Radiotelephony

Chapter – 08 VFR Quest i on s

PAPER – 1

1. An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as:

a) Fifteen hundred feet

b) Wun tousand fife hundred feet
c) Wun fife hundred feet
d) Wun fife zero zero feet

2. Using the readability scale, readability 4 means:

a) Readable
b) Readable with difficulty
c) Readable with background noise
d) Unreadable

3. `ORBIT RIGHT' means:

a) Turn right to avoid other traffic

b) Continue to make right hand turn until advised
c) Make a 360° turn to the right
d) Right hand circuits in use

4. The frequency used for the first transmission of a `MAYDAY' call should be:

a) The distress frequency 121.5 MHz

b) The frequency currently in use
c) Any international distress frequency
d) Approach frequency of the nearest airfield

5. `STANDBY' means:

a) Wait and I will call you again

b) Selected STANDBY on the SSR Transponder
c) Hold your present position
d) Continue on present heading and listen out
7. `SQUAWK 1234' means:

a) Count up to 4 for test purposes

b) Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
c) Select this code on the SSR transponder
d) Transmit for a VDF bearing

8. The phrase 'take-off s used by a pilot:

a) Only to acknowledge take-off clearance

b) Never. It is used only by a ground station
c) Only to request immediate clearance
d) After the aircraft is airborne

9. The Q code for the measurement of altitude is:

a) QFE
b) QFF
c) QNE
d) QNH

10. `VACATE RIGHT' means:

a) Continue right to the end of the runway

b) Clear the runway immediately
c) Take the next runway exit on the right
d) Turn right after take-off

11. A Blind Transmission is:

a) A transmission of information relating to the safety of air navigation that is not

addressed to a specific station or stations
b) A transmission from an aircraft to obtain VDF guidance to descend from the initial
approach altitude to a position from which an approach can be completed visually
c) A transmission from an aeronautical station to all aircraft on its frequency
d) A transmission made in circumstances where two-way communications cannot be
established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission

12. `VERIFY' means:

a) Repeat your last transmission

b) Check and confirm your last message
c) Read back VDF bearing
d) Confirm your last messag
13. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC that he cannot carry out he should use the
phrase:

a) UNABLE TO COMPLY
b) NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION
c) NO CAN DO
d) CANCEL INSTRUCTION

14. A class `B' VDF bearing is accurate to within:

a) ± 2°
b) ± 3°
c) ± 5°
d) ± I°

15. `GO AROUND' means:

a) Overtake the aircraft ahead

b) Make a 360° turn
c) Taxi past the aircraft on the holding point
d) Carry out a missed approach

16. On hearing a Distress message a pilot must:

a) Acknowledge the message immediately and standby to relay further messages if

required
b) Maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance is provided
c) Change frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use
d) Take control of the situation and co-ordinate the efforts of all agencies in the
rescue operation

17. A pilot may abbreviate his aircraft callsign only:

a) After having established communication with an aeronautical ground station on the

frequency in use
b) When he considers no confusion with another similar callsign is likely to occur on
the frequency in use
c) When communicating with the departure and destination airfields
d) If it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical ground station on the frequency
in use

18. A pilot is required to read back:

a) SSR operating instructions, take-off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF

information, frequency changes
b) Altimeter settings, taxi information, terminal weather, runway clearances,
approach aid serviceability
c) Route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxi clearances, runway state
information
d) ATC route clearances, runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual weather
reports
19. The term `aeronautical station' means:

a) An airborne station forming part of the AFTN

b) Any station established to exchange radiotelephony communications
c) a station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board an
aircraft to exchange radiotelephony communications
d) A station in the aeronautical mobile service located on land or, in certain circumstances,
on board a ship or on a platform at sea

20. A DISTRESS message is preceded by the call............................ and would be sent by an aircraft
that is in a condition ..............................
a) Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan of being threatened by imminent danger and of requiring
immediate assistance.
b) Mayday Mayday Mayday concerning the safety of an aircraft but does not require
immediate assistance
c) Pan Pan Pan concerning the safety of an aircraft but does not require immediate
assistance
d) Mayday Mayday Mayday of being threatened by imminent danger and of requiring
immediate assistance

21. The correct pronunciation for the number 2500 when used to pass altitude, height, cloud height or
visibility by radiotelephony is:

a) TWO FIFE ZERO ZERO

b) TOO TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED
c) TWO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
d) TWENTY FIVE HUNDRED

23. What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

a) Emergency and PAN PAN

b) Distress and Urgency
c) MAYDAY and PAN PAN
d) Emergency and Security
24. On a VFR navigation exercise you request a flight information service from an ATSU providing
a LARS. After your initial call, you are invited to "pass your message" which should consist of:

a) Position; Heading; Altitude; Destination; Intention

b) Aircraft identification and type; Estimated position; Heading; Level; Intention; Type of
service required
c) Aircraft identification; Type; Level; Intention; Type of service required
d) Aircraft identification and type; Estimated position; Level; Flight conditions; Type of
service required

25. A Radar Information Service (RIS) is an ATC service:

a) in which the controller will provide radar separation from all other traffic
b) which may only be used by aircraft flying in accordance with the instrument flight
rules
c) in which the controller will inform the pilot of the bearing, distance and, if known, the
altitude of conflicting traffic
d) in which the controller will direct the aircraft to avoid the other traffic
PAPER -2

1. The word ROGER means:

a) that is correct
b) message received and understood
c) pass your message
d) I have received all your last transmission

3. Using the readability scale, readability 5 means:

a) readable now and then

b) unreadable
c) readable with difficulty
d) perfectly readable

4. An Aeronautical Station is defined as:

a) a radio communication service between aircraft stations and ground stations or between
aircraft stations
b) a land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an aeronautical
station may be placed on board a ship or an earth satellite
c) a mobile station in the aeronautical mobile service on board an aircraft
d) a radio station broadcasting aeronautical information

5. A time of 1020 hours is transmitted as:

a) ten twenty hours

b) one zero two zero' or `two zero'
c) one zero two zero
d) ten two zero

6. An altitude of 2400 feet is transmitted as:

a) twenty four hundred feet

b) two four hundred feet
c) two four zero zero feet
d) two thousand four hundred feet
7. The correct pronunciation of the frequency 122.1 MHz when passed by radiotelephony
is:
a) ONE TWO TWO POINT ONE
b) WUN TOO TOO DAYSEEMAL WUN
c) ONE TWO TWO DECIMAL ONE
d) ONE TWENTY TWO DAYSEEMAL ONE

8. When asked by ATC "Are you able to maintain FL 40" the correct reply contains the
phrase:

a) ROGER
b) WILCO
c) NO SIR
d) AFFIRM or NEGATIVE

10. Which of the following is a conditional clearance ?

a) Fastair 345, Line-Up and hold

b) Redwing 42, Take-off at your discretion
c) G-ZZ, Report Final, two ahead
d) G-BOJR, after the Jersey European 146, taxi to holding point D runway 26

11. `SQUAWK IDENT' means:

a) select the SSR transponder code to 7000

b) select the SSR transponder mode to "ALT"
c) say again your callsign
d) operate the SSR transponder "special position identification" feature

12. When requesting a special VFR clearance in flight, ATC must be given details of:

a) callsign, type, position, heading, intentions and ETA at entry point

b) callsign, altitude, heading and ETA at entry point
c) callsign, type, TAS, ETA at entry point and destination
d) callsign, type, intentions and ETA at entry point

13. On a long straight-in approach to land, the call "Long Final"would be made at a range
of.

a) 2 nm
b) 3 nm
c) between 4 nm and 8 nm
d) 25 nm
14. The abbreviation ATIS stands for:

a) Air Traffic Information Service

b) Aircraft Technical Information Service
c) Aerodrome Traffic Information Service
d) Automatic Terminal Information Service

15. URGENCY is defined as a condition:

a) of being threatened by serious and or immediate danger and of requiring immediate

assistance
b) concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or
within sight and requiring immediate assistance
c) concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or
within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance
d) requiring urgent assistance from ground stations

16. The callsign prefix `Tyro' indicates that:

a) this is a practice emergency

b) the aircraft is not in immediate need of assistance
c) the pilot lacks experience
d) the pilot is lost

17. A Class B bearing is accurate to within:

a) ± 5°
b) ± 10°
c) ± 1°
d) ± 2°

18. The frequency 121.5 MHz may be used to practise emergency procedures:

a) including simulated distress or urgency situations

b) not including any simulated distress incident
c) at no time; only the FIS frequency should be used
d) only on dual crew flights

19.
20. ATIS is to be found on:

a) the Approach frequency

b) the Tower frequency
c) a discrete VHF frequency
d) a discrete VHF or a VOR frequency.

21. The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means:

a) press the ident button on the transponder

b) select altitude (ALT) on the transponder
c) confirm the transponder is selected ON
d) select 7700 on the transponder

22. Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

a) CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE TAXIWAY

b) REPORT FINAL NUMBER 1
c) REQUEST QDM
d) TAXI TO THE REFUELLING PUMPS

23. A height of 1250 feet is transmitted as:

a) Wun too fife zero feet

b) Twelve fifty feet
c) One thousand two hundred and five zero feet
d) One thousand two hundred and fifty feet

24. A radar advisory service will:

a) Give you standard separation from all traffic

b) Advise you of possible conflict
c) Give you a radar approach
d) Give you an air traffic control service

25. DAAIS stands for:

a) Dangerous Activity and Interception Service

b) District Aerial Activity Information System
c) Danger Area Activity Information Service
d) Descent And Approach Information System
PAPER -3

1.

2. In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:

a) 7600
b) 7700
c) 7500
d) 7000

4. Your radio check is reported as `Readability 3', your transmission is:

a) unreadable
b) perfectly readable
c) reading only half the time
d) readable but with difficulty

5. The correct order and content of a position report is:

a) callsign, position, level, heading, ETA

b) callsign, position, time, level, next position and ETA
c) callsign, route, position, level, request
d) callsign, position, level, intention and ETA at destination

6. A Pilot may file a flight plan with an ATSU during flight. The frequency that would normally
be used for this purpose is:
a) FIR
b) RADAR
c) APPROACH
d) TOWER
7. The correct RTF call when you are ready to take off is:

a) Roger take-off
b) Request take-off
c) Request departure clearance
d) Ready for departure

8. What is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message?

a) Foxtrot Romeo India - VOR

b) Foxtrot Romeo India - Victor Oscar Romeo
c) Friday - VOR
d) Fox Romeo India - VOR

9. You receive the message "G-ABCD Squawk Ident". You should:

a) select STAND-BY on the SSR transponder

b) select ALT - altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder
c) operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder
d) reply giving your callsign

10. A time of 1300 UTC is transmitted as:

a) one thousand three hundred

b) one three zero zero
c) one three hundred UTC
d) thirteen hundred UTC

11.

12. Which aeronautical communication service provides automated airfield and meteorological
information for departing and arriving traffic?

a) LARS
b) AFIS
c) FIS
d) ATIS
14. A pilot who has already established communication with a civil or military ATSU should in the
event of being confronted with an emergency:

a) make a distress call on the frequency in use and maintain the allocated SSR code
b) make a MAYDAY call on 121.5 MHz
c) select 7700 on the SSR and change to 121.5 MHz
d) squawk Ident

15. On the initial call to an ATSU a pilot should pass:

a) callsign, service requested

b) callsign, aircraft type, position, heading, ETA
c) callsign, position, heading, level, intention, type of service required
d) callsign, position, level, flight conditions and intention

16. A Special VFR (SVFR) flight is a:

a) royal flight that you must avoid

b) flight in VMC for which you must file a Flight Plan
c) flight made on a special occasion
d) flight which is unable to comply with the instrument flight rules and is cleared to enter a
Control Zone under specified weather minima

17. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full:

a) level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information

b) clearance to enter, land on, take-off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active
runway; SSR instructions
c) VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service
d) ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports

18. You call an ATSU and receive the reply "G-XX Stand-By" you should:

a) acknowledge immediately: "Stand-By G-XX"

b) say nothing, assuming no onward clearance and wait until called
c) call the ATSU again after 5 mins to obtain a clearance
d) change frequency
19. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver
failure" the aircraft station shall also:

a) Advise the time of its next intended transmission

b) Hold for 5 minutes at its present position
c) Proceed to the alternate airport
d) Enter the next en-route holding pattern

21. A pilot may abbreviate his aircraft callsign only:

a) When changing frequency

b) After establishing communication with a ground station
c) If it has first been abbreviated by the ground station on the frequency in use
d) When he considers that no confusion is likely to occur

22. When an airfield has a RADIO service the answer a pilot can expect upon stating that they are
ready for departure is:

a) Wind and traffic information

b) "Take off at your discretion"
c) "Cleared for take off'
d) "Cleared to depart"

23. On an airfield with an INFORMATION service the controller:

a) Can give landing clearances only

b) Has, control over all surface movements including helicopters hover taxiing
c) No control over airfield movements
d) Can give a take off clearance

24. The abbreviation for a control zone is:

a) MATZ
b) CTZ
c) CTR
d) CTA

25.
PAPER -4

1. Radio test transmissions should take the following form:

a) Station being called, aircraft identification, words "Readability check", frequency
b) Station being called, aircraft identification, words "radio check", frequency being used
c) Station being called, aircraft identification, words "How do your read?"
d) Station being called, aircraft identification, frequency, words "Do you read?"

2. After making a call to an ATSU, you are asked to "pass your message". This should take the
following form:
a) Aircraft identification and type, departure point and estimated position, heading, level,
intention, type of service required
b) Aircraft identification, full route details, level and type of service required
c) Aircraft identification and type, last turning point, level, intentions
d) Callsign and type, position, level and intentions

3. A "downwind" call is made:

a) Just before turning on to base leg
b) As soon as the aircraft is on the downwind leg
c) Abeam the upwind end of the runway
d) Any position on downwind leg

4. Aerodrome traffic is:

a) All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft operating in the
vicinity of an aerodrome
b) All aircraft on an aerodrome
c) All vehicles on an aerodrome
d) All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome

5. DACS is normally spoken as one word. It means:

a) Direct Airfield Crossing Service
b) Diversion Airfield Control System
c) Danger Area Crossing Service
d) Departing Aircraft Control Service

6. FL 180 is transmitted as:

a) Flight Level One Eighty

b) Flight Level Wun Ate Zero
c) Foxtrot Lima One Eight Zero
d) Flight Level One hundred Eight Zero
7. Which of the following is correct?

a) Runway 18 is passed as "Runway Eighteen"

b) "With you" means that you are on frequency
c) The words "Over, Roger and Out" may be omitted if there is no possibility of confusion
d) The word "Wilco" means that you have received and understood the message

8. A pilot wishing to confirm his position may request a "Training Fix" on:

a) The frequency in use

b) 121.5 MHz
c) The approach control frequency of his nearest airfield
d) 243 MHz

9. When calling for a "Practice Pan", a pilot, before transmitting, should:

a) Listen out
b) Climb to as great a height as possible
c) Select 7700 on his transponder
d) Descend below 3000 feet

10. Frequency 121.725 MHz should be transmitted as:

a) One Two One Point Seven Two Five

b) Wun Too Wun Dayseemal Seven Too
c) Wun Too Wun Point Seven Too
d) One twenty one decimal seven twenty five

11. The priority of the message " Taxi to holding point Runway 05 " is:
a) less than " Clear land Runway 05 "
b) the same as " Caution construction and men adjacent to taxi-way "
c) same as " Line up and wait "
d) more than " Caution wind shear on final approach ".

12. Which statement is correct?

a) A D/F message has priority over a flight safety message
b) A meteorological message has no priority over a flight safety message
c) An urgency message is lower priority than a flight safety message
d) A "windshear" warning has a higher priority than "clear to take-off
13. If your signal is too weak or distorted the controller may ask you to use the speechless code. Three
short transmissions means:

a) Negative
b) Yes
c) Say again
d) My aircraft has developed another emergency

14. If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the standard reply is:

a) Verify
b) Roger
c) Confirm
d) Wilco

15. The opening rds of an urgency message are:

a) Emergency
b) Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
c) Pan, Pan, Pan
d) Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan

16. The callsign of an aeronautical station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would
be:

a) TOWER
b) GROUND
c) ARRIVALS
d) MOVEMENT.

17. If the pilot is unable to make contact with a station on a designated frequency, then he should:

a) make a blind transmission

b) transmit using words twice
c) transmit on 121.5 MHz
d) try transmitting on another related frequency.

18. A pilot who is unable to complete a landing from an approach should make the call:

a) GOING AROUND
b) OVERSHOOTING
c) CLIMBING OUT
d) MISSED APPROACH.
19. The correct readback of the message `XY-CD Change to Stephenville Tower 118.7' is:
a) 118.7 XY-CD
b) Changing frequency to Stephenville Tower XY-CD
c) Wilco XY-CD
d) Roger XY-CD.

20. An aircraft will be in the best range for VHF communications if it is:

a) at high altitude and long range

b) at low altitude and close range
c) at low altitude and long range
d) at high altitude in the vicinity of the airfield.

21. In order to make your communications more effective, you should:

a) use words twice

b) modulate your voice
c) use a constant speaking volume
d) call break between sentences.

22. The VHF aeronautical communications frequency range lies between:

a) 108 and 118 MHz

b) 118 and 136.975 MHz
c) 3 and 30 MHz
d) 118 and 136.975 kHz.

23. The correct callsign of a station providing flight information service is the location followed by:

a) RADIO
b) CONTROL
c) INFORMATION
d) HOMER.

24. The abbreviation HJ means that the hours of service of an aerodrome are:

a) between sunrise and sunset

b) between sunset and sunrise
c) twenty four hours
d) not specified hours.

25. The maximum VHF communications range that can be expected by an aircraft at FL 100 is:

a) 100nm
b) 120nm
c) 150nm
d) 1200nm.
An swer s t o Quest i on s – Ch a pt er 8 VFR Que st i on s

Quest i on No Pa per 1 Pa per 2 Pa per 3 Pa per 4

1 B D A B
2 A A A A
3 B D C D
4 B B D A
5 A B B C
6 C D A B
7 C B D C
8 A D A B
9 D C C A
10 C D B B
11 D D D C
12 B D D A
13 A C C C
14 C D A D
15 D C A D
16 B C D B
17 D A B D
18 A B B A
19 D A A A
20 D D D D
21 B B C C
22 A C B B
23 B A C C
24 B A C A
25 C C C B
Chapter – 09 IFR Questions

1. Which of the following shows the correct elements of a position report in their correct order?

a) Callsign, Position, Heading, Level, Next position and ETA

b) Callsign, Position, Level, Met conditions, Intention and Destination
c) Callsign, Position, Time, Level, Next position and ETA
d) Callsign, Type, Position, ETA next position, Level

2. Pilots flying an Instrument Departure must pass the following information on first contact with
approach control/departure radar:

a) Callsign, SID designator when appropriate, current or passing altitude/FL, cleared

altitude/FL
b) Call sign, type, destination, passing level and cleared level
c) Callsign, type, route details, passing level
d) Callsign, SID designation, heading, level passing, flight conditions

3. Which elements in a position report cannot be omitted?

a) Position, Time, Flight level

b) Aircraft callsign, Position, Time
c) Next position and ETA
d) Ensuing significant point.

4. What would be the suffix of an aeronautical station that transmits the Route Clearance to an
aircraft at an international airport?

a) DELIVERY
b) CLEARANCE
c) TOWER
d) DEPARTURE.

5. The callsign of a controlled airfield without radar would have the suffix:
a) ARRIVALS
b) TOWER
c) INFORMATION
d) APPROACH.

6. A reported braking action co-efficient of 30 means that the braking action is:
a) poor
b) poor to medium
c) medium
d) good.
7. If you wish to repeat a word or phrase for clarity then, before repeating, you should say:

a) WORDS TWICE
b) REPEAT
c) I SAY AGAIN
d) CORRECTION.

8. An aeronautical station that wishes to put out a general call to all aircraft in its area should address
the call to:

a) ALL STATIONS
b) ALL TRAFFIC
c) ALL AIRCRAFT
d) ALL STATION TRAFFIC.

9. Routine MET reports should be transmitted with position reports except when:

a) the flight is less than 1 hour long

b) the flight remains below 10,000 ft
c) the aircraft is less than 1 hour from landing
d) the aircraft is not equipped with IRS.

10. Which of the following statements about SELCAL is correct?

a) It can only be used with VHF radio

b) It requires a four letter code to be entered into the flight plan
c) It requires constant monitoring by the flight crew
d) The pilot can select it after the aircraft is outside VHF range.
Answers to questions of Chapter -09 IFR Questions

Question No Paper 1
1 C
2 A
3 B
4 A
5 D
6 C
7 C
8 A
9 C
10 B
Chapter – 10

Section-1 VFR Questions

1 The abbreviation for the callsign CHEROKEE XY-ABC would be:

a) XY- BC
b) CHEROKEE XY-BC
c) CHEROKEE BC
d) ABC

2 The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is:

a) QDR
b) QFE
c) QUJ
d) QTE

3 The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that:

a) there is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but
there is no need for immediate assistance
b) the aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance
c) the aircraft has crashed
d) the aircraft is being hijacked

4 The words preceding an URGENCY message should be:

a) Urgency Urgency Urgency

b) Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan
c) Pan Pan Pan
d) Mayday Mayday Mayday

5 The Q code on which height is based on:

a) QNH
b) QFF
c) QFE
d) QUJ

6 The frequency on which ATIS can be found is

a) Discrete VHF or VOR frequency

b) Discrete VHF only
c) VOR frequency only
d) any ATC frequency

7 The call from an aircraft for a missed approach is:

a) OVERSHOOTING
b) TOUCH AND GO
c) GOING AROUND
d) ABORTING
8 When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:

a) WORDS TWICE
b) REPEAT MESSAGE
c) SPEAK SLOWER
d) SAY AGAIN

9 When reporting a frequency the use of the word "DECIMAL" can be omitted:

a) When there is no likelihood of confusion

b) After the initial call
c) Never
d) By the ground station only

10 The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates:

a) loss of comms
b) distress
c) urgency
d) hijacking

11 Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to "RECYCLE SQUAWK" is to:

a) set the numbers to 7000

b) reselect the numbers on the control unit
c) switch to standby and back to ON
d) press the IDENT button

12 If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:

a) try a another appropriate frequency

b) start transmitting blind
c) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d) transmit words twice

14 The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the aircraft is at:

a) high altitude at long range

b) high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome
c) low altitude and short range
d) low level and long range
15 The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is:
a) QDM
b) QDR
c) QTE
d) QNH

16 The abbreviation for a control zone is:

a) CTR
b) CTZ
c) ATZ
d) CTA

17 The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is:

a) Mayday
b) Distress
c) Pan Pan
d) Urgency

18 The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:

a) TOWER
b) CLEARANCE
c) GROUND
d) APRON

19 The instruction "ORBIT" from ATC means that the aircraft should:

a) carry out a go around

b) continue with 360 degree turns
c) carry out one 360 degree turn only
d) reverse the direction of the turn

20 The time given in aeronautical communications is:

a) Local mean time
b) in minutes only
c) UTC
d) daylight saving time

21 In order to make message effective you should:

a) use words twice

b) speak slower
c) repeat the message
d) speak at a constant volume

22 When making a blind transmission you should:

a) transmit the message twice

b) transmit each word twice
c) repeat the message on 121.5 MHz
d) wait for visual signals
23 The abbreviation AFIS stands for:

a) Aerodrome flight information service

b) Automatic flight information service
c) Aircraft fire indication system
d) Automatic flight instrument system

24 The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is:

a) 3 to 30 MHz
b) 88 to 108 MHz
c) 108.0 to 139.95 MHz
d) 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

25 The message "READABILITY 3" means:

a) Readable now and then

b) Unreadable
c) Readable
d) Readable but with difficulty

26 The phrase to use when you want to say "yes" is:

a) AFFIRMATIVE
b) ROGER
c) WILCO
d) AFFIRM

27 The definition of the phrase "STANDBY" is:

a) consider the transmission as not sent
b) proceed with your message
c) wait and I will call you
d) hold your present position

28 The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is:

a) 123.725
b) 123.7
c) 12372
d) 123.72

29 The correct reply to the instruction "HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY" is:

a) WILCO
b) ROGER
c) HOLDING SHORT
d) UNDERSTOOD

30 The priority of the message "LINE UP" is:

a) greater than "REQUEST QDM"

b) less than "CLEAR TO LAND"
c) same as "TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20"
d) same as "WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY"
Answers – Section -1 VFR Questions

1C 2D 3B 4B 5C 6A 7C 8D 9C 10A
11B 12A 13D 14B 15B 16A 17B 18C 19B 20C
21D 22A 23A 24D 25D 26D 27C 28D 29C 30C
Section-2 IFR Questions

I Clearance limit is defined as:

a) the flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance

b) the time at which the ATC clearance expires
c) the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
d) the height below which you will hit the first obstacle

2 The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take off includes the phrase:

a) CANCEL TAKE-OFF
b) STOP IMMEDIATELY
c) ABORT ABORT
d) YOU WONT LIKE THIS

3 The term "DISREGARD" means:

a) Consider the last message as not sent

b) Cancel the last clearance
c) You have not been cleared
d) Pay no attention to what I say

4 The message "CHECK" to an aircraft means that you should:

a) confirm the you received and understood the last message

b) pass the required information to ATC
c) stay where you are
d) examine a system or procedure

5 The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be:

a) CLEARANCE
b) GROUND
c) DELIVERY
d) PRESTO

6 The term "CORRECTION" is used when:

a) the readback of a message is incorrect
b) the readback of a message is correct
c) the message has to be deleted
d) an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is ...

7 The state of urgency is defined as a condition:

a) of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate

assistance
b) concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board but
does not require immediate assistance
c) where an aircraft requires an immediate take-off
d) where the aircraft needs to land immediately because the crew are running out of duty
time
8 The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:

a) respond in alphabetic order

b) respond in numerical order
c) give no response
d) request a repeat of the message

9 If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

a) has to cancel the flight

b) may proceed with the flight with ATC permission
c) has to fly low level only
d) should fly for another company

10 Following a communications failure the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold
is:

a) within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA

b) within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA
c) EAT or ETA
d) before it runs out of fuel

12 An urgency message should include the following information:

a) name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of
commander, position, level, heading
b) callsign, position, route, destination, endurance
c) name of station addressed, callsign, present position, level, ETA destination
d) captains number, rank and name

13 Readability 2 means that your transmission is:

a) readable but with difficulty

b) readable
c) readable now and then
d) two way communications have been established

14 How does ATC report RVR?

a) In kilometres along the final approach

b) In metres at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end of runway
c) In nautical miles along the runway
d) In feet and inches
15. The procedure for an aircraft suffering RT failure during an IFR departure in IMC
within Europe is to:

a) maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue with
the flight plan
b) hold cleared level for 3 minutes and then continue in accordance with the
current flight plan
c) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d) give up and return to base

16 An altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as:

a) THIRTEEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET

b) ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET
c) ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET
d) ANGELS THIRTEEN POINT FIVE

17 What cannot be left out from a position report?

a) Callsign Flight level and Time

b) Callsign, Position and Time
c) Position, Time, Flight level, Next position and ETA
d) Your signature

18 The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be:

a) APPROACH
b) CENTRE
c) INFORMATION
d) RADIO

19 The definition of the instruction "MONITOR ..." is:

a) listen out on frequency

b) establish communications on frequency
c) watch out for visual signals on frequency
d) you are being watched

20 The phrase "BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20" from ATC means that the braking action
is:

a) poor
b) medium to poor
c) medium
d) slippery

21 Your reply to the message "REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS" should be:

a) VFR / IFR
b) SMOOTH / TURBULENT
c) NOT BAD / SO SO
d) VMC / IMC
22 A waypoint is:

a) a designated reporting point

b) a geographical point at which a change of level takes place
c) a geographical location relating to area navigation (RNAV)
d) a visual sign pointing the way

23 If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase:

a) WORDS TWICE
b) I REPEAT
c) I SAY AGAIN
d) DITTO

24 The condition that describes the state of an aircraft in serious and/or imminent danger and
requiring immediate assistance is:

a) Urgency
b) Flight safety
c) Hopeless
d) Distress

25 If you make a mistake in transmission you should use the phrase:

a) CORRECTION
b) CORRECT
c) I SAY AGAIN
d) SORRY

26 An example of a general call is:

a) STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDIATELY

b) BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE
c) ALL STATIONS
d) GOOD DAY

27 The frequency 121.5 MHz is the:

a) international flight safety frequency

b) one way air to ground emergency frequency
c) international emergency frequency
d) air to air chat frequency

28 The ATC message "DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED" signifies that:

a) all aircraft are to end their transmissions
b) all aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency
c) normal ATC is resumed after an emergency
d) ATC is shutting shop
29 The phrase used to separate portions of a message is:

a) BREAK BREAK
b) I SAY AGAIN
c) BREAK
d) UMM

30 The term "RECLEARED" means that:

a) your last clearance is confirmed

b) your last clearance has been cancelled
c) you may proceed as you please
d) a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your
previous clearance

Answers – Section -2 IFR Questions

ANSWERS
1C 16 C
2B 17 B
3A 18 A
4D 19 A
5C 20 A
6D 21 D
7B 22 C
8C 23 C
9B 24 D
10 C 25 A
11 A 26 C
12 A 27 C
13 C 28 C
14 B 29 C
15 B 30 D