THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

The Most Authoritative Guide Ever Written on

Quantitative
(Part I)

Sandeep Gupta

By Sandeep Gupta, GMAT Perfect 800 | www.top–one–percent.com 2

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

Dear Friend,
I thank you for choosing this book. Right at the outset, I have a really bold
promise to make. If you are an extremely sincere and committed GMAT aspirant
(someone who not only wants to get into top 10 global b-schools such as
Harvard, Wharton, Stanford, Booth, MIT-Sloan, Kellogg, Columbia, LBS,
INSEAD, ISB, or IIMs, but also wants a significant scholarship, wherever
available), I assure you that you can’t find a better resource for your GMAT
preparation on the entire planet.
But I would also like to warn you at the very outset. If you are lazy, insincere, or
unambitious, or if you are someone who is looking for a quick-fix (“I want to
prepare in just one month” | “I want just a 700 kind of score” | “I just want to go to Canada or Germany,
where schools are ready to take me at 600-650”), you will not find this book or my content, my philosophies,
and my approaches helpful.
Imagine addressing a thousand serious GMAT aspirants (in an auditorium) and still being able to convince
every single person, no matter which question / concept is being discussed from the entire GMAT universe!
Such is the level of depth I envision for you.
My goal for you: I don’t want you to somehow make it to ISB and be happy about the achievement; rather,
I want the ad-com members at Harvard to fight for your selection, 8 to 1.

Here are a few facts about me:

I assure you: my
goal for you is
wayyyyyyyyyy
bigger than your
own goal for
yourself.

Content: After having scored a perfect 800 score twice and after having
taught students from 100+ nationalities for over two decades, I once again took the plunge to “STUDY” the
GMAT as a student. I subscribed to the most comprehensive contents from every major Global / Indian GMAT-
Prep Company and devoured everything they had to offer, howsoever useful / useless. I designed my contents
after having gone through the classes and contents of Manhattan, Kaplan, Princeton, E-GMAT, Magoosh, TTP,
GMAT-Club, Jamboree, CrackVerbal, Economist, Veritas, ExpertsGlobal, GMATWhiz, EmpowerGMAT, Wizako,
DominateTheGMAT, GMATCo, CJAnish, GMATwithCJ and 12 other companies. Every single useful bit from
every single GMAT-Prep company has been customized and incorporated in the content (even if I found just
ONE useful thing in a complete course, I have customized and incorporated that one thing in my books and
my courses).
In short, if YOU are an extremely sincere and ambitious student, I can get YOU a 99th percentile score.
This is an absolute PROMISE!

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 8

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

GMAT Quant Section: Top 10 Insights

+
Introduction to DS Traps

Top 10 Insights:

1. Even the highest score (Q51) means just the 97th percentile

Quant Scores Verbal Scores

From www.mba.com Annual sample size: 250,000 roughly

As you can see above, Q51 denotes the 97th percentile, which means that 3% of the test
takers (about 7500 people) every year are able to get Q51. On the other hand, V51 is so
rare that only 3 people in a year get V51 (as per a GMAC statistic). Just notice Q40 (36
percentile) versus V40 (90th percentile), and you will see the starkness of the difference
between the scales used in the two sections.

What about Q50? Well, it is the 86th percentile, which means that 14% of the GMAT
takers every year (about 35000 people every year) are able to get Q50 or 51.

• Your target score in the Quant Section can’t be lower than 50.

• Many business schools around the world are quite skeptical about even Q49.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 10

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

• At the time of placements, companies don’t like to select students whose GMAT Quant
score is lower than 50.

• Also, there are hardly any scholarships rewarded to those who have their Quant score
lower than 50.

• Q51 means you can’t make even one mistake in the questions that count.

• Q 50 means you can make up to 3 mistakes (in the questions that count), provided:

o these mistakes are not in the first 10 questions

o these mistakes are not consecutive mistakes

o you can finish the section (mark all answers till Q.31)

In a nutshell: you can’t make more than 3 mistakes in the Quant section.

The shocking difference between Q49 and Q50:

These are the score reports of two students, each of whom got a 740 score. If you
look closely, both (Q50, V38) and (Q49, V42) amount to 740. It is evident that if
there is a drop of one point in Quant (from 50 to 49), it takes 4 points in Verbal to
compensate for the difference.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 11

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

2. No calculations needed: most GMAT aspirants believe that GMAT Quant is about

faster calculations. ABSOLUTELY WRONG! Calculations play absolutely no role in the

700+ Level GMAT Quant questions; rather everything is about faster thinking (less
reaction time). “Reaction time” refers to the time you take before actually solving a
particular question. Some students immediately know what is to be done in a
particular question. On the other hand, some students have absolutely no clue as to
what is to be done, and thus they keep on staring at the question, losing precious time
and losing their mind in the process.

3. Logic is way more important than pure math; step–by–step process has

absolutely no value: not a single 700+ Level GMAT Quant question is about Math
alone; it is about the right logic. If your logic is correct, you will get the answer in a
flash. Else, you will keep on shooting in the dark; you will try something, then
something else, then something else, only to realize you have wasted 5–7 minutes.
The Math concepts tested on the GMAT are extremely (I repeat EXTREMELY) basic,
but the application of those concepts on a new problem is what the entire game is
about. ALSO, if you are someone who believes in “give me a process”, you are
DOOMED! No 700+ Level GMAT Quant question ever neatly fits into a step–by–step,
repeatable process. Students who say, “I couldn’t solve this question because I had
never seen such a question before” are doomed even before starting. Quant is about
LOGIC and LOGIC only (no matter how scrappy your approach, if your logic is correct,
you can solve any question).

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 12

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

4. Language (LINGO) can play a huge spoilsport: as you probably already know, the

GMAT is not created by ‘pure’ subject matter experts; rather it is created by

psychometricians who also happen to be subject matter experts. These people know
how the average human mind falls for TRICKS / TRAPS. For example, many of the
700+ level Quant questions are open to two interpretations: the correct one and the
wrong one. The strange part is: if you interpret the question wrongly and calculate
the wrong answer, that wrong answer is also present in the choices. You don’t go
wrong because you don’t know Math; you go wrong because you misunderstand the
language (LINGO). This can truly hurt your chances in about 25% of the questions.

• Caution: during the preparation stage, if you keep solving only EASY (500–
600–650 level content), you will be lulled into a false sense of security. The real
test is a rude shock to students who don't challenge themselves with the
absolute top–level content (760–800 range). As the GMAT is an adaptive test,
the questions become increasingly harder and reach the peak level of toughness
/ trickiness when you start to touch the 760 level. At this level, the examiner's
sole purpose is to play "mindgames" with you.

5. DS Traps – even Math champs can go wrong in extremely “simple” questions:

Data Sufficiency questions on the GMAT present a kind of challenge that is largely
unforeseen by most students. No matter how good you are at Math skills, you still may
commit the ‘stupidest’ of mistakes in the “simplest” of questions. In addition, every
single 700+ Level DS question involves a TRAP. If you fall for the trap, you end up
marking the wrong answer with extreme confidence. OUCH!

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 13

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

6. Hubris can be your biggest nemesis: Many Indian GMAT aspirants believe that they

are already good at Math skills, and hence they devote much more time preparing for
the Verbal Section. The real test is a rude shock to such ‘smarty–pants’. If you don’t
prepare specifically and thoroughly for GMAT–Quant, you are bound to mess up your
entire pacing. No matter how good you are, you can get stuck in the easiest of topics—
percentages, ratios, work (rate and time), speed and distance—topics that most
students who think they are good at Math feel won’t pose any problem at all. Also,
many students have some favorite topics and some ‘dreaded’ topics. I have heard this
from more than 100,000 students: “I am quite bad at Probability, Permutations &
Combinations, and Coordinate Geometry.” Even from those who have taken several
attempts, I hear the same grouse. My take has always been: “If, even before your first
attempt, you knew that your ‘Probability’ was weak, why didn’t you sit down with
probability for just one day and slay the fear once and for all?” If you take any GMAT
Quant topic head on, you won’t take more than 8 hours of solid effort to make it your
favorite topic.

7. Irrelevant content (for a 50/51 score): Most of the content available for GMAT

Quant (especially the Official Guide and The Official Guide Quantitative Review) is
absolute, irrelevant JUNK, worthy of the trash can (these two guides mostly contain
500–Level junk). The same goes for the content provided by every other GMAT–Prep
company on the planet: absolutely third–rate, easy, and irrelevant JUNK. If you think
of the Official materials to be the ‘be–all–and–end–all’, you will be in for a real shock
on the test day. The real GMAT at 750+ Level is so shockingly different from what all
traditional sources offer. But, on the other hand, if, from the very first day of your
preparation, you expose yourself to exclusively the 750+ Level real–GMAT content,
you won’t face any challenge on the test day. Let “750+ Level Content” become the
‘norm’ for you, not a shocking exception. So, just don’t solve any content that is Below–
700 Level.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 14

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

8. “Let me do the “BASICS” first”: learning GMAT Quant concepts from totally ‘un–

GMAT–like’ sources isn’t going to help you one bit. So, please don’t go back to your
high–school books to revise your basic Math Concepts. DISASTROUS! Even if you
finish all of your high–school level Math books, you won’t be able to solve even one
700+ Level real–GMAT question with ease and confidence. Also, don’t ‘clap’ at
someone else’s mastery of the content. Most times, I have heard the students say:
“when you explain, everything makes sense and it all seems so simple, but when I try
to solve, I am not able to do anything.” This is the attitude of the ‘clapper’, not the
‘solver’. There are no marks for understanding the solution ‘later’. Develop the solving
muscle, not the ‘clapping’ one. The solution: Don’t EVER … EVER … EVER … look up
the solutions too soon in Math. Give your ALL. You must feel in your blood and bones
that ‘even if I have 24 more hours to solve this one single problem, I won’t be able to
change my answer.’ Now is the time to look up the solution. Else, you will remain a
clapper.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 15

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

9. Pace versus pacing: In the GMAT Quant Section, you have 31 questions to be solved

in 62 min – on average, exactly 2 minutes per question. Suppose your pace is generally
good in Math, because of which you are able to solve, let’s say, 27 questions within the
time limit, but waste (without even realizing) 5–7 minutes in the remaining four
questions (interspersed throughout the section). This is absolutely HORRIBLE
pacing. The solution to this mess is: have very clear time markers: 8 questions, 16
minutes. So, at the end of 8 questions, you must have 46 minutes left; at the end of 16
questions, you must have 30 minutes left; and at the end of 24 questions, you must
have 14 minutes left; this way, you will comfortably have 14 minutes for the last 7
questions. This can’t be achieved without an exit strategy, which simply means: YOU
WILL NOT spend more than 2.5 minutes on any Quant question, no matter how ‘close’
you are to your ‘final solution’. Whether this question belongs to the first 10 or the
last 10 questions, YOU WILL NOT give spend than 2.5 minutes on any question at all.
If you can’t solve any question in 2.5 minutes, ‘sacrifice’ that one question (by marking
the most intelligent guess as your answer) and move on. Else, you are bound to face
massive challenges as you go forward. Remember! Consecutive mistakes are
penalized as severely at the end of the section as they are in the beginning.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 16

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

10. Using the right approach, every single GMAT Quant question can be solved in

less than 2 minutes: most students are stuck with the “process” they have been
following for years even if a much, much better approach is shown to them.
Remember: there is only one yardstick for a better approach: it should take less time.
If, for any reason, any ‘approach’ (that you have been following) takes more than 2
minutes, YOU MUST change your older approach. No matter how painful this might
be in the beginning, you must embrace the new approach. The questions on the GMAT
are made in such a way that, using the right approach, every single real–GMAT Quant
question can be solved in less than 2 minutes, sometimes in less than 30 seconds. If
your approach takes more than 2 minutes, YOU MUST DUMP IT. There is no merit in
being able to solve a question, eventually, taking your own sweet time!

• The Quant Section contains questions from DS and PS, all jumbled up.

• Quant section has become much, much tougher over the last few years. You
need to study at a much higher level.

• If you do well (get 50 or 51), you are likely to see many more DS and fewer PS
questions.

• Quant is about scrappy approaches, logic, identification of traps, language skills,

and quick decision–making. Calculations, standard step–by–step processes, and
formulas are not important.

• Exit strategy: Don’t spend more than 2½ minutes on any question.

• With the right approach, each GMAT Quant question can be solved in < 2
minutes.

• Most content available is absolutely irrelevant for a 50/51 score.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 17

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

Topics covered:

• General Algebra: Inequalities, Absolute Values (modulus), Number Properties,

Exponents, Polynomials, Equations, Quadratics, Functions, Standard Graphs,
Progressions, and Symbols

• Statistics: Mean, Median, Range, and Standard Deviation

• Arithmetic: Percents, Ratios, Mixtures, Work and Rate, Speed and Distance,
Overlapping Sets, Simple and Compound Interest, Population Growth, and
miscellaneous Word Problems

• Geometry: Plane figures, Solids, and Co–ordinate Geometry

• Combinatorics: Complex Counting, Permutations & Combinations, and

Probability

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 18

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

DS Traps
Data Sufficiency:

Directions: Each data sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements,
labeled (1) and (2), which contain certain data. Using these data and your knowledge of
mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of
the word counterclockwise), decide whether the data given are sufficient for answering
the question and then indicate one of the following answer choices:

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is

sufficient.

D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are not sufficient.

Note: In data sufficiency problems that ask for the value of a quantity, the data given in
the statements are sufficient only when it is possible to determine exactly one numerical
value for the quantity.

Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers (this is true of the entire Quant section,
PS and DS).

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 20

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

Figures:

(1)Figures conform to the information given in the question, but will not
necessarily conform to the additional information given in statements (1) and
(2).

(2)Lines shown as straight are straight, and lines that appear jagged are also
straight.

(3)The positions of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown, and angle
measures are greater than zero.

(4)All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 21

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

How to Avoid DS Traps – some techniques

• Simplify the question to the absolute basics… translate information as to what the question seeks
to ask. Most of the DS questions can be simplified.

• Do not assume anything. For example, if a number is not mentioned to be an integer, don’t
assume it to be so.

• In geometrical figures, do not assume that a figure is what it looks like. If it is not mentioned that
two lines are parallel, don’t assume so. If a figure looks like a square but is not mentioned to be
so, please do not assume it to be so. If an angle looks like an acute / right / obtuse, don’t assume
it to be so unless specified.

• While evaluating Statement (2), don’t “mentally” carry forward the information from Statement
(1) to Statement (2). Statement (2) is independent of Statement (1) and vice–versa.

• In “WHAT” questions, a unique numerical value is required. There should be NO AMBIGUITY.

• In “IS” or “Does” type of questions, you must get a unique YES or a unique NO. There should be
NO AMBIGUITY.

o An unambiguous “NO” is as acceptable as an unambiguous “YES”.

o Intentionally try to create a yes / no situation: don’t try to prove or disprove alone
… you should try both.

• There is no need to calculate the answer in most cases. Avoid calculations, wherever possible.

• In a “WHAT” question, if two statements are not independently sufficient, but, on combining,
result in a unique common value, then the common value will be the answer.

• The two statements never contradict each other.

• In questions involving the solving of two simultaneous equations, usually only one statement
will be sufficient.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 22

THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

DS Flowchart

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 23

 THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE GUIDE EVER WRITTEN ON GMAT QUANTITATIVE – PART I

There are two types of DS questions:

(1) Type 1: Value question:

• Questions like: “what is the value of x?” | “how many days did Jack take to
finish the work?” etc.

• In these questions, you are supposed to find a UNIQUE NUMERICAL VALUE.

• For example, for the question, “what is the value of x?”, if a particular
statement gives x = 2 or 3 (this is not unique), it will be considered
insufficient. If a particular statement gives x = a, it will be considered
insufficient as a is not a numerical value.

(2) Type 2: YES/NO questions: questions like “Is x an even number?” Or “Did
Jack pass his exam?” fall in this category.

• In these questions, any statement that gives a CONFIRMED YES or a

CONFIRMED NO will be considered sufficient, but any statement that gives
both YES and NO possibilities will be considered insufficient. So, “sometimes
yes, sometimes no” is not sufficient information.

BY SANDEEP GUPTA, GMAT PERFECT 800 | WWW.TOP–ONE–PERCENT.COM 24

 www.top-one-percent.com | [email protected] | +91-97395-61394

By Sandeep Gupta | GMAT 800/800, Harvard Final Admit

Quant Session 1
Arithmetic + Word Problems
PERCENTAGES

To express a% as a fraction divide it by 100

a % = a/100

To express a fraction as a percent multiply it by 100

a/b = [(a/b) ⨯ 100] %

To express percentage as a decimal we remove the symbol % and shift the decimal point by two
places to the left. For example

10% can be expressed as 0.1.

6.5% = 0.065 etc.

To express decimal as a percentage we shift the decimal point by two places to the right and write
the number obtained with the symbol % or simply we multiply the decimal with 100. Similarly, 0.7 =
70%.

Increase % = [ Increase / Original value] ⨯ 100%

Decrease % = [ Decrease / Original value] ⨯ 100%

Change % = [ Change / Original value] ⨯ 100%

In increase %, the denominator is smaller, whereas in decrease %, the denominator is larger.

GENERAL CONCEPTS IN PERCENTAGES:
Let’s start with a number X (= 1 X)

X increased by 10% would become X + 0.1 X = 1.1 X

X increased by 1% would become X + 0.01 X = 1.01 X
X increased by 0.1% would become X + 0.001 X = 1.001 X
X decreased by 10% would become X – 0.1 X = 0.9 X
X decreased by 1% would become X – 0.01 X = 0.99 X
X decreased by 0.1% would become X – 0.001 X = 0.999 X
X increased by 200% would become X + 2X = 3X
X decreased by 300% would become X – 3X = –2X

Also, let us remember that:

2 = 200% (or 100% increase)

3 = 300% (or 200% increase)
3.26 = 326% (means 226% increase)
Fourfold (4 times) = 400 % of original = 300% increase
10 times means 1000% of the original means 900% increase
0.6 means 60% of the original means 40% decrease
0.31 times means 31% of the original means 69% decrease etc.

1/2 = 50%

3/2 = 1 + 1/2 = 100 + 50 = 150%

5/2 = 2 + 1/2 = 200 + 50 = 250% etc.

2/3 = 1 – 1/3 = 100 – 33.33 = 66.66%

4/3 = 1 + 1/3 = 100 + 33.33 = 133.33%,

5/3 = 1 + 2/3 = 100 + 66.66 % = 166.66%

7/3 = 2 + 1/3 = 200 + 33.33 = 233.33%

8/3 = 2 + 2/3 = 200 + 66.66 = 3 – 1/3 = 300 – 33.33 = 266.66%

1/4 = 25%

3/4 = 75%

5/4 = (1 + 1/4) = 125% (= 25% increase)

7/4 = (1 + 3/4 = 2 – 1/4) = 175% (= 75% increase)

9/4 = (2 + 1/4) = 225% (= 125% increase)

11/4 = 275% = (175% increase)

1/5 = 20%

2/5 = 40%

3/5 = 60%

4/5 = 80%

6/5 = (1 + 1/5) = 120%

7/5 = (1 + 2/5) = 140% etc.

1/6 = 16.66%

5/6 = 83.33%

7/6 (1 + 1/6) = 116.66%

11/6 = 183.33%

1/8 = 12.5%

3/8 = 37.5%

5/8 = 62.5%

7/8 = 87.5%

9/8 = (1 + 1/8) = 112.5%

11/8 = (1 + 3/8) = 137.5%

13/8 = 162.5%

15/8 = 187.5%

1/9 = 11.11%

2/9 = 22.22%

4/9 = 44.44%

5/9 = 55.55%

7/9 = 77.77%

8/9 = 88.88%

10/9 = (1 + 1/9) = 111.11%

11/9 = (1 + 2/9) = 122.22% etc.

If the present population of a town is p and if there is an increase of X% per annum. Then:

(i) population after n years = p [1 + (X/100)]n

(ii) population n years ago = p / [1 + (X/100)]n

If the population of a town (or value of a machine) decreases at R% per annum, then:

(i) population (or value of machine) after n years = p [1 – (R/100)]n

(ii) population (or value of machine) n years ago = p / [1 –(R/100)]n

Profit % = (Profit /CP) x 100%

Loss % = (Loss/CP) x 100 %

In problems on DISCOUNT, remember the following:

Marked price is the price listed on the article (called list price).

Discount is calculated on Marked price and NOT on Cost price.

So, Marked Price – Discount = Sale Price. Also Cost Price + Profit = Sale Price.

Solved Examples
1. A child spends 30% of his pocket money, and has Rs 126 left. How much had he at first?

Sol.

Let the pocket money be X

70% of pocket money = 126
Or (70/100) ⨯ X = 126
X = 180 Rs.

2. When the cost of petroleum increases by 40%, a man reduces his annual consumption by 20%. Find
the percentage change in his annual expenditure on petroleum.

Sol.

Expenditure = Consumption ⨯ Price

First expenditure: Suppose 10 liters of petroleum at 10 units of money per liter, then total expenditure
= 10 ⨯ 10 units of money = 100 units of money

Second expenditure: Now, 8 liters of petroleum at 14 units of money per liter, total expenditure =
8 ⨯ 14 units of money = 112 units

So, the expenditure increases by 12%

3. The number of students in a school increases at a certain rate per cent. The number at present is 1323
and the number two years ago was 1200; find the rate per cent of the increase.

Sol.

By formula, we have 1200 ⨯ (1 + R/100)² = 1323 so R = 5%

1323 / 1200 = 441/400
(1 + R/100)2 = 1323/1200 = 441/400
Take square root
(1 + R/100) = 21/20
Subtract 1
R/100 = 1/20
So, R = 100/20 = 5%

4. A trader marks his goods at 50 percent above cost price and allows discount of 20% percent for cash
payment. What profit percent does he make?

Sol.

If the CP is 100, Marked Price = 150 But discount to the cash purchaser = 20% of Rs 150 = Rs 30

Now the reduced price he gets from the cash purchaser = 150 – 30 = 120

So, profit percent = 20%

5. A reduction of 20% in the price of apples could enable a man to get 120 more for Rs 1,440. Find the
first price of one apple.

Sol.

We have 1440 = X ⨯ Y .................(1)

X = no. of apples, Y = price of one apple.

Now 1440 = (X + 120) ⨯ 0.8Y ......(2)

Equate the two (as both are 1440)

X ⨯ Y = (X + 120) ⨯ 0.8Y

Y cancels

X = 480

Substitute X = 480 in (1) Y = Rs 3

6. A man’s working hours a day were increased by 25%, and his wages per hour were increased by 20%.
By how much percent were his daily earnings increased?

Sol.

wages per hour ⨯ number of hours = earnings

let each value be 10, so that earnings = 100

10 increased by 20% is 12
10 increased by 25% is 12.5

10 ⨯ 10 = 100

Now: 12⨯12.5 = 150 From 100 to 150 → 50% increase

OR

Let initially X = number of hours and Y = wages/hour

Later these become 1.25 X and 1.2 X respectively. Daily earnings initially = X ⨯ Y

Now Daily earnings = 1.25X ⨯ 1.2Y = 1.5 XY Hence 50% increase.

7. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 15% on the marked price. How much above the C.P. must he mark
his goods to make a profit of 19%?

Sol.

Let CP = 100, Profit = 19, SP = 100 + 19 = 119

Now marked price should be such that Marked price reduced by 15% is equal to 119

So, 85% of M.P. = 119 or MP = 119 ⨯ 100/85 = Rs 140

Answer = 40% above the C.P.

8. The production of a firm increases from 340 MT to 500 MT. What is the percent increase?

Sol. 160/340 = 8/17 = 47.05%.

9. The production of a firm decreases from 500 MT to 340 MT. What is the percent decrease?

Sol. 160/500 = 32%.

Note the answers to the above 2 questions are different.

10. The production of a firm increases by 20%, 25% and 50% in 3 successive years over the previous
year. If the production is 160 MT in the first year, find the production at the end of 3 years.

Sol. 160 × 1.2 × 1.25 × 1.5 = 360

11. The production of a firm decreases by 20% in the first year, then decreases by 25% in the next year
and then increases by 50% the next year and then increases by 10% in the next year. All percentage
changes being consecutive (over the previous year). If at the end of the changes, the value is 990 MT,
what was the value initially?

Sol. A × 0.8 × 0.75 × 1.5 × 1.1 = 990 or A = 1000

12. Which is bigger: 0.004% of 25000 or 25000% of 0.004?

Sol. Both are equal. A% of B = B % of A.

13. If price decreases by 25%, by what % should consumption increase so that the expenditure does
not increase?

Sol. Expenditure = price ⨯ consumption … assume values

100 = 100 ⨯ 1

100 = 75 ⨯ x

x = 100/75 = 4/3 = 1.33

1 becomes 1.33 → 33.33% increase

14. If speed increases by 33.33%, what is the percent reduction in the time taken to travel the same
distance?

Sol.

Distance = speed ⨯ time assume values

100 = 100 ⨯ 1
100 = 133.33 ⨯ x
x = 100/133.33 = 3/4 = 0.75
1 becomes 0.75
% decrease = 25%

15. The length of a rectangle increases by 25%. Find the percent drop in its width for area to remain
same.

Sol.

Area = L ⨯ B

100 = 1 ⨯ 100
100 = 1.25 ⨯ x
x = 100/1.25 = 80
x decreases from 100 to 80, so 20% decrease
16. If the length of a rectangle is decreased by 40% and the breadth is increased by 30%, then find the
percentage change in the area of the rectangle.

Assume values

10 ⨯ 10 = 100

6 ⨯ 13 = 78

Hence the area of the rectangle decreases by 22%

17. The edge of a cube increases by 20%. Find the % increase in its surface area and volume.

Sol.

Remember that Surface area is proportional to the square of length and the volume is proportional to
the cube of length.

Area ∝ length2

Volume ∝ length3

For area:

10 × 10 = 100

12 × 12 = 144, so area increases by 44%.

For volume

10 × 10 × 10 = 1000

12 × 12 × 12 = 1728, so 72.8% increase.

18. The side of a square decreases by 30%. Find the % decrease in its perimeter and area.

Sol. Perimeter changes by the same percent as length so 30% decrease.

For area: 10 × 10 = 100 7 × 7 = 49, so area decreases by 51%.

 Questions Based on Venn Diagrams (Overlapping Sets):
On your test, you are likely to see questions with 2 or 3 variables.

In case of 2 variables, there are a maximum of four divisions possible:

Imagine that at a B-school, applicants can choose Marketing and Finance among other specializations,
where dual major is allowed. In this case, there can be only four types of sets of people possible:

1. Students taking Marketing Only

2. Students taking Finance Only
3. Students taking both Marketing and Finance
4. Students taking neither Marketing nor Finance

These types of questions are best solved by making a 2-way-matrix (table). Just remember that if one
row has “Marketing”, the other has to have “Not Marketing”. If one column has “Finance”, the other has
to have “Not Finance”.

The table can be completed by putting all the given values in the question and thus the unknown can be
found out by simple addition / subtraction of rows / columns. In case of percentage problems (where
all values are mentioned in terms of percentage), it is better to take the total as 100.
Let us solve a practical example:

50% of the apartments in a certain building have windows and hardwood floors. 25% of the
apartments without windows have hardwood floors. If 40% of the apartments do not have hardwood
floors, what percent of the apartments with windows have hardwood floors?
10% 16.66% 40% 50% 83.33%

This problem involves two sets:

Set 1: Apartments with windows / Apartments without windows

Set 2: Apartments with hardwood floors / Apartments without hardwood floors.

It is easiest to organize two-set problems by using a matrix as follows:

Windows NO TOTAL
Windows
Hardwood
Floors
NO Hardwood
Floors
TOTAL

The problem is difficult for two reasons. First, it uses percentages instead of real numbers. Second, it
involves complicated and subtle wording.

Let's attack the first difficulty by converting all of the percentages into REAL numbers. To do this, let's
say that there are 100 total apartments in the building. This is the first number we can put into our
matrix. The absolute total is placed in the lower right-hand corner of the matrix as follows:

Windows NO TOTAL
Windows
Hardwood
Floors
NO Hardwood
Floors
TOTAL 100

Next, we will attack the complex wording by reading each piece of information separately, and
filling in the matrix accordingly.

Information: 50% of the apartments in a certain building have windows and hardwood floors.
Thus, 50 of the 100 apartments have BOTH windows and hardwood floors. This number is now
added to the matrix:

Windows NO Windows TOTAL

Hardwood Floors 50
NO Hardwood
Floors
TOTAL 100
Information: 25% of the apartments without windows have hardwood floors. Here's where
the subtlety of the wording is very important. This does NOT say that 25% of ALL the apartments
have no windows and have hardwood floors. Instead it says that OF the apartments without
windows, 25% have hardwood floors. Since we do not yet know the number of apartments without
windows, let's call this number x. Thus, the number of apartments without windows and with
hardwood floors is .25x. These figures are now added to the matrix:

Windows NO Windows TOTAL

Hardwood Floors 50 .25x
NO Hardwood
Floors
TOTAL X 100

Information: 40% of the apartments do not have hardwood floors. Thus, 40 of the 100
apartments do not have hardwood floors. This number is put in the Total box at the end of the "No
Hardwood Floors" row of the matrix:

Windows NO Windows TOTAL

Hardwood Floors 50 .25x
NO Hardwood 40
Floors
TOTAL x

Before answering the question, we must complete the matrix. To do this, fill in the numbers that
yield the given totals. First, we see that there must be 60 total apartments with Hardwood Floors
(since 60 + 40 = 100) Using this information, we can solve for x by creating an equation for the first
row of the matrix:

50 + 0.25x = 60 or x = 40

Now we put these numbers in the matrix:

Windows NO Windows TOTAL

Hardwood Floors 50 10 60
NO Hardwood 40
Floors
TOTAL 40 100

Finally, we can fill in the rest of the matrix:

Windows NO Windows TOTAL

Hardwood Floors 50 10 60
NO Hardwood 10 30 40
Floors
TOTAL 60 40 100

We now return to the question: What percent of the apartments with windows have hardwood
floors?
 Again, pay very careful attention to the subtle wording. The question does NOT ask for the
percentage of TOTAL apartments that have windows and hardwood floors. It asks what percent OF
the apartments with windows have hardwood floors. Since there are 60 apartments with windows,
and 50 of these have hardwood floors, the percentage is calculated as follows:
50/60 = 83.33%

Thus, the correct answer is E.

In case of 3 variables, there are a maximum of eight divisions possible. So,

a table will become very complicated. So, we will deal with such questions
by drawing 3 overlapping circles. Focus on the example below:

Each of the 59 members in a high school class is required to sign up for a minimum of one and a maximum
of three academic clubs. The three clubs to choose from are the poetry club, the history club, and the writing
club. A total of 22 students sign up for the poetry club, 27 students for the history club, and 28 students for
the writing club. If 6 students sign up for exactly two clubs, how many students sign up for all three clubs?
2 5 6 8 9

This is a three-set overlapping sets problem. When given three sets, a Venn diagram can be used. The
first step in constructing a Venn diagram is to identify the three sets given. In this case, we have students
signing up for the poetry club, the history club, and the writing club. The shell of the Venn diagram will
look like this:
When filling in the regions of a Venn diagram, it is important to work from inside out. If we let x
represent the number of students who sign up for all three clubs, a represent the number of students
who sign up for poetry and writing, b represent the number of students who sign up for poetry and
history, and c represent the number of students who sign up for history and writing, the Venn diagram
will look like this:

We are told that the total number of poetry club members is 22, the total number of history club
members is 27, and the total number of writing club members is 28. We can use this information to fill
in the rest of the diagram:

We can now derive an expression for the total number of students by adding up all the individual
segments of the diagram. The first bracketed item represents the students taking two or three courses.
The second bracketed item represents the number of students in only the poetry club, since it's derived
by adding in the total number of poetry students and subtracting out the poetry students in multiple
clubs. The third and fourth bracketed items represent the students in only the history or writing clubs
respectively.

59 = [a + b + c + x] + [22 – (a + b + x)] + [27 – (b + c + x)] + [28 – (a + c + x)]

59 = a + b + c + x + 22 – a – b – x + 27 – b – c – x + 28 – a – c – x
59 = 77 – 2x – a – b – c
59 = 77 – 2x – (a + b + c)

By examining the diagram, we can see that (a + b + c) represents the total number of students who sign
up for two clubs. We are told that 6 students sign up for exactly two clubs. Consequently:
59 = 77 – 2x – 6
2x = 12
x=6

So, the number of students who sign up for all three clubs is 6.

The correct answer is C.

RATIOS:
The comparison between two quantities of the same kind of unit is the Ratio of one quantity to another.

The ratio of a and b is usually written as a : b or a/b, where a is called the antecedent (numerator) and
b the consequent (denominator).

1. a : b = ka : kb where k is a constant
2. a : b = a/k : b/k
3. a : b : c = X : Y : Z is equivalent to a/X = b/Y = c/Z
4. If a/b > 1 or a > b then (a + X) / (b + X) < a/b a, b, X are natural numbers
5. If a/b < 1 or a < b then (a + X) / (b + X) > a/b a, b, X are natural numbers

VARIATION:

Direct proportion: If two quantities X & Y are related such that any increase or decrease in ‘Y’ produces
a proportionate increase or decrease in ‘X’ or vice versa, then the two quantities are said to be in direct
proportion.
In other words, X : Y = X/Y = k (a constant)
or X = KY or Y = K’X (where K and K’ are constants)

X is directly proportional to Y is written as X ∝ Y or X = K Y

Inverse proportion: Here two quantities X & Y are related such that, any increase in X would lead to a
decrease in Y or any decrease in X would lead to an increase in Y. Thus, the quantities X & Y are said to
be inversely related and X is inversely proportional to Y is written as X ∝ 1/Y or X = k/Y or XY = k
(constant) or the product of two quantities remains constant.

Solved Examples:

1. In what ratio should tea @ 35/kg be mixed with tea @ 27/kg so that mixture may cost Rs. 30/kg?

Sol.
The average cost is 30
Let x kg of tea at Rs. 35/kg be mixed with y kg of tea at Rs. 27/kg
Total amount of tea = x + y kg
Average price = Rs. 30/kg

So, 35x + 27y = 30 (x + y)

Or 5x = 3y
Or x/y = 3/5

2. Find a : b : c if 6a = 9b = 10c.

Sol.

a/b = 9/6 = 3 : 2 = 15 : 10, b/c = 10/9 = 10 : 9. Hence a : b : c = 15 : 10 : 9.

3. A’s present age is to be B’s as 8 : 5; and 20 years ago, it was as 12 : 5. Find the present age of each.

Sol.

Let the ages be 8X and 5X

(8X – 20) / (5X – 20) = 12 / 5 Solving this, we get: X = 7

A’s age = 8 X = 56 years, B’s age = 5 X = 35 years

4. An alloy contains 24% of tin by weight. How much more tin to the nearest kg must be added to
100 kg of the alloy so that the % of tin may be doubled?

Sol.

Let X kg of tin be added to the alloy.

Tin (kg) Alloy (kg)
24 100
24 + X 100 + X

Now, Tin / Total must be 48%

So, (24 + X) / (100 + X) = 48/100

So, X = 46

Hence 46 kg of tin must be added to the alloy. Ans.

5. The expenses of a hotel consist of two parts. One part varies with the number of inmates, while
the other is constant. When the number of inmates is 200 & 250, the expenses are respectively
Rs. 1300 & Rs. 1600. Then find the expenses for 300 inmates.

Sol.

Let E = K1X + K2

E stands for expenses, X for the number of inmates.

When X = 200 & E = 1300 we have [200 K1 + K2 = 1300].

When X = 250 & E = 1600 we have [250 K1 + K2 = 1600]. Solving the equations, we have

K1 = 6 & K2 = 100

So, E = 6X + 100. Now when X = 300, E = 6 x 300 + 100 = Rs 1900 Ans.

6. Two tins A and B contain mixtures of wheat and rice. In A, the weights of wheat and rice are in
the ratio 2 : 3 and in B they are in the ratio 3 : 7. What quantities must be taken from A and B to
form a mixture containing 5 kg of wheat and 11 kg of rice?

Sol.

Let X kg of mixture be taken from A, then (16 – X) kg is taken from B

So, 2X/5 kg of wheat from A and 3(16 – X)/10 kg of wheat from B is to be taken.

Equate wheat from both sides:

We have, 2X/5 + 3(16 – X)/10 = 5 or X = 2 kg Or 2 kg from A and 14 kg from B.

7. Two vessels contain mixtures of spirit and water. In the first vessel the ratio of spirit to water is
8 : 3 and in the second vessel the ratio is 5 : 1. A 35–liter cask is filled from these vessels so as to
contain a mixture of spirit and water in the ratio of 4 : 1. How many liters are taken from the first
vessel?

Sol.

Let X liters be taken from the first vessel; then (35 – X) liters are taken from the second. In the
first vessel 8/11 of the mixture, and in the second vessel 5/6 of the mixture, is spirit
So, the spirit in the 35–liter cask is 4/5 of the mixture
Equate spirit on both sides:

So, 8/11 X + 5/6 (35 – X) = 4/5 ⨯ 35 So, X = 11

So, 11 liters are taken from the first vessel Ans.

8. A bag contains $ 600 in the form of one–dollar, 50 cents & 25–cents coins in the ratio 3 : 4 : 12.
Find the number of 25 cents coins.

Sol.
Ratio of values of coins = 3/1 : 4/2 : 12/4 = 3 : 2 : 3. Value of 25 cents coins

= Rs 600 ⨯ 3/ (3 + 2 + 3) = 225. No. of 25 cents coins = 225 x 4 = 900 Ans.

Alternate method:

Assume that the number of 1 $ coins is 3X. Then the value equation would be 3 X + 4 X (0.50) +
12 X (0.25) = 600. Find X and get answer = 12 X.

9. A mixture contains milk & water in the ratio 5 : 1. on adding 5 liters of water, the ratio of milk
and water becomes 5 : 2. Find the quantity of milk in the original mixture.

Sol.
Let the quantity of milk be 5X & that of water X. Then 5X / (X + 5) = 5/2 or X = 5. So, quantity of
milk = 5X = 25 liters
10. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in a school of 546 is 4 : 3. If the number of
girls increases by 6, what must be the increase in the number of boys to make the new ratio of
boys to girls 3 : 2?

Sol.

Original no. of boys = 546 ⨯ 4/7 = 312. Original no. of girls = 78 ⨯ 3 = 234. Final no. of girls =
234 + 6 = 240 … so no. of boys reqd. to make the new ratio = 240 ⨯ 3/2 = 360 … so, the reqd.
increase in the no. of boys = 360 – 312 = 48 Ans.

11. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4. If 5 is subtracted from each, the resulting numbers are in
the ratio 2 : 3. Find the numbers.

Sol.

Let 3X and 4X be the numbers. So, (3X – 5) / (4X – 5) = 2/3 … so, 9X – 15 = 8X – 10 … or X = 5

So, the required numbers are 15 and 20 Ans.
 Work / Rate:
FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS:

• If A alone takes X hours and B alone takes Y hours to do a piece of work, and if T is the total time
taken when they work together, then we have: 1/X + 1/Y = 1/T or T = XY/(X + Y)

So, If A and B can do a piece of work in X & Y days respectively while working alone, they will
together take XY / (X + Y) days to complete it.

It is best to take the LCM of times taken to avoid using fractions in such questions.

• If A is twice as good a workman as B, then A will take half the time B takes to finish a piece of work.

Solved examples:

1. If A and B together finish a piece of work in 10 days & B alone can finish it in 20 days. In how many
days can A alone finish the work?

2. Four men working together all day, can finish a piece of work in 11 days; but two of them having
other engagements can work only one half–time and quarter time respectively. How long will it take
them to complete the work?

3. 20 men can complete a piece of work in 10 days, but after every 4 days 5 men are called off, in what
time will the work be finished?

4. A vessel can be filled by one pipe A in 10 minutes, by a second pipe B in 15 minutes. It can be emptied
by a waste pipe C in 9 minutes. In what time will the vessel be filled if all the three were turned on
at once?

5. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 15, 20 and 30 min respectively. They were all turned on at
the same time. After 5 minutes the first two pipes were turned off. In what time will the tank be
filled?

6. A tank can be filled by two taps A and B in 12 minutes and 14 minutes respectively and can be
emptied by a third in 8 minutes. If all the taps are turned on at the same moment, what part of the
tank will remain unfilled at the end of 7 minutes?
Solutions:

1. Let X and Y be the number of days required by A and B respectively. By the standard formula,

1/X + 1/Y = 1/10

Or

XY / (X + Y) = 10

Y = 20 OR X ⨯ 20 / (X + 20) = 10 or X = 20 days Ans.

2. Each man will take 11 ⨯ 4 = 44 days to complete the work. If one man works half day/day he will
take 44 ⨯ 2 = 88 days to finish the work. Similarly, a man working quarter day/day will take 44 ⨯ 4
= 176 days to finish the work. When these people work together, they will require

We have:

1/44 + 1/44 + 1/88 + 1/176 = 1/T

Or T = 16 days.

3. Total work = 20 x 10 = 200 man-days

First 4 days' work = 20 x 4 = 80 man-days
Next 4 days' work = 15 x 4 = 60 man-days
Next 4 days' work = 10 x 4 = 40 man-days
Next 4 days' work = 5 x 4 = 20 man-days

Total 200 man-days … Hence, days required = 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 = 16

4. 1/10 + 1/15 – 1/9 = 1/T or T = 18 … so the vessel will be filled in 18 minutes Ans.

5. A, B and C can fill (1/15 + 1/20 + 1/30) or 3/20 of the tank in 1 minute

A, B and C filled (3/20 x 5) or 3/4 of the tank in 5 min.

Now A and B are turned off

(1 – 3/4) or 1/4 of the tank will be filled by C

So, C will fill 1/4 of the tank in (30 x 1/4) or 7.5 minutes

So, the tank will be filled in 7.5 + 5 or 12.5 min. Ans

6. We have (7/12) + (7/14) – 7/8 = 5/24 part filled in 7 minutes. Hence 1 – 5/24 = 19/24th of the tank
is unfilled.
Time / Speed / Distance
• If A goes from X to Y at U km/hour and comes back from Y to X at V km/hour, then Average speed
during the whole journey = 2UV / (U + V) km/hr.

• If a man changes his speed in the ratio m : n then the ratio of times taken becomes n : m.

• When two objects travel in the same direction, relative speed = difference of speeds and time to
catch / overtake = lead distance / difference of speeds

SO … Time to overtake (same directions) = Gap distance / difference of speeds

• When two objects travel in the Opposite directions, relative speed = sum of speeds and time to meet
= lead distance / sum of speeds.

SO … Time to meet (opposite directions: towards each other) = Gap distance / sum of speeds

• Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

• If the speed of a boat (or man) in still water be X km/hour, and the speed of the stream (or current)
be Y km/hour, then
(a) Speed of boat with the stream (or Downstream or D/S) = (X + Y) km/hour
(b) Speed of boat against the stream (or upstream or U/S) = (X – Y) km/hour

Solved Examples:

1. A policeman goes after a thief who is 176 m ahead of him. When and where will the policeman catch
the thief when they run at the rates of 11440 and 10560 meters per hour respectively?

2. If I walk at the rate of 4 kms an hour, I reach my destination 30 min too late; If I walk at the rate of
5 kms an hour I reach 30 minutes too soon. How far is my destination?

3. A man rows 18 kms down a river in 4 hours with the stream and returns while traveling upstream
in 12 hours; find his speed and also the velocity of the stream.

4. A, B and C can walk at the rates of 3, 4, 5 kms an hour. They start from X at 1, 2, 3 o’clock respectively;
when B catches up with A, B sends him back with a message to C; when will C get the message?

5. A student walks to school at the rate of 2.5 kms an hour and reaches 6 minutes too late. Next day he
increases his speed by 2 kms an hour and then reaches there 10 minutes too soon. Find the distance
of the school from his home.

6. A man can row in still water a distance of 4 kms in 20 minutes and 4 kms with the current in 16
min. How long will it take him to row the same distance against the current?
Solutions:

1. Time to catch / overtake = lead distance / difference of speeds = 176 / (11440 – 10560) = 176 / 880
= 1/5 hours = 12 minutes … so the time required to overtake the thief = 12 min. The distance from
the starting point = 11440 ⨯ 12/60 kms = 2288 meters

2. Let time taken be T hours for the distance to be covered at the normal speed (neither fast nor slow).
Then we have 4 (T + 0.5) = 5 (T – 0.5) {Note: 0.5 here is 30 min} … so T = 4.5 hours
Distance = 4 (T + 0.5) = 4 x 5 = 20 kms.

3. Speed with the stream = 18/4 = 4.5 kms an hour. Speed against the stream = 18/12 = 1.5 kms an
hour.

x + y = 4.5
x – y = 1.5
So, x = 3 and y = 1.5

4.

A starts at 1 o clock

And B starts at 2 o clock

If I consider time 0hr when A started,

after 1 hr, A is 3 km away and B has just started. After 2 hrs, A is 6km away and B is 4km away. After 3
hr, A is 9km and B is 8km

Next are, they both meet at 12km. You can also, get this by taking the LCM of 3 and 4 that is 12km

So, after 4hr, A gets the message. So at 5 o clock, he got it. Since A started at 1 o clock.

Now, C started at 3 o clock. That means it has walked for 2 hrs. So he walked 10km. Thus now, the
distance between A and C is

12–10=2km.

Now they move in opposite directions at speed 3 and 5km/hr

Distance / sum of speeds = time to meet

2/ (5 + 3) = 2/8 = 1/4 hours = 15 min

OR

In 15 mins, A walks 3/4km and C walks 5/4km

Total, 3/4+5/4=8/4=2km

Thus they meet after 15 mins

Thus C gets the letter at 5:15.

5. Let t be the usual time

We have

2.5 ⨯ (t + 1/10) = 4.5 (t – 1/6), or t = 1/2 hours.

Hence distance = 2.5 (1/2 + 1/10) = 2.5 x 6 /10 = 1.5 kms.

6. X = 4 / (20/60) = 12, X + Y = 4 ⨯ 60 /16 = 15 or Y = 3. or Time = 4 / (X – Y) = 4 x 60 /9 = 80/3 minutes

Solved examples on translating Word Problems into equations:
1. Find two consecutive odd numbers the difference of whose squares is 296.

2. A is 29 years older than B; B is 3 years older than C and D is 2 years younger than C. Two years hence
A’s age will be twice the united ages of B, C and D. Find their present ages.

3. A number consists of three consecutive digits, that in the unit’s place being the greatest of the three.
The number formed by reversing the digits exceeds the original number by 22 times the sum of the
digit. Find the number.

(A) 234 (B) 345 (C) 456 (D) 567 (E) 678

4. The crew of a boat can row at the rate of 5 miles an hour in still water. If to row 24 miles, they take
4 times as long upstream as to row the same distance down the river, find the speed at which the
river flows.

5. The area of a rectangle remains the same if the length is increased by 7 meters and the breadth is
decreased by 3 meters. The area remains unaffected if the length is decreased by 7 m and breadth
is increased by 5 m. Find the dimensions of the rectangle.

6. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each of them
saves Rs. 200 per month, find their monthly incomes.

7. Find two consecutive even numbers such that 1/6th of the greater exceeds 1/10th of the smaller by
29.

8. A number consists of two digits whose sum is 12. The ten’s digit is three times the unit’s digit. What
is the number?

9. A train travelled a certain distance at a uniform rate. Had the speed been 6 miles an hour more, the
journey would have occupied 4 hours less; and had the speed been 6 miles an hour less, the journey
would have occupied 6 hours more. Find the distance.

10. A sum of money was divided equally among a certain number of persons; had there been six more,
each would have received a rupee less, and had there been four fewer, each would have received a
rupee more than he did; find the sum of money and the number of men.
Solutions:

1. Let the numbers be 2X + 1 and 2X + 3 Then (2X + 3)² – (2X + 1)² = 296 OR X = 36

Hence 2X + 1 = 2 x 36 + 1 = 73 and 2X + 3 = 75

The required numbers are 73 and 75.

[Verification. (75)² – (73)²= 5625 – 5329 = 296]

2. Let D’s age be = X years Then C’s age = (X + 2) years, B’s age = (X + 5) years and A’s age = (X + 34)
years. Two years hence A’s, B’s, C’s and D’s ages will be X + 36, X + 7, X + 4 and X + 2 years
respectively. So, we have: 2 (X + 2 + X + 4 + X + 7) = X + 36 OR X = 2 So, A’s age = 36 years; B’s age =
7 years, C’s age = 4 years; D’s age = 2 years.

3. Try option A
234 ... 2 + 3 + 4 = 9
432 – 234 = 198 = 22*9
All verified. So, A is correct

Detailed Solution:

Let the hundred’s digit be X. Then the ten’s digit = X + 1 and the unit’s digit = X + 2. The number =
100 x X + 10(X + 1) + X + 2 = 111X + 12. The number formed by reversing the digits = 100(X + 2) +
10(X + 1) + X = 111X + 210

We have 111X + 210 – 111X – 12 = 22 (X + 2 + X + 1 + X). So, we get, X = 2. Hence the required
number = 234.

4. Let X miles per hour be the speed of the river. Hence, on equating the times, we get:

Speed upstream = 5 – X
Speed downstream = 5 + X

Time taken upstream = Distance / speed = 24 / (5 – X)

Time taken downstream = Distance / speed = 24 / (5 + X)

24 / (5 – X) = 4 ⨯ 24/ (5 + X) OR X = 3 Thus, the river flows at the rate of 3 miles an hour.

5. (X + 7) (Y – 3) = XY or – 3X + 7Y – 21 = 0 .... (1)

(X – 7) (Y + 5) = XY or 5X – 7Y – 35 = 0 .... (2)

Solve the two simultaneous equations to get

Y = 15 and X = 28 Hence length = 28 m and breadth = 15 m Answer.

6. Let the monthly income of first person be Rs 9X and the monthly income of second person be Rs 7X.
Let the expenditure of first person be 4Y and the expenditure of second person be 3Y. Saving of the
first person = Rs (9X – 4Y) and solving of second person = Rs (7X – 3Y). Using the given information,
we have: 9X – 4Y = 200 .... (1) and 7X – 3Y = 200 .... (2) So, X = 200 … Hence, the monthly income of
first person = Rs. 9 ⨯ 200 = Rs. 1800 and the monthly income of second person = Rs. 7 ⨯ 200 = Rs.
1400 Ans.
7. Let the numbers be 2X and 2X + 2 Then (2X + 2)/6 – 2X/10 = 29. So, X = 21 Hence 2X = 430 and
2X + 2 = 432. The required numbers are 430 and 432. [Verification. 432/6 – 430/10 = 72 – 43 = 29]

8. Let the unit’s digit be X, Then the ten’s digit is 12 – X.

We have 3X = 12 – X or X = 3

Hence the number is 93. [Verification. 9 = 3 x 3; and 9 = 3 = 12]

9. Let us suppose that X miles per hour is the speed of the train and Y hours is the time taken for the
journey. Distance travelled = XY = (X + 6) (Y – 4) = (X – 6) (Y + 6)

Solve exactly like Q. 5 above

Generate two simultaneous equations. You will get: X = 30, Y = 24
Distance = XY = 720 miles Ans.

10. Let X be the number of persons and Rs Y be the share of each. Then by the conditions of the problem,
we have

(X + 6) (Y – 1) = XY .......(1)
(X – 4) (Y + 1) = XY .......(2).

Solve exactly like Q. 5 above

Generate two simultaneous equations. You will get: X = 24 and Y = 5

Thus, the number of people is X = 24 and the share of each is Y = Rs 5. The sum of money = 5 x Rs 24
= Rs 120

Questions based on compound interest / Rate of Increase

𝑹 𝒏
Compound Interest formula: 𝑨 = 𝑷 (𝟏 + 𝟏𝟎𝟎) CI = A – P.

𝑅 2𝑛
For half yearly calculation of the interest: 𝐴 = 𝑃 (1 + 200)

𝑅 4𝑛
For quarterly calculation of the interest: 𝐴 = 𝑃 (1 + 400)

In all these results: A = Final Amount, P = Principal (Initial Amount), R = Rate per annum, n = number
of years.

Population increase formula:

𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝐴𝑣𝑎𝑖𝑙𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒
𝐹𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 = 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 [𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑀𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛]𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑀𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
Solved examples:

1. Donald plans to invest x dollars in a savings account that pays interest at an annual rate of 8%
compounded quarterly. Approximately what amount is the minimum that Donald will need to invest
to earn over $100 in interest within 6 months?
$1500 $1750 $2000 $2500 $3000

2. Wes works at a science lab that conducts experiments on bacteria. The population of the bacteria
multiplies at a constant rate, and his job is to notate the population of a certain group of bacteria
each hour. At 1 p.m. on a certain day, he noted that the population was 2,000 and then he left the
lab. He returned in time to take a reading at 4 p.m., by which point the population had grown to
250,000. Now he has to fill in the missing data for 2 p.m. and 3 p.m. What was the population at 3
p.m.?
50,000 62,500 65,000 86,666 125,000

3. The population of locusts in a certain swarm doubles every two hours. If 4 hours ago there were
1,000 locusts in the swarm, in approximately how many hours will the swarm population exceed
250,000 locusts?
6 8 10 12 14

4. A scientist is studying bacteria whose cell population doubles at constant intervals. In the last 2
hours, the population has quadrupled, increasing by 3,750 cells. How many cells will the population
contain four hours from now?

Solutions:

1. The formula for calculating compound interest is A = P(1 + r/n)nt where the variables represent the
following:
A = amount of money accumulated after t years (principal + interest)
P = principal investment
r = interest rate (annual)
n = number of times per year interest is compounded
t = number of years
In this case, x represents the unknown principal, r = 8%, n = 4 since the compounding is done quarterly,
and t = .5 since the time frame in question is half a year (6 months).

r = 8% = 8/100

So, we have:

P (1 + 8/400)2

From the options: 2500 (1 + 8/400)2 = 2601 … so the interest = 101, which is close to 100.

OR … by approximation:

8% interest over half a year, however that interest is compounded, is approximately 4% interest. So, to
compute the principal, it's actually a very simple calculation:

100 = 0.04x

2500 = x

The correct answer is D.

2. If we decide to find a constant multiple by the hour, then we can say that the population was
multiplied by a certain number three times from 1 p.m. to 4 p.m.: once from 1 to 2 p.m., again from
2 to 3 p.m., and finally from 3 to 4 p.m.

Let's call the constant multiple x.

2,000(x)(x)(x) = 250,000
2,000(x3) = 250,000
x3 = 250,000/2,000 = 125
x=5

Therefore, the population gets five times bigger each hour.

At 3 p.m., there were 2,000(5)(5) = 50,000 bacteria.

The correct answer is A.

3. A population problem is best solved with a population chart that illustrates the swarm population
at each unit of time. An example of a population chart is shown below:

Time Population
4 hours ago 1,000
2 hours ago 2,000
NOW 4,000
in 2 hours 8,000
in 4 hours 16,000
in 6 hours 32,000
in 8 hours 64,000
in 10 hours 128,000
in 12 hours 256,000

As can be seen from the chart, in 12 hours the swarm population will be equal to 256,000 locusts.
Thus, we can infer that the number of locusts will exceed 250,000 in slightly less than 12 hours.

Since we are asked for an approximate value, 12 hours provides a sufficiently close approximation
and is therefore the correct answer.

OR

28 =256 (more than 250 times) so 8 intervals are needed, means 16 hours. 4 hours are already
past, so 12 more hours are needed.

The correct answer is D

4. Let x equal the population immediately after that division

4x = x + 3,750 Or 3x = 3,750 Or x = 1,250 Ans. 80,000

(2 hours earlier) 1250, 2500, 5000 (now), 10000, 20000, 40000, 80000 (4 hours from now)
 Questions to be discussed in the Class Session
Concept # 1: Overlapping Sets – 2 variables (2-way matrix approach)

1. How many attendees are at a convention if 150 of the attendees are neither female nor students,
one-sixth of the attendees are female students, two-thirds of the attendees are female, and one-
third of the attendees are students?
300 450 600 800 900

2. Of the 645 speckled trout in a certain fishery that contains only speckled and rainbow trout, the
number of males is 45 more than twice the number of females. If the ratio of female speckled
trout to male rainbow trout is 4:3 and the ratio of male rainbow trout to all trout is 3:20, how
many female rainbow trout are there?
192 195 200 205 208

3. At least 100 students at a certain high school study Japanese. If 4 percent of the students at the
school who study French also study Japanese, do more students at the school study French than
Japanese?
(1) 16 students at the school study both French and Japanese.
(2) 10 percent of the students at the school who study Japanese also study French.

A. (1) is sufficient but (2) is not

B. (2) is sufficient but (1) is not
C. (1) alone and (2) alone aren’t sufficient but (1) and (2) together are sufficient
D. Each statement alone is sufficient
E. (1) and (2) combined also are not sufficient (same directions for all DS questions)

4. One night a certain motel rented 3/4 of its rooms, including 2/3 of its air-conditioned rooms. If
3/5 of its rooms were air-conditioned, what percent of the rooms that were not rented were air-
conditioned?
(A) 20% (B) 33.33% (C) 35% (D) 40% (E) 80%

Concept # 2: Overlapping Sets – 3 variables (3 circles approach)

5. In a group of 68 students, each student is registered for at least one of three classes – History,
Math and English. Twenty-five students are registered for History, twenty-five students are
registered for Math, and thirty-four students are registered for English. If only three students
are registered for all three classes, how many students are registered for exactly two classes?
13 10 9 8 7

6. The table gives three factors to be considered when choosing an Internet service provider and
the percent of the 1,200 respondents to a survey who cited that factor as important. If 30 percent
of the respondents cited both “user-friendly” and “fast response time”, what is the maximum
possible number of respondents who cited “bargain prices,” but neither “user-friendly” nor “fast
response time?”

User-friendly 56%
Fast response time 48%
Bargain prices 42%

A. 312 B. 336 C. 360 D. 384 E. 420

 Concept # 3: Percentages – (MIND THE LANGUAGE) – these questions test more of reading
ability and less of math – read very carefully in such questions:

7. Before being simplified, the instructions for computing income tax in Country R were to add 2
percent of one's annual income to the average (arithmetic mean) of 100 units of Country R's
currency and 1 percent of one's annual income. Which of the following represents the simplified
formula for computing the income tax, in Country R's currency, for a person in that country
whose annual income is A?
50+A/200 50+3A/100 50+A/40 100+A/50 100+3A/100

8. A certain city with population of 132,000 is to be divided into 11 voting districts, and no district
is to have population that is more than 10 percent greater than the population of any other
district. What is the minimum possible population that the least population district could have?
10700 10800 10900 11000 11100

9. In May Mr. Lee's earnings were 60 percent of the Lee family's total income. In June Mr. Lee
earned 20 percent more than in May. If the rest of the family's income was the same both months,
then, in June, Mr. Lee's earnings were approximately what percent of the Lee Family's total
income? _______________________

10. Whenever Martin has a restaurant bill with an amount between $10 and $99, he calculates the
dollar amount of the tip as 2 times the tens digit of the amount of his bill. If the amount of Martin'
most recent restaurant bill was between $10 and $99, was the tip calculated by Martin on this
bill greater than 15 percent of the amount of the bill?
(1) The amount of the bill was between $15 and $30
(2) The tip calculated by Martin was $8

11. A school’s annual budget for the purchase of student computers increased by 60% this year over
last year. If the price of student computers increased by 20% this year, then the number of
computers it can purchase this year is what percent greater than the number of computers it
purchased last year?
33.33% 40% 42% 48% 60%

12. A contractor combined x tons of a gravel mixture that contained 10% gravel G, by weight, with y
tons of a mixture that contained 2% gravel G, by weight, to produce z tons of a mixture that was
5% gravel G, by weight. What is the value of x?
1. y = 10
2. z = 16

13. Henry purchased 3 items during a sale. He received a 20 percent discount of the regular price of
the most expensive item and a 10 percent discount off the regular price of the other 2 items. Was
the total amount of the 3 discounts greater than 15 percent of the sum of regular prices of the 3
items?
(1) The regular price of the most expensive item was $50, and the regular price of the next most
expensive item was $20.
(2) The regular price of the least expensive item was $15

14. State X has a sales tax rate of k percent on all purchases and State Y has a sales tax rate of n
percent on all purchases. What is the value of k − n?
1. The sales tax on a $15 purchase is 30 cents more in State X than in State Y.
2. The sales tax rate in State X is 1.4 times the sales tax rate in State Y.
 15. A novelist pays her agent 15% of the royalties she receives from her novels. She pays her
publicist 5% of the royalties, plus a yearly fee. Did the novelist pay more to her agent last year
than she paid to her publicist?
1. The publicist's yearly fee is $2,000.
2. The novelist earned an average of $3,500 in royalties last year on each of her novels.

16. The annual stockholders' report for Corporation X stated that profits were up 10 percent over
the previous year, although profits as a percent of sales were down 10 percent. Total sales for
that year were approximately what percent of sales for the previous year?
78% 90% 110% 122% 190%

17. A store bought 5 dozen lamps at $30 per dozen and sold them all at $15 per lamp. The profit on
each lamp was what percent of its selling price?
20% 50% 83% 100% 500%

18. Store N gives a 50 percent discount on the list price of all its items and Store W gives a 60 percent
discount on the list price of all its items. If the list price of the same item is 20 percent higher in
Store W, what percent (more or less) of the selling price in Store N is the selling price of the item
in Store W?
10% less 4% less 2% less 10% more 12% more

19. A merchant purchased a jacket for $60 and then determined a selling price that equaled the
purchase price of the jacket plus a markup that was 25 percent of the selling price. During a sale,
the merchant discounted the selling price by 20 percent and sold the jacket. What was the
merchant's gross profit on this sale?
$0 $3 $4 $12 $15

Concept # 4: Ratio / Equations:

20. In a demographic study, the population and total income of a certain region were estimated from
other data, and both estimates had upper and lower limits. At the time of the estimates, was the
per capita income for the region greater than $16,500?
(1) The lower limit for the estimate of the population was 330,000 people.
(2) The lower limit for the estimate of the total income was $5,500,000,000.

21. According to the directions on a can of frozen orange juice concentrate, 1 can of concentrate is
to be mixed with 3 cans of water to make orange juice. How many 12 ounce cans of the
concentrate are required to prepare 200 6-ounce servings of orange juice?
25 34 50 67 100

22. A construction company was paid a total of $500,000 for a construction project. The company’s
only costs for the project were for labor and materials. Was the company’s profit for the project
greater than 150,000?
(1) The company’s total cost was three times its cost for materials.
(2) The company’s profit was greater than its cost for labor.

23. Each employee of Company Z is an employee of either Division X or Division Y, but not both. If
each division has some part-time employees, is the ratio of the number of full-time employees to
the number of part-time employees greater for Div X than for Company Z?
(1) The ratio of the number of full-time employees to the number of part-time employees is less
for Division Y than for Company Z.
(2) More than half of the full-time employees of Company Z are employees of Div X, and more
than half of the part-time employees of Company Z are employees of Div Y
 24. Of the 60 animals on a certain farm, 2/3 are either cows or pigs. How many of the animals are
cows?
(1) The farm has more than twice as many cows as pigs
(2) The farm has more than 12 pigs

25.

A merchant paid $300 for a shipment of x identical calculators. The merchant used 2 of the calculators
as demonstrators and sold each of the others for $5 more than the average (arithmetic mean) cost of
the x calculators. If the total revenue from the sale of the calculators was $120 more than the cost of the
shipment, how many calculators were in the shipment?
A. 24
B. 25
C. 26
D. 28
E. 30

Concept # 5: Speed and Distance

Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

Time to overtake (same directions) = Gap distance / difference of speeds

Time to meet (opposite directions: towards each other) = Gap distance / sum of speeds

26. Lexy walks 5 miles from point A to point B in one hour, then bicycles back to point A along the
same route at 15 miles per hour. Ben makes the same round trip, but does so at half of Lexy’s
average speed. How many minutes does Ben spend on his round trip?
40 80 120 160 180

27. Triathlete Dan runs along a 2-mile stretch of river and then swims back along the same route. If
Dan runs at a rate of 10 miles per hour and swims at a rate of 6 miles per hour, what is his average
rate for the entire trip in miles per minute?
1/8 2/15 3/15 ¼ 3/8

28. What is the distance between Harry’s home and his office?
(1) Harry’s average speed on his commute to work this Monday was 30 miles per hour.
(2) If Harry’s average speed on his commute to work this Monday had been twice as fast, his trip
would have been 15 minutes shorter.

29. The ‘moving walkway’ is a 300-foot long conveyor belt that moves continuously at 3 feet per
second. When Bill steps on the walkway, a group of people that are also on the walkway stands
120 feet in front of him. He walks toward the group at a combined rate (including both walkway
and foot speed) of 6 feet per second, reaches the group of people, and then remains stationary
until the walkway ends. What is Bill’s average rate of movement for his trip along the moving
walkway?
2 feet per second 2.5 feet per second 3 feet per second
4 feet per second 5 feet per second
30. John and Jacob set out together on bicycle traveling at 15 and 12 miles per hour, respectively.
After 40 minutes, John stops to fix a flat tire. If it takes John one hour to fix the flat tire and Jacob
continues to ride during this time, how many hours will it take John to catch up to Jacob
assuming he resumes his ride at 15 miles per hour? (Consider John's deceleration/acceleration
before/after the flat to be negligible)
3 3.33 3½ 4 4½

31. During a 40-mile trip, Marla traveled at an average speed of x miles per hour for the first y miles
of the trip and at an average speed of 1.25x mph for the last 40-y miles of the trip. The time that
Marla took to travel the 40 miles was what percent of the time it would have taken her if she has
traveled at an average speed of x miles per hour for the entire trip?
(1) x = 48
(2) y = 20

32. If it took Carlos ½ hour to cycle from his house to the library yesterday, was the distance he
cycled greater than 6 miles?
(1) The average speed at which Carlos cycled from his house to the library yesterday was greater
than 16 feet per second.
(2) The average speed at which Carlos cycled from his house to the library yesterday was less
than 18 feet per second.

33. A hiker walking at a constant rate of 4 miles per hour is passed by a cyclist travelling in the same
direction along the same path at a constant rate of 20 miles per hour. The cyclist stops to wait
for the hiker 5 minutes after passing her while the hiker continues to walk at her constant rate.
How many minutes must the cyclist wait until the hiker catches up?
6.66 15 20 25 26.66

34. A boat traveled upstream a distance of 90 miles at an average speed of (v-3) miles per hour and
then traveled the same distance downstream at an average speed of (v+3) miles per hour. If the
trip upstream took half an hour longer than the trip downstream, how many hours did it take
the boat to travel downstream?
A. 2.5 B. 2.4 C. 2.3 D. 2.2 E. 2.1

35. The table shows the car rental charges at Thrifty Agency. The daily rate applies for each day or
fraction of a day in excess of any multiple of a 7-day week, up to the charge per week. If Olga
rented a car of one of the types indicated, which type was it?

1. Olga's total rental charge, based only on the rates specified, was $184.
2. Olga rented the car for 10 days.
36.
A certain truck traveling at 55 miles per hour gets 4.5 miles per gallon of diesel fuel consumed. Traveling
at 60 miles per hour, the truck gets only 3.5 miles per gallon. On a 500-mile trip, if the truck used a total
of 120 gallons of diesel fuel and traveled part of the trip at 55 miles per hour and the rest at 60 miles
per hour, how many miles did it travel at 55 miles per hour?
A. 140
B. 200
C. 250
D. 300
E. 360

37.
A car traveled 462 miles per tankful of gasoline on the highway and 336 miles per tankful of gasoline in
the city. If the car traveled 6 fewer miles per gallon in the city than on the highway, how many miles per
gallon did the car travel in the city?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 21
(D) 22
(E) 27

38.
When a certain stretch of highway was rebuilt and straightened, the distance along the stretch was
decreased by 20 percent and the speed limit was increased by 25 percent. By what percent was the
driving time along this stretch reduced for a person who always drives at the speed limit?
16%
36%
37%
45%
56%

Concept # 6: Work:

If A alone takes X hours and B alone takes Y hours to do a piece of work, and if Z is the total time
taken when they work together, then we have: 1/X + 1/Y = 1/Z or Z = XY/(X + Y)

A’s contribution = Y/(X + Y) B’s contribution = X/(X + Y)

It is best to take the LCM of times taken to avoid using fractions in such questions.

39. Machine A and Machine B can produce 1 widget in 3 hours working together at their respective
constant rates. If Machine A's speed were doubled, the two machines could produce 1 widget in
2 hours working together at their respective rates. How many hours does it currently take
Machine A to produce 1 widget on its own?
½ 2 3 5 6

40. Tom, working alone, can paint a room in 6 hours. Peter and John, working independently, can
paint the same room in 3 hours and 2 hours, respectively. Tom starts painting the room and
works on his own for one hour. He is then joined by Peter and they work together for an hour.
Finally, John joins them and the three of them work together to finish the room, each one working
at his respective rate. What fraction of the whole job was done by Peter?
1/9 1/6 1/3 7/18 4/9
 41. Machine A can fill an order of widgets in a hours. Machine B can fill the same order of widgets in
b hours. Machines A and B begin to fill an order of widgets at noon, working together at their
respective rates. If a and b are even integers, is Machine A's rate the same as that of Machine B?
(1) Machines A and B finish the order at exactly 4:48 p.m.
(2) (a + b)2 = 400

42. Six machines, each working at the same constant rate, together can complete a certain job in 12
days. How many additional machines, each working at the same constant rate, will be needed to
complete the job in 8 days?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 E) 7

43. Pumps A, B and C operate at their respective constant rates. Pumps A and B, simultaneously, can
fill a certain tank in 6/5 hours. Pump A and C, operating simultaneously, can fill the tank in 3/2
hours; and pumps B and C, operating simultaneously, can fill the tank in 2 hours. How many
hours does it take pumps A, B, and C, operating simultaneously, to fill the tank?
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 5/6 (E) 1

44. In the first 2 hours after Meadow's self-service laundry opens, m large washing machines and n
small washing machines are in continual use. Including the time for filling and emptying the
washing machines, each load of laundry takes 30 minutes in a large washing machine and 20
minutes in a small washing machine. What is the total number of loads of laundry done at
Meadow's self-service laundry during this 2-hour period?
1. n = 3m
2. 2m + 3n = 55

45.

𝑹 𝒏
Concept # 7: Compound Interest formula: 𝑨 = 𝑷 (𝟏 + 𝟏𝟎𝟎) CI = A – P.

𝑅 2𝑛
For half yearly calculation of the interest: 𝐴 = 𝑃 (1 + 200)

𝑅 4𝑛
For quarterly calculation of the interest: 𝐴 = 𝑃 (1 + 400)

In all these results: A = Final Amount, P = Principal (Initial Amount), R = Rate per annum, n = number
of years.
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝐴𝑣𝑎𝑖𝑙𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒
𝐹𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 = 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 [𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑀𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛]𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑀𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
46.
A certain investment grows at an annual interest rate of 8%, compounded quarterly. Which of the
following equations can be solved to find the number of years, x, that it would take for the investment
to become 16 times its original value?
16 = (1.02)x/4 2 = (1.02)x 16 = (1.08)4x 2 = (1.02)x/4 1/16 = (1.02)4x

47.
An investor purchased a share of non-dividend-paying stock for p dollars on Monday. For a certain
number of days, the value of the share increased by r percent per day. After this period of constant
increase, the value of the share decreased the next day by q dollars and the investor decided to sell the
share at the end of that day for v dollars, which was the value of the share at that time. How many
 v+q 
working days after the investor bought the share was the share sold, if r = 100 − 1 ?
 p 
2 3 4 5 6

48.
The number of antelope in a certain herd increases every year at a constant rate. If there are 500
antelope in the herd today, how many years will it take for the number of antelope to double?
(1) Ten years from now, there will be more than ten times the current number of antelope in the herd.
(2) If the herd were to grow in number at twice its current rate, there would be 980 antelope in the
group in two years.

49.
If a certain culture of bacteria increases by a factor of x every y minutes, how long will it take for the
culture to increase to ten-thousand times its original amount?
𝑦
(1) √𝑥 = 10
(2) In two minutes, the culture will increase to one-hundred times its original amount.

50.
An investment has been growing at a fixed annual rate of 20% since it was first made; no portion of the
investment has been withdrawn, and all interest has been reinvested. How much is the investment now
worth?
1. The value of the investment has increased by 44% since it was first made.
2. If one year ago $600 had been withdrawn, today the investment would be worth 12% less than it is
actually now worth.
SOLUTIONS

1.

For an overlapping set problem, we can use a double-set matrix to organize our information and solve. Let's
call P the number of people at the convention. The boldface entries in the matrix below were given in the
question. For example, we are told that one sixth of the attendees are female students, so we put a value of
P/6 in the female students’ cell

NOT
FEMALE TOTALS
FEMALE
STUDENTS P/6 P/6 P/3
NON-
P/2 150 2P/3
STUDENTS
TOTALS 2P/3 P/3 P

The non-boldfaced entries can be derived using simple equations that involve the numbers in one of the
"total" cells. Let's look at the "Female" column as an example. Since we know the number of female students
(P/6) and we know the total number of females (2P/3), we can set up an equation to find the value of female
non-students:

P/6 + Female Non-Students = 2P/3.

Solving this equation yields: Female Non-Students = 2P/3 – P/6 = P/2.

By solving the equation derived from the "NOT FEMALE" column, we can determine a value for P.
P/6 + 150 = P/3 so P = 900
The correct answer is E.

2.

This question involves overlapping sets so we can employ a double-set matrix to help us. The two sets are
speckled/rainbow and male/female. We can fill in 645 for the total number of total speckled trout based on
the first sentence. Also, we can assign a variable, x, for female speckled trout and the expression 2x + 45 for
male speckled trout, also based on the first sentence.

Male Female Total

Speckled 2x + 45 x 645
Rainbow
Total

We can solve for x with the following equation: 3x + 45 = 645. Therefore, x = 200.
 Male Female Total
Speckled 445 200 645

Rainbow

Total

If the ratio of female speckled trout to male rainbow trout is 4:3, then there must be 150 male
rainbow trout. We can easily solve for this with the below proportion where y represents male
rainbow trout:

4/3 = 200/y

Therefore, y = 150. Also, if the ratio of male rainbow trout to all trout is 3:20, then there must be
1000 total trout using the below proportion, where z represents all trout:

3/20 = 150/z or z = 1000

Male Female Total

Speckled 445 200 645

Rainbow 150

Total 1000

Now we can just fill in the empty boxes to get the number of female rainbow trout.

Male Female Total

Speckled 445 200 645

Rainbow 150 205 355

Total 1000

The correct answer is D.

3. B

(1) taking this statement in combination with the 4% statistic cited in the prompt, we have that 16 = 4% of
the total number of students studying French. this means that 400 students are studying French. All we
know is that 'at least 100' are studying Japanese; that figure could be greater than, equal to, or less than
400, so, insufficient.
(2) Let 'Q' stand for the number of students who study BOTH French and Japanese.
we have no idea of the size of 'Q', BUT:
 Q is 4% of the number of students studying French (as stated in the prompt)
Q is 10% of the number of students studying Japanese
4% of F = 10% of J
Or (4/100) * F = (10 / 100) * F or F/J = 5/2 or F > J
Sufficient answer = B

4.
If there are 100 rooms total, then the motel rented 75 rooms. this means that 25 of the rooms were not rented.
Also, 3/5 of 100, or 60, rooms have aircon; the motel rented 2/3 of these, or 40, rooms. This means that 20 rooms
with aircon weren't rented.
20 out of 25 = 80%.

AC NON-AC Total
Rented 40 35 75
Not rented 20 5 25
Total 60 40 100

5.
For an overlapping set problem with three subsets, we can use a Venn diagram to solve.

Each circle represents the number of students enrolled in the History, English and Math classes, respectively.
Notice that each circle is subdivided into different groups of students. Groups a, e, and f are comprised of
students taking only 1 class. Groups b, c, and d are comprised of students taking 2 classes. In addition, the
diagram shows us that 3 students are taking all 3 classes. We can use the diagram and the information in the
question to write several equations:
History students: a + b + c + 3 = 25
Math students: e + b + d + 3 = 25
English students: f + c + d + 3 = 34
TOTAL students: a + e + f + b + c + d + 3 = 68
 The question asks for the total number of students taking exactly 2 classes. This can be represented as
b + c + d.
If we sum the first 3 equations (History, Math and English) we get:
a + e + f + 2b +2c +2d + 9 = 84.
Taking this equation and subtracting the 4th equation (Total students) yields the following:
a + e + f + 2b + 2c +2d + 9 = 84
–[a + e + f + b + c + d + 3 = 68]
b + c + d = 10
The correct answer is B.
6.

Red represents the 56 UFs, yellow represents the 48 FRTs. Since, 30 are both UFs & FRTs, 56 – 30 = 26 are UFs
who are not FRTs and 48 – 30 = 18 are FRTs who are not UFs. Hence, UFs and FRTs together contain 26 + 30 +
18 = 74, and we’ve yet not considered about the 42 green BPs. Number of respondents who cited BPs but neither
UFs nor FRTs are 100 – 74 = 26 only. Now take 26% of 1200 = 312 as the answer.
7. C

8. D

We want to minimize the lowest possible quantity. For this we need to maximize all the others, however, we are
limited by the question which tells us the greatest qty can only be 10% greater than the minimum one. So if the
minimum value is x, the maximum value is 1.1x
Now, here's the trick, and this may not occur to many people – if you want to minimize this lowest qty, the only
way to do this is to set ALL the other 10 to the maximum value. This is because those 10 cannot take a value more
than that, and any value below that would lead to a higher value of the minimum one.
So: x + 10*1.1x = 132000 => 12x = 132000 => x = 11000

9.
Let total income of the family be 100$. In May Mr. Lee's earnings were 60 percent = 60$. Rest of the family's
earnings = 40$. In June family's earnings did not change = 40$, Mr. Lee's earnings = 60$*1.2 = 72$. Total = 40 +
72 = 112$. Mr. Lees share =

Answer: A.
10.
(1) The amount of the bill was between $15 and $50 --> 15<bill<50. Now if the bill was 20$ then the tip would
be 2*2=$4 (2 times tens digit) so more than 0.15*20=$3 (15% of the bill) but if the bill was 29$ then the tip would
still be 2*2=$4 but in this case less than 0.15*29=~$4.5. Not sufficient.
(2) The tip calculated by the martin was $8 --> Tip=$8 means that: 40<=bill<50 (so that the tens digit of the bill
to be 4). Now, even if the bill was exactly $50 (uppert limit), 15% of it would be 0.15*50=$7.5 and it's still less
than $8. So the answer to the question is YES: the tip (8$) was greater than 15% of the bill. Sufficient.
Answer: B.
For 1, the tip for a $15 bill will be $2, which is less than $15*15%=2.25; the tip for a $20 will be $4, which is
greater than $15*15%=2.25. Insufficient.
For 2, tips are $8, means the tens digit of the bill is 4, and the largest possible value of the bill is $49.
$8>49*15%=7.35. Sufficient alone.
11.

Pick numbers.

Last year: budget = $100, price = $1 --> the number of computers purchased = 100/1 = 100;

This year: budget = $160, price = $1.2 --> the number of computers purchased = 160/1.2 = ~133.33.

Increase in the number of computers purchased = 33.33%.

Answer: A.

12.

13.
14.

OR
15. E
Take a small amount and a large amount and check
(1) The publicist's yearly fee is $2,000.
Let her royalties be 1000 then agent gets 150 and Publicist get 2000 + 5% of 1000 so obviously Publicist gets
more
Let her royalties be 100,000 then agent gets 15000 and publicist gets 5000 + 2000= 7000, here agent gets more
Hence Insufficient.
(2) The novelist earned an average of $3,500 in royalties last year on each of her novels.
We have no idea of the yearly fees of the Publicist hence Insufficient.
Taking 1+2 together
Let there be 1 novel then agent gets 525 and Publicist gets 2000 + 5% of 3500, obviously Publicist gets more.
let there be 1000 Novels then total Royalties 350000, so agent gets 52500 and Publicist gets 17500+2000
=19500, so here agent gets more
Hence Insufficient.
Ans- E

OR
Let R be her royalties and let x be the yearly fee of her publicist. The original question:
Is 0.15R > 0.05R + x
0.1R > x
R > 10x?
1) We know that x=2000 and can use this statement information to further rephrase the original question.
Is R > 20000?
Clearly, we can't get a definite answer to the further rephrased question. ⟹ Insufficient
2) Let n be the number of her novels. We know that R=3500n and can use this statement information to further
rephrase the original question.
Is 3500n > 10x?
Clearly, we can't get a definite answer to the further rephrased question. ⟹ Insufficient
1&2) Using all statement information, we can further rephrase the original question.
Is 3500n > 20000?
Clearly, we can't get a definite answer to the further rephrased question. ⟹ Insufficient
Answer: E
16. D

17.
Since the cost of each lamp is 30/12 = $2.50 and the revenue (or selling price) of each lamp is $15, the profit of
each lamp is 15 - 2.50 = $12.50. Therefore, the profit of each lamp is:
12.5/15 x 100 = 5/6 x 100 = 83⅓ percent of the selling price.
OR
Cost per lamp = 30/12 = $2.50
Sale price = $15
Profit per lamp = $12.50
12.50 / 15 = 83.33%
Answer is C.

18. B
Selling price N = 100
Selling price W = 120
Discounted price N = 50
Discounted price W = 0.4 * 120 = 48
Percent difference in price at w compared to N = 2/50* 100 = 4% less
19.

20.
Each statement alone is clearly not enough... we are trying to determine if
Income/population > 16,500 so we need to have values for the numerator and the denominator. So, it's either C
or E.
(1&2) Suppose we start with the fraction $5.5B/330K. This is greater than $16,500. However, the given values
are both lower limits. If we increase the numerator while keeping the denominator constant, income per capita
will certainly increase. If, instead, we increase the denominator, the income per capita will decrease. A slightly
larger value for the population would bring it down below $16,500. Not knowing what the upper limit for the
population is what makes it insufficient. Answer is E.

21. A
26.
(1) alone:
since total cost = L + M, this means that L + M = 3M, or L = 2M.
so, rephrased, statement 1 says that labor cost twice as much as materials.
Still, this is insufficient, as picking values will show: if M = $1 and L = $2, the answer is yes, but if M = $150,000
and L = $300,000, the answer is no.
(2) alone:
No information at all about materials. so, if L = M = $1, then yes; if L = $1 and M = $499,997
(So that profit = $2), then no.
Insufficient

Together:
We have
P>L
Which, using the rephrasing found above, rephrases to
P > 2M
also,
P = 500,000 - 3M (because total cost = 3M)
So

500,000 - 3M > 2M
500,000 > 5M
100,000 > M
Since M is less than 100,000, it follows that profit, which is 500,000 - 3M, must be more than 500,000 - 3(100,000)
= 200,000.
Answer = yes

Sufficient

The whole point of statement (1) is that you have no actual dollar value for the total cost. if you had a concrete
dollar value - any dollar value, regardless of the actual amount - you'd be able to calculate the profit.
Ans. C
23.
(1)
Remember that ratios are the same as fractions in this sort of context.
this statement means that the FT employees are a smaller fraction of division Y than of the company as a whole.
this means that they must be a bigger fraction of division X than of the company as a whole, because the fraction
of the whole company that's employed FT must be between the two divisions' fractions.
Sufficient.

(Analogy: if i mix two powders together to make a shake that's 5% fat, and the first powder is 3% fat, then the
second powder must be more than 5% fat)
(2)
The first part means that (FT in div. X) > (FT in div. Y), and the second part means that (PT in div. X) < (PT in div.
Y).
Therefore, considering the ratio of FT : PT for each division, we have that FT/PT for div. X must be greater than
FT/PT for div. Y. (this is the case because of either the numerator or the denominator: the numerator of X is
greater, and the denominator is smaller.)
since the FT/PT fraction is bigger for div. X than for div. Y, it must be bigger for div. X than for the company as a
whole (see the reasoning above under statement (1) for why this is true).
Sufficient. Ans. D

24.

OR

Answer is C, both statements together are sufficient.

The statement "2/3 are either cows or pigs" doesn't mean that there are either 40 cows or 40 pigs. it means
that, if you take the cows and the pigs together, they constitute 2/3 of the animals on the farm.
in other words, cows + pigs = 40.
(1)
This means that there are at least 27 cows (because 27 cows, 13 pigs is the least # of cows satisfying this
criterion).
That's all we know, though; there could be anywhere between 27 cows (and therefore 13 pigs) and 40 cows (and
therefore 0 pigs).
Insufficient

(2)
This means that there are at least 13 pigs, which means that there are at most 27 cows.
That's all we know. Insufficient
(together)
(1) says there are at least 27 cows; (2) says there are at most 27 cows.
so, there are 27 cows and 13 pigs.
Sufficient Answer = c

25.

26.
27.
time to run = 1/5 hr = 12 minutes
time to swim = 1/3 hr = 20 minutes
average rate = total distance / total time
= 4 miles / 20+12 = 4/32 = 1/8 mile per minute

28.
Distance between home and office = d
I) Speed s= 30mph.
No other info provided, hence Insufficient
II) Original Speed = s
Original Time = t
New Speed = 2s
New Time = (t-0.25) [15 mins = 0.25hrs)
Distance is same, hence
s*t = 2s(t-0.25)
Solving results in t=0.5 hrs.
No info about speed hence, Insufficient.
I & II
s= 30mph
t= 0.5hrs
d= s*t => 15miles. Ans: C

29.
Using relative speed concepts:
Bill covers 120 feet at a relative speed of 6 - 3 = 3 feet/sec. Time taken to cover 120 feet = 120/3 = 40 sec
Distance covered in 40 secs = 6*40 = 240 feet
So now he just has 300 - 240 = 60 feet leftover to cover at 3 feet/sec
Time taken to cover 60 feet = 60/3 = 20 sec
Average Speed = Total Distance/Total Time = 300/(40 + 20) = 5 feet/sec
Answer (E)
30.

John's speed = 15 miles/hr Jacob's speed = 12 miles/hr

After 40min (2/3hr), distance covered by John = 15 * 2/3 = 10 miles.

Jacob continues to ride for a total of 1hour and 40 min (until John's bike is repaired). Distance covered
in 1 hour and 40min = 100 min = 100/60 hours = 5/3 hrs

= 12 * 5/3 = 20 miles.

Now, when John starts riding back, the distance between them is 10 miles. Jacob and John are moving
in the same direction. For John to catch Jacob, the effective relative speed will be 15 – 12 = 3 miles/hr.

Thus, to cover 10 miles at 3 miles/hr, John will take 10/3 = 3.33 hours

31. B

32.
1 mile = 1760 yards
1 yard = 3 feet
So, 1 mile = 1760 * 3 = 5280 feet
So, 6 miles per hour converted to feet per second will be
(6 * 1760 * 3) / (30 * 60) = 17.6 feet per second
So, the question becomes: is r > 17.6 ft/sec?
(1) Says r > 16 ft/sec. This is insufficient. r could be less than or greater than 17.6.
(2) says r < 18 ft/sec. This is also insufficient. r could be either less than or greater than 17.6.
Putting (1) and (2) together, 16 < r < 18. We still do not know for sure that r > 17.6. The answer is (E).

33.
The cyclist is relatively 4 times faster. So, in 5 minutes, he has taken the lead for 20 minutes relative to the Hiker.
So, the hiker has to wait for 20 minutes.
Hiker's speed : Cyclist's speed = 4 : 20 = 1 : 5
To cover the same distance, Time taken by Hiker : Time taken by Cyclist = 5 : 1
(If distance is same, speed is inversely proportional to time)
If cyclist took 5 mins, Hiker will take 25 mins. So she will need another 20 mins. (When cyclist was covering the
distance in 5 mins, the Hiker was also walking for those 5 mins)

34.
35.
Total number of days= 7n+x
Total Rent= n*charge per week+ x*charge per day

Statement 1-
Total rental charge=184

Case 1- If Olga rented Economy

100+28x=184
x=3
Olga could rent Economy

Case 2- If Olga rented Compact

120+30x=184
x=64/30 (not an integer)
Olga couldn't rent Compact

Case 3- If Olga rented Midsize

140+32x=184
x=44/30 (not an integer)
Olga couldn't rent Midsize

Case 4- If Olga rented Standard

160+34x=184
x=24/34 (not an integer)
Olga couldn't rent Standard

Case 5- If Olga rented Luxury

39x=184
x=184/39 (not an integer)
Olga couldn't rent Luxury

Olga rented Economy

Sufficient
Statement 2-
Statement 2 just provides total number of days; Hence, it could be any car that Olga rented.
Insufficient

OR

36.
Let the truck used X gallons of fuel travelling at 55 mph, then it used (120-X) gallons of fuel travelling at 60 mph.
So, in X gallons of fuel travelling at an economy of 4.5 miles per gallon it traveled 4.5X miles, and in (120-X)
gallons of fuel travelling at an economy of 3.5 miles per gallon it traveled 3.5(120-X) miles.
Since the total Distance traveled is 500 miles, the equation becomes:
4.5X + 3.5(120-X) = 500
Solving for X, it comes to 80.
So, distance traveled at a speed of 55mph = 4.5*80 =>360 miles.
OR
37.
The car burns a tankful of gas on the highway and a tankful of gas in the city.
So, we can start with this WORD EQUATION: (volume of gas used on the highway) = (volume of gas used in the
city)
Key formula: gallons of gas used = (distance traveled)/(rate of miles traveled per gallon)
So, the word equation becomes: (distance traveled on highway)/(highway fuel consumption rate) = (distance
traveled in city)/(city fuel consumption rate))
Let x = the rate of fuel consumption in the city (in miles per gallon)
So x+6 = the rate of fuel consumption on highway (in miles per gallon)
The car traveled 462 miles on the highway and 336 miles in the city.
Plug the values into the equation to get to get: 462/x+6 = 336/x
Cross multiply to get: 462x = 336(x + 6)
Expand to get: 462x = 336x + 2016
Subtract 336x from both sides to get: 126x = 2016
Solve: x = 2016/126 = 16
Answer: B

OR
The car traveled additional 462-336=126 miles on highway because it got 6 miles/gallon additional mileage. So
it consumed 126/6=21 gallons.
The mileage in city = 336/21 = 16 miles/gallon (same amount of gallons are were used on highway and in the
city)
OR
38. B
Let the initial distance and speed be 100
—> Initial time = distance/speed = 100/100 = 1
Final distance = 80
Final speed = 125
—> Final time = 80/125 = 0.64
So, decreased by 36%

39.
Let a be the number of hours it takes Machine A to produce 1 widget on its own. Let b be the number of hours it
takes Machine B to produce 1 widget on its own.
1/a + 1/b = 1/3 widgets.
If Machine A's speed were doubled it would take the two machines 2 hours to produce 1 widget. When one
doubles the speed, one cuts the amount of time it takes in half. Therefore, the amount of time it would take
Machine A to produce 1 widget would be a/2. Under these new conditions, in 1 hour Machine A and B could
produce 1/(a/2) + 1/b = 1/2 widgets.

The two equations:

2/a + 1/b = 1/2 (Remember, 1/(a/2) = 2/a)
1/a + 1/b = 1/3
Subtract the bottom equation from the top:
2/a – 1/a = 1/2 – 1/3
1/a = 3/6 – 2/6
1/a = 1/6
Therefore, a = 6. The correct answer is E.
40.

OR
Let's use smart numbers here --> Work=18
Rate * Time = Work
Tom: 3 x 6 = 18
Peter: 6 x 3 = 18
John: 9 x 2 = 18
Before John joined Tom and Peter: Tom worked 2 Hours -> 2*3=6 and Peter 1*6=6 gives us 12. So we are left
with 18-12=6 for all three of them --> (3+6+9)*t=6, thus t=1/3 this means that Peter worked 2+1/3 Hours =
6+2=8 --> 8/18=4/9
41.
4 hours 48 min = 4 + 48/60 hours = 24/5 hours
So, we have 1/a + 1/b = 1/ (24/5)
Or ab / (a + b) = 24/5
The question stem tells us that a and b are both even integers. We are then asked whether a and b are equal. If
they are equal, we can express each as 2z, where z is a non-zero integer, because they are even. If we replace a
and b with 2z in the combined rate, we get:

So, if a and b are equal, the combined rate of Machines A and B must be an integer (since z is an integer). We can
rephrase the question as:
Is the combined rate of Machines A and B an integer?
Statement 1 tells us that it took 4 hours and 48 minutes for the two machines to fill the order (remember, they
began at noon). This shows that the combined rate of Machines A and B is NOT an integer (otherwise, it would
have taken the machines a whole number of hours to complete the order). So, we know that a and b cannot be
the same. Confirmed NO answer … Sufficient.
Statement 2 tells us that a + b = 20. So, it is possible that a = 10 and that b = 10, which would allow us to answer
"yes" to the question. But it is also possible that a = 12 and b = 8 (or any other combination of positive even
integers that sum to 20), which would give us a "no". Insufficient.
The correct answer is A: Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not.

42.
Answer is B.
Equate total work (in machine days)
6 * 12 = (6 + x) * 8 so x = 3.

43.
Correct answer: (E)
1/a + 1/b + 1/c = 1/T
We want T
1/a + 1/b = 1/ (6/5) = 5/6
1/a + 1/c = 1/ (3/2) = 2/3
1/b + 1/c = 1/2

Adding
2(1/a + 1/b + 1/c) = 2
Or
1/a + 1/b + 1/c = 1
1/T = 1, so T = 1

44. B
We can deduce that each large machine did 4 loads, and each small machine did 6 loads during the two hours. So,
the question is what is the value of 4m + 6n?
From statement (1), the ratio between the large and small machines are given, but this can't provide the exact
numerical --> insufficient
From statement (2), if 2m + 3n = 55, then 4m+6n=110 --> sufficient
45. A
Let the total work be 18 units. So, the rate of X is 2 units / hour. Work done by Machine X in 3 hours = 2 * 3 = 6.
Amount of Work left = 18 – 6 = 12. Now, work done by both the machines in 4 hours to complete the work
= (2 + y) x 4; where 'y' is the rate of Machine Y.
Therefore, 12 = (2 + y) * 4 or y=1
Hence, time taken by Machine Y to complete the work = 18 / 1 = 18

46.

Compound interest is computed using the following formula:

F = P (1 + r/n) nt, where
F = Final value
P = Principal
r = annual interest rate
n = number of compounding periods per year
t = number of years

From the question, we can deduce the following information about the growth during this period:

At the end of the x years, the final value, F, will be equal to 16 times the principal (the money is growing
by a factor of 16).
Therefore, F = 16P.
r = 0.08 (8% annual interest rate)
n = 4 (compounded quarterly)
t = x (the question is asking us to express the time in terms of x number of years)

We can write the equation

16P = P (1 + 0.08/4)4x
16 = (1.02)4x

Now we can take the fourth root of both sides of the equation. (i.e., the equivalent of taking the square
root twice) We will only consider the positive root because a negative 2 doesn't make sense here.
161/4 = [(1.02)4x]1/4
2 = (1.02)x

The correct answer is B.

47.

The exponent 2 corresponds to the x in the formula, which is the number of compounding periods. By
comparing the simplified equation to the compound interest formula, we see that the equation tells us
that the share rose at the daily interest rate of p percent for TWO days. Then the share lost a value of q
dollars on the third day, i.e., the “– q” portion of the expression. If the investor bought the share on
Monday, she sold it three days later on Thursday. The correct answer is B.
48.

49.

Let’s say:
I = the original number of bacteria
F = the final number of bacteria
t = the time bacteria grow
If the bacteria increase by a factor of x every y hours, we can represent the growth of the bacteria with
the equation:
F = I(x)t/y

The n represents the number of growth periods. The number of growth periods is found by dividing
the time, t, by the amount of time it takes to complete a period, y.

From this example, we can extrapolate the general formula for exponential growth:

F = I(x)t/y
This question asks us how long it will take for the bacteria to grow to 10,000 times their original
amount.

The bacteria will have grown to 10,000 times their original amount when F = 10,000I.
If we plug this into the general formula for exponential growth, we get:

10,000I= I(x)t/y or 10,000 = (x)t/y.

The question is asking us to solve for t.

(1) SUFFICIENT: This statement tells us that x1/y=10. If we plug this value into the equation, we can
solve for t.

10,000 = (x)t/y
10,000 =[(x)1/y]t
10,000 = (10)t
t=4

(2) SUFFICIENT: The bacteria grow one hundredfold in 2 hours, that is to say they grow by a factor of
102. Since exponential growth is characterize by a constant factor of growth (i.e., by x every y hours),
for the bacteria to grow 10,000-fold (i.e., a factor of 104), they will need to grow another 2 hours, for a
total of four hours (102 x 102 = 104).
The correct answer is D, EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.
50. B
 www.top-one-percent.com | [email protected] | +91-97395-61394

By Sandeep Gupta | GMAT 800/800, Harvard Final Admit

Quant Session 3: Statistics + Numbers

Part 1: Statistics
Mean (Average)

1. Average or mean or AM = Sum of n quantities (or numbers) / number of them (n) OR Arithmetic
Mean (A.M.) is given by X = x / N .
2. Mean of the Combined Series If N1 and N2 are the sizes and M1 and M2 are the respective means of
M N + M2 N2
two series then the mean M of the combined series is given by M = 1 1 or we can write:
N1 + N 2
N 1 M 2 − M D2
= = ... This is the most important result in Mean.
N 2 M − M 1 D1

3. If a man (or train or boat or bus) covers some journey from A to B at X km/hr (or m/sec) and returns
to A at a uniform speed for Y km/hr, then the average speed during the whole journey is
[2XY / (X + Y)] km/hr. TIP: The average speed in such a case will be a bit less than the simple
average.
4. The sum of first “n” natural numbers is given by n (n + 1)/2.
5. For consecutive integers or for equally spaced numbers (AP), Mean = (First term + Last term) / 2.
6. If the average of a few consecutive integers is 0, then there will be an odd number of integers.
7. The average of an odd number of consecutive integers is an integer and the average of an even
number of consecutive integers is a non–integer.
8. If in a set of numbers, the average = the highest or the lowest number, all the numbers will have to
be equal.

N 1 M 2 − M D2
Problems: Use = = to solve the following 8 questions:
N 2 M − M1 D1

1. In a work force, the employees are either managers or directors. What is the percentage of directors?
(1) The average salary for managers is $5,000 less than the total average salary.
(2) The average salary for directors is $15,000 more than the total average salary.

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2. Committee X and Committee Y, which have no common members, will combine to form Committee
Z. Does Committee X have more members than Committee Y?
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) age of the members of Committee X is 25.7 years and the average
age of the members of Committee Y is 29.3 years.
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) age of the members of Committee Z will be 26.6 years

3. In a certain senior class, 72% of the male students and 80% of the female students have applied to
college. What fraction of the students in the senior class is male?
(1) There are 840 students in the senior class
(2) 75% of the students in the senior class have applied to college

4. At a certain company the average number years of experience are 9.8 years for males and 9.1 years
for females. What is the ratio of the number of the company's male employees to the number of the
company's female employees?
(1) There are 52 male employees at the company.
(2) The average number of years of experience for the company's males and females combined is
9.3 years.

5. During a sale, a clothing store sold each shirt at a price of $15 and each sweater at a price of $25. Did
the store sell more sweaters than shirts during the sale?
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) of the prices of all the shirts and sweaters that the store sold
during the sale was $21.
(2) The total of the prices of all the shirts and sweaters that the store sold during the sale was $420

6. A convenience store currently stocks 48 bottles of mineral water. The bottles have two sizes of
either 20 or 40 ounces each. The average volume per bottle the store currently has in stock is 35
ounces. How many 40–ounce bottles are in stock? ______________________

7. Every day, Walter burns 500 calories from cardio exercise. On some days, he also burns an
additional 600 calories from weight training. If, over a 240–day period, Walter burns an average of
850 calories per day from cardio exercise and weight training combined, then on how many days
did Walter engage in cardio exercise only?
40 60 80 100 140

8. A group of men and women gathered to compete in a marathon. The average weight of the entire
group was twice as far from the average weight of the women as it was from the average weight of
the men. What was the percentage of women in the group? _______________

Median:

• Median is the middle value or the average of two middle values when the values are arranged in
an order, either ascending or descending.
• If there are odd number of observations, median is directly the middle number.
• If there is an even number of observations, median is the average of the two middle numbers.
• For consecutive integers or for equally spaced numbers (AP),
Median = (First term + Last term) / 2. So, Median = Mean in this case.
• Median is the 50th percentile.

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Median of a continuous series

Example:

Explanation:

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Problems:

1. Tom, Jane, and Sue each purchased a new house. The average (arithmetic mean) price of the three
houses was $120,000. What was the median price of the three houses?
(1) The price of Tom’s house was $110,000. (2) The price of Jane’s house was $120,000.

2. Last month 15 homes were sold in Town X. The average (arithmetic mean) sale price of the homes
was $ 150,000 and the median sale price was $130,000. Which of the following statement must be
true?
I. at least one of the homes was sold for more than $165,000
II. at least one of the homes was sold for more than $130,000 and less than $150,000
III. at least one of the homes was sold for less than $130,000
a) I only b) II only c) III only d) I and II e) I and III

3. If x and y are unknown positive integers, is the mean of the set {6, 7, 1, 5, x, y} greater than the
median of the set? (1) x + y = 7 (2) x – y = 3

4. Set S consists of five consecutive integers, and set T consists of seven consecutive integers. Is the
median of the numbers in set S equal to the median of the numbers in set T?
(1) The median of the numbers in Set S is 0.
(2) The sum of the numbers in set S is equal to the sum of the numbers in set T.

5. In a sequence that contains 15 terms from a1 to a15, an = an – 1 + k, where k is a non–zero constant.

How many terms in the sequence are greater than 10? (1) a1 = 24 (2) a8 = 10

6. What is the median number of employees assigned per project for the projects at Company Z?
(1) 25 percent of the projects at Company Z have 4 or more employees assigned to each project.
(2) 35 percent of the projects at Company Z have 2 or fewer employees assigned to each project.

7. One new integer is added to an existing list of six integers. The mean of the original six numbers is
50. At least two of the numbers in the original list are 50. Then the median of the series will:
A. Increase B. Decrease C. Not change D. Nothing can be conclusively said

8. A set of 5 numbers has an average of 50. The largest element in the set is 5 greater than 3 times the
smallest element in the set. If the median of the set equals the mean, what is the largest possible
value in the set?
(A) 85 (B) 87 (C) 88 (D) 92 (E) 93

9. The average (arithmetic mean) cost of three computer models is $900. No two computers cost the
same amount. The most expensive model costs 25% more than the model with the median cost.
Then the cost of the most expensive model must be:
A. 1000 B. >1000 C. <1000 D. Nothing can be said conclusively

10. The average (arithmetic mean) of six numbers is 18 and the median of the six numbers is 16. What
is the minimum possible value for the greatest number in the list?
(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 22 (E) 23

11. A group of students took an exam that was scored from 0 to 100 points. 70 percent of the students
in the group passed the exam, and these students received an average score of 86. The average score
on the exam for the entire group was 74. Then the median score on the exam for the entire group of
students must be:
A. A unique value B. <92 C. >92 D. Nothing can be conclusively said

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Range + Standard Deviation

• Range is defined as the difference between the two extreme observations of the distribution.
• Range = Xmax – Xmin. If Range = 0, all the observations are equal. Range ≥ 0 always; it is never
negative.
• Standard deviation is defined as positive square root of the A.M. of the squares of the deviations
of the given observations from their A.M.
• If X1, X2 ... XN is a set of N observations then its standard deviation is given by Standard Deviation
∑(𝑥−𝑥̅ )2
= √ 𝑁
• It is a measure of how much each value varies from the mean of all the values.
• Less SD implies more consistency, less variation, less spread, more compactness AND vice versa.
• If SD = 0, all the observations are equal.
• Range is always greater than SD, except when all observations are equal, when both are equal to
0.
Range
o To be precise SD 
2
• The square of SD is called Variance.

Change in respective statistical parameters:

Addition Subtraction Sign Change Multiplication Division

Mean Change Change Change Change Change
Median Change Change Change Change Change
Range NO Change NO Change NO Change Change Change
SD NO Change NO Change NO Change Change Change

Problems

1. Set A consists of 8 distinct prime numbers. If x is equal to the range of set A and y is equal to the
median of set A, is the product xy even?
(1) The smallest integer in the set is 5. (2) The largest integer in the set is 101.

2. If S is a finite set of consecutive even numbers, is the median of S an odd number?

(1) The mean of set S is an even number. (2) The range of set S is divisible by 6.

3. A set of 15 different integers has a range of 25 and a median of 25. What is greatest possible integer
that could be in this set?
32 37 40 43 50

4. Set S contains 100 consecutive integers. If the range of the negative elements of Set S equals 80, what
is the average (arithmetic mean) of the positive numbers in the set? ________________________

5. X = {17, 22, 20, 14, 14, 9, 10}. Set X above lists all of the selling prices, in dollars, for a particular stock
over the course of one week. If the highest AND lowest selling prices were to increase by 2 dollars,
then which of the following values for set X would change?

I. Range II. Median III. Arithmetic mean (average)

I only I and III only I, II, and III III only I and II only

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6. If set Y consists of the consecutive integers p, q, r, s, and t such that p < q < r < s < t, then all of the
following are true EXCEPT
A. increasing only t will increase the range of set Y
B. increasing only t will increase the average (arithmetic mean) of set Y
C. decreasing only p will increase the range of set Y
D. decreasing only r will decrease the average (arithmetic mean) of set Y
E. increasing only t will increase the median of set Y

7. Set S contains exactly four distinct positive integers. When the range of S is added to the sum of all
the terms in S, the resulting sum is equal to the smallest term in S plus three times the largest term
in S. Then:
(A) Mean = Median
(B) Mean < Median
(C) Mean > Median
(D) No relationship between Mean and Median can be derived

8. Set A consists of all even integers between 2 and 100, inclusive. Set X is derived by reducing each
term in set A by 50, set Y is derived by multiplying each term in set A by 1.5, and set Z is derived by
dividing each term in set A by –4. Which of the following represents the ranking of the three sets in
descending order of standard deviation?
(A) X, Y, Z (B) X, Z, Y (C) Y, Z, X (D) Y, X, Z (E) Z, Y, X

9. If M is a negative integer and K is a positive integer, which of the following could be the standard
deviation of a set {–7, –5, –3, M, 0, 1, 3, K, 7}?
I. –1.5 II. –2 III. 0
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and III only (E) None

10. If y = ax + b, and if the standard deviation of x series is ‘S’, what is the standard deviation of y series?

11. Let Set T = {2, 4, 5, 7}. Which of the following values, if added to Set T, would most increase the
standard deviation of Set T? 1 3 6 8 14

12. What is the standard deviation of Q, a set of consecutive integers?

(1) Q has 21 members. (2) The median value of set Q is 20.

13. A certain list of 100 data has an average of 6 and a standard deviation of d, where d is positive. Which
of the following pairs of data, when added to the list, must result in a list of 102 data with standard
deviation less than d? A. –6 and 0 B. 0 and 0 C. 0 and 6 D. 0 and 12 E. 6 and 6

14. During an experiment some water was removed from each of the 6 tanks. If the standard deviation
of the volumes of the water at the beginning of the experiment was 10 gallons, what was the
standard deviation of the volumes of the water after the experiment?
(1) For each tank 30% of the volume of the water that was in the tank before the beginning of the
experiment was removed during the experiment
(2) The average (mean) volume of water in the tanks at the end of the experiment was 63 gallons

15. Set A consists of four distinct numbers; set B consists of five distinct numbers, including all four
numbers that are in set A. The average (arithmetic mean) of set A is equal to the average (arithmetic
mean) of set B. Which set has greater standard deviation?

A. A B. B C. Both equal D. Nothing can be said conclusively

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 Quant Topic: Numbers
For the purpose of the GMAT, all numbers are real.

REAL numbers are basically of two types:

1. Rational numbers: A rational number can always be represented by a fraction of the form p/q
where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0. Examples: finite decimal numbers, infinite repeating decimals,
whole numbers, integers, fractions i.e. 3/5, 16/9, 2, 0.666.... ∞ = 2/3 etc.

2. Irrational numbers: Any number which cannot be represented in the form p/q where p and q are
integers and q ≠ 0 is an irrational number. AN INFINITE NON–RECURRING DECIMAL IS AN
IRRATIONAL NUMBER. Examples – √2, , √5, √7.

INTEGERS: The set of Integers I = {0, ±1, ±2, ±3, … ∞}

EVEN NUMBERS: The numbers divisible by 2 are even numbers. E.g., 0, ±2, ±4, ±6, ±8, ±10....... Even
numbers are expressible in the form 2n where n is an integer. Thus –2, –6 etc. are also even
numbers. Remember that ‘0’ is an even number.

ODD NUMBERS: The numbers not divisible by 2 are odd numbers e.g. ±1, ±3, ±5, ±7, ±9.... Odd
numbers are expressible in the form (2n + 1) where n is an integer other than zero (not necessarily
prime). Thus, –1, –3, –9 etc. are all odd numbers.

You must remember:

Even ± Even = Even Even ± Odd = Odd Odd ± Odd = Even Odd ± Even = Odd
Even × Even = Even Even × Odd = Even Odd × Odd = Odd

POSITIVE INTEGERS: The numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.... are known as positive integers.

• 0 is neither positive nor negative.
• 0 is an even number.
• 0 is not a factor of any integer.
• 0 is a multiple of all integers.

Prime numbers: A natural number which has no other factors besides itself and unity is a prime
number. Examples: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 ......

• If a number has no factor equal to or less than its square root, then the number is prime.
This is a test to judge whether a number is prime or not.
• The only even prime number is 2
• 1 is neither prime nor composite (by definition)
• The smallest composite number is 4.

Composite numbers: A composite number has other factors besides itself and unity, e.g., 8, 72, 39 etc.
Alternatively, we might say that a natural number greater than 1 that is not prime is a composite
number.

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Problems:

1. If a and b are both positive integers, is ba+1 – bab odd?

(1) a + (a + 4) + (a – 8) + (a + 6) + (a – 10) is odd
(2) b3 + 3b2 + 5b + 7 is odd

2. If n is an integer between 10 and 99 is n < 80?

(1) The sum of the two digits of n is a prime number.
(2) Each of the two digits of n is a prime number.

3. For all positive integers m, [m] = 3m when m is odd and [m] = ½ m when m is even. Which of
the following is equivalent to [9]  [6]?
[81] [54] [36] [27] [18]

FACTORS / HCF (GCD / GCF) & LCM OF NUMBERS

Prime factors:

A composite number can be uniquely expressed as a product of prime factors.

E×. 12 = 2 × 6 = 2 × 2 × 3 = 22 × 31 20 = 4 × 5 = 2 × 2 × 5 = 22 × 51
124 = 2 × 62 = 2 × 2 × 31 = 22 × 31 etc.

If k and n are both integers greater than 1 and if k is a factor of n, k cannot be a factor of (n + 1).

NOTE:
The number of divisors (factors) of a given number N (including one and the number itself) where
N = am × bn × cp .... where a, b, c are prime numbers is given by (m + 1) (n + 1) (p + 1) ......

e.g. (1) 90 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 21 × 32 × 51
Hence here a = 2 b = 3 c = 5, m = 1 n = 2 p = 1
Number of divisors = (m + 1) (n + 1) (p + 1) .... = 2 × 3 × 2 = 12
Number of factors of 90 = 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 9, 10, 15, 18, 30, 45, 90 = 12

HCF: It is the greatest factor common to two or more given numbers. It is also called GCF OR GCD
(greatest common factor or greatest common divisor); e.g. HCF of 10 & 15 = 5, HCF of 55 & 200 = 5, HCF
of 64 & 36 = 4

To find the HCF of given numbers, resolve the numbers into their prime factors and then pick the
common term(s) from them and multiply them. This is the required HCF.

LCM: Lowest common multiple of two or more numbers is the smallest number which is exactly
divisible by all of them.

E.g. LCM of 5, 7, 10 = 70, LCM of 2, 4, 5 = 20, LCM of 11, 10, 3 = 330

To find the LCM resolve all the numbers into their prime factors and then pick all the quantities (prime
factors) but not more than once and multiply them. This is the LCM.

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NOTE:

1. LCM × HCF = Product of two numbers (valid only for “two”)

2. HCF of fractions = HCF of numerators ÷ LCM of denominators

3. LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators ÷ HCF of denominators

Q. Find the LCM of 25 and 35 if their HCF is 5. LCM = 25 x 35/5 = 175

Calculating LCM: After expressing the numbers in terms of prime factors, the LCM is the product of
highest powers of all factors.

Q. Find the LCM of 40, 120, and 380.

40 = 4 × 10 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 = 23 × 51,
120 = 4 × 30 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 3 = 23 × 51 × 31
380 = 2 × 190 = 2 × 2 × 95 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 19 = 22 × 51 × 191
Required LCM = 23 × 51 × 31 × 191 = 2280.

Calculating HCF: After expressing the numbers in term of the prime factors, the HCF is product of
COMMON factors.

Ex. Find HCF of 88, 24, and 124

88 = 2 × 44 = 2 × 2 × 22 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 11 = 23 × 111
24 = 2 × 12 = 2 × 2 × 6 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 23 × 31
124 = 2 × 62 = 2 × 21 × 311 = 22 × 311 HCF = 22

Problems:

1. If x is a prime number, what is the value of x?

(1) 2x + 2 is the cube of a positive integer.
(2) The average of any x consecutive integers is an integer.

2. If the integer n is greater than 1, is n equal to 2?

(1) n has exactly two positive factors
(2) The difference between any two distinct positive factors is odd.

3. The function f is defined for all positive integers n by the following rule: f(n) is the number of
positive integers each of which is less than n and also has no positive factor in common with n
other than 1. If p is a prime number then f(p) =?
p–1 p–2 (p + 1) / 2 (p – 1) / 2 2

4. For every positive even integer n, the function h(n) is defined to be the product of all the even
integers from 2 to n, inclusive. If p is the smallest prime factor of h (100) + 1, then p is
A. between 2 and 10 B. between 10 and 20 C. between 20 and 30
D. between 30 and 40 E. greater than 40

5. Is the integer n odd?

(1) n is divisible by 3 (2) 2n is divisible by twice as many positive integers as n

6. How many different prime numbers are factors of the positive integer n?
(1) four different prime numbers are factors of 2n
(2) four different prime numbers are factors of n2.

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7. Does the integer k have a factor p such that 1 < p < k?
(1) k > 4! (2) 13! + 2 ≤ k ≤ 13! + 13.

8. The positive integer k has exactly two positive prime factors, 3 and 7. If K has a total of 6
positive factors, including 1 and k, what is the value of K?
(1) 32 is a factor of k (2) 72 is NOT a factor of k

Divisibility / Remainders

TESTS FOR DIVISIBILITY:

1. A number is divisible by 2 if its unit’s digit is even or zero e.g. 128, 146, 34 etc.
2. A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 e.g. 102, 192, 99 etc.
3. A number is divisible by 4 when the number formed by last two right hand digits is divisible by ‘4’
e.g. 576, 328, 144 etc.
4. A number is divisible by 5 when its unit’s digit is either five or zero: e.g. 1111535, 3970, 145 etc.
5. A number is divisible by 6 when it’s divisible by 2 and 3 both. e.g. 714, 509796, 1728 etc.
6. A number is divisible by 8 when the number formed by the last three right hand digits is divisible
by ‘8’. e.g. 512, 4096, 1304 etc.
7. A number is divisible by 9 when the sum of its digits is divisible by 9 e.g. 1287, 11583, 2304 etc.
8. A number is divisible by 10 when its unit’s digit is zero. e.g. 100, 170, 10590 etc.
9. A number is divisible by 11 when the difference between the sums of digits in the odd and even
places is either zero or a multiple of 11. e.g. 17259, 62468252, 12221 etc. For the number 17259:
Sum of digits in even places = 7 + 5 = 12, Sum of digits in the odd places = 1 + 2 + 9 = 12 Hence 12 –
12 = 0.
10. A number is divisible by 12 when it is divisible by 3 & 4 both. e.g. 672, 8064 etc.
11. A number is divisible by 25 when the number formed by the last two Right hand digits is divisible
by 25, e.g., 1025, 3475, 55550 etc.

Problems:

1. If t is a positive integer and r is the remainder when t2 + 5t + 6 is divided by 7, what is the value
of r?
(1) when t is divided by 7, the remainder is 6 (2) when t2 is divided by 7, the remainder is
1

2. If p is a positive odd integer, what is the remainder when p is divided by 4?

(1) When p is divided by 8, the remainder is 5.
(2) p is the sum of the squares of two positive integers.

3. If p, x, and y are positive integers, y is odd, and p = x2 + y2, is x divisible by 4?

(1) When p is divided by 8, the remainder is 5. (2) x – y = 3.

4. If n is a positive integer and r is the remainder when (n – 1) (n + 1) is divided by 24, what is the
value of r?
(1) n is not divisible by 2 (2) n is not divisible by 3

5. If N is a positive integer, is (N3 – N) divisible by 4?

(1) n = 2k + 1, where K is an integer. (2) n2 + n is divisible by 6

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Power of a Prime Number in a Factorial: If we have to find the power of a prime number p in n!, it is
n  n   n  n
found using a general rule, which is   +  2  +  3  + ........ , where   denotes the greatest integer
 p  p   p   p
n
≤ to   etc.
 p
 100   100   100   100   100 
For example, power of 3 in 100! =   +  2  +  3  +  4  +  5  + .... = 33 + 11 + 3 + 1 + 0 = 48.
 3  3  3  3  3 
 200   200   200 
For example, power of 5 in 200! =   +  2  +  3  + ... = 40 + 8 + 1 + 0 = 49.
 5  5  5 

Number of Zeroes at the end of a Factorial: It is given by the power of 5 in the number.

Actually, the number of zeroes will be decided by the power of 10, but 10 is not a prime number, we
have 10 = 5 × 2, and hence we check power of 5.

For example, the number of zeroes at the end of 100! = = 20 + 4 = 24.

The number of zeroes at the end of 500! = = 100 + 20 + 4 = 124.

The number of zeroes at the end of 1000! = = 200 + 40 +8 + 1 = 249.

Unit’s digits in powers: Every digit has a cyclicity of 4. The fifth power of any single digit number has
the same right-hand digit as the number itself.

Example: What will be the unit’s digit in 12896?

In all such questions, divide the power by 4 and check the remainder.

If the remainder is 1, 2 or 3, then convert the question to LAST DIGIT RAISED TO REMAINDER.

If the remainder is 0, convert the question to LAST DIGIT RAISED TO FOUR.

In this question, 96/4 = 0, so the question converts to 84 = 82 x 82 = 64 x 64 = 4 x 4 = 16 = 6

Problems:

1. If d is a positive integer, f is the product of the first 30 positive integers, what is the value of d?
(1) 10d is a factor of f (2) d > 6

2. If n and m are positive integers, what is the remainder when 34n+2 + m is divided by 10?
(1) n = 2 (2) m = 1

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 DECIMALS and FRACTIONS

Recurring Decimals (Conversion to a Rational Number): If in a decimal fraction a figure or a set of

figures is repeated continually, then such a number is called a recurring decimal.

(i) 2/3 = 0.6666.... (ii) 22/7 = 3.142857142857 …

Rule: Write the recurring figures only one in the numerator and take as many nines in the denominator
as the number of repeating figures.

Ex. (1) 0.666666666 … = 6/9 = 2/3 (2) 0.234234234234 … = 234/999

Rounding Off
Number Nearest tenth Nearest hundredth Nearest thousandth
1.2346 1.2 1.23 1.235
31.6479 31.6 31.65 31.648
9.7462 9.7 9.75 9.746

Whether a fraction will result in a terminating decimal or not? To determine this, express the
fraction in the lowest form and then express the denominator in terms of Prime Factors. If the
denominator contains powers of only 2 and 5, it is terminating. If the denominator contains any power
of any other prime number, it is non-terminating.

Problems

1. If k is a positive integer and the ten’s digit of k + 5 is 4, what is the ten’s digit of k?
(1) k > 35 (2) The units digit of k is greater than 5.

2. Is the hundredth digit of decimal d greater than 5?

(1) The tenth digit of 10d is 7 (2) The thousandth digit of d/10 is 7

3. What is the tens digit of the positive integer r?

(1) The tens digit of r/10 is 3. (2) The hundreds digit of 10r is 6.

4. What is the result when x is rounded to the nearest hundredth?

(1) When x is rounded to the nearest thousandth the result is 0.455
(2) The thousandth digit is 5

Factor Theorem: If f(x) is completely divisible by (x – a), then f(a) = 0. So, (x – a) is a factor of f(x), then
f(a) = 0

Check whether (x + 1) is a factor of f(x) = 4x2 + 3x – 1. Putting x + 1 = 0, i.e., x = –1 in

the given expression we get f(–1) = 0. So, (x + 1) is a factor of f(x).

Remainder Theorem: If an expression f(x) is divided by (x – a), then the remainder is f(a).

Let f(x) = x3 + 3x2 – 5x + 4 be divided by (x – 1). Find the remainder.

Remainder = f(1) = 13 + 3 × 12 – 5 × 1 + 4 = 3.

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Some properties of square numbers:
• A square number always has odd number of factors.
• A square number cannot end with 2, 3, 7, 8 or an odd number of zeroes.
• Every square number is a multiple of 3, or exceeds a multiple of 3 by unity.
• Every square number is a multiple of 4 or exceeds a multiple of 4 by unity.
• If a square number ends in 9, the preceding digit is even.

Questions based on Number Line

1. If m and r are two numbers on a number line, what is the value of r?

(1) The distance between r and 0 is 3 times the distance between m and 0
(2) 12 is halfway between m and r

2. If n denotes a number to the left of 0 on the number line such that the square of n is less than
1/100, then the reciprocal of n must be
A. less than –10 B. between –1 and –1/10 C. between –1/10 and 0
D. between 0 and –1/10 E. greater than 10

3. On the number line, the segment from 0 to 1 has been divided into fifths, as indicated by the large
tick marks, and also into sevenths, as indicated by the small tick marks. What is the least possible
distance between any two of the tick marks? ______________________

4. If s and t are two different numbers on the number line, is s + t = 0?

(1) The distance between s and 0 is the same as the distance between t and 0
(2) 0 is between s and t

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 Statistics

Mean (Average)

For the situation given in the diagram below (for 2 groups having Means as M1 and M2 and Number of
items as N1 and N2, so that the combination of the 2 groups results in Mean = M and Number of items
= N1 + N2):

M1 M M2
__________ __________ _ | __________ __________ __
N1 N1 + N 2 N2

N 1 M 2 − M D2
= =
N 2 M − M1 D1
So, to get the ratio of the number of items of the two groups, we need to know only M1, M2, and M or
we need to know D2 (Difference M2 – M) and D1 (Difference M – M1)

1.

Managers given D1 = 5000 M given D2 = 15000 Directors

_____________________________________| __________________________
NM NM + ND ND
So
N M D2 15000 3
= = =
N D D1 5000 1
Directors to Managers = 1: 3 or 25% and 75%. So, Directors will be 25% always. Answer C.

2.

N X M 2 − M 29.3 − 26.6 3
= = =
NY M − M1 26.6 − 25.7 1
So, X will have more members. Ans. C

3.

N M M 2 − M 80 − 75 5
= = =
NW M − M1 75 − 72 3
So, the fraction of males = 5/8. Ans. B
(1) will not help here.

4.

NF M − M 9.8 − 9.3 5
= 2 = =
N M M − M1 9.3 − 9.1 2
Ans. B
1
 5.

(1)
N sh M 2 − M 25 − 21 2
= = =
N sw M − M1 21 − 15 3
So, sweaters > shirts.

(2) 15x + 25y = 420 or 3x + 5y = 84. (x, y) = (23, 3) and (3, 15) both satisfy so x > y or x < y. Not certain.
Not sufficient.

Ans. A

6.
M1 = 20, M2 = 40, M = 35, N1 + N2 = 48
N1 / N2 = (M2 – M) / (M – M1)
So N1/N2 = (40 – 35) / (35 – 20) = 5 / 15 = 1/3
48 divided in the ratio 1: 3 is 12 and 36.
Answer: 36

7.
M1 = 500, M2 = 1100, M = 850
N1/N2 = (1100 – 850) / (850 – 500) = 250/350 = 5/7
N1 + N2 = 240
240 in the ratio 5:7 is 100 and 140
The correct answer is D.

8.

W _______________________________________ overall _________________________________ M

M – M1 = D1 M2 – M = D2

You are given: D1 = 2D2

Nw / NM = D2/D1 = 1/2
So % of women = 33.33%

Median:

1.

Let T, J, and S be the purchase prices for Tom’s, Jane’s, and Sue’s new houses. Given that the average
purchase price is 120,000, or T + J + S = (3)(120,000), determine the median purchase price.
(1) Given T = 110,000, the median could be 120,000 (if J = 120,000 and S = 130,000) or 125,000 (if J =
125,000 and S = 125,000); NOT sufficient.
(2) Given J = 120,000, the following two cases include every possibility consistent with T + J + S =
(3)(120,000), or T + S = (2)(120,000). (i) T = S = 120,000 (ii) One of T or S is less than 120,000 and the
other is greater than 120,000. In each case, the median is clearly 120,000; SUFFICIENT. The correct
answer is B; statement 2 alone is sufficient.

2
2.

In order to solve the question easier, we simplify the numbers such as 150, 000 to 15, 130,000 to 13,
and so on.
I. Median is 13, so, the greatest possible value of sum of eight prices that no more than median is
13*8=104. Therefore, the least value of sum of other seven homes that greater than median is (15*15–
104)/7=17.3>16.5. It's true.
II. According the analysis above, the price could be, 13, 13, 13, 13, 13,13,13,13, 17.3, 17.3, 17.3... So, II
is false.
III. Also, false.
Answer: only I must be true.

3.

To find the mean of the set {6, 7, 1, 5, x, y}, use the average formula: A = S/n where A = the
average, S = the sum of the terms, and n = the number of terms in the set. Using the
information given in statement (1) that x + y = 7, we can find the mean as 4.33: Regardless of
the values of x and y, the mean of the set is 4.33 because the sum of x and y does not change. To
find the median, list the possible values for x and y such that x + y = 7. For each case, we can
calculate the median.
x y DATA SET MEDIAN
1 6 1, 1, 5, 6, 6, 7 5.5
2 5 1, 2, 5, 5, 6, 7 5
3 4 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 4.5
4 3 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 4.5
5 2 1, 2, 5, 5, 6, 7 5
6 1 1, 1, 5, 6, 6, 7 5.5

Regardless of the values of x and y, the median (4.5, 5, or 5.5) is always greater than the mean (4.33).
Therefore, statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question. Now consider statement (2).
Because the sum of x and y is not fixed, the mean of the set will vary. Additionally, since there are
many possible values for x and y, there are numerous possible medians. The following table
illustrates that we can construct a data set for which x – y = 3 and the mean is greater than the
median. The table ALSO shows that we can construct a data set for which x – y = 3 and the median is
greater than the mean.

x Y DATA SET MEDIAN MEAN

22 19 1, 5, 6, 7, 19, 22 6.5 10
4 1 1, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7 4.5 4

Thus, statement (2) alone is not sufficient to determine whether the mean is greater than the
median. The correct answer is (A): Statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient.

3
4.

Let 'X' stand for the sum of each of the sets.

(1) is clearly insufficient, as we know nothing whatsoever about set t.

still, take the time to interpret it: it says that the middle number of set s is 0, which also means that
the sum of the elements in set s is 0 (by the fact above).

(2)
INCORRECT LOGIC: "the sum of these two sets (sets of consecutive integers) will be equal only when
the sum is zero.

Ex: Set S could be 5,6,7,8 & 9 while Set T could be 2,3,4,5,6,7 & 8 and these sets have equal sums.
There are umpteen other examples.

Using the fact above, we have that the average (whether mean or median – they're the same) of the
numbers in set s is X/5, and the average (again, mean or median) of the numbers in set t is X/7.

It's tempting to say 'sufficient' here, because at first glance X/5 and X/7 appear to be necessarily
different, but they aren't: in the singular case X = 0, the two will be identical. Therefore, insufficient.

Together

this tells us that X = 0, which means that the median of both sets is 0/7 = 0/5 = 0. Sufficient.

5.

This is an AP… common difference either positive or negative. There are 15 terms, so the 8th term will
be the median. 7 terms will be less than the median and 7 terms will be more than the median. If
median is 10, then we know that 7 terms are more than 10 and 7 terms are less than 10. Ans. B

a(8) is the middle term and hence the Median of this series. The number k can be positive or negative.
If k is negative, then the numbers a(1), a(2) etc. will be in descending order and if it is positive, then
the series will be in ascending order. No matter what, there will be 7 terms which will be greater than
10 (Please note that since k is non–zero, and hence all the terms in the series will be DISTINCT). It
could a(1) to a(7) if k is negative, and a(9) to a(15) if k is positive.

6.
Statement (1) tells us that 25 percent of the projects had 4 or more employees assigned. There is no
information given about the middle values of the number of employees per project. Hence statement
(1) is insufficient.
Statement (2) tells us that 35 percent of the projects have 2 or fewer employees but there is no
information about the middle values of the number of employees per project. Hence statement (2) is
insufficient.
Combining statement (1) and (2), we can gather than 100 – (25+35) = 40 percent of the projects have
exactly 3 employees. Therefore, when listing the number of employees per project in ascending order,
35 percent of the numbers are less than 2 and 36th to the 75th projects (overall 40 projects in the
middle) will have 3 employees each …
So (35 + 40) = 75 percent are 3 or less. Since the median lies in that middle 40 percent, the median is
3. Hence the correct answer is (C).

4
7.
The mean must be 50, and at least two terms in the original set must be 50. If the original set is 50, 50,
50, 50, 50, 50, the mean and median were 50 originally. The new term may be any value and the
median will not change.

If the original set is 0, 0, 0, 50, 50, 200, the mean was 50 and the median was 25 originally. If the new
term is greater than 25, the median increases. If the new term is less than 25, the median decreases.

Ans. D

8.

A ≤ B ≤ C ≤ D ≤ E. The problem indicates that: A + B + C + D + E = 250 (The set of five numbers has an
average of 50.) E = 5 + 3A (The largest element is five greater than three times the smallest element in
the set.) C = 50 (The median of the set equals the mean.) You're asked to maximize E. We can
maximize E by minimizing D. Therefore, make D = C = 50. Maximize E by minimizing B, so make B = A.

A + B + C + D + E = 250
A + (A) + 50 + 50 + (5 + 3A) = 250
105 + 5A = 250
5A = 145
A = 29
E = 5 + 3A = 5 + 3(29) = 5 + 87 = 92. The correct answer is (D).

9.
If the average of the cost of the three models is $900, then the sum is $2,700. Call the three models a, b,
and c, in order from least expensive to most.
c = 1.25b, so a + b + 1.25b = 2,700.
a + b + 1.25b = $2,700
a + 2.25b = $2,700
By definition, a < b, so plug LTb (less than b) into the equation for a: LTb + 2.25b = 2,700
LTb = 2,700/3.25 so, LTb = 828.
So, b > 828
So, 1.25 b > 1000

Ans. B

10.

Those last two terms have to make up for the –8 on the other side, so each x must be 4 over the
average, or 22.

Ans. D

5
11.
A group of 10 students could have held these scores: 46, 46, 46 | 50, 92, 92, 92, 92, 92, 92
Check: The 7 students who passed have an average score of [50 + 6(92)]/7 = 602/7 = 86.
Check: The average score for the entire group is [3(46) + 602]/10 = 74.
In this case, Median score for the entire group = 92 (average of the 5th and 6th students’ scores).
The correct answer is D.

Range + SD

1.

Before analyzing the statements, let’s consider different scenarios for the range and the median of set
A. Since we have an even number of integers in the set, the median of the set will be equal to the
average of the two middle numbers. Further, note that integer 2 is the only even prime and it cannot
be one of the two middle numbers, since it is the smallest of all primes. Therefore, both of the middle
primes will be odd, their sum will be even, and their average (i.e. the median of the set) will be an
integer. However, while we know that the median will be an integer, it is unknown whether this
integer will be even or odd. For example, the average of 7 and 17 is 12 (even), while the average of 5
and 17 is 11 (odd). Next, let’s consider the possible scenarios with the range. Remember that the
range is the difference between the greatest and the smallest number in the set. Since we are dealing
with prime numbers, the greatest prime in the set will always be odd, while the smallest one can be
either odd or even (i.e. 2). If the smallest prime in the set is 2, then the range will be odd, otherwise,
the range will be even. Now, let’s consider these scenarios in light of each of the statements.

(1) SUFFICIENT: If the smallest prime in the set is 5, the range of the set, i.e. the difference between
two odd primes in this case, will be even. Since the median of the set will always be an integer, the
product of the median and the range will always be even.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: If the largest integer in the set is 101, the range of the set can be odd or even (for
example, 101 – 3 = 98 or 101 – 2 = 99). The median of the set can also be odd or even, as we discussed.
Therefore, the product of the median and the range can be either odd or even. The correct answer is A.

2.

In a set consisting of an odd number of terms, the median is the number in the middle when the terms
are arranged in ascending order. In a set consisting of an even number of terms, the median is the
average of the two middle numbers. If S has an odd number of terms, we know that the median must
be the middle number, and thus the median must be even (because it is a set of even integers). If S has
an even number of terms, we know that the median must be the average of the two middle numbers,
which are both even, and the average of two consecutive even integers must be odd, and so therefore
the median must be odd. The question can be rephrased: “Are there an even number of terms in the
set?”
(1) SUFFICIENT:

Consecutive even means AP … so Mean = Median.

So, the median must be even.

(2) INSUFFICIENT:

For 2, 4, 6, 8, median is odd.

For 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, the median is even. The correct answer is A.

6
3.

You must read the word ‘different’

Prior to median 25, there are 7 numbers.
To make the greatest number as greater as possible, these 7 numbers should cost the range as little as
possible. They will be, 24, 23, 22, 21, 20, 19, 18.
So, the greatest value that can fulfill the range is: 18+25=43

4.

The lowest number in Set S is −81. Use this result to jump to the consecutive integers portion of the
solution. In this case, −81 is the smallest or “First” element in the set:
Last – First + 1 = Count
Last –(–81) + 1 = 100
Last + 82 = 100
Last = 18
Therefore, the highest or “Last” number in Set S is 18.
Finally, calculate the average of the positive terms in the set using 1 as the smallest positive integer
and 18 as the largest positive integer: (1 + 18)/2 = 9.5 … The average of the positive numbers in the
set is 9.5.

5.
To deal with sets, the first step is to get the elements in ascending order:
X = {9, 10, 14, 14, 17, 20, 22}
If we increase both the highest and lowest selling prices by 2 dollars, we have the following new set
(we can call this set Y):
Y = {11, 10, 14, 14, 17, 20, 24}
Notice that adding 2 to the 9 has changed the order of our set, so we will need to re–order Set Y:
Y = {10, 11, 14, 14, 17, 20, 24}
Now we can compare the statistics for the two sets:
Range (the difference of the extreme values of the set):
Set X = 22 – 9 = 13
Set Y = 24 – 10 = 14
Median
Set X = 14
Set Y = 14
The mean would obviously increase.
The correct answers are I and III.

6.
The problem states, "...all of the following are true EXCEPT..." Therefore, we are looking for the
statement that is NOT TRUE.
(A) TRUE: The range is defined as the difference between the largest value and the smallest value in a
set, or in this case, t – p. Increasing the value of t will increase the value of t – p. Therefore, the range
of set Y will increase.
(B) TRUE: The mean, or average, is defined as the sum of the members in a set divided by the number
of members in the set, or in this case:
Mean = ( p + q + r + s + t)/5
Increasing t will increase the sum in the top of the fraction. Therefore, the mean of set Y will increase.
(C) TRUE: The range is defined as the difference between the largest value and the smallest value in
the set, or in this case, t – p. Decreasing the value of p will increase the value of t – p. Therefore, the
range of set Y will increase.
(D) TRUE: The mean, or average, is defined as the sum of the members in a set divided by the number
of members in the set, or in this case:

7
Mean = ( p + q + r + s + t)/5
Decreasing r will decrease the sum in the top of the fraction. Therefore, the mean of set Y will
decrease.
(E) NOT TRUE: The median is defined as the middle number in a set that is ordered from least to
greatest, or in this case, r. After increasing the value of t, r will still be the middle number in the set,
and the value of r will be unchanged. Therefore, the value of the median will be unchanged.
The correct answer is E.

7.

a < b < c < d. The mean of S is (a + b + c + d) / 4. The median of S is the average of the two middle
terms, (b + c) / 2. Express the question algebraically:

If mean = median, we have (a + b + c + d) / 4 = (b + c) / 2

Or
a+d=b+c

If the sum of the range of S and all the terms in S is equal to the smallest term in S plus three times the
largest term in S, then: (d − a) + (a + b + c + d) = a + 3d
b + c + 2d = a + 3d
b+c=a+d

Ans. A

8.

Let SD of A be .
SD of X will remain the same .
SD of Y will be multiplied by 1.5 so 1.5
SD of Z will be first divided by –ve sign … no change … then divided by 4 … so /4. As SD is always +ve,
1.5 >  > /4 … Ans. D

9.

SD can’t be negative. SD is zero only when all numbers are same (which is impossible in this case).
Ans. E

10.

To get the value of y, first we multiply x (so that it becomes ax) by a so SD also gets multiplied by a
(becomes a S).
Next, we add b to ax, so the SD doesn’t change.
Final answer |a| S … we put the mod sign so that the SD value is not negative.

11.

In this case, 14 creates the largest spread from the mean, and will therefore be the value that most
increases the standard deviation of Set T. The correct answer is E.

8
12.

Since, in any consecutive set with an odd number of terms, the middle value is the mean of the set, we
can represent the set as 10 terms on either side of the middle term x: [x – 10, x – 9, x – 8, x – 7, x – 6, x –
5, x – 4, x – 3, x – 2, x – 1, x, x + 1, x + 2, x + 3, x + 4, x + 5, x + 6, x + 7, x + 8, x + 9, x + 10] .

Standard Deviation will be the same for any 21 consecutive integers.

You don’t have to do this step but here is HOW (just for your understanding):

102 + 92 + 82 + 72 + 62 + 52 + 42 + 32 + 22 + 12 + 02 + (–1)2 + (–2)2(–3)2 + (–4)2 + (–5)2 + (–6)2(–

7)2 + (–8)2 + (–9)2 + (–10)2 = 770.

(2) NOT SUFFICIENT: Since the set is consecutive, we know that the median is equal to the mean.
Thus, we know that the mean is 20. However, we do not know how big the set is so we cannot identify
the difference between each term and the mean. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

13.

The denominator in SD formula (N) will become 102, so we have to find numbers that will change the
SD by the least amount: such numbers should be as close to the mean as possible. So, the answer is E.

14.

* if you ADD OR SUBTRACT A CONSTANT to/from all the values in a set, then the standard
deviation will remain exactly the same.

* if you INCREASE OR DECREASE ALL THE VALUES BY A FIXED FACTOR / PERCENTAGE, then the
standard deviation will increase or decrease by the same percentage.

Make sure you know that, when ALL numbers in a set are multiplied or divided by some number, the
mean and standard deviation are multiplied /divided by the same number.

This includes increasing or decreasing all the numbers in the set by some percentage (which
can be accomplished by multiplication: e.g., 30% increase = multiplication by 1.3).

Using this principle, statement (1) tells us that both the mean and the standard deviation of the set
will decrease by 30%. Therefore, the new standard deviation will decrease to 7 gallons. SUFFICIENT.

Statement (2) tells us nothing about standard deviation, which measures SPREAD of numbers. If we
achieved the 63 gallons by taking most of the water out of the tanks that were already lowest, then the
standard deviation will be huge (because you'll have some tanks almost full and some almost empty).
If we got there by taking most of the water out of the fullest tanks, then the standard deviation will be
a lot smaller. INSUFFICIENT.

9
15.
If including a fifth number does not change the mean of the set, then that fifth number must equal the
original mean of set A. Additional terms equal to the mean value will always reduce the standard
deviation of a set, provided the original standard deviation is not 0 (a fact that is guaranteed here, as
the sets contain numbers that are distinct from one another). Therefore, the standard deviation of the
new set B must be less than that of the original set A. The correct answer is A.

Numbers
Problems:

1.

We can first simplify the exponential expression in the question:

ba+1 – bab
b(ba) - b(ab)
b(ba - ab)
So we can rewrite this question then as is b(ba - ab) odd? Notice that if either b or ba - ab is even, the
answer to this question will be no.

(1) SUFFICIENT: If we simplify this expression we get 5a - 8, which we are told is odd. For the
difference of two numbers to be odd, one must be odd and one must be even. Therefore 5a must be
odd, which means that a itself must be odd. To determine whether or not this is enough to dictate the
even/oddness of the expression b(ba - ab), we must consider two scenarios, one with an odd b and one
with an even b:
a b b(ba - ab) odd/even
3 1 1(1 - 3 ) = -2
3 1 even
3 2 2(2 - 3 ) = -2
3 2 even
It turns out that for both scenarios, the expression b(ba - ab) is even.

(2) SUFFICIENT: It is probably easiest to test numbers in this expression to determine whether it
implies that b is odd or even.
b b3 + 3b2 + 5b + 7 odd/even
2 2 + 3(2 ) + 5(2)+ 7 = 37 odd
3 2

1 13 + 3(12) + 5(1) + 7 = 16 even

We can see from the two values that we plugged that only even values for b will produce odd values
for the expression b3 + 3b2 + 5b + 7, therefore b must be even. Knowing that b is even tells us that the
product in the question, b(ba - ab), is even so we have a definitive answer to the question.
The correct answer is D, EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question.

2. (1) Let's take, say, a sum of 13, which is prime, and somewhat big.
This could be 9+4 ––> 94 (more than 80), or 4+9 ––> 49 (less than 80). Not sufficient.

(2) The maximum can be 77 … sufficient.

Ans. B

3. The answer is (D) [27]

since 9 is odd, [9] =(3)(9) = 27

and 6 is even, [6] = (1/2)(6) = 3
27 x 3 = 81 So, the correct answer is (D) [27] = 3 x 27 = 81

10
Problems:

1.
(1) INSUFFICIENT: Start by listing the cubes of some positive integers: 1, 8, 27, 64, 125. If we set each
of these equal to 2x + 2, we see that we can find more than one value for x which is prime. For example
x = 3 yields 2x + 2 = 8 and x = 31 yields 2x + 2 = 64. With at least two possible values for x, the
statement is insufficient.

(2) INSUFFICIENT:
x must be odd. This is not sufficient to give us a specific value for the prime number x.
(1) AND (2) INSUFFICIENT: The two x values that we came up with for statement (1) also satisfy the
conditions of statement (2).
The correct answer is E.

2. Answer: B

(1)
this is a disguised way of saying 'n is prime' … n could be 2 or 3 or 5 or 7 … therefore,
insufficient. We can’t say for sure that n = 2.

(2) The most important word here is ANY.

Imagine n = 3 … factors are 1, 3. The difference will be even

Imagine n = 5 … factors are 1, 5. The difference will be even
Imagine n = 9 … factors are 1, 3, 9. The difference of 1 and 3, 1 and 9, and 3 and 9, will all be
even Notice the word ANY).

So for all odd numbers, (2) can’t be satisfied … as each number will have 1 and itself as a factor
… so the difference between the number (odd) and 1 will always be even.

Imagine n = 4 … factors = 1, 2, 4 … difference of 2 and 4 = even … OUT

Imagine n = 12 … factors = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 … differences (2, 4) (2, 6), (2, 12), (4, 6), (4, 12), (6,
12) etc… are all even … OUT.
So all even numbers > 2 cannot satisfy (2) … each number will have 2 and itself (even) as a
factor and the difference of 2 and an even number will always be even.

If n = 2, the factors are 1 and 2 and the difference is odd.

By the above analysis, 2 is the only such number. Ans. B

3. Pick a prime number for p. Let's say p=5.

The positive integers less than 5 are 4, 3, 2, and 1.

5 and 4 share only 1 as a factor

5 and 3 share only 1 as a factor
5 and 2 share only 1 as a factor
5 and 1 share only 1 as a factor

There are four positive integers, therefore, that are both less than 5 and share only 1 as a
factor.

Ans. p – 1.

11
4. The basic logic behind this question: If k and n are both integers greater than 1 and if k
is a factor of n, k cannot be a factor of (n + 1).

Let's first consider the prime factors of h (100). According to the given function,
h (100) = 2*4*6*8*...*100
By factoring a 2 from each term of our function, h(100) can be rewritten as
h (100) = 250 (1*2*3*...*50).

2, 3, 4 … 50 are factors of h (100) … so 2, 3, 4 … 50 can’t be factors of h (100) + 1. So the

smallest factor will be more than 50 (which is always more than 40). Ans. E

5. (1) n could be 6 or 9. NS
(2) 2n has twice as many factors as n

n = 1 … one factor; 2n = 2 … two factors

n = 2 … two factors; 2n = 4 … three factors

n = 3 … two factors; 2n = 6 … four factors

n = 4 … three factors; 2n = 8 … four factors

n = 9 … three factors; 2n = 18 … six factors

… we can see that for each of the odd numbers (n), the number of factors of 2n is exactly double
but for an even number, it is never the case. So n must be odd … Sufficient.
Ans. B

Let's say a number has "n" different factors.

When you multiply this number by 2, you POTENTIALLY create "n" MORE factors - by doubling
each factor.
HOWEVER,
the only way that ALL of these factors can be NEW (i.e., not already listed in the
original n factors) is if they are ALL ODD.
If there are ANY even factors to start with, then those factors will be repeated in the original
list. Therefore, if the number is even, then the number of factors will be less than
doubled because of the repeat factors.

Thus if statement (2) is true, then the number must be odd.

Ans. B

12
6. The minimum value of a product of four different prime integers = 2 * 3 * 5 * 7 = 210
(1)

if 2n = 210 (4 prime factors), n = 105 (3 prime factors)

if 2n = 420 (4 prime factors), n = 210 (4 prime factors) … so we are not sure … n may have 3 or
4 prime factors. NS

(2)

If n is a positive integer, n and n2 will have an exact number of factors.

Imagine … n2 has four factors 2, 3, 5, 7 … then the minimum value of n2 will be 22 * 32 * 52 * 72 …

when we take the square root, we must have even powers of each of the factors.
So n will have the same number of prime factors as n2.
Ans. B

7. The question is whether k is non-prime?

HOW?

the question is asking whether k has a factor that is greater than 1, but less than itself.
if you're good at these number property rephrasing, then you can realize that this question is
equivalent to "is k non–prime?"

(1)
k > 24
if k = 25, it is not prime
if k = 29, it is prime
NS

(2)

The possible values of k are each of the positive integers from 13! + 2 to 13! + 13.

key realization:
every one of the numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, ..., 12, 13 is a factor of 13!.

13! + 2 can be written as 2k + 2 = multiple of 2 … not prime

13! + 3 can be written as 3k + 3 = multiple of 3 … not prime
.
.
.
13! + 13 can be written as 13k + 13 = multiple of 13 … not prime

So each of the values of k is a non prime number. Sufficient.

Ans. B

8. We know that the number of divisors (factors) of a given number N (including one and the
number itself) where N = am x bn x cp ..... where a, b, c are prime numbers is given by (1 + m)
(1 + n) (1 + p) ......

Here k = 3m * 7n so the number of factors = (1 + m) (1 + n) = 6

6 can be written as 1 × 6 or 2 × 3 or 3 × 2 or 6 × 1.
If 1 + m = 1, m = 0 … means we will not have any power of 3 … so this is unacceptable.
13
 If 1 + n = 1, n = 0 … means we will not have any power of 7 … so this is unacceptable.

If 1 + m = 2 and 1 + n = 3, m = 1, n = 2 and the number will become 31 × 72

If 1 + m = 3 and 1 + n = 2, m = 2, n = 1 and the number will become 32 × 71
So the only possible values of k can be 31 × 72 or 32 × 71

(1) says 32 is a factor of k … so k = 32 × 71

(2) says 72 is a not factor of k … so k = 32 × 71

Each of the statements gives the value of k … Ans. D

Problems:

1. (1) t = 7k + 6

(t2 + 5t + 6) / 7 = [(7k + 6)2 + 5 (7k + 6) + 6] / 7 = (49k2 + 84k + 35k + 72) / 7 … the first three
terms will give 0 remainders as all of them are multiples of 7 … so the remainder = the
remainder when 72 is divided by 7 = 2. Sufficient

(2) t = 1 and t = 6 satisfy the conditions.

If t = 1, then 1 + 5 + 6 = 12, which yields a remainder of 5 upon division by 7.
If t = 6, then 36 + 30 + 6 = 72, which yields a remainder of 2 upon division by 7.
Insufficient …
Ans. A

2. (1) p = 8k + 5 … 8k + 5 divided by 4 will give a remainder = 1 … 8k/4 will give 0 remainder and
5/4 will give a remainder of 1. Sufficient.
(2) p = x2 + y2 … p is odd … this means that one of the numbers is even and the other number is
odd.
Let x be even = 2a and y be odd = 2b + 1
x2 + y2 = 4a2 + 4b2 + 4b + 1 … which when divided by 4 will give a remainder of 1. Sufficient.
Ans. D

3. (1) p = 8k + 5 … x2 = p – y2 = p – (2b + 1)2 = 8k + 5 – (4b2 + 4b + 1) = 8k – 4b2 – 4b + 4 =

So x2 = 4 (2k – b2 – b + 1) = 4 [2k – (b2 + b) + 1] = 4 [even – even + 1] = 4 * Odd

b2 + b is always even whether b is even or odd. So x2 = 4 (odd number).

If x is a multiple of 4, x2 has to be a multiple of 16, which has to be an even multiple of 4.

So x cannot be a multiple of 4 … Sufficient

(2)
y = 1 , x = 4 … div by 4 … y = 3 , x = 6 … Not Div by 4. NS
Ans. A

14
4. (1)
if n = 3, then (n – 1)(n + 1) = 8, so the remainder is 8
if n = 5, then (n – 1)(n + 1) = 24, so the remainder is 0
insufficient

(2)
if n = 2, then (n – 1)(n + 1) = 3, so the remainder is 3
if n = 5, then (n – 1)(n + 1) = 24, so the remainder is 0
insufficient

(together)
the best approach, unless you're really good at number properties, is to try the first few
numbers that satisfy both statements, and watch what happens.
if n = 1, then (n – 1)(n + 1) = 0, so the remainder is 0
if n = 5, then (n – 1)(n + 1) = 24, so the remainder is 0
if n = 7, then (n – 1)(n + 1) = 48, so the remainder is 0
if n = 11, then (n – 1)(n + 1) = 120, so the remainder is 0
...you can see where this is headed.

here's the theory:

– if n is not divisible by 2, then n is odd, so both (n – 1) and (n + 1) are even. Moreover, since
every other even number is a multiple of 4, one of those two factors is a multiple of 4. So the
product (n – 1)(n + 1) contains one multiple of 2 and one multiple of 4, so it contains at least 2
x 2 x 2 = three 2's in its prime factorization.
– if n is not divisible by 3, then exactly one of (n – 1) and (n + 1) is divisible by 3, because every
third integer is divisible by 3. Therefore, the product (n – 1)(n + 1) contains a 3 in its prime
factorization.
– thus, the overall prime factorization of (n – 1)(n + 1) contains three 2's and a 3.
– therefore, it is a multiple of 24.
– sufficient

answer = c

5. N3 – N = (N – 1) * N * (N + 1).
(1) N = Odd … so (N – 1) and (N + 1) both will be even and their product will be divisible by 4.
Sufficient
(2) n (n + 1) is divisible by 6 … N = 2 and N = 3 can be taken as 2 trial values.

If N = 2, N3 – N = 6 … not divisible by 4.
If N = 3, N3 – N = 24 … divisible by 4.

Not sufficient.
Ans. A

15
Problems:

1. f = 30! …
(1) Number of Zeroes at the end of a Factorial = Maximum Power of 10 in the factorial: It
is given by the maximum power of 5 in the number.

Maximum power of 5 in 30! = (30/5) + (30/52) + (30/53) + …

=6+1+0…=7
But 101 to 107 all the powers can be factors of 30!
So d can be any number from 1 to 7.
NS

(2)

NS

Combining: d = 7
Ans. C

Detailed background theory behind the above logic.

So how many 10's are in f?
write down the numbers that contain 2s and 5s (only those)
30*28*26*25*24*22*20*18*16*15*14*12*10*8*6*5*4*2
Now ask yourself Is my limiting factor going to be 5 or is it going to be 2?
It's going to be 5 because there are many more 2's up there. So circle the numbers that contain
5's:
30, 25, 20, 15, 10, 5
How many 5's do you have? Seven 5's (don't forget – 25 has two 5's!), so you can make seven
10's.
"limiting factor" means "which is least common or likely." Think of it this way: there are many
more multiples of 2 than there are multiples of 5. In probability terms, a number is more likely
to be even than to be a multiple of 5. In divisibility terms, take some large number that is
divisible by both 2 and 5, and it is likely to have more factors of 2 than 5.
For example: 400 = 4*10*10 = (2*2)(2*5)(2*5) = (2^4)(5^2).
I know, numbers with more factors of 5 than factors of 2 exist...this is just a bet we make to
ease the computation.
In general, the larger the factor, the less likely it is to divide evenly into a number. The larger
the factor, the more of a "limiting factor" it is.
here's all you have to do:
forget entirely about 10, 20, and 30, and ONLY THINK ABOUT PRIME FACTORIZATIONS.
(TAKEAWAY: this is the way to go in general – when you break something down into primes,
you should not think in hybrid terms like this. instead, just translate everything into the
language of primes.)
each PAIR OF A '5' AND A '2' in the prime factorization translates into a '10'.
there are seven 5's: one each from 5, 10, 15, 20, and 30, and two from 25.
there are waaaaaaayyyyy more than seven 2's.
therefore, 30! can accommodate as many as seven 10's before you run out of fives.

16
2. Unit’s digit of a number is the same as the remainder when the number is divided by 10.

REMAINDERS UPON DIVISION BY 10 are simply UNIT’S DIGITS.

For instance, when 352 is divided by 10, the remainder is 2.

So we need to know the unit’s digit of 34n + 2 + m.

Unit’s digit of 34n+2 can be divided by the rule of cyclicity.

In all such questions, divide the power by 4 and check the remainder.
If the remainder is 1, 2 or 3, then convert the question to LAST DIGIT RAISED TO REMAINDER.
If the remainder is 0, convert the question to LAST DIGIT RAISED TO FOUR.

So (4n + 2) / 4 gives a remainder of 2.

So the power will be reduced to 2.
So now the question becomes “What’s the unit’s digit of 32 + m?” or “What’s the unit’s digit of 9 +
m?” … the answer will depend only on the value of m … so Ans. B

Questions based on Number Line

1. If m and r are two numbers on a number line, what is the value of r?

(1) The distance between r and 0 is 3 times the distance between m and 0
(2) 12 is halfway between m and r

(1) |r| = 3|m| so r = 3m or r = -3m

NS

(2) (m + r) / 2 = 12 or m + r = 24
NS
Combining:
m + 3m = 24 or m = 6 so r = 3m = 18
OR
m – 3m = 24 or m = -12 so r = -3m = 36. Ans. E

2. If n denotes a number to the left of 0 on the number line such that the square of n is less than
1/100, then the reciprocal of n must be
A. less than –10 B. between –1 and –1/10 C. between –1/10 and 0
D. between 0 and –1/10 E. greater than 10

Given that n < 0 … A

Also, n2 < 1/100 … i.e. |n| < 1/10 … i.e. –1/10 < n < 1/10 … using A from above,
–1/10 < n < 0 … taking reciprocal, (applies since both are on same side of 0) …
–10 > 1/n or 1/n < –10. Ans. A

3. 1/5, 2/5, 3/5, 4/5=>7/35, 14/35, 21/35, 28/35

1/7, 2/7, 3/7, 4/7, 5/7, 6/7=>5/35, 10/35, 15/ 35, 20/35, 25/35, 30/35
It is easy to find that the least distance between any two of the marks is 1/35

17
4. If s and t are two different numbers on the number line, is s + t = 0?
(1) The distance between s and 0 is the same as the distance between t and 0
(2) 0 is between s and t

(1) |s| = |t|  s = t or s = -t.

But s ant t are different so s = t is not possible.
So s = -t or s + t = 0 … Sufficient.
(2) 0 is between s and t. But that means s can equal –5 and t can equal +3. In such a case, 0 is
still between s and t but that does not make them equidistant from 0. Or, s and t can be –4
and +4 respectively in which case they are equidistant from 0. Therefore, this statement
doesn't necessarily answer the question because it can have different results.
Ans. A

Miscellaneous questions

1. The correct answer is B

Your first task is to decode the given fact that the tens digit of (k+5) is 4. This means
40 < k+5 < 49, which means that 35 < k < 44.

(1)
All this tells you is that k isn't 35. That still leaves everything from 36 to 44, so the tens digit
could still be either 3 or 4: insufficient.

(2)
Of the aforementioned possibilities, only 35, 36, 37, 38, 39 fit this bill. therefore the tens digit
must be 3. Sufficient.

2. Let us say the number is 0.ABCD (the decimal d)

(1) d = 0.ABCD, hence 10d = A.BCD 10th digit of 10d = B = 7. which is 100th digit of d (=0.A7CD
and thus bigger than 5) Sufficient

(2) d = 0.ABCD, hence d/10 = 0.0ABCD 1000th digit of 10d = B = 7. which is 100th digit of d
(=0.A7CD and thus bigger than 5) Sufficient
Ans. D

3. (1)
Suppose r/10 = abc3d.e
So r = abc3de and ten’s digit = d, which is not known to us.

(2)
Let the number be
10r = abcd6ef
So r = abcd6e.f

so ten’s digit has to be 6 in original number.

Ans. B

18
4. To solve this problem most efficiently, you should rephrase the first statement.
When x is rounded to the nearest thousandth the result is 0.455 ––> this just means
that 0.4545 < x < 0.4555.
that's insufficient, because all the values from 0.4545 to 0.454999..... will round to 0.45, but all
the values from 0.4550 to 0.4554999999... will round to 0.46. (you don't have to figure out these
entire ranges; it's good enough to try the largest and smallest values and note that they round to
different numbers.)

ONCE AGAIN:

x could be 0.4546, which would round up to 0.455 when rounding to the thousandths place (per
the statement), but would round down to 0.45 when rounded to hundredths (one possible
answer to the question). On the other hand, x could be 0.4551, which would round up to 0.455
when rounding to the thousandths place (per the statement), and would round up to 0.46 when
rounded to hundredths (another possible answer to the question). The value of x rounded to the
nearest hundredth could be 0.45 or 0.46.

(2) is obviously insufficient, because you have no idea how big the number is at all. The 5 in the
thousandths place does tell us to round up to the next hundredth, but we have no idea what that
is.

combined, though: the only numbers in the range 0.4545 < x < 0.4555 such that the
thousandths digit is 5 (i'm assuming that's what it's supposed to say) are the numbers from
0.4550 to 0.4554999999..., which are precisely the ones that round to 0.46.

0.455 <= x < 0.456 (the inequality symbols are awkward to format here, so read them carefully)

The thousandths digit is 5 or greater for all of these values, therefore we will round up to the
next hundreth: 0.46.

Sufficient
Ans. C

19
 www.top-one-percent.com | [email protected] | +91-97395-61394

By Sandeep Gupta | GMAT 800/800, Harvard Final Admit

Quant Session: Inequalities + Mods (Absolute Values)

Inequalities Basics:

1. a < b
Examples:
• 2<3
• 0<3
• –3 < 3
• –3 < 0

2. a ≤ b
Examples:
• 2≤3
• 3≤3
• 0≤3
• –3 ≤ –3
• –3 ≤ 0

3. a > b
Examples:
• 3>2
• 3>0
• 3 > –3
• 0 > –3

4. a ≥ b
Examples:
• 3≥2
• 3≥3
• 3≥0
• –3 ≥ –3
• 0≥–3
5. So long as multiplication or division aren’t involved, we can cancel or shift quantities just as we
do in equations

• For example, x + y – 1 > x – y + 1 means either we can transfer all terms from the RHS to
the LHS and write x + y – 1 – x + y – 1 > 0 or 2y – 2 > 0 or 2y > 2 or y > 1 OR we can directly
cancel x from both sides and write y – 1 > –y + 1 or 2y > 2 or y >1.

6. If xy > 0, then x and y are of the same sign. Either both positive or both negative.

7. If x/y > 0, then x and y are of the same sign. Either both positive or both negative

• So, xy > 0 means x/y > 0

8. If xy < 0, then x and y are of the opposite sign. One positive and the other negative

9. If x/y < 0, then x and y are of the opposite sign. One positive and the other negative

• So, xy < 0 means x/y < 0

10. If a > b, then ax > bx, if x is positive … this means the sign of the inequality doesn’t change if we
multiply both sides by a positive quantity

• Similarly, if ax > bx, then a > b, if x is positive … this means the sign of the inequality
doesn’t change if we cancel a positive quantity from both sides

Note: the same rule applies for division: a > b, then a/x > b/x if x is positive and vice versa

11. If a > b, then ax < bx, if x is negative … this means the sign of the inequality changes if we multiply
both sides by a negative quantity

• Similarly, if ax > bx, then a < b, if x is negative … this means the sign of the inequality
changes if we cancel a negative quantity from both sides

12. If a/b > c/d, then we can’t just cross multiply to write ad > bc. Unless we know the sign of the
quantities, we can’t cross multiply.

• On the other hand, if all a, b, c, and d are positive, then we can surely cross multiply and
write ad > bc

13. The concept of number line is very useful in checking inequalities. The common values to check
are x = 0, 1, –1, >1 (preferred value = 2), between 0 and 1 (preferred values = 1/2 and 0.9),
between – 1 and 0 (preferred values = –1/2 and –0.9), and less than –1 (preferred value = –2).
So, in short, there are 9 points: –2, –1, –0.9, –1/2, 0, 1/2, 0.9, 1, 2.
14. If (x – a) (x – b) < 0, then x lies between a and b. OR a < x < b.

• Here a is less than b.

• (x – 3) (x – 5) < 0, then x lies between 3 and 5

• (x + 3) (x – 5) < 0 we can write this as [x – (–3)] (x – 5) < 0

So, x lies between –3 and 5

• (x + 5) (x + 3) < 0 we can write this as [x – (–5)] [x – (–3)] < 0

So, x lies between –5 and –3

15. If (x – a) (x – b) > 0, then x lies outside a and b. OR x < a, x > b

• Here a is less than b.

• (x – 3) (x – 5) > 0, then x doesn’t lie between 3 and 5. So either x is less than 3 or x is

greater than 5.

• (x + 3) (x – 5) > 0 We can write this as [x – (–3)] (x – 5) > 0

So, x doesn’t lie between –3 and 5. Either x is less than –3 or x is greater than 5.

• (x + 5) (x + 3) > 0 We can write this as [x – (–5)] [x – (–3)] > 0

So, x doesn’t lie between –5 and –3. Either x is less than –5 or x is greater than –3.

16. If x2 > x, then either x > 1 or x is negative (x < 0).

17. If x2 < x, then x lies between 0 and 1. (0 < x < 1).

18. If x2 = x, then x = 0 or x = 1.

19. If x3 > x, then either x > 1 or x is between –1 and 0 (either x > 1 or –1 < x < 0).

20. If x3 < x, then either x lies between 0 and 1 or x is less than –1.
(Either 0 < x < 1 or x < –1)

21. If x3 = x, then x = 0 or x = 1 or x = –1.

22.
• If 1/x > 0, then x > 0 Substitute x as –ve / 0 / +ve to verify.
• If 1/x < –x, then x must be negative Substitute x as –ve / 0 / +ve to verify.

23. If x2 > y2, then x > y and x < y both results are possible, and x and y can be of the same sign and
also of the opposite sign

• 52 > 32 and 5 > 3 (–5)2 > (–3)2 but –5 < –3 both same sign
• 52 > (–3)2 and 5 > –3 (–5)2 > (3)2 but –5 < 3 opposite signs
24. If x > y2, then x > y and x < y both results are possible

• 5 > 32 and 5 > 3 1/3 > (1/2)2 but 1/3 < ½

25. If x > y4, then x > y and x < y both results are possible

• 100 > 34 and 100 > 3 1/3 > (1/2)4 but 1/3 < ½

26. If x > y, it is necessarily true that x3 > y3 or etc. So, odd powers and roots don’t change sign.

27. Two inequalities with the same sign can be added just in the same way as two equations can be
added

So, if

a+b>c+d and
e+f>g+h

Then a + b + e + f > c + d + g + h

28. Two inequalities with different signs can be added after we change the sign of one of the
inequalities by multiplying it by a negative sign.

So, if

a+b>c+d and
e+f<g+h Check the less than sign

Then we can write

a+b>c+d and
–(e + f) > –(g + h)

Or

a+b>c+d and
–e – f > –g – h

So, a + b – e – f > c + d – g – h

29. If X is positive, then

(1) (a + X) / (b + X) > a/b if a < b
(2) (a + X) / (b + X) < a/b if a > b

30. On the GMAT, any square number is always greater than or equal to 0. So x2 ≥ 0. On the GMAT, a
square number can’t be negative.
 Problems (Inequalities):
𝑥−𝑦
1. If x is not equal to –y, is > 1?
𝑥+𝑦
(1) x > 0 (2) y < 0

2. If x is positive which of the following could be correct ordering of 1/x, 2x, x2?
I. x2 < 2x < 1/x II. x2 < 1/x < 2x III. 2x < x2 < 1/x
A. None B. I Only C. III Only D. I and II only E. I, II & III

3. If x > y2 > z4, which of the following statements could be true?

I. x > y > z II. z > y > x III. x > z > y
A. I only B. I and II only C. I and III only
D. II and III only E. I, II, and III

4. Is M + Z > 0 (1) M – 3Z > 0 (2) 4Z – M > 0

5. If k is not equal to 0, 1, or –1, is 1/k > 0? (1) 1 / (k – 1) > 0 (2) 1 / (k + 1) > 0

6. The numbers x and y are not integers. The value of x is closest to which integer?
(1) 4 is the integer that is closest to x + y (2) 1 is the integer that is closest to x – y

7. Are x and y both positive (1) 2x – 2y = 1 (2) x/y >1

8. If 500 is the multiple of 100 that is closest to X and 400 is the multiple of 100 closest to Y, then
which multiple of 100 closest to X + Y? (1) X < 500 (2) Y < 400

9. Is 1 / p > r/(r2 + 2) (1) p = r (2) r > 0

10. Is X + Y < 1? (1) X < 8 / 9 (2) Y < 1 / 8

11. Is x – y + 1 greater than x + y – 1? (1) x > 0 (2) y < 0

12. Is z the median of any 3 positive integers x, y and z? (1) x < y + z (2) y = z

13. On the number line, the distance between x and y is greater than the distance between x and z.
Does z lie between x and y on the number line? (1) xyz < 0 (2) xy < 0

14. If √[(x + 4)2] = 3, which of the following could be the value of x – 4?

–11 –7 –4 –3 5

15. If mv < pv < 0, is v > 0? (1) m < p (2) m < 0

16. Is x > y? (1) x2 > y (2) √x < y

17. If n is a nonzero integer, is xn < 1? (1) x > 1 (2) n > 0

18. If x is an integer, is 3x less than 500? (1) 4x–1 < 4x – 120 (2) x2 = 36

19. Is x > 1010? (1) x > 234 (2) x = 235

20. Is XY > 0? (1) X – Y > –2 (2) X – 2Y < –6

21. If x and y are integers and xy does not equal 0, is xy < 0? (1) y = x4 – x3 (2) –12y2 – y2x + x2y2 > 0

22. If r + s > 2t, is r > t? (1) t > s (2) r > s

23. If p < q and p < r, is (p)(q)(r) < p? (1) pq < 0 (2) pr < 0

24. Is 5n < 0.04? (1) (1/5)n > 25 (2) n3 < n2

25. Is p2q > pq2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0

26. Is m > n ? (1) n – m + 2 > 0 (2) n – m – 2 > 0

27. Is 3p > 2q ? (1) q = 2p (2) q > 0

28. Is mp greater than m? (1) m > p > 0 (2) p is less than 1

29. Is 2X – 3Y < X2? (1) 2X – 3Y = –2 (2) X > 2 and Y > 0

𝑥+1 𝑥
30. Is 𝑦+1 > 𝑦 ?

(1) 0 < x < y

(2) xy > 0
 Absolute Values (Mods) – Concepts
1. |𝑥| is defined as the non–negative value of x and hence is never negative.

• So |x| ≥ 0, always (by definition) AND |x| < 0 is impossible (by definition)

2. |5| = 5, |–5| = 5

• |x| = x, if x is positive … If x = 5, then |5| = 5

• |x| = –x, if x is negative … If x is –5, then |–5| = –(–5) = 5. Here x is negative and –x is positive.

o So, when |x| = –x, x is a negative number and –x is a positive number

• |x| = –x (means x is negative)

o This still means that |x| is positive because in this case –x is a positive number

3. |𝑥| is defined as the distance of point x from 0 on the number line. The point x can be anywhere on
the line (positive or negative)

4. |𝑥 − 𝑎| is defined as the distance of point x from a on the number line. The point x and a can be
anywhere on the line (positive or negative).

5. We define √𝑥 2 = |𝑥| as both √𝑥 2 and |𝑥| can’t be negative.

• √𝑥 2 = |𝑥| … squaring both sides, we get 𝑥 2 = |𝑥| × |𝑥|

Q. If a2 < a, then is |a| > a? Yes / No? Ans. NO

If a2 < a, then 0 < a < 1, or a is positive. When a is positive, |a| = a

6. As square roots can’t be negative, then on the GMAT (by definition)

• √36 = 6 and not − 6

• BUT if 𝑥 2 = 36, we have √𝑥 2 = √36 OR |x| = 6, which gives x = 6 or –6.

Remember, we didn’t take √36 to be both 6 or –6. √36 is 6 only.

But because √𝑥 2 is |x|, we wrote |x| = 6, which gave us x = 6 or –6

This is the most misunderstood concept on the GMAT.

• So √𝑥 2 = 𝑥 or − 𝑥 both are possible.

• If x is positive, then √𝑥 2 = 𝑥

o Here x is positive and hence the square root is positive

 • If x is negative, then √𝑥 2 = −𝑥

o Here x is negative, so –x is POSITIVE and hence the square root is positive

• The confusion arises because we assume x is positive and –x is negative. BUT x doesn’t have
a sign of its own, unless given. Please don’t assume anything.

Let’s see one real–GMAT question to understand the concept further:

4
If z is negative, then √(4𝑧 − 5)4 + √(2𝑧 − 3)2 + √−𝑧|𝑧| = ?
A. 5z – 8
B. 7z – 8
C. –8
D. 8 – 7z
E. 4z – 8

Sol. We can write this as

|4z – 5| + |2z – 3| + |z|

|4z – 5| = 4z – 5 OR –(4z – 5) = 5 – 4z, whichever is positive

Because z is negative, 4z – 5 will be negative and 5 – 4z will be positive

|2z – 3| = 2z – 3 OR –(2z – 3) = 3 – 2z, whichever is positive

Because z is negative, 2z – 3 will be negative and 3 – 2z will be positive

|z| = z or –z, whichever is positive

Because z is negative, –z will be positive

So, the answer will be: 5 – 4z + 3 – 2z + (–z) which gives 8 – 7z. Ans. D

7. |𝑥| = 𝑥 ⇒ 𝑥 ≥ 0 (substitute x as – / 0 / + and verify)

8. |𝑥| = −𝑥 ⇒ 𝑥 < 0 (substitute x as – / 0 / + and verify)

9. |𝑥| > 𝑥 ⇒ 𝑥 < 0 (substitute x as – / 0 / + and verify)

10. −𝑥|𝑥| > 𝑥 ⇒ 𝑥 < 0 (substitute x as – / 0 / + and verify)

11. −𝑥|𝑥| > 0 ⇒ 𝑥 < 0 (substitute x as – / 0 / + and verify)

12. |𝑥 − 𝑎| > 0 ⇒ 𝑥 ≠ 𝑎 Imagine |x – 3| > 0 … this expression is true for all values of x except x = 3.
Try to substitute x = –10, –5, 0, 1, 2, 4, 10, 100 … all of these will satisfy |x – 3| > 0. So, |x – 3| > 0
means 𝑥 ≠ 3
𝑥
13. |𝑥|
= 1 if x is positive Substitute any positive value of x and verify

𝑥
14. |𝑥|
= −1 if x is negative. Substitute any negative value of x and verify

Q. If x = y / |y|, what is |x|? Sol. x = 1 or –1, so |x| = 1

15. |𝑎| = |𝑏| ⇒ 𝑎 = 𝑏 𝑂𝑅 𝑎 = −𝑏 When we remove the mods, we substitute ±

So, we will have ±a = ±b which gives +a = +b, –a = –b, +a = –b, and –a = +b. So we get a = b or a = –b

16. If |x| = a, then x = a or x = –a.

• If |x| < a, then x < a or x > –a so –a < x < a.

• If |x – a| < b, then –b < x – a < b

• If |x| > a, then x > a or x < –a.

• If |x – a| > b, then x – a > b or x – a < –b.

Q. If |7 – 3j| ≤ 8, what is the range for j?

–8 ≤ 7 – 3j ≤ 8

Subtract 7

–15 ≤ – 3j ≤ 1

Divide by 3

–5 ≤ –j ≤ 1/3

Multiply by a negative sign

–1/3 ≤ j ≤ 5 Ans.

Q. If |x|/|3| > 1, which of the following must be true?

A. x > 3
B. x < 3
C. x = 3
D. x ≠ 3
E. x < –3

Cross multiply: |x| > 3, which means either x > 3 or x < –3. In either case, x ≠ 3. Ans. D
 Problems (Mods / Absolute Values)
1. If x < 0, then √(–x |x|) is
A. –x B. –1 C. 1 D. x E. √x

2. Is |x| = y – z? (1) x + y = z (2) x < 0

3. x² – 8x + 21 = |x – 4| + 5. If the various values of x obtained from the equation above are the sides
of a triangle, then the triangle must be:
A. An acute–angled tringle
B. An obtuse–angled tringle
C. A right–angled tringle
D. An isosceles triangle
E. An equilateral triangle

4. Is √[(x–3)2] = 3–x? (1) x ≠ 3 (2) –x |x| > 0

5. Which of the following inequalities has a solution set that when graphed on the number line, is
a single segment of finite length?
A. x4 ≥ 1 B. x3 ≤ 27 C. x2 ≥ 16
D. 2≤ |x| ≤ 5 E. 2 ≤ 3x + 4 ≤ 6

6. What is the average of x and |y|?

(1) x + y = 20 (2) |x + y| = 20
1
7. Is 𝑎−𝑏 < 𝑏 − 𝑎? (1) a < b (2) 1 < |a–b|

8. Is |x| < 1? (1) |x + 1| = 2|x – 1| (2) |x – 3| > 0

9. Is |a| + |b| > |a + b|?

(1) a2 > b2 (2) |a| × b < 0

10. If a < y < z < b, is |y – a| < |y – b|? (1) |z – a| < |z – b| (2) |y – a| < |z – b|

11. Is |x – y| > |x| – |y|? (1) y < x (2) xy < 0

12. If |ab| > ab, which of the following must be true?

I. a < 0 II. b < 0 III. ab < 0
I only II only III only I and III II and III

13. Is x·|y| > y2? (1) x > y (2) y > 0

14. Is (|x–1y–1|)–1 > xy? (1) xy > 1 (2) x2 > y2

𝑥
15. If x is not equal to 0, is |x| less than 1? (1) <𝑥 (2) |x| > x
|𝑥|

16. If n is not equal to 0, is |n| < 4? (1) n2 > 16 (2) 1/|n| > n

17. If |x| + |y| = –x – y and xy does not equal 0, which of the following must be true?
x+y>0 x+y<0 x–y>0 x–y<0 x2 – y2 > 0
18. Is x > 0? (1) |x + 3| = 4x – 3 (2) |x – 3| = |2x – 3|

19. What is the value of |x|? (1) |x2 + 16| – 5 = 27 (2) x2 = 8x – 16

20. If r is not equal to 0, is r2 / |r| < 1

(1) r > –1 (2) r < 1

21. Is x > 0? (1) |x + 3| < 4 (2) |x – 3| < 4

22. Is √x a prime number?

(1) |3x – 7| = 2x + 2 (2) x2 = 9x

23. |k| is a prime number.

x and k are both integers
x>k
x−k = 625
What is the value of x? _________________

24. If y = |x − 1| and y = 3x + 3, then the sum of all possible values of x is:

(A) −5/2 (B) −2 (C) −1/2 (D) 1/2 (E) 2

1
25. If a ≠ b, is 𝑎−𝑏 > 𝑎𝑏?

(1) |a| > |b| (2) a < b

26. If q, s, and t are all different numbers, is q < s < t?

(1) t − q = |t − s| + |s − q|
(2) t > q

|3𝑥−5|
27. If 𝑦 = −𝑥 2−3 for what value of x will the value of y be greatest?
A. –5
B. –3/5
C. 0
D. 3/5
E. 5/3

28.

On the number line, the shaded interval is the graph of which of the following inequalities?
A. |x| ≤ 4
B. |x| ≤ 8
C. |x − 2| ≤ 4
D. |x − 2| ≤ 6
E. |x + 2| ≤ 6
29. For how many pairs (x, y) that are solutions of the system of equations 2x + y = 12 and |y| ≤ 12
are x and y both integers?
A. 17
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13
E. 14

30. Is |a| < |b|?

1 1
(1) 𝑎−𝑏 > 𝑏−𝑎

(2) a + b < 0
Inequalities Solutions

1.
In this question, don’t cross multiply as you don’t know whether x + y is positive or not.

So, we will have to combine:

If we take x = 1 and y = –2, we get

1−(−2)
= −3 < 1
1−2

If we take x = 2 and y = –1, we get

2−(−1)
=3>1
2−1

Answer E.

2.
I.
x2 < 2x … cancel x from both sides (only because it is positive), we have x < 2

2x < 1/x or 2x2 < 1 or x2 < 1/2 or x < 1/√2 or x < 0.707

Combining, we have x < 2 and x < 0.7 … the common solution is x < 0.7 so statement I is possible.

II. x2 < 1/x or x3 < 1 or x < 1

1/x < 2x or 2x2 > 1 or x2 > 1/2 or x > 1/√2 or x > 0.707

Combining, we have 0.707 < x < 1 … so statement II is possible.

III. 2x < x2 … cancel x from both sides (only because x is positive) so we have x > 2.

x2 < 1/x or x3 < 1 or x < 1.

Combining: x > 2 and x < 1 … these 2 can’t be true together … so statement III is impossible.
Ans. D

OR you can try values: –2, –1, –0.9, –1/2, 0, 1/2, 0.9, 1, 2. Since x is positive, we may must try:
1/2, 0.9, 1, 2.
I. is true for x = 1/2
II. is possible for x = 0.9
III. is not possible for any value of x … So D

3.
If x > y2 we may have x > y or x < y both as valid. Refer to the concepts given
If y2 > z4, y > z2 (square roots will be positive) … if y > z2 we may have y > z or y < z both as valid. Refer
to the concepts given
If x > z4, we may have x > z or x < z both as valid. Refer to the concepts given Ans. E
4.
(1) M – 3Z > 0, we may have M = 10, and Z = 1, M + Z = +ve
M – 3Z > 0, we may have M = 1, and Z = –2, M + Z = –ve NS

(2) 4Z – M > 0, we may have M = 1, and Z = 1, M + Z = +ve

4Z – M > 0, we may have M = –10, and Z = 1, M + Z = –ve NS

Combining… add the two statements…

M – 3Z > 0 Or M > 3Z
4Z – M > 0
_______________________

Z>0
Substitute Z > 0 in M > 3Z, so M > 0
So, M + Z > 0
Sufficient. C

5.

If k is not equal to 0, 1, or –1, is 1/k > 0?

(1) 1 / (k – 1) > 0 (2) 1 / (k + 1) > 0

(1) tells that (k – 1) must be positive so (k – 1) > 0 so k > 1 … so 1/k > 0 always … sufficient.

(2) tells that (k + 1) must be positive so (k + 1) > 0 so k > –1 … k can be –1/2 or 2 … so 1/k can
be positive or negative. Ans. A

6.
This question deals with rounding–off.

3.5 ≤ x + y < 4.5

0.5 ≤ x – y < 1.5
_____________________

4 ≤ 2x < 6

therefore
2≤x<3
But x could be 2.1 and the nearest integer will be 2

x could also be 2.9 and the nearest integer will be 3. NS

Ans. E
7.
Statement (1) can be rephrased: x – y = 1/2.

As x – y > 0, x > y 1/2 > 0, always

Sample values: x = 1, y = 1/2 and x and y are both positive

Sample values: x = –1/2 and y = –1 and x and y are both negative NS

Statement (2)

Imagine 2/1 = 2 > 1

In this case: x and y are both positive and x must be larger than y, so x > y > 0

Imagine –2/–1 = 2 > 1

In this case: x and y are both negative, then x is more negative than y, so x < y < 0.

Because we don't know whether they are both positive or both negative, (2) alone is
insufficient.

From (1), we know that x > y. The only option in (2) for this to be true is if they are both
positive. (1) and (2) together are sufficient. (C) is the answer.

8.

This problem involves rounding–off.

"500 is the multiple of 100 that is closest to X"

This means that, of all multiples of 100, 500 comes closest to x.

In other words, 500 is closer to x than is 100, 200, 300, 400, or 600, 700, 800, ...

If you think about this for a sec, you'll realize that it means x has to be strictly between 450 and
550.

1. 450 < x < 500

2. 350 < y < 400

So, 800 < x + y < 900 …

if x + y = 810, our answer will be 800.
if x + y = 860, our answer will be 900.

NS
Ans. E
9.
Is 1 / p > r/(r2 + 2) (1) p = r (2) r > 0

You shouldn’t cross multiply because you don’t know whether p is positive or not.

(1) imagine p = r = 2

1 / p > r/(r2 + 2) becomes 1/2 > 2 / (4 + 2) or 1/2 > 1/3 … YES

Imagine p = r = –2

1 / p > r/(r2 + 2) becomes –1/2 > –2 / (4 + 2) or –1/2 > –1/3 … NOOO

NS.

(2) doesn’t talk about p … NS

Combining: p = r and both p and r are positive.

The question becomes: “Is 1/p > p / (p2 + 2) … we can cross multiply here (all values positive)

 p2 + 2 > p2 or 2 > 0, which is always true. We get a confirmed YES answer.

Ans. C

10.
Is X + Y < 1? (1) X < 8 / 9 (2) Y < 1 / 8

Combining (1) and (2) x + y < 73/72 … x + y can be 72.5 / 72 … > 1 or can be 71 / 72 … < 1. NS.
Ans. E

11.
Simplify the question to is y < 1?

(1) NS
(2) Sufficient … if y < 0, y will surely be less than 1.
Ans. B
12.
Is z the median of any 3 positive integers x, y and z? (1) x < y + z (2) y = z

This is the same as asking: is z equal to the middle number of the three numbers?

Statement (1)
x<y+z
Imagine the numbers 1, 2 and 3
We know that 2 is the median
1<2+3
2<1+3
1<3+2

We see that 2 can come in place of x or y or z. So any of the three values can be the median.
NS

Statement (2)
If y and z are equal, there are three possibilities:

x=y=z
We can write the three numbers as z, z, z Median = z

x<y=z
We can write the three numbers as x, z, z Median = z

x>y=z
We can write the three numbers as z, z, x Median = z

The median is z in all the cases. Sufficient. B

13.

Even if you satisfy all the conditions from both (1) and (2), we have these 2 possibilities

___–1________0_________1________2______________
x z y

z lies between x and y.

OR

___–1________0_________1________2______________
y x z

z doesn’t lie between x and y.

Ans. E
14.
The expression √(𝑥 + 4)2 can be simplified to |x + 4|, and the original equation can be solved
accordingly.
If |x + 4| = 3

(x + 4) = 3 or (x + 4) = –3

x = –1 or x = –7

Watch out! Although –7 is an answer choice, it is not correct. The question does not ask for the value
of x, but rather for the value of x – 4 = –7 – 4 = –11.

The correct answer is A.

15.
mv < 0 means m and v are of opposite signs
pv < 0 means p and v are of opposite signs

mv < pv

If v is positive, we can cancel v without changing the sign, so m < p

If v is negative, we can cancel v but we have to change the sign, so m > p

(1) gives m < p, so v has to be positive.

(2) gives m is negative so v has to be positive.

Ans. D

16.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: The fact that x2 is greater than y does not tell us whether x is greater than y. For
example, if x = 3 and y = 4, then x2 = 9, which is greater than y although x itself is less than y. But if x = 5
and y = 4, then x2 = 25, which is greater than y and x itself is also greater than y.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: We can square both sides to obtain x < y2. As we saw in the examples above, it is
possible for this statement to be true whether y is less than or greater than x (just substitute x for y
and vice–versa in the examples above).

(1) AND (2) INSUFFICIENT: Taking the statements together, we know that x < y2 and y < x2, but we do
not know whether x > y. For example, if x = 3 and y = 4, both of these inequalities hold (3 < 16 and 4 <
9) and x < y. But if x = 4 and y = 3, both of these inequalities still hold (4 < 9 and 3 < 16) but now x > y.

The correct answer is E.

17.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: If x = 2 and n = 2, xn = 22 = 4. If x = 2 and n = –2, xn = 2(–2) = 1/(22) = 1/4.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: If x = 2 and n = 2, xn = 22 = 4. If x = 1/2 and n = 2, xn = (1/2)2 = 1/4.

(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: Taken together, the statements tell us that x is greater than 1 and n is
positive. Therefore, for any value of x and for any value of n, xn will be greater than 1 and we can
answer definitively "no" to the question.

The correct answer is C.

18.
Since 35 = 243 and 36 = 729, 3x will be less than 500 only if the integer x is less than 6. So, we can
rephrase the question as follows: "Is x < 6?"

(1) INSUFFICIENT: We can solve the inequality for x.

4x–1 < 4x – 120
4x–1 – 4x < –120
4x(4–1) – 4x < –120
4x(1/4) – 4x < –120
4x[(1/4) – 1] < –120
4x(–3/4) < –120
4x > 160

Since 43 = 64 and 44 = 256, x must be greater than 3. However, this is not enough to determine if x < 6.

x could be 4, 5, 6, 7 … anything

(2) INSUFFICIENT: If x2 = 36, then x = 6 or –6. Again, this is not enough to determine if x < 6.

(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: Statement (1) tells us that x > 3 and statement (2) tells us that
x = 6 or –6. Therefore, we can conclude that x = 6. This is sufficient to answer the question "Is x < 6?"
(Recall that the answer "no" is sufficient.)

The correct answer is C

19.
(1) SUFFICIENT: Statement (1) tells us that x > 234, so we want to prove that 234 > 1010. We'll prove
this by manipulating the expression 234.
234 = (24)(230) 234 = 16(210)3

Now 210 = 1024, and 1024 is greater than 103. Therefore:

234 > 16(103)3 234 > 16(109) 234 > 1.6(1010).

Since 234 > 1.6(1010) and 1.6(1010) > 1010, then 234 > 1010.

(2) SUFFICIENT: Statement (2) tells us that that x = 235, so we need to determine if
235 > 1010. Statement (1) showed that 234 > 1010, therefore 235 > 1010.

The correct answer is D.

20.

X–2Y < –6

Multiply by a –ve sign to change the sign

–X + 2Y > 6

Combined with X – Y > –2, we get

X – Y > –2 means X > Y – 2

–X + 2Y > 6
_________________________
we get Y > 4

Substitute Y > 4 in the first, we get X > 2

Therefore, XY > 0

Answer is C

21.
Question: Do x and y have the opposite signs?

(1) INSUFFICIENT:
y = x4 – x3

If x = 2, y is +ve, xy +
If x = –2, y is positive, xy –ve
NS

(2) INSUFFICIENT:
–12y2 – y2x + x2y2 > 0
y2(–12 – x + x2) > 0
y2(x2 – x – 12) > 0
y2(x + 3)(x – 4) > 0

y2(x + 3)(x – 4) > 0 is satisfied if x = 5, and y +ve … xy = +ve

y2(x + 3)(x – 4) > 0 is also satisfied if x = 5, and y –ve … xy = –ve

NS
y2(x + 3)(x – 4) > 0 or (x + 3)(x – 4) > 0 or [(x – (–3)][(x – 4)] > 0. x > 4 OR x < –3. This is obviously not
enough to determine the sign of x. The sign of y is anyway not determinable.

The correct answer is E.

22.
(1) SUFFICIENT: We can combine the given inequality r + s > 2t with the first statement by adding the
two inequalities:

r + s > 2t
t > s __
r + s + t > 2t + s
r>t

(2) SUFFICIENT: We can combine the given inequality r + s > 2t with the second statement by adding
the two inequalities:

r + s > 2t
r > s __
2r + s > 2t + s
2r > 2t
r>t

The correct answer is D.

23.

From (1) or (2), we get p is –ve and q and r are positive.

Q. Is pqr < p?
We know that p is negative
Cancel but also change the sign
Q. Is qr > 1?
We know q and r are positive.
Take q = r = 2, we get qr = 4 > 1
Take q = r = 1/2, we get qr = 1/4 < 1
Answer. E

24.
0.04 = 1/25 = 5–2
We can rewrite the question in the following way: "Is 5n < 5–2?"

OR "Is n < – 2"?

(1) SUFFICIENT: Let's simplify (or rephrase) the inequality given in this statement.

(1/5)n > 25
(1/5)n > 52
5–n > 52
–n > 2
n < –2 (recall that the inequality sign flips when dividing by a negative number)

This is sufficient to answer our rephrased question.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: n3 will be smaller than n2 if n is either a negative number or a fraction between 0
and 1. We cannot tell if n is smaller than –2.

The correct answer is A.

25.

The question can first be rewritten as “Is p(pq) > q(pq)?”

If pq is negative, and p is negative, we know that q is positive.

We can cancel pq and change the direction of the inequality sign and the question becomes:

“Is p < q?”

If p is –ve and q is +ve, so p < q

The correct answer is C.

26.
We can rephrase the question: "Is m – n > 0?"

(1) INSUFFICIENT: If we solve this inequality for m – n, we get m – n < 2. This does not answer the
question "Is m – n > 0?".

(2) SUFFICIENT: If we solve this inequality for m – n, we get m – n < –2. This answers the question "Is
m – n > 0?" with an absolute NO.

The correct answer is B.

27.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: We can substitute 2p for q in the inequality in the question:

3p > 22p. This can be simplified to 3p > (22)p or 3p > 4p.

If p > 0, 3p < 4p (for example 32 < 42 and 30.5 < 40.5)

If p < 0, 3p > 4p (for example 3–1 > 4–1)

So the question becomes: is p < 0?

(2) INSUFFICIENT: This tells us nothing about p.

(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: If q > 0, then p is also greater than zero since p = q/2 = +ve / 2 = +ve.

If p > 0, then 3p < 4p. The answer to the question is a definite NO.

The correct answer is C.

28.

Simplify the question

Cancel m (as m and p are both positive)

The question becomes: is p > 1?

If we combine, we get 0 < p < 1, So we get a confirmed NO answer. Ans. C

29.

SQUARE is never negative… square ≥ 0 always.

Given equation can be written as: is x2 – 2x + 3y > 0?

(1) 2x–3y = –2

The given equation becomes x2 – (2x – 3y) = x^2 + 2, which is always > 0 … (SUFF)

(2) x > 2 and y > 0

Given equation can be written as x(x – 2) + 3y, which is also always > 0, if x > 2 and y > 0.

Sufficient Answer D.

30.

Ans. A
 Solutions – Part 2

1.
The quick way to approach will be pick a number x < 0. Let’s pick –5. So, we know x = –5.
√(–x|x|) = √(–(–5)|–5|) = √(5*5) = √(25) = 5 = –(–5) = –x so Answer A.

Shortcut: Seemingly the answer can be only x or –x … but the square root can’t be negative … if x is
given to be negative, –x will be positive. So, the answer has to be –x.

2.

As the value of |x| is never negative, we may rephrase the question as: “Is y – z > 0?”.
(1) gives y – z = –x NS
(2) gives x < 0 NS
Combine y – z > 0 Ans. YES
Ans. C

3.
x² – 8x + 21 = |x – 4| + 5
x² – 8x + 16 = |x – 4|
(x – 4)(x – 4) = |x – 4|
(x – 4)² = |x – 4|
There are only three solutions to y2 = |y| … y = 0, 1 and –1
So, x – 4 = –1, 0, or 1 x = 3, 4, or 5
These make a right–angled triangle. Ans. C

4.

As square roots cannot be negative, the question reduces to: “Is 3 – x > 0?”
(1) x ≠ 3 can be x = 2 or x = 4.
If x = 2, 3 – x is positive
If x = 4, 3 – x is negative
So, NS
(2) –x |x| > 0 means x is negative so 3 – x is positive … Suff.
Ans. B

OR if we take x – 3 as y, the question is asking, Is √y2 = –y? Or Is |y| = –y Or is y negative?

(1) If x = 2, 3 – x is positive means y is negative

If x = 4, 3 – x is negative means y is positive
So, NS

(2) –x |x| > 0 means x is negative so 3 – x is positive so y is negative. … Suff.

5. A, B, C will give infinite graphs. D will give a graph that will consist of two line segments …

___–5________–2______0_________2________5__

The highlighted portion above gives the graph for D.

E gives 2 ≤ 3x+4 ≤ 6 … subtract 4 from each … –2 ≤ 3x ≤ 2 or –2/3 ≤ x ≤ 2/3 … this will be a

single finite line (line segment).

__________–2/3______0_______+2/3______________

6.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: We know that the sum of x and y is 20. Here are two possible scenarios, yielding
different answers to the question:
X y Sum Average of x and |y|
10 10 20 10
25 –5 20 15

(2) INSUFFICIENT: We know that |x + y| = 20. The same scenarios listed for statement (1) still apply
here. There is more than one possible value for the average of x and |y|,

(1) AND (2) INSUFFICIENT: We still have the same scenarios listed above. Since there is more than
one possible value for the average of x and |y|, both statements taken together are NOT sufficient.
The correct answer is E.

7.
If a – b = x, the question becomes
Is 1/x < –x This is valid only if x is negative. Substitute x as –ve / 0 / +ve to verify.
So, the question becomes: is x negative?

(1) if a < b, a – b < 0 or x < 0, sufficient.

(2) |a – b| > 1 means |x| > 1, so x can be 2 or –2, so x can be positive or negative. NS
Ans. A
8.
We can rephrase the question: “Is –1 < x < 1?”

(1) |a| = |b| means a = b or a = –b. So, we have

x + 1 = 2(x – 1) or x = 3

OR

x + 1 = 2[–(x – 1)] or x = 1/3.

If x = 1/3, |x| < 1, but if x = 3, |x| > 1. Thus, we cannot answer the question.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: |x – 3| > 0 means x ≠ 3. Refer to the concepts.

This does not answer the question as to whether x is between –1 and 1. x could be ½ and |x| < 1 or x
could be 10 and |x| > 1.

(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: According to statement (1), x can be 3 or 1/3. According to statement (2), x
cannot be 3. Thus, using both statements, we know that x = 1/3 which IS between –1 and 1. Ans. C

9.

You may try (a, b) as (2, 1), (–2, –1) and (–2, 1) … you will see that |a| + |b| > |a + b| is true only for
(–2, 1).

So, for |a| + |b| > |a + b| to be true, a and b must have opposite signs. If a and b have the same signs
(i.e. both positive or both negative), the expressions on either side of the inequality will be the
same. The question is really asking if a and b have opposite signs.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: This tells us that |a| > |b|. This implies nothing about the signs of a and b.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: Since the absolute value of a is always positive, this tells us that b < 0. Since we
don't know the sign of a, we can't answer the question.

(1) AND (2) INSUFFICIENT: We know the sign of b from statement 2 but statement 1 does not tell us
the sign of a. For example, if b = –4, a could be 5 or –5.

The correct answer is E

10. Assume a number line with a, y, z, b in the increasing order as plotted below:

__a______________y__________z_______________b__________
D1 D2 D3

|y – a| = distance between y and a = D1

|z – y| = distance between z and y = D2
|z – b| = distance between z and b = D3

We also know that D1, D2, D3 are all positive.

So, the question translates to: “Is D1 < D2 + D3?”

(1) gives D1 + D2 < D3 so D1 < D3 – D2 … this automatically means D1 < D3 + D2 … sufficient.

(imagine 1 < 5 – 3 … so obviously 1 < 5 + 3)

(2) gives D1 < D3 … this automatically means D1 < D2 + D3 … sufficient.

(imagine 1 < 2 … so obviously 1 < 2 + 3)

Ans. D

11.

(1)

Let’s take (x, y) as (4, 2) … we get 2 = 2 … so we get NO for the main question.

Let’s take (x, y) as (4, –2) … we get 6 > 2 … so we get YES for the main question.

Not sufficient.

(2) means x and y are of opposite signs.

In this case, |x – y| will result in addition of x and y (overall positive sign) but |x| – |y| will result in a
subtraction of 2 positive quantities … hence LHS will always be bigger than RHS.

Take all possible cases

(1, –2) we get 3 > –1
(2, –1) we get 3 > 1
(–1, 2) we get 3 > –1
(–2, 1) we get 3 > 1.

Sufficient … Ans. B
12. Assume ab = x, so |x| > x, means x is negative.

So, |ab| > ab, ab must be negative.

We can rephrase this question: "Is ab < 0?"

I. UNCERTAIN: We know nothing about the sign of b.

II. UNCERTAIN: We know nothing about the sign of a.

III. TRUE: This answers the question directly.

The correct answer is C.

13.

It is extremely tempting to divide both sides of this inequality by y or by |y|, to come up with a
rephrased question of “is x > y?” However, we do not know the sign of y, so this cannot be done.
Imagine if y = 0 … then we surely can’t divide by 0.

Start with the easier statement:

When y is positive, |y| = y

(2) If we know that y is positive (statement 2), we can divide both sides of the original question by y to
come up with "is x > y?" as a new question. Statement 1 tells us that x > y, so both statements together
are sufficient to answer the question. The correct answer is C.

14.
We can rephrase the question by manipulating it algebraically:
(|x–1 * y–1|)–1 > xy
(|1/x * 1/y|)–1 > xy
(|1/xy|)–1 > xy
1/(|1/(xy)|) > xy

Is |xy| > xy? If xy = z, then this is asking, is |z| > z? Or is z negative?

Or is xy < 0? Or do x and y have opposite signs?

(1) SUFFICIENT: If xy > 1, xy is definitely positive. Confirmed NO

(2) INSUFFICIENT: x2 > y2

Algebraically, this inequality reduces to |x| > |y|. This tells us nothing about the sign of x and y. They
could have the same signs or opposite signs.

The correct answer is A

15.

x / |x| = 1 if x is positive and = –1 if x is negative.

x > x / |x| means

x > 1 if x is positive … let’s say x = 2, 3, 4 …

and

x > –1 if x is negative … so –1 < x < 0, if x is negative. For example, x = –1/2. Note the range can’t be
beyond 0.

(1) x = – ½ and x = 2 both satisfy (1) but with x = – ½, |x| < 1 and with x = 2, |x| > 1 so insufficient.

(2) means x is negative. With x = – ½, |x| < 1 and with x = –2, |x| > 1 so insufficient.

Combining, x has to be negative and any value less than –1 (such as –2, –3 etc.) don’t satisfy (1), so the
combination will mean that x can lie only between –1 and 0.

–1 < x < 0. In this case, |x| < 1 always. Ans. C

16.

The question is: “Is –4 < n < 4?” (n is not equal to 0)

(1) SUFFICIENT: The solution to this inequality is n > 4 (if n > 0) or n < –4 (if n < 0). This provides us
with enough information to guarantee that n is definitely NOT between –4 and 4. Remember that an
absolute no is sufficient!

(2) INSUFFICIENT: n can be any negative value. This is already enough to show that the statement is
insufficient because n might not be between –4 and 4.

The correct answer is A.

17.
|x| = –x, means x is negative, |y| = –y means y is negative. So, x + y will also be negative. Ans. B
18.

(1) Sufficient

x + 3 = 4x – 3 or x = 2 … valid solution

–(x + 3) = 4x – 3 or x = 0 … invalid solution.

We know that 2 is the only solution possible and we can say that x is definitely positive.

OR

4x – 3 ≥ 0, so x ≥ 3/4, so x = 0 is invalid.

(2) INSUFFICIENT:

x – 3 = 2x – 3 so x = 0 (valid solution)

x – 3 = –(2x – 3) … x = 2 (valid solution)

Therefore, both 2 and 0 are valid solutions and we cannot determine whether x is positive, since one
value of x is zero, which is not positive, and one is positive. The correct answer is A.

19.

Note that the question is asking for the absolute value of x rather than just the value of x. Keep this in
mind when you analyze each statement.

(1) SUFFICIENT: Since the value of x2 must be non–negative, the value of (x2 + 16) is always positive,
therefore |x2 + 16| can be written x2 +16. Using this information, we can solve for x:
|x2 + 16| – 5 = 27
x2 + 16 – 5 = 27
x2 + 11 = 27
x2 = 16
x = 4 or x = –4

Since |–4| = |4| = 4, we know that |x| = 4; this statement is sufficient.

(2) SUFFICIENT:
x2 = 8x – 16
x2 – 8x + 16 = 0
(x – 4)2 = 0
(x – 4)(x – 4) = 0
x=4

Therefore, |x| = 4; this statement is sufficient. The correct answer is D.

20.

We may write r2 = |r| * |r|

And as r isn’t 0, |r| will always be positive
So, we can cancel |r| from numerator and denominator
So, the question becomes: Is |r| < 1?

(1) r can be –1/2 or 10, so |r| can be 1/2 and 10 … NS

(2) r can be 1/2 or –10, so |r| can be 1/2 and 10 … NS

(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: –1 < r < 1, so |r| < 1 always

The correct answer is C.

21.
(1) INSUFFICIENT:

–4 < x + 3 < 4
Subtract 3
–7 < x < 1
(2) INSUFFICIENT:

–4 < x – 3 < 4

Add 3

–1 < x > 7

If we combine the solutions from statements (1) and (2) we get an overlapping range of –1 < x < 1. We
still can’t tell whether x is positive. The correct answer is E.

22.
(1) |3x – 7| = 2x + 2

So, either 3x – 7 = 2x + 2 or 3x – 7 = – (2x+2), so x may be 1 or 9.

√x = 1 or 3 … Since 1 is not a prime number, but 3 is a prime number, it is NOT possible to answer the
original question using statement one, alone.

(2) x2 = 9x so x = 0 or 9. So √x = 0 or 3. Since 0 is not a prime number, but 3 is a prime number, it is

NOT possible to answer the original question using statement two, alone.

(1) and (2)

√x = 3 … Ans. C

23.
The only combination that works is:

X k
25 −2

So, X = 25
24.

(x − 1) = 3x + 3 or x = −2 (invalid root)

−(x − 1) = 3x + 3 or x = −1/2 (valid root)

Ans. C

25.
a b Is 1/(a–b)>ab?

Ans. E

26.

(1)

It is given that t − q = |t − s| + |s − q|, which can be rewritten without absolute values in four mutually
exclusive and collectively exhaustive cases by making use of the algebraic definition of absolute value.
Recall that |x| = x if x > 0, and |x| = –x if x < 0. Thus, for example, if t − s < 0, then |t − s| = –(t − s).

Case 1: t > s and s > q. In this case, t − s > 0 and s − q > 0, and so t − q = |t − s| + |s − q| is equivalent to
t − q = (t − s) + (s − q), which is an identity. Therefore, the case for which t > s and s > q is consistent
with the given information and the assumption t − q = |t − s| + |s − q|.

Case 2: t > s and s < q. In this case, t − s > 0 and s − q < 0, and so t − q = |t − s| + |s − q| is equivalent to
t − q = (t − s) − (s − q), or s = q, which is not consistent with the assumption that q, s, and t are all different
numbers. Therefore, the case for which t > s and s < q is not consistent with the given information and
the assumption t − q = |t − s| + |s − q|.

Case 3: t < s and s > q. In this case, t − s < 0 and s − q > 0, and so t − q = |t − s| + |s − q| is equivalent to
t − q = –(t − s) + (s − q), or t = s, which is not consistent with the assumption that q, s, and t are all
different numbers. Therefore, the case for which t < s and s > q is not consistent with the given
information and the assumption t − q = |t − s| + |s − q|.

Case 4: t < s and s < q. In this case, t − s < 0 and s − q < 0, and so t − q = |t − s| + |s − q| is equivalent to
t − q = –(t − s) − (s − q), or t = q, which is not consistent with the assumption that q, s, and t are all
different numbers. Therefore, the case for which t < s and s < q is not consistent with the given
information and the assumption t − q = |t − s| + |s − q|. The only case that is consistent with the given
information and the assumption t − q = |t − s| + |s − q| is Case 1. Therefore, it follows that t > s and s > q,
and this implies q < s < t; SUFFICIENT.

(2)

Given that t > q, it is possible that q < s < t is true (for example, when s is between t and q) and it is
possible that q < s < t is false (for example, when s is greater than t); NOT sufficient. Ans. A
27.

28
The midpoint of the interval from −8 to 4, inclusive, is –2 and the length of the interval from −8 to 4,
inclusive, is 4 − (−8) = 12, so the interval consists of all numbers within a distance of 12/2 = 6 from
−2. Using an inequality involving absolute values, this can be described by |x − (−2)| ≤ 6, or |x + 2| ≤ 6.
Alternatively, the inequality −8 ≤ x ≤ 4 can be written as the conjunction −8 ≤ x and x ≤ 4. Rewrite this
conjunction so that the lower value, −8, and the upper value, 4, are shifted to values that have the
same magnitude. This can be done by adding 2 to each side of each inequality, which gives −6 ≤ x + 2
and x + 2 ≤ 6. Thus, x + 2 lies between −6 and 6, inclusive, and it follows that |x + 2| ≤ 6.
The correct answer is E.

29.

From |y| ≤ 12, if y must be an integer, then y must be in the set S = {±12, ±11, ±10, …, ±3, ±2, ±1, 0}.
Since 2x + y = 12, then x = (12 – y) / 2. If x must be an integer, then 12 − y must be divisible by 2; that
is, 12 − y must be even. Since 12 is even, 12 − y is even if and only if y is even. This eliminates all odd
integers from S, leaving only the even integers ±12, ±10, ±8, ±6, ±4, ±2, and 0. Thus, there are 13
possible integer y–values, each with a corresponding integer x–value and, therefore, there are 13
ordered pairs (x, y), where x and y are both integers, that solve the system.
The correct answer is D.

30. C
(1)
a = 4, b = 2, then |a| > |b|
a = 2, b = –10, then |a| < |b|
NS
(2)
a = –3, b = –4, then |a| < |b|
a = –4, b = –3, then |a| > |b|
NS
Combined:
a > b and a + b < 0
Or a – b > 0 and a + b < 0
Multiplying
a2 – b2 < 0 or a2 < b2 or |a| < |b| SUFF
OR
Both a and b can be negative or a can be positive and b can be negative.
If a and b are both negative
We have to satisfy a > b and a + b < 0 imagine a = –3 and b = –4 then |a| < |b|
But
If a is positive and b is negative, we have to satisfy a > b and a + b < 0
Imagine a = 2 and b = –3 then also |a| < |b|
Sufficient
Ans. C
 Quant Session 3: Geometry
www.top-one-percent.com | [email protected] | +91-97395-61394

By Sandeep Gupta | GMAT 800/800, Harvard Final Admit

Concept # 1: 30-60-90 Right angled triangle:

Side opposite the angle 30° is the smallest (say a), so the side opposite the angle 60° will be a√3 and the
side the angle 90° will be 2a. The ratio is 1 : √3 : 2.

Example:

1. In the given figure, points P and Q lie on the circle with center O. What is the value of s?

A. ½
B. 1
C. √2
D. √3
E. 1/√2

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 Explanation:

Drop two perpendiculars PA and QB from P and Q onto X axis. Now for the triangle on the left,
the sides are 1 and √3. So, the angles are 30 (opposite 1, the vertical side) and 60 degrees
(opposite √3, the horizontal side). The middle angle is 90 degrees, so the angle on the right has
to be 60 degrees. So, the angle at Q must be 30 degrees. Opposite 30 degrees, the side must be 1,
so s = 1.

Answer B

Example: If PQ = 1, what is the length of RS?

A. 1/12
B. (√3)/12
C. 1/6
D. 2/(3√3)
E. 2/(√12)

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 Explanation: Ans. B

If PQ = 1, QT = 1/2. If QT = 1/2, RT = 1/4. If RT is the long leg in triangle RST,

RT = x√3 = 1/4 and the short leg RS = x.

Concept # 2:

45-45-90 Right angled triangle (isosceles right triangle):

Ratio of sides = 1 : 1 : √2

Example:
The perimeter of a certain isosceles right triangle is 16 + 16√2, what is the length of the
hypotenuse of the triangle?
A. 8
B. 8√2
C. 16
D. 4
E. 4√2

Explanation: Let the hypotenuse be x, the other two sides will be x/√2 and x/√2
So, x + x/√2 + x/√2 = 16 + 16√2 Or x + 2*( x/√2) = 16 + 16√2 because 2/√2 = √2
Or x + x√2 = 16 + 16√2 Or x (1 + √2) = 16 (1 + √2)
Cancel (1 + √2) from both sides We get x = 16. Ans. C

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 Example:

Explanation:

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 Example:

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 Explanation:

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• Concept: In an isosceles right-angled triangle (45-45-90 triangle), the foot of the perpendicular
from the right-angled vertex to the hypotenuse and the mid-point of the hypotenuse are the same
point.

Example:

If angle BAD is a right angle, what is the length of side BD? (figure not drawn to scale)

(1) AC is perpendicular to BD (2) BC = CD

Explanation:

(1) INSUFFICIENT: This tells us that AC is the height of triangle BAD to base BD. This does not
help us find the length of BD.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: This tells us that C is the midpoint of segment BD. This does not help us find
the length of BD.

(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: Using statements 1 and 2, we know that AC is the perpendicular
bisector of BD. This means that triangle BAD is an isosceles triangle so side AB must have a
length of 5 (the same length as side AD). We also know that angle BAD is a right angle, so side BD
is the hypotenuse of right isosceles triangle BAD. If each leg of the triangle is 5, the hypotenuse
(using the Pythagorean theorem) must be 5√2. The correct answer is C.

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Concept 3:

If the side of a cube is a, its face diagonal is a√2, body diagonal is a√3, its surface area is 6a2 and volume
a 3.

Example:

A sphere is inscribed in a cube with an edge of x centimeters. In terms of x what is the shortest
possible distance from one of the vertices of the cube to the surface of the sphere?

A. x(√3−1)
B. x/2
C. x(√2−1)
D. (x/2)( √3−1)
E. (x/2)( √2−1)

Explanation:

Say x=10 centimeters.

Then, since a sphere is inscribed in cube then the edge of the cube equals to the diameter of a
sphere, thus Diameter=10.

Next, body diagonal of the cube equals 10√3

The gap between the vertex of a cube and the surface of the sphere

= ½(Body Diagonal – Diameter)

Thus gap=(Diagonal−Diameter)/2=(10√3−10)/2=5(√3−1)

Since x=10 then 5(√3−1)=x/2(√3−1) Ans. D

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 Example:

In the cube shown, the length of line segment AB is 8. What is the surface area of the cube?

Explanation:

45-45-90 triangle

Side of the cube = 8/√2 = 4√2 … so the area of one face = (4√2)2 = 32. So the area of all faces = 32 * 6 =
192.

Concept 4: If ABC is a right-angled triangle with right angle at B, and BD is the perpendicular to the
hypotenuse AC, then:

• p = ac / b because ½ac = ½pb (both are areas of the triangle)

• p2 = h1 × h2
• AC² = AB² + BC² (Pythagoras theorem)
• All the three right-angled triangles are similar to each other (means all have same angles and
proportional sides)
• You should remember some of the Pythagorean triplets (e.g. 3, 4, 5 because 5² = 3² + 4²). Some
others are (5, 12, 13), (7, 24, 25), (9, 40, 41), (11, 60, 61), (13, 84, 85), (15, 112, 113), (20, 99,
101), (20, 21, 29), (8, 15,17), (12, 35, 37), (28, 45, 53) etc.
• If (3, 4, 5) is a triplet, so is (6, 8, 10) … (3, 4, 5) multiplied by 2
• The only basic right-angled triangle in which sides are in an AP is 3, 4, 5 (or its multiples)
• In a 45-45-90 triangle, the altitude from the right-angled vertex to the hypotenuse is half the
hypotenuse. So, if the diagram above is a 45-45-90 triangle, then p = b/2

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How to generate triplets (you may skip this part):
Every basic triplet must contain
• one prime number
• two odd numbers
• one even number
3, 4, 5 is a basic triplet because it can’t be factorized further, but 6, 8, 10 isn’t a basic triplet because we
can cancel 2 from both terms.

BASIC TRIPLETS starting with an odd number: Square the smallest side (will be odd) and write it as
the sum of two consecutive numbers (always odd). Thus, we obtain the triplet. Like if the first number
is 3, then 32 = 9 = x + (x + 1) or x = 4 and x + 1 = 5, so the triplet is 3, 4, 5. Similarly, (5, 12, 13), (7, 24,
25), (9, 40, 41), (11, 60, 61), (13, 84, 85), (15, 112, 113) etc.

Note: (9, 12, 15), (15, 20, 25) are also triplets but not basic triplets. They are just multiples of (3, 4, 5).
So, the basic triplet starting with an odd number will always be unique.

BASIC TRIPLETS Starting with an even number: Square the smallest side (a) and keep on writing it
as:

a2 / 2n = x +(x + 2n), where n is an integer … till we do not get a fractional number.

The values of x and (x + 2n) will be the two other sides.

Let’s assume the smallest side is 20, then

202 / 2 = x + (x + 2) Or x = 99, so the triplet is (20, 99, 101)

202 / 4 = x + (x + 4) Or x = 48, so the triplet is (20, 48, 52) which is basically (5, 12, 13)

202 / 8 = x + (x + 8) Or x = 21, so the triplet is (20, 21, 29)

202 / 16 = x + (x + 16) … now x is fractional – so we stop here.

***

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Example:

In the diagram, triangle PQR has a right angle at Q and has a perimeter of 60. Line segment QS is
perpendicular to PR and has a length of 12. PQ > QR. All the sides of all the three triangles are integers.
What is the ratio of the area of triangle PQS to the area of triangle RQS?

A. 9/4
B. 25/4
C. 25/16
D. 16/9
E. 25/9

Explanation:

Imagine right angled triangle with sides 12. As the smallest right triangle is 3, 4, 5… and 12 is a
multiple of 3 and 4 both, we may make

3, 4, 5 MULTIPLIED by 3 = 9, 12, 15… and

3, 4, 5 MULTIPLIED by 4 = 12, 16, 20.

Now let’s check the perimeter. 16 + 9 + 20 + 15 = 60, so these are the correct combinations.

Area of the two triangles will be ½ * base * height …

½ * 16 * 12 and ½ * 9 * 12 … ratio = 16/9

Ans. D

If you notice, the triangles are:

9, 12, 15 3, 4, 5 MULTIPLIED by 3
12, 16, 20 3, 4, 5 MULTIPLIED by 3
15, 20, 25 3, 4, 5 MULTIPLIED by 3

All the three triangles in such a situation are always similar (the ratio of corresponding sides is
always the same)

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 Example:

In triangle ABC, if BC = 3 and AC = 4, then what is the length of segment CD?

A. 3
B. 15/4
C. 5
D. 16/3
E. 20/3

Explanation:

p2 = h1 × h2 so 42 = 3 × CD or CD = 16/3 Ans. D

• Concept: If the perimeter of a triangle is fixed, the largest area will be for the equilateral triangle
√3 2
(most symmetrical shape). The area of an equilateral triangle of side a is A = 𝑎 and the height
4
√3
of the triangle is h = 𝑎
2

Example:

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 Explanation:

Example:

If points A and B are on the y–axis in the figure, what is the area of equilateral triangle ABC?

(1) Coordinates of point B are (0, 5√3)

(2) Coordinates of point C are (6, 3√3).

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 Explanation:

To find the area of equilateral triangle ABC, we need to find the length of one side. The area of an
equilateral triangle can be found with just one side since there is a known ratio between the side
and the height (using the 30: 60: 90 relationship). Alternatively, we can find the area of an
equilateral triangle just knowing the length of its height.
3
Or we know that height of an equilateral triangle is given by h = a and area of an equilateral
2
3 2
triangle is given by A = a , where ‘a’ is the side of the triangle.
4
(1) INSUFFICIENT: This does not give us the length of a side or the height of the equilateral
triangle since we don't have the coordinates of point A.
(2) SUFFICIENT: Since C has an x-coordinate of 6, the height of the equilateral triangle must be
6. We can determine the side and hence the area.
The correct answer is B.

• Concept: If two sides of a triangle are fixed and the included angle is a variable, then the area of
the triangle will be maximum when the included angle is 90°.

Proof: if a and b are two sides of a triangle and the included angle is θ, then the area of the
triangle is given by A = ½ ab sin θ … and sin θ will be maximum when θ = 90°.

You don’t have to know any trigonometry (or proofs) for the GMAT. Just know the result.

Example: what is the greatest possible area of a triangular region with one vertex at the center
of a circle of radius 1 and the other two vertices on the circle?
A. 1
B. ½
C. √3/2
D. √3/4
E. 2

Explanation:

The two sides are the radii, each equal to 1. The area will be maximum when the triangle is a
right-angled triangle.
So, the answer is ½ * 1 * 1 = ½ Ans. B

• Concept: For any figure, for a given (fixed or finite) perimeter, the more the symmetry, the more
will be the area. By this logic, a right-angled triangle will have the maximum area when the
triangle is isosceles right-angled triangle (45-45-90 triangle)

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 Example:

Is the area of the right-angled triangle ABC > 25?

(1) AC = 6 (2) AB = 10

Explanation:

(1) Imagine a right triangle with its legs as 6 and 1 … area = ½*6*1 = 3
Imagine a right triangle with its legs as 6 and 100 … area = ½*6*100 = 300 NS

(2) Now each side will be less than 10.

Here the perimeter is finite because the other two sides will have to be less than 10.
In such a case, the more the symmetry, the more the area. And the most symmetrical right-angled
triangle is going to be the isosceles right-angled triangle. Imagine the two legs are x each.

So x2 + x2 = 102 so x = 5√2

So, the maximum area of the triangle = ½*5√2*5√2 = 25

Our original question: Is the area of triangle ABE greater than 25? NO, it is not greater than 25,
because the maximum area is 25. Confirmed NO! Since we can answer the question using
Statement (2) alone, the correct answer is B.

More on symmetry and area:

• If with a given perimeter, different figures are formed like equilateral triangle, square, regular
hexagon, regular octagon … and eventually a circle (a regular polygon of infinite sides), then the
triangle will have the minimum area and circle will have the maximum area.
• Given a fixed perimeter, among all triangles, an equilateral triangle has the maximum area.
• If different triangles are inscribed in a circle, then the equilateral triangle will have the maximum
area.

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• Concept: If two sides of a triangle are given and the area of the triangle is given, then the third
side of the triangle can have 2 different values.

Example:

In a triangle ABC, AB = 5, AC = 13, what is the length of segment BC?

(1) Angle ABC is 90 degrees.
(2) The area of the triangle is 30.

Explanation.

(1) SUFFICIENT: If we know that ABC is a right angle, then triangle ABC is a right triangle and we
can find the length of BC using the Pythagorean theorem. In this case, we can recognize the
common triple 5, 12, 13 - so BC must have a length of 12.

(2) If 2 sides of a triangle are given and the area of the triangle is given, the third side of the
triangle can have 2 possible values. NS

Visual Proof:

½ * 5 * 12 = ½ * 13 * h so h = 60/13 which is less than 5.

If the area of triangle ABC is 30, the height from point C to line AB must be 12 (We know that the
base is 5 and area of a triangle = 0.5 × base × height). There are only two possibilities for such a
triangle. Either angle CBA is a right triangle, and CB is 12, or angle BAC is an obtuse angle and the
height from point C to length AB would lie outside of the triangle. In this latter possibility, the
length of segment BC would be greater than 12. The correct answer is A.

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• Concept: For two similar figures, the ratio of areas = ratio of squares of corresponding sides OR
A1 / A2 = (L1 / L2)2

Example:

In the given figure, if the area of the triangle on the right is twice the area of the triangle on the
left, then in terms of s, S=?

A. s/√2
B. s√3/2
C. s√2
D. s√3
E. 2s

Explanation.
In this problem, you have a2 : b2 = 2 : 1. If you know the result(s) above, then it follows at once
that a : b (the ratio of lengths, which is what you're looking for) is √2 : 1. Ans. C.

Example:

In the figure, AC = 3, CE = x, and BC is parallel to DE. If the area of triangle ABC is 1/12 of the area
of triangle ADE, then find the value of x.

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 3√3
E. 6√3 – 3

Explanation:

Use A1 / A2 = (L1 / L2)2 … So, we have 1/12 = [3/(3+x)]2 or 1/√12 = 3/(3+x) or 1/2√3 = 3/(3+x)
So, x = 6√3 – 3. Ans. E

• Concept: For two similar solids, the ratio of volumes = ratio of cubes of corresponding sides …
OR V1 / V2 = (L1 / L2)3

AND … the ratio of surface areas = ratio of squares of corresponding sides OR S1 / S2 = (L1 / L2)2

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 Example:

A cone has been divided into four slices parallel to the base. The heights of the various slices
from top to bottom are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. If the volume of the bottommost slice is 784 cm 3,
what is difference in volumes of the third slice from the top and the second slice from the top (in
cm3)?
A. 576
B. 216
C. 729
D. 125
E. 163

Explanation:

The heights of the various slices from top to bottom are in the ratio 1:2:3:4.
The heights of the cones will be 1:(1 + 2):(1 + 2 + 3):(1 + 2 + 3 + 4) = 1:3:6:10
So, the volumes will be in the ratio: 13:33:63:103 = 1:27:216:1000

Let’s say the volumes are: V:27V:216V:1000V

So, the volume of the 4th slice from the top = 1000V – 216V = 784V

The volume of the 3rd slice from the top = 216V – 27V = 189V

The volume of the 2nd slice from the top = 27V –V = 26V

The volume of the topmost slice = V

We are given 784V = 784, so V = 1

We are asked the value of 189V – 26V = 163V = 163.

Ans. E

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• Concept: Angle in a semicircle is a right angle.

Example:

Triangle ABC is inscribed in a semicircle centered at D. What is the area of triangle ABC?

(A) 12/√3
(B) 6√3
(C) 12
(D) 12√3
(E) 18√3

Explanation:

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• Concept: The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side and the difference
of any two sides of a triangle is less than the third side

Example:

Is the perimeter of a rectangle greater than 8 inches?

(1) The diagonal of the rectangle is twice as long as its shorter side
(2) The diagonal of the rectangle is 4 inches longer than its shorter side

Explanation.

The question asks whether Perimeter=2(a+b)>8, or whether a+b>4, (where a and b are the
length of the sides of the rectangle).

(1) The diagonal of the rectangle is twice as long as its shorter side. Clearly insufficient, we know
the shape of the rectangle but not its size.

(2) The diagonal of the rectangle is 4 inches longer than its shorter side. This statement basically
says that the length of the diagonal is greater than 4 inches: d>4. Now, consider the triangle made
by the diagonal and the two sides of the rectangle: since the length of any side of a triangle
must be smaller than the sum of the other two sides, then we have that a+b>d, so a+b>d>4.
Sufficient. Ans. B

Similar Triangles:
Proportionality Theorem:

Intercepts made by two transversal lines (cutting lines) on three or more parallel lines are
proportional. In the figure, lines X1Y1 & X2Y2 are transversals cutting the three parallel lines AB,
CD, EF. Then AC, CE, BD, DF are intercepts Also,

AC/BD = CE/DF

Midpoint Theorem:

A triangle, the line joining the mid points of two sides is parallel to the third side and half of it.

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 Example:

In the figure, if point C is the center of the circle and DB = 7, what is the length of DE?

(1) x = 60° (2) DE || CA

Explanation:

(1) INSUFFICIENT: Just knowing that x = 60° tells us nothing about triangle EDB. To illustrate,
note that the exact location of point E is still unknown. Point E could be very close to the circle,
making DE relatively short in length. However, point E could be quite far away from the circle,
making DE relatively long in length. We cannot determine the length of DE with certainty.

(2) SUFFICIENT: If DE is parallel to CA, then (angle EDB) = (angle ACB) = x. Triangles EBD and
ABC also share the angle ABC, which of course has the same measurement in each triangle. Thus,
triangles EBD and ABC have two angles with identical measurements. Once you find that
triangles have 2 equal angles, you know that the third angle in the two triangles must also be
equal, since the sum of the angles in a triangle is 180°. So, triangles EBD and ABC are similar. This
means that their corresponding sides must be in proportion:

CB/DB = AC/DE

radius/diameter = radius/DE

3.5/7 = 3.5/DE

Therefore, DE = diameter = 7. The correct answer is B.

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 Basic Proportionality Theorem:

A line parallel to any one side of a triangle divides the other two sides proportionally. If DE is
parallel to BC, then

(a) AD/BD = AE/EC

(b) AB/AD = AC/AE

(c) AD/DE = AB/BC and so on.

Example: If BE || CD, and BC = AB = 3, AE = 4 and CD = 10, what is the area of trapezoid BEDC?

A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
E. 48

Explanation:

Since BE||CD, triangle ABE is similar to triangle ACD (parallel lines imply two sets of equal
angles). We can use this relationship to set up a ratio of the respective sides of the two triangles:
AB/AC = AE/AD, or 3/6 = 4/AD or AD = 8

We can find the area of the trapezoid by finding the area of triangle CAD and subtracting the area
of triangle ABE. Triangle CAD is a right triangle since it has side lengths of 6, 8 and 10, which
means that triangle BAE is also a right triangle (they share the same right angle). Area of
trapezoid = area of triangle CAD – area of triangle BAE = 0.5(6)(8) – 0.5(3)(4) = 24 – 6 = 18
The correct answer is B

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Concept # 7: Lines and Angles:

• Two angles whose sum is 90° are complementary. Each one is the complement of the other.
• Two angles whose sum is 180º are supplementary. Each one is the supplement of the other.
• Sum of the three interior angles of a triangle is 180°
• In a triangle, an exterior angle = Sum of the other two interior angles not adjacent to it
• In a triangle, sum of any two sides is greater than the third side and the difference of any two
sides is less than the third side.
• In a triangle, the side opposite to the greatest angle will be the greatest and vice versa.
• If a, b, c denote the sides of a triangle then
o if c² < a² + b², Triangle is acute angled
o if c² = a² + b², Triangle is right angled
o if c² > a² + b², Triangle is obtuse angled
• Sum of the four interior angles of a quadrilateral = 360°
• If a quadrilateral can be inscribed in a circle, it is called a cyclic quadrilateral. Here opposite
angles are supplementary.

• Parallelogram: Opposite sides equal and parallel. P = 2 (a + b)

• Rectangle: A quadrilateral whose opposite sides are equal and each internal angle equal to
90°, is called a rectangle.

l = length, b = breadth, A = l x b, P = 2 (l + b), Diagonal = √(l² + b²)

• Diagonals are equal and bisect each other.

• Of all rectangles of given perimeter, a square has max. area
• When inscribed in a circle, a rectangle will have maximum area when it’s a square.

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• Rhombus: Area of a rhombus (quadrilateral with all four sides equal but diagonals unequal)
= ½ * D1 * D2, where D1 and D2 are its diagonals.

If the side of the rhombus is a, the perimeter is 4a and D12 + D22 = 4a2. The two diagonals are
always perpendicular.

• Square All four sides equal, diagonals equal

If the side of the square is a, then

Area = a2
Diagonal = a√2
Area = Diagonal2 / 2
Diagonals are perpendicular.
The figure formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a square is also a square.

• Trapezium: in this, the two opposite sides are parallel.

Ares of a trapezium = ½ (sum of parallel sides) * height = ½ (b1 + b2) * h

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 Isosceles trapezium (oblique sides equal)

• Polygons: In any polygon, the sum of exterior angles = 360°. In any polygon, the sum of Interior
angles = (2n – 4) 90° or (n – 2) 180°.

For a regular hexagon of side a, perimeter = 6a and area = (3√3a2)/2

Sum of interior angles = 720°, each interior angle = 120°, each exterior angle = 60°.

Example: In the figure, what is x?

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 Explanation:

The polygon in the center of the figure is a pentagon.

The sum of the interior angles of an n-sided polygon is given by (n – 2) × 180°.

For a pentagon, (5 – 2) × 180° = 540°

x + (180 – z) + (180 – y) + x + 110 = 540, or 2x = 70 + y + z.

From the sum of the angles in the triangle at the upper right of the figure: 50 + y + z = 180

So, y + z = 130. Thus, 2x = 70 + 130 = 200, so x = 100.

• Circle: Circumference = 2R = D (R = Radius, D = Diameter = 2R)

Area = A = R² = D²/4  = 22/7 or 3.14

Length of arc of a circle is given by l = (θ °/360°) x 2R

Area of Sector ABC = (θ /360) x R²

Distance travelled by a wheel in n revolutions = n x circumference

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 If two chords intersect inside a circle, then the product of the lengths of the segments of one
chord is equal to the product of the lengths of the segments of the other chord.

In the figure, EA ⋅ EB = EC ⋅ ED

In a circle, angle at the center made by an arc = twice the angle made by the arc at any point on
the remaining part of the circumference.

We have APB = ½ AOB = 30° = AQB

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 Example:

In the figure, circle O has center O, diameter AB and a radius of 5. Line CD is parallel to the
diameter. What is the perimeter of the shaded region?

A. (5/3) + 5√3
B. (5/3)  + 10√3
C. (10/3)  + 5√3
D. (10/3)  + 10√3
E. (10/3)  + 20√3

Explanation:
Given that line CD is parallel to the diameter, we know that angle DCB and angle CBA are equal.
Thus x = 30°. First, let's calculate the length of arc CAE. Since arc CAE corresponds to an inscribed
angle of 60° (2x = 2×30° = 60°), it must correspond to a central angle of 120° which is 1/3 of the
360° of the circle. Thus we can take 1/3 of the circumference to give us the arc length CAE. The
circumference is given as 2πr, where r is the radius. Thus the circumference equals 10π and arc
length CAE equals (10/3)π.

Now we need to calculate the length of CB and BE. Since they have the same angle measure, these
lengths are equal so we can just find one length and double it. Let us find the length of CB. If we
draw a line from A to C we have a right triangle because any inscribed triangle that includes the
diameter is a right triangle. Also, we know that x = 30° so we have a 30–60–90 triangle. The
proportions of the length of the sides of a 30–60–90 triangle are 1–√3–2 for the side opposite
each respective angle. We know the hypotenuse is the diameter which is 2*r = 10. So length AC
must equal 5 and length CB must equal 5√3. Putting this all together gives us (10/3)π + 2 × 5√3
= (10/3)π + 10√3 The correct answer is D.

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 Example:

If PQ is a diameter of the circle shown, and the lengths of AX, BX, PX, and QX are integers, what is
the area of the circle?

(1) AX × BX = 16 (2) QX > AB

Explanation:
Use the product of chord segments property: AX × BX = PX × QX
The question asks for the area of the circle, so it is necessary to find the radius.

(1)

(AX)(BX) = (PX)(QX) = 16

PX = 2 and QX = 8

Diameter = 10

OR

PX = 1 and QX = 16

Diameter = 17 Not Sufficient

(2) NOT SUFFICIENT: This statement gives no indication of the scale of the diagram—i.e., there
is no indication of the size of anything whatsoever—so it is insufficient to determine the area of
the circle.

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 (1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT:

(AX)(BX) = 16 = 1 × 16 = 2 × 8 = 4 × 4 (in any order). So AB = 17 or 10 or 8.

(PX)(QX) = 16 = 1 × 16 = 2 × 8 = 4 × 4 (in any order).

But AB ≥ 8

QX > AB is only possible if QX = 16

Therefore, QX = 16, PX = 1, and so the diameter of the circle is 17; this is enough information to
calculate the area of the circle.

The correct answer is C.

Example:

The circle has radius 8, and AD is parallel to BC. If the length of arc AYD is twice the length of arc
BXC, what is the length of arc BXC?

(A) 2π
(B) 8π/3
(C) 3π
(D) 4π
(E) 16π/3

Explanation:
Because AD is parallel to BC, the measure of angle ACB is also 45°. Angles CAD and ACB are both
inscribed angles of the circle. The measures of the corresponding central angles are twice 45°,
or 90° each. Therefore, taken together, minor arcs AB and CD make up 180° of the entire circle,
leaving 180° for arcs BXC and AYD. Because arc AYD is twice the length of arc BXC, arc BXC must
correspond to a 60° central angle and arc AYD to a 120° central angle. Therefore, arc BXC is

60/360 = 1/6 of the entire circumference of the circle, which equals

2πr = 16π. The length of arc BXC is thus 16π/6 = 8π/3.

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 Solids

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 Problems for class discussion
1. What is the side of the largest square that can be fitted inside an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. None of the above

2. In the figure below (not drawn to scale), rectangle ABCD is inscribed in the circle with center at O.
The length of side AB is greater than that of side BC. The ratio of the area of the circle to the area of
the rectangle ABCD is :3. The line segment DE intersects AB at E such that ODC = ADE. What
is the ratio AE : AD?

A. 1 : √3
B. 1: √2
C. 1 : 2 √3
D. 1:2
E. 2:1

3. What is the largest number of balls of radius R that can be fitted (without compressing) inside a
rectangular box of internal dimensions 2R, 3R, and 9R?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 12
E. 54

4. For a circle with center point P, cord XY is the perpendicular bisector of radius AP (A is a point on
the edge of the circle). What is the length of cord XY?

(1) The circumference of circle P is twice the area of circle P

(2) The length of Arc XAY = 2/3.
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5. Square ABCD is the base of the cube while square EFGH is the cube's top facet such that point E is
above point A, point F is above point B etc. What is the distance between the midpoint of
edge AB and the midpoint of edge EH if the area of square ABCD is 2?

A. 1/√2
B. 1
C. √2
D. √3
E. 2√3

6. In the figure below, θ1 = 30° and θ2 = 45°. If the value of d is 30, what is the value of h?

A. 30
B. 15√3 + 15
C. 30√3
D. 20√2 + 15
E. None of the above

7. If the vertices of a triangle have coordinates (x, 1), (5, 1), and (5, y) where x < 5 and y > 1, what is
the area of the triangle?
(1) x = y
(2) Angle at the vertex (x, 1) is equal to angle at the vertex (5, y)

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8.

9.

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10.

11.

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12.

In the figure, ABCD is a square with sides equal to 1, AFC is an arc of a circle centered at B, and AEC is
an arc of a circle centered at D. What is the area of rhombus AECF?

(A) 2– √2
(B) √2 –1
(C) √2 (2– √2)
(D) √2
(E) 1+ √2

13.
In the figure, A and B are the centers of the two circles. If each circle has radius x, what is the area
of the shaded region?

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14. Diameter AB = 24, Diameter AM = 12, and Diameter MB = 12.

X, Y, and M are the centers of the respective semicircles and O is the center of the circle. If the
radius of the circle with center O is equal to r, the value of r will satisfy which of the following
inequalities?

A. 3.9 < r < 4.1

B. 4.9 < r < 5.1
C. 5.9 < r < 6.1
D. 6.9 < r < 7.1
E. 7.9 < r < 8.1

15. In the figure, triangle ABC has a right angle at B and has a perimeter of 390. Line segment BD is
perpendicular to AC. BD has a length of 60. AB > BC. All the sides of all the three triangles are
integers. The ratio of the area of triangle ABD to the area of triangle BDC is closest to which
integer?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

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16. A square is inscribed in a circle, which in turn is circumscribed by another square as shown
(figure not drawn to scale). If the area of the circle is 64 square centimeter, the area of the
shaded portion will be:

A. 8
B. 16
C. 12
D. 32
E. 48

17. The height of isosceles trapezoid ABDC where AC = BD and AB is parallel to CD (and AC is not
parallel to BD) is 12 units. The length of diagonal AD is 15 units. What is the area of trapezoid
ABDC?

A. 72
B. 90
C. 96
D. 108
E. 180

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 18. For the cube shown, what is the degree measure of PQR?

A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 75
E. 90

19. If triangle ABD is an equilateral triangle and AB = 6 and CE = 18, what fraction of the trapezoid
BACE is shaded?

A. ½
B. 1/3
C. ¼
D. 3/8
E. 3/16

20. If a square is inscribed in a circle that, in turn, is inscribed in a larger square, what is the ratio of
the perimeter of the larger square to that of the smaller square?
A. ½
B. 1/√2
C. √2
D. 2
E. 3.14

21.

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22.

23.

24.

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25.
In the figure below, is the area of the triangle ABC greater than 1?

(1) ∠ABC<900 (2) Perimeter of the triangle ABC is greater than 4/a

26.
If x – q = s – y, what is the value of z?

(1) xq + sy + sx + yq = zr (2) zq – ry = rx – zs

27.
Are all angles of triangle ABC smaller than 90 degrees?
(1) 2AB=3BC=4AC
(2) AC2+AB2>BC2

28.
If vertices of a triangle have coordinates (−1,1), (4,1), and (x,y), what is the area of the triangle?
(1) y2−2y−3=0
(2) x2=y2

29.
If the area of a square equals the area of a circle, which of the following is closest to the ratio of the
diagonal of the square to the diameter of the circle?
0.95 1.26 1.40 1.57 2.51

30.
A rectangle is inscribed in a circle of diameter 2. Which of the following can be the area of the rectangle?
I. 0.01
II. 2.00
III. 3.20

I only II only III only I and II only II and III only

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31.
The length of the diagonal of square S, as well as the lengths of the diagonals of rhombus R are integers.
The ratio of the lengths of the diagonals is 15:11:9, respectively. Which of the following could be the
difference between the area of square S and the area of rhombus R?
I. 63
II. 126
III. 252

I only II only III only I and III only I, II and III

32.
In right triangle ABC, the length of AB is 5√3. What is the area of triangle ABC?

(1) DBC is an equilateral triangle.

(2) ABD is an isosceles triangle.

33.
A circle with a radius R is inscribed into a square with a side K. If the ratio of the area of the square to
the area of the circle is P and the ratio of the perimeter of the square to that of the circle is Q, which of
the following must be true?
P/Q>1 P/Q=1 ½<P/Q<1 P/Q=1/2 P/Q<1/2

34.
If the area of square A is three times the area of square B, what is the ratio of the diagonal of square B to
that of square A?
1/(31/2) 1/(31/3) 31/3 31/2 3

35.
If a point is arbitrarily selected inside a circle of radius R, what is the probability that the distance from
this point to the center of the circle will be greater than R/2?
½ ¾ 7/8 R2/4 3R2/4

36.
In the figure point O is the center of the semicircle and Point B, C, and D lie on the semicircle. If the
length of line segment AB is equal to the length of the line segment OC, what is the degree measure of
angle BAO?

(1) The degree measure of angle COD is 60°

(2) The degree measure of angle BCO is 40°

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37.
In the figure shown, what is the value of x?

(1) The length of line segment QR is equal to the length of line segment RS.
(2) The length of line segment ST is equal to the length of line segment TU.

38.
In the circle shown, PQ is parallel to diameter OR, and OR has length 18. What is the length of minor arc
PQ?

(A) 2 (B) 9/4 (C) 7/2 (D) 9/2 (E) 3

39. ABC is a right triangle with right angle at point B. If the ratio of AB to BC is 8 to 15, what is the area
of the triangle?
(1) The height from point B to the hypotenuse is 120.
(2) The perimeter of the triangle is 680.

40. Vertices of a triangle have coordinates (−2, 2), (3, 2), (x, y). What is the area of the triangle?
(1) |y−2| = 1
(2) Angle at the vertex (x, y) equals 90 degrees

41. Is the perimeter of a triangle greater than 30?

(1) The area of the triangle is 44.
(2) The difference between the longest and the shortest sides of the triangle is 15.

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42. The area of the right triangle ABC is 4 times the area of the right triangle KLM. If the hypotenuse KL
is 10 inches, what is the length of the hypotenuse AB?

(1) Angles ABC and KLM are each equal to 55 degrees.

(2) LM is 6 inches.

43. In the diagram, what is the length of AB?

(1) BE = 3
(2) DE = 4

44. If a rectangle is inscribed in a circle of radius 5, is the area of the rectangle greater than 48?
(1) The ratio of the lengths of sides of the rectangle is 3 : 4
(2) The difference between the lengths of sides of the rectangle is smaller than 3

45. Is the perimeter of a triangle greater than 1?

(1) Two of the altitudes of the triangle are less than 1/3
(2) One of the altitudes of the triangle greater than ½

46. In the figure, the rectangle at the corner measures 10 cm × 20 cm. The corner A of the rectangle is
also a point on the circumference of the circle. What is the radius of the circle in cm?

A. 10 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 30 cm
E. 60 cm
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47. In the following figure, the diameter of the circle is 3 cm. AB and MN are two diameters such that
MN is perpendicular to AB. In addition, CG is perpendicular to AB such that AE : EB = 1 : 2, and DF is
perpendicular to MN such that NL : LM = 1 : 2. The length of DH in cm is

A. 1
B. √2
C. √3
D. 2
E. √2 – ½

48. Three horses are grazing within a semi-circular field. In the diagram given below, AB is the diameter
of the semi-circular field with center at O. The horses are tied up at P, R and S such that PO and RO
are the radii of semi-circles with centers at P and R respectively, and S is the center of the circle
touching the two semi-circles with diameters AO and OB. The horses tied at P and R can graze within
the respective semi–circles and the horse tied at “S” can graze within the circle centered at S. The
percentage of the area of the semicircle with diameter AB that cannot be grazed by the horses is
nearest to

A. 20
B. 28
C. 36
D. 40
E. 45

49. The length of the circumference of a circle equals the perimeter of a triangle of equal sides, and also
the perimeter of a square. The areas covered by the circle, triangle, and square are c, t, and s,
respectively. Then
A. s > t > c
B. c > t > s
C. c > s > t
D. s > c > t
E. t > s > c

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50.

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1.

Let the side of the square be x. So, DE = EF = AE = x (the triangle above is also equilateral).
In triangle EFC, using 30-60-90

If EF = x, FC = x/√3 and EC = 2x/√3 (1 : √3 : 2 ratio)

AE = x
So, side AC of the triangle = EC + AE = (2x/√3) + x.
We are given the side of the triangle as 12.

So 12 = (2x/√3) + x so x = 12√3 / (2 + √3)

Ans. E

2.
Looking at the options, we see 1, ½, 1/√3, 2, 1/√2 … means all angles are standard angles
like 0/30/45/60/90. The only possibility for the two equal angles is 30 degrees. Can’t be 0.
Can’t be 45 or higher. So, angle ADE = 30 degrees, so this is a 30/60/90 triangle. So the
answer is 1 : √3. Answer A
3.

Because one of the dimensions is 3R and the other 2R, we need to worry about only the 3R
dimension (as 2R is also the diameter of the ball, so the ball will fit perfectly on the 2R side).

If we have 2 balls, they will fit as shown below:

2R = distance between the centers. R = Radius of the ball. The vertical distance between 2 centers
= R√3 … let’s call this value R√3 as h.

If there are two balls, h will have to be counted once. If there are three balls, h will have to be
counted twice (draw and check). … in the same way, If there are n balls, h will have to be
counted (n – 1) times.

So we have (n – 1) h + R (the bottom radius) + R (the top radius) ≤ 9R

Or (n – 1)* R√3 + R + R ≤ 9R
Or (n – 1)* R√3 ≤ 7R

R cancels and we have

n ≤ (7/√3) + 1
n ≤ 5.041
So the maximum value of n = 5. Ans. B
4.

PX = r. Since XY bisects radius AP at point B, BP = r/2. By Pythagoras theorem, XB = r√3/2,

so the length of XY = 2* r√3/2 = r√3. So if we can find r, we can find the answer. Since BP is
half of radius XP, right triangle XBP must be a 30-60-90 triangle with sides in the ratio of
1 : √3 : 2.
(1) 2r = 2r2 so r = 1 … sufficient.
(2) Given that triangle XBP is a 30:60: 90 triangle, we know that XPA = 60 degrees and can
deduce that APY = 60 degrees as well. Therefore Arc XAY =120 degrees or 1/3 of the
circumference of the circle. Using this information, we can solve for the radius of the circle
by setting up an equation as follows:
2/3 = 1/3 * 2 r so r = 1
Sufficient.
D is the answer.
5.
Look at the diagram below:

Notice that Z is the midpoint of AD. We need to find the length of line segment XY.

Now, since the area of ABCD is 2, then each edge of the cube equals √2.

XZ=√(AX2+AZ2) = √[(√2/2)2+(√2/2)2]=1

XY=√(XZ2+YZ2)= √[12+(√2)2] = √3

The correct answer is D

6.

θ2 = 45° so the triangle is isosceles so the base is also h.

In the other triangle, θ1 = 30° so the triangle is 30-60-90
So, h / (h + d) = 1/√3, substitute d = 30, we get h = 15√3 + 15 Ans. B
7.
Look at the diagram below:

Notice that vertex (x,1) will be somewhere on the green line segment and the vertex (5,y)
will be somewhere on the blue line segment. So, in any case our triangle will be right angled,
with a right angle at vertex (5, 1). Next, the length of the leg on the green line segment will
be 5−x and the length of the leg on the blue line segment will be y−1. So, the area of the
triangle will be: area=1/2∗(5−x)∗(y−1).

(1) x=y. Since x<5 and y>1 then both x and y are in the range (1,5): 1<(x=y)<5. If we
substitute y with x we'll get: area=1/2∗(5−x)∗(y−1)=1/2∗(5−x)∗(x−1), different values
of x give different values for the area (even knowing that 1<x<5). Not sufficient.

(2) Angle at the vertex (x,1) is equal to angle at the vertex (5,y). We have an isosceles right
triangle: 5−x=y−1. Again if we substitute y−1 with 5−x, we'll get: area =1/2∗(5−x)∗(y−1)
=1/2∗(5−x)∗(5−x), different values of x give different values for the area. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) x=y and 5−x=y−1. Solve for x: x=y=3, so area=1/2∗(5−3)∗(3−1)=2. Sufficient.

The correct answer is C

8.

9.
10.

11.

12.
13.
(C): The easiest way to solve this problem is to add a few lines to the diagram:

Because AB, AC, AD, BC, and BD are all radii of one of the circles, they are of equal length (all
equal to x) and form two equilateral triangles: ABC and ABD. Therefore,
angles ACB and ADB are 60° each, and angles CAD and CBD each equal 120°. Line
segment CD bisects angles ACB and ADB and is perpendicular to line segment AB.
Therefore, triangles ACE, ADE, BCE, and BDE are all 30–60–90 triangles.

Because angle CAD = 120°, it intercepts an arc equal to 1/3 of the area of circle A.
The area of circle A is given by πx², so the area of the sector intercepted by that angle is
πx²/3. Similarly, the area of the arc intercepted by angle CBD is
πx²/3. Adding these together, you get 2πx²/3
However, this measure double counts the four 30–60–90 triangles in the middle of the
region. Therefore, you must subtract out their areas.
Each of the 30–60–90 triangles has a hypotenuse of x and a short leg of x/2. Using the
proportion 1 : √3 : 2 for the sides of a 30-60-90 triangle, the long legs of these four triangles
equal x/ √3

Since there are four of them, the total area of the 30–60–90 triangles is

.
Therefore, the total area of the shaded region equals:
14.

XM = 6, MC = 12, MO = 12 – r, XO = 6 + r
Use Pythogaras theorem
62 + (12 – r)2 = (6 + r)2 or r = 4. Ans. A

15.
390 is 2×3×5×13
60 is part of 2 right angled triangles.
No triplet is possible with 2
3, 4, 5 is a triplet involving 3 and 5
5, 12, 13 is a triplet involving 5 and 13.
5×12 = 60
So we try the ratio of all the three triangles to be 5:12:13 (because we want 60 as the common
side).

5 12 13
×12 60 144 156
×5 25 60 65

AB > BC, so the triangle above is bigger than triangle below.

Let’s try BD = 60, AD = 144, AB = 156

Again, if BD = 60, DC = 25, and BC = 65 so AC = 169

So, the three triangles are

1. 60, 144, 156 (5, 12, 13 multiplied by 12)

2. 25, 60, 65 (5, 12, 13 multiplied by 5)
3. 65, 156, 169 (5, 12, 13 multiplied by 13)

Q. What’s the double check that these combinations are correct?

A. The perimeter of triangle ABC is indeed 390. And all the sides are integers.

So, the combinations are correct.

The ratio of areas of the two triangles will be ½ * BD * AD divided by ½ * BD * DC

= AD / DC = 144/25 … the closest integer is 6 Ans. E

16.

Imagine rotating the inside circle by 45 degrees left. This is how the figure will look like. The
required area will be as shown by the two ticks in the diagram below.

The required area = a triangle whose side = the radius of the circle
Area of the circle = 64. So the radius = 8, so the side of the triangle = 8.
So the area of the triangle = ½ * 8 * 8 = 32
Answer D
 17.

We can use the Pythagorean Theorem to see the ED = 9.

Imagine that the left triangle were to be shifted and made the way it is mentioned in the
diagram below: then we just have to find the area of the rectangle with sides 12 and 9…
ans. 12*9 = 108.

18.

Note that triangle PQR is equilateral: it's made by the diagonals of the adjacent faces of the
given cube (and as faces of a cube are squares its diagonals are equal). Thus angle BEG=60
degrees.

Answer: C.

19. The area of triangle ABD = (1/2)bh = (1/2)(6) h

The area of trapezoid BACE = (1/2)(6 + 18) h
Ratio = 6/24 = ¼ Ans. C
20.
Consider the diagram below:

The side of a large square is a, thus its perimeter is 4a;

The side of a small square is a/√2, thus its perimeter is 4a/√2

Hence the ratio is (4a)/(4a/√2)= √2

The correct answer is C

21.
Ans. B

22.
23.
24.

25.
Given isosceles triangle ABC with base=AC=2/a and height=a2
area=1/2∗base∗height=1/2∗2/a∗a2=a. So, the question basically ask whether a>1?
(1) ∠ABC<90 degrees. Assume ∠ABC=90 then hypotenuse is AC=2/a, as ABC becomes
isosceles right triangle then the leg=BC=AB=(2/a)/√2=√2/a.
But BC=√2/a also equals to √[(1/a)2+(a2)2], so we have √2/a=√[(1/a)2+(a2)2], which leads
to 2=1+a6
So, finally we have that a6=1 or a=1 (as a as per diagram is positive). Now, if we
increase a then the base 2/a will decrease and the height a2 will increase thus making angle
ABC smaller than 90 and if we decrease a then the base 2/a will increase and the
height a2 will decrease thus making the angle ABC greater than 90. So, as angle ABC is less
than 90, a must be more than 1. Sufficient.
(2) Perimeter of the triangle ABC is greater than 4/a.
P=BC+AB+AC=2BC+AC=2√[(1/a)2+(a2)2] + (2/a) > 4/a so a6>0 so a>0. Hence we don't know
whether a>1 is true. Not sufficient. The correct answer is A
26.
We are given two triangles and asked to determine the degree measure of z, an angle in one
of them.

The first step in this problem is to analyze the information provided in the question stem.
We are told that x – q = s – y. We can rearrange this equation to yield x + y = s + q. Since x + y
+ z = 180 and since q + s + r = 180, it must be true that z = r. We can now look at the
statements.

Statement (1) tells us that xq + sy + sx + yq = zr. In order to analyze this equation, we need
to rearrange it to facilitate factorization by grouping like terms: xq + yq + sx + sy = zr. Now
we can factor:

Since x + y = q + s and z = r, we can substitute and simplify:

Is this sufficient to tell us the value of z? Yes. Why? Consider what happens when we
substitute z for x + y:

It is useful to remember that when the sum of two angles of a triangle is equal to the third
angle, the triangle must be a right triangle. Statement (1) is sufficient.

Statement (2) tells us that zq – ry = rx – zs. In order to analyze this equation, we need to
rearrange it:
Is this sufficient to tell us the value of z? No. Why not? Even though we know the following:

z=r
x+y=q+s
x + y + z = 180
q + r + s = 180

we can find different values that will satisfy the equation we derived from statement (2):

or

These are just two examples. We could find many more. Since we cannot determine the
value of z, statement (2) is insufficient.

The correct answer is A: Statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) is not.

27.
(1) 2AB=3BC=4AC. We have the ratio of the sides: AB:BC:AC=6:4:3. Now, ALL triangles with
this ratio are similar and have the same fixed angles. No matter what these angles actually
are, the main point is that we can get them and thus answer the question. Sufficient.
(2) AC2+AB2>BC2. This condition will hold for equilateral triangle (all angles are 60 degrees)
as well as for a right triangle with right angle at B or C (so in this case one angle will be 90
degrees, for example consider a right triangle: AC=5, AB=4 and BC=3). Not sufficient.
The correct answer is A
28.

(1) y=3 or −1. Look at the diagram below:

The third vertex is either on line y=3 (blue line) or on line y=−1 (green line). Notice that in
either case the height of the triangle is 2 (consider two possible positions of the third vertex
shown on the diagram). Now, since the length of the base of the triangle is 4−(−1)=5 then the
area is 1/2∗base∗height=1/2∗5∗2=5. Sufficient.

(2) x2=y2. This implies that |x|=|y|. Clearly insufficient, consider x=y=3 or x=y=5.

The correct answer is A

29.
If x is the side of the square, then the area of the square is x2 and the diagonal of the square
is x√2. If d is the diameter of the circle then the area of the circle is π(d/2)2.
Because x2=π(d/2)2, d=2x/√π. The required ratio =(x√2)/(2x/√π)=√(π/2)=√1.57. This is
slightly smaller than √1.69=1.3

The correct answer is B

30.
Look at the diagram below:

If the width of blue rectangle is small enough then its area could be 0.01.
Generally, the area of the inscribed rectangle is more than 0 and less than or equal to
the area of the inscribed square (inscribed square has the largest area from all rectangles
that can be inscribed in a given circle).
Now, since the area of the inscribed square in a circle with the diameter of 2 is 2, then the
area of the inscribed rectangle is 0<area≤2. So, I and II are possible values of the area. (Else
you can notice that the area of the circle is πr2=π≈3.14 and the area of the inscribed rectangle
cannot be greater than that, so III is not possible)
The correct answer is D

31.
Given that the ratio of the diagonal is ds:d1:d2=15x:11x:9x, for some positive
integer x (where ds is the diagonal of square S and d1 and d2 are the diagonals of rhombus
R).
Areasquare=ds2/2 and arearhombus=d1∗d2/2
The difference = (15x)2/2−11x∗9x/2=63x2
If x=1, then the difference is 63;
If x=2, then the difference is 252;
In order the difference to be 126, x should be √2, which is not possible.
The correct answer is D
32.
(1) DBC is an equilateral triangle. This implies that each angle in DBC is 60°. So, angle C is
also 60°. We know one side and all the angles in triangle ABC (90°–60°–30°). We can calculate
anything we want about it. Sufficient. Since DBC is an equilateral triangle, ∠ADB = ∠DCB +
∠DBC =120° ∠ABD = 90° – ∠DBC = 30°. Hence triangle ADB is isosceles with
∠ABD = ∠DAB = 30°.
The sides BC, CD, AD and DB are all equal.
Let BC = x, so AC = 2x
In right triangle ABC, AC2 =AB2 + BC2
(2x)2 = x2 +(5√3)2
x=5. Hence area of ABC= 25√3/2
(1) is sufficient

(2) ABD is an isosceles triangle. We don't know which sides in ABD are equal, so more than
1 case is possible. Not sufficient.
The correct answer is A

33.
Pick numbers. Assume K=6. For the inscribed circle, R=K/2=6/2=3. Thus, area of the square
is 6∗6=36 and area of the circle is π∗R2=9π. The ratio P is 4/π.
The perimeter of the square is 24 and the perimeter of the circle is 2π∗R=6π. The
ratio Q is 4/π.
P/Q=1
The correct answer is B

34.
The ratio of the diagonals is the same as the ratio of the sides. If the side of B is b, then the
side of A must be b√3. The required ratio is:
b/b√3=1/√3.
The correct answer is A

35.
For the point to be further than R/2 from the center, it has to lie on the disk confined between
the circumference of radius R and the circumference of radius R/2. The required probability
will equal the ratio of the area of this disk to the area of the big circle. The area of the disk
= πR2−[π(R/2)2]= ¾ πR2. The area of the big circle = πR2. The ratio = ¾. The correct answer
is B
36.
(1) COD is 60, you already know that OB and OC are equal because they are both radii of
the circle. I labeled angles CBO and BCO s. Since it is given that OC is equal to AB you know
that AB is also then equal to OB. So I labeled BAO and AOB both x since they are equal due
to the opposite sides being equal. By the rule of exterior angles of a triangle x + x = s, so 2x
= s. I labeled angle BOC t. x+t = 120 (180 – COD (60) = 120). So for the larger triangle I have
the equation x + s + x+t = 180. I substitute 120 for x+t and 2x for x which gives me x + 2x +
120 = 180. Subtract 120 from both sides and you get 3x = 60, so x = 20, SUFFICIENT.

(2) BCO is 40. Using the same descriptors for angles I have and utilizing again the exterior
angles rule I have x + x = s so 2x = 40, x = 20, SUFFICIENT. Answer D.

37.
(1) alone NS
(2) alone NS
Statements (1) and (2) together:
Since the triangle is a right triangle, we know that angles R and T must add to 90 degrees.
Let angle R be y degrees, and let angle T be (90 – y) degrees.
Then
each of angles RQS and RSQ is (180 – y)/2 = 90 – y/2 degrees; and
each of angles TSU and TUS is (180 – (90 – y))/2 = 45 + y/2 degrees.
therefore, since angle RSQ, x, and angle TSU make a straight line together,
x = 180 – RSQ – TSU
= 180 – (90 – y/2) – (45 + y/2)
= 45 degrees.
sufficient answer = C

38.
Inscribed angle (with the vertex on the circle itself): the arc that gets cut off by the angle
has twice as many degrees as does the angle.
Central angle (with the vertex at the center of the circle): the arc that gets cut off by the
angle has the same number of degrees as does the angle.
In this case, angle QPR and angle PRO are both inscribed angles. They are also alternate
interior angles (the 'Z angles' formed by parallel lines and a transversal), so both are 35
degrees.
Therefore, arc OP and arc QR are both 70 degrees each. Since OPQR is a semicircle, it
contains a total of 180 degrees, so arc PQ is 180 – 70 – 70 = 40 degrees.

40 degrees is 1/9 of a circle, so that arc is 1/9 of the total circumference of the circle, or
(1/9)(18π) = 2 π.

Answer = A
39.
ABC is a right triangle with right angle at point B. If the ratio of AB to BC is 8 to 15, what is
the area of the triangle?
First of all since the ration of AB to BC is 8x:15x, then the hypotenuse is
√[(8x)2+(15x)2] =17x
(1) The height from point B to the hypotenuse is 120.
Consider the image below:

The area of a right triangle equals to 1/2∗leg1∗leg2=1/2∗AB∗BC. But the area of a right
triangle can also be found by 1/2∗(altitude from right angle)∗(hypotenuse)=1/2∗BD∗AC

Equate these expressions:

1/2∗AB∗BC=1/2∗BD∗AC
1/2∗8x∗15x=1/2∗120∗17x
120x=120∗17
x=17
The area = 1/2∗AB∗BC=1/2∗8x∗15x=60x=60∗17
Sufficient.
(2) The perimeter of the triangle is 680.
The perimeter = 8x+15x+17x=680. We can find x, thus we can find the area. Sufficient.
The correct answer is D
40.
Given two points A(−2,2) and B(3,2). Question asks to find the area of triangle ABC,
where C(x,y). Look at the diagram below:

(1) |y−2|=1. Either y=3 or y=1, hence vertex C could be anywhere on the blue line y=3 or
anywhere on the red line y=1. But in ANY case the area of ABC will be the
same: area=1/2∗base∗height so base=AB=5 and the height would be 1 for any point C (see
two possible locations of C: C1 and C2, the heights of ABC1 and ABC2 are the same and equal
to 1). So, we have that area=1/2∗base∗height=5/2. Sufficient.

(2) Angle at the vertex (x,y) equals 90 degrees. This statement says that ABC is a right
triangle with hypotenuse AB: consider AB to be diameter of a circle. In this case C could be
anywhere on the circle and it will be right angle (if the diameter of the circle is also the
inscribed triangle’s side, then that triangle is a right triangle), thus height of ABC will be
different for different location of point C, resulting the different areas (see two possible
locations of C: C3 and C4, heights of ABC3 and ABC4 are different). Not sufficient.
The correct answer is A

41.
(1)
With a perimeter of 30, the maximum area of the triangle will be obtained when the triangle
is equilateral.
So the sides are: 10, 10, 10
3 2
Area A = a
4
= (√3/4) * 10 * 10 = 25√3 = 43.301 √3 = 1.732
So, if the perimeter is 30, the maximum area of a triangle can be 43.301.
So, if the area is 44, the perimeter must be more than 30. Sufficient
(2) let a, b, c be the sides in the increasing order (a < b < c)
c – a = 15
So, c + a is definitely greater than 15
Now we know that the difference of any two sides of a triangle is less than the third side
So, c – a < b or 15 < b or b > 15
We already know that a + c > 15
So, a + b + c > 30
Sufficient Ans. D

42.
If the area is 4 times, side will be 2 times … we just need to ascertain that the two
triangles are similar.
(1) SUFFICIENT: Triangles ABC and KLM are similar. Thus, we know that AB/KL = BC/LM =
AC/KM = 2. Therefore, AB = 2KL = 2(10) = 20
(2) INSUFFICIENT: This statement tells us the length of one of the shorter sides of the
triangle KLM. We can compute all the sides of this triangle (note that this is a 6-8-10 triangle)
and find its area (i.e., (0.5)(6)(8) = 24); finally, we can also calculate that the area of the
triangle ABC is equal to 96 (four times the area of KLM). Therefore: 96 = (BC × AC)/2 and
192 = BC × AC. We also know the Pythagorean theorem: (BC)2 + (AC)2= (AB)2. But there is
no way to convert BC × AC into (BC)2 + (AC)2 so we cannot determine the hypotenuse of
triangle ABC.
The correct answer is A.

43.
We are given a right triangle that is cut into four smaller right triangles. Each smaller triangle
was formed by drawing a perpendicular from the right angle of a larger triangle to that larger
triangle's hypotenuse. When a right triangle is divided in this way, two similar triangles are
created. And each one of these smaller similar triangles is also similar to the larger triangle
from which it was formed.
Thus, for example, triangle ABD is similar to triangle BDC, and both of these are similar to
triangle ABC. Moreover, triangle BDE is similar to triangle DEC, and each of these is similar
to triangle BDC, from which they were formed. If BDE is similar to BDC and BDC is similar to
ABD, then BDE must be similar to ABD as well.
Remember that similar triangles have the same interior angles and the ratio of their side
lengths are the same. So the ratio of the side lengths of BDE must be the same as the ratio of
the side lengths of ABD. We are given the hypotenuse of BDE, which is also a leg of triangle
ABD. If we had even one more side of BDE, we would be able to find the side lengths of BDE
and thus know the ratios, which we could use to determine the sides of ABD.
(1) SUFFICIENT: If BE = 3, then BDE is a 3-4-5 right triangle. BDE and ABD are similar
triangles, as discussed above, so their side measurements have the same
proportion. Knowing the three side measurements of BDE and one of the side measurements
of ABD is enough to allow us to calculate AB.
To illustrate:
BD = 5 is the hypotenuse of BDE, while AB is the hypotenuse of ABD.
The longer leg of right triangle BDE is DE = 4, and the corresponding leg in ABD is BD = 5.
Since they are similar triangles, the ratio of the longer leg to the hypotenuse should be the
same in both BDE and ABD.
For BDE, the ratio of the longer leg to the hypotenuse = 4/5.
For ABD, the ratio of the longer leg to the hypotenuse = 5/AB.
Thus, 4/5 = 5/AB, or AB = 25/4 = 6.25
(2) SUFFICIENT: If DE = 4, then BDE is a 3-4-5 right triangle. This statement provides
identical information to that given in statement (1) and is sufficient for the reasons given
above.

The correct answer is D.

44.

Look at the diagram below:

A right triangle inscribed in a circle must have its hypotenuse as the diameter of the
circle. Since a rectangle is made of two right triangles then a rectangle inscribed in a circle
must have its diagonal as the diameter of the circle. Hypotenuse (diameter) is 10 and the
legs are in the ratio of 3 to 4 then we have 6-8-10 right triangle (Pythagorean Triple).

(2) The difference between the lengths of sides of the rectangle is smaller than 3. Given
that b−a<3. Square both sides: b2+a2−2ab < 9

Now, since diagonal=102=a2+b2

So, 100−2ab<9, so ab>45.5. So we have that area=ab>45.5, hence the area may or may not
be more than 48. Not sufficient. The correct answer is A
45.

(1)

Imagine a triangle with sides close to zero (imagine each side to be 1/1000). In this case, the
altitudes will be less than 1/3, and the perimeter will be very very small (much less than 1).

Now imagine a triangle with 2 sides very very large (1000 each) and one side very small
(0.001). In this case, the two altitudes will be less than 1/3 and one of the altitudes will be
very large. In this case the perimeter will be > 1. So (1) is insufficient.

(2)

Even if one of the altitudes is = 1/2, at least 2 sides will be > 1/2. So the perimeter will be
greater than 1. Sufficient.

Answer B

46. C
47. E
48. B
49. C

50.
 Quant: Co–ordinate Geometry + Functions and Graphs
www.top–one–percent.com | info@top–one–percent.com | +91–97395–61394

By Sandeep Gupta | GMAT 800/800, Harvard Final Admit

Co–ordinates:

• If 2 points (a, b) and (c, d) lie in the same quadrant, then a and c should have the same sign; and
b and d should have the same sign.
• Distance between 2 points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is given by 𝑑 = √(𝑥2 − 𝑥1 )2 + (𝑦2 − 𝑦1 )2
• Distance of the point (a, b) from the origin (0, 0) is given by √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2
• Any point on the X axis can be taken as (a, 0)
• Any point on the Y axis can be taken as (0, b)
• In order to find the X–intercept of a line, put Y = 0 in the equation of the line and find X
• In order to find the Y intercept of a line, put X = 0 and find Y.

Straight line (slope):

o Equation of x axis: y = 0
o Equation of y axis: x = 0
o Equation of line parallel to x axis: y = k (k is a constant)
o Equation of line parallel to y axis: x = k (k is a constant)

o The equation of a line which makes an angle of θ (measured anticlockwise) with the X axis and
has the y–intercept c is given by y = mx + c, where m = tan θ. Here m is the slope of the line and
c is the y intercept of the line. For this line, slope = m, x intercept = –c/m and y intercept = c. So,
to find the slope of any line, write it in Y = mX + c form first.
o For example, the line 2x – y + 10 = 0 can be written as y = 2x + 10, so the slope will be 2. The line
4x = y + 5 can be written as y = 4x – 5, so the slope will be 4.
o Slope = RISE / RUN
o Slope = (y2 – y1) / (x2 – x1)
𝑦 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡
o Slope = − 𝑥 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡
o For the line ax + by + c = 0, slope = –a/b, x intercept = –c/a, y intercept = –c/b

o If we write it in y = mx + c form, the line can be written as y = –(a/b)x –c/b

o So, the slope = –a/b
o To find the x intercept, substitute y = 0, and find x → x intercept = –c/a
o To find the y intercept, substitute x = 0, and find y → y intercept = –c/b

o If two lines are parallel then their slopes are equal (m1 = m2). If two lines do not intersect, they
are parallel.
o If two lines are perpendicular to each other, the product of their slopes is –1. (m1 m2 = –1).
o The point of intersection of two lines (X, Y) is obtained by simultaneously solving both the
equations.
o To plot a line, first put y = 0, find the point on x axis; then put x = 0, fins the point on y axis. Join
the two points to get the desired graph.
o Positive and Negative Slopes: Whether a line has a positive or negative slope is easy to tell just
by looking at a graph of the line. If the line slopes uphill as you trace it from left to right, the slope
is positive. If a line slopes downhill as you trace it from left to right, the slope is negative. Uphill
= positive. Downhill = negative.
o You can get a sense of the magnitude of the slope of a line by looking at the line’s steepness. The
steeper the line, the greater the slope; the flatter the line, the smaller the slope. Note that an
extremely positive slope is larger than a moderately positive slope, while an extremely negative
slope is smaller than a moderately negative slope.
o Check out the lines below and try to determine whether the slope of each line is negative or
positive and which has the greatest slope:

Lines a and b have positive slopes, and lines c and d have negative slopes. In terms of slope
magnitude, line a > b > c > d.
Q.

Does the line L whose equation is y = mx + c cut the x–axis in the positive direction of x–axis?
(1) The intercepts of Line K, perpendicular to L, are of the opposite signs.
(2) Line L passes through the 4th quadrant.

Sol. E
𝑦 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡
Slope = − 𝑥 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡
From (1), if the intercepts of K are of opposite signs, by the above formula, slope of K is positive.
L and K are perpendicular, so the product of their slopes = –1. Since the slope of K is positive, the slope
of L must be negative for the product of slopes to be –1. In the two figures below, L has a negative slope
and passes through the 4th quadrant, but in one case, the x intercept is positive and in the other case,
the x–intercept is negative. So, E

Q.
The y intercept of a line L is 4. If the slope of L is negative, which of the following could be the x
intercept of L?
I. –1
II. 0
III. 6

Sol.
X intercept of y = mx + c is Xintercept = –c/m = –4/m = –4/ a –ve number = positive.
Only III is possible. OR

Let's draw a bunch of lines with a negative slope AND have a y–intercept of 4, means passes through
the point (0,4).

As we can see, the x–intercept can have ANY POSITIVE value. So, the x–intercept COULD be 6, but it
could NOT be –1 or 0
Q. Does line Ax + By + C = 0 (A is not 0) intersect the x–axis on the negative side?
(1) BA < 0.
(2) AC > 0.

Sol.
The question is asking whether the x intercept of this line is negative. Or whether –C/A is negative or
not or whether C/A is positive or not or whether A and C are of same sign or not.
(2) gives us that A and C are of the same sign. Ans. B

Q.
An (x, y) coordinate pair is to be chosen at random from the xy–plane. What is the probability that y≥|x|?
A. 1/10
B. 1/8
C. 1/6
D. 1/5
E. 1/4

Sol. The graph of y = |x| is

All points which satisfy y≥|x| condition lie above that graph. You can see that portion of the plane which
is above the graph is 1/4. Answer: E.

Q. In the figure below, which line has greater slope, AB or AC?

Sol. While there are no numbers on the graph, both lines have positive slopes (the lines rise upward
when reading from left to right) and segment AB is steeper than segment AC. Thus, segment AB has a
greater slope.
Q. Which line has greater slope, L1 or L2?

Sol.

Ans. L1 has a greater slope.

Parabola Basics
If we plot y = ax2 + bx + c, we get the equation of a parabola.

For x-axis intersection, y = 0, so ax2 + bx + c = 0

• If b2 > 4ac, the parabola will cut the x axis in 2 distinct points (distinct real roots)
• If b2 = 4ac, the parabola will touch the x axis at one point (equal roots)
• If b2 < 4ac, the parabola will not cut the x axis (imaginary roots)

If the x term is absent (b = 0), then the parabola will have its axis of symmetry
on y axis.

If the x term is present, the axis of symmetry will be parallel to y axis, but not y-
axis itself.
If a and c are positive, then we have four possibilities for y = ax2 + c

1. y = ax2 + c Opens upwards, vertex above x axis.

2. y = ax2 – c Opens upwards, vertex below x axis.
3. y = –ax2 + c Opens downwards, vertex above x axis.
4. y = –ax2 – c Opens downwards, vertex below x axis.
Q. Graph the curve: y = –3x2 + 3
Graph of y = a(x−h)2 + k
Here (h, k) is the vertex. Because the vertex appears in the standard form of the quadratic function, this
form is also known as the vertex form of a quadratic function.

y=−3(x+2)2 + 4. y=x2−3

Q.
Does the curve y=b(x−2)2 + c lie completely above the x–axis?
(1) b>0, c<0
(2) b>2, c<2

Sol.

(1)
b is positive and c is negative.
b is positive. (x − 2)2 cannot be negative. It will be 0 (when x = 2) or positive. So, at x = 2, the first term
will be 0 but c will be negative. This means y will be negative. So, the curve will not lie completely above
x axis.

(2)
b>2, c<2 c could be positive or negative.
b is positive so first term would be 0 or positive. Depending on the value of c, the graph could lie
completely above x axis (say if c = 1) or below too (if c = –1)
Not sufficient. Answer (A)

Q.
Does y = ax2 + bx + c intersect the x axis?
(1) a < 0
(2) c > 0

Sol.
b2 is either zero or positive (squares can’t be negative). ac will be negative, 4ac will also be negative, so
b2 will always be greater than 4ac. Ans. C
Q.
Does the curve h(x)=y=ax2 + c intersect the x–axis?
(1) h(4) > 0
(2) a>0

Sol.
Is b2 > 4ac?
b = 0, so the question becomes: is 0 > 4ac? Or is 4ac < 0 or is ac < 0? Or are a and c of opposite signs?
Given (1) 16a + c > 0 (2) a > 0
Combine, (a, c) could be (1, 1) or (a, c) could be (1, –1) … in either case, the conditions from both the
statements are satisfied by the values above, so ac could be positive or negative. Ans. E
Q.
Does the graph of y = mx2 + h intersect the x–axis?
(1) m < 0
(2) h > 0

Sol.
Is b2 > 4ac? Here, b = 0, a = m, c = h, so the question becomes: is 0 > 4mh? Or is 4mh < 0 or is mh < 0? Or
are m and h of opposite signs? Ans. C

Q.
In the xy–plane, at what two points does the graph of y = (x + a)(x + b) intersect the x–axis?
(1) a + b = –1
(2) The graph intersects the y–axis at (0, –6)

Sol.
x axis means y = 0, so (x + a) (x + b) = 0 or x2 + (a + b)x + ab = 0
(1) gives a + b, but not ab. NS
(2) gives ab = –6. NS

Combining:
The equation becomes x2 – x – 6 = 0
So, (x – 3) (x + 2) = 0 or x = 3 or –2
So, the two points are (3, 0) and (–2, 0). Ans. C
 Questions for class discussion
1. If ab ≠ 0 and points (–a, b) and (–b, a) are in the same quadrant of the xy–plane, is point (–x, y)
in this same quadrant? (1) xy > 0 (2) ax > 0

2. In the rectangular coordinate system, are the points (r, s) and (u, v) equidistant from the origin?
(1) r + s = 1 (2) u = 1 – r and v = 1 – s

3. On the coordinate plane, is point (0,0) closer to point (u,v) than to point (u,v+1)?
(1) v+u2=−1
(2) v<0

4. If ac≠0, do graphs y=ax2+b and y=cx2+d intersect?

(1) a=−c (2) b>d

5. What is the greatest possible area of a triangular region with one vertex at the center of a circle
of radius 1 and the other two vertices on the circle?
1 ½ √3/2 √3/4 2

6. Does the circle that is centered at the point (a, b) and that has a radius = 4 intersect the Y axis?
(1) a2+b2>16
(2) a=|b|+5

7. If on the coordinate plane (6,2) and (0,6) are the endpoints of the diagonal of a square, what is
the distance between point (0,0) and the closest vertex of the square?
1/√2 1 √2 √3 2√3

8. At what angle do lines y=Kx+B and y=Bx+K intersect?

(1) B+K=1
(2) BK=0

9. In the xy–plane, line m is a line that does not pass through the origin. Is the slope of line m is
negative?
(1) The product of the x–intercept and the y–intercept of line m is positive.
(2) Line m passes through the points (a, b) and (c, d), where (b−d)/(a−c)<0.
10. In the xy–plane, region R consists of all the points (x, y) such that 2x + 3y ≤ 6. Is the point (r, s) in
region R?
(1) 3r + 2s = 6 (2) r ≤ 3 and s ≤ 2

11. Circle C and line K lie in the xy–plane. If circle C is centered at the origin and has radius 1, does
line K intersect circle C?
(1) The x–intercept of line k is greater than 1
(2) the slope of line K is –1/10

12. In the x–y plane, what is the y–intercept of the line l?

(1) Slope of the line l is 3 times its y intercept. (2) The x–intercept of line l is –1/3

13. In the rectangular coordinate system, does the line k (not shown) intersect quadrant II?
(1) Slope of k is –1/6 (2) The y–intercept of k is –6

14. For every point (a, b) lying on line 1, point (b, −a) lies on line 2. If the equation of line 1 is y=2x+1,
what is the equation of line 2?
A. y = (1/2) + (x/2)
B. 2y=1−x
C. (x+y)/2=−1
D. y=(x/2)−1
E. x=2y+1

15. In the xy–plane, the line k passes through the origin and through point (a, b), where ab ≠ 0. Is b
positive?
(1) The slope of k is negative (2) a < b

16. In the XY–coordinate plane, is the product of slopes of line L and line K negative?
(1) The product of the x–intercepts of line L and K is positive.
(2) The product of the y–intercepts of line L and k is negative.

17. Lines N and P lie in the x–y plane. Is the slope of the line N less than the slope of line P?
(1) Lines N and N intersect at (5, 1)
(2) The y–intercept of line N is greater than y–intercept of line P.

18. Two lines l and k intersect at a point (4, 3). Is the product of their slopes –1?
(1) x intercepts of line l and k are positive (2) y intercept of line l and k are negative

19. If equation |x/2|+|y/2|=5 encloses a certain region on the coordinate plane, what is the area of
this region?
20 50 100 200 400

20. In the rectangular coordinate system, line k passes through the point (n, −1). Is the slope of line
k greater than zero?
(1) Line k passes through the origin.
(2) Line k passes through the point (1, n + 2).
21. Lines k and l intersect in the coordinate plane at point (3, –2). Is the largest angle formed at the
intersection between these two lines greater than 90°?
(1) Lines k and l have positive y–axis intercepts.
(2) The distance between the y–axis intercepts of lines k and l is 5.

22. A circle in a coordinate plane has a center at point A and a diameter of 6. If points B and C also
lie in the same coordinate plane, is point B inside the circle?
(1) The distance between point A and point C equals 2.
(2) The distance between point B and point C equals 2.

23. In the coordinate plane, point C is not displayed. If the length of line segment BC is twice the
length of line segment AB, which of the following could not be the coordinates of point C?

A. (–5, –2)
B. (9, 12)
C. (10, 11)
D. (11, 10)
E. (13, 4)

24. Trapezoid OPQR has one vertex at the origin. What is the area of OPQR?

A. a2/4
B. a2/2
C. 3a2/4
D. 3a2/2
E. 2a2
25. Rhombus ABCD lies in the xy–plane, as shown in the figure. The coordinates of point C are (–3,
4) and the coordinates of point B are (–7, 7). What is the area of the ABCD?

A. 1 B. 2√7 C. 7 D. 8 E. 7√2
A quick glance at basic graphs:
Some plots shown:
F(x) = Y = K (K is a constant) or Y = K

F(x) = Y = X Or Y = X

F(x) = y = |x| or y = |x|

F(x) = y = x2 OR y = x2

F(x) = y = x3

F(x) = y = 1/x
F(x) = y = 1/x2

F(x) = y = √x

F(x) = y = ∛x
 Questions for class discussion
1.
2.

3.

4.
All points (x, y) that lie below the line l, shown above, satisfy which of the following inequalities?

A. y < 2x + 3
B. y < –2x + 3
C. y < –x + 3
D. y<½x+3
E. y < –½ x + 3
5.

6.

7.
8.

9.
10.

11.
12.

In the rectangular coordinate system above, if point A (not shown) is equidistant from points O and B
and the area of triangle OAB is 16, which of the following are the possible coordinates of point A?
(A) (–2, 6)
(B) (0, 4)
(C) (2, –6)
(D) (2, 6)
(E) (4, 0)

13.

Which of the following equations represents a line perpendicular to line k in the figure above?
(A) 3y + 2x = –12
(B) 2y + x = 0
(C) 2y – x = 0
(D) y + 2x = 12
(E) y – 2x = 12
14.
15. Match the graph with the equation:

A. y = |x2 – 3|
B. y = |x – 2|
C. y = x2 – 3
D. 𝑦 = √𝑥 + 4

1. 2.

3.

4.
16.
Among the following options, which of the following is the best possible equation of line p?

(A) 3x + 7y = 18
(B) 7x + 3y = 18
(C) 3x – 7y = 18
(D) 7x – 3y = 18
(E) 3x + 7y = –18

17.
The graph shows line H. Line J (not shown) does not pass through the first quadrant. Which of the
following could be true?

I. line J is perpendicular to line H

II. line J is parallel to line H
III. line J intersect line H in the third quadrant
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
18.
In the xy–plane shown, the shaded region consists of all points that lie above the graph of y = x2– 4x and
below the x–axis. Does the point (a, b) (not shown) lie in the shaded region if b < 0?

(1) 0 < a < 4

(2) a2 – 4a < b

19.
In which quadrant is there no solution for y ≥ 2x + 1 and y > ½ x – 1?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. II and IV
20.

If the equation of the parabola in the coordinate plane is y = (x – h)2 + k and (–3, n) is a point on the
parabola, what is the value of n?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30
1. If 2 points (a, b) and (c, d) lie in the same quadrant, then a and c should have the same
sign; and b and d should have the same sign. So here (–a and –b have the same sign
and b and a have the same sign, so eventually GIVEN information says that a and b
are of the same sign.

Asked: are –a, –b, –x of the same sign and are b, a, y of the same sign? Combined we have:

QUESTION: Given a and b are of the same sign, are a, b, x and y all of the same sign?

(1) x and y are of the same sign. NOT SUFFICIENT.

(2) a and x are of the same sign. NOT SUFFICIENT.

Combined a, b, x and y are of the same sign. Ans. (C).

2. Is r2 + s2 = u2 + v2?
Combining, 1 – r = s, so u = s, and 1 – s = r, so v = r,
So, r2 + s2 = v2 + u2
Answer is C.

3.
Is u2+v2<u2+v2+2v+1?

Is v>−1/2?
(1) v+u2=−1 … Rearrange: v=−1−u2. Now, since u2≥0, then v=−1−u2≤−1, so the answer to the
question is NO. Sufficient.
(2) v<0. Not sufficient.
The correct answer is A

4.

First case: y=−x2+1 and y=x2+0 (upward and downward parabolas). Notice that these
parabolas satisfy both statements and they cross each other;
Second case: y=x2+1 and y=−x2+0 (also upward and downward parabolas). Notice that these
parabolas satisfy both statements and they do not cross each other.

The correct answer is E

5.

In this case, the two sides are known to us… in all such situations when we know 2 sides, the
area will be maximum when the included angle between the sides is 90 degrees.
(The area of a triangle is ½ ab Sin C… and Sine of an angle is maximum for 90 degrees).

Ans. ½ * 1 * 1 = 1/2

6.

If a, the x–coordinate of the center, is more than 4 or less than –4 then the radius of the circle,
which is 4, won't be enough for curve to intersect with Y axis. So, basically the question asks
whether |a|>4? If |a| > 4, then the answer will be NO: the curve does not intersect with Y axis
and if it's not, then the answer will be YES: the curve intersects with Y axis.

(1) a2+b2>16. Clearly insufficient as |a| may or may not be more than 4.

(2) a=|b|+5. As the least value of absolute value (in our case |b|) is zero then the least value
of a will be 5, so in any case |a|>4, which means that the circle does not intersect the Y axis.
Sufficient.

The correct answer is B

7.

Given endpoints of diagonal of a square: B(0,6) and D(6,2). Let other vertices be A (closest to
the origin) and C (farthest to the origin):

Length of the diagonal would be: D = √52

M = (3,4)

{The slope of line segment AM}*{The slope of line segment BD}=–1 (as they are perpendicular
to each other), so (y−4)/(x−3)∗(6−2)/(0−6)=−1

So y−4=3/2(x−3)

The distance between the unknown vertices to the midpoint is half the diagonal:

(x−3)2+(y−4)2=(√52/2)2=13

From the above two, (x−3)2=4; Which gives: x=1 and y=1 OR x=5 and y=7.

Hence point A is at (1,1) and point C is at (5,7). Closest to the origin is A. Distance OA=√2

The correct answer is C

8.

To answer this question, we must know coefficients in front of x in the equations of the lines.
Statement (1) by itself is insufficient. We do not know coefficients in front of x in the equations
of the lines

Statement (2) by itself is insufficient. We do not know coefficients in front of x in the equations
of the lines

Statements (1) and (2) combined are sufficient. Either K=1 and B=0 or vice versa. In either
case, a line with slope 0 intersects a line with slope 1 at a 45–degree angle.

The correct answer is C

9.

(1) This means that either both x and y–intercepts are negative or both x and y–intercepts are
positive. In either case the slope would be negative. Sufficient.

(2) Line m passes through the points (a, b) and (c, d), where (b−d)/(a−c)<0. This is basically
the slope formula: rise over run and we are directly told that it's negative. Sufficient.

The correct answer is D

10. We must get 2r + 3s ≤ 6.

(1) gives 3r + 2s = 6. Put s = 0 in 3r + 2s = 6, so r = 2 … put (2, 0) in 2r + 3s ≤ 6 and we

get 4 ≤ 6. YES

Put r = 0 in 3r + 2s = 6, s = 3. Put (0, 3) in 2r + 3s ≤ 6 and we get 9 > 6. NO. So not

sufficient.

(2) gives r ≤ 3 and s ≤ 2. Take r = 2, s = 2 so 2r + 3s = 10 > 6. NO

Take r = 0, s = 0 so 2r + 3s = 0 ≤ 6. YES. So not sufficient.

Combined: 3r + 2s = 6 and r ≤ 3 and s ≤ 2.

(2, 0), (1, 1.5) both satisfy the equation.

With (2, 0), 2r + 3s = 4 ≤ 6. With (1, 1.5), 2r + 3s = 2 + 4.5 = 6.5 > 0. So not sufficient.

Ans. E
11. With a slope of –1/10, the line can pass through (2 different possibilities)

(5,0) and (0,0.5) … will intersect the circle. X intercept = 5

(50,0) and (0,5) … will not intersect the circle. X intercept = 50
So E.

12. y = mx+c … what is c?

1) m = 3c –c/m = –1/3 so m = 3c
Can’t find c. So, answer is E
13.

The 1/6 is irrelevant; all that matters in (1) is that the slope is negative. Lines with negative
slopes go up to the left, down to the right. this means that, if you follow ANY negatively
sloped line far enough to the left, it will go up into the second quadrant. Negatively sloped
lines MUST hit quadrants 2 and 4. Positively sloped lines MUST hit quadrants 1 and 3.
Zero exceptions.

With statement (2), a horizontal or positively sloped line through (0, –6) won't hit quadrant
2, but a negatively sloped line will, so that's insufficient. ANS. (A)

14.

Find two points on line 2 and use their coordinates to build the line's equation.
Points (0,1) and (−1/2,0) on line 1 correspond to points (1,0) and (0,1/2) on line 2. The
equation of line 2 is 2y=1−x. The correct answer is B

15. C

Question: Is b > 0?

(1) says (b/a) < 0 This could mean 2 things a) Either a > 0 & b < 0 OR b) a < 0 & b > 0

Both are of opposite signs.

(2) a < b

This could mean

a) a < 0 & b > 0 (eg –1 < 1)

b) a > 0 & b > 0 (eg. 2 < 3)

c) a < 0 & b < 0 (eg –2 < –1)

This is also not sufficient. WE can eliminate B.

If we combine (1) and (2), we get 1(b) and 2(a) give a definite solution. We can answer the
question.

So, C is the ans.

16. C

Assume that the lines are y = m1x + c1 and y = m2x + c2. Question: is m1m2 = –ve?
 (1) (–c1/m1) * (–c2/m2) = +ve … so clc2/m1m2 = +ve … NS

(2) c1c2 = –ve …

Combining … m1m2 = –ve … Suff. C

17.

Assume that the lines are y = m1x + c1 and y = m2x + c2.

Question: is m1 < m2? Or is m1 – m2 < 0?

(1)

The lines pass through (5, 1) so we can write:

1 = 5m1 + c1
1 = 5m2 + c2

So m1 – m2 = – (c1 – c2) / 5 … NS

(2) c1 > c2 so c1 – c2 > 0 = +ve. NS

Combining: m1 – m2 = –ve … this answers the question. C is the answer.

OR Graphically:

Note that a higher absolute value of a slope indicates a steeper incline.

Combining: Now, if both lines have positive slopes then as the y-intercept of line n (blue) is
greater than y-intercept of line p (red) then the line p is steeper hence its slope is greater
than the slope of the line n:
If both lines have negative slopes then again as the y-intercept of line n (blue) is greater than
y-intercept of line p (red) then the line n is steeper hence the absolute value of its slope is
greater than the absolute value of the slope of the line p, so the slope of n is more negative
than the slope of p, which means that the slope of p is greater than the slope of n:

So, in both cases the slope of p is greater than the slope of n. Sufficient.

Answer: C.

18.

Assume that the lines are y = m1x + c1 and y = m2x + c2.

The lines pass through (4, 3) so we can write:

3 = 4m1 + c1
3 = 4m2 + c2

Question: is m1m2 = –1?

(1) (–c1/m1) = +ve … from above, –c1/m1 = [4 – (3/m1)] …

So we get [4 – (3/m1)] = +ve … this may be true for m1 = 1, 2, –1, –2 etc.

(–c2/m2) = +ve … from above, –c2/m2 = [4 – (3/m2)] …

So we get [4 – (3/m2)] = +ve … this may be true for m2 = 1, 2, –1, –2 etc.

So the product m1m2 can be + / –ve / –1 / –2 etc. Not sure.

(2) 3 = 4m1 + c1 … so m1 = (3 – c1) / 4. m2 = (3 – c2) / 4

 Given c1 = –ve and c2 = –ve …

Substituting above, m1 = +ve, m2 = +ve .. so m1m2 = +ve … so m1m2 can’t be –1 …

confirmed NO answer. Ans. B

19.
First of all to simplify the given expression multiply it be 2: |x|+|y|=10
Now, find x and y intercepts of the region (x–intercept is a value(s) of x for y=0 and similarly
y–intercept is a value(s) of y for x=0):
Thus we have 4 points: (10, 0), (–10, 0), (0, 10) and (–10, 0).
When you join them you'll get the region enclosed by |x|+|y|=10:

You can see that it's a square.

Since this square has a diagonal equal to 20, so the Areasquare=d2/2=20∗20/2=200
Or the Side=√200, so area=side2=200
The correct answer is D

20.
21. D:
What's unusual about this question is ------ so long as two lines are not perpendicular,
then at their intersection, there will always be a pair of acute angles and a pair of
obtuse angles. Thus, there will always be angles larger than 90 degrees.

The only time this is not true is when the lines are perpendicular ---- then, all four
angles at the intersection are exactly 90 degrees, and none are more than 90 degrees.

So, really, the prompt question is: are the two lines perpendicular?
Statement #1: Lines k and l have positive y- axis intercepts

10

(3, -2)

Since the intersection point is below the x-axis, it is impossible for two lines with
positive y-intercepts to be perpendicular. Both slopes would have to be negative,
which means it's impossible for the slopes to be negative reciprocals of one another,
which is the condition of perpendicularity in the Cartesian plane. The lines definitely
are not perpendicular, which allows us to give a definitive "yes" answer to the prompt
question.
This statement, alone and by itself, is sufficient.
Statement #2: The distance between the y-axis intercepts of lines k and l is 5

For most positions, it's easy to see that

the lines will not be perpendicular.

Even the widest possible angle

is less than 90 degrees. This
is because the distance from
the y- axis (3) is more than half
of the distance between the
points. In order for the angle to
be a right angles, there must be
a circle with diameter AB and
radius from the center out to
(3, –2).
Well, if diameter = 5, then
radius = 2.5, which means
that no matter where we put
the center, the radius will
never reach out as far as 3
from the y-axis.
Therefore, the angle cannot possibly be 90 degrees, which means the lines cannot
possibly be perpendicular, which means the answer to the prompt question is a
definitive and conclusive "yes."
This means, statement #2, on its own and by itself, is sufficient. Answer

=D
OR

First of all, whenever two lines intersect, the four angles between them make up 360

degrees. Either the lines can be perpendicular in which case all angles are 90 degrees

or the lines are not perpendicular in which case two angles are less than 90 and

other two are more than 90. So all we have to figure out is whether the lines can be

perpendicular (in which case there is no angle greater than 90). In every other case,

there will be an angle greater than 90.

(1)Lines k and l have positive y- axis intercepts

The black dotted lines show perpendicular lines. You can move them around as you

want keeping the angle constant; there is no way both lines will have positive y

intercept.
Also, recall that the product of slopes of two perpendicular lines is -1. If one line has

positive slope, the other must have negative slope.

We can say that the lines cannot be perpendicular. Hence, there must be two angles

greater than 90. Sufficient.

(2) The distance between the y-axis intercepts of lines k and l is 5

A little trickier. Let's try to figure out whether two perpendicular lines meeting at (3,

-2) can have a distance of 5 between their y intercepts. Notice the purple and green

lines in the figure above. The distance between the y intercepts is quite large. The

distance will be smallest when the two line segments are of equal length.
22. We know from the problem that the exact locations of points A, B, and C do not matter—
only the relative locations of the points matter. Therefore, we can arbitrarily assign point A
to a specific location (in this case, we should choose the origin of the coordinate plane), and
draw a circle with a radius of 3 units around it.

Statement (1) does not tell us anything about point B, so it is not sufficient. However, it does
tell us that A and C are 2 units apart, so Statement (1) enables us to place point C anywhere
along the grey circle.

Statement (2) does not tell us anything about point B relative to point A, so it is not sufficient.
However, it does constrain point B to be exactly 2 units away from wherever point C is. Thus,
we can imagine point C at the center of a circle of size 2, with point B somewhere on the circle
around it.

Finally, we can combine these two statements to see that depending upon where we draw
point C, and then draw point B relative to point C, point B may be inside the dotted circle,
and it may not be. The correct answer is E.

23. (C)
Since AB = 5, you know that BC = 2(5) = 10. Now you need to determine which of the listed
points are not 10 units away from (3, 4). Choice (E) is the easiest to eliminate, as you can
simply add 10 the x value of point B perpendicular to arrive at the location of C. That line
segment will be 10 units long. To handle the other choices, you need to calculate their
distances from (3, 4). Again, use the distance formula.

For answer choice

(A):

(B)
(C)

(D)

24. (C):
Consider the figure below, which has additional lines, labels, and coordinates filled in

The area of trapezoid OPQR can be found by subtracting the areas of the unshaded right
triangles from the area of rectangle shown. (This allows you to arrive at the value of the
shaded area in the figure, which is the original trapezoid.)

Because OPQR is a trapezoid, PQ is parallel to OR and has a slope equal to a/2a = ½

The y-coordinate of P must therefore equal a/2
The area of the rectangle is 2a × a = 2a², the area of the top triangle is ½ * a/2 * a = a2 / 4
And the area of the bottom triangle is ½ * 2a * a = a2.
Thus, the area of OPQR is 2a2 – a2 / 4 – a2 = 3a2 / 4

25.(C) Perhaps the easiest way to solve this problem is to draw a rectangle around the
parallelogram, find its area, and subtract out the area of the triangles that emerge around the
parallelogram, within the rectangle (but that are not part of the parallelogram):
Since ABCD is a parallelogram, line segments AB and CD have the same length and the same
slope. Therefore, in the diagram above, point A is at (–4, 3). The square has an area of 7 × 7 =
49. By drawing carefully and exploiting similar triangles created by various parallel lines,
you can label the height of each triangle 3, and each base 7. Each triangle has area
½bh = ½ 7*3 = 21/2
Therefore, the area of parallelogram ABCD equals 49 – 4 (21/2) = 7.
OR A = ½d1d2
d1 = 7√2 and d2 = √2.
Ans. 7
Graphs
1.
From the graph, when x = 1, the parabola is below the x–axis, so g(x) is negative. But we can
see almost immediately that every answer choice besides B is positive when x = 1, so B must
be correct.

2. A

3.
(B). The number line indicates a range between, but not including, –3 and 1. However,
–3 < x < 1 is not a given option. However, answer choice (B) gives the inequality –6 < 2x < 2.

Dividing all three sides of this inequality by 2 yields –3 < x < 1.

4. The line passes through (6, 0) and (0, 3). Assume the equation as y = mx + c,
substitute these 2 points in the equation of the line and we get m = –1/2 and c = 3.
So the equation is y = – ½ x + 3. As we want below this line, the answer is E.
5.

6. (C). Since there are no numbers on the graph, the exact equation of the line cannot be
determined, but the line has a positive slope (it points upward when reading from left to
right) and a negative y-intercept (it crosses the y-axis below the origin). All of the answers
are already in slope-intercept form (y = mx + b, where m = slope and b = y-intercept). Choices
(A), (B), (C), and (D) have positive slope. Of those, only choices (B) and (C) have a negative
y-intercept. Now, is the slope closer to positive 4 or positive 1? A slope of 1 makes 45° angles
when it cuts through the x and y axes, and this figure looks very much like it represents a
slope of 1. A slope of 4 would look much steeper than this picture.

7. (A)
Since there are no numbers on the graph, the exact equation of the line cannot be
determined, but the line has a negative slope (it points down when reading from left to right)
and a positive yintercept (it crosses the y-axis above the origin). Change the answers to
slope-intercept form (y = mx + b, where m = slope and b = y-intercept). First note that (D)
and (E) cannot be the answers—choice (D) represents a horizontal line crossing through (0,
2), and choice (E) represents a vertical line passing through (–2, 0).
 A. This line has a slope of –1 and y-intercept of 7/6
B. This line has a slope of –4/3 and y-intercept of -1
C. This line has a slope of –4/5 and y-intercept of -2

The only choice with a negative slope and a positive y-intercept is choice (A).

8. (C) The graph is of a parabola, so its equation must be in the general form of
y = ax2 + bx + c. That eliminates choices (A) and (E). Of the remaining answer choices, only
answer choice (C) gives a negative y value when x = 0 is plugged in. Also, it should be noted
that when a parabola lacks a bx term, that is b = 0, it will be centered around the y-axis, just
as this graph is.

9. (E). The standard equation of a parabola in vertex form is y = a(x – h)2 + k, where the
vertex is (h, k). Here is the vertex of the parabola described by each answer choice:
(A) (0, 3) On the axis
(B) (3, 3) Incorrect quadrant
(C) (–3, –3) Incorrect quadrant
(D) (3, –3) Incorrect quadrant
(E) (–3, 3) Correct

Only choice (E) places the vertex in the correct quadrant.

10. (D) The standard equation of a parabola in vertex form is y = a(x – h)2 + k, where the
vertex is (h, k). Eliminate choice (A), as it is not the equation of a parabola. Here is the vertex
of the parabola described by each remaining answer choice:
(B) (0, 1) Correct
(C) (0, –1) Incorrect
(D) (0, 1) Correct
(E) (1, 0) Incorrect

11.
12. A:

Segment OB has a slope of +1, which means that OB is essentially the diagonal of a 4 by 4
square in the xy–coordinate system, so OB = 4√2. Since A must be equidistant from O and B,
it must lie on the dashed line with slope –1 that passes through (2, 2); that is, it must lie on
the perpendicular bisector of OB. The area of triangle OAB grows as A moves away from OB.
Thus, this question is indirectly asking “Exactly how far away must A be from OB to make the
area of triangle OAB = 16?”

Since the dashed line for A has a slope of –1, we might again recognize as 4√2 the diagonal
of a 4 by 4 square in the xy–coordinate system. Thus A, must be 4 units left and up from (2,
2), or 4 units right and down from (2, 2).
Possible coordinates for A are thus:
(2 – 4, 2 + 4) or (2 + 4, 2 – 4) (–2, 6) or (6, –2) The correct answer is A.

13.
D: The product of the slopes of two perpendicular lines is –1. The slope of line k is given by
½ so Thus, the slope of the line perpendicular to k is –2. The correct answer is D.
14. C: All of these line equations are of the form y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the
yintercept.

Two of these lines have a slope of 3/4 and are thus parallel to each other. The other two lines
are parallel to one another with a slope of –3/4. Two of the lines have a y–intercept of 6 while
the other two lines have a y–intercept of –6.

In each quadrant, we have a triangle with the dimensions 6–8–10, a multiple of the common
3–4–5 right triangle:
Area = 4 * ½ * 6 * 8 = 96
Or ½ D1 D2 = ½ * 12 * 16 = 96 The correct answer is C.

15.
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

16.
First of all, line p clearly has a negative slope. If the slope is negative, that means the x & y
have opposite sign coefficients when written in slope–intercept form (i.e. y = mx + b). Thus,
if we move the x to the opposite side, so that the x & y are on the same side, then they will
have to have the same sign coefficients. The x & y coefficients could be both positive or both
negative. The latter is not an option among the answer choices. We must have a plus–sign,
so answers (C) & (D) are out right away. Notice the x intercept is approximately (6, 0), so it
could be exactly equal to that, or approximately equal to that. Plug this in to the three
remaining choices, and see what happens.
(A) 3(6) + 7(0) = 18 YES, exactly true
(B) 7(6) + 3(0) ≠ 18 no, not even close
(E) 3(6) + 7(0) = –18 no, not even close Ans. A
17
Sol.
If line J does not pass through first quadrant, then it must be a line with a negative slope and
a negative y–intercept. Such a line could be perpendicular to line H:

Therefore, Statement I is possible.

Line H has a positive slope, and line J must have a negative slope, so there is absolutely no
way for them to have the same slope. They absolutely cannot be parallel.

Therefore, Statement II is impossible.

Both line H and line J pass through QIII, so there’s no reason they cannot intersect there. For
example:
Therefore, Statement III is possible.

Answer = D

18.
For any point (a, b) that lies within the shaded region, a (x coordinate) should be between 0
and 4 and the value of y should be greater than the value of y at the boundary but less than
0. Or
0<x<4 x=a
And
y < x2 – x x = a, y = b
Or
0<a<4 And a2 – 4a < b b must be negative.

(1) says nothing about whether a2 – 4a < b or not. NS

(2) a2 – 4a < b Given b is negative, a2 – 4a < 0 or (a – 0) (a – 4) < 0 Or 0 < a < 4 … this
satisfies all the conditions needed. So, B is the answer.
19.
20. D
 Quant: Permutations and Combinations | Probability
www.top–one–percent.com | info@top–one–percent.com | +91–97395–61394

By Sandeep Gupta | GMAT 800/800, Harvard Final Admit

Definitions:

• Each of the different orders of arrangements, obtained by taking some, or all, of a number of things,
is called a Permutation.

• Each of the different groups, or collections, that can be formed by taking some, or all, of a number of
things, irrespective of the order in which the things appear in the group, is called a Combination.

Example:

Suppose, there are four quantities A, B, C, and D. The different orders of arrangements of these four
quantities by taking three at a time, are:

ABC, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB, CBA, ... (1) ABD, ADB, BAD, BDA, DAB, DBA, ... (2)
ACD, ADC, CAD, CDA, DAC, DCA, ... (3) BCD, BDC, CDB, CBD, DBC, DCB. ... (4)

Thus, each of the 24 arrangements, of the four quantities A, B, C, and D by taking three at a time, is called
a permutation. Hence, it is clear that the number of permutations of four things taken three at a time is
24.

Again, it may be easily seen, from the above that out of these 24 permutations, the six, given in (1), are
all formed of the same three quantities A, B, C in different orders; hence, they all belong to the same
group. Similarly, the permutations, given in (2), all belong to a second group; those given in (3), belong
to a third and those in (4), belong to a fourth. Hence, we see that there are only four different groups
that can be formed of four quantities A, B, C, and D by taking three at a time. Thus, the number of
combinations of four things taken three at a time is only four.

If there are m ways of doing a thing and n ways of doing a second thing and p ways of doing a third
thing, then the total number of “distinct” ways of doing all these together is m × n × p.
Ex 1.
Suppose, there are five routes for going from a place A to another place B and six routes for going from the
place B to a third place C. Find the numbers of different ways through which a person can go from A to C
via B.

Sol.
Since there are five different routes from A to B, person can go from A to B in five different ways. After
reaching B, he has six different ways of finishing the second part of his journey (i.e. going from B to C).
Thus, for one way of going from A to B there are six different ways of completing the journey from A to
C via B. Hence, the total number of different ways of finishing both parts of the journey (i.e. A to B and
then from B to C) = 5 times six different ways = 5 × 6 = no. of ways from the first part to the second point
⨯ number of ways from the second part to the third point

Ex 2.
Find the number of different ways in which four persons can be accommodated in three different chairs.

Sol.
Let’s assume that the four persons are P, Q, R, and S. Since all the three different chairs are vacant, any
one of the four persons can occupy the 1st chair. Thus, there are four ways of filling up the 1st chair.
When the 1st chair has been filled up by any one of the four people, say P, the 2nd chair can be filled up
by any one of the remaining three persons Q, R and S. Thus, for each way of filling up the 1st chair, the
2nd chair can be filled up in three different ways. Hence, total no. of ways in which the first two chairs
can be filled up is equal to 4⨯3 = 12 ways. Again, when the 1st and 2nd chairs are filled up in any one
way (i.e. the 1st by P and the 2nd by Q), the 3rd chair can be filled up by any one of the two remaining
persons, R and S. Thus, for each way of filling up the first two chairs, there are 4⨯3⨯2 i.e. 24 ways of
filling up the third chair along with the first two chairs. Hence, the total no. of ways in which four persons
can be accommodated in the three given chairs is equal to 4⨯3⨯2 = 24. We therefore conclude that, the
total number of different orders of arrangements of 4 different things, taken 3 at a time, is the same as
the total number of different ways in which 3 places can be filled up by 4 different things.

PERMUTATIONS

• Permutations of n different things taken ‘r’ at a time is denoted by nPr and is given by
nPr = n! / (n – r)!

• The total number of arrangements of n things taken r at a time, in which a particular thing always
occurs = r ⨯ n – 1Pr – 1

• The total number of permutations of n different things taken r at a time in which a particular thing
never occurs = n – 1Pr

• The total number of permutations of n dissimilar things taken r at a time with repetitions = nr

• No. of circular permutations of n things taken all at a time = (n – 1)!

• No. of circular permutations of n different things taken r at a time = nPr/r

• The number of permutations when things are not all different: If there be n things, p of them of one
kind, q of another kind, r of still another kind and so on, then the total number of permutations is
given by n! / (p! q! r!)
COMBINATIONS

• Number of combinations of n dissimilar things taken ‘r’ at a time is denoted by nCr and is given by
nCr = n! / [ (n – r)! r!]

• Number of combinations of n different things taken r at a time in which p particular things will
always occur is n – pCr – p

• No. of combinations of n dissimilar things taken ‘r’ at a time in which ‘p’ particular things will never
occur is n – pCr

• nCr = nCn – r

PROBABILITY

Probability of an event occurring = Number of favorable outcomes

Number of all possible outcomes
Note:

• If an event E is sure to occur, we say that the probability of the event E is equal to 1 and we write
P (E) = 1.

• If an event E is sure not to occur, we say that the probability of the event E is equal to 0 and we write
P (E) = 0.

• Therefore, for any event E, 0 ≤ P (E) ≤ 1

• The probability of E not occurring, denoted by P (not E), is given by P (not E) = 1 – P(E)

• Odds in favor = No. of favorable cases / No. of unfavorable cases

• Odds against = No. of unfavorable cases / No. of favorable cases

Mutually Exclusive Events:

Two events are mutually exclusive if one happens, the other can’t happen and vice versa. In other words,
the events have no common outcomes. For example:

In rolling a die
E: – The event that the no. is odd
F: – The event that the no. is even
G: – The event that the no. is a multiple of three

In drawing a card from a deck of 52 cards

E: – The event that it is a spade
F: – The event that it is a club
G: – The event that it is a king

In the above 2 cases events E and F are mutually exclusive but the events E and G are not mutually
exclusive or disjoint since they may have common outcomes.
ADDITION LAW OF PROBABILITY:

If E and F are two mutually exclusive events, then the probability that either event E or event F will
occur in a single trial is given by:

P (E or F) = P(E) + P(F)

If the events are not mutually exclusive, then

P (E or F) = P(E) + P(F) – P (E and F together)

P (neither E nor F) = 1 – P (E or F).

Independent Events and Multiplication Law:

Two events are independent if the happening of one has no effect on the happening of the other.

For ex:

On rolling a die and tossing a coin together

E: – The event that no. 6 turns up.

F: – The event that head turns up.

In shooting a target

E: – Event that the first trial is missed.

F: – Event that the second trial is missed.

In both these cases events E and F are independent.

BUT, in drawing a card from a well shuffled pack

E: – Event that first card is drawn

F: – Event that second card is drawn without replacing the first

G: – Event that second card is drawn after replacing the first

In this case E and F are not Independent but E and G are independent.

MULTIPLICATION LAW OF PROBABILITY:

If the events E and F are independent then P (E and F) = P (E) ⨯ P (F)

and

P (not E and F) = 1 – P (E and F together).

 SUMMARY of concepts

Arrangements - keywords – seating, sitting, sequence, order, alphabets, schedule, ranking, itinerary,
codes

Order important – gives unique arrangements

For e.g. A and B sitting on chair can be AB or BA so these are two distinct arrangements

It is basically selection followed by arrangement. So n Pr = n Cr  r !

n!
n
Pr =
(n − r )!
Selection - keywords – team, committee, balls, handshakes, matches, picking

Order not important – For example choosing A and B from a group of 3 or four alphabets. The order
does not matter. India playing a match against Australia is the same as Australia playing against India.

n!
n
Cr =
(n − r )!  r !

Different formulae

n!
1.
n
Pr =
(n − r )!
When to use? When n distinct items present and r have to be selected and then arranged.

E.g. – how many ways can you arrange 4 people in 5 chairs = 5 P 4

2. nr
All n distinct selection of r but repetition is allowed.

In how many ways can you wear three different rings on four fingers?
43

n!
3.
p! q! r !
Arranging n things in which p are of one type, q of a second type and r of third type:
Ex: In how many ways can you arrange the letters of word Banana?
6!
Ans.
3! 2 !
4. Special Cases

5 people A, B, C, D, E to be arranges in which A and B are together.

4! × 2!

5 people A, B, C, D, E to be arranged in which A and B are not together.

5! – 4! × 2!

5. Block diagrams - Some problems cannot be done with any formula but with a block diagram
Combinations
10
1. Select 5 people out of 10 Ans. C5

Particular Cases – Select 5 out of 10 people such that A and B are always selected. This means only
3 of the remaining 8 are to be selected 8C3

Select 5 out of 10 such that A and B are never selected. This means that out of remaining 8, 5 have
to be selected so it is 8C5

2. Select 5 out of 10 so that A and B are never together.

= Total – Together = 10C5 – 8C3

AND denotes Multiplication

OR denotes Addition

Circular Permutations: (n – 1)!

Multiple trials of a single event: If multiple independent trials of a single event are performed, then
the probability of r successes out of a total of n trials can be determined by n C r  p r  q n− r
Where
n = number of times the event is performed
r = number of successes
p = probability of success in one trial
q = probability of failure in one trial = 1 – p.
Solved examples for building key concepts:
1. Find the number of ways in which the letters of the word “machine” can be arranged such that the
vowels may occupy only odd positions?

2. Sixteen jobs are vacant; how many different batches of men can be chosen out of twenty candidates?
How often may any particular candidate be selected?

3. How many numbers greater than a million can be formed with the digits 2, 3, 0, 3, 4, 2, 3?

4. In how many ways can 3 letters be posted in four letter boxes in a village? If all the three letters are
not posted in the same letter box, find the corresponding number of ways of posting.

5. In rolling two dice, find the probability that (1) there is at least one ‘6’ (2) the sum is 5.

6. A single card is selected from a deck of 52 bridge cards. What is the probability that (1) it is not a
heart, (2) it is an ace or a spade?

7. A box contains 2 red, 3 yellow and 4 blue balls. Three balls are drawn in succession with
replacement. Find the probability that (1) all are yellow, (2) the first is red, the second is yellow, the
third is blue, (3) none are yellow, (4) all three are of the same color.

8. With the data in Example 7, answer those questions when the balls are drawn in succession without
replacement.

9. There are 7 Physics and 1 Chemistry book in shelf A. There are 5 Physics books in shelf B. One book
is moved from shelf A to shelf B. A student picks up a book from shelf B. Find the probability that the
Chemistry book: (1) is still in shelf A, (2) is in shelf B, (3) is taken by the student.

10. The ratios of number of boys and girls in X-A and X-B are 3: 1 and 2: 5 respectively. A student is
selected to be the chairman of the students’ association. The chance that the student is selected from
X-A is 2/3. Find the probability that the chairman will be a boy.

11. The probability that a man will be alive in 25 years is 3/5 and the probability that his wife will be
alive in 25 years is 2/3. Find the probability that: (1) both will be alive, (2) only the man will be alive,
(3) only the wife will be alive, (4) at least one will be alive.
SOLUTIONS

1.
“Machine” consists of seven letters: four of them are consonants and three vowels. Let us mark out the
position to be filled up as follows:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) () (i) () (e) () ()

Since the vowels can be placed only in three out of the four positions marked 1,3,5,7, the total number
of ways in which they can be made to occupy odd positions =

4P3 = 4.3.2 = 24. ... (1)

Suppose one arrangement of the vowels is as shown in the diagram; then for this particular
arrangement of the vowel, the number of ways in which the 4 consonants can be made to occupy the
remaining positions (marked 2,4,6,7) =
4P4 = 4.3.2.1 = 24.

Hence, for each way of placing the vowels in odd positions there are 24 arrangements of the whole set.
Consequently, the total number of arrangements of the given letters under the given condition = 24⨯24
= 576 Ans.

2
We have only to find out the number of different groups of 16 men that can be formed out of 20 without
any reference to the appointment to be given to each.

Hence, the required number of ways = 20C16 = 20C4

= 20⨯19⨯18⨯17 / (1⨯2⨯3⨯4) = 5⨯19⨯3⨯17 = 4845.

Let us now find out how many times a particular candidate may be chosen.

Every time that a particular candidate is selected the other 15 candidates will have to be chosen from
the remaining 19 candidates.

Hence a particular man may be selected as many times as we can select a group of 15 men out of the
remaining 19. Hence, the required number of times = 19C15 = 19C4

= 19⨯18⨯17⨯16 / (1⨯2⨯3⨯4) = 19⨯3⨯17⨯4 = 3876

3.
Since, each number is to consist of not less than 7 digits, we shall have to use all the digits in forming
the numbers. Now, among these 7 digits there are 2 two’s and 3 three’s; hence the total number of ways
of arranging the digits = 7! / (2! 3!) = 420. But out of these arrangements we have to reject those that
begin with zero, for they are six–digit numbers. Now, evidently there are as many such arrangements
as there are ways of arranging the remaining 6 digits among themselves

Their no. = 6! /2! 3! = 60 Hence, the required number = 420 – 60 = 360.

4.

We can post the first letter in 4 ways. Similarly, the second and third can be posted in 4 ways each. So,
the total number of ways = 4⨯4⨯4 = 64. Now all the three letters together can be posted in any letterbox.
In this case there will be four ways and when all the letters are not posted together, the number of ways
= 64 – 4 = 60.

5.
The total possible outcomes are 36 as shown below.
(1,1) (1,2) (1,3) (1,4) (1,5) (1,6); (2,1) (2,2) (2,3) (2,4) (2,5) (2,6)
(3,1) (3,2) (3,3) (3,4) (3,5) (3,6); (4,1) (4,2) (4,3) (4,4) (4,5) (4,6)
(5,1) (5,2) (5,3) (5,4) (5,5) (5,6); (6,1) (6,2) (6,3) (6,4) (6,5) (6,6)

The outcomes with at least one ‘6’ are

(1,6), (2,6), .... (6,6). There are 11 such pairs.

(1)

P (at least one ‘6’) = 11/36 Ans.

(2)

The pairs with a sum of 5 are (1,4), (2,3), (3,2), (4,1).

P (the sum is 5) = 4/36 = 1/9 Ans.

6.

A deck of bridge cards has 4 suits – spade, heart, diamond and club. Each suit has 13 cards.

Ace, two, three, ...., ten, jack, Queen, King.

(1) P (not a heart) = 1 – P (a heart) = 1 – 13/52 = 39/52 = 3/4 Ans.

(2) There are 4 aces and 12 spades besides the ace of spades …

P (an ace or a spade) = 16/52 = 4/13 Ans.

7.

(1)

In a draw, P (red) = 2/9, P (yellow) = 3/9, P (blue) = 4/9.

In 3 draws, Prob of all are yellow = (3/9). (3/9). (3/9) = 1/27 Ans.

(2)

Required probability = P (1st red). P (2nd yellow). P (3rd blue)

= 2/9. 3/9. 4/9 = 8/243 Ans.

(3)

Probability that none are yellow = P (1st not yellow). P (2nd not yellow). P (3rd not yellow)
= (1 – 3/9) ⨯ (1 – 3/9) ⨯ (1 – 3/9) = 8/27 Ans.

(4)

Probability that all three are of the same color

= P (all red) + P (all yellow) + P (all blue) {mutually exclusive}

= (2/9)3 + (3/9)3 + (4/9)3 = 11/81 Ans.

8.

(1)

Prob of all yellow = P (1st yellow). P (2nd yellow). P (3rd yellow)

= 3/9. 2/8. 1/7 = 1/84 Ans.

Since when the first yellow ball has been drawn, there are 8 balls remaining in the bag of which 2 are
yellow.

(2)

Required probability = P (1st red). P (2nd yellow). P (3rd blue)

= 2/9. 3/8. 4/7 = 1/21 Ans.

(3)

Probability that none are yellow

= P (1st not yellow). P (2nd not yellow). P (3rd not yellow)

= (1 – 3/9) (1 – 3/8) (1 – 3/7) = 6/9. 5/8. 4/7 = 5/21 Ans.

(4)

Probability that all three are of the same color

= P (all red) + (all yellow) + P (all blue)

= 2/9. 1/8. 0/7 + 3/9. 2/8. 1/7 + 4/9. 3/8. 2/7 = 5/84 Ans.
9.

(1)

The probability that it is in shelf A = 7/8 Ans. (this means that Physics book was picked up)

(2)

The probability that it is in shelf B =

P (it is moved from A to B). P (it is not taken by the student) = 1/8. 5/6 = 5/48 Ans.

(3)

The probability that is it taken by the student

= P (it is moved from A to B). P (it is taken by the student) = 1/8. 1/6 = 1/48 Ans.

10.

Probability that the boy comes from X-A = 2/3. 3/4 = 1/2
Probability that the boy comes from X-B = 1/3. 2/7 = 2/21

The required probability = 1/2 + 2/21 = 25/42

11.

(1)

P (both alive) = P (man alive) ⨯P (wife alive) = 3/5⨯2/3 = 2/5

(2)

P (only man alive) = P (man alive) ⨯P (wife dead) = 3/5⨯1/3 = 1/5

(3)

P (only wife alive) = P (man dead) ⨯P (wife alive) = 2/5⨯2/3 = 4/15 Ans.

(4)

P (at least one will be alive) = 1 – P (both dead) = 1 – (2/5⨯1/3) = 13/15 Ans.
 Questions for class discussion
1. A password contains at least 8 distinct digits. It takes 12 seconds to try one combination, what
is the minimum amount of time required to guarantee access to the database?
(A) 12 seconds
(B) 24 seconds
(C) 36 seconds
(D) 48 seconds
(E) None of these

2. An engagement team consists of a project manager, team leader, and four consultants. There are
2 candidates for the position of project manager, 3 candidates for the position of team leader,
and 7 candidates for the 4 consultant slots. If 2 out of 7 consultants refuse to be on the same
team, how many different teams are possible?
(A) 100
(B) 120
(C) 150
(D) 200
(E) None of these

3. A university cafeteria offers 4 flavors of pizza – pepperoni, chicken, Hawaiian and vegetarian. If
a customer has an option to add, extra cheese, mushrooms, or both to any kind of pizza, how
many different pizza varieties are available?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 20
(D) 24
(E) None of these

4. If 6 fair coins are tossed, how many different coin sequences will have exactly 3 tails, if all tails
have to occur in a row?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

5. A telephone company needs to create a set of 3-digit area codes. The company is entitled to use
only digits 2, 4 and 5, which can be repeated. If the product of the digits in the area code must be
even, how many different codes can be created?
(A) 25
(B) 26
(C) 27
(D) 28
(E) 30
6. Every morning, Casey walks from her house to the bus stop. She always travels exactly nine
blocks from her house to the bus, but she varies the route she takes every day. (One sample route
is shown.) How many days can Casey walk from her house to the bus stop without repeating the
same route?

(A) 120
(B) 122
(C) 124
(D) 126
(E) 128

7. Anthony and Michael sit on the six-member board of directors for company X. If the board is to
be split up into 2 three-person subcommittees, what percent of all the possible subcommittees
that include Michael also include Anthony?
20% 30% 40% 50% 60%

8. Is the probability that Patty will answer all of the questions on her chemistry exam correctly
greater than 50%?
(1) For each question on the chemistry exam, Patty has a 90% chance of answering the
question correctly.
(2) There are fewer than 10 questions on Patty's chemistry exam.

9. There are 10 women and 3 men in room A. One person is picked at random from room A and
moved to room B, where there are already 3 women and 5 men. If a single person is then to be
picked from room B, what is the probability that a woman will be picked?
(A) 13/21 (B) 49/117 (C) 15/52 (D) 5/18 (E) 40/117
10. A telephone number contains 10 digits, including a 3-digit area code. Bob remembers the area
code and the next 5 digits of the number. He also remembers that the remaining digits are not 0,
1, 2, 5, or 7. If Bob tries to find the number by guessing the remaining digits at random, the find
probability that he will be able to find the correct number in at most 2 attempts.
(A) 1/5 (B) 2/5 (C) 1/25 (D) 2/25 (E) 14/89

11. A certain jar contains only B black marbles, W white marbles, and R red marbles, if one marble
is to be chosen at random from the jar, is the probability that the marble chosen will be red
greater than the probability that marble chosen will be white?
(1) R / (B + W) > W / (B + R) (2) B - W > R

12. Tanya prepared 4 different letters to be sent to 4 addresses. For each letter she prepared an
envelope with its correct address. If the 4 letters to be put in to 4 envelopes at random, what is
the probability that only one letter will be put in to the envelope with the correct address?
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/5 (C) 1/25 (D) 2/25 (E) 14/89

13. In a certain group of 10 members, 4 members teach only French and the rest teach only Spanish
or German. If the group is to choose a 3-person committee, which must have at least one member
who teaches French, how many different committees can be chosen?
40 50 64 80 100

14. How many times will the digit 7 be written when listing the integers from 1 to 1000?
(A) 280 (B) 300 (C) 320 (D) 340 (E) 360

15. A committee of three people is to be chosen from four married couples. What is the number of
different committees that can be chosen if two people who are married to each other cannot both
serve on the committee?
16 24 26 30 32

16. What is the sum of all possible 5-digit numbers that can be constructed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4,
and 5, if each digit can be used only once in each number? Choose the closest answer:
(A) 1 million
(B) 2 million
(C) 3 million
(D) 4 million
(E) 5 million

17. Mary and Joe are to throw three dice each. The score is the sum of points on all three dice. If Mary
scores 10 in her attempt what is the probability that Joe will outscore Mary in his?
(A) 1/5
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/2
(E) 1/6

18. Each of the 25 balls in a certain box is red, blue or white and has a number from 1 to 10 painted
on it. If one ball is to be selected at random from the box, what is the probability that the ball
selected will either be white or have an even number painted on it?
(1) The probability that the ball will both be white and have an even number painted on it is 0.
(2) The probability that the ball will be white minus the probability that the ball will have an
even number painted on it is 0.2.
19. If 2 different representatives are to be selected at random from a group of 10 employees and if
p is the probability that both representatives selected will be women, is p > ½?
(1) More than ½ of the 10 employees are women.
(2) The probability that both representatives selected will be men is less than 1/10.

20. A certain stock exchange designates each stock with a one, two or three letter code, where each
letter is selected from the 26 letters of the alphabet. If the letters may be repeated and if the same
letters used in a different order constitute a different code, how many different stocks is it
possible to uniquely designate with these codes?
a) 2,951 b) 8,125 c) 15,600 d) 16,302 e) 18,278

21. The figure shown represents a board with four rows of pegs, and at the bottom of the board are
four cells numbered 1 to 4. Whenever the ball shown passes through the opening between two
adjacent pegs in the same row, it will hit the peg directly beneath the opening. The ball then has
probability 1/2 of passing through the opening immediately to the left of that peg and
probability 1/2 of passing through the opening immediately to the right. What is the probability
that when the ball passes through the first two pegs at the top it will end up in cell 2?

a) 1/16 b) 1/8 c) ¼ d) 3/8 e) ½

22. A certain office supply store stocks 2 sizes of self-stick notepads, each in 4 colors: Blue, Green,
Yellow or Pink. The store packs the notepads in packages that contain either 3 notepads of the
same size and the same color or 3 notepads of the same size and of 3 different colors. If the order
in which the colors are packed is not considered, how many different packages of the types
described above are possible?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 16 D) 24 E) 32

23. A certain junior class has 1000 students and a certain senior class has 800 students. Among these
students there are 60 sibling pairs, each consisting of 1 junior and 1 senior. If 1 student is to be
selected at random from each class, what is the probability that 2 students selected will be sibling
pair?
1) 3/40,000 2)1/3,600 3)9/2,000 4)1/60 5)1/15

24. How many integers between 324,700 and 458,600 have tens digit 1 and units digit 3?
(A) 10,300 (B) 10,030 (C) 1,353 (D) 1,352 (E) 1,339

25. On his drive to work, Leo listens to one of 3 radio stations, A, B, or C. He first turns to A. If A is
playing a song he likes, he listens to it; if not, he turns to B. If B is playing a song that he likes, he
listens to it; if not, he turns to C. If C is playing a song he likes, he listens; if not, he turns off the
radio. For each station, the probability is 0.3 that at any given moment the station is playing a
song Leo likes. On his drive to work, what is the probability that Leo ill hear a song he likes?
a. 0.027 b. 0.09 c. 0.417 d. 0.657 e. 0.9
26. A company that ships boxes to a total of 12 distribution centers uses color coding to identify each
center. If either a single color or a pair of two different colors is chosen to represent each center
and if each center is uniquely represented by that choice of one or two colors, what is the
minimum number of colors needed for the coding? (Assume that the order of the colors in a pair
does not matter.)
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 12 (E) 24

27. A contest consists of n questions, each answered either True or False. Anyone who answers all n
correctly will be a winner. What is the least value of n for which the probability is Less than
1/ 1000 that a person who randomly guesses the answer to each will be a winner?

8 9 10 11 12

28. There are 8 magazines lying on a table; 4 are fashion magazines and the other 4 are sports
magazines. If 3 magazines are to be selected at random from 8 magazines, what is the probability
that at least one of the fashion magazines will be selected?
a) 1/2 b) 2/3 c) 32/35 d) 11/12 e) 13/14

29. If a 3-digit integer is selected at random from the integers 100 thru 199, inclusive, what is the
probability that the first digit and the last digit of the integer are each equal to one more than
the middle digit?
A) 2/225 B) 1/111 C) 1/110 D) 1/100 E) 1/50

30. All of the stocks on the over-the-counter market are designated by either a 4-letter or a 5-letter
code that is created by using the 26 letters of the alphabet. Which of the following gives the
maximum number of different stocks that can be designated with these codes?
A. 2(265) B. 26(264) C. 27(264) D. 26(265) E. 27(265)

31. A certain restaurant offers 6 kinds of cheese and 2 kinds of fruit for its dessert platter. If each
dessert platter contains an equal number of kinds of cheese and kinds of fruit, how many
different dessert platters could the restaurant offer?
a. 8 b. 12 c. 15 d. 21 e. 27

32. Meg, Bob and John are among the 8 participants in a cycling race. If each participant finishes the
race and no two participants finish at the same time, in how many different possible orders can
the participants finish the race so that Meg finishes ahead of Bob and Bob finishes ahead of John?
Choose the closest answer.
(A) 4000
(B) 5000
(C) 6000
(D) 7000
(E) 8000

33. A box contains 10 light bulbs, fewer than half of which are defective. Two bulbs are to be drawn
simultaneously from the box. If n of the bulbs in box are defective, what is the value of n?
(1) The probability that the two bulbs to be drawn will be defective is 1/15.
(2) The probability that one of the bulbs to be drawn will be defective and the other will not be
defective is 7/15.
34. The probability that a visitor at the mall buys a pack of candy is 30%. If three visitors come to
the mall today, what is the probability that exactly two visitors will buy a pack of candy? Choose
the closest answer.
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.3
(D) 0.4
(E) 0.5

35. If a code word is defined to be a sequence of different letters chosen from the 10 letters A, B, C,
D, E, F, G, H, I, and J, what is the ratio of the number of 5-letter code words to the number of 4-
letter code words?
A. 5 to 4 B. 3 to 2 C. 2 to 1 D. 5 to 1 E. 6 to 1

36. If an integer n is to be chosen at random from the integers 1 to 96, inclusive, what is the
probability that n (n + 1) (n + 2) will be divisible by 8?
A. ¼ B. 3/8 C. ½ D. 5/8 E. ¾

37. What is the probability that a student randomly selected from a class of 60 students will be a
male who has brown hair?
(1) One-half of the students have brown hair. (2) One-third of the students are males.

38. If Event A and Event B are independent, is the probability that both Event A and Event B will
happen greater than 0.3?
(1) Probability that A will happen is 0.25
(2) Probability that B will NOT happen is 0.71

39. A gardener is going to plant 2 identical red rosebushes and 2 identical white rosebushes. If the
gardener is to select each of the bushes at random, one at a time, and plant them in a row, what
is the probability that the 2 rosebushes in the middle of the row will be the red rosebushes?
A. 1/12 B. 1/6 C. 1/5 D. 1/3 E. ½

40. A company has assigned a distinct 3-digit code number to each of its 330 employees. Each code
number was formed from the digits 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and no digit appears more than once in
any one code number. How many unassigned code numbers are there?
A. 6 B. 58 C. 174 D. 182 E. 399

41. On Saturday morning, Malachi will begin a camping vacation and he will return home at the end
of the first day on which it rains. If on the first three days of the vacation the probability of rain
on each day is 0.2, what is the probability that Malachi will return home at the end of the day on
the following Monday?
A. 0.008 B. 0.128 C. 0.488 D. 0.512 E. 0.640

42. How many 4-digit positive integers are there in which all 4 digits are even?
A. 625 B. 600 C. 500 D. 400 E. 256

43. A basket contains only red and green chips. If two chips are drawn from the basket at random
without replacement, what is the probability that both chips will be green?
(1) 20% of all chips in the basket are green.
(2) The ratio of the number of red chips to the number of green chips is 4:1.
44. A string of 10 lightbulbs is wired in such a way that if any individual lightbulb fails, the entire
string fails. If for each individual lightbulb the probability of failing during time period T id 0.06,
what is the probability that the string of lightbulbs will fail during time period T?
A.0.06 B. (0.06)10 C. 1-(0.06)10 D. (0.94)10 E. 1-(0.94)10

45. Of the three-digit positive integers that have no digits equal to zero, how many have two digits
that are equal to each other and the remaining digit different from the other two?
A. 24 B. 36 C. 72 D. 144 E. 216

46. A three-digit code for certain logs uses the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 according to the following
constraints. The first digit cannot be 0 or 1, the second digit must be 0 or 1, and the second and
third digits cannot both be 0 in the same code. How many different codes are possible?
A. 144 B. 152 C. 160 D. 168 E. 176

47. In a meeting of 3 representatives from each of 6 different companies, each person shook hands
with every person not from his or her own company. If the representatives did not shake hands
with people from their own company, how many handshakes took place?
A. 45 B. 135 C. 144 D. 270 E. 288

48. Nine family members: 5 grandchildren (3 brothers and 2 sisters) and their 4 grandparents are
to be seated around a circular table. How many different seating arrangements are possible so
that 2 sisters are seated between any two of the three brothers?
(A) 1000
(B) 1100
(C) 1200
(D) 1300
(E) 1440

49. At a birthday party, 10 students are to be seated around a circular table. What is the probability
that two of the students, Anna and Bill, do NOT sit next to each other?
(A) 3/9
(B) 4/9
(C) 5/9
(D) 6/9
(E) 7/9

50. There are 5 pairs of white, 3 pairs of black and 2 pairs of grey socks in a drawer. If four individual
socks are picked at random what is the probability of getting at least two socks of the same color?
(A) 1/5
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/2
(E) 1

51. In a set of numbers from 100 to 1000 inclusive, how many integers are odd and do not contain
the digit "5"?
(A) 288
(B) 292
(C) 296
(D) 300
(E) 312
52. How many five-digit numbers can be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 which are divisible
by 3, without repeating the digits?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 180
(D) 216
(E) 320

53. How many odd three-digit integers greater than 800 are there such that all their digits are
different?
(A) 32
(B) 40
(C) 72
(D) 90
(E) 105

54. How many three-digit integers greater than 710 are there such that all their digits are different?
(A) 200
(B) 205
(C) 206
(D) 207
(E) 216

55. A password on Mr. Wallace's briefcase consists of 5 digits. What is the probability that the
password contains exactly three digits as 6?
(A) <0.1
(B) 0.1
(C) 0.2
(D) 0.3
(E) 0.4

56. If x2+2x−15=−m, where x is an integer from -10 and 10, inclusive, what is the probability
that m is greater than zero?
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/5
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/3
(E) 1/2

57. How many positive integers less than 10,000 are such that the product of their digits is 30?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
(E) 50
58.

59.

60.
61.

62.

63.

64.
65.
 1. If a password contains at least 8 distinct digits, out of the 10 digits that are possible (0-9), the
total number of potential combinations that one could try are :

1) Choose 8 out of the 10 possible digits and arrange them – resulting in 10P8
arrangements.
2) Choose 9 out of the possible 10 digits and arrange them – resulting in 10P9
arrangements.
3) Choose 10 out of the possible 10 digits and arrange them – resulting in 10P10
arrangements.

Therefore the total number of potential combinations is a sum of the above three:

(10P8 + 10P9 + 10P10).

Since time take for one combination is equal to 12 seconds, time taken to guarantee access
to the database = total number of possible combinations * time taken for each combination

= (10P8 + 10P9 + 10P10) * 12 seconds

2. Project Manager ______ - 1 slot

Team Leader ______ - 1 slot
Consultants _______ - 4 slots

Number of ways in which a project manager can be chosen = 2C1

Number of ways in which a team leader can be chosen = 3C1

Number of ways in which 2 of the consultants can be in the same team = number of ways in
which a consultant can be chosen – Number of ways in which 2 consultants can always be
together

Number of ways in which a consultant can be chosen = 7C4

Number of ways in which 2 consultants can always be together:

4 consultant slots and 2 people always together.

If two people always have to be on the team, the remaining 2 people can be picked out of
the 5 available people in 5C2 ways.

Therefore, Number of ways in which 2 of the consultants can be in the same team =
number of ways in which a consultant can be chosen – Number of ways in which 2
consultants can always be together = 7C4 -5C2.

Therefore, possible ways of picking the entire engagement team = 2C1 * 3C1 * (7C4-5C2)
= 150 possible teams.
3. Number of flavours of pizza available = 4
Number of options available to the customer = extra cheese, extra mushrooms, both,
neither ( 4 options).

Therefore, number of pizza varieties available = 4 * 4 = 16 varieties.

4. Let us list down all the possible outcomes where all three tails occur in a row :

TTTHHH
HTTTHH where T represents Tails and H represents Heads.
HHTTTH
HHHTTT
Thus there are only 4 possible ways in which this can happen.

5. Possible digits that can be used = 2,4 and 5.

The product of the digits in the area code will be even every time 2 or 4 are chosen as a digit
in the area code. The only time they will not be chosen is when all three digits of the area
code are 5.

The number of ways in which the product will be even = total number of possible
combinations (with repetition) – 1 (the combination ‘555’ which is the only combination
with an odd product of digits)

= (3*3*3) – 1 = 26 ways.

6. Whatever route Casey takes to the bus stop, she will cover a total of 9 paths – 4 horizontal
and 5 vertical.

The 9 paths can be taken in 9! Ways. But those nine paths will always consist of 4 horizontal
and 5 vertical paths.
 If the horizontal path is represented by H and the vertical path is represented by V,

We will basically have a combination of 4H’s and 5 V’s to get Casey from her house to the
bus stop.

Therefore, total number of possible ways = 9!/4! * 5 ! = 126 different ways.

7. The first thing that we have to find conclusively is the number of sub-committees that
include Michael.

If Michael must be on each of the three-person committees that we are considering, we are
essentially choosing people to fill the two remaining spots of the committee. This can be
done in 5C2 ways.

If Michael and Anthony both have to be a part of the selected Sub-committee, we have one
seat remaining and 4 board members vying for it. This seat can therefore be filled in 4C1
ways.

Therefore, % of sub-committees that include Michael and Anthony = Number of sub-

committees that have both Michael and Anthony/ Number of committee that have Michael
= 4C1/5C2
= 4/10
= 40 %.

Hence, Option (C) is the right answer choice.

8. Let us say that there are n questions on the exam. Let us also say that p1 is the probability
that Patty will get the first problem right, and p2 is the probability that Patty will get the
second problem right, and so on until pn , which is the probability of getting the last problem
right. Then the probability that Patty will get all the questions right is just p1 × p2 × … × pn.
We are being asked whether p1 × p2 × … × pn is greater than 50%.

Statement (1)INSUFFICIENT: This tells us that for each question, Patty has a 90% probability
of answering correctly. However, without knowing the number of questions, we cannot
determine the probability that Patty will get all the questions correct.

Statement (2) INSUFFICIENT: This gives us some information about the number of questions
on the exam but no information about the probability that Patty will answer any one
question correctly.
 (1) AND (2) INSUFFICIENT: Taken together, the statements still do not provide a
definitive "yes" or "no" answer to the question. For example, if there are only 2
questions on the exam, Patty's probability of answering all the questions correctly is
equal to .90 × .90 = .81 = 81%. On the other hand if there are 7 questions on the
exam, Patty's probability of answering all the questions correctly is equal to .90 ×
.90 × .90 × .90 × .90 × .90 × .90 ≈ 48%. We cannot determine whether Patty's chance
of getting a perfect score on the exam is greater than 50%.

The correct answer is E.

9. In order to solve this problem, we have to consider two different scenarios. In the first
scenario, a woman is picked from room A and a woman is picked from room B. In the second
scenario, a man is picked from room A and a woman is picked from room B.

The probability that a woman is picked from room A is 10/13. If that woman is then added
to room B, this means that there are 4 women and 5 men in room B (Originally there were 3
women and 5 men). So, the probability that a woman is picked from room B is 4/9.
Because we are calculating the probability of picking a woman from room A AND then from
room B, we need to multiply these two probabilities:
10/13 x 4/9 = 40/117

The probability that a man is picked from room A is 3/13. If that man is then added to room
B, this means that there are 3 women and 6 men in room B. So, the probability that a
woman is picked from room B is 3/9.
Again, we multiply these two probabilities:
3/13 x 3/9 = 9/117

To find the total probability that a woman will be picked from room B, we need to take
both scenarios into account. In other words, we need to consider the probability of picking a
woman and a woman OR a man and a woman. In probabilities, OR means addition. If we
add the two probabilities, we get:
40/117 + 9/117 = 49/117
The correct answer is B.

10. The last two digits of the telephone number can be one of the following: 3,4,6,8 and 9.
Total number of possible combinations of the digits = 25 ( 33,34,36,38,39,43,44.. etc)

Probability of Bob getting the last two digits right in at most two attempts = probability of
Bob getting it right in the first attempt + probability of Bob getting it right in the second
attempt
= 1/25 + (probability of Bob getting it wrong in the first attempt * probability of Bob getting
it right the second time)
= 1/25 + (24/25 * 1/24)
= 1/25 +1/25
= 2/25.
 11. P(r)=r/(r+b+w)
P(w)=w/(r+b+w)

simplifying the question stem,

Q. P(r)>P(w)?
=>Is r>w?

1) r/(b + w) > w/(b + r)

=>r/(b + w)-w/(b + r)>0
=>r(b+r)-w(b+w)/{(b+w)(b+r)}>0
=>rb+r^2-wb-w^2>0
=>b(r-w)+r^2-w^2>0
=>b(r-w)+(r+w)(r-w)>0
=>(r-w)(b+r+w)>0
=>(r-w)>0 => r>w sufficient

2) b-w > r
From this statement we can’t say whether r>w .
{When, b= 100, w =10 , r= 90 – in this case r>w…
B = 100 w = 90, r = 10 – in this case r <w..}

Hence, Not sufficient

Option (A) is therefore the right answer choice.

12. Let R denote the letter in the right envelope and W denote the letter in the wrong envelope.
We are trying to find the probability of 1R3W.

Probability = number of ways to get 1R3W/number of ways total

number of ways total is 4! = 24. Imagine stuffing envelopes randomly. Stacy can put any of 4
letters into the first envelope, any of the remaining 3 into the next, either of the remaining 2
into the next, and has no choice to make on the last, or 4*3*2*1.

number of ways to get 1R3W : She could fill the first envelope with the right letter (1 way),
then put either of the 2 wrong remaining letters in the next (2 ways), then put a wrong letter
in the next (1 way). That's 1*2*1*1 = 2.

But since it doesn't have to be the first envelope that has the Right letter, it could be any of
the 4 envelopes (i.e. we could have RWWW, WRWW, WWRW, WWWR), the total ways to
get 1R3W is 4*2 = 8.

Probability is 8/24 = 1/3.

 13. Total number of ways in which a committee of 3 can be picked from 10 people = 10C3 = 120
Since there are 6 non-French teachers, we can calculate the probability that three non-
French teachers will be selected in a row = (6/10) x (5/9) x (4/8) = 1/6.

So, 1/6 of the 120 arrangements - or 20 - contain no French teachers. If 20 don't, then the
other 100 arrangements do contain French teachers.

Option (E) is the right answer choice.

14.

Consider numbers from 0 to 999 written as follows:

1. 000

2. 001

3. 002

4. 003

...

1000. 999

We have 1000 numbers. We used 3 digits per number, hence used total
of 3∗1000=3000 digits. Now, why should ANY digit have preferences over another? We
used each of 10 digits equal # of times, thus we used each digit (including
7) 3000/10=300 times.
15. Choose 3 people from 8 people (where order does not matter)

8C3 = (8 * 7 * 6 * 5!)/(3!)*(5!) = 56

56 includes all combinations including those in which husband and wife are on the
committee.

Since we have 4 married couples we can have each of them serve on a committee and third
place could be filled by one of the other 6 remaining people. For example, if A1 and A2 are
husband and wife, the arrangement would look like:

A1 A2 (3rd slot - any of the other six)

Similarly,

B1 B2 (3rd slot - any of the other six, which in this case includes A1 and A2)

Therefore, we have 4 possibilities (for husband and wife combo) * 6 of the remaining 8

=> 4*6 = 24 combinations have husband-wife on committee.

Therefore, 56 - 24 = 32 will satisfy the requirement that no husband-wife combo is together

on a committee.

16. S = n/2 (a + l).

= (5!/2) (12345+54321)

17. To outscore Mary, Joe has to score in the range of 11-18. The probability to score 3 is
the same as the probability to score 18 (1-1-1 combination against 6-6-6, if 1-1-1 is on
the tops of the dice the 6-6-6 is on the bottoms). By the same logic, the probability to
score x is the same as the probability to score 21−x. Therefore, the probability to
score in the range 11-18 equals the probability to score in the range of 3-10. As 3-18
covers all possible outcomes the probability to score in the range 11-18
is 1/2 or 32/64.

18. 25 balls
each one is red, white, or blue
each one has a number from 1 to 10

Requirement: white OR even (note that we DON'T want white AND even - we have to be
able to strip out those that fall into both categories). So our equation will be :
probability of white + probability of even - probability of white & even
 19.
Statement(1) :
Translated, this means there aren't any that are both white and even. This doesn't tell us
how many are white or how many are even. Hence Insufficient.

Statement (2):
Pwhite - Peven = 0.2. So, Pwhite could be 0.4 which would make Peven 0.2. Or Pwhite could
be 0.3 which would make Peven 0.1. And (by itself) it doesn't tell us Prob of even & white,
which I'd need to subtract, so... insufficient in many ways.

Combining statement (1) AND statement (2):

Now we know that Peven+white = 0. BUT, we still have multiple possibilities for Pwhite and
Peven (see above). 0.4+0.2-0=0.6. 0.3+0.1-0=0.4. ?? Still insufficient.

Hence Option (E) is the right answer choice in this case.

20. Let’s first Rephrase the question:

What is the probability of selecting 2 women from a group of 10. Let’s assume there are n
women.
P(2w) = nC2 / 10C2 = n*(n-1) / 10*9

Question is asking is P(2W) >1/2

or n*n-1 / 90 >1/2
or n* n-1 > 45

Now what value of ‘n’ could satisfy the above equation , when we know n<=10
n=10 10*9 = 90 > 45
n=9 9*8 = 72 > 45
n=8 8*7 = 56 > 45
n=7 7*6 =42 which is not greater than 45
So we know for the probability of selecting two women to be more than 1/2 , we need n>=8
women in the group of 10 people.

Statement (1):
Number of women > 5 , doesn’t tell us whether >=8 .
Hence Insufficient.

Statement (2):
P(2m) <1/10
Going by above method
m*m-1 <9
m= 0 , 0 < 9
m= 1 , 0 <9
m=2 2*1 <9
m=3 3*2 = 6 <9
m=4 4*3 , which is greater than 9.
 So we know that total men in the group are <=3 , which means women are >=7. But it still
doesn’t confirm whether women are >=8.
Hence Insufficient.

Now combining both the statements, we get:

we know m <=3 and w>=5
But still doesn’t tell us that whether we have more than 8 women to have probability of
selecting two women to be more than 1/2.

Option (E) is therefore the best answer choice.

21. The key to this problem is to remember that repetition is allowed.

A 1 letter code can be obtained in 26 different ways.
A 2 letter code can be obtained in 26*26 ways
A 3 letter code can be obtained in 26*26*26 ways.

Number of codes possible to be generated with this code = 26 + 26*26 + 26*26*26 = 18278.

Hence option (E) is the right answer choice.

22. The ball drops between the top two pegs and hits the peg in the middle of row 2. To figure
out the probability for its final location, we should look at the possible routes it could travel
from row 2. There are 8 possibilities, with L meaning the ball goes left, and R meaning it goes
right:

It could go LLL--this puts it into cell 1.

It could go LLR--this puts it into cell 2.
It could go LRL--this puts it into cell 2.
It could go LRR--this puts it into cell 3.
It could go RLL--this puts it into cell 2.
It could go RLR--this puts it into cell 3.
It could go RRL--this puts it into cell 3.
Or it could go RRR--this puts it into cell 4.

There are 8 total possibilities, and 3 of them give us a result of cell 2. So the probability of
cell 2 is 3/8.

23. Part I: Let’s consider all the possibilities that will give us the same size (two possible ways)
and the same color (4 possible ways).

Since there are two sizes and 4 colors, we can make a possible number of 8 DIFFERENT
packages. (Remember that different packages means unique packages and with the same
colour, say green, we cannot consider GGG different from another GGG).
 Part II : Consider all the possibilities for a same size but three different color package. Since
we have four colors to choose from, we can use the combination formula to find how many
ways to choose 3 from 4 colors(4C3). This will give us 4 options, but since we have two sizes,
we have a total of 8 ways to package the notes in this category.

Therefore the total number of packages available will be a sum of part I and part II = 8 + 8 =
16.

Hence option (C) is the right answer choice.

24. This is an "AND" probability question because both individuals must be a part of the sibling
pair for the winning outcome to occur.

Since this is an "AND" question, it will involve multiplication. Also keep in mind that 60
"sibling pairs" is really 120 people.

Probability of selecting one sibling pair from class of juniors =

60 / 1,000

Probability of selecting a sibling pair from the senior class that is THE match to the one we
selected from the junior class? There is only one person that would be the match, so winning
outcomes / total possibilities =

1/800

Therefore: Answer = 60/1000 * 1/800 = 60/800,000 = 6/80,000 = 3/40,000.

Hence option (A) is the right answer choice.

25. Upper Limit- 458600

Lower Limit - 324700

Diff 133900

The case of the last two digits ending in ‘13’ will happen in exactly every hundredth integer.
And the total pool of integers under consideration is a multiple of 100, so there won't be any
pattern interrupts. Therefore, we can just divide the total number of integers by 100 and we
will arrive at our answer.

So in this case, the right answer is 1339 integers that end in ‘13’.

Hence Option (E) is the right answer choice.

26. Probability that Leo will hear a song that he likes = 1- probability that Leo will not hear a
song that he likes.

Individual probability of leo hearing a song he likes = 0.3

Individual probability of Leo not hearing a song that he likes = 0.7

Therefore the probability that Leo will hear a song that he likes = 1 – 0.7*0.7*0.7 = 1-0.343=
0.657.

Hence Option (D) is the right answer choice.

27. The best way to answer this question is to work backward from the options in hand.

Option (A) : With four colors we can code a total of : 4 + 4C2 DC’s = 4 + 6 = 10 DC’s. Not
sufficient.

Option (B) : With 5 colours we can code a total of : 5 + 5C2 = 5 + 10 = 15 DC’s. Sufficient.

There is no point proceeding to the next few options as the numbers will just get larger and
we are only concerned with the minimum number of colors needed for coding. Hence
Option (B) is the right answer choice.

28. Let us rephrase the questions first :

‘what is the least value of n for which there is less than a 1/1000 chance of guessing n
questions in a row correctly?'
This should be the thought process:
* there is a 1/2 chance of guessing each question correctly
* each question is independent of the other questions, so the chance of guessing n
questions correctly is (1/2)(1/2)(1/2)...(1/2), where there are n (1/2)'s
* this is (1/2)^n, or 1/(2^n)
so:
1/2^n < 1/1000
take reciprocals:
2^n > 1000
n > 10 (because 2^10 = 1024)

29. Probability that atleast one of the fashion magazines will be selected = 1- probability that
only sports magazines are selected.

Probability that only sports magazines are selected:

Probability that the first magazine is a sports magazine =4/8

 Probability that the second magazine is a sports magazine = 3/7

Probability that the third magazine is a sports magazine = 2/6

Therefore, probability that all 3 magazines are sports magazines = 4/8*3/7*2/6 = 1/14

Hence, probability that at least one of the fashion magazines will be selected = 1- 1/14 = 13/14.

Option (E) is therefore the right answer choice.

30. The question indicates that the first and last digit are equal to 1 more than the middle digit
indicating that the first and last digits are equal. Since the range is less than 199, the first
digit cannot be greater than 1. This implies that with 0 as the middle digit and 1 as the first
and last digits, 101 is the only integer possible out of the 100 integers.

Hence probability = 1/100. Hence option (D) is the right answer choice.

31. 4 letter possibilities = 26^4

5 letter possibilities = 26^5.

Adding them, we get,

26^4 + 26^5 = (26^4) * (1+26) = 27*(26^4). Option (C) is the right answer choice.

32. Equal kinds of cheese and fruits indicate that we can have platters with a maximum of 2
fruits since there are only two different kinds of fruits available.

Remember that we can even have a 1 fruit, 1 cheese option.

Hence:

2C-2F = 6C2*2C2=15*1=15
1C-1F=6C1*2C1=12

Therefore, total number of options available = 15 + 12 = 27. Option (E) is the right answer
choice.

33. Meg, Bob, and John can arrange themselves in 3! = 6 ways out of which only one way will
give Meg > Bob > John.
So the total number of favourable ways = (1/6)*8!

34. Total number of ways of picking two bulbs out 10 bulbs = 10C2
Total number of ways of picking 2 bulbs out of ‘n’ defective bulbs =nC2

Statement (1) :

It is given that nC2/10C2 = 1/15 i.e nC2 = 3. Hence n = 3.

This statement is therefore sufficient.
 Statement (2):

Since the two bulbs are drawn simultaneously, probability that the first will be defective
and the second will not be defective = n(10-n)/10C2 = 7/15

From the above, we get, n(10-n) = 21. Solving for n, we get n = 3. Hence this statement is
sufficient.

Option (D) is therefore the right answer choice.

35. The event when 2 out of 3 visitors Buy a pack of candy can occur in 3!/2!=3 ways:
BBN, BNB, NBB (3!/2!=3 is basically the # of permutations of 3 letters out of which
2 B's are identical). Now, each B has the probability of 0.3 and N has the probability
of 1−0.3=0.7, so P(B=2)=3!/2!∗0.32∗0.7=0.189

The correct answer is C

36. The five letter code : ___ ____ ____ ____ ____
The first position can be occupied by any one of 10 letters, the second by any one of 9 ,
the third by any one of 8 and so on…
Number of possible 5-letter code words = 10*9*8*7*6

Similarly, the number of possible 4-letter code words = 10*9*8*7

Ratio of 5-letter code words to 4-letter code words = 10*9*8*7*6/ 10*9*8*7 = 6/1.

Hence option (E) is the right answer choice.

37. n(n + 1)(n + 2) is a product of 3 consecutive integers.

If n is even, n(n + 1)(n + 2), will be divisible by 8.
Even integers from 1-96 inclusive = (96-2)/ 2 = 94/2 = 47, 47+1 = 48.
Also if n is odd and 1 less than multiple 8, n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8, because
this will have at least 1 multiple of 8.
Multiples of 8 from 1-96 = (96-8)/8 = 11, 11+1 = 12.
Total number of favourable outcomes = 48 + 12 = 60.
Total number of possible outcomes = 96.
Probability = Number of favourable outcomes / Number of possible outcomes
= 60/96
= 5/8.
Hence Option (D) is the right answer choice.
38. Statement (1):
Since we have no information about the number of students who are male, we cannot
answer the question prompt. Hence this statement alone is insufficient.
Statement (2):
Since we have no information about the number of students who are brown haired, we
cannot answer the question prompt. Hence this statement alone is insufficient.

Combining statements (1) and (2):

We have 20 males and 40 females. We have 30 students with brown hair.
So we could have 20 males and all of them brown haired (probability would be 1/3), or
20 males non brown haired (30 females brown haired) and then probability would be 0.

Hence the combination of the statements is insufficient as well. Option (E) is therefore
the right answer choice.

39. Notice that since events A and B are independent, then the probability that both occur,
equals to the product of their individual probability, so P(A and B)=P(A)∗P(B). Also
notice that 0≤P(A)≤1 and 0≤P(B)≤1.

(1) Probability that A will happen is 0.25. Now, since P(A)=0.25,

then P(A and B)=P(A)∗P(B)≤0.25<0.3.
(2) Probability that B will NOT happen is 0.71. The same here:
since P(B)=1−0.71=0.29
then P(A and B)=P(A)∗P(B)≤0.29<0.3. Sufficient.

The correct answer is D

40. The number of ways to arrange the red bushes in the desired fashion is as follows :
W1R1R2W2, W2R1R2W1, W1R2R1W2, W2R2R1W1.
Total number of ways in which 4 bushes can be arranged = 4! = 24.
Hence, probability that of the event occurring = 4/ 24 = 1/6.
Option (B) is the right answer choice.

41. To make a code number, we have 8 choices for the first digit, 7 choices for the second digit,
and 6 choices for the third digit (subtracting one each time, since we cannot use the same
digit more than once), and therefore 8*7*6 = 336 code numbers are possible in total.
Since 330 code numbers have been used already, there are 336-330 = 6 unused code
numbers.
Option (A) is the right answer choice.
 42. Let’s interpret the question in the right fashion :
The question is basically: “what’s the probability that it will rain on Monday and not on
first two days.”
Probability that it will not rain on the first two days = 0.8*0.8
Probability that it will rain on Monday = 0.2.
Hence overall probability = 0.8*0.8*0.2 = 0.128.
Option (B) is the right answer choice.

43. For all four digits of the number to be even, we have to only consider the digits {0,2,4,6,8} in
our calculations.
The first digit can be picked in 4 ways ( we cannot consider 0).
The second digit can be picked in 5 ways
The third digit can be picked in 5 ways
The fourth digit can be picked in 5 ways.
Hence, total number of 4 digit positive integers = 4*5*5*5 = 500.
Option (C) is the right answer choice.

44.

(1) 20% of all chips in the basket are green. Therefore 80% of all chips in the basket are red,
which means that the ratio of the number of red chips to the number of green chips is 4:1
(80:20). Now, if there are total of 5 chips in the basket (4 red + 1 green) then the probability
that both chips will be green will be 0 (since there are NOT two chips in a basket) but if there
are total of 10 chips in the basket (8 red + 2 green) then the probability that both chips will be
green will be more than 0. Not sufficient.

(2) The ratio of the number of red chips to the number of green chips is 4:1. The same info as
above. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) Both statements tell the same thing, so we have no new info. Not sufficient.

The correct answer is E

45. Probability of one light bulb failing during time interval T = 0.06.
Hence, probability of not failing is 0.94. We have 10 light bulbs in the string. Even if one
light bulb fails, the entire string fails.
Hence in order for the string to be successful, all the light bulbs need to pass. Lets find
out the probability of not failing. P(10 light bulbs do not fail) = (0.94)^10. P(string of light
bulbs failing) = 1-P(10 light bulbs not fail) = 1-(0.94)^10

46. We have to consider three cases here.

Two digits equal and 1 digit different:
Case I [ABB] 8*9*1 = 72.
Case II [BAB] 8*9*1 = 72.
 Case II [BBA]. 8*1*9 = 72.
Total integers or permutations = 72+72+72 = 216

47. Let the code be XYZ, X can take 8 values-2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9.

Y can take 2 values- 0,1.
Z can take 9 if y = 0 or if Y = 1 then 10 values, if y = 0 : we have 8*1*9 = 72 options; if y =
1 : we have 8*1*10 = 80 options; Total = 72+80 = 152.
Hence option (B) is the right answer choice.

48. The easiest formula to remember for handshakes among n people is = nc2 = n(n-1)/2.
The logic for the formula is that n people will shake hands with n-1 people. (Because a
person won't shake hands with himself, therefore n-1 is used). So the total no. of
handshakes is n(n-1). BUT we just double counted the handshakes, because we counted
that person A shake hands with person B and ALSO counted person B shaking hands with
A. We have to correct for this double counting by dividing by 2.
Therefore the number of handshakes among n people = n(n-1)/2. There are a total of 18
reps. Total no. of handshakes among all reps (including own company) = (18 X 17)/2 =
153. No. of handshakes among one company’s own reps = (3 X 2)/2 = 3. No. of
handshakes among 6 company’s own reps = 3 X 6 = 18. Total no. of handshakes among
all reps excluding own company’s reps = 153-18 = 135

49.

Consider two brothers and two sisters between them as one unit: {BSSB}.

So, now we have 6 units: {G}, {G}, {G}, {G}, {B}, and {BSSB}.

These 6 units can be arranged around a circular table in (6−1)!=5! ways.

Next, analyze {BSSB} unit:

We can choose 2 brothers out of 3 for the unit in 3C2=3 ways;

These brothers, within the unit, can be arranged in 2! ways: {B1,S,S,B2} or {B2,S,S,B1}.
The sisters, within the unit, also can be arranged in 2! ways: {B,S1,S2,B}or {B,S2,S1,B}.
Therefore, the final answer is 5!*3*2*2=1440.

49.

10 students around a circular table can be arranged in (10−1)!=9! ways.

Now, consider Anna and Bill as one unit - {Anna, Bill}. We will have 9 units to arrange: 8
students and {Anna, Bill}. Those 9 units can be arranged around a circular table in (9−1)!=8!
ways. Anna and Bill within their unit can be arranged in two ways {Anna, Bill} or {Bill,
Anna}. Thus the number of ways to arrange 10 students around a circular table so that two of
them, Ana and Bill, sit next to each other is 8!∗2.
Therefore, the number of ways to arrange 10 students around a circular table so that two of
them, Ana and Bill, do NOT sit next to each other is 9!−8!∗2
The probability = favourable/total=(9!−8!∗2)/9! = 1−2/9=7/9
50.

No formula is need to answer this question. The trick here is that we have only 3 different
color socks but we pick 4 socks, which ensures that in ANY case we'll have at least one pair
of the same color (if 3 socks we pick are of the different color, then the 4th sock must match
with either of previously picked one). P=1.

51.

Examine what digits these set members can contain:

(A) First digit (hundreds): 8 choices (1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9 - cannot be 0 or 5)

(B) Second digit (tens): 9 choices (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9 - cannot be 5)
(C) Last digit (units): 4 choices (1, 3, 7, 9 - cannot be 0, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8)
The answer is 8∗9∗4=32∗9=288.

52.

First step:
We should determine which 5 digits from given 6, would form the 5 digit number divisible
by 3.

We have six digits: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. Their sum is 15.

For a number to be divisible by 3 the sum of the digits must be divisible by 3. As the sum of
the six given numbers is 15 (divisible by 3) only 5 digits good to form our 5 digit number
would be 15-0={1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and 15-3={0, 1, 2, 4, 5}. Meaning that no other 5 from given
six will total the number divisible by 3.

Second step:
We have two set of numbers:

{1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and {0, 1, 2, 4, 5}. How many 5 digit numbers can be formed using these two
sets:

{1, 2, 3, 4, 5} This set gives 5! numbers, as any combination of these digits would give us 5
digit number divisible by 3. 5!=120
{0, 1, 2, 4, 5}. Now, here we cannot use 0 as the first digit, otherwise number won't be any
more 5 digit and become 4 digit. So, desired # would be total combinations 5!, minus
combinations with 0 as the first digit (combination of 4) 5!−4! =96.
Total 120+96=216
53.

In the range 800 - 900:

1 choice for the first digit: 8;

5 choices for the third digit: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 (since integer must be odd);

8 choices for the second digit: 10 digits - first digit - third digit = 8 digits.

1∗5∗8=40
In the range 900 - 999:
1 choice for the first digit: 9;

4 choices for the third digit: 1, 3, 5, 7 (9 is out as it's used as the first digit);

8 choices for the second digit: 10 digits - first digit - third digit = 8 digits.

1∗4∗8=32
Total: 40+32=72.

54.

First find how many integers between 700 and 999 are such that all their digits are different.

We have : (3 options for the first digit)∗(9 options for the second digit)∗(8 options for the
third digit)=216(3 options for the first digit)∗(9 options for the second digit)∗(8 options for
the third digit)=216 numbers.
Among these 216 numbers, 9 (701, 702, 703, 704, 705, 706, 708, 709, 710) are not bigger
than 710. The answer to the question is therefore 216−9=207.

55.

Total # of 5-digit codes is 105, notice that it's not 9∗104, since in a code we can have zero as
the first digit.
# of passwords with three digits 6 is 9∗9∗5C3=810: each out of two other digits (not 6) has 9
choices, thus we have 9∗9 and 5C3 is ways to choose which 3 digits will be 6's out of 5 digits
we have.
P=favourable/total=810/105.

56.

Re-arrange the given equation: −x2−2x+15=m.

Given that x is an integer from -10 and 10, inclusive (21 values) we need to find the
probability that −x2−2x+15 is greater than zero, so the probability that −x2−2x+15>0.
Factorize: (x+5)(3−x)>0. This equation holds true for −5<x<3.
Since x is an integer then it can take the following 7 values: -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, and 2.
So, the probability is 7/21=1/3
57.

30=2∗3∗5=6∗5 (only 2∗3 gives single digit number 6). So, we should count the number of
positive integers less than 10,000 with the digits {2, 3, 5} and {5, 6} and any number of 1's
with each set.

2-digit numbers:

{5, 6} - the number of combinations = 2: 56 or 65.

3-digit numbers:

{1, 5, 6} - the number of combinations = 3! = 6: 156, 165, 516, 561, 615, or 651.

{2, 3, 5} - the number of combinations = 3! = 6.

4-digit numbers:

{1, 1, 5, 6} - the number of combinations = 4!/2! = 12.

{1, 2, 3, 5} - the number of combinations = 4! = 24.

Total = 2 + 6 + 6 + 12 + 24 = 50.
58.
CIRCLE
If there is no restriction, the number of ways = 6!/2! = 360
If the two Cs always come together, the number of ways (consider the two Cs one item) = 5!
= 120
Required answer = 360 – 120 = 240. Ans. E

59.

60.

61.
62.

63.
64.

65.
 By Sandeep Gupta | GMAT 800/800, Harvard Final Admit
www.top-one-percent.com | [email protected] | +91-97395-61394

Quant Concepts: DS Traps, Tricks, and Techniques

Quant Section at a glance:

• 31 questions, 62 minutes ― about 2 minutes per question. You have to get your pacing right.
Remember the pacing chart (10Q done, 42 minutes left / 20Q done, 22 minutes left / 30Q
done, 2 minutes left … for the last question, you must have 2 minutes remaining).
• The Quant Section contains questions from DS and PS, all jumbled up.
• Quant section has become much much tougher over the last few years. You need to study at a
much higher level.
• Your target is to score only 50 or 51. A score of 49 is not worth (especially if you are targeting
top-20 global B-schools, and especially if you want to be considered for a scholarship). To get a
score of 51, you must have no mistakes at all. To get a score of 50, you can’t have more than 3
mistakes overall. Also remember that the three mistakes must not be close to each other or
consecutive. They must be far apart. Also, preferably there should be no mistake in the first 10
questions. And you must finish the section, no matter what. There is a very strong penalty for
not finishing the section (you must mark the answer to each of the 31 questions before time runs
out). Also, you can’t skip even one question.
• If you do well (get 50 or 51), you are likely to see many more DS and fewer PS questions.
• Quant is about scrappy approaches, logic, identification of traps, language skills, and quick
decision-making. Calculations, standard step-by-step processes, and formulas are not important.
• Exit strategy: Don’t spend more than 2½ minutes on any question.
• With the right approach, each GMAT Quant question can be solved in < 2 minutes.
• Most content available is absolutely irrelevant for a 50/51 score.

Topics covered:

• General Algebra: Inequalities, Absolute Values (modulus), Number Properties, Exponents,

Polynomials, Equations, Quadratics, functions, progressions, and symbols
• Statistics: Mean, Median, Range, and Standard Deviation
• Arithmetic: Percents, Ratios, Mixtures, Work and Rate, Speed and Distance, Overlapping Sets,
Simple and Compound Interest, Population Growth, and miscellaneous Word Problems
• Geometry: Plane figures, Solids, and Co-ordinate Geometry
• Combinatorics: Complex Counting, Permutations & Combinations, and Probability

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Data Sufficiency:

Directions: Each data sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and
(2), which contain certain data. Using these data and your knowledge of mathematics and everyday
facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of the word counterclockwise), decide whether
the data given are sufficient for answering the question and then indicate one of the following answer
choices:

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are not sufficient.

Note: In data sufficiency problems that ask for the value of a quantity, the data given in the statements
are sufficient only when it is possible to determine exactly one numerical value for the quantity.

Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers (this is true of the entire Quant section, PS and DS).

Figures:
(1) Figures conform to the information given in the question, but will not necessarily conform to
the additional information given in statements (1) and (2).
(2) Lines shown as straight are straight, and lines that appear jagged are also straight.
(3) The positions of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown, and angle measures
are greater than zero.
(4) All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

DS Techniques to avoid falling in Traps:

• Simplify the question to the absolute basics… translate information as to what the question seeks
to ask. Most of the DS questions can be simplified.
• Do not assume anything. For example, if a number is not mentioned to be an integer, don’t
assume it to be so.
• In geometrical figures, do not assume that a figure is what it looks like. If it is not mentioned that
two lines are parallel, don’t assume so. If a figure looks like a square but is not mentioned to be
so, please do not assume it to be so. If an angle looks like an acute / right / obtuse, don’t assume
it to be so unless specified.
• While evaluating Statement (2), don’t “mentally” carry forward the information from Statement
(1) to Statement (2). Statement (2) is independent of Statement (1) and vice-versa.
• In “WHAT” questions, a unique numerical value is required. There should be NO AMBIGUITY.
• In “IS” or “Does” type of questions, you must get a unique YES or a unique NO. There should be
NO AMBIGUITY.
o An unambiguous “NO” is as acceptable as an unambiguous “YES”.
o Intentionally try to create a yes / no situation: don’t try to prove or disprove alone
… you should try both.
• There is no need to calculate the answer in most cases. Avoid calculations, wherever possible.
• In a “WHAT” question, if two statements are not independently sufficient, but, on combining,
result in a unique common value, then the common value will be the answer.
• The two statements never contradict each other.
• In questions involving the solving of two simultaneous equations, usually only one statement
will be sufficient.

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 30 MOST IMPORTANT DS Questions to understand all types of DS traps

1. If $1,000 is deposited in a certain bank account and remains in the account along with any accrued
interest, the dollar amount of interest, I, earned by deposit in the first n years is given by 𝐼 =
𝑟 𝑛
1000 [(1 + 100) − 1], where r percent is the annual interest rate paid by the bank. Is the annual
interest rate paid by the bank greater than 8%?

𝑟 2
(1) The deposit earns a total of $210 in interest in the first 2 years. (2) (1 + 100) > 1.15

2. If y > 0, what is the value of x? (1) |x – 3| > y (2) |x – 3| < – y

3. If x and y are positive integers, is x a prime number?

(1) |x − 2| < 2 − y
(2) x + y – 3 = |1 − y|

4. On the number line shown, is zero halfway between r and s? –––r–––s––––t–––

(1) s is right to the zero

(2) The distance between t and r is the same as the distance between t and (–s)

5. If y is an integer and y = x + |x|, is y = 0? (1) x < 0 (2) y < 1

6. Is x4 + y4 > z4? (1) x2 + y2 > z2 (2) x + y > z

7. The integers m and p are such that p > m > 2, and m is not a factor of p. If r is the remainder when p
is divided by m, is r > 1?

(1) the greatest common factor of m and p is 2 (2) the least common multiple of m and
p is 30

8. If x, y, and z are integers and xy + z is an odd integer, is x an even integer?

(1) xy + xz is an even integer (2) y + xz is an odd integer

9. Is the perimeter of a triangle greater than 1?

(1) Two of the altitudes of the triangle are less than 1/3

(2) One of the altitudes of the triangle greater than ½

10. In a triangle ABC, AB = 5, AC = 13, what is the length of segment BC?

(1) Angle ABC is 90 degrees. (2) The area of the triangle is 30.

11. At least 100 students at a certain high school study Japanese. If 4 percent of the students at the
school who study French also study Japanese, do more students at the school study French than
Japanese?

(1) 16 students at the school study both French and Japanese.

(2) 10 percent of the students at the school who study Japanese also study French.

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12. If PQ is a diameter of the circle shown, and the lengths of AX, BX, PX, and QX are integers, what is the
area of the circle?

(1) AX × BX = 16 (2) QX > AB

13. What is the value of x?

(1) X3 is a 2-digit positive odd integer. (2) X4 is a 2-digit positive odd integer.

14. Is x negative? (1) X2 is positive. (2) X3 is non-positive.

15. If n is a positive integer, what is the greatest common factor of n and 64?
(1) No two different factors of n sum to a prime number.
(2) The greatest common factor of n and 2,310 is 165.

16. Is n/18 an integer? (1) 5n/18 is an integer. (2) 3n/18 is an integer.

17. The sum of n consecutive positive integers is 45. What is the value of n?
(1) n is even (2) n < 9

18. Is x a negative number?

(1) x2 is a positive number. (2) x · |y| is not a positive number.

19. What is x? (1) |x| < 2 (2) |x| = 3x – 2

20. What is the value of y? (1) 3|x2 – 4| = y – 2 (2) |3 – y| = 11

21. If the average of four distinct positive integers is 60, how many integers of these four are less than
50?
(1) The median of the three largest integers is 51 and the sum of two largest integers is 190.
(2) The median of the four integers is 50.

22. How many balls of radius R can be fitted (without compressing) inside a rectangular box?
(1) The internal dimensions of the rectangular box are 2R, 3R, and 9R.
(2) The volume of the rectangular box is 54R3.

23. One kilogram of a certain coffee blend consists of X kilogram of type I and Y kilogram of type II. The
cost of the blend is C dollars per kilogram, where C = 6.5X + 8.5Y. Is X < 0.8?
(1) Y > 0.15 (2) C ≥ 7.30

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24. Marta bought several pencils. If each pencil was either a 23-cent pencil or a 21-cent pencil, how
many 23-cent pencils did Marta buy?
(1) Marta bought a total of 6 pencils.
(2) The total value of the pencils Marta bought was 130 cents.

25. Is the measure of one of the interior angles of quadrilateral ABCD equal to 60 degrees?
(1) Two of the interior angles of ABCD are right angles
(2) The degree measure of angle ABC is twice the degree measure of angle BCD

26. Is |x − 1| < 1?
(1) (x − 1)2 ≤ 1 (2) x2 – 1 > 0

27. If points A and B are on the y–axis in the figure, what is the area of equilateral triangle ABC?

(1) Coordinates of point B are (0, 5√3). (2) Coordinates of point C are (6, 3√3).

28. What is the sum of the digits of the positive integer n where n < 99?
(1) n is divisible by the square of y.
(2) y4 is a two-digit positive odd integer.

29. Joanna bought only $0.15 stamps and $0.29 stamps. How many $0.15 stamps did she buy?
(1) She bought an equal number of $0.15 stamps and $0.29 stamps.
(2) She bought $4.40 worth of stamps.

30. If x is non-negative integer, is x! + (x + 1) a prime number? (1) x < 10 (2) x is even

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 DS Traps Solutions – 30 questions

Each of these questions will be discussed in detail in the class / video session.
BUT: Before attending the live or video session, attempt each question extremely thoroughly and give
enough thought to every single question (right and wrong answers).

QUANT Tip: please go through each solution in detail, but only after giving an extremely honest attempt.
Checking the solutions too soon in Quant is the worst thing you can do. Give ALL you have got to every
question before you check any solution. Else you won’t improve in Quant. No matter what happens, don’t
check solutions too soon.

You must have done enough thinking / deliberation before you attend the session / watch the video.
Attending / watching the session without enough thinking from your end will not help you improve at all.
We can’t guarantee a score if you hurry through this process.

1. A
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. D
6. E
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. D
16. C
17. E
18. E
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. B
25. E
26. E
27. B
28. E
29. B
30. E
1.

From (1), we will surely get a unique positive value of r, so sufficient. It does not matter what r is: if it is
<8%, we get a confirmed NO. If it is equal to 8%, we get a confirmed NO. If it is >8%, we will get a confirmed
YES.

From (2), we get (1.08)2 = 1.1664 … so for the rate to be more than 8%, the value of (1+r/100)2 must be
more than 1.1664. We are given (1+r/100)2 > 1.15 … so (2) is not sufficient as >1.15 may be 1.155 (which
is less than 1.1664) or it may be 1.17 (which is more than 1.1664). So Answer A.

2.
(1) y can have any values … suppose y = 1, 2, 3 … then for each value of y, we will get various values of x.
Imagine taking the equal to sign, |x – 3| = 1 or 2 or 3 etc. we will not get a unique value of x. There will be
infinite possible values of x. NS
(2) |x – 3| < – y … we can’t take y as positive as |x – 3| will become negative so the only value of y can be 0.
When y = 0, |x – 3| < 0. As |x – 3| can’t be less than zero (by the definition of mods), so the only value of
|x – 3| can be 0, so if |x – 3| = 0, x will have a unique value as x = 3. Ans. B

3.
(1) |x − 2| < 2 − y. The left–hand side of the inequality is an absolute value, so the least value of LHS is zero,
thus 0 < 2 −y, thus y < 2 (if y is more than or equal to 2, then
2 – y ≤ 0 and it cannot be greater than |x − 2|). Next, since given that y is a positive integer, then y = 1.
So, we have that: |x − 2| < 1, which implies that −1 < x – 2 < 1, or 1 < x < 3
Thus x = 2 = prime. Sufficient.

(2) x + y – 3 = |1 − y|. Since y is a positive integer, then 1 – y ≤ 0, thus |1 − y| = −(1−y). So, we have that
x + y – 3 = −(1 − y), which gives x = 2 = prime. Sufficient.
The correct answer is D

4.
plug in numbers to the number line here:
Statement (1)

if the line reads: r = –1, zero, s = 1, t = 3, then zero is halfway between r and s. if the line reads: zero, r = 1, s
= 2, t = 3, then zero is not between r and s. Insufficient.

Statement (2)
a) if the line reads: –s = r = –2, zero, s = 2, and t = 4, then (t to r) = (t to –s) = 6.
So, zero is halfway in between r and s.

b) if the line reads: r = – 4, s = – 2, t = –1, zero, and –s = 2, then (t to r) = (t to –s) = 3.

zero is not halfway in between r and s.

Insufficient.

Together: Only case 2(a) is possible. Sufficient … Ans. C

5.

y = x + |x| … so y depends on x … x can be –ve, 0, or +ve.

If x is –ve, y = 0, if x = 0, y = 0, if x = +ve, y = +ve. So y can’t be negative.

Statement 1 is sufficient: If x is –ve, y = 0.

Statement 2 is y < 1, since y is an integer, and it is never negative, it can be only 0 if it is less than 1. So,
Statement 2 is sufficient too. Answer is D

6.

Case 1: x = y = 100, z = 0, satisfy both statements, and clearly give a YES answer.

Case 2: x = y = 3 and z = 4

In this case, then, x4 + y4 = 81 + 81 = 162, but z4 = 256, giving a NO answer.

Insufficient Answer = E

7.
Statement (1)

Let's just PICK A WHOLE BUNCH OF NUMBERS WHOSE GCF IS 2 and watch what happens.

4 and 6
6 and 8
8 and 10
10 and 12
4 and 10
6 and 14
6 and 16
8 and 18
8 and 22

In all of these examples, the remainders are greater than 1. In fact, there is an obvious pattern, which is
that they're all even, since the numbers in question must be even. In statement 1, both m and p are
even. therefore, the remainder is even, so it's greater than 1.

Sufficient.

Statement (2)
Just pick various numbers whose LCM is 30. Notice the numbers selected above:
5 and 6 ––> remainder = 1
10 and 15 ––> remainder = 5 > 1
insufficient. Ans. A
8.
xy + z is odd
(1) xy + xz is even

Subtract: xz – z = odd or z(x – 1) = odd We know that only Odd * Odd is Odd.

Even * Even, Even * Odd, and Odd * Even are all even.

So, both z and x – 1 must be odd, so x must be even.

Sufficient.

xy + z is odd
(2) y + xz is odd.

Add: (y + z) (x + 1) = even
So, x + 1 can be both even or odd. So x can be both even or odd.

Insufficient. Ans. A

9.
(1) Imagine a triangle with sides close to zero (imagine each side to be 1/1000). In this case, the altitudes
will be less than 1/3, and the perimeter will be very small (much less than 1).

Now imagine a triangle with 2 sides very very large (1000 each) and one side very small (0.001). In this
case, the two altitudes will be less than 1/3 and one of the altitudes will be very large. In this case the
perimeter will be > 1. So (1) is insufficient.

(2) Even if one of the altitudes is = 1/2, at least 2 sides will be > 1/2. So the perimeter will be greater than
1. Sufficient. Answer B
10.

(1) SUFFICIENT: If we know that ABC is a right angle, then triangle ABC is a right triangle and we can find
the length of BC using the Pythagorean theorem. In this case, we can recognize the common triple 5, 12,
13 – so BC must have a length of 12.

(2)
Remember the property: if the two sides of a triangle are given and if the area is given, then the
third side can have 2 possible values.

Here is the graphical explanation:

½ * 5 * 12 = ½ * 13 * h so h = 60/13 which is less than 5.

INSUFFICIENT: If the area of triangle ABC is 30, the height from point C to line AB must be 12 (We
know that the base is 5 and area of a triangle = 0.5 × base × height). There are only two possibilities
for such a triangle. Either angle CBA is a right triangle, and CB is 12, or angle BAC is an obtuse angle
and the height from point C to length AB would lie outside of the triangle. In this latter possibility, the
length of segment BC would be greater than 12.

The correct answer is A.

11.

(1)
NOT
Japanese TOTALS
Japanese
0.04 F =
French F
16
Not
French
TOTAL J ≥ 100

(1) gives 0.04 F = 16 so F = 400 but we don’t know how many students study Japanese. Insufficient.

(2)

NOT
Japanese TOTALS
Japanese
0.04 F = 0.1
French F
J
Not
French
TOTAL J ≥ 100

(2) gives 0.04 F = 0.1 J so F / J = 5 / 2 so F > J. Sufficient. Answer B.

12.

Use the product of chord segments property: AX × BX = PX × QX

If you don’t know this property as of now (or any other concept / formula / result), don’t worry.
Everything will be taught to you in subsequent sessions. ALL concepts.

The question asks for the area of the circle, so it is necessary to find the radius.
(1)

(AX)(BX) = (PX)(QX) = 16 PX = 2 and QX = 8 Diameter = 10

OR
PX = 1 and QX = 16 Diameter = 17
Not Sufficient
(2) NOT SUFFICIENT: This statement gives no indication of the scale of the diagram—i.e., there is no
indication of the size of anything whatsoever—so it is insufficient to determine the area of the circle.
(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT:
(AX)(BX) = 16 = 1 × 16 = 2 × 8 = 4 × 4 (in any order). So AB = 17 or 10 or 8.
(PX)(QX) = 16 = 1 × 16 = 2 × 8 = 4 × 4 (in any order).
But AB ≥ 8
QX > AB is only possible if QX = 16
Therefore, QX = 16, PX = 1, and so the diameter of the circle is 17; this is enough information to calculate
the area of the circle.
The correct answer is C.
13.
(1): x3 could be 11 or 27 or 97… so not a unique value
(2): x4 could be 11 or 27 or 97… so not a unique value (also, x could be positive or negative)

Combining: If x3 and x4 are both integers, x has to be an integer.

Let’s prove this:

Imagine x3 = 11, then x will be ∛11, then x4 = x3 × x = 11 × ∛11, which is not an integer.
This proves that if x3 and x4 are both integers, x has to be an integer. So x3 can’t be any other number
except 27. So, x = 3 Ans. (C)

14.
(1): x ≠ 0, could be + or –ve.
(2) x = 0 or –ve.
Comb… x is negative. Ans. (C)

15.
(1) SUFFICIENT: Every number has 1 as a factor. If n were an even integer, then 1 and 2 would both be
factors of n. The sum of 1 and 2 is 3, though, which is prime. Therefore, because 1 has to be a factor, 2
cannot also be a factor. Therefore, n is odd, as are all factors of n (since an odd number can’t have an even
factor). The prime factorization of 64 is 26, so 64 has no odd factors other than 1. All factors of n are odd,
and all factors of 64 are even except 1. The greatest common factor of n and 64 is therefore 1. The
statement is sufficient.

(2) SUFFICIENT: 2,310 is an even integer. If n were an even integer, then the greatest common factor
of n and 2,310 would be even (since n and 2,310 would have at least the factor 2 in common). Since the
greatest common factor, 165, is odd, it follows that n cannot be even. Thus all factors of n are odd, and, as
mentioned above, all factors of 64 are even except 1. The greatest common factor of n and 64 is therefore
1. The statement is sufficient. The correct answer is (D).

16.
(1) INSUFFICIENT:

If 5n/18 = x, then the question changes to is x an integer?

(1) 5x in an integer
(2) 3x is an integer

(1) If 5x = 1, x = 1/5 If 5x = 5, x = 1 NS
(2) If 3x = 1, x = 1/3 If 3x = 3, x = 1 NS

Combining
5x – 3x = Integer – Integer or 2x = integer
3x – 2x = Integer – Integer or x = integer Ans. C
17.

22 + 23 = 45 … n could be 2

5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 = 45 … n could be 6.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: If n is even, n could be either 2 or 6. Statement (1) is NOT sufficient.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: If n < 9, n could again take on either of the values 2 or 6
(1) and (2) INSUFFICIENT: if we combine the two statements, n must be even and less than 9, so n could
still be either of the values: 2 or 6. The correct answer is E.

18.
(1) gives x is either positive or negative but not 0. NS

(2) x · |y| is either 0 or negative (not positive means 0 or negative)

So, we can have
x –ve, y –ve x · |y| is –ve
x –ve, y +ve x · |y| is –ve
x = 0, y = 0 x · |y| is 0
or x = +, y = 0 x · |y| is 0
or x = –, y = 0 x · |y| is 0

So x can be 0, –ve or +ve.

(1) AND (2) INSUFFICIENT: We know from statement 1 that x cannot be zero, however, there are still two
possibilities for x: x could be positive (y is zero), or x could be negative (y is anything). The correct
answer is E.

19.
(1) INSUFFICIENT: This expression provides only a range of possible values for x.
(2) For the case where x > 0:
x = 3x – 2
–2x = –2
x=1

For the case when x < 0:

x = –1(3x – 2) We multiply by –1 to make x equal a negative quantity.

x = 2 – 3x
4x = 2
x = 1/2

Note however, that the second solution x = 1/2 contradicts the stipulation that x < 0, hence there is no
solution for x where x < 0. Therefore, x = 1 is the only valid solution for (2).
Or you can try to substitute x = 1/2 in the original equation, and you will see that x = 1/2 doesn’t satisfy.
Or any mod must be ≥ 0, so 3x – 2 ≥ 0 or x ≥ 2/3 so x = 1/2 is an invalid root.
The correct answer is B.
20.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: Since this equation contains two variables, we cannot determine the value of y. We
can, however, note that the absolute value expression |x2 – 4| must be greater than or equal to
0. Therefore, 3|x2 – 4| must be greater than or equal to 0, which in turn means that y – 2 must be greater
than or equal to 0. If y – 2 > 0, then y > 2.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: To solve this equation for y, we must consider both the positive and negative values of
the absolute value expression:

If 3 – y > 0, then 3 – y = 11
y = –8

If 3 – y < 0, then 3 – y = –11

y = 14

Since there are two possible values for y, this statement is insufficient.

(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: Statement (1) tells us that y is greater than or equal to 2, and statement (2)
tells us that y = –8 or 14. Of the two possible values, only 14 is greater than or equal to 2. Therefore, the
two statements together tell us that y must equal 14.

The correct answer is C.

21.
It's almost always better to express the average in terms of the sum: the average of four distinct positive
integers is 60, means that the sum of four distinct positive integers is
4 ∗ 60 = 240. Say four integers are a, b, c and d so that 0 < a < b < c < d. So, we have that
a + b + c + d = 240.
(1) The median of the three largest integers is 51 and the sum of two largest integers is 190. The median
of {b, c, d} is 51 means that c = 51. Now, if b = 50, then only a, will be less than 50, but if b < 50, then
both a and b, will be less than 50. But we are also given that c + d=190. Substitute this value in the above
equation: a + b + 190 = 240, which boils down to a + b=50. Now, since given that all integers are positive
then both a and b must be less than 50. Sufficient.
(2) The median of the four integers is 50. The median of a set with even number of terms is the average of
two middle terms, so median = (b + c) / 2 = 50. Since given that b < c then
b < 50 < c, so both a and b are less than 50. Sufficient.
The correct answer is D

22.
(1) will give unique answer … Must be sufficient.
(2) we can get a volume of 54R3 in many ways by adjusting the sides (lbh = 54R3) … so there will be
multiple solutions. Imagine R, R, and 54R as sides. Then we can’t fit even one ball. But if the dimensions
are 2R, 3R and 9R, then we can fit more than 4 balls. Answer A.
23.
"one kilogram of a certain coffee blend consists of X kilogram of type I and Y kilogram of type II" means
that X + Y = 1

Combined C = 6.5X + 8.5Y, we get:

X = (8.5 – C) / 2, Y = (C – 6.5) / 2

Combined C ≥ 7.3

So. X ≤ (8.5 – C) / 2

So, X ≤ 1.2/2

So, X ≤ 0.6

Answer is B

24.

21x + 23y = 130, we try x = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5... and find that only x=4, y=2 can fulfill the requirements. Unique
solution using (2) alone. Answer is B.

25.
The figure can fulfill the entire requirement, but there is no any angle that equal to 60.
Sum of 4 angles = (n – 2) * 180 = 360
From 1: sum of the remaining angles = 360 – 2*90 = 180
From 2: either x + 2x = 180 or x = 60
Or x = 90/2 = 45 and y = 180 – 45 = 135.
Answer is E

26.
(1) (x − 1)2 ≤ 1. Since both sides of the inequality are non–negative then we can take square root from
both parts: |x − 1| ≤ 1, so |x − 1| can be less than 1 (answer YES), as well as equal to 1, for x = 2 or x =
0 (answer NO). Not sufficient. Notice that |x − 1| ≤ 1, means 0 ≤ x ≤ 2.

(2) x2 – 1 > 0. Rearrange: x2 > 1. Again, since both sides of the inequality are non–negative then we can
take square root from both parts: |x| > 1. If x = 1.5 then the answer is YES but if x = 2 then the answer is
NO. Not sufficient.

(1) + (2) x = 1.5 and x = 2 satisfy both statements and give different answer to the question. Not sufficient.

The correct answer is E

27.
In an equilateral triangle
3 3 2
h= a and A = a , where ‘a’ is the side of the triangle.
2 4
(1) INSUFFICIENT: This does not give us the length of a side or the height of the equilateral triangle since
we don't have the coordinates of point A.
(2) SUFFICIENT: Since C has an x–coordinate of 6, the height of the equilateral triangle must be 6. We can
determine the side and hence the area.
The correct answer is B.

28.
It seems that (1) and (2) combined are enough to solve this question: y could be only equal to 3 or –3 so n
will be divisible by 9 … and 9, 18, 27, 36, 45, 54, 63, 72, 81, 90 … all have a sum of digits as 9 … so we have
a unique answer.
WRONG!!!
Imagine y = √3, √5, √7, 3, etc. So y4 = 9 or 25 or 49 or 81 and y2 = 3 or 5 or 7 or 9 … so n may be divisible
by 3 or 5 or 7 or 9 … we are not sure what the sum of the digits of n will be … suppose n = 21 or 25 … we
get different answers for the sum of digits as 3 or 7… Not sufficient. Answer E.

29.
(1) Any number of stamps could be purchased (5, 5), (10, 10), (100, 100) etc. INSUFFICIENT.

(2) The total value of the $0.15 stamps must be a dollar amount that ends in 5 or 0. In order for the total
value of both stamps to equal $4.40, therefore, the total value of the $0.29 stamps must also be a dollar
amount that ends in 5 or 0.
15x + 29y = 440
The only unique solution is (10, 10). Ans. B
30.

The best approach will be to test numbers. Note that since the question is Yes/No, all you need to do to
prove insufficiency is to find one Yes and one No.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: Statement (1) says that x < 10

0! + 0 + 1 = 2 (prime)

2! + (2 + 1) = 5, which is prime.

3! + (3 + 1) = 6 + (3 + 1) = 10, which is not prime.

NOT sufficient.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: Statement (2) says that x is even

0! + 0 + 1 = 2 (prime)

2! + (2 + 1) = 5, which is prime.

Now consider x = 8

8! + (8 + 1) = (8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1) + 3 × 3.

This expression must be divisible by 3, since both of its terms are divisible by 3. Therefore, it is not a
prime number. Since we found one case that gives a prime and one case that gives a non–prime,
statement (2) is NOT sufficient.

(1) and (2) INSUFFICIENT: since the number 2 gives a prime, and the number 8 gives a non–prime, both
statements taken together are still insufficient.

The correct answer is E.

 1.

2.
Given f(x) = 3x – 5, for what value of x does 2*[f(x)] – 1 = f (3x – 6)
A. 0
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
E. 13
3.
4.

5.
6.

7.
8.
 9.

10.
11.

12.
13.
14.

15.
 16.

17.
 18.

19.
20.

21.
22.

23.

24.
25.

26.
27.

28.
29.

30.
31.

32.
33.

34.
35.

36.
37.

38.
39.

40.

41.
42.

43.
44.

45.
46.

47
48.

49.
50.

51.
52.

53.

54.
Solutions
1.
2.

3.
4.

5.
6.
7
8.
9.
10
11.
12.
13
14. B
15.

!
Hence, the product is =>
!"
Option C

16 Option C
17. Option C

18. A
19. Sum of 4th and 7th term

If three terms are in GP

a,b,c
Then 𝑏 # = 𝑎 𝑐
(𝑎 + 2𝑑)# = a * (a + 12d)
(1st,3rd and 13th term are in GP)
=> d = 2a.

Putting d= 2a in the above equation,

20a = 40
a=2 and d =4.
Hence,Option A
20.
21.
22.

23.
 24.

25.
26.

27.
28.
29.
30. Option C

31. Option B
32.
33.
34.
35.

36.
37.

38.
39.
40.
41. B

42.
43.

44.
45.
 46. Option C

47.
48.

49.
50.
51.
52.

53. All true

5

Option B