Costing
Costing
Costing
6
37. In the cost ledger, the double entry for factory cost of finished production for a
period is
Debit Credit
a) Cost of sales account Finished goods control account
b) Finished goods control account Work-in-progress control account
c) Costing profit and loss account Finished goods control account
d) Work-in-progress control account Finished goods control account
38. Stores issued to factory repair order is recorded as
a) Stores Ledger A/c Dr.
To Production Overheads A/c
b) Profit and Loss A/c Dr.
To Stores Ledger A/c
c) Production Overheads Control A/c Dr.
To Stores Ledger A/c
d) Stores Ledger A/c Dr.
To Profit and Loss A/c
39. The debit balance of the overheads adjustment account may be transferred to
a) Cost of sales account
b) Profit and loss account
c) Finished goods account
d) Work-in-progress account
40. Materials lost in stores due to fire is
a) a part of normal loss and hence part of cost
b) capitalized
c) a part of abnormal loss and hence excluded from cost
d) transferred to the next period
41. A credit to Work in Process Inventory represents
a) work still in process
b) raw material put into production
c) the application of overhead to production
d) the transfer of completed items to Finished Goods Inventory
42. A journal entry includes a debit to Work in Process Inventory and a credit to Raw
Material Inventory. The explanation for this would be that
a) indirect material was placed into production
b) raw material was purchased on account
c) direct material was placed into production
d) direct labour was used for production
43. The journal entry to apply overhead to production includes a credit to
Manufacturing Overhead control and a debit to
a) Finished Goods Inventory
b) Work in Process Inventory
c) Cost of Goods Sold
d) Raw Material Inventory
44. The use of indirect material would usually be reflected as an increase in
a) Stores control
b) Work in process control
c) Manufacturing overhead applied
7
d) Manufacturing overhead control
45. A credit to the Manufacturing overhead control account represents the
a) actual cost of overhead incurred
b) actual cost of overhead paid this period
c) amount of overhead applied to production
d) amount of indirect material and labour used during the period
46. When employees assemble products
a) Cost of goods manufactured decreases
b) Work in process inventory increases
c) Work in process inventory decreases
d) Manufacturing overhead decreases
47. W Corporation's production department used ` 64,000 of materials to manufacture
products during May. Which one of the following is one effect of recording this
transaction?
8
d) Manufacturing overhead increases by ` 8,000
53. The balance of the Work in Process account is equal to
a) The total costs of the jobs completed
b) The total costs of the jobs completed and sold
c) The total manufacturing costs incurred during the period
d) The total costs of the incomplete jobs
54. What entry should be made when a job is completed?
a) A debit to Finished Goods Inventory, and a credit to Work in Process Inventory
b) A debit to Work in Process Inventory, and a credit to Direct Materials, Direct
Labour and Manufacturing Overhead
c) A debit to Finished Goods Inventory and a credit to Direct Materials, Direct
Labour, and Manufacturing Overhead
d) A debit to Cost of Goods Sold Inventory, and a credit to Work in Process
Inventory
55. When indirect materials are requisitioned the ______ account is increased.
a) Manufacturing Overhead Control
b) Work-in-Process Control
c) Materials Control
d) Accounts Payable Control
56. The Manufacturing Overhead Control account
a) is increased by allocated manufacturing overhead
b) is credited with amounts transferred to Work-in-Process
c) is decreased by allocated manufacturing overhead
d) is debited with actual overhead costs
57. A company's accounting system operates so that the cost accounts are
independent of the financial accounts. The two sets of accounts are reconciled on
a regular basis to keep them continuously in agreement. This type of accounting
system is known as
a) Independent accounts
b) Interlocking accounts
c) Reconciled accounts
d) Integrated accounts
58. In May, material requisitions were ` 44,000 (` 39,000 of these were direct
materials), and raw material purchases were ` 57,700. The end of month balance
in raw materials inventory a/c was ` 24,300. What was the beginning raw materials
inventory a/c balance?
a) ` 10,600
b) ` 43,000
c) ` 72,400
d) ` 25,300
59. Over allocated manufacturing overhead results when
a) production is less than last year
b) estimated overhead is less than actual overhead
c) actual overhead is less than allocated overhead
d) actual overhead is less than expected
60. Determining how much manufacturing overhead is over allocated or under
allocated
9
a) is done before the period starts
b) is done during the period
c) can be done at any time
d) is done at the end of the period
61. The journal entry to record the use of direct materials on jobs is to debit work in
process inventory and credit
a) raw materials inventory
b) finished goods inventory
c) manufacturing overhead
d) wages payable
62. Cost of goods sold is debited and finished goods inventory is credited for
a) purchase of goods on account
b) transfer of goods to the finished goods storeroom
c) transfer of materials into work in process inventory
d) the sale of goods to a customer
63. Under which of the following situations is finished goods inventory debited and
work in process inventory credited?
a) Transfer of goods to the finished goods storeroom
b) Purchase of goods on account
c) Transfer goods out of the factory
d) Transfer of material to work in process inventory
64. Under which of the following situations is raw materials inventory credited and work
in process inventory debited?
a) We ship goods to the customer
b) Material is transferred to the factory
c) We transfer goods to the storeroom
d) We purchase goods on account
65. The cost of direct materials used in production is debited to
a) either manufacturing overhead or work in process
b) finished goods inventory
c) work in process
d) manufacturing overhead
66. The cost of direct labour used in production is recorded as a
a) debit to work in process
b) debit to manufacturing overhead
c) debit to wages expense
d) debit to wages payable
67. The cost of indirect labour used in the factory is recorded as a
a) credit to work in process
b) debit to manufacturing overhead
c) credit to wages payable
d) debit to wages expense
68. The journal entry needed to record the completion of a job includes a
a) credit to work in process
b) credit to finished goods inventory
c) debit to work in process inventory
d) debit to cost of goods sold
10
69. The journal entry needed to record the completion of a job includes a
a) debit to cost of goods sold
b) debit to work in process
c) debit to finished goods inventory
d) debit to raw materials inventory
70. The journal entry to issue ` 600 of direct materials and ` 40 of indirect materials
involves a debit to
a) manufacturing overhead for ` 640
b) work in process for ` 640
c) work in process for ` 600 and a credit to manufacturing overhead for ` 40
d) work in process for ` 600 and a debit to manufacturing overhead for ` 40
71. To record the costs of indirect labour, which of the following would be debited?
a) Work in process
b) Manufacturing overhead
c) Finished goods inventory
d) Wages payable
72. To record direct labour costs incurred, which of the following would be debited?
a) Finished goods inventory
b) Manufacturing overhead
c) Work in process
d) Wages payable
73. To record the requisition of direct materials, which of the following would be
debited?
a) Finished goods inventory
b) Work in process
c) Raw materials inventory
d) Cost of goods manufactured
74. The journal entry to record ` 300 of depreciation expense on factory equipment
involves a
a) debit to accumulated depreciation for ` 300
b) debit to manufacturing overhead for ` 300
c) debit to depreciation expense for ` 300
d) credit to manufacturing overhead for ` 300
75. Actual manufacturing overhead for the period is ` 20,000 while allocated
manufacturing overhead is ` 18,000. What entry will close the manufacturing
overhead balance?
a) Debit manufacturing overhead and credit work in process for ` 2,000
b) Debit manufacturing overhead and credit cost of goods sold for ` 2,000
c) Debit cost of goods sold and credit finished goods inventory for ` 2,000
d) Debit cost of goods sold and credit manufacturing overhead for ` 2,000
76. A company has over allocated manufacturing overhead by ` 1,500. The entry to
close manufacturing overhead account would be to
a) debit manufacturing overhead and credit cost of goods sold for ` 1,500
b) debit manufacturing overhead and credit work in process for ` 1,500
c) debit cost of goods sold and credit manufacturing overhead for ` 1,500
d) debit cost of goods sold and credit finished goods inventory for ` 15,000
11
77. Manufacturing overhead has an under allocated balance of ` 6,200; raw materials
inventory balance is ` 50,000; work in process inventory is ` 30,000; finished
goods inventory is ` 20,000: and cost of goods sold is ` 1,00,000.
Which of these accounts would have a closing credit balance?
a) Raw materials inventory
b) Finished goods inventory
c) Work in process inventory
d) None of the above
78. The entry to record cost of goods sold includes a credit to
a) Cost of Goods Sold
b) Finished Goods Inventory
c) Sales
d) Work in Process Inventory
ANSWERS
Q1)
13
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c )
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (b)
Q2)
(1) Non-integrated (2) Non-integrated (3) Non-integrated
(4) Non-integrated (5) Requisition (6) Return
(7) Non-integrated (8) Double (9) General
(10) Cost (11) Stores (12) Stores
(13) Finished Goods (14) Stock (15) Gross
(16) recovered (17) credited (18) Finished Goods
(19) Cost of Sales
Q3) True: 1, 2, 3, 8, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 22, 25
False: 4, 5, 6, 7, 11, 20, 21, 23, 24, 26
2 - Contract Costing
Q1) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
A. Conceptual
1. Contract costing is a basic method of
a) Historical costing
b) Specific order costing
c) Process costing
d) Standard costing
2. Contract costing is a variant of ______ Costing.
a) Job
b) Process
14
c) Unit
d) Batch
3. Contract costing usually applicable in
a) Constructional Works
b) Textile Mills
c) Cement industries
d) Chemical Industries
4. _______ is the person for whom the Contract job is undertaken.
a) Contractor
b) Contractee
c) Sub-contractor
d) Job-worker
5. Which one of the following is not a contract cost?
a) Direct wages
b) Depreciation of plant
c) Sub-contractors' fees
d) Architects' certificates
6. The degree of completion of work is determined by comparing the work certified
with
a) Contract price
b) Work in progress
c) Cash received on contract
d) Retention money
7. In contract costing credit is taken only for a part of the profit on
a) Completed contract
b) Incomplete contract
c) Work uncertified
d) Work Certified
B. Numerical
24. Value of work certified – ` 5,00,000, Cost of work to date – ` 4,00,000
Cost of work not yet certified – ` 1,00,000. Notional Profit is
a) ` 1,00,000
b) Nil
c) Loss ` 1,00,000
d) ` 2,00,000
25. The total profit on a contract for ` 3,00,000 is ` 60,000 and the contract is 60%
complete and has been certified accordingly. The retention money is 20% of the
certified value, then the amount of profit that can be prudently credited to Profit and
Loss Account
a) ` 60,000
b) ` 36,000
c) ` 28,800
d) ` 48,000
26. Contract cost - ` 2,80,000
Contract value – ` 5,00,000
Cash received – ` 2,70,000
Uncertified work – ` 30,000
Deduction from bills by way of retention money is 10%.
How much profit, if any, you would take to the profit and loss account?
a) ` 50,000
b) ` 33,333
c) ` 30,000
d) Nil
17
27 – 28 : Total cost of contract to date - 3,83,000
Cost of contract not yet to certified - 23,000
Value of work certified - 4,20,000
Cash received to date - 3,78,000
27. Value of work-in-progress is
a) ` 65,000
b) ` 41,000
c) ` 23,000
d) ` 14,000
28. Reserve for contingencies is
a) ` 60,000
b) ` 24,000
c) ` 36,000
d) ` 1,000
Answers
Q1)
1.(b) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(d)
11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(a) 15.(b) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(b) 20.(a)
21.(c) 22.(d) 23.(b) 24.(d) 25.(c) 26.(c) 27.(b) 28.(b)
Q2)
(1) Job (2) Contractee (3) is not
(4) credited (5) Cost of (6) credit
(7) debited; credited (8) Bank; Contractee's (9) retention
(10) assets (11) 25 (12) 1/3
(13) 2/3 (14) Less (15) 6,00,000
(16) 6,00,000 (17) Certified (18) 2,40,000
(19) 20,000 (20) 1,00,000 (21) 2,40,000
(22) 1,50,000 (23) Nil (24) 16,000
(25) 64,000 (26) 76,800 (27) (1,40,000)
20
3 - Process Costing
Q1) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
I. PROCESS COSTING - MAIN PRODUCT
A. Conceptual
1. Process costing is applied when
a) small number of different products are manufactured
b) large number of different products are manufactured
c) large number of identical products are manufactured
d) small numbers of customized made-to-order products are manufactured
2. Which of the following does not use process costing?
a) Oil refining
b) Distilleries
c) Sugar
d) Air-craft manufacturing
3. Which cost accumulation procedure is most applicable in continuous mass -
production manufacturing environments?
a) Standard
b) Actual
c) Process
d) Job order
4. Which of the following statements is false?
a) In process costing, cost is accumulated according to processes or departments
b) In job costing, the basis of cost accumulation is job order or batch size
c) In process costing, cost is accumulated on time basis
d) In job costing, cost is computed at the end of the cost period
5. Process Cost is based on the concept of
a) Average Cost
b) Marginal Cost
c) Standard Cost
d) Differential Cost
6. Normal Loss is equal to
a) Normal Output – Actual Output
b) Actual Output – Normal Output
c) Input x % of Normal Loss
d) None of the above
7. Normal Output is equal to
a) Input – Abnormal Loss
b) Input – Normal Loss
c) Input – Abnormal Gains
d) None of the above
21
8. Unit Cost is equal to
a) Normal Cost Normal Output
b) Total Cost Normal Output
c) Normal Cost Total Output
d) Total Cost Total Output
9. Abnormal Loss is equal to
a) Input – Actual Output
b) Actual Output – Normal Output
c) Normal Output – Actual Output
d) Actual Output – Input
10. Abnormal Gains are equal to
a) Actual Output – Normal Output
b) Normal Output – Actual Output
c) Actual Output – Input
d) Input – Actual Output
11. Process cost is very much applicable in
a) Construction Industry
b) Pharmaceutical Industry
c) Airline Company
d) None of these
12. In process costing, each producing department is a
a) Cost unit
b) Cost centre
c) Investment centre
d) Sales centre
13. Which of the given units can never become part of first department of Cost of
Production report?
a) Units received from preceding department
b) Units transferred to subsequent department
c) Lost units
d) Units still in process
14. When production is below standard specification or quality and cannot be rectified
by incurring additional cost, it is called
a) Defective
b) Spoilage
c) Waste
d) Scrap
15. What will be the impact of normal loss on the overall per unit cost?
a) Per unit cost will increase
b) Per unit will decrease
c) Per unit cost remain unchanged
d) Normal loss has no relation to unit cost
B. Numerical
22
16. 12,000 kg of a material were input to a process in a period. The normal loss is 10%
of input. There is no opening or closing work-in-progress. Output in the period was
10,920 kg. What was the abnormal gain/loss in the period?
a) Abnormal gain of 120 kg
b) Abnormal loss of 120 kg
c) Abnormal gain of 1,080 kg
d) Abnormal loss of 1,080 kg
17. Wastage of a raw material during a manufacturing process is 20% of input quantity.
What input quantity of raw material is required per kg of output?
a) 0.8 kg
b) 1.2 kg
c) 1.25 kg
d) 1.33 kg
18. 400 litres of a chemical were manufactured in a period. There is a normal loss of
25% of the material input into the process. An abnormal loss of 5% of material
input occurred in the period. How many litres of material (to the nearest litre) were
input into the process in the period?
a) 500
b) 520
c) 560
d) 571
19. A company uses process costing to value its output. The following was recorded
for the period:
Input materials 2,000 units at ` 4.50 per unit
Conversion costs ` 13,340
Normal loss 5% of input valued at ` 3 per unit
Actual loss 150 units
There were no opening or closing stocks.
What was the valuation of one unit of output to one decimal place?
a) ` 11.8
b) ` 11.6
c) ` 11.2
d) ` 11.0
20. A company uses process costing to value its output and all materials are input at
the start of the process.
The following information relates to the process for one month:
Input 3,000 units
Opening stock 400 units
Losses 10% of input is expected to be lost
Closing stock 200 units
How many good units were output from the process if actual losses were 400
units?
a) 2,800 units
b) 2,900 units
c) 3,000 units
d) 3,200 units
23
21. The cost of production of 40 units in Process I consisting of materials ` 1,500;
Labour ` 1,300 and Overhead ` 164. The normal waste is 5% of input.
a) 40 units are transferred to next process @ ` 70 each
b) 40 units are transferred to next process @ ` 74.10 each
c) 38 units are transferred to next process @ ` 78 each
d) 40 units are transferred to next process @ ` 78 each
22. Particulars for Process A.
Materials (200 Units) ` 4,000
Labour ` 3,000
Indirect Expenses ` 2,000
Normal wastage is 5% of the input. One unit of wastage is sold at ` 16.50 each.
a) 190 units are transferred to next process at ` 9,000
b) 200 units are transferred to next process at ` 9,000
c) 190 units are transferred to next process at ` 7,000
d) 190 units are transferred to next process at ` 8,835
23. In process Y, 75 units of a commodity were transferred from process X at a cost of
` 1,310. The labour and overhead expenses incurred by the process were
` 190. 20% of the units entered are normally lost and sold @` 4 per unit. The
output of the process was 70 units.
a) Process Account Credit Side showed Abnormal Gains of `240
b) Process Account Debit Side showed Abnormal Loss of ` 240
c) Process Account Credit Side showed Abnormal Loss of ` 240
d) Process Account Debit Side showed Abnormal Gains of ` 240
24. Input in a process is 4000 units and normal loss is 20%. When finished output in
the process is only 3,240 units, there is an
a) Abnormal loss of 40 units
b) Abnormal gain of 40 units
c) Neither abnormal loss nor gain
d) Abnormal loss of 60 units
25. Details of the process for the last periods are as follows:
Put into process 5,000 kg
Materials ` 2,500
Labour ` 700
Production Overheads 200% of labour
Normal losses are 10% of input in the process. The output for the period was 4,200
kg from the process. There was no opening and lcosing work-in-process. What
were the units of abnormal loss?
a) 500 units
b) 300 units
c) 200 units
d) 100 units
26. You are required to identify how many good units were outputs from the process.
Units
Units put in process 4,000
Lost units 500
Units in process 200
24
a) 3,300 units
b) 4,000 units
c) 4,200 units
d) 4,500 units
27. A chemical process has normal wastage of 10% of input. In a period, 2,500 kg of
material were input and there was abnormal loss of 75 kg. What quantity of good
production was achieved?
a) 2,175 kg
b) 2,250 kg
c) 2,425 kg
d) 2,500 kg
B. Numerical
44-45 : Three products A, B and C are obtained from a process. The following details
are provided-
Particulars A B C
Sales (kg.) 500 400 100
Selling price per kg. 25 22 37
Joint costs are ` 90,000
44. The amount of joint costs allocated to product B on Sales Value method will be -
a) ` 45,000
b) ` 31,680
c) ` 25,720
d) ` 13,320
45. The amount of joint costs allocated to product C on Physical Unit method will be
a) ` 45,000
b) ` 36,000
c) ` 18,000
d) ` 9,000
24. When a production process is such that from a set of same input, two or more
distinguishably different products are produced together, products of greater
importance are termed as products.
25. The costs incurred prior to the point of separation of the by-products are termed as
______ Costs.
26. The costs incurred _____ (before / after / up-to) the point of separation of the joint
- products are termed as Joint Costs.
27. The physical unit method of allocation of joint costs gives ____(equal / unequal)
importance and value to all the joint products.
28. In case by-products are produced, the net realizable value of by-products
is_______(debited /credited) to the cost of production of the main product.
29. ______ (Separable /Joint) costs are assignable after the split off point.
30. A _______ (joint product / by-product) has a minimal sales value.
31. Joint products are of _______ (equal / unequal) importance.
32. The proportion of joint products _______ (can /cannot) be changed at the will of the
management.
33. Joint products are produced from ______ (same / different) material(s).
28
34. Joint products are produced from ______ (same / different) process(es).
35. Split off point refers to the point at which joint products are___ (separated / sold).
36. Joint costs refer to the total cost incurred upto the point when the products
are______ (separated/ sold).
37. Joint costs = Common materials costs +______ (Common / Subsequent)
processing costs.
38. Apportionment of joint costs affects the_____ (overall / product-wise) profitability.
39. Product _______(should be / should not be) processed further if the incremental
sales revenue after further processing exceeds the further processing costs.
40. Product _____ (should be / should not be) sold at split off point if the incremental
sales revenue at split off point is less than the further processing costs.
B.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Equal economic importance a) Contribution Margin Method
2. Credit NRV to cost of production b) Average Unit Cost Method
3. Sales values of products at the spilt off c) Physical Units Method
point d) By-products
4. Add costs of further processing after e) Joint Products
split-off points f) Market value at finished state method
5. Deduct estimated profit margins g) Market value at point of separation
6. Apportion Variable Costs on basis of method
units produced h) Net Realizable Value Method
16. When two or more inputs are used together to produce a product, such inputs are
termed as joint products.
17. When two or more products are produced together, products of greater importance
are termed as by-products.
18. The costs incurred after the point of separation of the joint-products are termed as
Joint Costs.
19. The physical unit method of allocation of joint costs gives equal importance and
value to all the joint products.
20. In Contribution Margin Method, the variable costs are apportioned over the joint
products on the basis of the contribution ratios.
21. Under the Market Value method, the joint costs up-to the point of sale are
apportioned in the ratio of sale values of joint products at such point.
22. In case by-products are produced, the net realizable value of by-products is
credited to the cost of production of the main product.
23. A by-product has a minimal sales value.
24. Joint products are of unequal importance.
25. The proportion of joint products can be changed at the will of the management.
26. Joint products are produced from the different processes.
27. Split off point refers to the point at which joint products are sold.
28. Joint costs refer to the total cost incurred upto the point when the products are
sold.
29. Joint costs = Common materials costs + subsequent processing costs.
Answers:
Q1)
1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(a) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11.(b) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(a) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(b) 20.(a)
21.(c) 22.(d) 23.(d) 24.(b) 25.(b) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(b) 29.(c) 30.(b)
30
31.(c) 32.(b) 33.(c) 34.(b) 35.(b) 36.(c) 37.(c) 38.(b) 39.(d) 40.(a)
41.(c) 42.(c) 43.(d) 44.(b) 45.(d)
Q2)
(1) Job (2) more than one (3) process
(4) can (5) is not (6) Waste
(7) less (8) Process (9) credited
(10) Normal (11) Normal (12) is
(13) credited (14) abnormal loss (15) Abnormal Loss
(16) is not (17) Abnormal (18) debited
(19) Abnormal Gains (20) normal loss (21) debited
(22) is not (23) credited; debited (24) Joint
(25) Joint (26) before (27) equal
(28) credited (29) Separable (30) by-product
(31) equal (32) cannot (33) same
(34) same (35) separated (36) separated
(37) Common (38) product-wise (39) should be
(40) should be
False : 3, 5, 6, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 20, 21, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29
31
4 – Introduction to Marginal Costing
Q1) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
A. Conceptual
B. Numerical
29. The contribution to sales ratio of a company is 20% and profit is ` 64,500. If the
total sales of the company are `7,80,000, the fixed cost is
a) ` 1,56,000
b) ` 1,21,500
c) ` 1,05,600
d) ` 91,500
e) ` 90,000
30. The total cost of manufacturing 4,000 units of a product is ` 4,50,000 which
includes fixed costs of ` 2,50,000. If the company desires to produce 5,000 units,
then the total cost will be-
a) ` 5,27,778
b) ` 5,20,000
c) ` 5,00,000
d) ` 4,95,000
e) ` 4,83,500
31. The total cost of manufacturing 3,600 units of Product X is ` 81,000 which includes
variable cost per unit of ` 15.00. If the company desires to produce 3,850 units,
then the total cost would be
a) ` 86,625
b) ` 84,750
c) ` 57,750
d) ` 52,250
e) ` 50,700
32. P Limited incurs fixed costs of ` 1,00,000 per annum. The company manufactures
a single product and sells it for ` 50 per unit. If the contribution to sales ratio is
40%, the break-even sales in units are
a) 5,000
35
b) 6,000
c) 6,500
d) 7,000
e) 7,500
33. A company manufactures a single product with a variable cost per unit of ` 22. The
contribution to sales ratio is 45%. Monthly fixed costs are ` 1,98,000. What is the
breakeven point in units?
a) 4,950
b) 9,000
c) 11,000
d) 20,000
34. A Ltd. manufactures and sells product 'B'. The sale price per unit of the product is
` 35. The company will incur a loss of ` 5.00 per unit if it sells 4,000 units; but if the
volume is raised to 12,000 units, the company will make a profit of ` 4.50 per unit.
The break-even point in units is
a) 5,700
b) 6,612
c) 5,250
d) 6,162
35. The profit-volume ratio and margin of safety ratio are 30% and 40% respectively. If
the total sales is ` 3,00,000, the profit of the firm is
a) ` 54,000
b) ` 48,000
c) ` 36,000
d) ` 30,000
e) ` 25,000
36. A company manufactures a single product which it sells for ` 15 per unit. The
product has a contribution to sales ratio of 40%. The company's weekly break-even
point is sales of ` 18,000, What would be the profit in a week when 1,500 units are
sold?
a) ` 900
b) ` 1,800
c) ` 2,700
d) ` 4,500
37. An organization manufactures a single product. The total cost of making 4,000
units is ` 20,000 and the total cost of making 20,000 units is ` 40,000. Within this
range of activity the total fixed costs remain unchanged. What is the variable cost
per unit of the product?
a) ` 0.80
b) ` 1.20
c) ` 1.25
d) ` 2.00
38. 5,400 units of a company's single product were sold for a total revenue of
` 1,40,400. Fixed costs in the period were ` 39,420 and net profit was ` 11,880.
What was the contribution per unit?
a) ` 7.30
36
b) ` 9.50
c) ` 16.50
d) ` 18.70
39. Sales are ` 3,20,000, fixed costs are ` 80,000 and variable costs are ` 1,20,000.
What is the safety margin?
a) ` 18,900
b) ` 20,000
c) ` 1,92,000
d) ` 1,28,000
e) ` 1,31,000
40. An organization manufactures a single product which has a variable cost of ` 36
per unit. The organization’s total weekly fixed costs are ` 81,000 and it has a
contribution to sales ratio of 40%. This week it plans to manufacture and sell 5,000
units. What is the organization’s margin of safety in units?
a) 1,625
b) 2,750
c) 3,375
d) 3,500
41. An organization's break-even point is 4,000 units at a sales price of 50 per unit,
variable cost of ` 30 per unit, and total fixed costs of ` 80,000. If the company sells
500 additional units, by how much will its profit increase?
a) ` 25,000
b) ` 15,000
c) ` 12,000
d) ` 37,000
e) ` 10,000
42. Banta Ltd. manufactures product KDM for last ten years. The company maintains a
margin of safety of 36% with an overall contribution to sales ratio of 35%. If fixed
cost is ` 8.4 lakh, the profit of the company is
a) ` 11.400 lakh
b) ` 24.000 lakh
c) ` 4.725 lakh
d) ` 37.500 lakh
e) ` 8.644 lakh
43. A company wishes to make a profit of ` 1,50,000. It has fixed costs of ` 75,000 with
a C/S ratio of 0.75 and a selling price of ` 10 per unit. How many units would the
company need to sell in order to achieve the required level of profit?
a) 10,000 units
b) 15,000 units
c) 22,500 units
d) 30,000 units
44. A company has a profit-volume ratio of 20%. To maintain the same contribution, by
what percentage (%) must sales be increased to offset 10% reduction in selling
price?
a) 10
b) 20
37
c) 100
d) 50
e) 80
45. The following data is obtained from the records of the Plum Ltd.:
Particulars First year (`) Second year (`)
Sales 1,28,000 1,44,000
Profit 16,000 22,400
The break-even sales of the company in rupees is
a) `1,36,000
b) ` 1,30,000
c) ` 1,00,000
d) ` 88,000
e) ` 90,000
ANSWERS
Q1)
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(a)
11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(a) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20.(b)
21.(c) 22.(d) 23.(b) 24.(d) 25.(d) 26.(d) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(d) 30.(c)
31.(b) 32.(a) 33.(c) 34.(d) 35.(c) 36.(b) 37.(c) 38.(b) 39.(c) 40.(a)
41.(e) 42.(c) 43.(d) 44.(e) 45.(d)
Q2)
(1) reduces; increases (2) Marginal (3) Marginal
(4) Marginal (5) Contribution (6) Profit
(7) Sales (8) Profit (9) X
(10) Contribution (11) Profit Volume Ratio (12) Profit
(13) will not (14) will not (15) increase
(16) decrease (17) increase (18) will not
(19) will not (20) increase
Q3)
True : 3, 4, 6, 7, 10, 16, 20, 31, 37
False : 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29,
30, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36
40
5 – Introduction to Standard costing
Q1) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
A Conceptual
1. The objective of standard costing is to
a) Determine profitability of a product
b) Determine break-even production level
c) Control costs
d) Allocate costs with more accuracy
2. A standard cost system may be used in
a) job order costing, but not process costing
b) process costing, but not job order costing
c) either job order costing or process costing
d) neither job order costing nor process costing
3. An estimate of what cost should be is known as
a) Actual cost
b) Ideal cost
c) Standard cost
d) Forecast cost
4. A standard cost is
a) the total amount that appears on the budget for product costs
b) a pre-determined cost which is calculated from management's standards of
efficient operation
c) the total number of units x the cost expected
d) any amount that appears on a budget
5. Which of the following best describes a basic standard?
a) A standard set at an ideal level, which makes no allowance for normal losses,
waste and machine downtime
b) A standard which assumes an efficient level of operation, but which includes
allowances for factors such as normal loss, waste and machine downtime
c) A standard which is kept unchanged over a long period of time
d) A standard which is based on current price levels
6. A standard which assumes efficient level of operations, but which includes
allowance for factors such as waste and machine downtime is known as an
a) Ideal standard
41
b) Normal standard
c) Attainable standard
d) Neither (a) nor (b) nor (c)
7. What standard is based on the assumption of most favourable conditions possible?
a) Ideal Standard
b) Normal Standard
c) Expected Standard
d) Attainable Standard
8. The standard cost card contains quantities and costs for
a) direct material only
b) direct labour only
c) direct material and direct labour only
d) direct material, direct labour, and overhead
9. Which one of the following does NOT accurately describe one of the ways in which
standards are developed?
a) Standard material quantities may be determined by engineering studies
b) Supplier price lists may be used to determine standard prices of materials
c) Time and motion studies are sometimes used to determine labour efficiency
standards
d) Employee time cards are often used to determine standard labour wage rates
10. What term can be defined as a means of assessing the difference between a
predetermined amount and the actual amount?
a) Variance analysis
b) Differential costing
c) Incremental costing
d) Marginal Costing
11. A total cost variance is best defined as the difference between
a) total standard cost for the last year and total standard cost in the current year
b) total standard cost for the last year and total actual cost in the current year
c) the standard cost value of output budgeted in a period and the total actual cost
incurred
d) the standard cost value of output achieved in a period and the total actual cost
incurred
12. If standard cost is lower than the actual cost, the difference is known as
a) Favourable
b) Adverse
c) Positive
d) Negative
13. A favourable variance occurs when
a) actual costs are less than marginal costs
b) standard costs are less than actual costs
c) actual costs are less than the selling price
d) actual costs are less than standard costs
14. The "standard quantity allowed" is computed by multiplying the :
a) actual input in units by the standard output allowed
b) actual output in units by the standard input allowed
c) actual output in units by the standard output allowed
42
d) standard output in units by the standard input allowed
15. The difference between the actual price and the standard price, multiplied by the
actual quantity of materials purchased is the
a) materials cost variance
b) materials usage variance
c) materials price variance
d) materials efficiency variance
16. The difference between the actual quantity and the standard quantity, multiplied by
the standard price is the
a) materials efficiency variance
b) materials volume variance
c) materials price variance
d) materials usage variance
17. Which of the following is correct with regard to using the standard quantity to
compute materials variances?
Standard quantity is used -
a) Materials Price Variance: Yes; Materials Usage Variance: No
b) Materials Price Variance: Yes; Materials Usage Variance: Yes
c) Materials Price Variance: No; Materials Usage Variance: No
d) Materials Price Variance: No; Materials Usage Variance: Yes
18. Which of the following is correct with regard to using the standard unit price to
compute materials variances?
Standard unit price used:
a) Materials Price Variance: Yes; Materials Usage Variance: No
b) Materials Price Variance: Yes; Materials Usage Variance: Yes
c) Materials Price Variance: No; Materials Usage Variance: No
d) Materials Price Variance: No; Materials Usage Variance: Yes
19. The term "standard hours allowed" measures
a) budgeted output at actual hours
b) budgeted output at standard hours
c) actual output at standard hours
d) actual output at actual hours
20. The labour rate variance is computed as :
a) (Actual labour hours worked — Standard labour hours allowed) x Actual labour
rate
b) (Actual labour hours worked — Standard labour hours allowed) x Standard
labour rate
c) (Actual labour rate — Standard labour rate) x Standard hours allowed
d) (Actual labour rate — Standard labour rate) x Actual hours worked
21. If the actual number of labour hours worked is less than the standard labour hours
allowed for equivalent units produced, this indicates
a) An unfavourable labour rate variance
b) A favourable total labour variance
c) An unfavourable labour efficiency variance
d) A favourable labour efficiency variance
22. Which of the following is correct with regard to the standard labour hours being
used to compute labour variances?
43
Standard labour hours used :
a) Labour Rate Variance: Yes; Labour Efficiency Variance: No
b) Labour Rate Variance: Yes; Labour Efficiency Variance: Yes
c) Labour Rate Variance: No; Labour Efficiency Variance: No
d) Labour Rate Variance: No; Labour Efficiency Variance: Yes
23. Which of the following is correct with regard to using the standard labour rate to
compute labour variances?
Standard labour rate used:
a) Labour Rate Variance: Yes; Labour Efficiency Variance: No
b) Labour-Rate Variance: Yes; Labour Efficiency Variance: Yes
c) Labour Rate Variance: No; Labour Efficiency Variance: No
d) Labour Rate Variance: No; Labour Efficiency Variance: Yes
24. What is the primary benefit of a standard costing system?
a) It records costs at what should have been incurred
b) It allows for a comparison of differences between actual and standard costs
c) It is easy to implement
d) It is inexpensive and easy to use
25. The standard which can be attained under the most favourable conditions possible
a) Ideal Standard
b) Expected Standard
c) Current Standard
d) Normal Standard
26. A standard which is established for use unaltered for an indefinite period is called
a) Current standard
b) Ideal standard
c) Basic standard
d) Expected standards
27. Which of the following is not a type of standard, conceptually speaking?
a) Ideal standards
b) Negative standards
c) Expected standards
d) Current standards
28. Which of the following statements about ideal standards is false?
a) It is called theoretical or maximum efficiency standard
b) These are standard costs that are set for production under optimal condition
c) It makes no allowances for wastage, spoilage and machine breakdowns
d) It can be used for cash budgeting or product costing
29. The cost of product as determined under standard cost system is
a) Fixed cost
b) Historical cost
c) Direct cost
d) Predetermined cost
30. The amount of work achievable in an hour, at standard efficiency levels, is
a) An ideal standard
b) The direct labour usage per hour
c) A standard hour
d) The direct labour efficiency variance
44
31. While computing variances from standard costs, the difference between the actual
and the standard prices multiplied by the actual quantity yields a
a) Yield variance
b) Volume variance
c) Mix variance
d) Price variance
32. While evaluating deviations of actual cost from standard cost, the technique used is
a) Regression analysis
b) Variance analysis
c) Linear progression
d) Trend analysis
33. Which of the following statements is / are true?
(i) The standard cost per unit of materials is used to calculate a materials price
variance
(ii) The standard cost per unit of materials is used to calculate a materials usage
variance
(iii) The standard cost per unit of materials cannot be determined until the end of
the period
a) Only (i) above
b) Only (ii) above
c) Only (iii) above
d) Both (i) and (ii) above
34. The labour cost variance may be expressed as
a) Budgeted labour cost – Actual labour cost
b) (Standard wage rate x Output achieved) – Actual wage cost
c) (Standard hours – Actual hours ) x Actual wage rate
d) (Standard hours – Actual hours) x Standard wage rate
35. Which of the following statements is / are true?
(i) The standard direct labour hours per unit of output is used to calculate a labour
rate variance
(ii) The standard direct labour hours per unit of output is used to calculate a labour
efficiency variance
(iii) The standard direct labour hours per unit of output cannot be determined until
the end of the period
a) Only (i) above
b) Only (ii) above
c) Only (iii) above
d) Both (i) and (ii) above
36. Which of the following is a purpose of standard costing?
a) To determine profit at different levels
b) To determine break even production level
c) To control costs
d) To allocate cost with more accuracy
37. Which of the following best describe a basic standard?
a) A standard set at an ideal level, which makes no allowance for normal losses,
waste and machine downtime.
45
b) A standard which assumes an efficient level of operation, but which includes
allowances for factors such as normal loss, waste and machine downtime.
c) A standard which is kept unchanged over a period of time
d) A standard which is based on current price levels.
B. Numerical
38. Actual units of direct materials used were 20,000 at an actual cost of ` 40,000.
Standard unit cost is ` 2.10. Assuming the materials price variance is recognized
when the materials are used, the materials price variance (MPV) is:
a) ` 1,000 favourable
b) ` 1,000 unfavorable
c) ` 2,000 favourable
d) ` 2,000 unfavorable
39. If material cost variance is ` 9,400 (favourable) and material usage variance is
` 8,200 (adverse): then material price variance (MPV) is
a) ` 5,600 (favourable)
b) ` 5,600 (adverse)
c) ` 6,400 (favourable)
d) ` 17,600 (adverse)
e) ` 17,600 (favourable)
40. The actual materials price (AP) was ` 3.50, the actual quantity (AQ) of material was
5,100 units, and the materials price variance (MPV) was ` 1,275 unfavorable. The
standard materials price (SP) was :
a) ` 3.75
b) ` 3.30
c) ` 3.00
d) ` 3.25
41. During the month of December 2013, XLNT Ltd. used 5,000 kgs of materials at a
total standard cost of ` 20,000. The material usage variance was `360 (adverse).
The standard usage of material (SQ) for the period is
a) 4,000 kgs
b) 4,910 kgs
c) 5,000 kgs
d) 5,850 kgs
e) 6,340 kgs
42. The standard units (SQ) were 5,200, the standard price (SP) was ` 3.25, and the
materials quantity variance (MQV) was ` 325 favourable. The actual units (AQ)
were:
a) 5,300
b) 5,000
c) 5,100
d) 5,200
43. Last month 27,000 direct labour hours were worked at an actual cost of
` 2,36,385 and the standard direct labour hours of production were 29,880. The
standard direct labour cost per hour was ` 8.50. What was the labour efficiency
variance (LEV)?
46
a) ` 17,595 Adverse
b) ` 17,595 Favourable
c) ` 24,480 Adverse
d) ` 24,480 Favourable
44. Consider the following data pertaining to Roy Ltd. for the month of June 2014 :
Actual direct labour hours - 27,600
Standard direct labour hours - 28,000
Total direct labour cost (`) - 1,93,200
If direct labour efficiency variance is ` 2,560 (favourable), the direct labour rate
variance (LRV) is
a) ` 12,252 (adverse)
b) ` 15,560 (adverse)
c) ` 15,560 (favourable)
d) ` 16,560 (adverse)
e) ` 16,560 (favourable)
45. The standard hourly rate was ` 1.40. The actual rate was ` 1.30. The labour rate
variance was ` 600, favourable. The actual labour hours (AH) were:
a) 6,000
b) 6,400
c) 1,000
d) 1,500
46. A Ltd. used 4,538 kgs of material at a standard cost of ` 2.50 per kg. The material
usage variance was ` 280 (Favourable). The standard usage of material for the
period is
a) 4,700 kgs
b) 4,650 kgs
c) 4,600 kgs
d) 4,588 kgs
47. R Ltd. a manufacturer of portable radios, purchases the components from
subcontractors and assembles them into a complete radio. Each radio requires
three units each of part X which has standard cost of ` 145 per unit.
Following is the result pertaining to part X for the month of December 2010:
Particulars Units
Purchases (` 18,00,000) 12,000
Consumed in manufacturing 10,000
Radios manufactured 3,000
The material usage variance for the month of December 2010 is
a) ` 1,45,000 unfavorable
b) ` 1,45,000 favourable
c) ` 4,35,000 unfavorable
d) ` 4,35,000 favourable
48. X Ltd. has furnished the following data for the month of March 2010:
Particulars Standard Actual
Material cost per kg (`) 70 72
Material used (kgs) 3,500 3,420
The material price variance is
47
a) ` 7,000 (Adverse)
b) ` 7,000 (Favourable)
c) ` 6,840 (Adverse)
d) ` 6,840 (Favourable)
49. During the month of September 2010, 7,800 kg. of material was purchased at a
total cost of ` 16,380. The stocks of material increased by 440 kg. It is company’s
policy to value the stocks at standard purchase price. If the material price variance
was ` 1,170 (Adverse), the standard price per kg. of material is
a) ` 1.95
b) ` 2.10
c) ` 2.23
d) ` 2.25
50. The standard and the actual requirements of material of a company are as under:
Standard – 2,400 units at the rate of ` 20 per unit
Actual – 2,600 units at the rate of ` 19 per unit
The material cost variance is
a) ` 2,600 (Adverse)
b) ` 1,400 (Favourable)
c) ` 2,400 (Adverse)
d) ` 1,400 (Adverse)
51. Last month 27,000 direct labour hours were worked at an actual cost ` 2,36,385
and the standard direct labour hours of production were 29,880. The standard
direct labour cost per hour was ` 8.50.
What was the labour efficiency variance?
a) ` 17,595 Adverse
b) ` 17,595 Favourable
c) ` 24,480 Adverse
d) ` 24,480 Favourable
52. In the four week production period just completed, B Ltd. produced 570 units. The
standard labour cost for each unit was ` 13.50, based on budgeted production of
550 units. The actual labour cost for the period was ` 8,238.
What was the labour rate variance for the period?
a) ` 543 adverse
b) ` 543 favourable
c) ` 813 adverse
d) ` 813 favourable
53. During a period, 17,500 labour hours were worked at a standard cost of ` 6.50 per
hour. If the labour efficiency variance is ` 7,800 (favourable), the standard direct
labour hours are
a) 20,000
b) 19,200
c) 18,700
d) 18,500
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1. ______ Cost is defined as – “pre-determined cost which is calculated from
management's standards of efficient operation and the relevant necessary
expenditure".
2. A ______ Standard is the Standard which is "established for use unaltered for an
indefinite period which may be a long period of time".
3. A ______ Standard is the Standard which is "established for use over a short
period of time, and is related to current conditions".
4. A/An _______ Standard is the Standard "which can be attained under the most
favourable conditions possible".
5. A(n) _______ standard reflects perfect operating conditions.
6. The cost that should be achieved given materials, labour, and overhead standards
is the cost.
7. ______ Time means the time expected to be required for the workers to complete
a job or to produce one unit of output.
8. Cost ________ is the difference between a standard cost and the comparable
actual cost during a period.
9. The difference between what was paid and what should have been paid for actual
inputs is called the ____ variance.
10. There is ______ (favourable / adverse) whenever the actual rupees spent are less
than the standard cost.
11. There is ______(favourable / adverse) variance whenever the actual rupees spent
are greater than the standard cost.
12. Material _______ Variance is the difference between the Standard cost of material
specified for the output achieved and the Actual cost of direct material used.
13. The standard price is the price that should have been paid per unit of
_______(input / output).
14. The quantity of _______ (input / output) allowed per unit of _______(input / output)
is the Standard Quantity.
15. Standard Quantity is the quantity of materials that should have been used to
produce the _______ (budgeted / actual) output.
16. The difference between what was paid for materials purchased and what should
have been paid is the materials _______ variance.
17. The difference between the materials actually used and the materials allowed for
actual output multiplied by the standard price is the material _______variance.
18. The difference between standard quantities and actual quantities multiplied by the
standard price is the______ variance.
19. Material_______ Variance is the difference between the Standard Quantity
specified for the actual output and the Actual Quantity used for the actual output.
20. Material ______ Variance is computed by the formula : (SQ – AQ) x SP.
21. Material ______ Variance is computed by the formula : (SP - AP) x AQ.
22. The difference between the actual payroll and what should have been paid for the
actual hours worked is the Labour ______ Variance.
23. Standard Hours are the labour hours that should have been used to produce the
_____(actual/standard) output.
24. Labour _______Variance is the difference between the Standard Hours specified
for the actual output and the Actual Hours used for the actual output.
49
25. Labour _______Variance is computed by the formula: (Standard Hours Actual
Hours) x Standard Rate.
26. Labour Cost Variance = Labour _______Variance + Labour _______Variance.
27. The difference between the actual direct labour hours used and the standard
labour hours allowed multiplied by the standard hourly wage rate is the Labour
______Variance.
ANSWERS
Q1)
50
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10.(a) 11.(d)
12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20.(d) 21.(d) 22.(d)
23.(b) 24.(b) 25.(a) 26.(c) 27.(b) 28.(d) 29.(d) 30.(c) 31.(d) 32.(b) 33.(d)
34.(b) 35.(b) 36.(c) 37.(c) 38.(c) 39.(e) 40.(d) 41.(b) 42.(c) 43.(d) 44.(d)
45.(a) 46.(b) 47.(a) 48.(c) 49.(a) 50.(d) 51.(d) 52.(a) 53.(c)
Q2)
(1) Standard. (2) Basic (3) Current
(4) Ideal (5) ideal (6) standard
(7) Standard (8) Variance (9) price
(10) favourable (11) adverse (12) Cost
(13) input (14) input; output (15) actual
(16) price (17) usage (18) usage
(19) Usage (20) Usage (21) Price
(22) Rate (23) actual (24) Efficiency
(25) Efficiency (26) Efficiency, Rate (27) Efficiency
Q3)
True: 9, 10, 11, 13, 18, 20, 21, 24, 26, 27
False: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 12, 14, 15, 16, 17, 19, 22, 23, 25, 28, 29
51
6 – Some Emerging Concepts of Cost Accounting
Q1) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
A. Target Costing
1. Place the following steps for the implementation of target costing in order :
A = Derive a target cost
B = Develop a target price
C = Perform value engineering
D = Determine target profit
a) B, D, A, C
b) B, A, D, C
c) A, D, B, C
d) A, B, C, D
2. In target costing
a) the target cost is established first, then the target price.
b) the target cost is the estimated long-run cost that enables a product or service
to achieve a desired profit
c) the focus of target costing is to undercut the competition
d) target costs are generally higher than current costs
3. The product strategy in which companies first determine the price at which they
can sell a new product and then design a product that can be produced at a low
enough cost to provide adequate operating income is referred to as
a) Cost-plus pricing
b) Target costing
c) Benchmark costing
d) Full costing
4. The costing technique that produces a stipulated profit when a product is sold at
its estimated market-driven price is termed:
a) Life cycle costing
b) Product costing
c) Target costing
d) Standard costing
5. The four tasks that follow take place in the concept known as target costing:
1. Value engineering
2. Establish a target selling price
52
3. Establish a target cost
4. Establish a target profit
Which is the correct sequence of these tasks?
a) 1, 3, 4, 2
b) 3, 1, 4, 2
c) 2, 4, 3, 1,
d) 2, 3, 1, 4
6. R uses target costing and sells a product for ` 36 per unit. The company seeks a
profit margin equal to 25% of sales. If the current manufacturing cost is ` 29 per
unit, the firm will need to implement a cost reduction of
a) ` 0
b) ` 2
c) ` 9
d) ` 20
7. S Corporation uses target costing and sells a product for ` 40 per unit. The
company seeks a profit margin equal to 30% of sales. If target-costing calculations
revealed a need for a ` 4 cost reduction, the firm's current manufacturing cost
must be:
a) ` 12
b) ` 24
c) ` 28
d) ` 32
8. Which of the following denotes a target cost?
a) Market price – Desired profit margin
b) Standard selling price – Standard profit margin
c) Standard selling price – Target profit margin
d) Desired selling price – Desired profit margin
e) Market price – Return on Investment (ROI)
9. Which of the following is true with respect to target costing?
a) It is a method of price determination
b) It is used to develop a short run price
c) It is a process where the cost of the product is determined and then an
appropriate price is chosen
d) It is the maximum manufacturing cost for a product which is arrived at by
subtracting the acceptable profit margin from the expected market price
60
a) a method of accounting for material, labour and overhead costs related to
products
b) a method of allocating indirect costs
c) another name for benchmarking
d) a cost object
67. Which of the following is a typical cost pool?
a) Products manufactured
b) A service offered to customers
c) Direct labour
d) A machine used for packaging products
68. In establishing an Activity Based Costing System, an organization's goal is to
a) allocate costs to all activities within an organization
b) define all activities within the organization and the costs required to perform
those activities
c) assign costs to pools according to the reasons the costs are assumed to be
incurred
d) allocate costs to products from pools where costs are accumulated based upon
the activities that cause the costs to be incurred
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Q3) MATCH THE FOLLOWING COLUMNS
A)
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Machine set-up costs (a) Number of machine hours
2. Machine operating costs (b) Number of orders executed
3. Materials handling and dispatch (c) Number of set-ups
B)
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Unit level activities (a) Maintenance of buildings
2. Batch level activities (b) Designing the product
3. Product level activities (c) Material ordering
4. Facility level activities (d) Indirect consumables
C)
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Unit level activities (a) Producing parts to a certain specification
2. Batch level activities (b) Inspection of every item produced
3. Product level activities (c) Production manager's salaries
4. Facility level activities (d) Machine set up
D)
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Research & Development (a) Number of service calls
2. Design of products (b) Number of customers
3. Marketing (c) Sales revenue
4. Distribution (d) Number of parts per product
5. Customer service (e) Personnel hours on a project
E)
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Ordering costs (a) Number of production runs
2. Materials handling costs (b) Number of production runs
3. Machine set-up costs (c) Number of orders
4. Machine operating costs (d) Number of dispatches
5. Production scheduling costs (e) Number of machine set-ups
6. Dispatching costs (f) Number of machine hours
F)
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Development phase (a) Plants scrapped
2. Introduction phase (b) Manufacturing cost
3. Growth phase / Maturity (c) Capacity costs
4. Decline phase (d) R & D cost
G)
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COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Development phase (a) Product support cost
2. Introduction phase (b) Promotional cost
3. Maturity phase (c) Design cost
4. Replacement phase (d) Plants reused
H)
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Strategic benchmarking (a) Operations from within the same organization
2. Performance benchmarking (b) Developing new products
3. Process benchmarking (c) Competitors' products
4. Internal benchmarking (d) Outside organizations that are known to be
5. External Benchmarking best in class
(e) Organization’s critical business operations
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19. Activity based costing can only be used to allocate manufacturing factory
overhead.
20. Traditionally, overhead is allocated based on direct labour cost or direct labour
hours.
21. Current trends in manufacturing include less direct labour and more overhead.
22. The first step in activity-based costing is to assign overhead costs to products,
using cost drivers.
23. When overhead is properly assigned in ABC, it will usually decrease the unit cost
of high-volume products.
24. ABC leads to enhanced control over overhead costs.
25. ABC usually results in less appropriate management decisions.
26. ABC is generally more costly to implement than traditional costing.
27. ABC eliminates all arbitrary cost allocations.
28. ABC is particularly useful when product lines differ greatly in volume and
manufacturing complexity.
29. ABC is particularly useful when overhead costs are an insignificant portion of total
costs.
30. Activity-based costing focuses on reducing costs and improving processes.
31. Plant management is a batch-level activity.
32. Painting is a product-level activity.
33. A company that uses only volume-based measures will overcast its low-volume
products.
34. ABC will be most useful in estimating fixed costs.
35. Volume-based measures will tend to overcast high volume products.
36. Direct materials are normally considered as batch-level costs.
37. Unit level costs occur once for each unit produced.
38. Batch level costs occur once for each unit produced.
39. Machine setup is normally considered a batch-level cost.
40. Machine setup is normally considered a unit-level cost.
41. Building depreciation is generally considered an organizational or facility cost.
42. Building depreciation is generally considered a product or process level cost.
ANSWERS
Q1)
1.(a) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(c)
11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(a) 16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20.(c)
21.(b) 22.(a) 23.(b) 24.(c) 25.(b) 26.(c) 27.(d) 28.(d) 29.(a) 30.(b)
31.(b) 32.(c) 33.(b) 34.(a) 35.(d) 36.(e) 37.(a) 38.(b) 39.(d) 40.(a)
41.(d) 42.(b) 43.(d) 44.(d) 45.(c) 46.(b) 47.(d) 48.(a) 49.(a) 50.(c)
51.(c) 52.(d) 53.(d) 54.(a) 55.(d) 56.(b) 57.(c) 58.(d) 59.(a) 60.(d)
61.(b) 62.(b) 63.(d) 64.(b) 65.(a) 66.(b) 67.(d) 68.(d) 69.(b) 70.(b)
71.(a) 72.(b)
Q2)
(1) volume (2) activities (3) Life Cycle
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(4) price, profit (5) Target (6) target
(7) estimated, target (8) Development (9) development
(10) introduction (11) Growth (12) benchmark
(13) Benchmarking (14) financial (15) planning
(16) Strategic (17) Performance (18) Process
(19) Internal (20) External (21) Under
(22) ABC (23) Resources (24) pool
(25) driver (26) wide (27) complex
(28) high (29) activities (30) unit
(31) batch (32) product (33) facility
Q4)
True: 3, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13, 14, 15, 18, 20, 21, 23, 24, 26, 28, 30,34,35,37, 39, 41.
False: 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 10, 11, 16, 17, 19, 22, 25, 27, 29, 31, 32, 33, 36, 38, 40, 42.
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