OTL Exam F Answer Key

1. Which of the following situations is an example of insurable interest in property?

a. A homeowner whose personal property is damaged as a result of the fire in his home.
b. The homeowner’s employer who provided the homeowner with a laptop that was damaged as a
result of the fire.
c. The homeowner’s neighbour who couldn’t work in his home for the day as a result of the next
door fire-fighting activities.
d. The neighbour’s car that was accidentally damaged by fire-fighters as they were putting away
their fire-fighting equipment.

2. Which of the following describes the principle of indemnity?

a. To salvage all possible items and offer a cash settlement for 50 percent of the value of any lost
articles
b. To repair all damage and include a 30 percent increase to compensate for inflation
c. To be put back into the same financial position that they were in before the loss
d. To replace all lost or damaged articles with better quality products

3. According to the Requirements after Loss Statutory Condition, the insured is required to do which of
the following after suffering a loss?
a. State the interest of the insured in the property and all other interests
b. Take all reasonable steps to prevent further loss or damage
c. Allow the insurer entry to survey the damage and make and estimate
d. Refrain from willfully making any false statements in a special declaration in relation to the claim

4. Which type of adjusters are independent businesses people engaged by insureds to represent their
interests during a claim?
a. Private adjusters
b. Public adjusters
c. Staff adjusters
d. Telephone adjusters

5. The insurer is not normally liable under a contract of insurance if there has been a change in interest,
unless it consent to it. Which of the following changes interest is the exception and receives automatic
consent according to the Statutory Conditions of the Fire Policy?
a. Mary sells her house to Sean. Since Mary is moving is with her sister, she no longer needs her
Homeowner’s Policy and sells the remaining term of the policy to Sean as well.
b. Alison begins to have trouble making her mortgage payments soon after moving into her house.
Her parents agree to pay her mortgage. They ask Alison to change her Homeowner’s policy to
show them as named insureds.
c. Georgette has the ownership changed on her mother’s home after her mother dies, as
Georgette is the sole survivor. She doesn’t contact the broker nor arrange other insurance
because there is six months remaining on her mother’s policy.
d. Melinda’s Flower Shop goes bankrupt. Leah buys the business from the receiver. Leah retains
the employees and suppliers and will continue to operate under the original name. Nothing but

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 the ownership has changed and the insurance policy existed on the shop when it was owned by
Melinda does not expire for four months.

6. Tanya opens a new barbershop on a busy downtown street and expects to earn a big profit. What is
this an example of?
a. Illegal risk
b. Speculative risk
c. Pure risk
d. Moral risk

7. Which of the following concepts upholds the principle of indemnity?

a. Utmost good faith
b. Materiality
c. Subrogation
d. Disclosure

8. Which statement about written applications is TRUE?

a. They are required for all classes of insurance
b. They are no longer necessary in the modern insurance marketplace
c. They are only used if there is a perceived moral risk, to prevent fraud.
d. They are required if the application is to become part of the policy.

9. Silence where there is an obligation to speak is the definition of which of the following terms?
a. Utmost good faith
b. Non-disclosure
c. Discrimination
d. Material fact

10. When an insured property is not totally destroyed or lost and the property that remains has some
value, what is this known as?
a. Subrogation
b. Salvage
c. Contractual provisions
d. Contribution

11. Which of the following best defines non-disclosure or concealment?

a. An applicant for insurance makes an incorrect statement about a material fact
b. An applicant for insurance withholds information pertinent to a risk
c. An applicant for insurance carelessly makes a statement without regard to whether it is true or
false
d. An applicant for insurance states an outright lie intended to mislead or hide information from
the insurer

12. In legal terms, what does prescription mean?

a. Instructions you receive from a medical doctor regarding medication
b. A time after which a cause of action ceases
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 c. The party who brings a legal action
d. An event whereby a person speaks against his own act or deed

13. What statement describes the rights of an insurer following a loss where there is other valid and
collectible insurance on the damaged property?
a. The insurer has a right to deny recovery
b. The insurer must negotiate with the other insurer(s) to determine how much each will
contribute to the loss
c. The insurer only pays the loss according to its own policy conditions and limits of coverage
d. The insurer is only liable for its rateable portion of the loss

14. A person would be considered to have insurable interest in which of the following situations?
a. The loss of physical property owned by his friend
b. Bodily injury caused to the driver of a vehicle in which he is a passenger
c. Being found legally liable for causing injury or property damage to a third party
d. The physical damage caused by a third party to his neighbour’s house

15. What are regulations of intermediaries?

a) Qualification, Licensing, operating requirement, renewal of license
b) Qualification, licensing, operational continuity, renewal of license
c) Qualification, Operating requirement, renewal of license,
d) All of the above

16. Which of the following situations arises when an insurer indemnifies an insured for a loss?
a. The insured retains the right to benefit from any recovery available because of another party’s
negligence
b. Title to the property automatically transfers to the insurer
c. The insurer must obtain a court order to use any recovery from the responsible party to offset
the claim paid
d. The insurer is subrogated to the insured’s right to recover that same loss from another person
who may be legally responsible

17. What is the purpose of the inspection condition under the general conditions for fire policies in
Quebec?
a. It obligates the insurer to make inspections of the risk
b. It obligates the insurer to inform the insured of any unsafe conditions found if it makes an
inspection
c. It states that where the insurer makes an inspection, it does not constitute a warranty that
the premises are safe or healthful or comply with laws, codes, or standards.
d. It allows the insurer to inspect the premises for purposes other than insurance at the same time.

18. Which of the following is NOT included in the duties of a risk manager.
a. Identifying loss exposures
b. Educating other corporate managers
c. Financing loss
d. Acting as an in-house legal counsel.
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19. Which of the following is a special program approved by government regulators, to protect
policyholders from the financial collapse of an insurer.
a. Facility association
b. Insurance Companies Act
c. Property and Casualty Insurance Compensation Corporation (PACICC)
d. Global Risk Management

20. What does empathy require?

a. Understanding and sharing the feelings of another person
b. Friction with another
c. Conflict management
d. Ability to win a negotiation

21. What is the fundamental objective of the underwriter in accepting risk on an insurer’s behalf?
a. To ensure premium charged adequately reflects the potential for loss
b. Protecting the overall financial health of the insurer
c. To earn investment income from stocks
d. Both (a) & (b)

22. Which are the following ways that agents & brokers use to locate prospects?
a. Advertising & walk-ins
b. Cold calling
c. Tracking expiry dates
d. All of the above

23. The risk management process is used to;

a. Determine the exposures clients need to manage
b. Educate about Canadian Risk Management
c. Keep a track of company's losses
d. All of the above

24. Gambling is an example of what type of risk?

a. Insurable Risk
b. Pure Risk
c. Speculative Risk
d. Personal Risk

25. Which of the following best defines the role of a direct writer?
a. Represents clients with arranging insurance contracts with insurers
b. Is a person who has charge of a company's business for a province(s)
c. Represents and sells insurance for one insurance company
d. Is an independent business person who places business with a number of insurers

26. What are the types of insurance that make up General Insurance?
a. All types of insurance except surety
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 b. Property Insurance and Casualty Insurance
c. Property Insurance and Life & Health Insurance
d. Property, Liability, and Automobile Insurance

27. The common types of delivery system in P&C industry include which of the following?
a. General agent
b. Independent agency
c. Exclusive agency
d. Both (b) & (c)

28. Which of the following describes an express contract?

a. The parties have acted in such a way that it is understood that an agreement exists.
b. Confirmation of insurance coverage is given and can be written or oral.
c. All terms have been specifically stated and agreed by both parties.
d. One party, in return for a consideration agrees to indemnify another party.

29. Co-insurance clauses are designed to:

a. Prevent the chance of a total loss

b. Transfer part of the risk to another insurer
c. Force the insured to bear the portion of any partial loss if underinsurance exists
d. Penalize the insured in the event of over insurance

30. Building is subject to a 90% co-insurance. Building is valued at $200,000 and insured for
$170,000. Loss is $130,000. What will the insurer pay?

a. $180,000
b. $122,778
c. $130,000
d. $117,000

31. Which of the following is correct regarding Seasonal Dwelling Policies?

a. May exclude or include coverage for vacant buildings or unoccupied buildings
b. Provide a limit of insurance for outbuildings based on a percentage of the building amount
c. They do not include burglary or vandalism and malicious acts, but can be added for additional
premium
d. All of the above

32. The increased cost-Demolition or Construction endorsement

a. Provides coverage for increased cost of construction in times or high inflation.
b. Pays for demolition of old buildings when an insured plans to build on the same site.
c. May be added to a policy at no extra premium upon request of the insured.
d. Is also known as the by-law endorsement.

33. Extended coverage Perils are

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 a. Fire, Vandalism and theft
b. Explosion, Riot and smoke
c. Lightning, windstorm and glass
d. Transportation, falling object and water escape

34. After a loss, an insured

a. Must get three estimates of the damage incurred.
b. Must deliver a proof of loss to the insurer as soon as practicable.
c. Is no longer responsible for the damaged property and the insurer takes over.
d. Must call an adjuster immediately.

36. When a loss occurs under the basic fire insurance policy, the amount payable is the least of three
amounts. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
a. Actual cash value.
b. Original cost of the property.
c. Sum insured.
d. The insured’s interest in the property.

37. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the Extended Coverage endorsement
a. Does not enlarge the coverage afforded by the primary policy
b. Was developed to supplement the Fire Policy
c. Covers losses from additional perils
d. Adds smoke damage coverage

38. Which of the following perils is NOT covered under the fire insurance policy?

a. Lightning.
b. Windstorm.
c. Fire.
d. Explosion.

39. Statutory Conditions do NOT deal with

a. Salvage.
b. Right of access to premises after a loss.
c. Change of title of the insured property.
d. Premium.

40. The fire policy permits certain changes of interest without prior consent. Which of the following
requires consent?
a. A change of title resulting from death of the insured.
b. An authorized assignment under the Bankruptcy Act.
c. A change of title arising out of a gift.
d. A change of title by succession.

41. The most important thing about terminating a fire policy is to

a. Cancel it.
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 b. Send a registered letter.
c. Return any unearned premium.
d. Do it according to the provisions of the policy.

42. General Conditions (Quebec) do NOT deal with

a. Deductibles.
b. Misrepresentation.
c. Material change in risk.
d. Termination.

43. A homeowner’s policy that provides all risk coverage on building and named perils on contents is
a. A comprehensive form
b. A limited form
c. A basic form
d. A broad form

44. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Insured’s may elect to have their loss paid in cash or have the property repaired.
b. If an insured opts for repair, the work must be done within a stated period of time.
c. The insurer decided on who will do any repair work – if the insured wants someone else, he
forfeits the insurance.
d. The insurer has the option of deciding how indemnity will be delivered.

45. To which of the following items insured does a limit apply when the item is stolen but not when it is
damaged in an explosion?
a. Computer software.
b. Garden tractors.
c. Watercraft.
d. Jewelry.

46. Which of the following is NOT true of all risks policies?

a. They provide insurance against all risks and all types of damage.
b. The extent of coverage is determined by the exclusions.
c. Anything that is not specifically excluded is covered.
d. Insurance is against all risks of direct loss or damage.

47. The Property Coverages of the Homeowners Basic Form include:

a. Dwelling Building, Detached Private Structures, Personal Property and Additional Living
Expense.
b. Dwelling Building, Personal Property and Seasonal Residence.
c. Dwelling Building, Contents, Scheduled Items and Liability.
d. Dwelling Building, Personal Property, Glass and Outboard Motors/Boats.

48. Which of the following is TRUE of the Fine Arts endorsement?

a. Valuations done by qualified experts are required.
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 b. A valuable china vase broken by a firefighter during a fire is not covered.
c. Provided professional packing supplies are used, coverage will not be affected if the insured
packs his fine art himself when he moves.
d. This endorsement has no exclusions and no deductible

49. Which of the following is a basic coverage under the property section of a Homeowners Policy?
a. Summer cottage
b. Outboard motor/boat.
c. Additional living expense.
d. Fine arts.

50. Which of the following is NOT true of a Condominium Corporation?

a. It buys insurance for the condominium units on behalf of their owners.
b. Its members comprise the owners of the condominium units.
c. It buys insurance for the condominium building on behalf if its owners.
d. Its by-laws are binding on all members of the Corporation.

51. The Mobile Homeowners Form

a. Provides coverage similar to that of the Homeowners Broad Form.
b. Considers all furnishings, attached to the building, as part of the building coverage rather than
the contents.
c. Covers loss or damage occurring while the building is being moved.
d. Includes collision coverage

52. Fire insurance covers against;

a. Direct loss or damage, however caused.
b. Loss or damage caused indirectly by an insured peril.
c. Loss or damage caused directly or indirectly by a hazard.
d. Loss or damage caused directly by an insured peril.

53. To what extent will a Fire Insurance policy pay for losses?
a. ACV at time of loss.
b. Interest of insured in the property.
c. The sum set opposite the applicable item on the policy.
d. Whichever is the least of a), b), or c) above.

54. Which of the following would NOT be classified as a fire in a fire insurance policy?
a. An unintentional fire at the insured’s home.
b. A fire set willfully by a third party without the insured’s consent.
c. There must be something on fire, which ought not to be on fire.
d. A heating process, which buckled a metal ornament when heat was applied to it.

55. Voluntary Property Damage would not respond to

a. Unintentional damage done by an eight year old
b. Intentional damage done by a fourteen year old
c. Intentional damage done by an eight year old
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 d. Unintentional damage done by a fourteen year old

56. A guest’s camera is accidentally damaged in the insured dwelling by the insured’s ten-year-old
son. Which section of the Homeowners policy will provide coverage?

a. Voluntary property damage.

b. Voluntary medical payment.
c. Building coverage.
d. Contents coverage.

57. Subject to policy terms and conditions, a liability policy;

a. Covers you for your intentional acts.
b. Covers you for causing third party bodily injury only.
c. Covers you for causing bodily injury or property damage.
d. Covers you if you are found legally liable for bodily injury or property damage.

58. What are the different types of professional liability insurance coverage?

a. Errors and omissions, professional liability and directors and officers liability.
b. For pain and suffering.
c. For out-of-pocket items such as medical expenses.
d. Only in those cases where loss of income is also awarded.

59. Comprehensive personal liability will cover;

a. Your operations of running a furniture-making business in your basement.
b. Injury to your baby-sitter who slips on a loose staircase carpet in a friend’s home.
c. A guest tripping on a loose step in your home and injuring herself.
d. Medical expenses when your neighbor’s children catch the chickenpox from you son.

60. A Commercial General Liability policy covers;

a. Premises and operations liability only.

b. Liability arising out of products and completed operations only.
c. Certain types of contractual liability.
d. All of the above.

61. A Farmer’s liability policy generally includes;

a. Damage to the main barn he owns.

b. Liability arising out of his farm operations only.
c. Personal liability and farmer’s liability.
d. Pollution liability.

62. Products liability covers legal liability arising out of;

a. Injury or damage caused by faulty products manufactured by the insured.
b. Fire on the insured’s premises which extends to a third party property.
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 c. Injury to persons on the insured’s manufacturing premises.
d. “Completed Operations”.

63. In Defending an insured the Commercial General Liability policy includes;

a. Legal costs as part of the policy limits.
b. Applicable interest awarded against the insured but as part of the policy limit.
c. Defence costs are usually paid in addition to this limit .
d. None of the above.

64. An aggregate limit under a Commercial General Liability policy;

a. Is the amount available for each occurrence.
b. Is the maximum total that will be paid during a policy period.
c. Is the amount available for each products liability loss.
d. Is the amount available for each completed operations liability loss.

65. An armored truck guard is picking up the daily receipt from a bank. A masked man throws him to
the ground and takes the receipts. This is an example of:
a. Theft
b. Burglary
c. Robbery/hold-up
d. Dismemberment

66. For an extra premium, certain additional coverages may be added to a Glass policy. Which of the
following cannot be insured?
a. Cost of boarding up or temporary glass
b. Damage to window sashes and showcase frames
c. Removal and replacement of fixtures where necessary to replace glass
d. Damage to items in show window

67. Which of the following statements is true?

a. A surety bond must be signed under seal by the principal and the insurance company
b. There are two parties to every surety bond
c. A surety bond is usually issued for one year or until cancelled
d. The principal is protected by a surety bond

68. Which of the following is used by contractors to cover unscheduled tools & small mobile items?
a. Installation floater
b. Contractors’ equipment floater
c. Miscellaneous small tools
d. Unscheduled tools floater

69. A plumbing sub-contractor is not covered by the General Contractor’s Policy and should obtain:
a. A Plumber’s All Risk policy
b. An Installation Floater as an addition to his Contractor’s policy
c. A Builder’s Risk policy
d. A Contractor’s equipment floater
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70. Which of the following would adequately cover accountants, Lawyers, Real Estate Agents and
others?
a. Commercial building form
b. Office equipment floater
c. Valuable papers and records
d. Commercial property floater

71. Which policy covers virtually any content at specified locations, newly acquired locations, in transit,
and in the custody of salespeople?
a. Small Retail Business Package
b. Commercial Property Form
c. Commercial Building, Equipment, and Stock Policy
d. Office Equipment Floater

72. A man of means might guarantee the honest and careful performance of another’s work in a
position of trust. This would be an example of:
a. Surety
b. Principal protection
c. Performance bond
d. Labour and material bond

73. A vehicle parked on a frozen lake while its owner is ice fishing goes through the ice. Which one (1) of
the following best describes how the OAP 1 Owners Policy with Liability, Accident Benefits, and
Comprehensive coverage will respond?
a. It will pay the claim and waive the deductible.
b. It will not pay the claim, as there is no coverage for this peril.
c. It will pay the claim less the deductible.
d. it will not pay the claim, as the automobile was not being operated on a public highway.

74. Which of the following will need a garage policy?

a. A person leaving his/her car with the garage for servicing
b. Car dealers
c. Repair garages
d. Both b & c

75. Under section 3 Third Party liability, if the named insured or other insured persons are involved in an
incident where the loss or damage is directly or indirectly caused by a nuclear hazard, which of the
following is true?
a. The Automobile policy will provide coverage as a primary policy.
b. The automobile policy provides excess coverage and will only pay after the limits of the nuclear
energy liability policy have been exhausted.
c. There is no coverage under the automobile policy if the insured does not also have a nuclear
energy hazard liability policy
d. Both (b) & (c)

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76. What is the primary goal of Accident Benefits coverage?
a. Indemnity for the insureds loss of income as a result of recovery time needed for treatment
arising from injuries out of the use or operation of a vehicle.
b. Indemnity for the insured’s family, such as survivors' benefits and funeral costs arising from a
fatality due to the use or operation of a vehicle.
c. Indemnity for home care if required as a result of the insured’s injury from the use or operation of
an automobile.
d. Indemnity for the insureds cost of medical and rehabilitative care for treatment and recovery
from injuries arising out of the use or operation of a vehicle.

77. What are some of the changes that would require the use of OPCF 25A?
a. Change of address, deletion of vehicle, addition of coverage
b. Change in rating classification, substitution, addition of spouse
c. Change in limits, deletion of vehicle, addition of a fire deductible
d. Deletion of coverage, addition of automobile, addition of underage driver

78. What endorsement is added to a policy to limit glass coverage under the comprehensive section?
a. Property Damage Reimbursement OPCF 8
b. There is no endorsement that limits glass coverage
c. Suspension of Coverage OPCF 16
d. Restricting Glass Coverage OPCF 13C

79. What is an example of an endorsement that is Restricting or Excluding Coverage?

a. OPCF 3 Government-Owned Automobiles
b. OPCF 47 Agreement Not to Rely on SABS Priority of Payment Rules
c. OPCF 4B Permission to Carry Radioactive Material
d. OPCF 16 Suspension of Coverage

80. What optional coverage protects against bodily injury and property damage resulting from an
accident involving a third party who does not carry adequate liability insurance?
a. Liability for Damage to Non-owned Vehicles
b. Underinsured Motorist Coverage
c. Uninsured Automobile Coverage
d. Additional Coverage for Named Person

81. Does the OPCF 28—Reducing Coverage for Named Persons remove third-party liability and accident
benefits coverage?
a. Third-party liability and accident benefits are eliminated for the named person under this
endorsement.
b. Accident Benefits are removed for the named person; however third-party liability still applies.
c. Third-party lability and accident benefits remain the same, regardless of the addition of this
endorsement.
d. Liability can never be reduced below the minimum limits of the province and accident benefits
do apply when an OPCF 28 has been applied.

82. Electronic accessories/equipment’s are covered under the OAP 1 Owners Policy
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 a. for the full replacement cost.
b. up to $2,500 if installed after the vehicle is purchased.
c. for the full actual cash value if factory installed.
d. for the full actual cash value.

83. The garage policy covers;

a. Owned automobiles of the business
b. Customer’s automobiles
c. Non-owned automobiles of the business
d. All of the above

84. A burning cigarette on the seat of an automobile causes $450 damage. The Specified Perils Policy has
a $300 deductible. How much will the insurer pay?
a. $0
b. $150
c. $300
d. $450

85. An automobile insurance policy is an example of what type of contract?

a. Income contract
b. Indemnity contract
c. Valued contract
d. Profit contract

86. Which of the following documents must be approved by the provincial government?
a. Applications forms
b. Policy forms
c. Endorsement forms
d. All of the above

87. Under the section “What Automobiles are covered” of the OAP1 Owners Policy, a newly acquired
automobile is automatically covered for a period of 14 days. This automatic coverage is limited to
a. Those coverages that applied to the replaced vehicle or that apply to all of the insured’s
vehicles if it is an additional automobile.
b. Private passenger vehicles only
c. A vehicle that replaces one already insured under the policy
d. Vehicles that are chiefly used for pleasure purposes

88. The peril of Rising Water is covered under which of the following coverage options?
a. All perils only.
b. Comprehensive only.
c. Comprehensive but not Specified perils.
d. All Perils, Comprehensive and Specified perils.

89. If a ship was sinking and they had to dump some of its cargo where would it fall under
a) Cargo fee
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 b) Shipping fee
c) Salvage
d) General average clause

90. Which of the following practices of insurers are considered unfair or deceptive under the definition
within the Insurance Act?
a) Classifying the person or vehicle correctly under the risk classification system used by the
insurer
b) Any conduct resulting in reasonable delay to the fair adjustment and settlement of claims
c) Making issuance or variation of a policy of automobile insurance conditional upon the
purchase by the insured of another insurance policy
d) All of the above

91. What type of automobile insurance policy provides liability coverage to a person who does not own
an automobile but requires coverage for other automobiles?
a. Excess policy
b. Lessors Contingent policy
c. Standard non-owned policy
d. Driver's policy

92. When a loss is covered by an automobile insurance policy, the insurance contract states that the
insurer is required to settle the loss within 60 days of _____________.
a. the accident date.
b. receiving the Proof of Loss.
c. an accident report being filed with police.
d. deciding to repair the damaged automobile.

93. For the OAP 1 - Loss of Use Due to Theft section, when would reimbursement end?
a. On the date the repairs or replacement is complete.
b. The date the Insurer tenders settlement.
c. Either A or B, whichever occurs first.
d. Both A & B, as settlement would only be tendered when the repairs or replacement is complete.

94. What description of Auto is given under “Described Auto”?

a) Body Type
b) Colour of the vehicle
c) List price new
d) Vehicle code

95. Complete the sentence. The Highway Victims Indemnity Fund _____________.
a. is operated by all provincial governments.
b. only pays, in most provinces, if a judgment is obtained.
c. only pays for injury claims.
d. will not pay if the claimant was totally responsible for causing the accident.

96. Insurance under OAP 1 Owners policy, Section 7, Loss or Damage Coverages, is usually subject to a
deductible. It does NOT apply to damage caused by____________________.
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 a. Windstorm
b. Explosion
c. Vandalism
d. Fire

97. What is the basic limit for non-catastrophic Medical, Rehabilitation or Attendant Care benefits?
a. $65,000
b. $1 Million
c. $36,000
d. $24,000

98. When discussing Accident Benefits provided by the OAP 1; Threshold refers to which of the
following?
a. The maximum amount that an injured person may claim from the motorist responsible for
injuries
b. Is an option that needs to be purchased to provide any coverage
c. Applies to auto insurance in all no-fault provinces
d. Defines the conditions under which an injured party can sue another motorist in Ontario

99. Accident Benefits of an automobile insurance policy does NOT provide coverage for which of the
following?
a. Dental work
b. Funerals
c. Loss of wages
d. Pain and suffering

100. Which of the following situations is covered by the All Perils coverage (Own Damage) of an OAP 1
Owners Policy?
a. Damage caused to the automobile while the driver was under the influence of drugs
b. Radioactive contamination
c. Rusting of the automobile body
d. Vandalism damage to the automobile

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