Full Syllabus

Test Paper No-05

By Dr. Rishabh Choubey Sir

Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 3. What is approximately the ratio of nuclear radii of
197 108
1. In a zener regulated power supply, a zener diode gold isotope 79 Au and silver isotope 47 Ag
with Vz = 6 V is used for regulation. The load
current is 5 mA and unregulated input is 10 V (1) 1.23 (2) 2.47
(as shown). The value of series resistance (R) (3) 2.52 (4) 3.72
required is 238
4. The half life of 92 U undergoing α-decay is
1.42 × 1017 s. What is activity (initial) of 1 gm of
the sample.
(1) 1.2 × 102 s–1 (2) 1.96 × 103 s–1
(3) 1.23 × 104 s–1 (4) 4.5 × 1012 s–1
5. The work function of caesium metal is 2.15 eV.
(1) 130 Ω (2) 160 Ω When light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is incident on
(3) 150 Ω (4) 240 Ω metal surface, photoemission occurs. Maximum
2. Two amplifiers are connected one after other in kinetic energy of emitted photon electron will be
series. The first amplifier has voltage gain of 15 (1) 1.52 × 10–19 J
and second has voltage gain of 20. If input signal
voltage is 0.3 V, the output signal voltage is (2) 0.54 × 10–19 J
(1) 100 V (2) 105 V (3) 3.2 × 10–19 J
(3) 90 V (4) 9 V (4) 4.68 × 10–20 J

(1)
6. A bus is moving on a straight road with speed of 12. The radius of earth is 6400 km. At what depth
20 m/s. A man is driving a car behind bus in below the surface of earth the acceleration due to
same direction. The driver of car observes bus to gravity decreases by 2% than on surface of
be moving at a speed of 10 m/s. The speed of earth.
car may be
(1) 32 km (2) 128 km
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 256 km (4) 64 km
(3) 30 m/s (4) Both (1) and (3)
13. What is depth of lake at which density of water is
7. Acceleration of a particle starting from rest varies
2% greater than that at surface. Compressibility
with time (t) according to relation a = αt + β
of water is 25 × 10–6/atm.
(α and β are positive constant). The velocity v of
particle as a function of time is given as. (1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 4 km (4) 8 km
αt 2 + β
(1) v = (2) v = αt2 + βt
2 14. A wire is stretched by 1 mm by a force of 1 kN.
How long would a wire of same material and
αt 2
(3) =
v + βt (4) v = αt2 + 2βt length but of four times radius be stretched by
2
same force.
8. A car is moving on circular track of radius 150 m
1 1
and at some time its speed is decreasing at a (1) mm (2) mm
rate of 8 m/s2, if the speed of car at that instant 2 4
was 30 m/s, net acceleration of the car will be 1 1
(3) mm (4) mm
(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 6 m/s2 8 16
(3) 10 m/s2 (4) 14 m/s2 15. Calculate velocity of flow of an ideal fluid in the
9. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m lower branch of the tube shown.
respectively are connected by a massless spring
of stiffness constant k. At the instant shown,
there is force acting, on 2m, equal to F and
acceleration of mass m is 'a' towards left. The
acceleration of 2m at that instant is

2F + 2ma F + 2ma
(1) (2)
3m 3m
(1) 16 m/s (2) 32 m/s
F − ma F + ma
(3) (4) (3) 35 m/s (4) 18 m/s
2m 2m
10. A small ball is dropped from a height of 10 m on 16. A diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) does 60 J of work when
horizontal floor. If the coefficient of restitution it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to gas
between ground and ball is 0.5 then maximum in the process is
height to which ball will rise after second collision (1) 210 J
with ground is
(2) 240 J
(1) 10 cm (2) 62.5 cm
(3) 160 J
(3) 105 cm (4) 16 cm
(4) 170 J
11. A motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate
from a given pipe. To obtain 3 times water from 17. An ideal heat engine operates between 227ºC
same pipe in same time, by what factor should and 127ºC. It absorbs 5 kcal of heat at higher
power of the motor be increased. temperature. What is heat rejected to sink.
(1) 9 times (2) 6 times (1) 4 kcal (2) 3.6 kcal
(3) 8 times (4) 27 times (3) 4.6 kcal (4) 3.2 kcal

(2)
18. Time period of oscillation of light springs system (1) 4 V (2) 8 V
shown in figure will be (Mass of block is 2 kg and (3) –6 V (4) –4 V
spring constant of each spring is 600 N/m)
24. A charge Q is placed at a distance 'a' vertically
above the one corner of a square plate of side a
as shown in figure. The electric flux through
square plate will be
(1) 0.61 s (2) 0.21 s
(3) 0.42 s (4) 1.36 s
19. One mole of hydrogen gas at temperature T is
mixed with one mole of helium gas at
temperature 2T in an isolated vessel. The
equilibrium temperature of the gas mixture is
11 5
(1) T (2) T
8 4
3 7
(3) T (4) T
2 5 Q Q
(1) (2)
20. When a stretched wire and a tuning fork are ε0 24ε0
sounded together 5 beats per second are heard
in both cases, when the lengths of stretched wire Q Q
(3) (4)
were 100 cm or 95 cm in fundamental mode with 8ε0 12ε0
same tension. Then frequency of tuning fork is 25. The velocity of the image when mirror and object
(Hz) are moving with velocities as shown in figure, will
(1) 105 (2) 100 be
(3) 175 (4) 195
21. The fourth overtone of an open organ pipe has
the same frequency as the second overtone of a
close pipe of length L. The length of open pipe
will be.
(1) −3iˆ + 3 jˆ m/s (2) −iˆ + 3 ˆj m/s
(1) L (2) 2L
(3) −2iˆ + 6 ˆj m/s (4) −5iˆ + 3 jˆ m/s
L
(3) 4L (4) 26. A convex lens and a concave lens of focal
2
lengths 15 cm and 20 cm respectively are placed
22. Three equal charges Q each are placed at the in contact with each other. When an object is
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l. How placed at 60 cm from the combination, image is
much work has to be done in bringing them formed at
l (1) 60 cm (2) 30 cm
closer to an equilateral triangle of side .
2 (3) 120 cm (4) Infinity
2 2
3Q 3Q 27. A ray of light is incident on a glass sphere of
(1) (2)
8πε0 l 4πε0 l refractive index 3 at an angle 60º as shown in
figure. The angle by which it is deviated as it
Q2 Q2 comes out of sphere is
(3) (4)
4πε0 l 2πε0 l
23. In the given figure, the potential of point M is

(1) 30º (2) 90º

(3) 45º (4) 60º

(3)
28. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal 34. With the fall in temperature, the electric
conductivities k, 2k, and 3k. They are arranged conductivity of intrinsic semiconductors
as shown in figure with their ends at 100ºC, 40ºC (1) Increases
and 0ºC. The temperature of their junction is (2) Decreases
(3) First decreases and then increases
(4) Remains same
35. The combination of gates shown below is

(1) 40ºC (2) 50ºC

(1) AND gate (2) NAND gates
(3) 60ºC (4) 30ºC
(3) OR gate (4) XOR gate
29. An electron is accelerated by a potential
SECTION-B
difference of V volt to acquire kinetic energy
equal to maximum kinetic energy of ejected 36. A battery is connected to a circular wire loop,
what is ratio of magnetic field produced at the
photoelectron from a metal of work function
centre due to arc ACB and arc ADB
3.2 eV, using a light of wavelength 2000 Å. Value
of V is
(1) 1 volt (2) 2 volt
(3) 3 volt (4) 5 volt
30. In a spectrum of hydrogen atom, the ratio of
shortest wavelength in Lyman series to longest
wavelength in Paschen series is
1 9
(1) (2)
9 1 (1) 5 : 1 (2) 1 : 5
(3) 6 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
136 7
(3) (4) 37. A beam of electrons is moving with constant
7 144
velocity in a region having electric and magnetic
31. A freshly prepared radioactive sample having half fields of strengths 20 V/m and 0.5 T respectively
life 4 hours, emits radiation of intensity which is at right angles to direction of electron. What is
64 times the permissible level. The minimum time velocity of the electron.
in hours after which it is safe to work with the (1) 20 m/s (2) 40 m/s
source will be (3) 5 m/s (4) 8 m/s
(1) 20 hours (2) 24 hours 38. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 20 Ω and
its full scale deflection current is 9 A. Value of
(3) 16 hours (4) 28 hours shunt resistance that should be connected with it
32. A person can see clearly beyond a distance of so that it can read a maximum of 99 A current, is
40 cm. He wants to read a book placed at 25 cm (1) 10 Ω (2) 2 Ω
from his eyes. What is power of lens of his (3) 1 Ω (4) 9 Ω
spectacles required? 39. A small circular loop of radius a is placed inside a
(1) 2 D (2) 1.5 D circular loop of radius b (b > > a). The loops are
coplanar and concentric. The mutual inductance
(3) 1.66 D (4) 2.5 D of the system is proportional to
33. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio a2 a
of 1 : 27. The ratio of their volume is (1) (2)
b b2
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 27 a
(3) (4) a × b
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 27 : 1 b

(4)
40. In the given figure, charge stored in capacitor in 45. Which of the following is not possible value of
steady state will be radius of stable orbit of hydrogen atom. Where λ
is de Broglie wavelength of the electron.
λ 3λ
(1) (2)
2π 4π
3λ λ
(3) (4)
2π π

(1) 32 µC (2) 16 µC 46. A particle is moving with uniform speed v on a

circle of radius R. The magnitude of change in
(3) 24 µC (4) 8 µC
acceleration of the particle in going from P1 to P2
41. To obtain displacement current of 0.2 A between is
the plates of a capacitor of capacity 0.5 µF the
rate of change of potential difference between
the plates should be
(1) 4 × 105 V/s (2) 105 V/s
(3) 8 × 105 V/s (4) 2 × 105 V/s
v2
42. In the following circuit the current through 2 Ω (1) Zero (2)
R
resistor is (ideal diode)
2v 2 2v 2
(3) (4)
R R
47. For a particle projected with speed of 20 m/s
from ground, the kinetic energy at top most point
 1
of trajectory is   th of the initial kinetic energy.
4
(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.6 A The angle of projection from horizontal is
(3) 0.8 A (4) 1.25 A (1) 30º (2) 60º
43. Intensity of central maxima in Young’s double slit (3) 45º (4) 37º
experiment is found to be 20 units. Then intensity 
at a point where phase difference between 48. Vector A has magnitude of 5 unit directed along

π east, then vector 6 A
identical interfering waves is is
2 (1) Has magnitude 6 unit along East
(1) 10 unit (2) 20 unit (2) Has magnitude 5 unit along East
(3) 30 unit (4) 40 unit (3) Has magnitude 30 unit along East
44. Two beams A and B of plane polarised light with (4) Has magnitude 6 unit towards West
mutually perpendicular planes of polarisation are 49.Position of particle during motion is expressed as
seen through a polaroid from the position where 
=r ( 5t 2 iˆ + 3t ˆj ) m. The magnitude of acceleration
beam A has maximum intensity. A rotation of
of particle at t = 0, is
polaroid through 60º makes two beams appears
equally intense. If initial intensities of two beams (1) 10 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2
I (3) 15 m/s2 (4) 0 m/s2
is IA and IB then A equals
IB 50. If velocity (v), time (T) and mass (M) are taken as
3 fundamental quantities, then dimensional formula
(1) 3 (2) for gravitational potential would be.
2
(1) [MvT0] (2) [Mv2T0]
2
(3) (4) 9
3 (3) [M0v2T0] (4) [M–2vT0]

(5)
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. SI unit of viscosity coefficient is
51. If mass percentage of sulphur in a biomolecule (1) N s m–1 (2) N m–2
0.02% then the number of sulphur atoms present (3) N s m–2 (4) N s–1 m–1
in 16 g of biomolecule is
60. A gas is allowed to expand in an insulated
(1) 3.01 × 1020 (2) 6.02 × 1019 container against a constant external pressure of
(3) 6.02 × 1021 (4) 3.01 × 1022 4 atm from the initial volume of 1.8 L to a final
volume of 5.2 L. The change in internal energy of
52. Number of radial nodes and angular nodes
the gas is
present in 5d orbital respectively are
(1) –3.25 kJ (2) –4.21 kJ
(1) 2 and 2 (2) 2 and 3
(3) –1.38 kJ (4) –6.25 kJ
(3) 3 and 2 (4) 2 and 5
61. Which among the following is an aromatic
53. Which among the following has lowest value of
species?
negative electron gain enthalpy?
(1) Li (2) O
(1) (2)
(3) F (4) Cl
54. Which among the following has highest bond
order? (3) (4)

(1) O2+ (2) NO+ 62. IUPAC name of the given compound is
(3) C2 (4) O2−

55. Shortest bond length among the following is of

(1) C – H (2) O – H
(3) C – N (4) N – O (1) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
56. If density of a gas in closed cylinder is 3.5 gL–1 at (2) 5-Ethyl-2-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4.1 atm pressure and 127°C temperature then (3) 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
molar mass of the gas will be
(4) 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
(R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1)
63. The species in which hyperconjugation does not
(1) 32 g mol–1 (2) 28 g mol–1 occur is
(3) 40 g mol–1 (4) 46 g mol–1
(1) (2)
57. Ratio of root mean square speed of O2 at
200 K and N2 at 400 K will be
(3) (4)
(1) 3 : 2 7 (2) 7:4
64. Consider the following statements
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1: 2 2
(a) Anthracene contains 14 π electrons
58. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium
(b) Phenol is reduced to cyclohexane by passing
PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g). If some amount of its vapours over heated zinc dust
argon gas is added to the reaction mixture at (c) Benzene on reaction with acetyl chloride in
constant pressure then presence of anhydrous AlCl3 forms
(1) Dissociation of PCl5 increases acetophenone
(2) Formation of PCl5 increases The correct statements are
(3) There is no effect on equilibrium (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(4) Equilibrium constant value increases (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

(6)
65. The compound which will react fastest by SN1 70. Consider the following reaction sequence
mechanism is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

66. Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product C is
Cu dilute NaOH
CH3 CH2OH 
573 K
→ A → ∆
B (major)

Major product B is
(1) (2)
O
||
(1) CH3 CH2 − C − CH3

O
||
(2) CH3 CH= CH − C − H

(3) CH3COONa+
(3) (4)
OH
|
(4) CH3 − CH2 − CH− CH3

67. Most acidic compound among the following is 71. The compound which does not reduce Tollens’
reagent is
(1) Glucose
(1) (2) (2) Benzaldehyde
(3) Fructose
(4) Sucrose
72. Which of the following amino acids contain
sulphur atom?
(3) (4)
(1) Serine (2) Tyrosine
(3) Histidine (4) Cysteine

68. Major product obtained on reaction of sodium 73. Monomer of neoprene is

phenoxide with CO2 followed by acidic hydrolysis (1) CH2 = CH − C = CH2
|
is
CH3
(1) 4-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(2) CH2 = CH – CN
(2) 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid
Cl
(3) 3-Hydroxybenzoic acid |
(3) CH2 =C − CH =CH2
(4) Benzoic acid
69. The compound which does not give yellow (4) Ph – CH = CH2
precipitate on reaction with NaOI is 74. Iproniazid is used as a/an
(1) Acetone (1) Antihistamine drug
(2) Acetaldehyde (2) Tranquilizer
(3) Isopropanol (3) Antipyretic drug
(4) Formaldehyde (4) Antibiotic

(7)
75. When benzene diazonium fluoroborate is heated 82. Bond order of Cl – O bond in ClO4− is
with aqueous sodium nitrite solution in the
presence of copper then the product formed is (1) 2 (2) 1.5
(3) 1.33 (4) 1.75
83. Most common oxidation state of vanadium is
(1) (2) (1) +2 (2) +3
(3) +4 (4) +5
84. Which metal is most easily oxidised to its divalent
metal cation?
(1) Cr (2) Mn
(3) (4) (3) Co (4) Zn
85. Spin only magnetic moment value of [Mn(CN)6]3–
76. SF4 is isostructural with ion is
(1) 2.83 BM (2) 3.87 BM
(1) XeF4 (2) SO24−
(3) 4.9 BM (4) 1.73 BM
(3) XeO2F2 (4) [ICI4]– SECTION-B
77. Which among the following is an oxide ore of 86. Which among the following is not an outer orbital
metal? complex?
(1) Zincite (2) Sphalerite (1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [MnCl6]3–
(3) Calamine (4) Copper glance (3) [FeF6]3– (4) [CoF6]3–
78. The metal which is refined by liquation is 87. IUPAC name of the given compound is
K3[Cr(C2O4)3]
(1) Zn (2) Sn
(1) Potassium trioxalatochromium(III)
(3) In (4) Ni
(2) Potassium trioxalatochromate(III)
79. Consider the following statements
(3) Potassium trioxalatochromate(IV)
(a) In acidic medium nitrous acid disproportionate (4) Potassium trioxalatochromium(IV)
to nitric acid and nitrogen gas
88. The enzyme which converts starch to maltose is
(b) Ammonium nitrate on heating gives nitrous
(1) Diastase (2) Zymase
oxide
(3) Maltase (4) Invertase
(c) N – N bond is present both in N2O3 and N2O4
89. In whipped cream, the dispersed phase and
gases
dispersion medium respectively are
The correct statements are (1) Liquid and liquid (2) Gas and liquid
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) Liquid and gas (4) Liquid and solid
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 90. If rate constant of a first order reaction is
80. Product which is not obtained on the reaction of 2.31 × 10–3 s–1 and initial concentration of the
white phosphorous with thionyl chloride is reactant is 1.6 M then the rate of the reaction
after second half life period will be
(1) PCl3 (2) SO2
(1) 4.6 × 10–3 M s–1 (2) 2.5 × 10–2 M s–1
(3) S2Cl2 (4) POCl3 (3) 7.5 × 10–3 M s–1 (4) 9.2 × 10–4 M s–1
81. Correct order of boiling point of the given 91. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping
compounds is platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 4 and
(1) HI > HF > HBr > HCl passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire
at one atm pressure and at 298 K. The reduction
(2) HF > HCl > HI > HBr potential of the hydrogen electrode would be
(3) HF > HI > HBr > HCl (1) – 0.059 V (2) – 0.118 V
(4) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (3) – 0.177 V (4) – 0.236 V

(8)
92. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of the 97. Consider the following statements
given ions at 298 K is (a) Density of sodium is more than potassium.
− −
(1) Br > Cl > OH −
(2) OH > Cl > Br − (b) Potassium carbonate is manufactured by
Solvay process
(3) Cl− > Br − > OH (4) OH > Br − > Cl−
(c) LiNO3 evolves NO2 gas on heating but
93. If AgCl is doped with 10–6 mol% of CdCl2, the NaNO3 does not
concentration of cation vacancies will be The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) 6.02 × 1017 mol–1 (2) 6.02 × 1016 mol–1 (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) 6.02 × 1015 mol–1 (4) 6.02 × 1018 mol–1 (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
94. If 0.2 m aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] is 100% 98. Which among the following does not exist?
ionised then the freezing point of the solution will (1) SiF62− (2) [Sn(OH)6]2–
be (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(3) [GeCl6]2– (4) [SiCl6]2–
(1) – 3.21°C (2) –1.86°C
99. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 0.5 g
(3) 1.86°C (4) –0.37°C of an organic compound gave 0.376 g of AgBr.
95. Which among the following does not The percentage of bromine in the compound is
disproportionate in alkaline medium? (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and Br = 80 u)
(1) 16% (2) 48%
(1) F2 (2) Cl2
(3) 64% (4) 32%
(3) S8 (4) P4
100. The molar solubility of Agl (Ksp = 8.3 × 10–17) in
96. Metallic hydride among the following is 0.1 M KI solution will be
(1) NaH (2) LiH (1) 8.3 × 10–16 M (2) 8.3 × 10–8 M
(3) CrH (4) MgH2 (3) 8.3 × 10–15 M (4) 8.3 × 10–17 M

BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in
101. Which of the given cell organelles do not contain (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
DNA? (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast 105. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. taxonomic
C. Golgi complex D. Lysosome categories of wheat.

The correct ones are (1) Family – Poaceae

(2) Order – Monocotyledonae
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) Division – Angiospermae
(3) B and C (4) C and D
(4) Genus – Triticum
102. Which of the given chromosomes appear
106. Rules of scientific naming of animals is assigned
L-shaped during anaphase?
in
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric
(1) ICBN (2) ICNCP
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
(3) ICZN (4) ICNB
103. What will be the DNA content at the end of 107. Bacteria are the sole members of which of the
S-phase of cell if its meiotic products have 8 pg given kingdom w.r.t Whittaker’s kingdoms system
of DNA in each cell? of classification?
(1) 8 pg (2) 16 pg (1) Monera (2) Protista
(3) 4 pg (4) 32 pg (3) Fungi (4) Animalia

(9)
108. The parasitic fungi on mustard causing white rust 116. Active transport differs from facilitated transport
of leaves is as the former
(1) Phytophthora (2) Albugo (1) Requires special membrane protein
(3) Pythium (4) Colletotrichum (2) Is highly selective
109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cymose (3) Shows response to protein inhibitors
inflorescence. (4) Is ATP dependent
(1) Peduncle terminates into a flower 117. Deficiency of which of the given sets of elements
(2) Shoot axis continues to grow indefinitely causes necrosis?
(3) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order (1) N, S and Fe (2) N, S and Mo
(4) It can be seen in Begonia and Teak (3) Ca, Mg, Cu and K (4) Zn, Mo, Fe, S
110. Which of the given symbols represents 118. Which of the given prokaryotes fixes nitrogen
epipetalous stamens? symbiotically as well as in free living state?

  (1) Rhizobium (2) Thiobacillus

(1) C A (2) P A
(3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter
(3) A ∞ (4) K(n) 119. How many ATPs are consumed to fix one
111. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open in molecule of CO2 in C3 pathway?

(1) Dicot root (2) Dicot stem (1) Two (2) Three

(3) Monocot stem (4) Monocot root (3) Eighteen (4) Twelve

112. Refer the given statements and select the 120. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
correct option. Photosystem II.

Statement A : Cork cambium is also called the (1) The reaction centre is P680
extrastelar cambium. (2) It occurs on the inner surface of the
thylakoids
Statement B : Phelloderm develops during
secondary growth. (3) It is found in both grana and stroma lamellae
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) It is involved only in non-cyclic flow of
electrons
(2) Only statement B is correct
121. Which of the given organic molecules have RQ
(3) Both statements are correct
less than unity?
(4) Both statements are incorrect
A. Fat B. Oxalic acid
113. How many of the given plants has/have
C. Protein D. Carbohydrate
archegonia and produce(s) seeds in their life-
cycle? (1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and C
Marchantia, Cedrus, Ginkgo, Funaria, Pinus,
Mustard, Sunflower 122. Conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate in
EMP pathway is catalysed by
(1) Two (2) Three (1) Aldolase
(3) Five (4) One (2) Phosphofructokinase
114. Which of the given is a red alga? (3) Enolase
(1) Chara (2) Volvox (4) Hexokinase
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Ulothrix 123. Which of the given plants do not show any
115. Water channels are made up of how many correlation between exposure to light duration
different types of aquaporins? and induction of flowering response?
(1) Eight (2) Four (1) Tomato (2) Tobacco
(3) Five (4) Twenty (3) Wheat (4) Radish

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124. Cells in the meristematic phase exhibits all of the 132. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
given characteristics, except affected person, has only one sex chromosome
i.e., XO?
(1) Dense protoplasm
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(2) High respiration rate
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Presence of large nucleus
(3) Colourblindness
(4) Increased vacuolation
(4) Turner’s syndrome
125. Which one of the following is correctly matched.
133. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, out of 240
(1) Water hyacinth – Conidia individuals obtained in F2 generation, how many
(2) Banana – Offset of the offsprings would be pure homozygous?
(3) Chlamydomonas – Zoospores (1) 60 (2) 30
(4) Ginger – Sucker (3) 120 (4) 40
126. Which of the given algae produces isogametes? 134. In the structure of polynucleotide chain,
phosphoester linkage joins
(1) Cladophora (2) Fucus
(1) Two complementary nitrogenous bases
(3) Volvox (4) Chara
(2) A phosphate group to nucleoside
127. Cells of innermost layer of anther
(3) Two hexose sugars
(1) Have α-cellulosic fibrous band
(4) Nitrogenous base and pentose sugar
(2) Do not degenerate
135. During post-transcriptional processing, ______ is
(3) Nourish the developing pollen grains added to the 5′ – end of hnRNA.
(4) Help in dehiscence of anther Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
128. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils (1) Adenylate residues
because of the presence of (2) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Cellulose (3) Adenosine monophosphate
(3) Pectin (4) Both (2) and (3) (4) Deoxythymidine
129. Wind-pollinated flowers show all of the given SECTION-B
characteristics, except
136. Select the odd one w.r.t stop codons.
(1) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
(1) AUG (2) UAA
(2) Flowers have well-exposed stamens
(3) UAG (4) UGA
(3) Flowers have large feathery stigma
137. In human genome, chromosome 1 has A
(4) Pollen grains are generally surrounded by
genes and the Y has B genes.
mucilaginous covering
130. Which of the given traits of pea plants selected Select he correct option to fill in the blanks A
by Mendel expresses itself only in homozygous and B.
condition? (1) A – 231, B – 2968 (2) A – 2968, B – 231
(1) Round seed (2) White flower (3) A – 123, B – 2698 (4) A – 2698, B – 123
(3) Inflated pod (4) Axial flower 138. Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants
is possible by
131. How many types of gametes can be produced by
a diploid organism, if it is heterozygous for three (1) Protoplast culture
locus? (2) Embryo culture
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) Meristem culture
(3) 9 (4) 6 (4) Both (1) and (2)

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139. Pusa Shubhra is bred by hybridisation and 144. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
selection for resistance to black rot and curl blight anthropogenic ecosystem.
black rot is a variety of (1) It possess self regulatory mechanism
(1) Wheat (2) It have little diversity

(2) Brassica (3) Simple food chain is present in it

(4) It shows high productivity
(3) Chilli
145. Which of the given is not seral community w.r.t.
(4) Cauliflower
xerarch succession?
140. Match column-I with column-II and select the (A) Lichens (B) Bryophytes
correct option
(C) Herbs (D) Forest
Column-I Column-II (1) Only (A)
(2) Both (B) and (C)
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Blood-cholesterol
lowering agent (3) Both (A) and (D)
(4) Only (C)
b. Statins (ii) Clot buster
146 The effect of reduction in biodiversity has been
c. Streptokinase (iii) Immunosuppressive explained through Rivet popper hypothesis by
agent (1) Alexander von Humboldt
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(3) Robert May
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(4) David Tilman
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
147 Which of the following is an example of organism
(4) b(iii), b(ii), c(i) that has recently become extinct in Africa?
141. The technology of biogas production was (1) Dodo
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of (2) Thylacine
(1) IARI (3) Steller’s sea cow
(2) KVIC (4) Quagga

(3) Ministry of Environment and Forest 148 Biomagnification is found to be maximum in

which of the given organisms of an aquatic food
(4) Both (1) and (2) chain?
142. Which of the given refers to number of deaths in (1) Zooplankton
the population during a given period? (2) Small fish
(1) Natality (3) Large fish
(2) Mortality (4) Fish-eating birds
(3) Immigration 149 Ramesh Chandra Dagar is associated with

(4) Emigration (1) Remedy to plastic waste

(2) Integrated organic farming
143. Epiphytes growing on mango tree is an example
of which of the given population interaction? (3) Chipko Movement
(4) Appiko Movement
(1) Commensalism
150 How many meiotic divisions are required to
(2) Mutualism
produce 100 seeds in a typical flowering plant?
(3) Amensalism (1) 25 (2) 100
(4) Competition (3) 50 (4) 125

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 ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. The below given figures (a) and (b) are included
151. Select the correct option w.r.t. animals and their in connective tissue. Select the correct option
characteristics. w.r.t. figures (a) and (b).

Animals Characteristics

(1) Pennatula – Exhibit metagenesis

(2) Asterias – Possess water canal

system

(3) Pleurobrachia – Exhibit internal

(1) (a) is included in dense regular connective
fertilisation
tissue
(4) Chiton – Possess calcareous (2) (b) allows compression and is present in
exoskeleton limbs

152. Among Aedes, Limulus, Pheretima, Ancylostoma, (3) In humans (a) is considered as haemopoietic
Antedon, how many possess true coelom, organ
segmentation and closed circulatory system? (4) (b) interact with skeletal muscles that are
attached to them to bring about movement
(1) One
156. Inner lining of ducts of salivary gland and
(2) Two
pancreatic duct consists of
(3) Three
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Four (2) Simple columnar epithelium
153. Choose the correct statements w.r.t. chordates. (3) Compound epithelium
(1) All chordates possess notochord in adult as (4) Ciliated epithelium
well as in embryonic stage
157. Select the hormone of adrenal cortex which is
(2) In all chordates, the dorsal hollow nerve responsible for hyperglycaemia.
chord is replaced by brain and spinal cord (1) Aldosterone (2) Epinephrine
(3) Heart is ventral in all chordates without any (3) Cortisol (4) Sex corticoids
exception
158. Which lobe of pituitary is connected to
(4) Post anal tail is present in adult stage also, in hypothalamus through hypophyseal portal
some chordates system?
154. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Neurohypophysis
correct answer. (2) Adenohypophysis
A. The amphibians possess eyelids and (3) Pars nervosa
tympanum represents ear in them
(4) Posterior lobe of pituitary
B. Animals which possess paired and unpaired 159. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. hormone and
fins are included in super class Pisces its action.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) PRL – Acts on mammary gland
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) MSH – Acts on melanocytes
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) ACTH – Acts on adrenal gland
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) GnRH – Acts on gonads

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160. Match the column I with column II and choose 166. Filtration slits or slit pores are spaces maintained
the correct answer. by
(1) Podocytes in parietal layer of Bowman's
a. Limbic system (i) Thirst centre
capsule
b. Hypothalamus (ii) Emotional brain (2) Renal pyramids in medullary region

c. Medulla (iii) Major coordinating (3) Cells of glomerular capillary

oblongata centre for sensory and (4) Podocytes in visceral layer of Bowman's
motor impulses capsule
167. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. type of WBCs
d. Thalamus (iv) Vomiting centre
and their percentage of total WBC count.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (1) Eosinophils – 2-3%
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) Neutrophils – 60-65%
161. Vestibular apparatus contains (3) Basophils – 0.5-1%
(1) Semicircular canals and cochlea (4) Monocytes – 20-25%
(2) Semicircular canals and otolith organ 168. During ventricular systole

(3) Otolith membrane and cochlea A. Blood gets filled in atria.

B. AV valves remain close.
(4) Middle ear and cochlea
C. 70 ml blood is pumped by each ventricle.
162. Hexoses are rapidly absorbed across the wall of
the small intestine into capillaries which finally (1) A and B are correct, C is incorrect
drain them into (2) B and C are correct, A is incorrect
(1) Hepatic artery (2) Hepatic portal vein (3) A and C are correct, B is incorrect
(3) Hepatic vein (4) Carotid vein (4) All of these are correct
163. Which of the following respiratory capacity 169. Common passage for bile and pancreatic juice is
includes residual volume? (1) Duct of Wirsung
(1) TLC (2) VC (2) Hepato-pancreatic duct
(3) IC (4) EC (3) Duct of Santorini
164. Given below is a list of some structures of human (4) Cystic duct
respiratory system in a box. 170. Even in presence of ADH, the maximum
reabsorption of water occurs in
Primary bronchi, Trachea, Terminal bronchiole,
(1) DCT (2) PCT
Respiratory bronchiole
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Collecting duct
How many of them do not possess incomplete 171. All of the following muscles possess gap
cartilaginous rings? junctions, except
(1) One (2) Two (1) Muscles in stomach wall
(3) Four (4) Three (2) Muscles in abdominal wall
165. In humans, the contraction of which of the (3) Cardiac muscles
following muscle causes an increase in the (4) Muscles of urinary bladder
volume of thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral
172. Which of the following bones in human body are
axis?
involved in the formation of pivot joint?
(1) Abdominal muscles (1) Radius and humerus
(2) Internal intercostal muscles (2) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(3) External intercostal muscles (3) Femur and tibia
(4) Muscles of diaphragm (4) Atlas and axis

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173. In cockroach, the elytra are present in 180. According to the 2011 census report, the
(1) Head region population growth rate was less than

(2) Neck region (1) 20 / 100 / year

(3) Thorax region (2) 10 / 100 / year

(4) Abdominal region (3) 20 / 1000 / year

(4) 10 / 1000 / year
174. β-1,4 glycosidic linkage is present in
181. The extinct hominid who lived in near-east and
(1) Starch (2) Inulin
central Asia between 1,00,000 – 40,000 years
(3) Cellulose (4) Glycogen back and used hides to protect their body, were
175. Menstruation is triggered by an abrupt decline in (1) Cro-Magnon man
the amount of a hormone secreted by
(2) Australopithecines
(1) Pituitary gland
(3) Homo erectus
(2) Secondary oocyte
(4) Neanderthal man
(3) Ovary
182. Pelycosaurs were evolved from
(4) Tertiary follicle
(1) Therapsids (2) Thecodonts
176. Chromosome number in meiocyte of butterfly is
(3) Sauropsids (4) Synapsids
(1) 78 (2) 380
183. Complete the analogy.
(3) 46 (4) 630
Pneumonia : Alveoli : : Common cold : ______
177. A receives a duct from seminal vesicle and (1) Lungs
opens into urethra as the B . (2) Nose and upper respiratory passage
Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks (3) Lungs and respiratory passage
A and B.
(4) Alveoli
A B
184. Choose the odd one w.r.t. marsupial radiation.
(1) Rete testis Vasa efferentia
(1) Wombat (2) Bandicoot
(2) Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct
(3) Sugar glider (4) Lemur
(3) Epididymis Vas deferens
185. Match the column I with column II and choose
(4) Vasa efferentia Rete testis the correct answer.
178. During embryonic development, the body of
Column I Column II
foetus is covered with fine hair by the end of
a. T-lymphocyte (i) Included in opiates
(1) First trimester
(2) Second trimester b. Macrophages (ii) Cellular barrier of
innate immunity
(3) Fifth month of pregnancy
(4) Second month of pregnancy c. Anti-tetanus (iii) Rejection of
injection transplanted organ
179. Among the given below STIs, how many are
caused by bacteria? d. Codeine (iv) Passive immunity

Genital herpes, Genital warts, Chlamydiasis, (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Trichomoniasis (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) One (2) Two (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Three (4) Four (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

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 SECTION-B 190. Choose the incorrect statement.
186. The figure given below is a diagrammatic (1) In gel electrophoresis, the undigested DNA
representation of the pBR322 vector. fragment is likely to move least distance
If recombinants can grow only in Ampicillin- (2) Any piece of DNA when linked to ori site
containing medium, then we can say the gene of sequence can be made to replicate within
interest was inserted in: host cells
(3) EcoRI breaks the bond between sugar and
nitrogenous base in a DNA
(4) PCR is included in molecular diagnosis
191. Choose the odd one w.r.t. recombinant
therapeutics.
(1) Erythropoietin (2) FSH
(3) Estrogen (4) Somatotropin
192. The technique to get pure line in cattles is
(1) Out-breeding
(2) Inbreeding

(1) X (2) T (3) Interspecific hybridisation

(3) P (4) Q (4) Out-crossing

187. Which of the following enzyme is not used for 193. Benign tumors:
extraction of DNA from a bacterium? (1) Show a property of contact inhibition
(1) Lysozyme (2) Exhibit metastasis
(2) Ribonuclease (3) Remain confined to their original location
(3) Chitinase (4) Depict malignancy
(4) Protease 194. Match the secondary metabolites given in column
188. Correct palindromic sequence of restriction I with their examples given in column II.
enzyme Hind III is Column I Column II
(1) ′5-GAATTC-3′
a. Toxins (i) Vinblastine, curcumin
′3-CTTAAG-5′
b. Drugs (ii) Morphine, codeine
(2) ′5-GGATCC-3′
′3-CCTAGG-5′ c. Alkaloids (iii) Concanavalin A

(3) ′5-AAGCTT-3′ d. Lectins (iv) Abrin, Ricin

′3-TTCGAA-5′ Choose the correct option.
(4) ′5-CCCGGG-3′ (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
′3-GGGCCC-5′ (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
189. The vector used to transfer a gene to produce (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
pest-resistant tobacco plant is
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) pBR322
195. Which of the following is not a dioecious
(2) pUC8 organism?
(3) Modified Ti plasmid (1) Ascaris (2) Octopus
(4) Simian virus (3) Wuchereria (4) Ctenoplana

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196. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. scientific name and A B C
common name of certain animals.
(1) T T T
Scientific name Common name
(2) T T F
(1) Exocoetus – Flying fish
(3) F T F
(2) Scoliodon – Dog fish
(4) T F F
(3) Gorgonia – Sea-fan
198. In which of the following ART, embryo is formed
(4) Aplysia – Sea-mouse by in-vitro fertilisation?
(1) ICSI (2) IUI
197. Read the following statements and choose the
option which correctly states each statement as (3) AI (4) GIFT
true (T) or false (F). 199. Over-secretion of GH in adults lead to

A. The bolus is conveyed from pharynx to (1) Gigantism (2) Acromegaly

oesophagus by the process called deglutition. (3) Dwarfism (4) Cretinism
B. Each jaw of adult human contains 16 200. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is
thecodont teeth. more permeable for which of the following ions?

C. Nucleotidases are present in pancreatic juice (1) Na+ (2) K+

in active form. (3) Ca+2 (4) Mg+2

  

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