C D 0 1 0 0 1 K E

The highest number of serving a day should be from-------group

(a) bread, cereal
(b) vegetable
(c) fruit
(d) meat, poultry, fish

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 0 2 K E

Rice and wheat are

(a) energy givers
(b) growth promoters
(c) body protectors
(d) balanced foods

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 0 3 K E

Rice is the poor source of

(a) methionine
(b) lysine
(c) albumin
(d) tryptophan.

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 0 4 K E
Which of the following is a dry heat method of cooking?
(a) poaching
(b) broiling
(c) stewing
(d) braising

Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 0 5 K E

Food that gets cooked with the help of electromagnetic waves is

(a) pole cooking
(b) baking
(c) microwave
(d) boiling

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 0 6 K E

Cooking meat by direct heat over an open flame is

(a) broiling
(b) roasting
(c) sauteing
(d) braising

Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 0 7 C M

For roasting foods in the oven the temperature used should be

(a) 300-500◦F
 (b) 100-200◦F
(c) 200-250◦F
(d) 250-300◦F

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 0 8 C M

Stewing is a------------------ method of cooking

(a) moist heat
(b) dry heat
(c) frying
(d) micro heating
Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 0 9 C M

Which of the following wheat is used to prepare noodles

(a) soft
(b) hard winter wheat
(c) hard spring wheat
(d) durum wheat

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 1 0 C M

The percentage of insoluble proteins found in wheat flour is

(a) 80-85
(b) 20-30
(c) 10-20
(d) 14-50
Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 1 1 K E

Gluten is made up of
(a) gliadin and globulin
(b) gliadin and albumin
(c) gliadin and glutenin
(d) gliadin and glutelin

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 1 2 K E

Identify the cereal with the highest percentage of germ

(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) barley
(d) corn

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 1 3 K E

Roasting of the flour involves the process of

(a) gelatinization
(b) dextrinisation
(c) dehydration
(d) puffing

Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 1 4 K E
Pulses are limiting in the amino acid
(a) lysine
(b) threonine
(c) methionine
(d) leucine

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 1 5 K E

Favism is caused due to the pulse

(a) kesari dhal
(b) bengal gram dhal
(c) vicia faba
(d) green gram

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 1 6 K E

The percentage of protein in legumes is mostly around

(a) 15-20
(b) 20-25
(c) 30-40
(d) 50-60

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 1 7 K E

On germination of legumes, the vitamin-C content

(a) decreases
 (b) remains unchanged
(c) increases
(d) fluctuates

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 1 8 C M

Fats are made up of

(a) fatty acids and glycol
(b) fatty acids and glycine
(c) fatty acids and glycerol
(d) fatty acids and glyceraldehydes

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 1 9 C M

The process of converting liquid fats into solid fats is known as

(a) refining
(b) oxidization
(c) hydrogenation
(d) hydrolysis

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 2 0 C M

Indicate the natural antioxidant

(a) Propyl gallate
(b) BHA
(c) BHT
(d) Vitamin-D
Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 2 1 C M

PUFA is rich in
(a) coconut oil
(b) gingelly oil
(c) groundnut oil
(d) sunflower oil

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 2 2 Ap D

Oxidative rancidity results in the formation of

(a) ascorbic acid
(b) peroxides
(c) Solid fats
(d) Ketone bodies

Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 2 3 C M

Dark green leafy vegetables are rich sources of

(a) beta carotene
(b) carbohydrates
(c) minerals
(d) proteins

Ans: (a)
 C D 0 1 0 2 4 K E

The cementing substance found in vegetable cells is

(a) protoplasm
(b) pectins
(c) chloroplast
(d) parenchymal cells

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 2 5 K E

Cryptotoxanthin pigment in tomato is

(a) chlorophyil
(b) anthocyanin
(c) xanthophyll
(d) anthoxanthin

Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 2 6 K E

The fruit having the highest amount of sugar is

(a) raisins
(b) apples
(c) bananas
(d) pears

Ans: (c)
C D 0 1 0 2 7 K E

Peaches are grouped under

(a) pomes
 (b) drupes
(c) berries
(d) citrus fruits

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 2 8 Ap M

Name the fruit rich in calcium

(a) apple
(b) banana
(c) custard apple
(d) wood apple

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 2 9 K E

Avocados are rich in

(a) fat
(b) protein
(c) sugar
(d) vitamins

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 3 0 K D

Amount of calcium present in cows milk is

(a) 110mg
(b) 120mg
(c) 130mg
(d) 140mg
Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 3 1 N E

Name the enzyme present in papaya

(a) paparin
(b) peptide
(c) peptone
(d) pepsine

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 3 2 K E

Papaya is an excellent source of

(a) beta carotenes
(b) potassium
(c) cholorophyll
(d) niacin
Ans:. (a)

C D 0 1 0 3 3 K E

Toned milk will has the fat content of

(a) 2%
(b) 5%
(c) 7%
(d) 10%

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 3 4 K E
Yogurt is a
(a) evaporated milk
(b) skimmed milk
(c) canned milk
(d) cultured milk

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 3 5 K E

Paneer is
(a) hard cheese
(b) precipitated milk
(c) hard curds
(d) soft cottage cheese

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 3 6 C M

Egg shell is composed mainly of

(a) calcium phosphate
(b) magnesium phosphate
(c) calcium carbonate
(d) calcium sulphate

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 3 7 C M

Egg white injury factor is

(a) ovaglobulin
 (b) ovamucin
(c) avidin
(d) phospholipids
Ans: (b).

C D 0 1 0 3 8 A D
p

For preparing dried egg powder glucose is removed by

(a) filteration
(b) fermentation
(c) oxidation with chemicals
(d) addition of oxygen

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 3 9 C M

The proportion of white to yolk is

(a) 1:3
(b) 1:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 2:1

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 4 0 C M

A baked omelette with cream sauce is known as

(a) pudding
(b) meringue
(c) baked custard
(d) souffle
Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 4 1 C M

Name the method suitable for cooking older birds

(a) frying
(b) boiling
(c) stewing
(d) pressure cooking

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 4 2 C M

The protein content of chicken is approximately

(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) c 20%
(d) d.25%

Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 4 3 C M

The chief connective tissue protein present in meat is

(a) myosin
(b) actin
(c) collagen
(d) fibrin

Ans: (a)
 C D 0 1 0 4 4 C M

Name the part of the meat cut which is tender

(a) rib
(b) shoulder
(c) neck
(d) leg

Ans: (c).

C D 0 1 0 4 5 C M

Pork is used in the preparation of

(a) pickled veal
(b) ham
(c) fillet
(d) brine

Ans:. (b)

C D 0 1 0 4 6 C M

Fish liver oil rich in

(a) vitamin-A
(b) carotene
(c) vitamin-C
(d) thiamine

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 4 7 C M

Cereals and cereals products and starchy root and tubers are good
source of
 (a) carbohydrates
(b) protein
(c) fat
(d) fibre

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 4 8 C M

Jaggery which has some amount of

(a) iron
(b) calcium
(c) magnesium
(d) sodium

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 4 9 K M

Bran is high amount of

(a) fibre
(b) thiamine
(c) vitamin-c
(d) fat

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 5 0 K M
Cabbage and cauliflower contains
(a) allium
(b) sinigrin
(c) c.H2S
(d) So2
Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 5 1 K M

Cyanidin gives
(a) red colour
(b) yellow colour
(c) blue colour
(d) purple colour

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 5 2 K M

Tartaric acid in grapes gives

(a) taste
(b) flavour
(c) texture
(d) moisture content

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 5 3 K M

Name the type of acid present in apple

(a) acetic acid
(b) butyric acid
(c) citric acid
(d) malic acid

Ans: (d).
 C D 0 1 0 5 4 K M

Lactose helps in the absorption of

(a) iron
(b) calcium
(c) potassium
(d) sodium

Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 5 5 K M

Conduction is transfer of heat through

(a) liquid
(b) solids
(c) steam
(d) vaccum

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 5 6 K M

Non edible or cheap foods are added to foods is called as

(a) adulteration
(b) fortification
(c) enrichment
(d) substitution
Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 5 7 K M

Fruit Product Order act was passed in

(a) 1947
 (b) 1950
(c) 1963
(d) 1975

Ans: (c)

C D 0 1 0 5 8 K E

The common adulterant of cereal is

(a) stone
(b) lead chromate
(c) cheapest non edible
(d) starch

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 5 9 K M

Food quality was assessed by

(a) Agmark and ISI
(b) PFA
(c) FPO
(d) HACCP

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 6 0 K M

Double fortified salt is fortified with

(a) calcium and fluorine
(b) iron and calcium
(c) fluorine and magnisium
(d) iron and iodine
Ans:. (d)

C D 0 1 0 6 1 K M

One egg weighs around

(a) 55g
(b) 40g
(c) 45g
(d) 50g

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 6 2 C E

The fat content of poultry will vary according to

(a) age
(b) size
(c) weight
(d) colour

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 6 3 K M

The protein content of chicken is approximately

(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

Ans. (d)
 C D 0 1 0 6 4 K M

Meat from young sheep is called as

(a) pork
(b) beef
(c) veal
(d) lamb

Ans: (d)

C D 0 1 0 6 5 K E

The major pigment responsible for red colour of meat is

(a) beta carotene
(b) myoglobin
(c) anthoxanthnin
(d) anthocyanin

Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 6 6 K E

Fin fish will have

(a) Scales
(b) Hard shell
(c) Crust like shell
(d) Thick skin

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 6 7 K E

The best way of cooking meat is

 (a) pressure cooking
(b) baking
(c) broiling
(d) steaming

Ans: (a)

C D 0 1 0 6 8 K E

Sardines are rich in the nutrient

(a) potassium
(b) sodium
(c) glycogen
(d) iodine
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 6 9 K E

Fats of fish are generally rich in

(a) saturated
(b) unsaturated
(c) poly unsaturated
(d) partially saturated
Ans: (c)
C D 0 1 0 7 0 K E

Fishy odour is due to the presence of

(a) trimethylamine
(b) triethylamine
(c) methylamine
(d) ethylamine
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 7 1 K E
The active principle in cinnamon is
(a) eugenol
(b) coriandrol
(c) cuminol
(d) gingerol
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 7 2 K E

The other name for somfu is

(a) ani seeds
(b) cumin seeds
(c) mustard seeds
(d) fengugreek seeds
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 7 3 N M

Saffron contains the colouring and flavouring principle

(a) crocin
(b) eugenol
(c) butanedione
(d) hexanol
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 7 4 C E

BHA is an
(a) antioxidant
(b) antibiotic
(c) anticaking agent
(d) antibacterial agent
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 7 5 K M

Nutritive supplement added to milk is

 (a) vitamin A
(b) beta carotene
(c) thiamine
(d) vitamin D
Ans: (d)
C D 0 1 0 7 6 C M

Vitamin C is added to fruit juice and other fruit products as a

(a) nutrient supplement
(b) dietary sweetener
(c) maturing agent
(d) preservative
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 7 7 C E

Animal proteins are

(a) high quality protein
(b) low quality protein
(c) partially complete protein
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 7 8 C E

Glycogen is known as
(a) animal starch
(b) plant starch
(c) sugar
(d) glucose
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 7 9 K E

Amount of calcium present in cows milk

(a) 120 mg
 (b) 125mg
(c) 130mg
(d) 135mg
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 8 0 K M

U.S. Dept of Agriculture, first grouped food into

(a) Basic eleven
(b) Basic seven
(c) Basic five
(d) Basic four
Ans: (d)
C D 0 1 0 8 1 K M

ICMR classified into

(a) basic four
(b) basic five
(c) basic four
(d) basic eleven
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 8 2 K M

All protein rich foods have been classified within

(a) one group
(b) two groups
(c) three groups
(d) four groups
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 8 3 K E

To avoid deficiency diseases by proper

(a) selection of fruits
(b) classification of foods
 (c) collection of foods
(d) purchasing capacity
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 8 4 C M

Foods which supply mainly beta carotene and other vitamins are
(a) green leafy vegetables and fruits
(b) other vegetables
(c) cereals and cereal products and roots and tubers
(d) nuts and oil seeds
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 8 5 K E

Citrus fruits are rich in

(a) niacin
(b) thiamine
(c) folic acid
(d) ascorbic acid
Ans: (d)
C D 0 1 0 8 6 K E

Yellow corn contains

(a) vitamin B
(b) vitamin C
(c) beta carotene
(d) calcium
Ans: (c)
C D 0 1 0 8 7 K E

Cereals are devoid of

(a) carbohydrate
(b) protein
(c) vitamin C
 (d) thiamine
Ans: (C)
C D 0 1 0 8 8 K E

Tempering helps to increase

(a) thiamine content
(b) moisture content
(c) protein content
(d) fibre
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 8 9 K M

Durum wheat has

(a) high gluten content
(b) low gluten content
(c) moderate gluten content
(d) no gluten content
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 9 0 K E

The chief protein of wheat is

(a) globulin
(b) albumin
(c) proalbumin
(d) glutenin
Ans: (d)
C D 0 1 0 9 1 K E

Name the cereal having more fat in the endosperm

(a) wheat
(b) rye
(c) barley
(d) oats
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 9 2 K E

The rice that is most suited for human consumption

(a) milled rice
(b) parboiled rice
(c) polished rice
(d) milled and polished rice
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 9 3 K E

The millet which is highly nutritious and a better substitute for poor, rice consuming
populations is
(a) wheat
(b) barley
(c) rice
(d) ragi
Ans: (d)
C D 0 1 0 9 4 K M

Ropiness of bread is caused by

(a) bacterial contamination
(b) excess of moisture
(c) biological changes
(d) fungal attack
Ans: (d)
C D 0 1 0 9 5 K M

The unleavened wheat bread consumed commonly by Indian household is

(a) chappathi
(b) whole bread
(c) bun
(d) naan
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 9 6 C M

Pulses are limiting in the aminoacid

(a) lysine
(b) threonine
(c) methionine
(d) leucine
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 9 7 C M

Milk substitutes can be prepared using

(a) coconut
(b) almonds
(c) soyabean
(d) field beans
Ans: (c)
C D 0 1 0 9 8 K M

The word ‘dhal’ denotes

(a) split legumes
(b) de husked legumes
(c) whole legumes
(d) de cuticled legumes
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 9 9 K M

Lathyrism is produced by a toxin present in

(a) pulses
(b) oil seeds
(c) nuts
(d) cereals
Ans: (a)
 C D 0 1 0 1 0 0 K M

Tofu, a popular japanese food constitutes of

(a) curdled milk
(b) soya curds
(c) skim milk powder
(d) direct solvent method
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 1 0 1 C M

Eleven percent of albumin in an egg is due to

(a) carbohydrate
(b) protein
(c) fat
(d) ash
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 1 0 2 K M

Water test is done by dropping eggs into

(a) cold water
(b) ice water
(c) warm water
(d) hot water
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 0 3 K E

The household technique used to evaluate egg quality is

(a) white index
(b) candling
(c) yolk index
(d) grading
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 1 0 4 K E
The flesh of animals that are used as food is known as
(a) meat
(b) muscles
(c) adipose tissue
(d) organ meat
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 1 0 5 C M

The excellent guide for identifying various cuts of meat is

(a) shape of the bone
(b) shape of muscle
(c) shape of soft pads
(d) weight of fat
Ans: (b)

C D 0 1 0 1 0 6 C M

The fat content of raw fish is lesser than fat content of raw
(a) poultry of meat
(b) egg
(c) beef
(d) pork
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 0 7 C M

Black pepper is adulterated with

(a) dried papaya seeds
(b) kesari dhal
(c) tapioca flour
(d) argemone seeds
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 0 8 C M
Lead chromate is used to give color to
(a) turmeric powder
(b) ice cream
(c) butter
(d) oil
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 0 9 C M

Any food article is a guarantee of good quality by

(a) Agmark and ISI
(b) PFA
(c) FPO
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 0 K E

Rice is generally fortified with

(a) carbohydrate
(b) protein
(c) fibre
(d) vitamins and minerals
Ans: (d)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 1 C E

In many countries, vitamin added to milk and milk product is

(a) vitamin A
(b) vitamin C
(c) vitamin D
(d) vitamin K
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 2 C E
In India, vanaspathi is compulsorily fortified with
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin K
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 3 C E

Fruit juices and canned fruits are enriched with

(a) ascorbic acid
(b) vitamin a
(c) vitamin d
(d) vitamin e
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 4 C M

Common salt is generally fortified with

(a) calcium
(b) magnisium
(c) fluorine
(d) iodine
Ans: (d)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 5 C M

The prevention of food adulteration act rules were passed in

(a) 1955
(b) 1954
(c) 1956
(d) 1957
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 6 K M

Lengthwise cuts of fish is known as

 (a) steaks
(b) fillets
(c) sticks
(d) drawn fish
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 7 C E

Crude spice extractives are called as

(a) essences
(b) spice oil
(c) oleresins
(d) spice powder
Ans: (b)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 8 C E

The flavouring component used in tooth pastes, chewing gum and perfumes
(a) menthol
(b) gingerol
(c) menthol
(d) eugenol
Ans: (a)
C D 0 1 0 1 1 9 K M

Fish lends itself best cooking method for

(a) pressure cooking
(b) stir frying
(c) stewing
(d) shallow frying
Ans: (c)
C D 0 1 0 1 2 0 K M

The first food group introduced was known as

(a) basic seven
 (b) basic four
(c) basic five
(d) basic seven

Ans: (c)

C D 0 2 0 0 1 C M

A good cleaning agent should have emulsifying power wetting power and _____
(a) whitening power
(b) bleaching power
(c) suspending power
(d) bulking power
Ans. (c)

C D 0 2 0 0 2 C M
The main communication centre of housekeeping department is
(a) linen room
(b) desk control room
(c) pantry
(d) still room
Ans. (b)

C D 0 2 0 0 3 C M
A person who receives and delivers guest laundry is called as a
(a) bell-boy
(b) valet
(c) bell-desk
(d) door men
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 0 4 C M
Turning down service is done in the
(a) morning
(b) afternoon
(c) evening
(d) night
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 0 5 C M
The common alkali used in laundry department is
 (a) soda ash
(b) sodium hypochlorite
(c) sodium bicarbonate
(c) sodium hypochloride
Ans. (b)

C D 0 2 0 0 6 K E
Home away from home’ is created by
(a) front office
(b) laundry service
(c) maintenance
(d) housekeeping
Ans. (d)

C D 0 2 0 0 7 K E
The hotel which is located in the heart of the city is
(a) motel
(b) down town hotel
(c) inn
(d) hotel
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 0 8 K E
Which one of the following is a mobile home ?
(a) Camp
(b) Convention hotel
(c) Caravan
(d) Casino
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 0 9 C M
Duties and responsibilities expected from a food service personnel is given in
(a) job description
(b) job analysis
(c) job prospects
(d) job specification
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 1 0 K E
Crib rate is charged for children below _________ years
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 13
(d) 1 5
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 1 1 C M
Food service in resorts is termed as
 (a) sanatoria
(b) hospice
(c) motels
(d) gateux
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 1 2 K E
Which department prepares the room report in a hotel?
(a) Front office
(b) House keeping
(c) Food and beverage
(d) Stores
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 1 3 C M
The person who escorts the guest from the main door to the registration area is
(a) pager
(b) bell boy
(c) bell captain
(d) receptionist
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 1 4 C M
A room with sofa cum bed is a
(a) cabana
(b) studio
(c) double suite
(d) duplex suite
Ans. (b)

C D 0 2 0 1 5 C M
The paging system is meant to
(a) document reservation requests
(b) handle guest messages
(c) communicate to guestl
(d) store guest information
Ans. (b)

C D 0 2 0 1 6 A D
Which one of the following will you use to remove chewing gum stain ?
(a) Turpentine
(b) Glycerine
(c) Hydrogen peroxide
(d) Borax
Ans. (a)

C D 0 2 0 1 7 N D
A class A fire is effectively extinguished by------------
 (a) soda acid
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) carbon tetrachloride
(d) carbon dioxide fog
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 1 8 C M
The license given to use a brand name is referred to
(a) franchise
(b) sole proprietorship
(c) partnership
(d) dealership
Ans. (a)

C D 0 2 0 1 9 C M
The minimum stock maintained in the linen room is called as
(a) dead stock
(b) par stock
(c) maintenance
(d) inventory control
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 2 0 K E
The person in charge of the night account is called
(a) night auditor
(b) cashier
(c) financier
(d) accountant
Ans. (a)

C D 0 2 0 2 1 K E
The nerve center of housekeeping department is
(a) desk control
(b) linen room
(c) uniform room
(d) laundry
Ans. (b)

C D 0 2 0 2 2 K E
An accommodation with a single and a living room attached is a
(a) twin
(b) single suits
(c) double suits
(d) cabana
Ans. (b)

C D 0 2 0 2 3 K E
Hotels situated on water source is termed as
 (a) resort
(b) motel
(c) down town
(d) floatel
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 2 4 K E
A twin rooms has
(a) two double beds
(b) two single beds
(c) two king beds
(d) two queen beds
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 2 5 C M
The phase of the guest cycle that has the reservation process is
(a) departure
(b) occupancy
(c) arrival
(d) pre arrival
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 2 6 C M
The key that opens all rooms in a particular floor is a
(a) grand master key
(b) master key
(c) sub master key
(d) floor key
Ans. (b)

C D 0 2 0 2 7 C M
Hotels with more than 300 rooms are termed as
(a) medium
(b) large
(c) very large
(d) luxury
Ans. (c)

C D 0 2 0 2 8 C M
A pricing plan that includes room and all meals is a/an
(a) european plan
(b) american plan
(c) modified American plan
(d) modified European plan
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 2 9 K E
DND on the room door denotes
 (a) Do Not Depart
(b) Do Not Direct
(c) Do Not Disturb
(d) Do Not Deliver
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 3 0 K E
Registering of guest into the hotel is refers to
(a) check-in
(b) drive in
(c) walk-in
(d) set in
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 3 1 K E
Which of these provides steam bath at fitness center ?
(a) Bath tub
(b) Suzzie
(c) Bath pool
(d) Sauna
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 3 2 K E
Laundry machine used to iron long sheets of fabric is called
(a) tumbler
(b) calender
(c) suzzie
(d) jaccuzi
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 3 3 C M
Borax is used to remove _______ stains.
(a) chewing gum
(b) ink
(c) wine
(d) perspiration
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 3 4 S M
Identify the item to be kept in closed cupboards
(a) Floor linen
(b) Ties
(c) Pillow cases
(d) Table cloth
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 3 5 K E
Carpet shampooing is done using ___________
 (a) calendar
(b) hot water extraction machine
(c) tumbling machine
(d) suzzie
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 3 6 K E
The accounts to be settled by guests is
(a) incidental
(b) travel agents
(c) master
(d) overseas
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 3 7 K E
Room rate applicable for children below 5 years is known as
(a) school rate
(b) child rate
(c) crib rate
(d) nursery rate
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 3 8 K E
Hotels where licensed gambling is done are
(a) floatels
(b) residential hotels
(c) city hotels
(d) casino
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 3 9 K E
OOO indicates
(a) Out Of Order
(b) Out Of Observation
(c) Out Of Objective
(d) Out Of Object
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 4 0 K E
A person who makes and repairs sofas is a
(a) tailor
(b) horticulturist
(c) upholsterer
(d) linen assistant
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 4 1 K E
Class C fires are
 (a) textiles and rubbish
(b) wood and paper
(c) electrical equipment
(d) oil and grease
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 4 2 K E
Condemned linen is also known as
(a) dirty linen
(b) discarded linen
(c) soiled linen
(d) un used
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 4 3 K E
An example for transit hotel is
(a) airport hotel
(b) city hotel
(c) resort
(d) apartment
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 4 4 C M
Current rate charged for each room as per hotel policy is known as
(a) rack rate
(b) corporate rate
(c) flat rate
(d) crib rate
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 4 5 C M
A hotel with minimal services is called as
(a) time share
b. budget hotel
c. motel
d. resort
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 4 6 C M
The rate which is agreed upon by a company and hotel for all individual room
reservation is
(a) corporate rate
(b) commercial rate
(c) flat rate
(d) rack rate
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 4 7 C M
The room package with tariff for room alone is
(a) european plan
(b) american plan
(c) modified American plan
(d) continental plan
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 4 8 C M
Guest who does not arrive after making a confirmed booking is
(a) black list
(b) no-show
(c) skipper
(d) walk in
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 4 9 K E
The process of making the linen white is
(a) bleaching
(b) bluing
(c) washing
(d) cleaning
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 5 0 K E
A person who is a potential skipper is
(a) walk-out
(b) black list
(c) no-show
(d) scanty baggage
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 5 1 K E
The first inns go back to
(a) 4000 B.C.
(b) 3000 B.C.
(c) 3500 B.C.
(d) 2000 B.C.
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 5 2 K D
The first innovator of first budget hotel chain was
(a) Cecil B. Day
(b) Frank Duryea
(c) Charles
(d) Karl Benz
Ans.(a)
 C D 0 2 0 5 3 K D
Samuel cole of Boston opened the first
(a) American tavern
(b) English tavern
(c) Swiss tavern
(d) French tavern
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 5 4 K M
A sitting room usually having a concealed bed
(a) sofa bed
(b) lounge
(c) banquet
(d) parlour
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 5 5 S D
Identify the brush used on stairs and edges
(a) Nylon nap
(b) Tapestry
(c) Soft hand
(d) Hand shampoo
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 5 6 C M
Heavier linen should be placed on
(a) middle shelves
(b) top shelves
(c) lower shelves
(d) first shelves
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 5 7 C M
The total number of phases in linen control is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 5 8 C M
The fabrics recommended for sheets and pillow covers are
(a) silk
(b) rayon
(c) cotton
(d) wool
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 5 9 A D
The stain caused by writing ink is known as
 (a) pigments
(b) mineral
(c) synthetic dyes
(d) vegetable
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 6 0 A D
Fabrics cleaned in a substantially non-aqueous liquid medium is
(a) washing
(b) drying
(c) cleaning
(d) dry cleaning
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 6 1 C D
To-and-fro transfer of guest laundry is
(a) valet service
(b) turn down service
(c) concierge
(d) turn in
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 6 2 C M
The tool used for the selection of the right employee for a particular job
(a) job specification
(b) job description
(c) job list
(d) job assignment
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 6 3 A M
The types of brooms used on coarse surfaces are
(a) soft bristled
(b) wall brooms
(c) hard bristled
(d) floor broom
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 6 4 S M
Find the hotel which does not fall under the category of target market.
(a) Resort
(b) Convention
(c) Luxury
(d) Budget
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 6 5 A D
The shape of polish applicators are usually
 (a) Square
(b) Round
(c) Oblong
(d) Triangle
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 6 6 A D
The universal solvent is
(a) additive
(b) water
(c) detergents
(d) builders
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 6 7 A D
Uniforms of better quality materials should be preferably
(a) kept in close cupboards
(b) stacked in racks
(c) hung
(d) kept in hampers
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 6 8 A D
All stains fall under …………. categories
(a) four
(b) six
(c) two
(d) three
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 6 9 A M
Name an article for bed linen.
(a) Mattress protectors
(b) Hand towel
(c) Blankets
(d) Shower curtins
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 7 0 A D
A hotel will have a linen turn around of
(a) 5 to 6
(b) 3 to 4
(c) 1 to 2
(d) 6 to 7
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 7 1 A M
Heavy check out and check in on the same day is termed as
(a) back to back
(b) back of the house
(c) block booking
(d) spatt
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 7 2 K D
The term meaning indicating the rooms available for sale is
(a) minus
(b) open
(c) rack rate
(d) valet
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 7 3 A D
The term that indicates whether the room is occupied, vacant or reserved at any given
time is
(a) resident
(b) registration
(c) release time
(d) room status
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 7 4 A E
The front office in a hotel is the department responsible for
(a) cleaning of rooms
(b) laundry service
(c) sale of food and beverages
(d) sale of hotel rooms
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 7 5 C M
A skipper is one who
(a) causes damage to property
(b) leaves without paying the hotel bills
(c) has scanty baggage
(d) has not made prior reservation
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 7 6 K D
The father of industrial catering is …..
(a) John 12
(b) Robert Oven
(c) Benjamin Franklin
(d) Hermando Corter
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 7 7 K D
The first Motel was established in
(a) 1908
(b) 1860
(c) 1900
(d) 1890
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 7 8 C D
The luggage is carried by a ……..
(a) bell boy
(b) waiter
(c) reservation assistant
(d) information assistant
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 7 9 K M
The item used for guest who has made a reservation but does not arrive on the
expected date
(a) black list
(b) no show
(c) skipper
(d) walk out
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 8 0 C M
Twin rooms refers to
(a) one large bed
(b) single bed
(c) two distinct areas
(d) two single beds
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 8 1 S M
Which of the following will you use to remove excess water from the floor?
(a) Wet mops
(b) Squeezer
(c) Sponge mops
(d) dry mops
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 8 2 E M
Pick out for lodging establishment to predict revenue even more accurately is
(a) confirmed reservation
(b) advanced reservation
(c) guaranteed reservation
(d) spot reservation
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 8 3 S M
Identify the norm to be completed for foreign guest during Check in process
(a) reservation form
(b) whitney slip
(c) D form
(d) C form
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 8 4 S D
Identify the person who greets and welcomes the guest
(a) Room clerk
(b) Porter
(c) Bell boy
(d) Bearer
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 8 5 E M
Which of the following department is responsible for getting people into room quickly
and efficiently?
(a) Housekeeping
(b) Concierge
(c) Front desk
(d) Valet
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 8 6 S M
Pick out the department who manages Check out process
(a) Maintenance
(b) Front office
(c) Housekeeping
(d) Food and beverage
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 8 7 E M
Identify the work done by the bell boy
(a) Informs reception
(b) Bring luggage
(c) Noting in departure book
(d) Removes departure card
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 8 8 S M
Find out to which department the information on departure of the guest informed
immediately.
(a) Food and Beverage
(b) Personnel
(c) Sales and Marketing
(d) Housekeeping
Ans.(d)
 C D 0 2 0 8 9 E D
Pick up another name for ‘C’ form
(a) Hotel departure report
(b) Lobby report
(c) Hotel arrival report
(d) Accommodation report
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 9 0 S M
Identify the guest who arrives without having made a reservation
(a) Guaranteed
(b) Walk-ins
(c) Non-guaranteed
(d) Skipper
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 9 1 N M
Articles that are not in frequent use like mattress may be stored covered with
(a) Curtains
(b) Under cover
(c) Dust sheets
(d) Sheets
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 9 2 C E
The cashier in front office reports directly to the department of
(a) Housekeeping
(b) Stores
(c) Purchase
(d) Accounts
Ans.(d)

C D 0 2 0 9 3 S M
Identify the uniformed staff
(a) Bell captain
(b) Front office manager
(c) Stores manager
(d) Receptionist
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 9 4 S M
Identify whose duty is to guarantee for the smooth running of the front desk
(a) Bell captain
(b) Supervisor
(c) Door man
(d) Cashier
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 9 5 N M
How many distinct phases are in operation at front office department?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 9 6 S E
Identify who opens the car door at arrival of the guest in the hotel.
(a) Car jockeys
(b) Door man
(c) Bell boys
(d) Bell captain
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 0 9 7 S E
Identify the term used which involved paper work and checking of figures.
(a) Audit duties
(b) Paging
(c) Billing
(d) Agencies
Ans.(a)

C D 0 2 0 9 8 S M
A person who has influence over a large amount of business
(a) VIP
(b) VVIP
(c) CIP
(d) ARR
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 0 9 9 K M
Continental plan includes
(a) Rooms only
(b) Room and breakfast
(c) Half board
(d) Full board
Ans.(b)

C D 0 2 1 0 0 A M
Number of rooms occupied on a particular day and time
(a) Hotel diary
(b) Hotel register
(c) House count
(d) Guest rack
Ans.(c)

C D 0 2 1 0 1 K M
101. Sub urban hotels fall under the category of
 (a) theme
(b) target market
(c) location
(d) level of service
Ans.(c)

C D 0 3 0 0 1 C M
White sauce is a popular type of sauce in …… cuisine
(a) American
(b) Indian
(c) Chinese
(d) African
Ans.(a)
C D 0 3 0 0 2 K M
Sorbitol has a …………….. property
(a) emulsifying
(b) blending
(c) whipping
(d) stabilizing
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 0 3 K E
Assamese food is mainly based on
(a) milk and bread
(b) rice and chicken
(c) rice and fish
(d) rice and pork
Ans.( c)
C D 0 3 0 0 4 K E
The word tandoor is often used to define the …………….. of food
(a) colour
(b) flavour
(c) consistency
(d) appearance
Ans. (c )
 C D 0 3 0 0 5 K E
A gelling substance found naturally in wheat is
(a) gluten
(b) renin
(c) bechamel
(d) pectin
Ans.(a)
C D 0 3 0 0 6 N E
Green salads include
(a) legumes
(b) grains
(c) leaf lettuce
(d) fruits
Ans . (b)
C D 0 3 0 0 7 N E
An example of sauce prepared cold but served lukewarm
(a) salsa
(b) pesto
(c) mayonnaise
(d) bechamel
Ans.(d)
C D 0 3 0 0 8 C D
Carom seeds are ………… in colour
(a) pale yellow
(b) greyish
(c) brown
(d) grayish brown
Ans.(b)
 C D 0 3 0 0 9 A E
Stock is made by…………… various ingredients
(a) boiling
(b) simmering
(c) c. steaming
(d) d. stewing.
Ans. (a)

C D 0 3 0 1 0 C M
A list of dishes planned for production in a catering operation is termed as
(a) dish
(b) food items
(c) menu
(d) meal
Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 1 1 K D
Mis -en-place means
(a) cleaning up afterwards
(b) preparing in advance
(c) replacing items used
(d) returning food to store
Ans.( b)
C D 0 3 0 1 2 A E
The purpose of blanching is to
(a) whitening
(b) retain colour
(c) remove skin
(d) retain flavour
Ans. (b)

C D 0 3 0 1 3 K E
The common sauce used in tandoori preparation is
 (a) yoghurt
(b) white
(c) mayonnaise
(d) tomato
Ans.(a)
C D 0 3 0 1 4 C M
A main ingredient in thickening of a soup is
(a) veloute
(b) broth
(c) potage
(d) puree
Ans.(d)

C D 0 3 0 1 5 K D
Tandoori oven is popular in
(a) French cuisine
(b) Indian cuisine
(c) Mexican cuisine
(d) Pakistani cuisine
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 1 6 C M
Rasamalai is a popular dessert in …………. Cuisine
(a) Punjabi
(b) b.Goan
(c) Bengali
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
C D 0 3 0 1 7 K E
Lard is obtained from
(a) cow
(b) goat
(c) hog
(d) veal
Ans. (c)
 C D 0 3 0 1 8 A M
The food items cooked in moulds and deep fried
(a) croutons
(b) croquettes
(c) fume
(d) marinate
Ans. (b)
C D 0 3 0 1 9 N M
A mixture of oil and water that does not separate on standing is termed as
(a) colloids
(b) emulsions
(c) oxidation
(d) blanquette
Ans.( b)
C D 0 3 0 2 0 A M
The basic food preparation prior to service is
(a) mis – en – scene
(b) mis – en place
(c) coupe
(d) miso
Ans.(a)
C D 0 3 0 2 1 K D
Menu was originated in
(a) 1531
(b) 1541
(c) 1551
(d) 1561
Ans.(b)

C D 0 3 0 2 2 C D
Oxtail soup is the
(a) thin soup
(b) thick soup
 (c) national soup
(d) Broths
Ans.(c)
C D 0 3 0 2 3 A M
The word menu is derived from
(a) Latin
(b) French
(c) English
(d) Germany
Ans.(b )
C D 0 3 0 2 4 N M
Fortnightly menu repeats on every
(a) 12 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 18 days
(d) 21 days
Ans.( b)
C D 0 3 0 2 5 C M
The cuisine famous for largest snack preparation is
(a) Gujarati cuisine
(b) Punjabi cuisine
(c) Kashmiri cuisine
(d) Jaipuri cuisine
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 2 6 C M
Tamil Nadu cuisine is famous for
(a) snack preparation
(b) hot and spicy preparation
(c) cold preparation
(d) break fast preparation
Ans.( b)
C D 0 3 0 2 7 A M
The method of cooking which combines roasting and stewing is called
 (a) broiling
(b) boiling ‘
(c) braising
(d) pan broiling
Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 2 8 S D
The French term pen tiao means
(a) increasing flavour
(b) decreasing taste
(c) blending flavour
(d) adding taste
Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 2 9 N D
The word basting is usually associated with
(a) barbequeing
(b) baking
(c) grilling
(d) roasting
Ans.( d )

C D 0 3 0 3 0 A M
The cooking method for preparation of payasam is
(a) moist heat method
(b) dry heat method
(c) combination method
(d) microwave cooking
Ans.( c )
C D 0 3 0 3 1 N D
Bisques are made from
(a) a.beef
(b) b. vegetable
(c) c. shell fish
(d) d. pork
 Ans.( c )
C D 0 3 0 3 2 N D
The puree of shell fish is termed as
(a) couils
(b) chowder
(c) bisque
(d) gumbo
Ans.( c )

C D 0 3 0 3 3 K D
The term banquet menu was coined by
(a) Count hugo de monfort
(b) Duke henry
(c) Catherine de medici
(d) Tortoro bryan
Ans. (b)

C D 0 3 0 3 4 C M
Addition of minced meat or yeast in boiling water will yield
(a) emergency stock
(b) consommé
(c) broth
(d) puree
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 3 5 C D
The term function menu refers to the
(a) a la carte menu
(b) table de hote menu
(c) banquet menu
(d) cyclic menu
Ans. (c)
C D 0 3 0 3 6 C M
Pasta is the popular recipe of
 (a) Italy
(b) China
(c) Thailand
(d) Japan
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 3 7 A D
At what temperature tandoori chicken is cooked foods ?
(a) 800 F
(b) 850 F
(c) 900 F
(d) 950 F
Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 3 8 C D
The major role of sauce is NOT to
(a) give colour
(b) enhance flavour
(c) help in digestion
(d) add calories
Ans.( d )

C D 0 3 0 3 9 A D
In Italian cuisine, the side course is
(a) Primo
(b) Antipasto
(c) Digestivo
(d) Contorno
Ans. (d)

C D 0 3 0 4 0 A D
A small piece of bread toasted is known as
(a) canape
(b) brunoise
(c) bouchees
 (d) cartouche
Ans. (a)

C D 0 3 0 4 1 C D
The dish Cordon refers to
(a) thin sauce
(b) thick sauce
(c) white sauce
(d) brown sauce
Ans.(a )

C D 0 3 0 4 2 C D
Bechamel sauce is made with
(a) milk and roux
(b) milk and corn flour
(c) c. milk and maida
(d) milk and butter
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 4 3 K M
Entrée refers to a/an
(a) appetizer
(b) main course
(c) rest course
(d) dessert course
Ans.( b)
C D 0 3 0 4 4 C M
The word choice menu refers to
(a) ala cart menu
(b) table the hote menu
(c) cyclic menu
(d) banquet menu
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 4 5 C M
Gravies are thickened expect with
(a) starch
(b) corn flour
(c) arrow root flour
(d) soya sauce
Ans. (d)
C D 0 3 0 4 6 K E
Gravy is also called as
(a) sauce
(b) soup
(c) chutney
(d) stock
Ans. (a)

C D 0 3 0 4 7 C M
A stock made out of beef pieces is known as
(a) brown veal stock
(b) white veal stock
(c) brown game stock
(d) estouffade
Ans. (d)
C D 0 3 0 4 8 K E
A basic cold stock is
(a) mayonnaise
(b) hollandaise
(c) demi- glaze
(d) espagnole sauce
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 4 9 C E
Andhra cuisine is famous for
(a) cold preparations
(b) desserts
(c) snacks
 (d) spicy preparations
Ans. (d)
C D 0 3 0 5 0 K D
Stock is the base for
(a) soup
(b) sauce
(c) c.gravy
(d) puree
Ans.( a)
C D 0 3 0 5 1 K D
Table de hote means
(a) table of foods
(b) table of the host
(c) table of menu
(d) table of guest
Ans. (b)
C D 0 3 0 5 2 K D
Crepe commonly refers to
(a) pan cake
(b) small cake
(c) cup cake
(d) apple cake
Ans.( a)
C D 0 3 0 5 3 C M
An American soup made with pickle
a. chowder
b. consommé
c. potage
d. broth
Ans.(a)
C D 0 3 0 5 4 A D
An example of basic cold stock is
(a) mayonnaise
 (b) hollandaise
(c) demi- glaze
(d) espagnole sauce
Ans. (c )

C D 0 3 0 5 5 N D
Clear soup is also called as
(a) buillon
(b) potage
(c) consommé
(d) puree
Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 5 6 C M
A marinated meat cooked over an intense fire is known as
(a) tandoor
(b) braising
(c) broiling
(d) marinating
Ans. (a)

C D 0 3 0 5 7 C M
Cold Hors d oeuveres are known as
(a) salads
(b) fruit juices
(c) ice creams
(d) puddings
Ans.( a)
C D 0 3 0 5 8 C M
.Cooked salads are NOT dressed using
(a) vinegar
(b) salad oil
(c) mayonnaise
(d) egg
Ans. (d)

C D 0 3 0 5 9 C M
Cuisine that is unique and different from other northeastern Indian states
(a) Meghalaya 
(b) Arunachala Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Haryana
Ans. (a) 
C D 0 3 0 6 0 A E
The dimension of a Julienne cut is

(a) 2mm X 2mm X 4cm

(b) 2mm X 2mm X 6cm
(c) 2mm X 2mm X 2cm
(d) 2mm X 2mm X 8cm

Ans.( a)

C D 0 3 0 6 1 K E
The diced carrots are used for preparing

(a) soups
(b) stews
(c) salads
(d) curries
Ans. (b)
C D 0 3 0 6 2 C D
Caramalisation of sugar is otherwise called as

(a) thickening of sugar

(b) browning of sugar
(c) colouring of sugar
(d) none of the above

C D 0 3 0 6 3 A M
Velouté is a

(a) white sauce

(b) brown sauce
(c) thick sauce
(d) thin sauce
Ans. (a )

C D 0 3 0 6 4 C D
Fennel refers to

(a) ani seed

(b) cardamom
(c) cinnamon
(d) jeera

Ans.(a)

C D 0 3 0 6 5 K M
Cyclic menu is usually seen in a

(a) hotel
(b) restaurant
(c) kiosk
(d) hostel canteen

Ans. (d)

C D 0 3 0 6 6 K M
The temparature of roasting is
(a) 300 f
(b) 350 f
(c) 300- 350 f
(d) 400f
Ans.( c)

C D 0 3 0 6 7 E M
.In tandoor cooking, foods are NOT cooked in
(a) direct fire
(b) wood
(c) charcoal
(d) Sun
Ans. (d)

C D 0 3 0 6 8 C M
Stock is the base for
 (a) soup
(b) sauce
(c) c.gravy
(d) puree
Ans.(a)

C D 0 3 0 6 9 N M
Charoli is a
(a) Indian nut
(b) vegetable
(c) fruit
(d) d.dried fruit
Ans. (a)

C D 0 3 0 7 0 A M
A type of white fish is
(a) a.phirnee
(b) b.pomfret
(c) c. prawn
(d) d. rabiri
Ans. (b)

C D 0 3 0 7 1 E M
Partly roasted game made into stew is known as
(a) salami
(b) b.saute
(c) c.sear
(d) d.sherbet
Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 7 2 A M
Kashmiri cuisine is famous for
(a) vegetable cooking
 (b) milk preparation
(c) mutton
(d) chicken cooking
Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 7 3 C M
Traditionally, sauce is used in ……. Cuisine
(a) Japanese
(b) French
(c) British
(d) Italian
Ans. (a)

C D 0 3 0 7 4 A M
A fortified brown veal stock sauce is
(a) velouté
(b) hollandaise
(c) espagnole
(d) béchamel
Ans. (c)

C D 0 3 0 7 5 C M
A set of menu is termed as
(a) a la care
(b) table de hote
(c) banquet
(d) cyclic
Ans.( b )
C D 0 3 0 7 6 N D
A marinated meat cooked over an intense fire is known as
(a) tandoor
(b) braising
(c) broiling
(d) marinating
 Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 7 7 A M

Tandoor is a ……….. oven

(a) copper
(b) steel
(c) c clay
(d) aluminum
Ans. (c )

C D 0 3 0 7 8 K D
The term Tomate farcie means
(a) stuffed tomato
(b) tamoto sauce
(c) tomato ketchup
(d) tomato salad
Ans. (a)

C D 0 3 0 7 9 C M
Uppittu is a famous recipe of
(a) chettinad cuisine
(b) kerala cuisine
(c) Karnataka cuisine
(d) Andhra cuisine
Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 8 0 N D
The small dice is similar to
(a) batonnet
(b) medium Dice
(c) large Dice
(d) brunoise

Ans. (d )
C D 0 3 0 8 1 C D
The Ahhni is a
 (a) chutney
(b) gravy
(c) salad
(d) soup

Ans. (d)
C D 0 3 0 8 2 A D
A salad mixed with thick dressing which is

(a) a.vegetable salad

(b) b. bound salad
(c) c. main course salad
(d) d. greens salad

Ans. (b)

C D 0 3 0 8 3 A D
Another name of egg white is known as

(a) albumin
(b) globumen
(c) abattoir
(d) gavage

Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 8 4 A D
Hard crack stage occurs at a temperature of

(a) 310 f
(b) 320 f
(c) 330 f
(d) 340 f

Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 8 5 A D
The cut of meat lengthwise  in known as

(a) Brunoise
(b) Julienne
(c) Batonnet
(d) butterfly

Ans. (d)
 C D 0 3 0 8 6 N D
A beverage made with fermented mare’s mi

(a) a.milk shake

(b) b.butter milk
(c) c. kumis
(d) d. kefir

Ans. (c)
C D 0 3 0 8 7 N M
Static menu is usually seen in

(a) hospital
(b) restaurant
(c) kiosk
(d) hostel

Ans.( b)

C D 0 3 0 8 8 N D
A dish that is appetising and easy digestible is

(a) a.soup
(b) b. sauce
(c) c. salad
(d) d. stock

Ans. (a)

C D 0 3 0 8 9 A D
The temperature of deep fat frying is

(a) 120 f
(b) 150 f
(c) 200 f
(d) 250 f

Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 9 0 C D
Fish cooked in fish stock and wine is known as
 (a) au bleu
(b) au four
(c) c.au gras
(d) au gratin

Ans.( a)

C D 0 3 0 9 1 A D
Clear soup is a

a. Main course

b. thin soup

c. mother soup

d. fruit soup

Ans. (b)
C D 0 3 0 9 2 A D
The French term Cotelettes refers to

a. cutlet

b. puff

c. samosa

d. muffins

Ans. (a)
C D 0 3 0 9 3 A M
A vegetable cut into small even cubes of ½ inch is

(a) butter fly

(b) dice
(c) chopping
(d) julienne

Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 9 4 A M
The term paneer refers to

(a) egg and bread crumps

(b) maida and yeast
 (c) corn flour and bread
(d) soft cheese

Ans.(d)
C D 0 3 0 9 5 A M
A very fine Italian pasta is

(a) macroni
(b) noodles
(c) vermicelli
(d) semolina

Ans. (c )
C D 0 3 0 9 6 K D
The non stick cook ware is coated with a layer of
(a) fluoron
(b) teflon
(c) cryslon
(d) trylon
Ans. (b)
C D 0 3 0 9 7 C M
. What is the full form of LPG ?
(a) Liquefied Petrol Gas
(b) Liquid Petrol Gas
(c) Liquid petroleum Gas
(d) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
Ans.( d)

C D 0 3 0 9 8 K D
The source of energy drawn from the dams is
(a) tidal energy
(b) sea energy
(c) wind energy
(d) hydropower
Ans.( d)
 C D 0 3 0 9 9 A E
The energy density of renewable sources as compared to the conventional
sources is
a. very high
b. equal
c. low
d. negligible
Ans.(a)
C D 0 3 1 0 0 C D
Solar photovoltaic cells convert solar energy directly into
(a) mechanical energy
(b) electricity
(c) heat energy
(d) transportation
Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 0 1 K M

Digestibility coefficient of protein is

(a) 98 per cent
(b) 95 per cent
(c) 92 per cent
(d) 70 per cent

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 0 2 K E

Basal metabolic rate is measured using

(a) bomb calorimeter
(b) doughlas bag
(c) oxycalorimeter
(d) Benedict’s Roth apparatus

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 0 3 K E
 In carbohydrate metabolism the co-enzyme for alphaketoglutarate
dehydrogenase is
(a) TPP
(b) NAD
(c) FAD
(d) Piridoxal phosphate

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 0 4 K E

Predominant storage form of carbohydrate in plants is

(a) glycogen
(b) dextrin
(c) starch
(d) pectin

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 0 5 K E

Dietary fibre is useful in the prevention of

(a) constipation
(b) diarrhoea
(c) gastritis
(d) ascitis

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 0 6 K M

The term protein was coined by

(a) Mulder
(b) Mcwilliams
(c) Osborne
(d) Berzelius

Ans.(d)
 C D 0 6 0 0 7 K M

Fatty acids are classified on the basis of the number of

(a) carboxyl groups
(b) amino groups
(c) carbon atoms
(d) methyl groups

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 0 8 K E

The site of synthesis of cholesterol in the body is

(a) intestine
(b) kidney
(c) stomach
(d) liver

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 0 9 K M

Proteins consist of chains of amino acids joined by

(a) glucosidic linkage
(b) sulphur linkage
(c) peptide linkage
(d) covalent bond

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 1 0 K M

Urea is synthesized in
(a) Kidney
(b) intestine
 (c) gall bladder
(d) liver

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 1 1 K E

Nutrients are transported in the intestine by

(a) nucleoprotein
(b) immune protein
(c) transport protein
(d) catalytic protein

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 1 2 K E

The chief source of fluorine is

(a) water
(b) milk
(c) aerated beverages
(d) soups

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 1 3 K M

Normal concentration of vitamin A in the serum is

(a) 10 to 20 µg/dl
(b) 20 to 80 µg/dl
(c) 200 to 800 µg/dl
(d) 800 to 1000 µg/dl

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 1 4 K E

One of the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency is

(a) bleeding gums
(b) cheilosis
(c) koilonychia
(d) night blindness

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 1 5 K E

Osteomalacia is a symptom of deficiency of

(a) vitamin D
(b) vitamin A
(c) vitamin K
(d) vitamin E

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 1 6 K M

Which of the following is known as sunshine vitamin ?

(a) Retinol
(b) Tocopherol
(c) Cholesterol
(d) Thiamine

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 1 7 K D

Ascorbic acid is essential for which of the following reactions ?

(a) Methylation
(b) Hydroxylation
(c) Oxidation
(d) Hydrogenation

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 1 8 K E

A common name for ascorbic acid is

(a) sunshine vitamin
(b) coagulation vitamin
(c) anti infective vitamin
(d) fresh-food vitamin

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 1 9 K D
Vitamin B12 is known as
(a) extrinsic factor
(b) intrinsic factor
(c) anti scorbutic factor
(d) anti sterility factor

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 2 0 K M

Ascorbic acid enhances the absorption of

(a) iron
(b) iodine
(c) zinc
(d) manganese

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 2 1 K E

Hyperglycemia results when blood glucose level goes beyond

(a) 100 mg/dl
(b) 180 mg/dl
(c) 120 mg/dl
(d) 220 mg/dl

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 2 2 K M

Which of the following is NOT present in the structure of carbohydrate and fat
(a) Carbon
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 2 3 K M

Nitrogen forms a component in the structure of

(a) carbohydrate
(b) proteins
(c) fat
(d) vitamin A

Ans.(b)
 C D 0 6 0 2 4 K E

Heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through 1°celsius is

called as
(a) Kcal
(b) Joule
(c) Mega joule
(d) Kilo joule

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 2 5 K M

Bomb calorimeter is used to measure the

(a) physiological fuel value of foods
(b) total energy value of foods
(c) thermogenic effect of foods
(d) basal metabolic rate

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 2 6 C M

When protein is synthesized in the body, if one essential amino acid is absent
or in short
supply it is known as
(a) fatty acid
(b) non-essential amino acid
(c) semi-essential amino acid
(d) limiting amino acid

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 2 7 C M

All the cells and tissues of the body are made up of

(a) carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) protein
(d) vitamin A

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 2 8 C D
Which of the following vitamins functions both as a hormone and a vitamin
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin K

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 2 9 C M

Identify the substance that does NOT contain any mineral

(a) Albumin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Catalases
(d) Haemoglobin

Ans.(a)
C D 0 6 0 3 0 C E

Which of the following foods you will recommend in a cholesterol free diet
(a) Groundnut oil
(b) Ghee
(c) Milk
(d) Egg

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 3 1 C E

One of the following is a complete protein- identify

(a) Gelatin
(b) Meat
(c) Pulses
(d) Wheat protein

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 3 2 C D

The consequence of too little intake of carbohydrate (< 50 g) is

(a) ketosis
(b) edema
(c) poly uria
(d) anaemia

Ans.(a)
 C D 0 6 0 3 3 C D

When body cannot synthesize an amino acid that amino acid is known as

(a) non-essential amino acid

(b) energy giving nutrient
(c) essential amino acid
(d) limiting amino acid

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 3 4 C E

Calcium and phosphorus are minerals that are needed for

(a) mental development
(b) bone growth
(c) muscular development
(d) haemoglobin synthesis

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 3 5 C M

Which of the following compounds results when fat is digested in the intestine ?
(a) Fatty acids
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Chylomicrons
(d) Triglycerides

Ans.(a)
C D 0 6 0 3 6 C E

Which of the following will be hydrolyzed by salivary amylase

(a) Scrapped cucumber
(b) Carrot salad
(c) Boiled potato
(d) Plantain

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 3 7 C M

Enhancing calcium absorption and facilitating growth of E-coli in the intestine are
the functions of
(a) glucose
(b) fructose
(c) lactose
(d) maltose

Ans.(c)
C D 0 6 0 3 8 C M

One of the following is NOT a plant polysaccharide. Identify

(a) Gums
(b) Cellulose
(c) Pectins
(d) Glycogen

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 3 9 C M

A triglyceride contains three fatty acids attached to a molecule of

(a) cholesterol
(b) lipoprotein
(c) glycerol
(d) chylomicron

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 4 0 C M

Hydrolysis of a simple lipid will yield

(a) triglycerides
(b) phospholipid
(c) fatty acids
(d) waxes

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 4 1 C E

When insulin is absent which of the following accumulates in blood

(a) Lactose
(b) Maltose
(c) Galactose
(d) Glucose

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 4 2 C M
Neutritis and numbness of extremities result due to
(a) wet beriberi
(b) dry beriberi
(c) cheilosis
(d) glossitis

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 4 3 A E

What will be the BMI of a person of height 175 cms weighing 75 kg ?

(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 24

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 4 4 A E

Main function of glycogen is to maintain

(a) blood glucose level
(b) muscle glycogen level
(c) physical activity
(d) insulin activity

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 4 5 A M

Positive nitrogen balance results during

(a) fever
(b) immobilization
(c) inadequate calorie intake
(d) pregnancy

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 4 6 A M

Negative nitrogen balance results during

(a) growth
(b) pregnancy
(c) inadequate calorie intake
(d) convalescence

Ans.(c)
C D 0 6 0 4 7 A D
Proteins provide carbon skeleton for the synthesis of
(a) essential fatty acid
(b) essential amino acid
(c) non- essential fatty acid
(d) non- essential amino acid

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 4 8 A M

Which of the following foods is rich in blue-green coloured vitamin ?

(a) Milk
(b) Egg
(c) Rice
(d) Pulses

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 4 9 A M

Pyridoxine is an essential co-enzyme for the process of

(a) transamination
(b) transmethylation
(c) transcarboxylation
(d) trans hydroxylation

Ans.(a)
C D 0 6 0 5 0 A E

Which of the following is known as the disease of 4 Ds

(a) Kwashiorkor
(b) Beri-beri
(c) Pellagra
(d) Rickets

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 5 1 A M

In the fasting state when only fat is metabolised for energy the RQ will be
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.85
(c) 1.00
(d) 1.07

Ans.(a)
 C D 0 6 0 5 2 A E

When body temperature increases by 1º Celsius above normal temperature, BMR

will
increase by
(a) 3 percent
(b) 7 percent
(c) 20 percent
(d) 13 percent

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 5 3 A E

When body temperature increases by 1º Fahrenheit above normal temperature, BMR

increases by
(a) 3 percent
(b) 7 percent
(c) 13 percent
(d) 20 percent

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 5 4 A M

How does hyperthyroidism affect BMR

(a) Increase by 75 to 100 percent
(b) Decrease by 30 to 40 percent
(c) Slightly decrease by 20 to 30 percent
(d) No effect

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 5 5 A M

What effect does decreased secretion of thyroxine have on BMR

(a) Increase by 75 to 100 percent
(b) Decrease by 30 to 40 percent
(c) Slightly decrease by 20 to 30 percent
(d) No effect

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 5 6 A E

How does growth hormone affect Basal Metabolic Rate

(a) No effect
(b) Decrease
 (c) Slightly decrease
(d) Increase

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 5 7 A M

Increase in energy requirement after ingestion of food is called

(a) calorigenic effect of food
(b) dietary calories
(c) total calorie requirement
(d) basal energy requirement

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 5 8 A E

How much energy does an adolescent girl require for her moderate activities
(a) 1000 kcl
(b) 1500 kcl
(c) 2000 kcl
(d) 2500 kcl

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 5 9 A M

Which of the following foods would you suggest for a child with bowed legs
(a) Groundnuts and wheat
(b) Dates and Dhal
(c) Guava and amla
(d) Milk and drumstick leaves

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 6 0 A E

A growing child needs which of the following food groups for proper growth
(a) Milk and meat
(b) Fats and oils
(c) Amaranth and buttermilk
(d) Dates and wheat

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 6 1 A M

Which of the following foods will help to prevent osteoporosis

 (a) Groundnuts and jaggery
(b) Orange and guava
(c) Papaya and greens
(d) Milk and fish

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 6 2 A M

Those who live in the slopes of hills and river banks are likely to develop
(a) anaemia
(b) diabetes
(c) goiter
(d) night blindness

Ans.(c)
C D 0 6 0 6 3 A E

A Child suffering from kwashiorkor will have the to consume more of

(a) cereals and millets
(b) pulses and meat
(c) fruits and vegetable
(d) sugar and jiggery

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 6 4 A E

An adolescent girl suffering from anaemia should consume more of

(a) milk and curd
(b) rice and wheat
(c) dhal and legumes
(d) greens and egg

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 6 5 A E

Consumption of one of the following food groups will relieve constipation

(a) bread and jam
(b) rice and dhal
(c) greens and beans
(d) milk and milk products

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 6 6 A M

A child who is suffering from diarrhoea and dehydration should be given

(a) fruits and greens
(b) solution of water, sugar and a pinch of salt
(c) milk and milk products
(d) rice and sambar

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 6 7 A M

Which of the following foods will you recommended for a child suffering from
vitamin B12 deficiency
(a) Green leafy vegetables
(b) Pulses
(c) Meat
(d) Fruits

Ans.(c)
C D 0 6 0 6 8 A M

A pregnant woman with calcium deficiency will suffer from

(a) toxemia
(b) dermatitis
(c) eclampsea
(d) osteomalacia

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 6 9 A M

Which of the following foods will enhance iron absorption in an anaemic child ?
(a) Lemon juice
(b) Milk
(c) Butter milk
(d) Green Tea

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 7 0 A D

Consumption of raw egg white predisposes to the risk of deficiency of

(a) vitamin A
(b) biotin
(c) iron
(d) calcium
Ans.(b)
C D 0 6 0 7 1 A D

Which of the following you will recommended for quick wound healing
(a) Whole gram
(b) Dates
(c) Cod liver oil
(d) Sweet lime juice

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 7 2 A D

Detoxification function in liver is carried out by

(a) glucuronic acid
(b) heparin
(c) bile salt
(d) mucopolysaccharide

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 7 3 A D

Boiling egg results in coagulation of egg protein which is an example of

(a) simple protein
(b) conjugated protein
(c) primary derived protein
(d) secondary derived protein

Ans.(c)
C D 0 6 0 7 4 A M

Hydrogenation of plant oils is used in the production of

(a) vanaspathi
(b) unsaturated fats
(c) liquid fats
(d) butter

Ans.(a)
C D 0 6 0 7 5 A E

Which of the following fat is bad for health

(a) Omega 3 fatty acid
(b) Monounsaturated fat
(c) Poly unsaturated fat
(d) Trans fatty acid

Ans.(d)
 C D 0 6 0 7 6 A E

Adequate intake of greens and dates will prevent the occurrence of

(a) anaemia
(b) night blindness
(c) scurvy
(d) goiter

Ans.(a)
C D 0 6 0 7 7 A E

Consumption of carrots and fish oil will protect against

(a) anaemia
(b) goitre
(c) night blindness
(d) neuritis

Ans.(c)
C D 0 6 0 7 8 A E

Which of the following you will suggest for a pregnant woman suffering from
anaemia
(a) Milk and milk products
(b) Green leafy vegetables
(c) Fruits
(d) Fats and butter

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 7 9 A M

When a growing child has knock knees which of the following should be consumed
(a) carrot and papaya
(b) Rice and wheat
(c) Guava and orange
(d) Milk and milk products

Ans.(d)
C D 0 6 0 8 0 A E

What is the normal quantity of water intake you will suggest for an adult man
(a) 1500 ml
(b) 2500 ml
 (c) 3500 ml
(d) 4500 ml

Ans.(b)
C D 0 6 0 8 1 N E

Vanaspathi is to saturated fatty acid as groundnut oil to

(a) Unsaturated fatty acid
(b) Saturated fatty acid
(c) Mono unsaturated fatty acid
(d) Semi saturated fatty acid

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 8 2 N M

Which group of following nutrients is involved in the metabolism of carbohydrate.

(a) Riboflavin, thiamine, niacin
(b) Fat, protein, retinol
(c) Calcium, phosphorus, sodium
(d) Iron, vitamin C, retinol

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 8 3 N M
β – Carotene can be converted to retinol, likewise tryptophan can be converted to
(a) riboflavin
(b) niacin
(c) thyroxine
(d) tyrosine

Ans.(b)
C D 0 6 0 8 4 N M
Carbohydrates, Fats and proteins are collectively known as
(a) Body building nutrients
(b) Essential nutrients
(c) Micronutrients
(d) Proximate principles

Ans.(d)
 C D 0 6 0 8 5 N E
Cane sugar is made up of which of the following sugars.
(a) Fructose and maltose
(b) Glucose and galactose
(c) Fructose and glucose
(d) Maltose and lactose

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 8 6 N E
Approximately how much of water one should drink per day to prevent dehydration.
(a) 1000 ml
(b) 2000 ml
(c) 3000 ml
(d) 4000 ml

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 8 7 N M

Parathormone is secreted and released when the serum calcium level falls below
(a) 5 mg/dl
(b) 11 mg/dl
(c) 15 mg/dl
(d) 9 mg/dl

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 8 8 N E

Which of the following groups is known as micro nutrients.

(a) Fibre and water
(b) Vitamins and minerals
(c) Fibre and fat
(d) Carbohydrates and protein
 Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 8 9 N E

A fatty acid that cures phrenoderma is

(a) palmitic acid
(b)oleic acid
(c) stearic acid
(d)linoleic acid

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 9 0 N E
Goitrogens are substances that block the absorption and utilization of
(a) iron
(b)calcium
(c) cobalt
(d)iodine

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 9 1 N M

Identify the products formed by deamination.

(a) Keto acid and urea
(b) Keto group and amino group
(c) Urea and citrulline
(d) Citrulline and arginine

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 0 9 2 N E
Neutralizing the acid chyme in the duodenum is the
function of
(a) bile
(b) trypsin
(c) cholesterol
(d) lipase

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 9 3 N D
 Important characteristics of globular proteins is
(a) insoluble in water
(b)give strength to tissues
(c) parallel structure
(d)ellipsoidal structure

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 9 4 N M
Enzyme inhibitors are found in
(a) groundnut
(b) soyabean
(c) green peas
(d) green gram

Ans.(b)
C D 0 6 0 9 5 N E
Where does glycolysis take place.
(a) Mitochondria
(b)Cell wall
(c) Cytoplasm
(d)Neucleus

Ans.(c)

C D 0 6 0 9 6 N E
In lactose intolerance the substance that accumulates in the intestine is
(a) lactose
(b) lactase
(c) lactobacillus
(d) lactoferrin

Ans.(a)
 C D 0 6 0 9 7 N M
Analyse the problems associated with zinc deficiency.
(a)Dry and rough gum
(b) Swollen bleeding gums
(c) Diarrhoea and dermatitis
(d)Unpleasant taste and smell

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 0 9 8 N E

Lactose intolerance is caused by the enzyme

(a) lactase
(b) sucrose
(c) invertase
(d) maltase

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 0 9 9 N E
The characteristic feature of monosaccharides is
(a) insoluble in water
(b) amorphous
(c) acids in nature
(d) crystalline

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 1 0 0 N E

Starch is an example of
(a) monosaccharides
(b)disaccharides
(c) trisaccharides
(d)polysaccharides

Ans.(d)

C D 0 6 1 0 1 N E
Analyse the nutrients present in ragi.
(a) Carbohydrate, iron,calcium
(b) Carbohydrate, thiamine, protein
(c) Protein,fat, vitamin C
(d) Protein, retinol, calcium

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 1 0 2 N M
Which of the following is the result of excess fluoride intake.
(a) Swollen bleeding gums
(b) Diarrhoea and dermatitis
(c) Dry and rough gum
(d) Dull and brown pigmented teeth

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 1 0 3 N E

Analyse the following symptoms and locate the group which is due to ascorbic acid
deficiency.
(a) Unpleasant taste and smell
(b) Swollen bleeding gums
(c) Diarrhoea and dehydration
(d) Dry and rough gum

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 1 0 4 N E

Locate the function of minerals in the body.

(a)Provide structure and hardness to bones
(b) Contribute energy to body
(c)Prevent constipation
(d) Enhance nutrient absorption

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 1 0 5 N E
Exposure to sunlight is a source of
(a) vitamin A
(b)vitamin D
(c) vitamin E
(d)vitamin K

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 1 0 6 S E

When a child suffers from tachycardia, edema and enlargement of heart, it

denotes the deficiency of
(a) thiamine
(b) riboflavin
(c) niacin
(d) pyridoxine

Ans.(a)
C D 0 6 1 0 7 S E

Oxidation of glucose in cells would lead to the production of

(a) CO2, water and ATP
(b) CO2, glucose and fat
(c) ATP, NAD and FAD
(d) Pyruvic acid and acetyl CoA

Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 1 0 8 S M

When glucose is boiled with phenyl hydrazine the crystal formed will have
(a) needle shape
(b) flower petal shape
(c) powder puff shape
(d) disc shape

Ans. (a)

C D 0 6 1 0 9 S M

When you boil glucose solution with Benedict’s reagent the result will be
(a) violet precipitate
(b) brick red precipitate
(c) cherry red solution
(d) blue solution
Ans. (b)
C D 0 6 1 1 0 S E
When a person consumes 500 kcl/day in excess of Recommended Dietary
Allowance the result will be
(a) anaemia
(b) kidney failure
(c) under weight
(d) obesity

Ans. (d)
C D 0 6 1 1 1 E E

Determine the group of nutrients that perform energy giving function

(a) Protein and fibre
(b) Carbohydrate and fat
(c) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Protein and vitamins

Ans.(b)

C D 0 6 1 1 2 E M

Identify the symptoms that depict niacin deficiency

(a) Dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia
(b) Cheilosis, glossitis, angular stomatitis
(c) Rickets, tetany, muscle twitching
(d) Tachy-cardia, retention of water, enlargement of heart

Ans.(a)
C D 0 6 1 1 3 E D

Evaluate the factor that determines energy requirement above basal metabolism
(a) Physical activity
(b) Fat content of the body
(c) Age
(d) BMI of a person

Ans.(a)
C D 0 6 1 1 4 E M

Locate the process which requires the presenc of insulin

(a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Glycogenolysis
(c) Glycogenesis
(d) Lipogenolysis
 Ans.(a)

C D 0 6 1 1 5 E E

Which of the following foods you will recommend to obtain maximum

quantity of ascorbic acid
(a) Cooked cabbage
(b) Tossed green salad
(c) Drumstick poriyal
(d) Amla pickle

Ans.(b)

C D 0 7 0 0 1 K E
The normal pH of arterial blood is …..
(a) 6.8
(b) 7.8
(c) 8.8
(d) 7.4
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 0 2 K D
Heparin is secreted by
(a) Neutrophils
(b) Basophils
(c) Monocytes
(d) Lymphocyte
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 0 3 K M
Anaemia due to folic acid deficiency is called
(a) Microcytic anaemia
(b) Normocytic anaemia
(c) Pernicious anaemia
(d) Megaloblastic anaemia
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 0 4 K E
Vitamin K is essential for the formation of
(a) Fibrinogen
(b) Proconvertin
(c) Thromboplastin
(d) Prothrombin
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 0 5 C D
The nertrophils and monocytes are mainly responsible for
(a) Phagocytosis
(b) Antibody formation
(c) Formation of fibroblast
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 0 6 A D
Haematocrit value is the expression of
(a) Ratio of oxyhaemoglobin and reduced haemoglobin in blood
(b) Ratio of RBC to plasma in blood
(c) Ratio of WBC to RBC in blood
(d) Ratio of haemoglobin to RBC in blood
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 0 7 K D
Average diameter of RBC is
(a) 6.2
(b) 7.2
(c) 8.2
(d) 9.2
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 0 8 A M
Diminution of platelets in the blood leads to
(a) Anaemia
(b) Jaundice
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Purpura
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 0 9 K D
Intravenous administration of blood is called ………..
(a) blood groups
(b) Agglutination
(c) Blood transfusion
(d) Haemorrhage
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 1 0 A M
The importance of blood group studies is of great value for
(a) Paternity test
(b) Blood transfusion
(c) in forensic medicine
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 1 1 K M
The lymphatic vessel situated in the centre of villi
(a) Lacteal
(b) Lymphoid follicle
(c) Chyli
(d) Thoracic duct
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 1 2 C M
The amount of tissue fluid formed from the tissue cells depends upon
(a) Arterial B.P
(b) Venous pressure
(c) Intake of large quantity of water
(d) The degree of metabolic activity of the cells
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 1 3 A M
Diastolic pressure is a measure of …………
(a) Cardiac output
(b) Blood volume
(c) Stroke volume
(d) Peripheral resistance
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 1 4 A E
Cardiac output / min. per sq.metre of the body surface is known as
(a) Cardiac efficiency
(b) cardiac index
(c) B.P. Index (d) 2600 ml
(d) Mean stroke volume
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 1 5 K D
The blood vessel which supplies blood to the wall of the blood vessel is called
(a) Vaso arteries
(b) Vaso vasorum
(c) Vaso veins
(d) Meta arteries
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 1 6 K D
The specialized tissues which are responsible for the initiation and transmission of
cardiac impulses are called ….
(a) Junctional tissues
(b) S.A. node
(c) A.V. node (d) Purkinje fibres
Ans: (a)
 C D 0 7 0 1 7 K M
The defect in arborisation block lies in the …..
(a) Atrial muscle
(b) Ventricular muscle
(c) Purkinje fibres
(d) Sino atrial node
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 1 8 K D
First sound of heart is due to the ……….
(a) Closure of semilunar valves
(b) Opening of semilunar valves
(c) Closure of atrioventicular valves
(d) Opening of atrioventicular valves
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 1 9 K M
The commenest instrument used for detecting heart sounds
(a) Sphygmomanometer
(b) Stethoscope
(c) Sphygmograph
(d) Spiromelar
Ans: (b)

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The machine by which the electrical activity of the heart is recorded …
(a) Electro cardiogram
(b) Electro cardiograph
(c) Electro cardio graphic leads
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 2 1 K M
Cehemo receptors are found in the
(a) Arch of aorta
(b) Arteris
(c) Blood sinus
(d) Vein
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 2 2 C M
Blood pressure decreases in
(a) Obesity
(b) Old age
(c) Sleep
 (d) Exercise
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 2 3 C M
The volume of air that can be taken in or given out during quiet breathing is called
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Vital capacity
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume
(d) Expiratory reserve volume
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 2 4 K D
Co2 is carried in the blood in the following form:
(a) In combination with Hb
(b) In physical solution
(c) As bicarbonate
(d) All of these
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 2 5 C D
Respiratory centre is situated in the
(a) Cerebral cortex
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla
(d) Pons
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 2 6 C M
The air present in the deeper portion of the lung is called …..
(a) Lung air
(b) Alveolar air
(c) Inspired air
(d) Expired air
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 2 7 K D
Septal cells are present in the
(a) Trachea
(b) Bronchi
(c) Bronchioles (d) Alveoli
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 2 8 K D
The important muscle responsible for respiration is
(a) External intercostal muscle
(b) Internal intercostal muscle
 (c) Diaphragm
(d) Facial
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 2 9 K M
Indicate the clinical condition in which the skin assume blue colouration
(a) Hypertension
(b) Cyanosis
(c) Tachycardia
(d) Bradycardia
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 3 0 A D
Cyanosis depends upon
(a) Reduced Hb
(b) Oxidised Hb
(c) Sulph Hb
(d) Carboxy Hb
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 3 1 A D
Abdominal tonsil is the …
(a) Rectum
(b) Ileum
(c) Appendix
(d) Lymphoid tissue
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 3 2 K M
The length of the small intestine is roughly
(a) 5 feet
(b) 15 feet
(c) 25 feet
(d) 35 feet
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 3 3 C E
The total number of gastric glands in an adult is about
(a) 1 million
(b) 1.5 million
(c) 2 million
(d) 2.5 million
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 3 4 C M
Stimulation of vagus nerve produces gastric secretion which is rich in
(a) Hcl
(b) Pepsin
(c) Neither Hcl nor pepsin
(d) Both pepsin and Hcl
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 3 5 K D
Goblet cells are present in the
(a) Mouth
(b) Pharynx
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Stomach
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 3 6 C D
The colour of human bile is
(a) Yelllow
(b) Green
(c) Yellowish green
(d) Colourless
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 3 7 C D
Lateal content is called ……
(a) Lymph
(b) Tissue fluid
(c) Chyle
(d) Lactone
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 3 8 K D
The capacity of gall bladder is ….
(a) 150ml
(b) 100ml
(c) 50ml
(d) 10ml
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 3 9 K
Emptying of stomach is delayed by
(a) Gastrine
(b) Enterogastrone
(c) Secretin
(d) Hcl
Ans: (b)
 C D 0 7 0 4 0 K M
Goblet cells secretes
(a) Hcl
(b) Ptyaline
(c) Mucous
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 4 1 C D
The powerful cholagogue of liver is ….
(a) Lipids
(b) Proteins
(c) Bile salt
(d) Starch
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 4 2 A D
Glomerular filtration pressure is
(a) 10mm of Hg
(b) 40mm of Hg
(c) 25mm of Hg
(d) 30 mm of Hg
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 4 3 C D
The glomerular blood pressure is about
(a) 55 mm of Hg
(b) 65 mm of Hg
(c) 75 mm of Hg
(d) 85 mm of Hg
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 4 4 K D
The amount of filtrate formed the kidney per day is
(a) 140 litres
(b) 150 litres
(c) 160 litres
(d) 170 litres
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 4 5 C D
Facultative water reabsorption is regulated by
(a) Renin
(b) Rennin
(c) ADH
 (d) Aldosterone
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 4 6 K M
Tubular glucose maximum (TMG) level is …..
(a) 375 mg/minute
(b) 125 mg/minute
(c) 325 mg/minute
(d) 500 mg/minute
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 4 7 C M
Epidermis derives its nutrition through
(a) Blood
(b) Lymph
(c) Lacteal
(d) Body fluid
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 4 8 K D
The colour of the skin is due to the pigment
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Myoglobin
(c) Melanin
(d) Bilirubin
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 4 9 C M
The main channel of heat loss from the body is through
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Skin
(d) Heart
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 5 0 C M
Thyroid gland is situated one on either side of
(a) Pharynx
(b) Larynx
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Trachea
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 5 1 K M
Thyroid gland manufactures thyroxine from tyrosine and
(a) Iodine
 (b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Cobalt
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 5 2 K D
Hyperthyroidism produces
(a) Cretinism
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Graves disease
(d) Tetany
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 5 3 K D
Parathormone is essential for the maintenance of blood
(a) Ca
(b) Mg
(c) Fe
(d) Cu
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 5 4 C M
Among the following organs, largest amount of heat is produced in
(a) Brain
(b) Stomach
(c) Liver
(d) Skin
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 5 5 C M
Propyl throurcil is an antithyroid compound and its mechanism of action is
(a) Interfers in iodination of tycosine
(b) Inhibit concentration of Iodide with in the gland
(c) Decreases vascularity of the gland
(d) Prevents absorption of Iodide
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 5 6 C D
Secretion of parathormone is controlled by
(a) Anterior pituitary
(b) Posterior pituitary
(c) Hypothalmus
(d) Blood calcium level
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 5 7 C M
Which of the following, stimulate insulin secretion?
(a) Low blood glucose
(b) Cydic 3’, 5’ - AMP
(c) Vagal stimulation
(d) None of them
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 5 8 K
Administration of growth hormone :
(a) Increases protein synthesis
(b) Increases aminoacid content of plasma
(c) Increases plasma level of non-esterified fatty acids
(d) Produces hypoglycaemia
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 5 9 K D
Each mgm of thyroxine raises the BMR to about
(a) 500 calories
(b) 700 calories
(c) 800 calories
(d) 1000 calories
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 6 0 C D
The hormone for the growth of greafian follicle is
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Progesteran
(c) F.S.H.
(d) L.H
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 6 1 K D
The hormone which controls the growth and activity of the thyroid gland
(a) TSH
(b) ACTH
(c) STH
(d) FSH
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 6 2 C M
Diabetes incipidus occur due to the deficiency of
(a) Insulin
(b) Glucagen
(c) ADH
(d) STH
Ans: (c)
 C D 0 7 0 6 3 K D
Lactogenic hormone is secreted from the
(a) Mammary gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Ovary
(d) Uterus
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 6 4 K M
The hormone responsible for the contraction of uterus is
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Adrenaline
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Prolactin
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 6 5 K D
Non-inflammatory enlargement of the thyroid gland is known ad
(a) Exopthalmic disease
(b) Grave’s disease
(c) Myxoedema
(d) Goitre
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 6 6 K D
The onset of reproductive life is known as
(a) Menopause
(b) Menoarche
(c) Puberty
(d) Amenorrhoea
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 6 7 K D
The principle site of erythropoiesis is
(a) Liver
(b) Spleen
(c) Red bone marrow
(d) Stomach
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 6 8 K D
RBC life span
(a) 80 days
(b) 100 days
(c) 120 days
 (d) 140 days
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 6 9 C M
Deglutition is otherwise called
(a) Digestion
(b) Absorption
(c) Swallowing
(d) Excretion
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 7 0 C M
Increased secretion of growth hormone in children results in
(a) Acromegaly
(b) Gigantism
(c) Dwarfism
(d) Cretinism
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 7 1 C E
The immature follicle present in the ovary is called
(a) Corpusluteum
(b) Graafian follicle
(c) Interstitial cells
(d) Primordial follicle
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 7 2 K E
Duration of pregnancy
(a) 200 days
(b) 400 days
(c) 240 days
(d) 280 days
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 7 3 K E
Anterior pituitary gland is under the control of
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Thalamus
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 7 4 C D
The receptor responsible for vision
(a) Organ of corti
 (b) Taste cells
(c) Rods and cones
(d) Olfactory cells
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 7 5 C M
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) increased in
(a) Pregnancy
(b) Pulmonary TB
(c) Tumour
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)

C D 0 7 0 7 6 C M
Intra vascular clotting is called
(a) Thrombus
(b) Thrombosis
(c) Haemostasis
(d) Embolus
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 7 7 C D
Persistent increase in RBC above 14 millions/cumm of blood is called
(a) Primary polycythemia
(b) Secondary polycythemia
(c) Polycythemia veera
(d) Emphysema
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 7 8 C D
Blood bilirubin level is …….
(a) 0.5 – 1.5 mg%
(b) 1.5 – 2mg%
(c) 2 – 2.5mg%
(d) 3 – 3.5mg%
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 7 9 K M
The important stimulant for the development of RBC
(a) Iron
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Erythropoietin
(d) Erythropoiesis
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 8 0 K D
Cooley’s anaemia is due to the presence of
(a) Adult type of Hb
(b) Fetal type of Hb
(c) Reduced type of Hb
(d) Oxidised type of Hb
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 8 1 K D
Cellular immunity is by the activation of
(a) Basophil
(b) Monocyte
(c) T.Lymphocyte
(d) B.Lymphocyte
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 8 2 K M
Normal platelet count is
(a) 2 to 4 lakhs/cumm of blood
(b) 2 to 6 million/cumm of blood
(c) 4 to 5 million/cumm of blood
(d) 6000 to 8000/cumm of blood
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 8 3 C M
The elevated portion of stomach above the level of cardiac orifice
(a) Body of the stomach
(b) Pylorus
(c) Fundus
(d) Cardiac region of stomach
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 8 4 C M
The intrinsic factor present in gastric juice necessary for the absorption of
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin B6
(d) Folic acid
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 8 5 K M
Trypsinogen is converted into active trypsin by
(a) Hcl
(b) Enterokinase
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: (b)
 C D 0 7 0 8 6 K D
The condition in which large quantity of undigested fat is excreted in the feces
(a) Eatorrhea
(b) Steatorrhea
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Secreatitis
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 8 7 K M
The most important enzyme for the digestion of fat is
(a) Salivary lipase
(b) Gastric lipase
(c) Pancreatic lipase
(d) Intestinal lipase
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 8 8 K D
Podocytes are found in the
(a) Renal corpuscle
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Skin
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 8 9 K D
136. Renal circulation per minute is
(a) 1200 cc
(b) 1800 cc
(c) 1400 cc
(d) 1500 cc
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 9 0 C D
The substances, which enhances the output of urine
(a) Dialators
(b) Diuretics
(c) Diuresis
(d) Hydration
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 9 1 K E
The activities of various organs in our body are controlled by
(a) Nervous system
(b) Endocrine system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
 (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 9 2 K M
The hormone which facilitate the contraction of uterus
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) ACTIP
(d) ADH
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 9 3 K
Thyroid hormone remain stored in the form of
(a) Vesicles
(b) Follicle
(c) Thyroglobulin
(d) Thyroxine
Ans: (a)

C D 0 7 0 9 4 K E
The increased water intake is called
(a) Polyuria
(b) Polydipsia
(c) Polyphagia
(d) Dimeser
Ans: (b)

C D 0 7 0 9 5 C D
Adrenaline increases the blood glucose by increasing the
(a) Absorption of glucose
(b) Gluconeogenesis
(c) Glycogenlysis
(d) Utilization
Ans: (c)

C D 0 7 0 9 6 K D
Decreased ability to produce the offspring is called
(a) Fertility
(b) Infertility
(c) Cryptochidism
(d) Menopause
Ans: (b)

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Functions of placenta
(a) Nutritive function
 (b) Excretory function
(c) Endocrine function
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)

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The middle layer of the heart is
(a) Pericardium
(b) Endocardium
(c) Myocardium
(d) Syncytium
Ans: (c)

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The ability of the tissue to produce its own impulses regularly is called the
(a) Pace maker
(b) S.A.Node
(c) Rhythmicity
(d) Plateau
Ans: (c)

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Chemoreceptors are receptors giving response to change in
(a) ‘H’ion
(b) Co2
(c) O2
(d) Chemical constituents of blood
Ans: (d)

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Dietary intake of nutrients planned to meet the nutritional requirement of all age group is
(a) RD
(b) CDE
(c) RDA
(d) ARD

Ans.(c).

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C D 0 8 0 0 3 K E

AI refers to
(a) Average Intake
(b). Adequate intake
(c). Avoid Intake
(d). Accurate Intake
Ans.(c).

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Body protein has a source of energy of

a. 9kcal/g
b.6kcal/g
c.3kcal/g
d.4kcal/g

Ans.(d).

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Total fat intake should be

(a). 45 - 65% of total calories
(b). 20 - 35% of total calories
(c). 30-45% of total calories
(d). 20 - 25% of total calories

Ans.(d).

.
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The recommended sodium requirement for a healthy person is

(a). 4000 mg/day
(b). 3000 mg/day
(c). 2400 mg/day
(d). 2300 mg/day

Ans.(d).

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Recommended intake of fiber should be

(a). 15 - 25 g/day
(b). 25 - 35 g/day
(c). 35 - 45 g/day
(d). 20 - 35 g/day

Ans.(d).

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Eat legumes (beans) which are part of both the meat group and the vegetables group at least
(a). twice a week
(b). once a week
(c). 5 times a week
(d). 4 times a week

Ans.(a).
 C D 0 8 0 0 9 K M

The recommended daily servings of milk and milk products is

(a). 1
(b). 2
(c). 3
(d). 4

Ans.(c).

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Which one of the following will you select to enhance the fibre content of your diet
(a). bran, ectosperm, germ
(b). husk, ectosperm, germ
(c). bran, endosperm, germ
(d). bran, endosperm, virus

Ans.(c).

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Eat ______ whole grain products per day that are enriched or whole grain products
(a). 2
(b). 3
(c). 4
(d). 5

Ans.(a).
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For most people, the recommended intake is about ____ cups of fruit and _____ cups of vegetables per day!
(a). 2, 2.5
(b). 3, 3.5
(c). 4, 4.5
(d). 1, 2.5

Ans.(a).

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Limit all of the following in your diet except

(a). saturated and trans fats
(b). sugar and salts
(c). cholesterol
(d). fiber.

Ans.(d).

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Provide substantial nutrients and relatively fewer calories

(a). protein foods
(b). nutrient foods
(c). nutrient-dense foods
(d). fatty foods

Ans.(c).

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What will be the percentage of caloric contribution from a diet which supplies 2400 kcal and 60gram?
protein
(a). 5%
(b). 10%
(c). 15%
(d). 20%

Ans.(b).

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The recommended protein requirement for an adult man

(a).50g
(b). 55g
(c). 60g
(d). 65g

Ans.(c).

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“Normal weight” of the human body consists approximately of:

(a).98% oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and calcium
(b).68% oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and calcium
(c).38% oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and calcium
(d). 28% carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and calcium

Ans.(a).

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Which of the following statement is True:

(a). at a molecular level, for a 70kg reference man, protein makes up 14.4% of their
body weight.
(b). at a molecular level, for a 70kg reference man, protein makes up 5.3% of their
body weight.
(c). at a molecular level, for a 70kg reference man, protein makes up 34.4% of their
body weight.
(d). at a molecular level, for a 70kg reference man, protein makes up 26.4% of their
body weight

Ans.(a).
.
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The contribution (in grams) of muscle to the overall body composition of a 70kg
reference man is:
(a).16
(b).18
(c).28
(d).68

Ans.(c).

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BMI refers to
(a).Body Mass Index
(b). Basal Metabolic Index
(c). Basal Mass Index
(d). Basal Muscle Index

Ans.(a).

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.BMI is defined as:

(a). weight/height (kg/cm)
(b) height/weight (m2/kg)
(c). weight/height2 (kg/m2)
(d).weight/height3 (kg/m3)

Ans.(c).

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The BMI of Sita is 17years, is she

(a) underweight
(b) normal
(c) over weight
(d) obese

Ans.(b).

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What is the normal range for BMI in humans?

(a). 19–25
(b).18–24
(c). 18.5–24.9
(d). 18.2–24.2

Ans.(c).

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Variations in body composition between individuals are mainly due to variations in:
(a). waist circumference
(b) fat mass
(c). total body water
(d). height

Ans.(b).

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In a normal weight healthy female adult, the amount of body fat varies between:
(a).12–20%
(b).15–55%
(c).5–42%
(d). 15–35%

Ans.(a).

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Normal blood cholesterol level should be

(a).<200mg/dl
(b).>200mg/dl
(c). <300mg/dl
(d).>300mg/dl

Ans.(a).

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Low cost supplementary - Indian multipurpose foods was formulated by

(a). CFTRI
(b). NIN
(c). Gandhigram Rural Institute
(d). ICMR

Ans.(a).
 C D 0 8 0 2 9 C M

Amount of proteins recommended for PEM child is about

a. 4g/kg/day
b. 5 g/kg/day
c. 6g/kg/day
d.7g/kg/day

Ans.(b).

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Which of these is NOT a symptom of PEM ?

a. bitots spots
b. loss of appetite
c. skin lesion
d. diarrhoea

Ans.(a).

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-------------------- is a rich source of iron ?

a. Pulses
b. Wheat
c. Rice flakes
d Milk

Ans.(c).

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ICDS was started on

a.2nd October 1972
b.2nd October 1973
c. 2nd October 1974
d.2nd October 1975

Ans.(a).

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Which of the following does not have a vaccine available for prevention?
a. Chicken Pox
b. Measles
c. HIV
d. Influenza

Ans.(c).

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BCG vaccine is used to curb_________.

a. pneumonia
b. tuberculosis
c. polio
d. amoebiasis

Ans.(b).

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Oral rehydration solution does not contain_________.

a.sodium chloride
b.sodium cyanide
c. sodium bicarbonate
d. glucose

Ans.(a).

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Congenital diseases are those which are_________.

(a) deficiency diseases
(b) present from time of birth
(c) spread from man to man
(d) occur during life time

Ans.(b).

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Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause: C/M

(a) hypothyroidism
(b) hyperthyroidism
(c) urinalysis
(d) a and b

Ans.(d).
 C D 0 8 0 3 8 K E

The hormone responsible for milk secretion

(a) prolactin
(b) thyroid
(c) pitutary
(d) adrenal

Ans.(a).

C D 0 8 0 3 9 C M

An average daily milk production for a lactating women is

(a) 350ml
(b) b.450ml
(c) c.550ml
(d) d.650ml

Ans.(d).

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Expressed breast milk can be kept stored at room temperature for about
a.8 hours
b.9 hours
c.10hours
d.11 hours

Ans.(a).

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Name milk that is produced from the mother and given to the new born infant is
(a) foremilk
(b) hind milk
(c) mature milk
(d) colostrum

Ans.(d).

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Which of the following is milk sugar

(a) glucose
(b) fructose
(c) lactose
(d) sucrose
 Ans.(c).

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After delivery the mother secretes a clear yellowish secretion known as

(a) colostrum
(b) cholesterol
(c) mature milk
(d) hind milk

Ans.(a).
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Amount of calories present in 100 ml of human milk is

(a) 61
(b) 71
(c) 86
(d) 91

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World Breast Feeding Week falls on

(a) 1st -7th August
(b) 8th -15th August
(c) 1st -7th September
(d) 8 -15 September
th th

Ans.(a)..

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The proposed " two in one" salt contain s iodine and_________.

(a) iron
(b) sodium
(c) Potassium
(d) manganese

Ans.(a).

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Which of the following foods is rich source of proteins?
(a) wheat
(b) soya bean
(c) goat liver
(d) green leafy vegetables

Ans.(a).

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What are the two main minerals in the body, predominantly present in bone?
(a) calcium and phosphorus
(b) calcium and zinc
(c) zinc and phosphorus
(d) calcium and boron

Ans.(a)..

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The hormone that signals hunger from the stomach to the brain is:
(a) .GLP-1
(b). leptin
(c). neurotensin
(d). ghrelin

Ans.(b).

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World Hunger Day is observed on

(a) a.28th .May
(b) b.28th .June
(c) c.28th July
(d) d.28th . August

Ans.(a).

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When is Health Day celebrated?

(a) a.7th April
(b) b.17th .April
(c) c.27th April
(d) d.7th May
 Ans.(a).

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Expand WHO
(a) World Health Organization
(b) World Health Office
(c) World Human Organization
(d) Women Health Organization

Ans.(a).

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Expand NIN
(a) National Institute Of Nutrition
(b) National And International Nutrition
(c) National Integrated Nutrition
(d) National Informational Nutrition

Ans.(a).

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What is the full form of ICMR

(a) a.Indian Council Of Medical Research
(b) Indian Communication Of Mass Radio
(c) Indian Council Of Metrological Research
(d) Indian Committee Of Man Resource

Ans.(a).

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What is the normal hemoglobin level for women?

(a) 12-14mg/dl
(b) 13-15mg/dl
(c) 14-16mg/dl
(d) 15-17mg/dl

Ans.(a).

.
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.Instrument used to measure blood pressure is called

 (a) blood pressure meter
(b) sphygmomanometer
(c) gluometer
(d) .colorimeter

Ans.(

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Hyperplasia mean
(a) excessive motility of a muscle
(b) voracious eating
(c) abnormal increase in number of cells
(d) an increase in size of a cell

Ans.(d).

Q617.
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Period for pre-implantation of the embryo is

(a) 2-4 weeks
(b) 0-2 weeks
(c) 1-3 weeks
(d) 4-6 weeks

Ans.(a).
Q618.
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Preterm babies are those who born less than gestation period of
(a). 36 weeks
(b). 36 days
(c). 37 weeks
(d). 37 days

Ans.(d).
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The recommended allowance for protein for a pregnant women is

(a).30 g
(b).45g
(c).65g
(d).75g

Ans.(c).

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The anti-viral activity compound present in human milk is

a. interferon
b. globulin
c. albumin
d. immunoglobulin.

Ans.(d).

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Zinc content of colostrum means

(a). 20mg/l
(b). 25mg/l
(c). 15mg/l
(d). 18mg/l

Ans.(a).

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“Nutricus” means
(a). healthy nutrition
(b). nutrition
(c). suckle at the breast
(d). breast feeding

Ans.(c).

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IMS represents
 (a) Infant Milk Substitute
(b) Infant Milk Supply
(c) Indian Milk Substitute
(d) Indian Milk Supply

Ans.(a).
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Energy requirement of expectant sedentary mother

(a) 2525 kcal
(b) 2175 kcal
(c) 2178 kcal
(d) 2528 kcal.

Ans.(b).

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Folic acid requirement during pregnancy

(a) 400micro g
(b) 450 micro g
(c) 500 micro g
(d) 550 micro g

Ans.(a).

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Optimal weight gain during pregnancy

(a) 11-13 kg
(b) 10-12 kg
(c) 11.5-12.5 kg
(d) 13-15 kg.

Ans.(b).

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Pica is habit of eating

a). sweets
(b) vegetables
(c) animal foods
 (d) brick powder

Ans.(d)..
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Which is the natural lactogogue ?

(a) garlic
(b) carrot
(c) almonds
(d) cabbage

Ans.(a).

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.Energy obtained in Human milk is

(a) 65 kcal
(b) 67kcal
(c) 64kcal
(d) 60kcal

Ans.(a).

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The hormone which prevent milk secretion during pregnancy are

(a) growth hormone
(b) gonodo trephine
(c) progesterone and estrogen
(d) growth hormone

Ans.(c).
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The additional protein requirement for a nursing women during 0-6 months of
lactation is
(a) 15g
 (b) 25g
(c) 10g
(d) 30g

Ans.(a).

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VLBW refers to
(a) Very Low Bone Weight
(b) Very Low Body Weight
(c) Very Lean Body Weight
(d) Very Low Birth Weight

Ans.(d).

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Binge eating habits is common during

(a) infants
(b) child hood
(c) adolescents
(d) old age

Ans.(c).

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At birth the haemoglobin level of a nourished infant is

(a) .18-20g/100ml
(b) 17-20g/100ml
(c) 16-18g/100ml
(d) 16-20g/100ml

Ans.(b).
 C D 0 8 0 7 6 C M

Average birth length of an Indian baby is

(a) 60 cm
(b) 65 cm
(c) 50cm
(d) 45cm

Ans.(c).

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Average birth weight of an Indian baby is

(a) 2.0 kg
(b) 2.5 kg
(c) 3.2 kg
(d) 3.5 kg

Ans.(c)

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Wear and tear theory is seen in the age group

(a) infants
(b) adolescents
(c) adults
(d) old age

Ans.(d)..

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.Specialty in medicine concerned with the prevention and treatment of diseases in

older person is known as
(a). geriatrics
(b). pederctitis
(c). neurologist
(d) .nephrologists
 Ans.(a).

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Osteoporosis is due to the inadequacy of

(a) iodine
(b) iron
(c) calcium
(d) magnesium

Ans.(c).
.
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Growth spurt occur in the period of

(a) pre school age
(b) teen age
(c) adult age
(d) old age

Ans.(b).

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The common nutritional deficiency that occurs in pre school children in India is
(a). PEM
(b). Vitamin B deficiency
(c). Vitamin C deficiency
(d).Vitamin D deficiency

Ans.(a).

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Xerophthalmia is due to the deficiency of

(a). protein
(b). iron
(c). vitamin A
(d) .calcium

Ans.(b).
 C D 0 8 0 8 3 K M

Koilonychias is a symptom due to the lack of

(a) vitamin B12
(b) iron
(c) niacin
(d) riboflavin

Ans.(b).

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One of the common beta carotene rich food is

(a) beet root
(b) carrot
(c) brinjal
(d) ladies finger

Ans.(b).

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To over come protein deficiency-------------- can be included in the diet

(a) vegetables
(b) cereals
(c) soya bean powder
(d) jaggery

Ans.(c)..

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RDA of an individual depends on factors like

(a) health
(b) age and sex
(c) structural integrity
(d) functional efficiency.

C D 0 8 0 8 7 K M

A balanced diet should provides

 (a) 70-75% of carbohydrates
(b) 55-60% of carbohydrates
(c) 60-70% of carbohydrates
(d) 50-60% of carbohydrates.

C D 0 8 0 8 8 K M

Vitamin C helps in the absorption of

(a) zinc
(b) copper
(c) sodium
(d) iron

Ans.(d)..

C D 0 8 0 8 9 K M

Name the vitamin which can soluble in water

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K.

Ans.(b).

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C

Calcium requirement during adolescence

(a) 800mg
(b) 500mg
(c) 550mg
(d) 650mg.

C D 0 8 0 9 1 K M
Toxaemia refers to
(a) PIH
(b) anaemia
(c) dehydration
(d) constipation

Ans.(b).
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Balanced diet should ----------------- of total calories from carbohydrate

(a)50-60%
 (b)60-65%
(c)60-70%
(d)65-75%
Ans.(c)

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Expand RDA
(a) Ready Dietary Allowances
(b) Recommended Dietary Allowances
(c) Recent Dietary Allowances
(d) Recommended Diet Adequate
Ans(b)

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Normal WHR for women should be about

(a)0.65
(b) 0.75
(c).0.8
(d)1

Ans( c)

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Pick out the iron rich foods

(a) wheat
(b) red gram dhal
(c) oranges
(d) jaggery
Ans(d)

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Name the foods rich in omega 3-fatty acids

(a) ground nut oil.
(b) sunflower oil
(c) sesame oil.
(d) fish liver oil
Ans(d)

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Pick out the odd one

(a) MUFA
(b) PUFA
(c) omega 3 fatty acid
(d) VLDL
Ans(d)

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Preterm babies who are born before

(a) 35 weeks
(b) 36 weeks
(c) 37 weeks
(d) 38weeks
Ans.(a)

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Pick out ODD ONES

(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgM
(d) IgP
Ans.(d)

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Pick out the Odd ones

(a) bitots spots
(b) loss of appetite
(c) skin lesion
(d) diarrhoea
Ans.(c)

C D 0 9 0 0 1 K D
The anaerobic phase of the carbohydrate metabolism is
(a) Embden – Meyerhof pathway
(b) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
(c) Citric acid cycle
(d) Pentose Shunt
Ans. (a)
 C D 0 9 0 0 2 C E

Blood sugar concentration in excess than normal level is known as

(a) Ketoacidosis
(b) Hyperglycemia
(c) Insulin shock
(d) Hypoglycemia
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 0 3 C E

The enzyme that takes part in initial process of fat metabolism is

(a) Phosphorylase
(b) Salivary amylase
(c) Pancreatic lipase
(d) Lingual lipase
Ans. (d)

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Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate source is known as

(a) Glycolysis
(b) Glycogenesis
(c) Gluconeogenesis
(d) Glycogenolysis
Ans. (c)

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The good cholesterol is

(a) HDL
(b) IDL
(c) VLDL
(d) LDL
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 0 6 A M
 Glucose can be converted to Glycerol-3-P through which of the following
intermediates?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(c) Acetyl co A
(d) Pyruvate
Ans. (b)

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NADPH is synthesized by the action of which of the following enzymes?

(a) Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase
(b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(c) Acetyl co A carboxylase
(d) Lipoprotein lipase
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 0 8 A E
Identify the process of transportation of dietary fats
(a) Micelles
(b) Chylomicons
(c) Fatty acid – Albumin complex
(d) Liposomes
Ans. (b)

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 One and the only energy requiring step in fatty acid oxidation is catalyzed by
which of the
following enzymes-
(a) Thiolase
(b) Acyl co A dehydrogenase
(c) Thiokinase
(d) Beta-OH Acyl co A dehydrogenase
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 1 0 A M
  The energy yield during the conversion
of succinate to Fumarate is-
(a) 2ATP
(b) 1ATP
(c) 3ATP
(d) No ATP 
Ans. (a)
 
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The rate of flow of electrons through the electron transport chain is regulated by
(a) ATP:ADP ratio
(b) Concentration ofAcetyl co A
(c) Feed back inhibitionby H2O
(d) Catalytic rate ofcytochrome oxidase
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 1 2 N M
All of the following processes except one are mitochondrial
(a) Glycolysis
(b) TCA cycle
(c) Beta oxidation offatty acids
(d) Ketogenesis
Ans. (a)

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Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?
(a) pancreas
(b) adrenal gland
(c) salivary gland
(d) thyroid gland
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 1 4 A M
Identify the hormone that stimulates the production of estrogen and progesterone?
(a) growth hormone
(b) antidiuretic hormone
(c) gonadotropic hormones
(d) thyroid-stimulating hormone
Ans. (c)
C D 0 9 0 1 5 A D
Which of the following amino acids is not converted to Acetyl co A upon
metabolism ?
(a) Tyrosine
(b) Leucine
(c) Tryptophan
(d) Valine
Ans. (d)
C D 0 9 0 1 6 A M

Which out of the followings is required as a coenzyme for the transamination

reactions?
(a) Coenzyme A
(b) Pyridoxal-P
(c) Folic acid
(d) Cobalamine
Ans. (b)

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Positive nitrogen balance is seen in all of the following conditions except-

(a) Pregnancy
(b) Growth
(c) Fever
(d) Convalescence
Ans. (a)

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The distinguishing test between monosaccharides

and dissaccharide is

(a) Bial’s test

(b) Seliwanoff’s test

(c) Barfoed’s test

(d) Hydrolysis test
Ans. (c)

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The amino acid that undergoes oxidative deamination at a highest rate is-
(a) Glutamine
(b) Glutamate
(c) Aspartate
(d) Alanine
Ans. (d)

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Most of the fat digestion occurs in
(a) Rectum
(b) Stomach
(c) Small intestine
(d) Duodenum
Ans. (c)

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The function of the gallbladder is to _______.

(a) Secrete digestive enzymes
(b) Produce bile
(c) Store pancreatic enzymes
(d) Store and release bile
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 2 2 A E

What is the primary digestive function of bile?

(a) enzymatic digestion of proteins
(b) breakdown and metabolism of old RBCs
(c) physical emulsification of fats to form micelles
(d) enzymatic digestion of carbohydrates
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 2 3 C E

When chyme enters the small intestine, bile is secreted by the gallbladder to:
(a) emulsify fats.

(c) neutralize the chyme.

(b) aid in the breakdown of protein

(d) promote water absorption

Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 2 4 C E

Chylomicrons, which are large lipoproteins, contain predominantly:

(a) protein.

(b) cholesterol.

(c) triglycerides.

(d) phospholipids.

Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 2 5 K E

What are the bonds between amino acids called?

(a) hydrogen bonds
(b) peptide bonds
(c) ionic bonds
(d) covalent bonds
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 2 6 A E

Mention which types of molecules is found in genetic material?

(a) cellulose
(b) enzymes
(c) lipids
(d) nucleic acids
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 2 7 A E

What is the function of ATP, adenosine triphosphate?

(a) message carrier
(b) store and transport energy
(c) make proteins
(d) breakdown sugars
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 2 8 C M

The correct statements about enzymes:

(a) Are biological catalysts
(b) Are inorganic catalysts
(c) Exist only in an active form
(d) Catalyze only reactions of synthesis
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 2 9 N M

Identify the enzymes acting on peptide bond and hydrolyse them belongs to
(a) oxido reductases
(b) transferases
(c) lyases
(d) hydrolases
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 3 0 A M

What is a ligase?
(a) An enzyme catalyzing the removal of groups from substrates by mechanism other
than water.

(b) An enzyme catalyzing linking together of two compounds taking energy from
pyrophosphate bond in ATP.
(c) An enzyme catalyzing the hydrolysis of its substrates by adding constituents of
water across the bond it splits.

(d) An enzyme catalyzing electron transfer reaction.

Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 3 1 N M

Which of the following is not a general property of enzyme?

(a) enzymes are almost exclusively proteins
(b) enzymes have great catalytic power
(c) enzymes bind substrates specifically
(d) enzymes use only hydrophobic interactions in binding substrates.
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 3 2 K M

The protein part of an enzyme is called

(a) holoenzyme
(b) cofactor
(c) apo enzyme
(d) coenzyme.
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 3 3 N D

Net protein utilisation depends upon

(a) Protein efficiency ratio

(b) Digestibility coefficient

(c) Digestibility coefficient and protein efficiency

Ratio

(d) Digestibility coefficient and biological value

Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 3 4 N M

Degradation of proteins to amino acids, glucose from carbohydrates and fatty

acids from lipids is known as

(a) Anabolism
(b) Metabolism

(c) Catabolism
(d) Cretinism
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 3 5 N M

Increased reabsorption of water from the kidney is the major consequence of which
of the following hormones?

(a) Cortisol

(b) Insulin

(c) Vasopressin
(d) Aldosterone
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 3 6 N D

Enzymes leading to the high energy phosphorylation of substrates during glycolysis

include which of the following?
(A) Phosphoglycerate kinase
(B) Enolase
(C) Pyruvate Kinase
(D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 3 7 S D
The only reaction in TCA cycle which generates phosphate at substrate level is
(a) succinyl CoA+Pi+GDP <--> succinate+STP+CoASH
(b) Isocitrate to alpha ketoglutarate
(c) Oxaloacetate to citrate
(d) succinate to fumarate
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 3 8 C E

Phospho hexose isomerase catalyses the conversion of

(a) glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(b) glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate to 1,3 diphospho glycerate
(c) glucose 6 phosphate to fructose 6 phosphate
(d) hexose phosphate to triose phosphate
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 3 9 A M

Higher energy phosphate bonds generated for each turn of the TCA cycle is
(a) 12.
(b) 24.
(c) 18.
(d) 8.
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 4 0 A E

Identify the major end product in anaerobic glycolysis

(a) lactate
(b) pyruvate
(c) CO2
(d) ATP.
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 4 1 K E

The common metabolic pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids and protein
is
(a) glycolytic cycle
(b) TCA cycle
(c) Electron transport chain
(d) gluconeogenesis
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 4 2 C M

Enolase catalyses the following reaction

(a) phospho glycerate  phosphoenol pyruvate
(b) Diphopho glycerate  3 phosphoglycerate
(c) phosphoenol pyruvate  pyruvate
(d) pyruvate to lactate
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 4 3 K E

Beta oxidation of fatty acids was proposed by

(a) Watson
(b) Knoop
(c) Darwin
(d) Meselson
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 4 4 C M

Cholesterol can act as a precursor for each of the following compound except
(a) testosterone
(b) deoxy cholic acid
(c) cholecystokinin
(d) glycocholic acid.
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 4 5 K E

The chief source of ketone bodies is

(a) liver
(b) kidneys
(c) heart
(d) intestine
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 4 6 C M

Alpha oxidation of fatty acids takes place by the removal of _____ carbon atom at a
time from the carboxyl end of the molecule
(a) two
(b) one
(c) three
(d) none
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 4 7 K E

Normal concentration of urea in blood is

(a) 15 mg/100 ml
(b) 20-40 mg/ 100ml
(c) 10 mg/100 ml
(d) 100 mg/100 ml.
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 4 8 N M
Find out the enzymes which catalyse transamination
(a) dehydrogenases
(b) amino transferases
(c) amino acid oxidases
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 4 9 N M
Analyze the co-factor involved in transamination reaction
(a) NAD
(b) FMN
(c) TPP
(d) pyridoxal phosphate.
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 5 0 N D

Explain the process of coiling of the two chains of DNA

(a) polynemic
(b) polymeric
(c) monomeric
(d) plectonemic
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 5 1 K M

A nucleoside with a phosphate group is called

(a) nucleotide
(b) nuclide
(c) nucleic acid
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 5 2 K M
The pH of blood is
(a) 7.0
(b) 7.5
(c) 7.8
(d) 7.4
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 5 3 K E
A buffer solution is a mixture of
(a) weak acid and weak base
(b) weak acid and its salt with a strong base
(c) strong acid and strong base
(d) strong acid and weak base.
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 5 4 N E

Osmosis refers to the flow of

(a) solvent and solute across the membrane

(b) solvent alone across the membrane
(c) solute alone across the membrane
(d) colloidal solution across the membrane
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 5 5 A M

Which of the following substances can be estimated by colorimetry?

(a) Zinc
(b) Sodium
(c) Potassium
(d) Iron.
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 5 6 C M

Substances having equal number of positive and negative charges are called
(a) Ampholytes
(b) Divalent substances
(c) Nonpolar substances
(d) polar substances
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 5 7 K E

Pancreatic juice contains

(a) ptyalin
(b) amylase
(c) maltase
(d) lactase
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 5 8 A E
Identify the condition which leads to increase in nitrogenous waste products in the
body
(a) Nocturia
(b) Azotemia
(c) proteinuria
(d) Hematuria
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 5 9 S M

Which of the following is a common compound shared by the TCA cycle and the
Urea cycle?
(a) α- Keto glutarate
(b) Succinyl co A
(c) Oxalo acetate
(d) Fumarate
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 6 0 N D

Which coenzyme out of the followings is required for the oxidative deamination of
most of amino acids?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Pyridoxal- P
(c) FMN
(d) FAD
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 6 1 C M

The other name of hyperglycemic glycogenolytic factor is

(a) Insulin
(b) glucagons
(c) epinephrine
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 6 2 A M

Relate which of the following enzymes acts in the pentose phosphate pathway?
(a) 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
(b) Aldolase
(c) Glycogen phosphorylase
(d) Phosphofructokinase-1
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 6 3 N M

Which of the following lipoproteins are the major carriers of Triacyl glycerol ?
(a) IDL and LDL
(b) VLDL and LDL
(c) Chylomicrons and VLDL
(d) HDL and VLDL
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 6 4 C M

The key regulatory enzyme of fatty acid synthesis is-

(a)   Acyl co A synthetase
(b)   Acetyl co A carboxylase
(c)   Keto acyl synthase
(d)   Thioesterase
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 6 5 A E
Which is most involved in milk production?
(a) oxytocin
(b) progesterone
(c) prolactin
(d) estrogen
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 6 6 A E
Which of the following hormones require iodine?
(a) thyroxin
(b) aldosterone
(c) parathyroid hormone
(d) insulin
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 6 7 N M

All are conditions of ketosis except one

(a) Starvation
(b) Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
(c) High carbohydrate diet
(d) Von Gierke’s disease
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 6 8 C E
The adrenal glands
(a) are located near the thyroid gland.
(b) are located near the kidneys.
(c) are regulated by the posterior pituitary.
(d) are regulated by the pancreas.
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 6 9 A M

Which disease results when the adrenal cortex produces too much hormone?
(a) diabetes insipidus
(b) diabetes mellitus
(c) Cushing's syndrome
(d) Addison's disease
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 7 0 N M
Select the hormone which will increase blood glucose levels?
(a) thyroxin
(b) aldosterone
(c) cortisol
(d) insulin
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 7 1 N M
Which pair of hormones has opposite, antagonistic effects?
(a) insulin--glucagon
(b) insulin--progesterone
(c) estrogen--thyroxin
(d) epinephrine—norepinephrine
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 7 2 A M
Which is an effect of the hormone estrogen?
(a) pelvic girdle grows wider
(b) breast development
(c) egg maturation and menstrual cycle control
(d) All of the choices are estrogen effects.
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 7 3 C E

Conversion of glygogen into glucose is

(a) gluconeogenesis    
(b) glycolysis 
(c) glycogenolysis
(d) glycogenesis
Ans. (c)
C D 0 9 0 7 4 N E

Separate the enzymes that break up starches and other carbohydrates

(a) proteases

(b) lipases

(c)amylases

(d) cholecystokinin
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 7 5 S D

Transport of fatty acids from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix requires:
(a) ATP, carnitine, and coenzyme A.
(b) ATP, carnitine, and pyruvate dehydrogenase.
(c) ATP, coenzyme A, and hexokinase.
(d) ATP, coenzyme A, and pyruvate dehydrogenase.
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 7 6 S D

Which of the following statements apply (applies) to the β oxidation of fatty acids?
1. The process takes place in the cytosol of mammalian cells.
2. Carbon atoms are removed from the acyl chain one at a time.
3. Before oxidation, fatty acids must be converted to their CoA derivatives.
4. NADP is the electron acceptor
5. The products of β oxidation can directly enter the citric acid cycle for further
oxidation.
is the electron acceptor.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 5
(d) 3 and 5 only
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 7 7 E D
Which one of following statements about glycogen synthesis and utilisation is
correct?
 (a) Glycogen is synthesized in the liver in the fed state, and then exported to other
tissues in low
density lipoproteins.
(b) Glycogen reserves in liver and muscle will meet energy requirements for several
days in
prolonged fasting.
(c) Liver synthesizes more glycogen when the hepatic portal blood concentration of
glucose is high because of the activity of glucokinase in the liver.
(d) Muscle synthesizes glycogen in the fed state because glycogen phosphorylase is
activated in
response to insulin.
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 7 8 K E

Most of digestion takes place in

(a) stomach
(b) small intestine
(c) large intestine
(d) rectum
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 7 9 C M

Pepsin, a protein-digesting enzyme, is present in the

(a) oesophagus
(b) mouth
(c) stomach
(d) duodenum
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 8 0 K E

Digestion begins in the

(a) large intestine
(b) oesophagus
(c) stomach
(d) mouth
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 8 1 A E

Find out the major storage area of glycogen in the body

(a) muscle and liver tissue
(b) pancreas and kidney tissue
(c) stomach and intestine tissue
(d) brain and red blood cell tissue
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 8 2 A M

Identify the end products of fat digestion

(a) Simple sugars

(b) Amino acids

(c) Only long chain fatty acids

(d) Fatty acids and glycerol and monoglycerides

Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 8 3 E E

Starches are digested to _______, which is/are converted to ______ in the liver, which
is/are broken down to be released as _______ in the blood, respectively.
(a) Glucose, glycogen, glucose
(b) Glucose, amino acids, glucose
(c) Glycogen, glucose, glucose
(d) Amino acids, glucose, glycogen
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 8 4 N M

Under anaerobic conditions, the process of _____ provides energy for the cell.
(a) oxidative phosphorylation
(b) glycolysis
(c) lactolysis
(d) passive transport
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 8 5 A M

Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present mainly in the

(a) Ribosomes
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum

(c) Lysosomes

(d) Inner mitochondrial membrane

Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 8 6 A D
Genetic information of nuclear DNA is
transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by
(a) rRNA

(b) mRNA

(c) tRNA

(d) Polysomes

Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 8 7 K E
The power house of the cell is
a) Nucleus
b) Cell membrane
c) Mitochondria
d) Lysosomes
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 8 8 A E
Identify the end product of protein digestion in
G.I.T.

(a) Dipeptide

(b) Tripeptide

(c) Polypeptide
d) Amino acid
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9
0 8 9 A M
The number of ATP required for urea
synthesis is

(a) 0
(b) 1

(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 9 0 A M

Find out the major site of urea synthesis

(a) Brain

(b) Kidneys

(c) Liver
(d) Muscles
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 9 1 N D
Insulin is made up of

(a) A single polypeptide chain having 51 amino

acid residues

(b) A single polypeptide chain having 84 amino

acid residues

(c) A-chain having 21 and B-chain having 30

amino acid residues

(d) A-chain having 30 and B-chain having 21

amino acid residues
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 9 2 A D
Select the process by which plasma proteins are isolated

(a) Salting out

(b) Electrophoresis

(c) Flourimetry

(d) Both (A) and (B)

Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 9 3 N M
What happens to amino acids after digestion

(a) are absorbed into portal circulation

(b) are absorbed into lymph

(c) are excreted to the extent of 50%

(d) converted into glucose in the intestine

Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 0 9 4 K E

Transamination is a

(a) Irreversible process

(b) Reversible process

(c) Both (A) and (B)

(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 9 5 A M
Proteinous substances which catalyze biochemical reactions are known as

(a) Activators

(b) Catalysts

(c) Enzymes
(d) Hormones
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 0 9 6 A M
Identify the hormone that stimulates
protein anabolism

(a) ACTH

(b) Testosterone

(c) Glucagon
(d) Epinephrine
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 0 9 7 A M
Insulin stimulates
(a) Hepatic glycogenolysis

(b) Hepatic glycogenesis

(c) Lipolysis

(d) Gluconeogenesis
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 9 8 S D

All the following statements about FSH

are true except

(a) It is a tropic hormone secreted by anterior

pituitary

(b) Its secretion is increased by gonadotropin

releasing hormone

(c) It acts on Sertoli cells

(d) It increases the synthesis of testosterone

Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 0 9 9 N M

Acromegaly results from overproduction

of

(a) ACTH during childhood

(b) TSH during adult life

(c) Growth hormone during childhood

(d) Growth hormone during adult life

Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 1 0 0 A E
Overproduction of growth hormone
during childhood causes

(a) Acromegaly

(b) Gigantism

(c) Cushing’s disease

(d) Simmond’s disease
Ans. (b)
C D 0 9 1 0 1 N M
Analyze the enzyme required for the
synthesis of
thyroid hormones is
(a) Iodinase

(b) Deiodinase

(c) Thyroperoxidase
(d) Thyroxine synthetase
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 1 0 2 A E
In which condition the insulin receptors are decreased in number

(a) Obesity

(b) Starvation

(c) Hyperinsulinism
(d) Kwashiorkor
Ans. (a)

C D 0 9 1 0 3 A D

Tyrosine is required for the synthesis of

all of the following except

(a) Melatonin

(b) Epinephrine

(c) Norepinephrine
(d) Thyroxine
Ans. (a)
C D 0 9 1 0 4 K M
Normal range of total thyroxine in serum
is
(a) 0.8–2.4 ng/dl

(b) 0.8–2.4 g/dl

(c) 5–12 ng/dl

(d) 5–12 g/dl
Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 1 0 5 N M
Select the essential agent for converting glucose
to glycogen in liver is

(a) Latic acid

(b) GTP

(c) UTP
(d) Pyruvic acid
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 1 0 6 A D
The nitrogenous base present in the RNA
molecule is

(a) Thymine

(b) Uracil

(c) Xanthine
(d) Hypoxanthine
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 1 0 7 A M
Identify the flow of genetic information
(a) DNA to DNA

(b) DNA to RNA

(c) RNA to cellular proteins

(d) DNA to cellular proteins

Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 1 0 8 N D
In DNA replication the enzyme required
in the first step is

(a) DNA directed polymerase

(b) Unwinding proteins

(c) DNA polymerase

(d) DNA ligase

Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 1 0 9 A D
The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding
for the synthesis of a polypeptide is

(a) Operon

(b) Repressor gene

(c) Cistron
(d) Replicon
Ans. (c)

C D 0 9 1 1 0 A M
Interferon

(a) is virus specific

(b) is a bacterial product

(c) is a synthetic antiviral agent

(d) requires expression of cellular genes

Ans. (d)

C D 0 9 1 1 1 N M
Demonstrate the process of synthesis of
DNA

(a) Duplication

(b) Replication

(c) Transcription
(d) Translation
Ans. (b)

C D 0 9 1 1 2 S M

Chylomicron, intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL), low density lipoproteins

(LDL) and very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) all are serum lipoproteins. What is
the correct ordering of these particles from the lowest to the greatest density?

(a) LDL, IDL, VLDL, Chylomicron

(b) Chylomicron, VLDL, IDL, LDL

(c) VLDL, IDL, LDL, Chylomicron

(d) Chylomicron, IDL, VLDL, LDL

Ans. (b)

C D 1 0 0 0 1 K E
IDA stands for
(a) Indian Diabetes Association
(b) Indian Dietetic Association
(C)Indian Dietetics Assignment
(d)Indian Dietetic Assembly
Ans.(b)

C D 1 0 0 0 2 K E

The first dietary department was started in

(a) CMC Vellore
(b)CMC Coimbatore
(c) MMC Chennai
(d) KMC Chennai
Ans. (a)

C D 1 0 0 0 3 K E

The first dietary department was started in the year

(a)1950
(b)1956
(c)1976
(d)1982
Ans (a)

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The curriculam for dietetics was initiated by

(a)RajammalP.Devadas
(b)Mason Eleanor
(c) Mary Varges
(d) C.Gopalan
Ans(b)

C D 1 0 0 0 5 C M

A person who is responsible for the food service system and nutrition care is
(a)administrative dietitian
(b)consultant die titian
(c) nutritionist
d) general dietician
Ans ( a)

C D 1 0 0 0 6 C M
A person who facilitate resources of advice or service in nutrition care is referred to
(a) Administrativedietitian
(b) consultant Dietitian
(c) nutritionist
(d) general dietician
Ans(b)

C D 1 0 0 0 7 C M

Which of these is a non residual diet ?

(a)Full fluid
(b)Clear fluid
(c)Soft diet
(d)Regular hospital diet
Ans(b)

C D 1 0 0 0 8 C M

The clear fluid diet gives you -------- kcals

(a)300
(b)800
(c)1200
(d)2000
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 0 9 C M

The diet that bridges the gap between a clear fluid and soft diet is
(a)full fluid diet
(b) regular hospital diet
(c) non residue diet
(d)Atkins diet
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 1 0 C M

Milk is not a part of ------------ diet

(a) full fluid
(b) clear fluid
(c) soft diet
(d) regular hospital diet
Ans (b)

C D 1 0 0 1 1 K E

A full fluid diet gives you -------- g of protein

(a)15
(b)35
((c)48
d)55
Ans (b)

C D 1 0 0 1 2 C M

The diet that bridges the gap between acute illness and convalescences is
(a) full fluid
(b) clear fluid
((c) soft diet
d) regular hospital diet
Ans ( c)

C D 1 0 0 1 3 C M

The diet which is made up of simple, easily digested food with no harsh fiber is
(a) full fluid
(b)ash diet
(c) soft diet
(d) regular hospital diet
Ans (c)

C D 1 0 0 1 4 A D

The diet suggested for ambulatory patients

(a) full fluid
(b) clear fluid
(c) soft diet
(d) regular hospital diet
Ans ( d)

C D 1 0 0 1 5 K E

Tube feeding a person through a nose to stomach is

(a)nasogastric
(b)nasoduodenal
(c)nasojejunal
(d)gastrostomy
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 1 6 K M

In a continuous drip feeding, a patient is fed initially at a rate of

(a)50ml/hour
(b)75ml/hour
(c)85ml/hour
(d)100ml/hour
Ans (a)
 C D 1 0 0 1 7 K E

TPN refers to
(a. Total Parenteral Nutrition
(b) Total Pre Nutrition
(c) Total Personal Nutrition
(d) Teen Parenteral Nutrition
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 1 8 C M

Find the odd one

(a)TPN
(b) P N
(c)PPN
(d)CPN
Ans(d)

C D 1 0 0 1 9 C M

The glucose solution in a TPN formula is

(a)hypertonic
(b)isotonic
(c) hypotonic
(d) isometric
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 2 0 K E

One gram of dextrose gives -------- kcal.

(a)3
(b)3.4
(c)4
(d)4.5
Ans(b)

C D 1 0 0 2 1 A D

Find the odd one

(a)Cold
(b)Typhoid
(c)Influenza
(d)Malaria
Ans(d)

C D 1 0 0 2 2 K E
For every degree rise in body temperature the metabolic rate increases by
(a) 8%
(b)13%
(c)16%
(d)18%
Ans(b)

C D 1 0 0 2 3 C M

Malaria is a
(a) acute fever
(b)intermittent fever
(c) chronic fever
(d) contagious fever
Ans (b)

C D 1 0 0 2 4 C M

Typhoid is a
(a) acute fever
(b)intermittent fever
(c) chronic fever
(d) contagious fever
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 2 5 C M

Tuberculosis is a
(a) acute fever
(b)intermittent fever
(c) chronic fever
(d) none of the above
Ans (b)

C D 1 0 0 2 6 K E

Typhoid is caused due to

(a) Salmonella typhi
(b) Salmonella botullinum
(c) Salmonella schottmuller
(d) All the above
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 2 7 C M

High inflammation of intestine is a symptom of

(a) Typhoid
(b)Malaria
(c) Influenza
(d)Tuberculosis
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 2 8 C M

Night sweat is a symptom of

(a) Typhoid
(b)Malaria
(c) Influenza
(d)Tuberculosis
Ans (d)

C D 1 0 0 2 9 C M

Hot and cold stages of fever is seen in

(a) Typhoid
(b)Malaria
(c) Influenza
(d)Tuberculosis
Ans(b)

C D 1 0 0 3 0 C M

Tuberculosis is a infectious disease of

(a) lung
(b)Stomach
(c)heart
(d)kidney
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 3 1 C M

Malaria is transmitted by
(a) rats
(b)pigs
(c)mosquitoes
(d)flies
Ans (c)

C D 1 0 0 3 2 K E

Malaria is caused by
(a) P.vivax
(b)P.ovale
(c)P.falciparum
(d)All the above
Ans (d)
 C D 1 0 0 3 3 A D

Which of the following food will you suggest for a tuberculosis patient the most?
(a) fleshy foods
(b)sugars
(c)nuts
(d)fruit juice
Ans (a)

C D 1 0 0 3 4 K E

The caloric requirement of a tuberculosis patient is

(a)1200-2000kcal/day
(b)2200-2800kcal/day
(c)2500-3000kcal /day
(d)4000-5000kcal/day
Ans (c)

C D 1 0 0 3 5 C M

A person with BMI greater than 40 is said to

(a) grade I obese
(b)grade II obese
(c)grade III obese
(d)underweight
Ans( c)

C D 1 0 0 3 6 C M

A person with BMI between 30-40 is said to be

(a) grade I obese
(b) grade II obese
(c)grade III obese
(d) under weight
Ans ( b)

C D 1 0 0 3 7 C M

A person with a BMI between 25-29.9 is said to be

(a) grade I obese
(b) grade II obese
(c)grade III obese
(d) under weight
Ans( a)

C D 1 0 0 3 8 K E
The source of energy of body protein is
(a) 9 kcal/g
(b) 6 kcal/g
(c) 3 kcal/g
(d) 4 kcal/g
Ans(d)

C D 1 0 0 3 9 K E

The fibre intake for men and women of50 years and younger, should be

(a)38gformen,25forwomen
(b)30gformen,21forwomen
(c)10gformen,20gforwomen
(d)20gformen,10gforwomen
Ans(a)

C D 1 0 0 4 0 C M

Functions of fat in the body

(a) provides a backup energy supply for the body
(b) supplies essential nutrients in the form of fatty acids
(c)increases one feeling of fullness after eating
(d)all of the above
Ans (d)
C D 1 0 0 4 1 A M

Incomplete proteins are considered to be in

(a)animal proteins
(b)soy proteins
(c)most plant proteins
(d)both c& d
Ans (d)
C D 1 0 0 4 2 A M

All of the following are characteristics for Splenda except

(a)it tastes like sugar
(b)no unpleasant aftertaste
(c)contains glucose
(d)can be used in cooking and baking
Ans (c)

C D 1 0 0 4 3 K M

_________ is the body’s primary source of energy

(a) Fructose
(b)Sucrose
(c)Glycogen
(d)Glucose
Ans (d)
C D 1 0 0 4 4 K D

Emulsifying agent produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder aids fat
digestion and absorption.
(a)Amino Acid
(b) Cholestrol
(c) Mucus
(d) Bile
Ans (d)

C D 1 0 0 4 5 C M

The indigestible dietary fiber that serves separately as a body regulatory agent is
(a) Fat
(b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Acid
Ans (c)

C D 1 0 0 4 6 A E

All of the following are broad based public health goals of Healthy People 2010
except
(a)Treating diseases
(b) Increase in the span of a healthy life
(c) Reduction in health disparities
(d) Access to preventive health care services
Ans (a)
C D 1 0 0 4 7 K E

A nutritionist is a
(a) Registered Dietitian
(b) Certified Diabetes Educator (CDE)
(c) Certified Nutrition Support Dietitian (CNSD)
(d)None of the above
Ans (d)
C D 1 0 0 4 8 K M

Less than ________ percent of kcal should be from saturated fat

(a) 20
(b) 35
(c)10
(d) 25
Ans (c)

C D 1 0 0 4 9 A M

Identify the dairy products that are used to complement the basic diet of plant foods.
(a) Lacto-ovo vegetarian
(b)Lacto-vegetarian
(c) Ovo- vegetarian
(d) Vegan
Ans (b)
C D 1 0 0 5 0 A M
When it comes to alcoholic beverages, drinking should be done in moderation where
the maximum drinks per day should be
(a) 1 for women, 2 for men
(b) 2 for women, 3 for men
(c) 2 for women, 1 for men
(d) Men and women should drink the same
ans: (a)
C D 1 0 0 5 1 K E

To prevent chronic disease you need to engage in physical activity of ______ on

most days.
(a)90 min
(b) 60 min
(c)30 min
(d) 15 min
(e) 10 min
Ans: (c)
C D 1 0 0 5 2 A M

When it comes to alcoholic beverages, drinking should be done in moderation where

the maximum drinks per day should be
(a)1 for women, 2 for men
(b)2 for women, 3 for men
(c)2 for women, 1 for men
(d)Men and women should drink the same
Ans: (a)
C D 1 0 0 5 A M

To prevent chronic disease you need to engage in physical activity of ______ on

most days.
(a) 90 min
(b) 60 min
 (c) 30 min
(d) 15 min
Ans: (b)
C D 1 0 0 5 2 K M

Total fat intake should be

(a) 45 - 65% of total calories
(b) 20 - 35% of total calories
(c) 30-45% of total calories
(d) 10 -25% of total calories
Ans : (b)
C D 1 0 0 5 3 A E

Overweight and obesity are major risk factors for diseases such as
(a) Colin Cancer
(b)Diabetes
© Lung disease
(d)Thyroid Cancer
Ans (b)

C D 1 0 0 5 4 A M

When it comes to sodium, for a healthy diet, sodium should be limited to

(a) 4000 mg/day
(b) 3000 mg/day
(c) 2400 mg/day
(d) 2300 mg/day
Ans: (d)

C D 1 0 0 5 5 K E

Recommended intake of fiber should be

(a) 5 - 25 g/day
(b) 25 – 35 g/day
(c) 35 -45 g/day
(d) 20 - 35 g/day
Ans:(b)
C D 1 0 0 5 6 K M

What is the recommended serving of legumes (beans) which are part of both the
meat group and the vegetables
(a) Twice a week
(b) Once a week
 (c) 5 times a week
(d) 4 times a week
ans: (a)
C D 1 0 0 5 7 App E

Identify the number of cups of fat-free or low-fat milk or equivalent milk products
to be consumed per day
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans :(c)
C D 1 0 0 5 8 App E

Which of the following is a rich source of fiber

(a) Bran, ectosperm, germ
(b) All bran, ectosperm, germ
(c) Bran, endosperm, germ
(d) Bran, endosperm, virus
ans: (b)
C D 1 0 0 5 9 App E

pick out the recommended number of servings of whole grain products per day
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans : (b)
C D 1 0 0 6 0 App M

in a week how many subgroups of vegetables you need to eat

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: (c )
C D 1 0 0 6 1 App E

what is the recommended intake of fruit and vegetables per day

(a) 2, 2.5 cups
(b) 3, 3.5 cups
(c) 4, 4.5 cups
(d) 1, 2.5 cups

ans : (a)
C D 1 0 0 6 2 App M

Which of the following will you not restrict in your diet

(a) Saturated and Trans fats
(b) Sugar and Salts
(c) Cholesterol
(d) Fiber
ans: (d)
C D 1 0 0 6 3 S M

Which of the following Provides substantial nutrients and relatively fewer calories
(a) Protein foods
(b) Nutrient foods
(c) Nutrient-dense foods
(d) Fatty foods

ans : (c)
C D 1 0 0 6 4 App M

Poor diet and a sedentary lifestyle are major causes of _______ in India
(a) Obesity
(b) Death
(c) Overnutrition
(d) Malnutrition

ans: (b)
C D 1 0 0 6 5 K E

The 2005 dietary guidelines encourage most us to

(a) Eat fewer calories
(b) Be more active
(c) Make wiser food choices
(d) All of the Above

ans :(d)
C D 1 0 0 6 6 App M

Identify the type of carbohydrate that is a vital emergency fuel for heart muscle.
(a) Glycogen
(b) Triglyceride
(c) Glucogenesis
(d) Glucose

ans: (a)
C D 1 0 0 6 7 S D
 If you eat 2400 calories and 60g of protein in a day , what will be the percentage
of calories contributed from protein
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans: (b)
C D 1 0 0 6 8 S D

If a person weighed 220 lbs and you want to find their recommended protein intake,
what would you do?
(a) Divide pounds by 2.2 to convert to kilograms, multiply by 0.8g/kg
(b) Multiply pounds by 2.2 to convert to kg, divide by 0.8g/kg
(c) Multiply pounds by 2.2 to convert to kg, multiply by 0.8 g/kg
(d) Multiply pounds by 0.8 to convert to kg, divide by 2.2
Ans: (a)
C D 1 0 0 6 9 K M

The sum of body processes that change our food energy from the three energy
nutrients.
(a) Anabolism
(b) Catabolism
(c) Metabolism
(d) Alcoholism
Ans: (c)
C D 1 0 0 7 0 C M

-------- is reabsorbed and recycled while the rest can be trapped by fibers in the large
intestine and carried out of the body with feces.
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Bile
(d) Protein

ans : (c)
C D 1 0 0 7 1 C M

Most of the digestion of fat occurs in the

(a) Mouth
(b) Stomach
(c) Small Intestine
(d) Large Intestine

Ans: (c)
C D 1 0 0 7 2 K M
In the _______, glycogen reserves protect cells from depressed metabolic function.
(a) Bile
(b) Liver
(c) Small Intestine
(d) Large Intestine

ans: (b)
C D 1 0 0 7 3 K E

We receive most of our energy from

(a) Proteins
(b) Vitamins
(c) Minerals
(d) Carbohydates
ans: (d)
C D 1 0 0 7 4 K E

Dietary intake of nutrients that meets the needs of almost all healthy individuals
(a) RD
(b) CDE
(c) RDA
(d) EAR
Ans : (c)

C D 1 0 0 7 5 C E

Little of fat digestion occurs in the

(a) Liver
(b) Bile
(c) Mouth
(d) Stomach
ans: (d)
C D 1 0 0 7 6 K D

Digestion in the small intestine is where pancreatic amylase converts the

carbohydrate starch to
(a) Glucose and Sucrose
(b) Fructose and Glucose
(c) Maltose and Sucrose
(d) Fructose and Sucrose

ans: (c)
C D 1 0 0 7 7 C M

Two incomplete proteins equal

 (a) Complementary protein
(b) Complete protein
(c) Incomplete protein
(d) Super protein
Ans: (b)
C D 1 0 0 7 8 App M

which of these is a/an incomplete source of proteins

(a) Animal proteins
(b) Soy proteins
(c) Fish
(d) Most plant proteins

ans: (d)
C D 1 0 0 7 9 K E

Functions of fat in the body

(a) Provides a backup energy supply for the body that can be used when carbs
are low
(b) Supplies essential nutrients in the form of fatty acids to the body, which are
necessary for proper functioning
(c) Increases ones feeling of fullness after eating
(d) All of the Above
Ans: (d)
C D 1 0 0 8 0 App D

For men and women 50 and younger, fiber intake should be

(a) 38 g for men, 25 for women
(b) 30 g for men, 21 for women
(c) 10 g for men, 20 g for women
(d) 20 g for men, 10 g for women

ans: (a)
C D 1 0 0 8 1 K D

This is the essential base for all metabolic processes

(a) Vitamins
(b) Water
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Proteins
ans: (b)
C D 1 0 0 8 2 K M

Digestion in the mouth and esophagus has a mechanical digestion when this
breaks down food.
(a) Constipation
 (b)Mastication
(c)Lubrication
(d)Both a and b
ans: (b)
C D 1 0 0 8 3 K M

Body protein has a source of energy of

(a)9 kcal/g
(b)6kcal/g
(c)3 kcal/g
(d) 4kcal/g
Ans: (d)

C D 1 0 0 8 4 App E

Person with galactosemia should avoid

(a) meat

(b)cereals

(c)soya products

(d)milk and milk products

Ans: (d)

C D 1 0 0 8 5 K E

frequent urination is called as

(a) polyuria

(b)polyphagia

(c) polycythemia

(d)nocturia

Ans .(a)

C D 1 0 0 8 6 K E

cancer is caused by

(a) bacteria.

(b) virus.
(c)a complication of AIDS .

(d) Mutation of cellular genes.

Ans(d)

C D 1 0 0 8 7 K E

what is leukaemia
( a) cancer of liver
(b) cancer of blood platelets
(c)cancer of white blood cells
(d) cancer of red blood cells
Ans: (d)

C D 1 0 0 8 8 K E

normal total cholesterol level varies from

(a)<200

(b)>40

(c)<150

(d) >50

Ans : (a)

C D 1 0 0 8 9 App E

which of these is milk inducing

(a) garlic

(b) ginger

(c) fennel seeds

(d) both (a) & (c)

Ans : (d)

C D 1 0 0 9 0 App E

which among these is called a complete protein source

(a) egg

(b) rice

(c) jowar

(d) soya

Ans : (a)

C D 1 0 0 9 1 K E

Percentage of desirable body weight is calculated using the formula

(a) Present weight /desirable weightx100

(b) desirable weight / Present weight x100

(c) Present Height/desirable Heightx100

(d) desirable height/ Present height x100

Ans:

C D 1 0 0 9 2 K E

in which condition can a person notice blood in stools

(a) Acute diarrhoea

(b) diarrhoea

(c) bloating

(d) dystentry

Ans : (d)

C D 1 0 0 9 3 K E

inflammation of gall bladder is called

(a) cholecystitis

(b) cholelithiasis

(c) cholecystokinin

(d) chylocystokinin
Ans : (a)

C D 1 0 0 9 4 K E

normal fasting blood glucose level varies from

(a).60-110mg/dl

(b). 150-155mg/dl

(c) 70-85mg/dl

(d) 140-145mg/dl

Ans(a)

C D 1 0 0 9 5 K E

What is normal urea level in men

(a) 15-40mg/dl

(b) 10-35mg/dl

(c) 20-45mg/dl

(d) 30-55mg/dl

C D 1 0 0 9 6 K E

The glycemic index of honey is

(a) 56
(b) 68
(c) 72
(d)95

Ans .(a)
C D 1 0 0 9 7 App E

Identify the fat rich source

(a) butter
(b)meat
(c)egg
(d)vegetable oil
Ans.(a)
C D 1 0 0 9 8 App E

Identify the vitamin A rich source

(a)Carrot
(b)onion
(c)cabbage
(d)potato
Ans.(a)

C D 1 0 0 9 9 K E

Expand NIN
(a) national institute of numbeness
(b)national institute of neurology
(c)national institute of neuroscience
(d)national institute of nutrition
Ans(d)

C D 1 0 1 0 0 K E

What is the normal haemoglobin level

(a) 12-15g/dl
(b) 10-20g/dl
(c) 10-25g/dl
(d) 8-15g/dl
Ans.(a)
 AVINAHILINGAM INSTITUTE FOR HOME SCIENCE AND HIGHER EDUCATION FOR
WOMEN,
COIMBATORE 641043

Department of Food Service Management and Dietetics

Multiple Choice Questions for paper code CD05 Online Test - Semester

C D 0 5 0 0 1 A M
A guest’s first impression of an establishment occurs
(a) at the first contact.
(b) when ordering the food.
(c) after greeting and seating.
(d) after they have tasted the food.
Ans: (a)

C D 0 5 0 0 2 S M
The floor plan is determined by
(a) the waiters’ section.
(b) the guests’ reservations.
(c) guests with wheelchairs.
(d) the distance from the kitchen.
Ans: (d)

C D 0 5 0 0 3 A D
The dining room ambience is determined by
(a) the service staff, guest requests, timing and seasons.
(b) happy, professional staff in clean uniforms.
(c) the lighting, temperature, décor and music.
(d) the style of the menu.
Ans: (c)

C D 0 5 0 0 4 C D
Before service, a food and beverage attendant should check for menu variations.
This will assist in
(a) placing the correct cutlery on the table.
(b) providing the correct details of dishes.
(c) reorganising the order of service.
(d) maximising cost control.
Ans: (b)

C D 0 5 0 0 5 S D
The establishment you work at does not take reservations.
What do you do when guests arrive?
(a) ask the guests for their names and telephone numbers
(b) greet them and ask how many are in the party
(c) seat them at the closest empty table
(d) show them to the bar
Ans: (c)

C D 0 5 0 0 6 APP D
One guest has arrived early for a large party in another waiter’s section.
What should you do?
 C D 1 2 0 0 1 K E
The organisms of the same species is referred to
a. population
b. community
c. environment
d. spectrum
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 0 2 K E
The study of individual species in relation to its environment is
a. Synecology
b. Aute ecology
c. Habitat ecology
d. Genecology
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 0 3 C M
The energy produced by one tone of chromium is equivalent to ___barrels
of oil
(e) 2 million
(f) 12 million
(g) 24 million
(h) 36 million
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 0 4 A E
The cost of eco-friendly building materials are _________higher than the
normal buildings
 a. 2- 4 %
b. 4-10 %
c. 10-14%
d. 14 – 18%
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 0 5 A E
The incessant motion of the sea surface by the wave action is converted to
electric power through
(a) solar energy
(b) tidal energy
(c) nuclear energy
(d) geothermal energy
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 0 6 C M
The illumination levels form day light is …… lumen/watts
(a) 10 -15
(b) 45-60
(c) 80 – 90
(d) 100 – 130
Ans. (d)
C D 1 2 0 0 7 K E
Biogas is also known as
(a) LFG
(b) LPG
(c) CPG
(d) LDG
Ans. (a)

C D 1 2 0 0 8 K D
The upper explosive limit of methane is
(a) 5%
 (b) 10 %
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 0 9 A D
The method that has the original volume of solid waste reduced to 20 to
30% is
(a) recycling
(b) incinerator
(c) sustainability
(d) biological recovery
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 1 0 K E
The plastic that is human friendly is
(a) PET
(b) HDPE
(c) PS
(d) PVC
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 1 1 K E
The World Environmental Day was celebrated on
(a) May 5th
(b) June 5th
(c) July 5th
(d) August 5th
Ans. (b)

C D 1 2 0 1 1 A E
The branch of biology that deals with study of living organisms and their
interactions with the environment is
(a) ebiology
 (b) ecology
(c) physiology
(d) logology
Ans. (b)

C D 1 2 0 1 2 A E
Living organisms are considered as …………… components
(a) abiotic
(b) biotic
(c) plant ecology
(d) biome
Ans. (b)

C D 1 2 0 1 3 C D
The final stage of the community is termed as
(a) succession
(b) climax
(c) species
(d) spectrum
Ans.( b)

C D 1 2 0 1 4 K E
Each population occupies a specific volume of the habitat after the
interaction with environmental factors
(a) species
(b) ecological niche
(c) primary producer
(d) community
Ans.(b)
C D 1 2 0 1 5 A D
The energy trapped by autotrophic plants is known as
 (a) radiant
(b) b.geothermal
(c) thermal
(d) nuclear
Ans.(a)

C D 1 2 0 1 6 K D
The study of the plant communities in relation to environment is called as
(a) autecology
(b) synecology
(c) genecoloby
(d) palaecology
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 1 7 K D
The study of ecology in relation to genetics is known as
(a) autecology
(b) synecology
(c) genecology
(d) palaecology
Ans. (c)
C D 1 2 0 1 8 C M
Which of the following is a major pollutant in the atmosphere?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon oxide
(d) Hydrogen
Ans.( c)
C D 1 2 0 1 9 A E
Burning of coal and oil by the industries creates ………. pollution

(a) noise
 (b) air
(c) water
(d) marine
Ans.(b )
C D 1 2 0 2 0 A E
The discharge of waste water from the industries are termed as
(a) affluents
(b) effluents
(c) explosion
(d) contamination
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 2 1 C M
Reduction in oxygen content of water will affect the
(a) soil
(b) aquatic fauna
(c) effluent
(d) ground water
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 2 2 C M
The method of waste water treatment using coagulation substances and
chlorine compounds are known as
(a) recycling
(b) chemical treatment
(c) biological treatment
(d) oxidation
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 2 3 C M
Dumping of oil spills in the oceans cause threat to …ecosystem
(a) nuclear
(b) solar
(c) marine
 (d) soil
Ans. (c)

C D 1 2 0 2 4 N M
The hazard due to the radiation effects by uranium is
(a) tidal
(b) thermal
(c) nuclear
(d) d. marine
Ans.( c)
C D 1 2 0 2 5 N M
The pollutants like mercury and plastics are also named as
(a) degradable
(b) recyclable
(c) reusable
(d) non degradable
Ans.( d )
C D 1 2 0 2 6 A M
The pollutants that can rapidly decompose are known as
(a) non degradable
(b) re gradable
(c) bio degradable
(d) degradable
Ans.( c)
C D 1 2 0 2 7 A M
A sudden vibration caused by the earth’s surface due to release of energy is
called as
(a) earthquake
(b) cyclone
(c) volcano
(d) global warming
 Ans. (a)
C D 1 2 0 2 8 A M
The possibility of recurrence of earthquakes in a potential area is predicted
by
(a) geologist
(b) seismologist
(c) ecologist
(d) ecologist
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 2 9 N M
The rock movements that is due to certain definite plane is
(a) wind slide
(b) land slide
(c) water slide
(d) hill slide
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 3 0 A D
The decomposition of waste products through biochemical bacteriological
process under controlled conditions is called as
(a) fertilizer
(b) vermi composting
(c) landfill
(d) incineration
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 3 1 C D
The method in which solid waste is burned at 850 degree celcius is
(a) landfill
(b) vermi compost
(c) collection
(d) incineration
Ans. (d)
 C D 1 2 0 3 2 A D
The process in which the waste is heated for a chemical change without
combustion is
(a) vermi compost
(b) biogas
(c) pyrloysis
(d) solid waste
Ans. (c)
C D 1 2 0 3 3 C M
The collection of valuable materials from the solid waste is called as
(a) utilization
(b) resource recovery
(c) fertilize
(d) compost
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 3 4 K E
The heat radiation of the sun can be converted to other form of energy
through
(a) conduction

(b) photovoltaic conversion

(c) excavation
(d) geothermal
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 3 5 A D
The internal heat of earth used for power generation is called as
(a) geothermal
(b) tidal
(c) nuclear
(d) wind
Ans.( a)
 C D 1 2 0 3 6 C E
The material originating from photosynthesis is
(a) biomass
(b) biogas
(c) global warming
(d) climate change
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 3 7 C M
The gas that traps heat in the earth’s atmosphere
(a) green house
(b) natural
(c) man made
(d) fossil
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 3 8 A E
The emission of carbon di oxide into the environment is not from burning
of
(a) food
(b) b.oil
(c) gas
(d) oxygen
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 3 9 K D
Global warming increase the temperature of the earth by
(a) 1 to 3 degree
(b) 3 to 5 degree
(c) 7 to 9 degree
(d) 10-12 degree
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 4 0 C D
The buildings that use 40 per cent less potable water is termed as
(a) zero discharge
(b) normal
(c) green
(d) energy efficiency
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 4 1 K D
The solar reflection index for light colours is
(a) less than 0.5
(b) 0.5
(c) more than 0.5
(d) 1
Ans. (c)
C D 1 2 0 4 2 E M
The green buildings to earn one credit should reduce …………tonne of
carbon di oxide emission
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans. (a)
C D 1 2 0 4 3 A D
The assessment criteria in eco buildings that earn maximum points is
termed as

(a) lighting
(b) solar water heater
(c) site planning
(d) waste utilization
Ans. (c)
C D 1 2 0 4 4 K D
The project with area of the eco buildings more than one hectare is
classified as
(a) small
(b) normal
(c) large
(d) extremely large
Ans. (c)
C D 1 2 0 4 5 K D
The illumination levels of tungsten filament are …….. lumens watt
(a) 10-15
(b) 45-60
(c) 80-90
(d) 100-120
Ans. (a)
C D 1 2 0 4 6 C D
The illumination levels of fluorescent lamps are …….. lumens watt
(a) 10-15 `
(b) 45-60
(c) 80-90
(d) 100 – 130
Ans.(b)
C D 1 2 0 4 7 K M
The illumination provided by a bright sunny sky is
(a) 1 lakh lux
(b) 2 lakh lux
(c) 3 lakh lux
(d) 4 lakh lux
Ans. (a)
C D 1 2 0 4 8 K D
An overcast sky that has the same luminescence in every direction is
(a) fenestration
 (b) uniform standard sky
(c) observance sky
(d) luminescence sky
Ans. (b)
C D 1 2 0 4 9 C E
The illuminance levels in guest rooms is
(a) 10 foot candles
(b) 30 foot candles
(c) 50 foot candles
(d) 70 foot candles
Ans.(a)
C D 1 2 0 5 0 K D
The estimated potential of small hydro power in our country is
a. a.15 000 MW
b. b.10 000 MW
c. c.11 000 MW
d. d.12 000 MW
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 5 1 K D
One of the natural and degradable fiber is
(a) rayon
(b) polyster
(c) silk
(d) fabon
Ans. (c)
C D 1 2 0 5 2 C D
The products that are 100 per cent biodegradable are
(a) plastic
(b) jute
(c) rayon
(d) metals
Ans. (b)

C D 1 2 0 5 3 A D
The contaminated water when consumed may NOT lead to
(a) dermatitis
(b) viral hepatitis
(c) ulcer
(d) dysentery
Ans.(c)
C D 1 2 0 5 4 C M
The amount of water used per day in hotel rooms for bathing is
(a) 10 – 20 litres
(b) 20 – 30 litres
(c) 30 – 50 litres
(d) 40-70 litres
Ans. (c)
C D 1 2 0 5 5 C D
Which one of the following is NOT a type of waste ?
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) radioactive
(d) plants
Ans. (d)
C D 1 2 0 5 6 K D
The process of burying and disposing the waste is termed as
(a) landfill
(b) incineration
(c) resource recovery
(d) vermicompost
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 5 7 K D
 The collection and reuse of waste materials is termed as
(a) incineration
(b) recycling
(c) landfill
(d) biomass
Ans.(b)
C D 1 2 0 5 8 C D
Incinerators convert the waste materials into
(a) heat
(b) oil
(c) metal
(d) organic substance
Ans. (a)
C D 1 2 0 5 9 C M
The term that refers to the long term changes in the surface temperature is
(a) global warming
(b) earth warming
(c) climate change
(d) green house gas
Ans.( c )
C D 1 2 0 6 0 K D

The most common kind of dispersion in nature is

(a) uniform
(b) clumped
(c) dispersive
(d) random.
Ans. ( a)
C D 1 2 0 6 1 C M
 The total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources
of its environment is called as
(a) habitat

(b) logistic growth

(c) biotic potential

(d) ecological niche.

Ans.(d)
C D 1 2 0 6 2 K D
The main decomposers in an ecosystem are
(a) animals
(b) b plants
(c) insects
(d) prokaryotes
Ans. (d)
C D 1 2 0 6 3 A M
Which of the following organisms fix nitrogen in aquatic ecosystems?
(a) Fungi

(b) Chemoautotrophs

(c) Cyanobacteria

(d) Legumes

Ans.(c)
C D 1 2 0 6 4 K D
Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of
biological organization except

(a) community
(b) population
(c) organismal
(d) Cellula
Ans.( d)

C D 1 2 0 6 5 C M
Which of the following relates to the current biodiversity crisis?
 (a) Increased atmospheric carbon dioxide

(b) Ozone depletion

(c) The rate of extinction

(d) Introduced species

Ans. (d)

C D 1 2 0 6 6 A D
Which of the following terms includes all of the others?
(a) Genetic diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Biodiversity
(d) Ecosystem diversity
Ans. (c)

C D 1 2 0 6 7 E M
Why should a green project be located in an existing community?
(a) Adequate parking is available on site
(b) The zoning approval for the project is easier.
(c) Native plantings can be used for erosion control.
(d) The connection to basic community resources is present
Ans. (d)
C D 1 2 0 6 8 S D

Gray water is most often used for

(a) drinking
(b) irrigation
(c) dishwashers
(d) swimming pools
Ans. (b)

C D 1 2 0 6 9 E M
 Identify the refrigerant that contributes the most to global warming potential
(GWP)?
(a) HFC-23
(b) CFC-12
(c) Propane
(d) HCFC-123
Ans. (a)

C D 1 2 0 7 0 E M
Choose the development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs known
as
(a) economic development
(b) sustainable development
(c) resourceful development
(d) gainful development
Ans. (b)

C D 1 2 0 7 1 S D
Sunlight,air soil and water are the examples of
(a) a.Non-renewable resources
(b) b. renewable resources
(c) c. conventional resources
(d) d. Exhaustive resources
Ans. (b)

C D 1 2 0 7 2 C E
What is enivronment?
(a) Our surroundings like land, water, and air
(b) Cleanliness
(c) Recycling wastes
(d) Substances to increase the fertility of the soil
Ans. (a)
C D 1 2 0 7 3 E M
Identify are the three R’s for a clean environment ?
(a) Recycle,Reuse,Redo
(b) Remember,Recycle,Recreate
(c) Recycle,Reuse,Reduce
(d) Refer,Recreate, Redo
Ans.( c)
C D 1 2 0 7 4 C M
Which of the following method is adopted for disposal of water?
(a) a.Open dumping
(b) b.Sanitation
(c) c. Recycling
(d) d.Reusing
Ans.( c )
C D 1 2 0 7 5 A M
The materials that do not decay and remain in the environment are called as
(a) a.biodegradable wastes
(b) b. garbages
(c) c. non-biodegradable wastes
(d) d. solid wastes
Ans. (c)

C D 1 2 0 7 6 C M
Solar energy can be converted directly into electric energy with the help of
(a) photoelectric cells

(b) dry cells

(c) rechargeable cells
(d) battery
Ans.( d)
C D 1 2 0 7 7 A M
Wind can be used to
(a) generate electricity
 (b) operate flour mills
(c) draw underground water
(d) operate equipment
Ans.(a)
C D 1 2 0 7 8 C M
A small water body is known as
(a) lake
(b) pond
(c) sea
(d) river
Ans.(d).
C D 1 2 0 7 9 A M
The prime source of water on earth are
(a) snowfalls
(b) rivers
(c) oceans
(d) rainfalls
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 8 0 C M
The layer of air around the earth is called
(a) ozone
(b) atomsphere
(c) wind
(d) breeze
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 8 1 K M
The term wind refers to the
(a) air blowing very fast
(b) air blowing very slow
(c) air blowing at a point
(d) still air
 Ans. (a)
C D 1 2 0 8 2 A M
The properties of air are
(a) has weight and colourless
(b) has taste and is invisible
(c) has no pressure and occupies no space
(d) tasteless and consistency
Ans. (a)
C D 1 2 0 8 3 C M
Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

(a) Vegetable and fruit peels

(b) Silver foil
(c) Detergent
(d) Rubber
Ans. (a)

C D 1 2 0 8 4 A M
The process of changing the waste material into its original form to be
used again is
(a) eruse

(b) recycle
(c) incineration
(d) sanitation
Ans. (b)

C D 1 2 0 8 5 C M
Humus makes the soil fertile and provides nutrients to the plants for their
growth and is made up of
 (a) decayed soil
(b) contaminated water
(c) decayed leaves and bodies of animals
(d) decayed animal body
Ans. (a)

C D 1 2 0 8 6 K M
The term soil refers to the
(a) lowermost layer of earth
(b) middle layer of the earth
(c) uppermost layer of the earth
(d) last layer of the earth
Ans.(c)
C D 1 2 0 8 7 A M
A machine in which power is produced when a stream of water pushes the
blades of a wheel and makes it turn around is known as
(a) generator
(b) alternator
(c) turbine
(d) fly wheels
Ans.( c)
C D 1 2 0 8 8 A M
The electricity produced by the force of water is known are
(a) thermal electricity
(b) nuclear electricity
(c) hydroelectricty
(d) photo electricity
Ans.( c)
C D 1 2 0 8 9 C M
Petroleum and coal are examples of
(a) fossil fuels
 (b) renewable fuels
(c) non-fossil fuels
(d) reusable fuels
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 9 0 K D
The rich deposits of coal are found in
(a) Himachal Pradesh and Punjab
(b) Bihar and Jharkhand
(c) Rajasthan and Gujarat
(d) Maharasthra and Madhyapradesh
Ans.( b)
C D 1 2 0 9 1 A M
The process in which waste material is reduced to ash is called as
(a) biodegradation
(b) composing
(c) recycling
(d) incineration
Ans.( c)
C D 1 2 0 9 2 K D
In box type solar cooker, the box is covered with
(a) double glass layer
(b) single glass layer
(c) three glass layer
(d) four glass layer
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 9 3 N D
The transfer of solar energy from the sun to the earth is governed by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) induction
Ans.(c)
C D 1 2 0 9 4 A M
Solar cell is used to convert solar energy into
(a) electric energy
(b) chemical energy
(c) mechanical energy
(d) thermal energy
Ans.( a)

C D 1 2 0 9 5 A M
Biomass can be converted into
(a) liquid fuel
(b) b.hydrogen
(c) producer gas
(d) solid fuels
Ans.(a)
C D 1 2 0 9 6 A D
Charcoal is obtained from
(a) coal
(b) petroleum
(c) Rubber
(d) wood
Ans.( d)
C D 1 2 0 9 7 C D
Which one of these is most energy efficient?
(a) Compact fluorescent lamp
(b) Incandescent bulb
(c) Fluorescent tube lamp
(d) Kerosene lamp
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 9 8 K D
Energy is defined as
(a) capacity of doing work
(b) lifting a body
(c) displacing a body with force
(d) movement downwards
Ans.( a)
C D 1 2 0 9 9 C M
The ultimate source of energy on the earth is
(a) electricity
(b) natural gas
(c) sun
(d) plants
Ans.( c)
C D 1 2 1 0 0 C D
Wind turbine is
(a) kinetic energy
(b) potential energy
(c) chemical energy
(d) thermal energy
Ans.( a)

C D 1 3 0 0 1 K M
The viscous gelatinous polymer surrounding the bacterial cell wall is
(a) Teichoic acid
(b) Cellulose
(c) Glycocalyx
(d) Dipicolinic acid
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 0 2 K M
Glycocalyx when organized and firmly attached to the cell wall becomes a
(a) Capsule
(b) Slime layer
 (c) Cell wall
(d) Pili
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 0 3 K M
Glycocalyx when unorganized forms a
(a) Capsule
(b) Slime layer
(c) Cell wall
(d) Pili
Ans: (b)

C D 1 3 0 0 4 K M
The primary function of the plasma membrane in bacteria is
(a) Reproduction
(b) excretion
(c) selective barrier
(d) locomotion
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 0 5 K M

The extrachromosomal genetic elements seen in bacterial cell is

(a)flagella
(b) pili
(c) plasmids
(d) inclusion bodies
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 0 6 K M

Protein synthesis in bacteria takes place in

(a) pili
(b) flagella
(c) plasmids
(d) ribosomes
Ans: (d)
C D 1 3 0 0 7 K E
Reserve deposits of nutrients in bacteria are
(a) cell wall
(b) flagella
(c) capsule
(d) inclusion bodies
Ans: (d)
C D 1 3 0 0 8 K E
Bacteria which grow in low oxygen concentrations than air are
(a) aerobes
( b) aerotolerants
(c) microaerophiles
(d)obligate aerobes
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 0 9 K E

A nutrient material prepared for the growth of micro-organisms in a laboratory is

called a
(a) culture
(b) agar medium
(c) culture medium
(d) sterile medium
Ans: (c )
C D 1 3 0 1 0 K E

Microbes that grow in a culture medium are referred to as

(a) culture
(b) colony
(c) clusters
(d) plaques
Ans:( a)
C D 1 3 0 1 1 K E

Organisms that absolutely require living host cells are called as

(a) protozoa
 (b) obligatory intracellular parasites
(c) intracellular parasites
(d) infected cells
Ans: (b )
C D 1 3 0 1 2 K E
Viruses contain nucleic acid in numbers of
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d)four
Ans:( a)
C D 1 3 0 1 3 K M

The spectrum of host cells that the virus can infect is known as
(a) host cells
(b) host range
(c) parasite cells
(d) infected cells
Ans: b
C D 1 3 0 1 4 K E

HIV virus is
(a) Human Immune Virus
(b) Human Immune Deficiency Virus
(c) Human Interactive Virus
(d) Human Immuno active Virus
Ans:( b)
C D 1 3 0 1 5 K M

The nucleic acid in AIDS virus is

(a) RNA
(b) DNA
(c) RNA & DNA
(d) None
Ans: (a)
 C D 1 3 0 1 6 K M
Gram Staining procedure was developed by
(a) Koch
(b) Pasteur
(c) Lister
(d) Gram
Ans:(d)
C D 1 3 0 1 7 K M
DNA model was studied by
(a) Koch
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Gram
(d) Pasteur
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 1 8 K M
Actinomycetes in soil produce a gaseous substance called
(a) lumus
(b) geosmin
(c) silica
(d) putrefaction
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 1 9 K M
The recycling of certain chemical elements in a given volume is known as
(a) Biochemical cycle
(b) chemical cycle
(c) biogeochemical cycle
(d) geochemical cycle
Ans:(c)

C D 1 3 0 2 0 K M
Denitrification is brought about by
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Nitrosomonas
(c) Nitrobacter
 (d) Azotobacter
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 2 1 K M
Non-Symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria are found highly in the
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Biosphere
(c) Rhizospere
(d) Hexosphere
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 2 2 K M
The most common indicator organisms are
(a) Clostridium
(b) Thiobacillus
(c) Coliforms
(d) Nitrobacter
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 2 3 K M

Viruses without envelops are called

(a) De-viruses
(b) De-enveloped virus
(c) De-virion
(d) Naked viruses
Ans:(d)

C D 1 3 0 2 4 K E
Viruses do not contain ____________ for energy production
(a) enzymes
(b) flagella
(c) ribosomes
(d) cell walls
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 2 5 K M
DRT is
(a) Decimal reduction time
 (b) Decimal retention time
(c) Direct reduction time
(d) Direct retention time
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 2 6 K E
TDT is
(a) Temperature death time
(b) Thermal death time
(c) Thermal decimal time
(d) Temperature decimal time
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 2 7 K E
TDP is
(a) Temperature death point
(b) Thermal death point
(c) Thermal decimal point
(d) Temperature decimal point
Ans: (b)

C D 1 3 0 2 8 K M
A moisture content below _________percent prevents the growth of all
microorganisms
(a) 13
(b) 18
(c) 16
(d) 20
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 2 9 A E
Small pox is caused by
(a) virus
(b) bacteria
(c) yeast
(d) mold
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 3 0 A E
The disease transmitted by the bite of infected animal is
(a)small pox
 (b) jaundice
(c) rabies
(d) yellow fever
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 3 1 A E
The organisms that grow well at refrigerator temperature is
(a) mesophiles
(b) thermophiles
(c) psychrophiles
(d) mesatrophs
Ans: (c)

C D 1 3 0 3 2 A M

During AIDS the virus destroys the

(a) excretory system
(b) digestive system
(c) respiratory system
(d) immune system
Ans: (d)
C D 1 3 0 3 3 A E

The protection from disease provided by vaccination is called

(a) interference phenomenon
(b) resistance
(c) allergy
(d) immunity
Ans: (d)
C D 1 3 0 3 4 A M
Decomposition of sugar and starch with products of acid and gas is
(a) putrefaction
(b) fermentation
(c) decarboxylation
 (d) deammonification
Ans:( b )
C D 1 3 0 3 5 A M

The characteristic odour in soil is due to the presence of

(a) Geosmin
(b) humus
(c) nitrogen
(d) carbondioxide
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 3 7 A E

Molecular nitrogen makes up________________ of atmosphere

(a) 75%
(b) 95%
(c) 80%
(d) 60%
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 3 8 A E
One of the following is a nitrifying bacteria
(a) Actinomyces
(b) Nitrobacter
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Rhizobium
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 3 9 A E
The conversion of Nitrite to Nitrate ions is accomplished by
(a)Nitrosomonas
(b) Nitrobacter
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Rhizobium
Ans:( b)
C D 1 3 0 4 0 A D

The conversion of Nitrogen gas into ammonia is called

 (a) Denitrification
(b) Nitrification
(c) Nitrogen fixation
(d) De-ammonification
Ans: c
C D 1 3 0 4 1 A M

Non-Symbiotic bacteria that can fix nitrogen is

(a) Nitrobacter
(b) Nitrosomonas
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Pseudo-monas
Ans:( c)
C D 1 3 0 4 2 A E
The Study of microorganisms in natural waters is
(a)Sewage microbiology
(b) Aquatic microbiology
(c) Litterol microbiology
(d) Solvent microbiology
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 4 3 A M
MPN is
(a) Most probable number
(b) Most practical number
(c) Most practical numeral
(d) Most probable number
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 4 4 A M
The tests for water safety are aimed at detecting
(a) Water organisms
(b) Algae
(c) Indicator organisms
(d) Trophic organisms
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 4 5 A M
 The removal of colloidal materials in water is known as
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Flocculation treatment
(c) Aggregate sedimentation
(d) Floccular removal
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 4 6 A M

__________________ is a food borne infection

(a) Tetanus
(b) Rabies
(c) Gastroenteritis
(d) Cholera
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 4 7 A M
Dysentry is a
(a) food borne infection
(b) air borne infection
(c) food poisoning
(d) food intoxication
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 4 8 A E
Inspection of water by a qualified sanitarian is
(a) sanitary inspection
(b) sanitary survey
(c) water survey
(d) water inspection
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 4 9 A E

A normal inhabitant of the intestinal tract seen commonly in water is

(a) Aerogenes
(b) Pseudomonas
(c) E.coli
 (d) E. Listolytica
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 5 0 A D
The presumptive evidence for the presence of coliforms is assessed by the production
of
(a) acid
(b) gas
(c) enzymes
(d) pigments
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 5 1 A M
Antisepsis is the term especially applied to treatment of
(a) Wounds
(b) Boils
(c) Abscess
(d) Cancer
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 5 2 A E

The germicide which kills Closteridium is a

(a) Fungicide
(b) Sporocide
(c) Bactericide
(d) Virucide
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 5 3 A D

Circle the correct statement

(a) Refrigeration is bactericidal
(b) Refrigeration is bacteriostatic
(c) Refrigeration kills spores
(d) Refrigeration kills viruses
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 5 4 A M
The process of destroying all microbes including endospores is
(a) disinfection
(b) asepsis
(c) sterilization
(d) sanitation
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 5 5 A M

The process of destroying vegetative pathogens but not necessarily endospores or

viruses is
(a) disinfection
(b) asepsis
(c) sterilization
(d) sanitation
Ans:(a)
C D 1 3 0 5 6 A M

If a food is decayed it denotes the

(a) Putrefaction of food
(b) death of cells
(c) spoilage of foods
(d) release of enzymes
Ans: (b)

C D 1 3 0 5 7 A M
Chemical disinfection of the skin, mucous membranes or other living tissues is
(a) asepsis
(b) antisepsis
(c) germicide
(d) degerming
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 5 8 A M

An autoclave should be set at a temperature of

(a)115◦c
(b) 120◦c
(c) 121◦c
 (d) 102◦c
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 5 9 A M

If Lag phase is when bacteria grow at a slower rate logarithmic phase is when bacteria
(a) grow at a faster rate
(b) grow at a steady rate
(c) grow at a very slow rate
(d) do not grow
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 6 0 A M

_______________ has wide use in soft drinks and acidic foods

(a)Acetic acid
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Benzoic acid
(d) Citric acid
Ans: (c)

C D 1 3 0 6 1 S E
If all microorganisms in a liquid suspension are killed in 10 minutes at the lowest
temperature it would be
(a) TDT
(b) TDP
(c) DRT
(d) DRP
Ans:(b)
C D 1 3 0 6 2 S M

If a bacteria reproduces in multiples of two the method of reproduction is called

(a) budding
(b) binary fisssion
(c) conjugation
(d) copulation
Ans:( b)
C D 1 3 0 6 3 S M

If a canned food shows TA spoilage the causative organism is

(a) Cl.botulinum
 (b) Cl. saccharolyticum
(c) Cl. thermolyticum
(d) Cl.thermosaccharolyticum
Ans: (d)

C D 1 3 0 6 4 S M
If all bacteria in a liquid culture are killed at a given temperature in minimum time it
would be
(a) TDT
(b) TDP
(c) DRT
(d) DRP
Ans:( a)

C D 1 3 0 6 5 S M

If milk is labeled as UHT then the pastuerization temperature is

(a) 130 0 C
(b) 72 0 C
(c) 61.7 0 C
(d) 137.8 0 C
Ans: (b)

C D 1 3 0 6 6 S E

If pathogens are completely wiped from an object or area it would be

(a) degerming
(b) asepsis
(c) desanitizing
(d) antisepsis
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 6 7 S M

If a disinfectant is fungicidal, amoebidal and virucidal it would be

(a) metals
(b) halogens
(c) quaternary ammonium compounds
(d)alcohols
Ans: ( c)
 C D 1 3 0 6 8 S M

If you heat food, botulinum toxin will be (SM)

(a) thermostable
(b) thermophil
(c) thermolabile
(d) thermostatic
Ans: (a)

C D 1 3 0 6 9 E D

Which of the following bacteria causes ropiness

(a) B. coagulans
(b) B. licheniformis
(c) P.coagulans
(d) P.licheniformis
Ans:( a)

C D 1 3 0 7 0 E D

Which of the following causes flat sour spoilage

(a) B.subtilis
(b) B.coagulans
(c) B. nigrificans
(d) B..cereus
Ans: ( b)

C D 1 3 0 7 1 E M
Which of the following is removal of microbes by mechanical cleansing
(a) degerming
(b) deworming
(c) desanitizing
(d) antisepsis
Ans:( a)
C D 1 3 0 7 2 E M
If 90% of the population of bacteria are killed in a particular time it is known as
(a) decimal retention time
(b) decimal reduction time
(c) direct reduction time
(d) temperature decimal time
Ans: (b)
 C D 1 3 0 7 3 E E

Who is the father of microbiology

(a) Loius Pasteur
(b) Anton Van Leewenhoek
(c) Robert Koch
(d) Theodor Schwann
Ans:( a)

C D 1 3 0 7 4 E M

Which of the following is a mycostatic chemical added to bread(EM)

(a) ethylene propionate
(b) triethylene
(c) calcium propionate
(d) diethylene
Ans:( c)
C D 1 3 0 7 5 E E

Which of the following scientist demonstrated the causative agent of the tobacco
mosaic virus
(a) Robert Koch
(b) Iwanowski
(c) Pasteur
(d) Frosch
Ans: (b)

C D 1 3 0 7 6 E E

Which of the following scientist discovered the vaccine for small pox
(a) Edward Jenner
( b) Alexander Fleming
(c) Iwanowsky
(d) Loeffler and Frosch
Ans:( b)

C D 1 3 0 7 7 E M

Which of the following is inhibited by potassium sorbate

(a) molds
 (b) bacteria
(c) algae
(d) virus
Ans:( a)
C D 1 3 0 7 8 E M

Which of the following toxin is produced by Cl. Botulinum?

(a) neurotoxin
(b) enterotoxin
(c) endotoxin
(d) gastrotoxin
Ans: (a)
C D 1 3 0 7 9 E E

Who was the scientist who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Anton Van Leewenhoek
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) JohnNeedham
Ans:( c)
C D 1 3 0 8 0 E M

If milk is pastuerised at 72*C for 15 seconds it is

(a) UHT
(b) HTST
(c) DST
(d) HDFT
Ans: (a)

C D 1 3 0 8 1 E M

Which of the following is recognized to be caused by salmonellosis

(a) bloating
(b) meningitis
(c) gastroenteritis
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 8 2 E M

Who invented Antiseptic surgery ?

(a) Leewenhoek
(b) Pasteur
(c) Lister
 (d) Fleming
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 8 3 C M

Sanitary requirements in food processing plants should be in accordance with

(a) HACCP
(b) HACCA
(c) HASSOP
(d) HASSOA
Ans:( a)

C D 1 3 0 8 4 C E
If bacteria is getting adjusted to the new environment the growth phase is
(a)Logarithmic phase
(b) stationary phase
(c) lag phase
(d) Accelerated growth phase
Ans: (c)

C D 1 3 0 8 5 C M

Viruses essentially need host cells for living and hence are called as
(a) Parasites
(b) intracellular organisms
(c) obligatory intracellular parasites
(d) host range
Ans: (c)

C D 1 3 0 8 6 C M

EMB is
(a) Eosin Methylene Blue
(b) Eosin Methyl Blue
(c) Eosin Methylene Bile
(d) Eosin Methylene Bile
Ans: ( a)

C D 1 3 0 8 7 C E
The simplest method of dry heat sterilization is
(a)autoclaving
(b) direct flaming
(c) hot air oven
(d) hot air sterilization
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 0 8 8 C M
HEPA filters are(CM)
(a) High Efficiency Point air filters
(b) High Efficiency Particulate air filters
(c) High Efficiency Point aerobic filters
(d) High Efficiency Presterilized air filters
Ans:( b)

C D 1 3 0 8 9 C M

TA spoilage is
(a) thermophillic aerobe
(b) thermophillic anaerobe
(c) thermophytic aerobe
(d) thermophytic anaerobe
Ans: (b)

C D 1 3 0 9 0 N M

The sterilizing action of acids is due to the

(a) hydroxyl ion concentration
(b) hydrogen ion concentration
(c) oxygen concentration
(d) aldehyde concentration
Ans:( b)
C D 1 3 0 9 1 N M

If a canned food exhibits chemical spoilage it can be seen in the form of

(a) rust
(b) hydrogen swells
(c) flipper
(d) hard swell
Ans: (b)

C D 1 3 0 9 2 N E

If an organism feeds on dead organic matter it is known as

 (a) Parasitic
(b) thallophytic
(c) saprophytic
(d) actinomyctic
Ans: (c)

C D 1 3 0 9 3 N M

If milk undergoes fermentation the main product is

(a) Carbon-dioxide
(b) hydrogen
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Lactic acid
Ans: (d)

C D 1 3 0 9 4 N M

If halophilic bacteria grows in food it indicates that they can tolerate

(a) acid
(b) high temperature
(c) salt
(d) low temperature
Ans: (c)

C D 1 3 0 9 5 N M

If bacteria can withstand temperatures of pasteurization they are

(a) thermodurics
(b) thermophiles
(c) mesophiles
(d) pschyrophiles
Ans: (b)

C D 1 3 0 9 6 N M

If you employ UHT the temperature should be

(a) 72.2 0 C
(b) 130 0 C
 (c) 137.8 0 C
(d) 61.7 0 C
Ans:( b)
C D 1 3 0 9 7 N M
Chemical preservation is by preservatives whereas biological method is done by
using (N)
(a) Preservatives
(b) additives
(c) drying
(d) fermentation
Ans:(d)

C D 1 3 0 9 8 N M
Nitrite is used for colouring of meat and curing is done using
(a) asorbic acid
(b) citrates
(c) Nitrates
(d) Propionates
Ans: (c)
C D 1 3 0 9 9 N M
Chilling egg is to prevent spoilage whereas candling of egg is done to
(a) to strengthen egg yolk
(b) detect spoilage
(c) improve storage time
(d) to strengthen egg shell
Ans: (b)
C D 1 3 1 0 0 N M
Botulism affects central nervous system and salmonellosis affects the
(a) Excretory system
(b) Gastro intestinal system
(c) Circulatory system
(d) Reproductive system
Ans: (b)

C D 1 6 0 0 1 K E

Skillet is a
 (a) frying pan
(b) steamer
(c) oven
(d) broiler

Ans.( a)

C D 1 6 0 0 2 K M

Coating used for non sticking surface equipment

(a) monel
(b) fiber glass
(c) teflon
(d) nylon

Ans.(c)

C D 1 6 0 0 3 K M

Monel metal is an alloy of

(a) nickel, copper, stainless steel
(b) nickel, copper, aluminum
(c) nickel, copper, chromium
(d) nickel, copper, silicone

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 0 4 K M

Electromagnetic wave in the micro wave oven penetrates

(a) indirectly to food
(b) directly to food
(c) indirectly to utensil
(d) directly to utensil

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 0 0 5 K M

Stainless is made by the combination of

(a) iron, carbon, chromium
(b) iron, carbon, nickel
© iron, carbon, copper
(d) iron, carbon, zinc

Ans.(a)

C D 1 6 0 0 6 K M

Non sticking surface pan made of

(a) fiber glass
(b) silicone
(c) polystyrene
(d) vinyl

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 0 0 7 K M

Ultra violet ray is observed in

(a) oven
(b) solar
(c) griddle
(d) microwave

Ans.( b)

C D 1 6 0 0 8 K M

Electrical frying pan is known as

(a) skillet
(b) griddle
(c) induction pan
(d) broiler

Ans.(a)

C D 1 6 0 0 9 K M

Danger zone temperature for food storage is

(a) 410 - 130 0 F
(b) 41 0 - 130 0C
(c) below 41 0 C - 130 0C
(d) above 41 0 F- 130 0 F

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 1 0 K M

Safety zone temperature for food storage is

(a) 410 - 130 0 F
(b) 41 0 - 130 0C
(c) below 41 0 C - above 130 0C
(d) below41 0 F- above130 0 F

Ans.( d)

C D 1 6 0 1 1 K M

Temperature in sanitizing equipment

(a) 770 C
(b) 770 F
(c) 450 C
(d) 450 F

Ans.(a)

C D 1 6 0 1 2 K M

Work height for standing position

(a) 20-25(inches)
(b) 26-31(inches)
(c) 36-41 (inches)
(d) 42-47(inches)

Ans. ( c)

C D 1 6 0 1 3 K M

Maximum reach without stretching

(a) 0-10(inches)
(b) 10-15(inches)
(c) 15-20(inches)
(d) 20- 25(inches)
Ans.(d)

C D 1 6 0 1 4 K M

Preferable colour for the kitchen flooring

(a) light plain
(b) dark plain
(c) multi colour
(d) very light

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 0 1 5 K M

Ideal work surface for food preparation

(a) wood
(b) marble
(c) aluminium
(d) plastic

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 0 1 6 K E
The process of removing/ reducing micro organisms is
(a) cleaning
(b) hygiene
(c) sanitising
(d) removing dirt

Ans.(c)

C D 1 6 0 1 7 K M

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 1 8 K M

Room temperature for dry storage

(a) 20 - 250 C
(b) 20 -250 F
(c) 30 -400C
(d) 30 -400 F

Ans.(a)

C D 1 6 0 1 9 K M

(a) below 600c

(b) 600c
(c) 600 f
(d) below 60 0f

Ans.( b)

C D 1 6 0 2 0 K M

Commonly stainless steel used in food service will have

(a) low carbon ,low chromium
(b) low carbon, high chromium
(c) high carbon ,high chromium
(d) high carbon, low chromium

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 0 2 1 C E

The length of electromagnetic wave in microwave oven is

(a) short
(b) very short
(c) long
(d) very long

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 0 2 2 C M

Food warming and holding electrical equipment is

(a) casserole
(b) salamander
(c) chaf
(d) OTG

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 0 2 3 C M

Food which is not potentially hazardous

(a) milk
(b) meat
(c) hot dogs
(d) bread

Ans.(d)

C D 1 6 0 2 4 C M

Potentially hazardous food is

(a) maida
(b) maize
(c) marmalade
(d) meat

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 2 5 C M

HACCP is a plan adopted to attain

(a) Food standard
(b) food safety
(c) food labeling
(d) food handling

Ans.( b)

C D 1 6 0 2 6 C M

How to store the meat in the refrigerator storage?

(a) unwrap
(b) place in clean utensil
 (c) wrap in news paper
(d) wrap in polythene cover

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 2 7 C M

Terrazzo is a combination of
(a) marble & clay
(b) cement & crushed marble
(c) cement & mosaic
(d) mosaic & clay

Ans: (b)
C D 1 6 0 2 8 C M

Wood is a desirable flooring in

(a) kitchen
(b) dining area
© work area
(d) wash area

Ans.( b)

C D 1 6 0 2 9 C M

Asphalt tile is often used for

(a) wall
(b) ceiling
(c) counter
(d) flooring

Ans.(d)

C D 1 6 0 3 0 C M

Plastic is resistance to
(a) alkali alone
(b) acid alone
(c) grease alone
(d) alkali, acid, grease

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 3 1 C E

Warm colour food is

(a) tiresome
(b) irritable
(c) enhancing appearance
(d) deteriorating appearance

Ans.(c)

C D 1 6 0 3 2 C E

Dark colour is used to look

(a) smaller
(b) larger
(c) medium
(d) marginal

Ans.( a)

C D 1 6 0 3 3 C E

Identify the cool colour

(a) orange
(b) yellow
(c) violet
(d) red

Ans. ( c)

C D 1 6 0 3 4 C E

Circle the warm colour

(a) green
(b) blue
(c) purple
(d) red

Ans.(d)

C D 1 6 0 3 5 C E

Orange colour is
(a)warm
(b) cool
(c) soft
(d) semi cool

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 3 6 C M

The limit to which a person can stretch hand to grasp materials is -------------
(a) work area
 (b) area of reach
(c) flow of area
(d) functional area

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 0 3 7 C E

A space for passage is termed as

(a) path
(b) aisle
(c) route
(d) direction

Ans: (b)

C D 1 6 0 3 8 C E

The disproportionate amount of light coming into the eye is termed as

(a) fusion
(b) glare
(c) diffuse
(d) reflection

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 0 3 9 C M

Blue print of the building construction is

(a) facility
(b) layout
(c) outline
(d) draft

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 0 4 0 C M

Layout planning of physical facility of the restaurant is termed as

(a) blue print
(b) draft
(c) outline
(d) templates

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 4 1 C M
74. Templates indicated in layout planning is ------------
(a) symbol
(b) demarcation
(c) arrangement
(d) plan

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 4 2 C M

76. The symbol used in planning layout

(a) template
(b) therblig
(c) design
(d) bar

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 4 3 A M

Find out the applied finish

(a) enameling
(b) hammered
© high polish
(d) pebbled

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 4 4 A M

Identify the cooking equipment

(a) boiler
(b) fryer
(c) bain-marie
(d) bread slicer

Ans. b

C D 1 6 0 4 5 A E

One of the following is preparation equipment

(a) coffee percolator
(b) trolley
(c) casserole
(d) cabinet

Ans.(a)
 C D 1 6 0 4 6 A E

Choose the major equipment

(a) blender
(b) toaster
(c) range
(d) poacher

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 0 4 7 A M

Griddle is used for

(a) preparation
(b) steaming
(c) storing
(d) cooking

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 4 8 A E

Suitable material to be used for cooking in microwave oven

(a) nickel
(b) copper
(c) silicone
(d) glass

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 4 9 A M

In which material enamelling finish is done?

(a).China
(b)Steel
(c) Fiberglass
(d)Wood

Ans.(a)

C D 1 6 0 5 0 A E

What is the purpose of using bain marie

(a)holding food cold
(b)holding food dry
.(c) holding food hot
(d) holding fried food

Ans.(c)
 C D 1 6 0 5 1 A M

Duration for single process in sanitizing equipment is

(a) 25 seconds
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 45 seconds
(d) 45 minutes

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 5 2 A M

Non inflammable supplemental material used for building purpose is

(a) asbestos
( b) wood
(c) plastic
(d) PVC

Ans. ( a)

C D 1 6 0 5 3 A M

The noise absorbing surface must be

(a) hard
(b) porous
(c) rigid
(d) very hard

Ans.( b)

C D 1 6 0 5 4 A M

Which one of the following is used as refrigerant?

(a) freon
(b) neon
(c) tungsten
(d) isoton

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 5 5 A M

Which of the following acoustical material is used in dining area?

(a) asphalt
(b) marble
(c) rubber
(d) steel

Ans. ( c)
 C D 1 6 0 5 6 A M

Where will you maintain the temperature of 20- 250 C?

(a) dry storage area
(b )work area
(c) trash area
(d) cold storage area

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 5 7 A M

The noise absorbing surface must be

( a) hard
(b) porous
(c) rigid
(d) very hard

Ans.( b)

C D 1 6 0 5 8 A M

The mica is used in electrical equipment since it is

(a) base material
(b) attractive material
(c) insulation material
(d) non corrosive material

Ans. ©

C D 1 6 0 5 9 C M

The damage of hole formed in aluminium is termed as

a).verdigris
b). pitting
c). browning
d). discolouring

Ans. (b) pitting

C D 1 6 0 6 0 A E

Which equipment is used for delivering food to patients in the dietary department
(a) chafing dish
(b) trolley
(c) modular equipment
(d) toaster

Ans.( b)

C D 1 6 0 6 1 A M

Chafing dish is used as

(a). warmer
(b) cooker
(c) drier
(d) mixer

Ans. ( a)

C D 1 6 0 6 2 A M

The presence of cockroaches in storage area can be deprived with

(a) food
( b) water
(c) darkness
( d) light

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 6 3 A M

Which of the following is a mechanical finish?

(a) galvanization
(b) electro plating
(c) satin
(d) hot dipping

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 0 6 4 A M

Galvanization is the process done in brass vessels for--------------

(a) sanitation
(b) food safety
(c) softness
(d)shining

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 0 6 5 A M

In a restaurant high ceiling can be made to look lower by using

(a) dim light
(b) well lit
(c) partially dim light
(d) very well lit

Ans.( a)

C D 1 6 0 6 6 A M

Where will you fit vapour extractor in the kitchen

(a) near the ceiling
( b) over the cooking equipment
( c) near window
(d) anywhere

Ans. ( b)

C D 1 6 0 6 7 A E

What type of kitchen is suitable for a restaurant

(a) parallel
(b) island
(c) assembly line
(d)L-shaped

Ans.( d)

C D 1 6 0 6 8 A M

What is the purpose of using phenol?

(a) sparkling
(b) sanitizing
(c) bleaching
(d) cleaning

Ans.( b)

C D 1 6 0 6 9 A M

Which preventive measure can be followed to control rodents?

(a) poisoning
(b) trapping
(c) wire mesh door
(d)baiting

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 0 7 0 A E

Tungsten wire is used in

(a) filament lamp
(b) mercury lamp
(c) fluorescent lamp
(d) filament and mercury

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 7 1 A M

Which will be the desirable flooring for the restaurant in hilly areas?
(a) wood
(b) marble
(c) mosaic
(d) granite

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 7 2 A M

Kitchen should face the direction of

( a) south west
(b) south east
(c) north west
(d) north east

Ans (b)

C D 1 6 0 7 3 A M

Verdigris can be prevented by --------

(a) polishing
(b) colouring
(c) steaming
(d) drying

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 7 4 A M

Identify the food safety measure

(a) FPO
(b) MBO
(c) HACCP
(d) PPC

Ans. (c)
 C D 1 6 0 7 5 A M

How will you bring intimate lighting?

Soft light
Valence light
Sofit light
Cornice light

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 7 6 A M

How will you bring intimate lighting?

Soft light
Valence light
Sofit light
Cornice light

Ans. ( a )

C D 1 6 0 7 7 A M

Find out the use of chlorine

(a) washing agent
(b) cleaning agent
(c) sanitizing agent
(d) drying agent

Ans.(c)

C D 1 6 0 7 8 A E

What type of kitchen configuration is needed for the star hotel with multi functional
areas?
(a)assembly line
(b)ergonomics
(c)zonal
(d)island

Ans. (c).

C D 1 6 0 7 9 A E

EPA Assesses
Environment
Electricity
Energy
Efficiency
Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 8 0 A E

Why customer turnover rate is considered while planning a layout?

(a) allot location
(b)draw layout
(c)find equipment
(d)decide space

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 8 1 A E

State why copper bottom vessel is used in catering?

(a)corrosion resistant
(b)good conductor of heat
(c)light weight
(d).insulator

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 0 8 2 A E

Distance travelled in one of the following kitchen is more

(a) island
(b) L-shaped
(c) parallel
(d) square

Ans (d)

C D 1 6 0 8 3 A E

Why U-shaped is the best suitable kitchen ?

(a) complement
(b) convenient
(c) comfortable
(d) efficient

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 8 4 A E

Average recommended height for sink top

(a) 90-100 cm
(b) 90-100mm
(c) 90- 100 dm
(d) 90-100 nm
Ans.( a).

C D 1 6 0 8 5 A E

Unit of ‘Lux’ is the measurement of

(a) radiation
(b) illumination
(c) reflection
(d) refraction

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 0 8 6 A M

45. Aisle between equipment & work area must have a clearance of at least
(a) 3feet
(b)4 feet
(c) 5 feet
(d) 6 feet

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 8 7 N M

HACCP indicates
(a) environment
(b) Storage
(c) Sanitation
(d) Disposal

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 0 8 8 A E

What is the insulation material used in electrical work?

(a) steel
(b) nickel
(c) mica
(d) chromium

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 0 8 9 N M

Bread is a food which is -------------

(a) hazardous
(b) less hazardous
(c) potentially hazardous
(d) non hazardous

Ans.(d)

C D 1 6 0 9 0 N M

Identify the adequate lighting for food preparation

(a) 30-40( foot candles)
(b) 20-30 ( foot candles)
(c) 20-25 ( foot candles)
(d) 10 -15( foot candles)

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 0 9 1 N M

Desirable intensity of lighting for dining area is

(a) 10-15 (foot candles)
(b) 15-20 (foot candles)
(c) 20-25 (foot candles)
(d) 25-30 (foot candles)

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 0 9 2 N M

The theory behind the ergonomics is

(a) More energy
( b) More effort
(c) Minimum effort
(d) No effort

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 0 9 3 N M

Electromagnetic wave in the microwave oven penetrates

(a) indirectly to food
(b) directly to food
(c) indirectly to utensil
(d) directly to utensil

Ans . (c)

C D 1 6 0 9 4 N M
Sharpness of knife can be increased with
(a) very low carbon
(b) low carbon
(c) high carbon
(d) no carbon

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 0 9 5 N M

How to store the meat in the refrigerated storage?

(a) Unwrap
(b) Place in clean utensil
(c) Wrap in news paper
(d) Wrap in polythene cover
Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 0 9 6 N M

Placement of cooking equipment in the middle and preparation are on the outer walls.
Identify the configuration line in the kitchen.
(a) Assembling line
(b) Zonal
(c) Ergonomic
(d) Island
Ans.(d)

C D 1 6 0 9 7 N M

Space in the centre is wasted in

(a) island kitchen
(b) line kitche
(c) square kitchen
(d) rectangular kitchen

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 0 9 8 N M

An acoustical material used for the wall of dining room in a restaurant is

(a) carpet
(b) mats
(c) draperies
(d) f urniture

Ans. (d)
 C D 1 6 0 9 9 N M

Maximum utilization of space is possible in one of the following kitchens

(a) L shaped
(b) parallel
(c) straight line
(d) U shaped
Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 1 0 0 N M

The steps followed in cleaning food service equipment

(a) clean , dry, wash, sanitize
(b) wash, rinse , sanitize, dry
(c) rinse, wash, sanitize ,dry
(d) dry, wash , sanitize, stack

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 1 0 1 N M

If copper is good conductor of heat then asbestos is

(a) finish
(b) insulation
(c) base
(d) protector

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 1 0 2 N M

Besides washing and production area what is the third area in the work triamgle?
(a) Receiving area
(b) Storage area
(c) Garbage area
(d) Sanitation area
Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 1 0 3 N M
If pitting is a problem in aluminium metal what is the problem in copper
(a) hot spot
(b) darkening
(c) verdigris
(d) browning

Ans. (c)
C D 1 6 1 0 4 N M
Find out the one which is not sanitizer
(a) chlorine
(b) bromine
(c) Sodium
(d) phenol

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 1 0 5 N M

L-shaped kitchen is not suitable for

(a) kiosk
(b) canteen
(c) coffee shop
(d) restaurant

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 1 0 6 N M

Pitting corrosion is commonly observed in

(a) glass
(b) teflon
(c) aluminium
(d) linoleum

Ans.(c)

C D 1 6 1 0 7 N M

Which is the wave observed in the micro wave oven ?

(a) ultra violet

(b) solar
(c) electromagnetic
(d) electrical

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 1 0 8 N M

In which electromagnetic wave is observed in

(a) solar oven
(b) induction oven
(c) microwave oven
(d) grill oven

Ans. (c)
 C D 1 6 1 0 9 N M

In which oven ultra violet ray is converted into energy in

(a) griddle oven
(b) solar oven
(c) induction oven
(d) microwave oven

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 1 1 0 N M

Identify the light weight base material used in food service equipment
(a) copper
(b) steel
(c) aluminium
(d) nickel

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 1 1 1 N M

Why sloping of ground is needed for

(a) drainage
(b) clearance
(c) cleaning
(d) storing

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 1 1 2 N M

What is the clearance space required between the ground and the base of equipment?
(a) 2inches
(b) 4inches
(c) 5inches
(d) 6inches

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 1 1 3 N M

Which pests are controlled by electrocutor traps?

( a) ants
(b) flies
(c) mice
(d) all pest

Ans. (b)
 C D 1 6 1 1 4 N M

Fluorescent lamp contains

(a) mercury vapour
(b) filament
(c) sodium vapour
(d) silver

Ans. (a)

C D 1 6 1 1 5 N M

What is the colour of glow in sodium lamp

(a) white glow
(b) bluish glow
(c) yellow glow
(d) silver glow

Ans.(c)

C D 1 6 1 1 6 N M

Incandescent light contains

(a) mercury vapour
(b) filament
(c) sodium vapour
(d) ultra violet ray

Ans. (c)

C D 1 6 1 1 7 N E

Identify the area of triangle besides washing and production area

(a) receiving area
(b) storage area
(c) garbage area
(d) sanitation area

Ans.(b)

C D 1 6 1 1 8 N E

Identify the chemical sanitizer used for water in restaurants

(a) sulphur
(b) carbon
(c) nitrogen
(d) chlorine
Ans.(d)

C D 1 6 1 1 9 A D

The temperature zone range between 41and1350 f to hold food-What it indicates ?

(a) standard
(b) safety
(c) desirable
(d) danger

Ans. (d)

C D 1 6 1 2 0 N D

Which measurement is applied for traffic aisle in dining room?

(a) 4.5&5 cm
(b) 4.5 &5 inches
(c) 4.5&5 meter
(d) 4.5 &5 feet

Ans.(d)

C D 1 6 1 2 1 S M

The colour suitable for high ceiling in work area to appear low is
(a) Dark
(b) light
(c)bright
(d) dim

Ans (a) Dark

C D 1 6 1 2 2 S M

In food preparation area low ceiling can be made to appear high by using colour
(a) dark
(b) light
(c) bright
(d) dim

Ans (b) light

C D 1 6 1 2 3 S M

If the danger zone temperature for food is between 400F and 1350F what is the safe
zone temperature?
(a) below 400F and above 1350F
(b) between 400 C and 1350C
(c) below 400C and above 1350C
(d) between 400 F and 1350F

Ans (d)

C D 1 6 1 2 4 S M

Why teflon coating is used in cooking pan?

(a) Insulation
(b) Corrosion prevention
(c) Good conductor of heat
(d) Nonsticky

Ans (d)

C D 1 6 1 2 5 S M

Drainage will be effective if the flooring is

(a) Steep
(b) Slope
© Even
(d)Flat

Ans (d)

C D 1 6 1 2 6 S M

Which of the following equipment is used for keeping cooked food in warm in a
cafeteria?
(a)Rechaud
(b)Bainmarie
(c) Food Trolley
(d) Smorgashord

Ans. (b)

C D 1 6 1 2 7 E M

How will you increase the sharpness of a knife using high

(a) Carbon
(b) Zink
(c) Nickel
(d) Tin

Ans (a)

C D 1 6 1 2 8 E M

Which one of the following is corrosion resistant

(a) Iron
(b) Aluminium
(c) Stainless steel
(d) Cast iron

Ans (c)

C D 1 6 1 2 9 E M

Why U-shaped kitchen is considered as the best suitable kitchen ?

(a) Utilization of space
(b) Convenient
(c) Comfortable
(d) Efficient

Ans. (d)
.