CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 3 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION - A 3. An N-type semiconductor has a resistivity of
1.5  m at a certain temperature. If for a given
1. A Zener diode having breakdown voltage equal
to 8 V is used in a voltage regulator circuit as sample ni = 1.5 × 1010 cm–3 and e = 0.14 mV–1s–1,
shown in the figure. The current I, ID and IL are then hole concentration of the sample is nearly
respectively (Assume ne >> nh)
(1) 7.6 × 1016 m–3 (2) 5.3 × 10–9 m–3
(3) 7.6 × 1012 m–3 (4) 5.5 × 1019 m–3

R 2C
4. The dimensions of is [L → Inductance, C →
L
(1) 8 mA, 6 mA, 14 mA (2) 14 mA, 6 mA, 8 mA Capacitance and R → Resistance]

(3) 8 mA, 14 mA, 6 mA (4) 6 mA, 8 mA, 14 mA (1) [M0L0T] (2) [M0L0T–1]
2. The diagram shows part of Vernier scale on a (3) [MLT–1] (4) [M0L0T0]
pair of calipers. Which reading is correct? (Least
count is 0.1 mm) 5. A body of mass 2 kg is lying on a rough inclined
plane of inclination 30°. The magnitude of force
parallel to the incline needed to make the block
just move up the plane, if the coefficient of static
friction is 0.3 is
(1) 4.9 N (2) 16.7 N
(1) 3.7 cm (2) 3.72 cm
(3) 3.64 cm (4) 3.76 cm (3) 14.9 N (4) 22.6 N

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

6. A carnot engine takes 1000 calories of heat from (1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R

a reservoir at 827°C and exhausts it to a sink at
(2) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P
27°C. How much work does it perform?
(3) A → Q, B → S, C → Q, D → R
(1) 272.7 Cal (2) 727.28 Cal
(3) 1272.7 Cal (4) 456.56 Cal (4) A → S, B → R, C → Q, P → Q
7. A tank used for filling helium balloons has volume 12. A defected eye is not able to see objects closer
of 0.3 m3 and contains 2.0 moles of helium gas at than 50 cm because
27°C. Assuming that helium behaves like an (1) The eye is not able to increase the focal
ideal gas, the total translational kinetic energy of length beyond a limit
the molecules of the gas is
(2) The eye is not able to decrease the focal
(1) 7.48 kJ (2) 5.32 kJ length beyond a limit
(3) 12.46 kJ (4) 17.45 kJ
(3) The focal length of the eye is 50 cm
8. The density of water at the surface of ocean is 
(4) The distance of the retina from the eye lens
and atmospheric pressure is P0. If bulk modulus
is 50 cm
of water is B, what is density of ocean water at
the depth where the pressure is 5 P0? 13. At what displacement from mean position is the
K.E. of a particle performing SHM of amplitude
B B
(1) (2) 20 cm, three times its P.E.
5P0 4P0
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
B B
(3) (4) (3) 5 cm (4) 15 cm
( B – 4P0 ) ( B – 5P0 ) 14. The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
9. A magnetising field of 3 × 103 A/m produces a field at a place is 4 × 10–4 T and the dip is
magnetic flux density of 6 tesla in an iron rod. 3
The relative permeability of the rod is tan–1   . A metal rod of length 0.5 m placed in
4
(1) 500 (2) 5000 the north-south position is moved at constant
(3) 2000 (4) 100 speed of 10 cm/s towards east, the emf induced
10. A transformer has 200 turns in the primary coil in the rod along the length, will be
and carries 10 A current. If the input power is (1) 10 V (2) 5 V
2.5 kW then the number of turns in the secondary
coil to have 1000 V output will be (3) 15 V (4) 30 V
(1) 600 (2) 8000 15. A particle of mass M is moving in yz-plane with a
(3) 800 (4) 100 uniform velocity v with its trajectory running
parallel to +ve y-axis and intersecting z-axis at
11. Power of an equiconvex lens is P. After cutting it
z = a. The change in its angular momentum
in different ways, combination of lens is given in
about the origin as its bounces back elastically
column-I and their effective power is given in
column-II. Match the following two columns from a wall represented by equation y = 6 m is

Column-I Column-II (1) Mvaiˆ (2) 2Mvaiˆ

(3) –Mvaiˆ (4) –2Mvaiˆ
A. P. Zero
16. If a sphere is released from rest on an incline of
2
B. Q. P friction coefficient greater than tan 
7
(1) It will stay at rest

C. R. 2P (2) It will make pure translational motion

(3) It will translate and rotate about the centre
P (4) The angular momentum of the sphere about
D. S.
2 its centre will remains constant

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)

17. Acceleration-time (a-t) graph for particle starting 21. The maximum current that flows in the fuse wire,
from rest at t = 0 is as shown in figure. The before it blows out, varies with radius ‘r’ of fuse
particle has maximum speed at wire as
3
(1) r 2 (2) r
2 1
(3) r 3 (4) r 2
22. A number of bullets are fired from a point in all
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s possible directions with same initial speed u. The
maximum area of ground covered by the bullets
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s
is
18. A liquid flow through a tube of uniform 2 2
cross-section on a horizontal plane as shown in  u2  u 
(1)    (2)   
 g  g 
figure. The direction of net force exerted by the  
liquid on the tube is towards
2
 u2    u2 
(3)   2  (4)  
g  4  g 
 
23. The radius of a planet is R. A satellite revolves
around it in a circle of radius r with angular
velocity 0. The acceleration due to gravity on
planet’s surface is given by
(1) East (2) South
(3) North-west (4) North-east r 3 0 r 3 03
(1) (2)
R R2
19. The velocity v acquired by an electron starting
form rest when accelerated through a potential r 3 02 r 3 02
(3) (4)
difference V is shown by the graph R R2
24. If the maximum particle speed of a travelling
wave is v0, then the particle speed, where the
(1) (2) displacement is half of maximum value, is
v0 3v 0
(1) (2)
2 4
3v 0
(3) (4) v0
2
(3) (4)
25. A string of length 1 m and mass per unit length
0.001 kg/m is hanging vertically as shown. A
small pulse is generated at its lower end. The
20. What will be the equivalent resistance between pulse reaches the top end in approximately
the points A and D for the circuit shown in figure? (g = 10 m/s2)

1 3
(1) s (2) s
10 10
(1) 10  (2) 20  2 5
(3) s (4) s
(3) 30  (4) 40  10 2

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

26. The energy of ionization of hydrogen atom is EH. 32. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths
What is the energy of ionisation of doubly ionised 7000 Å and 5600 Å is used to obtain interference
lithium Li++? in YDSE. The distance between slits is 1 mm and
(1) 16EH (2) 9EH distance of screen from slits is 120 cm. What is
the least distance from central maximum where
(3) 3EH (4) 4EH
the bright due to both wavelengths coincide?
27. A radioactive sample decays by 63% of its initial (1) 0.312 cm (2) 0.156 cm
value in nearly 10 s. It would have decayed by
(3) 0.336 cm (4) 0.198 cm
50% of its initial value in approximately
33. A plane electromagnetic wave, propagating in the
(1) 7 s (2) 0.7 s
y-direction has a wavelength of 3 mm. The
(3) 1.4 s (4) 14 s electric field is in x-direction and its maximum
28. A conducting ring of mass 1 kg and radius 0.5 m magnitude is 30 V m–1. The frequency of the
is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The ring magnetic field (in Hz) is
carries a current of 8 A. A horizontal magnetic 6.3  1011 3.5  1011
field B = 5 T is switched on at t = 0 as shown in (1) (2)
2 2
figure. The initial angular acceleration of ring will
be 5.6  1011 4.6  1011
(3) (4)
2 2
34. Under the steady state heat flow condition, the
temperature of a rod having uniform cross-
section
(1) Changes with position but no change with
(1) 40 rad/s2 (2) 60 rad/s2
time
(3) 80 rad/s2 (4) 100 rad/s2 (2) Changes with time but no change with
29. Which of the following option is not correct about position
the charge on a body? (3) Changes with both time and position
(1) Charge on isolated body remains constant (4) No change with time as well as position
(2) Charge on body is always an integral multiple 35. A steel rod of length 2 m, fixed between two rigid
of charge of an electron immovable walls is heated from a temperature of
(3) Charge on body can vary with the speed of 50°C to 100°C. The stress developed in the rod
body is (Coefficient of linear expansion of steel =
12 × 10–6°C–1)
(4) Transfer of charges between two bodies
takes place through transfer of electrons (1) Tensile
(2) Compressive
30. Electrostatic force of interaction between two
small spheres having charge of 3 × 10–7 C and (3) Shear
5 × 10–6 C placed at 50 cm apart in air, will be (4) Zero
(1) 3.0 × 10–3 N (2) 5.4 × 10–2 N
SECTION-B
(3) 5.4 × 10–3 N (4) 3.0 × 10–2 N
31. In a ballistic demonstration, a police officer fires a 36. The energy of a damped oscillator as a function
bullet of mass 100 g with a speed 150 m/s on a of time is given as E(t) = A2e–t, where
soft wooden sheet of thickness 5 cm. The bullet  = 0.1 s–1. The measurement of A has an error
emerges with only 30% of its initial kinetic of 1%. If the error in the measurement of time (t)
energy. Emergent speed of the bullet, will be is 2%, then the maximum percentage error in the
nearly value of E(t) at t = 2 s is
(1) 45 m s–1 (2) 120 m s–1 (1) 1.2% (2) 2%
(3) 82 m s–1 (4) 67 m s–1 (3) 6% (4) 2.4%

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)

37. When emitter current increase by 10 mA, the (1) A → P, B → Q, C → S, D → R

base current increases by 0.1 mA. If output to (2) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
input resistance ratio is 50, then the value of
(3) A → Q, B → R, C → P, D → S
voltage gain in common emitter configuration of
(4) A → Q, B → R, C → S, D → P
amplifier will be
41. A wheel of radius 0.5 m can rotate freely about
(1) 495 (2) 4950
its axis as shown in the figure. A string is
(3) 5000 (4) 500 wrapped over its rim and a force of 5 kgf is
38. The system of blocks shown in figure is released applied. An angular acceleration of 10 rad/s2 is
from rest. Ignore friction everywhere. The time produced in it due to the torque, then moment of
inertia of the wheel is (g = 10 m/s2)
taken by the block to reach ground is (g = 10 m
s–2)

(1) 2 kg m2 (2) 5 kg m2
(3) 1 kg m2 (4) 2.5 kg m2
42. A point source of light is placed at bottom of a
(1) 1 s (2) 1.41 s
water lake. If the circular illuminated area on the
(3) 0.5 s (4) 1.62 s surface is equal to 4 times the square of depth of
39. A series LCR circuit with L = 2 H, R = 20  and the lake, the refractive index of the water is
C = 25 F is connected to a variable frequency +2 +4
(1) (2)
160 V ac supply. When frequency of the supply 2 2
equals the resonating frequency of the circuit,
+2
what is average power transferred to circuit in (3)  +1 (4)
4
one complete cycle?
43. The maximum velocity of an electron, emitted by
(1) 6.4 kW (2) 1.28 kW
light of wavelength  when it incidents on the
(3) 7.9 kW (4) 8.4 kW surface of a metal of work function w is

 2 ( hc + w )  2 ( hc – w )
40. Heat taken by the gas in process a to b is 6 P0V0. 1/2

Match the column-I with column-II. (1)   (2)

 m  m

 2 ( hc – w )   2 ( h – w ) 
1/2 1/2

(3)   (4)  
 m   m 
44. The following figures show a liquid flowing ideally
through a tapered tube. Single tube manometers
are connected at three positions along the tube.
Identify the diagram showing the correct rise of
liquid in the tubes
Column-I Column-II
A. Wab P. 1.5 R
(1) (2)
B. Uab Q. 3P0V0
2
C. Molar heat capacity R. 9P0V0
in given process 2 (3) (4)

D. Cv for the gas S. 2R

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

45. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The 48. A rocket is launched from surface of earth with
charging battery is disconnected. An identical initial velocity v. How far above the surface of
capacitor is now connected to the first capacitor earth will it go? Neglect Air resistance.
in parallel. The energy in each of the capacitors
–1
is
 2gR 2  2gR 
U 3U (1) R  2 – 1 (2) R  2 – 1
(1) (2)  v   v 
2 2
–1 2
U  2gR   2gR 
(3) R  2 – 1 (4) R  2 – 1
(3) U (4)  v   v 
4
46. In a potentiometer experiment, the balancing 49. A body of mass 5 kg travels in straight line with
length with a cell is at 240 cm. On shunting the 3 –1
cell with a resistance of 2  the balancing length velocity v = kx 2 where k = 8 m 2 s –1 . Work done
becomes 120 cm. The internal resistance of the by the net force acting on the body during its
cell is
displacement from x = 1 m to x = 4 m will be
(1) 4  (2) 2 
(1) 10080 J
(3) 1  (4) 0.5 
(2) 140 J
47. Find the magnetic field at P due to the
arrangement of two perpendicular infinitely long (3) 7840 J
current carrying conductors as shown in the (4) 12380 J
figure
50. A YDSE apparatus is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index 1.5. It has a slit separation of 1
mm and interference pattern is observed on the
screen at a distance of 1.5 m from the slits. The
wavelength in air is 6300 Å. The distance of sixth
bright fringe from third bright fringe lying on the
same side of central bright fringe is
0 i  1  20 i (1) 2.52 mm
(1) 1–  (2) 
2d  2 2d (2) 1.89 mm
0 i 0 i  1  (3) 3.27 mm
(3)  (4) 1 + 
2d 2d  2 (4) 1.26 mm

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 54. Which of the following enzymes is used for the
conversion of proteins into amino acids?
51. Intensive property among the following is
(1) Pepsin (2) Diastase
(1) Resistance (2) Refractive index
(3) Urease (4) Invertase
(3) Mass (4) Volume
52. Oxidation state of cobalt in [Co(en)2ClBr]Cl is 1
55. Slope of plot between ln k vs is
T
(1) +2 (2) +3
Ea
(3) +1 (4) +6 (1) Ea (2)
R
53. Hybridisation of C1 and C2 carbon in the following
molecule are respectively −Ea −Ea
(3) (4)
2 1 R 2.303R
CH3 − CH = C = CH − CH = CH2
56. Maximum solubility of AgCl is in
(1) sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp (1) 0.1 M NaCl (2) 0.1 M AgNO3
(3) sp and sp2 (4) sp2 and sp2 (3) 0.1 M NH4OH (4) 0.1 M CaCl2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)

57. Minimum molar mass of a protein that contains 63. Aqueous solution of which of the following ions
0.7% by mass of nitrogen will be will be colourless?
(1) 1000 u (2) 2000 u (1) Cu2+ (2) Fe3+
(3) 4000 u (4) 3000 u (3) Cr3+ (4) Sc3+
58. Which colligative property is used for the 64. Chlorine water on standing loses its yellow colour
determination of molecular mass of proteins? due to the formation of
(1) Elevation in boiling point (1) HOClO3 and HOClO
(2) Depression in freezing point (2) HOClO and HOClO2
(3) Osmotic pressure (3) HCl and HOClO2
(4) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (4) HCl and HOCl
59. Difference between boiling point and freezing 65. An oxide of nitrogen which is obtained by the
point of aqueous solution of 1% (w/w) NaOH thermal decomposition of lead nitrate is
solution will be
(1) NO2 (2) N2O3
(For H2O Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1, Kb = 0.52 K kg
(3) NO (4) N2O
mol–1)
66. Consider the following reaction,
(1) 100.24 (2) 101.20
(3) 100.72 (4) 100.96
60. IUPAC name of compound given below is

Major product (P) is

(1) 1-Bromo-3-methyl-4-chlorocyclohexane (1)

(2) 1-Bromo-4-chloro-3-methylcyclohexane
(3) 4-Bromo-3-methyl-1-chlorocyclohexane
(4) 4-Bromo-1-chloro-3-methylcyclohexane (2)

61.
(3)

Major organic product formed in above reaction

will be
(4)
(1)
67. Statement-I: o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can
be separated using steam distillation.
(2) CH2D – CH2–OH Statement-II: Intramolecular hydrogen bonding
(3) Racemic mixture of CH3 − CHOH exist in o-nitrophenol.
|
D In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(4) CH2 = CHD
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
62. Which of the following gases will give maximum
true
deviation from ideal behaviour under similar
conditions? (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(1) CO2 (2) N2 (3) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) NH3 (4) CH4 (4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

68. Consider the following reaction sequence. 76. Match list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II
(Hydride) (Category)

C is (i) NaH (a) Metallic Hydride

(ii) CrH (b) Electron precise

Hydride

(1) (2) (iii) HF (c) Electron rich Hydride

(iv) CH4 (d) Saline Hydride

Which of following options has all correct pairs?

(1) (i) – (d), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (b)
(3) (4)
(2) (i) – (a), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (c)
(3) (i) – (d), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (a)
69. In which of the following polymers, the
(4) (i) – (b), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (c)
intermolecular forces of attraction are weakest?
(1) Buna-N (2) Nylon 6, 6 77. Composition of German silver is

(3) Dacron (4) Bakelite (1) Cu (25–30%), Sn (40–50%), Zn (25–30%)

70. The artificial sweetener which has the maximum (2) Ni (25–30%), Ag (40–50%), Zn (25–30%)
sweetness value in comparison to cane sugar is (3) Cu (25–30%), Zn (25-30%), Ni (40–50%)
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin
(4) Ag (25–30%), Sn (40–50%), Cu (25–30%)
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame
78. In acidic medium, MnO −4 as an oxidising agent
71. The correct order of decreasing energy of orbitals
for Be atom is changes into
(1) 3d > 5p > 4s
(1) MnO2 (2) MnO24−
(2) 3d > 4s > 5p
(3) Mn3+ (4) Mn2+
(3) 5p > 3d > 4s
(4) 4p > 4s > 3d 79. In sodium oxide, having the anti fluorite structure,

72. Eka-silicon and eka-aluminium respectively are the coordination number for sodium ion (Na+) and
also known as oxide ion (O2–) respectively are
(1) In and Sn (2) Ge and Ga (1) 6 and 6 (2) 4 and 8
(3) Sn and In (4) Ga and Ge (3) 8 and 4 (4) 6 and 4
73. The most stable peroxide among the following is 80. The reduction potential of Hydrogen electrode in
(1) Li2O2 (2) Na2O2 contact with a solution having pH = 8 is
(3) K2O2 (4) Rb2O2 (Given : pH2 = 1 atm)
74. When anhydrous borax is heated with platinum (1) – 0.71 V (2) – 0.47 V
wire coated CoO in a bunsen burner flame, the
blue coloured bead formed is (3) – 0.95 V (4) – 0.36 V

(1) Co(BO2)2 (2) B2O3 81. A metal crystallizes with face-centred cubic
(3) Co(OH)2 (4) NaBO2 lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 440 pm. The
radius of metal atom is nearly
75. The pH of acid rain is
(1) 5.6 (2) 7 (1) 128.3 pm (2) 172.2 pm

(3) < 5.6 (4) Between 5.6 and 7 (3) 155.5 pm (4) 191.7 pm

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)

82. Most stable carbanion among the following is 88. Assuming x axis as internuclear axis, which of
the following will show zero overlap?
(1) 2s + 2px (2) 2s + 2s
(3) 2py + 2py (4) 2px + 2py
(1) (2)
89. KP is equal KC for which of the following
equilibrium?

(1) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)

(3) (4) (2) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g)

(3) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl(g)

83. Which hydrocarbon cannot be prepared by
Kolbe’s electrolytic method? (4) CO2 (g) + H2 (g) CO(g) + H2O(l)

(1) n-Butane (2) Ethane 90. Which of the following is correct for first order
reaction A(g) → B(g)?
(3) Methane (4) Ethene
84. Major product of the given reaction is
(i) CH MgBr (1) (2)
PhCH2CN ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3
+
(ii) H3O

(1) PhCH2CH2CHO (2) PhCH2COCH3

(3) PhCH2CH2COOH (4) Ph − CH − CHO
|
CH3
(3) (4)
85. Lactose is composed of
(1) -D-glucose and -D-galactose
91. Principal emulsifying agent of O/W emulsion is
(2) -D-glucose and -D-galactose
(1) Synthetic soaps
(3) -D-glucose and -D-galactose
(2) Long chain alcohols
(4) -D-glucose and -D-fructose (3) Lampblack
SECTION-B (4) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids
86. Which among the following complex is optically 92. Expression of compressibility factor for a real gas
at very high pressure will be
active?
Pb a
(1) Co (NH3 ) Cl3  (1) 1 + (2) 1 −
 3  RT VRT

(2) Co (NH3 ) Cl2  Br

Pb a
(3) 1 − (4) 1 +
 4  RT VRT

(3) Ni (NH3 )  Cl2

93. Nitrobenzene on reduction with lithium aluminium
 6 hydride yields

(4) Pt (NH3 ) (H2O ) ( en ) ClBr  (1) Azoxybenzene

(2) Phenyl hydroxylamine
87. 1 mol monoatomic ideal gas expanded against (3) Azobenzene
2 atm pressure from 10 L to 60 L at 27°C. Work
(4) Aniline
done in above process is
94. Which of the following pair of d-orbitals has zero
(1) –10 L-atm electron density along the axis?
(2) –100 L-atm (1) dxy and d (2) dyz and d
x2 − y2 z2
(3) –200 L-atm
(3) d and d (4) dxy and dyz
(4) –400 L-atm x2 − y2 z2

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

95. The correct order of increasing negative electron (1) 28%

gain enthalpy for the following elements is (2) 36%
(1) K < Na < Li < Rb (2) Rb < Li < K < Na (3) 42%
(3) Rb < K < Na < Li (4) Li < Na < K < Rb (4) 54%
96. Oxidation number of oxygen is minimum in 99. The compound which liberates hydrogen gas on
(1) Oxides (2) Peroxides reaction with sodium metal is
(3) Superoxides (4) Dioxygen (1) CH3 − C  CH
97. The value of log KC for the reaction, (2) CH3 − C  C − CH3
Fe2+ (aq) + Ag+ (aq) ⎯⎯→ Fe3 + (aq) + Ag(s) is (3) CH3 − CH = CH2

Given : Eo (4) CH3 − CH = CH − CH3

= 0.77V and Eo + = 0.8V 
 Fe3 + /Fe2 + Ag / Ag 
100. The compound which does not show keto-enol
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.6 tautomerism is
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.5
98. During estimation of nitrogen present in an
organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the (1) (2)
ammonia evolved from 1.0 g of the compound
was neutralised by 15 mL of 1 M H2SO4 solution.
(3) (4)
The percentage of nitrogen present in the
compound is

BOTANY
SECTION - A 105. In three domain classification system, organisms
101. Which hormone stimulates the closure of stomata of kingdom Monera were placed in
under stress conditions? (1) All the three domains
(1) Indole acetic acid (2) Kinetin (2) Two different domains
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Gibberellic acid
(3) Single domain along with archaebacteria
102. In which plant, adventitious buds arises from the
notches present at margins of leaves and help in (4) The domain in which eukaryotes were kept
vegetative propagation? 106. Identify the organism in which cell wall has stiff
(1) Banana (2) Bryophyllum cellulose plates on outer surface.
(3) Water hyacinth (4) Sugarcane (1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
103. Which one among the following statements is not (3) Trypanosoma (4) Bacillus
true w.r.t. the pollen grains?
107. State true (T) or false (F) to the following
(1) They can be stored in liquid nitrogen for statements and select the correct option.
years
A. Sexual reproduction is absent in Alternaria
(2) It can cause severe allergy in some people
and Agaricus.
(3) Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant
organic material present in its wall B. Few plants are partially heterotrophic.
(4) Intine layer is thick made up of cellulose and C. Morels and truffles are club fungi.
lignin
A B C
104. Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive agent
produced by (1) T F T
(1) Monascus purpureus
(2) T T T
(2) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) Streptococcus (3) T T F
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (4) F T F

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108. All of the below given parents can produce child 116. If 22 chromosomes are present at G1 phase of
with blood group ‘O’, except the cell cycle then, the number of chromosomes
after G2 phase will be
(1) lA i × lB i (2) ii × lB i
(1) 44 (2) 22
(3) lA lB × ii (4) lB i × lB i
(3) 66 (4) 11
109. A mulatto skin colour man marries to a very light
117. Protonema of mosses easily multiply by
skin coloured women. Which of the following skin
fragmentation but Amoeba does not because
colour is not possible in their children?
(1) It is filamentous
(1) Very light (2) Light
(2) It is unicellular
(3) Fairly light (4) Fairly dark
(3) It can reproduce sexually only
110. Down’s syndrome is not related to (4) It reproduces by budding only
(1) Trisomy (2) Chromosome 21st 118. In the name Panthera leo
(3) Gynecomastia (4) Aneuploidy (1) leo is generic name
111. When the cell is placed in an isotonic solution (2) Panthera is specific epithet

(1) There is no net flow of water towards the (3) Both words should be underlined separately
inside and outside of the cell if they are handwritten
(4) leo starts with small letter to show its Latin
(2) The cell becomes turgid
origin
(3) The cell undergoes plasmolysis
119. During respiration glucose is oxidised to A. A
(4) Water moves out of the cell further can form either lactic acid or ethanol +
CO2. Select the correct statement on the basis
112. Peat is formed from the plants such as
of this information.
(1) Cycas (2) Marchantia
(3) Sphagnum (4) Selaginella
113. The event which is a precursor of seed habit was
first seen in the members of
(1) Gymnosperm (2) Pteridophyta
(1) Ethanol and CO2 are produced by A in our
(3) Bryophyta (4) Angiosperm muscle cells during vigorous exercise
114. Read the following statements and mark true (T) (2) A is 3 carbon containing compound
or false (F).
(3) A forms lactic acid during aerobic respiration
(a) Toxicity symptoms in plants are difficult to
(4) A is end product of glycolysis which enters
identify.
matrix of mitochondria to carry out
(b) Excess of manganese in plants may induce fermentation
deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium.
120. During plant breeding programmes, superior
a b hybrid progeny is self-pollinated for several
generations
(1) T F
(1) Because pollinators are not available for such
(2) F T crops
(3) T T (2) Because cross pollination does not take
place naturally in these plants
(4) F F
(3) So that characters will not segregate in the
115. Chromatids move to opposite poles during progeny
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(4) Because they consume a lot of time for cross
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase pollination

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

121. Many desert plants have different adaptations to 127. When RNA transcript is first made in a eukaryote,
grow in arid regions. Which of the following is not it requires further processing to become
an adaptation w.r.t. such plants? functional mRNA.

(1) Thick cuticle on leaf surface Which of the given steps are required to produce
a mature mRNA?
(2) Stomata arranged in deep pits
A. A tail of uracil is added to one end of hnRNA.
(3) Special photosynthetic pathway called CAM
B. Introns are removed from the primary
(4) Broad leaves to increase photosynthetic transcript.
efficiency
C. Exons are joined together to form mature
122. All of the following are those areas in which mRNA.
succession starts where no living organism
D. Cytidine cap is added to 5' end of RNA.
existed before, except
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(1) Bare rock
(3) C and D (4) A and D
(2) Newly cooled lava
128. Biodiversity decreases when we move from
(3) Newly created pond
(1) Poles to equator
(4) Abandoned farmland
(2) Higher to lower altitudes
123. In a hypothetical condition, if the thylakoid
(3) Arctic to temperate areas
membrane tears off causing the lumen of
thylakoid continuous with the stroma, which of (4) Tropical to temperate areas
the following processes is likely to be most 129. Select the incorrect statement from the
affected? following.
(1) Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH (1) In Opuntia, modified leaves do not perform
photosynthesis
(2) Absorption of Sunlight by chloroplast
(2) Rhizome in Pistia grows horizontally beneath
(3) Movement of electrons from PS II to PS I
the soil
(4) ATP synthesis
(3) Thorns in plants are modified axillary buds
124. Select the correct one w.r.t. flow of genetic (4) Potato tuber has buds on its nodes
information during gene expression.
130. Floral diagram of a plants is shown below.
(1) DNA → Protein → mRNA
(2) Protein → mRNA → DNA
(3) mRNA → Protein → DNA
(4) DNA → mRNA → Protein
125. AMP is a/an
(1) DNA nucleotide (2) RNA nucleotide
Which representation regarding floral formula of
(3) DNA nucleoside (4) RNA nucleoside that plant is correct?
126. Which of the following components would be
(1) % (2)
there in a nucleosome?
(3) K(2 + 2) (4) G(2)
(1) Histone octamer + DNA
131. Which one of the following elements of vascular
(2) A pair of histone proteins + 2 nucleotides tissues are parenchymatous?
(3) 1 histone protein + chromosome (1) Bast fibres (2) Companion cells
(4) Histone octamer + H1 protein + RNA (3) Vessels (4) Sieve tubes

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132. Vascular cambium is completely secondary in 138. Read the following features of flowers in a plant
and select the agent for pollination accordingly.
(1) Monocot stem (2) Dicot stem
A. Sticky pollen grains.
(3) Monocot root (4) Dicot root
B. Colorful flowers.
133. Which structure in prokaryotes has the similar C. Flower with pleasant odour and nectar.
function as that of mitochondria?
(1) Wind (2) Water
(1) Fimbriae (2) Plasmid (3) Insects (4) Earthworm
(3) Mesosome (4) Polysome 139. Female heterogamety is not seen in
134. Functions related to Golgi complex is/are (1) Fowl (2) Chick
a. Polymerisation of amino acids (3) Butterfly (4) Grasshopper
140. Choose the wrong statement w.r.t. prions.
b. Formation of glycoproteins
(1) Cause certain neurological disorders
c. Modification of proteins
(2) Much smaller than viruses
(1) a only (2) b and c only (3) These are abnormally folded proteins
(3) All a, b and c (4) b only (4) Infectious to humans as well as cattles
135. Select the incorrect match from the following. 141. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. algae.
(1) The food stored in red algae is in the form of
(1) Perinuclear – Space in the cytoplasm
floridean starch
space around the nucleus
(2) Pyrenoids in green algae contain protein
(2) Nucleolus – Membraneless structure besides starch
(3) Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is
(3) Chromatin – Nucleoprotein fibres
by non-motile spores
(4) Centromere – Primary constriction (4) Brown algae show great variation in size and
form
SECTION-B 142. Read the following statements about root
136. Which plant growth regulator is responsible for pressure and select the correct option.
the following effects? a. Its effect is observable when evaporation is
low.
A. Overcome apical dominance.
b. It can provide a modest push in the overall
B. Rapid cell division. process of water transport.
C. Delay leaf senescence. c. It is a positive pressure.
(1) Auxin (2) Ethylene d. It re-establish the continuous chains of water
molecule in the xylem.
(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellic acid
(1) Only a and c are correct
137. Match the following columns and select the (2) Only d is incorrect
correct option w.r.t. sewage treatment.
(3) Only a and b are correct
Column I Column II (4) All a, b, c and d are correct
143. Given ecological pyramid is always true for
A. Tertiary (i) Flocs formation
treatment

B. Secondary (ii) Sedimentation

treatment and filtration

C. Primary (iii) Ozone treatment a. Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem

treatment b. Pyramid of energy in tree ecosystem
c. Pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem
(1) A(iii), B(ii), C(i) (2) A(iii), B(i), C(ii)
(1) Only a (2) Only c
(3) A(ii), B(iii), C(i) (4) A(ii), B(i), C(iii) (3) All a, b and c (4) Only a and b

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

144. The interspecific interaction called amensalism 148. All of the following grow towards the gravity,
can be represented as except
(1) (+, +) (2) (+, 0) (1) Prop root in banyan
(3) (–, 0) (4) (–, –) (2) Pneumatophore in Rhizophora
145. Which of the given zones of biosphere reserve (3) Tap root in carrot
comprises an undisturbed and legally protected (4) Stilt root in maize
ecosystem? 149. Choose the option which is not true w.r.t
(1) Transition zone difference between dicot leaf and monocot leaf.
(2) Buffer zone Dicot Leaf Monocot Leaf
(3) Core zone (1) Stomata are usually Stomata are usually
(4) Both (1) and (2) more in number on more in number on
146. National forest policy (1988) of India has upper epidermis lower epidermis
recommended A of forest cover for the plains (2) Leaf type is Leaf type is
and B for the hills. dorsiventral isobilateral
(3) Mesophyll is Mesophyll is not
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A
differentiated into differentiated
and B. palisade and spongy
A B parenchyma

(1) 33% 67% (4) Vascular bundles are Vascular bundles

of different sizes are nearly similar in
(2) 19.4% 30% size
(3) 22% 19.4% 150. Read the following statements and choose the
(4) 40% 30% option which is true for them.
Statement 1: A thylakoid has stack of flattened
147. According to CPCB, which size of particulate
membranous sacs called granum.
matter is responsible for causing the greatest
Statement 2: Ribosomes in chloroplast function
harm to human health?
similar to that of cytoplasmic ribosomes.
(1) 2.5 m or less in diameter
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) 5.0 m in diameter
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) 25 m or more in diameter (3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) 7.0 m in diameter (4) Only statement-2 is correct

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A (3) The trachea branches into two bronchi, one
leading to each lung.
151. Select the incorrect statement among the
following. (4) During swallowing of food glottis can be
covered by a thin elastic cartilaginous flap
(1) The nasal cavity leads to the larynx, an
intersection where the paths for food and air called epiglottis.
cross. 152. Locomotion and capture of prey in Hydra occurs
(2) Air enters through the nostrils and is then with the help of
filtered by hair, warmed, humidified and (1) Cilia (2) Flagella
sampled for odors as it flows through a maze
of spaces in nasal cavity. (3) Pseudopodia (4) Tentacles

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)

153. Select the incorrect match w.r.t structures given 158. Choose the mismatch from the following.
in column I and movements associated with them
(1) Moist surface of – Compound
given in column II.
buccal cavity epithelium
Column-I Column-II
(2) Biceps – Smooth muscles
(1) Microfilaments – Amoeboid movement
(3) Blood – Fluid connective
(2) Jaws – Muscular movement
tissue
(3) Ovum – Pseudopodial movement
(4) Bronchioles – Ciliated
(4) Spermatozoa – Flagellar movement
epithelium
154. A type of excretory structure ‘X’ which helps in
159. Which pair of wings are used for flight in the
ionic and fluid regulation (osmoregulation) is
cockroach?
present in rotifers, some annelids and
cephalochordates. Identify the structure ‘X’. (1) Forewings (2) Tegmina

(1) Nephridia (3) Mesothoracic wings (4) Metathoracic wings

(2) Protonephridia 160. Match column-I with column-II and select the
correct option.
(3) Nephrocytes
Column-I Column-II
(4) Uricose glands
155. Dairying is the management of animals for the a. Corvus (i) Single circulation
given products except b. Aedes (ii) Open circulation
(1) Butter (2) Cheese
c. Calotes (iii) Double circulation
(3) Meat (4) Milk
d. Scoliodon (iv) Incomplete double
156. Observe the given figure. circulation

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
161. Sympathetic nerves have same effect on heart
beat rate as that of
(1) Aldosterone
(2) Acetylcholine
All of the following are present in the duct (3) Antidiuretic hormone
labelled as ‘A’, except
(4) Adrenaline
(1) Procarboxypeptidase
162. A special system of blood vessels in our body
(2) Bilirubin that is exclusively meant for the circulation of
(3) Nucleotidases blood to and from the cardiac musculature is
(4) Lipases (1) Pulmonary circulation
157. The structural and functional unit of liver is (2) Coronary circulation
(1) Hepatic lobule (2) Hepatic cell (3) Hepatic portal system

(3) Glisson’s capsule (4) Gall bladder (4) Renal portal system

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

163. Select the correct match from the following given 167. Read the following statements A and B and
options. choose the correct option.
Animal Level of Organisation Statement (A) : Soon after the placenta is
(1) Taenia – Tissue level delivered, the infant is also expelled out of the
uterus.
(2) Pheretima – Organ system level
Statement (B) : Doctors inject oxytocin to induce
(3) Sycon – Acellular level
delivery of the baby when it is not secreted in
(4) Obelia – Organ level adequate amount from maternal pituitary.
164. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly (1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
to complete the analogy.
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
Sea pen : Radial symmetry :: Liver fluke:______
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
(1) Asymmetry (2) Radial symmetry
(4) Only statement (B) is correct
(3) Biradial symmetry (4) Bilateral symmetry
168. Read the following statements carefully.
165. Match items in column-I with those in column-II
(a) Humans are sexually reproducing and
and choose the correct option.
viviparous.
Column-I Column-II
(b) The ovaries in human females produce only
(a) Exocoetus (i) Tympanum
hormones.
represents the ear
(c) The mammary glands are one of the female
(b) Trygon (ii) Marine bony fish secondary sexual characters.
(c) Salamandra (iii) Air sacs connected (d) A normal human sperm is composed of a
to lungs head, neck and middle piece only.
(d) Aptenodytes (iv) Cartilaginous How many of the above statements are true w.r.t
marine fish human reproductive system?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 1 (2) 3
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) 2 (4) 4
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 169. The cyclic changes in ovary and uterus during
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) menstrual cycle are induced by changes in the
levels of pituitary and _____ hormones.
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
166. Assertion (A) – In protists and monerans, cell
division is itself a mode of reproduction. (1) Thyroid

Reason (R) – In these organisms, the parent cell (2) Adrenal

divides to give rise to new individuals. (3) Ovarian
In the light of above statements, choose the (4) Testicular
correct answer from the options given below.
170. Which institute developed the new oral
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the contraceptive for females named ‘Saheli’?
correct explanation of (A)
(1) EFB
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(2) IARI
correct explanation of (A)
(3) GEAC
(3) (A) is true but (R) false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) CDRI

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)

171. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 175. Read the statements given below w.r.t disease
correct option. causing microbes.

Column-I Column-II (a) All parasites are pathogens as they cause

harm to the host.
a. Legalisation of MTP in (i) 2017
(b) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the
India
environment of the host.
b. Initiation of ‘family (ii) 1971
(c) Pathogen of dysentery lives in the gut of host
planning programmes’
organism.
c. India’s population (iii) 2011 (d) Pathogens can enter human body by various
reached 1.2 billion means causing functional damage but do not
d. MTP amendment act (iv) 1951 interferes with normal vital activities.
Select the option that contains correct
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
statements.
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) (a) and (b) only
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) (b) and (c) only
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
172. The use of bio-resources by multinational
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
companies and other organisations without
proper authorisation from the countries and 176. The diagnostic test for the disease caused by
people concerned without compensatory Salmonella typhi is
payment is called (1) ELISA (2) Widal
(1) Biowar (2) Biopatent (3) RT-PCR (4) Biopsy
(3) Biopiracy (4) Bioremediation 177. Analyse the equation given below and select the
173. How many of the given receptors in the box are enzyme that catalyses the same reaction.
helpful in detecting chemicals? S – G + S → S + S – G

Olfactory receptors, Gustatory receptors, (1) Transferase (2) Catalase

Photoreceptors, Mechanoreceptors (3) Amylase (4) Pepsin

(1) One (2) Two 178. Match the categories of enzymes listed in
column-I with the examples in column-II and
(3) Three (4) Four
select the correct option.
174. Which of the following can be used as
descriptors for the secretions of ductless glands? Column-I Column-II

(a) Chemical messengers a. Ligase (i) Peroxidase

(b) Nutrients enriched chemicals b. Lyase (ii) RuBP carboxylase
(c) Produced in extremely minute amounts
c. Oxidoreductase (iii) Lipase
(d) The production of any hormone in a healthy
d. Hydrolase (iv) Carbonic
individual is almost equal to the amount of
anhydrase
blood in the body
(e) Non-nutrient chemicals (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

Select the correct option. (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(1) (b), (d), (e) only (2) (a), (b), (c) only (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

(3) (a), (c), (e) only (4) (b), (c), (d) only (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

179. Choose the mismatch among the following. 184. The type of natural selection in which more
individuals acquire value other than mean
(1) GLUT-4 – Unables glucose
character value is known as
transport into cells
(1) Stabilising selection
(2) Trypsin – Enzyme
(2) Directional selection
(3) Essential oil – Lemon grass oil (3) Disruptive selection
(4) Drug – Vinblastin (4) Normalising selection

180. To create recombinant pBR322, if the source 185. Match column-I with column-II and select the
DNA was cut by BamHI, then which of the correct option.
following is the preferred restriction enzyme to Column-I Column-II
cut pBR322?
a. Louis Pasteur (i) Chemical
(1) EcoRI
evolution theory
(2) PstI
b. Early Greek thinkers (ii) Inheritance of
(3) BamHI acquired
(4) SalI characters
181. Complete the analogy w.r.t. method of gene c. Oparin and Haldane (iii) Disapproved
transfer and the most suitable host cell for it spontaneous
Microinjection : Animal cell :: Biolistics:______ generation
Select the correct option. theory

(1) Bacteria d. Lamarck (iv) Cosmozoic

(2) Plant cell theory

(3) Bacteriophage (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(4) Fungal cell (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

182. Read the following statements and choose the

SECTION-B
correct option.
Statement (A): In gel electrophoresis, the most 186. Read the following statements (a) to (d) w.r.t.
commonly used matrix is agar. normal adult human and choose the option with
Statement (B): Agar is a natural polymer only correct statements.
extracted from sea weeds. (a) Interstitial spaces of testis contain Leydig
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct cells and other immunologically competent
cells.
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(b) Testes are situated inside the abdominal
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
(4) Only statement (B) is correct
(c) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low
183. Select the set of animals showing convergent temperature necessary for spermatogenesis.
evolution with respect to each other.
(d) Each lobule of testis contains 250
(1) Koala and Bandicoot seminiferous tubules in which sperms are
(2) Tiger cat and Tasmanian Wolf produced.
(3) Lemur and Spotted cuscus (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)

(4) Bobcat and Flying squirrel (3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)

187. Select the incorrect match . 192. A woman is 20 weeks pregnant but, due to some
unforeseen circumstances is in a need of an
(1) Porifers – Body with pores
and canals in MTP.
walls Select the incorrect statement from the following
regarding the procedure, validity and
(2) Coelenterates – Presence of
cnidoblasts requirements for this MTP.
(1) It is valid if the unborn child has a risk of
(3) Platyhelminthes – Flat body and
physical or mental abnormalities.
suckers
(2) Needs the opinion and go ahead from only
(4) Arthropods – Chitinous
one registered medical practitioner
exoskeleton,
comb plates (3) It is valid if the pregnant woman is at the risk
of a grave physical injury
188. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option. (4) It helps in reducing maternal mortality and
morbidity if continuation of pregnancy can
Column-I Column-II
cause harm to mother
a. Prawn (i) Presence of mantle 193. The milk from ‘Rosie’ was more nutritionally
b. Apple snail (ii) Statocyst is present balanced as, it was enriched with

c. King crab (iii) Presence of jointed (1) Human beta-lactalbumin

appendages (2) Human alpha-lactalbumin

d. Cockroach (iv) Considered as living (3) Bovine protein

fossil (4) Human gamma-lactalbumin

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 194. Arrange the given layers in the order of their
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) occurrence as the doctor cuts through the skull to
reach the brain.
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
a. Pia mater
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
b. Dura mater
189. A person with blood group ‘A–’ has suffered much
blood loss in an accident and needs immediate c. Arachnoid mater
blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once (1) b → a → c
offers his blood. What was the blood group of the
(2) b → c → a
donor?
(1) O– (2) AB+ (3) a → b → c

(3) B– (4) A+ (4) c → a → b

190. Which of the following is not supported by 195. The thyroid gland is composed of____ and____.
incomplete cartilaginous rings? Select the option that correctly fills the blanks
(1) Trachea (2) Primary bronchi respectively.
(3) Alveoli (4) Tertiary bronchi (1) Follicles, stromal tissue
191. Antennal glands perform the excretory function in (2) Ducts, follicles
(1) Periplaneta (2) Prawn (3) Cartilage, cortex
(3) Pavo (4) Pheretima (4) Cortex, medulla

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CST-3 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

196. Read the statements given below w.r.t common (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
cold. correct explanation of (A)
(a) Infection by Rhino virus is the reason for it (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(b) Infects the nose and respiratory passage correct explanation of (A)
except lungs (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Usually last for 3-7 days (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Can transmit through sharing of 199. How many statements given below are correct
contaminated objects such as pens, books w.r.t. plasmids?
etc.
(a) They float freely in the cytoplasm of certain
(e) Can be treated by antibiotics as they kill bacterial cells.
viruses
(b) They have ability to replicate independent of
How many of the above statements are the genomic DNA.
incorrect?
(c) Herbert Boyer developed a method of
(1) One removing and reinserting them in the cells.
(2) Two (d) They are circular ssDNA molecules.
(3) Three
Select the correct option.
(4) Four
(1) Three
197. For the nomenclature of enzymes, a four digit
(2) Four
enzyme commission number is assigned to each
(3) Two
enzyme, where the Ist digit represents
(4) One
(1) Class
(2) Sub-class 200. Which of the following can act as selectable
markers in a cloning vector?
(3) Sub-subclass
(a) ampR (b) tetR
(4) Individual enzyme
(c) ori (d) rop
198. Assertion (A): Adaptive ability is inherited.
Select the correct option.
Reason (R): Individuals having heritable and
useful variations reproduce better and leave (1) (a) and (b)
more progeny. (2) (c) and (d)
In the light of above statements, select the (3) (a), (c) and (d)
correct answer from the following options. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

❑ ❑ ❑

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 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 3 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers

1. (2) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (4) 161. (4)

2. (4) 42. (2) 82. (3) 122. (4) 162. (2)
3. (3) 43. (3) 83. (3) 123. (4) 163. (2)
4. (4) 44. (4) 84. (2) 124. (4) 164. (4)
5. (3) 45. (4) 85. (1) 125. (2) 165. (3)
6. (2) 46. (2) 86. (4) 126. (1) 166. (1)
7. (1) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (2) 167. (4)
8. (3) 48. (3) 88. (4) 128. (4) 168. (3)
9. (2) 49. (1) 89. (3) 129. (2) 169. (3)
10. (3) 50. (2) 90. (3) 130. (4) 170. (4)
11. (3) 51. (2) 91. (1) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (2) 52. (2) 92. (1) 132. (4) 172. (3)
13. (1) 53. (2) 93. (3) 133. (3) 173. (2)
14. (3) 54. (1) 94. (4) 134. (2) 174. (3)
15. (2) 55. (3) 95. (3) 135. (1) 175. (2)
16. (3) 56. (3) 96. (1) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (2) 57. (2) 97. (4) 137. (2) 177. (1)
18. (4) 58. (3) 98. (3) 138. (3) 178. (3)
19. (4) 59. (2) 99. (1) 139. (4) 179. (1)
20. (3) 60. (4) 100. (4) 140. (2) 180. (3)
21. (1) 61. (1) 101. (3) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (1) 62. (3) 102. (2) 142. (4) 182. (4)
23. (4) 63. (4) 103. (4) 143. (4) 183. (3)
24. (3) 64. (4) 104. (2) 144. (3) 184. (2)
25. (3) 65. (1) 105. (2) 145. (3) 185. (1)
26. (2) 66. (1) 106. (1) 146. (1) 186. (3)
27. (1) 67. (2) 107. (4) 147. (1) 187. (4)
28. (3) 68. (3) 108. (3) 148. (2) 188. (4)
29. (3) 69. (1) 109. (4) 149. (1) 189. (1)
30. (2) 70. (4) 110. (3) 150. (4) 190. (3)
31. (3) 71. (3) 111. (1) 151. (1) 191. (2)
32. (3) 72. (2) 112. (3) 152. (4) 192. (2)
33. (1) 73. (4) 113. (2) 153. (3) 193. (2)
34. (1) 74. (1) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194. (2)
35. (2) 75. (3) 115. (1) 155. (3) 195. (1)
36. (4) 76. (1) 116. (2) 156. (3) 196. (1)
37. (2) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (1) 197. (1)
38. (2) 78. (4) 118. (3) 158. (2) 198. (1)
39. (2) 79. (2) 119. (2) 159. (4) 199. (3)
40. (4) 80. (2) 120. (3) 160. (3) 200. (1)

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CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 3 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION - A 5. Answer (3)

1. Answer (2) From FBD of body
15 – 8 To just move up
I= = 14 mA
0.5  103
F = (2gsin30° + sN); N = (2gcos30°)
8
IL = = 8 mA
103
ID = I – IL = 6 mA
2. Answer (4)
Reading = MSR + VSR × (Least count)
= 3.7 cm + 6 × 0.01 cm
= 3.76 cm
3. Answer (3)  1  3 3
Fmin =  2  9.8   +   2  9.8  
 
2   10 2 
1 1 1
= = 
 e ( ne e + nh h ) ne ee = 9.8 + 5.09 = 14.89 N

1 1 6. Answer (2)
ne = =
ee 1.5  1.6  10 –19  0.14 Q1 = 1000 cal
= 2.97 ×1019 m–3 W=?
2
From nenh = ni T1 = 827 + 273 = 1100 K

(1.5  10 ) 16
2 T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
nh = = 0.756  10
13
W T T – T2
2.97  1019 = = 1– 2 = 1
Q1 T1 T1
nh  7.6 ×1012 m–3
4. Answer (4) T1 – T2
W = Q1 
T1
 R 2C  RC  M0L0 T 
 
 = =
 L  L M0L0 T   1100 – 300 
= 1000  
 R     = 727.27 cal
 1100 

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

7. Answer (1) • For

3
( KE )trans = nRT
 1 1
2 P2 = (  – 1)  +  = P
3 R R
=  2  8.31 300
2 • For
= 7.48 × 103 J
P3 = P + P = 2P
8. Answer (3)
Variation of density with depth is given by
• For

 =
 P  1 1
1 −  P4 = (  – 1)  + 
 B  R R 
Here P = 5P0 – P0 = 4P0 P4 = P
 B 12. Answer (2)
 = =
 4P0  ( B − 4P0 ) The eye is not able to see objects closer than
1 − 
 B  50 cm because the eye is not able to decrease
9. Answer (2) the focal length beyond a limit.

 H B 6 13. Answer (1)

r = = = =
0 0 H 0 H 4  10 –7  H 1 2 1 2
KE = kA – kx
2 2
Here H = 3 ×103 A m–1
6 1 2
 r = =
6
 104 = 5000 P.E = kx
2
4  10–7  3  103 12
KE = 3 P.E
10. Answer (3)
P=V×I 1 2 1 2 1
kA – kx = 3 kx 2
 2500 = Vp ×10 2 2 2
 Vp =250 volt A2
x2 =
Vs Ns 4
=
Vp Np A
x= = 10 cm
2
1000 Ns
= 14. Answer (3)
250 200
B cos = 4 × 10–4 T
 NS = 800
3
11. Answer (3) tan  =
4
1 1 1
 = (  – 1)  +   = 37°
f R R 
B cos37° = 4 × 10–4
2 (  – 1)
P= B = 5 × 10–4 T
R
Bv = B sin37°

• For 3
= 5  10 –4 
5
(  – 1) = 3 ×10–4 T
P1 =
R emf = Bvlv
P = 3 ×10–4 × 0.5 × 10 × 10–2
P1 =
2
= 15 V
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CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

15. Answer (2) 19. Answer (4)

Total work = change in kinetic energy
1
eV = mv 2
2
2eV
v=
m
 2e 
v 2 =  V
m

Li = – Mvaiˆ

Lf = Mvaiˆ

L = 2Mvaiˆ
16. Answer (3) 20. Answer (3)
Limiting coefficient of friction for
k2
2
tan 
Solid sphere = R
k2
1+ 2
R
Rnet = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 
2
tan  21. Answer (1)
= 5
2 Rate of heat produced in the wire = i2R
1+
5 l
= i 2
2 r 2
= tan 
7 Rate of heat produced in the wire = Rate of heat
Given coefficient of friction is more than required convected/radiated out of the wire
to pure roll, therefore, it will start pure rolling. i2R = hAT ( A = 2rl)
17. Answer (2)
i2  r3
Area of a – t graph on time axis = change in
3
velocity
i r2
 adt = v f – vi 22. Answer (1)
2
0 adt = vmax – 0
At 2 s, particle has maximum speed.
18. Answer (4)
The maximum distance covered by bullets from
point of projection will act as radius of circular
area
u2
R =
g
2
 u2 
 A =  
 g
Resultant force will act along northeast direction.  

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

23. Answer (4) 1

dx
t
 =  dt
 let the mass of planet and satellite be M and m 10 x
0 0
respectively
2
GMm t = s
 = m02 r 10
r2
26. Answer (2)
 Acceleration due to gravity on surface of
 Energy of ionisation =13.6 Z2
planet g p = ( ) GM
R2
 (EH) = 13.6 eV
 (ELi2+) = 13.6 ×32 (Z = 3 for Li+2)
2
g pR m = 9(EH)
 = m02 r
r2 27. Answer (1)

02 r 3
1
= (to decay 63%)
gp = T
R2
1
24. Answer (3) =
10
vmax A
= 0.693 0.693
v A2 T1/2 = =
 A − 2  1
4 10
v0 A  T1/2 = 7 seconds
=
v 3 28. Answer (3)
A
( )
2 2
 1
 = i A  B = 8    5  sin90
3 2
v= v
2 0 = 10 N m
25. Answer (3)   = I
T As the rotation is about axis which is in plane of
 V= ( = mass per unit length)
 MR 2
ring so I →
Considering an element of length x from bottom 2
 MR 2 
= 
 2 
 
 1
 1 
10 =  4  
 2 
 = 80  rad/s2
29. Answer (3)
Tension, T = xg = 0.001 × x × 10 Charge on an object doesn’t change with speed.
x It is relativistically invariable.
T = 30. Answer (2)
100
kq1q2
x F=
100 = 10 x
r2
v=
1 9  109  15  10 –13
= N
1000 2
 1
2

dx
= 10 x  
dt = 36 × 15 ×10–4 N = 5.4 × 10–2 N

(5)
CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

31. Answer (3) SECTION-B

30 36. Answer (4)
Final KE = (Initial KE)
100 E(t) = A2e–t = A2e–0.1t
1 3 1 taking loge on both sides
 mv f2 =  mv i2
2 10 2 ln[E(t)] = 2ln A – 0.1t
3 On differentiating both sides, we get
 (150 )
2
 v f2 =
10 E (t ) 2A
= – 0.1t
 vf  82.16 m/s E (t ) A
32. Answer (3) For maximum percentage error
n11.D n2 2.D E (t )  A   t 
=   100 = 2   100  + 0.1t    100 
d d E (t )  A   t 
n1 2 = 2 + 0.4 = 2.4%
 n11 = n2  2  =
n2 1 37. Answer (2)
Given, IE = 10 mA
n1
5600 4
 = = IB = 0.1 mA
n2 7000 5
Therefore, IC = IE – IB = 9.9 mA
i.e., n1 = 4 and n2 = 5
Ic 9.9
n1·1.D So,  = = = 99
distance from central maximum = IB 0.1
d
Rout
4  7000  10 –10  120  10 –2 Now voltage gain (Av) = (current gain) ×
= Rin
1 10 –3
= 28 × 12 ×10–5 = 99 × 50 = 4950
= 336 × 10–5 m 38. Answer (2)
= 0.336 cm m Let acceleration of blocks be a & T is tension in
the string
33. Answer (1)
2 2
k= = = 2094.4 m–1
 3  10 –3

c=   = 3  108  2094.4
k
= 6283.2 ×108 For 2 kg block
= 6.28 × 1011 T – 10 = 2 × a
= 6.3 ×1011 rad/s For 3 kg Block
6.3  1011 3g–T=3a
f =
2 Adding equations; 3 g – 10 = (3 + 2)a
34. Answer (1) 30 – 10 20
a = = = 4 m s–2
Under the steady state heat flow condition, the 5 5
temperature of a rod having uniform cross-
for motion of 3 kg block
section changes with position but no change with
time. 1
s = ut + at 2
35. Answer (2) 2
Since the rod is fixed between rigid immovable 1
walls hence thermal strain is equal to longitudinal 4 =0+  4  t2
2
strain.
42 8
Longitudinal strain = T = 12 × 10–6 × 50 t2 = = =2
4 4
= 600 ×10–6
t= 2 s
= 6 × 10–4

(6)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

39. Answer (2) R

tan  =
When supply frequency is equal to natural d
frequency circuit resonates R = dtan
Z = R = 20 
d
=
(VRMS )
2
(160 )2
2 – 1
Pav = = = 1.28 kW
R 20 A = R2
40. Answer (4)
 d 2 
(A) Wab = area under P-V curve  2 
  – 1
 P + 2P0  3P0V0
=  0   2V0 – V0  = A = 4d2
 2  2
d 2
3P0V0 9 = 4d 2
(B) Uab = Qab – Wab = 6P0V0 – = P0V0 2 – 1
2 2
Q 6P0V0 42 – 4 = 
(C) C = =
n T P V PV  +4
n b b – a a  2 =
 nR nR  4
6P0V0  R
= = 2R +4
=
2P0  2V0 – P0V0  2
U 4.5P0V0 43. Answer (3)
(D) Cv = = = 1.5 R
n T P V PV  hc
n b b – a a  = w + KE
 nR nR  
41. Answer (4) hc
KE = –w
=I 
 = mg × R 1 hc – w 
mv 2 =
= 5 × 10 × 0.5 = 25 N m 2 
 25 2 ( hc – w  )
I= = = 2.5 kg m2 v=
 10 m
42. Answer (2) 44. Answer (4)
According to Bernoulli's theorem
1 2
p+ v + gh = constant
2
v2 + 2gh = c
By continuity equation;
1 flowrate ‘Q’ = Av = constant
sin  =


A = (A0 – kx)

1 Q2
tan  = + 2gh = c
( A0 – kx )
2
 –1
2

(7)
CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

Variation of liquid column with distance x. 0 i

Bw = 
2 d
2
2
20 i
Bnet = 
2d
48. Answer (3)
Applying energy conservation
45. Answer (4)
Ei = Ef
1 GMm –GMm
 mv 2 – = 0+
2 R (R + h )

v2 gR 2
 – gR = –
2 (R + h )
–1
 2gR 
 h = R  2 – 1
 v 
49. Answer (1)

( )
Speed at x = 1  v = 8 12 = 8 ms–1
3

Speed at x = 4  v = 8 ( 4 ) = 64 ms
3
2 –1

q2 Now, work done = k

U=
2C = kf – ki
1
( )
2
q  = m v f2 – v i2
  1  q2  U 2
U =  2  =  =
2C 4  2C  4 1 ( 2
=  5 64 – 82 )
2
46. Answer (2)
K = 10080 joule
 l  50. Answer (2)
Internal resistance of cell(r) = R  1 – 1
 l 2 
yd n n D
For bright fringe, = y= 

 
240 D   d
=2 – 1 = 2
120 6 D
Sixth bright fringe = 
 d
47. Answer (2)
3 D
Third bright fringe = 
 d
 Distance between sixth and third bright fringe
6 D 3 D 3 D
= – =
 d  d  d

3  6300  10 –10 1.5

= 
0 i 1.5 1 10–3
Bw = 
1  d  = 63 × 3 × 10–5
2  
 2 = 1.89 mm

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A = 100 + im (K b + K f )
51. Answer (2)
1 1000
Refractive index is an intensive property. = 100 + 2  ( 0.52 + 1.86 )
40  99
52. Answer (2)
= 101.2
Co(en)2 ClBr  Cl  x + 2(0) + ( −1) + ( −1) + ( −1) = 0 60. Answer (4)
x=+3
53. Answer (2)
• Carbon atom forming one  and three  bonds
is sp2 hybridised.
• Carbon atom forming two  and two  bonds 4-Bromo-1-chloro-3-methylcyclohexane
is sp hybridised. 61. Answer (1)
54. Answer (1) Above reaction will undergo SN2 mechanism
Pepsin found in stomach converts proteins into which will give inverted product which is known as
amino acids. Walden inversion.
55. Answer (3)
Ea
−
k = Ae RT

Ea 1
lnk = ln A − 62. Answer (3)
R T
Since NH3 can form hydrogen bonding, it will have
1 −Ea maximum intermolecular interaction hence will
 Slope of lnk Vs is
T R give maximum deviation from ideal behaviour.
56. Answer (3) 63. Answer (4)
+
Due to complex formation i.e.,  Ag (NH3 )  the Since Sc3+ has no d electrons therefore, will not
 2 show d–d transition hence will be colourless.
solubility of AgCl is maximum in 0.1 M NH4OH.
64. Answer (4)
57. Answer (2)
Chlorine water on standing loses its yellow colour
For minimum molar mass, atomicity of nitrogen due to the formation of HCl and HOCl.
should be one
65. Answer (1)
Atomic mass × atomicity
% Composition =  100 2Pb (NO3 ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
673 K
→ 4NO2 + 2PbO + O2
Molar mass 2

14  1 66. Answer (1)

0.7 =  100
m • NaBH4 reduces aldehydes but does not
m = 2000 u reduces esters
58. Answer (3)
Osmotic pressure measured at room temperature
conditions so proteins molecules remain intact. •
59. Answer (2)
Tb − Tf = (100 + Tb ) − ( 0 − Tf )

= 100 + Tb + Tf

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CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

67. Answer (2) 72. Answer (2)

Eka – aluminium = Gallium
Eka – silicon = Germanium
73. Answer (4)
The stability of peroxide increases with increase in
size of cation because of stabilisation of large
anion by large cation through lattice energy affects
the stability.
74. Answer (1)

• o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be

separated using steam distillation.
68. Answer (3) 75. Answer (3)
When the pH of rain water drops below 5.6, it is
acid rain.
76. Answer (1)
• NaH: Ionic or saline hydride
• CrH: Metallic hydride
• HF: Electron-rich hydride
• CH4: Electron-precise hydride
77. Answer (3)
German Silver: Cu(25–30%), Zn(25–30%), Ni(40–
50%)
78. Answer (4)
MnO−4 + 8H+ + 5e− ⎯⎯→ Mn2+ + 4H2O
79. Answer (2)
69. Answer (1) In Na2O, O2– Ions form CCP arrangement and Na+
ions occupy all the tetrahedral sites, So
In elastomers, the polymer chains are held
coordination number of Na+ ion is 4 and that of O2–
together by the weak intermolecular forces. ions is 8.
70. Answer (4) 80. Answer (2)
Alitame has 2000 times more sweetness value in 1
H+ (aq) + e− → H2 (g)
comparison to sucrose. 2
71. Answer (3) 1

• Energy of an orbital increases with increase in E = Eo + −

0.0591
log10
(pH2 ) 2
H+ /H2 H /H2 n H+ 
(n + l) value.  
• For same (n + l) value, the orbital with higher
 
‘n’ value has higher energy. 0.0591  1 
=0− log = −0.0591 pH
5p 3d 4s 1  H+  
   
(n + l)  6 5 4 = – 0.0591 × 8 = – 0.4728 V

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

81. Answer (3) 87. Answer (2)

For fcc lattice, W = – Pext (Vf – Vi) = – 2 atm (60 – 10) L
4r = 2a = – 2 atm x 50 L
2a 2 = – 100 L-atm
r= =  440 pm
4 4 88. Answer (4)
r = 155.5 pm 2px + 2py will show zero overlap due to different
82. Answer (3) orientation.
Electron withdrawing group present at o/p position 89. Answer (3)
stabilise the carbanion.
83. Answer (3) KP = KC(RT)ng
Since for the reaction
• 2CH3 CH2COO−Na + (aq) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Electrolysis
→
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl(g)
CH3CH2CH2CH3
ng = 0 therefore, KP = KC
n-Butane

• 2CH3COO−Na+ (aq) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

Electrolysis
→ CH3 − CH3 90. Answer (3)
Ethane

• 0.693
Half-life for first order is equal to therefore,
k
does not-change with time.
• Methane cannot be prepared by this method.
91. Answer (1)
84. Answer (2)
Synthetic soaps is principal emulsifying great of
O/W emulsion.
92. Answer (1)
van der Waals real gas equation
 an 
 P + 2  ( V − nb ) = nRT
 V 
85. Answer (1)
For 1 mol
 a 
 P + 2  ( V − b ) = RT
 V 
a
At very high pressure P 
V2
a
P+ P
V2
P ( V − b ) = RT
SECTION-B
PV Pb
86. Answer (4) − =1
RT RT
Pt (NH3 ) (H2O ) ( en ) Cl Br 
  PV Pb
= 1+ = Z (compressibility factor)
RT RT
93. Answer (3)

• No plane of symmetry hence optically active.

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CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

94. Answer (4) 0.591

Eocell = log(K)
n

log (K c )
0.0591
0.03 =
1
0.03
 dxy, dxz and dyz have zero electron density log K C = = 0.5
0.0591
along the axes.
95. Answer (3) 98. Answer (3)
Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative on Meq of H2SO4 = meq. of NH3
going down the group because size of the atom Meq. of NH3 = 15 × 2 = 30
increases and added electron experiences less Mass of nitrogen in NH3 = 30 × 14 × 10–3
nuclear charge.
Percentage of nitrogen = 30 × 14 × 10–3 × 100
96. Answer (1)
= 42%
• Oxides : O2– : x = – 2
2− 99. Answer (1)
• Peroxides : O2 : 2x = −2  x = −1
Terminal alkynes contain acidic hydrogen. These
1 compounds liberate H2 gas on reaction with Na
• Superoxides : O2− : 2x = −1  x = −
2 metal.

• Dioxygen : O2 : 2x = 0  x = 0 1
CH3 − C  CH + Na ⎯→ CH3 − C  CΘNa + + H2
2
97. Answer (4)
100. Answer (4)
EoCell = Eo + − Eo 3+ 2+
Ag / Ag Fe /Fe The compound which does not contain
= 0.8 – 0.77 enolisable hydrogen will not show keto enol
tautomerism.
= 0.03 V

BOTANY
SECTION - A 106. Answer (1)
101. Answer (3) Dinoflagellates have cell wall with stiff cellulose
Abscisic acid stimulates the closure of stomata in plates on outer surface.
the epidermis and thus increases the tolerance of 107. Answer (4)
plants to various kinds of stresses.
Sexual reproduction is seen in Agaricus. Morels
102. Answer (2) and truffles are sac fungi.
In Bryophyllum, adventitious buds arise from the
108. Answer (3)
notches present at margins of leaves and help in
vegetative propagation. Couples with blood group AB and O respectively
cannot have child with blood group O. They can
103. Answer (4)
have child with blood group A and B only.
Inner wall of pollen grain is called intine and it is
thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose 109. Answer (4)
and pectin.
104. Answer (2)
Cyclosporin A is used as an immunosuppressive
agent in organ transplant patients. It is produced
by fungusTrichoderma polysporum.
105. Answer (2)
Three domain system divideds kingdom Monera
into two domains Archaea and Bacteria.
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

110. Answer (3) 121. Answer (4)

Gynaecomastia i.e., male with feminine Broad leaves are not seen in plants of arid regions
characteristics is feature of Klinefelter syndrome. because they have to reduce the rate of
transpiration.
111. Answer (1)
122. Answer (4)
When cell is placed in an isotonic solution the
water flows into the cell and out of the cell are in In abandoned farm lands secondary succession
equilibrium. takes place.

112. Answer (3) 123. Answer (4)

The leaking membrane would let protons diffuse
Species of Sphagnum provide peat that has been
into stroma, destroying the proton gradient.
used as fuel and as packing material for trans-
Because ATP synthesis is powered by proton
shipment of living material.
gradient, the damage prevents ATP synthesis.
113. Answer (2)
The absorption of sunlight, the reduction of
The zygote develops into young embryo within the NADP+, and the movement of electrons from
female gametophyte that remains on parent PS-II to PS-I do not require a proton gradient
sporophyte for variable periods. This event which between stroma and the thylakoid lumen.
is precursor to seed habit is seen in some 124. Answer (4)
members of Pteridophyta.
The central dogma of molecular biology states that
114. Answer (3) DNA is transcribed to mRNA, which is translated
Manganese inhibits calcium translocation in shoot to protein.
apex. It also competes with iron for uptake and 125. Answer (2)
with magnesium for binding with enzymes. AMP (Adenosine monophosphate) is an RNA
115. Answer (1) nucleotide.
During anaphase, centromere split and 126. Answer (1)
chromatids separate. Nucleosome consists of about 200 bp of DNA
116. Answer (2) wrapped around histone octamer.
The number of chromosomes remain the same 127. Answer (2)
during G1, S and G2 phase of cell cycle. To produce a mature mRNA, introns are removed
117. Answer (2) from the sequence. The remaining segments are
exons, which codes for protein. Once the introns
Filamentous fungi and protonema of mosses
are removed, the exons are joined together to
easily multiply by fragmentation. Unicellular make mature mRNA.
organisms do not multiply by fragmentation.
128. Answer (4)
118. Answer (3)
As we move from lower to higher altitudes, the
In handwritten name of Panthera leo, both words biodiversity decreases.
should be underlined separately. Biodiversity is minimum in arctic region, moderate
119. Answer (2) in temperate areas and maximum in tropical
A is pyruvic acid. It is 3C compound. It produces regions.
acetyl CoA during aerobic respiration but lactic 129. Answer (2)
acid and ethanol during fermentation. Pistia, is an aquatic plant which has lateral
120. Answer (3) branches called offsets.
Superior hybrid progeny is self-pollinated for 130. Answer (4)
several generations till they reach a state of The given floral diagram is of family Brassicaceae.
homozygosity so that characters will not In their flowers, gynoecium is bicarpellary and
segregate in the progeny. ovary is superior.

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CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

131. Answer (2) 140. Answer (2)

The companion cells are specialised Prions are similar in size to viruses.
parenchymatous cells which are closely 141. Answer (3)
associated with sieve tube elements.
Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is by
132. Answer (4) biflagellated zoospores that are pear-shaped and
The vascular cambium which is completely have two unequally laterally attached flagella.
secondary in origin develops from the tissues
142. Answer (4)
located just below the phloem and above the
Root pressure is a positive pressure which is
protoxylem.
responsible for pushing up water to small heights
133. Answer (3)
in the stem. It is observable at night and early
Mitochondria is the site of aerobic respiration. The morning.
cristae of this organelle increase the surface area
143. Answer (4)
for enzymatic work. Mesosome in prokaryotes
also help in respiration and increase the surface Pyramid of number is upright in grassland
area. ecosystem. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
Pyramid of biomass is inverted in pond
134. Answer (2)
ecosystem.
Polymerisation of amino acids is done by
144. Answer (3)
ribosome on mRNA by the process of translation.
Modification of proteins and formation of In amensalism, one species is harmed and other
glycoproteins and glycolipids occur in Golgi species is neither harmed nor benefited.
apparatus. 145. Answer (3)
135. Answer (1) Core zone of biosphere reserve comprises an
The two membranes of the nucleus are separated undisturbed and legally protected ecosystem.
by a space known as perinuclear space. 146. Answer (1)
SECTION-B National forest policy (1988) of India has
recommended 33% of forest cover for plains and
136. Answer (3)
67% for hills.
In plants, natural cytokinins are synthesised in the
region where rapid cell division occurs. 147. Answer (1)

Cytokinin help to overcome the apical dominance According to CPCB, particulate size 2.5 m or less
and it promote nutrient mobilization which help in in diameter are responsible for causing greatest
the delay of leaf senescence. harm to human health.
137. Answer (2) 148. Answer (2)
In primary treatment, sedimentation and filtration Rhizophora grows in swampy areas. In this plant,
of solid particle will occur. many roots come out of the ground and grow
In secondary treatment or biological treatment, vertically upwards. These roots are called
flocs are formed with the help of aerobic bacteria. pneumatophores.

Tertiary treatment is a physico-chemical process 149. Answer (1)

in which ozone gas or chlorine gas is used to In dicot leaves, stomata are usually more in
remove pollutants. number on lower epidermis whereas in monocot
138. Answer (3) leaves, stomata are in equal number on lower and
upper epidermis.
Plant with colorful flower, sticky pollens and with
pleasant odour and nectar is most likely to be 150. Answer (4)
pollinated by insects. The flattened membranous sacs in the stroma of
139. Answer (4) chloroplast are called thylakoids. A stack of
Grasshopper shows male heterogamety. thylakoids is called granum.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 161. Answer (4)
151. Answer (1)
Both neural signals from sympathetic nerves and
• The nasal cavity leads to the pharynx, an adrenal medullary hormones increase the heart
intersection where the paths for air and food
beat rate.
cross.
162. Answer (2)
• Larynx is a cartilaginous box which helps in
sound production and hence, called the sound Coronary circulation is the circulation of blood in
box. the blood vessels that supply the heart muscles.
152. Answer (4) 163. Answer (2)
Hydra uses its tentacles for capturing its prey and
Taenia – Organ level of organisation
also use them for locomotion.
153. Answer (3) Pheretima – Organ-system level of organisation
Passage of ova through female reproductive tract Sycon – Cellular level of organisation
is facilitated by the ciliary movement.
154. Answer (2) Obelia – Tissue level of organisation

Protonephridia or flame cells are excretory 164. Answer (4)

structures in Platyhelminthes, rotifers, some Bilateral symmetry is shown by animals placed in
annelids and cephalochordates for e.g.,
phylum Platyhelminthes to Chordata except adult
Amphioxus. Protonephridia are primarily
echinoderms and certain molluscs.
concerned with ionic and fluid volume regulation
i.e., osmoregulation. 165. Answer (3)
155. Answer (3) Exocoetus – Marine bony fish
Dairying is the management of animals for milk
and its products for human consumption. Trygon – Cartilaginous marine fish
156. Answer (3) Salamandra – Tympanum represents ear
‘A’ is hepato-pancreatic duct, which contains Aptenodytes – Air sacs connected to lungs
pancreatic juice and bile. Nucleotidases are
present in intestinal juice. 166. Answer (1)
157. Answer (1) In metazoans, cell division is responsible for
The hepatic lobules are the structural and multiplication of cells and growth of the body. In
functional unit of liver containing hepatic cells unicellular organisms, cell division is itself a mode
arranged in the form of cords. of reproduction.
158. Answer (2) 167. Answer (4)
Biceps have skeletal muscle fibres bundled
Placenta delivers after the delivery of infant.
together in a parallel fashion.
Oxytocin is mainly responsible for uterine
159. Answer (4)
contractions during parturition.
Hind wings (metathoracic wings) are transparent,
membranous and are used in flight. 168. Answer (3)

160. Answer (3) Ovaries produce both ova and hormones. A

normal human sperm consists of 4 parts–head,
Corvus (bird) – Double circulation
neck, middle piece and tail.
Aedes (insect) – Open circulation 169. Answer (3)
Calotes (reptile) – Incomplete double The cyclical changes in ovary and uterus during
circulation menstrual cycle are induced by changes in the
Scoliodon (fish) – Single circulation levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones.

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CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

170. Answer (4) 181. Answer (2)

Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow Biolistics or gene gun is suitable for plant cells. In
developed the contraceptive pill named ‘Saheli’. this method, host cells are bombarded with high
velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated
171. Answer (3)
with DNA.
MTP was legalised in the year 1971 in India, and
182. Answer (4)
it was amended in the year 2017.
The most commonly used matrix in gel
172. Answer (3) electrophoresis is agarose.
Biopiracy is usually inflicted on financially poor, 183. Answer (3)
but biodiversity rich nations.
Australian marsupials and placental mammals in
173. Answer (2) Australia are examples of adaptive radiation.
Both nose and tongue detects dissolved Lemur (placental mammal) and spotted cuscus
chemicals. (Australian marsupial) show convergent evolution
with respect to each other.
174. Answer (3)
184. Answer (2)
Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act
as intercellular messengers and are produced in Stabilising/Normalising More individuals
trace amounts. selection acquire mean
character value.
175. Answer (2)
Disruptive selection More individuals
Most parasites are pathogens as they cause harm
acquire peripheral
to the host.
character value at
Pathogens can enter human body by various both ends of the
means causing functional and morphological distribution curve.
damage. They multiply and interfere with normal
185. Answer (1)
vital activities.
Louis Pasteur disproved spontaneous generation
176. Answer (2)
theory. Early Greek thinkers thought units of life
Typhoid fever can be diagnosed by Widal test. called spores were transferred to different planets
177. Answer (1) including earth.

Transferases catalyse the transfer of specific Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first form of
groups other than hydrogen between a pair of life could have come from pre-existing non-living
organic molecules and that formation of life was
substrate for e.g. Kinase, Transaminase. Amylase
preceded by chemical evolution. “Inheritance of
is a hydrolase.
acquired character” was important point of
178. Answer (3) Lamarckism theory.
Ligase – DNA ligase SECTION-B
Lyase – Carbonic anhydrase
186. Answer (3)
Oxidoreductase – Peroxidase
Testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity.
Hydrolase – Lipase Each testis contains about 250 lobules and each
179. Answer (1) lobule contains one to three highly coiled
seminiferous tubules.
GLUT-4 enables glucose transport into the cells.
187. Answer (4)
180. Answer (3)
Chitinous exoskeleton and presence of jointed
To create recombinant vector, one should cut the appendages are characteristic features of
vector and the source DNA with the same arthropods. Comb plates are locomotary
restriction enzyme. structures present in ctenophores.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

188. Answer (4) 194. Answer (2)

Prawn – Statocyst is present Cranial meninges are present between the skull
as balancing organ and the brain.
195. Answer (1)
Apple snail – Presence of mantle
Each thyroid follicle is composed of follicular cells,
over hump
enclosing a cavity.
King crab – Considered as living 196. Answer (1)
fossil
Antibiotics are effective against bacterial
Cockroach – Presence of jointed diseases.
appendages 197. Answer (1)
189. Answer (1) A four digit enzyme commission number is
assigned to each enzyme.
‘A–‘ person can receive blood from a person
having either A– or O– blood group. 1st digit – Class
190. Answer (3) 2nd digit – Sub-class
The trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary 3rd digit – Sub-subclass
bronchi and initial bronchioles are supported by
4th digit – Individual enzyme
incomplete cartilaginous rings.
191. Answer (2) 198. Answer (1)

Antennal glands or green glands perform the There must be a genetic basis for getting selected
and to evolve.
excretory function in crustaceans like prawns.
199. Answer (3)
192. Answer (2)
Stanley Cohen developed a method of removing
When a pregnancy has lasted more than 12
plasmids from the cell and then reinserting them
weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, two registered in other cells. Plasmids are circular dsDNA
medical practitioners must be of the opinion that molecules.
the required grounds exist for MTP.
200. Answer (1)
193. Answer (2)
Selectable marker genes like ampR and tetR genes
Human alpha-lactalbumin is a human protein help in identification and selection of
which is more balanced for human babies. transformants.

❑ ❑ ❑

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