Istqb: Exam Questions CTFL-Foundation

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Exam Questions CTFL-Foundation
Certified Tester Foundation Level
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NEW QUESTION 1
The introduction of reviews and inspections has often failed as a process improvement action. Identify the THREE most important measures that should be taken
to reduce the risk that this test process improvement will fail. 2 Credits (for 2 out correct 1 credit)
A. Process ownership and experienced moderators who drive the inspection process.
B. Management support
C. Training of those involved
D. The availability of stands and processes
E. Usage of a more traditional software development lifecycle
F. Alignment with software process improvement
G. Using a reference model, e.
H. TMMi
Answer: ABC
NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase? 1 credit
A. A requirements review meeting

B. A business analyst eliciting requirements
C. Performing acceptance tests against requirements
D. A test report showing requirements coverage
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 3
As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be
reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 4
What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2 credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.

B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit
A. Integration with other tools

B. Learning time required to use the new tool
C. Tool portability
D. Evaluation of suitable tools
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks? 3 credits
A. The skills and experience of developers to correct the failures.

B. The standards used for the requirements specification.
C. The metrics recorded from testing the capture-replay tool.
D. The number of testers in the company and their grad
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit
A. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.

B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D. All document reviews involve the development tea
Answer:

NEW QUESTION 8
Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits
A. The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration.
B. The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby
limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.
C. The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community.
D. The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budge
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 9
You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit
A. A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.
B. A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.
C. A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.
D. A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testin
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 10
In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit
A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase

B. Test training needs for the project resources
C. The test design techniques to be used
D. Test performance indicators
E. The test schedule
Answer: AC
NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit
A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.

B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.
D. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for qualit
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 11
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits
A. By providing training in the payroll domain

B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
D. By providing training on reviewing requirements
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 15
A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
A. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.i

B. Testing is outsourced.ii
C. Testing is carried out by the developer.i
D. A separate test team carries out the testing.
E. Testing is performed by the business.v
F. Testing is performed by a different developer.Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit
G. i, ii, iv, vi
H. ii, i, v, vi
I. ii, v, i, iii
J. i, iv, v, vi
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits
A. A person with the ability to complete tasks

B. A quality assurance officer
C. A person with in-depth technical skills

D. A person who brings new ideas to the team
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 23
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit
A. They are a cheap resource

B. They have good testing skills
C. This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
D. They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 28
You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest
recommendations? 3 credits
A. Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools
and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tool
B. They can then work closely with Vicki.
C. Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay
automation tool
D. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.
E. Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation too
F. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.
G. Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy-to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month
and based on that build the regression test suit
H. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 30
Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project? 1 credit
A. Quality of the specification

B. Availability of end-users
C. The costs of hardware and tools
D. Unknown input quality due to third party development
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 32
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. 1 credit
A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.

B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
E. The maturity of the organization, e.
F. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
G. It builds on large set of historical data
H. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
Answer: ADE
NEW QUESTION 37
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit
A. 5 maturity levels
B. Focussed on higher level testing
C. 20 key areas
D. Highly related to CMMI
E. Continuous model
F. Staged model
G. Focussed on component and integration testing
H. Is build around 12 critical testing processes
Answer: ADF
NEW QUESTION 41
As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit
A. The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.

B. Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.
C. Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.

D. Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test leve
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 42
Given the following figures for the testing on a project, and assuming the failure rate for initial tests remains constant and that all retests pass, what number of tests
remain to be run? 3 credits
A. 700
B. 720
C. 784
D. 570
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 47
Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test
design. 2 credits
A. All supported credit cards

B. Language localization
C. Valid and invalid advances
D. Usability
E. Response time
Answer: AC
NEW QUESTION 52
The cost of fixing a fault:
A. Is not important
B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
E. Can never be determined
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 54
Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?
A. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and test ware.
C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
D. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctl
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 59
Which of the following is the odd one out..?
A. White box
B. Glass box
C. Structural
D. Functional
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 61
Which of the following is true about the V-model?
A. It has the same steps as the waterfall model for software development.
B. It is referred to as a cyclical model for software development.
C. It enables the production of a working version of the system as early as possible.
D. It enables test planning to start as early as possibl
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 66

A test management tool is most likely to integrate with which of the following tools?
A. Performance testing tool

B. Test data preparation tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Requirements management tool
Answer: D
Explanation:
Requirements management tools (option (D)) often have interfaces with test management tools. In some cases they will be sold as a package or in other cases a
test management tool may have its own requirements module. The use of such interfaces or integrated packages aids traceability from requirements through to
test scripts and defects.
Performance management tools (option (A)), test data preparation tools (option (B)) and static analysis tools (option (C)) are unlikely to have an interface or be
integrated with a test management tool. They serve different purposes and therefore there is little need for such interfaces.
NEW QUESTION 67
Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?
(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.
(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.
(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.
(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is
specified to work.
A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is unlikely that developers will have a better understanding of the requirements than testers, partly because testers work closely with the user community (and
may be drawn from it) and partly because developers seldom work with the complete set of requirements in a medium to large development.
Testers may raise incidents related to the difference between user expectations and the specification, but these are not unnecessary. Such issues are more likely
to arise at the later stages of testing.
Early testing (unit testing) is usually done most effectively by developers with a good understanding of the code and the development environment; they can be
more efficient and more effective at this level. Later independent stages of testing offset any disadvantage from the lack of independence at unit testing level.
NEW QUESTION 70
What is the benefit of independent testing?
A. More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.
B. Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers
C. Independent testers do not need extra education and training.
D. Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management proces
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 72
Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?
A. Variance from programming standards.

B. A defect in middleware.
C. Memory leaks.
D. Regression defects.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Variance from programming standards defects (option (A)) are found during the review or static testing process.
Therefore a test harness is unlikely to find a defect in programming standards.
Memory leak defects (option (C)) could potentially be found by a test harness designed to run many test cases. Regression defects (option (D)) could be found
using many types of test tool.
Defects in middleware (option (B)) are generally more likely to be found by a test harness or a dynamic analysis tool than by any other type of tool.
NEW QUESTION 73
Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?
A. Determine whether enough component testing was executed.

B. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.
C. Prove that all faults are identified.
D. Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failure
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 75
Tests are prioritized so that:

A. You shorten the time required for testing

B. You do the best testing in the time available
C. You do more effective testing
D. You find more faults
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 80
Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?
A. It does not require familiarity with the code.

B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D. Testers are better at finding defects than developer
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 82
Boundary value testing:
A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests

B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
D. Is used in white box testing strategy
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 85
When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called..?
A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 89
Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 91
Which of the following are static techniques?
A. Walkthrough.
B. State transition testing.
C. Decision table testing.
D. Statement testing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Options (B), (C) and (D) are all dynamic test techniques.
NEW QUESTION 94
Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?
A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.

B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D. The willingness of the test team to learn new technique
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 96
Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?
A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B. Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.

C. Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule.
D. Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for qualit
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 97
Which option is part of the ‘implementation and execution’ area of the fundamental test process?
A. Developing the tests.

B. Comparing actual and expected results.
C. Writing a test summary.
D. Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A. is part of ‘Analysis and design’.
C. is part of ‘Evaluating exit criteria and reporting’.
D. is part of ‘Test closure activities’.
NEW QUESTION 101

Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
A. Variables that are never used.

B. Security vulnerabilities.
C. Poor performance.
D. Unreachable code.
E. Business processes not followed.
F. b, c and d are true; a and e are false
G. a is true; b, c, d and e are false
H. c, d and e are true; a and b are false
I. a, b and d are true; c and e are false
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 102

Which one of the following roles is typically used in a review?
A. Champion.
B. Author.
C. Project sponsor.
D. Custodian.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Author is the only role that is typically used in a review.
A Champion might sponsor the review process but is not a defined role within an actual review; a Project Sponsor, if technically competent, might be asked to play
a defined role within the review process, but whilst using that role they will not be a Project Sponsor; finally, a Custodian might ensure the results are stored safely
but would not be involved in the actual review itself.
NEW QUESTION 105

Which of the following is usually the test basis for integration testing?
A. Program specification
B. Functional specification
C. Technical specification
D. Requirement specification
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (A) is used for unit testing. Option (B) is used for system testing and Option (D) is used for acceptance testing.
NEW QUESTION 109

Given the Following program IF X <>= ZTHEN Statement 2;ENDMcCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 110

Independent Verification & Validation is:
A. Done by the Developer

B. Done by the Test Engineers
C. Done By Management
D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 114

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
A. Top down
B. Big-bang
C. Bottom up
D. Functional incrementatio
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 116

Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?
A. Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.

B. All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature.
C. Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed.
D. For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activit
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 117

What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?
(i) Executing component integration tests.
(ii) Static analysis.
(iii) Setting up the test environment.
(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.
A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer: A
Explanation:
(i) Executing component integration tests is usually done by developers. Developers are usually responsible for unit and component integration testing.
Independent testing usually follows at system and acceptance test levels.
(ii) Static analysis is usually done by developers because: it requires an understanding of the code and therefore the person doing this needs skills in the
programming language; and it can be done as soon as the code is written. Therefore it is quick and effective for the developer to do it. The risk of a lack of test
independence can be mitigated by performing independent system and acceptance testing.
(iii) Setting up the test environment is an activity typically performed by a tester. It may require support from developers and staff from other departments and on
some occasions environments could be set up by developers. However, it is a task that could be done by a tester rather than a developer.
(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated is typically a decision made by the test leader, who will consult other staff in the decision-making process.
Developers may be involved and their skills may be required to automate some tests. However, the decision on how much to automate should not be made by
developers.
NEW QUESTION 118

What do static analysis tools analyze?
A. Design
B. Test cases
C. Requirements
D. Program code
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 122

Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?
A. Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies
interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system.
B. Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system
testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.
C. Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non- functional characteristics.
D. Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 125

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'
A. Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B. Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.
C. The last executable statement within a component.
D. Cost overrun
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 128

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]
A. Use case testing

B. State transition testing
C. Decision testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 130

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. State transition testing
C. Boundary value analysis
D. Statement coverage
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 131

Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]
A. Exploratory testing
B. Decision table testing
C. State transition testing
D. Statement testing
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 136

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect
correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]
A. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

B. Incidents closed in systems testing
C. Planned tests run and passed in system testing
D. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing
E. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing
F. a and e
G. b and c
H. d and e
I. a and b
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 138

Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?
A. An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.
B. The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.
C. A testable component derived from business requirements.
D. Applies to software testing onl
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 139

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...
A. Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B. Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.
C. Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.
D. Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirement
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 141

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]
A. To identify the requirements for using a tool

B. To make a selection between alternative tools
C. To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective
D. To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 146

Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]
A. Adjudicator
B. Moderator
C. Governor
D. Corrector
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 149

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3] Refer to the exhibit
A. X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B. X=2, Y=3, Z=4
C. X=2, Y=4, Z=3
D. X=4, Y=3, Z=2
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 150

Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions. (i)X-Z-V-W (ii)W-Y-U-U
A. (i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

B. (i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S4 and (ii) = S2 –S4 – S4 – S4 – S2
C. (i) = S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4
D. (i) = S2 – S3 – S4 - S4 – S2 and (ii) = S2 –S3 – S4 –S4 – S4
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 152

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not
accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod
1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test Which of the following is the BEST detail on an
incident report? [K3]
A. Titl
B. End of Day failure.. Reproducibl
C. Ye
D. Descriptio
E. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transactio
F. Screen shot of the failure attached.
G. Titl
H. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducibl
I. Ye
J. Descriptio
K. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attache
L. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.
M. Titl
N. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducibl
O. N
P. Descriptio
Q. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occu
R. This does not always happe
S. Screen shot of thefailure attached.
T. Titl
. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction dat
. Reproducibl
. Ye
. Descriptio
. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transactio
. Screen shot of the failure attache
. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions– see PID ver 1.3 para 10b i
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 154

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]
A. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software
B. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers
C. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing
D. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases
E. a and b.
F. c and d.
G. a and d.
H. b and
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 156

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below. Refer to the exhibit
Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the

options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]
A. Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B. Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade
C. Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade
D. Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 161

Of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:
A. Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.
B. Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.
C. Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for
release.
D. Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closur
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 163

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?
A. Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B. Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test
C. Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose
D. Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 167

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?
A. Test Implementation and Execution

B. Test Planning and Control
C. Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting
D. Test Analysis and Design
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 170

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.
What is a key success factor in tool deployment?
A. Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B. Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost
C. Provide support for the test team using the tool
D. Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 175

Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?
A. Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited
B. Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing
C. Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis
D. Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 176

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:
1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times
2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60 Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the
following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?
A. Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60
B. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second
C. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
D. Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 177

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A. A requirements review meeting

A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.

A. Integration with other tools

A. The skills and experience of developers to correct the failures.

A. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.

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A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase

A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.

A. By providing training in the payroll domain

A. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.i

A. A person with the ability to complete tasks

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D. A person who brings new ideas to the team

A. They are a cheap resource

A. Quality of the specification

A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.

A. The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.

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A. All supported credit cards

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A. Performance testing tool

A. (i) and (ii)

A. Variance from programming standards.

A. Determine whether enough component testing was executed.

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A. You shorten the time required for testing

A. It does not require familiarity with the code.

A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests

A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.

A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

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B. Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.

A. Developing the tests.

NEW QUESTION 101

A. Variables that are never used.

NEW QUESTION 102

NEW QUESTION 105

NEW QUESTION 109

NEW QUESTION 110

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Independent Verification & Validation is:

A. Done by the Developer

NEW QUESTION 114

NEW QUESTION 116

A. Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.

NEW QUESTION 117

A. (i) and (ii)

NEW QUESTION 118

NEW QUESTION 122

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NEW QUESTION 125

A. Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

NEW QUESTION 128

A. Use case testing

NEW QUESTION 130

NEW QUESTION 131