions for standing or more or an officer Nehru Report, 1928.
Panchayats and was inserted in Judicial Service of the Which of the statements given above
by the Constitution (73rd Union or the State.
are correct?
Amendment Act, 1992). 4. When the Sessions Judge (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
2. Part IX-A of the Constitution Awards death sentence, it (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
of India contains provisions for must be confirmed by the
municipalities and the Article High Court before it is carried 60. Match the following
243 envisages two types of out.
List I List II
municipalities–a Municipal Which of the statements given (Schedules) (Deals with)
Council and a Municipal above are correct?
A. 9th Schedule 1. Anti-Defection Act
Corporation for every state. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
B. 11th Schedule 2. Languages
Which of the statement(s) given C. 8th Schedule 3. Panchayats
above is/are correct? 56. Which of the following D. 10th Schedule 4. Acts and
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 statement(s) is not correct? Regulation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence Codes
53. Consider the following motion has to set out the grounds A B C D A B C D
statement(s) on which it is based (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has (b) In the case of a no-confidence (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
motion in Lok Sabha, no
the power to declare that it 61. Which of the following is/are Human
conditions of admissibility have
would be in national interest Right(s) under “Universal
been laid down in the rules
for the Parliament to legislate
(c) A motion of no-confidence once Declaration of Human Rights”?
with respect to a matter in
admitted has to be taken up within 1. Right to education.
the State List. ten days of the leave being 2. Right to equal access to public
2. Resolutions approving the granted service.
Proclamation of Emergency are (d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to
passed only by the Lok Sabha. 3. Right to food.
entertain a motion of no-confidence
Select the correct answer using 2. The President of India 69. In which of the following situations
the codes given below. automatically nominates a does the President promulgate an
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 representative of the ordinance?
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these community to Lok Sabha. (a) There is disagreement between the
3. It can derive benefits from the two Houses of Parliament over a bill
62. Consider the following Prime Minister’s 15-Point
(b) Both houses have refused to pass a
statement(s) Programme.
bill sponsored by the Government with
1. Article 301 pertains to the Select the correct answer using the previous sanction of President
Right to Property. the codes given below. (c) A bill has been pending in Parliament
2. Right to Property is a legal (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
for a long-period
right, but not a Fundamental (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Right. (d) Parliament is not in session
3. Article 300 A was inserted in 66. Match the following
70. What does the 104th Constitution
the Constitution of India by List II Amendment Bill relate to?
the Congress Government at List I
(Amendment Acts) (Amended (a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in
the Centre by the 44th Subjects) certain states
Constitutional Amendment.
A. 86th Amendment 1. Elementary (b) Introduction of dual citizenship for
Which of the statement(s) given Act, 2002 education a persons of India origin living outside
above is/are correct? Fundamental Right India
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 B. 73rd Amendment 2. Panchayati Raj
Act, 1992
(c) Providing quota to socially and
educationally backward classes in
C. 74th Amendment 3. Municipalities
63. Which of the following statements Act, 1992 private educational institutions
in regard to the Directive D. 61st Amendment 4. Minimum age limit (d) Providing quota for religious minorities
Principles of State Policy is Act, 1988 for voting in the services under the Central
correct? Codes Government
(a) Fundamental Right constitute 71. Which of the following sets of bill is
A B C D A B C D
limitation upon state action while
Directive Principles are in the nature (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 presented to the Parliament along
of instruction to the Government to (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 4 2 with the Union Budget?
achieve certain ends (a) Direct Taxes Bill and Indirect Taxes Bill
67. What does the 93rd Constitutional
(b) They are justiciable in certain (b) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
Amendment deal with?
respects (c) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill
(a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili
(c) They enjoin on the state to secure and Santhali languages in the 8th (d) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
a living wage to all workers within Schedule 72. Which of the following is correct
a specified period (b) Inclusion of service tax levied by about the Fundamental Duties?
(d) The court can compel the state to Union and collected and
implement some of the important 1. They are not enforceable.
appropriated by the Union and the
directions 2. They are primarily moral duties.
states in the 7th Schedule
(c) Free and compulsory education for 3. They are not related to legal
64. Match the following rights.
all children between the age of 6
List I List II and 14 years Select the correct answer using the
(Committees) (Recommendations) (d) No reservation in Panchayats need codes given below.
A. Balwantrai Mehta 1. 2-Tier Panchayati to be made in favour of Scheduled (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Committee Raj System Castes in Arunachal Pradesh (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
B. LM Singhavi 2. 3-Tier Panchayati
Committee Raj System 68. Consider the following statements 73. Match the following
C. Ashok Mehta 3. Constitutional 1. Free and compulsory education List I
Committee status for to the children of 6-14 years (Schedules in List II
Panchayat age group by the state was the Constitution (Subjects)
D. GVK Rao 4. Rural made a Fundamental Right by of India)
Committee Development the 76th Amendment to the
Constitution of India. A. 10th Schedule 1. Languages
Codes
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks B. 8th Schedule 2. Provisions as to
A B C D A B C D to provide computer education disqualification on the
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 2 1 even in rural areas. grounds of defection
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 3. Education was included in the C. 1st Schedule 3. Validation of certain Acts
Concurrent List by the 42nd and Regulations
65. In India, if a religious
Amendment, 1976 to the D. 9th Schedule 4. The States
sect/community is given the
status of a national minority, Constitution of India. Codes
what special advantages it is Which of the statements given A B C D A B C D
entitled to? above are correct? (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
1. It can establish and administer (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1
exclusive educational (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
institutions.
984 CDS Pathfinder
74. Which of the following are the 79. Match the following 84. Which of the following rights was
differences between the List I List II described by Dr BR Ambedkar as
Fundamental Rights and the “The heart and soul of the
A. Taxes on incomes 1. State List
Directive Principles? other than agricultural Constitution”?
1. Fundamental Rights are income (a) Right to Freedom of Religion
negative instructions, while the B. Estate duty in respect 2. Residuary (b) Right of Property
Directive Principles are of agricultural land power (c) Right to Equality
positive instruction to the C. Inter-planetary outer 3. Concurrent (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
government. space travel List
D. Acquisition and 4. Union List
85. Which of the following Directive
2. Fundamental Rights are Principles of State Policy come into
requisitioning property
justiciable while the Directive category of ‘liberal principles’?
Principles of State Policy are Codes
non-justiciable. 1. The state shall endeavour to
A B C D A B C D
secure a Uniform Civil Code
3. Fundamental Rights enjoy (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
throughout the territory of India.
constitutional basis while the (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
2. The state shall protect every
Directive Principles are based
80. Assertion (A) An award made monument or place or object of
on conventions.
by a Lok Adalat is deemed be a artistic or historic interest.
4. In case of a conflict between
decree of a Civil Court. 3. The state shall endeavour to
the Fundamental Rights and secure to all workers a living
most Directive Principles, the Reason (R) Award of Lok
wage and conditions of work
former get precedence. Adalat is final and binding on all
ensuring a decent standard of life.
Select the correct answer using parties and no appeal lies against 4. The state shall take steps to
the codes given below. thereto before any court. separate the judiciary from the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Codes executive.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these (a) Both A and R are true and R is the Select the correct answer using the
correct explanation of A
75. Who among the following was the codes given below.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
first Law Minister of India? not the correct explanation of A
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) A is true, but R is false
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) A is false, but R is true 86. Which of the following are listed
(c) Dr BR Ambedkar among the Directive Principles in
(d) T Krishnamachari 81. Who is the Chairman of second Part IV?
Administrative Reforms
76. The financial powers of the 1. Equal pay for equal work.
Commission?
President of India are that (a) Bimal Jalan 2. Uniform civil codes.
(a) he is responsible for the (b) Dr Karan Singh 3. Small family norm.
preparation for the Union Budget 4. Education through mother tongue
(c) M Veerappa Moily
and causes it to be laid before the
(d) Ahmed Patel at primary level.
Parliament
(b) He appoints the chairman and 82. Which of the following writs will Select the correct answer using the
members of the Finance be issued by the court in case of codes given below.
Commission (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
illegal detention?
(c) No Money Bill can be introduced (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(a) Habbeas Corpus
without his prior approval
(b) Mandamus 87. The Indian Parliament can invade a
(d) All of the above
(c) Prohibition State List, if
77. President holds office for a term (d) Quo-Warranto 1. a subject in the State List
of 5 years assumes a national importance.
83. Match the following
(a) from the date of his election 2. a proclamation of emergency has
(b) from the date of his entering the List I List II been issued by the President of
office A. Railway is a 1. Union List India.
(c) from a date specified in the subject list of
3. the Supreme Court authorises the
Constitution B. Residuary powers 2. Union Parliament to do so.
(d) from a date notified by the election are vested with the Government
commission C. High Courts in 3. Bombay, Select the correct answer using codes
India were started at Calcutta and given below.
78. In which of the following Madras (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
committee, are members from D. Enforcement of 4. Writs (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
both the Houses of Parliament Fundamental Rights
represented? Supreme Court issues 88. The Bombay High Court does not
(a) The Estimation Committee Codes have a bench at which one of the
(b) The Public Account Committee A B C D A B C D following places?
(c) The Committee on Government (a) Nagpur (b) Panaji
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
Assurance (c) Pune (d) Aurangabad
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 4 2
(d) The Business Advisory Committee
89. Consider the following statements 94. Consider the following statement(s) 99. Which of the following provision(s)
1. Indian Constitution establishes on Parliamentary Committees of Constitution are non-justiciable,
a secular state. 1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are that is not enforceable by the
2. The state treats all religions not associated with the courts?
equally. Freedom of faith and Committees on Public Accounts 1. Directive Principle of State
worship is allowed to all the and Public Undertakings.
people. Policy.
2. Members of the Committee on 2. The Preamble of Constitution
3. Educational institutions, Estimates are drawn from both
without exception, are free to 3. The Provision relating to
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
impart religious instruction. Sabha. citizenship.
4. The state make no 4. The Provision of 9th Schedule.
discrimination on the basis of Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
the religion in matters of
employment. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 codes given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1
Which of the statements given (b) 1, 2 and 3
above are correct? 95. Which of the following statement(s) (c) 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 is/are correct? (d) 1 and 2
Article 26 of the Constitution of 100. The functions of Estimates
90. The term ‘Social Justice’ has India states that subject to public Committee include
enabled the Supreme Court of order, morality and health, every
1. To suggest alternatively policies
India to uphold legislation religious denomination or any
in order to bring out efficiency
(a) to remove economic inequalities section there of shall have the right and economy in administration.
(b) to provide a decent standard of 1. to establish and maintain
living to the working people 2. To see that the expenditure
institutions for religious and
(c) to protect the interests of weaker confirms to the authority which
charitable purposes.
section of society governs it.
2. to manage its own affairs in
(d) All of the above matters of religion. 3. To examine whether the money
is well laid out within the
91. The Panchayati Raj is based on 3. to own and acquire movable and
limits of the policy implied in
the Principle of immovable property.
the estimates.
(a) Decentralisation Select the correct answer using the
(b) Deconcentration
4. To suggested the form, in
codes given below. which estimates shall be
(c) Democratic Centralism (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(d) Democratic Decentralisation
presented to the Parliament.
Which of the statements given
92. Which of the following emerges 96. By which among the following above are correct?
clearly from Preamble ? amendments of the Constitution, (a) 1 and 2
1. When the Constitution was the territories of Goa, Daman and (b) 1, 3 and 4
enacted. Diu were incorporated in the (c) 1, 2 and 4
2. The ideas that were to be Indian Constitution? (d) All of the above
achieved. (a) Constitution (10th) Amendment Act,
3. The system of government. 1961 101. Match the following
4. The source of authority. (b) Constitution (12th) Amendment Act, List II
Select the correct answer using 1962 List I
(Oaths and
(Functionaries)
the codes given below. (c) Constitution (14th) Amendment Act, Affirmations)
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 1962
A. President of 1. Secrecy of
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (d) None of the above India Information
93. The Balwant Rai Mehta 97. Which among the following political B. Judges of 2. Faithful discharge
Committee recommended which party of India has an election Supreme Court of duties
one of the following Panchayati symbol almost close to the election C. Member of 3. Faith and
Raj structures? symbol of Republican Party of Parliament of Allegiance
India to the
(a) Gram Panchayat at the village level USA? Constitution
and Panchayat Samiti at the block (a) Samajwadi party
level only (b) Bahujan Samaj party D. Ministers of the 4. Upholding the
Union Union Constitution
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level (c) Janta Dal (United) and the Law
and Zilla Parishad at the district (d) Teluhudesam party
level only Codes
(c) Gram Panchayat at the village 98. Once a budget has been presented A B C D
level, Panchayat Samiti at the in the Parliament, the government (a) 3 4 1 2
block level and Zilla Parishad at has to get all money bills related to
(b) 4 3 2 1
the district level the union budget passed within_?
(d) Gram Panchayat at the village level (a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 3 4 2 1
and Zilla Parishad at the district (c) 75 days (d) 90 days (d) 4 3 1 2
level only
986 CDS Pathfinder
102. Match the following Those associated in with the 110. Match the following
List I List II planning process in India List I List II
(Articles) (Deals with) include (Writs) (Meanings)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
A. Article 49 1. To preserve historical A. Mandamus 1. ‘By what warrant or
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
monuments authority’
B. Article 47 2. Prohibit the slaughter 106. Consider the following B. Habeas Corpus 2. ‘We command’
of cow, calves and statements C. Qua Warranto 3. ‘To be certified’
other milk and
drought animals The fundamental object of D. Certiorari 4. ‘You may have the
C. Article 48 3. Prohibition of Panchayati Raj System is to body’
intoxication ensure Codes
D. Article 40 4. Organisation of 1. people’s participation in A B C D A B C D
Village Panchayats development (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
Codes 2. democratic decentralisation (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
A B C D A B C D 3. financial mobilisation
4. political accountability 111. Match the following
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 Select the correct answer using List I List II
the codes given below. A. The Council of Ministers 1. Article 74
103. Match the following (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 shall be collectively
List I List II (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 responsible to the House
(Parts) (Deals with) of People.
A. Part-III 1. The Panchayat statements with regard to the B. Duties of the Prime 2. Article 77
Minister towards the
B. Part-IV A 2. Fundamental Rights CAG are correct?
President.
C. Part-IX 3. Directive Principle 1. He is responsible only to the C. Council of Ministers 3. Article 76
D. Part-XI 4. Fundamental Duties Parliament.
to aid and advise the
E. Part-IV 5. Union and States 2. He certifies the net proceeds President.
Relationship of any tax.
D. All executive action 4. Article 75
Codes 3. He complies and maintains of the Government of
A B C D E
the accounts of State India shall be taken in the
Government. name of the President.
(a) 1 2 3 4 5
4. He has control over the issue 5. Article 78
(b) 2 4 1 5 3 of money from the
(c) 5 4 3 2 1 Consolidated Fund of India. Codes
(d) 4 3 5 1 2 Select the correct answer using A B C D A B C D
104. Which of the following the codes given below. (a) 4 5 1 3 (b) 3 2 4 1
statements are correct? (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 4 5 1 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
1. The Constitution does not fix 112. Consider the following statement(s)
the number of members of the 108. The Governor of a State
UPSC. 1. Article 46 of the Constitution of
1. possesses Executive India provides for free legal aid
2. One-half of the members of Legislative and judicial
the UPSC should be persons, to Scheduled Castes and
powers analogous to the Scheduled Tribes.
who have held office under President.
the Government of India or of 2. Article 14 of the Constitution of
a state atleast for 5 years. 2. has to act with the aid and
advice of the Council of India provides for equality before
3. The Chairman and members law.
Ministers always.
of the UPSC hold office for a Which of the statement(s) given
term of 5 years or until they 3. has the power to appoint and
attain the age of 60 years. remove the members of State above is/are correct?
Public Service Commission. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
4. The salaries and allowances of
4. has the power to allocate (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the members of the UPSC are
determined by the Parliament. business of the government
among the various ministers.
113. In the context of Panchayati Raj,
5. The entire expanses of UPSC which one of the following is true
are charged on the Which of the statements given
above are correct? about Gram Sabha?
Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) This is the top most tier of the
Select the correct answer using Panchayati Raj
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
the codes given below. (b) It consists of all the voters
(a) 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 5 109. Who among the following was residing in the jurisdiction of a Village
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 4 and 5 the Finance Minister of India in Panchayat
105. Consider the following the Interim Government during (c) It is the executive body consisting of
1946-1947? selected representatives from Village
1. Planning Commission (a) RK Shanmukham Chetty Panchayat
2. National Development Council (b) John Mathai (d) It consists of all adult males of the
3. Indian Parliament (c) Liaquat Ali Khan Village Panchayat
4. Finance Commission (d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
114. With reference to the passage of 2. Extent of the executive power (c) This right has been taken from the
Money Bill in Indian of the Union and the states. British Constitution which was the first
Parliament, which one of the 3. Powers of the Supreme Court Welfare State in the world
following statements is correct? and High Courts. (d) This right has been given to all
4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Indian children between the ages of
(a) The decision of the Union
Schedule. 6 to 14 years under the 86th
Finance Minister is final on the
question whether a bill is Money Constitutional Amendment Act
Bill or not the codes given below. 122. Which of the following statement(s)
(b) A Money Bill can be introduced (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 regarding writ of certiorari is/are
only in the Lok Sabha
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these correct?
(c) After a Money Bill is passed by
Lok Sabha and transmitted to 118. Consider the following 1. There should be court, tribunal
Rajya Sabha, it should be statement(s) or an officer having legal
returned within one month authority to determine the
1. The Ministries Departments of
(d) When Rajya Sabha returns the questions of deciding
the Union Government are
Money Bill with its Fundamental Rights with a duty
created by the Prime Minister.
recommendations, the Lok Sabha to act judicially.
has to accept such 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the
2. Writ of certiorari is available
recommendations Ex-officio Chairman of the
during the tendency of
Civil Services Board.
115. Which of the following are true proceedings before a subordinate
Which of the statement(s) given court.
of the President’s ordering
above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
making power?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 codes given below.
1. It is laid down in Article 123. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. Its ambit is co-extensive with (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the legislative power of 119. With respect to Article 371 A of
Parliament. the Constitution of India, the 123. The Veerapa Moily Commission in
3. He can promulgate an Governor of which one of the its report on Administrative
ordinance only when the Lok following states has special Reforms among other aspects has
Sabha is not in session. responsibility with respect to suggested doing away with which
4. It is a discretionary power of law and order of the State? one of the following pairs of Articles
the President. (a) Assam of the Constitution of India?
Select the correct answer using (b) Manipur (a) Articles 305 and 306
the codes given below. (c) Nagaland (b) Articles 307 and 308
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Andhra Pradesh (c) Articles 308 and 309
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these (d) Articles 310 and 311
120. Consider the following
116. Which of the following are the statement(s) 124. Which of the following feature(s)
objectives of the National 1. The Chairman and the is/are contrary to the norms of a
Development Council? members of the UPSC are federal polity?
1. To promote common economic appointed by the President.
1. Common All India Service.
policies in all vital spheres. 2. The Chairman and the
members of the UPSC are 2. Single integrated judiciary.
2. To secure the co-operation of
states in the execution of the eligible for further Select the correct answer using the
Plan. employment under the codes given below.
3. To review the working of the Government. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Plan from time-to-time. Which of the statement(s) given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. To consider important above is/are correct? 125. Which among the following
questions of social and (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
statement(s) regarding Lord Ripon’s
economic policy affecting (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
plan for local self-government in
development. 121. Which one among the following India is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using statement(s) regarding the 1. The district should be the
codes given below. constitutionally guaranteed maximum area served by one
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Right to Education in India is Committee or Local Board.
correct? 2. The Local Boards should consist
117. Which of the following (a) This right covers both child and of a large majority of nominated
provisions of the Constitution of adult illiteracy and therefore, official members and be presided
India need the ratification by universally guarantees education over by an official member as
the legislatures of not less than to all citizens of India Chairman.
one-half of the states to effect (b) This right is a child right covering Select the correct answer using the
amendment? the age group of 6 to 14 years codes given below.
1. The manner of election of the and becomes operational from (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
President of India. the year 2015 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
988 CDS Pathfinder
126. Which one among the following (c) disputes relating to implementation 2. Both the Supreme Court and
is not true of the Planning of the Directive Principles of State High Courts can issue the writs
Policy of habeas corpus, mandamus,
Commission? prohibition, certiorari and quo
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament
(a) It is an advisory body and makes warranto only for the purpose of
which is violative of the
recommendations to the Cabinet Constitution enforcement of Fundamental
(b) It is responsible for the execution Rights.
of development programmes and 131. Which one among the following Select the correct answer using the
plans is a function of the Pro-Tem codes given below.
(c) It is responsible for formulation of Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
a plan for the most effective and (a) Conduct of the proceedings of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
balanced utilisation of the the house in the absence of the
Speaker 135. Why is political power sharing
country’s resources
(b) To check if the election certificates through different levels of
(d) It indicates the factors which tend
of the members of the house are government desirable in a
to retard economic development
in order democracy?
127. Which of the following is/are (c) Swear in the members of the 1. It helps to reduce the possibility
elements of ‘annual financial house and hold the charge till a of conflict between various social
statement’ (budget)? regular Speaker is elected groups.
(d) Give his assent to the bills 2. It decreases the possibility of
1. Ways and means to raise the
passed by the house arbitrary decision-making.
revenue.
2. Estimates of revenue and 132. Which of the following 3. It prompts people’s participation
capital reciepts. statement(s) with regard to at different levels of government.
3. Estimates of expenditure. Inter-State Council is/are Select the correct answer using the
Codes correct? codes given below.
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 1. It was established under the (a) Only 3 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these provisions of the Constitution (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
128. Despite being a Republican of India. 136. Which of the following statement(s)
State, India is a member of the 2. The Council is a is/are correct?
Commonwealth of Nations recommendatory body. 1. A registered voter in India can
whose head is the British 3. There is a standing committee contest an election to Lok Sabha
of the Council under the from any constituency in India.
Monarch. This is because Chairmanship of the Prime
(a) this membership does not affect 2. As per the Representation of the
Minister of India to process People Act, 1951, if a person is
the sovereign nature of the Indian matters for consideration of
Republic convicted of any offence and
the Council. sentenced to an imprisonment of
(b) this membership only shows that Select the correct answer using
the British ruled over India 2 years or more, he will be
the codes given below. disqualified to contest election.
(c) members of the association are (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
sovereign and independent Select the correct answer using the
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these codes given below.
(d) it is a symbol of the unity among
the members of the association 133. In India, the right to ‘freedom of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
speech and expression’ is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
129. The President of India is elected
restricted on the grounds of 137. The impeachment of the President
by a proportional representation
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India can be initiated in
system through single
of India. (a) either house of the Parliament
transferable vote. This implies
2. contempt of court. (b) a joint siting of both houses of the
that Parliament
3. friendly relation with foreign
(a) each elected MP or MLA has an (c) the Lok Sabha alone
states.
equal number of votes
4. protection of minorities. (d) the Rajya Sabha alone
(b) MPs and MLAs of a State have
the same number of votes Select the correct answer using 138. Consider the following statements
(c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote the codes given below. about the Attorney-General of
each (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 India?
(d) MPs and MLAs of different states (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 1. He is appointed by the President
have different numbers of votes 134. Which of the following of India.
130. The original jurisdiction of the statement(s) is/are correct? 2. He has the right to take part in
the proceeding of the Parliament.
Supreme Court of India extends 1. In India, the constitutional 3. He has the right of audience in
to remedy under Article 32 is all courts in India.
(a) treaties and agreements signed available only in case of
Fundamental Rights, not in Which of the statements given above
by the Government of India are correct?
(b) disputes between the Government the case of rights which follow
from some other provision in (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
of India and one or more States (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
the Constitution.
139. Who of the following constitutes (c) The Vice-President of India 149. Which one of the following is a
a Finance Commission for a continues to be in office even human right as well as a
State in India? after the expiry of his term till his Fundamental Rights under the
(a) The President of India successor takes over
Constitution of India?
(b) The Governor of the State (d) The Supreme Court of India has (a) Right to Information
to look into all disputes with
(c) The Union Finance Minister (b) Right to Education
regard to the election of the
(d) The Union Cabinet (c) Right to Work
Vice-President of India
(d) Right to Housing
140. Consider the following 145. Consider the following
statement(s) 150. Under which of the following
statement(s)
1. The Annual Appropriation Bill conditions can citizenship be
is passed by the Lok Sabha 1. A Money Bill cannot be provided in India?
in the same manner as any introduced in the Council of
States. 1. One should be born in India.
other Bill.
2. The Council of States cannot 2. Either of whose parents was born
2. An amendment to the
reject a Money Bill nor in India
Constitution of India can be
initiated by an introduction of amend it. 3. Who has been a resident of India
a Bill in either Lok Sabha or Which of the statement(s) given for not less than 5 years.
Rajya Sabha. above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
Which of the statement(s) given (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 codes given below.
above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) All of these (d) None of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 146. For which one of the following
Judgements of the Supreme 151. Which one of the following
141. Which one of the following is the Court of India, the Kesavananda International Human Rights
subject of the Narasimhan Bharati vs State of India case is Instruments has been signed by
Committee Reports of years considered a landmark? India but not yet ratified?
1991 and 1998? (a) The religion cannot be mobilised (a) Convention on the rights of the child
(a) Administrative Reforms (b) Convention on the elimination of all
for political ends
(b) Banking Reforms forms of discrimination against
(b) Abolishing untouchability from the
(c) Constitutional Reforms women
country
(d) Electoral Reforms (c) Convention on the political rights of
(c) The basic structures of the
142. Assertion (A) The number of Constitution, as defined in the women
the Members of the Union Preamble, cannot be changed (d) Convention on the nationality of
Public Service Commission is (d) Right to life and liberty cannot be married women
preserved in the Constitution of suspended under any 152. The Constitution (74th)
India. circumstance
Amendment Act makes mention of
Reason (R) The Union Public 147. Who among the following Indian the
Service Commission was Prime Ministers resigned before (a) composition of the National
constituted under the provisions facing a vote of no-confidence in Development Council
in the Constitution of India. the Lok Sabha? (b) structure of the Planning Commission
Codes (a) Chandra Shekhar of India
(a) Both A and R are true and R is (b) Morarji Desai (c) functions of the State Finance
the correct explanation of A (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh Commission
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is (d) VP Singh (d) functions of the Kaveri Water
not the correct explanation of A Authority
(c) A is true, but R is false 153. Consider the following statement(s)
statement(s)
(d) A is false, but R is true with respect to the Comptroller and
1. The total elective membership
143. Who was the President of India of the Lok Sabha is Auditor General of India
at the time of proclamation of distributed among the states 1. He shall only be removed from
emergency in the year 1976? on the basis of the population office in like manner and on the
(a) VV Giri and the area of the State. ground as a Judge of the
(b) Giani Zail Singh Supreme Court.
2. The 84th Amendment Act of
(c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad 2. He shall not be eligible for
the Constitution of India
(d) Shankar Dayal Sharma further office either under the
lifted the freeze on the
delimitation of constituencies Government of India or under
144. Which one of the following
the Government of any State
statement(s) is not correct? imposed by the 42nd
after he has ceased to hold his
(a) The Vice-President of India holds Amendment.
office.
office for a period of 5 years Which of the statement(s) given
(b) The Vice-President of India can
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? above is/are correct?
be removed by a simple majority (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
of votes passed in the Rajya (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sabha only
990 CDS Pathfinder
154. Under which of the following 2. A person who was born on 2. he votes or abstains from
condition(s) security deposits of a 1st July, 1988 in Itanagar, voting contrary to any direction
candidate contesting for a Lok whose mother is a citizen of issued by his political party.
Sabha seat is returned to India at the time of his birth, 3. as a result of split, less than
him/her? but the father was not, is one third of the members
deemed to be a citizen of
1. The nomination made by the formed a new group or party in
India by birth.
candidate if found to be invalid. the house.
2. The candidate has withdrawn Which of the statement(s) given
4. a member who has been elected
his/her nomination even though above is/are correct? as a independent member joins
it is found valid. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
any political party.
3. The candidate lost the polls but (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
secured l/6th of the total Select the correct answer using
159. Consider the following about the codes given below.
number of valid votes polled in
that election. ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Select the correct answer using the scheme (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
codes given below. 1. The scheme was launched on 164. The quorum for joint sitting of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 22nd January, 2015 from
Panipat, Haryana. Indian Parliament is
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) one-twelveth of the total number of
2. The scheme was initiated with
155. If the Prime Minister is a member an initial corpus of ` 100 members of the house
of the Rajya Sabha crore. (b) one-sixth of the total number of
(a) he/she has to get elected to the Which of the scheme(s) given members of the house
Lok Sabha within 6 months above is/are correct? (c) one-tenth of the total number of
(b) he/she can declare the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 members of the house
government’s policies only in the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) two-third of the total number of
Rajya Sabha members of the house
(c) he/she cannot take part in the 160. Identify the correct sequence of
voting when a vote of no passing a Budget in the 165. Which one of the following
confidence is under consideration Parliament. jurisdictions of the Indian
(d) he/she cannot take part in the (a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, judiciary covers Public Interest
budget deliberation in the Lok Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Litigation?
Sabha Budget (a) Original Jurisdiction
156. The function of a Protem Speaker (b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, (b) Appellate Jurisdiction
Discussion on Budget, Vote on (c) Epistolary Jurisdiction
is to Accounts (d) Advisory Jurisdiction
(a) conduct the proceeding of the
(c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on
house in the absence of the 166. In India, the Supreme Command
Account, Finance Bill,
Speaker of the Armed Forces is vested in
Appropriation Bill
(b) officiate as Speaker when the the President. This means that in
(d) Discussion on Budget,
Speaker is unlikely to be elected
Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote the exercise of this power
(c) swear members and hold charge till on Account (a) he/she cannot be regulated by law
a regular Speaker is elected
161. Which one of the following states (b) he/she shall be regulated by law
(d) scrutinise the authenticity of the
election certificates of members does not have Vidhan Parishad? (c) during war, the President seeks
(a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra advice only from the Chiefs of the
157. Which one of the following Armed Forces
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
right(s) conferred by the (d) during war the President can
Constitution of India is also 162. Who among the following Indian suspended the Fundamental Rights
available to non-citizens? Prime Minister(s) could not vote of citizens
(a) Freedom of speech, assembly and for himself during the ‘Vote of 167. Which of the following would be
form association Confidence’ that he was seeking construed as a reasonable
(b) Freedom to move, reside and settle from the Lok Sabha?
in any part of the territory of India
restriction of the ‘right to
(a) VP Singh freedom’?
(c) Freedom to acquire property or to (b) PV Narasimha Rao
carry on any occupation, trade or (a) When the state disallows a
(c) Chandra Sekhar
business candidate from securing votes in
(d) Manmohan Singh the name of religion
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
163. According to the Constitution (b) When the state disallows citizens
158. Consider the following (52nd Amendment Act, 1985 as from forming a club out of state
statement(s) funds that denies access to women
amended in 2003, a legislator
1. A person who was born on (c) When the Government of Nagaland
attracts disqualification under
26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, disallows temporary residents to
whose father was a citizen of the 10th Schedule if buy immovable property in
India by birth at the time of 1. he voluntarily gives up the Nagaland
his birth is deemed to be an membership of the party on (d) All of the above
Indian citizen by descent. whose ticket he was elected.
168. The 73rd Amendment of the 2. He must have the same (a) Jagjivan Ram (b) K Kamaraj
Constitution provided qualifications as are required (c) PD Tandon (d) UN Dhebar
constitutional status to the by a Judge of High Court. Codes
Panchayati Raj Institutions. 3. In the performance of his (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
duties he shall have the right (c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Which of the following are the of audience in all courts of
main features of this provision? India. 176. Who among the following was the
1. A three-tier system of first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Which of the statement(s) given (a) MA Ayyangar
Panchayati Raj for all states. above is/are correct? (b) GV Mavalankar
2. Panchayat election in every 5 (a) Only 1
(c) Sardar Hukam Singh
years. (b) 1 and 3
(d) N Sanjiva Reddy
3. Not less than 33% of seats (c) 2 and 3
are reserved for women. (d) All of the above 177. Consider the following
4. Constitution of district Vice-Presidents of India
173. Match the following
planning committees to 1. VV Giri
prepare development plans. List I
2. M Hidayatullah
Select the correct answer using (Provisions of the List II
Constitution of (Sources) 3. BD Jatti
the codes given below. 4. GS Pathak
India)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 A. Amendment of 1. Constitution of Which one of the following is the
the Constitution Germany correct chronology of their tenures?
169. The Sachar Committee Report B. Directive 2. Constitution of (a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
pertains to Principles Canada (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2
(a) Indian federalism C. Emergency 3. Constitution of
Power of the South Africa 178. In which one of the following
(b) Economic development of
backward regions
President Ministries the census organisation
(c) Indian Muslims
D. The Union-State 4. Irish has been functioning on a
Relations Constitution permanent footing since, 1961?
(d) OBC’s
(a) Health and Family Welfare
170. Who among the following Codes (b) Home Affairs
recommends to the Parliament A B C D A B CD (c) Social Justice and Empowerment
for the abolition of the (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (d) Human Resource Development
Legislative Council in a State? (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
(a) The President of India
179. Which of the following is not a
(b) The Governor of the concerned 174. According to Article 164(1) of recommendation of the Ashok Mehta
State the Constitution of India, in Committee on Panchayati Raj ?
(c) The Legislative Council of the three States there shall be a (a) Open participation of political parties
concerned State Minister in charge of tribal in Panchayati Raj affairs
(d) The Legislative Assembly of the welfare, who may in addition be (b) Creation of a three-tier system
concerned State in charge of the welfare of the (c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled
Scheduled Castes and Backward Castes and Scheduled Tribes
171. In which of the following years (d) Compulsory powers of taxation to
the Fundamental Duties have Classes. Which one of the
Panchayati Raj Institution
been added to the existent following states is not covered
Fundamental Rights in the by the Article? 180. With reference to the Constitution
(a) Jharkhand of India, which one of the following
Constitution of India? (b) Punjab
(a) 1965 (b) 1976 pair(s) is not correctly matched
(c) Madhya Pradesh Subject List
(c) 1979 (d) 1982
(d) Odisha
(a) Stock Exchanges : The State List
175. Which one of the following is the (b) Forest : The Concurrent List
statement(s) with respect to the
correct chronological order of (c) Insurance : The Union List
Attorney General of India
the tenures of the following (d) Marriage and : The Concurrent List
1. He is appointed by the Presidents of Indian National Divorce
President.
Congress?
992 CDS Pathfinder
QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) Select the correct answer using Constitution of India. In this context,
the codes given below. which one among the following
1. Which one among the following is (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 statement(s) is correct?
a Fundamental Duty of citizens (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) The legislation is invalid as it violates
under the Constitution of India? the Freedom of Press
(a) To provide friendly co-operation to 5. Under which law it is prescribed
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of
the people of the neighbouring that all proceedings in the
Article 31 B
countries Supreme Court of India shall be
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes
(b) To protect monuments of national in English language? unreasonable restrictions under Article
importance (a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 19 (2) of the Constitution
(c) To defend the country and render (b) A Legislation made by the (d) The legislation is valid as the Press is
national service when called upon Parliament not a citizen under Article 19 of the
to do so (c) Article 145 of the Constitution of Constitution
(d) To know more and more about the India
history of India (d) Article 348 of the Constitution of 9. With regard to the powers of the
India Rajya Sabha, which one among the
2. Take the case of dignity and
following statement(s) is not correct?
equal rights for women. How do 6. Consider the following (a) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in
democracies help? statement(s) the Rajya Sabha
(a) Women in democracies have equal According to Hindu Law, (b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either
degree of political representation in marriage is defined as to reject or amend a Money Bill
legislatures 1. a contract (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the
(b) Women in democracies have
2. a sacrament Annual Financial Statement
guaranteed rights and are always
3. mutual understanding (d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to
treated with respect
4. indissoluble vote on the Demands for Grants
(c) Women in democracies are not
subjected sex discrimination in Which of the statement(s) given 10. Which one among the following is the
most aspects of social life above is/are correct? distinguishing factor between a
(d) In democracies, the principle of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 pressure group and a political party?
equality is accepted as legal norm, (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (a) Pressure groups are confined to a few,
which makes it easier to guarantee while political parties involve larger
their freedom and dignity 7. Which one among the following
number of people
statement(s) is not correct?
3. The Constitution of India is (b) Pressure groups do not seek active
The word ‘socialist’ in the political power, political parties do
republican because it
Preamble of the Constitution of (c) Pressure groups do not politically
(a) provides for an elected Parliament
India read with motivate people, while political parties
(b) provides for adult franchise
(a) Article 39 (d), would enable the do
(c) contains a bill of rights
court to uphold the constitutionality (d) Political parties take political stance,
(d) has no hereditary elements of nationalisation laws while pressure groups do not bother
4. Which among the following (b) Article 14, would enable the court about political issues
conditions are necessary for the to strike down a-statute which
failed to achieve the socialist goal 11. There are different arguments given
issue of writ of quo warranto?
to the fullest extent in favour of power sharing in a
1. The office must be public and democratic political system. Which
must be created by a Statute (c) Article 25, would enable the court
to ensure freedom guaranteed one of the following is not one of
or by the Constitution itself.
under that Article them?
2. The office must be a
(d) Article 23, would enable the court (a) It reduces conflict among different
substantive one and not communities
to reduce inequality of income and
merely the function or status (b) Majority community does not impose
employment of a servant at its will on others
the will and during the 8. Suppose a Legislation was passed
(c) Since, all are affected by the policies
pleasure of another. by the Parliament imposing
of the government, they should be
3. There has been a contravention certain restrictions on consulted in the governance of the
of the Constitution or a Statute newspapers. These included page country
or Statutory Instrument, in ceiling, price and advertisements. (d) It speeds up the decision- making
appointing such person to that The legislation is included in the process and improves the chances of
office. Ninth Schedule to the unity of the country
12. While a proclamation of 17. Which one among the following is 20. Which of the following are envisaged
emergency is in operation the not guaranteed by the as being part of the ‘Right against
duration of the Lok Sabha can be Constitution of India? Exploitation’ in the Constitution of
extended for a period (a) Freedom to move freely throughout India?
(a) not exceeding 3 months the country 1. Prohibition of traffic in human
(b) not exceeding 9 months (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully beings and forced labour.
(c) of 1 year at a time without arms
2. Abolition of untouchability.
(d) of 2 years at a time (c) Freedom to own, acquire and
dispose property anywhere in the 3. Protection of the interests of the
13. Which one among the following country minorities.
pairs of level of government and (d) Freedom to practice any trade or 4. Prohibition of employment of
legislative power is not correctly profession children in factories and mines.
matched? Select the correct answer using the
18. The Constitution of India divided
(a) Central Government : Union List
the states of India in categories codes given below.
(b) Local Governments : Residuary (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Powers
A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) State Governments : State List this context, which of the
(d) Central and State : Concurrent following statement(s) is correct? 21. In which one of the following cases,
Government List (a) The Chief Commissioner was the the Supreme Court of India gave
executive head of category A verdicts which have a direct bearing
14. The purpose of Directive states. The Rajpramukh was the
Principles of State Policy is to on the Centre-State relations?
executive head of category B (a) Keshavananda Bharati case
(a) lay down positive instructions states. The Governor was the
which would guide State Policy at (b) Vishakha case
executive head of categories C
all levels and D states (c) SR Bommai case
(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a (b) The Rajpramukh was the executive (d) Indira Sawhney case
decentralised state head of category A states. The 22. Consider the following statements
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers Chief Commissioner was the about the powers of the President of
by the government executive head of categories B India.
(d) promote welfare of the backward and C states. The Governor was
sections of the society the executive head of the category 1. The President can direct that any
D states matter on which decision has
15. Which of the following been taken by a Minister should
(c) The Governor was the executive
condition(s) must be fulfilled by be placed before the Council of
head of category A states. The
the NRIs to be eligible to vote in Rajpramukh was the executive Ministers.
elections in India? head of category B states. The 2. The President can call all
1. They must be physically Chief Commissioner was the information relating to proposals
present in their place of origin executive head of categories C for legislation.
to exercise their franchise. and D states 3. The President has the right to
2. NRIs whether they have (d) The Governor was the executive address and send messages to
acquired citizenship of other head of category A states. The either House of the Parliament.
countries or not are eligible to Chief Commissioner was the 4. Decisions of the Council of
vote. executive head of category B Ministers relating to the
3. Eligible NRIs have to register states. The Rajpramukh was the administration of the Union must
by filling up form 6-A with executive head of categories C be communicated to the President.
electoral registration office. and D states Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using are correct?
the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
statement(s) is/are correct?
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these Under the provisions of Article
200 of the Constitution of India 23. With reference to the conduct of
16. The Kamraj Plan was a plan government business in the
the Governor of a State may
formulated in 1963 by then Parliament of India, the term
1. withhold his assent to a bill
(a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a ‘closure’ refers to
passed by the State
new Constitution for the Indian
National Congress was proposed
Legislature. (a) suspension of debate at the
2. reserve the bill passed by the termination of a day’s sitting of the
(b) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby
State Legislature for Parliament
the senior ministers were asked to
leave government and work to consideration of the President. (b) a rule of legislative procedure under
rejuvenate the party 3. return the bill, other than a which further debate on a motion can
(c) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby Money Bill, for reconsideration be halted
a new set of principles for
of the legislature. (c) the termination of a Parliamentary
accepting donations for the party Select the correct answer using session
work was proposed the codes given below. (d) refusal on the part of the Government
(d) Chief Minister of Madras to root (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 to have the opposition look at
out corruption from India (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these important documents
994 CDS Pathfinder
24. According to the 2012 (II) 32. Which one among the following writs
Administrative Tribunal Act, literally means you may have the
1985, the Central 28. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a body?
Administrative Tribunal superior court (a) Certiorari
adjudicates disputes and (a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal (b) Habeas Corpus
complaints with respect to the from exceeding its jurisdiction or (c) Mandamus
service of persons who are acting contrary to the rules of natural (d) Quo Warranto
justice
(a) appointed to public services 33. Which one among the following is
and posts in connection with (b) to an inferior court or body exercising
judicial or quasi-judicial functions to not a recommendation of the
the affairs of the Union except
members of the Defence transfer the record to proceedings in a Sarkaria Commission on the
services case for its review appointment of the Governor in a
(b) official and servants of the (c) where it can call upon a person to state?
Supreme Court or any High show under what authority he/she is (a) He/She must not have participated in
Courts holding the office active politics atleast for sometime
(c) members of the Secretarial staff (d) to an authority to produce an illegally before his/her appointment as
of the Parliament or any state detained person before the court for Governor
legislatures trial (b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme
(d) members of the Defence 29. Which one among the following is not Court may be consulted by the
services included in the Fundamental Rights President in selecting a Governor
embodied in the Constitution of (c) The Governor’s term of office of
India? 5 years should not be disturbed
statement(s) with respect to except very rarely
the judiciary in India is/are (a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom (d) The Governor should not be the native
correct? of the state
(c) Right against Exploitation
1. Unlike in the United States,
(d) Right to Information 34. Which one among the following
India has not provided for
a double system of courts. 30. Consider the following statement(s) statement(s) about the functioning
2. Under the Constitution of relating to the procedure of the of political parties in a democracy is
India, there is a single election of the Speaker and the not correct?
integrated system of courts Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (a) Political parties give political education
for the Union as well as 1. The election of a Speaker shall be to the people
the states. held on such date as the Prime (b) Political parties serve as a link
3. The organisation of the Minister may fix and the between the government and the
subordinate judiciary varies Secretary General shall send to people
slightly from state to state. every member notice of this date. (c) Political parties fight elections and try
to get the maximum number of their
Select the correct answer using 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker
candidates elected
the codes given below. shall be held on such date as the
(d) None of the above
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 Speaker may fix and the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Secretary General shall send to 35. Delimitation of constituencies and
every member notice of this date. determination of constituencies
3. At anytime before noon on the reserved for Scheduled Castes and
Committees are the
day preceding the date so fixed, Scheduled Tribes are done by
Committees of Parliament? any member may give notice in
1. Public Accounts Committee. (a) Election Commission
writing of a motion that another (b) Delimitation Commission
2. Estimates Committee. member be chosen as the Deputy (c) Planning Commission
3. Committee on Public Speaker of the House.
Undertakings. (d) Election Commission with the
Which of the statement(s) given above assistance of Delimitation Commission
Select the correct answer using is/are correct?
the codes given below. 36. With reference to Lok Adalats,
(a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
which one among the following
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these statement(s) is correct?
31. Which one among the following is not (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to
27. The Chief Election a Fundamental Duty of the citizen of settle the matters at pre-litigative state
Commissioner of India holds India? and not those matters pending before
office for a period of (a) To develop scientific temper, humanism any court
(a) 6 years and the spirit of inquiry and reform (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters
(b) during the pleasure of the (b) To safeguard public property and to which are civil and not criminal in
President abjure violence nature
(c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 (c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, (c) Lok Adalats has not been given any
years, whichever is earlier unity and integrity of India statutory status so far
(d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 (d) To practice family planning and to (d) No appeal lies in a civil court against
years, whichever is earlier control population the order of the Lok Adalat
37. Which among the following 41. The Instrument of Instructions (b) Sustained economic growth specially
provision(s) of the Constitution of contained in the Government of after the 1990s
India is/are fulfilled by the India Act, 1935 has been (c) Regular elections in the centre and
National Social Assistance incorporated in the Constitution states since, 1950s
Programme launched by the of India in the year 1950 as (d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant
(a) Fundamental Rights federal structure
Government of India?
1. Fundamental Rights. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Fundamental Duties. (c) Extent of Executive Power of State 2013 (I)
(d) Conduct of business of the
3. Directive Principles of State 47. Consider the following statement(s)
Government of India
Policy. regarding e-courts, launched recently
Select the correct answer using 42. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
in India
the codes given below. may be removed from office by
(a) the majority party in the house 1. They will facilitate hearing of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
adopting a no-confidence motion cases via video conferencing.
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(b) a resolution passed by not less 2. They will follow the same
38. Consider the following than half of the total membership procedures that are laid out for
statement(s) of the house the bench for hearing appeals in
1. In India, only two Union (c) a resolution passed by atleast an open court.
Territories have Legislative two-thirds of the total membership Which of the statement(s) given above
Assemblies. of the house is/are correct?
2. Mizoram, Nagaland and (d) a resolution passed by a majority (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Meghalaya, the three of all the members of the house (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
North-Eastern States of India, 43. What is/are the major
have only one seat each in the
48. Besides representation, the
difference(s) between a written Parliament of India is also a
Lok Sabha. and an unwritten Constitution? deliberative body with diverse
Which of the statement(s) given 1. A written Constitution is the
above is/are correct? functions. Which one among the
formal source of all
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Constitutional Laws in the following is not a function of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 country and the unwritten Parliament of India?
Constitution is not the formal (a) Ventilating the grievances of the people
39. The Rights to Information means (b) Executing major policy decisions
source.
and includes
2. A written Constitution is (c) Holding the government accountable
1. inspection of documents. for its actions and expenditure
entirely codified whereas an
2. taking out files from office to (d) Amending the Constitution
unwritten Constitution is not.
any place desired by the
applicant. Select the correct answer using 49. Which one among the following
3. taking photograph of files. the codes given below. statement(s) is not correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) The right conferred by Article 32
4. obtaining information in tapes.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 cannot be suspended except by virtue
Which of the statement(s) given of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution of
above are correct? 44. In the Rajya Sabha, the states
India
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 have been given seats
(a) in accordance with their population (b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these cannot be suspended
(b) equally
40. Match the following (c) Punishments can be prescribed by a
(c) on the basis of population and
State Legislation for offences under
List I List II economic position
Part III of the Constitution of India
(Acts) (Features) (d) on the basis of present economic
(d) The Fundamental Rights can be
A.The Indian 1. Introduction of status
abrogated by law made by the
Councils Act, 1892 provincial 45. The Preamble is useful in Parliament with regard to members of
autonomy the forces charged with the
constitutional interpretation
B.The Indian 2. Introduction of the maintenance of public order
Councils Act, 1909 principle of because it
election (a) uses value loaded words 50. The Government of India Act, 1919
C.The Government 3. Introduction of (b) contains the real objective and 1. established a bicameral legislature
of India Act, 1919 diarchy in philosophy of the Constitution
provinces at the centre.
makers
D.The Government 4. Introduction of (c) is a source of power and limitation 2. introduced dyarchy in the
of India Act, 1935 separate (d) gives and exhaustive list of basic provincial executive.
electorate for the features of the Constitution 3. introduced a Federal System of
Muslims Government in India.
Codes 46. Which one among the following is
Select the correct answer using the
A B C D A B C D
not an attribute of sustainability
of Indian democratic model? codes given below.
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
patterns
996 CDS Pathfinder
51. Which one among the following is 2. The Anti-Defection provisions (a) PESA was meant to provide self-
a Fundamental Duty of citizens do not apply if one-third of governance in the Scheduled Areas
under the Constitution of India? the members of a party (b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to disobey the mandate of the (c) PESA protects the interests of the
the people of the neighbouring party and constitute tribals
countries themselves as a separate (d) PESA conducts public hearings to
party. protect inheritance rights of the tribals
(b) To visit the monuments of national
importance Which of the statement(s) given 59. Which one among the following
(c) To defend the country and render above is/are correct? countries redefined the principles of
national service when called upon (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 ‘Panchashila’ for the purpose of
to do so (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 domestic politics?
(d) To know more and more about the (a) Ghana (b) China
56. The Constituent Assembly of India
religions of India (c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka
convened to prepare the
52. India’s Look East Policy was Constitution of India appointed a
conceived in the early 1990s at a sub-committee headed by 2013 (II)
time when India was in the Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the
process of adjusting to the following recommendation(s) 60. The Planning Commission of India
post-cold war watershed changes was/were made by the committee? was constituted
in the international geostrategic 1. Fifth Schedule for the (a) under constitutional provision with
specific mention for it
environment. The Look East North-East Frontier (Asom)
(b) through an Act of Parliament
Policy Tribal and Excluded Areas.
(c) through a cabinet decision in this
1. reflects both historical 2. Constitution of District regard
imperatives and contemporary Councils in all autonomous (d) through constitutional amendment
compulsion of the post-cold districts of Asom.
war new world order. 3. Sixth Schedule for the 61. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India
2. seeks to optimise India’s North-East Frontier (Asom) case, which one among the following
synergies in the extended Tribal and Excluded Areas. features of the Constitution of India
Asia-Pacific neighbourhood. was upheld by the Supreme Court as
4. Demarcation of territories in
3. has led to India’s participation
North-East India. a basic structure?
in Asia-Pacific forums like (a) Liberalism
ASEAN, East Asia Summit, Select the correct answer using (b) Secularism
BIMSTEC and other the codes given below. (c) Dignity of the human person
institutions. (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Freedom of religion
Which of the statement(s) given (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
62. Which of the following freedoms is
above is/are correct? 57. How does participatory budgeting not specifically mentioned in the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 seek to make the functioning of Constitution of India as a
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these local governance institutions Fundamental Right, but has been
53. Which one among the following more transparent and subsequently upheld by the Supreme
committees of the Parliament of accountable? Court as such?
India has no members of the 1. By allowing citizens to (a) Freedom of trade, occupation and
Rajya Sabha? deliberate and negotiate over business
(a) Public Accounts Committee the distribution of public (b) Freedom to reside and settle in any
(b) Estimates Committee resources. part of the country
(c) Public Undertakings Committee 2. By allowing citizens to play a (c) Freedom of association and union
direct role in deciding how and (d) Freedom of the press
(d) Departmentally Related Standing
Committee on Finance where resources should be 63. Match the following
spent.
54. Which one among the following is List I
List II
not a constitutional body in 3. By allowing historically (Commissions/Com
excluded citizens with access (Mandates)
India? mittees)
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General to important decision-making
A. Sachar Committee 1. Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984
(b) National Commissioner for religious
venues.
B. Srikrishna 2. Socio-economic and
and Linguistic Minorities Select the correct answer using Commission educational
(c) National Commission for Scheduled the codes given below. conditions of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Muslims in India
Castes
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these C. Ranganath 3. Bombay Communal
(d) National Human Rights
Misra Commission Riots, 1992
Commission 58. The Parliament of India passed D. Nanavati 4. Linguistic and
55. Consider the following the Panchayats Extension to Commission religious minorities in
statement(s) Scheduled Areas Law popularly India
1. The Anti-Defection Law bans known as PESA Law. Which one Codes
an elected member from voting among the following statement(s) A B C D A B C D
against the explicit mandate of regarding PESA Law is not (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
his/her party. correct? (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
64. The Judge of the High Courts in 69. Power of the Supreme Court of 73. Which of the following statements
India is administered oath of India to decide the dispute between are correct regarding Joint Session of
office by centre and state falls under the Houses of the Parliament in
(a) the Chief Justice of the High (a) advisory jurisdiction India?
Court (b) original jurisdiction
1. It is an enabling provision,
(b) the Governor of the State (c) appellate jurisdiction
empowering the President to take
(c) the President of India (d) constitutional jurisdiction
steps for resolving deadlock
(d) the Chief Justice of India 70. The Governor may recommend the between the two houses.
65. Among the following ideals and imposition of the President's rule 2. It is not obligatory upon the
philosophy, identify those in the state President to summon the houses
enshrined in the Preamble to (a) on the recommendation of the State to meet in a joint sitting.
the Constitution of India. Legislature 3. It is being notified by the
1. Sovereign democratic republic. (b) on the recommendation of the President.
President
2. Socialism and secularism. 4. It is frequently resorted to
(c) on the recommendation of the Chief
3. Capitalism and free trade. establish the supremacy of the
Minister
Which of the statements given (d) if he is convinced that the Lok Sabha.
above are correct? Government of the State cannot be Select the correct answer using the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 carried on in accordance with the codes given below.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these provisions of the Constitution of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
India (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
66. Which of the following pair(s) of
constitutional authority and 74. Match the following
procedure of appointment is/are 2014 (I) List I List II
correctly matched? 71. Certain bills cannot be introduced (Persons) (Committees)
1. President : Elected by an or proceeded with unless the A. BR Ambedkar 1. Drafting Committee
electoral college consisting of recommendation of the President is B. HC Mukherjee 2. Minorites
elected MLAs and MPs received. However, no Sub-committee
2. Vice-President : Elected by recommendation is required in C. Rajendra Prasad 3. Steering Committee
an electoral college consisting some other cases. In which one of D. Jawaharlal Nehru 4. States Committee
of MLAs and MPs
the following cases such Codes
3. Speaker : The House of recommendation is not required? A B C D A B C D
People chooses after its first
(a) For introduction of bills and for (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
sitting moving amendments relating to
Codes (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
financial matters
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 75. Consider the following statement(s)
(b) For introduction of a bill relating to
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these about democracy
formation of new states or of
67. Which of the following alternation of areas of existing states 1. It consists with the formation of
statement(s) is not correct? (c) For moving of an amendment government elected by the people.
(a) A Money Bill shall not be making provision for the reduction or 2. In democracy, those currently in
introduced in the Council of abolition of any tax power have a fair chance of
States (d) For introduction of a bill or moving losing.
(b) The Council of States has no of an amendment affecting taxation
3. Each vote has one value.
power to reject or amend a in which states are interested
Money Bill 72. ‘The Draft Constitution as framed above is/are correct?
(c) The Council of Ministers is only provides a machinery for the (a) 1 and 2 (b) All of these
responsible to the House of the government of the country. It is (c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3
People and not to the Council of
not a contrivance to install any
States 76. Which one of the following
(d) The House of the People has
particular party in power as has
been done in some countries. Who statement(s) regarding the
special powers with respect to Departmental Committee of the
the State List compared to the should be in power is left to be
Council of States determined by the people, as it Parliament of India on the
must be, ‘if the system is to satisfy empowerment of women is correct?
68. Electoral disputes arising out of (a) The Committee will consist of
the test of democracy’?
Presidential and members of the Lok Sabha
Vice-Presidential Elections are The above passage from (b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member
settled by Constituent Assembly debates is of the Committees
(a) Election Commission of India attributed to (c) The term of office of the members of
(b) Joint Committee of Parliament (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru the Committee shall not exceed 2
(c) Supreme Court of India (b) Dr BR Ambedkar years
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) It reports on the working of welfare
(d) Acharya JB Kriplani programmes for the women
998 CDS Pathfinder
77. Consider the following 3. amendment of 1st Schedule 85. Which of the statement(s) relating to
statement(s) and 4th Schedule. the Deputy Speaker of the Lok
1. Forming a cooperative society Select the correct answer using Sabha is/are correct?
is a Fundamental Right in the codes given below. 1. The office of the Deputy Speaker
India. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 acquired a more prominent
2. Cooperative societies do not (c) All of these (d) None of these position after the enforcement of
fall within the ambit of the the Constitution of India in 1950.
81. The Annual Financial statement
Right to Information Act, 2. He/She is elected from amongst
of the Government of India in
2005. the members.
respect of each financial year
Which of the statement(s) given shall be presented to the House 3. He/She holds office until he/she
above is/are correct? on such day as the ceases to be a member of the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Speaker may direct
House.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) President of India may direct Select the correct answer using the
(c) Parliament may decide codes given below.
78. The legislative power of the (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
Parliament includes making laws (d) Finance Minister may decide
1. on matters not enumerated in 82. Which of the following principle(s)
the Concurrent List and State is/are taken into consideration by 86. The citizenship means
List. the Speaker while recognising a 1. full civil and political rights of
2. in respect of entries in the parliamentary party or group? the citizens.
State List if two or more 1. An association of members who 2. the right of suffrage for election
State Legislatures consider it have an organisation both to the House of the People (of the
desirable. inside and outside the House. Union) and the Legislative
3. for implementing any treaty 2. An association of members who Assembly of every state.
agreement or convention with shall have atleast one-third of 3. the right to become a Member of
any country even if it falls in the total number of members the Parliament and Member of
the State List. of the House. Legislative Assemblies.
Which of the statement(s) given 3. An association of members who Select the correct answer using the
above is/are correct? have a distinct programme of codes given below.
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 parliamentary work. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
79. Which of the following the codes given below. 87. The Committee on Public Accounts
statement(s) in the context of (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 under the Constitution of India is
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these meant for
structure of the Parliament is/are
correct? 83. Which one among the following 1. the examination of accounts
1. The Parliament of India was not a proposal of the Cabinet showing the appropriation of sums
Mission, 1946? granted by the House for the
consists of the President, the
(a) The Constituent Assembly was to
expenditure of the Government of
Council of States and the
be constituted on the democratic India.
House of the people.
principle of population strength 2. scrutinising the report of the
2. The President of India is Comptroller and Auditor- General.
directly elected by an electoral (b) Provision for an Indian Union of
Provinces and States 3. suggesting the form in which
college consisting of the estimates shall be presented to
elected members of both the (c) All the members of the Constituent
Assembly were to be Indians the Parliament.
Houses of the Parliament only.
(d) British Government was to Which of the statement(s) given
Select the correct answer using above is/are correct?
supervise the affairs of the
the codes given below. Constituent Assembly (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 84. After a bill has been passed by
the Houses of the Parliament, it 88. The principle of ‘collective
80. There are provisions in the is presented to the President, who responsibility’ under parliamentary
Constitution of India which may either give assent to the bill democracy implies that
empower the Parliament to or with hold his assent. The 1. a motion of no-confidence can be
modify or annual the operation of President may moved in the Council of Ministers
certain provisions of the (a) assent within 6 months as a whole as well as an
Constitution without actually (b) assent or reject the bill as soon as individual minister.
amending them. They include possible 2. no person shall be nominated to
1. any law made under Article 2 (c) return the bill as soon as possible the cabinet except on the advice
(relating to admission or after the bill is presented to him of the Prime Minister.
establishment of new states). with a message requesting the 3. no person shall be retained as a
house to reconsider the bill member of the Cabinet if the
2. any law made under Article 3
(d) with hold his assent even if the bill Prime Minister says that he shall
(relating to formation of new
is passed again by the houses be dismissed.
states).
Which of the statement(s) given 3. probes the significance of

above is/are correct? principles of rule of law,
2014 (II)
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 separation of power and judicial 96. Consider the following statement(s)
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3 review. about world‘s first Modern Slavery
89. Which of the following Which of the statement(s) given Bill, published in June, 2014 by the
statement(s) relating to above is/are correct? British House of Commons
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 1. This is the first of its kind bill in
Comptroller and Auditor
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Europe which specifically
General in India is/are correct?
93. The functions of the committee on addresses slavery and trafficking
1. He/She is not an officer of
estimates, as incorporated in the in the 21st century.
the Parliament but an officer
under the President. Constitution of India, shall be to 2. The Bill fixes the maximum
1. report what economies, sentence available for the most
2. He/She is an independent
improvements in organisation, serious offenders upto 14 years.
constitutional authority not
directly answerable to the efficiency or administrative Which of the statements given above
house. reform may be effected. is/are correct?
2. suggest alternative policies in (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
order to bring about efficiency (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2
the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and economy in administration. 97. Which of the following about the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. examine whether the money is principles of Panchsheel are correct?
well laid out within the limits 1. These are a set of five principles
90. The Departmental Committee of of the policy implied in the
the Parliament of India on the governing relations between
estimates. states.
welfare of the Schedule Castes 4. examine the reports, if any, of
(SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes 2. The assumption of Panchsheel was
the Comptroller and Auditor that newly independent states
(STs) shall General on the public after decolonisation would be able
1. examine whether the Union undertakings. to develop a new and more
Government has secured due Which of the statement(s) given principled approach to
representation of the SCs and above is/are correct? international relations.
the STs in the services and (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 3. The first formal codification in
posts under its control. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 treaty form was done in an
2. report on the working of the
94. The Fundamental Rights, agreement between China and
welfare programmes for the
enshrined in Part III of the India.
SCs and the STs in the
Union Territories. Constitution of India, ‘‘are Select the correct answer using the
inherent and cannot be code given below.
Which of the statement(s) given (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
extinguished by any constitutional
above is/are correct? (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
and statutory provision’’. This was
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
made clear in the case of 98. Arrange the following states of India
(a) AKGopalan v/s State of Madras
on the basis of conferring statehood
91. The subject matter of an (b) IC Golak Nath v/s State of Punjab
(starting from earliest)
adjournment motion in the (c) State of West Bengal v/s Committee
1. Arunachal Pradesh
Parliament for Protection of Democratic Rights
West Bengal 2. Nagaland
1. must be directly related to
the conduct of the Union (d) Shankari Prasad Singh Dev v/s 3. Sikkim
Government. Union of India 4. Meghalaya
Codes
2. may involve failure of the 95. Which among the following was (a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
Government of India to the reason of the resignations of (c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
perform its duties in the Indian ministers in all the
accordance with the provinces in the year 1939? 99. Consider the following statements
Constitution. (a) The Governors refused to act as about Local Government in India.
Which of the statement(s) given constitutional heads. 1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution
above is/are correct? (b) The centre did not provide the provides for the state to organise
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 required financial help to provinces. Village Panchayat and endow
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) The Governor-General converted them with such powers and
Indian administration from federal to authority as may be necessary to
92. Political theory unitary one because of the make them function as units of
1. deals with the ideas and beginning of the Second World War. self government.
principles that shape (d) India was declared a party to the 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution
Constitutions. Second World War without the Amendments inserted part IX and
2. clarifies the meaning of consent of the provincial IX A in the Constitution.
freedom, equality and justice. governments.
1000 CDS Pathfinder
3. The provisions in part-IX and 3. It was inserted by the 106. Which one of the following
IX A of Indian Constitution 42nd Amendment. statement(s) is incorrect?
are more or less parallel and 4. The laws in the Ninth (a) India does not have a Chief of Defence
analogous. Schedule are primarily Staff
4. The 73rd Constitution those which pertain to the (b) India does not have a Permanent
Amendment is applicable to all matters of national Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee
states irrespective of size of security. (c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff
population. Committee who functions as Chief of the
Which of the statements given Select the correct answer Defence Staff
above are correct? using the code given below. (d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Committee who does not function as
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 3 Chief of the Defense Staff
100. Consider the following 103. Which one of the following 107. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian
statement(s) about State categories of persons is not Constitution contains provisions for
Election Commission. treated at par so far as the the administration of Tribal areas.
1. The State Election availability of Fundamental Which of the following States is not
Commissioner shall be Rights is concerned? covered under this Schedule?
appointed by the Governer of (a) Members of the armed forces (a) Assam (b) Manipur
State. (b) Members of the forces (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
2. The State Election charged with the responsibility
Commission shall have power of maintenance of public order
108. Who acts as the chairman of the
of even preparing the Chiefs of Staff Committee?
(c) Members of the forces
electoral rolls besides the (a) The President of India in his capacity as
power of superintendence, employed in connection with
the communications systems the Commander-in-Chief
direction and control of (b) The Prime Minister
election to the Panchayat. set-up in the country
(d) Members of the forces (c) The Defence Minister
3. The State Election
Commissioner (SEC) can be employed in connection with (d) The seniormost Chief of Staff
removed in any manner from the communication systems 109. Which one of the following
the office. Until he demits set-up for maintenance of
public order
statement(s) is correct?
himself or complete his
(a) The President cannot pardon a person
tenure.
104. Notification regarding sentenced by a Court Martial
Which of the statement(s) given commencement or cessation (b) The supreme command of the defence
above is/are correct? of a State of war is the forces of the Union vests in the
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 President, but its exercise has to be
responsibility of
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these regulated by law
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
101. Which of the following (b) Ministry of Defence (c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment
statement(s) about Indian (c) Ministry of External Affairs cannot be compelled to do hard work
Judiciary is not correct? (d) None of the above as this would amount to violation of
(a) The Constitution of India has not Article 23 of the Constitution of India
105. Which of the following (d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007
provide for double system of
courts as in the United States statement(s) about Mahatma excludes the powers of the High Courts
(b) The organisation of the Gandhi’s South African under Article 226 of the Constitution of
subordinate Judiciary in India experiences (1893-1914) is/are India in relation to service matters of
varies slightly from state-to-state true? persons in the armed forces
(c) Every state in India has separate 1. Muslim merchants were 110. Which one of the following
High Court actively involved in statement(s) is not correct?
(d) The Supreme Court has issued Gandhian political (a) The Central Government is empowered
direction to constitute an all India movements in South Africa. to issue a notification to specify any
Judicial service to bring about 2. In 1906, Gandhi led a service in a State as a service of vital
uniformity in designation of campaign in Cape Town importance to the community
officers in criminal and civil side against the ordinance on (b) Such a notification remains valid for 6
compulsory registration and months
2015 (I) passes for Indians. (c) Every command given by a superior
3. Gandhi began his political officer casts a duty on all persons
102. Which of the following career with struggles subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Air
statement(s) is/are not correct against the imposition of Force Act, 1950 or the Navy Act, 1957
for the Ninth Schedule of the excessive taxes on Indians to obey the command when such a
Constitution of India? in Cape Town. notification is in force
1. It was inserted by the First Select the correct answer (d) The provision of the Armed Forces
Amendment in 1951. (Emergency Duties) Act, 1947 are
using the codes given below. applicable in connection with vital
2. It includes those laws which (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
are beyond the purview of services imposed in a emergency on the
(c) All of these (d) Only 1
judicial review. armed forces
111. The power to decide the date of (b) It is included in Part III of the 120. Information under the RTI Act,
an election to a State Legislative Indian Constitution and is 2005 can be provided in respect of
Assembly rests with the therefore, itself a Fundamental (a) National Security Council Secretariat
(a) President of India Right
(b) Assam Rifles
(b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet (c) Dr Ambedkar called it the ‘very
(c) Border Road Development Board
(c) Election Commission of India soul of the Indian Constitution’
(d) Border Road Organisation
(d) Parliament (d) An aggrieved person has no right
to complain under Article 32 121. Which of the following statement(s)
112. A Parliamentary Democracy is where a Fundamental Right has is/are not true for the category of
one where not been violated the Overseas Citizens of India
1. a balance of popular 116. In which of the following cases (OCI) inserted by the amendment
participation and elite rule did the Supreme Court rule that the Citizenship Act of India in
takes place. 2003?
Constitutional Amendments
2. the government is responsible were also laws under Article-13 1. It gives dual citizenship to
not to the public but to the Persons on India Origin (PIO),
of the Constitution of India,
elected representatives. who are citizens another country.
which could be declared void for
3. the parliamentarians are 2. It gives Persons of Indian origin
delegated the responsibility of
being inconsistent with
Fundamental Rights? (PIO), who are citizens of another
thinking and acting on behalf country, are OCI card without
of their constituents. (a) Keshavanand Bharati Case
(b) Golaknath Case citizenship.
Select the correct answer using 3. It permits the OCI to vote in
(c) Minerva Mills Case
the code given below. (d) Maneka Gandhi Case general elections in India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
4. It allows the OCI to travel to
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 117. Which of the following is not Indian without visa.
113. When martial law is imposed, true about the Convention on
Select the correct answer using the
Parliament cannot make law in the Elimination of all forms of
codes given below.
respect of which one of the Discrimination Against Women (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
following matters? (CEDAW)? (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) It defines what constitutes
(a) Indemnify any person in respect 122. Which of the following statement(s)
discrimination against women and
of any act done by him in
sets-up an agenda for national with regard to the Armed Forces
connection with the maintenance
of order in the area where martial
action (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are
law in force (b) It was adopted in 1979 by the correct?
United Nations 1. The Act is applicable only to the
(b) Parliament can by law validate
any sentence passed when (c) It commits states to undertake States of Manipur, Tripura and
martial law was in force in the measures to end discrimination in Nagaland.
area their legal system 2. A person taken into custody
(c) A law of Parliament can validate (d) India is not a ratifying country under the above Act must be
forfeiture ordered when martial and is therefore not legally bound handed over to the officer-in-
law was in force in the area to put its provisions into practice charge of the nearest police
(d) Any act done under martial law 118. The Supreme Court guidelines station with least possible delay.
can be validated by Parliament by issued in the Vishaka case 3. An area can be declared as a
law pertain to disturbed area under the above
(a) domestic violence Act only when the State
114. Which among the following Government is of the opinion
features of a federal system is (b) rape and sexual violence
that the use of the armed forces
not found in the Indian Political (c) if sexual harassment at the work in aid of civil power is necessary
System? place to contain a dangerous condition
(a) Dual citizenship (d) trafficking in women in the concerned area.
(b) Distribution of powers between 119. Which one of the following Select the correct answer using the
the Federal and the State statements is incorrect? codes given below.
Governments (a) India does not have a Chief of (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Supremacy of the Constitution Defence Staff (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(d) Authority of the Courts to interpret (b) India does not have a Permanent
the Constitution 123. Which of the following is not a laid
Chairman, Chiefs of Staff
Committee
down principle of the Panchsheel?
115. Which of the following is not (a) Mutual respect for each other’s
true of Article 32 of the Indian (c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of
territorial integrity
Constitution? Staff Committee who functions as
Chief of the Defence Staff (b) Mutual non-aggression
(a) It gives the Supreme Court and (c) Mutual support tor each other in
the High Courts the power to (d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of
Staff Committee who does not world forum
issue writs for the enforcement of (d) Mutual non-interference in each
Fundamental Rights function as Chief of the Defence
Staff other‘s internal affairs
1002 CDS Pathfinder
128. Which of the following is/are not 2. The Constituent Assembly did
2015 (II) central tenet(s) of the not include representatives of the
124. Which of the following laws Constitution of India? princely states.
have been repealed by the 1. Prohibits discrimination on 3. The discussions within the
Constitution of India? grounds of religion. Constituent Assembly were not
1. The Government of India Act, influenced by opinions expressed
2. Gives official status to certain by the public.
1935. religions.
2. The Indian Independence Act, 4. In order to create a sense of
3. Provides freedom to profess collective participation,
1947. any religion.
3. The Abolition of Privi Council submissions were solicited from
4. Ensures equality of all the public.
Juridisction Act, 1949.
citizens within religious
4. The Preventive Detention Act, Select the correct answer using the
communities.
1950. codes given below.
Select the correct answer using (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
the codes given below. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 133. Which of the following laws have
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 been repealed by the Constitution
129. Who is the current of India?
125. Which of the following is/are not
Vice-Chairperson of NITI
central feature(s) of Article 343 1. The Government of India Act,
Aayog?
of the Constitution of India? 1935.
(a) Raghuram Rajan
1. Hindi in Devanagari script (b) Arvind Panagariya 2. The Indian Independence Act,
shall be the national language (c) Bibek Debroy 1947.
of the Union. (d) VK Saraswat 3. The Abolition of Privy Council
2. The official language of the Jurisdiction Act, 1949.
Union shall be Hindi in 130. Freedom of conscience under the 4. The Preventive Detention Act,
Devanagari script. Constitution of India is subject 1950.
3. English language shall to Select the correct answer using the
continue to be used for official 1. public order, morality and codes given below.
purposes within states. health. (a) 1 and 2
4. If two or more states agree, 2. a law providing for social (b) 2 and 4
Hindi language should be the welfare and reform. (c) 1 and 3
official language of 3. opening Hindu religious (d) 1, 2 and 4
communication between the institutions of a public
states. character to all Hindus. 134. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the
Select the correct answer using release of a person can be issued
4. defamation or incitement to
the codes given below. an offence. 1. where the arrest or detention has
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 taken place in contravention of
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2 the procedure established by law.
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 2. to secure the release of a person
126. After the general elections, the imprisoned on a criminal charge.
Protem Speaker is (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
3. where the arrest has taken place
(a) elected by the Lok Sabha 131. Which of the following for contempt of court or the
(b) appointed by the President of Fundamental Right(s) is/are Parliament.
India
available to non-citizens? Select the correct answer using the
(c) appointed by the Chief Justice of
the Supreme Court 1. Equality before Law codes given below.
2. Right against Discrimination (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(d) the seniormost member of the
3. Equality of Opportunity (c) All of these (d) 1 and 2
Lok Sabha
127. Match the following 4. Protection of Life and 135. Which one of the following changes
Personal Liberty has not been made to the
List I List ll Select the correct answer using Citizenship Act of India by the
(Leaders) (Parties) the codes given below. Amendment in 2015?
A. Shyama Prasad 1. Communist Party (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4 (a) The Overseas Citizens of India will
Mukherjee of India (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 now be called the Overseas Citizens
B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana of India cardholders
Sangh 132. Which of the following
(b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled
C. SA Dange 3. Swatantra Party statement(s) about the to vote in elections in India
D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist formation of the Constituent (c) The persons of Indian Origin have
Party Assembly is/are correct? been placed at par with the Overseas
Codes 1. The members of the Citizens of India
A B C D A B C D Constituent Assembly were (d) The persons of Indian Origin are now
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 chosen on the basis of the entitled to life long visa to visit India
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2 Provincial Elections of 1946.
136. Name the French revolutionary 141. Which one of the following 3. National Commission for
who wrote Declaration of the statement(s) about the process Minorities
Rights of Woman and the Female of the Parliament to make new 4. National Human Rights
Citizen. states is not correct? Commission
(a) Olympe de Gouges (a) The Parliament may by law form Select the correct answer using the
(b) Nancy Ruhling a new state and alter the codes given below.
(c) Maximilien Robespierre boundaries or names of existing (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Mary Wollstonecraft states (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) A Bill to this effect cannot be
137. Which one of the following introduced in the Parliament 145. Consider the following statement(s)
statement(s) about Electoral except on the recommendation of 1. The President of India shall have
Government in India is not the President the power to appoint and remove
correct? (c) A Bill to this effect may be the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
(a) The superintendence, direction referred by the President to the 2. The Speaker has to discharge the
and control of elections are legislature of the affected state functions of his office himself
vested in the Election throughout his term and cannot
(d) Such a law will fall under the
Commission of India
purview of Article 368 delegate his functions to the
(b) There is one general electoral roll Deputy Speaker during his
for every territorial constituency 142. Which of the following absence from the station or
(c) The Parliament has the power to statement(s) with regard to during his illness.
make laws relating to the citizenship provisions of the Which of the statement(s) given
delimitation of constituencies Constitution of India is/are above is/are correct?
(d) The Supreme Court of India has correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the authority to scrutinise the 1. No person shall be a citizen (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
validity of a law relating to of India by virtue of Article 5, 146. The Second Administrative Reforms
delimitation of constituencies or be deemed to be a citizen Commission (2005) was concerned
138. The Electronic Voting Machines of India by virtue of Article 6 with
or Article 8, if he/she has
(EVMs) are developed jointly (a) reforms in institutional arrangements
voluntarily acquired the for good governance
with citizenship of any foreign
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals (b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and
state.
Limited. the Criminal Justice System
2. The Parliament has power to (c) creating an ombudsman mechanism
2. Bharat Electronics Limited. make any provision with for reduction of corruption in public
3. Electronics Corporation of respect to the acquisition and life
India Limited. termination of citizenship and
(d) devising new measures for urban
4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam all other matters relating to
governance and management
Limited. citizenship.
Select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using 147. As per the Constitution of India, the
the codes given below. the codes given below. Writ of Prohibition relates to an
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 order
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. issued against judicial and
quasi-judicial authority.
139. The Constitution of India 143. The protection against arrest
and detention under Article 22 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from
guarantees freedom of thought proceeding in a particular case
and expression to all its citizens of the Constitution of India is where it has no jurisdiction to
subject to not available to try.
1. implementation of Directive 1. an enemy alien. 3. to restrain a person from holding
Principles. 2. a person detained under a a public office to which he is not
2. Fundamental Duties. preventive detention law. entitled.
3. Right to Equality. 3. a foreigner. Select the correct answer using the
4. an overseas citizen of India. codes given below.
Select the correct answer using (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
the codes given below. Select the correct answer using
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 the codes given below.
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 148. Who among the following Prime
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Ministers of India were defeated by
140. Which one of the following does a vote of No Confidence?
not form part of Immanuel
Kant’s theory of ‘perpetual 2016 (I) 1. Morarji Desai
2. Vishwanath Pratap Singh
peace’?
(a) Republican constitutionalism
144. Which of the following is/are 3. HD Deve Gowda
(b) Federal contract among states to
constitutional body/bodies? 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
abolish war 1. National Commission for Select the correct answer using the
(c) World government Scheduled Tribes codes given below.
(d) Transformation of individual 2. National Commission for (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
consciousness Women (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
1004 CDS Pathfinder
149. Which of the following 153. Which of the following 156. In which one of the following cases,
statement(s) regarding Rajya statement(s) about the constitutional validity of the
Sabha is/are correct? Comptroller and Auditor Muslim Women (Protection of Rights
1. The maximum permissible General of India (CAG) is/are of Divorce) Act, 1986, was upheld by
strength of Rajya Sabha is correct? the Supreme Court of India?
250. 1. The CAG will hold office for (a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah
2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members a period of 6 years from the Bano Begum
are elected indirectly from the date he assumes the office. (b) Danial Latifi vs Union of India
States and Union Territories. He shall vacate office on (c) Mary Roy vs State of Kerala
3. It shares legislative powers attaining the age of 65 (d) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India
equally with Lok Sabha in years, if earlier than the
expiry of the 6 years term. 157. Which of the following statement(s)
matters such as creation of
All India Services. 2. The powers of CAG are with regard to preventive detention
derived from the in India is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using Constitution of India.
the codes given below. 1. The detenue has no rights other
3. The CAG is a multi-member than those mentioned in Clauses
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 body appointed by the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 (4) and (5) of Article 22 of
President of India in Constitution of India.
150. Which of the following consultation with the Prime
Minister and the Council of 2. The detenue has a right to
statements relating to the office Ministers. challenge the detention order on
of the President of India are the ground that he was already in
4. The CAG may be removed jail when the detention order was
correct? by the President only on an passed.
1. The President has the power address from both Houses of 3. The detenue can claim bail on the
to grant pardon to a criminal Parliament, on the grounds ground that he has been in prison
in special cases. of proved misbehaviour or beyond twenty-four hours without
2. The President can promulgate incapacity. an order of the Magistrate.
ordinances even when the Select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using the
Parliament is in session. the codes given below. codes given below.
3. The President can dissolve (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
the Rajya Sabha during (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
emergency.
4. The President has the power 154. In which one of the following 158. A Member of Lok Sabha does not
to nominate two members in judgements of the become disqualified to continue as a
the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Constitutional Bench of the Member of the House if the member
Indian community. Supreme Court of India, the (a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership
Select the correct answer using ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the of the political party from which he/she
the codes given below. award of death penalty was was elected
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 first laid down? (b) is expelled by the political party from
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) Bachan Singh vs State of which he/she had been elected to the
Punjab (1980) House
151. Which of the statement(s) given (b) Gopalanachari vs State of (c) joins a political party after being
below is/are correct? Kerala (1980) elected as an independent candidate
1. The ideal of a common civil (c) Dr Upendra Baxi vs State of (d) abstains from voting contrary to the
code is set forth in Article 44 Uttar Pradesh (1983) direction by his/her political party
of the Constitution of India. (d) Tukaram vs State of 159. Which one of the following language(s)
2. In certain respects, the High Maharashtra (1979) is not recognised in the Eighth
Courts in India have been Schedule to the Constitution of India?
given more extensive powers 155. Consider the following
statements about the (a) English (b) Sanskrit
than the Supreme Court. (c) Urdu (d) Nepali
3. The Supreme Court of India, President of India.
the first fully independent 1. The President has the right 160. The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of
Court for the country, was to address and send India’ was entered in the Citizenship
set-up under the Constitution message to the Council of Act of India through an amendment
of India in 1950. Ministers to elicit specific in the year
Select the correct answer using information. (a) 1986 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 2003
the codes given below. 2. The President can call for
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 information relating to 161. The Right to Education was added to
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these proposals for legislation. the Fundamental Rights in the
3. All decisions of the Council Constitution of India through the
152. Which one of the following of Ministers relating to (a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act,
Articles/Schedules in the administration of the Union 2002
Constitution of India deals with must be communicated to (b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act,
Autonomous District Councils? the President. 2005
(a) Eighth Schedule Which of the statement(s) given (c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act,
(b) Article 370 above is/are correct? 2003
(c) Sixth Schedule (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act,
(d) Article 250 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these 2011
ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 a 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 a 6 a 7 d 8 b 9 d 10 b
11 d 12 b 13 d 14 b 15 c 16 c 17 b 18 a 19 b 20 a
21 a 22 d 23 b 24 c 25 d 26 d 27 a 28 d 29 c 30 b
31 d 32 c 33 c 34 d 35 a 36 d 37 b 38 a 39 d 40 a
41 d 42 b 43 a 44 d 45 b 46 a 47 a 48 c 49 a 50 a
51 d 52 a 53 a 54 a 55 d 56 a 57 d 58 b 59 b 60 c
61 d 62 a 63 a 64 d 65 c 66 a 67 c 68 c 69 d 70 c
71 d 72 d 73 b 74 c 75 c 76 d 77 b 78 b 79 c 80 b
81 c 82 a 83 a 84 d 85 d 86 b 87 b 88 c 89 b 90 d
91 d 92 d 93 c 94 d 95 d 96 b 97 b 98 c 99 d 100 b
101 b 102 b 103 b 104 d 105 b 106 a 107 c 108 c 109 c 110 d
111 d 112 b 113 b 114 b 115 c 116 c 117 d 118 c 119 c 120 c
121 d 122 b 123 d 124 d 125 a 126 b 127 d 128 b 129 c 130 b
131 c 132 c 133 a 134 c 135 d 136 b 137 a 138 d 139 a 140 b
141 b 142 d 143 c 144 b 145 c 146 c 147 d 148 c 149 b 150 c
151 b 152 c 153 c 154 b 155 c 156 c 157 c 158 a 159 a 160 d
161 c 162 b 163 d 164 c 165 b 166 b 167 d 168 a 169 c 170 d
171 b 172 b 173 b 174 b 175 c 176 b 177 a 178 b 179 b 180 a
Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 c 2 d 3 d 4 b 5 d 6 b 7 d 8 b 9 c 10 b
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 a 15 d 16 b 17 c 18 c 19 d 20 c
21 c 22 d 23 a 24 a 25 d 26 d 27 c 28 a 29 d 30 a
31 d 32 b 33 b 34 a 35 b 36 d 37 c 38 a 39 c 40 d
41 b 42 d 43 c 44 a 45 b 46 b 47 c 48 b 49 d 50 c
51 c 52 a 53 b 54 b 55 d 56 d 57 c 58 b 59 b 60 c
61 b 62 d 63 a 64 b 65 a 66 c 67 d 68 c 69 b 70 d
71 a 72 b 73 b 74 b 75 b 76 d 77 c 78 d 79 a 80 a
81 b 82 d 83 d 84 c 85 b 86 b 87 c 88 d 89 b 90 a
91 a 92 d 93 c 94 b 95 d 96 c 97 c 98 a 99 b 100 b
101 c 102 c 103 a 104 c 105 d 106 c 107 b 108 d 109 b 110 b
111 c 112 b 113 d 114 a 115 a 116 b 117 d 118 c 119 c 120 d
121 b 122 c 123 c 124 a 125 a 126 b 127 a 128 d 129 b 130 b
131 b 132 a 133 d 134 a 135 b 136 a 137 d 138 b 139 d 140 d
141 d 142 c 143 a 144 a 145 d 146 a 147 a 148 d 149 a 150 b
151 d 152 c 153 a 154 a 155 d 156 b 157 b 158 b 159 a 160 d
161 a

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03

GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 947

Constitutional Development Under East India Company

Pitts India Act (1784) Constitutional Development Under

The Government of India Act (1935) Members of Interim Government

MAKING OF THE Major Committees

XII Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits 264 to 300 A

Salient Features of the National Symbols

Amendability of the Preamble CITIZENSHIP

• Article 21 (A) Right to education from age 6 to 14 years

Forms of Writs Suspension of Fundamental

Gandhian Principles Difference between Fundamental Rights

Term of Office and Salary

Election (Articles 54, 55 and 71) R Venkataraman 25.07.1987 25.07.1992

President can refer a decision of an individual

Council of Ministers Prime Ministers of India

Attorney General Presiding Officer

Membership Deputy Speaker

Sessions of Parliament Mechanisms of Parliamentary

Legislative Procedure in Parliament CONSOLIDATED FUND OF INDIA

Budget in Parliament Estimates Committee

Qualification and Oath Emergency Powers

Qualifications and Tenure

Supreme Court of India Jurisdiction

Qualifications PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION (PIL)

Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143)

Jurisdiction and Seats of High Courts Subordinate Courts

Karnataka 1884 Karnataka Bengaluru

Panchayats Constitutional Bodies

Duration and Election Election Commission

National Commission for Functions

National Development Council Salient Features of Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act

State Finance Commission CENTRE-STATE RELATION

Financial Relations Inter-State Council

E-Choupal Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. Such

IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS

Which of the statement(s) given 3. probes the significance of

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

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