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Mains Set-A

This document contains instructions for a JEE Mains exam for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. It states that the exam is 3 hours long and contains 90 questions worth a total of 360 marks. The questions are divided evenly into 3 parts for each subject, with each correct answer worth 4 marks and incorrect answers deducting 1/4 of a mark. Test takers are only allowed to use a blue or black pen to fill in their answers and no other materials are permitted. The instructions emphasize filling in identifying information correctly and handing the answer sheet back in after completing the exam.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
142 views15 pages

Mains Set-A

This document contains instructions for a JEE Mains exam for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. It states that the exam is 3 hours long and contains 90 questions worth a total of 360 marks. The questions are divided evenly into 3 parts for each subject, with each correct answer worth 4 marks and incorrect answers deducting 1/4 of a mark. Test takers are only allowed to use a blue or black pen to fill in their answers and no other materials are permitted. The instructions emphasize filling in identifying information correctly and handing the answer sheet back in after completing the exam.

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FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS


JEE – MAINS- 2015
CODE: SET-A 740166.1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct
response.

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question.
¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6
above.

8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

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Section – I (Physics)

1. In the given circuit switch 'S' is closed at t = 0, then


(A) time constant of the circuit is
(B) at t = 0 current in the resistor R1 will be zero
(C) at t = 0 rate of power supplied by the battery will be zero
t=0
(D) the current from source at t = 0, will be smaller than the current
at long time after switch is closed.

2. In the given circuit switch S is closed at t = 0, then the R


rate of change of current through the inductor initially is
(A) 0
(B) /L  L
R
(C) /2L
(D) 2/L S

3. A uniform but time varying magnetic field B = C – Kt, where K and C are positive
constants and t is time, is applied perpendicular to the plane of a circular loop of radius
'a' and resistance R. The total charge that will pass through any point of the loop by the
time B becomes zero is:
(A) C  a2/R K (B) K a2/R
(C) C a2/R (D) none of these

4. A triangular loop as shown in the figure is started to being


pulled out at t = 0 from a uniform magnetic field with a constant
velocity v. Total resistance of the loop is constant and equals to
R. Then the variation of power produced in the loop with time
will be:
(A) linearly increasing with time till whole loop comes out
(B) increases parabolically till whole loop comes out
(C) P t3 till whole loop come out
(D) will be constant with time

5. The effective value of current i = 2 sin 100 t + 2 cos (100 t + 30º) A, is


(A) A (B) A
(C) 4 A (D) 2 A

6. When a voltage vs = 100 2 sin(t + 15º) V is applied to an AC circuit the current in the
circuit is found to be i = 2sin(t + /4) A, then average power consumed in the circuit is
(A) 200 watt (B) 400 watt
(C) 100 watt (D) 200 watt

7. The secondary coil of an ideal step down transformer is delivering 500 watt power at
12.5 A current. If the ratio of turns in the primary to the secondary is 5 : 1, then the
current flowing in the primary coil will be :
(A) 62.5 A (B) 2.5 A
(C) 6 A (D) 0.4 A

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8. In the series LCR circuit as shown in figure, the heat


developed in 80 seconds and amplitude of wattless current
is:
(A) 4000 J, 3A (B) 8000 J, 3A
(C) 4000 J, 4A (D) 8000 J, 5A

9. A particle is moving towards a fixed convex mirror. The image also moves. If V i = speed
of image and VO = speed of the object, then
(A) Vi ≤ VO if |u| < |F| (B) Vi > VO if |u| > |F|
(C) Vi < VO if |u| > |F| (D) Vi = VO if |u| = |F|

10. The mirror of length L moves horizontally as shown in the figure


with a velocity v. The mirror is illuminated by a point source of light
‘P’ placed on the ground. The rate at which the length of the light
spot on the ground increases is:
(A) v (B) zero
(C) 2v (D) 3v

11. A ray of light from a denser medium strike a rarer medium. The angle of reflection is r
and that of refraction is rʹ. The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 90° with
each other. The critical angle will be:
(A) sin–1(tan r) (B) tan–1(sin r)
–1
(C) sin (tan rʹ) (D) tan–1(sin rʹ)

12. The observer 'O' sees the distance AB as infinitely large. If

refractive index of liquid is μ1 and that of glass is μ2, then is:

(A) 2 (B) 1/2


(C) 4 (D) None of these

13. A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown


i the figure. For a point object places on its axis, the number of
images formed are:
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4

14. A transparent cylinder has its right half polished so as to act as


a mirror. A paraxial light ray is incident from left that is parallel
to principal axis, exits parallel to the incident ray as shown. The
refractive index n of the material of the cylinder is :
(A) 1.2 (B) 1.5
(C) 1.8 (D) 2.0

15. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A 1 and A2
on the wall, for its two different positions. The area of the source of light is
(A) (A1A2)1/2 (B)

(C) (D)

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16. A convex lens of focal length f and a plane mirror are y


distance apart. An object O is kept on the principal axis of the O
lens at a distance x from the lens. The values of x and y for the
final image of O to fall exactly (position and size) on the object
y x
‘O’:
(A) x = f, y = f (B) x = f, y = 2f
(C) x = 2f, y = f (D) x = 2f, y = 2f

17. If the relative permittivity and relative permeability of a medium are 2 and 1.28
respectively, then refractive index of that material is:
(A) 1.25 (B) 25/16
(C) 5/8 (D) 1.6

18. A Young’s double slit experiment is conducted in water (μ1) as


shown in the figure, and a glass plate of thickness t and
refractive index μ2 is placed in the path of S 2. The magnitude of
the phase difference at O is: (Assume that ‘λ’ is the wavelength
of light in air)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
19. The angular momentum of an electron in first orbit of Li++ ion is:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

20. If first excitation potential of a hydrogen like atom is V electron volt, then the ionization
energy of this atom will be:
(A) V electron volt (B) electron volt

(C) electron volt (D) cannot be calculated by given information.

21. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident light of wavelength 200 nm can be
stopped before travelling 1 m in the direction of uniform electric field of 4 N/C. The work
function of the surface is:
(A) 4 eV (B) 6.2 eV
(C) 2 eV (D) 2.2 eV

22. An unknown stable nuclide after absorbing a neutron emits an electron, and the new
nuclide splits spontaneously into two alpha particles. The unknown nuclide is:
(A) 4Be9 (B) 3Li7
4
(C) 2He (D) 5B10
23. The rate of disintegration of a radioactive substance falls from 800 decay/min to 100
decay/min in 6 hours. The half-life of the radioactive substance is:
(A) 6/7 hour (B) 2 hrs
(C) 3 hrs (D) 1 hr

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24. In an atom, two electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and
4R. The ratio of the time taken by them to complete one revolution is: (assume that
electrons exert negligible force on each other)
(A) 1: 4 (B) 4: 1
(C) 1: 8 (D) 8: 1

25. When a metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength , the
stopping potential is 5V0. When the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength
3, the stopping potential is V0. Then the work function of the metallic surface is:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

26. In which of the following process the number of protons in the nucleus increases.
(A)  - decay (B) - - decay
+
(C)  - decay (D) k – capture

27. Which of the following properties show that light is a transverse wave?
(A) Reflection (B) Interference
(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization

28. To increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope, one should increase
(A) the focal length of the lens (B) the power of the lens
(C) the aperture of the lens (D) the object size

29. A man is looking at a small object placed at his near point. Without altering the position
of his eye or the object, he puts a simple microscope of magnifying power 5X before
his eyes. The angular magnification achieved is
(A) 5 (B) 2.5
(C) 1 (D) 0.2

30. A slit of width a is illuminated with a monochromatic light of wavelength  from a distant
source and the diffraction pattern is observed on a screen placed at a distance D from
the slit. To increase the width of the central maximum one should:
(A) decrease D (B) decrease a
(C) decrease  (D) the width cannot be changed

Section – II (Chemistry)

1. Which of the following gas is evolved when carbonate ion reacts with hot dil. HCl?
(A) O2 (B) CO (C) CO2 (D) COCl2

2. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is favoured by


(A) increasing temperature (B) increasing pressure
(C) decreasing the volume of liquid (D) decreasing the surface area of liquid

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3. The edge length of the FCC unit cell of the crystal of a metal is 1.51 . What will be the shortest
distance between an octahedral and a tetrahedral void in the unit cell?
(A) 2.6 (B) 1.3 (C) 0.653 (D) 0.326

4. Addition of FeCl3 into the aqueous solution of [Fe(CN) 6]4– ions results in the formation of a blue
precipitate(X). The precipitate (X) is soluble in
(A) HNO3 (B) NaOH (C) Fe2(SO4)3 (D) KCl

5. Water and oil are two immiscible liquids. They are distilled under equilibrium conditions at 1 atm
pressure. Assuming ideal gas behavior, calculate the mole fraction of oil in the distillate if vapour
pressure of pure water is 425 torr.
(A) 0.61 (B) 0.44 (C) 0.38 (D) 0.72

6. How much Faraday’s of electricity should be passed through enough water in order to obtain 32
kg of dioxygen (O2) gas as a product of electrolysis?
(A) 400F (B) 4000F (C) 2000F (D) 200F

7. Which of the following substance forms N2 gas on heating?


(A) NaNO3 (B) NH4NO2 (C) NH4Cl (D) Mg(NO3)2

8. What type of sulphur molecule exits in chair form?


(A) S8 (B) S6 (C) S2 (D) S10

9. What is the hybridization of xenon in XeO4?


(A) sp3 (B) sp3d (C) sp3d2 (D) sp3d4

10.

How many moles of CO2 gas is/are formed in the above reaction from one mole of reactant?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5

11. In an ionic solid, the cubic unit cell contains X 2+ ion at body centre and Y 2– ions at the corners.
What is the coordination number of X2+ ion in the crystal?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 10

12. Which of the following complex can form maximum amount of white ppt. when reacts with
aqueous AgNO3 solution?
(A) [Cr(NH3)4(Cl)2]Cl (B) [Cr(NH3)3(Cl)3] (C) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (D) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
13.

(P) and (Q) in the above reaction are respectively


(A) and Mn2+ (B) Mn2+ and Mn3O4 (C) and Mn3O4 (D) Mn2+ and

14. The electrode potential of which of the following hydrogen electrode is assumed to be zero?
(A) Pt | H2(1 atm) | H+(10 M) (B) H+(1 M) | H2(1 atm) | Pt
(C) Pt | H2(1 atm) | H (pH = 1)
+
(D) H+(pH = 1) | H2(10 atm) | Pt

15. Which gas is formed when CO 2 is passed through the aqueous solution of bleaching
powder(CaOCl2)?
(A) HCl (B) Cl2 (C) O2 (D) O3

16. Which salt forms a violet vapour when treated with conc.H2SO4?
(A) NaNO3 (B) NaBr (C) NaI (D) NaCl

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17. Which of the following solution is isotonic with 0.4 M CaCl2?


(A) 0.4 M glucose(C6H12O6) (B) 0.4 M NaCl (C) 0.3 M AlCl3 (D) 0.2 M Na2SO4

18. Which of the following solid is most prone to Schottky defect?


(A) NaCl (B) MgCl2 (C) AlCl3 (D) KCl

19. What is the hybridization of the metal ion in [Fe(CN) 6]4–?


(A) d2sp2 (B) sp3d2 (C) d2sp3 (D) sp2d2

20. If the specific conductance of an electrolytic solution is x ohm –1 cm–1 and the molarity of the
solution is y M, what will be the molar conductance of the solution in terms of x and y with unit
ohm–1 cm2 mol–1?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

21.

The product of above reaction is:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

22. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of a non volatile solute of
molecular weight 60 (which neither dissociates nor associates in the solution) is 0.018. If of
water is , the depression in freezing point will be
(A) 0.93°C (B) 3.72°C (C) 1.86°C (D) 0.018°C

23. The solution containing 4.0 g of polyvinyl chloride polymer in 1 lit of dioxane was found to have an
osmotic pressure 6.0 104 atm at 300 K. The mol. mass of polymer was found to be
(A) 3.0  102 (B) 1.6  105 (C) 5.6  104 (D) 6.4  102

24. A substance of treatment with dil. H 2SO4 liberates a colourless gas which produces (i) turbidity
with baryta water and (ii) turns acidified dichromate solution green. The reaction indicates the
presence of
(A) CO32- (B) S2- (C) SO32- (D) NO2-

25. An aqueous solution contains the following ions: Hg 22+, Hg2+, Pb2+ and Cd2. The addition of dil.
HCl (6H) precipitates
(A) Hg2Cl2 only (B) Hg2Cl2 and PbCl2 (C) PbCl2 only (D) PbCl2 and HgCl2

26. Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to aqueous solution of copper
sulphate?
(A) Cu(CN)2 (B) K2[Cu(CN)4] (C) K(Cu(CN)2] (D) K3[Cu(CN)4]

27. Which is an example of coordination isomer?

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(A) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Cr(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 (B) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6]


[Co(CN)6]
(C) [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 (D) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2 and
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl.H2O

28. Coordination number of Cr in CrCl 3.5H2O is six. The volume of 0.1 N AgNO 3 needed to ppt. the
chlorine in outer sphere in 200 ml of 0.01 M solution of the complex is
(A) 140 ml (B) 40 ml (C)80 ml (D) 20 ml

29. In which of the following, the magnetic moment would be maximum


(A) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (B) K4[Fe(CN)6] (C) K3[Fe(CN6] (D) [Fe(H2O)6]SO4

30. The plot of vs (where XA and YA are the mole fractions of A in liquid and vapour phases

respectively) is linear whose slope and intercept respectively are given as

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Section – III (Mathematics)


1. If and are two unit vectors and θ is angle between them, then is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. A unit vector parallel to intersection of the planes and

is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

3. The number ‘a’ is randomly selected from the set {0, 1, 2, ......, 98, 99}, the number ‘b’ is
selected from the same set. Probability that the number 3 a + 7b has a digit equal to 8 at
the unit place is
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

4. A box contains 5 red and 4 white marbles, two marbles are drawn successively from the
box without replacement and the second drawn marble is found to be white. Probability
that the first marble is also white is
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
5. A fair dice is tossed 8 times. Probability that on the eighth throw a third six is observed is
(A) (B)

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(C) (D) None of these

6. The three vectors , , taken two at a time from three planes. The three unit
vectors drawn perpendicular to these three planes from a parallelopiped of volume?
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

7. Let L1 be the line and L2 be the line , , μ are


non-zero scalers. Let P be a plane which contains the line L 1 and is parallel to L2, the
distance of P from origin is

(A) (B)

(C) (D) None of these

8. For a given matrix which of the following statement holds good?

(A) (B) A is symmetric for ,nϵI


(C) A is an orthogonal matrix (D) A is skew symmetric for θ = n, n ϵ I

9. The number of real values of x satisfying

is

(A) 3 (B) 0
(C) more than three (D) 1

10. Let three matrices A = ,B= ,C= , then

(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 12 (D) None

11. Let A = , where 0 ≤ θ ≤ 2, then

(A) Det (A) = 0 (B) Det A ϵ (0, ∞)


(C) Det (A) ϵ [2, 4] (D) Det A ϵ [2, ∞]

12. The area enclosed by the curves y = cos x, y = 1 + sin 2x, x = 0 and x = equals

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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13. A function y = f(x) satisfies the condition fʹ(x) sin x + f(x) cos x = 1, f(x) being bounded
when x → 0 if , then

(A) (B)

(C) (D) 0 < I < 1

14. The value of ‘a’ (a > 0) for which the area bounded by the curves , y = 0, x = a
and x = 2a has the least value is
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 21/3 (D) 1

15. Square Matrix A, satisfies A2 = 2A – I when I is the identity matrix then for n  2, An is
equal to
(n ϵ N)
(A) nA – I (B) 2n – 1 A – (n – 1) I
(C) nA – (n – 1)I (D) 2n – 1A – I

16. Area of the region enclosed between the curves x = y2 – 1 and is


(A) 1 (B) 4/3
(C) 2/3 (D) 2

17. Sixteen players S1, S2, .......S16 play in a tournament, they are divided in to eight pairs at
random from each pair a winner is decided on the basis of game played between the two
players of the pair, assume that all the players are of equal strength. The probability that
“exactly one of the two players S1 and S2 is among the eight winners” is
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

18. The area common to the region determined by and x2 + y2 ≤ 2 has the value
(A)  - 2 (B) 2 - 1
(C) (D) None of these

19. The area of the figure bounded by y = ex, y = e –x and straight line x = 1 is
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
20. If Am represent the area bounded by the curve y = ln xm, the x-axis and the lines x = 1
and x = e, then Am + mAm – 1 is
(A) m (B) m2
(C) (D) m2 – 1
21. If 3rd order determinants are formed using elements 1 or –1, then maximum possible
value of such determinant is
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 0
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22. A area enclosed by ellipse , where 0 ≤ y ≤ 5 and y = sin x is

(A) 32 (B)


(C) 52 (D) 62

23. The maximum number of planes equidistance from a four non-coplanar points are
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 7 (D) None of these
24. The volume of the parallelopiped formed by three non-coplanar vectors such that

and is

(A) (B)

(C) (D) None of these


25. If a plane 2x + 3y + 4z = 12, intersect x-axis, y-axis, z-axis at A, B and C respectively.
The co-ordinate of orthocentre of the triangle ABC is

(A) (B)

(C) (1, 2, 1) (D)

26. If , then the value of is equal to

(A) (B) (C) (D)

27. If f(x) = (cos x + i sin x) (cos 3x + i sin 3x) .........[cos(2n – 1)x + i sin(2n – 1)x] where n ϵ
N, then f”(x) is equal to
(A) n2f(x) (B) –n4f(x)
2
(C) –n f(x) (D) n4f(x)

28. The lines and are coplanar if


(A) k = 1 or –1 (B) k = 0 or –3
(C) k = 3 or –3 (D) k = 0 or –1
29. The shortest distance between the lines
and is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

30. Let X denotes the number of times head occur in 4 tosses of an unbiased coin. If
P(X = 4), P(X = 5) and P(X = 6) are in A.P. then value of n is

(A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 15

(D) If they are compressed by same force (upto equilibrium state) WA > WB

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS


JEE - MAINS 2015
CODE: SET-A ( 740166.1)
ANSWER KEYS
PHYSICS

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. C 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A
16. D 17. D 18. C 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. A
26. B 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. B

CHEMISTRY

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. B 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. B
26. C 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D

MATHEMATICS

1. A 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. D 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. A
11. C 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. C
16. D 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. B
21. C 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. B
26. D 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. A

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

SECTION – III : MATHEMATICS

1. A
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JEE-MAINS -2015-PH-V-SET-A-PCM-13

2. A

3. D

3a ends in → 1 3 7 9
7b ends in ↓
1 8
3
7 8
9 8

4. A
Since the 2nd is known to be W, there are only 3 ways of the remaining 8 in which the
1st can be white so that probability 3/8.

5. B

6. D

7. D

8. C
A is orthogonal
For skew matrix aii = 0 θ = (2n + 1)/2
For symmetric matrix A = AT sinθ = 0 θ = 4

aob A = and |A| = 1 A = A-1 is possible if sinθ = 0

9. C

Use R3→ R3 – (2R2 + 3R1)

10. A

BC =

So
= 2tr(A) = 6

11. C
|A| = 2(1 + sin2θ)
|≤| + sin2θ ≤ 2 2 |A| ≤ 4

12. C

13. B

Faridabad (Delhi-NCR) FIITJEE Ltd., Sec-15A Market, Near Vidya Mandir Public School, Ajrounda Chowk, Haryana-121007: Ph-0129-4174571
Website: www.weebly.com
JEE-MAINS -2015-PH-V-SET-A-PCM-14


2
1

ysinx = x + C
if x = 0, y is finite C = 0 0 
2

and

14. D

15. C
A3 = 2ª2 – IA = 2(2A – I) – A = 3A – 2I
A4 = = 3(2A – I) – 2A = 4A – 3I
A =
5
= 4(2A – I) – 3A = 5A – 3I
………………………………………………………….
An = = n(2A – I) – (n – 1) = nA – (n – 1)I

16. D

(0,1)

x  y 1  y2

( 1,0)

(0, 1)
x  y2  1

17. C
7 players (leaving S1, S2) out of 14 can be selected in 14C7 and 8th player in two ways
i.e. with S1 or S2.
Hence the total ways = 14C2 × 2

Therefore P =

18. D
19. C
20. B
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. B
28. B
Faridabad (Delhi-NCR) FIITJEE Ltd., Sec-15A Market, Near Vidya Mandir Public School, Ajrounda Chowk, Haryana-121007: Ph-0129-4174571
Website: www.weebly.com
JEE-MAINS -2015-PH-V-SET-A-PCM-15

29. D
30. A

Faridabad (Delhi-NCR) FIITJEE Ltd., Sec-15A Market, Near Vidya Mandir Public School, Ajrounda Chowk, Haryana-121007: Ph-0129-4174571
Website: www.weebly.com

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