DATE ® P07-21

28-08-2022

ADVANCED CUMMULATIVE TEST (ACT-1)

PAPER

1
TARGET : JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2024

BATCH : IWA*,IA*,A1*,A2*, A2
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180
SET

1 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 Question Paper-1 has three (03) parts: Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
 Each part has a total eighteen(18)questions divided into three (03) sections(Section-1,Section-2 and Section-3).
 Total number of questions in Question Paper-1 are Fifty Four(54) and Maximum Marks are One Hundred Eighty(180)
TYPE OF QUESTIONS AND MARKING SCHEMES
SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks : 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
 Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
 Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
 Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which
are correct.
 Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A),(B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then :
 Choosing ONLY (A),(B) and (D) will get +4 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks
 Choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks
 Choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks
 Choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks, and
 Choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
 This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs
 Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : …………………………………………………ROLL NO. :………………..………………………..
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number
and shall abide by them of the candidate.
------------------------- -------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

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 INSTRUCTIONS FOR OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET (ORS)
 Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.
 The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
 Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.
 Write your name, roll number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the space provided for this
purpose on the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble under each
digit of your roll number.

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

 Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.
 Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
 Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.
 The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here :
 There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble.
 The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened and not darkened bubbles
are evaluated.
 Zero marks ‘0’ If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).

FOR INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS OMR LOOKS LIKE :

 For example, if answer ‘SINGLE DIGIT’ integer type below :
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
 For example, if answer ‘SINGLE DIGIT’ integer with positive / negative type below :
0
– 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
 For example, if answer ‘DOUBLEDIGIT’ integer type below :
0 0
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 5
6 6
7 7
8 8
9 9
FOR DECIMAL TYPE QUESTIONS OMR LOOKS LIKE :
COLUMN
1 2 . 3 4
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9
 If answer is 3.7, then fill 3 in either 1st or 2nd column and 7 in3rd or 4th column.
 If answer is 3.07 then fill 3 in 1st or 2nd column ‘0’ in 3rd column and 7 in 4th column.
 If answer is, 23 then fill 2 & 3 in 1st and 2ndcolumn respectively, while you can either leave column 3 & 4 or fill ‘0’ in
either of them.

Resonance Eduventures Limited

CORPORATE / REGISTEREDOFFICE :CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Ph.No. :0744-2777777, 0744-2777700| Toll Free : 1800 258 5555 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222 | 7340010333
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 MATHEMATICS
PART : I MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS
SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
 Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
 Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
 Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
 Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A),(B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then :
 Choosing ONLY (A),(B) and (D) will get +4 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks
 Choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks
 Choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks
 Choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks, and
 Choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark

1. The quadratic equation x2 – 2x –  = 0,   0

(A) cannot have a real root if  < – 1
(B) can have a rational root if  is square of a rational number.
(C) cannot have an integral root if n2 – 1 <  < n2 + 2n, where n = 0,1, 2, 3 ...
(D) none of these

b–c
2. If a, b, c are three terms of an A.P. such that a  b then may be equal to
a–b
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 2

3. Which of the following is/are correct ?

a–b a
(A) a, b, c are in G.P. if =
b–c b

a–b a
(B) a, b, c are in H.P. if =
b–c c

(C) a, b, c are in G.P. then b is geometric mean between a and c.

b b b
(D) a, b, c are in H.P. then a – , ,c– are in G.P.
2 2 2

3 5
(log 2 x ) 2  log 2 x 
4. The equation x 4 4
 2 has
(A) At least one real root (B) Exactly three real solutions
(C) Exactly one irrational solution (D) Exactly one integral solution

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 MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS
5. If all roots of equation x5 – 10x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx – 32 = 0 are positive then
(A) a = 20 (B) a = 40 (C) c = 80 (D) b = -80

6. Let N = 2 + 22 + 222 + …. upto 30000 terms.

(A) last four digits of N are 8580 (B) last three digits of N are 580
(C) last four digits of N are 7580 (D) last digit of N is 0

SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)

 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions
 Each question has Four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

7. Let A,G,H are respectively the A.M., G.M. and H.M. between two positive numbers. If xA = yG = zH
where x, y, z are non-zero quantities then x, y, z are in
(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) A.G.P.

8. The graph of a quadratic polynomial y = ax2 + bx + c (a, b, c  R) with vertex on y-axis is as shown
in the figure. Then which one of the following statement is INCORRECT?

(A) Product of the roots of the corresponding quadratic equation is positive.

(B) Discriminant of the quadratic equation is negative.
(C) Nothing definite can be said about the sum of the roots, whether positive, negative or zero.
(D) Both roots of the quadratic equation are purely imaginary.

4 44 444
9. The sum of the series + + +......  is
19 19 2 19 3
38 4 36 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81 19 871 9

10. If x, x2 + 2, x3 + 10, , .......are in G.P., x  N, then the value of /9 is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 54

11. a1, a2, a3, ............, an are in A.P. and a1 + a3 + a5 + a7 + a9 = 20 then a5 is :

(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) 4

12. If x, 2x + 2,3x + 3 are in G.P. , then the fourth term is

(A) 27 (B) – 27 (C) 13.5 (D) – 13.5

1 1 1
13. The sum of infinite series + + + ...........  is
1 .4 4 .7 7.10
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 2 4 3

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 MATHEMATICS
 1  1  1  1 
The value of  1   1  2   1  4  1  8  .........to  is

MATHEMATICS
14.
 3  3  3  3 
(A) 3 (B) 6/5 (C) 3/2 (D) 2

SECTION – 3 : (Maximum Marks : 12)

 This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs
 Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct 
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16

Consider the figure corresponding to the quadratic expression y = x2 + bx + c

and answer the following questions

15. If 2|OA| = |OB| then

(A) c + 2b2 = 0 (B) b + 2c2 = 0 (C) c + b2 = 0 (D) b + c2 = 0

16. Sign of – b, – c respectively are

(A) positive, negative (B) negative, positive (C) negative, negative (D) positive, positive

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

n(n  1)
We know that 1 + 2 + 3 + ....... = = f(n),
2
n(n  1) (2n  1)
12 + 22 + 32 + .......... + n2 = = g(n),
6
2
 n(n  1) 
13 + 23 + 33 + .......... + n3 =   = h(n)
 2 

17. Greatest even natural number which divides g(n) – f(n), for every n  3, is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 10

18. f(n) + 3 g(n) + h(n) is divisible by 1 + 2 + 3 + ........... + n

(A) only if n = 1 (B) only if n is odd
(C) only if n is even (D) for all n  N

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 PHYSICS
PART : II PHYSICS

PHYSICS
SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
 Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
 Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
 Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
 Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A),(B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then :
 Choosing ONLY (A),(B) and (D) will get +4 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks
 Choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks
 Choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks
 Choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks, and
 Choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark

19. The velocity time graph of 2 bodies A & B is given here. Choose correct statement/s.
A

B

t
(A) acceleration of B > acceleration of A
(B) acceleration of A > acceleration of B
(C) both are starting from same point
(D) A covers greater distance than B in the same time.

20. Two inclined frictionless tracks of different inclinations meet at O from where two blocks A and B of
different masses are released as shown in figure. Then :

(A) Both blocks will reaches the bottom at the same time
(B) Block A will reach the bottom earlier than block B
(C) Both blocks will reach the bottom with same speed
(D) Block B will reach the bottom with a higher speed than block A

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 PHYSICS

21. Three identical spheres, each of mass m, are kept in contact inside a box as shown in figure. If box

PHYSICS
is moving vertically upward with an acceleration g/4, then (neglect friction)

A g/4

B C

9
(A) Normal force applied by the spheres on the bottom of the box is mg .
4
15
(B) Normal force applied by the spheres on the bottom of the box is mg .
4
(C) Normal force between spheres A and B is 2 3 mg .
5mg
(D) Normal force between spheres A and B is .
4 3

22. A cylinder of mass M and radius R is resting on two corner edges A and B as shown in figure. The
normal reaction at the edges A and B are : (Neglect friction)

Mg 2 3Mg
(A) NA = 2NB (B) NB = 3NA (C) NA = (D) NB =
2 5

23. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with an acceleration of 4 m/s2. The net force acting on the body as
seen from a frame moving with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 can be
(A) 4 N (B) 8 N (C) 16 N (D) 12 N

24. A person, standing on the roof of a 40 m high tower, throws a ball vertically upwards with speed 10 m/s.
Two seconds later, he throws another ball again in vertical downward direction (use g = 10 m/s2). If both
the balls hit the ground simultaneously, then choose the correct option(s).
(A) The first ball hits the ground after 4 seconds.
(B) The second ball was projected vertically downwards with speed 5 m/s.
(C) The distance travelled by the first ball is 10 m greater than the distance travelled by the
seconds ball.
(D) Both balls hit the ground with same velocities.

SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)

 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions
 Each question has Four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

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 PHYSICS

25. Two blocks, each having a mass M, rest on frictionless surface as shown in the figure. If the

PHYSICS
pulleys are light and frictionless, and M on the incline is allowed to move down, then the tension in
the string will be

M fixed
 M

2 3 Mg sin 
(A) Mg sin  (B) Mg sin  (C) (D) 2 Mg sin 
3 2 2

26. A block of mass 20 kg is balanced by three strings A, B & C as shown in figure. Ratio of tensions
in string A and B (TA/TB) is

A B
83°
37° C
20kg

5 5 3 5 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 8 6 5

27. A particle is projected from point P with velocity 53 ms-1 perpendicular to the surface of a hollow
right angled cone as shown in figure. It collides at Q normally. The velocity with which it collides at
Q will be

Q
300
(A) 25 ms-1 (B) 15 ms-1 (C) 5 3 ms-1 (D) 103 ms-1

28. Position–time graph for a particle moving along x-direction is as shown in the figure. Average
speed of the particle from t = 0 to t = 4 is :

15 10 5 5
(A) m/s (B) m/s (C) m/s (D) m/s
4 3 2 4

29. A particle is moving along straight line whose position x at time t is described by x = t 3 – t2 where x
is in meters and t is in seconds. Then the average acceleration from t = 2 sec. to t = 4 sec. is :
(A) 16 m/s2 (B) 18 m/s2 (C) 22 m/s (D) 10 m/s2

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 PHYSICS

30. STATEMENT-1 : Path of a projectile, seen from another projectile is straight line.

PHYSICS
STATEMENT-2 : If relative acceleration is zero then relative velocity will be constant.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is correct explanation for
STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is not correct explanation
for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is false
(D) STATEMENT-1 is false, STATEMENT-2 is true

31. Consider two cars moving perpendicular to each other as shown. Initially distance between them is
100 m. Velocity of A is 10 3 m/s and velocity of B is 10 m/s. Then :

(A) magnitude of velocity of A w.r.t. B is 10 m/s

(B) minimum distance between them is 50 m
(C)minimum distance between them is 50 3 m
(D) at t = 2 sec. they will be nearest to each other

32. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg respectively are placed on a smooth plane
surface. A force F of 20 N is applied on A as shown. Then the force of contact (in N) between B
and C is :

F=20N B C
A

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12

SECTION – 3 : (Maximum Marks : 12)

 This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs
 Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct 
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

Paragraph for Question Nos. 33 to 34

Consider the given system shown in figure. At certain instant velocity of lift (w.r.t. ground), velocity
of A (relative to lift) is shown. Velocity of lift is constant.

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 PHYSICS

33. If mA = mB = m, choose the correct options.

PHYSICS
g g
(A) acceleration of A is downward (B) acceleration of A is upward
3 5
6mg g
(C) force on the ceiling of lift by string is (D) acceleration of B is downward
5 5

34. Choose the correct options.

(A) Velocity of A relative to ground is 6 m/s upward
(B) Velocity of B relative to ground is 2 m/s upward
(C) Velocity of B relative to ground is 4 m/s downward
(D) Velocity of A relative to ground is 4 m/s upward

Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 to 36

The trajectory of a particle in a vertical plane is y = 3 x – 2x2 [g = 10 m/s2]. x and y are in meters.

u

O

35. Range is
3 3 2
(A) m (B) m (C) 3 m (D) m
2 16 3

36. Maximum height is

8 3 2
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D)
3 8 3

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 CHEMISTRY

PART : III CHEMISTRY

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,

CHEMISTRY
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct.
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
 Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
 Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
 Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
 Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A),(B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then :
 Choosing ONLY (A),(B) and (D) will get +4 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks
 Choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks
 Choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks
 Choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks
 Choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks, and
 Choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark

37. An example of a disproportionation reaction is :

(A) 2MnO4– + 10I– + 16H+ 2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O
(B) 2CuBr CuBr2 + Cu
(C) 2KMnO4 K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(D) 2NaBr + Cl2 2NaCl + Br2

38. By doing which of the following the Rutherford’s closest distance of approach (calculated by using
alpha-particles) decreases?
(A) By increasing the initial speed of alpha-particles
(B) By decreasing the kinetic energy of alpha-particles
(C) By using silver foil (Z = 47) in place of gold foil (Z = 79)
(D) By using metal foil (Z > 79) in place of gold foil (Z = 79)

39. The IUPAC name of given compound is 3, 5-dibromo cyclohex-1-ene. If both of bromine atom are
replaced by –COOH group, then incorrect IUPAC name for the above given compound will be:

(A) Cyclohex-5-ene-1, 3-dicarboxylic acid

(B) Cyclohex-5-ene-1, 3-dioic acid
(C) Cyclohex-4-ene-1, 3-dicarboxylic acid
(D) Cyclohex-1-ene-3, 5-dicarboxylic acid

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40. Find out correct statement/s about given molecule

CHEMISTRY
N
(A) Compound is homocyclic aromatic.
(B) Compound is heterocyclic aromatic.
(C) Number of  bonded carbon atoms are 5.
(D) Degree of unsaturation (DU) or double bond equivalent (DBE) is five.

41. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect

(A) All atoms are composed of neutrons, protons and electrons.
(B) e/m ratio of anode rays is minimum when the gas in discharge tube is hydrogen.
(C) In anion, the number of electrons is less than the number of protons.
(D) When sodium atom changes to sodium ion, the composition of the nucleus also changes.

42. Select the correct option(s) :

(A) Total charge on a mixture of 2 gram-ion Cl– and 16 gram of O2– = – 4NAe C.
31 3
(B) Total mass of neutrons present in 1.24 gram of 15 P ion  0.64 gram.
(C) Number of atoms in 256 u of S8 = 8 NA.
(D) 1 mol is defined as the number of molecules of H2 gas present in it's sample occupying a
volume of exactly 22.4 L at STP.

SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)

 This section contains EIGHT (08) questions
 Each question has Four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

43. 10 mL of 2(M) NaOH solution is added to 200 mL of 0.5 (M) of NaOH solution. What is the final
concentration ?
(A) 0.57 M (B) 5.7 M (C) 11.4 M (D) 1.14 M

44. In the reaction 4A  2B  3C  A 4B2 C3 , what will be the number of moles of product formed,
starting from 1 mol of A, 0.6 mol of B and 0.72 mol of C :-
(A) 2.32 (B) 0.24 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.25

45. Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The
molarity of the solution is :
(A) 1.78 M (B) 2.00 M (C) 2.05 M (D) 2.22 M

46. 50 gm of CaCO3 is allowed to react with 68.6 gm of H3PO4 then select the incorrect option-
3CaCO3  2H3PO 4  Ca3 (PO 4 )2  3H2O  3CO 2
(A) 51.67 gm salt is formed
(B) Amount of unreacted reagent = 35.93 gm
(C) nco2  0.5 moles
(D) 0.7 mole CO2 is evolved

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47. Which one of the following does not occur?
(A) 113
Cd 10 n 112
48 Cd  1 e
0
(B) 24
Mg  24 He 14
27
Si 10 n

CHEMISTRY
48 12

(C) 40
20 Ca 10 n 19
40
K 11 H (D) 43
20 Ca  24 He  21
46
Sc 11 H

48. The order of the oxidation state of the phosphorus atom in H3PO2, H3PO4, H3PO3, and H4P2O6 is
(A) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 (B) H3PO4 > H4P2O6 > H3PO3 > H3PO2
(C) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 > H3PO4 (D) H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4 > H4P2O6

49. For 3 moles of ammonia gas, which of the following are true ?
(I) It contains 12 NA atoms (II) Volume at STP is 67.2 L
(III) Number of molecules is = 3 NA (IV) Mass % of hydrogen is 17.65 %
(A) II, III & IV (B) I, II, III & IV (C) I, II & IV (D) I, III & IV

50. The correct expression relating molality (m), molarity (M), density of solution (d) and molar mass
(M2) of solute is :
M M
(A) m   1000 (B) m   1000
d  MM2 1000 d  MM2
d  MM2 1000d  MM2
(C) m   1000 (D) m   1000
M M

SECTION – 3 : (Maximum Marks : 12)

 This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs
 Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is correct 
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

Paragraph for Question Nos. 51 to 52

Zingiberene is a monocyclic compound that is the predominant constituent of the oil of ginger
(Zingiber officinale), from which it gets its name. It can contribute upto 30% of the essential oils in
ginger rhizomes. This is the compound that gives ginger its distinct flavoring.

51. In Zingiberene the parent chain is :

(A) One double bond containing acyclic carbon chain.
(B) Saturated acyclic carbon chain.
(C) Two double bond containing cyclic ring.
(D) All of these.

52. How many sp2 – sp2 C– C  bonds are present in the structure of Zingiberene.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1

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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 53 to 54

A mixture of 32 g of oxygen and 6 g of hydrogen is heated to the formation of H 2O(g). The reaction
is :
2H2(g) + O2(g)  2H2O (g) : The H2O hence formed is liquified and is treated with 1 mole
anhydrous copper sulphate
CuSO4 + 5H2O  CuSO4 . 5H2O
(anhydrous)

53. What will be the maximum amount of H2O produced by given reaction :
(A) 38 g (B) 54 g (C) 36 g (D) 18 g

54. Mass of CuSO4. 5H2O produced is : (Cu = 63.5)

(A) 41g (B) 88g (C) 99.8 g (D) 249.5 g

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