1. These are living things that use sunlight, chlorophyll, water and carbon dioxide to produce food.

a. Autotrophs c. Heterotrops
b. Consumers d. Food chain 
2. It is describe as the lifeline of the body. IT is the body’s “pickup” and delivery system.”
a. Blood c. circulatory system 
b. nervous system d. heart 
3. It carries the oxygen-rich blood to the head, arms, chest and down to the waist and the legs. 
a. heart c. aorta 
b. ventricles d. arteries 
4. They are the transmitters of message from the different parts of the body to the brain and vice
versa. 
a. spinal cord c. brain 
b. neurons or nerve cells d. arteries 
5. Which part of the brain controls the following activities: breathing, blood pressure, heart rate,
alertness.
a. brainstem c. cerebrum 
b. hypothalamus d. spinal cord 
6. Refers to a sequence of organism in a community that constitutes a feeding chain. 
a. photosynthesis c. consumers
b. ecosystem d. food chain 
7. Is a group of interacting plants, animals and human in a particular area.
a. ecological community c. living organism
b. environment d. food chain 
8. Excessive presence of carbon dioxide in the air, trapping heat near the earth’s surface causing a
rise in temperature in the environment.
a. El Nino c. Deforestation
b. “Greenhouse Effect” d. Weather disturbance 
9. The Earth’s shield against sun’s harmful radiation.
a. Atmosphere c. Ozone layer 
b. Air d. Forest 
10. The use of product containing ______ is discouraged because they contribute to the depletion
of_____. 
a. Chlorofluorocarbon-solar radiation 
b. Gas-ozone layer
c. Ozone layer air 
d. Chlorofluorocarbon-ozone layer 
11. What causes high and low tides?
a. Earth’s rotation on its axis
b. Moon’s gravitational pull 
c. Sun’s solar energy 
d. Earth’s gravitational pull
12. How is coral a tool formed?
a. Volcanic eruption 
b. Corals growing around a volcanic island 
c. Underwater bedrock formations
d. Earthquake
13. What is a long shore drift?
a. Movement o sand and shingles along the coast 
b. Sand bars 
c. Accumulation o sad at the river mouth 
d. Island formed by volcanic eruptions
14. How does an occlusion form?
a. Cold air moving up from the ground 
b. Cold front pushing warm air up of the ground 
c. Unbalance electrical reaction in the air 
d. Cold and warm air mixing in the atmosphere 
15. What is a eat haze?
a. A reflection caused by pollutants in the air 
b. A distorted image resulting from the bending o sun’s light rays by changes in air temperature 
c. A movement o warm air over a vast expanse of land
d. Caused by extremely high temperature common in dessert areas 
16. What sort of rock formation do the world’s greatest mountain ranges consist of?
a. Magma c. Fold eruptions
b. Chalk deposit d. Slip formation 
17. What is the fore that wears down mountains?
a. Earthquake c. Volcanic eruptions
b. Erosion d. Deforestation 
18. How are volcanic island formed?
a. Collision of two oceanic plates 
b. Cooling of lava by seawater 
c. Volcanic eruptions
d. Accumulation of corals 
19. When the Theory of plate Tectonics was generally accepted?
a. 1900’s c. 1950’s
b. 1930’s d. 1980’s
20. The weathering away of rocks by water, wind and ice.
a. Denudation c. Volcanic rock 
b. Erosion d. Metamorphic rock 
21. How do hormones work?
a. By releasing adrenaline 
b. By controlling cell chemistry 
c. By regulating water loss 
d. By controlling blood pressure 
22. Name the male and female sex hormones 
a. Sperm cell & Ovum c. Chromosomes 
b. Testosterone d. Red & white blood cells
23. The unit of measurement of energy in a given an mount of food 
a. Pound c. Olfactory system 
b. Kilo d. calorie
24. Nitrogen compounds known as the building blocks of proteins 
25. The growth of roots towards water is an example of?
a. Chemotropism c. Hydrotropism 
b. Geotropism d. Phototropism 
26. DNA means 
a. Data nurturing analysis c. Deoxyribonucleic acid 
b. Deoxytribonucleic acid d. Deotrixyl nucleic acid 
27. What are the three products of oxygen when it has been burned?
a. Water, carbon dioxide and air 
b. Energy, water and carbon dioxide 
c. Energy, carbon and oxide 
d. Energy, air and water 
28. In flowering plants, fertilization happens in the?
a. Pollen tube c. Ovules 
b. Stamen d. Pollen grain 
29. The development of egg without fertilization 
a. Mitosis c. Spermatogenesis 
b. Parthenogenesis d. Mitochondria
30. Which of the following is a source of energy needed for photosynthesis?
a. Water c. Light 
b. Soil d. Fertilizer 
31. Chemistry is primarily concerned with the composition and changes of?
a. Nature c. Man 
b. Matter d. Earth 
32. A scientific theory is 
a. A hypothesis not yet subjected to experimental test 
b. An idea that correctly predict the result 
c. An imagination 
d. A guess 
33. Which of the following units of measure is equivalent to cubic centimeter?
a. Milligram c. Millimeter 
b. Milliliter d. Centiliter 
34. Which of the following is NOT a compound?
a. acetic acid c. magnesium 
b. alcohol d. Zinc Oxide 
35. The easier the atom to receive electrons is measured by its?
a. Elecrtonegativity c. Number of shells 
b. Atomic radius d. Valence electrons
36. The willingness o an atom to receive electron is measured by its?
a. Electronegativity c. Atomic size
b. Ionization potential d. Electron affinity 
37. A molecule is said to be polar or dipole if?
a. Its positive and negative charges are at different places 
b. It possesses polar bonds 
c. Its’ polar bond have unsymmetrical charge distribution 
d. All of the above
38. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water?
a. freezing point at 0 degree C
b. boiling point at 100 degrees C 
c. its’ heat of fusion at 80 cal/g.
d. its’ density at 4 degrees at 1 lb/cu. Ft
39. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Molecular weight does not influence boiling and melting point of a substance 
b. Boiling and melting point tend to increase with molecular weight 
c. Boiling and melting point tend to decrease with molecular weight 
d. None o the above 
40. A Mole is the amount of substance or a mass of a substance that contains?
a. 6.02 x 1023 particles c. 6.02 x 1023 particles
b. 60.2 x 1023 particles d. 60.2x 1023 particles 
41. It is the measure of the amount of matter in an object
a. Weight c. Volume 
b. Mass d. Quantity 
42. It is the distance traveled by the body per unit time and tell how fast or slow the body moves 
a. Velocity c. Acceleration 
b. Speed d. None of the above 
43. The rate of change of the distance traveled per unit time in a stated direction 
a. Velocity c. Acceleration 
b. Speed d. None of the above 
44. This law states that the force acting upon an object is equal to the product o the mass and
acceleration of the object
a. Newton’s 2nd law of motion 
b. Newton’s 3rd law of motion 
c. Newton’s 1st law of motion 
d. None of the amount 
45. When a force is applied to a body, several effects are possible. Which one of the following effect
CAN”T occur?
a. the body rotates 
b. the body changes direction
c. the body increase its mass
d. the body changes shape 
46. It is the reluctance of the object to change either its’ state of rest or uniform motion in a straight
line
a. Force c. Inertia
b. Friction d. Motion
47. This law states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed but only changes from one form to
another
a. Energy law 
b. Kinetic Theory of Matter 
c. Law of Conservation Energy 
d. None of the above 
48. This law states that matter is made up of a large number of molecules which are in continuous
motion
a. Boyles’s Law c. Law of Conservation Energy 
b. Kinetic Theory d. None of the above 
49. The lowest possible temperature that a substance can reach 
a. Freezing point c. Steam point 
b. Absolute Zero d. Threshold 
50. It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of kg. of a substance by degree C 
a. Calorie c. Specific heat capacity 
b. Watt d. Joule 
51. The relationship of give-and-take of living organism in the biosphere is a balance of nature
called________. 
a. universal relationship 
b. symbiotic relationship 
c. spontaneous relationship 
d. abiogenetic relationship 
52. Process of removing excess odor in water.
a. sedimentation c. distillation 
b. chlorination d. aeration 
53. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressures corresponding 
b. Throughout the available space, gas tends to contract
c. Equal chances are always given to all in life 
d. Shadow is formed when a colored object is projected against the wall 
54. The earth rotates on its axis from west to east. This causes the sun to _______?
a. appear with a fiery orange color 
b. cause the appearance of solar eclipse 
c. rise room the east and sets in the west 
d. emit solar radiation 
55. One of these planets has the greatest gravitational pull. Which one is it?
a. Mars b. Earth c. Mercury d. Jupiter 
56. It is the law which explains why one can pull a piece without topping a glass in a quick motion.
a. energy in motion c. law of inertia 
b. gravity d. force 
57. Which of the following is NOT a source of energy?
a. water c. geothermal heat 
b. nuclear d. inertia at rest 
58. Which instrument will one use to convert mechanical energy to electrical energy?
a. rotor b. generator c. motor d. circuit 
59. Sun’s energy is generated by?
a. nuclear fission 
b. sun enacting with gravity 
c. nuclear fusion reaction 
d. reaction with magnetic field 
60. Application of energy is called _______?
a. work c. kinetics
b. inertia d. simulation 
61. The falling of any form of water from the air to the earth’s surface
a. Condensation c. Water vapor 
b. Precipitation d. Rainwater 
62. The part of the atmosphere that filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun 
a. stratosphere c. Ozone layer 
b. Troposphere d. Ionosphere 
63. The point in the earth’s orbit nearest to the sun 
a. Solstice c. Aphelion 
b. Eclipse d. Perihelion 
64. A property of minerals which gives off rays of light when exposed to ultraviolet light.
a. Luminescence c. Radiation 
b. Phosphorescence d. Fluorescence 
65. Which process involves chemical weathering?
a. Carbonation c. Hydration 
b. Oxidation d. All of the above 
66. How long does it take for the earth to complete one rotation 
a. 365 days c. 24 hours 
b. 30 days d. 12 hours 
67. What is the principal function of gravity in the universe?
a. Provision for energy 
b. Keeps the stars and other heavenly bodies in orbit 
c. Causes movement in space 
d. Part of universal design 
68. What does the word “monsoon” mean?
a. Moon will soon come c. Seasons
b. Rains d. Wet weather 
69. Its’ discovery enable geologist to date rocks accurately 
a. layering c. Radioactivity 
b. Evolutionary staging d. Carbon-dating 
70. It occurs when the earth is between the sun and the moon, with the earth’s shadow cast over
the moon.
a. Total eclipse c. Eclipse 
b. Lunar eclipse d. Partial Eclipse 
71. Male and female reproductive part of a flower 
a. Pollen grains and ovules c. Pollen grains and pistil 
b. Stamen and pistil d. Stamen and ovules 
72. In the human body, the cell that most nearly resembles a one-celled animals
a. Red Blood cell c. Nerve cell 
b. White Blood cell d. Antibodies 
73. The main energy source of a plant-eating animals 
a. Glucose b. Starch c. Cellulose d. Glycogen 
74. These are cellular secretions which help regulate the breakdown and buildup of various
substance in the body
a. Enzymes c. Plasma 
b. Amino Acids d. Hormones 
75. It is the energy source of the cell which it uses for growing, reproducing and other activities 
a. Adenosine Triphosphate c. Chloroplast
b. Amino Acids d. Sunlight 
76. It is a segment of DNA molecule which controls the appearance of a given trait
a. Chromosomes c. Gametes
b. Genes d. Zygotes
77. Group of similar cells performing similar functions together 
a. Organs b. System c. Nucleus d. Tissue 
78. The diffusion of water through a semi permeable membrane 
a. osmosis c. Transfusion 
b. permeability d. Capillary 
79. It shows the complex food relationship of organism in a given area and the cyclic flow of food
through organisms
a. Food chain c. Food pyramid 
b. Food web d. Biological cycle 
80. Which of the following does NOT occur to both respiration and fermentation?
a. energy is released 
b. sugar is broken down 
c. carbon dioxide is produced 
d. alcohol is formed 
81. Energy removal is best illustrated in 
a. boiling of liquid substances
b. changing water to ice 
c. changing water to stem 
d. none of the above 
82. Refers to the maximum amount of solute expressed in grams that can be dissolved in 100
grams of water at a specific temperature 
a. Solubility c. Molarity 
b. Stability d. Molality 
83. Compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formulas 
a. Cellulose c. Polymers
b. Isomers d. Monomers 
84. The most penetrating type of radiation given of by radioactive elements
a. Alpha particle c. Gamma particle 
b. Beta particle d. None of the above
85. The basic unit for expressing the masses o individual atoms
a. Atomic number c. Nucleus 
b. Atomic mass unit d. Atomic weight 
86. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself undergoing a chemical change 
a. catalyst c. Electrolytes 
b. Enhancer d. Ionizer 
87. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the pressure of the
surroundings atmosphere 
a. Melting point c. Boiling Point 
b. Critical point d. None of the above 
88. the warming of the earth’s surface due to an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide 
a. “Greenhouse effect” c. Atmospheric pressure
b. Ozone d. El Nino phenomena 
89. Describe the force of gravity on an object
a. mass c. capacity 
b. weight d. pressure 
90. When gaseous molecules are compressed, they tend to?
a. increase in volume c. repel each other 
b. decrease in volume d.attract and liquefy 
91. It is the union of two light nucleus to form a heavier nucleus, resulting in a mass defect and
release of energy 
a. Radiation c. Nuclear Fusion 
b. Nuclear Fission d. Radioactivity 
92. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of an electronic spectrum?
a. They all travel at the same speed in fire space 
b. The exhibit diffraction and interference phenomena 
c. They follow the laws of refraction and reflection 
d. All of the above 
93. The term “RADAR” is derived from the phrase?
a. “Radiation Detection and Ranging “
b. “Radiation Diffusion and Ranging” 
c. “Radio Diffraction and Resolution”
d. “Radiation Diffraction and Resolution”
94. A material whose ability to conduct electricity lies between those of conductors and insulators 
a. Integrated Circuits c. Semiconductors 
b. Silicon Chips d. Insulators 
95. “LASER” is derived from the phrase?
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation 
b. Light Application by Simulated Emission of Radiation 
c. Light Amplification by Simulated Ejection of Radiation 
d. None of the above
96. What is the color of a transparent substance?
a. The color of the light it absorbs 
b. The color of light it reflects 
c. The color of light it transmit 
d. The color of light it refracts 
97. What is a rotating electromagnetic called?
a. Motor b. Rotor c. Phasor d. Sensor 
98. What happens with the centripetal force when sped is doubled?
a. remains the same c. triples 
b. force is increase 4x d. force is doubled
99. What is an electrochemical cell in which the reacting materials can be renewed by the use o
reverse current 
a. Storage cell c. Fuel cell 
b. Primary cells d. Chemical cell 
100. What will make an object move in a circular path?
a. Central force c. Frictional force
b. Gravitational d. Electromagnetic force
***** THE END *****
WORK HARD, DREAM HARDER
science and health 
1 a 51 b
2 c 52 d
3 d 53 a
4 b 54 c
5 a 55 d
6 d 56 c
7 a 57 d
8 b 58 b
9 c 59 c
10 d 60 a
11 b 61 b
12 b 62 c
13 a 63 d
14 b 64 b
15 b 65 d
16 c 66 c
17 b 67 b
18 a 68 c
19 c 69 c
20 b 70 b
21 b 71 b
22 b 72 b
23 d 73 c
24 d 74 d
25 c 75 a
26 c 76 b
27 b 77 d
28 c 78 a
29 b 79 b
30 c 80 d
31 b 81 b
32 a 82 a
33 b 83 b
34 c 84 c
35 d 85 b
36 d 86 a
37 b 87 c
38 b 88 a
39 b 89 b
40 c 90 a
41 b 91 c
42 b 92 d
43 c 93 a
44 a 94 c
45 c 95 a
46 d 96 c
47 b 97 b
48 b 98 d
49 b 99 a
50 c 100 a

1) Which refers to the recorded observations and measurements in an experiment?

a. Conclusion
b. Data
c. Graph
d. Variables
2) How is hypothesis tested?
a. by gathering enough information about the problem
b. by making inferences
c. by conducting experiment
d. by formulating conclusion
3) Which summarizes a natural occurence that may be constantly observed given the same
conditions which may be expressed in words or in mathematical form?
a. Conclusion
b. Hypothesis
c. Law
d. Theory
4) Mark prepares a solution by putting a pinch of orange crystals to water in a beaker, then by
consistent stirring, the crystals dissolve. Which of the statements above are likely to be observed by
Mark?
I. The water becomes orange.
II. The color of the solution becomes darker.
III. Crystals disappear from the bottom of the beaker.
IV. The beaker and its contents become heavier as stirring continues.
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II and IV
5) Which of the following is NOT true about scientific method?
a. Conclusion is the last step.
b. Scientific method may be applied in everyday life.
c. Scientific method is a systematic way of solving problem.
d. Scientific method is done by following a step-by-step procedure in a exact sequence.
6) Which apparatus will you use to measure the mass of an irregular solid correctly?
a. Empty beaker
b. Erlenmeyer flask
c. Graduated cyclinder with water
d. Vernier caliper
7) To graph the distance covered and velocity of a car, which is the dependent varaiable? Where
should be it plotted on a line graph?
a. Distance, x-axis
b. Distance, y-axis
c. Velocity, x-axis
d. Velocity, y-axis
8) A student found a piece of metal. What can the student do to quickly determine if the metal
might contain iron?
a. heat the metal
b. weigh the metal
c. place the metal in water
d. place the metal near a magnet
9) A student dipped a strip of aluminum and a strip of iron in water. The student then exposed the
strips to air for one week. Which was most likely happen one week later?
a. The iron strip formed rust.
b. The aluminum strip formed rust.
c. Both of the metal strips formed rust.
d. Neither of the metal strips formed rust.
10) Aubrey wants to track her summative tests scores over the course of grading period. Which of
the following will BEST allow her to analyze her progress?
a. Bar graph
b. Line graph
c. Pie graph
d. Scatter graph
11) What will most likely occur if global warming will not be addressed?
a. Lower sea levels
b. Melting of ice caps
c. More pollution in water
d. More reflected sunlight off the ice pack
12) How is the relationship described when both quantities are increasing but one quantity
increases faster than the other?
a. Direct proportion
b. Direct square proportion
c. Inverse proportion
d. Inverse square proportion
13) In your attempt to determine which is denser - oil or water, you mixed 25mL of oil with 25mL of
water. What helpful qualitative data can you derive from this setup?
a. There are 50mL of liquid in the container.
b. Oil did not mix with water.
c. Oil is on top of the water.
d. There are 25mL of water and 25mL of oil in the container.
14) Which of the following is a compound?
a. Cemented wall
b. Dry ice
c. Gold
d. Tincture of iodine
15) Which is most likely to change blue litmus paper to red?
a. Ammonia in water
b. Detergent solution
c. Limewater
d. Vinegar
16) Which can be classified as homogeneous mixture?
I. Buko pie
II. Blood
III. Virgin coconut oil
IV. Mango juice
a. III only
b. I and II
c. I, II and IV
d. II, III and IV
17) Which of the following is a physical property of non-metals?
a. Malleability and ductility
b. Low tensile strength
c. High density
d. High tensile strength
18) The yellow color of a highlighter is a ________ property.
a. chemical
b. heterogeneous
c. homogeneous
d. physical
19) An odorless and colorless matter boils at 100 degree Celsius and melts at 0 degree Celsius.
What inference can be drawn from this observation?
a. It is a metal
b. It is a mixture
c. It is a non-metal
d. It is a pure substance
20) You want to clean a tarnished silver. Which one will you use?
a. Baking soda
b. Salt solution
c. Sugar solution
d. Vinegar
21) What will you add to your food to make it last longer?
a. Baking soda
b. Salt solution
c. Tomato
d. Vinegar
22) Why is not advisable to drink softdrinks on an empty stomach?
a. It could lessen your appetite.
b. It could make you feel full faster.
c. It increases the acidity of your stomach.
d. It contains stimulant which causes dizziness.
23) Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the ________.
a. electron
b. neutron
c. nucleus
d. proton
24) How many protons are present if an atom has a mass number of 23 and atomic number of 11?
a. 11
b. 12
c. 23
d. 44
25) Carbon-12 atom has ________.
a. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
b. 6 electrons, 12 protons, 6 neutrons
c. 12 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
d. 16 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
26) What happens to atomic number during a chemical reaction?
a. changes
b. remains the same
c. changes alternately
d. changes and then is restored
27) Which of the following statements about isotopes of hydrogen is correct?
a. They have different atomic numbers.
b. They have the same number of neutrons.
c. They have the same number of protons.
d. The have different number of electrons.
28) What happens when a metal reacts with a non-metal? Usually ________.
a. a simple covalent bond is formed
b. a coordinate covalent bond is formed
c. positive and negative ions are formed
d. there is a sharing of electrons in the outer shells of two elements
29) What bond exists in a solid that does not conduct electricity but conduct electricity when
dissolved in water?
a. Coordinate covalent bond
b. Covalent bond
c. Ionic bond
d. Metallic bond
30) N, Y, and Z represent elements of atomic numbers 9, 11, and 16. What type of bond will be
formed between Y and Z?
a. Ionic bond
b. Metallic bond
c. Nonpolar covalent bond
d. Polar covalent bond
31) A weak attraction between hydrogen atom in one molecule and an oxygen in another is called
________.
a. Covalent bond
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Ionic bond
d. Metallic bond
32) What is the element needed to bond with Na to create the most ionic bond?
a. F
b. Cl
c. Br
d. I
33) The boiling point of substance A is higher than that of substance B. What does this mean?
a. Substance A is less viscious than substance B.
b. Substance A evaporates faster than substance B.
c. Substance B has greater surface tension than substance A.
d. Substance B has weaker intermolecular forces than substance A.
34) What is the intermolecular force of attraction between the nucleus of one atom and the
electrons of a nearby atom?
a. Dipole-dipole force
b. Ion-dipole force
c. London dispersion force
d. Van der Waals force
35) In oxidation-reduction, the oxidizing agent is reduced and gains electrons. The reducing agent is
oxidized and loses electrons. Are the statements CORRECT?
a. Both statements are correct
b. Both statements are false
c. First statement is true; second statement is false
d. Second statement is true; first statement is false
36) How many moles of iron does 25g of Fe represent? (Fe=55.85g)
a. 0.448 mol
b. 2.234 mol
c. 30.85 mol
d. 80.85 mol
37) Which of the following is NOT a principal assumption of Kinetic Molecular Theory?
a. Gas particles move rapidly.
b. Gases consist of submicroscopic particles.
c. There is very little empty space in a gas.
d. Gas particles have no attraction for one another.
38) Which refers to the kinetic energy or motion of gas particles?
a. Pressure
b. Quantity of gas
c. Temperature
d. Volume
39) What is the BEST reason why the atmospheric pressure in Baguio City is lower than the
atmospheric pressure at sea level?
a. Because there are more gas particles at higher altitudes.
b. Because there are less gas particles at higher altitudes.
c. Because there is greater temperature at higher altitudes.
d. Because there is lesser temperature at higher altitudes.
40) Which of the following correctly describes the process of exhalation (air going out of the lungs)?
a. The lungs decrease in volume, causing the internal pressure to increase.
b. The lungs decrease in volume, causing the internal pressure to decrease.
c. The lungs increase in volume, causing the internal pressure to increase.
d. The lungs increase in volume, causing the internal pressure to decrease.
41) How is food cooked faster using a pressure cooker?
a. The accumulated steam increases the pressure and decreases the boiling point of the liquid.
b. The accumulated steam increases the pressure and increases the boiling point of the liquid.
c. The accumulated steam decreases the pressure and decreases the boiling point of the liquid.
d. The accumulated steam decreases the pressure and increases the boiling point of the liquid.
42) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a base?
a. Bitter taste
b. Slippery feeling
c. Able to change litmus from red to blue
d. Reacts with carbonates to produce carbon dioxide
43) Which factor affects the rate of dissolution when powdered sugar dissolves more rapidly than
granulated sugar?
a. Application of heat
b. Nature of solute
c. Particle size
d. Stirring
44) In which factor is the description "like dissolves like" BEST used?
a. Volume
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Nature of solute and solvent
45) When the production of hydrogen ions in the body is the same as their loss, you are in ________.
a. acid-base balance
b. electrolytic balance
c. water balance
d. balanced diet
46) When an egg yolk is added to oil and water with vinegar to make mayonnaise, the egg yolk
serves as ________.
a. coagulant
b. emulsifying agent
c. solvent
d. surfactant
47) Which of the following involves adsorption?
a. Plating of copper on a steel object
b. Adherence of paint to wood surfaces
c. Brown color of the eyes of Filipinos
d. Removal of odor inside a refrigerator using charcoal
48) Which of the following BEST describes temperature?
a. Temperature measures the total energy in something.
b. Temperature measures the kinetics energy in substance.
c. Temperature measures the total kinetic energy contained in an object.
d. Temperature measures the average molecular kinetic energy in a substance.
49) The Earth receives tremendous heat coming from the sun which could be beneficial at one point
and harmful to a large extent. Which of the following methods of transferring heat is being
illustrated?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Transduction
50) A reaction takes place endothermically. Which of the following statements BEST describes
endothermic reactions?
a. The temperature of the system drops.
b. The temperature of the surrounding rises.
c. The temperature of the surrounding drops.
d. The temperature of the surrounding remains the same.
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. D
19. D
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. A
33. D
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. D
43. C
44. D
45. B
46. B
47. D
48. D
49. C
50. C
PHYSICAL SCIENCE (2)
1) Which of the following statements on specific heat is TRUE?
a. It is an extrinsic property.
b. It is always equal to the heat capacity.
c. It is the heat capacity per mole of a substance.
d. It is equal to zero when the heat capacity is zero.
2) The entropy usually increases when ________.
I. A molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules
II. A reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas
III. A solid changes to a liquid
IV. A liquid changes to a gas
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
3) Change is enthalpy for combustion of fuel is ________.
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. may be negative or positive
4) Which situation appears to violate the collision theory?
a. The reaction rate increases as temperature increases.
b. The reaction rate decreases as the reaction mixture is cooled.
c. The reaction rate increases as the surface area of the reactants increases.
d. A reaction rate takes more equally when the concrentration of a reactants is decreased.
5) Which statement is TRUE about catalysts?
a. They increase the rate of reaction by increasing the activation energy.
b. They provide alternative reaction paths with lower activation energies.
c. The amount of catalyst decreases as the reaction progresses.
d. They are used up in the reaction.
6) Milk turns sour in one or two days when left at room temperature and yet can remain unspoiled
for two weeks refrigerated. What explains this?
a. Decrease in temperature speeds up reaction rate.
b. Decrease in temperature slows down reaction rate.
c. Milk becomes less concentrated when placed in refrigerator.
d. Milk becomes more concentrated when placed in refrigerator.
7) What factor affects sawdust to burn faster than a block of wood?
a. Concentration of reactant
b. Presence of catalyst
c. Surface area of reactant
d. Temperature
8) Which of the following observations is NOT true whenever a system is in chemical equilibrium?
a. Attainment of equilibrium requires time.
b. The rates of opposing reactions are equal.
c. The products do not change back to reactants.
d. Concentrations remain constant at equilbrium even though the ooposing reactions are
continuing.
9) Which of the following is also known as paraffin or saturated hydrocarbon?
a. Alkane
b. Alkene
c. Alkyne
d. Cycloalkane
10) Which of the following are properties of organic compound?
I. High melting point
II. Low boiling point
III. High solubility in water
IV. Non conductor of electricity
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
11) Which of the following is an organic compound?
a. Baking soda
b. Glucose
c. Limestone
d. Sulfuric acid
12) Which of the following serves as thermal insulator in the body?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins
13) In DNA, which is the correct complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases?
a. AG and CT
b. AA and GG
c. AC and GC
d. AT and GC
14) Which biomolecular is considered the building blocks of tissues and organs?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipid
c. Nucleic acid
d. Protein
15) What is the main function of the hormone oxytocin in the body?
a. Controls water secretion by the kidneys.
b. Stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose.
c. Controls blood - glucose level and storage of glycogen.
d. Stimulates contraction of the uterine muscles and secretion of milk by the mammary glands.
16) The half-life of thorium-234 is 24 days. How much 5g of 234th would be left after 48 days?
a. 0.625g
b. 1.25g
c. 2.50g
d. 3.75g
17) What happens when there is a loss of an alpha particle from the nucleus?
a. No change in the mass number or atomic number
b. Loss of 4 in the mass number, loss of 2 in the atomic number
c. Loss of 2 in the mass number, loss of 4 in the atomic number
d. No change in the mass number, increase of 1 in the atomic number
18) Which of the following poses a serious obstacle to the development of commercial fusion power
plants?
a. Scarcity of deuterium
b. Public concern about safety
c. Dwindling supply of uranium
d. Exceedingly high activation energy
19) A radioisotope is considered a tracer when it is used to ________.
a. kill cancerous tissues
b. kill bacteria in food
c. determine the age of artifacts
d. determine the way plants absorb fertilizers
20) Identify the following quantities as scalar or vector respectively: mass of an object, the number
of leaves on a tree, and wind velocity.
a. Scalar, Scalar, Vector
b. Scalar, Vector, Vector
c. Vector, Scalar, Scalar
d. Vector, Scalar, Vector
21) Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
a. Acceleration
b. Temperature
c. Velocity
d. Weight
22) Which of the following describes a vector quantity?
a. It specifies direction only.
b. It specifies magnitude only.
c. It can be a dimensionless quantity.
d. It specifies both magnitude and direction.
23) A man pushes against the wall with 25 pounds of force. The wall does not move. What is the
resultant force?
a. -25 pounds
b. 0 pounds
c. 50 pounds
d. 75 pounds
24) In a coordinate system, a vector is oriented at angle with respect to the x axis. The component
of the vector equals the vector's magnitude multiplied by which trigonometric function?
a. Cos angle
b. Cot angle
c. Sin angle
d. Tan angle
25) An ant on a picnic table travels 30cm due east, then 25cm northward and finally 15cm west.
What is the magnitude of the ant's displacement relative to its point of origin?
a. 29cm
b. 58cm
c. 70cm
d. 99cm
26) What will happen to a moving object if the sum of all forces acting on it is zero?
a. It will accelerate uniformly.
b. It will slow down and stop.
c. It will change the direction of its motion.
d. It will continue moving with constant velocity.
27) Acceleration is always in the direction of the ________.
a. displacement
b. final velocity
c. initial velocity
d. net force
28) A brick slides on a horizontal surface. Which of the following will increase in magnitude of the
frictional force on it?
a. Putting a second brick on top.
b. Decreasing the mass of the brick.
c. Increasing the surface area of contact.
d. Decreasing the surface area of contact.
29) The potential energy of a body at a certain height is 100 J. The kinetic energy possessed by it
when it just touches the surface of the earth is ________.
a. greater than the potential energy
b. less than the potential energy
c. equal to the potential energy
d. cannot be known
30) What happens to the kinetic energy of an object if its speed is doubled?
a. It will be halved
b. It will be doubled
c. It will be tripled
d. It will be quadrupled
31) What is the type of energy possessed by a simple pendulum when it is at the mean position?
a. Kinetic energy
b. Mechanical energy
c. Potential energy
d. Sound energy
32) A ball is thrown upward into the air with a speed that is greater than terminal speed. On the way
up, it slows down and after its speed equals the terminal speed but before it gets to the trajectory
________.
a. it speeds up
b. its speed is constant
c. it continues to slow down
d. its motion becomes jerky
33) When a bullet is fired from a rifle, the force on the rifle is equal to the force on the bullet. Why is
it that the energy of the bullet is greater than the energy of the recoiling rifle?
a. Because there is more impulse on the bullet.
b. Because the force on the bullet acts for a longer time.
c. Because the force on the bullet acts for a longer distance.
d. Because the bullet's momentum is greater than that of the rifle.
34) Car A has a mass of 1,000kg and a speed of 60 kph while Car B has a mass of 2,000kg running
at a speed of 30 kph. What is the kinetic energy of Car A?
a. Half that of Car B
b. Equal that of Car B
c. Twice that of Car B
d. Four time that of Car B
35) An object is thrown straight up. Which of the following is TRUE about the sign of work done by
the gravitational force while the object moves up and down?
a. Work is zero on the way up, work is zero on the way down.
b. Work is negative on the way up, work is negative on the way down.
c. Work is negative on the way up, work is positive on the way down.
d. Work is positive on the way up, work is negative on the way down.
36) What happens to the kinetic energy of a moving object if the net work done is positive?
a. The kinetic energy remains the same.
b. The kinetic energy increases.
c. The kinetic energy decreases.
d. The kinetic energy is zero.
37) Object A with a mass of 4kg is lifted vertically 3m from the ground, object B with a mass of 2kg
is lifted 6m up. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?
I. Object A has greater potential energy since it is heavier.
II. Object B has greater potential energy since it is lifted to a higher position.
III. Two objects have the same potential energy.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. not enough information given
38) According to the scientific definition of work, pushing a table accomplishes no work unless
there is __________.
a. an opposing force
b. a net force greater than zero
c. an applied force greater than its weight
d. movement in the same direction as the force
39) A machine does 2,500 J of work in 1 minute. What is the power developed by the machine?
a. 21 W
b. 42 W
c. 2,500 W
d. 150,000 W
40) To which type of simple machine does a pencil shrapener belong?
a. Inclined plane
b. Lever
c. Pulley
d. Wheel and axle
41) Which of Newton's laws best explains why motorists should always wear belts?
a. Law of Inertia
b. Law of Acceleration
c. Law of Interaction
d. Law of Gravitation
42) The same net force is applied to object 1 and object 2. The two accelerations of the two objects
are not the same. Object 1 has an acceleration three times that of object 2. Which of the following is
correct?
a. Object 1 has more friction than object 2.
b. Object 1 has one-third the mass of object 2.
c. Object 1 has three times the mass of object 2.
d. Object 1 has a different, less streamlined shape than object 2.
43) The law of inertia applies to ________.
a. moving objects
b. objects that are not moving
c. both moving and non-moving objects
d. none of these
44) Which statement is CORRECT about the Law of Conservation of Energy?
a. The total amount of energy is constant.
b. Energy cannot be used faster than it is created.
c. The supply of energy is limited so we must conserve.
d. Energy must be conserved and you are breaking a law if you waste energy.
45) Which of the following can transform electrical energy to mechanical energy?
a. Electric bulb
b. Electric fan
c. Loud speaker
d. Television
46) Daniel is making a picture frame. He sticks a nail into a piece of wood and hits the nail with a
hammer. Which form of energy is NOT released when the hammer hits the nail?
a. Chemical
b. Kinetic
c. Sound
d. Thermal
47) Stephen throws a baseball into the air. It rises, stops when it reaches the greatest height, and
then falls back to the ground. At what point is kinetic energy initially converted to potential energy?
a. When the baseball is rising
b. When the baseball is falling
c. Just after the baseball hits the ground
d. While the baseball is stopped into the air
48) Which energy conversion takes place when a toaster is switched on?
a. Chemical to sound
b. Chemical to thermal
c. Electrical to sound
d. Electrical to thermal
49) When coal is burned to produced electricity, the electrical energy produced is less than the
potential energy of the coal. Which BEST explains this observation?
a. The amount of energy in the coal is not known.
b. As the coil is heated, the molecules move so fast that they are destroyed.
c. Some of the potential energy in the coal is converted into forms of energy other than electricity.
d. Some of the potential energy in the coal requires more intense heat so that it can be compared to
electricity.
50) What is TRUE of all combinations of resistors arranged in parallel?
I. Current spilts down each leg of the combination.
II. Voltage is constant across each leg of the combination.
III. Resistance is the same for each leg of the combination.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. B
17. B
18. D
19. D
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. C
35. C
36. B
37. C
38. D
39. B
40. D
41. A
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. A
46. A
47. A
48. D
49. C
50. A
PHYSICAL SCIENCE (3)
1) What is a closed, continuous path through which electrons can flow?
a. Charge
b. Circuit
c. Resistor
d. Voltage
2) What will be your charge if you scrape electrons from your feet while scuffing across the rug?
a. Negative
b. Neutral
c. Positive
d. Not enough information given
3) How will your force change if the distance between the two charged spheres is doubled?
a. The force is doubled
b. The force is tripled
c. The force is quadrupled
d. The force is multiplied eight times
4) A 6 ohm and 12 ohm resistors are connected in parallel with each other to a battery. Which of the
following is TRUE?
a. More current will flow through the 20 ohm resistor.
b. The current flowing through the resistors is the same.
c. The resistor values must be equal for the circuit to work.
d. The potential difference across the two resistors is the same.
5) A new 1.5 V dry cell furnishes 30 A when short circuited. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
a. 0.05 ohm
b. 0.10 ohm
c. 1.5 ohm
d. 30 ohm
6) If three identical lamps are connected in parallel to a 6 V dry cell, what is the voltage drop across
each lamp?
a. 2 V
b. 3 V
c. 6 V
d. 18 V
7) Which of the following describes an electric current?
a. Regulates the movement of electric charge.
b. The opposition a material offers to the electron flow.
c. The electric pressure that causes charged particles to flow.
d. The movement of charged particles in a specific direction.
8) A 10 W bulb and a 20 W bulb are connected in a series circuit. Which bulb has the more current
flowing in it?
a. The 10 W bulb
b. The 20 W bulb
c. Both bulbs have the same current
d. Cannot be determined
9) Which of the following are characteristics of a series circuit?
I. The current that flows through each resistance is the same as the total current throughout the
circuit.
II. The sum of all the individual voltage drops is the same as the applied voltage.
III. The reciprocal of the total resistance is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the separate
resistances.
IV. The voltage drop in each resistance is the same as the magnitude of the applied voltage.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II and III
10) Which states that the sum of all potential rises and potential drops in any loop (closed circuit) is
zero?
a. Coulomb's Law
b. Kirchoff's Law
c. Law of Electrolysis
d. Ohm's Law
11) A television and an electric fan are connected in parallel top a 220 V line. The current in the
television is 8 A and in the electric fan is 3 A. What is the current flowing in the line?
a. 2.67 A
b. 5 A
c. 11 A
d. 24 A
12) What happens to current if resistance increases?
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. No change
d. Cannot be determined
13) Which of the following statements DOES NOT represent Ohm's Law?
a. current/potential difference = constant
b. potential difference/current = constant 
c. potential difference = current x resistance
d. current = resistance x potential difference
14) What is the resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current and 6.0 V?
a. 0.2 ohm
b. 0.5 ohm
c. 2 ohm
d. 5 ohm
15) What happens to the current-carrying ability of a wire as temperature increases?
a. There is no change.
b. The wire can't carry any current.
c. The wire can carry more current.
d. The wire can carry less current.
16) A 300 W at 220 V TV set is used at an average of 4 hours a day for 30 days. If the electrical
energy costs P1.60 per kilowatt-hour, how much is the energy cost?
a. P5.76
b. P22.50
c. P57.60
d. P225.00
17) Electromagnetic radiation can be used for wireless communications. Which of the following can
be used to transmit signals such as mobile phone calls?
a. Infrared
b. Gamma
c. Microwaves
d. Radiowaves
18) Which statement about the North-magnetic pole of the Earth is TRUE?
a. Its location never changes.
b. It corresponds to the N-pole of a bar magnet.
c. It corresponds to the S-pole of a bar magnet.
d. It is at the same location as the geographic north pole of the Earth.
19) An iron nail can be turned into a temporary magnet if it is held in a strong magnetic field. Which
method of magnetization is this?
a. Charging
b. Conduction
c. Induction
d. Saturation
20) Which of the following factors affect the size of the induced current in a coil?
I. Number of turns in the coil
II. Size of the inducing field
III. Direction of the windings in the coil
IV. Resistance of the wire in the coil
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II and IV
21) To use the right hand rule to predict the direction of an induced current in a coil, your thumb
must point ________.
a. to the direction of the motion of the wire
b. to the N-pole of the induced magnetic field
c. in the direction of the induced current
d. in the direction of the inducing field
22) When a bar magnet is inserted into a coil, a current of 12.0 A is induced into the coil. If four
magnets of the same type are inserted into the coil at the same time, what would be the induced
current?
a. 3 A
b. 4 A
c. 12 A
d. 48 A
23) What is the direction of a magnetic field within a magnet?
a. from north to south
b. from south to north
c. from to back
d. back to front
24) Which is the induced voltage across a stationary conductor in a stationary magnetic field?
a. decreased
b. increased
c. zero
d. reversed in polarity
25) What is the magnetomotive force (mmf) of a wire with 8 turns carrying 3 A of current?
a. 2.67
b. 24
c. 240
d. 2,400
26) A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field. If the number of turns in the coil is
decreased, what will happen to the voltage induced across the coil?
a. remain constant
b. be excessive
c. decrased
d. increased
27) Which of the following is TRUE about the frequency and velocity of electromagnetic waves?
a. Frequency and wavelength are interdependent of each other
b. As frequency increases, wavelength decreases
c. As frequency increases, wavelength increases
d. Frequency is constant for all wavelengths
28) Which of the following correctly lists electromagnetic waves in order from longest to shortest
wavelength?
a. television, infrared, visible light, x-rays
b. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
c. radiowaves, infrared, gamma rays, ultraviolet
d. microwaves, ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays
29) An electromagnetic wave is radiated by a straight wire antenna that is oriented vertically. What
should be the orientation of a straight wire receiving antenna?
a. diagonally
b. vertically
c. horizontally and in a direction parallel to the wave's direction of motion
d. horizontally and in a direction perpendicular to the wave's direction of motion
30) What should a good diode tested with an ohmmeter indicate?
a. High resistance when forward or reverse biased.
b. Low resistance when forward or reversed biased.
c. High resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward biased.
d. High resistance when forward biased and low resistance when forward biased.
31) Vacuum tubes in a radio transmitter are used to ________.
a. record programs
b. provide DC supply
c. generate high power radio waves
d. provide lighting inside the studio
32) Which material is the usual component of an anode?
a. Aluminum
b. Carbon
c. Copper
d. Nickel
33) A metal spoon is placed in a cup filled with hot coffee. After some time, the exposed end of the
spoon becomes hot even without a direct contact with the liquid. What explains this phenomenon?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Thermal expansion
34) Which causes the warmth that you feel when you place your finger at the side of the flame of a
burning candle?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Not enough information given
35) Which process of heat transfer happens by the movement of mass from one place to another?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Induction
d. Radiation
36) When work is done by a system, what happens to its temperature assuming that no heat is
added to it?
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains the same
d. none of these
37) Which states that "when two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they
are in thermal equilibrium with each other?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second Law of Thermodynamics
d. Mechanical Equivalent of Heat
38) What happens in an adiabatic process?
a. No heat eneters or leaves the system
b. The pressure of the system remain constant
c. The temperature of the system remains constant
d. The system does no work nor work is done on it.
39) What thermodynamic process is involved in a closed car inside a hot garage?
a. Adiabatic
b. Isobaric
c. Isochoric
d. Isothermal
40) Consider the thermal energy transfer during a chemeical process. When heat is transferred to
the system, the process is said to be ________ and the sign of H is ________.
a. endothermic, positive
b. endothermic, negative
c. exothermic, positive
d. exothermic, negative
41) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Entropy increases with the number of microstates of the system.
b. Any irreversible process results in an overall increase in entropy.
c. The total entropy of the universe increases in any spontaneous process.
d. The change in entropy in a system depends on the initial and final states of the system and the
path taken from one state to the other.
42) During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a ________.
a. compressor
b. condenser
c. evaporator
d. expansion valve
43) Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a refrigeration system?
a. Rejects energy to a low temperature body.
b. Rejects energy to a high temperature body.
c. Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body.
d. Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body.
44) Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratosphere?
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Fluorine
d. Sulfur dioxide
45) Which phenomenon is BEST explained by the particle nature of light?
a. Doppler effect
b. Interference
c. Photoelectric effect
d. Polarization
46) According to the quantum theory of light, the energy of light is carried in discrete units called
________.
a. alpha particles
b. photoelectrons
c. photons
d. protons
47) Rutherford observed that most of the alpha particles directed at a metallic foil appear to pass
through unhindered, with only a few deflected at large angles. What did he conclude?
a. Atoms can easily absorb and re-emit aplha particles.
b. Atoms consist mainly of empty space and have small, dense nuclei.
c. Alpha particles behave like waves when they interact with atom.
d. Atoms have most of their mass distributed loosely in an electron cloud.
48) When an electron changes from a higher energy to a lower energy state within an atom, a
quantum of energy is ________.
a. absorbed
b. emitted
c. fissioned
d. fused
49) When does nuclear fission occur?
a. When we cut nuclei into two with a very small cutting device.
b. When one nucleus bumps into another causing a chain reaction.
c. When a nucleus divides spontaneously, with no apparent reason.
d. When electrical forces inside a nucleus overpower forces.
50) When does nuclear fusion release energy?
a. When uranium emits a neutron
b. When heavy ions fuse together
c. When very light nuclei fuse together
d. When uranium splits into two fragments
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. A
41. D
42. B
43. D
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. B
48. B
49. D
50. C

Problem
First step of the scientific method.
Research
Second step of the scientific method.
Hypothesis
Third step of the scientific method.
Experiment
Fourth step of the scientific method.
Analyze Data
Fifth step of the scientific method.
Draw Conclusion
Sixth step of the scientific method.
Communicate Ideas
Seventh step of the scientific method.
Precession
Movement of a tilted axis of a spinning body. Like how the axis of a spinning top moves.
Aristotle
Concluded Earth was round due to its circular shadow on the moon.
Eratosthenes
Found the circumference of the Earth.
Hipparchus
Determined the location of and organized 850 stars into six groups based on brightness.
Emission Spectra
Produced by incandescent light through hot, low pressure gas.
Absorption Spectra
Produced by incandescent light through cold, low pressure gas.
Stromatolites
Mounds of minerals produced by Cyanobacteria.
1) Naturally occurring.
First criteria of minerals.
2) Solid substance.
Second criteria of minerals.
3) Orderly crystalline structure.
Third criteria of minerals.
4) Definite chemical composition.
Fourth criteria of minerals.
5) Inorganic.
Fifth criteria of minerals.
Color
A property of a mineral. Bad way to evaluate a mineral. Just like humans. Lol.
Streak
Color of a mineral in powdered form. Determined by scratching mineral on a porcelain plate.
Luster
Described how light is reflected from the surface of a mineral.
Crystal Form
Visible expression of a mineral's internal arrangement of atoms.
Hardness
Measure of a mineral's resistance to being scratched.
Cleavage
Tendency of a mineral to break along flat, even surfaces.
Fracture
When minerals do not show cleavage. Uneven breakage of a mineral.
Density
Ratio of an object's mass to its volume.
Double Refraction
When lines appear to be doubled on a transparent mineral after said mineral is in front of two
printed lines. Calcite exhibits this.
Resource
All the desired minerals at the ground.
Reserve
A portion of a resource that is economically viable to mine.
Soil Components
Mineral matter (broken-down rock), organic matter (humus), water, and air.
Glacial Drift
ALL sediments of glacial origin.
Glacial Till
Deposited directly by a glacier.
Glacial Outwash
Sediment laid down by glacial meltwater.
Moraines
Layers/ridges of till formed when glaciers melt.
Lateral Moraines
Moraines that form on the side of glacial valleys.
End/Ground Moraines
Moraines that form when glaciers are stationary for a long time.
Kettles
Small lakes within end moraines and outwash plains.
Drumlins
Streamlined hills composed of till. Molded by active glaciers.
Eskers
Snaky hills composed of sand and gravel. Deposited by streams once flowing in tunnels beneath
glaciers.
Outwash Plains
Ramp-like structure formed by sediment deposited by streams of meltwater from the glacier.
Terminal Moraine
The farthest end moraine.
Recessional Moraine
Forms when the glacier is stationary during its retreat.
Loess
Wind-blown silt that blankets the landscape.
Desert Pavement
Stony surface layer in deserts that signals the end of deflation, since the particles here are too
coarse and heavy to be moved by simple wind.
Cirrus
"A curl of hair". High, white, and thin. They are wispy and feathery.
Cumulus
"Pile". Rounded individual cloud masses. Normally has a flat base and the appearance of rising
domes/towers. Cauliflower structure.
Stratus
"Layer". Sheets or layers that cover much, or all, of the sky.
Cirrus + Cirroculumus/Cirrostratus
Signifies stormy weather at high altitudes.
Nimbostratus
A main precipitation maker. Forms during stable conditions.
Cumulonimbus
A main precipitation maker. Vertical development is evident, and they seem to have an anvil head.
Mid-Latitude Cyclone Formation Stage 1
Stationary front forms.
Mid-Latitude Cyclone Formation Stage 2
Front takes on a wave shape.
Mid-Latitude Cyclone Formation Stage 3
Changes in air flow and pressure results in a counterclockwise flow of air.
Mid-Latitude Cyclone Formation Stage 4
Cold front closes in on warm front to form an occluded front.
Mid-Latitude Cyclone Formation Stage 5
Cold front lifts warm air, and an occluded front forms.
Mid-Latitude Cyclone Formation Stage 6
Cyclone weakens.
Thunderstorm Formation Stage 1
Cumulus Stage. Warm, humid air rises in an unstable environment.
Thunderstorm Formation Stage 2
Mature Stage. Heavy precipitation forms. Wind, lightning, rain, and hail are all products of this
stage.
Thunderstorm Formation Stage 3
Dissipation Stage. Cooling effect of the precipitation and downward air movements from above kill
the thunderstorm.
Hurricane Formation Stage 1
Tropical disturbance. Disorganized clouds and thunderstorms. Low pressures and little to no
rotation. Winds below or equal to 38 miles per hour.
Hurricane Formation Stage 2
Tropical Storm. Forms when bands of thunderstorms continue to develop. Winds between 39 and
73 miles per hour.
Hurricane Formation Stage 3
Over or equal to 74 miles per hour. Mature stage. Formation of an eye, eye wall, central dense
overcast, the whole package.
Crest
Top of a wave.
Trough
Bottom of a wave.
Wave Height
Vertical difference between crest and trough.
Wave Breaking Stage 1
Waves go to shore, and "feel bottom" at a depth that is half their wavelength.
Wave Breaking Stage 2
Faster waves in the sea catch up to the slower waves on shore, and decrease the wavelength.
Wave Breaking Stage 3
Wave is too steep to support itself, and it collapses/breaks.
Surf
Turbulent water formed by breaking waves.
Spring Tides
When the sun, moon, and Earth are aligned. Greatest tidal range. New and full moons.
Neap tide.
When the sun, moon, and Earth forms a right angle. Quarter moons.
Moon
Has greatest affect on tides. 68.5~% influence on all tides.
Sun
Has 46% influence on the tides in relation to the moon's influence. 31.5~% influence on all tides.
Semidiurnal
Two highs, two lows each day. Affects Atlantic Coast on American eastern seaboard.
Diurnal
One high, one low each day.

What are the three domains? Bacteria, Archaea and some Eukarya
Prokaryotes are? Microorganisms with small cells lack nuclei, are two domains: bacteria and
Archaea
What is the habitat of this microbe bacteria? Stomach
What is the term that describes this cell morphology? Spiral
correctly write the scientific name of a common bacterium? Escherichia coli
Name two prokaryotic domains? Archaea and Bacteria
Circle the one the contains all known prokaryotic pathogens? Bacteria
Lactobacillias is homofermentative. What does this mean? Lactic acid fermentation only
The catabolism of this type of organic molecules involves beta oxidation and the production of lots
of acetyl-CoA? Fats
Denitrifying bacteria, such as Psuedomonas, that can reduce nitrate to nitrogen gas, do so during:
Anaerobic respiration
Below are two definitions. What terms are defining? Electrons, flowing down a membrane bound
electron transport chain, provides energy for the pumping of protons across that membrane,
generating a proton motive force that is used to due work, including the generation of ATP as the
protons flow back across the membrane through ATP synthesis is called Chemiosmosis.
Produces very little ATP per carbohydrate molecule catabolized is called Fermentation
The final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule other than oxygen is called anaerobic
respiration
Produces the most ATP per carbohydrate molecule catabolized is called Aerobic respiration
Does not have chemiosmosis – Fermentation
Catabolic - Degradative, exergonic reactions are characteristic of [circle one] pathways
Name a common coenzyme (no acronyms) and mention a process that involves it - 
Coenzyme A, in Krebs cycle
Determine whether the following are characteristics of: Outer membrane present is Gram negative
bacteria
Prions present - Gram negative bacteria
Thick peptidoglycan layer present - Gram positive bacteria
Teichoic acid present - Gram positive bacteria
Lipopolysaccharides present in high amounts - Gram negative bacteria
Axial filaments are found in what organisms? Spirochetes
A waxy coat of mycolic acid is found? Eukaryotic cells
Endospores are found in what organisms? Prokaryotic cells
DNA complexed with histones? Eukaryotic cells
Mitochondria present - Eukaryotic cells
Mitosis present - Prokaryotic cells
1 circular chromosome and several plasmids? Prokaryotic cells
Match the following Gram stain with their descriptions: Primary stain - 
Crystal violet
Mordant – Iodine
Decolorizer – Alcohol
Counterstain – Safranin
Using the Gram, stain a bacterium with a thick peptidoglycan cell wall would stain what color? –
Purple
Determine whether the following are: Includes chitin, cellulose and glycogen - 
Carbohydrates
Nucleic Acids - Includes DNA and RNA.
Lipids - Includes steroids.
Immunoflourensce involves the use of: A: monoclonal and B: flourochromes
answer: both a and b
The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate is called Exergonic
The linkages found in Archaea phospholipids are ester or ether linkages? Ether
Developed the first vaccination? Edward Jenner
Developed an experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation?
Pasteur
Determine the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid? Watson and Crick
Made not of antibiotic activity of the fungus Penicillum? Alexander Flemming
Developed postulates used to determine that a microbe causes a particular disease? Koch
White the scientific name of one of the organisms we had used in lab? Escherichia coli
To what domain does the organism you named belong? Prokaryotic bacteria
What is the first and most important thing a beginning biologist learns? Aseptic techniques
Determine whether the following organisms are: Noncellular, contains nucleic acid surrounded by a
protein coat? Virus
Unicellular, eukaryotic, photosynthetic, cell wall of silica – Algae
Multicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic, cell walls of chitin – Fungi
Prokaryotic, no peptidoglycan in cell wall, produces methane – Archaea
Unicellular, heterotrophic eukaryotic – Protozoa
O2 - peroxide anion
Single Oxygen is a normal molecular oxygen that has been boosted into a higher-energy state.
Hydroxyl radical - OH (formed by ionizing radiation and also aerobic respiration).
Superoxide free radical - O2- (formed in small amounts during aerobic respiration).
Oxygenic photosynthesis - Cynobacteria, Anabaena and Oscillatoria.
Water is the source of electrons to reduce carbon? Oxygenic photosynthesis
Use the Calvin-Benson cycle with the enzyme rubisco? Both oxygenic and an-oxygenic
photosynthesis
Using complete sentences, describe two of the following: Chemoheterotrophs -
Most bacteria require organic molecules both as a source of energy and carbon
Photoheterotrophs: Green nonsulfur bacteria Chloroflexas and purple nonsulfur bacteria use light
for energy require organic molecules such as: alcohol, fatty acid, carbohydrates as carbon source
Determine whether the following are characteristics of:Chlorophyll a - Oxygenic photosynthesis
Plants and algae - Oxygenic photosynthesis
Hydrogen sulfide is a source of electrons to reduce carbon - Anoxygenic photosynthesis
Becterichlorophyll - Anoxygenic photosynthesis
Purple sulfur and green sulfur bacteria, Chromatium and Chlorobium - Anoxygenic photosynthesis
Malaria: New Jersey, California, Florida, New York and Texas; Protozoan Plasmodium.
Spongiform encephalopathies: Prion: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD); new varian CJD in humans
it is believed to be related to cattle fed sheep or possible human offal for protein
Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis: MDR-TB - Mycobacterium tuberculosis: resistant to most effective
drugs against tuberculosis
Endergonic: Absorbs more energy than releases
Exorgonic: Releases more energy than absorbs
Mycology: The study of fungi
Parasitology: Parasitic protozoa and helminths (worms)
Immunology: Study of immune system
Virology: Study of viruses
Algae: Gelidium and Gracilaria: Red algae and are used to make agar
Most organisms prefer a pH of? 6.5 to 8.5
Which bacteria tolerates acidic conditions better than most bacteria? Fungi
Propionibacterium acnes? In human skin, pH 4
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans? Produce sulfuric acid; pH 1-3.5 optimum; important in mining
Ester - Bacteria and Eukerya phospholipids
Ether - Archaea phospholipids
Oligosaccharides 3 to 20 monosaccharides mostly attached to protein (glycoproteins) or lipids
(glycolipids)
Polysaccharides are large polymers(macromolecules): lack sweet taste and not soluble in water
Glycogen and starch: Mainly alpha 1-4 linkage of glucose
Cellulose: Cell walls of plants (beta 1-4 linkage of glucose 1-6 linkages
Chitin: Cell walls of fungi, monomer is N-acetylglucosamine
Dextran - High molecular weight polysaccharide synthesized by microorganism; consist of
D-glucose linked by 1-6 bonds and a few 1-3, 1-4 bonds
Dextran - is a branched polysaccharide made of many glucose molecules joined into chains of
varying lengths. 
Dextrin is synthesized from sucrose and Streptococcus and is also produced by bacteria and yeast.
Dental plaque is rich in dextrans.
Chitin: A polymer of N-acytalglucosamine with B-1-4 linkage
ester linkage - saturated fatty
unsaturated fatty - ether linkage
Tributyrin: triglyceride found in butter, an ester compose of glycerol an butyric acid,. Ester linkage
Archaea: The hydrocarbons in archeal membrane are not derived from fatty acids but from isoprene
polymers
Cell envelop of : Archaea with tetraethers
tetraethers: are often found in archaea membranes, especially in membrane of thermophiles and
hyperthermophiles
Sulfolobus species: Survive in extreme heat or acidic; they have ether linkage
Steroids: Contain four interconnected carbon rings
Sterol: A steroid with a hydroxyl group attached to one of the rings, sterols are found in fungi, plants
and animals; In plasma membrane of one genus of Mycoplasma; that does not have cell wall and
on parasites
amino acids: Monomer of proteins; 20 different ones combine to make proteins. Alpha carbon with
hydrogen carboxyl group amino group and R (side chain that varies) attached; L-steroidsomers of
amino acids polymerized in proteins. D-steroidisomers: found in some extracellular material (such
as Bacillus anthracis capsule poly-D-glutamic acid) and antibiotics.
Glycoproteins -Oligosaccharides
Ribonucleoproteins - RNA
Metalloproteins - Metal atoms
Lipoproteins - Lipids
Phosphoproteins - phosphate group
Monomer nucleotide: Three parts: phosphate group, pentose, nitrogen group
Nitrogen contaming bases - Purines and pyrimidines
Purines: 2 ring structures: adenine and guanine
Pyrimidines: 1 ring structure: Cytosine and Thymine [DNA only] and uracil [RNA only
nucleoside: Pentose plus base
Name the carbohydrate in DNA? Double helix with antiparallel strands
DNA: Double helix with antiparallel strands, phosphate sugar backbone, pentose: deoxyribose held
together by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases A-T; C-G
RNA: Usually single stranded; pentose: ribose different types (all synthesized of a DNA templete )
messenger RNA; ribosomal RNA; transfer RNA

Simplified Earth Science

By LET Review University Research Team
Plate tectonics - theory that explains the:
• movement of the continents
• changes in Earth's crust caused by internal forces
Plates - rigid blocks of crust and upper mantle
• move along the hot upper mantle
• make up the lithosphere
Divergence
• 2 plates move away from each other
• hot mantle rock rises
• creates new sea floor
• Creates new oceanic crust (2-10 cm per yr.)
• Mid-Atlantic
Convergence
• crust collides with another oceanic plate or continental plate
• oceanic crust sinks
• forms a trench
• forms volcano activity
• continent to continent plate collisions
Subduction
• oceanic plate, dense, slides under continental plate
• oceanic plate plunges into the mantle
• forms a trench
Trench
• forms b/c of subduction
• may cause a volcano
Transform Fault
• 2 plates slide past one another
• parallel
Rifting
• sea floor spreads
• occurs at mid-ocean ridges
• Red Sea
• new material is added to inner edges of separating plates
• plates grow larger, ocean basin widens
• how Pangaea was broken
• created Atlantic Ocean
Atmosphere - Dry air components (3)
• dry gas
• water vapor
• Solid particles (dust from soil, etc.)
Atmosphere dry gases (4)
• (N2) Nitrogen - 78.09%
• (O2) Oxygen - 20.95%
• (Ar) Argon - 0.93%
• (CO2) Carbon Dioxide - 0.03%
Atmosphere (4 layers) - temperature based
• Troposphere (earth)
• Stratosphere
• Mesosphere
• Thermosphere (space)
Troposphere
• closest to Earth's surface
• weather here
• most water vapor/dust
• increasing altitude = air temp down
• 7 miles long
Stratosphere
• little water here
• clouds are rare
• Ozone Layer
• air temp = constant, increases with height (absorbs solar energy & ultraviolet rays from ozone
layer)
Mesosphere
• air temp decreases with height
• coldest layer
Thermosphere
• extends to space
• O2 molecules absorb energy from the Sun
• Temp. increases with height
• lower part = ionosphere
• upper part = exosphere
Ionosphere
• lower part of thermosphere (space)
• charged particles (ions) & electrons here
• gases excited by solar radiation, gases give off light; glow in the sky
• aurora borealis
Exosphere
• upper part of thermosphere
• gas molecules are far apart here
• Van Allen belts
• held together by Earth's magnetic field
Orogeny - natural mountain building:
• by volcanic action
• tectonic plate collisions
• igneous, metamorphic, sedimentary rocks
Himalayas
• highest mountains in world
• Mt. Everest
• India collided with Asia
• folded mountain (folding of rock layers)
Fault-block Mountains
• Utah, AZ, NM
• plate movement = tension forces
• normal faults, hanging wall slides down
Dome Mountains
• magma tries to push up through the crust
• doesn't break the surface
• blister on Earth's surface
Up warped mountains
• Black Hills of South Dakota
• arching of the crust
• formed by rock thrust upward along high angle faults
Mountain formation
• folding
• faulting
Folded Mountains - Alps, Himalayas, And Appalachian Mts.
Faults - fractures in crust b/c of tension/compression forces
Dip-slip fault
• movement of plates is vertical & opposite
• normal faults when hanging wall moves down
Reverse faults
• rock above fault plane moves up
• thrust faults
Strike-Slip faults
• horizontal movement along the fault
• transform fault (along plate boundaries)
• San Andreas fault in CA --> transform fault
Oblique- slip faults - vertical & horizontal movement
Dormant volcano
• between eruptions
• still signs of internal activity - could erupt
Ring of Fire
• faults & volcanoes
• belt of active faults/volcanoes in Pacific Ocean
3 Types of Volcanic Mts.
• shield volcanoes
• cinder-cone volcanoes
• composite volcanoes
Shield Volcanoes
• quiet eruptions
• lava from crater
• flows onto Earth, cools into igneous rock
• lava flow --> large volcanic mountain
• Mauna Loa in Hawaii = shield volcano
Cinder-cone volcanoes
• explosive eruptions
• lava droplets - cool and harden into cinders and ash
• form steep cone hill
• small, form rapidly
Composite volcanoes - built by lava flows & ash/cinder
• Mt. Fuji in Japan
• Mt. St. Helens in WA
• Mt. Vesuvius in Italy
Lava cools - igneous rock
Intrusive rock
• igneous rock
• formed below Earth's surface
• batholiths
• Sierra Nevada Mts.
Extrusive rock
• igneous rock
• formed at Earth's surface

Dikes - old lava tubes formed when magma entered vertical fracture & hardened
Sill
• magma between rock layers
• thin sheet
Laccolith
• thicker than a sill
• doesn't flow easily
• pools & makes a surface dome
Caldera
• formed by the collapse of the top of a volcano
• empties magma chamber
• forms a caldera/crater
3 Types of Rocks
• sedimentary
• igneous
• metamorphic
Sedimentary rocks
• lithification
• fluid sediments --> solid rocks
• compaction, compress sediments
• cementation -->sediments -->sedimentary rock
• fossils
Metamorphic rocks
• high temps & pressure
• metamorphism
• new & diff minerals b/c of chemical reactions with heated water/dissolved minerals
• foliated (leaf like) & unfoliated
• foliated = compressed parallel bands of minerals (striped)
• slate, schist, gneiss = foliated/striped
• quartzite, marble (unfoliated/not banded)
Igneous Rocks
• made from molten rock
• molten rock = magma
• when magma cools --> form crystals
• more slowly cools = larger crystals
• obsidian = glassy texture, cools b4 crystals can form
Minerals
• natural, nonliving
• definite chemical composition
• crystalline structure
• ores (mined)
• rocks (made of 1+ minerals)
Cirques
• remains of glacial sources
• frost wedges the rock at bottom of glacier
Ice Age
• glaciers advanced over large portion of the continent
• 2-3 million years ago
• plate tectonics
• changes in Earth/Sun's axis
Deposition
• sedimentation
• material deposited from 1 area to another
Types of weathering
• physical weathering
• rocks are broken down into smaller rocks, no chemical change – exfoliation
• chemical weathering (water, O2, CO2 make it happen)
• weak acid breaks down rocks
Uniformitarianism
• laws that operated in geologic past operate still today
• forces long time ago are still working
Catastrophism - Earth was shaped by catastrophic events
Absolute Dating
• use of radioactivity 2 make guesses @ Earth's age
• amount of radioactive material in rock vs. amount decayed in another element
Carbon dating - used to calculate the age of a fossil
Planets -Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
Parts of the Sun
• core (fusion, hydrogen gas -->helium gas), solar energy
• photosphere (surface of sun, sunspots)
• chromosphere (red portion, solar flares)
• corona (transparent area of sun, see in total eclipse)
Stars
• ball of hot, glowing gas
• hot/dense enough to trigger nuclear reactions
• nuclear reactions = how the star is fueled
• most stars have > masses than sun, but sun is closer
• need mass to trigger nuclear reactions 2 create energy
• less mass = planets or brown dwarfs
Brightness of a Star
• measure it's magnitude
• luminosity
Magnitude
• how astronomers rank brightness of stars
• according to how bright they appear 2 humans
• lower magnitude = brighter star
• magnitude stars = 20 of brightest stars that can be seen from Earth
• first stars noticed at night
Luminosity
• total amount of energy radiated by the star per second
• watts
Galaxies
• vast collections of stars
• irregular, elliptical, spiral
• Earth's galaxy = Milky Way, spiral galaxy
Pulsar
• a variable radio source
• emits signals in short, regular bursts
• it's a rotating neutron star
Quasar
• an object that photographs like a star
• has an extremely large redshift
• variable energy output
• it's the active core of a distant galaxy
Black holes
• objects that have collapsed
• light can't escape from the surface
• light is trapped by gravitational field
Nebula
• cloud of gas & dust
• gravity can make dust produce stars
• particles attract 2 each other
• Star grows, temp. increases
• star glows, fusion in core, releases energy
Red giant / Super giant
• dying star
• hydrogen is exhausted, core collapses, temp rises
• released heat produces helium
White dwarf - the dying core of a giant star
Nova
• star, sudden increase in brightness
• fades back to original brightness
Supernova - radiates great light energy
Black hole - star with condensed matter and gravity so intense that light cannot escape
Asteroids - - found between Mars & Jupiter
Comets
• masses of frozen gases, cosmic dust, small rocky particles
• most comets come from dense cloud behind Pluto
• nucleus, coma, and a tail
• Halley's comet
Meteoroids
• rock & metal particles
• meteor = burning meteoroid (burns when goes through Earth's atmosphere) -- "shooting star"
Meteorites
• meteors that strike the Earth's surface
• Barringer Crater
Kuiper Belt
• small bodies orbiting the Sun beyond Neptune
• remains of early phases of solar system
• short-period comets
Origin of Solar System - tidal hypothesis (collision of sun & large star, hot gas condensed into 9
planets) and the condensation hypothesis (rotating clouds of dust & gas, condensation formed sun,
smaller clouds = planets) --> accepted hypothesis
Origins of Universe - big bang theory (explosion of mass/matter/energy - galaxies formed from this
material as it cooled) and steady state theory (universe is continuously renewed, galaxies are
created/replaced)
Oscillating Universe Hypothesis - universe will oscillate (expand/contract), galaxies move away from
one another, slow down & stop and when move towards each other = activate explosion (another
big bang)
Solstices
• 2 days of year
• Sun is farthest from Earth's equatorial plane
• summer solstice (June) - northern hemisphere leans towards Sun - have winter
• winter solstice (Dec.) - southern hemisphere leans towards sun - has summer
Spring tides
• strong tides
• when Earth, Sun, moon are in line
• Sun and moon exert gravitational force on Earth --p> increase tidal bulge
• during full moon and new moon
Neap tides
• weak tides
• when gravitational forces of moon/Sun are perpendicular
• during quarter moons
Phases of the moon - moon rotates around the earth every 27 days
New moon
• moon is invisible/ 1st signs of a crescent
• when sun and moon are on same side of earth
Full moon - when moon and sun are on opposite sides of Earth

PHYSICAL SCIENCE: PART A.

1) Which refers to the recorded observations and measurements in an experiment?
a. Conclusion
b. Data
c. Graph
d. Variables
2) How is hypothesis tested?
a. by gathering enough information about the problem
b. by making inferences
c. by conducting experiment
d. by formulating conclusion
3) Which summarizes a natural occurence that may be constantly observed given the same
conditions which may be expressed in words or in mathematical form?
a. Conclusion
b. Hypothesis
c. Law
d. Theory
4) Mark prepares a solution by putting a pinch of orange crystals to water in a beaker, then by
consistent stirring, the crystals dissolve. Which of the statements above are likely to be observed by
Mark?
I. The water becomes orange.
II. The color of the solution becomes darker.
III. Crystals disappear from the bottom of the beaker.
IV. The beaker and its contents become heavier as stirring continues.
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II and IV
5) Which of the following is NOT true about scientific method?
a. Conclusion is the last step.
b. Scientific method may be applied in everyday life.
c. Scientific method is a systematic way of solving problem.
d. Scientific method is done by following a step-by-step procedure in a exact sequence.
6) Which apparatus will you use to measure the mass of an irregular solid correctly?
a. Empty beaker
b. Erlenmeyer flask
c. Graduated cyclinder with water
d. Vernier caliper
7) To graph the distance covered and velocity of a car, which is the dependent varaiable? Where
should be it plotted on a line graph?
a. Distance, x-axis
b. Distance, y-axis
c. Velocity, x-axis
d. Velocity, y-axis
8) A student found a piece of metal. What can the student do to quickly determine if the metal
might contain iron?
a. heat the metal
b. weigh the metal
c. place the metal in water
d. place the metal near a magnet
9) A student dipped a strip of aluminum and a strip of iron in water. The student then exposed the
strips to air for one week. Which was most likely happen one week later?
a. The iron strip formed rust.
b. The aluminum strip formed rust.
c. Both of the metal strips formed rust.
d. Neither of the metal strips formed rust.
10) Aubrey wants to track her summative tests scores over the course of grading period. Which of
the following will BEST allow her to analyze her progress?
a. Bar graph
b. Line graph
c. Pie graph
d. Scatter graph
11) What will most likely occur if global warming will not be addressed?
a. Lower sea levels
b. Melting of ice caps
c. More pollution in water
d. More reflected sunlight off the ice pack
12) How is the relationship described when both quantities are increasing but one quantity
increases faster than the other?
a. Direct proportion
b. Direct square proportion
c. Inverse proportion
d. Inverse square proportion
13) In your attempt to determine which is denser - oil or water, you mixed 25mL of oil with 25mL of
water. What helpful qualitative data can you derive from this setup?
a. There are 50mL of liquid in the container.
b. Oil did not mix with water.
c. Oil is on top of the water.
d. There are 25mL of water and 25mL of oil in the container.
14) Which of the following is a compound?
a. Cemented wall
b. Dry ice
c. Gold
d. Tincture of iodine
15) Which is most likely to change blue litmus paper to red?
a. Ammonia in water
b. Detergent solution
c. Limewater
d. Vinegar
16) Which can be classified as homogeneous mixture?
I. Buko pie
II. Blood
III. Virgin coconut oil
IV. Mango juice
a. III only
b. I and II
c. I, II and IV
d. II, III and IV
17) Which of the following is a physical property of non-metals?
a. Malleability and ductility
b. Low tensile strength
c. High density
d. High tensile strength
18) The yellow color of a highlighter is a ________ property.
a. chemical
b. heterogeneous
c. homogeneous
d. physical
19) An odorless and colorless matter boils at 100 degree Celsius and melts at 0 degree Celsius.
What inference can be drawn from this observation?
a. It is a metal
b. It is a mixture
c. It is a non-metal
d. It is a pure substance
20) You want to clean a tarnished silver. Which one will you use?
a. Baking soda
b. Salt solution
c. Sugar solution
d. Vinegar
21) What will you add to your food to make it last longer?
a. Baking soda
b. Salt solution
c. Tomato
d. Vinegar
22) Why is not advisable to drink softdrinks on an empty stomach?
a. It could lessen your appetite.
b. It could make you feel full faster.
c. It increases the acidity of your stomach.
d. It contains stimulant which causes dizziness.
23) Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the ________.
a. electron
b. neutron
c. nucleus
d. proton
24) How many protons are present if an atom has a mass number of 23 and atomic number of 11?
a. 11
b. 12
c. 23
d. 44
25) Carbon-12 atom has ________.
a. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
b. 6 electrons, 12 protons, 6 neutrons
c. 12 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
d. 16 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
26) What happens to atomic number during a chemical reaction?
a. changes
b. remains the same
c. changes alternately
d. changes and then is restored
27) Which of the following statements about isotopes of hydrogen is correct?
a. They have different atomic numbers.
b. They have the same number of neutrons.
c. They have the same number of protons.
d. The have different number of electrons.
28) What happens when a metal reacts with a non-metal? Usually ________.
a. a simple covalent bond is formed
b. a coordinate covalent bond is formed
c. positive and negative ions are formed
d. there is a sharing of electrons in the outer shells of two elements
29) What bond exists in a solid that does not conduct electricity but conduct electricity when
dissolved in water?
a. Coordinate covalent bond
b. Covalent bond
c. Ionic bond
d. Metallic bond
30) N, Y, and Z represent elements of atomic numbers 9, 11, and 16. What type of bond will be
formed between Y and Z?
a. Ionic bond
b. Metallic bond
c. Nonpolar covalent bond
d. Polar covalent bond
31) A weak attraction between hydrogen atom in one molecule and an oxygen in another is called
________.
a. Covalent bond
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Ionic bond
d. Metallic bond
32) What is the element needed to bond with Na to create the most ionic bond?
a. F
b. Cl
c. Br
d. I
33) The boiling point of substance A is higher than that of substance B. What does this mean?
a. Substance A is less viscious than substance B.
b. Substance A evaporates faster than substance B.
c. Substance B has greater surface tension than substance A.
d. Substance B has weaker intermolecular forces than substance A.
34) What is the intermolecular force of attraction between the nucleus of one atom and the
electrons of a nearby atom?
a. Dipole-dipole force
b. Ion-dipole force
c. London dispersion force
d. Van der Waals force
35) In oxidation-reduction, the oxidizing agent is reduced and gains electrons. The reducing agent is
oxidized and loses electrons. Are the statements CORRECT?
a. Both statements are correct
b. Both statements are false
c. First statement is true; second statement is false
d. Second statement is true; first statement is false
36) How many moles of iron does 25g of Fe represent? (Fe=55.85g)
a. 0.448 mol
b. 2.234 mol
c. 30.85 mol
d. 80.85 mol
37) Which of the following is NOT a principal assumption of Kinetic Molecular Theory?
a. Gas particles move rapidly.
b. Gases consist of submicroscopic particles.
c. There is very little empty space in a gas.
d. Gas particles have no attraction for one another.
38) Which refers to the kinetic energy or motion of gas particles?
a. Pressure
b. Quantity of gas
c. Temperature
d. Volume
39) What is the BEST reason why the atmospheric pressure in Baguio City is lower than the
atmospheric pressure at sea level?
a. Because there are more gas particles at higher altitudes.
b. Because there are less gas particles at higher altitudes.
c. Because there is greater temperature at higher altitudes.
d. Because there is lesser temperature at higher altitudes.
40) Which of the following correctly describes the process of exhalation (air going out of the lungs)?
a. The lungs decrease in volume, causing the internal pressure to increase.
b. The lungs decrease in volume, causing the internal pressure to decrease.
c. The lungs increase in volume, causing the internal pressure to increase.
d. The lungs increase in volume, causing the internal pressure to decrease.
41) How is food cooked faster using a pressure cooker?
a. The accumulated steam increases the pressure and decreases the boiling point of the liquid.
b. The accumulated steam increases the pressure and increases the boiling point of the liquid.
c. The accumulated steam decreases the pressure and decreases the boiling point of the liquid.
d. The accumulated steam decreases the pressure and increases the boiling point of the liquid.
42) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a base?
a. Bitter taste
b. Slippery feeling
c. Able to change litmus from red to blue
d. Reacts with carbonates to produce carbon dioxide
43) Which factor affects the rate of dissolution when powdered sugar dissolves more rapidly than
granulated sugar?
a. Application of heat
b. Nature of solute
c. Particle size
d. Stirring
44) In which factor is the description "like dissolves like" BEST used?
a. Volume
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Nature of solute and solvent
45) When the production of hydrogen ions in the body is the same as their loss, you are in ________.
a. acid-base balance
b. electrolytic balance
c. water balance
d. balanced diet
46) When an egg yolk is added to oil and water with vinegar to make mayonnaise, the egg yolk
serves as ________.
a. coagulant
b. emulsifying agent
c. solvent
d. surfactant
47) Which of the following involves adsorption?
a. Plating of copper on a steel object
b. Adherence of paint to wood surfaces
c. Brown color of the eyes of Filipinos
d. Removal of odor inside a refrigerator using charcoal
48) Which of the following BEST describes temperature?
a. Temperature measures the total energy in something.
b. Temperature measures the kinetics energy in substance.
c. Temperature measures the total kinetic energy contained in an object.
d. Temperature measures the average molecular kinetic energy in a substance.
49) The Earth receives tremendous heat coming from the sun which could be beneficial at one point
and harmful to a large extent. Which of the following methods of transferring heat is being
illustrated?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Transduction
50) A reaction takes place endothermically. Which of the following statements BEST describes
endothermic reactions?
a. The temperature of the system drops.
b. The temperature of the surrounding rises.
c. The temperature of the surrounding drops.
d. The temperature of the surrounding remains the same.
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. D
19. D
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. A
33. D
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. D
43. C
44. D
45. B
46. B
47. D
48. D
49. C
50. C
PHYSICAL SCIENCE: PART B.
1) Which of the following statements on specific heat is TRUE?
a. It is an extrinsic property.
b. It is always equal to the heat capacity.
c. It is the heat capacity per mole of a substance.
d. It is equal to zero when the heat capacity is zero.
2) The entropy usually increases when ________.
I. A molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules
II. A reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas
III. A solid changes to a liquid
IV. A liquid changes to a gas
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
3) Change is enthalpy for combustion of fuel is ________.
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. may be negative or positive
4) Which situation appears to violate the collision theory?
a. The reaction rate increases as temperature increases.
b. The reaction rate decreases as the reaction mixture is cooled.
c. The reaction rate increases as the surface area of the reactants increases.
d. A reaction rate takes more equally when the concrentration of a reactants is decreased.
5) Which statement is TRUE about catalysts?
a. They increase the rate of reaction by increasing the activation energy.
b. They provide alternative reaction paths with lower activation energies.
c. The amount of catalyst decreases as the reaction progresses.
d. They are used up in the reaction.
6) Milk turns sour in one or two days when left at room temperature and yet can remain unspoiled
for two weeks refrigerated. What explains this?
a. Decrease in temperature speeds up reaction rate.
b. Decrease in temperature slows down reaction rate.
c. Milk becomes less concentrated when placed in refrigerator.
d. Milk becomes more concentrated when placed in refrigerator.
7) What factor affects sawdust to burn faster than a block of wood?
a. Concentration of reactant
b. Presence of catalyst
c. Surface area of reactant
d. Temperature
8) Which of the following observations is NOT true whenever a system is in chemical equilibrium?
a. Attainment of equilibrium requires time.
b. The rates of opposing reactions are equal.
c. The products do not change back to reactants.
d. Concentrations remain constant at equilbrium even though the ooposing reactions are
continuing.
9) Which of the following is also known as paraffin or saturated hydrocarbon?
a. Alkane
b. Alkene
c. Alkyne
d. Cycloalkane
10) Which of the following are properties of organic compound?
I. High melting point
II. Low boiling point
III. High solubility in water
IV. Non conductor of electricity
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
11) Which of the following is an organic compound?
a. Baking soda
b. Glucose
c. Limestone
d. Sulfuric acid
12) Which of the following serves as thermal insulator in the body?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins
13) In DNA, which is the correct complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases?
a. AG and CT
b. AA and GG
c. AC and GC
d. AT and GC
14) Which biomolecular is considered the building blocks of tissues and organs?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipid
c. Nucleic acid
d. Protein
15) What is the main function of the hormone oxytocin in the body?
a. Controls water secretion by the kidneys.
b. Stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose.
c. Controls blood - glucose level and storage of glycogen.
d. Stimulates contraction of the uterine muscles and secretion of milk by the mammary glands.
16) The half-life of thorium-234 is 24 days. How much 5g of 234th would be left after 48 days?
a. 0.625g
b. 1.25g
c. 2.50g
d. 3.75g
17) What happens when there is a loss of an alpha particle from the nucleus?
a. No change in the mass number or atomic number
b. Loss of 4 in the mass number, loss of 2 in the atomic number
c. Loss of 2 in the mass number, loss of 4 in the atomic number
d. No change in the mass number, increase of 1 in the atomic number
18) Which of the following poses a serious obstacle to the development of commercial fusion power
plants?
a. Scarcity of deuterium
b. Public concern about safety
c. Dwindling supply of uranium
d. Exceedingly high activation energy
19) A radioisotope is considered a tracer when it is used to ________.
a. kill cancerous tissues
b. kill bacteria in food
c. determine the age of artifacts
d. determine the way plants absorb fertilizers
20) Identify the following quantities as scalar or vector respectively: mass of an object, the number
of leaves on a tree, and wind velocity.
a. Scalar, Scalar, Vector
b. Scalar, Vector, Vector
c. Vector, Scalar, Scalar
d. Vector, Scalar, Vector
21) Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
a. Acceleration
b. Temperature
c. Velocity
d. Weight
22) Which of the following describes a vector quantity?
a. It specifies direction only.
b. It specifies magnitude only.
c. It can be a dimensionless quantity.
d. It specifies both magnitude and direction.
23) A man pushes against the wall with 25 pounds of force. The wall does not move. What is the
resultant force?
a. -25 pounds
b. 0 pounds
c. 50 pounds
d. 75 pounds
24) In a coordinate system, a vector is oriented at angle with respect to the x axis. The component
of the vector equals the vector's magnitude multiplied by which trigonometric function?
a. Cos angle
b. Cot angle
c. Sin angle
d. Tan angle
25) An ant on a picnic table travels 30cm due east, then 25cm northward and finally 15cm west.
What is the magnitude of the ant's displacement relative to its point of origin?
a. 29cm
b. 58cm
c. 70cm
d. 99cm
26) What will happen to a moving object if the sum of all forces acting on it is zero?
a. It will accelerate uniformly.
b. It will slow down and stop.
c. It will change the direction of its motion.
d. It will continue moving with constant velocity.
27) Acceleration is always in the direction of the ________.
a. displacement
b. final velocity
c. initial velocity
d. net force
28) A brick slides on a horizontal surface. Which of the following will increase in magnitude of the
frictional force on it?
a. Putting a second brick on top.
b. Decreasing the mass of the brick.
c. Increasing the surface area of contact.
d. Decreasing the surface area of contact.
29) The potential energy of a body at a certain height is 100 J. The kinetic energy possessed by it
when it just touches the surface of the earth is ________.
a. greater than the potential energy
b. less than the potential energy
c. equal to the potential energy
d. cannot be known
30) What happens to the kinetic energy of an object if its speed is doubled?
a. It will be halved
b. It will be doubled
c. It will be tripled
d. It will be quadrupled
31) What is the type of energy possessed by a simple pendulum when it is at the mean position?
a. Kinetic energy
b. Mechanical energy
c. Potential energy
d. Sound energy
32) A ball is thrown upward into the air with a speed that is greater than terminal speed. On the way
up, it slows down and after its speed equals the terminal speed but before it gets to the trajectory
________.
a. it speeds up
b. its speed is constant
c. it continues to slow down
d. its motion becomes jerky
33) When a bullet is fired from a rifle, the force on the rifle is equal to the force on the bullet. Why is
it that the energy of the bullet is greater than the energy of the recoiling rifle?
a. Because there is more impulse on the bullet.
b. Because the force on the bullet acts for a longer time.
c. Because the force on the bullet acts for a longer distance.
d. Because the bullet's momentum is greater than that of the rifle.
34) Car A has a mass of 1,000kg and a speed of 60 kph while Car B has a mass of 2,000kg running
at a speed of 30 kph. What is the kinetic energy of Car A?
a. Half that of Car B
b. Equal that of Car B
c. Twice that of Car B
d. Four time that of Car B
35) An object is thrown straight up. Which of the following is TRUE about the sign of work done by
the gravitational force while the object moves up and down?
a. Work is zero on the way up, work is zero on the way down.
b. Work is negative on the way up, work is negative on the way down.
c. Work is negative on the way up, work is positive on the way down.
d. Work is positive on the way up, work is negative on the way down.
36) What happens to the kinetic energy of a moving object if the net work done is positive?
a. The kinetic energy remains the same.
b. The kinetic energy increases.
c. The kinetic energy decreases.
d. The kinetic energy is zero.
37) Object A with a mass of 4kg is lifted vertically 3m from the ground, object B with a mass of 2kg
is lifted 6m up. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?
I. Object A has greater potential energy since it is heavier.
II. Object B has greater potential energy since it is lifted to a higher position.
III. Two objects have the same potential energy.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. not enough information given
38) According to the scientific definition of work, pushing a table accomplishes no work unless
there is __________.
a. an opposing force
b. a net force greater than zero
c. an applied force greater than its weight
d. movement in the same direction as the force
39) A machine does 2,500 J of work in 1 minute. What is the power developed by the machine?
a. 21 W
b. 42 W
c. 2,500 W
d. 150,000 W
40) To which type of simple machine does a pencil shrapener belong?
a. Inclined plane
b. Lever
c. Pulley
d. Wheel and axle
41) Which of Newton's laws best explains why motorists should always wear belts?
a. Law of Inertia
b. Law of Acceleration
c. Law of Interaction
d. Law of Gravitation
42) The same net force is applied to object 1 and object 2. The two accelerations of the two objects
are not the same. Object 1 has an acceleration three times that of object 2. Which of the following is
correct?
a. Object 1 has more friction than object 2.
b. Object 1 has one-third the mass of object 2.
c. Object 1 has three times the mass of object 2.
d. Object 1 has a different, less streamlined shape than object 2.
43) The law of inertia applies to ________.
a. moving objects
b. objects that are not moving
c. both moving and non-moving objects
d. none of these
44) Which statement is CORRECT about the Law of Conservation of Energy?
a. The total amount of energy is constant.
b. Energy cannot be used faster than it is created.
c. The supply of energy is limited so we must conserve.
d. Energy must be conserved and you are breaking a law if you waste energy.
45) Which of the following can transform electrical energy to mechanical energy?
a. Electric bulb
b. Electric fan
c. Loud speaker
d. Television
46) Daniel is making a picture frame. He sticks a nail into a piece of wood and hits the nail with a
hammer. Which form of energy is NOT released when the hammer hits the nail?
a. Chemical
b. Kinetic
c. Sound
d. Thermal
47) Stephen throws a baseball into the air. It rises, stops when it reaches the greatest height, and
then falls back to the ground. At what point is kinetic energy initially converted to potential energy?
a. When the baseball is rising
b. When the baseball is falling
c. Just after the baseball hits the ground
d. While the baseball is stopped into the air
48) Which energy conversion takes place when a toaster is switched on?
a. Chemical to sound
b. Chemical to thermal
c. Electrical to sound
d. Electrical to thermal
49) When coal is burned to produced electricity, the electrical energy produced is less than the
potential energy of the coal. Which BEST explains this observation?
a. The amount of energy in the coal is not known.
b. As the coil is heated, the molecules move so fast that they are destroyed.
c. Some of the potential energy in the coal is converted into forms of energy other than electricity.
d. Some of the potential energy in the coal requires more intense heat so that it can be compared to
electricity.
50) What is TRUE of all combinations of resistors arranged in parallel?
I. Current spilts down each leg of the combination.
II. Voltage is constant across each leg of the combination.
III. Resistance is the same for each leg of the combination.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. B
17. B
18. D
19. D
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. C
35. C
36. B
37. C
38. D
39. B
40. D
41. A
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. A
46. A
47. A
48. D
49. C
50. A
PHYSICAL SCIENCE: PART C.
1) What is a closed, continuous path through which electrons can flow?
a. Charge
b. Circuit
c. Resistor
d. Voltage
2) What will be your charge if you scrape electrons from your feet while scuffing across the rug?
a. Negative
b. Neutral
c. Positive
d. Not enough information given
3) How will your force change if the distance between the two charged spheres is doubled?
a. The force is doubled
b. The force is tripled
c. The force is quadrupled
d. The force is multiplied eight times
4) A 6 ohm and 12 ohm resistors are connected in parallel with each other to a battery. Which of the
following is TRUE?
a. More current will flow through the 20 ohm resistor.
b. The current flowing through the resistors is the same.
c. The resistor values must be equal for the circuit to work.
d. The potential difference across the two resistors is the same.
5) A new 1.5 V dry cell furnishes 30 A when short circuited. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
a. 0.05 ohm
b. 0.10 ohm
c. 1.5 ohm
d. 30 ohm
6) If three identical lamps are connected in parallel to a 6 V dry cell, what is the voltage drop across
each lamp?
a. 2 V
b. 3 V
c. 6 V
d. 18 V
7) Which of the following describes an electric current?
a. Regulates the movement of electric charge.
b. The opposition a material offers to the electron flow.
c. The electric pressure that causes charged particles to flow.
d. The movement of charged particles in a specific direction.
8) A 10 W bulb and a 20 W bulb are connected in a series circuit. Which bulb has the more current
flowing in it?
a. The 10 W bulb
b. The 20 W bulb
c. Both bulbs have the same current
d. Cannot be determined
9) Which of the following are characteristics of a series circuit?
I. The current that flows through each resistance is the same as the total current throughout the
circuit.
II. The sum of all the individual voltage drops is the same as the applied voltage.
III. The reciprocal of the total resistance is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the separate
resistances.
IV. The voltage drop in each resistance is the same as the magnitude of the applied voltage.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II and III
10) Which states that the sum of all potential rises and potential drops in any loop (closed circuit) is
zero?
a. Coulomb's Law
b. Kirchoff's Law
c. Law of Electrolysis
d. Ohm's Law
11) A television and an electric fan are connected in parallel top a 220 V line. The current in the
television is 8 A and in the electric fan is 3 A. What is the current flowing in the line?
a. 2.67 A
b. 5 A
c. 11 A
d. 24 A
12) What happens to current if resistance increases?
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. No change
d. Cannot be determined
13) Which of the following statements DOES NOT represent Ohm's Law?
a. current/potential difference = constant
b. potential difference/current = constant 
c. potential difference = current x resistance
d. current = resistance x potential difference
14) What is the resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current and 6.0 V?
a. 0.2 ohm
b. 0.5 ohm
c. 2 ohm
d. 5 ohm
15) What happens to the current-carrying ability of a wire as temperature increases?
a. There is no change.
b. The wire can't carry any current.
c. The wire can carry more current.
d. The wire can carry less current.
16) A 300 W at 220 V TV set is used at an average of 4 hours a day for 30 days. If the electrical
energy costs P1.60 per kilowatt-hour, how much is the energy cost?
a. P5.76
b. P22.50
c. P57.60
d. P225.00
17) Electromagnetic radiation can be used for wireless communications. Which of the following can
be used to transmit signals such as mobile phone calls?
a. Infrared
b. Gamma
c. Microwaves
d. Radiowaves
18) Which statement about the North-magnetic pole of the Earth is TRUE?
a. Its location never changes.
b. It corresponds to the N-pole of a bar magnet.
c. It corresponds to the S-pole of a bar magnet.
d. It is at the same location as the geographic north pole of the Earth.
19) An iron nail can be turned into a temporary magnet if it is held in a strong magnetic field. Which
method of magnetization is this?
a. Charging
b. Conduction
c. Induction
d. Saturation
20) Which of the following factors affect the size of the induced current in a coil?
I. Number of turns in the coil
II. Size of the inducing field
III. Direction of the windings in the coil
IV. Resistance of the wire in the coil
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II and IV
21) To use the right hand rule to predict the direction of an induced current in a coil, your thumb
must point ________.
a. to the direction of the motion of the wire
b. to the N-pole of the induced magnetic field
c. in the direction of the induced current
d. in the direction of the inducing field
22) When a bar magnet is inserted into a coil, a current of 12.0 A is induced into the coil. If four
magnets of the same type are inserted into the coil at the same time, what would be the induced
current?
a. 3 A
b. 4 A
c. 12 A
d. 48 A
23) What is the direction of a magnetic field within a magnet?
a. from north to south
b. from south to north
c. from to back
d. back to front
24) Which is the induced voltage across a stationary conductor in a stationary magnetic field?
a. decreased
b. increased
c. zero
d. reversed in polarity
25) What is the magnetomotive force (mmf) of a wire with 8 turns carrying 3 A of current?
a. 2.67
b. 24
c. 240
d. 2,400
26) A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field. If the number of turns in the coil is
decreased, what will happen to the voltage induced across the coil?
a. remain constant
b. be excessive
c. decrased
d. increased
27) Which of the following is TRUE about the frequency and velocity of electromagnetic waves?
a. Frequency and wavelength are interdependent of each other
b. As frequency increases, wavelength decreases
c. As frequency increases, wavelength increases
d. Frequency is constant for all wavelengths
28) Which of the following correctly lists electromagnetic waves in order from longest to shortest
wavelength?
a. television, infrared, visible light, x-rays
b. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
c. radiowaves, infrared, gamma rays, ultraviolet
d. microwaves, ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays
29) An electromagnetic wave is radiated by a straight wire antenna that is oriented vertically. What
should be the orientation of a straight wire receiving antenna?
a. diagonally
b. vertically
c. horizontally and in a direction parallel to the wave's direction of motion
d. horizontally and in a direction perpendicular to the wave's direction of motion
30) What should a good diode tested with an ohmmeter indicate?
a. High resistance when forward or reverse biased.
b. Low resistance when forward or reversed biased.
c. High resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward biased.
d. High resistance when forward biased and low resistance when forward biased.
31) Vacuum tubes in a radio transmitter are used to ________.
a. record programs
b. provide DC supply
c. generate high power radio waves
d. provide lighting inside the studio
32) Which material is the usual component of an anode?
a. Aluminum
b. Carbon
c. Copper
d. Nickel
33) A metal spoon is placed in a cup filled with hot coffee. After some time, the exposed end of the
spoon becomes hot even without a direct contact with the liquid. What explains this phenomenon?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Thermal expansion
34) Which causes the warmth that you feel when you place your finger at the side of the flame of a
burning candle?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Not enough information given
35) Which process of heat transfer happens by the movement of mass from one place to another?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Induction
d. Radiation
36) When work is done by a system, what happens to its temperature assuming that no heat is
added to it?
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains the same
d. none of these
37) Which states that "when two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they
are in thermal equilibrium with each other?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second Law of Thermodynamics
d. Mechanical Equivalent of Heat
38) What happens in an adiabatic process?
a. No heat eneters or leaves the system
b. The pressure of the system remain constant
c. The temperature of the system remains constant
d. The system does no work nor work is done on it.
39) What thermodynamic process is involved in a closed car inside a hot garage?
a. Adiabatic
b. Isobaric
c. Isochoric
d. Isothermal
40) Consider the thermal energy transfer during a chemeical process. When heat is transferred to
the system, the process is said to be ________ and the sign of H is ________.
a. endothermic, positive
b. endothermic, negative
c. exothermic, positive
d. exothermic, negative
41) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Entropy increases with the number of microstates of the system.
b. Any irreversible process results in an overall increase in entropy.
c. The total entropy of the universe increases in any spontaneous process.
d. The change in entropy in a system depends on the initial and final states of the system and the
path taken from one state to the other.
42) During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a ________.
a. compressor
b. condenser
c. evaporator
d. expansion valve
43) Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a refrigeration system?
a. Rejects energy to a low temperature body.
b. Rejects energy to a high temperature body.
c. Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body.
d. Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body.
44) Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratosphere?
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Fluorine
d. Sulfur dioxide
45) Which phenomenon is BEST explained by the particle nature of light?
a. Doppler effect
b. Interference
c. Photoelectric effect
d. Polarization
46) According to the quantum theory of light, the energy of light is carried in discrete units called
________.
a. alpha particles
b. photoelectrons
c. photons
d. protons
47) Rutherford observed that most of the alpha particles directed at a metallic foil appear to pass
through unhindered, with only a few deflected at large angles. What did he conclude?
a. Atoms can easily absorb and re-emit aplha particles.
b. Atoms consist mainly of empty space and have small, dense nuclei.
c. Alpha particles behave like waves when they interact with atom.
d. Atoms have most of their mass distributed loosely in an electron cloud.
48) When an electron changes from a higher energy to a lower energy state within an atom, a
quantum of energy is ________.
a. absorbed
b. emitted
c. fissioned
d. fused
49) When does nuclear fission occur?
a. When we cut nuclei into two with a very small cutting device.
b. When one nucleus bumps into another causing a chain reaction.
c. When a nucleus divides spontaneously, with no apparent reason.
d. When electrical forces inside a nucleus overpower forces.
50) When does nuclear fusion release energy?
a. When uranium emits a neutron
b. When heavy ions fuse together
c. When very light nuclei fuse together
d. When uranium splits into two fragments
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. A
41. D
42. B
43. D
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. B
48. B
49. D
50. C
PHYSICAL SCIENCE: PART D.
1) Albert Einstein's Second Postulate of Special Relativity states that the speed of light ________.
a. can decrease if the speed of the observer decreases
b. can increase if the speed of light source increases
c. randomly changes depending upon its original light source
d. is constant regardless of the speed of the observer or the light source
2) A passenger train travels east at high speed. One passenger is located at the east side of one
car, another is located at the west side of that car. In the train frame, these two passengers glance
up at the same time. In the earth's frame ________.
a. they glance up simultaneously
b. the passengers glance sideways
c. the passenger at the east side glances up first
d. the passenger at the west side glances up first
3) Beniell travels at high speed from Earth to the star Alpha Centauri which is four years away.
Which one is CORRECT in Beniell's frame?
a. The clocks on earth and on Alpha Centauri are syncghronized.
b. The trip takes more time than it does in the earth's frame.
c. Beniell travels to Alpha Centauri over a length that is shorter than four light years.
d. Alpha Centauri travels to Beniell over a length that is shorter than four light years.
4) One clock is placed on top of a mountain and another clock is at the bottom of the mountain.
Ignore the rotation of the earth. Which clock ticks more slowly?
a. They tick at the same rate.
b. The one on top of the mountain.
c. The one at the bottom of the mountain.
d. Cannot be determined.
5) You are in a windowless spacecraft. What do you need to do to determine whether your space
ship is moving at constant non-zero velocity, or is at rest, in an inertial frame of earth?
a. Make very precise time measurements.
b. Make very precise mass measurements.
c. Make very precise length and time measurements.
d. Nothing, because you cannot succeed no matter what you do.
6) According to the effects of length contraction, from the viewpoint of an observer stationary with
respect to abody moving at a uniform speed relative to the observer, which one is CORRECT?
a. The body contracts along the direction of the motion.
b. The time it takes for a clock incorporated in the body to tick contracts.
c. The body is not now contracted but would contract if it were to accelerate.
d. The body contracts in some direction traverse to the direction of its motion.
7) April and May are identical twins. One day, April embarked on a high speed space travel into a
distant star. When he gets back home, who is older between the two?
a. April
b. May
c. None of them because they are still of the same age
d. Cannot be determined
8) An accelerated frame is a non-inertial frame. Is this TRUE?
a. True
b. False
c. Sometimes true, sometimes false
d. Not enough information given
9) Which of the following statements is TRUE about the speed of light?
a. The speed of light has a value that depends on the observer's frame of reference.
b. The speed of light has the same value for observers in all reference frames.
c. The speed of light is constant in an inertial frame of reference.
d. The speed of light is slower in a moving frame of reference.
10) A person is riding a moped that is traveling at 20 m/s. What is the speed of the ball if the moped
rider throws a ball forward at 4 m/s while riding the moped?
a. 16 m/s
b. 20 m/s
c. 24 m/s
d. 80 m/s
11) According to Einstein, what is considered the fourth dimension?
a. Curled dimension
b. Horizontal dimension
c. Space dimension
d. Time dimension
12) As you observe a fish inside an aquarium, the fish appears to be bigger when underwater. When
observed through the side, the fish seems closer than if you observe over the top. When you look
through the corner, it appears to be that there are two fishes. What explains this observation?
a. Diffraction
b. Interference
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
13) What is the phenomenon by which the incident light falling on a surface is back into the same
medium?
a. Absorption
b. Polarization
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
14) Which property is responsible for alternating light and dark bonds when light passes through
two or more narrow slits?
a. Diffraction
b. Interference
c. Polarization
d. Refraction
15) What happens when a light wave enters into a medium of different optical density?
a. Its speed and frequency change.
b. Its speed and wavelength change.
c. Its frequency and wavelength change.
d. Its speed, frequency and wavelength change.
16) A ray of light in air is incident on an air-to-glass boundary at an angle of 36 degrees with the
normal. If the index of refraction of the glass is 1.65, what is the angle of the refracted ray within the
glass with respect to the normal?
a. 18 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 46 degrees
d. 56 degrees
17) If the critical angle for internal reflection inside a certain transparent material is found 48
degrees, what is the index of refraction of the material? (air is outside the material)
a. 0.74
b. 1.35
c. 1.48
d. 1.53
18) According to the law of reflection, from what angle is light coming after it is reflected from a
mirror?
a. The same angle as the incident ray as measured from the surface of the mirror.
b. The same angle as the incident ray as measured from the normal to the mirror.
c. Some light comes directly from the object and some passes through the mirror.
d. Cannot be determined.
19) Which of the following is the BEST description of a white light?
a. It is a mixture of every color.
b. It is a mixture of seven colors.
c. It is a mixture of red, blue and yellow.
d. It is a pure color that cannot be broken up.
20) Sunsets often appear to have a more reddish-orange color than moon. Which of the following
phenomenon is responsible for this effect?
a. Rayleigh Scattering
b. Dispersion
c. Polarization
d. Refraction
21) The polarization behavior of light is BEST explained by considering light to be ________.
a. Particles
b. Transverse waves
c. Longitude waves
d. Unpolarized
22) Which type of light vibrates in a variety of planes?
a. Electromagnetic
b. Polarized
c. Transverse
d. Unpolarized
23) Light is passed through a filter whose transmission axis is alighned horizontally. It then passes
through a second filter whose transmission axis is aligned vertically. What will happen to the light
after passing through both filters?
a. It will be polarized
b. It will be unpolarized
c. It will be entirely blocked
d. It will return to its original state
24) Light rays enter a material and scatter. Which BEST describes what happens to the light rays.
a. Bounce straight back
b. Move straight through
c. Spread out in all directions
d. Move through but in a new direction
25) The energy generated by the sun travels to Earth as electromagnetic waves of varying lengths.
Which statement correctly describes an electromagnetic wave with a long wavelength?
a. It has a high frequency and low energy.
b. It has a high frequency and high energy.
c. It has a low frequency and can travel through a vacuum.
d. It has a low frequency and needs a medium to travel through.
26) Why is the sky blue?
a. It reflects the color of the ocean.
b. The color of the outer space is blue.
c. Blue light is more readily scattered than red light by nitrogen.
d. Red light is scattered more easily than blue light by dust particles.
27) What is the physical evidence that the core is composed mostly of iron?
a. Volcanoes regularly erupt material from the core to the surface.
b. Scientist have sampled the core and determined its composition.
c. The known mass of Earth requires material of high density at the core.
d. A and B
28) Which of the following comprised the largest portion of Earth's volume?
a. Crust
b. Inner core
c. Mantle
d. Outer Core
29) Which of the following statements about the Mohorovicic discontinuity is FALSE?
a. The Moho separates the crust from the mantle.
b. The Moho marks the top of a partially molten layer.
c. The Moho separates denser rocks below from less dense rocks above.
d. Seismic wave speeds up as they pass across the Moho heading downward.
30) Where do P waves travel the fastest?
a. Upper mantle
b. Lower mantle
c. Outer core
d. Inner core
31) What is the driving force for the movement of the lithosphere plates?
a. Heat from the sun
b. Heat in the atmosphere
c. Unequal distribution of heat within the Earth
d. Unequal distribution of heat in the oceans
32) Which evidence supports Alfred Wegener's Continental Drift Theory?
a. Major rivers on different continents match
b. Land bridges still exist that connext major continents
c. The same magnetic directions exist on different continents
d. Fossils of the same organism have been found on different continents
33) Which of the following is TRUE based on the Plate Tectonic Theory?
a. The atmosphere is strong and rigid
b. The lithosphere is divided into spheres
c. The atmosphere is divided into plates
d. The atmosphere moves over the lithosphere
34) What type of boundary occurs where two plates move together, causing one plate to descend
into the mantle beneath the outer plate?
a. Convergent boundary
b. Divergent boundary
c. Transform fault boundary
d. Transitional boundary
35) Which are considered as most destructive earthquake waves?
a. P waves
b. Q waves
c. S waves
d. Surface waves
36) In which of the following climates will chemical weathering be most rapid?
a. hot and dry
b. cold and dry
c. hot and humid
d. cold and humid
37) Which of the following statements about weathering is FALSE?
a. Rocks of different compositions weather at different rates.
b. Heat and heavy rainfall increase the rate of chemical weathering.
c. The presence of soil slows down the weathering of the underlying bedrock.
d. The longer a rock is exposed at the suraface, the more weathered it becomes.
38) Why do agricultural areas often experience the greatest amount of soil erosion?
a. Because farms are typically located near streams
b. Because farmers usually remove trees from their fields
c. Because they typically occur in areas of moderately steep slopes
d. Because farming usually involves plowing the soil to plant seeds
39) What can happen to global temperatures for several years after a volcanic eruption?
a. Temperatures may increase
b. Temperatures may decrease
c. Temperatures can create more volcanoes
d. Temperatures are not affected by volcanic eruption
40) Which of the following correctly describe diastrophism?
a. It refers to the boundaries between crustal plates.
b. It refers to a discredit theory of continent formation.
c. It refers to all processes in which magma moves from Earth's surface or near the surface.
d. It refers to all the deformation of Earth's crust by bending or breaking in response to great
pressures exerted either from below or from within the crust.
41) What is the evaporation of water from plant surfaces especially through stomates?
a. Condensation
b. Perspiration
c. Respiration
d. Transpiration
42) Which of the following processes form clouds?
a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Precipitation
d. Transpiration
43) Which of the following is/are a natural factors that may disrupt the water cycle?
a. Water pollution
b. Drying of ground water
c. Mismanaged domestic and industrial use of water
d. Both A and C
44) What is the mixture of fresh and saltwater typically formed where rivers meet the ocean?
a. Brackish water
b. Compound water
c. Mixture water
d. Saline water
45) Fresh water is an integral part of hydrologic cycle. How is it produced?
a. Condensation
b. Desalination
c. Evaporation
d. Transpiration
46) Which of the following is included in the term hydrosphere?
a. All the water on the planet.
b. All the fresh water on the planet.
c. All waters on the surface of the continents.
d. All the liquid water on the Earth, minus the ice.
47) What is the main difference between swamps and marshes?
a. Trees versus grassland
b. High water table versus low
c. Salt water versus fresh water
d. Seasonality of precipitation
48) A lake will become saline if ________.
a. lake levels decrease
b. precipitation exceeds evaporation
c. evaporation exceeds precipitation
d. the lake has no natural drainage outlet
49) What is the other name for typhoon?
a. Low pressure area
b. Hurricane
c. Tornado
d. Twister
50) What is the difference among typhoon, a hurricane, and a cyclone?
a. While typhoons are strong storms, cyclones are worse, and hurricane are the strongest of all.
b. Hurricanes spin clockwise, cyclones spin counter clockwise, and typhoons are actually tidal
waves.
c. Typhoons are found near the equator, hurricanes in the midlatitudes and typhoons in the arctic
and antartic.
d. The storms are the same but the names are used in the Western Pacific, North America and
Indian Ocean, respectively.
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. A
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. C
32. D
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. C
37. C
38. D
39. B
40. D
41. D
42. A
43. B
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. A
48. D
49. B
50. D
PHYSICAL SCIENCE: PART E.
1) Which one of these revolving weather is the smallest?
a. Hurricane
b. Tornado
c. Tropical cyclone
d. Typhoon
2) What happens when the rate of evaporation equals the rate of condensation?
a. Clouds form
b. Precipitation occurs
c. The humidity decreases
d. The dew point is reached
3) Which is the cause of change of seasons?
a. The roation of the Earth
b. The tilt of Earth's axis
c. The rain-shadow effect
d. The sizes and shapes of land surface features
4) What causes changes in weather?
a. Cloud formation
b. Water evaporation
c. Air humidity
d. Air masses interaction
5) What part of the atmosphere protects Earth's suface from harmful ultraviolet radiation?
a. Exosphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Troposphere
6) The aurora borealis and aurora australis are caused by the interaction between charged particles
and Earth's magnetic field. What layer of Earth's atmosphere contains these particles?
a. Exosphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Ozonosphere
d. Thermosphere
7) Which is a depp layer of electrically charged molecules and atoms that reflects radio waves?
a. Exosphere
b. Ionosphere
c. Radiosphere
d. Troposphere
8) The Earth completes one revolution around the sun in 365 1/4 days. Compared to earth, how
long does it takes Mercury to complete one revolution?
a. Less than the Earth
b. Greater than the Earth
c. The same as the Earth
d. Cannot be determined
9) What two properties of stars are being directly compared in the Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram?
I. Size
II. Temperature
III. Luminuosity
IV. Density
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. I and IV
10) How is the atmospheric pressure of Mars when compared to the atmospheric pressure of the
Earth?
a. Half as much as that of that Earth
b. About the same as the Earth
c. About 1/100th that of the Earth
d. About 100 times as great as the Earth
11) Which of the following statements is TRUE for both Saturn and Jupiter?
a. Both rotate faster than the Earth
b. Both rotate slower than the Earth
c. Only one rotates rapidly while the other rotates very slowly
d. Their periods of rotation are linked to their period of revolution
12) According to Kepler's Laws, what is the shape of all orbits of the planets?
a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Oblate spheroid
d. Parabola
13) What is the first successful space station program that tested the ability of astronauts to work
for long periods and studied their body responses to weightless conditions?
a. Apollo 11
b. Sputnik 1
c. Salyut
d. US Skylab
14) The universe is estimated to be between 10 and 20 billion years old. This estimate is based on
the value of which constant?
a. Speed of light
b. Hubble constant
c. Mass of the Earth
d. Mass of the electron
15) On which of the following planets would the sun rise in the west?
a. Mars
b. Jupiter
c. Saturn
d. Venus
16) Which of the following describes an albedo?
a. brightness of the star
b. phase changes of a planet
c. wobbling motion of a planet
d. amount of light a planet reflects
17) Where are most asteroids located?
a. between Earth and Mars
b. between Mars and Venus
c. between Mars and Jupiter
d. between Jupiter and Saturn
18) Which refers to the precession of the Earth?
a. Change from night to day
b. Earth's motion around the sun
c. Effect of the moon on the Earth's orbit
d. Change in orientation of the Earth's axis
19) What kind of eclips do we see when the moon is entirely within Earth's umbral shadow?
a. total solar
b. total lunar
c. partial solar
d. partial lunar
20) At which phase of the moon do solar eclipse occur?
a. Full moon
b. First quarter
c. New moon
d. Third quarter
21) If a lunar eclipse occurs tonight, when is the soonest that a solar elcipse can occur?
a. Tomorrow
b. In two weeks
c. In one month
d. In one year
22) Which one is considered as one of the most important results of the Apollo missions to the
moon?
a. Discovery of subsurface water.
b. Determination of the age of moon rocks.
c. First observations of surface features called craters.
d. Proof that craters were produced by volcanic eruptions.
23) What is the problem experienced by astronauts staying for long periods of time aboard the
international space station?
a. Weight loss due to diet
b. Reduced exposure to sunlight
c. Muscle loss due to lack of exercise
d. Effects of lower gravity on the body
24) NASA developed a filtration process to make waste water on space flights renewable. Where
might this filtration process be used on Earth?
a. In areas where water is salty.
b. In areas where water is contaminated.
c. In areas where water is used for recreation.
d. In areas where water contains hard minerals.
25) What must be done in order to preserve the biosphere for future generations?
a. Put all wild animals and game preserves.
b. Make use of technology to develop.
c. Explore ways to drain and fill wetlands along the sea coast.
d. Understand how living things interact with their environment.
26) Which of the following can help ensure a suitable environment for the future generations?
a. Biological controls
b. Chemical dumps
c. Fossil fuels
d. Pesticides
27) Which human activity would be more likely to have a negative impact on the environment?
a. Investigating the use of the biological controls for the pests.
b. Using reforestation and cover cropping to control soil erosion.
c. Using insecticides to kill insects that compete with human for food.
d. Developing a research aimed toward the preservation of endangered species.
28) Which is the main cause of the depletion of the ozone layer?
a. Decrease in temperature.
b. Decrease in the amount of air pollutants.
c. Increase in number of marine ecosystem.
d. Increase in temperature due to atmospheric pollutants.
29) DDT was used to kill mosquitoes. It was observed that lizards that ate the mosquitoes slowed
down and died. Eventually, the population of cats that ate lizards diminished. What can be inferred
from this situation?
a. DDT can cause harm to all organisms.
b. Using DDT is a reliable way to eliminate insect predators.
c. The mosquito and other organisms were all competing for same resources.
d. Environmental changes that affect one population can affect other population.
30) Teddy is a seasoned famer updated on new trends in agriculture. In his effort to make and
harvest the best rice crops, he tried to implement the environmentalist's way of controlling pests as
mandated in the integrated pest management. Teddy later found out that all of the following
processes made best contributions to a good and safe harvest EXCEPT ________.
a. use of natural enemies
b. planting variety of crops
c. use of narrow-spectrum pesticides
d. use of genetically engineered crops
31) What is the most important factor for the success of animal population?
a. Adaptability
b. Interspecies activity
c. Natality
d. Unlimited food
32) Why does starvation occur?
a. There is not enough fertile land worldwide on which to grow food.
b. Forces in nature (drought, pests, floods) wipe out food supplies.
c. Population is growing at a faster rate than the world's ability to produce.
d. Some parts of the world lack food while other parts of the world produce more than they
consume.
33) Which of the following presents the greatest threat to the survival of numerous plants and
animal species.
a. Greenhouse effect
b. Continued burning of fossil fuel
c. Disappearance of world's rainforest
d. Dumping of toxic waste in the least industrialized nations
34) Which factor BEST explains why the human population has grown so rapidly over the last 100
years?
a. Humans have decreased their reliance on natural resources.
b. Humans have increased the amount of resources available on Earth.
c. Humans have increased the carrying capacity of the biosphere for the population.
d. Humans have developed physical characteristics that increase their competitive advantage.
35) Which human activity causes maximum environmental pollution having regional and global
impact?
a. Agriculture
b. Industrialization
c. Mining
d. Urbanization
36) Which of the following statements in relation to sustainable development is FALSE?
a. Sustainability has the main objective of purely focusing on the natural environment.
b. Sustainable development of various countries and the entire world is the only solution left with
mankind to survive for a longer period on Earth.
c. Sustainable development not only considers the protection of the environment but also the
maintenance of economic viability as well as social and ethical considerations.
d. Sustainable development is defined as the development that meets the needs of present without
compromising the ability of our future generations to meet their own needs.
37) What is the process of converting nitrate to nitrogen gas and nitrous oxide?
a. Ammonification
b. Denitrification
c. Nitrogen fixation
d. Transpiration
38) Which of the following chemicals enters living organisms primarily from the atmosphere rather
than from rocks or soil?
a. Calcium
b. Carbon
c. Sodium
d. Sulfur
39) What is the conversion of atmospheric free nitrogen gas to ammonia which occurs through the
activities of certain bacteria and cyanobacteria?
a. Denitrification
b. Nitrification
c. Nirogen fixation
d. Oxidation
40) How do animals get the nitrogen they need?
a. Directly from bacteria in the soil
b. From the process of denitrification
c. By breathing in atmospheric nitrogen
d. By consuming plants or other animals
41) The following are ways by which phosphorous enters the environment EXCEPT ________.
a. Run off
b. Animal waste
c. Erosion of rocks
d. Photosynthesis in plants
42) Because of biogeochemical cycling?
a. Nutrients are circulated throughout the biosphere.
b. The Earth creates new chemicals that replace those that were used up by organisms.
c. Organisms eventually run out of needed elements, compounds and other form of matter.
d. Human activity has no effects on elements, chemical compounds, and other forms of matter.
43) Which of the biogeochemical cycles can impact all of the others most directly?
a. Carbon cycle
b. Hydrologic cycle
c. Nitrogen cycle
d. Phosphorous cycle
44) What human activity has added the most carbon in the atmosphere?
a. Burning fossil fuels
b. Mining fossil fuels
c. Increasing soil erosion
d. Cutting down the rainforests
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. D
30. C
31. A
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. B
38. B
39. C
40. D
41. D
42. A
43. B
44. A

NATURAL SCIENCE: Practice Drill

1) A "shooting star" is really a ________ passing through the Earth's atmosphere.
a. collection of dark matter
b. ball of burning gases
c. meteoroid
d. dense patch of solar wind
2) What is the purpose of sphygmomanometer?
a. To measure blood pressure
b. To measure hypertension
c. To measure body temperature
d. To measure heart beat
3) The amazon river flows into which body of water?
a. The Atlantic Ocean
b. Lake Huron
c. The Pacific Ocean
d. The Ionian sea
4) The Great Victoria Desert is located in which country?
a. USA
b. Egypt
c. Australia
d. Mexico
5) Which of the following is NOT a type of forest?
a. Tropical dry
b. Aqueous arboreal
c. Sparse tress and parkland
d. Temperate needleleaf
6) Taiga forests are characterized by which type of trees?
a. Maidenhairs
b. Coniferous
c. Deciduous
d. Cycads
7) What is the largest desert in South America?
a. The Inexistente Desert
b. The Patagonian Desert
c. The Monte Desert
d. The Peruvian Desert
8) All of the following are types of flatlands that are NOT called plains, EXCEPT:
a. Playas
b. Marshes
c. Steppes
d. Swamps
9) The Gobi Desert lies on the border of which two countries?
a. China and India
b. Russia and Kazakhstan
c. Mongolia and China
d. India and Pakistan
10) At what speed does the Earth travel as it orbits the sun?
a. 60 km/s
b. 50 km/s
c. 30 km/s
d. 70 km/s
11) What is the most abundant gas in our atmosphere?
a. Nitrogen
b. Helium
c. Hydrogen
d. Argon
12) What is the average diameter of the Earth?
a. 57,341 km
b. 20,489 km
c. 6,530 km
d. 12,742 km
13) Lake Baikal can be found in which country?
a. Russia
b. China
c. Bangladesh
d. Romania
14) The ozone layer is located in which level of the atmosphere?
a. Exosphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Troposphere
15) The solar terminator or twilight zone refers to what?
a. an asteroid belt
b. a dense band of dark matter
c. the line between day and night
d. the edge of a black hole
16) Which effect causes the sky to appear blue to us?
a. The Coriolis Effect
b. The Greenhouse Effect
c. Rayleigh Scattering
d. The Placebo Effect
17) Approximately how old is the planet Earth?
a. 4.5 billion years
b. 65.4 billion years
c. 1.2 trillion years
d. 769 million years
18) On what date each year is the Earth closest to the Sun, also referred to as the Earth's
perihelion?
a. August 8th
b. January 3rd
c. December 30th
d. June 11th
19) Robert Edwin Peary claimed to be the first person to reach what location?
a. The Moon
b. The North Pole
c. The Marianas Trench
d. The Summit of Mount Everest
20) In August 1500, Diogo Dias discovered an island that he named St. Lawrence. Today that island
is called ________.
a. Hawaii
b. Cuba
c. Greenland
d. Madagascar
21) The consumption of beef is strictly forbidden by:
a. Judaism
b. Islam
c. Hinduism
d. Catholicism
22) Washing soda is the common name for
a. Sodium carbonate 
b. Calcium bicarbonate 
c. Sodium bicarbonate 
d. Calcium carbonate
23) The hardest substance available on earth is
a. Gold 
b. Iron 
c. Diamond 
d. Platinum
24) Reading of a barometer going down is an indication of?
a. snow 
b. storm 
c. intense heat 
d. rainfall
25) A chronometer measures:
a. color contrast 
b. sound waves 
c. time 
d. water waves
26) Fathom is the unit of
a. sound 
b. depth 
c. frequency 
d. distance
27) Nuclear fission is caused by the impact of
a. neutron 
b. proton 
c. deuteron 
d. electron
28) When a gas is turned into a liquid, the process is called 
a. condensation
b. evaporation
c. deposition
d. sublimation
29) Which of the following parts of the sun is easily visible only during a total solar eclipse? 
a. core
b. photosphere
c. sunspots
d. corona
30) The fastest-running terrestrial animal is 
a. cheetah
b. lion
c. man
d. jaguar
31) Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that something is the same, equal or
constant? 
a. iso
b. mega
c. meta
d. quasi
32) Cystitis is the infection of which of the following? 
a. liver
b. urinary bladder
c. pancreas
d. lung
33) Yeast, used in making bread is a ________.
a. fungus
b. plant
c. bacteria
d. seed
34) Titan is the largest natural satellite of planet? 
a. Mercury
b. Venus
c. Saturn
d. Neptune
35) The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an:
a. Amphibian
b. Bony fish
c. Shark
d. Mammal
36) The disease diphtheria affects _________.
a. Lungs
b. Intestine
c. Throat
d. Body joints
37) The animal which uses sounds as its 'eyes' is? 
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Snake
d. Bat
38) Silk is produced by 
a. Egg of silkworm
b. Pupa of silkworm
c. Larva of silkworm
d. Insect itself
39) Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin? 
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
40) Which of the following planets rotates clockwise? 
a. Mars
b. Jupiter
c. Venus
d. Mercury
41) Water boils at a lower temperature on the hills because?
a. It is cold on the hills.
b. There is less carbon dioxide on the hills.
c. There is a decrease in air pressure on the hills.
d. There is less oxygen.
42) In the human body, Cowper’s glands form a part of which one of the following? 
a. Digestive system
b. Endocrine system
c. Reproductive system
d. Nervous system
43 [A]) In normal adult human, what is the rate of heartbeat per minute? 
a. 72-80
b. 70-75
c. 80-97
d. 82-87
43 [B]) The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at: 
a. The North Pole
b. The South Pole
c. The Equator
d. The Center of the Earth
44) Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good
source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity? 
a. They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin
deficiency.
b. They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid
unnecessary wastage of energy.
c. They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism.
d. They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing.
45) The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge
against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge? 
a. The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which
people neither live not venture out.
b. The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural
disaster.
c. The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a
cyclone or tsunami.
d. The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots.
46) Most commercial nuclear power plants worldwide are cooled by 
a. sodium
b. mercury
c. helium
d. water
47) Plants get their nitrogen from :
a. rain
b. the soil
c. the air
d. the bedrock
48) Which is the longest? 
a. a kilometer
b. a centimeter
c. a dekameter
d. a terameter
49) Which is the largest blood vessel in the body?
a. Alveoli
b. Artery
c. Aorta
d. Vein
50) What is a young horse called?
a. Colt
b. Filly
c. Foal
d. Hack
ANSWERS:
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. C 
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. D 
13. A
14. C
15. C
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. A
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. B
27. A
28. A
29. D
30. A
31. A
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. D
36. C
37. D
38. C
39. B
40. C
41. C
42. C
43 [A]. A
43 [B]. D
44. C
45. D
46. D
47. B
48. D
49. C
50. C
NATURAL SCIENCE
1) How does hormones work?
a. by releasing adrenaline
b. by controlling cell chemistry
c. by regulating water loss
d. by controlling blood pressure
2) Nitrogen compounds known as the building blocks of proteins.
a. enzymes
b. glucose
c. nutrients
d. amino acids
3) The growth of roots towards water is an example of?
a. chemotropism
b. geotropism
c. hydrotropism
d. phototropism
4) DNA means?
a. data nurturing analysis
b. deoxytribonucleic acid
c. deoxyribonucleic acid
d. deotrixyl nucleic acid
5) What are the 3 products of oxygen when it has been burned?
a. water, carbon dioxide and air
b. energy, water and carbon
c. energy, carbon and oxide
d. energy, air and water
6) In flowering plants, fertilization takes place in the?
a. pollen tube
b. stamen
c. ovules
d. pollen grain
7) The development of egg without fertilization is called:
a. mitosis
b. parthenogenesis
c. spermatogenesis
d. mitochondria
8) The smallest part of a living thing which performs all the processes a living organism does.
a. organ
b. cell
c. tissue
d. system
9) Male and female reproductive parts of a flower:
a. pollen grains and ovules
b. stamen and pistil
c. pollen grain and pistil
d. stamen and ovules
10) These are cellular secretions which help regulate the breakdown and buildup of various
substances in the body.
a. enzymes
b. amino acids
c. plasma
d. hormones
11) Which of the following does NOT occur to both respiration and fermentation?
a. energy is released
b. sugar is broken down
c. carbon dioxide is produced
d. alcohol is formed
12) What will cause the process of respiration to stop?
a. absence of oxygen
b. absence of sunlight
c. decrease in water supply
d. presence of sunlight
13) What relationship exist between a bangus and tilapia in the fishpond?
a. commensalism
b. mutualism
c. competition
d. predation
14) Taxonomy is the study of the classification of organism based on their?
a. genetics
b. evolutionary history
c. development pattern
d. habitat
15) Coordination and integration of the body activities of man are under the direct control of the?
a. reproduction and transport system
b. nervous and endocrine system
c. nervous and excretory system
d. respiratory and endocrine system
16) Which of the following is NOT a compound?
a. acetic acid
b. alcohol
c. magnesium
d. zinc oxide
17) A molecule is said to be polar or dipolar if?
a. its positive and negative charges are at different places
b. it possesses polar bonds
c. its polar bond have unsymmetrical charge distribution
d. all of the above
18) Instrument which measures the specific gravity of liquids.
a. hygrometer
b. synchrometer
c. hydrometer
d. cyclotron
19) Which property does NOT identify a chemical system?
a. melting point
b. boiling point
c. taste
d. shape
20) The process of spreading out spontaneously to occupy a space uniformly.
a. compression
b. diffusion
c. expansion
d. pressure
21) It is the complex mixture of pollutants.
a. acid rain
b. particles
c. oxides
d. oxidants
22) Compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formulas.
a. cellulose
b. isomers
c. polymers
d. monomers
23) Describes the force of gravity of an object.
a. mass
b. weight
c. capacity
d. pressure
24) When gaseous molecules are compressed, they tend to?
a. increase in volume
b. decrease in volume
c. repel each other
d. attract and liquefy
25) The average temperature was recorded at 35 degrees C. What is the equivalent in Kelvin?
a. 308
b. 300
c. 273
d. 360
26) It is the distance traveled by the body per unit time and tells how fast or slow the body moves.
a. velocity
b. speed
c. acceleration
d. thrust
27) The pressure cooker works under the principle that?
a. boiling point increases as pressure decreases
b. boiling point decreases as pressure increases
c. freezing point increases as pressure increases
d. freezing point increases as pressure decreases
28) It is the phenomena in which energy is transferred through vibrations.
a. frequency
b. waves
c. refraction
d. amplitude
29) The unit of measurement for intensity of sound:
a. hertz
b. decibel
c. angstrom
d. frequency
30) The term RADAR is derived from the phrase?
a. Radio Detection and Ranging
b. Radiation Diffusion and Ranging
c. Radio Diffraction and Resolution
d. Radiation Diffraction and Resolution
31) LASER is derived from the phrase?
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
b. Light Application by Simulated Emission of Radiation
c. Light Amplification by Simulated Ejection of Radiation
d. None of the above
32) What is the color of a transparent substance?
a. the color of the light it absorbs
b. the color of the light it reflects
c. the color of the light it transmits
d. the color of the light in it
33) What will make an object move in a circular path?
a. central force
b. gravitational force
c. frictional force
d. electromagnetic force
34) The temperature at which gas would no longer exert pressure.
a. Kelvin temperature
b. Celsius temperature
c. Absolute zero
d. Boiling point
35) At what temperature does water have the smallest volume and greatest density?
a. 0 degree C
b. 2 degrees C
c. 4 degrees C
d. 16 degrees C
36) A projectile always travels in a ________.
a. linear path
b. circular path
c. parabolic path
d. a and a
37) To earth scientists, the most important features on the map are the landforms that shape the
earth's surface that is shown in:
a. hydrographic maps
b. geologic maps
c. political maps
d. topographic maps
38) What causes high and low tides?
a. earth's rotation on its axis
b. sun's solar energy
c. moon's gravitational pull
d. earth's gravitational pull
39) How is coral atoll formed?
a. volcanic eruptions
b. corals growing around a volcanic island
c. underwater bedrock formations
d. earthquake
40) When you pass orange juice from a tetra pack into a glass, the juice changes its?
a. volume
b. shape
c. state
d. all of the above
41) The part of the atmosphere that filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun?
a. stratosphere
b. troposphere
c. ozone layer
d. ionosphere
42) The point in the earth's orbit which is nearest the sun.
a. solstice
b. eclipse
c. aphelion
d. perihelion
43) What is the primary function of gravity in the universe?
a. provision for energy
b. keep the stars and heavenly bodies in orbit
c. causes movement in space
d. part of universal design
44) What does the word "monsoon" mean?
a. moon will come soon
b. atmosphere
c. seasons
d. climate
45) It occurs when the earth is between the sun and the moon, with the earth's shadow cast over
the moon.
a. total eclipse
b. lunar eclipse
c. eclipse
d. partial eclipse
46) A root may perform all of the following functions, EXCEPT:
a. photosynthesis
b. anchorage
c. food storage
d. water absorption
47) What would be the best way to prevent soil erosion in a hill?
a. building terraces
b. cultivation
c. reforestation
d. irrigation
48) Process in removing excess odor in water.
a. sedimentation
b. chlorination
c. distillation
d. aeration
49) One of the planets has the greatest gravitational pull. Which one is it?
a. Mars
b. Earth
c. Mercury
d. Jupiter
50) He evolved the Theory of Evolution in his book "Origin of Species"?
a. Albert Einstein
b. Charles Darwin
c. Johannes Kepler
d. Isaac Newton
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. B
21. D
22. B
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. B
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. D
38. C
39. B
40. B
41. C
42. D
43. C
44. C
45. B
46. A
47. A
48. D
49. D
50. B
NATURAL SCIENCE
1) Solar eclipse occurs when ________.
a. The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.
b. The Earth is between the Moon and the Sun.
c. The Sun is between the Earth and the Moon.
d. The Earth is behind the Sun.
2) What phase of the Moon is observed when it cannot be seen at all because it passes directly
between the Earth and the Sun?
a. New Moon
b. First quarter
c. Last Quarter
d. Full Moon
3) Fossils are mostly to be found in ________.
a. Sedimentary rocks
b. Igneous rocks
c. Metamorphic rocks
d. Plutonic rocks
4) Tropical disturbances are classified as tropical depression, tropical storm or typhoon. This
classification is based on the ________.
a. Amount of rainfall
b. Strength of the accompanying winds
c. Amount of rainfall and strength of accompanying winds
d. Origin of formation
5) The Philippines lies in the region where many volcanoes are active. This region is known as:
a. Wheel of Fire
b. Ring of Fire
c. Volcanic Rim
d. Archipelagic Fault Line
6) The following means help in controlling floods, EXCEPT:
a. Reforestation
b. Deforestation
c. Crop rotation
d. Construction of flood ways
7) Petroleum is formed by the ________.
a. decay of microorganisms under heat and pressure
b. heat from radioactive substances found in the mantle
c. volcanic eruptions that burn living matters
d. steam trapped underneath a geologic column
8) Farmers add commercial fertilizers to the soil to ________.
a. Speed up the decay of bacteria
b. Add mineral content
c. Activate the growth of earthworms
d. Enhance the growth of the roots
9) All of the following are reasons why terraces are built in Mountain Province, EXCEPT:
a. to accommodate excess run of water
b. to provide space for planting rice
c. to make the place beautiful
d. to provide steps for the natives to go up hill
10) When a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the plant cell will:
a. expand
b. rupture
c. shrink
d. have no effect on the plant cell.
11) Which of the following organisms is included in the Kingdom Plantae?
a. Magnolidae
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Prokaryotes
12) Which part of the brain is responsible for intelligence, memory and learned behavior? 
a. Cerebellum 
b. Cerebrum 
c. Medulla 
d. Thalamus
13) What is most likely happen when a species cannot adapt to the changes in the environment? 
a. It will be transform to another form 
b. It will become extinct 
c. It will be isolated 
d. It will grow old
14) A cold-blooded animal is one that ________.
a. lacks red corpuscles
b. lacks white corpuscles
c. has a variable body temperature
d. has a fixed body temperature
15) Spiders can be distinguished from insects by the fact that spiders have ________.
a. hard outer covering
b. four pairs of legs
c. large abdomens
d. biting mouth parts
16) A lot of malnourished children in Africa are found to have poor teeth and eyesight. This is
believed to be caused by deficiency in ________.
a. Vitamin A and D
b. Iodine
c. Vitamin C
d. Iron
17) The two chemical factors that can cause decomposition are:
a. death and cellular respiration
b. autolysis and photosynthesis
c. autolysis and putrefaction
d. putrefaction and respiration
18) How will genetic drift affect the population of rabbits that are living in a stable habitat with no
changes in the environment?
a. It will increase the population of the rabbits.
b. It will decrease the genetic variation of the rabbits
c. It will develop the dominance and superior traits of the rabbits.
d. It will enhance the appearance of new traits of the rabbits.
19) Which of the following is under the grass family?
a. Bamboo
b. Fern
c. Moss
d. Mushroom
20) The appendix, though a part of the large intestine, has no digestive function. It is therefore
called:
a. a heterogeneous organ
b. a vestigal structure
c. an addendum organ
d. an analogous structure
21) Which of the following is the by-product of photosynthesis?
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Carbohydrates
22) The protein shell of a virus is called ________.
a. Nucleolus
b. Capsid
c. Nucleus
d. Nucleic acid
23) What theory of evolution accounts for snake’s disappearance of legs and development of
giraffe’s long neck? 
a. Theory of use and disuse 
b. Theory of natural selection 
c. Theory of chromosomal change 
d. Theory of action and interaction
24) ________ is an aquatic blood-sucking annelid worm that can be used to facilitate
anticoagulation:
a. Earthworm
b. Leech
c. Flatworm
d. Remora
25) Which of the following is an example of non-pathogenic microorganisms?
a. Probiotics such as lactobacilli
b. Yersenia pestis
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Influenza SP
26) What stage in chicken pox considered very contagious?
a. When wounds are peeling off
b. When wounds have swollen
c. When all wounds have disappeared
d. During the first week
27) The main organ for respiration is the ________.
a. Nose
b. Lungs
c. Esophagus
d. Trachea
28) Which chemical substance produced by the body regulates and coordinates the functions and
activities of bodily organs:
a. gene
b. deoxyribonucleic acid
c. hormone
d. enzyme
29) All of the following are autotrophs, EXCEPT:
a. Fern
b. Grasshopper
c. Herb
d. Grass
30) What organism would most likely be in arctic environment?
a. Frog
b. Tutle
c. Rice birds
d. Walrus
31) Which of the following best describes the science of Ecology?
a. Living things
b. Rocks
c. Life and Environment
d. Weather and Climate
32) What do you call the natural environment where a certain organism lives and thrives?
a. Community
b. Habitat
c. Country
d. Ecosystem
33) When water from a river is mixed with sewage in a septic tank, water pollution occurs and this is
called ________.
a. Eutrophication
b. Hypertrophication
c. Hydrolysis
d. Water condensation
34) The Kyoto Protocol requires the reduction of greenhouse gases in the environment. This
practice advocates:
a. Environmental protection
b. Energy conservation
c. Ecological destruction
d. Sustainable development
35) Which body organ is responsible for the removal of waste from the blood and body fluids?
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. kidney
d. large intestine
36) At present, scientists report about the formation of holes in the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
This dangerous trend is being blamed on which of the following wrong practices?
a. The use of ozone itself on the surface or the Earth.
b. The excessive use of aerosols.
c. Removal of the protective cover like the green plants.
d. The use of soil fertilizers on Earth.
37) Where do producers obtain their energy? 
a. From other producers 
b. From the consumers 
c. From the decomposers 
d. From the sun
38) What term is used to describe the ability to maintain a constant internal environment? 
a. Metabolism 
b. Growth and Development 
c. Homeostasis 
d. Thermoregulation
39) What is the most common cause of cardiovascular disease? 
a. Fatty deposits in the arteries 
b. Inadequate supply of red blood cells 
c. Lack of sodium in the diet 
d. Increased heartbeat
40) Which is the smallest unit of life that can survive and reproduce on its own? 
a. Cell 
b. Organ 
c. Tissues 
d. Population
41) Which region of a vertebrate forebrain is considered with the neutral-endocrine control of
visceral activities? 
a. Cerebellum 
b. Thalamus 
c. Hypothalamus 
d. Pituitary
42) Which of the following is the building block of carbohydrates? 
a. Amino acid 
b. Nucleotide 
c. Fatty acid 
d. Monosaccharide
43) Why it is necessary men have more red blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood than women? 
a. Man does strenuous activities and need more energy 
b. They have bigger physique and need more blood 
c. Man waste more blood cells and need extra 
d. They are more prone to anemia disorders
44) Which of the following is the building block of protein? 
a. Amino acid 
b. Nucleotide 
c. Fatty acid 
d. Monosaccharide
45) Why are our lips “redder” than our palm? 
a. There is increased blood flow in the lips 
b. Lips are heavily keratinized 
c. Lip epidermis is thinner 
d. Many blood vessels are located around the lips
46) What is the branch of zoology that is devoted to the study of fish? 
a. Helminthology 
b. Ichthyology 
c. Entomology
d. Ornithology
47) We feel warmer just before it rains because __________. 
a. Heat is released by the evaporation of water 
b. The clouds prevent heat from escaping the earth 
c. There is an increased relative humidity 
d. Heat is released by the condensation of water vapor
48) Which of the following is not considered as a reproductive cell? 
a. Gamete 
b. Somatic cell 
c. Egg cell 
d. Sperm cell
49) What is that flap-like structure that prevents the food from going the wrong way during
swallowing? 
a. Epiglottis 
b. Larynx 
c. Esophagus 
d. Pharynx
50) Where does ectopic pregnancy occur? 
a. Uterus 
b. Ovary 
c. Cervix 
d. Fallopian tube
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. C - Amphibians and reptiles are examples of cold-blooded animals. The body temperature of
cold-blooded animals changes with the temperature of the environment.
15. B - The spiders is one of the organisms that belongs to class Arachnida. Arachnids have four
pairs of legs while insects have only three pairs of legs.
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. A - Bamboo is considered as the largest grass.
20. B
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. A - Non-pathogens are microorganisms that do not cause diseases. Lactobacilli, which are
inside the intestine helps digests food.
26. D
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. D
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. C
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. A
40. A
41. C
42. D
43. A
44. A
45. C
46. B
47. D
48. B
49. A
50. D
NATURAL SCIENCE
1) Which of the following BEST demonstrates the greenhouse principle? 
a. A heated aquarium 
b. A car with rolled-up windows 
c. A microwave oven 
d. A solar battery-powered calculator
2) Which law of force and motion explains this occurrence, when a rocket is propelled upward by
the powerful downward discharge of exhaust gases? 
a. Universal Gravitation 
b. Action and Reaction 
c. Applied Force 
d. Inertia
3) Why does a pendulum in a grandfather clock once set in motion continue to swing, thereby
regulating the clock's movement? This is due to the Law of: 
a. Universal Gravitation 
b. Action and Reaction 
c. Applied Force 
d. Inertia
4) Why does a bullet when discharged into the air eventually fall to the ground? This is due to the
Law of: 
a. Universal Gravitation 
b. Applied Force 
c. Inertia 
d. Action and Reaction
5) Which of the following will occur if a cold bottle of soda is left open on a kitchen counter? 
a. The pressure that the soda exerts on the bottle will increase. 
b. The temperature of the soda will decrease. 
c. The amount of dissolved carbon dioxide gas will decrease. 
d. The amount of dissolved carbon dioxide gas will remain the same.
6) In an experiment, a drop of blue ink is placed on the surface of a glass of water. In a few minutes,
the drop of ink is dispersed throughout the water, turning it light blue. The result of the experiment
proves that: 
a. molecules of ink and molecules of water are in constant motion. 
b. heat causes the ink to disperse. 
c. a new compound is formed by the combination of ink and water. 
d. ink molecules have less density than water molecule.
7) Each of the following objects is designed to employ the buoyancy principle, EXCEPT:
a. life preserver 
b. kite 
c. submarine 
d. canoe
8) An elderly woman suffered a stroke, a restriction of blood flow to the brain. If the stroke caused
to the right side of her body to become temporarily paralyzed, she most likely experienced a
decreased blood flow to: 
a. the left side of her body 
b. the front of her brain 
c. the left side of her brain 
d. the right side of her brain
9) In an experiment, a vacuum is created when all air is removed from a tube. A coin and bits of
confetti are released in the vacuum at the same time. They fall at the same rate and reach the
bottom at the same time. The experiment proves that 
I. in a vacuum, the rate of acceleration is the same for all objects regardless of weight. 
II. outside a vacuum, air resistance is what makes different objects fall at different rates. 
III. gravity has no effect at all on objects that fall in a vacuum. 
a. I and II 
b. I and III 
c. I, II and III 
d. II and III
10) New peonies, perennial plants that produce showy flowers can be propagated from the parent
plant by dividing corns that grow underground. This reproductive form resembles a:
a. bulb 
b. runner 
c. seed 
d. bud
11) Which antidote would have a similar effect if vinegar or citrus juice were not available? 
a. Milk 
b. Raw egg white 
c. Vegetable oil 
d. Water
12) Which is NOT among the hazardous effects of water pollution to health? 
a. The epidemic threat of hepatitis and dysentery. 
b. The increase incidence of liver cancer. 
c. The dumping of mercury in the sea causing blindness, brain damage, or death. 
d. The presence of certain bacteria in the digestive tract causing methemoglobinemia.
13) A tightly coiled spring demonstrate? 
a. Steam energy 
b. Kinetic energy 
c. Potential energy 
d. Chemical energy
14) Which of the following methods can all diabetics control their condition and avoid heart disease
and blindness? 
I. Regulating their intake of glucose 
II. Increasing the levels of insulin in the body by taking insulin injections 
III. Maintaining a reasonable exercise regimen to keep weight down 
a. I 
b. II 
c. I and II 
d. I and III
15) The invention of telescope is very significant because:
a. It brightens the light coming from the stars.
b. It analyzes the composition of the planet.
c. It allows the observations of far objects.
d. It determines the age of the stars.
16) Which scientist paved the way for modern exploration by advancing the theory that planets
revolve around the sun:
a. Ptolemy
b. Aristotle
c. Copernicus
d. Harvey
17) Rottenstone, rouge, and whiting are used for _______. 
a. polishing 
b. sterilizing 
c. cleaning 
d. filling porous wood surfaces
18) The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the ________. 
a. optic nerve 
b. cornea 
c. iris 
d. retina
19) The one that produces the quickest heat energy per pound is ________. 
a. bread 
b. roast beef 
c. fried chicken 
d. fish with butter
20) The statement that a buoyant force on a floating body is equal to the weight of fluid displaced is
known as the principle or law of ________. 
a. Boyle 
b. Newton 
c. Archimedes 
d. Bernoulli
21) Flowers that have no fragrance are usually pollinated by ________. 
a. insects 
b. wind 
c. birds 
d. small animals
22) Scientist tend to replicate the measurements during an experiment. The main reason behind this
is for them to?
a. estimate the experimental error
b. list the data in a tabulation
c. change the experimental conditions
d. find out if the equipment is working
23) Arrange the following steps in the most logical order of scientific investigation.
I. Formulate the hypothesis
II. Perform the experiment
III. State the problem
IV. Draw the generalization
a. III, II, I, IV
b. III, IV, II, I
c. III, I, II, IV
d. III, II, IV, I
24) Roger and Henry are doing their experiments; both use the same kind of materials, same
amount of different liquids, and same place where they performed their experiment. What is the
variable in the experiment?
a. Bottles
b. Amount of liquid
c. Kind of liquid
d. Place of experiment
25) What is the importance of control set-up in experimentation?
a. It will identify the variables in the experiment.
b. It will provide a basis of comparison between treated and untreated subjects.
c. It will provide a basis for measuring data.
d. It will eliminate mechanical errors in experimentations.
26) Linda formulated a hypothesis that anthurium flower will grow larger if fish bone is added to the
soil. She has two experimental plots of anthurium, one with fish bone and the other without fish
bone. Which data should she be collected to support this hypothesis?
a. Height of anthurium plant in both plots.
b. Length of growing time in both plots.
c. Size of anthurium flower in both plots.
d. Amount of fish bone in both plots.
27) The process of comparing one quantity with the corresponding standard is called ________.
a. Measurement
b. Formulation
c. Interpolation
d. Extrapolation
28) Which of the following relationships is CORRECT?
a. A meter is less than a kilometer.
b. A second is more than a minute.
c. A centigram is equal to a milligram.
d. A decimeter is greater than a decameter.
29) Matter is anything that has ________.
a. weight and volume
b. mass and volume
c. weight and mass
d. mass and shape
30) A student walks from home to school 3 blocks away and then returns home for lunch. After
lunch, he goes back to school. His total displacement is ________.
a. 0 blocks
b. 3 blocks
c. 6 blocks
d. 9 blocks
31) Which description below shows the fastest runner?
a. The one with the longest recorded time.
b. The one with the farthest distance travelled.
c. The one with the farthest distance travelled at longer recorded time.
d. The one with the farthest distance travelled at shorter recorded time.
32) What property of matter is involved in the sign, "Fasten Your Seat Belt"?
a. Acceleration
b. Inertia
c. Interaction
d. Impenetrability
33) Two items of similar shapes and weights are dropped simultaneously from a ten-storey building.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the falling rate (acceleration) of the objects?
a. The weight of the objects has no effect on the falling rate.
b. The shape of the objects has a minor effect on the falling rate.
c. The resistance of the air has no effect on the falling rate.
d. The distance of the fall has an effect on the falling rate.
34) Which laboratory equipment/s is/are used to find whether a ring is genuine or fake?
I. Platform balance
II. Graduated cylinder
III. Beaker
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. I, II and III
35) Which of the following situations is true as a boat moves from salty sea to fresh water river?
a. It sinks deeper
b. It floats higher
c. It stays at the same level
d. It moves faster
36) Which of the following is conserved when a pendulum is swinging?
a. Mass
b. Momentum
c. Energy
d. Weight
37) Which statement best explains why ice is a good refrigerant?
a. It cools by evaporation.
b. It absorbs heat while melting.
c. It conducts heat quickly.
d. It does not melt inside the rerigerator.
38) An object becoomes positively charge if it ________.
a. gains protons
b. gains electrons
c. loses protons
d. loses electrons
39) Atoms consist of three fundamental particles. What are these particles and their charges?
a. proton (-), neutron (+), electron (neutral)
b. proton (+), netron (-), electron (neutral)
c. proton (+), neutron (neutral), electron (-)
d. proton (-), neutron (neutral), electron (+)
40) Which element in the periodic table has the Symbol "Ca"?
a. Cadmium
b. Calcium
c. Carbon
d. Californium
41) Ions are formed by ________.
a. gaining or losing electrons
b. gaining or losing protons
c. sharing protons
d. sharing electrons
42) All of the following are charcteristics of metals, EXCEPT ________.
a. good conductor
b. brittleness
c. malleability
d. ductility
43) Which is true about metalloids?
a. Have properties of both metals and non-metals.
b. Conduct electricity better than metals.
c. Conduct heat better than metals.
d. Conduct heat and electricity less effective than non-metals.
44) Which of the following is an element?
a. Water
b. Ethanol
c. Neon
d. Crude Oil
45) In a flame test, what is the color of the flame if there is a presence of boron in a solution?
a. Brick red
b. Yellow gold
c. Royal blue
d. Bright green
46) Which warning label indicates a chemical property of the aterial being labelled?
a. Fragile
b. Handle with care
c. Shake well
d. Flammable
47) Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
a. Melting of candle
b. Rusting of iron
c. Dissolving sugar
d. Boiling of water
48) A change in state from solid to gas without passing the liquid state is called ________.
a. Solidification
b. Evaporation
c. Condensation
d. Sublimation
49) The radiosotope which is now used in cancer radiation treatment is ________.
a. Cobalt 60
b. Uranium 238
c. Sodium 24
d. Iodine 131
50) Which radioactive radiation coming from external sources is most dangerous to human body?
a. X-rays
b. Alpha radiation
c. Beta radiation
d. Gamma radiation
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. C
24. C - All the factors given in the experiment do not change except for the kind of liquid as
indicated by the phrase "different liquids."
25. C
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. B - Displacement is a vector, so the direction is also to be considered. When the student returns
home, the 3 blocks displacement is cancelled and going back to school will give 3 blocks.
31. D
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. A
36. C
37. B
38. D
39. C
40. B
41. B
42. C
43. A
44. C - Ethanol and water are compounds while crude oil is a mixture.
45. D
46. D
47. B
48. D
49. A
50. D
NATURAL SCIENCE
1) Wild plants and animals that stay deposited for thousand of years are known for the source of: 
a. gas 
b. oil 
c. mineral 
d. pearls
2) Gemillina is a tree propagated lately for electrical posts. However, this specie was found
destructive if allowed to stay long since:
a. The tree is not resistant to wind 
b. The roots absorb a lot of water 
c. The body spreads wide 
d. The bark is filled with woms
3) Propagation of a new carabao breed in Central Luzon State University is due to: 
a. a sexual propagation 
b. law of heredity 
c. law of mutation 
d. genetic cloning
4) Children of obese parents have natural tendencies to be obese. Doctors advise parents on
maintaining the right weight of children age 0-12 by: 
a. giving balanced diets with accompanying exercise 
b. reducing milk intake 
c. reducing intake of chocolates, candies and pasties 
d. encouraging more intake of soda drinks
5) Kitchen fuel that caused big conflagration in homes and cites are: 
a. Use of electrics stoves 
b. Use of firewood 
c. Use of saw dust for fuels 
d. Use of gas stove
6) Excursions are encouraged to allow participants to see places. All the 400 personnel fell ill.
Doctors laboratory finding traced the cause to: 
a. congestion on the bus 
b. food poisoning 
c. excitement 
d. excessive fat
7) In June, classes in home economics are asked to prepare fruits into: 
a. Preserved fruit juices 
b. Preserved fruit confections 
c. Conserved fruit juices 
d. Preserved fruit products
8) The areas of Navotas, Valenzuela and Caloocan are always flooded during rainy season. The
engineers account this to high tide especially in July and August. But really it is: 
a. below sea level 
b. approximately of sea level 
c. under sea level 
d. above sea level
9) Theresa is a campaign against cholera. How can the pupils get protected catching the disease? 
a. Contact the parents for a meeting 
b. Teach children to wash their hands before and after meals 
c. Open up a store in the classroom for children’s recess snack 
d. Allow children to eat food sold by peddlers
10) Poisoning of farmers during fertilizing field is traced to: 
a. smoking during and after spraying 
b. using bottle drinking 
c. failure to use hand gloves 
d. spraying fields at high noon
11) Australian experts were asked to explore a better way of generating electricity. This is through:
a. undersea cable transmission 
b. sulphuric reserve actuation 
c. waterfall reserve actuation 
d. geothermal utilization
12) DOGS are often affected by rabies but lately other animals have been identified and they are: 
a. birds 
b. cats 
c. pigs 
d. snakes
13) Transplanting of human organs are no longer impossible. The most recent discovery in Russia
is: 
a. heart transplant 
b. kidney transplant 
c. retina eye transplant 
d. placenta transplant
14) Honey is extracted from bees. To ensure a supply of honey for food and medicine. What has
been resorted lately? 
a. Discourage the use of pesticides in honey farms 
b. Gather honey from the forest 
c. Encourage bee farm in chosen areas 
d. Culture honey bees for propagation
15) Mosquitoes have been identified of having caused illness among children bitten in the morning.
This fever is: 
a. Asthma 
b. Malaria 
c. Dengue 
d. Diarrhea
16) The people of Montalban in Rizal raised protest on the landfill since: 
a. Water seepage would pollute water source 
b. People were disturbed by garbage trucks 
c. Air pollution could not be controlled 
d. Garbage cold be recycled
17) There had been plants discovered as effective insect repellants. Which of these plants belong to
the group? 
a. Orchids 
b. Bouganvilla 
c. Gumamela 
d. Cosmos
18) A diet full of animal fat usually come up with patients found ill of ________.
a. Diabetes 
b. Kidney malfunction 
c. Hypertension 
d. Sclerosis
19) Sea turtles multiply fast because they propagate through: 
a. egg hatching 
b. transfusion 
c. migrate 
d. mutation
20) Clogged blood vessels often cause heart ailment. What process is used by cardiologists
whereby clogged arteries are replaced? 
a. Angioplasty 
b. Plastic surgery 
c. Heart bypass 
d. X-ray
21) To avoid the thinning of the ozone layer, what should be avoided in waste disposal? 
a. Dumping waste in the river 
b. Dumping waste into landfills 
c. Dumping waste into the sea 
d. Burning garbage in pits
22) Children with smallpox, chickenpox, or measles should be segregated or quarantined. When
should this be done? 
a. The set of the fever 
b. The first days of skin wound healing 
c. The first week upon skin eruption 
d. The most infections stage is within 2 days of the fever
23) Immunization is done by health authorities to children age 2 months to 2 years old. Vaccination
is to stop the spread of: 
a. Chlolera 
b. Rabies 
c. Meads 
d. Diptheria
24) Which one should be TRUE if Earth's rotation axis did not tilt? 
I. Days and nights would be the same length everywhere on Earth. 
II. There would be no hours of darkness on points along the equator. 
III. Earth would have no seasons.
IV. Each part of the Earth would have the same daily temperature pattern. 
a. II and IV 
b. III and IV 
c. IVand I 
d. I and III
25) Tides, caused by the moon's gravity, create a frictional force that is gradually slowing down
Earth's rotation speed. One million years from now, scientist may discover that compared to today,
Earth's 
a. day is shorter 
b. year is longer 
c. day is longer 
d. year is shorter
26) What indoor relative humidity range would probably be comfortable when the outside
temperature and humidity levels are extremely low? 
a. 90 to 100% 
b. 50 to 70% 
c. 20 to 30% 
d. 30 to 40%
27) Which of the following facts support the Big Bang theory's explanation of the creation of the
universe? 
a. The universe does not expand nor contract. 
b. The universe seldoms expand. 
c. The universe will have background radiation. 
d. The universe has no beginning nor end.
28) Which of the following is the BEST example of self-preservation? 
a. A mouse runs when it sees a cat. 
b. A dog barks when it sees its owner. 
c. A young man decides to quit smoking 
d. A salmon swims back to the place of its birth to lay eggs.
29) Which of the following internal forces interrupt the external forces of erosion? 
I. Forces that cause volcanoes 
II. Forces that cause ocean trenchers 
III. Forces that create mountains 
a. I, II and III 
b. I and III 
c. II and III 
d. I and II
30) Which location should have most nearly twelve hours of daylight and twelve hours of darkness
during December? A town that is located:
a. halfway between the Equator and the South Pole
b. close to the Equator
c. close to the North Pole
d. close to the South Pole
31) At which time during the year does the ozone level present a particular health threat in urban
areas for people with respiratory problems? 
a. Spring 
b. Fall 
c. Summer 
d. Winter
32) Which of the following procedures used by a farmer is NOT related directly to preventing
erosion? 
a. Contour plowing around a hill 
b. Planting more seeds than are necessary to yield a bountiful crop. 
c. Planting grass in gullies to act as a filter 
d. Planting crops in alternate rows (strip farming)
33) A nation in which loess would likely be found today is?
a. Iceland 
b. United States 
c. Japan 
d. Ecuador
34) Which one explains why oxygen, a gas, is the largest component of the Earth’s crust? 
a. Oxygen gives Earth's crust its lightness 
b. Oxygen is the most abundant element in the world 
c. Oxygen is capable of combining with most of the elements in the Earth's crust. 
d. Oxygen is needed to sustain all life on Earth.
35) Which is the BEST evidence that helium gas is lighter than air? 
a. Helium has the lowest boiling point of all elements. 
b. Helium atoms do not combine with other air atoms. 
c. Helium-filled balloons rise in air. 
d. By volume, helium makes up only 0.0005% of air.
36) In which kingdom should MOLD be classified? 
a. Protista 
b. Plantae 
c. Fungi 
d. Animalia
37) Damage to the ________ can result in what is called "Gerstmann's Syndrome." It includes
difficulty with writing (agraphia) and difficulty with mathematics (acalculia). It can also produce
disorders of language (aphasia) and the inability to perceive objects normally (agnosia).
a. The left occipital lobe 
b. The left parietal lobe 
c. The right parietal lobe 
d. The right occipital lobe
38) Scientists also find that other stalky vegetables such as carrots also help lower blood pressure.
This statements is BEST classified as: 
a. experiment 
b. nonessential fact 
c. finding 
d. prediction
39) The Jones family has had four children, all girls. The fifth child born is a boy. This change is the
result of: 
a. conception classes taken by the parents. 
b. the timing of the fertility cycles. 
c. the father's contribution of a "Y" chromosome. 
d. the "law of averages" finally catching up.
40) Which of the following should you expect to be true about the rate of cellular respiration for a
group of students who are the same age, height, and weight? 
a. Athletes would tend to have higher rates of cellular respiration than non-athletes. 
b. Africans would have a higher rate of cellular respiration than Asians. 
c. Boys would have a higher rate of cellular respiration than girls. 
d. Non-athletes would have higher rates of cellular respiration than athletes.
41) What is the function of DIFFUSION in the human body? 
a. Regulates blood flow 
b. Plays an insignificant role in the body's functioning 
c. Allows an even distribution of substances throughout all cells of the body 
d. Comes into play in times of extreme illness
42) What is the MOST likely reason for a desert plant to have a few or no leaves? 
a. To increase photosynthesis 
b. To decrease photosynthesis 
c. To increase transpiration 
d. To decrease transpiration
43) It was also discovered that the chemical 3m butylphthalide can lower the blood pressure of rats.
This statement is classified as 
a. prediction 
b. experiment 
c. finding 
d. nonessential fact
44) Which kingdom should STREPTOCOCCUS be classified? 
a. Protista 
b. Plantae 
c. Fungi 
d. Monera
45) Which of the following methods can all diabetics control their condition and avoid heart disease
and blindness? 
I. Regulating their intake of glucose 
II. Increasing the levels of insulin in the body by taking insulin injections 
III. Maintaining a reasonable exercise regimen to keep weight down. 
a. I 
b. II 
c. I and II 
d. I and III
46) Without the process of meiosis, we can infer that offspring from sexual reproduction would: 
a. have a high degree of genetic variety 
b. have twice the assigned number of chromosomes 
c. be identical 
d. have a number of mutations
47) Which method of reproduction provides for the most variety of offspring? 
a. Cloning 
b. Sexual reproduction 
c. Asexual reproduction 
d. Cellular reproduction
48) What does a stick of unlit dynamite demonstrate? 
a. Chemical Energy 
b. Nuclear Energy 
c. Kinetic Energy 
d. Potential Energy
49) The principle under which a thermostat operates is the same when: 
a. a gas expands to fill the container in which it is held. 
b. a pendulum swings when it is set into motion. 
c. a chemical reaction occurs when two substances combine. 
d. the level of mercury rises or falls in a glass tube
50) What do you predict will happen when you bring two bar magnets closer together? 
a. They will repel each other. 
b. They will create an alternating current. 
c. Nothing will happen. 
d. They will attract each other.
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. C
16. A
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. D
24. D
25. A
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. B
37. B
38. C
39. D
40. C
41. C
42. D
43. B
44. C
45. D
46. D
47. B
48. D
49. A
50. D
NATURAL SCIENCE
1) Parkinson’s disease is a brain disease which is characterized by loss of nerve cells in which part
of the brain?
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Cerebral Cortex
d. Brain stem
2) Symbiosis is defined by biologists as individuals of different species living together in intimate
association, regardless of whether the association is harmful, neutral, or beneficial. All of the
following pairs are examples of symbiosis EXCEPT:
a. ants and aphids
b. human and tapeworms
c. cats and mice
d. dogs and cats
3) Which of the following statement about atomic structure is NOT right?
a. All atoms of the same atomic numbers are atoms of the same element.
b. An atom can gain or lose electrons without changing its charge.
c. Atoms are mostly empty space.
d. Most of the mass of the atom is concentrated in its nucleus.
4) Which of the following statements is TRUE of nuclear fission?
a. The energy process is identical to that which occurs in the sun.
b. Energy is obtained by getting nucleus of the atoms to break up or split.
c. Matter from the lighter atoms is changed into energy.
d Scientists can combine lighter atoms to form heavier atoms.
5) All of the following statements about the routinary use of pesticides are TRUE, EXCEPT:
a. Due to the widespread use of DDT, a new type of housefly emerged.
b. It results in the evolution of exciting new types of organisms.
c. It may not only kill the intended insects but also those that feed on them.
d. Pesticides tend to become progressively less effective as the organisms become immune.
6) The skull of a person increases in size rapidly during ________.
a. puberty
b. babyhood
c. adolescence
d. adulthood
7) Apparently, the loss of weight of objects immersed in a fluid is due to ________.
a. Archimedes principle
b. Specific gravity
c. Newton’s theory
d. Buoyant force
8) Metabolism and combustion are chemically similar. They both result in the oxidation of some
compounds. If completely oxidated, which of the following foodstuffs would yield the MOST thermal
energy?
a. A cup of ice cream
b. A cup of sugar
c. A cup of milk
d. A cup of flour
9) In countries where medical skill and public understanding about health and disease are
widespread, which of the following changing are evident?
I. Accidental deaths have decreased.
II. The communicable disease death rate has decreased.
III. Infant mortality rate has decreased.
IV. More people live a full life
V. People live along enough succumb to degenerative disease.
a. I, II, III
b. II, III, IV, V
c. I, II, III, IV, V
d. I, II, III, IV
10) Which of the following parts of the circulatory system carries digested fats away from the small
intestines?
a. Pancreatic duct
b. Arterial capillaries
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Lacteals
11) During processing and cooling which part of food is mostly destroyed?
a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Vitamins
d. Carbohydrates
12) When water evaporates, it changes into which of the following states?
a. Solid
b. Matter
c. Gaseous
d. Liquid
13) Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about comets?
a. Comets are mostly frozen gases and cosmic dust.
b. Comets glow by their own light.
c. Comets generally have elongated elliptical orbits.
d. Comets may go around the sun in any direction.
14) What is the first element in the periodic table?
a. Helium
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon
15) A change in the shape or size of an object can be classified as ________.
a. mechanical change
b. physical change
c. nuclear change
d. chemical change
16) In what state are most matter in the universe?
a. Gas
b. Liquid
c. Solid
d. Plasma
17) Two glass tumblers that are stuck one inside the other may be loosened by –
a. pouring cold water on the outside tumbler after filling the inside tumbler with equally cold water.
b. pouring hot water on the outside tumbler after filling the inside tumbler with equally hot water.
c. pouring cold water on the outside tumbler after filling the inside tumbler with hot water.
d. pouring hot water on the outside tumbler after filling the inside tumbler with cold water.
18) A thermometer measures _________.
a. energy
b. heat
c. pressure
d. temperature
19) What is the color of the hottest star in the universe?
a. red
b. blue
c. yellow
d. orange
20) Which of the following forms of energy travels in waves?
a. Chemical energy
b. Sound energy
c. Light energy
d. Electrical energy
21) A British physician and bacteriologist, Sir Ronald Ross was awarded the Nobel Prize in
medicine for his researches in the _________.
a. liquid fuel rocket
b. prevention of hepatitis
c. transmission of malaria
d. control of cholera
22) When lighted, the energy of the alcohol in a lamp is?
a. lost while heating is done.
b. transformed from chemical to mechanical energy.
c. transformed from chemical energy to heat energy.
d. completely destroyed.
23) Which process occurs solid is changed into gas?
a. Evaporation
b. Condensation
c. Sublimation
d. Decomposition
24) The first Filipino who was declared as a natural scientist and who has contributed much in
discovering local plants that can be use as medicine is ________.
a. Dr. Pacifico Marcos
b. Dr. Henry Moseley
c. Dr. Eliseo Kintanar
d. Dr. Alfredo Santos
25) Two items of similar shapes and weights are drop simultaneously in a building. Which of the
following statement is correct about the falling objects?
a. The shape of the object has a minor effect on the falling rate.
b. The weight of the object has no effect on the falling rate.
c. The distance of the fall has an effect on the falling rate.
d. The resistance of the air has no effect on the falling rate.
26) Thyroid can be destroyed through:
a. radioactive zinc
b. radioactive manganese
c. radioactive carbon
d. radioactive iodine
27) A soda-acid type of fire extinguisher is recommended for putting out fires which involves
burning ________.
a. insulation on wires
b. vegetable oil
c. dry chemicals
d. panted woodwork
28) An atom or a group of atoms which has an excess/deficiency of electrons are called ________.
a. neutron
b. proton
c. ion
d. molecules
29) Fossils are most likely to be found in?
a. Metamorphic rocks
b. Igneous rocks
c. Sedimentary rocks
d. Ocean floor
30) If a doctor describes a patient as dehydrated, he means that the patient ________.
a. has a contagious disease
b. needs insulin
c. needs oxygen
d. has lost a great deal of water
31) Radium was discovered by:
a. Albert Einstein
b. Pierre and Marie Currie
c. Joseph John Thompson
d. Albert Van Haller
32) Astronauts strap themselves to a wall or bunk when they sleep. This is because during a change
of shuttle velocity an unstrapped sleeping astronaut would likely slump into the shuttle wall and be
injured. These astronauts have to be strapped down because?
a. They are unable to sleep while floating free in space.
b. Gravity is weak to have them remain in bed.
c. Their body functions have to be constantly monitored.
d. Their bodies have inertia.
33) Acid become colorless when added with –
a. Litmus Indicator
b. Methyl Orange Indicator
c. Universal Indicator
d. Phenolphthalein Indicator
34) The history of the earth has been divided by scientists into eras. Which of the following shows
that arrangement of these areas into the paper sequence from the oldest to the most recent?
a. Precambrian, Mesozoic, Cenozoic, Paleozoic.
b. Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian, Mesozoic.
c. Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian.
d. Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic.
35) Which of the following is closest to normal body temperature?
a. 32 degrees Fahrenheit
b. 50 degrees Celsius
c. 212 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 37 degrees Celsius
36) Sulfuric acid is not used in
a. Making Fertilizers
b. Detergents
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
37) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
I. Water in a cup and water in a pot at 100 degree Celsius have molecules of the same degree of
activity.
II. It takes more burning of fuel to produce a pot full of boiling water than to produce a cup full of
water.
III. The unit used in measuring the quantity of heat is the calorie.
IV. A pot full of water has a greater number of active molecules than those of a cup full of water.
a. II and IV only
b. All of these statements
c. None of these statements
d. I and III only
38) Which of the following causes the seasons?
a. The rotation of the Earth around the Sun.
b. The rotation of the Sun around the Earth.
c. The distance of the Earth around the Sun.
d. The tilting of the Earth on its axis.
39) Which of the following statements best explain why copper is the metal most widely used in
electrical wiring?
a. It is the best conductor of electricity.
b. It is cheaper than aluminum.
c. It is better conductor than aluminum and cheaper than silver.
d. It has high resistance to electricity.
40) To achieve ecological balance, which of the following sets of components should an aquarium
contain.
a. Water, fish
b. Water, snail, fish
c. Water, plants, fish
d. Water, plants, snail, fish
ANSWERS:
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. C
13. D
14. B
15. B
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. C
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. C
30. D
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. D
35. D
36. D
37. B
38. D
39. C
40. D
1) Which one of these revolving weather is the smallest?
a. Hurricane
b. Tornado
c. Tropical cyclone
d. Typhoon
2) What happens when the rate of evaporation equals the rate of condensation?
a. Clouds form
b. Precipitation occurs
c. The humidity decreases
d. The dew point is reached
3) Which is the cause of change of seasons?
a. The roation of the Earth
b. The tilt of Earth's axis
c. The rain-shadow effect
d. The sizes and shapes of land surface features
4) What causes changes in weather?
a. Cloud formation
b. Water evaporation
c. Air humidity
d. Air masses interaction
5) What part of the atmosphere protects Earth's suface from harmful ultraviolet radiation?
a. Exosphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Troposphere
6) The aurora borealis and aurora australis are caused by the interaction between charged particles
and Earth's magnetic field. What layer of Earth's atmosphere contains these particles?
a. Exosphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Ozonosphere
d. Thermosphere
7) Which is a depp layer of electrically charged molecules and atoms that reflects radio waves?
a. Exosphere
b. Ionosphere
c. Radiosphere
d. Troposphere
8) The Earth completes one revolution around the sun in 365 1/4 days. Compared to earth, how
long does it takes Mercury to complete one revolution?
a. Less than the Earth
b. Greater than the Earth
c. The same as the Earth
d. Cannot be determined
9) What two properties of stars are being directly compared in the Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram?
I. Size
II. Temperature
III. Luminuosity
IV. Density
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. I and IV
10) How is the atmospheric pressure of Mars when compared to the atmospheric pressure of the
Earth?
a. Half as much as that of that Earth
b. About the same as the Earth
c. About 1/100th that of the Earth
d. About 100 times as great as the Earth
11) Which of the following statements is TRUE for both Saturn and Jupiter?
a. Both rotate faster than the Earth
b. Both rotate slower than the Earth
c. Only one rotates rapidly while the other rotates very slowly
d. Their periods of rotation are linked to their period of revolution
12) According to Kepler's Laws, what is the shape of all orbits of the planets?
a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Oblate spheroid
d. Parabola
13) What is the first successful space station program that tested the ability of astronauts to work
for long periods and studied their body responses to weightless conditions?
a. Apollo 11
b. Sputnik 1
c. Salyut
d. US Skylab
14) The universe is estimated to be between 10 and 20 billion years old. This estimate is based on
the value of which constant?
a. Speed of light
b. Hubble constant
c. Mass of the Earth
d. Mass of the electron
15) On which of the following planets would the sun rise in the west?
a. Mars
b. Jupiter
c. Saturn
d. Venus
16) Which of the following describes an albedo?
a. brightness of the star
b. phase changes of a planet
c. wobbling motion of a planet
d. amount of light a planet reflects
17) Where are most asteroids located?
a. between Earth and Mars
b. between Mars and Venus
c. between Mars and Jupiter
d. between Jupiter and Saturn
18) Which refers to the precession of the Earth?
a. Change from night to day
b. Earth's motion around the sun
c. Effect of the moon on the Earth's orbit
d. Change in orientation of the Earth's axis
19) What kind of eclips do we see when the moon is entirely within Earth's umbral shadow?
a. total solar
b. total lunar
c. partial solar
d. partial lunar
20) At which phase of the moon do solar eclipse occur?
a. Full moon
b. First quarter
c. New moon
d. Third quarter
21) If a lunar eclipse occurs tonight, when is the soonest that a solar elcipse can occur?
a. Tomorrow
b. In two weeks
c. In one month
d. In one year
22) Which one is considered as one of the most important results of the Apollo missions to the
moon?
a. Discovery of subsurface water.
b. Determination of the age of moon rocks.
c. First observations of surface features called craters.
d. Proof that craters were produced by volcanic eruptions.
23) What is the problem experienced by astronauts staying for long periods of time aboard the
international space station?
a. Weight loss due to diet
b. Reduced exposure to sunlight
c. Muscle loss due to lack of exercise
d. Effects of lower gravity on the body
24) NASA developed a filtration process to make waste water on space flights renewable. Where
might this filtration process be used on Earth?
a. In areas where water is salty.
b. In areas where water is contaminated.
c. In areas where water is used for recreation.
d. In areas where water contains hard minerals.
25) What must be done in order to preserve the biosphere for future generations?
a. Put all wild animals and game preserves.
b. Make use of technology to develop.
c. Explore ways to drain and fill wetlands along the sea coast.
d. Understand how living things interact with their environment.
26) Which of the following can help ensure a suitable environment for the future generations?
a. Biological controls
b. Chemical dumps
c. Fossil fuels
d. Pesticides
27) Which human activity would be more likely to have a negative impact on the environment?
a. Investigating the use of the biological controls for the pests.
b. Using reforestation and cover cropping to control soil erosion.
c. Using insecticides to kill insects that compete with human for food.
d. Developing a research aimed toward the preservation of endangered species.
28) Which is the main cause of the depletion of the ozone layer?
a. Decrease in temperature.
b. Decrease in the amount of air pollutants.
c. Increase in number of marine ecosystem.
d. Increase in temperature due to atmospheric pollutants.
29) DDT was used to kill mosquitoes. It was observed that lizards that ate the mosquitoes slowed
down and died. Eventually, the population of cats that ate lizards diminished. What can be inferred
from this situation?
a. DDT can cause harm to all organisms.
b. Using DDT is a reliable way to eliminate insect predators.
c. The mosquito and other organisms were all competing for same resources.
d. Environmental changes that affect one population can affect other population.
30) Teddy is a seasoned famer updated on new trends in agriculture. In his effort to make and
harvest the best rice crops, he tried to implement the environmentalist's way of controlling pests as
mandated in the integrated pest management. Teddy later found out that all of the following
processes made best contributions to a good and safe harvest EXCEPT ________.
a. use of natural enemies
b. planting variety of crops
c. use of narrow-spectrum pesticides
d. use of genetically engineered crops
31) What is the most important factor for the success of animal population?
a. Adaptability
b. Interspecies activity
c. Natality
d. Unlimited food
32) Why does starvation occur?
a. There is not enough fertile land worldwide on which to grow food.
b. Forces in nature (drought, pests, floods) wipe out food supplies.
c. Population is growing at a faster rate than the world's ability to produce.
d. Some parts of the world lack food while other parts of the world produce more than they
consume.
33) Which of the following presents the greatest threat to the survival of numerous plants and
animal species.
a. Greenhouse effect
b. Continued burning of fossil fuel
c. Disappearance of world's rainforest
d. Dumping of toxic waste in the least industrialized nations
34) Which factor BEST explains why the human population has grown so rapidly over the last 100
years?
a. Humans have decreased their reliance on natural resources.
b. Humans have increased the amount of resources available on Earth.
c. Humans have increased the carrying capacity of the biosphere for the population.
d. Humans have developed physical characteristics that increase their competitive advantage.
35) Which human activity causes maximum environmental pollution having regional and global
impact?
a. Agriculture
b. Industrialization
c. Mining
d. Urbanization
36) Which of the following statements in relation to sustainable development is FALSE?
a. Sustainability has the main objective of purely focusing on the natural environment.
b. Sustainable development of various countries and the entire world is the only solution left with
mankind to survive for a longer period on Earth.
c. Sustainable development not only considers the protection of the environment but also the
maintenance of economic viability as well as social and ethical considerations.
d. Sustainable development is defined as the development that meets the needs of present without
compromising the ability of our future generations to meet their own needs.
37) What is the process of converting nitrate to nitrogen gas and nitrous oxide?
a. Ammonification
b. Denitrification
c. Nitrogen fixation
d. Transpiration
38) Which of the following chemicals enters living organisms primarily from the atmosphere rather
than from rocks or soil?
a. Calcium
b. Carbon
c. Sodium
d. Sulfur
39) What is the conversion of atmospheric free nitrogen gas to ammonia which occurs through the
activities of certain bacteria and cyanobacteria?
a. Denitrification
b. Nitrification
c. Nirogen fixation
d. Oxidation
40) How do animals get the nitrogen they need?
a. Directly from bacteria in the soil
b. From the process of denitrification
c. By breathing in atmospheric nitrogen
d. By consuming plants or other animals
41) The following are ways by which phosphorous enters the environment EXCEPT ________.
a. Run off
b. Animal waste
c. Erosion of rocks
d. Photosynthesis in plants
42) Because of biogeochemical cycling?
a. Nutrients are circulated throughout the biosphere.
b. The Earth creates new chemicals that replace those that were used up by organisms.
c. Organisms eventually run out of needed elements, compounds and other form of matter.
d. Human activity has no effects on elements, chemical compounds, and other forms of matter.
43) Which of the biogeochemical cycles can impact all of the others most directly?
a. Carbon cycle
b. Hydrologic cycle
c. Nitrogen cycle
d. Phosphorous cycle
44) What human activity has added the most carbon in the atmosphere?
a. Burning fossil fuels
b. Mining fossil fuels
c. Increasing soil erosion
d. Cutting down the rainforests
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. D
30. C
31. A
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. B
38. B
39. C
40. D
41. D
42. A
43. B
44. A
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
1) Albert Einstein's Second Postulate of Special Relativity states that the speed of light ________.
a. can decrease if the speed of the observer decreases
b. can increase if the speed of light source increases
c. randomly changes depending upon its original light source
d. is constant regardless of the speed of the observer or the light source
2) A passenger train travels east at high speed. One passenger is located at the east side of one
car, another is located at the west side of that car. In the train frame, these two passengers glance
up at the same time. In the earth's frame ________.
a. they glance up simultaneously
b. the passengers glance sideways
c. the passenger at the east side glances up first
d. the passenger at the west side glances up first
3) Beniell travels at high speed from Earth to the star Alpha Centauri which is four years away.
Which one is CORRECT in Beniell's frame?
a. The clocks on earth and on Alpha Centauri are syncghronized.
b. The trip takes more time than it does in the earth's frame.
c. Beniell travels to Alpha Centauri over a length that is shorter than four light years.
d. Alpha Centauri travels to Beniell over a length that is shorter than four light years.
4) One clock is placed on top of a mountain and another clock is at the bottom of the mountain.
Ignore the rotation of the earth. Which clock ticks more slowly?
a. They tick at the same rate.
b. The one on top of the mountain.
c. The one at the bottom of the mountain.
d. Cannot be determined.
5) You are in a windowless spacecraft. What do you need to do to determine whether your space
ship is moving at constant non-zero velocity, or is at rest, in an inertial frame of earth?
a. Make very precise time measurements.
b. Make very precise mass measurements.
c. Make very precise length and time measurements.
d. Nothing, because you cannot succeed no matter what you do.
6) According to the effects of length contraction, from the viewpoint of an observer stationary with
respect to abody moving at a uniform speed relative to the observer, which one is CORRECT?
a. The body contracts along the direction of the motion.
b. The time it takes for a clock incorporated in the body to tick contracts.
c. The body is not now contracted but would contract if it were to accelerate.
d. The body contracts in some direction traverse to the direction of its motion.
7) April and May are identical twins. One day, April embarked on a high speed space travel into a
distant star. When he gets back home, who is older between the two?
a. April
b. May
c. None of them because they are still of the same age
d. Cannot be determined
8) An accelerated frame is a non-inertial frame. Is this TRUE?
a. True
b. False
c. Sometimes true, sometimes false
d. Not enough information given
9) Which of the following statements is TRUE about the speed of light?
a. The speed of light has a value that depends on the observer's frame of reference.
b. The speed of light has the same value for observers in all reference frames.
c. The speed of light is constant in an inertial frame of reference.
d. The speed of light is slower in a moving frame of reference.
10) A person is riding a moped that is traveling at 20 m/s. What is the speed of the ball if the moped
rider throws a ball forward at 4 m/s while riding the moped?
a. 16 m/s
b. 20 m/s
c. 24 m/s
d. 80 m/s
11) According to Einstein, what is considered the fourth dimension?
a. Curled dimension
b. Horizontal dimension
c. Space dimension
d. Time dimension
12) As you observe a fish inside an aquarium, the fish appears to be bigger when underwater. When
observed through the side, the fish seems closer than if you observe over the top. When you look
through the corner, it appears to be that there are two fishes. What explains this observation?
a. Diffraction
b. Interference
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
13) What is the phenomenon by which the incident light falling on a surface is back into the same
medium?
a. Absorption
b. Polarization
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
14) Which property is responsible for alternating light and dark bonds when light passes through
two or more narrow slits?
a. Diffraction
b. Interference
c. Polarization
d. Refraction
15) What happens when a light wave enters into a medium of different optical density?
a. Its speed and frequency change.
b. Its speed and wavelength change.
c. Its frequency and wavelength change.
d. Its speed, frequency and wavelength change.
16) A ray of light in air is incident on an air-to-glass boundary at an angle of 36 degrees with the
normal. If the index of refraction of the glass is 1.65, what is the angle of the refracted ray within the
glass with respect to the normal?
a. 18 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 46 degrees
d. 56 degrees
17) If the critical angle for internal reflection inside a certain transparent material is found 48
degrees, what is the index of refraction of the material? (air is outside the material)
a. 0.74
b. 1.35
c. 1.48
d. 1.53
18) According to the law of reflection, from what angle is light coming after it is reflected from a
mirror?
a. The same angle as the incident ray as measured from the surface of the mirror.
b. The same angle as the incident ray as measured from the normal to the mirror.
c. Some light comes directly from the object and some passes through the mirror.
d. Cannot be determined.
19) Which of the following is the BEST description of a white light?
a. It is a mixture of every color.
b. It is a mixture of seven colors.
c. It is a mixture of red, blue and yellow.
d. It is a pure color that cannot be broken up.
20) Sunsets often appear to have a more reddish-orange color than moon. Which of the following
phenomenon is responsible for this effect?
a. Rayleigh Scattering
b. Dispersion
c. Polarization
d. Refraction
21) The polarization behavior of light is BEST explained by considering light to be ________.
a. Particles
b. Transverse waves
c. Longitude waves
d. Unpolarized
22) Which type of light vibrates in a variety of planes?
a. Electromagnetic
b. Polarized
c. Transverse
d. Unpolarized
23) Light is passed through a filter whose transmission axis is alighned horizontally. It then passes
through a second filter whose transmission axis is aligned vertically. What will happen to the light
after passing through both filters?
a. It will be polarized
b. It will be unpolarized
c. It will be entirely blocked
d. It will return to its original state
24) Light rays enter a material and scatter. Which BEST describes what happens to the light rays.
a. Bounce straight back
b. Move straight through
c. Spread out in all directions
d. Move through but in a new direction
25) The energy generated by the sun travels to Earth as electromagnetic waves of varying lengths.
Which statement correctly describes an electromagnetic wave with a long wavelength?
a. It has a high frequency and low energy.
b. It has a high frequency and high energy.
c. It has a low frequency and can travel through a vacuum.
d. It has a low frequency and needs a medium to travel through.
26) Why is the sky blue?
a. It reflects the color of the ocean.
b. The color of the outer space is blue.
c. Blue light is more readily scattered than red light by nitrogen.
d. Red light is scattered more easily than blue light by dust particles.
27) What is the physical evidence that the core is composed mostly of iron?
a. Volcanoes regularly erupt material from the core to the surface.
b. Scientist have sampled the core and determined its composition.
c. The known mass of Earth requires material of high density at the core.
d. A and B
28) Which of the following comprised the largest portion of Earth's volume?
a. Crust
b. Inner core
c. Mantle
d. Outer Core
29) Which of the following statements about the Mohorovicic discontinuity is FALSE?
a. The Moho separates the crust from the mantle.
b. The Moho marks the top of a partially molten layer.
c. The Moho separates denser rocks below from less dense rocks above.
d. Seismic wave speeds up as they pass across the Moho heading downward.
30) Where do P waves travel the fastest?
a. Upper mantle
b. Lower mantle
c. Outer core
d. Inner core
31) What is the driving force for the movement of the lithosphere plates?
a. Heat from the sun
b. Heat in the atmosphere
c. Unequal distribution of heat within the Earth
d. Unequal distribution of heat in the oceans
32) Which evidence supports Alfred Wegener's Continental Drift Theory?
a. Major rivers on different continents match
b. Land bridges still exist that connext major continents
c. The same magnetic directions exist on different continents
d. Fossils of the same organism have been found on different continents
33) Which of the following is TRUE based on the Plate Tectonic Theory?
a. The atmosphere is strong and rigid
b. The lithosphere is divided into spheres
c. The atmosphere is divided into plates
d. The atmosphere moves over the lithosphere
34) What type of boundary occurs where two plates move together, causing one plate to descend
into the mantle beneath the outer plate?
a. Convergent boundary
b. Divergent boundary
c. Transform fault boundary
d. Transitional boundary
35) Which are considered as most destructive earthquake waves?
a. P waves
b. Q waves
c. S waves
d. Surface waves
36) In which of the following climates will chemical weathering be most rapid?
a. hot and dry
b. cold and dry
c. hot and humid
d. cold and humid
37) Which of the following statements about weathering is FALSE?
a. Rocks of different compositions weather at different rates.
b. Heat and heavy rainfall increase the rate of chemical weathering.
c. The presence of soil slows down the weathering of the underlying bedrock.
d. The longer a rock is exposed at the suraface, the more weathered it becomes.
38) Why do agricultural areas often experience the greatest amount of soil erosion?
a. Because farms are typically located near streams
b. Because farmers usually remove trees from their fields
c. Because they typically occur in areas of moderately steep slopes
d. Because farming usually involves plowing the soil to plant seeds
39) What can happen to global temperatures for several years after a volcanic eruption?
a. Temperatures may increase
b. Temperatures may decrease
c. Temperatures can create more volcanoes
d. Temperatures are not affected by volcanic eruption
40) Which of the following correctly describe diastrophism?
a. It refers to the boundaries between crustal plates.
b. It refers to a discredit theory of continent formation.
c. It refers to all processes in which magma moves from Earth's surface or near the surface.
d. It refers to all the deformation of Earth's crust by bending or breaking in response to great
pressures exerted either from below or from within the crust.
41) What is the evaporation of water from plant surfaces especially through stomates?
a. Condensation
b. Perspiration
c. Respiration
d. Transpiration
42) Which of the following processes form clouds?
a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Precipitation
d. Transpiration
43) Which of the following is/are a natural factors that may disrupt the water cycle?
a. Water pollution
b. Drying of ground water
c. Mismanaged domestic and industrial use of water
d. Both A and C
44) What is the mixture of fresh and saltwater typically formed where rivers meet the ocean?
a. Brackish water
b. Compound water
c. Mixture water
d. Saline water
45) Fresh water is an integral part of hydrologic cycle. How is it produced?
a. Condensation
b. Desalination
c. Evaporation
d. Transpiration
46) Which of the following is included in the term hydrosphere?
a. All the water on the planet.
b. All the fresh water on the planet.
c. All waters on the surface of the continents.
d. All the liquid water on the Earth, minus the ice.
47) What is the main difference between swamps and marshes?
a. Trees versus grassland
b. High water table versus low
c. Salt water versus fresh water
d. Seasonality of precipitation
48) A lake will become saline if ________.
a. lake levels decrease
b. precipitation exceeds evaporation
c. evaporation exceeds precipitation
d. the lake has no natural drainage outlet
49) What is the other name for typhoon?
a. Low pressure area
b. Hurricane
c. Tornado
d. Twister
50) What is the difference among typhoon, a hurricane, and a cyclone?
a. While typhoons are strong storms, cyclones are worse, and hurricane are the strongest of all.
b. Hurricanes spin clockwise, cyclones spin counter clockwise, and typhoons are actually tidal
waves.
c. Typhoons are found near the equator, hurricanes in the midlatitudes and typhoons in the arctic
and antartic.
d. The storms are the same but the names are used in the Western Pacific, North America and
Indian Ocean, respectively.
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. A
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. C
32. D
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. C
37. C
38. D
39. B
40. D
41. D
42. A
43. B
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. A
48. D
49. B
50. D
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
1) What is a closed, continuous path through which electrons can flow?
a. Charge
b. Circuit
c. Resistor
d. Voltage
2) What will be your charge if you scrape electrons from your feet while scuffing across the rug?
a. Negative
b. Neutral
c. Positive
d. Not enough information given
3) How will your force change if the distance between the two charged spheres is doubled?
a. The force is doubled
b. The force is tripled
c. The force is quadrupled
d. The force is multiplied eight times
4) A 6 ohm and 12 ohm resistors are connected in parallel with each other to a battery. Which of the
following is TRUE?
a. More current will flow through the 20 ohm resistor.
b. The current flowing through the resistors is the same.
c. The resistor values must be equal for the circuit to work.
d. The potential difference across the two resistors is the same.
5) A new 1.5 V dry cell furnishes 30 A when short circuited. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
a. 0.05 ohm
b. 0.10 ohm
c. 1.5 ohm
d. 30 ohm
6) If three identical lamps are connected in parallel to a 6 V dry cell, what is the voltage drop across
each lamp?
a. 2 V
b. 3 V
c. 6 V
d. 18 V
7) Which of the following describes an electric current?
a. Regulates the movement of electric charge.
b. The opposition a material offers to the electron flow.
c. The electric pressure that causes charged particles to flow.
d. The movement of charged particles in a specific direction.
8) A 10 W bulb and a 20 W bulb are connected in a series circuit. Which bulb has the more current
flowing in it?
a. The 10 W bulb
b. The 20 W bulb
c. Both bulbs have the same current
d. Cannot be determined
9) Which of the following are characteristics of a series circuit?
I. The current that flows through each resistance is the same as the total current throughout the
circuit.
II. The sum of all the individual voltage drops is the same as the applied voltage.
III. The reciprocal of the total resistance is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the separate
resistances.
IV. The voltage drop in each resistance is the same as the magnitude of the applied voltage.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II and III
10) Which states that the sum of all potential rises and potential drops in any loop (closed circuit) is
zero?
a. Coulomb's Law
b. Kirchoff's Law
c. Law of Electrolysis
d. Ohm's Law
11) A television and an electric fan are connected in parallel top a 220 V line. The current in the
television is 8 A and in the electric fan is 3 A. What is the current flowing in the line?
a. 2.67 A
b. 5 A
c. 11 A
d. 24 A
12) What happens to current if resistance increases?
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. No change
d. Cannot be determined
13) Which of the following statements DOES NOT represent Ohm's Law?
a. current/potential difference = constant
b. potential difference/current = constant 
c. potential difference = current x resistance
d. current = resistance x potential difference
14) What is the resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current and 6.0 V?
a. 0.2 ohm
b. 0.5 ohm
c. 2 ohm
d. 5 ohm
15) What happens to the current-carrying ability of a wire as temperature increases?
a. There is no change.
b. The wire can't carry any current.
c. The wire can carry more current.
d. The wire can carry less current.
16) A 300 W at 220 V TV set is used at an average of 4 hours a day for 30 days. If the electrical
energy costs P1.60 per kilowatt-hour, how much is the energy cost?
a. P5.76
b. P22.50
c. P57.60
d. P225.00
17) Electromagnetic radiation can be used for wireless communications. Which of the following can
be used to transmit signals such as mobile phone calls?
a. Infrared
b. Gamma
c. Microwaves
d. Radiowaves
18) Which statement about the North-magnetic pole of the Earth is TRUE?
a. Its location never changes.
b. It corresponds to the N-pole of a bar magnet.
c. It corresponds to the S-pole of a bar magnet.
d. It is at the same location as the geographic north pole of the Earth.
19) An iron nail can be turned into a temporary magnet if it is held in a strong magnetic field. Which
method of magnetization is this?
a. Charging
b. Conduction
c. Induction
d. Saturation
20) Which of the following factors affect the size of the induced current in a coil?
I. Number of turns in the coil
II. Size of the inducing field
III. Direction of the windings in the coil
IV. Resistance of the wire in the coil
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II and IV
21) To use the right hand rule to predict the direction of an induced current in a coil, your thumb
must point ________.
a. to the direction of the motion of the wire
b. to the N-pole of the induced magnetic field
c. in the direction of the induced current
d. in the direction of the inducing field
22) When a bar magnet is inserted into a coil, a current of 12.0 A is induced into the coil. If four
magnets of the same type are inserted into the coil at the same time, what would be the induced
current?
a. 3 A
b. 4 A
c. 12 A
d. 48 A
23) What is the direction of a magnetic field within a magnet?
a. from north to south
b. from south to north
c. from to back
d. back to front
24) Which is the induced voltage across a stationary conductor in a stationary magnetic field?
a. decreased
b. increased
c. zero
d. reversed in polarity
25) What is the magnetomotive force (mmf) of a wire with 8 turns carrying 3 A of current?
a. 2.67
b. 24
c. 240
d. 2,400
26) A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field. If the number of turns in the coil is
decreased, what will happen to the voltage induced across the coil?
a. remain constant
b. be excessive
c. decrased
d. increased
27) Which of the following is TRUE about the frequency and velocity of electromagnetic waves?
a. Frequency and wavelength are interdependent of each other
b. As frequency increases, wavelength decreases
c. As frequency increases, wavelength increases
d. Frequency is constant for all wavelengths
28) Which of the following correctly lists electromagnetic waves in order from longest to shortest
wavelength?
a. television, infrared, visible light, x-rays
b. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
c. radiowaves, infrared, gamma rays, ultraviolet
d. microwaves, ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays
29) An electromagnetic wave is radiated by a straight wire antenna that is oriented vertically. What
should be the orientation of a straight wire receiving antenna?
a. diagonally
b. vertically
c. horizontally and in a direction parallel to the wave's direction of motion
d. horizontally and in a direction perpendicular to the wave's direction of motion
30) What should a good diode tested with an ohmmeter indicate?
a. High resistance when forward or reverse biased.
b. Low resistance when forward or reversed biased.
c. High resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward biased.
d. High resistance when forward biased and low resistance when forward biased.
31) Vacuum tubes in a radio transmitter are used to ________.
a. record programs
b. provide DC supply
c. generate high power radio waves
d. provide lighting inside the studio
32) Which material is the usual component of an anode?
a. Aluminum
b. Carbon
c. Copper
d. Nickel
33) A metal spoon is placed in a cup filled with hot coffee. After some time, the exposed end of the
spoon becomes hot even without a direct contact with the liquid. What explains this phenomenon?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Thermal expansion
34) Which causes the warmth that you feel when you place your finger at the side of the flame of a
burning candle?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Not enough information given
35) Which process of heat transfer happens by the movement of mass from one place to another?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Induction
d. Radiation
36) When work is done by a system, what happens to its temperature assuming that no heat is
added to it?
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains the same
d. none of these
37) Which states that "when two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they
are in thermal equilibrium with each other?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second Law of Thermodynamics
d. Mechanical Equivalent of Heat
38) What happens in an adiabatic process?
a. No heat eneters or leaves the system
b. The pressure of the system remain constant
c. The temperature of the system remains constant
d. The system does no work nor work is done on it.
39) What thermodynamic process is involved in a closed car inside a hot garage?
a. Adiabatic
b. Isobaric
c. Isochoric
d. Isothermal
40) Consider the thermal energy transfer during a chemeical process. When heat is transferred to
the system, the process is said to be ________ and the sign of H is ________.
a. endothermic, positive
b. endothermic, negative
c. exothermic, positive
d. exothermic, negative
41) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Entropy increases with the number of microstates of the system.
b. Any irreversible process results in an overall increase in entropy.
c. The total entropy of the universe increases in any spontaneous process.
d. The change in entropy in a system depends on the initial and final states of the system and the
path taken from one state to the other.
42) During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a ________.
a. compressor
b. condenser
c. evaporator
d. expansion valve
43) Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a refrigeration system?
a. Rejects energy to a low temperature body.
b. Rejects energy to a high temperature body.
c. Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body.
d. Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body.
44) Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratosphere?
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Fluorine
d. Sulfur dioxide
45) Which phenomenon is BEST explained by the particle nature of light?
a. Doppler effect
b. Interference
c. Photoelectric effect
d. Polarization
46) According to the quantum theory of light, the energy of light is carried in discrete units called
________.
a. alpha particles
b. photoelectrons
c. photons
d. protons
47) Rutherford observed that most of the alpha particles directed at a metallic foil appear to pass
through unhindered, with only a few deflected at large angles. What did he conclude?
a. Atoms can easily absorb and re-emit aplha particles.
b. Atoms consist mainly of empty space and have small, dense nuclei.
c. Alpha particles behave like waves when they interact with atom.
d. Atoms have most of their mass distributed loosely in an electron cloud.
48) When an electron changes from a higher energy to a lower energy state within an atom, a
quantum of energy is ________.
a. absorbed
b. emitted
c. fissioned
d. fused
49) When does nuclear fission occur?
a. When we cut nuclei into two with a very small cutting device.
b. When one nucleus bumps into another causing a chain reaction.
c. When a nucleus divides spontaneously, with no apparent reason.
d. When electrical forces inside a nucleus overpower forces.
50) When does nuclear fusion release energy?
a. When uranium emits a neutron
b. When heavy ions fuse together
c. When very light nuclei fuse together
d. When uranium splits into two fragments
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. A
41. D
42. B
43. D
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. B
48. B
49. D
50. C

Diffusion
The passive movement of particles from an area of high concentration to low concentration. This
happens along a concentration gradient
Osmosis
A passive movement of water molecules through a semi permeable membrane. Water moves from
an area of low solute concentration to high solute concentration
Active Transport
An active movement where an input of energy is required. Particles move from low concentration to
high concentration
Facilitated Diffusion
A passive movement of particles from high to low concentration through a protein channel in a cell.
Isotonic Solution
The same concentration of dissolved substances. Water in = water out.
Hypertonic Solution
Higher concentration of solutes outside cell than inside
Plasmolyse
When a cell has shrunk
Hypotonic Solution
A cell has more solute inside than outside.
Turgid
Cell may explode under pressure due to a hypotonic solution.
Exocytosis
Movement out of a cell
Endocytosis
Movement into a cell
Lysosome
A vesicle that contains destructive/digestive chemicals
Pinocytosis
A form of endocytosis where a cell engulfs liquid into the cell.
Phagocytosis
A form of endocytosis where a cell engulfs solids into a cell
Scientific question
Questions that can be answered by using experiments and factual reasoning.
Biology
The study of living organisms and how they function.
Scientific Method
A method of procedure that has characterized natural science since the 17th century, consisting in
systematic observation, measurement, and experiment, and the formulation, testing, and
modification of hypotheses.
Hypothesis
1st part of the scientific method
experimental design
Experimental design refers to how participants are allocated to the different conditions (or IV
groups) in an experiment.
variable
factors that are kept constant or unchanging.
observation
The process of studying of something to gain information.
inference
A conclusion made up of facts and inferring knowledge.
conclusion
The final ending or idea of a process
prediction
A statement about the hypothesis
qualitative observations
detailed examination with your senses only
quantitative observations
measuring something with numbers
homeostasis
Balancing human or any living organisms
metabolism
The chemical processes occurring within a living cell or organism that are necessary for the
maintenance of life
heredity
The genetic transmission of characteristics from parent to offspring.
Golgi apparatus
packages proteins from the ER and materials and sends them to other parts of the cell
Smooth ER
network or tubular membranes within the cytoplasm of the cell with a smooth surface; functions in a
variety of different metabolic processes such as synthesis of lipids, oils, phospholipid and steroids;
process drugs, alcohol, and store calcium ions
Rough ER
network of tubular membanes within the cytoplasm of the cell with a rough surface (ribosomes are
attached to it); helps the ribosomes make proteins, such as insulin
Organelles
tiny structures within the cell that carry out specific functions
plasma membrane
forms a flexible boundary between the living cell and its surroundings; made if phospholipids
nucleus
oval-shaped organelle that contains DNA and controls much of the cell's activities by directing
protein synthesis
mitochondrion
carries out cellular respiration; rod-shaped organelle that makes energy for the cell to function with;
converts the energy stored in food to energy the cell can use (ATP); "powerhouse" of cell
nucleolus
nuclear subdomain that assembles ribosomal subunits in eukaryotic cells; makes rRNA to form the
subunits of ribosomes, which then exit to the cytoplasm
chromatin
complex of DNA and proteins that form within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells; directs the cells'
functions
vacuole
sac-like organelle that holds water, food and organisms; can also store waste products until
removed
chloroplast
green structure that captures energy from sunlight and changes it to energy that cells can use in
making food.
prokaryote
plant, bacteria or archea cell
eukaryote
animal cell with nucleus
plasmodesma
...
ribosomes
small grain-shaped organelle that produces proteins
cell membrane
thin, flexible barrier that surrounds the cell and controls what goes in and out; found in animal cells
cytoplasm
the thick fluid region of a cell inside the membrane or next to the nucleus
lysosome
membrane-enclosed sac of digestive enzymes; contains chemicals that break down bigger food
particles so they can be used in the cell; also break down used cell parts. The cell's "recycling
center".
cell wall
rigid layer surrounding the cells of plants
multicellular
made of many cells
unicellular
single-celled organism
centriole
small set of microtubules arranged in a specific way
phospholipid bilayer
thin membrane of lipid molecules
cytosol
part of cytoplasm not held by an organelle
cilia
the appendages that propel certain cells
cytoskeleton
networks of protein fibers that extend through the cell
cell theory
all living things are composed of cells and all cells come from other cells
why are cells so small?
smaller cells have more surface area across which to pass oxygen, nutrients and waste materials
flagella
a projection from a prokaryotic cell that propels it through its liquid environment
cellular metabolism
chemical activities of cells
nuclear envelope
double membrane enclosing the nucleus; controls the flow of materials in and out of the nucleus
where are ribosomes found?
free-floating in the cytosol, or bound to the rough ER or the nuclear envelope
endomembrane system
A system of membranes that are specific to a eukaryotic cell. Some are physically connected, while
others link when vesicles transfer membrane segments between them.
vesicle
sacs made of membranes
what makes up the endomembrane system?
nuclear envelope, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles and the plasma
membrane.
What does the Golgi apparatus do?
processes, warehouses and ships (outside and inside cell) ER products
cristae
folds in the mitochondria that increase the surface area and therefore its ability to produce ATP
ATP
Adenine Triphosphate - main energy source for cellular work
stroma
...
thylakoids
...
Plant Cell
What type of cell is this?
Animal Cell
What type of cell is this?
X) cell wall
Which of the following is NOT a structure found in human cells:
W) mitochondrion
X) cell wall
Y) lysosome
Z) peroxisome
Nucleus
What organelle functions to isolate a human cell's chromosomes from the cytoplasm?
Cell
What is the basic unit of life?
Chloroplast
In what organelle of a plant cell does photosynthesis occur?
Photosynthesis
It is generally believed that most of the oxygen in the air on Earth today came from what general
biological process:
DNA
What is the most common term for the biological polymer found in chromosomes that stores
genetic information?
Osmosis
The spontaneous movement of molecules through a semi-permeable membrane in order to create
equilibrium.
Nucleus
These structures are located inside of a cell's...
Body Systems
Sets of organs in our bodies that do the work to keep us healthy and alive.
cells
Small part of all living things.
Organs
Made of thousands of cells, connected by several body systems to do work to keep our bodies
healthy & alive.
photosynthesis
Conversion of light energy from the sun into chemical energy.
products of photosynthesis are glucose and oxygen
photosynthesis equation(very important)
6CO2 + 6H2O --> light energy --> C6H12O6 + 6O2
chloroplasts
A structure in the cells of plants and some other organisms that captures energy from sunlight and
uses it to produce food.
main function of chloroplasts is to produce food (glucose)
Chloroplasts contain the pigment, chlorophyll. Chlorophyll absorbs most of the colors in the color
spectrum, and reflects only green and yellow wavelengths of light. This is why we see leaves as
green or yellow - because these colors are reflected into our eyes.
glucose
another name for sugar C6H12O6
three things used for making glucose are sunlight water and carbon dioxide 
used for energy and growth
sunlight
main source of energy
cellular respiration
C6H1206->CO2 + H20+ ENERGY (released)
goal is to create ATP
occurs in all living things
mitochondria
An organelle found in large numbers in most cells, in which the biochemical processes of
respiration and energy production occur.
ATP
(adenosine triphosphate) main energy source that cells use for most of their work
the energy is stored in ATP until it is released by the reactions remove a phosphate from ATP 
a simple way of remembering it is just that it's just energy
Metabolism
The sum total of all processes in an organism which convert energy and matter from outside
sources and use that energy and matter to sustain the organism's life functions.
Anabolism
The sum total of all processes in an organism which use energy and simple chemical building
blocks to produce large chemicals and structures necessary for life.
Catabolism
The sum total of all processes in an organism which break down chemicals to produce energy and
simple chemical building blocks.
Photosynthesis
The process by which green plants and some other organisms use the energy of sunlight and
simple chemicals to produce their own food.
Herbivores
Organisms that eat only plants.
Carnivores
Organisms that eat only organisms other than plants.
Omnivores
Organisms that eat both plants and other organisms.
Producers
Organisms that produce their own food.
Consumers
Organisms that eat living producers and/or other consumers for food.
Decomposers
Organisms that break down the dead remains of other organisms.
Autotrophs
Organisms that are able to make their own food.
Heterotrophs
Organisms that depend on other organisms for their food.
Asexual reproduction
Reproduction accomplished by a single organism.
Sexual reproduction
Reproduction that requires two organisms
Inheritance
The process by which physical and biological characteristics are transmitted from the parent (or
parents) to the offspring.
Mutation
An abrupt and marked change in the DNA of an organism compared to that of its parents
Hypothesis
An educated guess that attempts to explain an observation or answer a question.
Theory
A hypothesis that has been tested with a significant amount of data.
Scientific law
A theory that has been tested by and is consistent with generations of data.
Microorganisms
Living creatures that are too small to see with the naked eye.
Abiogenesis
The idea that long ago, very simple life forms spontaneously appeared through chemical reactions.
Prokaryotic cell
A cell that has no distinct, membrane-bounded organelles.
Eukaryotic cell
A cell with distinct, membrane-bounded organelles.
Species
A unit of one or more populations of individuals that can reproduce under normal conditions,
produce fertile offspring, and are reproductively isolated from other such units.
Parasite
An organism that feeds on a living host.
Aerobic organism
An organism that requires oxygen.
Anaerobic organism
An organism that does not require oxygen.
Exponential growth
Population growth that is unhindered because of the abundance of resources for an ever-increasing
population.
Logistic growth
Population growth that is controlled by limited resources.
Nucleus
The region of a eukaryotic cell that contains the cell's main DNA.
Vacuole
A membrane-bounded "sac" within a cell.
Chloroplast
An organelle containing chlorophyll for photosynthesis.
Chlorophyll
A pigment necessary for photosynthesis.
Symbiosis
A close relationship between two or more species where at least one benefits.
Mutualism
A relationship between two or more organisms of different species where all benefit from the
association.
Commonesalism
A relationship between two organisms of different species where one benefits and the other is
neither harmed nor benefited.
Parasitism
A relationship between two organisms of different species where one benefits and the other is
harmed.
Cilia
Hairlike projections that extend from the plasma membrane and are used for locomotion.
Cellulose
A substance (made of sugars) that is common in the cell walls of many organisms.
Chitin
A chemical that provides both toughness and flexibility.
Membrane
A thin covering of tissue.
Fermentation
The anaerobic breakdown of sugars into smaller molecules.
Atoms
The basic building blocks of matter.
Matter
Anything that has mass and takes up space.
Model
An explanation or representation of something that cannot be seen.
Element
A collection of atoms that all have the same number of protons.
Molecules
Chemicals that result from atoms linking together.
Physical change
A change that affects the appearance but not the chemical makeup of a substance.
Chemical change
A change that alters the makeup of the elements or molecules of a substance.
Phase
One of the three forms--solid, liquid, or gas--which every substance is capable of attaining.
Diffusion
The random motion of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration.
Concentration
A measurement of how much solute exists within a certain volume of solvent.
Semipermeable membrane
A membrane that allows some molecules to pass through but does not allow other molecules to
pass through.
Osmosis
The tendency of a solvent to travel across a semipermeable membrane into areas of higher solute
concentration.
Organic Molecule
A molecule that contains only carbon and any of the following: hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur,
and/or phosphorous.
Hydrophobic
Lacking any affinity to water.
Homeostasis
Maintaining the status quo.
Reproduction
Producing more cells.
Cytology
The study of cells.
Cell Wall
A rigid structure on the outside of certain cells, usually plant and bacteria cells.

gymnosperm
Plants with naked seeds that are usually in cones, made up of conifers (evergreens), primarily
softwoods
angiosperm
Flowering plants with seeds enclosed in hard coats, made up of deciduous trees, primarily
hardwoods
monocot
Plant with 1 seed leaf (cotyledon), includes grasses and other herbaceous plants
dicot
Plant with 2 seeds leaves (cotyledon), includes trees and other woody plants
opposite
Leaves arranged opposite each other on stem
alternate
Leaves arranged alternating on sides of stem
whorled
Many leaves attached to single point on stem
simple leaf
Leaf with only one blade
compound leaf
Leaf with multiple blades
lobe
Projections from leaf, may be rounded or pointed
apex
Top of leaf, opposite stem
midrib
Central rib of leaf, often continuous with petiole
blade
Surface part of leaf
veins
Vascular bundles that provide support for leaf and transport water and nutrients
petiole
The stem; the part that attached leaf to branch
margin
The outer edge of the leaf
roots
Anchor the tree and extract nutrients and water from the soil. They also store food
trunk
Provides stability to the tree and transports nutrients and water
heartwood
Center of trunk that is dead, but provides strength and is where tree stores waste
pith
Very center of trunk
arcuate
Venation curves up toward apex of leaf
palmate
Distinct veins start at the base of the leaf and spread to the margin
parallel
Veins run parallel from base to apex
pinnate
Small veins almost parallel from midrib to margin
reticulate
Netted venation pattern
xylem
Part of trunk that transports water and minerals up the tree
phloem
Part of trunk that transports food down the tree
bark
Outer layer of the trunk that provides protection
cambium
Tissue in trunk that divides cells to cause secondary growth (outward thickening)
crown
The upper part of the tree, it is made up of branches and leaves and is where photosynthesis,
respiration, and transpiration take place
photosynthesis
Process where water and carbon dioxide are converted to sugar and oxygen in the presence of
light. It occurs in the mesophyll layer of leaves and involves chlorophyll trapping light
6 CO2 + 6 H2O + photons -> C6H12O6 + 6 O2
cellular respiration
Process where oxygen and glucose are turned to carbon dioxide, water, and energy. It occurs 24
hours/day
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 -> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy
transpiration
Process where plants lose water from sunlight through stoma, pores on the bottom of leaves. This
is needed for cooling, transporting minerals from the soil, moving sugars and chemicals, and
maintaining water pressure in tissues. The rate varies with temperature, humidity, and air movement
commercial forest
Forest land capable of being used for economical purposes
certified tree farm
Tree farm that meets certain certifications with the American Tree Farm System
forest region
A broad geographic area containing a certain type of forest
root hairs
Fine outgrowths from a root that take in the water and nutrients
annual ring
Ring formed in the trunk of a tree over one year from tree growing large, light wood cells in spring
and dense, dark cells in summer
shade-tolerant
Tree can survive and grow properly without direct sunlight
even-aged
Forest with trees that are mostly the same age and size
all-aged
Forest with trees in at least two different groupings of age and size
canopy
"Ceiling" of forest, made up of the crowns of its trees
lumber grades
Different types of lumber used for different purposes
converted wood
Wood that has been changed, mechanically or chemically
board foot
Standard unit of measure for most lumber
cubic foot
Unit of measure equal to the amount of wood that would be required to fill a space 1 foot wide, 1
foot thick, 1 foot high
cord
Unit equal to a stack of wood 4 feet x 4 feet x 8 feet
gross weight
Most common method of measuring pulpwood
dbh
Diameter at breast height, or thickness across the tree trunk at 4.5 feet above the average ground
level
dendrometer
Device used to measure tree diameters. Most common are the Biltmore stick, a tree caliper, and
diameter tape
tree height
Usable length of the trunk
hypsometer
Device for measuring tree height. Most common are the Biltmore stick, the Abney level, the Haga
altimeter, and the Suunto clinometer
intermediate cuttings
Cuttings made in the period between reproduction and harvest of a forest
cleanings
Intermediate cuttings to assist young seedlings or saplings
improvement cuttings
Intermediate cuttings in older trees
thinning
Removing some trees to reduce competition for light, nutrients, and moisture, allowing other trees
to grow better
liberation
Removal of taller trees to improve the growth of the overall tree group
girdling
Liberation that involves killing the tree but leaving it standing until it decays and falls on its own
sanitation cutting
Removes injured, diseased, or insect-infested trees, leaving healthy trees that can grow without
competition, disease, or insects from damaged trees
salvage cutting
Harvesting and selling trees when there are enough damaged from disease, insects, or storms to
make a harvest economical
seed trees
Trees selected for their high quality and seed-producing ability to be left standing instead of
removed when harvesting a stand
clear cutting
All trees on a tract are harvested in a single operation, with no selection involved
harvest cuttings
Cuttings done to produce wood for sale

PEL 4
32 Electrons
PEL 5
50 Electrons
nucleons
protons and neutrons
mass number
number of neutrons in nucleus
atomic number
number of protons in nucleus
isotopes
same number of protons and electrons but different number of neutrons
average atomic mass
based on the percentage of isotopes found in nature
valence electrons
electrons in the outermost shell (can be easily shared, gained or lost)
core electrons
electrons in the inner shell
atomic spectra
the electromagnetic emission from atoms and molecules
spectroscopy
A technique measuring electromagnetic emissions that is widely used in chemical analysis and in
studies of the properties of atoms, molecules, ions, etc.
wave mechanical model
Modern model of the atom, atoms have electrons in "orbitals" that are like clouds around the
nucleus
quantum numbers
specify the properties of atomic orbitals and the properties of electrons in orbitals
Pauli Exclusion Principle
An atomic orbital may describe at most two electrons, each with opposite spin direction
Hund's Rule
electrons do not pair up until they have to
Aufbau Principle
An electron occupies the lowest-energy orbital that can receive it
Nobel Gas Notation
shortcut→ find the closest noble gas (column 18) with fewer electrons than the element then finish
configuration
transition elements
What are the elements in groups 3-12 called?
transition element properties
elements that have high melting points, often paramagnetic, tend to form salts when reacted w/
halogens ex; iron, copper, gold, silver, and titanium
electronegativity
A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons
ionization energy
The amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom
alpha decay
A nuclear reaction in which an atom emits a ________ particle consisting of two protons and two
neutrons. This increases the atomic number by 2 and the mass number by 4.
beta decay
A nuclear reaction in which a neutron changes into a proton and into an electron, and the atoms
emits a ______ particle, which is the electron. It increases the atomic number of the atom without
changing the mass.
gamma radiation
electromagnetic radiation emitted during radioactive decay and having an extremely short
wavelength
covalent bond
A chemical bond that involves sharing a pair of electrons between atoms in a molecule
dipole-dipole attraction
attractive force resulting when polar molecules line up so that the positive and negative ends are
close to each other
electrostatic repulsion
Describes a force between particles with opposite electrical charges that causes them to push
apart from one another
hybridization
Several atomic orbitals mix to form the same total number of equivalent hybrid orbitals
hydrogen bond
A relatively weak bond formed between any hydrogen atom (which is covalently bound to a nitrogen
or oxygen atom) and a nitrogen or oxygen with an unshared electron pair
ionic bond
Formed when one or more electrons are transferred from one atom to another
London dispersion forces
The intermolecular attractions resulting from the constant motion of electrons and the creation of
instantaneous dipoles
metallic bond
a bond formed by the attraction between positively charged metal ions and the electrons around
them
pi bond
when two p orbitals line up in parallel and electron clouds overlap. it exsits over a single bond.
resonance structure
a structure that occurs when it is possible to draw two or more valid electron dot structures that
have the same number of electron pairs for a molecule or ion
stable octet
the arrangement of eight electrons in the outermost shell of an atom
sigma bond
a bond formed when two atomic orbitals combine to form a molecular orbital that is symmetrical
around the axis connecting the two atomic nuclei
van der Waals forces
a slight attraction that develops between the oppositely charged regions of nearby molecules
VSERP
Valance Electron Pair Repulsion model / Unshared electron pairs around the central atom
binary compound
What ionic compounds are called when they are composed of only two different kinds of atoms.
coefficient
A number in front of a chemical formula in an equation that indicates how many molecules or atoms
of each reactant and product are involved in a reaction.
emperical formula
simplest whole # ration of atoms in a compound
formula mass
the sum of the average atomic masses of all the atoms represented in the formula of any molecule,
formula unit, or ion
molecular mass
The sum of the masses of all the atoms in a molecule
Law of Definite Composition
Chemical compounds are composed of a fixed ratio of elements as determined by mass.
Law of Multiple Proportions
whenever two elements form more than one compound, the different masses of one element that
combine with the same mass of the other element are in the ratio of small whole numbers
net ionic equation
Includes only those compounds and ions that undergo a chemical change in a reaction in an
aqueous solution
percentage composition
the percentage by mass of each element in a compound
polyatomic ion
A covalently bonded group of atoms that has a positive or negative charge and acts as a unit
products
The elements or compounds produced by a chemical reaction.
reactants
a substance that takes part in and undergoes change during a reaction
Stock system
A method for naming ions of elements that can form more than one possible positive charge by
using a Roman numeral after the ion name to denote the ion's charge.
ternary compound
A compound that consists of three or more elements, usually containing
true formula
chemical formula that indicates the actual number of atoms of each element in one molecule of a
substance
atmosphere
Layers of different gases that surround the Earth.
atmospheric pressure
the pressure exerted by atoms and molecules in the atmosphere surrounding Earth, resulting from
collisions of these particles with objects
greenhouse effect
Natural situation in which heat is retained in Earth's atmosphere by carbon dioxide, methane, water
vapor, and other gases
manometer
A device used to measure the pressure of a sample of gas in a container.
Boyle's Law
PV = k
Charles's Law
V/T = k
Combined Gas Law
P1V1/T1=P2V2/T2 (constant n)
Ideal Gas law
PV = n R T
Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures
Total pressure of a gas is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the component gases
Graham's Law
Rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight.
Kinetic-Molecular Theory
a theory that explains that the behavior of physical systems depends on the combined actions of
the molecules constituting the system
mercury barometer
An instrument that measures changes in air pressure, consisting of a glass tube partially filled with
mercury, with its open end resting in a dish of mercury.
ozone
A form of oxygen that has three oxygen atoms in each molecule instead of the usual two.
pascal
the SI unit of pressure equal to one newton per square meter
standard pressure
1 atm or 101.3 kPa
standard temperature
One atmosphere and 273 K.
torr
the force per unit area exerted by the gas on its container, usually measured in atmospheres
acidic anhydride
a nonmetallic oxide that, when placed in water, reacts to form an acid solution
aeration
Air is forced through the water to release unwanted gases, which reduces odor and improves taste
alloy
A mixture of two or more metals
boiling point
The temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas
Brownian movement
kinetic energy spreads small suspended particles throughout the cytoplasm of the cell
colligative property
A property of a solution that depends on the number, not the identity, of the solute particles.
concentrated
Describes a solution that has a relatively large amount of dissolved solute
critical pressure
the lowest pressure at which the substance can exist as a liquid at the critical temperature
critical temperature
the temperature above which the substance cannot exist in the liquid state
crystal
An orderly, three-dimensional pattern of ions or atoms in a solid
deliquescent
compounds that remove sufficient water from the air to dissolve completely and form solutions
dilute
to lessen the concentration, force, or purity of by adding something
dynamic equilibrium
Result of diffusion where there is continuous movement of particles but no overall change in
concentration
endothermic
A chemical reaction that absorbs energy (heat)
efflorescent
hydrated crystals that lose the water of hydration on exposure to air at ordinary temperatures
exothermic
A chemical reaction that releases energy (heat)
heat of fusion
Amount of energy required to change a substance from the solid phase to the liquid phase.
heat of vaporization
The amount of energy required for the liquid at its boiling point to become a gas
"heavy" water
water containing an elevated concentration of molecules with deuterium
deuterium
An isotope of hydrogen with one proton and one neutron in the nucleus having an atomic weight of
2.014
hydrate
A compound that has a specific number of water molecules bound to its atoms
Le Chatelier's Principle
States that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system shifts in the direction that
relieves the stress.
melting point
The temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid
miscible
Describes two liquids that are soluble in each other
immiscible
Liquid solutes and solvents that are not soluble in each other
molality
the concentration of a solution expressed in moles of solute per kilogram of solvent
molarity
A common measure of solute concentration, referring to the number of moles of solute per liter of
solution.
mole fraction
The ratio of the moles of solute in solution to the total number of moles of both solvent and solute
normality
Gram equivalent weight of solute per liter of solution, often denoted by N.
phase equilibrium
when the rates of evaporation and condensation equalize
polarity
A lack of electrical symmetry in a molecule. Charge differences on opposite ends of a structure.
saturated
unable to dissolve any more solute
solute
A substance that is dissolved in a solution.
solvent
A liquid substance capable of dissolving other substances
specific gravity
Density of an object realtive to water. No units.
sublimation
A change directly from the solid to the gaseous state without becoming liquid
surface tension
An inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid; it causes the surface to behave
as if it were a thin skin
temporary hardness
Temporary hardness is a type of water hardness caused by the presence of dissolved bicarbonate
minerals (calcium bicarbonate and magnesium bicarbonate)
viscosity
A liquid's resistance to flowing
activation energy
the minimum amount of energy required to start a chemical reaction
catalyst
a substance that initiates or accelerates a chemical reaction without itself being affected
collision theory
atoms, ions, and molecules can react to form products when they collide, provided that the
particles have enough kinetic energy
factors affecting reaction rates
temperature, concentration ,particle size, and the use of a catalyst
Law of Mass Action
The rate of a chemical reaction is proportional to the product of the concentrations of the reactants
reaction mechanism
a series of elementary reactions that take place during the course of a complex reaction
acid ionization constant
the value of the equilibrium constant expression for the ionization of a weak acid
common ion effect
a decrease in the solubility of an ionic compound caused by the addition of a common ion
enthalpy
The heat content of a system at constant pressure
entropy
A quantitative measure of disorder or randomness, symbolized by S.
equilibrium
A dynamic condition in which two opposing changes occur at equal rates in a closed system
equilibrium constant
the ratio of product concentrations to reactant concentrations at equilibrium, with each
concentration raised to a power equal to the number of moles of that substance in the balanced
chemical equation
free energy
Measures the portion of a system's energy that can perform work when temperature and pressure
are uniform throughout the system, as in a living cell.
Gibbs free-energy equation
ΔG= ΔH(enthalpy)- TΔS(entropy)
solubility product constant
an equilibrium constant applied to the solubility of electrolytes; it is equal to the product of the
concentrations of the ions each raised to a power equal to the coefficient of the ion in the
dissociation equation
acid
A substance that increases the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution.
amphoteric
a substance that can act as both an acid and a base
base
A substance that decreases the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.
buffer solution
A solution made from a weak acid and its conjugate base that neutralizes small amounts of acids or
bases added to it
conjugate acid
the particle formed when a base gains a hydrogen ion
Arrhenius Theory
acids are characterized by their sour taste, low Ph, and the fact that they turn litmus red. Bases are
characterized by their bitter taste, slippery feel, high pH, and the fact that they turn litmus paper
blue
conjugate base
particle that remains when an acid has donated a hydrogen ion
end point
the point in a titration at which the indicator changes color
equivalence point
the point at which the two solutions used in a titration are present in chemically equivalent amounts
indicator
A compound that changes color in the presence of an acid or a base
litmus
an indicator paper that turns red in an acid and blue in a base
Bronsted-Lowery Theory
Defines acids as proton donors and bases as proton acceptors; recognizes that acids and bases do
not need to exist in aqueous (water) solutions; explains how acids and bases react to neutralize
each other and produce water and salts when combined
neutralization
A reaction of an acid with a base, yielding a solution that is not as acidic or basic as the starting
solutions were.
pH
a numeric scale used to specify the acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution
salt
An ionic compound made from the neutralization of an acid with a base.
titration
a measured amount of a solution of unknown concentration is added to a known volume of a
second solution until the reaction between them is just complete
volumetric analysis
a technique for determining the amount of a certain substance by doing a titration.
Lewis Theory
An acid is defined as an electron pair acceptor (e.g. BF3) and a base is an electron donator (e.g.
NH3).
anions
Negatively charged ions
burning
a type of oxidation reaction
cations
Positively charged ions
combustion
A rapid reaction between oxygen and fuel that results in fire
UNFAMILIAR BRANCHES OF BIOLOGY
ANATOMY – inner organs
ENTOMOLOGY – insects
BIOCHEMISTRY – chemical patterns of animals
ECOLOGY – living things bet. Each other in the environment
EMBRYOLOGY – developmental patterns fr. zygote-birth
GENETICS – heredityMYCOLOGY – fungi
HERPETOLOGY – reptiles and amphibians
HISTOLOGY – plant and animal tissues
MORPHOLOGY – phenotype (appearance)
ORNITHOLOGY – birds
PARASITOLOGY – parasites
PALEONTOLOGY – fossils of animals and plants
PHYSIOLOGY – the function of tissue, organ & system
TAXONOMY – classification of living organisms
SCIENCE PROPONENTS
CAROLUS LINNAEUS – Father of Taxonomy
ROBERT HOOKE – termed “cells” (cellulae)
ANTON VAN LEUWENHOEK – 1st person to observe
microscopic organisms (animal cule)
ROBERT BROWN – discovered Nucleus
MATTHIAS SCHIEDEN Botanist
THEODORE Zoologist)
- found all plants consist of cells
RUDOLF VIRCHOW – proposed cells come fr. existing cells
EARTH’S SPHERES
ATMOSPHERE – gaseous sphere protection from meteors
Divided into five:
¬ Troposphere
¬ Stratosphere
¬ Mesosphere
¬ Thermosphere
¬ Exosphere
HYDROSPHERE – water
LITHOSPHERE – oceanic and continental crust
BIOSPHERE – all life forms on Earth
CRYOSPHERE – ice
ANTHROSPHERE– ancestors

Father of Biology : Aristole

Father of Modern Biology: Linnaeus
Father of Antibiotics : Alexander Fleming
Father of Taxonomy : Carolus Linnaeus
Father of Immunology : Edward Jenner
Father of Microbiology : Anton van Leenuwenhoek
Father of Modern Microbiology : Louis Pasteur
Father of Medical Microbiology : Robert Koch
Father of Pathology : Rudolph Virchow
Father of Bacteriology : Robert Koch
Father of Virology : W.M.Stanley
Father of Embryology : Aristotle
Father of Modern Embryology : Ernst Von Baer
Father of Physiology : Stephan Hales
Father of Modern experimental physiology : Calude Bernard
Father of Genetics : Rev. Gregor Mendel
Father of Modern Genetics : Bateson
Father of Human Genetics/ Biochemical genetics : Arachibald Garrod
Father of Experimental Genetics : T.H. Morgan
Father of Haploid Genetics / Neurospora Genetics : Dodge
Father of Ecology : Theophrastus
Father of Cloning : Ian Willmut
Father of Plant anatomy : Grew
Father of Histology (Microscopic anatomy) : Malpighi
Father of Cytology : Robert Hooke
Father of modern Cytology : Swanson
Father of Paleontology : Leonard da Vinci
Father of modern Paleontology : Cuvier
Father of Concept of Evolution: Empedocles
Father of Botany: Theophrastus
Father of Modern Botany : Bauhin
Father of Zoology : Aristotle
Father of Biochemistry : Liebig
Father of Epidemiology : John Snow
Father of Plant Pathology : de Bary
Father of Modern Pathology : Rudolf Virchow
Father of Genetic Engineering : Paul Berg
Father of Gene therapy : Anderson
Father of Ethology : Konard Lorentz
Father of Endocrinology : Thomas Addison
Father of Eugenics : Galton
Father of Gerantology : Korenchevsk
Father of Palynology : Erdtman
Father of Stress physiology : Hans Selye
Father of Electrocardiography : Einthoven
Father of DNA Fingerprinting : Alec Jeffery
Father of Mycology : Micheli
Father of Bryology : Hedwig
Father of Phycology:Father of ATP cycle: Lipmann
Father of Chemotherapy :Father of Anatomy : Herophilus
Father of Modern Anatomy : Andrea