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Derivatives
7.1. Derivatives Market and Instruments
7.1.1.
7.1.1.2.
◼ Exchange-traded:
A—>Clearinghouse—>B
Exchange-traded Over-the-counter
:
Regulated Unregulated
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◆ Market makers: buy at one price (the bid), sell at a higher price (the
ask).
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7.1.2.
Q-1. Which of the following derivatives is least likely to be classified as a contingent claim?
A. A futures contract
B. A call option contract
C. A credit default swap
A. An exchange-traded fund
B. A contract to sell Alphabet Inc.’s shares at a fixed price
C. A contract to buy Australian dollars at a predetermined exchange rate
7.2.1.
◼ Complex instruments
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7.2.2.
Q-5. Which of the following is not accurate? The derivative markets tend to:
A. bring investors more difficulties to go short than to go long.
B. allow trading the risk without trading the instrument itself.
C. improve the allocation of risk and facilitate more effective risk management for both
companies and economies.
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7.3.1.
inventory
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of a foreign operation
7.3.1.2. Investor Use Derivatives to
➢ Replicate a cash market strategy:
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◼ greater liquidity and reduced capital required to trade derivatives.
➢ Hedge a fund’s value against adverse movements in underlying:
◼ derivative hedges enable investors to isolate certain underlying exposures in
the investment process while retaining a position in others.
➢ Modify or add exposures using derivatives, which in some cases are unavailable
in cash markets:
◼ the flexibility to take short positions or to increase or otherwise modify
exposure using derivatives beyond cash alternatives.
7.3.2.
Q-6. Which of the following statement is most likely correct according to hedge designation:
A. A cash flow hedge is a derivative used to offset the fluctuation in fair value of an asset or
liability.
B. A fair value hedge is a derivative designated as absorbing the variable cash flow of a floating-
rate asset or liability.
C. A net investment hedge is a derivative designated as offsetting the foreign exchange risk of
the equity of a foreign operation.
7.4.1.
7.4.2.
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Q-7. The usefulness of a forward contract is limited by some problems. Which of the following
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A. Once you have entered into a forward contract, it is difficult to exit from the contract
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B. Entering into a forward contract requires the long party to deposit an initial amount with the
short party
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C. If the price of the underlying asset moves adversely from the perspective of the long party,
periodic payments must be made to the short party
Q-8. Two counterparties sign a forward contract on a stock, the underlying stock price goes
up afterward, who will most likely suffer from credit default risk?
A. The long position only.
B. The short position only.
C. Both long and short position.
2022BT.8.1.6 视频重录
7.5.1.
7.5.1.1.
➢ Definition: viewed as a forward contract for the long to get a loan from the short
at a specific future date at a fixed rate in the contract.
➢ A forward rate agreement (FRA) is a forward contract on an interest rate (LIBOR).
expiration is 60 days from now and the payment at settlement is based on 90-day
LIBOR 60 days from now.
7.5.1.2. LIBOR and Euribor
➢ LIBOR
◼ USD interest rates.
◼ Quoted as an annualized rates based on a 360-day a year
◼ Add-on rate
◼ Single interest
➢ Euribor is a similar rate for borrowing and lending in Euros.
7.5.1.3. Settlement
➢ Settle in cash, but no actual loan is made at the settlement date.
➢ Payoff
:
◼ If the reference rate at the expiration date is above the specified contract
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rate, the long will receive cash payment from the short;
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◼ If the reference rate at the expiration date is below the contract rate, the
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7.5.2.
A. 3×6 FRA
B. 9×3 FRA
C. 3×9 FRA
Q-10. Conceptually, a FRA most likely allows a company that wants to invest money in the
future to lock in a rate by making a: 2017 Mock PM
7.6.1.
➢ Margin
◼ Initial margin: the first deposit is called the initial margin. Initial margin must
be posted before any trading takes place;
◼ Maintenance margin: is the amount of money that each participant must
maintain in the account after the trade is initiated. If the margin balance is
lower than the maintenance margin, the trader will get a margin call;
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◼ Variation margin: used to bring the margin balance back up to the initial
margin level.
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➢ Daily price limit: price limits are exchanged-imposed limits on how much the
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contract price can change from the previous day’s settlement price.
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7.6.1.2.
margin margin
➢ Clearinghouse
◼ Each exchange has a clearing house which is a third participant guaranteeing
to each party that it ensures against the other party defaulting.
◼ A clearinghouse acts as the counterparty to each participant. The
clearinghouse is the buyer to the seller and the seller to the buyer by
crediting gains to the winners and charging losses to the losers.
◼ There is no need to worry about the counterparty default risk.
◼ Each participant are allowed by the clearinghouse to reverse their positions
in the future.
7.6.2.
:
Q-11. Tony Harris is planning to start trading in commodities. He has heard about the use of
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futures contracts on commodities and is learning more about them. Which of the
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Q-12. When receive a margin call, an investor must deposit more money to meet the in the
A. Clearing houses.
B. The futures exchanges.
C. Regulatory agencies
7.7.1.
7.7.1.1.
➢ Swap contract: A swap contract obligates two parties to exchange a series of cash
flows on periodic settlement dates over a certain time period
➢ Three kinds of swaps
◼ Interest rate swaps
◆ Interest rate swap in which one party pays a fixed rate and the other
pays a floating rate.
◼ Currency swaps
7.7.1.2. forward
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➢ Custom instruments.
➢ Not traded in any organized secondary market.
➢ Largely unregulated.
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➢ Default risk is a critical aspect of the contracts.
➢ Institutions dominate.
7.7.1.3. Plain vanilla interest rate swap: involves trading fixed interest rate payments for
floating-rate payment (paying fixed and receiving floating).
➢ Counterparties: The parties involved in any swap agreement are called the
counterparties
➢ Pay-fixed side: The counterparty that makes fixed-rate interest payment in
exchange for variable interest rate.
➢ Pay-floating side: The counterparty that makes variable-rate interest payment in
exchange for fixed payment.
7.7.2.
7.8.1.
➢
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contract.
➢ An option to buy an asset at a particular price is termed a call option
Buyer of a call Right to buy
Seller of a call Obligation to sell
➢ An option to sell an asset at a particular price is termed a put option
Buyer of a put Right to sell
Seller of a put Obligation to buy
➢ Payoff
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➢ Profits for options
◼ Long call: 𝑐𝑇 = 𝑀𝑎𝑥(0, 𝑆𝑇 − 𝑋) − 𝑐0
◼ Short call: 𝑐𝑇 = −𝑀𝑎𝑥(0, 𝑆𝑇 − 𝑋) + 𝑐0
◼ Long put: 𝑝𝑇 = 𝑀𝑎𝑥(0, 𝑋 − 𝑆𝑇 ) − 𝑝0
◼ Short put: 𝑝𝑇 = −𝑀𝑎𝑥(0, 𝑋 − 𝑆𝑇 ) + 𝑝0
7.8.2.
Q-15. Which of the following is most similar to a short position in the underlying asset?
A. Buying a put
B. Writing a put
C. Buying a call
7.9.1.
7.9.1.1. Risk-neutral investors are willing to buy risky investments for which they expect to
earn only the risk-free rate. They do not expect to earn a premium for bearing risk.
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7.9.1.2. The expected payoff of the derivative can be discounted at the risk-free rate. And
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7.9.2.
Q-16. Derivatives pricing models use the risk-free rate to discount future cash flows because
these models:
A. are based on portfolios with uncertain payoffs.
B. assume that derivatives investors are risk-neutral.
C. assume that risk can be eliminated by diversification.
7.10.1.
7.10.1.1. Option
➢ Financial option
◼ Equity options
◼ Interest options
◼ Foreign currency options
◼ Bond options
◼ Index options
➢ Commodity option
➢ Time value
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◼ The difference between the price of an option (called its premium) and its
intrinsic value is due to its time value.
◼ European put option: time value can be larger than, smaller than or equal to
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zero.
◼ For others, time value is not less than zero.
➢ Option value=intrinsic value + time value
◼ Before expiration: option value>intrinsic value
◼ At expiration: option value=intrinsic value
7.10.1.4. Replication
➢ Long call + short put=long forward/long asset
7.10.2.
Q-17. At expiration, an option that is in the money will most likely have: 2019 mock A PM
Q-18. Which of the following statements most closely relates to the concept of moneyness?
A. The sum of money the option buyer pays the seller is called the premium
B. Both call and put option prices decline as the time to expiration becomes shorter
C. One would never exercise a call option if the price of the underlying is below the strike
price
Q-19. The recent price per share of Hua Big, Inc. is €80 per share. Selina Woods buys 150 shares
at €80. To protect against a falling price, Woods buys one put, covering 150 shares of Hua
Big, with a strike price of €70. The put premium is €1.5 per share. If Hua Big closes at €76
per share at the expiration of the put and Woods sells her shares at €76, Woods’ profit
from the stay/put is closest to:
A. - €825.
B. - €600.
C. €375.
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7.11.1.
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7.11.1.1. option
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Factor European call European put American call American put
Strike price - + - +
Time + * + +
Risk-free rat e + - + -
Volatility + + + +
Payments on the
- + - +
underlying
Carrying cost + - + -
*There is an exception to the general rule that European put option thetas are negative. The put
value may increases as the option approaches maturity if the option is deep in-the-money and
close to maturity. The higher the risk-free rate, the stronger the negative relationship.
7.11.2.
Q-20. Which statement best describes the early exercise of non-dividend paying American
options? Early exercise may be advantageous for: 2016 mock PM
A. deep-in-the-money calls.
B. both deep-in-the-money calls and deep-in-the-money puts.
C. deep-in-the-money puts.
Q-21. If there are two call options for two different underlying assets, and related information
is shown in the table below. 1906
Option 1 Option 2
Payments on the underlying Positive Zero
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Based on the table, which of the option is most likely to have higher value?
A. Option 1
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B. Option 2
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C. The same
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A. exercise price & risk-free rate
B. risk-free rate & volatility
C. exercise price & volatility
7.12.1.
➢ Put-call parity
◼ Pricing
◼ Positions replicating
◼ Risk free arbitrary
X
C+ S+P
◆ E.g., (1 + RFR )T long
◼ S = C - P + X / (1 + RFR)T
◼ P = C - S + X / (1 + RFR)T
◼ C = S + P - X / (1 + RFR)T
◼ X / (1 + RFR)T = S + P - C
◆ Note that the options much be European-style and the puts and calls
mush have the same exercise price for these relations to hold.
◆ Fiduciary call: buy riskless bond that pays X at maturity and a call with
exercise price X.
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◼ p-c=[X-F (T)]/(1+r)^T
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◼ This means that the difference between the price of a put and the price of a
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call is equal to the difference between exercise price and forward price
discounted at the risk-free rate.
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7.12.2.
Q-23. A description that will least likely be used to explain put-call parity is:
A. The (exercise) prices of calls and puts on an underlying asset must be consistent with each
other to remove arbitrage opportunities.
B. A fiduciary call option strategy and a protective put option strategy for an underlying asset
are equal in value.
C. A put is equivalent to long a call, a long position in the underlying asset, and a long position
in the risk-free asset.
Q-24. A stock is selling at $40, a 3-month put at $50 is selling for $11, a 3-month call at $50 is
selling for $1, and the risk-free rate is 6%. How much, if anything, can be made on an
arbitrage?
A. $0 (no arbitrage)
B. $0.28
C. $0.72
Q-25. According to put–call–forward parity, the difference between the price of a put and the
Q-26. Which of the following investment cannot provide diversification benefits, allowing risk
to be reduced without necessarily affecting or compromising return, to an investor?
A. Purchasing stocks and taking long position in put options.
B. Holding highly correlated assets.
C. Allocating a portion of a portfolio to alternative investments.
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Q-27. Instead of entering into a short position in risk free bond, the investors can also replicate
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A. combining short stock, a short positions in a put option, and a long position in call option.
B. combining long stock, a long positions in a put option, and a short position in call option.
C. combining short stock, a short positions in a put option, and a short position in call option.
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7.13. Option Put–Call Parity Applications: Firm Value
7.13.1.
7.13.2.
Q-28. Based on put-call parity application, the firm value is least likely be described as:
A. If the value of the firm (VT) is below the face value of its debt outstanding, debtholders will
receive less than the face value (D) to settle their debt claim.
B. A debtholder’s payoff is min(D, VT) and equals the debt face value (D) minus a put option on
firm value (VT) with an exercise price of D.
C. A debtholder’s position may be considered similar to the long put option on firm value.
7.14.1.
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➢ Arbitrage involves earning over the risk-free rate with no risk or earning an
immediate gain with no future liabilities.
◼ Arbitrage opportunities: arbitrage occurs when equivalent assets or
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combinations of assets sell for two different prices.
➢ Law of one price: the condition in a financial market in which two equivalent
financial instruments or combinations of financial instruments can sell for only
one price. Equivalent to the principle that no arbitrage opportunities are possible.
➢ The role of arbitrage is to eliminate mispricing and lead to the market efficiency.
That is why arbitrage also plays a role in pricing.
➢ Hedge portfolio: Derivatives usually take their values from the underlying by
constructing a hypothetical combination of the derivatives and the underlyings
that eliminates risk. This combination is typically called a hedge portfolio. With
the risk eliminated, it follows that the hedge portfolio should earn the risk-free
rate.
7.14.2.
Q-30. Which of the following best describes an arbitrage opportunity? It is an opportunity to:
A. Earn a risk premium in the short run.
B. Buy an asset at less than its fundamental value.
C. Make a profit at no risk with no capital invested.
7.15.1.
that will make the value of the contract be zero to both sides at the initiation of
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the contract
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or unusually tight supplies.
◆ The net cost and benefit is often referred to by the term carry, or
sometimes cost of carry. (Benefit-cost)
➢ Valuation of a forward contract means determining the value of the contract to
the long (or the short) at some time during the life of the contract.
Time Forward Contract Valuation
t=0 Zero, because the contract is priced to prevent arbitrage
FP FP
t=t Vlong = St - T-t
Vshort = - Vlong = T-t
- St
(1 + R )
f (1 + R )
f
t=T
ST - FP
7.15.2.
Q-31. Consider a three-month commodity forward contract, the underlying asset is selling for
$40 in which the present value of carrying benefit and carrying cost are $5 and $3,
respectively. If the risk free rate is 4%, the forward price is closest to: (2012 考题回顾自编
A. 41.60
B. 39.52
C. 38.38
Q-33. Procam Investments wants to purchase a 100-ounce gold three months later. The current
spot price is $100 per ounce, the risk-free rate is 2.0%. We assume, during next three
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months, gold may be stored at a bank with a current cost of $2.5 per 100-ounce and
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produce a current benefit of $3.5 per 100-ounce. Calculate the no arbitrage forward
price, F0(T), for settlement in 90 days (T = 90/360 or 0.25):
A. $101.50.
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B. $99.49
C. $100.
2208 2023BT.8.1.41
Q-34. Stocks BWQ and ZER are each currently priced at $100 per share. Over the next year,
stock BWQ is expected to generate significant benefits whereas stock ZER is not expected
to generate any benefits. There are no carrying costs associated with holding either stock
over the next year. Compared with ZER, the one-year forward price of BWQ is most likely:
A. lower.
B. the same.
C. higher.
Q-35. An investor have a short forward contract to sell the stock at a price of $32 one year from
now. The risk-free rate is 4%. If three month later, the stock will be priced at $27.5, the
value of this forward contract will be:
A. -4.3696
B. 4.3269
C. 4.3696
2208 2023BT.8.1.42
A. commodities.
B. equities.
C. bonds.
Q-37. Which of the following statements best describes changes in the value of a long forward
position during its life?
A. As interest rates go down, the value of the position goes up.
:
B. As the price of the underlying goes up, the value of the position goes up.
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C. As the time to maturity goes down, the value of the position goes up.
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2016 Mock AM
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7.16.1.
7.16.1.1. Futures pricing and valuation: futures price and forward price
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If the correlation between the
underlying asset value and interest Investors will…
rate is…
Prefer to go long in a futures contract, and
the futures price will be greater than the
Positive
price of an otherwise comparable forward
contract.
Zero Have no preference
Prefer to go long in a forward contract, and
the forward price will be greater than the
Negative
price of an otherwise comparable futures
contract.
7.16.2.
Q-38. Which of the following statements is least accurate concerning differences in the pricing
of forwards and futures?
A. Interest rate volatility can explain pricing differences.
B. Pricing differences can arise if futures prices and interest rates are uncorrelated.
C. Differences in the pattern of cash flows of forwards and futures can explain pricing differences.
2017 Mock PM
7.17.1.
7.17.2.
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Q-39. The price of an interest rate swap that involves the exchange of a fixed payment for a
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7.18. Option Pricing and Valuation
7.18.1.
+
S =S u
1 0
S
0
_
S =S d
1 0
1+ Rf − d
u =
◆ u−d
◆ πd=1- πu
◼ We should notice that:
◆ On the first point, if volatility increases, the difference between S1+ and
S1- increases, which widens the range between c1+ and c1-, leading to a
higher option value. The upper payoff, c1+, will be larger and the lower
payoff, c1- , will be lower.
◆ On the second point, the actual probabilities of the up and down moves
do not matter. This result is because of our ability to construct a hedge
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◼ When the underlying makes no cash payments (dividends and coupon
interest), no reason to exercise the call early, C0 = c0.
◼ When the underlying makes cash payments (dividends and coupon interest)
during the life of the option, early exercise can happen, C0 > = c0.
➢ American put options
◼ P0 > p0 , nearly always true, as long as there is a possibility of bankruptcy, P0
always > p0, (consider an American put on a bankrupt company, stock →0,
cannot go any lower, then put option holder may exercise it ).
7.18.2.
Q-40. The most correct statement about the binomial option pricing formula is that:
A. The discount rate to calculate the option price is the risk-free rate.
B. The discount rate to calculate the option price is the risk-free rate plus a risk premium
C. The spot price is compounded at the risk-free rate to get the expected payoff
Q-41. If the implied volatility for options on a broad-based equity market index goes up, then
it is most likely that:
A. The broad-based equity market index has gone up in value.
B. Market interest rates have gone up.
C. The general level of market uncertainty has gone up.
2016 Mock AM
Q-42. A 1-year put option on the stock with the strike price of $32, and the price of the stock
is $32 now, and the size of an up-move is 1.1. The risk-free rate is 6%. The value of the
put option is closest to:
A. 0.30.
B. 0.60.
C. 1.20.
(mock )
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Solutions
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:
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7. Fixed Income
7.1.
Q-1. Solution: A.
A futures contract is classified as a forward commitment in which the buyer undertakes to purchase
the underlying asset from the seller at a later date and at a price agreed on by the two parties
when the contract is initiated. A call option contract is a contingent claim in which the buyer of the
option has a right to purchase the underlying asset at a fixed price on or before a pre-specified
expiration date. A credit default swap is a contingent claim in which the credit protection seller
provides protection to the credit protection buyer against the credit risk of a third party.
Q-2. Solution: A.
Over-the-counter options are exposed to default risk, but futures contracts are standardized
transactions that take place on futures exchanges and are not exposed to default risk.
Q-3. Solution: A.
Although an exchange-traded fund derives its value from the underlying assets it holds, it does not
transform the performance of those assets and so is not a derivative.
A contract to sell Alphabet Inc.’s shares transforms the performance of the underlying shares of
Alphabet Inc and is an example of an option derivative.
A contract to buy Australian dollars transforms the performance of the underlying currency and is
an example of a currency derivative.
Q-4. Solution: A.
Derivative markets are not by nature more or less volatile than spot markets. They facilitate risk
allocation by making it easier and less costly to transfer risk, and their transaction costs are lower
than those of spot markets.
Q-5. Solution: A.
One other extremely valuable operational advantage of derivative markets is the ease with which
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one can go short. With derivatives, it is nearly as easy to take a short position as to take a long
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position, whereas for the underlying asset, it is almost always much more difficult to go short than
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Q-6. Solution: C.
A fair value hedge is a derivative used to offset the fluctuation in fair value of an asset or liability.
A cash flow hedge is a derivative designated as absorbing the variable cash flow of a floating-rate
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asset or liability.
Q-7. Solution: A.
As opposed to a futures contract, trading out of a forward contract is quite difficult. There is no
exchange of cash at the origination of a forward contract. There is no exchange on a forward
contract until the maturity of the contract.
Q-8. Solution: C.
Both long and short positions are exposed to default risk in a forward contract, even the spot price
of the underlying is higher than forward price.
Q-9. Solution: C.
3×9 FRA is a forward rate agreement whose expiration date is 90 days from now and the
payment at settlement is based on 180-day LIBOR 90 days from now.
Q-10. Solution: A.
FRAs are forward contracts that conceptually allow lenders to lock in a fixed payment on a future
investment by receiving a known payment and making an unknown payment which offsets the
unknown future interest payment.
Q-11. Solution: A.
Harris is least likely to find counterparty risk associated with a futures contract. There is limited
counterparty risk in a futures contract because the clearinghouse is on the other side of every
contract.
Q-12. Solution: C.
In stock market, additional margin must be deposited to bring the ending balance up to the
Maintenance margin requirement; however, in futures market, additional margin must be
deposited to bring the ending balance up to the initial margin requirement.
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Q-13. Solution: A.
Clearing houses arrange for financial settlement of trades. In futures markets, they guarantee
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contract performance.
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Q-14. Solution: C.
In a currency swap, the underlying principal is denominated in different currencies and is
typically exchanged at the start and end of the swap.
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In a currency swap, the underlying principal is denominated in different currencies and would
typically be exchanged not only at the start of the swap but also at the end of the swap.
In a currency swap, the underlying principal is denominated in different currencies and would
typically be exchanged not just at the end of the swap but at the start of the swap as well.
Q-15. Solution: A.
Buying a put is most similar to a short position in the underlying asset because the put increase
the value if the underlying asset value decreases. The writer of a put and the holder of call have a
long exposure to the underlying asset because their positions increase in value if the underlying
asset value increase.
Q-16. Solution: B.
Derivatives pricing models use the risk-free rate to discount future cash flows (risk-neutral pricing)
because they are based on constructing arbitrage relationships that are theoretically riskless.
These models are based on portfolios with certain payoffs (Rf).
Risk cannot eliminated by diversification.
Q-17. Solution: B.
At expiration, options have no time value; if they are in the money, they have exercise value (also
called intrinsic value)
Q-18. Solution: C.
Only an in-the-money option would be exercised. Moneyness describes the relationship between
the price of the underlying and an option’s exercise price.
Q-19. Solution: A.
The loss on her stock is (€76-€80) X 150 = - €600. She also paid €1.5 X 150=€225 for the put. The
put expires worthless, making her total loss €825.
Q-20. Solution: C.
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Only deep-in-the-money put options may be exercised early. The price cannot fall below zero
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Q-21. Solution: B.
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A call option’s value is negatively correlated to the payments on the underlying, and positively
related to the carrying cost, so the option 2 would have higher value.
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Q-22. Solution: B.
A call option’s value is negatively correlated to the exercise price. The call option’s value increases
as the risk-free rate increases. And the volatility is positively related to both call and put options.
Q-23. Solution: C.
For P=C+X / (1+rf)T -S
A put is equivalent to long a call, a short position in the underlying asset, and a long position in the
risk free asset.
Q-24. Solution: C.
A synthetic stock is S=C-P+X/ [(1+RFR) T] =$1-$11+50/ [(1.06)0.25] =39.28. Since the stock is selling
for $40, you can short a share of stock for $40 and buy the synthetic for an immediate arbitrage
profit of $0.72.
Q-25. Solution: C.
Put-call-forward parity can be written as:
P0 – C0 = [X – F0(T)]/(1 + r)T
This means that the difference between the price of a put and the price of a call is equal to the
difference between exercise price and forward price discounted at the risk-free rate.
Q-26. Solution: C.
Holding highly correlated assets cannot provide diversification benefits to an investors.
Portfolio insurance is a hedging strategy used to limit portfolio losses when stocks decline in value
without having to sell off, e.g., purchasing stocks and taking long position in put options.
Adding alternative investments to a portfolio may provide diversification benefits because of these
investments’ less-than-Perfect correlation with other assets in the portfolio. As a result, allocating
a portion of one’s funds to alternatives could potentially result in an improved risk–return
relationship.
Q-27. Solution: A.
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𝑿
Solving for the risk free bond is, (𝟏+𝑹𝑭𝑹)𝑻
=𝑺+𝑷−𝑪
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Therefore, the synthetic long assets are a combination of long the call, short stock, and short the
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put option.
Q-28. Solution: C.
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If the value of the firm (VT) is below the face value of its debt outstanding, or VT < D at time T, we
say the firm is insolvent and debtholders receive less than the face value (D) to settle their debt
claim.
Stated differently, a debtholder’s payoff is min(D, VT) = D – max(0, D – VT) and equals the debt face
value (D) minus a put option on firm value (VT) with an exercise price of D, which represents a sold
put on firm value.
Q-29. Solution: C.
The law of one price occurs when market participants engage in arbitrage activities so that identical
assets sell for the same price in different markets.
Law of one price refers to identical assets, not the true fundamental value of an asset.
Earning a risk-free profit without committing any capital refers to arbitrage not the law of one price.
Q-30. Solution: C.
“Make a profit at no risk with no capital invested” is the only answer that is based on the notion of
when an arbitrage opportunity exists: when two identical assets or portfolios sell for different
prices. A risk premium earned in the short run can easily have occurred through luck. Buying an
asset at less than fair value might not even produce a profit.
Q-31. Solution: C.
By using the formula: FP=(S0-PVB0+PVC0) x (1+Rf)T
Forward price=(40-5+3) x (1+4%)0.25=38.38
Q-32. Solution: A.
The price of a forward contract remains constant throughout its life. It is set as part of the contract
specifications. The value varies with changes in the price of the underlying.
Q-33. Solution: B.
FP= F0(T)=(100+2.5-3.5)x(1+2%)^0.25=$99.49
The no arbitrage forward price, F0(T), for settlement in 90 days does not equal to current spot price
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with the consideration of the storage costs, benefits and risk free rate together.
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Q-34. Solution: A.
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The forward price of each stock is found by compounding the spot price by the risk-free rate for
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the period and then subtracting the future value of any benefits and adding the future value of any
costs. In the absence of any benefits or costs, the one-year forward prices of BWQ and ZER should
be equal.
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After subtracting the benefits related to BWQ, the one-year forward price of BWQ is lower than
the one-year forward price of ZER.
Q-35. Solution: C.
Value of the forward contract for a short position: (32-27.5)/(1.04)^(3/4)=4.3696.
Q-36. Solution: A.
Convenience yield is primarily associated with commodities and generally exists as a result of
difficulty in shorting the commodity or unusually tight supplies.
Q-37. Solution: B.
Given the formula for the value of a forward contract, it follows that the value of the contract goes
up as the price of the underlying goes up.
𝑉𝑡 (𝑇) = 𝑆𝑡 − 𝐹0 (𝑇)(1 + 𝑟)−(𝑇−𝑡)
Q-38. Solution: B.
If futures prices and interest rates are uncorrelated, the prices of forwards and futures will be
identical.
Q-39. Solution: B.
Swaps have both a price and a value. Price in the context of a swap is a reference to the fixed-rate
payment on the swap, which is constant over time. The value of a swap is zero at initiation but can
change over the life of the swap as market interest rates change.
Q-40. Solution: A.
Risk-neutral probabilities are used, and discounting is at the risk-free rate. There is no risk premium
incorporated into option pricing because of the use of arbitrage.
Q-41. Solution: C.
One benefit of derivatives markets is information discovery. Implied volatility reveals information
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about the risk of the underlying. Increases in implied volatility are an implication of increased
market uncertainty.
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Q-42. Solution: B.
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u=1.1; d=1/u=0.9
Su=32×1.1=35.2
Sd=32×0.9=28.8
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p+ = Max (0, 32-35.2) = 0
p− = Max (0, 32-28.8) = 3.2
πu = (1+0.06−0.9)/(1.1−0.9) = 0.8
πd =1− πu = 0.2
P = (0.8×0 + 0.2×3.2)/1.06 = 0.64/1.06 = 0.60
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