GATE 2021

Mechanical Engineering
(Volume - I)

TOPIC WISE GATE SOLUTIONS

1987 - 2020

TM ®
 IMPORTANCE of GATE
GATE examination has been emerging as one of the most prestigious competitive exam for engineers.
Earlier it was considered to be an exam just for eligibility for pursuing PG courses, but now GATE exam
has gained a lot of attention of students as this exam open an ocean of possibilities like :
1. Admission into IISc, IITs, IIITs, NITs
A good GATE score is helpful for getting admission into IISc, IITs, IIITs, NITs and many other
renowned institutions for M.Tech./M.E./M.S. An M.Tech. graduate has a number of career
opportunities in research fields and education industries. Students get `12,400 per month as
stipend during their course.
2. Selection in various Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
A good GATE score is helpful for getting job in government-owned corporations termed
as Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) in India like IOCL, BHEL, NTPC, BARC, ONGC, PGCIL, DVC,
HPCL, GAIL, SAIL & many more.
3. Direct recruitment to Group A level posts in Central government, i.e., Senior Field Officer (Tele),
Senior Research Officer (Crypto) and Senior Research Officer (S&T) in Cabinet Secretariat,
Government of India, is now being carried out on the basis of GATE score.
4. Foreign universities through GATE
GATE has crossed the boundaries to become an international level test for entry into
postgraduate engineering programmes in abroad. Some institutes in two countries Singapore
and Germany are known to accept GATE score for admission to their PG engineering
programmes.
5. National Institute of Industrial Engg. (NITIE)
• NITIE offers PGDIE / PGDMM / PGDPM on the basis of GATE scores. The shortlisted
candidates are then called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview rounds.
• NITIE offers a Doctoral Level Fellowship Programme recognized by Ministry of HRD
(MHRD) as equivalent to Ph.D. of any Indian University.
• Regular full time candidates those who will qualify for the financial assistance will receive
`25,000 during 1st and 2nd year of the Fellowship programme and `28,000 during 3rd,
4th and 5th year of the Fellowship programme as per MHRD guidelines.
6. Ph.D. in IISc/ IITs
• IISc and IITs take admissions for Ph.D. on the basis of GATE score.
• Earn a Ph.D. degree directly after Bachelor’s degree through integrated programme.
• A fulltime residential researcher (RR) programme.
7. Fellowship Program in management (FPM)
• Enrolment through GATE score card
• Stipend of `22,000 - 30,000 per month + HRA
• It is a fellowship program
• Application form is generally available in month of Sept. and Oct.
Note : In near future, hopefully GATE exam will become a mandatory exit test for all engineering
students, so take this exam seriously. Best of LUCK !
 GATE Exam Pattern

Section Question No. No. of Questions Marks Per Question Total Marks
General 1 to 5 5 1 5
Aptitude 6 to 10 5 2 10
Technical 1 to 25 25 1 25
+
Engineering 26 to 55 30 2 60
Mathematics
Total Duration : 3 hours Total Questions : 65 Total Marks : 100
Note : 40 to 45 marks will be allotted to Numerical Answer Type Questions

Pattern of Questions :
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all the papers and
sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four
answers, out of which the candidate has to select (mark) the correct answer.
Negative Marking for Wrong Answers : For a wrong answer chosen in a MCQ, there will
be negative marking. For 1-mark MCQ, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong answer.
Likewise for, 2-marks MCQ, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong answer.
(ii) Numerical Answer Type (NAT) Questions carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all the papers
and sections. For these questions, the answer is a signed real number, which needs to
be entered by the candidate using the virtual numeric keypad on the monitor (Keyboard
of the computer will be disabled). No choices will be shown for these type of questions.
The answer can be a number such as 10 or – 10 (an integer only). The answer may be in
decimals as well, for example, 10.1 (one decimal) or 10.01 (two decimal) or –10.001
(three decimal). These questions will be mentioned with, up to which decimal places,
the candidates need to make an answer. Also, an appropriate range will be considered
while evaluating the numerical answer type questions so that the candidate is not
penalized due to the usual round-off errors. Wherever required and possible, it is better
to give NAT answer up to a maximum of three decimal places.

Note : There is NO negative marking for a wrong answer in NAT questions.

 What is special about this book ?
GATE ACADEMY Team took several years’ to come up with the solutions of GATE examination. It is
because we strongly believe in quality. We have significantly prepared each and every solution of the
questions appeared in GATE, and many individuals from the community have taken time out to proof
read and improve the quality of solutions, so that it becomes very lucid for the readers. Some of the
key features of this book are as under :
 This book gives complete analysis of questions chapter wise as well as year wise.
 Video Solution of important conceptual questions has been given in the form of QR code and
by scanning QR code one can see the video solution of the given question.
 Solutions has been presented in lucid and understandable language for an average student.
 In addition to the GATE syllabus, the book includes the nomenclature of chapters according to
text books for easy reference.
 Last but not the least, author's 10 years experience and devotion in preparation of these
solutions.
 Steps to Open Video solution through mobile.

(1) Search for QR Code scanner (2) Download & Install any
in Google Play / App Store. QR Code Scanner App.

(3) Scan the given QR Code (4) Visit the link generated & you’ll
for parcular queson. be redirect to the video soluon.
Note : For recent updates regarding minor changes in this book, visit -
www.gateacademy.co.in. We are always ready to appreciate and help you.
 GATE SYLLABUS
Section 1 : Engineering Mathematics
Linear Algebra : Matrix algebra, systems of linear equations, eigenvalues and
eigenvectors.
Calculus : Functions of single variable, limit, continuity and differentiability, mean value
theorems, indeterminate forms; evaluation of definite and improper integrals; double
and triple integrals; partial derivatives, total derivative, Taylor series (in one and two
variables), maxima and minima, Fourier series; gradient, divergence and curl, vector
identities, directional derivatives, line, surface and volume integrals, applications of
Gauss, Stokes and Green’s theorems.
Differential Equations : First order equations (linear and nonlinear); higher order linear
differential equations with constant coefficients; Euler-Cauchy equation; initial and
boundary value problems; Laplace transforms; solutions of heat, wave and Laplace's
equations.
Complex Variables : Analytic functions; Cauchy-Riemann equations; Cauchy’s integral
theorem and integral formula; Taylor and Laurent series.
Probability and Statistics : Definitions of probability, sampling theorems, conditional
probability; mean, median, mode and standard deviation; random variables, binomial,
Poisson and normal distributions.
Numerical Methods : Numerical solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations;
integration by trapezoidal and Simpson’s rules; single and multi-step methods for
differential equations.
Section 2 : Applied Mechanics and Design
Engineering Mechanics : Free-body diagrams and equilibrium; friction and its
applications including rolling friction, belt-pulley, brakes, clutches, screw jack, wedge,
vehicles, etc.; trusses and frames; virtual work; kinematics and dynamics of rigid bodies
in plane motion; impulse and momentum (linear and angular) and energy formulations;
Lagrange’s equation.
Mechanics of Materials : Stress and strain, elastic constants, Poisson's ratio; Mohr’s
circle for plane stress and plane strain; thin cylinders; shear force and bending moment
diagrams; bending and shear stresses; concept of shear centre; deflection of beams;
torsion of circular shafts; Euler’s theory of columns; energy methods; thermal stresses;
strain gauges and rosettes; testing of materials with universal testing machine; testing
of hardness and impact strength.
Theory of Machines : Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane
mechanisms; dynamic analysis of linkages; cams; gears and gear trains; flywheels and
governors; balancing of reciprocating and rotating masses; gyroscope.
 Vibrations : Free and forced vibration of single degree of freedom systems, effect of
damping; vibration isolation; resonance; critical speeds of shafts.
Machine Design : Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue
strength and the S-N diagram; principles of the design of machine elements such as
bolted, riveted and welded joints; shafts, gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings,
brakes and clutches, springs.
Section 3 : Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences
Fluid Mechanics : Fluid properties; fluid statics, forces on submerged bodies, stability
of floating bodies; controlvolume analysis of mass, momentum and energy; fluid
acceleration; differential equations of continuity and momentum; Bernoulli’s equation;
dimensional analysis; viscous flow of incompressible fluids, boundary layer, elementary
turbulent flow, flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends and fittings; basics of
compressible fluid flow.
Heat-Transfer : Modes of heat transfer; one dimensional heat conduction, resistance
concept and electrical analogy, heat transfer through fins; unsteady heat conduction,
lumped parameter system, Heisler's charts; thermal boundary layer, dimensionless
parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, heat transfer correlations for
flow over flat plates and through pipes, effect of turbulence; heat exchanger
performance, LMTD and NTU methods; radiative heat transfer, Stefan- Boltzmann law,
Wien's displacement law, black and grey surfaces, view factors, radiation network
analysis.
Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic systems and processes; properties of pure
substances, behavior of ideal and real gases; zeroth and first laws of thermodynamics,
calculation of work and heat in various processes; second law of thermodynamics;
thermodynamic property charts and tables, availability and irreversibility;
thermodynamic relations.
Applications : Power Engineering : Air and gas compressors; vapour and gas power
cycles, concepts of regeneration and reheat. I.C. Engines : Air-standard Otto, Diesel and
dual cycles. Refrigeration and Air-conditioning : Vapour and gas refrigeration and heat
pump cycles; properties of moist air, psychrometric chart, basic psychrometric
processes. Turbomachinery : Impulse and reaction principles, velocity diagrams,
Peltonwheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines; steam and gas turbines.
Section 4 : Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering
Engineering Materials : Structure and properties of engineering materials, phase
diagrams, heat treatment, stressstrain diagrams for engineering materials.
 Casting, Forming and Joining Processes : Different types of castings, design of patterns,
moulds and cores; solidification and cooling; riser and gating design. Plastic deformation
and yield criteria; fundamentals of hot and cold working processes; load estimation for
bulk (forging, rolling, extrusion, drawing) and sheet (shearing, deep drawing, bending)
metal forming processes; principles of powder metallurgy. Principles of welding,
brazing, soldering and adhesive bonding.
Machining and Machine Tool Operations : Mechanics of machining; basic machine
tools; single and multi-point cutting tools, tool geometry and materials, tool life and
wear; economics of machining; principles of nontraditional machining processes;
principles of work holding, jigs and fixtures; abrasive machining processes; NC/CNC
machines and CNC programming.
Metrology and Inspection : Limits, fits and tolerances; linear and angular
measurements; comparators; interferometry; form and finish measurement; alignment
and testing methods; tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly; concepts of
coordinate-measuring machine (CMM).
Computer Integrated Manufacturing : Basic concepts of CAD/CAM and their
integration tools; additive manufacturing.
Production Planning and Control : Forecasting models, aggregate production planning,
scheduling, materials requirement planning; lean manufacturing.
Inventory Control : Deterministic models; safety stock inventory control systems.
Operations Research : Linear programming, simplex method, transportation,
assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.
General Aptitude (GA)
Verbal Ability : Basic English grammar : tenses, articles, adjectives, prepositions,
conjunctions, verb-noun agreement, and other parts of speech.
Basic vocabulary : words, idioms, and phrases in context.
Reading and comprehension.
Narrative sequencing.
Quantitative Aptitude : Data interpretation : data graphs (bar graphs, pie charts, and
other graphs representing data), 2-and 3-dimensional plots, maps, and tables.
Numerical computation and estimation : ratios, percentages, powers, exponents and
logarithms, permutations and combinations, and series.
Mensuration and geometry.
Elementary statistics and probability.
Analytical Aptitude : Logic : deduction and induction, Analogy, Numerical relations and
reasoning.
Spatial Aptitude : Transformation of shapes : translation, rotation, scaling, mirroring,
assembling, and grouping Paper folding, cutting, and patterns in 2 and 3 dimensions.
 PREFACE

It is our pleasure, that we insist on presenting “GATE 2021 Mechanical

Engineering (Volume - I)” authored for Mechanical Engineering to all of the
aspirants and career seekers. The prime objective of this book is to respond to
tremendous amount of ever growing demand for error free, flawless and
succinct but conceptually empowered solutions to all the question over the
period 1987 - 2020.
This book serves to the best supplement for GATE 2021 (ME) but shall be useful to a larger extent
for other discipline as well.
Simultaneously having its salient features the book comprises :
 Step by step solution to all questions.
 Complete analysis of questions, i.e. chapter wise as well as year wise.
 Detailed explanation of all the questions.
 Solutions are presented in simple and easily understandable language.
 It covers all GATE questions from 1987 to 2020 (34 years).
The authors do not sense any deficit in believing that this title will in many aspects, be different
from the similar titles within the search of student.
We would like to express our sincere appreciation to Mrs. Sakshi Dhande Mam
(Co-Director, GATE ACADEMY Learning Pvt. Ltd.) for her constant support and constructive
suggestions and comments in reviewing the script.
In particular, we wish to thank GATE ACADEMY expert team members for their hard work
and consistency while designing the script.
The final manuscript has been prepared with utmost care. However, going a line that, there
is always room for improvement in anything done, we would welcome and greatly appreciate the
suggestions and corrections for further improvement.

Umesh Dhande
(Director, GATE ACADEMY Learning Pvt. Ltd.)
 ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

We are glad of this opportunity to acknowledge the views and to express with all the
weaknesses of mere words the gratitude that we must always feel for the generosity of them.
We now express our gracious gratitude to the persons who have contributed a lot in
order to put forth this into device. They are to be mentioned here and they are Sujeet Pandey,
Prashant Pandey, Naresh Sonkar, Mukesh Kumar Sahu, Khomesh Sahu, Amit Kumar Singh and
Mrinal Banerjee.
We would also like to express our gracious gratitude to the faculty members of Gate
Academy who have contributed a lot in order to put forth this into device. They are to be
mentioned here and they are Mr. Deepraj Chandrakar, Mr. Yogesh Tyagi and Mr. Venugopal
Sharma.
Special thanks to Mr. Akshay Mishra, who has been involved in this project from the
beginning and has given his best effort on his part. This book was not possible without his
unconditional effort.
Lastly, we take this opportunity to acknowledge the service of the total team of
publication and everyone who collaborated in producing this work.

GATE ACADEMY
 CONTENTS

S. No. Topics Page No.

1. Fluid Mechanics
1. Properties of Fluid
2. Pressure & Its Measurement
3. Hydrostatic Forces
4. Buoyancy & Floatation
5. Kinematics of Fluid
6. Dynamics of Fluid
7. Laminar & Turbulent Flow, Viscous Flow, Flow Through Pipes
8. Boundary Layer Theory
9. Hydraulic Machines
2. Thermodynamics
1. Thermodynamics System & Process
2. First Law of Thermodynamics
3. Second Law of Thermodynamics
4. Entropy
5. Availability & Irreversibility
6. Pure Substances
7. Steam Power Cycles
8. Gas Power Cycles
9. Internal Combustion Engine
3. Heat Transfer
1. Conduction
2. Fins & Unsteady Heat Transfer
3. Free & Forced Convection
4. Heat Exchanger
5. Radiation
4. Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning (RAC)
1. Vapour Refrigeration
2. Properties of Moist Air & Psychrometric Processes
3. Heat Pumps & Cycles
5. Mechanics of Materials
1. Stress & Strain
2. Complex Stress
3. Elastic Constants & Theory of Failure
4. Strain Energy & Thermal Stresses
5. Shear Force & Bending Moment Diagrams
6. Bending of Beam
7. Torsion of Shaft
8. Springs
9. Euler's Theory of Column
10. Thin Cylinder
6. Machine Design
1. Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure)
2. Design Against Dynamic Load (Fatigue Strength & SN Diagram)
3. Gears
4. Bearings, Shaft & Keys
5. Clutches, Ropes & Belts
6. Brakes
7. Joints (Bolted, Riveted & Welded)
8. Power Screws & Springs
7. General Aptitude
1. Numerical Ability
2. Logical Reasoning
3. Verbal Ability
 1 Properties of Fluid

1995 IIT Kanpur 1.5 Match 4 correct pairs between List-I and
List-II. [1 Mark]
1.1 A fluid is said to be Newtonian fluid List-I List-II
when the shear stress is [1 Mark] A. Steam nozzle 1. Mach
(A) Directly proportional to the velocity Number
gradient. B. Compressible 2. Reaction
(B) Inversely proportional to the Flow Turbine
velocity gradient. C. Surface 3. Biot
(C) Independent of the velocity gradient. tension Number
(D) None of the above. D. Heat 4. Nusselt
conduction Number
1996 IISc Bangalore 5. Super
1.2 A fluid is one which can be defined as a saturation
substance that [1 Mark] 6. Weber
(A) Has that same shear stress at all Number
points.
1999 IIT Bombay
(B) Can deform indefinitely under the
action of the smallest shear force. 1.6 If ‘p’ is the gauge pressure within a
(C) Has the small shear stress in all spherical droplet, then gauge pressure
directions. within a bubble of the same fluid and of
same size will be [1 Mark]
(D) Is practically incompressible.
(A) p / 4 (B) p / 2
1.3 The dimension of surface tension is
[1 Mark] (C) p (D) 2 p
(A) ML 1 2 1
(B) L T 1.7 Kinematic viscosity of air at 200 C is
(C) ML1T 1 (D) MT  2 given to be 1.6  10 5 m 2 /s . Its kinematic
viscosity at 700 C will be varying
1997 IIT Madras approximately : [1 Mark]
5
1.4 The dimension of surface tension is (A) 2.2  10 m /s 2

[1 Mark] (B) 1.6  10 5 m 2 /s

2
(A) N/m (B) J/m (C) 1.2  10 5 m 2 /s
(C) J/m 2 (D) W/m (D) 3.2 10 5 m 2 /s
 1.2 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
V
2001 IIT Kanpur M
h m
1.8 The S.I. unit of kinematic viscosity (  )
is, [1 Mark] g

(A) m 2 /sec (B) kg/m-sec

m
(C) m/sec 2 (D) m3 /sec 2
1.9 A static fluid can have [1 Mark]
M gh M gh
(A) Non-zero normal and shear stress. (A) (B)
 L2 
(B) Negative normal stress and zero mgh mgh
shear stress. (C) (D)
L 2

(C) Positive normal stress and zero shear 1.12 Newton’s law of viscosity states that the
stress. shear stress in a fluid is proportional to
(D) Zero normal stress and non-zero [2 Marks]
(A) The velocity of the fluid.
shear stress.
(B) The time rate of change of velocity
2004 IIT Delhi of the fluid.
(C) The rate of change of velocity of the
1.10 An incompressible fluid (kinematic fluid change with height of fluid
viscosity 7.4  107 m 2 s , specific film.
gravity 0.88) is held between two (D) The square of the velocity of the
parallel plates. If the top plate is moved fluid.
with a velocity of 0.5 m s while the 2006 IIT Kharagpur
bottom one is held stationary, the fluid 1.13 For a Newtonian fluid [1 Mark]
attains a linear velocity profile in the gap (A) Shear stress is proportional to shear
of 0.5 mm between these plates the shear strain.
stress in pascals on the surface of top (B) Rate of shear stress is proportional to
plate is [1 Mark] shear strain.
(C) Shear stress is proportional to rate of
(A) 0.651103 (B) 0.651 shear strain.
(D) Rate of shear stress is proportional to
(C) 6.51 (D) 0.651103
rate of shear strain.
1.11 A cubic block of side ‘L’ and mass ‘M’
2007 IIT Kanpur
is dragged over an oil film across table
by a string connects to a hanging block 1.14 Oil in a hydraulic cylinder is compressed
of mass ‘m’ as shown is fig. The from an initial volume 2 m3 to 1.96 m3 .
Newtonian oil film of thickness ‘h’ has If the pressure of oil in the cylinder
dynamic viscosity '  ' and the flow changes from 40 MPa to 80 MPa during
compression, the bulk modulus of
condition is laminar. The acceleration elasticity of oil is [2 Marks]
due to gravity is ‘g’. The steady state (A) 1000 MPa (B) 2000 MPa
velocity ‘V’ of block is [2 Marks] (C) 4000 MPa (D) 8000 MPa
GATE ACADEMY® Fluid Mechanics : Properties of Fluid 1.3

2008 IISc Bangalore 1.19 In a simple concentric shaft-bearing

arrangement, the lubricant flows in the 2
1.15 A journal bearing has a shaft diameter of mm gap between the shaft and the
40 mm and a length of 40 mm. The shaft bearing. The flow may be assumed to be
is rotating at 20 rad/ s and the viscosity a plane Couette flow with zero pressure
of the lubricant is 20 mPa-s. The gradient. The diameter of the shaft is 100
mm and its tangential speed is 10 m/s.
clearance is 0.020 mm. The loss of
the dynamic viscosity of the lubricant is
torque due to the viscosity of the 0.1 kg/ms. The frictional resisting force
lubricant is approximately [2 Marks] (in newton) per 100 mm length of the
(A) 0.040 Nm (B) 0.252 Nm bearing is _______. [2 Marks]
(C) 0.400 Nm (D) 0.652 Nm 2015 IIT Kanpur
1.16 A two dimensional fluid element rotates 1.20 Couette flow is characterized by
like a rigid body. At a point within the [1 Mark]
elements, the pressure is 1 unit. Radius (A) Steady, incompressible, laminar
of the Mohr’s circle, characterizing the flow through a straight circular pipe.
state of stress at the point is [2 Marks] (B) Fully developed turbulent flow
(A) 0.5 unit (B) 0 unit through a straight circular pipe.
(C) Steady, incompressible, laminar
(C) 1 unit (D) 2 units
flow between two fixed parallel
2010 IIT Guwahati plates.
(D) Steady, incompressible, laminar
1.17 A lightly loaded full journal bearing has flow between one fixed plate and the
journal diameter of 50 mm, bush bore of other moving with a constant
50.50 mm and bush length of 20 mm. If velocity.
rotational speed of journal is 1200 rpm
2016 IISc Bangalore
and average viscosity of liquid lubricant
1.21 Consider fluid flow between two infinite
is 0.3 Pa-sec, the power loss (in Watt) horizontal plates which are parallel (the
will be [2 Marks] gap between them being 50 mm). The
(A) 37 (B) 74 top plate is sliding parallel to the
(C) 118 (D) 237 stationary bottom plate at a speed of 3
m/s. The flow between the plates is
2014 IIT Kharagpur solely due to the motion of the top plate.
The force per unit area (magnitude)
1.18 The difference in pressure (in N/m 2 ) required to maintain the bottom plate
across an air bubble of diameter 0.001 m stationary is _____ N/m 2 .
immersed in water (surface tension = Viscosity of the fluid   0.44 kg/m-s
0.072 N/m) is ______. [1 Mark] and density   888 kg/m3 . [2 Marks]
 1.4 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

2018 IIT Guwahati If the dynamic viscosity of the lower

fluid  2 is twice that of the upper fluid,
1.22 A solid block of 2.0 kg mass slides
steadiy at a velocity V along a vertical 1 , then the velocity at the interface
wall as shown in the figure below. A thin (round off to two decimal places) is
oil film of thickness h = 0.15 mm ______ m/s. [2 Marks]
provides lubrication between the block
m1 m2 = 2m1
and the wall. The surface area of the face y
2m
of the block in contact with the oil film m2 1m
is 0.04 m 2 . The velocity distribution x
within the oil film gap is linear as shown
in the figure. Take dynamic viscosity of
oil as 7  103 Pa-s and accleration due
to gravity as 10 m/s 2 . Neglect weight of
the oil. The terminal velocity V (in m/s )
of the block is _______ (correct to one
decimal place) [2 Marks]

Impermeable V
wall
Area = 0.04 m2

2019 IIT Madras

1.23 Two immiscible, incompressible,
viscous fluids having same densities but
different viscosities are contained
between two infinite horizontal parallel
plates, 2 m apart as shown below. The
bottom plate is fixed and the upper plate
moves to the right with a constant
velocity of 3 m/s. With the assumptions
of Newtonian fluid, steady and fully
developed laminar flow with zero
pressure gradient in all directions, the
momentum equations simplify to
d 2u
 0.
dy 2
GATE ACADEMY® Fluid Mechanics : Properties of Fluid 1.5

Answers Properties of Fluid

A-5, B-1,
1.1 A 1.2 B 1.3 D 1.4 C 1.5
C-6, D-3
1.6 D 1.7 A 1.8 A 1.9 C 1.10 B
1.11 C 1.12 C 1.13 C 1.14 B 1.15 A
1.16 B 1.17 A 1.18 288 1.19 15.7 1.20 D
1.21 26.4 1.22 10.714 1.23 1

Explanations Properties of Fluid

1.1 (A)  Key Point

Newtonian fluid : The fluids may be of the following types :
 Fluid which obey Newton’s law of Thixotropic (Shear thinning)
Ideal solid
viscosity are known as Newtonian fluids. ¹ 0 Bingham plastic
,B
 According to Newton’s law of viscosity n =1
Rheopectic (Shear thickening)
shear stress () on a fluid element layer Pseudo plastic (Shear thinning)
is directly proportional to velocity
Shear stress t

stress (i.e. B ¹ 0)
B = Initial yield

Newtonian
gradient (du / dy ) . =m Dilatant
1 ,A
du n= (Shear thickening)
  B=
0,
dy Ideal fluid (t = 0)

du
Shear stress,    Rate of shear (du/dy)
dy Those fluids which do not obey Newton’s law
t of viscosity are called non-Newtonian fluids.
Newtonian fluid Power law fluid : A power-law fluid, or the
æ du ö Ostwald-de Waele relationship, is a type of
ç t µ dy ÷
(N/m2)

è ø generalized Newtonian fluid (time independent

Non-Newtonian fluid) for which the shear
Slope = Dynamic viscosity (m) stress  , is given by
n
0  u 
–1
du/dy (s )
n K 
 du   y 
But in general form,     
 dy  Where, K  Flow consistency index
where, n  1 (For Newtonian fluid) u
 Shear rate or the velocity gradient
n  1 (For Dilatant fluid) y
n  1 (For Psuedo plastic fluid) perpendicular to the plane of shear
Examples of Newtonian fluid : n  Flow behavior index
(dimensionless)
Water, Air, Petrol, Kerosene, Diesel, Alcohol n 1
and Gasoline.  u 
The quantity,  eff K 
Hence, the correct option is (A).  y 
 1.6 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Represents an apparent or effective viscosity as

C
a function of the shear rate. F B F
Fc
Fc
1.2 (B)
A
 A substance in liquid or gaseous phase is
referred as fluid. They are capable of Particle B and C which are present at the free
deforming continuously under the action surface, is not in equilibrium, net force acting
of tangential force or shear force, downward, because of this net downward force
however smallest the shear force and a tensile force is induced as shown in figure,
tangential force may be. that tensile force per unit length is called
 Because of continuous deformation fluid surface tension. Denoted by () .
has a ability to flow. 1.4 (C)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Surface tension is defined as surface energy per
1.3 (D) unit surface area.
Surface energy  J 
Surface tension is the elastic tendency of   
a fluid surface which makes it acquire the Surface area  m 2 
least surface area possible. Surface tension Surface tension is because of net force which
acts downward in the liquid particle which are
allows insects (e.g. water striders), usually
present at the free surface.
denser than water, to float and stride on a water
surface. Surface
It is denoted by Greek letter  (sigma). In molecules

M.K.S. units, it is expressed as kgf/m while in Inward pull

S.I. units as N/m. Liquid

Hence, the correct option is (C).

Top
view F L  Key Point
 The surface energy is defined as the
energy associated with the intermolecular
Front
forces at the interface between two
view media.
 Another unit of surface tension is N/m .
Tension force ( F )  Surface tension is responsible because
Surface tension () 
Length ( L) of unbalance cohesive force ( Fc ) . This
MLT  2 unbalance cohesive force is balance by
  MT  2
L tension force.
Hence, the correct option is (D).  At the critical temperature surface
 Key Point tension is zero.
Consider a molecule A, B and C as shown in  Surface tension is binary property of a
figure, net force in particle A is zero it is in liquid and gas or two liquids, it depends
complete equilibrium (stable condition). on surrounding fluid also.
GATE ACADEMY® Fluid Mechanics : Properties of Fluid 1.7

Example : Case 2 : (Spherical bubble/Soap bubble)

x
[H2O  Air ]  0.072 N/m s
s
and, [ Hg  Air ]  0.48 N/m t
D Air Dp
Air
1.5 A-5, B-1, C-6, D-3 Wa
ter s
s
(A  5) : Supersaturation of steam takes place x
in steam nozzle due to delay in condensation. 
Bursting force  p  D 2 (Pressure force)
(B  1) : Mach number is related to 4
compressible flow. Resisting force   D   ( D  2t )
(C  6) : Weber number is related to surface (Surface tension force)
tension.
At equilibrium,
(D  3) : Biot number is relevant to heat
Bursting force = Resisting force
conduction.

p  D 2  D  D
1.6 (D) 4
Given : Gauge pressure within a spherical ( D  2t  D)
droplet = p 
p  D 2  2D
Case 1 : (Spherical droplet/liquid droplet/water 4
droplet) 8
Let, p  Pressure inside the droplet above pbubble  pin  pout  p  …(ii)
D
outside pressure (p  p  0  p) From equations (i) and (ii), we get
D  Diameter of droplet pbubble  2 pdroplet
  Surface tension of the liquid.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
x
s  Key Point
pout
D Due to thickness of bubble it provides double
D Dp
pin resisting force (i.e., by both inner and outer
s film of bubble) compare to liquid droplet. So,
x Air
to maintain equilibrium the value of pressure of
 bubble is become two times that of liquid
Bursting force  p  D 2 (Pressure force)
4 droplet.
and, resisting force    D
1.7 (A)
(Surface tension force)
At equilibrium, Given :
Bursting force = Resisting force Initial temperature of air (T1 )  200 C  293K
 Initial kinematic viscosity of air
p  D 2    D
4 (1 )  1.6 10 5 m 2 /s
4
pdroplet  pin  pout  p  …(i) Find temperature of air (T2 )  700 C  343K
D
 1.8 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
The dynamic viscosity () of gases increase liquid 
with increase in temperature. For liquids,  liquid  (when T  )
liquid (c)
i.e.  T Where, c  constant.
Density of gases decrease with increase in
temperature at constant pressure. 1.8 (A)
1 Kinematic viscosity is defined as relative ability
i.e. 
T of a fluid to conserve its original momentum
So, kinematic viscosity () is the ratio of while diffusing the momentum due to any
dynamic viscosity to density, disturbance.
 OR
 It is defined as the ratio between the dynamic

viscosity and density of fluid. It is denoted by
T
  T 3/2 the Greek symbol () called ‘nu’. Thus,
1/ T
mathematically,

 constant Viscosity 
T 3/2  
Density 
1 2
3/2
 kg m2
(T1 ) (T2 )3/ 2 S.I. units :   
m-s s
1.6 10 5 2 kg/m 3
3/2

(293) (343)3/2
cm 2
2  2.026 10 m /s 5 2 C.G.S. units :    stroke
s
Hence, the correct option is (A). m2
M.K.S. units :  
s
Scan for
Video Solution Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.9 (C)
 Key Point
The dynamic viscosity () of gases increase Stress is defined as resisting force per unit area
(area upon which the force acts). Let us consider
with increase in temperature. This is due to the
a small area dA , on the surface of a fluid
reason that in gases the intermolecular
element, on which a force F acts as shown in
cohesion is negligible and the shear stress is
the figure below,
due to exchange of momentum of the
If the tangential and normal components of the
moleculer, normal to the direction of motion.
The molecular activity increases with rise in force F are respectively Ft and Fn , then
temperature and so does the viscosity of gas. Normal to the surface

Effect of temperature : F
Fn
  q
For gases,  gas  gas (when T  ) Tangent to the
 gas  d Ft surface

Where,   Increases,   Decreases. Fluid element surface

GATE ACADEMY® Fluid Mechanics : Properties of Fluid 1.9

Shear stress () at the surface of the fluid From Newton’s law of viscosity,
element u

F F cos  y
 t 
dA dA V = 0.5 m s
Normal stress at the surface of the fluid element
F F sin  y = 0.5 mm
 n 
dA dA
Normal stress and shear stress are vector As the gap is very small. We can assume that
quantities. velocity profile is linear. For linear velocity
For a static fluid body, i.e., a body of fluid that profile,
is at rest or has zero velocity, the shear stress is 
V V 
always zero. Also for static fluids, the normal      v  
y y  
stress is always positive.
Hence, the correct option is (C). 0.5
  7.4 107  880 
0.5 103
 Key Point
Real fluid :   0.651Pa
Real fluid (m ¹ 0) Hence, the correct option is (B).

Scan for
Static (u = 0) Motion (u ¹ 0) Video Solution
du = 0 du ¹ 0
0
t=m
du
t=m
du 1.11 (C)
dy dy
t=0 t¹0 According question F.B.D. of small block,
Pascal law is Pascal law is T
valid not valid
m
Ideal fluid :
Ideal fluid (m = 0) mg
Now from F.B.D., T  mg
Static (u = 0) Motion (u ¹ 0) Viscous force, F = T = mg
du = 0 du ¹ 0 (Acts on the upper layer of oil)
du 0 0 du
AV  V 
t=m t=m
dy dy  F
y    y & F  A 
t=0 t=0  
Pascal law is valid Pascal law is valid AV
mg 
h
1.10 (B)
mgh
Given : V
L2
Kinematic viscosity (v)  7.4 107 m2 s
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Specific gravity ( s)  0.88
Density ()  0.88 1000  880 kg/m3 Scan for
Velocity of plate (V )  0.5 m/s Video Solution
 1.10 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1.12 (C) Bulk modulus of elasticity,

dp 40  2
Newton’s law of viscosity,    K   2000 MPa
 dV  ( 0.04)
Where,   Shear stress  V 
 1 
du
and,   Hence, the correct option is (B).
dy
(Mathematically it is velocity gradient but Scan for
physically it is rate of shear strain of fluid). Video Solution
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 Key Point
1.13 (C)
Compressibility : It is defined as the change in
For a Newtonian fluid, shear stress is directly volume with respect to change in pressure. The
proportional to the velocity gradient or the rate coefficient of compressibility is measure of
of deformation or the rate of angular compressibility.
displacement or the rate of shear strain. Coefficient of compressibility () :
du du It is define as the relative change in volume
 or   
dy dy with respect to change pressure.
u
V dV
 V  V
y p dp
(– ve sign indicated when pressure increase
Hence, the correct option is (C). volume decrease).
 Key Point d
For solids : Shear stress depends upon shear   dV d  
   
force and not on time. So, dp  V  
 Relative change in density,
For fluids : But for fluids shear strain () d  Assuming incompressible 
  5%  
depends on both shear stress (  ) as well as   substance 
time. d
  5% (Compressible substance)
1.14 (B) 
Example :
Given :
1 atm  water  998 kg/m3
Hydraulic cylinder initial volume (V1 )  2 m3
1000 atm  water  1003 kg/m3
Hydraulic cylinder Final volume (V2 )  1.96 m3
Relative change in density
Initial pressure of oil cylinder ( p1 )  40 MPa
998  1003
 100  0.5%
Final pressure of oil cylinder ( p2 )  80 MPa 998
Volume difference, (Incompressible)
dV  V2  V1  1.96  2   0.04 m3 Theoretically, compressibility of water is
approximately zero.
Pressure difference,
 water  0
dp  p2  p1  80  40  40 MPa
GATE ACADEMY® Fluid Mechanics : Properties of Fluid 1.11

Bulk modulus or dilation modulus (K) : du du

i.e.,  0, as  0, shear stress   0.
Reciprocal of coefficient of compressibility is dy dy
called bulk modulus or dilation modulus i.e., If   0, pressure is uniform in all directions at
1 a point.
K
 Stress element at point is,
1 1 p = sy
( K ) water   
 0

1.15 (A) p = sx
p
Given : Diameter of shaft ( D)  40 mm
Length of shaft ( L)  40 mm p
Speed of shaft ()  20 rad/s
..Method 1..
Viscosity of lubricant
By graphical approach :
()  20 mPa-s  20 103 Pa-s
+t
Clearance ( y )  0.020 mm
Mohr’s circle
Torque due to viscosity,
V
F    A
y - sn + sn
sx = s y
A  DL   40 103  40 103
A  5.0265 103
-t
d
Velocity, V   r   Since Mohr’s circle is a point, so the radius of
2
3 Mohr’s circle is zero.
40  10
V  20   0.4 m/s Hence, the correct option is (B).
2
0.4 ..Method 2..
F  20 103  5.0265 103 
0.020 103 By analytical approach :
F  2.0106 N Stress in x-direction ( x )   p
d Stress in y-direction ( y )   p
T  F r  F 
2
Radius of Mohr circle is given by,
40 103
T  2.0106   0.040 Nm    y 
2
2 R  x  
2

Hence the correct option is (A).  2 

2
Scan for   p  ( p) 
Video Solution R   0
 2 
2
1.16 (B)  p p
R   0  0
In rigid body motion, velocity is uniform. As  2 
velocity is uniform, velocity gradient is zero. Hence, the correct option is (B).
 1.12 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1.17 (A) Hence, the difference in pressure across an air

bubble immersed in water is 288 N / m 2 .
Given : Diameter of bush ( Db )  50.5 mm
Diameter of journal ( D )  50 mm Scan for
Length of bush ( L)  20 mm Video Solution

Speed of journal ( N )  1200 rpm  Key Point

Viscosity of lubricant ()  0.3 Pa-s Case-1 :
Torque generated by lubricant, Two surface or two interface,
V D Water
T = F .r    A   …(i)
y 2 Air Air
A  DL
A   (50 103 )  (20 103 )
It is a bubble, so formula used for calculating
A  3.141103
pressure difference is,
DN  0.05 1200 8
V   3.141m/s p 
60 60 D
D  D 0.0505  0.05 Case-2 :
y b   2.5 104
2 2 One interface or one surface,
Putting all the values in equation (i),
3.141 0.05 Water Water
T  0.3  3.141 103  4
 Water
2.5 10 2
T  0.2959 N-m Air Air

Power loss,
2NT
P Formula used for calculating pressure
60
2  1200  0.2959 difference is,
P  37.19 Watt 4
60 p 
Hence the correct option is (A). D
Since, here only one common surface
Scan for (interface), that’s why in this case this bubble
Video Solution is acting as a drop, so we apply formula of drop.

1.18 288 1.19 15.7

Given : Diameter of air bubble ( D)  0.001m Given :

Diameter of shaft (d )  100 mm  0.1 m
Surface tension of water ()  0.072 N/m
Tangential velocity of shaft (V )  10 m/s
Pressure difference in air bubble immersed in
water is given by, Dynamic viscosity ()  0.1 kg/m.s
4 4  0.072 Length of shaft ( L)  100 mm  0.1 m
p    288 N/m 2
D 0.001 Gap between shaft and bearing ( y )  0.002 m
GATE ACADEMY® Fluid Mechanics : Properties of Fluid 1.13
Bearing Viscosity of the fluid ()  0.44 kg/m-s
V  0.44 N-sec/m 2
u (r ) Speed of top plate (V )  3 m/sec
100 mm
Density of the fluid ()  888 kg/m3
Shaft V = 3 m/sec

2 mm h = 50 mm

Assume velocity gradient is linear, then the

 Assuming linear velocity profile.
shear stress is given by, According to newton’s law of viscosity,
du V du
   
dy y dy
10 du
  0.1  500 N/m 2 F   A
0.002 dy
Surface area is given by, F du  du V  0 
  dy  h  0 
A  dL   0.1 0.1  0.0314 m 2 A dy  
F 30
Frictional resisting force is given by,  0.44   26.4 N/m 2
A 50 10 3  0
F  A Hence, the force per unit area required to maintain
F  500  0.0314  15.7 N the bottom plate stationary is 26.4 N / m 2 .
Hence, the frictional resisting force per 100 mm
Scan for
length of the bearing is 15.7 N.
Video Solution

Scan for
Video Solution  Key Point
Flow of fluid between two flat plate with one
1.20 (D) plate fix and another plate moving, if gap is
dp
Steady, incompressible, laminar flow between small and pressure gradient  0, then
one fixed plate and the other moving with a dx
constant velocity. velocity profile will be linear, such flow is
U Moving plate known as Couette flow.

1.22 10.714
y u( y)
Given : Mass of the block (m)  2 kg
x
Oil film thickness (h)  0.15 mm
t yx Stationary plate
Surface area of the block ( A)  0.04 m 2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Dynamic viscosity ()  7 10 3 Pa-s
1.21 26.4
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  10 m/s 2
Given : Here terminal velocity is constant means net
3
Gap between plates ( y )  50 mm  50 10 m acceleration will be zero.
 1.14 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

 Fnet  ma  0 , If velocity profile is linear, then shear stress will

 A  mg  0 be constant in gap everywhere.
du Let u is the velocity at interface.
  A  m g t´ A V At interface, 1  2
dy
V  du   du 
  A  m g 1     2  
h  dy 1  dy 2
V 3u u 0
7 103   0.04  2 10 1   21 
0.15 103 2 1 1 0
V  10.714 m/s 3  2u  u  3  3u
The terminal velocity V of the block is 10.714
On solving, u  1 m/s
m/s.
Hence, the velocity at the interface is 1 m/s.
Scan for
Video Solution Scan for
Video Solution
 Key Point
Terminal velocity of an object falling in/over
fluid is the velocity at which net force acting on 
the body becomes zero.
u

Terminal
velocity

t
After attaining terminal velocity the velocity of
body will not change until an external force is
applied on the system.
1.23 1
According to question, velocity profile is laminar
in both the fluids,
d 2u du
2
 0,  c1 and u  c1 y  c2
dy dy
i.e., we can assume linear velocity profile.
3 m/s

m1 1m
2m u
m2 1m
u=0
Velocity
distribution

1 
Thermodynamics
System & Process
1993 IIT Bombay (B) (1/ 273.15) th , the normal freezing
point of water
1.1 An insulated rigid vessel contains a
mixture of fuel and air. The mixture is (C) 100 times the difference between
the triple point of water and normal
ignited by a minute spark. The contents
freezing point of water
of the vessel experience. [1 Mark]
(A) Increase in temperature, pressure (D) (1/ 273.16) th the triple point of water
and energy 1996 IISc Bangalore
(B) Decrease in temperature, pressure
1.4 The specific heats of an ideal gas depend
and energy on its [1 Mark]
(C) Increase in temperature and pressure (A) temperature.
but no change in energy
(B) pressure.
(D) Increase in temperature and pressure (C) volume.
but decreases in energy
(D) molecular weight and structure.
1.2 A body of weight 100 N falls freely a
1.5 Match List-I with List-II [2 Marks]
vertical distance of 50 m. The
List-I List-II
atmospheric drag force is 0.5 N. For the
A. Cetane 1. Ideal gas
body, the work interaction is [1 Mark]
number
(A) 5000 J (B) – 5000 J
B. Approach 2. Vander
(C) – 25 J (D) 25 J
and range Waals gas
1994 IIT Kharagpur C.  δT  3. S.I. engine
 ≠0
1.3 The definition of 1K as per the  δP 
internationally accepted temperature D. dh = cP dT , 4. C.I. engine
scale is [1 Mark] even when 5. Cooling
(A) (1/100) th , the difference between pressure towers
normal boiling point and normal varies 6. Heat
freezing point of water exchangers
 2.2 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1999 IIT Bombay 1.9 A reversible thermodynamic cycle

containing only three processes and
1.6 An isolated thermodynamic system
producing work is to be constructed. The
executes a process. Choose the correct
constrains are : [2 Marks]
statements from the following :
1. There must be one isothermal process,
[2 Marks]
2. There must be one isentropic process,
(A) No heat is transferred.
3. The maximum and minimum cycle
(B) No work is done.
pressures and the clearance volume
(C) No mass flows across the boundary
are fixed,
of the system.
4. Polytropic processes are not allowed
(D) No chemical reaction takes place
Then the number of possible cycles are
within the system.
(A) 1 (B) 2
2002 IISc Bangalore (C) 3 (D) 4
1.7 What is the speed of sound in Neon gas 2006 IIT Kharagpur
at a temperature of 500 K (Gas constant
of Neon is 0.4210 kJ/kg.K)? [2 Marks] 1.10 Match items from groups I, II, III, IV
(A) 492 m/s (B) 460 m/s and V. [2 Marks]
Group II Group III Group IV Group V
(C) 592 m/s (D) 543 m/s When
Group I added to
2005 IIT Bombay the system
Differential Function Phenomenon
is
1.8 The following four figures have been E Heat G Positive I Exact K Path M Transient
drawn to represent a fictitious thermo- F Work H Negative J Inexact L Point N Boundary

dynamic cycle, on the p-V and T - S (A) F-G-J-K-M, E-G-I-K-N

planes. (B) E-G-I-K-M, F-H-I-K-N
p T (C) F-H-J-L-N, E-H-I-L-M
(D) E-G-J-K-N, F-H-J-K-M
2007 IIT Kanpur
V S
Fig. 1 Fig. 2 Common Data for
p T Questions 1.11 & 1.12

A thermodynamic cycle with an ideal gas as

working fluid is shown below.
V S p
Fig. 3 Fig. 4
3
According to the first law of thermo- 400 kPa
dynamics, equal areas are enclosed by
pV

[1 Mark]
= g

(A) Figure 1 and 2

C

(B) Figure 1 and 3 100 kPa 1

2
(C) Figure 1 and 4 V
(D) Figure 2 and 3 1m3 V1
GATE ACADEMY® Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic System & Process 2.3
1.11 The above cycle is represented on T - S 2009 IIT Roorkee
plane by, [2 Marks] 1.13 If a closed system is undergoing an
(A) T irreversible process the entropy of the
3 system [1 Mark]
(A) Must increase
(B) Always remains constant
(C) Must decrease
1
(D) Can increase, decrease or remain
2 constant
S
2011 IIT Madras
(B) T 1.14 Heat and work are [1 Mark]
3 1
(A) Intensive properties
(B) Extensive properties
(C) Point function
(D) Path functions
2 2014 IIT Kharagpur
S 1.15 A certain amount of an ideal gas is
initially at a pressure p1 and temperature
(C) T
3 T1.
First, it undergoes a constant pressure
3T
process 1-2 such that T2 = 1 . Then, it
1 4
undergoes a constant volume process 2-
2 T
3 such that T3 = 1 . The ratio of the final
S 2
(D) T volume to the initial volume of the ideal
gas is [2 Marks]
3 1 (A) 0.25 (B) 0.75
(C) 1.0 (D) 1.5
2016 IISc Bangalore

2
1.16 Which of the following statements are
TRUE with respect to heat and work?
S
[1 Mark]
1.12 If the specific heats of the working fluid (i) They are boundary phenomena
are constant and the value of specific (ii) They are exact differentials
heat ratio is 1.4, the thermal efficiency (iii)They are path functions
(A) Both (i) and (ii)
(%) of the cycle is [2 Marks]
(B) Both (i) and (iii)
(A) 21 (B) 40.9 (C) Both (ii) and (iii)
(C) 42.6 (D) 59.7 (D) Only (iii)
 2.4 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

2017 IIT Roorkee

1.17 The volume and temperature of air
(assumed to be an ideal gas) in a closed
vessel is 2.87 m3 and 300 K, respecti-
vely. The gauge pressure indicated by a
manometer fitted to the wall of the vessel
is 0.5 bar. If the gas constant of air is
R = 287 J/kg K and the atmospheric
pressure is 1 bar, the mass of air (in kg)
in the vessel is [2 Marks]
(A) 1.67 (B) 3.33
(C) 5.00 (D) 6.66
2019 IIT Madras
1.18 If one mole of H 2 gas is occupies a rigid
container with a capacity of 1000 litres
and the temperature is raised from 270 C
to 370 C , the change in pressure of the
contained gas (round off to two decimal
places), assuming ideal gas behaviour is
______ Pa. [2 Marks]
GATE ACADEMY® Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic System & Process 2.5

Answers Thermodynamic System & Process

A-4, B-5,
1.1 C 1.2 D 1.3 D 1.4 D 1.5
C-2, D-1
1.6 A, B & C 1.7 C 1.8 A 1.9 D 1.10 D
1.11 C 1.12 A 1.13 D 1.14 D 1.15 B
1.16 B 1.17 C 1.18 83.14

Explanations Thermodynamic System & Process

1.1 (C) Work done for body

= Atmospheric drag force (F)
Spark will result in combustion of fuel which
results in : × Displacement ( s )
(i) Increase in temperature = 0.5 × 50 = 25.0 J
(ii) As the vessel is rigid, volume will Hence, the correct option is (D).
remain constant and thus pressure will
1.3 (D)
increase.
(iii) As the vessel is insulated ΔQ = 0 . The kelvin is defined as the fraction
So the energy liberated due to combustion will (1/ 273.16) th of the thermodynamic temperature
be stored as internal energy of combustion of the triple point of water (exactly 0.010 C or
products. Hence no change in energy.
32.0180 F ).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Scan for
Video Solution Scan for
Video Solution
1.2 (D)
1.4 (D)
Given : Weight (W ) = 100 N
Atmospheric drag force ( F ) = 0.5 N γR R
cp = kJ/kg K and cV = kJ/kg K
γ −1 γ −1
Vertical distance ( s ) = 50 m
F = 0.5 N The value of γ thus depends only on the
molecular structure of the gas i.e., whether the
Body (Initial position) gas is monatomic, diatomic or polyatomic
u=0 having one, two or more atoms in a molecule.
W = 100 N Again c p and cV of on ideal gas depend only on
s = 50 m
γ and R i.e., the number of atoms in a molecule
F = 0.5 N
and the molecular weight of the gas. They are
Body (Final position) independent of temperature or pressure of the
gas.
W = 100 N Hence, the correct option is (D).
 2.6 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Secondly :
Scan for
Video Solution Figure 1 and 2 both are power cycle, but figure
3 and 4 are not power cycle.
1.5 A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1 If you see p -V diagram in application of 1st law
List-I List-II of thermodynamics, the rotation is always
A. Cetane number C.I. engine clockwise for power cycle.
B. Approach and Cooling towers For example :
range
p
C.  δT  Vander Waals gas A
 δp  ≠ 0
1 2
 h D B
D. dh = cP dT , even Ideal gas 4 C 3
V
when pressure
varies Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.6 (A), (B) & (C)
Scan for
Isolate system does not interact with Video Solution
surroundings,
Hence, no heat is transferred, no work is done 1.9 (D)
and no mass flows across boundary, note that Total four cycles are possible under the given
chemical reaction can take place. constraints. Two at constant volume and two at
Hence, the correct option is (A), (B) & (C). constant pressure as shown in figure.
Scan for p p
Video Solution
pmax
1
pmax 3 p=c
1

1.7 (C) T =c
3 T =c
pV

Given : Temperature of Neon gas (T) = 500 K

g

pV
=

g
pmin
c

=c 2
pmin 2
Gas constant (R) = 0.4210 kJ/kg K = 421 J/kg K V V
For monoatomic gas, Vc Vc

Specific heat ratio ( γ ) = 1.67 p p

The speed of sound, pmax 1 pmax 1

C = γRT = 1.67 × 421× 500 T =c

T =c 2
C = 592.90 m/s
pV

V=c
pV

g
g

pmin
=

2
Hence, the correct option is (C). 3
c

3 p=c pmin
V V
Vc Vc
1.8 (A)
Firstly : Hence, the correct option is (D).
For closed cycle change in internal energy is 0.
Scan for
First law of thermodynamics for closed system. Video Solution
(ΣQ)cycle = (ΣW )cycle
GATE ACADEMY® Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic System & Process 2.7

1.10 (D) both the option which is not possible option (A)
is rejected because clockwise process in p -V
Heat (E) :
1. It is positive when added to the system, diagram cannot have anticlockwise T -S
2. It is inexact differential diagram.
3. It is a path function. Hence the correct option (C).
4. It is a boundary phenomenon. 1.12 (A)
Work (F) :
1. It is negative when added to the system. Given : Specific heat ratio ( γ ) = 1.4
2. It is inexact differential. This cycles shows the Lenoir cycle. For Lenoir
3. It is a path function. cycle efficiency is given by,
Hence, the correct option is (D).  rp1/ γ − 1 
ηL = 1− γ 
1.11 (C)  rp − 1 
 
Explanation (I) :
p2 400 c
Since, 3-1 is adiabatic process, it will be where, rp = = = 4 and γ = p = 1.4
p1 100 cv
represented by a straight line on T - S plane. 1-
2 is isobaric process, so with decrease of  1.41 
 4 − 1
volume, temperature will also decrease. ηL = 1 − 1.4 = 0.210
 4 − 1 
Also for process 1-2, constant pressure lines in
T - S diagram starts from origin side and So efficiency, ηL = 21 %
diverge in forward direction. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Scan for
Explanation (II) : Video Solution
In the given ( p -V ) diagram process :
(1 − 2) → Isobaric compression 1.13 (D)
(2 − 3) → Isochoric heat addition
(dS ) system > 0, (dS ) system = 0 or (dS ) system < 0
(3 − 1) → Isentropic expansion
For a system entropy may increase, decrease or
∴ Cycle on (T - S ) diagram
remains constant depending upon heat involved
T
3 and internal irreversibility, but for an isolated
Qs system (i.e., universe) the entropy always
increases.
c 1
V
= Hence, the correct option is (D).
2 p = c QR 1.14 (D)
S
Explanation (III) : Heat and work are path functions.
We can observe in the p -V diagram that Similarities between heat and work :
temperature is not constant during any stage 1. Both are recognised at the boundary of
hence option (B) and (D) are rejected as the system, as they cross the boundary.
temperature is constant during the stage 3-1 in Hence both are boundary phenomena.
 2.8 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
2. System possesses energy, but neither
Scan for
heat nor work. Video Solution
3. Both are associated with process, not
state. Heat and work have NO meaning 1.16 (B)
at a state.
Heat and work are :
4. Both are path functions.
Path function : Magnitude depends on the path (i) They are boundary phenomena
followed during the process, as well as the end (ii) They are inexact differential
states. (iii) They are path functions
Point function : Magnitude depends on state (iv) They are not property of system
only, and not on how the system approaches that Hence, the correct option is (B).
state.
1.17 (C)
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Given : Volume of air (V1 ) = 2.87 m3
1.15 (B)
Temperature of air (T1 ) = 300 K
For process 1 → 2 , we have
p Gas constant of air,
R = 287 J / kg K = 0.287 kJ/kg K
p2 = p 1 2
1 pabs = patm + pgauge = 1.5 bar
V=c
3
pabs = 1.5 ×100 = 150 kPa
Using ideal gas equation, we have
pV = mRT
V
V3 = V2
150 × 2.87 = m × 0.287 × 300
3 m = 5.0 kg
T2 = T1
4
Hence, the correct option is (C).
T2 3
=
T1 4 Scan for
Video Solution
At constant pressure, we have
T2 V2 3 1.18 83.14
= =
T1 V1 4
Given : Volume of rigid container
For process 2 → 3 , we have
(V ) = 1000 litre = 1 m3
T
T3 = 2
2 Initial temperature of the gas (T1 ) = 27 0 C
Since, V3 = V2 (Constant volume process) Final temperature of the gas (T2 ) = 370 C
Ratio of final to initial volume is given by, Number of mole of hydrogen (n) = 1
V V 3
= 3 = 2 = = 0.75 p1V = nRT1
V1 V1 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). p2V = nRT2
GATE ACADEMY® Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic System & Process 2.9

 ( p2 − p1 )V = nR (T2 − T1 )
Δp × 1 = 1× 8.314 × (37 − 27)
Δp = 83.14 Pa
Hence, the change in pressure of the contained
gas, assuming ideal gas behaviour is 83.14 Pa.

Scan for
Video Solution


 1 Conduction
1990 IISc Bangalore 1994 IIT Kharagpur
1.1 Thermal conductivity is lower for 1.4 Two insulating materials of thermal
[1 Mark] conductivity k and 2k are available for
(A) Wood lagging a pipe carrying a hot fluid. If the
(B) Air radial thickness of each material is same.
(C) Water at 1000 C [1 Mark]
(D) Steam at 1 bar (A) Material with higher thermal
conductivity should be used for
1991 IIT Madras
inner layer and one with lower
1.2 Match the property with their units thermal conductivity for the outer.
[2 Marks] (B) Material with lower thermal
Property Units conductivity should be used for
A. Bulk modulus 1. W/s inner layer and one with higher
B. Thermal 2. N/m 2 thermal conductivity for the outer.
conductivity (C) It is immaterial in which sequence
C. Heat transfer 3. N/m 3 the insulating material are used.
coefficient (D) It is not possible to judge unless
D. Heat flow rate 4. W numerical values of dimensions are
5. W/mK given.
6. W/m 2 K 1996 IISc Bangalore

1993 IIT Bombay 1.5 For a given heat flow and for the same
thickness, the temperature drop across
1.3 For a current carrying wire of 20 mm
the material will be maximum for
diameter exposed to air (h = 25 W/m 2 K) ,
[1 Mark]
maximum heat distribution occurs when
the thickness of insulation is (A) Copper.
(k = 0.5 W/mK) [2 Marks] (B) Steel.
(A) 20 mm (B) 10 mm (C) Glass wool.
(C) 25 mm (D) 0 mm (D) Refractory brick.
 3.2 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1998 IIT Delhi 2003 IIT Madras

1.6 The temperature variation under steady
heat conduction across a composite slab Common Data for
of two materials with thermal Questions 1.9 & 1.10
conductivities k1 and k2 is shown in
Heat is being transferred by convection from
figure then, which one of the following
water at 480 C to a glass plate whose surface that
statements holds? [2 Marks]
is exposed to the water is at 400 C .
k1 k2 The thermal conductivity of water is 0.6 W/mK
T1
T2 and the thermal conductivity of glass is 1.2
W/mK. The spatial gradient of temperature in
the water at the water glass interface is
T3 dT
= 1× 104 K/m.
dy
(A) k1 > k2 (B) k1 = k2 y
480 C

(C) k1 = 0 (D) k1 < k2 Water 400 C

Glass

1999 IIT Bombay

1.9 The value of the temperature gradient in
1.7 It is proposed to coat a 1 mm diameter
the glass at the water glass interface in
wire with enamel paint (k = 0.1W/mK)
K/m is [2 Marks]
to increase heat transfer with air. If the
air side heat transfer co-efficient is (A) −2 ×104 (B) 0.0
100 W/m 2 K , the optimum thickness of (C) 0.5 ×104 (D) 2 × 104
enamel paint should be [2 Marks] 1.10 The heat transfer coefficient h in
W/m 2 K is [2 Marks]
(A) 0.25 mm (B) 0.5 mm
(A) 0.0 (B) 4.8
(C) 1 mm (D) 2 mm (C) 6 (D) 750

2001 IIT Kanpur 2004 IIT Delhi

1.8 In descending order of magnitude, the 1.11 One dimensional unsteady state heat
thermal conductivity of (a) pure iron, (b) transfer equation for a sphere with heat
liquid water, (c) Saturated water vapour, generation at the rate of ‘q’ can be
(d) Pure aluminum can be arranged as written [1 Mark]

[1 Mark] 1 ∂  ∂T  q 1 ∂T
(A) r + =
r ∂r  ∂r  k α ∂t
(A) a b c d (B) b c a d
1 ∂  2 ∂T  q 1 ∂T
(C) d a b c (D) d c b a
(B) r + =
r 2 ∂r  ∂r  k α ∂t
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.3

∂ 2T q 1 ∂T L L
(C) + =
∂r 2 k α ∂t
∂2 q 1 ∂T Ti
(D) 2
(rT ) + = q2 q2
∂r k α ∂t
1.12 A stainless steel tube (k s = 19 W/mK) of Steel Copper Tc
Th
2 cm ID and 5 cm OD in insulated with
3 cm thick asbestos (ka = 0.2 W/mK) . If (A) Th > Ti > Tc and q1 < q2
the temperature difference between the (B) Th < Ti < Tc and q1 = q2
inner most and outermost surface is
(C) Th = (Ti + Tc ) / 2 and q1 > q2
6000 C , the heat transfer rate per unit
length is [2 Marks] (D) Ti < (Th + Tc ) / 2 and q1 > q2
(A) 0.94 W/m (B) 9.44 W/m 1.14 In a case of one dimensional heat
(C) 944.72 W/m (D) 9447.21 W/m conduction in a medium with constant
properties, T is the temperature at
2005 IIT Bombay ∂T
position x, at time t. Then is
1.13 A well machined steel plate of thickness ∂t
L is kept such that the wall temperatures proportional to [1 Mark]
are Th and Tc as shown in the figure T ∂T
(A) (B)
below. A smooth copper plate of the x ∂t
same thickness L is now attached to the ∂ 2T ∂ 2T
steel plate without any gap as indicated (C) (D)
∂x∂t ∂x 2
in the figure below. The temperature at
1.15 Heat flows through a composite slab, as
the interface is Ti . The temperatures of
shown below. The depth of the slab is 1
the outer walls are still the same at Th m. The k values are in W/mK. The
and Tc . The heat transfer rates are q1 and overall thermal resistance in K/W is
q2 per unit area in the two cases [2 Marks]
respectively in the direction shown.
Which of the following statements is
0.5 m

k2 = 0.10
correct? [1 Mark]
2
1m

q
L k1 = 0.02
Th TC k3 = 0.04
1 3
q1 STEEL q1
0.5 m 0.25 m

(A) 17.2 (B) 21.9

(C) 28.6 (D) 39.2
 3.4 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

2006 IIT Kharagpur 1.19 Heat is being transferred convectively

from a cylindrical nuclear reactor fuel
1.16 In a composite slab, the temperature at rod of 50 mm diameter to water at 750 C
the interface (Ti nter ) between two under steady state condition, the rate of
materials is equal to the average of the heat generation within the fuel element
temperature at the two ends. Assuming is 50 ×106 W/m3 and the convective heat
steady one dimensional heat conduction, transfer coefficient is 1 kW/m 2 K , the
which of the following statements is true
outer surface temperature of the fuel
about the respective thermal conducti-
element would be [2 Marks]
vities? [1 Mark]
(A) 7000 C (B) 6250 C
k1 k2
T1 (C) 5000 C (D) 4000 C
Ti
Common Data for
Questions 1.20 & 1.21
T2
2b b Consider steady one dimensional heat flow in a
plate of 20 mm thickness with a uniform heat
(A) 2k1 = k2 (B) k1 = k2
generation of 80 MW/m3 . The left and right
(C) 2k1 = 3k2 (D) k1 = 2k2
faces are kept at constant temperature of 1600 C
1.17 With an increase in the thickness of
and 1200 C respectively. The plate has a constant
insulation around a circular pipe, heat
thermal conductivity of 200 W/mK.
loss to surrounding due to [2 Marks]
1.20 The location of maximum temperature
(A) Convection increases while heat due
within the plate from its face is
to conduction decreases.
(B) Convection decreases, while that [2 Marks]
due to conduction increases. (A) 15 mm (B) 10 mm
(C) Convection and conduction (C) 5 mm (D) 0 mm
decreases. 1.21 The maximum temperature within the
(D) Convection and conduction plate in 0 C is [2 Marks]
increases. (A) 160 (B) 165
(C) 200 (D) 250
2007 IIT Kanpur
1.18 A long glass cylinder of inner diameter 2008 IISc Bangalore
= 0.03 m and outer diameter = 0.05 m 1.22 Steady two dimensional heat conduction
carries hot fluid inside. If the thermal takes place in the body shown in the
conductivity of glass k = 1.05 W/mK , figure below. The normal temperature
the thermal resistance (K/W) per unit gradients at surface P and Q can be
length of the cylinder is [2 Marks] considered to be uniform. The
∂T
(A) 0.031 (B) 0.077 temperature gradients over a surface
(C) 0.17 (D) 0.34 ∂x
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.5
Q is equal to 10 K/m. Surfaces P and Q As x increases, the temperature gradient
are maintained at constant temperature  dT 
as shown in the figure, while the   will [1 Mark]
 dx 
remaining part of the boundary is
(A) Remain constant. (B) Be zero.
insulated.
(C) Increase. (D) Decrease.
The body has a constant thermal
conductivity of 0.1 W/mK. The value of 1.24 Consider one-dimensional steady state
∂T ∂T heat conduction along x-axis ( 0 ≤ x ≤ L
and at surface P are [2 Marks] ), through a plane with the boundary
∂y ∂x
y surfaces ( x = 0 and x = L ) maintained
Surface Q, 00 C at temperatures of 00 C and 1000 C . Heat
is generated uniformly throughout the
2m wall. Choose the correct statements.
[1 Mark]
1m
(A) The direction of heat transfer will be
from the surface at 1000 C to the
Surface P,1000 C
x surface at 00 C .
∂T ∂T (B) The maximum temperature inside
(A) = 20 K/m, = 0 K/m
∂x ∂y the wall must be greater than 1000 C.
∂T ∂T (C) The temperature distribution is
(B) = 0 K/m, = 10 K/m
∂x ∂y linear within the wall.
∂T ∂T (D) The temperature distribution is
(C) = 10 K/m, = 10 K/m symmetric about the mid-plane of
∂x ∂y
∂T ∂T the wall.
(D) = 0 K/m, = 20 K/m
∂x ∂y 2014 IIT Kharagpur
2013 IIT Bombay 1.25 Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner
and outer radii, ri and r0 respectively,
1.23 Consider one-dimensional steady state
heat conduction, without heat length L and thermal conductivity k. its
generation, in a plane wall, with inner and outer surfaces are maintained
boundary conditions as shown in the at T1 and T0 , respectively (T1 > T0 ) .
figure below. The conductivity of the Assuming one-dimensional steady state
wall is given by k = k0 + bT , where k0 heat conduction in the radial direction,
and b are positive constants, and T is the thermal resistance in the wall of the
temperature. tube is [1 Mark]
1 r  L
(A) ln  i  (B)
T1 T2 Where T2 > T1 2πkL  r0  2πri k

1 r  1 r 
(C) ln  0  (D) ln  0 
2πkL  ri  4π k L  ri 
x
 3.6 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
1.26 As the temperature increases, the k =?
thermal conductivity of a gas [1 Mark]
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases P
(C) Remain constant
q " = 10 kW/m 2 Steel Steel T2 = 360 K
(D) Increases up to a certain temperature slab slab
and then decreases
T1 = 500 K
1.27 Consider one dimensional steady state
heat conduction across a wall (as shown
in figure below) of thickness 30 mm and
20 mm 1 mm 20 mm
thermal conductivity 15 W/mK. At
x=0 a constant heat flux, 1.29 Heat transfer through a composite wall
5 2 is shown in figure. Both the sections of
q '' = 1× 10 W/m is applied. On the the wall have equal thickness ( l ). The
other side of the wall, heat is removed conductivity of one section is k and that
from the wall by convection with a fluid of the other is 2k. The left face of the
at 250 C and heat transfer coefficient of wall is at 600 K and the right face is at
250 W/m 2 K. The temperature (in 0 C ), 300 K. [2 Marks]
600 K Ti 300 K
at x = 0 is ________. [2 Marks]

Heat flow
T1
k 2k
q " = 1´ 105 W/m 2

T2

l l
T¥ = 250 C
The interface temperature Ti (in K) of
x
the composite wall is ______.
x=0
1.30 A plane wall has a thermal conductivity
1.28 A material P of thickness 1 mm is of 1.15 W/mK. If the inner surface is at
sandwiched between two steel slabs, as 11000 C and the outer surface is at
shown in the figure below. A heat flux 3500 C , then the design thickness (in
10 kW/m 2 is supplied to one of the steel meter) of the wall to maintain a steady
slabs as shown. The boundary heat flux of 2500 W/m 2 should be ____.
temperatures of the slabs are indicated in [2 Marks]
the figure. Assume thermal conductivity
of this steel is 10 W/mK. considering 2015 IIT Kanpur
one-dimensional steady state heat 1.31 If a foam insulation is added to a 4 cm
conduction for the configuration, the outer diameter pipe as shown in the
thermal conductivity (k, in W/mK) of figure, the critical radius of insulation
material P is ________. [2 Marks] (in cm) is _______. [1 Mark]
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.7

Foam
1.34 A cylindrical uranium fuel rod of radius
5 mm in a nuclear reactor is generating
k foam = 0.1W/mK heat at the rate of 4 × 107 W/m3 . The rod
h0 = 2 W/m 2 K is cooled by a liquid (convective heat
Pipe transfer coefficient 1000 W/m 2 K ) at
250 C . At steady state, the surface
temperature (in K) of the rod is
k pipe = 15 W/m-K [2 Marks]
(A) 308 (B) 398
1.32 A 10 mm diameter electrical conductor
(C) 418 (D) 448
is covered by an insulation of 2 mm
thickness. The conductivity of the 2016 IISc Bangalore
insulation is 0.08 W/mK and the
1.35 A plastic sleeve of outer radius
convection coefficient at the insulation
r0 = 1 mm covers a wire (radius
surface is 10 W/m 2 K . Addition of further
r = 0.5 mm ) carrying electric current.
insulation of the same material will
Thermal conductivity of the plastic is
[2 Marks] 0.15 W / m K . The heat transfer
(A) Increases heat loss continuously coefficient on the outer surface of the
(B) Decreases heat loss continuously sleeve exposed to air is 25 W / m 2 K .
Due to the addition of the plastic cover,
(C) Increases heat loss to a maximum the heat transfer from the wire to the
and then decreases heat loss ambient will [1 Mark]
(D) Decreases heat loss to a minimum (A) Increase
and then increases heat loss (B) Remain the same
1.33 A brick wall (k = 0.9 W/mK) of (C) Decrease
thickness 0.18 m separates the warm air (D) Be zero
in a room from the cold ambient air. On 1.36 A hollow cylinder has length L, inner
a particular winter day, the outside air radius r1 , outer radius r2 , and thermal
temperature is − 50 C and the room needs
conductivity k . The thermal resistance
to be maintained at 270 C . The heat of the cylinder for radial conduction is
transfer coefficient associated with [1 Mark]
outside air is 20 W/m 2 K . Neglecting
r  r 
the convective resistance of the air ln  2  ln  1 
r r
inside the room, the heat loss, in W/m 2 , (A)  1  (B)  2 
2πkL 2πkL
is [2 Marks]
2πkL 2πkL
(A) 88 (B) 110 (C) (D)
r  r 
ln  2  ln  1 
(C) 128 (D) 160  r1   r2 
 3.8 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
TP
1.37 Steady one-dimensional heat conduction
takes place across the faces 1 and 3 of a
composite slab consisting of slabs A 2
h = 10 W/m K 0
TQ = 25 C
k = 2.5 W/mK
and B in perfect contact as shown in the T = 45 0C
figure, where k A , k B denote the
respective thermal conductivities. Using
L = 20 cm
the data as given in the figure, the
interface temperature T2 (in 0 C ) is 2019 IIT Madras
______. [1 Mark] 1.40 A slender rod of length L and diameter
A B d ( L >> d ) and thermal conductivity k1
is joined with another rod of identical
dimensions, but of thermal conductivity
1 2 3
k2 , to form a composite cylindrical rod
T1 = 1300 C k A = 20 k B = 100 W/mK T3 = 300 C of length 2L. The heat transfer in radial
W/mK direction and contact resistance are
negligible. The effective thermal
0.1 m 0.3 m
conductivity of the composite rod is
2017 IIT Roorkee [1 Mark]
2k k kk
1.38 Heat is generated uniformly in a long (A) 1 2 (B) 1 2
k1 + k2 k1 + k2
solid cylindrical rod (diameter = 10 mm)
at the rate of 4 × 107 W/m3 . The thermal (C) k1 + k2 (D) k1k2
conductivity of the rod material is 25 1.41 One-dimensional steady state heat
W/m K. Under steady state conditions, conduction takes place through a solid
the temperature difference between the whose cross section area varies linearly
center and the surface of the rod is
in the direction of heat transfer. Assume
________ 0 C [2 Marks] there is no heat generation in solid and
2018 IIT Guwahati thermal conductivity of the material is
constant and independent of
1.39 A plane slab of thickness L and thermal
temperature. The temperature
conductivity k is heated with a fluid on
one side (P) and other side (Q) is
distribution in the solid is [1 Mark]
maintained at a constant temperature TQ (A) Linearly (B) Quadratic
(C) Logarithmic (D) Exponential
of 250 C , as shown in the figure. The 1.42 Three slabs are joined together as shown
fluid is at 450 C and the surface heat in the figure. There is no thermal contact
transfer coefficient, h is 10 W/m 2 K . resistance at the interfaces. The center
The steady state temperature Tp (in 0 C ) slab experiences a non-uniform internal
heat generation with an average value
of the side which is exposed to the fluid
is ______ (correct to two decimal equal to 10000 Wm −3 , while the left and
places). [2 Marks] right slabs have no internal heat
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.9

generation. All slabs have thickness through the composite walls is

equal to 1 m and thermal conductivity of 2500 W/m 2 . The value of k2 is
each slab is equal to 5 Wm −1K −1 . The ______W/mK. (Round off to one
two extreme faces are exposed to fluid decimal place)
with heat transfer coefficient [1 Mark]
−2 −1
100 Wm K and bulk temperature
300 C as shown.
The heat transfer in the slabs is assumed
to be one dimensional and steady, and all
properties are constant. If the left
extreme face temperature T1 is measured
to be 1000 C , the right extreme face
temperature T2 is _____ 0 C . [2 Marks]
Left extreme
face T1 = 1000C 1m 1m 1m T2

100 W/m2K 100 W/m2K

300C 300C

2020 IIT Delhi

1.43 In a furnace the inner and outer sides of
the brick wall (k1 = 2.5 W/mK) are
maintained at 11000 C and 7000 C ,
respectively as shown in figure
11000C 7000C 2000C

Heat flux = 2500 W/m2

Brick wall
k1 =
2.5 W/mK
Insulation,k2
0
700 C
L2 = L1 / 4
L1 L2
The brick wall is covered by an
insulating material of thermal
conductivity k2 . The thickness of
insulation is 1/ 4th of the thickness of
brick wall. The outer surface of
insulation is at 2000 C . The heat flux
 3.10 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Answers Conduction

A-2, B-5,
1.1 B 1.2 1.3 B 1.4 B 1.5 C
C-6, D-4

1.6 A 1.7 B 1.8 C 1.9 C 1.10 D

1.11 B 1.12 C 1.13 D 1.14 D 1.15 C

1.16 D 1.17 A 1.18 B 1.19 A 1.20 C

1.21 B 1.22 D 1.23 D 1.24 B 1.25 C

1.26 A 1.27 625 1.28 0.1 1.29 400 1.30 0.345

1.31 5 1.32 C 1.33 C 1.34 B 1.35 A

1.36 A 1.37 67.5 1.38 10 1.39 33.88 1.40 A

1.41 C 1.42 60 1.43 0.5

Explanations Conduction

1.1 (B) 1.2 A-2, B-5, C-6, D-4

Thermal conductivity is lower for air.  Key Point

Hence, the correct option is (B). (i) The ratio of the change in pressure to the
volume compression is the Bulk
 Key Point
Modulus.
(i) In case of solids thermal conductivity of
Δp N/m 2
material is due to flow of free electrons K =− = 3 3 = N/m 2
( ΔV / V ) m /m
and lattice vibration.
(ii) Thermal conductivity is ability of
(ii) In case of liquids and gases, thermal material to conduct heat through it. S.I.
conductivity is due to molecular wave. unit W/m K.
(iii) Pure metals will have highest thermal Q W
k= = 2 = W/m K
conductivity from its alloys.  dT  m × K/m
A 
k puremetal > kit ' s alloy , kiron > ksteel ,  dx 
(iii) Heat transfer coefficient (h) is used as
kcopper > kbrass , kice > k water > k water vapour > kair a proportionality constant between heat
Maximum thermal conductivity is of diamond flow and driving force for heat flow, i.e.,
due to crystalline lattice. temperature difference.
Q W
kdiamond = 2300 W/mK h= = 2 = W/m 2 K
AΔT m × K

Scan for Scan for

Video Solution Video Solution
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.11

1.3 (B)  The thickness upto which heat flow

Given : Wire diameter (d) = 20 mm increases and after which heat flow
decreases is termed as critical thickness.
Heat transfer coefficient ( h ) = 25 W/m 2 K
In the case of cylinders and spheres it is
Thermal conductivity ( k ) = 0.5 W/mK
called critical radius. It can be derived
Critical radius of insulation, the critical radius of insulation depends
k 0.5 on the thermal conductivity of the
rc = = = 0.020 m = 20 mm
h 25 insulation k and the external convection
d 20 heat transfer coefficient h.
or r= = = 10 mm
2 2
Scan for
rc Video Solution

tc r 1.4 (B)
Two insulating materials of thermal
conductivity k and 2k are available for lagging a
Hence, thickness of insulation pipe carrying a hot fluid here the critical radius
tc = rc − r = 20 − 10 = 10 mm for insulation must be
k
Hence, the correct option is (B). (i) For first material (rc1 ) =
h
 Key Point 2k
 In case of plane wall the area (ii) For second material (rc2 ) =
h
perpendicular to the direction of heat It is apparent that (rc2 ) = 2rc1
flow adding more insulation to a wall Hence, the first material is to be used inside and
always decreases heat transfer. second material is to be used for outside as it has
The thicker the insulation, the lower the bigger critical radius.
heat transfer rate. This is due to the fact Hence, the correct option is (B).
the outer surface have always the same
area. Scan for
Video Solution
 But in cylindrical and spherical
coordinates, the addition of insulation
also increases the outer surface, which 1.5 (C)
decreases the convection resistance at For heat flow over the same thickness, the
the outer surface. Moreover, in some temperature drop across the material will be
cases, a decrease in the convection maximum for that material which is having
resistance due to the increase in surface more resistance to heat flow i.e., value of
area can be more important than an thermal conductivity will be less, from Fourier
increase in conduction resistance due to equation we can infer as follows :
thicker insulation. As a result the total Fourier equation,
resistance may actually decrease dT
Q = − kA
resulting in increased heat flow. dx
 3.12 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Qdx 1.7 (B)
= −kdT
A
Given : Wire diameter (d ) = 1 mm
1
∴ kdT = Constant or dT ∝ Thermal conductivity of enamel point
k
(k ) = 0.1W/mK
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Heat transfer coefficient (h) = 100 W/m 2 K
 Key Point
k glass wool < krefractory bricks < ksteel < kcopper
rc
Whichever the material is having lowest thermal
conductivity the corresponding material has
tc r
highest temperature drop.

Scan for
Video Solution
Critical radius,
1.6 (A) k 0.1
rc = = = 0.001 m =1mm
h 100
From Fourier law, we can infer as follows :
Critical thickness of enamel paint,
dT
Q∝ k as Q = constant. 1
dx tc = rc − r = 1 − = 0.5 mm
dT 1 2
∝ Hence, the correct option is (B).
dx k
dT Constant dT Constant 1.8 (C)
= , =
dx1 k1 dx2 k2
Out of the given substances pure aluminum has
dT dT high conductivity and steam has low
< or k1 > k2
dx1 dx2 conductivity.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Aluminum - 250 W/mK,
 Key Point Iron - 80 W/mK,
(i) Here, k is called thermal conductivity of Liquid water - 0.7 W/mK,
Material that measures the ability of Water vapour - 0.016 W/mK
material to conduct heat. It is a property Hence, the correct option is (C).
that depends on temperature but not on
too extent. For all gases, k increase with
Scan for
temperature due to collision as result
Video Solution
vibration increase.
(ii) On the other side we can infer
conductivity as opposite of resistivity, 1.9 (C)
the more resistance, temperature drop
Given : Temperature of water (Tw ) = 480 C
will be more.
Temperature of glass plate (Tg ) = 400 C
Scan for Thermal conductivity of water
Video Solution
(k w ) = 0.6 W/mK
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.13

Thermal conductivity of glass (k g ) = 1.2 W/mK

Scan for
Spatial gradient of temperature of water-glass Video Solution
 dT 
interface,   = 1× 104 K/m
1.11 (B)
 dy  w
Heat generation (flux), One dimensional unsteady state heat transfer
 dT   dT  equation in spherical coordinate system is
q = kw   = kg  
 dy  w  dy  g 1 ∂  2 ∂T  q 1 ∂T
2 r + =
r ∂  ∂r 
r  k α ∂t
 dT  k w  dT  
 dy  = k  dy  conduction heat Internal heat
generation term
Unsteady
term
 g g  w transfer term

Hence, the correct option is (B).

 dT  0.6 4 4
 dy  = 1.2 (1×10 ) = 0.5 ×10 K/m  Key Point
 g
The one dimensional time dependent heat
Hence, the correct option is (C)
conduction equation can be written more
 Key Point compactly as in a simple manner as,
The temperature gradient in the glass interface 1 ∂  n ∂T  q ρc ∂T
r + =
must be lesser than water as here thermal r n ∂r  ∂r  k k ∂t
conductivity is higher, that suggest the
Where, n = 0, for rectangular section
resistance will be lesser in glass.
y n = 1, for cylindrical section
n = 2, for spherical section.
k
(Stagnation Layer) 480 C α=
ρc
Water 400 C
Glass
Where, α is called thermal diffusivity and
ability to transport heat through conduction.
At steady state condition, heat will pass
through water-glass interface from either side Scan for
i.e. from water to glass and vice versa. Video Solution

1.10 (D)
1.12 (C)
At interface ( y = 0) , following the no slip
Given :
condition, water will not move. Hence at y = 0 , Temperature difference between innermost and
heat transfer will be due to conduction in water outermost surface (T1 − T2 ) = 6000 C
and then the same amount of heat will be
Thermal conductivity of stainless steel
convected into water.
(k s ) = 19 W/mK
 dT 
k water × A   = h × A(Twater − Tglass ) Thermal conductivity of asbestos
 dy  y =0 (ka ) = 0.2 W/mK
0.6 ×1×104 = h × 8
Internal diameter of tube (di ) = 2 cm
h = 750 W/m 2 K
Outer diameter of tube (d 0 ) = 5cm
Hence, the correct option is (D).
 3.14 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Thickness of insulation (ti ) = 3cm ∴ Rs > Rc

Length of tube (L) = 1 m Th − Ti Ti − Tc
>
Insulation Q Q
tc
Th − Ti > Ti − Tc

ri
Th + Tc > 2Ti
r0 Th + Tc
> Ti
rc 2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
L=1m
Insulation diameter of asbestos, Scan for
d c = d o + 2ti = 5 + 2 × 3 = 11 cm Video Solution

Rsteel Rasbestos
T1 Ta 1.14 (D)
T2
For one dimensional heat conduction, we have
d  5 ∂ 2T 1 ∂T
ln  0  ln   =
d
Rsteel =  i= 2 ∂x 2 α ∂t
2πk s L 2 × π× 19 × 1 Since, α (thermal diffucsivity) is constant as it
Rsteel = 0.00767 K/W a property, we have
d  ∂T ∂ 2T
ln  c   11  ∝ 2
ln   ∂t ∂x
d
Rasbestos =  0= 5
Hence, the correct option is (D).
2πka L 2 × π× 0.2 ×1
Rasbestos = 0.6274 K/W
Scan for
T −T 600 600 Video Solution
Q= 1 2 = =
Rth Rs + Ra 0.00767 + 0.6274
Q = 944.77 ≈ 944.72 W/m 1.15 (C)
Hence, the correct option is (C). Given : Thermal conductivity of 1st slab
(k1 ) = 0.02 W/mK
1.13 (D)
Thermal conductivity of 2nd slab
T −T T −T
q1 = h c and q2 = h c (k2 ) = 0.10 W/mK
Rs Rs + Rc
Thermal conductivity of 3rd slab
Because Rs + Rc > Rs
(k3 ) = 0.04 W/mK
∴ q1 > q2
Length of 1st slab ( L1 ) = 0.5 m
1
 Q∝ Length of 2nd and 3rd slab ( L2 ) = ( L3 ) = 0.25 m
Resistance
Resistance is inversely proportional to thermal Assumption :
conductivity. Hence it is fact that conductivity (i) Heat transfer is steady since there is no
of steel is less than conductivity of copper. indication of change with time.
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.15

(ii) Heat transfer can be approximated as Thermal circuit,

being one-dimensional since it is 2b b
æ T1 + T2 ö
predominantly in the x-direction. k1 A ç 2 ÷
è ø k2 A
T1 T2
(iii) Thermal conductivities are constant. Q Q
(iv) Heat transfer by radiation is negligible. At steady state, Q1 = Q2
This given composite slab can redrawn in the
form of thermal circuit. T +T  T +T 
T1 −  1 2   1 2  − T2
R2 Q=  2 = 2 
2b b
R1 k1 A k2 A
A B
q R3 k1 (T1 − T2 ) k2 (T1 − T2 )
Q= =
2 1
Assuming unit width of slab,
k1 = 2k2
L 0.5
R1 = 1 = = 25 K/W Hence, the correct option is (D).
k1 A 0.02 ×1×1
L2 0.25
R2 = = = 5 K/W Scan for
k2 A 0.1× 0.5 ×1 Video Solution
L3 0.25
R3 = = = 12.5 K/W 1.17 (A)
k3 A 0.04 × 0.5 ×1
Overall thermal resistance, Heat loss to surrounding in a circular pipe,
 R ×R  5 × 12.5 2πL(ΔT )
Rth = R1 +  2 3  = 25 + Q=
(5 + 12.5) 1 ln[r0 / ri ]
 R2 + R3  +
hr0 k
Rth = 28.6 K/W
The addition of insulation to a cylindrical piece
Hence, the correct option is (C). or spherical shell increase the conduction
 Key Point resistance of the insulation layer but decrease
There is no variation in the horizontal (x- the convection resistance of the surface because
direction). So, we consider a unit depth and unit of the increase in the outer surface area for
height portion of the slab since it is convection. The heat transfer from the pipe may
representative of the entire wall. increase or decrease, depending on which effect
Assuming any cross- section of the slab normal dominates.
to the x-direction to be isothermal. Hence, the correct option is (A).

Scan for Scan for

Video Solution Video Solution

1.16 (D) 1.18 (B)

T1 + T2 Given :
Given : Ti =
2 Inner diameter of glass cylinder (di ) = 0.03m
 3.16 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Outer diameter of glass cylinder (d 0 ) = 0.05 m Under steady state conditions, by energy
Thermal conductivity of glass (k ) = 1.05 W/mK conversion.
This is case of radial heat transfer, Qgenerated = Qconvection loss
q (V ) = hA(Ts − T∞ )
π 
q  d 2 × L  = hA(Ts − T∞ )
ri 4 
Hot fluid
π 
q  d 2 × L  = h(πdL)(Ts − T∞ )
r0 4 
d
1.0 m q = h(Ts − T∞ )
4
Resistance network for above figure is,
50 × 106 × 50 × 10− 3
Ti T0 = 1× 103 (Ts − 750 )
ln (r0 / ri ) 4
R=
2p Lk Ts = 625 + 75 = 7000 C
r   0.05  Hence, the correct option is (A).
ln  0  ln  
 ri   0.03 
Rth = =
2πkL 2π(1.05) × 1 Scan for
Video Solution
(Per unit length L = 1m )
Rth = 0.077 K/W per unit length 1.20 (C)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given : Thickness of plate (t ) = 20 mm
Scan for Uniform heat generation (q ) = 80 MW/m3
Video Solution
Temperature at the left face (T1 ) = 1600 C
1.19 (A) Temperature at the right face (T2 ) = 1200 C
Given : Diameter of nuclear reactor fuel rod Thermal conductivity of the plate
(d ) = 50 mm = 50 ×10− 3 m (k ) = 200 W/mK
Convective heat transfer coefficient
..Method 1..
(h) = 1kW/m 2 K = 1× 103 W/m 2 K
From steady state one dimensional heat
Heat generation with in the fuel element
conduction equation with heat generation
(q ) = 50 × 106 W/m3
d 2T q d 2T q
Ambient temperature (T∞ ) = 75 C 0
2
+ = 0  2
=−
dx k dx k
Ts - T¥ Convective loss Integrating both sides,
dT q
= − × x + C1 …(i)
dx k
q& Fuel element Again integrating,
qx 2
T =− + C1 x + C2 …(ii)
2k
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.17

..Method 3..
q& x = -L x=0 x=L

1600 C
T1
1200 C T2

x x = -0.01m x = +0.01m
2L
From equation (ii),
k
At, x = 0, T = 1600 C xmax = (T2 − T1 )
2q g L
C2 = 160
200
At, x = 20 mm, T = 1200 C xmax = × (120 − 160)
2 × 80 × 106 × 0.01
80 × 106 xmax = − 5 × 10− 3 m
120 = − (0.02) 2 + 0.02C1 + 160
2 × 200
xmax = − 5 mm (from mid place )
C1 = 2000
i.e., xmax = L − 5 = 10 − 5 = 5 mm (from left
 dT 
For maximum temperature  = 0 face).
 dx 

qx  Key Point
= C1 In case of heat generation maximum
k
temperature will occur where the heat is being
C k 2000 × 200
x= 1 = = 5 mm generated.
q 80 × 106
(i) If heat is being generated within the wall
Hence, the correct option is (C). at any location.
..Method 2.. T
L
Location of maximum temperature for steady
state condition with internal heat generation Tmax
when walls are maintain at different T1
Q1 Q2
T2
temperature.
x

T1
T2 Plane where heat is
being generated
at a rate of Qg
x=0 x=L
(a) If T1 = T2 ,
k  T − T qg L 
xmax =  2 1+  x=L
qg  L 2k 
(b) If T1 > T2 ,
200  120 − 160 80 × 106 × 0.02 
xmax =  +  x<L
80 ×106  0.02 2 × 200 
Qg = Q1 + Q2
xmax = 5 ×10−3 m or 5 mm (from left face)
(c) xmax is location of Tmax
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 3.18 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

dT 1.22 (D)
At xmax , =0
dx Given :
(i.e., slope of temperature profile is For surface Q :
zero which represent maximum
 ∂T 
temperature).   = 10 K/m,
 ∂x 
(ii) If heat is being generated one side of the
wall. Temperature will be maximum on Thermal conductivity of body (k ) = 0.1 W/mK
that side of wall. For surface P :
 ∂T 
T1  =0
Q
 ∂x 
Qg  Heat is transferred only in y direction.
T2 Surface
Q, 00 C
L
Here heat is being generated on left hand y

face, hence T1 is the maximum

x
temperature.
T − T q L 
Qg = Q = kA  1 2 + g  . Surface
 L 2k  P,1000 C
For steady state condition,
1.21 (B)
 ∂T   ∂T 
According to question, by using equation (ii),  − kAP  =  − kAQ 
 ∂y   ∂x 
qx 2
T =− + C1 x + C2  ( AQ = 2 AP )
2k
80 × 106 ∂T ∂T
(Tmax ) x =5 mm = − (0.005) 2 = 2⋅
400 ∂y ∂x
+0.005 × 2000 + 160 ∂T
= 2 ×10
(Tmax ) x =5mm = 165 C 0
∂y
∂T
= 20 K/m
1650 C ∂y
q&
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1600 C
 Key Point
1200 C
Features of Fourier law :
• Fourier law is valid for all matter solid,
x liquid or gas.
Hence, the correct option is (B). • The vector expression indicating that
heat flow rate is normal to an isotherm
Scan for
Video Solution and is in the direction of decreasing
temperature.
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.19

• It cannot be derived from first principle. Again integration both sides,

• It helps to define the transport property qg 2
T =− x + C1 x + C2 …(i)
‘k’. 2k
Now, applying the boundary condition on
Scan for equation (i),
Video Solution
At x = 0, T = 0 then,
C2 = 0
1.23 (D)
At x = L, T = 1000 C then,
Thermal conductivity,
k = k0 + bT qg L2
100 = − + C1 L
2k
Since, heat conduction is one dimensional
100 qg L
q  dT  C1 = +
Heat flux, = −k   L 2k
A  dx 
So that, equation (i) becomes
As x increase, temperature in the wall increase
qg x 2 100 qg L 
and so the thermal conductivity increase, then T =− + + × x
 dT  2k  L 2k 
the value of   must decreases to ensure This equation shows that temperature
 dx 
distribution in the wall will not be linear but
constant heat flux.
parabolic.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
For maximum temperature,
1.24 (B) dT q × 2 x 100 qg L
=0 − g + + =0
qg = Heat generation per unit volume. dx 2k L 2k
Steady state, one dimensional heat conduction k  100 qg L 
x=  + 
equation, qg  L 2k 
d 2T qg 100k L
+ =0 x= +
dx 2 k qg L 2
d 2T qg So the curve shows that maximum temperature
2
=−
dx k will be more than that of 1000 C , which will be
close to x = L and heat will flow, both sides of
q this maximum temperature plane.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1000 C

Scan for
0 Video Solution
0 C
x
x=0 x=L
1.25 (C)
Integrating both sides,
dT qg Let, Ti = Inner surface temperature of
= − x + C1
dx k cylindrical tube
 3.20 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
T0 = Outer surface temperature of Where, k = Thermal conductivity
cylindrical tube V = Mean particle speed
Using electrical analogy, λ = Mean free path
Ti Rth To cv = Molar heat capacity
Q
N A = Avogadro's number
T − T ΔT
Q= i 0 = …(i) n = Particles per unit volume
Rth Rth
Gases transfer heat by direct collisions between
From Fourier law for one dimensional (radial)
molecules. As the temperature increases, the
heat transfer through pipe,
thermal conductivity increases due to increase
r0
in speed, movement and collisions in the
molecules. From the above expression, by
ri increasing mean particle speed, the thermal
r
conductivity increases.
dr Hence, the correct option is (A).

Scan for
Consider an elementary cylinder of radius ‘r’ Video Solution
and thickness dr.
Area, A = 2πrL (where, L is length of tube) 1.27 625
From Fourier law, (under steady state Given : Thickness of wall ( L) = 30 mm
condition),
Thermal conductivity of wall (k ) = 15 W/mK
dT dT
Q = − kA = − k 2πrL Heat flux at x = 0 (q ") = 1× 105 W/m 2
dr dr
r0
Q dr 0 T Convective heat transfer coefficient
r 2πkLr T − dT
= 2
(h) = 250 W/m K
i i

Q [ ]r0 Temperature of surrounding (T∞ ) = 250 C

ln r ri = − [T ]Ti0
T

2πkL
Q
(ln r0 − ln ri ) = (Ti − T0 )
2πkL T1
Ti − T0
Q= …(ii)
1 r  q " = 1´ 105 W/m 2
ln  0 
2πkL  ri  T2
Comparing equation (i) and (ii),
1 r T¥ = 250 C
Rth = ln 0
2πkL ri
x
Hence, the correct option is (C). x=0
1.26 (A) For the given problem, the network of thermal
nV λcv resistance involves two resistances in series as
k=
3N A shown in figure,
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.21
T1 Rconductive T2 Rconvective T¥ = 250C As per steady state heat conduction equation,
Conductive thermal resistance, k1 k2 k3
L
Rcond =
kA
Convective thermal resistance, q " = 10 kW/m 2 Steel
P
Steel T2 = 360 K
slab slab
1
Rconv = T1 = 500 K
hA
Rate of heat transfer,
ΔT
Q= 0.02 m 0.02 mm
ΣRth According to question applying steady state heat
T1 − T∞ T1 − T∞ conduction equation.
Q= =
Rcond + Rconv  L   1  Heat flux is given by,
 + 
 kA   hA  T1 − T2
q" =
Heat flux,  l1   l2   l3 
T1 − T∞  k + k + k 
q" =  1  2  3
L 1 500 − 360
 +  10000 =
 k h 20 × 10 −3
0.001 20 ×10− 3
T1 − 25 + +
1× 105 = 10 k2 10
0.03 1
+ 140
15 250 10000 =
0.001
T − 25 0.002 + + 0.002
1× 105 = 1 k2
0.006
k2 = 0.1W/mK
T1 = (1×105 × 0.006) + 25 = 6250 C
Hence, the thermal conductivity of material P is
Hence, the temperature at x = 0 is 6250C.
0.1 W/mK.
Scan for
Video Solution Scan for
Video Solution

1.28 0.1
1.29 400
Given : Thickness of 1st steel slab (l1 ) = 20 mm
Given :
nd
Thickness of 2 steel slab (l2 ) = 20 mm Thermal conductivity of 1st section (k1 ) = k
Thickness of P material (l3 ) = 1mm Thermal conductivity of 2nd section (k2 ) = 2k
Heat flux (q ) = 10 kW/m 2 Temperature of left face of 1st section
Thermal conductivity of 1st and 2nd steel slab (T1 ) = 600 K
(k1 ) = (k2 ) = 10 W/mK Temperature of right face of 2nd section
Temperature of 1st steel slab (T1 ) = 500 K (T2 ) = 300 K
Temperature of 2nd steel slab (T3 ) = 360 K At steady state, heat transfer is given by,
 3.22 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Fourier’s equation of heat conduction, 1.30 0.345
Q = – kA(dT/dx) Given :
600 K Ti 300 K Thermal conductivity (k ) = 1.15 W/mK
Inner surface temperature (Ti ) = 11000 C
1 2
Heat flow Outer surface temperature (T0 ) = 3500 C
Q1 Q2 Heat flux (q ) = 2500 W/m 2
k 2k

Ti = 11000 C

l l q = 2500 W/m 2

For 1st section, T0 = 3500 C

 dT 
Q1 = − k1 A   …(i)
 dx  L
Fourier’s equation of heat conduction,
For 2nd section,
Q = – kA(dT/dx)
 dT 
Q2 = − k2 A   …(ii) k (Ti − T0 )
 dx  q=
L
Now, equating equations (i) and (ii)
1.15 (1100 − 350 )
Q1 = Q2 2500 =
L
 dT   dT  Solving, we get
k1 A   = k2 A   L = 0.345 m
 dx   dx 
(T1 − Ti ) k2 A(Ti − T2 ) Hence, the design thickness of the wall to
k1 A =
l l maintain a steady heat flux of 2500 W/m 2
kA(T1 − Ti ) 2kA(Ti − T2 ) should be 0.345 m.
=
l l 1.31 5
T1 − Ti = 2Ti − 2T2 Given : Diameter of pipe (d ) = 4 cm
T1 + 2T2 = 2Ti + Ti Convective heat transfer coefficient inside pipe
(hi ) = 15 W/m 2 K
T1 + 2T2 = 3Ti
Convective heat transfer coefficient outside
T + 2T2 600 + 2 × 300
Ti = 1 = = 400 K foam insulation h0 = 2 W/m 2 K
3 3
Thermal conductivity of pipe
Hence, the interface temperature Ti of the
(k pipe ) = 15 W/mK
composite wall is 400 K.
Thermal conductivity of foam insulation
Scan for
(k foam ) = 0.1 W/mK
Video Solution According to question it is given that the pipe is
insulated by foam from outer side.
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.23

So, we find the critical radius of insulation. Heat flow for various radius is shown in above
k foam 0.1 figure. Heat loss will increase up to thickness 3
rc = = = 0.05 m mm of insulation then it will decreases.
h0 2
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Critical radius of insulation rc = 5cm .
Scan for
Hence, the critical radius of insulation is 5 cm. Video Solution
 Key Point
In finding critical insulation the thermal 1.33 (C)
conductivity of the insulation material is taken Given : Thermal conductivity of brick wall
and hence, here there is no use of the thermal (k ) = 0.9 W/mK
conductivity of the pipe. Thickness of brick wall ( L) = 0.18 m
Outside (surrounding) temperature of air
Scan for
Video Solution
(T∞ ) = − 50 C
Temperature of room (Ti ) = 270 C
1.32 (C) Convective heat transfer coefficient
Given : (h) = 20 W/m 2 K
Diameter of electrical conductor (d ) = 10 mm
h = 20 W/m 2 K
Ti = 27 0 C
∴ (r ) = 5 mm
Thickness of insulation (t ) = 2 mm k = 0.9 W/mk
Thermal conductivity of insulation
(ki ) = 0.08 W/mK T¥ = -50 C
Wall
Convective coefficient of insulation surface L = 0.18m
(hi ) = 10 W/m 2 K Total thermal resistance,
ki 0.08 1 1
Critical radius, rc = = = 0.008 m =
hi 10 Rth 1 + L
h k
 rc = 8 mm
1 1
Q = =4
Rth 1 0.18
+
Increase
20 0.9
1
Decrease Rth = W/K
4
Heat loss inside the room is,
ΔT 27 − (− 5)
Q= = = 128 W/m 2
Rth 1
2 mm
Thickness 4
of insulation
3 mm Hence, the correct option is (C).
Thickness of critical insulation is, Scan for
tc = rc − r = 8 − 5 = 3mm Video Solution
 3.24 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1.34 (B) According to question it is said that the wire is

insulated by a plastic sleeve which shown in
Given : Radius of uranium fuel rod
figure below,
(r ) = 5 mm = 0.005 m 2
h = 25 W/m K
Heat generation in nuclear reactor 5 W/ mK
7 3
0.1 r0
(qg ) = 4 ×10 W/m

k=
Convective heat transfer coefficient r
(h) = 1000 W/m 2 K
Wire
Surrounding temperature (T∞ ) = 250 C Plastic
For steady state conduction,
k 0.15
Qgen = Qconv Critical radius, rc = = = 6 × 10− 3 m
h 25
qg × V = hAΔT rc = 6 mm
2
qg × πr L = h(2πrL)ΔT Here, we can see that the critical radius is
qg × r = 2hΔT greater than the radius of coating (rc > r0 ) .
Therefore, addition of plastic sleeve will
4 ×107 × 0.005 = 2 ×1000(Ts − T∞ )
increase the heat transfer.
4 ×107 × 0.005 Hence, the correct option is (A).
(Ts − T∞ ) = = 100
2 × 1000
Ts = 100 + T∞ Scan for
Video Solution
Ts = 100 + 25 = 1250 C
But in this question temperature asked in Kelvin 1.36 (A)
so,
L = Length, k = Thermal conductivity
Ts = 125 + 273 = 398 K k
Hence, the correct option is (B).
r1
Scan for
Video Solution r2

L
1.35 (A) ln(r2 / r1 )
Thermal resistance given by =
Given : 2πkL
Outer radius of plastic sleeve (r0 ) = 1mm Hence, the correct option is (A).

Electric current carrying wire radius 1.37 67.5

(r ) = 0.5 mm
Given : Temperature at face 1 (T1 ) = 1300 C
Thermal conductivity of plastic
(k ) = 0.15 W/mK Temperature at face 3 (T3 ) = 300 C
Convective heat transfer coefficient Thermal conductivity of slab A
(h) = 25 W/m 2 K (k A ) = 20 W/mK
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.25

Thermal conductivity of slab B Heat generated in rod (qg ) = 4 ×107 W/m3

(k B ) = 100 W/mK Thermal conductivity of the rod
Length of slab A ( LA ) = 0.1m (k ) = 25 W/mK
Length of slab B ( LB ) = 0.3m Temperature distribution in a cylindrical rod
with uniform heat generation under steady state
A B
is given by
Q Q Q qg ( R 2 − r 2 )
Tr − Ts =
1 2 3 4k
At center r = 0 and Tr = T0
T1 = 1300 C k A = 20 T3 = 300 C
k B = 100 W/m.K
W/m.K qg R 2
T0 − Ts =
4k
0.1 m 0.3 m
And radius of solid cylinder,
The thermal resistance network for the D 10
representative section of slab becomes as shown R = = = 5 mm
2 2
in figure. Then the individual thermal resistance
4 × 107 × ( 5 × 10− 3 )
2
is,  T0 − Ts = = 100 C
T1 = 1300C R1 T2 R2 T3 = 300C 4 × 25
Hence, the temperature difference between the
Q
LA 0.1 L 0.3 centre and the surface of the rod is 100 C .
R1 =
= and R2 = B =
k A 20 k B 100  Key Point
For steady one-dimensional heat conduction, Under steady state one dimensional heat
T −T T −T conduction in cylinder is derived below,
Q= 1 3 = 1 2
R1 + R2 R1 Ts

130 − 30 130 − T2 R
Q= =
0.1 0.3 0.1
+
20 100 20 T0
100 130 − T2 ∂  ∂T  qg r
= r =− …(i)
0.8 0.1 ∂r  ∂r  k
100 20 Integrating above equation, we get
130 − T2 = 62.5
∂T qg r 2
T2 = 130 − 62.5 = 67.50 C r =− + c1
∂r 2k
Hence, the interface temperature T2 is 67.5 0 C . ∂T qg r c1
=− +
∂r 2k r
Scan for ∂T
Video Solution At r = 0, T = T0 and =0
∂r
c1 = 0
1.38 10
∂T qg r
Given : =− …(ii)
Diameter of solid cylinder rod ( D ) = 10 mm ∂r 2k
 3.26 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Again integrating equation (ii), Thermal resistance circuit for the given problem
qg r 2 as,
T =− + c2 …(iii)
4k Rconv Rcond
At r = R, T = Ts T¥ = 450 C TP TQ = 250 C
qg R 2 1 1
Ts = − + c2 Rconv = =
4k hA 10 A
qg R 2 L 0.2
c2 = Ts + Rcond = =
4k kA 2.5 A
Putting the value of c2 in equation (iii), For steady state one dimensional heat
qg r 2 qg R 2 generation,
T =− + Ts + ΔT ΔT
4k 4k Q= =
qg R qg r 2
2 Rconv Rcond
T − Ts = − TP − TQ
4k 4k T −T
Q= ∞ P =
qg 2 2 1 0.2
T − Ts = (R − r ) …(iv) 10 A 2.5 A
4k
45 − TP TP − 25
In case of solid cylinder value of r is zero then Q= =
1 0.2
the equation (iv) becomes,
10 2.5
qg R 2
T − Ts = 45 − TP TP − 25
4k Q= =
0.1 0.08
0.08(45 − TP ) = 0.1(TP − 25)
Scan for
Video Solution TP = 33.880 C
Hence, the steady state temperature Tp of the
1.39 33.88
side which is exposed to the fluid is 33.880 C .
Given : Thickness of slab ( L) = 20 cm
Thermal conductivity of slab (k ) = 2.5 W/mK Scan for
Video Solution
Convective heat transfer coefficient
(h) = 10 W/m 2 K
1.40 (A)
0
Ambient temperature (T∞ ) = 45 C
DT
0
Surface temperature (TQ ) = 25 C Q k1 k2 d

Considering steady state condition, L L

TP
DT

Q ke
2
h = 10 W/m K k = 2.5 W/mK TQ = 25 C
0
2L
T¥ = 45 0C
Rth = Rth1 + Rth2
2L L L
L = 20 cm
= +
ke k1 k2
GATE ACADEMY® Heat Transfer : Conduction 3.27

2 1 1 k1 + k2  Eg = 10000 × ( L × A)
= + =
ke k1 k2 k1k2
Eg = 10000 × 1×1 = 10000 W
2k k
ke = 1 2 and, hA (T1 − T∞ ) = qconv1 = qcond1
k1 + k2
Hence, the correct option is (A). 100 × (100 − 30) = qcond1
qcond1 = 7000 W
Scan for
Video Solution Again, qconv2 = hA (T2 − T∞ ) = 100 × 1× (T2 − 30)

1.41 (C) qconv2 = 100 (T2 − 30) = qcond2

Fourier law, assumptions are, At steady state,

1. Steady state, one dimensioned. Eg = Eout
2. No internal heat generation.
Eg = qcond1 + qcond2
3. Thermal conductivity = Constant
dT 10000 = 7000 + 100 (T2 − 30)
Q = − kA
dx  3000  0
Given, area is varying linearly. T2 =   + 30 = 60 C
 100 
A = a + bx (a and b are constant)
Hence, the right extreme face temperature T2 is
Assuming, x = 0 , T = 0 and x = L , T = T
600C.
Q dT
So, =
− K (a + bx) dx
Scan for
L Q T
 dx =  dT Video Solution

0 − K (a + bx) 0

Q 1.43 0.5
 − ln(a + bL) = T
bK Given :
So, temperature is varying logarithmic.
Inner side brick wall temperature (T1 ) = 11000 C
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Outer side brick wall temperature (T2 ) = 7000 C
Scan for Outer surface of insulation temperature
Video Solution
(T3 ) = 2000 C
1.42 60 Heat flux (q ) = 2500 W/m 2
According to question, According to question,
0
T1 = 100 C T2 = ? 11000C 7000C 2000C
2
T¥ = 30 T¥ = 30 q = 2500 W/m
h = 100 W/m2K k = 5 W/m K h = 100 W/m2K
T1
k = 5 W/m K
T2
qcond 1 qcond 2
k1 = T3
2.5 W/mK
Insulation,k2
1m 1m 1m L1 L2 L2 = L1 / 4
 3.28 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Conduction through composite wall, since heat
flow through all sections must be same.
T1 − T2 T2 − T3
Q= =
L1 L2
k1 A k2 A
1100 − 700 700 − 200
 Q= =
L1 L2
k1 k2
400 500
 =
4 L2 L2
2.5 k2
400 × 2.5 k2 × 500
=
4 × L2 L2
k2 = 0.5 W/mK
Hence, the value of k2 is 0.5 W/mK.


 1 Vapour Refrigeration

1992 IIT Delhi 1.5 In a vapour compression refrigeration

system, liquids to suction heat exchanger
1.1 A refrigeration compressor, designed to
is used to [1 Mark]
operate with R-22 ______ (can/cannot)
be operated with R-12 because the (A) Keep the COP constant
condensing pressure of R-22 at any
(B) Prevent the liquid refrigerant from
given temperature is ______ (higher/
entering the compressor
lower) than that of R-12. [2 Marks]
(C) Sub-cool the liquid refrigerant
1993 IIT Bombay
leaving the condenser
1.2 The use of refrigerant R 22 for tempe-
(D) Sub-cool the vapour refrigerant from
rature below − 300 is not recommended
the evaporator
due to its [2 Marks]
(A) Good miscibility with lubricating oil 2003 IIT Madras
(B) Poor miscibility with lubricating oil
(C) Low evaporating temperature Common Data for
(D) High compressor discharge tempe- Questions 1.6 & 1.7
rature
1.3 Round the clock cooling of an apartment A refrigerator based on ideal vapour
having a load of 300 MJ/day requires compression cycle operates between the
and air conditioning plant of capacity
temperature limits of − 200 C and 40 0 C. The
about [2 Marks]
(A) 1 ton (B) 5 ton refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated
(C) 10 tons (D) 100 tons vapour and leaves as saturated liquid. The
enthalpy and entropy values for saturated liquid
2000 IIT Kharagpur
and vapour at these temperatures are given in
1.4 Global warming is caused by [1 Mark] the table below,
(A) Ozone
T hf hg sf sg
(B) Carbon dioxide 0
( C) (kJ/kg) (kJ/kg) (kJ/kgK) (kJ/kgK)
(C) Nitrogen – 20 20 180 0.07 0.7366
(D) Carbon monoxide 40 80 200 0.3 0.67
 4.2 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
1.6 The COP of the refrigerator is p
300 C
[2 Marks] 7.45
3
2
(A) 2.0 (B) 2.33
(C) 5.0 (D) 6.0 - 200 C
1.50
4 1
1.7 If refrigerator circulation rate is 0.025
kg/s, the refrigeration effect is equal to 65 176 207
h

[2 Marks] (A) 6.35 ×10− 3 m3 /s

(A) 2.1 kW (B) 2.5 kW (B) 63.5 ×10− 3 m3 /s
(C) 3.0 kW (D) 4.0 KW (C) 635 ×10− 3 m3 /s
2004 IIT Delhi (D) 4.88 ×10− 3 m3 /s

1.8 Environment friendly refrigerant R 134a 2005 IIT Bombay

is used in the new generation domestic 1.11 The vapour compression refrigeration
refrigerators. Its chemical formula is cycle is represented as shown in the
[1 Mark] figure below, with state CHClF2 1 being
(A) CH CI F2 (B) C 2 Cl3 F3 the exit of the evaporator. The
coordinate system used in this figure is
(C) C 2 Cl3 F4 (D) C2 H 2 F4
[2 Marks]
1.9 In the window air conditioner, the
expansion device used is [1 Mark] 2
(A) Capillary tube 3

(B) Thermostatic expansion valve

(C) Automatic expansion valve 4 1
(D) Float vale
(A) p -h (B) T - s
1.10 A R-12 refrigerant reciprocating (C) p -s (D) T - h
compressor operates between the
condensing temperature of 300 C and 2009 IIT Roorkee
0
evaporator temperature of − 20 C. The 1.12 In an ideal vapour compression
clearance volume ratio of the refrigeration cycle, the specific enthalpy
compressor is 0.03. Specific heat ratio of of refrigeration (in kJ/kg) at the
the vapour is 1.15 and the specific following states is given as :
volume at the suction is 0.1089 m 3 /kg. Inlet of condenser : 283
Other properties at various states are Exit of condenser : 116
given in the figure. To realize 2 tons of Exit of evaporator : 232
refrigeration, the actual volume The COP of this cycle is [1 Mark]
displacement rate considering the effect (A) 2.27 (B) 2.75
of clearance is [2 Marks] (C) 3.27 (D) 3.75
GATE ACADEMY® RAC : Vapour Refrigeration 4.3

2012 IIT Delhi 2015 IIT Kanpur

1.16 Refrigerant vapour enters into the

Common Data for
Questions 1.13 & 1.14 compressor of a standard vapor
compression cycle at −100 C
A refrigerator operates between 120 kPa and
800 kPa in an ideal vapour compression cycle ( h = 402 kJ/kg) and leaves the

with R-134 a as the refrigerant. The refrigerant compressor at 500 C ( h = 432 kJ/kg) . It
enters the compressor as saturated vapour and leaves the condenser at 300 C
leaves the condenser as saturated liquid. The ( h = 237 kJ/kg) . The COP of the cycle
mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.2 kg/s.
is ______. [2 Marks]
Properties for R-134 a are as follows :
2016 IISc Bangalore

1.17 In the vapour compression cycle shown

in the figure, the evaporating and
condensing temperatures are 260 K and
310 K, respectively. The compressor
takes in liquid-vapour mixture (state 1)

1.13 The rate of which heat is extracted in and isentropically compresses it to a dry

kJ/s from the refrigerated space is saturated vapour condition (state 2). The
specific heat of the liquid refrigerant is
[2 Marks]
(A) 28.3 (B) 42.9 4.8 kJ/kg-K and may be treated as

(C) 34.4 (D) 14.6 constant. The enthalpy of evaporation

for the refrigerant at 310 K is 1054
1.14 The power required for the compressor
kJ/kg. [2 Marks]
in kW is [2 Marks]
T
(A) 5.94 (B) 1.83
(C) 7.9 (D) 39.5 3 2

2014 IIT Kharagpur

0
1.15 Which one of the following is a CFC 4 1
s
refrigerant? [1 Mark]
(A) R744 (B) R290 The difference between the enthalpies at
(C) R502 (D) R718 state points 1 and 0 (in kJ/kg) is ______.
 4.4 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
1.18 A refrigerator uses R-134a as its 2019 IIT Madras
refrigerant and operates on an ideal
1.20 Consider an ideal vapour compression
vapour-compression refrigeration cycle
refrigeration cycle. If the throttling
between 0.14 MPa and 0.8 MPa. If the
process is replaced by an isentropic
mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.05
expansion process, keeping all the other
kg/s, the rate of heat rejection to the
processes unchanged, which one of the
environment is ______ kW. [2 Marks]
following statements is true for the
Given : modified cycle? [1 Mark]
At p = 0.14 MPa, h = 236.04 kJ/kg, (A) Coefficient of performance is higher
s = 0.9322 kJ/kg-K than that of the original cycle.

At p = 0.8 MPa, h = 272.05kJ/kg (B) Coefficient of performance is lower

(superheated vapour) than that of the original cycle.
(C) Coefficient of performance is same
At p = 0.8 MPa, h = 93.42kJ/kg
as that of the original cycle.
(saturated liquid)
(D) Refrigeration effect is lower than
2018 IIT Guwahati
that of the original cycle.
1.19 A standard vapour compression
refrigeration cycle operating with a
condensing temperature of 350 C and an
evaporating temperature of −100 C
develops 15 kW of cooling. The p − h
diagram shows the enthalpies at various
states. If the isentropic efficiency of the
compressor is 0.75, the magnitude of
compressor power (in kW) is ______
(correct to two decimal places).
[2 Marks]
p(kPa)

350C
650
0
–10 C
400

h(kJ/kg)
250 400 475
GATE ACADEMY® RAC : Vapour Refrigeration 4.5

Answers Vapour Refrigeration

cannot,
1.1 1.2 B 1.3 A 1.4 B 1.5 C
higher

1.6 B 1.7 A 1.8 D 1.9 A 1.10 **

1.11 D 1.12 A 1.13 A 1.14 C 1.15 C

1.16 5.5 1.17 1103.49 1.18 8.9315 1.19 10 1.20 A

Explanations Vapour Refrigeration

1.1 cannot, higher Scan for

Video Solution
A refrigeration compressor, designed to operate
with R-22 cannot be operated with R-12
1.4 (B)
because the condensing pressure of R-22 at any
given temperature is higher than that of R-12. Global warming is a long-term rise in the
1.2 (B) average temperature of the Earth's climate
system. The main cause of global warming is
Two type of lubricants have suitable working
greenhouse effect and carbon dioxide is a major
under different temperature and pressure
greenhouse gas.
condition which are
1. Refrigerant which are fully miscible Hence, the correct option is (B).
with lubricating oil Scan for
2. Refrigerant which are fully immiscible Video Solution
with lubricating oil
But below − 300 C refrigerant R-22 partially 1.5 (C)
immiscible which causes erosion in T
compression unit.
Sub cooling
Hence, the correct option is (B). 3 2
1.3 (A) 3’

Given : Cooling load = 300 MJ/day

Cooling load in kW 4’ 4 1

300 × 106
= kW = 3.472 kW s
24 × 60 × 60
Cooling load in TR After condenser sub cooling occur which
3.472 increase cooling effect from for 4-1 to 4’-1.
= = 0.986 ton ≈ 1ton
3.52 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Scan for
 Key Point
Video Solution
1 Ton of Refrigeration = 3.52 kW .
 4.6 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1.6 (B) 1.8 (D)

Given : h2 = hg at 400 C = 200 kJ/kg Given : Refrigerant R-134.

Comparing with R-(n − 1) (m + 1) p
s2 = sg at 400 C = 0.67 kJ/kg
n −1 = 1
h3 = h4 = (h f ) at 400 C = 80 kJ/kg
n=2
T-s diagram, m +1 = 3
T
m=2
3 p=4
400 C 2
where, 2n + 2 = m + p + q
4+2 = 2+4+q
- 200 C
4 1 ∴ q=0
Chemical formula is Cn H m Fp Clq
s
0.07 0.7366
Therefore, chemical formula is C2 H 2 F4 .
Since, compression (1-2) is isentropic.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
∴ s1 = s2
Scan for
 s1 = s f + x ( sg − s f ) Video Solution
0.67 = 0.07 + x (0.7366 − 0.07)
1.9 (A)
∴ x = 0.900
Enthalpy, h1 = h f + x (hg − h f ) In the air conditioner, the expansion device used
for constant enthalpy expansion process. Here
h1 = 20 + 0.9 (180 − 20) = 164.01 kJ/kg the capillary tube is used as an expansion device
h1 − h4 164.01 − 80 in the following :
COP = =
h2 − h1 200 − 164.01 1. Domestic refrigerator
COP = 2.33 2. Water coolers
Hence, the correct option is (B). 3. Room AC and
4. Freezer
1.7 (A)
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Given : Mass flow rate (m ) = 0.025 kg/s
Scan for
Refrigeration effect, Video Solution
R = m⋅ ×(h1 − h4 ) = 0.025 × (164.01 − 80)
R = 2.10 kW 1.10

Hence, the correct option is (A). Given : Clearance ratio (c) = 0.03
Specific heat ratio (n) = 1.15
Scan for
Video Solution Specific volume at suction (v1 ) = 0.1089 m3 /kg
GATE ACADEMY® RAC : Vapour Refrigeration 4.7
p  Key Point
300 C
7.45
3
2
In the relation below,
1
 p2  n
- 200 C ηvol = 1 + c − c 
1.50
4 1  p1 

h
n = Polytropic index for expansion process in
65 176 207 the cycle of reciprocating compression.
Clearance volume ratio,
Clearance volume (Vc ) Scan for
c= = 0.03 Video Solution
Swept volume (Vs )
Specific volume at suction v1 = 0.1089 m3 /kg 1.11 (D)
Refrigerating effect, T
RE = 2TR = 2 × 3.5 kJ/s = 7 kW 2
From p-h diagram, 3
p1 = 1.50 bar, p2 = 7.45 bar
Volumetric efficiency, 4 1
1 h
p  n
ηvol = 1+ c − c  2  Reasons :
 p1  1. The throttling process 3-4 is vertical i.e.
1
at constant enthalpy. So abscissa must
 7.45  1.15
ηvol = 1 + 0.03 − 0.03   = 0.91 be enthalpy.
 1.50 
Since, refrigeration effect 2. Condensation process ( p = constant) 2-
RE = m⋅ ×(h1 − h4 ) 3 is not horizontal so ordinate does not
represented by pressure but by tempe-
RE = m⋅ × (176 − 65)
rature.
7 × 103
m⋅ = = 0.06306 kg/sec Hence, the correct option is (D).
111× 103
Volumetric efficiency, Scan for
Video Solution
Actual suction volume flow rate
ηv =
Volume displacement rate
1.12 (A)

mv
ηv = 1 Given : Enthalpy at exit of evapourator
Vs
0.06306 × 0.1089 (h1 ) = 232 kJ/kg
0.91 =
Vs Enthalpy at inlet to the condenser
Vs = 7.546 ×10− 3 m3 /s (h2 ) = 283 kJ/kg
Note : Here, the given options in the question Enthalpy at exit of condenser
do not match with the answer. (h3 ) = (h4 ) = 116 kJ/kg
 4.8 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
T Enthalpy at exit of condenser
(h3 ) = 95.5 kJ/kg = h4
2
3
Mass flow rate (m ) = 0.2 kg/s .
T
1
4
2
3
s 31.310 C

Refrigeration effect
[COP] = - 22.320 C 1
Work input 4

h1 − h4 h1 − h3 s
[COP] = =
h2 − h1 h2 − h1 Power required to run the compressor,
232 −116 P = m⋅ ×(h − h )
[COP] = = 2.2745 = 2.27 2 1
283 − 232 P = 0.2 × (276.45 − 237)
Hence, the correct option is (A). P = 7.89 = 7.9 kW
Scan for Hence, the correct option is (C).
Video Solution
Scan for
1.13 (A) Video Solution

The rate of which heat is extracted in kJ/s from 1.15 (C)

the refrigerated space is,
p
CFC refrigerant is having clorine and flourine
elements in it

800 kPa 3 2 R744 − CO 2

R290 − C3 H8 (Propane)
120 kPa
4 1
R502 − CHClF3 + CClF2 CF3
h
R718 − Water
Refrigerating effect, Hence, the correct option is (C).
Q = m⋅ × (h1 − h4 ) = m⋅ × (h1 − h3 )
Scan for
Q = 0.2 × (237 − 95.5) = 28.3 kJ/sec Video Solution
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.16 5.5
1.14 (C)
Given : Enthalpy at inlet to compressor
Given :
(h1 ) = 402 kJ/kg
Enthalpy at evaporator exit (h1 ) = 237 kJ/kg
Enthalpy at exit of compressor (h2 ) = 432 kJ/kg
Enthalpy at compressor exit
(h2 ) = 276.45 kJ/kg Enthalpy at exit of condenser (h3 ) = 237 kJ/kg
GATE ACADEMY® RAC : Vapour Refrigeration 4.9
T 2 Process 2-3 :
h2 − h3 1054
300 C
3 s2 − s3 = = …(ii)
TC 310
Process 3-0 :
TC 310
-100 C
4
1 s3 − s0 = c ln = 4.8 × ln …(iii)
TE 260
s
On adding equation (ii) and (iii),
Coefficient of performance
1054 310
RE s2 − s0 = + 4.8 × ln
[COP] = 310 260
W
s2 − s0 = 4.2442 kJ/kgK
Refrigeration effect,
Putting, the above value in equation (i),
RE = h1 − h4 = 402 − 237 = 165 h1 − h0 = 4.2442 × 260 = 1103.49 kJ/kg
Work input in compressor, Hence, the difference between the enthalpies at
W = h2 − h1 = 432 − 402 = 30 state points 1 and 0 is 1103.49 kJ/kg.
165 Scan for
[COP] = = 5.5
30 Video Solution

Hence, the COP of the cycle is 5.5.

1.18 8.9315
Scan for Given : Mass flow rate = 0.05 kg/s
Video Solution
Enthalpy at inlet to compressor
1.17 1103.49 (h1 ) = 236.04 kJ/kg
Enthalpy at exit of compressor
Given : Specific heat of liquid (c) = 4.8 kJ/kg
(h2 ) = 272.05 kJ/kg
(h fg )310 K = h2 − h3 = 1054 kJ/kgK
Enthalpy at exit of condenser
Temperature at evaporator (TE ) = 260 K (h3 ) = 93.42 kJ/kg
T
Temperature at condenser (TC ) = 310 K 0.8 mPa
2
T 3

3 2 0.14 mPa
310 K
4 1
s
260 K
0 4 1 Heat rejected = (h2 − h3 )
s
Process 0-1 : = (272.05 − 93.42) = 178.63kJ/kg
h1 − h0 Heat rejected = 178.63 × 0.05 (kW)
= s1 − s0 ( s2 = s1 ) = 8.9315 kW
TE
Hence, the rate of heat rejection to the
h1 − h0 = 260 × ( s2 − s0 ) …(i)
environment is 8.9315 kW.
 4.10 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
But, the isentropic expander will produce some
Scan for
Video Solution positive work.
T
2
1.19 10 3 p=C

Given : Refrigeration effect (Q ) = 15 kW S=C

Increase in S=C
Isentropic efficiency of compressor, refrigerating
effect 4’ 4 p=C
h −h
ηcomp = 2 1 = 0.75
h2' − h1
S
B A
475 − 400
h2' − 400 = = 100 kJ/kg Hence, Wnet = Wc − We (isentropic expansion)
0.75
h2' = 100 + 400 = 500 kJ/kg Wnet = Wc (isenthalpic expansion)
Compressor work, Also, from T-S diagram,
Wc = h2' − h1 QE
COP =
Wc = 500 − 400 = 100 kJ/kg …(i) Wnet
p(kPa)
(QE ) h =c < (QE ) s =c
0
3 35 C 2
650 (Wnet ) h =c > (Wnet ) s =c

400
–100C Hence, [COP ]s =c > [COP]h =c
4 1
Hence, the correct option is (A).
h(kJ/kg)
250 400 475
But refrigeration effect, Scan for
Q = m (h − h )
Video Solution
R 1 4

15 = m R (400 − 250)
m R = 0.1 kg/s

From equation (i),
∴ Wc = 100 × 0.1 = 10 kW
Hence, the magnitude of compressor power is
10 kW.

Scan for
Video Solution

1.20 (A)
If isenthalpic expansion is replaced by an
isentropic expansion, then the simple expansion
value being using in VCRS has to be replaced
by an isentropic expander which will add cost.
 1 Stress & Strain
(A) Decrease
1994 IIT Kharagpur
1.1 Below figure shows a rigid bar hinged at (B) Increase
A and supported in a horizontal position (C) Remain same
by two vertical identical steel wires. (D) Becomes equal to ultimate tensile
Neglect the weight of the beam. The strength
tension T1 and T2 induced in these wires
2000 IIT Kharagpur
by a vertical load P applied as shown are
1.3 A 1.5 mm thick sheet is subject to
[2 Marks]
unequal biaxial stretching and the true
strains in the directions of stretching are
a
L b 0.05 and 0.09. The final thickness of the
T2 T1 sheet in mm is [2 Marks]
A (A) 1.414 (B) 1.304
(C) 1.362 (D) 289
l l
P 2002 IISc Bangalore
P 1.4 The total area under the stress strain
(A) T1 = T2 =
2 curve of a mild steel specimen tested up
Pal Pbl to failure under tension is a measure of
(B) T1 = 2 2
, T2 = 2
(a + b ) (a + b 2 ) [1 Mark]
Pbl Pal (A) Ductility
(C) T1 = 2 2
, T2 = 2
(a + b ) (a + b 2 ) (B) Ultimate strength
Pal Pbl (B) Stiffness
(D) T1 = 2 2
, T2 =
2(a + b ) 2(a 2 + b 2 )
(D) Toughness
1995 IIT Kanpur 1.5 The number of components in a stress
1.2 A test specimen is stressed slightly tensor defining stress at a point in three
beyond the yield point and then dimensions is [1Mark]
unloaded. Its yield strength will (A) 3 (B) 4
[1 Mark] (C) 6 (D) 9
 5.2 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

2003 IIT Madras 2006 IIT Kharagpur

1.6 Two identical circular rods of same 1.8 A steel bar of 40 mm × 40 mm square
diameter and same length are subjected cross-section is subjected to an axial
to same magnitude of axial tensile force. compressive load of 200 kN. If the
length of the bar is 2 m and
One of the rods is made out of mild steel
E = 200 GPa , the elongation of the bar
having the modulus of elasticity of 206
will be [2 Marks]
GPa. The other rod is made out of cast
(A) 1.25 mm (B) 2.70 mm
iron having the modulus of elasticity of
(C) 4.05 mm (D) 5.40 mm
100 GPa. Assume both the materials to
1.9 A bar having a cross sectional area of
be homogeneous and isotropic and the
axial force causes the same amount of
700 mm 2 is subjected to axial loads at
uniform stress in both the rods. The the positions indicated. The value of
stress in the segment QR is [2 Marks]
stresses developed are within the
proportional limit of the respective 63 kN 49 kN 21 kN
35 kN
materials. Which of the following
P Q R S
observations is correct? [1 Mark]
(A) 40 MPa (B) 50 MPa
(A) Both rods elongate by the same
amount (C) 70 MPa (D) 120 MPa
(B) Mild steel rod elongates more than 2007 IIT Kanpur
the cast iron
1.10 A 200 ×100 × 50 mm steel block is
(C) Cast iron rod elongates more than
subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 15
the mild steel rod MPa. The Young’s modulus and
(D) As the stresses are equal strains are Poisson’s ratio of the material are 200
also equal in both the rods GPa and 0.3 respectively. The change in
the volume of the block in mm3 is
2004 IIT Delhi
[2 Marks]
1.7 The figure below shows a steel rod of (A) 85 (B) 90
25mm2 cross sectional area. It is loaded (C) 100 (D) 110
at four points. K, L, M and N. Assume
2008 IISc Bangalore
Esteel = 200 GPa . The total change in
1.11 A rod of length L and diameter D is
length of the rod due to loading is
subjected to a tensile load P. Which of
[2 Marks] the following is sufficient to calculate
250 N the resulting change in diameter?
100 N K L M N 50 N
200 N [1 Mark]
500 mm 400 mm
(A) Young’s modulus
1700 mm (B) Shear modulus
(A) 1μm (B) −10 μm (C) Poisson’s ratio
(D) Both Young’s modulus and shear
(C) 16 μm (D) − 20 μm modulus
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.3

2013 IIT Bombay correct option referring to both figure

and table. [1 Mark]
1.12 For a ductile material, toughness is a s
measure of [1 Mark] T
(A) Resistance to scratching
U
(B) Ability to absorb energy up to
fracture
R
(C) Ability to absorb energy till elastic Q
limit
(D) Resistance to indentation P S
1.13 A rod of length L having uniform cross-
sectional area A is subjected to a tensile e
force P as shown in the figure below. If Point on
Description of the point
the Young’s modulus of the material the graph
varies linearly from E1 to E2 along the P 1. Upper yield point
length of the rod, the normal stress Q 2. Ultimate tensile strength
developed at the section-SS is R 3. Proportionality limit
[1 Mark] S 4. Elastic limit
S T 5. Lower yield point
E1 E2
U 6. Failure
P P
(A) P -1, Q-2, R-3, S -4, T -5,U -6
L /2 S
L (B) P - 3, Q-1, R-4, S -2, T -6,U -5
P P ( E1 − E2 ) (C) P - 3, Q-4, R-1, S -5, T -2,U -6
(A) (B)
A A( E1 + E2 ) (D) P - 4, Q-1, R-5, S -2, T -3,U -6
PE2 PE1 1.16 A metal rod of initial length L0 is
(C) (D)
AE1 AE2
subjected to a drawing process. The
2014 IIT Kharagpur length of the rod at any instant is given
by the expression, L (t ) = L0 (1 + t 2 ) ,
1.14 The relationship between true strain
(εT ) and engineering strain (ε E ) in a where t is the time in minutes. The true
strain rate (in min −1 ) at the end of one
uniaxial tension test is given as[1 Mark]
minute is ______. [2 Marks]
(A) ε E = ln(1 + εT )
(B) ε E = ln(1 − εT ) 2015 IIT Kanpur
(C) εT = ln(1 + ε E ) 1.17 Which one of the following types of
stress-strain relationship best describes
(D) εT = ln(1 − ε E )
the behavior of brittle materials, such as
1.15 The stress-strain curve for mild steel is ceramics and thermosetting plastic,
shown in figure given below. Choose the
( σ = Stress and ε = Strain)? [1 Mark]
 5.4 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
(A) s 2016 IISc Bangalore
1.20 The value of true strain produced in
compressing a cylinder to half its
original length is [1 Mark]
(A) 0.69 (B) – 0.69
e
(C) 0.5 (D) – 0.5
(B) s 1.21 Engineering strain of a mild steel sample
is recorded as 0.100%. The true strain is
[1 Mark]
(A) 0.010% (B) 0.055%
(C) 0.099% (C) 0.101%
e
1.22 A horizontal bar with a constant cross-
(C) s section is subjected to loading as shown
in the figure. The Young’s moduli for
the section AB and BC are 3E and E,
respectively. [2 Marks]
A B C
e P
O 3E E
F
(D) s L L
For the deflection at C to be zero, the
P
ratio is _______.
F
1.23 A hypothetical engineering stress-strain
e
curve shown in the figure has three
1.18 The strain hardening exponent n of straight lines PQ, QR, RS with
stainless steel SS 304 with distinct yield coordinates P (0, 0) , Q(0.2, 100) ,
and UTS values undergoing plastic
R(0.6, 140) and S (0.8, 130) . ‘Q’ is the
deformation is [1 Mark]
yield point, ‘R’ is the UTS point and ‘S’
(A) n = 0 (B) n > 0 the fracture point. [2 Marks]
(C) 0 < n < 1 (D) n = 1
1.19 The flow stress (in MPa) of a material is 160
(0.6, 140)
0.1
given by σ = 500 ε , where ε is the 140 (0.8, 130)
Engg. stress (MPa)

R
120 S
strain. The Young’s modulus of (0.2, 100)
100
elasticity of the material is 200 GPa. A Q
80
block of thickness 100 mm made of this 60
material is compressed to 95 mm 40
thickness and then the load is removed. 20
P (0,0)
The final dimension of the block (in 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
mm) is ______. [2 Marks] Engg. strain(%)
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.5
The toughness of the material (in 2017 IIT Roorkee
MJ / m3 ) is _______.
1.26 A horizontal bar, fixed at one end
1.24 A square plate of dimension L × L is
( x = 0) , has a length of 1 m, and cross-
subjected to a uniform pressure load
p = 250 MPa on its edges as shown in sectional area of 100 mm2 . Its elastic
the figure. Assume plane stress modulus varies along its length as given
conditions. The Young’s modulus by E ( x) = 100 e− x GPa, where x is the
E = 200 GPa. [2 Marks]
p
length coordinate (in m) along the axis
of the bar. An axial tensile load of 10 kN
is applied at the free end ( x = 1) . The
d axial displacement of the free end is
p p L
______ mm. [2 Marks]
1.27 A point mass of 100 kg is dropped onto
a massless elastic bar (cross-sectional
p
area = 100 mm 2 , length = 1m, Young’s
The deformed shape is a square of
dimension L − 2δ. If L = 2 m and modulus = 100 GPa) from a height H of
10 mm as shown (figure is not to scale).
δ = 0.001 m. The poisson’s ratio of the
plate material is ________. If g = 10 m/s 2 , the maximum compre-
1.25 In the figure, the load P = 1 N, length ssion of the elastic bar is ______ mm.
L = 1 m, Young’s modulus E = 70 [2 Marks]
GPa, and the cross-section of the links is m = 100 kg
a square with dimension 10 mm × 10 H = 10 mm
mm. All joints are pin joints g

L L = 1m

450
45 0 B 1.28 A rod of length 20 mm is stretched to
P make a rod of length 40 mm.
Subsequently, it is compressed to make
L
a rod of final length 10 mm. Consider
the longitudinal tensile strain as positive
and compressive strain as negative. The
A total true longitudinal strain in the rod is
The stress (in Pa) in the link AB is ____. [2 Marks]
(Indicate compressive stress by a (A) – 0.5 (B) – 0.69
negative sign and tensile stress by a
positive sign) [2 Marks] (C) – 0.75 (D) – 1.0
 5.6 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
L/2 L/2
2018 IIT Guwahati
Steel P Al
1.29 A bar of uniform cross section and B
A C
weighing 100 N is held horizontally (A) 70 (B) 140
using two massless and inextensible (C) 210 (D) 280
strings S1 and S2 as shown in the figure. 1.32 A bar is compressed to half of its
Rigid support original length. The magnitude of true
T1 = ? T2 = ?
strain produce in the deformed bar is
_____ (correct to two decimal places).
S1 S2 Bar [2 Marks]
1.33 The true stress (σ) - true strain (ε)
L/2 L/2
diagram of a strain hardening material is
The tension in the strings are [1 Mark] shown in figure. First, there is loading
(A) T1 = 100N and T2 = 0 N up to point A, i.e., up to stress of 500
(B) T1 = 0 N and T2 = 100 N MPa and strain of 0.5. Then from point
A, there is unloading up to point B, i.e.
(C) T1 = 75N and T2 = 25N to stress of 100 MPa.
(D) T1 = 25 N and T2 = 75 N Given that the Young’s modulus
E = 200 GPa, the natural strain at point
1.30 In a linearly hardening plastic material
the true stress beyond initial yielding. B (ε B ) is _____ (correct to three decimal
[1 Mark] places) [2 Marks]
(A) Increases linearly with the true strain s (MPa)
A
(B) Decreases linearly with the true 500
strain
(C) First increases linearly and then
decreases linearly with the true B
100
strain
e
(D) Remains constant eB 0.5
1.31 A bimetallic cylindrical bar of cross-
2019 IIT Madras
sectional area 1m 2 is made by bonding.
Steel (Young’s modulus = 210 GPa ) 1.34 Consider the stress-strain curve for an
ideal elastic- plastic strain hardening
and Aluminium (Young’s modulus
metal as shown in the figure. The metal
= 70 GPa ) as shown in the figure. To
was loaded in uniaxial tension starting
maintain tensile axial strain of from O. Upon loading, the stress-strain
magnitude 10−6 in Steel bar and curve passes through initial yield point
compressive axial strain of magnitude at P, and then strain hardens to point Q,
10−6 in aluminum bar, the magnitude of where the loading was stopped. From
the required force P (in kN) along the point Q, the specimen was unloaded to
indicated direction is [2 Marks] point R, where the stress is zero. If the
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.7
same specimen is reloaded in tension
from point R, the value of stress at which
the material yields again is ______ MPa.
[1 Mark]

210 Q
Stress (MPa)

180 P

O R Strain
1.35 In UTM experiment, a sample of length
100 mm, was loaded in tension until
failure. The failure load was 40 kN. The
displacement, measured using the cross-
head, at failure, was 15 mm. The
compliance of the UTM is constant and
is given by 5 ×10−8 m/N . The strain at
failure in the sample is ______%.
[2 Marks]
 5.8 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Answers Stress & Strain

1.1 B 1.2 B 1.3 B 1.4 D 1.5 C

1.6 C 1.7 B 1.8 A 1.9 A 1.10 B
1.11 D 1.12 B 1.13 A 1.14 C 1.15 C
1.16 1 1.17 D 1.18 C 1.19 95.176 1.20 B
1.21 C 1.22 4 1.23 0.85 1.24 0.2 1.25 0
1.26 1.718 1.27 1.517 1.28 B 1.29 B 1.30 A
1.31 D 1.32 0.69 1.33 0.498 1.34 210 1.35 2

Explanations Stress & Strain

1.1 (B) From equations (ii) and (iii), we get

According to question, a
T1 = T2
b
a From equation (i), we get
L b
T2 T1 a
T2 × b + T2 × a = Pl
A b
Pbl
T2 =
l l (a + b 2 )
2

P a Plb Pal
Taking moment about A, and T1 = × 2 2 = 2 2
b a +b a +b
T2 × b + T1 × a = P × l …(i)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Now elongation in wire δL1 and δL2 ,
T1L TL
δL1 = and δL2 = 2 Scan for
AE AE Video Solution
δL1 T1
= …(ii)
δL2 T2 1.2 (B)
When a specimen is loaded above yield point, it
a starts undergoing plastic deformation. i.e., the
L L
anchorage or bonding of atoms break and slip
b
C B band formation take place.
A
dL1
dL2 D
B'
B
C' A

From similarity of Δ ABB ' and Δ ACC ' ,

δL1 a
= …(iii)
C
δL2 b
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.9
True strain along width,
b
A B ε y = ln  
Dislocation moment begin  b0 
b
After the loading when the specimen is = e (0.09)
b0
unloaded, then the dislocation movement get
Where, b is final width and b0 is initial width.
hindered, as the initial deformation opposes the
flow of dislocation. The specimen is said to be b
= 1.094 …(ii)
workhandened as a result, yield point gets b0
higher. Assuming volume remains same before and
after stretching.
l × b × t = l0 × b0 × t0
l b t
× × =1
Anchorage of dislocation l0 b0 t0
Hence, the correct option is (B). t0 1.5
t= = = 1.304 mm
l b 1.051×1.094
1.3 (B) ×
l0 b0
Given : Hence, the correct option is (B).
Biaxial stretching : 1.4 (D)
True strain along length (ε x ) = 0.05
The total area under the stress-strain curve of
True strain along width (ε y ) = 0.09 mild-steel specimen tested upto failure under
Initial thickness of sheet (t0 ) = 1.5 mm tension is a measure of modulus of toughness.
Which is index of measuring toughness.
sy , ey
Hence, the correct option is (D).
 Key Point
Toughness is area under load deformation
sx , ex diagram upto fracture. The area under stress
b0
strain diagram up to fracture is known as
l0 modulus of toughness i.e. strain energy per unit
volume up to fracture.
True strain along length,
l  1.5 (C)
ε x = ln  
The number of components in a stress tensor
 l0 
defining stress at a point under tri-axial state of
l
= eεx stress are 9 (3 normal stresses and 6 shear
l0
stress).
where, l is final length and l0 is initial length But 6 shear stresses involves complementary
l shear stresses also. Hence, the total number of
= e (0.05) = 1.051 …(i) components in a stress tensor becomes 6.
l0
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 5.10 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

 Key Point Free body diagram :

K L
 τ xx τ xy τ xz  100 N
  1
τ =  τ yx τ yy τ yz  100 N
0.5 m
 τ zx τ zy τ zz 

150 N 150 N
L 2 M
Three normal stress τ xx , τ yy and τ zz also
0.8 m
written as ( σ x , σ y and σ z ) and three shear M N
stress, ( τ xy = τ yx , τ yz = τ zy , τ zx = τ xz ) . 50 N
3
50 N

0.4 m
1.6 (C)
Total change in length,
Given : Modulus of elasticity for mild steel δl = Σδln
( E ) mild steel = 206 GPa
δl = δl1 − δl2 + δl3
Modulus of elasticity for cast iron Pl P l Pl
( E ) cast iron = 100 GPa δl = 11
− 22 + 33
AE AE AE
Elongation in bar due to force P, 1
δl = 1 1 − P2l2 + Pl
( Pl 3 3)
AE
Pl
δl = 1
AE δl = −6
25 ×10 × 200 ×109
Since P, l and A are constant.
× [100 × 0.5 − 150 × 0.8 + 50 × 0.4]
1
∴ δl ∝ δl = −10 ×10−6 m or − 10 μm
E
The negative sign shows that the bar has
(δl )mild steel ( E )cast iron
= = 0.4854 contracted.
(δl )cast iron ( E )mild steel
Hence, the correct option is (B).
(δl ) mild steel < (δl ) cast Iron  Key Point
Super position method is used for calculating
Hence, the correct option is (C).
total elongation, according to this method total
1.7 (B) elongation is algebraic sum of elongation of
individual members.
Given :
Cross section area ( A) = 25 mm 2 = 25 ×10−6 m 2 Scan for
Video Solution
Modulus of elasticity for steel
( Esteel ) = 200 GPa = 200 × 109 N/m 2 1.8 (A)
100 N 250 N 200 N 50 N Given :
K 1 2 3 N
L M Compressive load ( P) = 200 kN = 200 ×103 N
0.5 m 0.4 m
1.7 m Length of bar (l ) = 2 m
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.11
Modulus of elasticity Resisting force R
9 2
 σ= =
( E ) = 200 GPa = 200 ×10 N/m Area A
Cross-section area of bar ( A) = 1.6 ×10− 3 28 × 103
 σ= = 40 N/mm 2
700
P = 200 kN P = 200 kN  σ = 40 N/mm 2 or 40 MPa
l = 2m
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Change in length of the bar,
 Key Point
Pl
δl = In above method the section is moving from
AE
left to right side. But you can also solve the
200 × 103 × 2 above problem by moving section from right to
δl =
1.6 × 10− 3 × 200 × 109 left.
δl = 1.25 ×10−3 m = 1.25 mm X
Hence, the correct option is (A).
49 kN 21 kN
 Key Point R

Change in length (δl )

is known as X
Original length (l )
longitudinal strain. ΣFx = 0 ,
49 − 21 − R = 0
1.9 (A)
R = 28 kN
Given : Cross-sectional area ( A) = 700 mm2 Rest solution will be same.
X
1.10 (B)
63 kN 49 kN 21 kN
Given : Hydrostatic pressure ( p) = 15 MPa
35 kN
P Q R S Young’s modulus ( E ) = 200 GPa
X
Poisson’s ratio (μ) = 0.3
Stress in QR,
Volume of block (V ) = 200 ×100 × 50 mm
Resisting force in QR
σ= δV
Area of QR εv =
To know resisting force cut section XX in QR. V
1
Free body diagram for segment QR. εv = σ x + σ y + σ z − 2 μ ( σ x + σ y + σ z ) 
X E 
sy = - p
63 kN 35 kN sz
Resisting
force (R)

X sx sx = - p
ΣFx = 0 ,
− 63 + 35 + R = 0
sz = - p
R = 28 kN sy
 5.12 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
δV 1 load deformation diagram. Area under stress
= {−3 p − 2μ ( −3 p )}
V E strain diagram up to fracture represents energy
δV −3 p absorbed per unit volume which is known as
= (1 − 2 μ ) modulus of toughness, it is measure of
V E
toughness of material.
−3 pV
δV = (1 − 2 μ ) Hence, the correct option is (B).
E
−3 ×15 × 200 ×100 × 50 1.13 (A)
δV = (1 − 2 × 0.3)
200 ×103 Normal stress at every point will be P/A because
3 3
δV = −90 mm or 90 mm (Contraction) stress is independent of Young’s modulus of the
Hence, the correct option is (B). rod material.
Resisting force P
∴ σss = =
Scan for Area A
Video Solution
From above relation we can see stress depends
on resisting force (due to external load) and
1.11 (D)
area. It does not depends on the materials elastic
Poisson’s ratio, property.
 δD  Hence, the correct option is (A).
Lateral strain  
μ=  D 
 δL  Scan for
Longitudinal or linear strain  
 L  Video Solution

P P
D 1.14 (C)

L True strain : It is defined as change in gauge

length divided by instantaneous gauge length. It
δD δL
=μ …(i) is also known as natural strain.
D L
Mathematically,
 E = 2G (1 + μ ) Lf
dL
μ=
E
−1 …(ii)
εT = 
Li
L
2G
From equation (i) and (ii), we get L 
εT = ln  f 
δD  E  p  Li 
= − 1 ×
D  2G  AE
 L − Li 
( E − 2G) pD εT = ln 1 + f 
δD =  Li 
2GAE
Hence, the correct option is (D).  L f − Li 
 ε E = 
 Li 
1.12 (B)
Toughness of a material is defined by energy εT = ln (1 + ε E )
absorbed up to fracture. It is equal to area under Hence, the correct option is (C).
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.13

1.15 (C) True strain rate after 1 minute i.e., t = 1 .

 d εT  2 ×1
  = 2
=1
Upper yield
 dt t =1 1 + 1
s point
T Ultimate
 d εT  −1
 = 1 min
strength

R  dt t =1

e
U

rv
cu
Q
g Hence, the true strain rate at the end of one
in
er
ne
gi

minute is 1 min − 1 .
En

P S Fracture
Elastic limit

Lower yield point Scan for

Limit of proportional Video Solution

e 1.17 (D)
P: Proportionality limit
Ceramics and thermosets are brittle materials
Q: Elastic limit which does not undergo plastic deformation.
R: Upper yield point Therefore the stress strain curve will end end
S: Lower yield point elastic point (where stress is proportional to
T: Ultimate tensile strength strain) and then it fails.
U: Failure/Rupture Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (C).  Key Point
(i) Linear elastic material :
 Key Point
A linear elastic material is one in which
Engineering stress-strain curve is plotted the strain is proportional to stress as
between engineering stress and strain. shown below,
True stress-strain curve is plotted between true s

stress and strain.

1.16 1

Given :
Length of rod at any instant ( L ) = L0 (1 + t 2 ) e
There are also other types of idealized
dL
True strain, εT =  models of material behavior.
L (ii) Rigid materials :
2 L0 t 2t It is the one which do not experience any
εT =  2
dt =  dt
L0 (1 + t ) 1+ t2 strain regardless of the applied stress
s
True strain rate at the end of one minute,
 d ε T  d  2t 
  =  2
dt 
 dt  dt  1 + t 
 d εT  2t
 = 2
 dt  1 + t e
 5.14 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

(iii) Perfectly plastic (non-strain condition of the material. (i.e., whether it has
hardening) : been plastically deformed, heat treated etc.)
A perfectly plastic i.e. non-strain Where, K = Strength coefficient,
hardening material is shown below, n = Strain hardening exponent and
s
value of n is always less than unity.
0 < n <1
For stainless steel SS304
n = 0.44 (approx.)
e Hence, the correct option is (C).
(iv) Rigid plastic material (strain  Key Point
hardening) :
Relationship between true stress and true strain
A rigid plastic material i.e., strain is given as,
hardening is depicted in the figure
σT = K εTn
below,
s Where, K = Strength coefficient
n = Strain hardening exponent
Value of n varies between 0 to 1.
n = 0 perfectly plastic material
e n = 1 perfectly elastic material.
(v) Elastic perfectly plastic material :
1.19 95.176
The elastic perfectly plastic material is
having the characteristics as shown Given : Flow stress (σ0 ) = 500 ε 0.1
0
below, Young’s modulus ( E ) = 200 GPa
s
∴ True strain,
 95 
ε 0 = ln   = − 0.05129
 100 
(–ve sign shows compression)
e
∴ σ0 = 500 × (0.05129)0.1 = 371.512 MPa
1.18 (C)
Now from Hook’s law,
For some metals and alloys the regions of the
Stress
true stress-strain curve from the onset of plastic Strain =
E
deformation to the point at which necking
begins (strain hardening zone) may be Δt 371.512
=
approximately given by, t 200 ×103
σT = K εTn tF − t
= 1.85756 ×10−3
K and n are constants and value will vary from t
alloy to alloy and will also depends on the ∴ t F = 95 + 0.1756 (Here, t = 95 mm )
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.15
tF = 95.176 mm εT = 9.995 × 10 −4 = 0.0995 %
∴ Final dimension of the block, Hence, the correct option is (C).
tF = 95.176 mm
Scan for
Hence, the final dimension of the block is Video Solution
95.176 mm.
1.20 (B) 1.22 4

Consider initial length and final length as, According to question,

Free body diagram :
Li = L
A B
L F -P F -P
Lf = 3E
2
L
Since, necking phenomena has not happened C
B
then,
E
Volume before compression F F
L
= Volume after compression
For deflection at ‘C’ to be zero, there should be
Ai Li = A f L f
not change in length of bar,
Ai L f L / 2 1 Σδl = 0 ,
= = =
Af Li L 2  PL   PL 
  +  =0
Now, true strain,  AE  AB  AE  BC
Lf 1 FL ( F − P) L
εT = ln = ln   = − 0.693 + =0
Li 2 AE A × 3E
Hence, the correct option is (B). F F −P
+ =0
 Key Point E 3E
3F + F − P = 0
Lf  A  D 
True strain (εT ) = ln = ln  i  = 2 ln  i  4F − P = 0
Li A
 f   Df  4F = P
Where, Li , Ai , Di are the initial length, area, P
So, =4
diameter respectively. F
L f , A f , D f are the final length, area, diameter P
Hence, the ratio is 4.
respectively. F

1.21 (C) Scan for

Video Solution
Given : Engineering strain (ε) = 0.1%
True strain is given by, 1.23 0.85
 0.1 
εT = ln (1 + ε) = ln  1 +  According to question,
 100 
 5.16 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
p y

R (0.6, 140) p
Engg. stress (MPa)

10
Y S (0.8, 130) x d x
40 L
Q (0.2, 100)
X p

100 140
p y
0.8
0.6 L
0.2 Change in length along x-direction,
P U V W δLx = −2δ (– ve) represents compression
Strain (%)
Change in length along y-direction,
Area PQU + Area QRVU + Area RSWV
δLy = −2δ (– ve) represents compression
= Area PQU + {Area QRX + Area QXVU }
Strain in x-direction,
+ {Area RSY + Area SWVY } δL
εx = x
 1 0.2  L
= × × 100 
 2 100  σ σy − p p
εx = x − μ = +μ
 1 0.4   0.4  E E E E
+  × × 40  +  ×100  
 2 100   100  −2 × 0.001 250 ×106
 = ( −1 + μ )
2 200 ×109
 1 0.2   0.2 
+  × × 10  +  × 130   On solving, μ = 0.2
 2 100   100 
Hence, the poisson’s ratio of the plate material
= 0.1 + 0.08 + 0.4 + 0.01 + 0.26
is 0.2.
Modulus of toughness = 0.85 MJ/m3 1.25 0
Hence, the toughness of the material is 0.85
Given : Load ( P) = 1 kN
MJ / m 3 .
..Method 1..
Scan for
FBD :
Video Solution FBC sin 45
FBC
1.24 0.2
450
Given : Uniform pressure load ( p) = 250 MPa P cos 45 FBC cos 45
450
Deformation (δ) = 0.001 m
P
Young’s modulus ( E ) = 200 GPa
FAB + P sin 45
Length ( L) = 2 m
By resolving vertical forces (ΣFV = 0) ,
According to question,
(At equilibrium)
σ x = σ y = − p = − 250 MPa
FBC sin 45 = FAB + P sin 45 …(i)
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.17
By resolving horizontal forces, Elongation is given by,
ΣFH = 0 , (At equilibrium) x P P L 1
δl = 
0 AE ( x)
dx =
A ×105 
0 e− x
dx
FBC cos 45 = P cos 45
 FBC = P P 1 10 ×103 1
δl = [ e − 1] = [e − 1]
A ×105 100 × 105
Now, from equation (i),
δl = 1.718 ×10−3 m = 1.718 mm
P sin 45 = FAB + P sin 45
Hence, the axial displacement of the free end is
FAB = 0
1.718 mm.
If load is zero, there is no stress in the member.
∴ σ AB = 0 Pa Scan for
Video Solution
Hence, the stress in the AB is 0 Pa.
..Method 2.. 1.27 1.517
Using Lemi’s equation at point B, Given : Mass (m) = 100 kg
FBC
Height (H) = 10 mm = 10 ×10− 3 m
Length of bar (L) = 1 m = 1000 mm
450
450 Young modulus (E) = 100 GPa
= 100 ×103 N/mm 2 = 100 ×109 N/m
P Weight (W) = mg = 100 ×10 = 1000 N
FAB

P FAB Gravitational acceleration ( g ) = 10 m/s 2

= ( P = 1 kN)
sin135 sin1800
0 Area of cross section
FAB = 0 ( A) = 100 mm 2 = 100 ×10− 6 m
Stress in AB is zero. ..Method 1..
Hence, the stress in the AB is 0 Pa. Using conservation of energy,
1.26 1.718 Potential energy = Strain energy
Given : Length (l ) = 1 m 1
mg ( H + x) = Kbar x 2 …(i)
2
2
Cross-sectional area ( A) = 100 mm
Where, x = Compression
Axial tensile load ( P) = 10 kN
W EA
According to question, elastic modulus varies Kbar = =
δ L
along its length as given by,
100 ×109 ×100 × 10−6
E ( x) = 100 e GPa −x K bar = = 107 N/m
1
1m dl So, from equation (i),
R = 10 kN
10 kN 1
x=0 100 ×10(10 ×10−3 + x) = 107 × x 2
2
 5.18 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Solving the equation, we get 1.28 (B)
−3
x = 1.517 ×10 m = 1.517 mm Given : Length of bar ( L) = 20 mm
Hence, the maximum compression of the elastic When length is increase to 40 mm :
bar is 1.517 mm.
..Method 2.. 20 mm 40 mm
According to question, Engineering strain is given by,
m = 100 kg δL 40 − 20
H = 10 mm ε= = =1
g L 20
True strain (εT ) = ln(1 + ε) = ln(1 + 1) = ln 2
When length is decrease from 40 mm to 10
L = 1m mm :

40 mm 10 mm

Putting all units in mm, δL 40 − 10

ε=− = = −0.75
L 40
WL  2 EAH 
Now, ( δL )impact =  1 + 1 +  True strain = ln(1 − 0.75) = ln 0.25
AE  WL 
Total true strain is given by
1000 ×1000
( δL )impact = = ln 2 + ln 0.25 = − 0.693
100 ×100 ×103
Hence, the correct option is (B).
 2 × 100 × 103 × 100 × 10 
× 1 + 1 + 
 1000 × 1000 
  Scan for
Video Solution
Change in length due to falling load
( δL )impact = 1.5177 mm 1.29 (B)

Hence, the maximum compression of the elastic According to question,

bar is 1.517 mm. Rigid support

 Key Point
Impact factor is ratio of deformation due to S1 S2 Bar
impact load to deformation due to static load A

δLimpact L/2 L/2

IF = 100
δLstatic
Now, taking moment about A,
2H MA = 0,
IF = 1 + 1 +
δLstatic
L L
T2 × = 100 ×
2 EAH 2 2
or IF = 1 + 1 +
WL T2 = 100 N
GATE ACADEMY® Mechanics of Materials : Stress & Strain 5.19
 Fy = 0 , L/2 L/2
Steel P Al
Psteel PAl
T1 + T2 = 100  T1 = 100 − T2 A B C
∴ T1 = 0 N  Fx = 0 ,
Hence, the correct option is (B). PSteel + PAl = P …(i)
1.30 (A) As bar is fixed at both ends,
FBD :
For a linearly hardening plastic material true
Psteel Psteel
stress varies linearly with true stress after Steel
yielding. PAl
s PAl Al
Elastic
(δL)Total = 0
(δL)Steel − (δL)Al = 0
Plastic (δL)Steel = (δL)Al
PSteel × L / 2 PAl × L / 2
(Linear hardening) =
A × ESteel A × EAl
PSteel ESteel 210
Strain e = = =3
PAl EAl 70
Hence, the correct option is (A).
PSteel = 3PAl …(ii)
 Key Point
From equation (i) and (ii),
Ideal plastic material : It is one that
P
experiences no work hardening during plastic 3PAl + PAl = P  PAl =
4
deformation.
PAl × L / 2
Linear work hardening material : The linear
 δL  A × EAl
hardening material follows linear work ∴ ε Al =   = Al
hardening rule after yielding,  L  Al L/2
PAl
σ = σ y + c1ε ε Al = = 10 −6
AAl × EAl
Where, σ y = Yield stress, c1 = Constant.
PAl = 10 −6 × 1 × 70 × 10 9
1.31 (D) P
= 70 ×103  P = 280kN
4
Given : Cross-sectional area ( A) = 1 m 2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Young’s modulus of steel ( Esteel ) = 210 GPa
Young’s modulus of aluminium Scan for
Video Solution
( EAl ) = 70 GPa
Tensile strain in steel bar (ε steel ) = 10 − 6 1.32 0.69
Compressive strain in aluminium bar Initial length( Li )
Given : Final length ( L f ) =
(ε Al ) = 10− 6 2
 5.20 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

L  1
True strain, εT = ln  f  = ln   210 Q
 Li  2

Stress (MPa)
Unloading
εT = ln(0.5) = − 0.693 180 P

Magnitude of (εT ) = 0.69 Reloading

Hence, the magnitude of true strain produce in O R Strain
the deformed bar is 0.69.
Hence, the value of stress at which the material
1.33 0.498 yields again is 210 MPa.
σ 1.35 2
Given : E = = 200 ×103 MPa
ε
Given : Length of sample ( L) = 100 mm
Slope of initial part of stress strain curve is the
young’s modulus of the material, Failure load ( P) = 40kN
500 − 100 Compliance of UTM is constant
Slope of line AB =
0.5 − ε B L
= = 5 ×10−8 m/N
Slope of line AB = Young’s modulus of material AE
500 − 100 PL
= 200 ×103  δL =
0.5 − ε B AE
400 δL L 1
200 × 103 = ∴ Strain = = P× ×
0.5 − ε B L AE L
ε B = 0.498 40 × 103 × 5 × 10−8
Strain = = 0.02
100 × 10 −3
Hence, the natural strain at point B is 0.498.
Strain = 0.02 × 100 = 2%
 Key Point
Slope of stress strain diagram is Young’s Hence, the strain at failure in the sample is 2%.
modulus of elasticity for a linear elastic
behavior of material. 

Scan for
Video Solution

1.34 210

Initial loading up to yield point (i.e.

P = 180 MPa ) and then unloading to zero load
results in work hardening of the material. As a
result, yield strength increases on immediate
next reloading. Since it is ideal elastic plastic,
material yield strength on reloading of the
specimen increases and it will be 210 MPa.
 1 Design Against Static
Load (Theory of Failure)
1988 IIT Kharagpur 1992 IIT Delhi

1.1 In the design of shafts made of ductile 1.4 A large uniform plate containing a rivet
materials subjected to twisting moment hole subjected to uniform uniaxial
and bending moment, the recommended tension of 95 MPa. The maximum stress
theory of failure is [1 Mark] in the plate is [1 Mark]
(A) Maximum principal stress theory.
95 Mpa 10 cm 5 mm 95 Mpa
(B) Maximum principal strain theory.
(C) Maximum shear stress theory.
(A) 100 MPa (B) 285 MPa
(D) Maximum strain-energy theory.
(C) 190 MPa (D) Indeterminate
1989 IIT Kanpur
1994 IIT Kharagpur
1.2 Stress concentration in a machine
component of a ductile material is not so 1.5 Match 4 pairs between List-I and List-
harmful as it is in a brittle material II. [2 Marks]
because [1 Mark] List-I List-II
(A) In ductile material local yielding A. Hooke’s 1. Planetary
may distribute stress concentration. law motion
(B) Ductile material has large Young’s B. St. 2. Conservation
materials.
Venant’s energy
(C) Poisson’s ratio is larger in ductile law
materials.
C. Kepler’s 3. Elasticity
(D) Modulus of rigidity is larger in
laws
ductile materials.
D. Tresca’s 4. Plasticity
1991 IIT Madras criterion
1.3 In a shaft with a transverse hole, as the E. Coulomb’s 5. Fracture
hole to the shaft diameter ratio _______ law
(increases/decreases), the torsional F. Griffith’s 6. Inertia
stress concentration factor _______
law
(increases/ decreases). [1 Mark]
 6.2 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1997 IIT Madras (M) s2

sy
1.6 A small element at the critical section of
a component in biaxial state of stress s1
-s y sy
with the principal stresses being 360
MPa and 140 MPa. The maximum -s y
working stress according to distortion
(N) s2
energy theory is [2 Marks]
(A) 220 MPa (B) 110 MPa sy
-s y
(C) 314 MPa (D) 330 MPa sy s1

1998 IIT Delhi -s y

1.7 Which theory of failure will you use for (A) P-M, Q-L, R-N
aluminium components under steady (B) P-N, Q-M, R-L
loading is [1 Mark] (C) P-M, Q-N, R-L
(A) Principal stress theory. (D) P-N, Q-L, R-M

(B) Principal strain theory. 2012 IIT Delhi

(C) Strain energy theory. 1.9 The homogeneous state of stress for a
metal part undergoing plastic de-
(D) Maximum shear stress theory.
formation is
2011 IIT Madras 10 5 0 
 
1.8 Match the following criteria of material T   5 20 0 
 0 0 10 
failure, under biaxial stresses 1 and  2  
and yield stress  y with their correspo- Where the stress component values are
in MPa. Using Von-Mises yield
nding graphic representations :
criterion, the value of estimated shear
[1 Mark] yield stress, in MPa is [2 Marks]
P. Maximum normal stress criterion (A) 9.50 (B) 16.07
(C) 28.52 (D) 49.41
Q. Maximum distortion energy
criterion 2014 IIT Kharagpur
R. Maximum shear stress criterion 1.10 Which one of the following is not
correct? [1 Mark]
(L) s2
(A) Intermediate principal stress is
sy ignored when applying the
maximum principal stress theory.
-s y sy s1
(B) The maximum shear stress theory
-s y gives the most accurate results
amongst all the failure theories.
GATE ACADEMY® Machine Design : Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure) 6.3
(C) As per the maximum strain energy 2015 IIT Kanpur
theory, failure occurs when the strain
energy per unit volume exceeds a 1.14 The uniaxial yield stress of a material is
pcritical value. 300 MPa. According to Von-Mises
(D) As per the maximum distortion criterion, the shear yield stress (in MPa)
energy theory, failure occurs when of the material is ______. [1 Mark]
the distortion energy per unit volume 1.15 A machine element is subjected to the
exceeds a critical value. following bi-axial state of stress :
1.11 Consider the two states of stress as  x  80 MPa,  y  20 MPa,
shown in configurations I and II in the
 xy  40 MPa .
figure below. From the standpoint of
distortion energy (Von-Mises) criterion, If the shear strength of the material is
which one of the following statements is 100 MPa, the factor of safety as per
true? [2 Marks] Tresca’s maximum shear stress theory is
s s [2 Marks]
(A) 1.0 (B) 2.0
(C) 2.5 (D) 3.3
t t
2016 IISc Bangalore
1.16 A machine element XY, fixed at end X,
I II is subjected to an axial load P, transverse
(A) I yield after II. load F, and a twisting moment T at its
(B) II yields after I. free end Y. The most critical point from
(C) Both yield simultaneously. the strength point of view is [1 Mark]
(D) Nothing can be said about their F
relative yielding. T
1.12 A shaft is subjected to pure torsional P
Y
moment. The maximum shear stress X
developed in the shaft is 100 MPa . The
yield and ultimate strengths of the shaft (A) a point on the circumference at
material in tension are 300 MPa and location Y.
450 MPa , respectively. The factor of (B) a point at the center at location Y.
safety using maximum distortion energy (C) a point on the circumference at
(Von-Mises) theory is _______. location X.
[2 Marks] (D) a point at the center at location X.
1.13 The state of stress at a point is given by 1.17 The principal stresses at a point inside a
 x  – 6 MPa,  y  4 MPa and  xy  – solid object are 1  100 MPa, 2  100
8 MPa. The maximum tensile stress (in MPa and 3  0 MPa. The yield strength
MPa) at the point is _____. [2 Marks] of the material is 200 MPa.
 6.4 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
The factor of safety calculated using (A) 1.67 (B) 2.00
Tresca (maximum shear stress) theory is (C) 3.60 (D) 4.00
nT and the factor of safety calculated
2018 IIT Guwahati
using Von Mises (maximum distortional
energy) theory is nv . Which one of the 1.20 If 1 and 3 are the algebraically largest
following relations is TRUE? and smallest principal stresses
[2 Marks] respectively, the value of the maximum
shear stress is [1 Mark]
 3
(A) nT    nv (B) nT  ( 3) nv   3   3
(A) 1 (B) 1
 2  2 2
(C) nT  nv (D) nv  ( 3) nT 1  3 1  3
(C) (D)
2 2
2017 IIT Roorkee
1.21 A carpenter glues a pair of cylinderical
1.18 Consider the schematic of a riveted lap wooden logs by bonding their end faces
joint subjected to tensile load F, as at an angle of   300 as shown in the
shown below. Let d be the diameter of figure. [2 Marks]
the rivets and S f be the maximum Log 1 Log 2
permissible tensile stress in the plates. 4 MPa
q axis
4 MPa
What should be the minimum value for
the thickness of the plates to guard interface
against tensile failure of the plates? The glue used at the interface fails if
Assume the plates to be identical. Criterion 1 : The maximum normal
[1 Mark] stress exceeds 2.5 MPa.
W/4 Criterion 2 : The maximum shear stress
exceeds 1.5 MPa.
d
W
Assume that the interface fails before the
F W/2 F
logs fail. When a uniform tensile stress
of 4 MPa is applied, the interface
L (A) fails only because of criterion 1.
F F (B) fails only because of criterion 2.
(A) (B)
S f (W  2d ) S fW (C) fails because of both criteria 1 and 2.
F 2F (D) does not fail.
(C) (D)
S f (W  d ) S fW 2020 IIT Delhi
1.19 The principal stresses at a point in a
1.22 A machine member is subjected to
critical section of a machine component
fluctuating stress   0 cos (8t ). The
are 1  60 MPa,  2  5 MPa and
endurance limit of the material is 350
3   40 MPa . For the material of the MPa. If the factor of safety used in the
component, the tensile yield strength is design is 3.5 then the maximum
 y  200 MPa . allowable value of  0 is _______ MPa
According to the maximum shear stress (round off to 2 decimal places).
theory, the factor of safety is [2 Marks] [1 Mark]
GATE ACADEMY® Machine Design : Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure) 6.5
1.23 Bars of square and circular cross-section
with 0.5 m length are made of a material
with shear strength of 20 MPa. The
square bar cross-section dimension is
4 cm  4 cm and the cylindrical bar
cross-section diameter is 4 cm. The
specimens are loaded as shown in the
figure.
Tensile load
80 kN

Compressive load
80 kN

Torsional load 64pNm

320 Nm
Bending load

Which specimen (s) will fail due to the

applied load as per maximum shear
stress theory? [2 Marks]
(A) Tensile and compressive load
specimens.
(B) None of the specimens.
(C) Torsional load specimen.
(D) Bending load specimen.
 6.6 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Answers Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure)

increases, A-3, C-1,

1.1 C 1.2 A 1.3 1.4 B 1.5
decreases D-5, E-2

1.6 C 1.7 D 1.8 C 1.9 B 1.10 B

1.11 C 1.12 1.732 1.13 8.434 1.14 173.1 1.15 B
1.16 C 1.17 C 1.18 A 1.19 B 1.20 B
1.21 C 1.22 100 1.23 A

Explanations Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure)

1.1 (C) For ductile materials, the choice of theory

depends on the level of accuracy required and
Maximum shear stress theory (Coulomb, Tresca the degree of computational difficulty the
and Guest’s theory) is used for ductile materials
designer is ready to face. For ductile materials,
such as mild steel.
the most accurate way to design is to use
Ductile materials typically have the same tensile distortion energy theory of failure and the
strength and compressive strength. Also, easiest way to design is to apply maximum
yielding is the criterion of failure in ductile shear stress theory.
materials.
Max. shear
s2 Scan for
stress theory
Video Solution
+ S yt
Max. principal Distortion
stress theory energy thoery 1.2 (A)
450
- S yt
s1 In static loading, stress concentration in ductile
O + S yt
A t12 = 0.5S yt materials is not so serious as in brittle materials,
B because in ductile materials local deformation
t12 = 0.577 S yt
- S yt or yielding takes place which reduces the
Shear
diagonal concentration.
s1 / s 2 = -1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
In maximum shear stress theory and distortion  Key Point
energy theory, it is assumed that the yield In brittle materials, cracks may appear at local
strength in tension ( S yt ) is equal to the yield concentrations of stress which will increase the
strength in compression ( S yc ) . Also, the stress over the rest of the section. It is,
criterion of failure is yielding. Therefore, therefore, necessary that in designing parts of
maximum shear stress theory and distortion brittle materials such as castings, care should
energy theory are used for ductile materials. be taken. In order to avoid failure due to stress
concentration, fillets at the changes of section
Hence, the correct option is (C).
must be provided.
 Key Point
In cyclic loading, stress concentration in
To summarise, the maximum principal stress ductile materials is always serious because the
theory is the proper choice for brittle materials. ductility of the material is not effective in
GATE ACADEMY® Machine Design : Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure) 6.7
relieving the concentration of stress caused by Let ' t ' is thickness of plate.
cracks, flaws, surface roughness, or any sharp So, load acting on plate,
discontinuity in the geometrical form of the p    A  95  100t  9500 t N
member. If the stress at any point in a member
For calculating maximum stress near hole,
is above the endurance limit of the material, a
Stress concentration factor,
crack may develop under the action of repeated
load and the crack will load to failure of the Maximum stress at critical section
Kt 
member. Nominal stress at critical section

K t  max …(i)
Scan for 0
Video Solution
Now, d / w i.e., diameter of hole by width of
plate ratio,
1.3 increases, decrease
5
In a shaft with a transverse hole, as the hole to   0.05
100
the shaft diameter ratio increases the torsional
Now, for rectangular plate with transverse hole,
stress concentration factor decreases. 3.0
 Key Point 2.9 P
w d
P

The variation of torsional stress concentration 2.8

factor of shaft with a transvers holes is shown 2.7
in figure.
2.0
2.6
2.5
1.8 Kt 2.4
Kt
1.6
2.3
Torsion
2.2
1.4
2.1
T d 2.0
1.2 0.0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6
T a
(d/w)
1.0
d
 0.05 , K t  2.85
0 0.1 0.2 0.3
a/d For
w
1.4 (B) Now, nominal stress at critical section,
Given : Width of plate (w) = 10 cm = 100 mm P 9500t
0  
Diameter of hole (d) = 5 cm ( w  d )t (100  5)t
Average stress on plate 9500t
0   100 N/mm 2 …(ii)
()  95 MPa  95 N/mm 2 95t
x From equation (i) and (ii),

2.85  max
95 Mpa 10 cm 5 mm 95 Mpa 100
 max  285 N/mm 2 or MPa
x Hence, the correct option is (B).
 6.8 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1.5 A-3, C-1, D-5, E-2 1.7 (D)

Kepler’s laws are applicable for planetary Aluminium is a ductile material therefore
motion. Hooke’s law is related to elasticity. maximum shear stress theory should be used for
Tresca’s criterion is related to fracture. aluminium components.
1.6 (C) Hence, the correct option is (D).

Given : 1.8 (C)

Maximum principal stress (1 )  360 MPa Name of theory of Graphical

Minimum principal stress (2 )  140 MPa failure representation
P. Maximum normal M. Square
According to distortion energy theory,
stress criterion
 yp  12  22  1 2 Q. Maximum N. Ellipse
distortion energy
 yp  3602  1402  360  140
criterion
 yp  314.32 MPa R. Maximum shear L. Hexagon
Hence, the correct option is (C). stress criterion
 Key Point 1.9 (B)
Statement : Failure will occur in a material if Given : Stress in x-direction ( x )  10 MPa
the maximum distortion energy at a point due
to a given set of load exceeds the maximum Stress in y-direction ( y )  20 MPa
distortion energy induced due to a uniaxial load Shear stress ( xy )  5 MPa
at the yield point. Stress in z-direction ( z )  10 MPa
12  12   22  2yp Maximum principal stress,
(For failure not to occur) 2
x   y  x   y 
With factor of safety, 1       xy
2

2 2  2 
  
12  1 2  22   yp  2
 FOS  10  20  10  20 
1     5
2

Von Mises 2  2 
s2
(Distortion energy theory)
1  15  5 2  22.07 MPa
sy
Maximum shear Similarly, minimum principal stress
stress theory
2
-s y
x   y  x   y 
s1 2       xy
2

sy 2  2 
 2  15  5 2  7.93 MPa
-s y
According to Von-Mises yield criterion,
permissible value of tensile yield strength,
S yt 12   22  32
Scan for

Video Solution FS  (12   2 3  31 )
GATE ACADEMY® Machine Design : Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure) 6.9

22.07 2  7.932 1
[( x   y ) 2  ( y   z ) 2  ( z   x ) 2
S yt S yt
  (10) 2  (22.07  7.93)  2
FS FOS
 6(2xy  2yz  2zx )]
 (7.93  10)  (10  22.07)
S yt For case 1 :
 27.838 MPa  x  0,  y  ,  z  0
FS
 Estimate value of shear stress,  xy  0,  yz  ,  xz  0
S sy  S yt  S yt 1
 0.577    (2 2  62 )
FS  FS  FOS 2
S sy S yt
 0.577  27.838  16.07 MPa So,  2  32
FS FOS
Hence, the correct option is (B). For case 2 :
 x  0,  y  ,  z  0
Scan for
Video Solution  xy  0,  yz  0,  xz  
S yt 1
1.10 (B)  (2 2  62 )
FOS 2
The maximum shear stress theory gives values
S yt
for the most-safe design but not accurate results So,  2  32
amongst all the failure theories. FOS
For ductile materials, the choice of theory S yt
as is same for both.
depends on the level of accuracy required and FOS
the degree of computational difficulty the Conclusion : Since, both of them have same
designer is ready to face. For ductile materials, yield stress according to Von-Mises, hence they
the most accurate way to design is to use both yield simultaneously.
distortion energy theory of failure and the Hence, the correct option is (C).
easiest way to design is to apply maximum shear
1.12 1.732
stress theory.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Given : Yield strength ( S yt )  300 MPa

Scan for Ultimate strength ( Sut )  450 MPa

Video Solution Maximum shear stress (max )  100 MPa
Maximum stress (1 )  100 MPa
1.11 (C)
Minimum stress (2 )  100 MPa
According to question, simplified Von-Mises
For pure torsion condition Mohr circle is,
equation for general load scenario is given by,
t
s s
tmax

- sn s sn
t s max
t min

tmax
-t
I II
 6.10 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
A shaft is subjected to pure torsional moment is
Scan for
subjected to reversal of stresses, hence stresses Video Solution
are given by as per maximum distortion energy
(Von-Mises yield theory), 1.15 (B)
2
1 (1  2 )  (2  3 )   S yt 
2 2

    Given : Stress in x- direction ( x )  80 MPa

2   (3  1 ) 2   FOS 
Stress in y- direction ( y )  20 MPa
( 3  0 )
2 Shear stress ( xy )  40 MPa
1  300 
(2002  1002  1002 )   
2  FOS  Permissible shear stress ( S sy ) = 100 MPa
FOS  3  1.732 s y = 20 MPa
Hence, the factor of safety using maximum t = 40 MPa
distortion energy (Von-Mises) theory is 1.732.
s x = 80 MPa s x = 80 MPa
Scan for
Video Solution
s y = 20 MPa
1.13 8.434
In two-dimensional stress system, the maximum
Given : Stress in x-direction ( x )   6 MPa shear stress is given by,
Stress in y-direction ( y )  4 MPa 2
 x   y 
Shear stress ( xy )   8 MPa max      xy
2

 2 
2
x   y  x   y  2
1       xy
2
 80  20 
max     40  50 MPa
2
2  2   2 
2
6  4  6  4  According to maximum shear stress theory is,
1     8
2

2  2  S sy 100
max   50 
1  8.434 MPa FOS FOS
Hence, the maximum tensile stress at the point FOS  2
is 8.434 MPa. Hence, the correct option is (B).

1.14 173.1 Scan for

Video Solution
Given :
Yield stress of material ( S yt ) = 300 MPa
1.16 (C)
As per Von Mises failure theory,
F
S sy  0.577  S yt
T
S sy  0.577  300  173.1MPa P
Y
Hence, the shear yield stress of the material is X
173.1 MPa.
GATE ACADEMY® Machine Design : Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure) 6.11
t t Considering tensile strength of plate along
st st section XX,
st st
sb
X
sb
Y
Y
(W  2d )tmin   per  F
t t F
Element Y (sb = 0) tmin 
Element X
(W  2d )   per
From the above two elements X and Y, we see Y
that number of stresses induced in X is more
X
than Y. Hence the most critical point is on the
t F
circumference at location X. F
Hence, the correct option is (C). d

Scan for
Video Solution W/4

1.17 (C)
F W/2 W F
According to maximum shear stress theory,
S
Z max  yt
2 nT
200
 nT  2 X
100 Hence, the correct option is (A).
According to distortion energy theory,
1.19 (B)
S
12   22  1 2  yt Given : Principal stresses are (1 )  60 MPa
nv
(2 )  5 MPa and (3 )   40 MPa
But 1  2 , let it is 1
Yield strength ( S yt )  200 MPa
S yt
12  12  12  According to maximum shear stress theory,
nv S yt
max 
S yt 200 2  FS
 nv   2
1 100 1  3 S yt

 nT  nv 2 2  FOS
S
Hence, the correct option is (C). 1  3  yt
FOS
Scan for 200
Video Solution 60  (40) 
FOS
200
1.18 (A) 100 
FOS
Given : Tensile load = F  FOS  2
Minimum thickness  tmin Hence, the correct option is (B).

Diameter of rivet  d Scan for

Video Solution
Maximum permissible tensile stress   per
 6.12 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1.20 (B) Hence, the correct option is (C).

Given : 1   2  3 Scan for

Video Solution
max  min
(max ) abs 
2 1.22 100
  3
(max ) abs  1 Given : Fluctuating stress ()  0 cos(8t ) ,
2
+t
Endurance limit ( Se )  350 MPa ,
s - s3
(tmax ) abs = 1 Factor of safety ( FOS )  3.5
2
 max  0 and  min   0
tmax3
max  min
tmax 2 tmax1  mean  0
2
sn    min 20
 a  max   0
2 2
s3 m a 1
s2   
S yt Se FOS
s1 a 1
-t 
350 3.5
The above diagram shows Mohr’s circle for tri- 0  100 MPa
axial state of stress.
Hence, the maximum allowable value of 0 is
Hence, the correct options is (B).
100 MPa.
Scan for 1.23 (A)
Video Solution
Given : Shear strength of bar (max )  20 MPa
1.21 (C) Square bar cross section  40  40 mm 2
Given : Diameter of cylindrical bar (d )  40 mm
Uniform tensile stress : Case 1 :
Normal stress on inclined plan,
80 kN
 N  t cos 2  (t )  4 MPa
 N  4  cos 2 300  2.99 MPa  3MPa 80  103
 2
 50 N/mm 2
Shear stress on inclined plane, 40
  sin 2 
 t max   25 N/mm 2  20 MPa
2 2
Case 2 :
4  sin(2  300 ) 64pNm
  1.73MPa
2
The values of normal and shear stresses at
interface plane i.e. inclined plane are greater
16T 16  64103
than the maximum normal stress and maximum max  
shear stress. Hence the interface will fail d 3 (40)3
because of both criteria “1” and “2”.  16 N/mm 2  20 MPa
GATE ACADEMY® Machine Design : Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure) 6.13
Case 3 :
320 Nm

320  103
  30 N/mm 2
403
6

max   15 N/mm 2  20 MPa
2
Hence, the correct option is (A).


 UNIT 1 NUMERIC AL
ABILITY

Contents :

S. No. Topics Page No.

1. Number System & Series 7.2 - 7.13
2. Average, Percentage & Ratio 7.14 - 7.16
3. Mixture Allegation & Direction 7.17 - 7.19
4. Permutation & Combination 7.20 - 7.22
5. Probability & Statistics 7.23 - 7.28
6. Time, Speed & Distance 7.29 - 7.31
7. Work & Time 7.32 - 7.37
 1 Number System
& Series
2010 IIT Guwahati 1.7 Find the odd one from the following
group : [2 Marks]
1.1 If 137 + 276 = 435 how much is 731 +
W, E, K, O I, Q, W, A
672? [2 Marks]
F, N, T, X N, V, B, D
(A) 534 (B) 1403
(A) W, E, K, O (B) I, Q, W, A
(C) 1623 (D) 1513
(C) F, N, T, X (D) N, V, B, D
1.2 Given digits 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4. How
1.8 Find the odd one in the following group
many distinct 4 digit numbers greater
Q, W, Z, B B, H, K, M
than 3000 can be formed? [2 Marks]
W, C, G, J M, S, V, X
(A) 50 (B) 51
[2 Marks]
(C) 52 (D) 54
(A) Q, W, Z, B (B) B, H, K, M
2013 IIT Bombay (C) W, C, G, J (D) M, S, V, X
1.3 What will be the maximum sum of 44, 1.9 The sum of eight consecutive odd numbers
42, 40, ______? [1 Mark] is 656. The average of four consecutive
(A) 502 (B) 504 even numbers is 87. What is the sum of
(C) 506 (D) 500 the smallest odd number and second
1.4 Find the sum of the expression largest even number? [2 Marks]
1 1 1 1 1.10 The next term in the series is 81, 54, 36,
+ + + ...... 24, ______? [1 Mark]
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 80 + 81
1.11 In which of the following options will be
[2 Marks]
expression P < M be definitely true?
(A) 7 (B) 8
[1 Mark]
(C) 9 (D) 10
(A) M < R > P > S
2014 IIT Kharagpur (B) M > S < P < F
1.5 Fill in the missing number in the series. (C) Q < M < F = P
2 3 6 15 _______ 157.5 630. (D) P = A < R < M
[1 Mark] 1.12 Find the next term in the sequence :
1.6 What is the next number in the series? 7G, 11K, 13M, ______. [2 Marks]
12 35 81 173 357 _______. (A) 15Q (B) 17Q
[1 Mark] (C) 15P (D) 17P
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Number System & Series 7.3
1.13 In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd 2016 IISc Bangalore
numbers, the sum of the first 5 numbers
is 425. What is the sum of the last 5 1 1 1
1.20 If q − a = and r − b = and s − c = , the
numbers in the sequence? [1 Mark] r s q
1.14 Find the next term in the sequence : value of abc is _______. [2 Marks]
13 M , 17 Q , 19 S , ______ [2 Marks] (A) ( rqs ) −1 (B) 0

(A) 21W (B) 21V (C) 1 (D) r + q + s

(C) 23W (D) 23V 1.21 Given (9 inches)1/2 = (0.25 yards)1/ 2 ,

which one of the following statements is
1.15 A five digit number is formed using the
TRUE? [1 Mark]
digits 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any
of them. What is the sum of all such (A) 3 inches = 0.5 yards
possible five digit numbers? [2 Marks] (B) 9 inches = 1.5 yards
(A) 6666660 (B) 6666600 (C) 9 inches = 0.25 yards
(C) 6666666 (D) 6666606 (D) 81 inches = 0.0625 yards
1.22 Two and a quarter hours back, when seen
2015 IIT Kanpur
in a mirror, the reflection of a wall clock
1.16 Find the missing sequence in the letter without number markings seemed to
series below : [1 Mark] show 1:30. What is the actual current
A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY time shown by the clock? [2 Marks]
(A) LMN (B) MNO (A) 8 : 15 (B) 11 : 15
(C) MNOP (D) NOPQ (C) 12 : 15 (D) 12 : 45
1.17 If a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = 1 , then ab + bc + ac lies 2017 IIT Roorkee
in the interval [2 Marks]
1.23 What is the sum of the missing digits in the
(A) [1, 2/3] (B) [–1/2, 1] subtraction problem below? [2 Marks]
(C) [–1, 1/2] (D) [2, –4]
5_ _ _ _
1.18 If x > y > 1, which of the following must − 48 _ 89
be true? [1 Mark]
1111
(i) ln x > ln y (ii) e x > e y
(A) 8
(iii) y x > x y (iv) cos x > cos y
(B) 10
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) 11
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv) (D) Cannot be determined
1.19 log tan1 + log tan 2 +  + log tan 890 is
0 0
1.24 If a and b are integers and a − b is even,
_______. [2 Marks] which of the following must always be
1 even? [1 Mark]
(A) 1 (B)
2 (A) ab (B) a 2 + b 2 + 1
(C) 0 (D) –1 (C) a 2 + b + 1 (D) ab − b
 7.4 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

2018 IIT Guwahati 81 n 9

(A) (10 − 1) + n
80 8
1.25 Given that a and b are integers and
81 n 9
2 3
a + a b is odd then, which one of the (B) (10 − 1) − n
80 8
following statements is correct?
80 n 8
[1 Mark] (C) (10 − 1) + n
81 9
(A) a and b are both odd
80 n 8
(B) a and b are both even (D) (10 − 1) − n
81 9
(C) a is even and b is odd
1.31 Find the missing element in the following
(D) a is odd and b is even figure. [1 Mark]
1.26 A number consists of two digits, the sum
of digits is 9. If 45 is subtracted from the 5
number, its digits are interchanged. What t h
is the number? [1 Mark]
n
(A) 63 (B) 72 ? x
(C) 81 (D) 90
9
1.27 Find the missing group of letters in the
following series : BC, FGH, LMNO,
(A) e (B) y
________. [1 Mark]
(C) d (D) w
(A) UVWXY (B) TUVWX
(C) STUVW (D) RSTUV
2019 IIT Madras
1.28 The sum and product of two integers are
26 and 165 respectively. The difference
between these two integers is [1 Mark]
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 2
1.29 If IMHO = JNIP, IDK = JEL and SO =
TP then IDC = ______. [1 Mark]
(A) JDE (B) JED
(C) JCE (D) JEC
2020 IIT Delhi
1.30 The sum of the first n terms in the
sequence 8, 88, 888, 8888, ….. is
_______. [1 Mark]
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Number System & Series 7.5

Answers Number System & Series

1.1 C 1.2 B 1.3 C 1.4 B 1.5 45

1.6 725 1.7 D 1.8 C 1.9 163 1.10 16
1.11 D 1.12 B 1.13 495 1.14 C 1.15 B
1.16 C 1.17 B 1.18 A 1.19 C 1.20 C
1.21 C 1.22 D 1.23 D 1.24 D 1.25 D
1.26 B 1.27 B 1.28 A 1.29 B 1.30 D
1.31 C

Explanations Number System & Series

1.1 (C) So, 3 × 3 × 3 = 27 numbers are there. Out of

which 3222, 3333 are invalid as 2 can be used
Given : 137 + 276 = 435
twice and 3 thrice only.
7 and 6 added is becoming 5 means the given two
numbers are added on base 8. So number of such valid numbers beginning with
3 are 27 − 2 = 25
(137)8
+ (276)8 Case 2 : When thousand’s place is 4
(435)8 4abc
Add another two given set of numbers also on Without restriction on number of 2’s, 3’s and 4’s
base 8. a, b, c can be filled in 27 ways (as explained in
(731)8 case 1)
+ (672)8 Out of these 27 numbers, 4222 is only invalid as
(1623)8 two have to be used twice only. So valid numbers
are 27 −1 = 26
Thus, the overall problem was based on
identifying base which was 8 and adding Total numbers from case 1 and case 2 is
numbers on base 8. 25 + 26 = 51
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.2 (B) 1.3 (C)
Given : Digits are 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4
Given : 44, 42, 40 
As the number is greater than 3000. So
thousand’s place can be either 3 or 4 The given series is decreasing by 2. For the sum
Let us consider the following two cases. to be maximum, the series should not include
Case 1 : When thousand’s place is 3 negative numbers. So, the series should be
44, 42, 40, 38  2, 0
3a bc
If there is no restriction on number of two’s, Sum = 0 + 2 + 4  44
three’s and four’s. Then each of a, b, c can be Sum = 2(1 + 2 + 3  22)
filled with 2 or 3 or 4 each in 3 ways. Given series is an A.P. series.
 7.6 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Therefore, sum of the series is given by, x 157.5
Series : 1.5, 2, 2.5, , , 4
n 15 x
Sum = (a + l )
2 The ratio of consecutive numbers is in AP where,
where, n = number of terms Common difference d = 0.5
a = first term First term a = 1.5
l = last term Then according to the given series,
 22  x
Sum = 2 ×  (1 + 22)  = 506 = a + 3d
2  15
Hence, the correct option is (C). x
= 3  x = 45
15
Scan for Hence, the missing number in the series is 45.
Video Solution
Scan for
1.4 (B) Video Solution

1 1 1 1.6 725
Let S = + + +
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 Given : Series is 12 35 81 173 357 __
1 12 35 81 173 357
......... +
80 + 81
23 46 92 184 368
   
2− 1   3− 2 
S =
Difference
+
 2   2 
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2
 2 − 1   3 − 2  In the given series consecutive difference
   
doubles with each term.
  So,
81 − 80
+...... +  
2  357
( 81 ) − ( )
2
 80  + 368
 
725
S= ( 2− 1 + ) ( 3− 2 ) + ..... ( 81 − 80 ) Hence, the next number in the series is 725.
S = 81 − 1 = 9 − 1 = 8 Scan for
Hence, the correct option is (B). Video Solution

Scan for 1.7 (D)

Video Solution
The alphabets can be numbered as given below,
1.5 45 A B C D E F G H I

Given : Series is 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

2 3 6 15 x 157.5 630 J K L M N O P Q R

Let the missing number is ‘x’ 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

3 6 15 630 S T U V W X Y Z
Here = 1.5 , = 2, = 2.5 , =4
2 3 6 157.5 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Number System & Series 7.7
Notice the pattern of given options using the Option (B) :
B H K M
above table. 2 8 11 13
Option (A) :
W E K O 5 2 1
23 5 11 15 The numbers 5, 2 and 1 represent the number of
alphabets in between.
7 5 3 Option (C) :
Option (B) : W C G J
I Q W A 23 3 7 10
9 17 23 1 Odd one
5 3 2
7 5 3
Option (D) :
Option (C) : M S V X
F N T X 13 19 22 24
6 14 20 24
5 2 1
7 5 3
Hence, the correct option is (C).
The numbers 7, 5 and 3 represent the number of
alphabets in between.
Scan for
Option (D) : Video Solution
Odd

N V B D 1.9 163
14 22 2 4
. Method 1 :
7 5 1
(i) For odd numbers :
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Let 1st term = a0
Scan for Common difference, d = 2
Video Solution n=8
Sum of AP series,
1.8 (C)
n(n − 1)
The alphabets can be numbered as given below, S n = na0 + d = 656
2
A B C D E F G H I 8× 7
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
S n = 8a0 + × 2 = 656
2
J K L M N O P Q R a0 = 75
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 (ii) For even numbers :
S T U V W X Y Z Let 1st term = ae
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Common difference, d = 2
Notice the pattern of given options using the n=4
above table. Sn
Option (A) : Average of n consecutive numbers = = 87
Q W Z B
n
17 23 26 2 1 1 n (n − 1) 
× Sn =  n ae + d
5 2 1
n n 2 
 7.8 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
(n − 1) 1.10 16
87 = ae + ×d
2
Given : Series is 81, 54, 36, 24, ......
(4 − 1)
87 = ae + ×2 Let 5th term is x.
2
ae = 84 Then 81, 54, 36, 24, x

Hence, the sequence is, Therefore,

84, 86, 88, 90 54 2 36 2 24 2
= , = , =
The second largest number is 88. 81 3 54 3 36 3
Sum of smallest odd number and second largest x 2
Hence, =
even number is, 24 3
= 75 + 88 = 163 x = 16
Hence, the sum of the following numbers is 163. Hence, the next term in the series is 16.
. Method 2 :
Scan for
Let us consider eight consecutive odd numbers, Video Solution
they are
a − 6, a − 4, a − 2, a, a + 2, a + 4, a + 6, a + 8 1.11 (D)
Sum of eight consecutive odd numbers = 656 In option (A), P and M both are less than R but
a−6+a−4+a−2+a+a+2+a+4+ there is no clear relation between P and M.
a + 6 + a + 8 = 656
In option (B), P and M both are greater than is
8a + 8 = 656
but again there is no clear relation between P and
a + 1 = 82
M.
a = 81
In option (C), P = F and F > M, so P > M therefor
Smallest odd number
it is incorrect.
a − 6 = 81 − 6 = 75 …(i)
Again consider four consecutive even number, In option (D), P = A and A < M therefore P < M
b − 2, b, b + 2, b + 4 is definitely true.

Average of these numbers : Hence, the correct option is (D).

b−2+b+b+2+b+4 1.12 (B)
= 87
4
Given : Sequence is,
4b + 4 = 87 × 4
b + 1 = 87 7G, 11K, 13M, ___
b = 86 A B C D E F G H I

And second largest even number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

b + 2 = 86 + 2 = 88 …(ii) J K L M N O P Q R

Adding equations (i) and (ii), 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

75 + 88 = 163 S T U V W X Y Z

Hence, the sum of the following numbers is 163. 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Number System & Series 7.9
Here, 7, 11, 13 are consecutive prime number. Thus Sum of first n terms is given by,
Thus next prime number will be 17. n(n − 1)d
S n = na +
2
and G is 7th alphabet, K is 11th alphabet and M is
Sum of 5 consecutive numbers,
13th alphabet.
5× 4
7th, 11th and 13th are again consecutive prime S5 = 5 × a + ×2
2
number. According to question,
So, the next alphabet will be 17th alphabet which 425 = 5a + 20
is Q. a = 81
Thus the next term will be 17Q. Sum of 12 consecutive numbers is,
Hence, the correct option is (B). 12 × 11
S12 = 12a + × 2 = 1104
2
Scan for Sum of first 7 consecutive numbers is,
Video Solution
7×6
S7 = 7a + × 2 = 609
1.13 495
2
So, the sum of last 5 terms is given by,
Given : In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd = S12 − S7 = 1104 − 609 = 495
numbers, sum of the first 5 numbers is 425.
Hence, the sum of the last 5 numbers in the
Let the sequence is : sequence is 495.
a , a + 2 , a + 4 , a + 6 ,….. a + 22 1.14 (C)
. Method 1 : Given : Sequence is
Sum of first five odd numbers is, 13 M , 17 Q , 19 S , ____
425 = a + (a + 2) + (a + 4) + (a + 6) + (a + 8)
A B C D E F G H I
425 = 5a + 20 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
a = 81 J K L M N O P Q R
Sum of last five odd numbers is given by, 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
= (a + 14) + (a + 16) + (a + 18)
S T U V W X Y Z
+ (a + 20) + (a + 22) 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
= 5a + 90 Checking from the options, only option (C) has
= (5 × 81) + 90 = 495 the correct combination of number and alphabet.
Hence, the sum of the last 5 numbers in the Hence, the correct option is (C).
sequence is 495.
Scan for
. Method 2 : Video Solution
It is an AP series where,
First term = a (let) 1.15 (B)

Common difference, d = 2 Overall there will be 5! = 120 numbers

 7.10 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Digit 1 will appear at unit, tenth, hundredth, Since, (a + b + c) 2 = a 2 + b 2 + c 2
thousandth and ten thousandth place 4! times
+ 2(ab + bc + ca)
each. So sum received due to all 1’s will be
4! × (1 + 10 + 100 + 1000 + 10000) (a + b + c) 2 − (a 2 + b 2 + c 2 )
ab + bc + ca =
= 4! × 11111 2
For minimum value of ab + bc + ca ,
Similarly, sum received due to all 3’s
= 4!(3 + 30 + 300 + 3000 + 30, 000) Put a + b + c = 0
= 4! × 33333 −1
Minimum (ab + bc + ca ) =
2
Similarly, sum received due to all 5’s
= 4!(5 + 50 + 500 + 5000 + 50, 000) (Since, a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = 1 )
= 4! × 55555 −1
Only option (B) has minimum value as .
2
Similarly, sum received due to all 7’s
= 4!(7 + 70 + 700 + 7000 + 70, 000) Hence, the correct option is (B).

= 4! × 77777 1.18 (A)

Similarly, sum received due to all 9’s Given : x > y > 1

= 4!(9 + 90 + 900 + 9000 + 90, 000) For x > y > 1 , ln x > ln y and also e x > e y
= 4! × 99999
Since e x and ln x are monotonically increasing
So, overall sum received due to all digits function.
= 4!× 11111× (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9)
Example :
= 4!×11111× 25 = 6666600
Assume x = 3 , y = 2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
(i) ln x > ln y
Scan for ln 3 = 1.0986 , ln 2 = 0.693
Video Solution
ln x > ln y is true
1.16 (C) (ii) ex > e y
In the alphabetical sequence, the missing word is e3 = 20.08 , e 2 = 7.38
as follows
e x > e y is true
A CD GHI MNOP UVWXY
(iii) yx > xy
(2)3 = 8 , (3) 2 = 9
B EF JKL QRST
(+1) (+2) (+3) (+4) y x > x y is false
Therefore, the missing word in the sequence is
(iv) cos x > cos y
‘MNOP’.
cos 3 = 0.998
Hence, the correct option is (C).
cos 2 = 0.999
1.17 (B)
cos x > cos y is false.
Given : a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = 1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Number System & Series 7.11

1.19 (C) 1.22 (D)

Let x = log tan10 + log tan 20 +  + log tan 890 The following diagram, shows the clock when its
reflection seemed like 1 : 30, two and a quarter
x = log(tan10 × tan 20 × tan 890 )
hours (2 hr. and 15 min) back.
{Since, log m + log n = log(mn)
Actual wall clock Mirror image
0
and tan(90 − θ) = cot θ of wall clock
12
8 tan 890 = tan(900 − 10 ) } 11 1

x = log(tan10 × tan 20 × tan 450

10 2
× cot 450 ×  cot 20 × cot10 )
 1 
 cot θ = tan θ  tan θ cot θ = 1
x = log(1× 1×1..... ×1) = log(1) = 0
Hence, the correct option is (C).
1.20 (C) Mirror image of 1 : 30 is 10 : 30
1 1 1 So, the actual current time shown by the clock
Given : q − a = , r − b = , s − c = , will be,
r s q
(10 : 30) + (2 : 15) = 12 : 45
q a = r , r b = s, s c = q
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Taking log on both sides,
1.23 (D)
log q a = log r , log r b = log s,
Given :
log s c = log q 5 __ __ __ __
–
log r 4 8 __ 8 9
a × log q = log r  a =
log q 1 1 1 1
log s Case (i) :
b × log r = log s  b = 5 0 0 0 0
log r –
4 8 8 8 9
log q
c × log s = log q  c = 1 1 1 1
log s Sum of missing digits = 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 8
log r log s log q S =8
So, a×b×c = × × =1
log q log r log s Case (ii) :
Hence, the correct option is (C). –
5 0 1 0 0
4 8 9 8 9
1.21 (C)
1 1 1 1
Given : Sum of missing digits = 0 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 9
(9 inches)1/2 = (0.25 yards)1/2 S = 10
Squaring both sides, Since, the sum can either be 8 or 10, therefore it
9 inches = 0.25 yards. can not be determined.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (D).
 7.12 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

1.24 (D) a + a 2b3

Options a b
Given : (Odd)
(i) a and b are integers. Option
1(odd) 3(odd) 28(incorrect)
(A)
(ii) a − b is even.
Option
Let a = 5 and b = 3 where both are integers and 2(even) 4(even) 258(incorrect)
(B)
their difference is even.
Option
From option (A) : 2(even) 1(odd) 6(incorrect)
(C)
ab = 15 [not even, incorrect]
Option
From option (B) : 1(odd) 2(even) 9(correct)
(D)
a 2 + b 2 + 1 = 25 + 9 + 1 = 35
[not even, incorrect] Hence, the correct option is (D).
From option (C) : Scan for
2
a + b + 1 = 25 + 3 + 1 = 29 Video Solution

[not even, incorrect]

1.26 (B)
From option (D) :
ab − b = 15 − 3 = 12 [even] Given :
Hence, the correct option is (D). (i) Sum of a two-digit number is 9.
(ii) When the number is subtracted by 45, the
Scan for
digits of the number are interchanged.
Video Solution
Let the two digit number be xy.
1.25 (D) Then x + y = 9 …(i)
Given : and (10 x + y ) − 45 = 10 y + x
(i) a and b are integer. x− y =5 …(ii)
(ii) a + a 2b3 is odd From equation (i) and (ii),
3
So, a(1 + ab ) is also odd. x = 7, y = 2
. Method 1 : So, the number is 72
Since, multiplication of odd and odd number is Hence, the correct option is (B).
odd. Scan for
3
Therefore, a and (1 + ab ) will be odd. If 1 + ab 3 Video Solution

is odd, then ab3 will be even.

1.27 (B)
Since, a is odd, so ab3 to be even, b must be
Given : Series is BC, FGH, LMNO,……….
even.
It is clear from the given series that each term has
Therefore, a is odd and b is even.
one more alphabet previous each term. Also, gap
Hence, the correct option is (D).
between each term increases by one alphabet as
. Method 2 : well.
Checking from the options : BC, DE, FGH, IJK, LMNO, PQRS
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Number System & Series 7.13
So, next term will be TUVWX. 8
Sn = [(10 + 100 + 1000 + ......) − n]
Hence, the correct option is (B). 9
1.28 (A) 8
Sn = [(101 + 102 + 103 + ......) − n]
Given : x + y = 26 …(i) 9
x ∗ y = 165 8  10(10n − 1)  
S n =   − n
165 9  10 − 1  
y=
x  a(r n − 1) 

 nS = 
Putting the value of y in equation (i), r −1 

165
x+ = 26 80 n 8
x ∴ Sn = (10 − 1) − n
81 9
x 2 + 165 = 26 x
Hence, the correct option is (D).
x 2 − 26 x + 165 = 0 1.31 (C)
2
x − 15 x − 11x + 165 = 0 Codes :
x = 15, −11 1-a
Taking positive value x = 15 . 2-b
165 3-c
y= = 11
15  -
So, x− y = 4 26 - z
The difference between x and y is 4.
5
Hence, the correct option is (A). 20 8
1.29 (B) 14
? 24
Given : 9
+1 +1 +1
5
IMHO = JNIP IDK = JEL SO = TP
Hence,
20 14 8
+1 +6 6
14–
IDC = JED 14
0 14
Hence, the correct option is (B). –1 +1
14 0
1.30 (D) 4 24

Given : Sn = 8 + 88 + 888 + ...... + n

9
S n = 8(1 + 11 + 111 + ......)
Here, 4 is denoted as d.
8
Sn = (9 + 99 + 999 + ......) Hence, the correct option is (C).
9 

8 
Sn = [(10 − 1) + (100 − 1) + (1000 − 1) + ......]
9
 2 Average, Percentage
& Ratio
2014 IIT Kharagpur these investments he would have got Rs.
120 less. Find the ratio between his
2.1 Industrial consumption of power doubled investments in the two schemes.
from 2000-2001 to 2010-2011. Find the
[2 Marks]
annual rate of increase in percent,
assuming it to be uniform over the years. (A) 11 : 14 (B) 47 : 53

[2 Marks] (C) 37 : 63 (D) 9 : 16

(A) 5.6 (B) 7.2 2.5 Fiscal deficit was 4% of GDP in 2015
and that increased to 5% in 2016. If the
(C) 10.0 (D)12.2
GDP increased by 10% from 2015 to
2015 IIT Kanpur 2016. The percentage increase in actual
Fiscal deficit is [2 Marks]
2.2 From a circular sheet of paper of radius
30 cm, a sector of 10% area is removed. (A) 37.50 (B) 35.70
If the remaining part is used to make a C) 25 (D) 10
conical surface, then the ratio of the 2020 IIT Delhi
radius and height of the cone is ______.
[2 Marks] 2.6 There are five levels {P, Q, R, S, T} in a
linear supply chain before a product
2019 IIT Madras reaches customers, as shown in the
2.3 The product of three integers X, Y and Z figure.
is 192. If Z is equal to 4 and P is equal to P Þ Q Þ R Þ S Þ T Þ Customers
average of X and Y. What is the minimum At each of the five levels, the price of the
possible value of P? [1 Mark] product is increased by 25%. If the
(A) 7 (B) 9.5 product is produced at level P at the cost
(C) 6 (D) 8 of Rs.120 per unit, what is the price paid
2.4 A person divided an amount of Rs. (in rupees) by the customers? [2 Marks]
100,000 into two parts and invested in (A) 187.50 (B) 366.21
two different schemes. In one he got 10% (C) 234.38 (D) 292.96
profit and in the other he got 12%. If the
profit percentages are interchanged with
GATE ACADEMY ® Numerical Ability : Average, Percentage & Ratio 7.15

Answers Average, Percentage & Ratio

2.1 B 2.2 2.065 2.3 A 2.4 B 2.5 A

2.6 B

Explanations Average, Percentage & Ratio

2.1 (B) When it is made into a conical surface by

connecting points P and Q.
Given :
Let, the radius and height of cone are r1 and h1
The industrial consumption of power doubled
from 2000-2001 to 2010-2011. respectively.
Thus, let n = 10 year, A = 2 P
The relation between amount, principal, rate and
numbers of years is, l1
h1
n
 r 
A = P 1 +
 100  P, Q
10
 r  r1
2 P = P 1 +
 100  The perimeter of base (circle of radius r1 )
10
 r  = 2πr1 = P [From equation (ii)]
2 = 1 +
 100  2πr1 = 1.8πr
r = 7.2%
r1 = 0.9r = 0.9 × 30 = 27 cm
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Curved surface area of the cone,
Scan for
Video Solution A1 = πr1 l1 = πr1 r12 + h12 = A
[From equation (i)]
2.2 2.065
πr1 r12 + h12 = 0.9πr 2
Radius of sheet of paper r = 30 cm
2
If a sector of 10% area is removed 2 h 
r
1 1 +  1  = 0.9r 2
 r1 
90% Q 2
r
10% 0.2p 2 h 
(0.9r ) 1 +  1  = 0.9r 2
 r1 
1.8p P

2
h  1
The area of remaining 90% paper, 1+  1  =
 r1  0.9
A = 0.9 × πr 2 = 0.9π× (30) 2 cm 2 …(i)
2 2
The perimeter of remaining 90% paper, h   1 
1+  1  =  
P = 0.9 × 2πr = 1.8π× 30 cm …(ii)  r1   0.9 
 7.16 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY ®
2
 h1   1 
2 So, the required ratio
  =  − 1 = 0.2345 x 47000 47
 r1   0.9  = = =
100000 − x 100000 − 47000 53
h1
= 0.4842 Hence, the correct option is (B).
r1
r1 2.5 (A)
= 2.065
h1 Let as assume GDP is Rs.100 in year 2015 and
Hence, the ratio of radius and height of cone is making a table,
2.065. Year GDP FD
2.3 (A) 2015 100 4%
2016 110 5%
P is the average of X and Y,
It is given that, GDP increased by 10% from
192 = 26 × 3 2015 to 2016.
Since, Z = 4 the factorization is reduced to Now percentage increase in fiscal deficit.
24 × 3 Percent change
192 = 23 × (2 × 3) = 8 × 6 F.V. − I.V.
= × 100
Here, X = 8 and Y = 6 . Which is minimum I.V.
value. 110 × 5% − 100 × 4%
According to question, = ×100
100 × 4%
X +Y 8+ 6 5.5 − 4
P= = =7 Percent change = × 100 = 37.50 %.
2 2 4
Hence, the minimum possible value of P is 7. Hence, the correct option is (A).
2.4 (B)
Scan for
Let, the first amount = Rs. x and second amount Video Solution
= Rs. (100000 − x)
According to first given condition of question, 2.6 (B)
(100000 − x) ×12% + x ×10% = 12000 − 0.02 x Initial cost of the product = Rs. 120 /unit
…(i) After every stage price is increasing by 25% or
According to second given condition of question, 1.25 and there is total 5 stage including customer
(100000 − x) ×10% + x ×12% = 10000 + 0.02 x stage.
…(ii) ∴ the price paid by the customer
Now, as per the question the difference of = (1.25)5 × 120 = Rs. 366.21
equation (i) and (ii) will give the profit of Rs.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
120. 
So, (12000 − 0.02 x) − (10000 + 0.02) = 120 
2000 − 0.04 x = 120
2000 − 120
x= = Rs.47000
0.04
 2011 IIT Madras 2016 IISc Bangalore

3.1 A container originally contains 10 litres 3.3 M and N start from the same location. M
of pure spirit. From this container 1 litre travels 10 km East and then 10 km North-
of spirit is replaced with 1 litre of water. East. N travels 5 km South and then 4 km

Subsequently, 1 litre of the mixture is South-East. What is the shortest distance

again replaced with 1 litre of water and (in km) between M and N at the end of
their travel? [2 Marks]
this process is repeated one more time.
How much spirit is now left in the (A) 18.60 (B) 22.50

container? [2 Marks] (C) 20.61 (D) 25.00

(A) 7.58 litres (B) 7.84 litres
(C) 7 litres (D) 7.29 litres

2014 IIT Kharagpur

3.2 It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full

tank by draining it at a constant rate. It is
decided to simultaneously pump water
into the half-full tank while draining it.
What is the rate at which water has to be
pumped in so that it gets fully filled in 10
minutes? [2 Marks]
(A) 4 times the draining rate.
(B) 3 times the draining rate.
(C) 2.5 times the draining rate.
(D) 2 times the draining rate.
 7.18 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Answers Mixture Alligation & Direction

3.1 D 3.2 A 3.3 C

Explanations Mixture Alligation & Direction

3.1 (D) x = 4y
Given : Original quantity of spirit = 10 litres Hence, the correct option is (A).
Let x be the total amount of solution and y be the 3.3 (C)
amount of solution which is replaced each time. According to the given question, the following
n
 y  Spirit left after 3rd operation diagram shows the travelled path.
Then, 1 −  =
 x Initial quantity of spirit N
(Final point)
Spirit left after 3rd operation W E M
3 3
 1 9
= 10  1 −  = 10 ×   S 10
x=5 2
 10   10 
0
= 7.29 litres M, N (Starting 10 450
point)
Hence, the correct option is (D). 5
y=5 2 5
b=2 2
Scan for 450
Video Solution a=2 2 2 2
4
N M'
3.2 (A) (Final point)

Let the capacity of tank = C litres x

sin 450 =
C 10
Time taken to empty half full tank i.e. litres
2 x = 10 sin 450 = 5 2
= 30 mins
So draining rate, x 5 2
tan 450 = =
C/2 C y y
y= = litres/min …(i)
30 60 y=5 2
Let the filling rate = x litres/ min
Similarly,
Net rate of filling (when simultaneously filling
a
and draining) = x − y (let x > y ) sin 450 =
4
C
The half-full tank, i.e. to fill remaining a=2 2
2
Time taken = 10 mins a
tan 450 =
b
C/2
= x− y
10 b=2 2
From equation (i), MM ' = 5 2 + 5 + 2 2
C 1
x− y = = × 60 y MM ' = 5 + 7 2
20 20
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Mixture Alligation & Direction 7.19

NM ' = 10 + 5 2 − 2 2
NM ' = 10 + 3 2
By Pythagoras theorem,

MN = ( MM ') 2 + ( NM ') 2

MN = (5 + 7 2)2 + (10 + 3 2) 2
MN = 20.61
Hence, the correct option is (C).


 4 Permutation &
Combination
2010 IIT Guwahati 2020 IIT Delhi
4.1 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play 4.4 A company is hiring to fill four
hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 managerial vacancies. The candidates are
of them play both hockey and football. five men and three women. If every
Then the number of persons playing candidate is equally likely to be chosen
neither hockey nor football is [1 Mark] then the probability that at least one
(A) 2 (B) 17 women will be selected is _______
(C) 13 (D) 3 (round off to 2 decimal places). [1 Mark]

2015 IIT Kanpur

4.2 Five teams have to compete in a league,
with every team playing every other team
exactly once, before going to the next
round. How many matches will have to
be held to complete the league round of
matches? [1 Mark]
(A) 20 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 5
2017 IIT Roorkee
4.3 There are 4 women P, Q, R, S and 5 men
V, W, X, Y, Z in a group. We are required
to form pairs each consisting of one
woman and one man P is not to be paired
with Z and Y must necessarily be paired
with someone. In how many ways can 4
such pairs be formed? [2 Marks]
(A) 74 (B) 76
(C) 78 (D) 80
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Permutation & Combination 7.21

Answers Permutation & Combination

4.1 D 4.2 B 4.3 C 4.4 0.93

Explanations Permutation & Combination

4.1 (D) 4.2 (B)

Given : There are 25 persons in a room. Given : Total number of teams = 5
. Method 1 : Every team will play with every other team
Total numbers of players exactly once before going to the next round.
= Hockey only + Football only Therefore, the total number of combinations of
+ Both hockey and football two teams for a match is given by,
Hockey (15) Football (17) (1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 4) (1, 5)
(2, 3) (2, 4) (2, 5)
5 10 7 (3, 4) (3, 5)
(4, 5)
Both
OR
From Venn diagram,
Selection of two teams for a match in total of five
Total number of players = 5 + 7 + 10 = 22
Therefore, number of persons playing neither teams = 5C2 = 10 .
hockey nor football = 25 − 22 = 3 There are total 10 combinations.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (B).
. Method 2 : 4.3 (C)
From set theory, Given :
n( A) : Number of people who play hockey = 15
(i) 4 women P, Q, R, S and 5 men V, W, X,
n( B) : Number of people who play football = 17 Y, Z are in a group.
n(A∩ B) : Persons who play both hockey and (ii) A pair should consist one man and one
football = 10 woman but P should not be paired with Z
n(A∪ B) : Persons who play either hockey or and Y must be paired with someone.
football or both Total pairs that can be formed without any
From set theory, conditions is given by,
n(A ∪ B) = n( A) + n( B) − n( A ∩ B) T1 = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 120
n(A∪ B ) = 15 + 17 − 10 Number of pairs which consist of pair between P
n(A ∪ B ) = 22 and Z is given by,
T2 = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24
Total number of persons = 25
Therefore, people who play neither hockey nor Number of pairs which do not consist Y is given
football = 25 − 22 = 3 by,
Hence, the correct option is (D). T3 = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24
 7.22 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Number of pairs common between T2 and T3 is
given by,
T4 = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6
Therefore, required number of ways to form
conditional pairs, is given by,
T = T1 − (T2 + T3 − T4 )
T = 120 − (24 + 24 − 6)
T = 78
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.4 0.93
Probability of selecting at least one women
3
C1 × 5C3 + 3C2 × 5C2 + 3C3 × 5C1
= 8
C4
3 × 10 + 3 × 10 + 5
= = 0.9285 ≈ 0.93
8× 7 × 6× 5
4 × 3× 2
Hence, the probability that at least one women
will be selected is 0.93.


 5 Probability & Statistics

2012 IIT Delhi 2014 IIT Kharagpur

5.1 An automobile plant contracted to buy 5.3 You are given three coins : one has heads
shock absorbers from two suppliers X on both faces, the second has tails on both
faces, and the third has a head on one face
and Y . X supplies 60% and Y supplies
and a tail on the other. You choose a coin
40% of the shock absorbers. All shock at random and toss it, and it comes up
absorbers are subjected to a quality test. heads. The probability that the other face
The ones that pass the quality test are is tails is [2 Marks]
considered reliable. Of X 's shock 1 1
(A) (B)
absorbers, 96% are reliable. Of Y ' s 4 3

shock absorbers, 72% are reliable. The 1 2

(C) (D)
2 3
probability that a randomly chosen shock
5.4 A regular die has six sides with numbers
absorber, which is found to be reliable, is
1 to 6 marked on its sides. If a very large
made by Y is [2 Marks] number of throws show the following
(A) 0.288 (B) 0.334 frequencies of occurrence :
(C) 0.667 (D) 0.720 1 → 0.167; 2 → 0.167; 3 → 0.152;
2013 IIT Bombay 4 → 0.166; 5 → 0.168; 6 → 0.180.
We call this die [1 Mark]
5.2 Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1
(A) irregular (B) biased
and 100, a 2-digit number has to be
(C) Gaussian (D) insufficient
selected at random. What is probability
5.5 A batch of one hundred bulbs is inspected
that the selected number is not divisible
by testing four randomly chosen bulbs.
by 7? [2 Marks] The batch is rejected if even one of the
13 12 bulbs is defective. A batch typically has
(A) (B)
90 90 five defective bulbs. The probability that
the current batch is accepted is ______.
78 77
(C) (D) [2 Marks]
90 90
 7.24 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

2015 IIT Kanpur The standard deviation of group P was

25, while that of group Q was 5.
5.6 Ram and Ramesh appeared in an
Assuming that the marks were distributed
interview for two vacancies in the same
on a normal distribution, which of the
department. The probability of Ram’s
following statements will have the
selection is 1/6 and that of Ramesh is 1/8.
highest probability of being TRUE?
What is the probability that only one of
[2 Marks]
them will be selected? [1 Mark]
(A) No student in group Q scored less
(A) 47/48 (B) 1/4 marks than any student in group P.
(C) 13/48 (D) 35/48 (B) No student in group P scored less
5.7 A coin tossed thrice. Let X be the event marks than any student in group Q.
that head occurs in each of the first two (C) Most students of group Q scored
tosses. Let Y be the event that a tail occurs marks in a narrower range than
on the third toss. Let Z be the event that students in group P.
two tails occurs in three tosses. Based on (D) The median of the marks of group P
the above information, which one of the is 100.
following statements is TRUE?
2017 IIT Roorkee
[2 Marks]
(A) X and Y are not independent 5.10 A couple has 2 children. The probability
that both children are boys if the older is
(B) Y and Z are dependent
a boy is [1 Mark]
(C) Y and Z are independent
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/3
(D) X and Z are independent
(C) 1/2 (D) 1
2016 IISc Bangalore 2018 IIT Guwahati
5.8 A person moving through a tuberculosis 5.11 An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a
prone zone has a 50% probability of row and four different such trials are
becoming infected. However, only 30% conducted. One trial implies six tosses of
of infected people develop the disease. the coin. If H stands for head and T stands
What percentage of people moving for tail, the following are the observations
through a tuberculosis prone zone remains from the four trials :
infected but does not show symptoms of (1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT
disease? [2 Marks] (3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT_ _
(A) 15 (B) 33 Which statement describing the last two
(C) 35 (D) 37 coin tosses of the fourth trial has the
5.9 Students taking an exam are divided into higher probability of being correct?
two groups. P and Q such that each group [1 Mark]
has the same number of students. The (A) Two T will occur
performance of each of the students in a (B) One H and one T will occur
test was evaluated out of 200 marks. It (C) Two H will occur
was observed that the mean of group P (D) One H will be followed by one T.
was 105, while that of group Q was 85.
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Probability & Statistics 7.25

Answers Probability & Statistics

5.1 B 5.2 D 5.3 B 5.4 B 5.5 0.82

5.6 B 5.7 B 5.8 C 5.9 C 5.10 C
5.11 B

Explanations Probability & Statistics

5.1 (B) . Method 2 :

From given information we can draw,
Given :
(i) Probability that shock absorbers are
supplied by X = 0.6
(ii) Probability that shock absorbers are X Y
supplied by Y = 0.4 0.6 0.4
(iii) 96% of X ' s shock absorbers are reliable not not
reliable reliable reliable reliable
i.e. = 0.6 × 0.96
(iv) 72% of Y ' s shock absorbers are reliable 0.96 0.04 0.72 0.28
i.e. = 0.4 × 0.72
By Bayes’ theorem the probability that a randomly
. Method 1 : chosen shock absorber which is reliable, is made
According to Bayes’ theorem, the probability by Y is,
that a randomly chosen shock absorber is found 0.72 × 0.4
= = 0.33
to be reliable, is supplied by Y is, 0.72 × 0.4 + 0.96 × 0.6
 Y  P (Y ∩ R ) Hence, the correct option is (B).
P  = …(i)
R P( R)
Scan for
Where, P ( R ) = Probability that shock absorber Video Solution
is reliable
5.2 (D)
P( R) = Reliable when supplied by X + Reliable
when supplied by Y Two digit numbers divisible by 7 are,
P( R ) = 0.6 × 0.96 + 0.4 × 0.72 14, 21, ......98 .
P( R) = 0.864 …(ii) This is a A.P. series. So,
Tn = a + ( n − 1) d
P(Y ∩ R) = Probability that shock absorber is
98 = 14 + (n − 1)7
supplied by Y and is reliable
P (Y ∩ R) = 0.4 × 0.72 = 0.288 …(iii) 84
= (n − 1)
7
From equations (i), (ii) and (iii),
n = 13
 Y  0.288
P  = = 0.334 There are 13 two digit numbers which are
 R  0.864 divisible by 7 and between 1 to 100, there are 90
Hence, the correct option is (B). two digit numbers.
 7.26 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
So, 90 − 13 = 77 Probability for bulb being non-defective
Therefore, probability that selected number is 95
= = 0.95
not divisivle by 7 is, 100
77 Probability that the batch is accepted
P( E ) =
90 = None of the four bulb being defective
Hence, the correct option is (D).
= ( 0.95 ) = 0.8145
4

Scan for
Video Solution
Hence, the probability that the batch is accepted
is 0.82.
5.3 (B) . Method 2 :
There are three coins. One coin is selected at Total number of bulbs = 100
random and tossed. Number of defective bulbs = 5
The result of toss is head. So, the probability that a randomly selected
So, the coin is possibly one of the following two bulb is defective,
coins. 5
q= = 0.05
Coin 1 : Head on both sides. 100
Coin 2 : A head and a tail. The probability that bulb is not defective,
The total possibilities for the other side of p = 1 − q = 0.95
selected coin are :
Number of trials n = 4
{head, head, tail}
Therefore, n( S ) = 3 One bulb is defective thus r = 1
Using binomial theorem :
Let A represent the event of occurrence of tail
on other side of selected coin. P ( r ) = n Cr p r q n − r
n( A) = 1 P (0) = 4C0 (0.05)0 × (0.95) 4− 0 = 0.8145
Required probability is given by, Hence, the probability that the batch is accepted
n( A) 1 is 0.82.
P ( A) = =
n( S ) 3
Hence, the correct option is (B). Scan for
Video Solution
5.4 (B)
For a very large number of throws, the frequency 5.6 (B)
should be same for unbiased throws and if not The probability that Ram is selected,
same then the dice is biased.
1
Hence, the correct option is (B). A=
6
5.5 0.82 and the probability that Ram is not selected,
. Method 1 : 1 5
A = 1− A = 1− =
Probability of bulb being defective 6 6
5 Similarly, the probabilities of Ramesh’s
= = 0.05
100 selection and rejection,
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Probability & Statistics 7.27
1 1 7 means event Y gives some information
B = , B = (1 − B ) = 1 − =
8 8 8 about event Z.
The probability that only one of them get Therefore, event Y and Z are dependent.
selected is given by, Hence, the correct option is (B).
P = A× B + A × B 5.8 (C)
1 7 5 1 1 Given :
P= × + × = Probability of becoming infected = 50%
6 8 6 8 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). Probability of infected people developed the
disease = 30%
Scan for According to the question, following information
Video Solution can is obtained.
Tuberculosis
5.7 (B)
Given : A coin is tossed three times. Not Infected Infected
Event X consists of occurrence of head in the first 50% 50%

two tosses.
Event Y consists of occurrence of tail in the third Develop Does not
the disease develop the disease
toss. 30% of 50% 70% of 50%
Event Z consists of occurrence of two tails in
Therefore, percentage of people moving through
three tosses. a tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but
Two events are said to be dependent if occurrence does not show symptoms of disease
of one event gives information about the 70 50 35
= × = = 35%
occurrence of another events. 100 100 100
If two heads occur in the first two tosses (event Hence, the correct option is (C).
X) then it remove the possibility of occurrence of 5.9 (C)
event Z. Given : Mean of P = 105 , standard deviation of
Therefore, events X and Z are dependent. P = 25
Hence, option (D) is incorrect. Mean of Q = 85 , standard deviation of Q = 5
Event Y states that a tail occurs in third toss but Maximum marks of group
does not comment about first and second toss. P = μ + 3σ = 180
Therefore, outcome of first and second toss can Minimum marks of group
be any combination of head and tail which will P = μ − 3σ = 30
include, Range = 180 – 30 = 150
(Z = 0)
(i) Occurrence of two heads which means
Mean
event Y gives some information about
event X. Therefore, events X and Y are
dependent.
Hence, option (A) is incorrect.
(ii) Occurrence of one head and one tail i.e. a 30 105 180
total of two tails in three tosses which Normal distribution
 7.28 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
Similarly for ‘Q’, Output of last two coin tosses can be as shown
Maximum marks = μ + 3σ = 85 + 15 = 100 below,
Minimum marks = μ − 3σ = 85 − 15 = 70 (i) HT

Range = 100 – 70 = 30 (ii) TH

(Z = 0) (iii) HH
Mean
(iv) TT
From option (A) : Two T will occur.
1 1 1
Probability = P (T , T ) = × =
2 2 4
70 85 100 From option (C) : Two H will occur.
Normal distribution
1 1 1
From above figures, it is clear that most students Probability = P ( H , H ) = × =
2 2 4
of group Q scored marks in a narrower range
than students in group P. From option (D) : One H will be followed by
one T
Hence, the correct option is (C).
1 1 1
5.10 (C) Probability = P ( H , T ) = × =
2 2 4
Given : Couple has 2 children. From option (B) : One H and one T will occur.
If older kid is a boy then younger kid can be Probability = P ( H , T ) + P (T , H )
either girl or boy with equal probability.
1 1 1 1
So, if one kid is a boy, the probability that other = × + ×
2 2 2 2
1
kid will be a boy = 1
2 =
2
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Therefore, it is clear that last two coin tosses of
Scan for the fourth trial that has higher probability of
Video Solution being correct is one head and one tail.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.11 (B)


Given : 
(i) Four trials are performed.
(ii) Each trial consist of six tosses.
(iii) Output of all the trials are as shown
below,
HT HT HT
TT H H HT
HTT H HT
H H H T −−
 6 Time, Speed & Distance

2013 IIT Bombay 2016 IISc Bangalore

6.1 A tourist covers half of his journey by 6.5 Michael lives 10 km away from where I
train at 60 km / h , half of the remainder live. Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan
by bus at 30 km / h and the rest by cycle lives 7 km away from where I live. Arun
at 10 km / h . The average speed of the is farther away than Ahmed but closer
than Susan from where I live. From the
tourist in km / h during his entire journey
information provided here, what is one
is [2 Marks]
possible distance (in km) at which I live
(A) 36 (B) 30
from Arun's place? [1 Mark]
(C) 24 (D) 18
(A) 3.00 (B) 4.99
2014 IIT Kharagpur (C) 6.02 (D) 7.01
6.2 A train that is 280 meters long, travelling 2018 IIT Guwahati
at a uniform speed, crosses a platform in
60 seconds and passes a man standing on 6.6 From the time the front of a trains enters
the platform in 20 seconds. What is the a platform, it takes 25 sec for the back of
length of the platform in meters? the train to leave the platform, while train
[2 Marks] travelling at a constant speed of 54 km/h.
6.3 A man can row at 8 km per hour in still At the same speed, it takes 14 sec to pass
water. If it takes him thrice as long to row a man running at 9 km/h in the same
upstream, as to row downstream, then direction as the train. What is the length
find the stream velocity in km per hour. of the train and that of the platform in
[2 Marks] meters respectively? [2 Marks]
(A) 210 and 140
2015 IIT Kanpur
(B) 162.5 and 187.5
6.4 A tiger is 50 leaps of its own behind a (C) 245 and 130
deer. The tiger takes 5 leaps per minute (D) 175 and 200
to the deer is 4. If the tiger and the deer
cover 8 metre and 5 metre per leap
respectively, what distance in metres will
the tiger have to run before it catches the
deer? [2 Marks]
 7.30 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Answers Time, Speed & Distance

6.1 C 6.2 560 6.3 4 6.4 800 6.5 C

6.6 D

Explanations Time, Speed & Distance

6.1 (C) With a speed of ST m/sec , it takes 20 sec.

Let ‘l’ be the total distance. 280 = ST × 20 …(ii)

Average speed, Solving equation (i) and (ii),
Total distance covered 280 + L 60
Savg = =
Total time 280 20

l 1 L = ( 280 × 3) − 280 = 560 m

Savg = =
l/2 l/4 l/4 1 1 1 Hence, length of platform is 560 m.
+ + + +
60 30 10 120 120 40 . Method 2 :
120 Let the speed of train = v
Savg =
5 Length of platform = l
S avg = 24 km/h Length of train = L = 280 m
Hence, the correct option is (C). To cross a man standing on the platform, the train
has to travel a distance equal to its length.
Scan for
Video Solution
So, according to question,
L
= 20sec
6.2 560 v
Given : Length of train = 280 (m) 280
= 20
v
Consider length of platform = L (m)
v = 14 m/s
. Method 1 : To cross the platform it has to travel a distance
While passing a platform, a train covers the equal to the sum of the length of train & length
length of its own and the length of platform. of platform,
Distance = (280 + L)m L+l
= 60
And it takes 60 sec. to cross it with speed of v
ST m/sec . 280 + l
= 60
14
Distance = Speed × Time
l = 560 m
(280 + L) = ST × 60 …(i)
Hence, length of platform is 560 m.
While passing a man, a train covers only the
length of its own. Scan for
Video Solution
Distance = 280 m
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Time, Speed & Distance 7.31

6.3 4 So, the distance travelled by tiger is

= 40 m/min × 20 min = 800 m
Given :
Speed of man, x = 8 kmph Hence, the distance is 800 m.

And speed of stream = y kmph 6.5 (C)

Distance Following line with respective distances can be

Time =
Speed drawn
Total = 10 kms
Time in upstream = 3 × Time in downstream
0 5 7 10
D 3× D
= 5 km
x− y x+ y I Ahmed Arun Susan Michael

7 km
( x + y ) = 3( x − y )
Arun can reside anywhere between Ahmed and
x + y = 3x − 3 y
Susan i.e. between 5 km and 7 km from I.
2x = 4 y From options, only 6.02 is between the range
x 5 < 6.02 < 7
y= {since, x = 8}
2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
y = 4 kmph
6.6 (D)
Hence, the stream velocity is 4 kmph.
Given : Speed of train = 54 km/h
Scan for Time for travelling the length of train and length
Video Solution
of platform = 25 sec
6.4 800 Speed of man = 9 km/h
Speed of train = 54 − 9 = 45 km/h
Given : Tiger is 50 leap of its own behind deer.
Time taken by the train to pass the man = 14 sec
The distance covered per leap by tiger, lt = 8 m
Length of train = Speed × Time
The distance covered per leap by deer, l p = 5 m 5
= 45 ×
×14 = 175 m
So, initial separation = 50 × 8 = 400 m 18
Speed = Number of leaps × distance per leap Total length = Speed of train × Time
Speed of tiger and deer are : 5
= 54 ×× 25 = 375 m
vT = 5 × 8 = 40 m/minute 18
Length of platform = 375 − 175 = 200 m
vD = 4 × 5 = 20 m/minute
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Now relative distance of 400 m have to be
covered with (40 − 20) = 20 m/min Scan for
Video Solution
Distance
Required time = 
Relative speed

400 m
= = 20 min
(40 − 20)m/min
 7 Work & Time

2010 IIT Guwahati 2013 IIT Bombay

7.1 5 skilled workers can build a wall in 20 7.3 The current erection cost of a structure is
days; 8 semi-skilled worker can build a Rs. 13, 200. If the labour wages per day
wall in 25 days; 10 unskilled workers can increase by 1/5 of the current wages and
build a wall in 30 days. If a team has 2
the working hours decrease by 1/24 of the
skilled, 6 semi-skilled and 5 unskilled
current period, then the new cost of
workers, how long will it take to build the
erection in Rs. is [2 Marks]
wall? [2 Marks]
(A) 16,500 (B) 15,180
(A) 20 days (B) 18 days
(C) 16 days (D) 15 days (C) 11,000 (D) 10,120

2011 IIT Madras 2016 IISc Bangalore

7.2 A transporter receives the same number 7.4 P, Q, R and S are working on a project.
of orders each day. Currently, he has Q can finish the task in 25 days, working
some pending orders (backlog) to be alone for 12 hours a day. R can finish the
shipped. If he uses 7 trucks, then at the task in 50 days, working alone for 12
th
end of the 4 day he can clear all the
hours per day. Q worked 12 hours a day
orders. Alternatively, if he uses only 3
but took sick leave in the beginning for
trucks, then all the orders are cleared at
two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all
the end of the 10th day. What is the
days. What is the ratio of work done by
minimum number of trucks required so
that there will be no pending order at the Q and R after 7 days from the start of the

end of the 5th day? [2 Marks] project? [2 Marks]

(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 10 : 11 (B) 11 : 10

(C) 6 (D) 7 (C) 20 : 21 (D) 21 : 20
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Work & Time 7.33
7.5 S, M, E and F are working in shifts in a 2019 IIT Madras
team to finish a project. M works with
7.9 A worker noticed that hour hand on the
twice the efficiency of others but for half
factory clock hand moved by 225 degree
as many days as E worked. S and M have
during her stay at the factory. For how
6 hour shifts in a day, whereas E and F
long did she stay in the factory?
have 12 hours shifts. What is the ratio of
[1 Mark]
contribution of M to contribution of E in
(A) 3.75 hours
the project? [1 Mark]
(B) 4 hours and 15 minutes
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 7.5 hours
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 1
(D) 8.5 hours
2017 IIT Roorkee
7.10 Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 6
7.6 X bullocks and Y tractors take 8 days to hours and 9 hours respectively, while a
plough a field. If we halve the number of third pipe R can empty the tank in 12
bullocks and double the number of hours. Initially, P and R are open for 4
tractors, it takes 5 days to plough the hours. Then P is closed and Q is
same field. How many days will it take X
opened. After 6 more hours R is closed.
bullocks to plough the field? [2 Marks]
The total time taken to fill the tank (in
(A) 30 (B) 35 hours) is ______. [2 Marks]
(C) 40 (D) 45 (A) 13.50 (B) 15.50
2018 IIT Guwahati (C) 16.50 (D) 14.50

7.7 Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 2020 IIT Delhi

7 identical toys. At the same time rate 7.11 It was estimated that 52 men can
how many minutes would it take for 100 complete a strip in a newly constructed
machines to make 100 toys? [1 Mark] highway connecting cities P & Q in 10
(A) 1 (B) 7 days. Due to an emergency, 12 men were
(C) 100 (D) 700 sent to another project. How many
7.8 A contract is to be completed in 52 days number of days, more than the original
and 125 identical robots were employed, estimate, will be required to complete the
each operational for 7 hours a day. After strip? [2 Marks]
39 days, five-seventh of the work was (A) 3 days (B) 10 days
completed. How many additional robots (C) 5 days (D) 13 days
would be required to complete the work
on time, if each robot is now operational
for 8 hours a day? [1 Mark]
(A) 50 (B) 89
(C) 146 (D) 175
 7.34 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®

Answers Work & Time

7.1 D 7.2 C 7.3 B 7.4 C 7.5 B

7.6 A 7.7 B 7.8 MTA 7.9 C 7.10 D
7.11 A

Explanations Work & Time

7.1 (D) 7.2 (C)

Per day work or rate of 5 skilled workers Given :
1 (i) The transporter receives same number of
=
20 order each day and he currently has
Per day work or rate of one skilled worker pending orders. Let x be the number of
1 1 daily received order and y be the number
= =
5 × 20 100 of pending orders.
Similarly, per day work or rate of 8 semi-skilled (ii) Use of 7 trucks each day finishes all
1 orders in 4th day.
workers =
25 Total number of received order in 4 days
Per day work or rate of one semi-skill worker = x+x+ x+x
1 1 = 4x
= =
8 × 25 200 Including pending order y, total order = 4x + y
and per day work or rate of 10 unskilled workers
Total number of trucks used = 7 + 7 + 7 + 7 = 28
1
= i.e. 4 x + y = 28 …(i)
30
Per day work or rate of one unskilled worker Use of 3 trucks each day finishes all orders in
1 1 10th day.
= =
10 × 30 300 Total number of received order in 10 days = 10x
Thus total per day work of 2 skilled, 6 semi- Including pending order, total order = 10 x + y
skilled and 5 unskilled workers Total number of trucks used = 10 x + y = 30
2 6 5
= + + i.e. 10 x + y = 30 …(ii)
100 200 300
12 + 18 + 10 From equations (i) and (ii),
= x = 0.33
600
40 1 y = 26.66
= =
600 15 Total number of order in 5 days = 5 x + y
Thus, time to complete the work is 15 days. Number of trucks required in 5 days = 5 × n
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Where, n = number of trucks used each day
Scan for i.e. 5 x + y = 5n
Video Solution
5 × 0.33 + 26.66 = 5n
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Work & Time 7.35
n = 5.66 While R worked for all 7 days at a rate of 18
n≈6 hrs/day.
Hence, the correct option is (C). So, R will do 18 × 7 = 126 of his work (Total
7.3 (B)
work for 600 hrs)
 126 
Let ‘X’ be the labour wages and ‘R’ be the R will do  = 0.21 of his work
 600 
working hours.
So, required ratio,
Now, total cost = X × R = 13200
1  1 126 
Increase in wages = i.e. 20%  :  = 120 :126 = 20 : 21
5  5 600 
X 6X Hence, the correct option is (C).
So, revised wages = X + =
5 5 7.5 (B)
6X Given :
X '=
5 Efficiency of M = 2 × (Efficiency of S, E and F)
 1  Let M works for x days then E works for 2x days.
Decrease in labour time =   %
 24  Contribution of M in the project
= x days × 6 hrs × 2
 R
So, revised time =  R −  Contribution of E in the project
 24 
= 2x days × 12 hrs × 1
23
R' = R Contribution of M : Contribution of E
24
x × 6 × 2 : 2x × 12 × 1
Therefore, revised total cost 1:2
23 Hence, the correct option is (B).
X ' R ' = 1.2 X × R = 1.15 XR
24
 Key Point
X ' R ' = 1.15 ×13200 = 15180
Number of hours per day, working days and
Hence, the correct option is (B). efficiency are the 3 attributes of contribution to
7.4 (C) work given in the problem. So these 3 must be
multiplied to compare the individual’s
Given :
contribution.
Q can finish the work in 25 days × 12 hours
= 300 hrs 7.6 (A)
R can finish the work in 50 days × 12 hours Given :
= 600 hrs (i) X bullocks and Y tractors take 8 days to
So, Q is twice efficient as R. plough the field.
Now, Q worked only for 5 days at a rate of 12 X
(ii) bullocks and 2Y tractors take 5 days
hrs/day. So for 60 hours of his work (Total work 2
1 to plough the field.
for Q i.e. 300 hrs) he will do only of work
5 According to given data,
 60 1  1
 = . 1 day of work by X and Y =
 300 5  8
 7.36 Topic Wise GATE Solutions [ME] GATE ACADEMY®
1 W = 47775 robot/hours
X +Y = …(i)
8 5 2
So, left work = W − W = W = 13650 robot/
X 1 7 7
1 day of work by and 2Y =
2 5 hours.
X 1 According to question, for the next 13 days
+ 2Y = …(ii)
2 5 robots will work for 8 hours/day. So,
From equations (i) and (ii), 13 × x × 8 = 13650
1 11 x = 131.25
X = ,Y =
30 120 Additional robots required,
1 day of work by, = 131.25 − 125 = 6.25 ≈ 7
1 Note : None of the options match the correct
X=
30 answer. For this question, MTA (Marks to all)
So, X will plough the complete field in 30 days. was given by IIT Guwahati.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
7.9 (C)
7.7 (B)
Given :
DMTE
Concept : = C (Constant) The angle by which hour hand turned (θ) = 2250
W
Where, D = Days, M = Man power/machines Since, the angle turned by hour hand in hour
T = Time, E = Efficiency, W = Work 3600
= = 300
M 1T1 M 2T2 12
So, =
W1 W2 So, the working time of worker
7 × 7 100 × T2 θ 2250
= = 0 = = 7.5 hour.
7 100 30 300
T2 = 7 min Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 7.10 (D)
1
Scan for In 1 hour P can fill =
Video Solution 6
1
7.8 MTA
In 1 hour Q can fill =
9
Given : 1
In 1 hour R can empty =
(i) Work has to be completed in 52 days 12
using 125 robots each working 7 1 1  1
hours/day. In 4 hour (P + R) can fill = 4 ×  −  =
 6 12  3
(ii) 39 days later, five-seventh of the work is
1 1  1
completed. In 6 hour (Q + R) can fill = 6 ×  −  =
Then, work done in 39 days = 125 × 7 × 39  9 12  6
5 1 1 1
W = 125 × 7 × 39 In 10 hour tank can fill = + =
7 3 6 2
GATE ACADEMY® Numerical Ability : Work & Time 7.37
1 1
Remaining part of tank = 1 − =
2 2
1 1
tank Q can fill = × 9 = 4.5 hour
2 2
Total time = 10 + 4.5 = 14.5 hours
Hence, the correct option is (D).

Scan for
Video Solution

7.11 (A)

Given : 52 men can complete a strip in 10 days.

If 12 men were sent to another project then
52 – 12 = 40 men left
Work completed by 40 men is given by,
52 ×10 = 40 x
x = 13
So, number of days required more than the
original estimate = 13 − 10 = 3 .
Hence, the correct option is (A).


