Memory Based Paper

IBPS Clerk Mains

2021
IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 1
Till November 2021, how many All India Financial Institutions does our country have?
Options :
1. Five
2. Three
3. Six
4. Two
5. Four
Answer : Four

There are 4 All India Financial Institutions in India, these are-

 Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)

 Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
 Export - Import Bank of India (Exim Bank)
 Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India (IRBI) now Industrial Investment Bank of India.

All India Financial Institutions (AIFI) are a group of financial regulatory bodies also known as the
"financial instruments" that play a vital role in the financial markets in the proper allocation of
resources, sourcing from businesses that have a surplus and distributing to others who have
deficits, to have a continuous circulation of money in the economy.

Question No. 2
What is the class of the 4th Submarine INS Vela ?
Options :
1. Scorpene submarines
2. Cruise missile submarines
3. Mission Based submarines
4. Guided missile submarines
5. Ballistic missile submarines
Answer : Scorpene submarines
INS Vela (S24) is the fourth submarine of the first batch of six Kalvari-class submarines for the
Indian Navy. It is a diesel-electric attack submarine based on the Scorpene class, designed by
French naval defence and energy group DCNS and manufactured by Mazagon Dock Limited.

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IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 3

In the seven continents of the world which is the third largest continent area wise?

Options :

1. Asia

2. Africa

3. South America

4. North America

5. Antarctica

Answer : North America

North America is third in area at 9.4 million square miles (24.5 million km 2 . However, it's fifth on the

list in population with 369 million people.

Question No. 4
The Solar Charkha Mission was launched in June 2018 by which Ministry ?
Options :
1. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
2. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
3. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
4. Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME)
5. None of these
Answer : Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME)

The mission is setting up Solar Charkha Clusters which would mean a focal village and other
surrounding villages in a radius of 8 to 10 kilometers which will have 200 to 2042 beneficiaries

It aims to enhance inclusivity by employing women, youngsters in this mission by the use of solar
charkhas in the scheme aims to promote sustainable development in rural areas.

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Question No. 5
In December 2021, which fashion brand named Leena Nair, an executive from Unilever, as its new
global CEO?
Options :
1. Dior
2. Prada
3. Gucci
4. Chanel
5. Bulgari
Answer : Chanel
French fashion brand Chanel named Leena Nair, an executive from Unilever, as its new global
CEO.
Leena Nair is a British national born in India. She is an alumnus of XLRI Jamshedpur.

Question No. 6
Which of the following is/are part of CAPF(Central Armed Police Forces).
i. Assam Rifles (AR)
ii. Border Security Force (BSF)
iii. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
iv. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
Options :
1. Only i and ii
2. Only iii and iv
3. All of these
4. Only i, ii and iv
5. None of these
Answer : All of these

CAPF includes -

 Assam Rifles (AR)

 Border Security Force (BSF)

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 Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)

 Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
 Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
 National Security Guard (NSG)
 Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)

Question No. 7

Public sector banks are required to maintain how much % of CRAR(Capital to Risk Weighted Assets

Ratio) to protect depositors and promote the stability and efficiency of financial systems?

Options :

1. 15%

2. 9%

3. 11%

4. 14%

5. None of these

Answer : 9%

All the Public sector banks are required to maintain 9% of the Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio

to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process. It

is the ratio of a bank‟s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. It is

formulated and supervised by the RBI.

Question No. 8
What is the present Statutory Liquidity ratio (SLR) of the RBI?
Options :
1. 19%
2. 17.5%
3. 18%
4. 18.4%

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5. 19.3%
Answer : 18%
According to the RBI policies the SLR Rate is 18.00% and the CRR is 4.00%. SLR refers to the
minimum reserve requirement that needs to be maintained by commercial banks in the nation.

Question No. 9

______ state ranks the highest state in terms of highly populated according to the census 2011?

Options :

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Punjab

3. Telangana

4. West Bengal

5. Andhra Pradesh

Answer : West Bengal

West Bengal ranks as the state with the maximum density of population in India and its area is

88,752 sq km. In 2001 the density was 904 and in 2011 it became 1030.

Question No. 10
Which of these bank/s included in PCA(Prompt Corrective Action)?
Options :
1. State Bank of India
2. Indian Bank
3. Bank of India
4. Central Bank of India
5. None of these
Answer : Central Bank of India

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PCA main purpose is to enable supervisory intervention at appropriate time and require the
supervised entity to initiate and implement remedial measures in a timely manner, so as to restore
its financial health. It includes three main banks -

1. Central Bank of India

2. UCO Bank
3. Indian Overseas Bank

Question No. 11
Which of the following organizations has already made a profit of Rs 18,348 crore in the second
quarter of the financial year 2022?
Options :
1. BHEL
2. ONGC
3. SAIL
4. LIC
5. SEBI
Answer : ONGC
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) reported the highest ever quarterly profit by any Indian
company till date. At Rs 18,348 crore, the standalone net profit for the second quarter of FY22 is
565.3 % higher than its Rs 2,758-crore profit as compared to 2021. It has also crossed TATA Steel
profit which was Rs 14,688.02 crore in the year 2017 -18.

Question No. 12
______ bank and Niti Aayog have collaborated up to work together to facilitate a program for faster
and easier financing of electric vehicles (EV).
Options :
1. World Bank
2. Swiss Bank
3. HSBC Bank
4. ICICI Bank

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5. None of these
Answer : World Bank
World Bank and NITI AAYOG are setting up a $300-million deal „first loss risk sharing instrument‟,
with State Bank of India (SBI) as its program manager. They want to enter this market which is very
niche.

Question No. 13
Which Indian state does not require an Inner Line Permit System?
Options :
1. Sikkim
2. Nagaland
3. Manipur
4. Mizoram
5. Arunachal Pradesh
Answer : Sikkim
Only Sikkim does not require the ILP rest require it.

Question No. 14
After serving for 25 years in the organization, Ruchir Sharma has left it, name the organization?
Options :
1. Morgan Stanley
2. Citibank
3. Raymond James
4. Credit Suisse
5. Merrill Lynch
Answer : Morgan Stanley
Ruchir Sharma, serving for 25 years in Morgan Stanley, would leave the investment banking and
financial services firm to venture into investments and focus on writing opportunities.

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Question No. 15
The government has decided to enhance the funding of the manufacturing of domestic cells and
modules from existing Rs 4,500 crore to ______ crore now?
Options :
1. 10,100 crore
2. 24,500 crore
3. 20,900 crore
4. 34,000 crore
5. 29,500 crore
Answer : 24,500 crore
Under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme the government has increased the funding for
the domestic solar cells and module manufacturing to Rs 24,000 crore from the existing Rs 4,500
crore to make India an exporting nation.

Question No. 16
In ESG, what does S stand for?
Options :
1. Social
2. Service
3. Supply
4. Structure
5. None of these
Answer : Social
ESG - Environmental, Social, and Governance. It is an approach to evaluate the extent to which a
corporation works on behalf of social goals that go beyond the role of a corporation to maximize
profits on behalf of the corporation's shareholders.

Question No. 17
______ book has been penned down by the author Devdutt Pattanaik?
Options :
1. Let‟s Build a Company

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2. Business Sutra
3. The Unusual Billionaires
4. Dream with Your Eyes Open
5. Connect The Dots
Answer : Business Sutra
Business Sutra uses stories, symbols and rituals drawn from Hindu, Jain and Buddhist mythology to
understand a wide variety of business situations that range from running a successful tea stall to
nurturing talent in a large multinational corporation.

Question No. 18
Who is the head of the Other Backward Class Commission in India which was in news recently in
January?
Options :
1. Kaka Kalelkar
2. Shri Sudheendra Kulkarni
3. Dr. Manoj Soni
4. Justice A.K Mathur
5. Justice G Rohini
Answer : Justice G Rohini
In October 2017, G. Rohini was appointed by President of India to head a five member commission
to examine the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBC) under Article 340 of the Indian
Constitution.

Question No. 19
In December 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been conferred with the highest civilian
award of __________, Ngadag Pel gi Khorlo, on the occasion of the country‟s National Day.
Options :
1. Maldives
2. Myanmar

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3. Bhutan
4. Nepal
5. None of these
Answer : Bhutan
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been conferred with the highest civilian award of Bhutan, Ngadag
Pel gi Khorlo, on the occasion of the 114th National Day of Bhutan which commemorates the
Coronation of His Majesty the First King of Bhutan, Druk Gyalpo Ugyen Wangchuck on December
17, 1907.

Question No. 20
RBI launched its first global hackathon named “HARBINGER 2021 – Innovation for Transformation”.
The theme of HARBINGER 2021 was ______________.
Options :
1. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
2. Credit Discipline and Credit from Formal Institutions
3. Go Digital, Go Secure
4. Smarter Digital Payments
5. Consumer Protection
Answer : Smarter Digital Payments

The Reserve Bank of India has launched its first global hackathon named “HARBINGER 2021 –
Innovation for Transformation”.

The theme of HARBINGER 2021 is „Smarter Digital Payments‟.

Question No. 21
The Union Cabinet has extended the period of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana (PMGKAY)
till ______?
Options :

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1. April 2024
2. March 2023
3. March 2022
4. May 2023
5. May 2022
Answer : March 2022
Cabinet approves extension of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana (PMGKAY) for another
four months (December 2021-March 2022)as announced by the Prime Minister of India. The
scheme will provide relief during covid 19 pandemic by giving food grains to cover 80 crore people
of the country.

Question No. 22
Which is taken as the base year for the National Family Health Survey?
Options :
1. 2014 -15
2. 2015-16
3. 2000 - 01
4. 2012 -13
5. 2003 -04
Answer : 2015-16

Question No. 23
When is the Birsa Munda Birth Anniversary celebrated in India?
Options :
1. November 15
2. May 9
3. January 23
4. October 31
5. None of these

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Answer : November 15
Birsa Munda was a young tribal freedom fighter who was arrested by the British on March 3, 1900,
and died young at the age of 25 in the jail of Ranchi on June 9, 1900. He was born on 15 November
1875.

Question No. 24
India Post Payments Bank has partnered with which insurance company to offer term and annuity
products to its customers.
Options :
1. Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
2. United India Insurance Co
3. The New India Assurance Co. Ltd
4. Tata AIA Life Insurance Co
5. Oriental Life Insurance Company
Answer : Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), Department of Posts, and Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance Company
(BALIC) announced a strategic alliance to offer term and annuity products to customers through the
Bank‟s extensive network of 650 branches and over 1,36,000 banking access points for distribution
of their non-life insurance products across the country.

Question No. 25
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), is an international agreement that
establishes the legal framework for marine and maritime activities. It is also known as Law of the
Sea, was adopted in the year?
Options :
1. 1982
2. 1967
3. 1980
4. 1991
5. 1969
Answer : 1982

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UNCLOS divides marine areas into five main zones namely- Internal Waters, Territorial Sea,
Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and the High Seas. It provides the backbone for
offshore governance by coastal states and those navigating the oceans.

Question No. 26
The RBI announced to appoint an Internal Ombudsman for the Non-Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-
ND) with asset size of ______ crore
Options :
1. Rs 5000 crore
2. Rs 1000 crore
3. Rs 2000 crore
4. Rs 3000 crore
5. Rs 4000 crore
Answer : Rs 5000 crore
RBI announced an Internal Ombudsman mechanism for the following two types of Non-Banking
Financial Companies (NBFCs). The two types of NBFCs are Deposit-taking NBFCs (NBFCs-D) with
10 or more branches and Non-Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND) with asset size of Rs.5,000 crore
and above.

Question No. 27
In which year the Royal Bengal Tiger was given the status of National Animal of India?
Options :
1. 1975
2. 1973
3. 1970
4. 1969
5. 1965
Answer : 1973
The Bengal Tiger was declared as the National Animal of India in April 1973, with the initiation of
Project Tiger, to protect the tigers in India.

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Question No. 28
Under the PMAY-G scheme(Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana) is selected by the government
using a process that makes use of the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC), when did SECC
come into existence?
Options :
1. 2009
2. 2007
3. 2000
4. 2011
5. 2008
Answer : 2011
The government provides funds to the homeless and those who stay in mud houses, to construct
houses through SECC in Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin scheme.

Question No. 29

The ADB(Asian Development Bank) has approved to provide a loan of Rs _______ to Government

of India purchase covid vaccines against corona disease.

Options :

1. $1.5 billion

2. $3.2 billion

3. $2.4 billion

4. $1.8 billion

5. $1.7 billion

Answer : $1.5 billion

The Asian Development Bank has approved a USD 1.5 billion (around Rs 11,185 crore) loan to

India for COVID-19 vaccine procurement.

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Question No. 30

The Tibetan Parliament-in-Exile (TPiE) headquarter is at which city of Himachal Pradesh?

Options :

1. Dharamshala

2. Shimla

3. Mandi

4. Bilaspur

5. Solan

Answer : Dharamshala

The Tibetan parliament-in-exile also called the Central Tibetan Administration (CTA) is

headquartered in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh.

Question No. 31
Who is the author of the book “The Emperor of All Maladies” ?
Options :
1. Siddhartha Mukherjee
2. Atul Gawande
3. Yuval Noah Harari
4. Paul Kalanithi
5. None of these
Answer : Siddhartha Mukherjee
The Emperor of All Maladies is a Biography of Cancer an insightful account of cancer and the
persistent fight of humans against it from the viewpoint of a doctor, researcher and an award-
winning science writer. The book was published on 16 November 2010 by Scribner, and it won the
Pulitzer Prize for Non-Fiction 2011.

Question No. 32

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A Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) protocol that is used to send text messages is
known as USSD,
what is the U in it?
Options :
1. Universal
2. Unrecognized
3. Unstructured
4. Uniform
5. None of these
Answer : Unstructured
USSD stands for Unstructured Supplementary Service Data. It is a communication protocol used by
Global System for Mobile (GSM) cellular phones to communicate or send a text message from a
mobile phone to an application hosted by the mobile operator just like SMS (Short Message
Service). A message in USSD can be up to 182 characters long.

Question No. 33

The Indian Navy received its first P15B stealth guided-missile destroyer “Visakhapatnam-class” on

October 28, 2021 which company was behind its manufacturing?

Options :

1. Cochin Shipyard Limited

2. Sembmarine Kakinada Limited

3. Hindustan Shipyard Limited

4. Mazagon Dock Limited

5. Goa Shipyard Limited

Answer : Mazagon Dock Limited

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It was designed and constructed by Mazagon Dock Limited and it is the latest destroyer design

currently under construction for the Indian Navy. It also incorporates new design concepts for

improved survivability, sea keeping, stealth and maneuverability.

Question No. 34
One of the National Libraries of India the Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Library is located in which part of
India?
Options :
1. Indore, Uttar Pradesh
2. Dehradun, Uttarakhand
3. Delhi
4. Patna, Bihar
5. Mumbai, Maharashtra
Answer : Patna, Bihar
The Library is located in Patna, Bihar. It was opened to the public on 29 October 1891 by Khan
Bahadur Khuda Bakhsh with 4,000 manuscripts, of which he inherited 1,400 from his father Maulvi
Mohammed Bakhsh.

Question No. 35
According to National Family and Health Survey which was released by the Union health ministry in
November 2021, India now has ______ women for every 1000 men.
Options :
1. 990
2. 991
3. 1000
4. 1020
5. 1050
Answer : 1020
According to National Family and Health Survey which was released by the Union health ministry in
November 2021, India now has 1020 women for every 1000 men.

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Question No. 36
How much % equi relaxation on commerce have been decided by both the countries India and
USA?
Options :
1. 4%
2. 3%
3. 5%
4. 2%
5. 1%
Answer : 2%
Both India and the United States have decided a settlement on the issue of a 2 % equalization levy,
also known as 'Google Tax', imposed by the country on e-commerce operators.

Question No. 37
The New Development Bank is also referred to as ______ bank?
Options :
1. BRICS Bank
2. World Bank
3. Swiss Bank
4. ADB
5. AIIB
Answer : BRICS Bank
The New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral bank established by BRICS countries which
include (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) to mobilize resources for development
projects in BRICS, emerging economies and developing countries.

Question No. 38
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 is the most successful mechanism to recover debt. Who
heads this committee?
Options :
1. Raghuraman Rajan
2. U K Sinha

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3. Ajay Tyagi
4. Madhabi Puri Buch
5. None of these
Answer : U K Sinha
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) has set up a 11-member working group under
the Chairmanship of former SEBI chief UK Sinha to go into the concept of „Group Insolvency‟ and
suggest a suitable framework.

Question No. 39

Where is Chumbi Valley located?

Options :

1. Assam

2. Tibet, China

3. Kashmir

4. Meghalaya

5. Manali, Himachal Pradesh

Answer : Tibet, China

Chumbi Valley is also called Dromo, Tromo or Chomo is a valley in the Himalayas that projects
southwards from the Tibetan plateau, intervening between Sikkim and Bhutan.
Question No. 40

Which state in India is the largest producer of Natural Rubber in India?

Options :

1. Maharashtra

2. Kerala

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Telangana

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5. Assam

Answer : Kerala
Kerala ranks on the top for being the major contributor in rubber production of India followed by
Tripura and other states. Almost 90% of total rubber production in the country is done in Kerala
state.

Question No. 41

To boost its digital payments, which Payment bank has released the QR(Quick Response)Code

Sound Box for its users?

Options :

1. Airtel Payment Bank

2. India Post Payment Bank

3. Fino PayTech Limited

4. Jio Payments Bank
5. AU Small Finance Bank
Answer : AU Small Finance Bank
India‟s Largest AU Small Finance Bank has launched QR (Quick Response) Code Sound Box to
help small merchants to run their operations smoothly without the hassle of reading SMS every time
when a customer makes a payment. It will be made available in five languages – Hindi, English,
Punjabi, Gujarati and Marathi.
Question No. 42
Which of the International airports has signed a pact with Noida International Airport Limited (NIAL)
for the development of an airport at Jewar, Uttar Pradesh?
Options :
1. Zurich International Airport
2. Denver International Airport
3. Frankfurt Airport
4. Munich International Airport
5. None of these
Answer : Zurich International Airport

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The Noida International Airport at Jewar is spread across an area of 5,000 acres and is being
developed by Zurich International Airport AG at an estimated cost of Rs 29,560 crore.

Question No. 43
Isobaric lines drawn on the map represent which quantity to be the same?
Options :
1. Dew point
2. Mean temperature
3. Amounts of sunshine
4. Atmospheric pressure
5. Recurrence of auroras
Answer : Atmospheric pressure
Isobars are lines on a weather map joining places of equal atmospheric pressure. It measures the
atmospheric pressure in millibars and is drawn at a difference of two or four millibars.

Question No. 44
Which of these private financial institutions have raised Rs 3595 crore via Infrastructure Bonds ?
Options :
1. ICICI Bank
2. Axis Bank
3. IDBI Bank
4. HDFC Bank
5. None of these
Answer : ICICI Bank
Infrastructure bonds are borrowings to be invested in government funded infrastructure projects
within a country.

Question No. 45
The world‟s largest steel producer company______ has planned to set up the steel plant in state
Odisha?
Options :

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1. ArcelorMittal
2. Shagang Group
3. HBIS Group
4. Nippon Steel Corporation
5. None of these
Answer : ArcelorMittal
ArcelorMittal, the world's largest steel producer, with a joint venture with Nippon Steel, the second-
largest steel maker is ready to set up a mega steel plant in coastal Odisha, in a 24 million-tonne
(MT) project over ₹1.02 lakh crore.

Question No. 46
Where in India is the Wildlife Institute of India located?
Options :
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Sikkim
3. Meghalaya
4. Uttarakhand
5. Assam
Answer : Uttarakhand
It is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand and was established in 1982 under the Ministry of
Environment Forest and Climate change, Government of India. It has wildlife research in areas of
study like Biodiversity, Endangered Species, Wildlife Policy, Wildlife Management, Wildlife
Forensics, Spatial Modeling, Ecodevelopment, Ecotoxicology, Habitat Ecology and Climate
Change.
Question No. 47

A Gurgaon based Indian startup Unicorn Spinny is related to buying and selling of used______ ?

Options :

1. Mobile Phones

2. Cars

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3. Furniture

4. Laptop

5. Clothes

Answer : Cars

Spinny, a $283 million worth Gurgaon-based startup that operates a platform to facilitate the

purchase and sale of used cars, is the latest firm to become a unicorn in the world‟s second-largest

internet market.

Question No. 48
The leading financial services and solutions company Paytm has raised India's largest IPO of
valuations Rs _______ crores?
Options :
1. 17,200
2. 18,900
3. 16,500
4. 18,300
5. 20,200
Answer : 18,300

Paytm‟s parent company One97 Communications launched its mega initial public offering (IPO) on
November 8, 2021. One97 is India‟s leading digital ecosystem for consumers and merchants.

Paytm raised a whopping Rs 18,300 crore from its maiden offer. It will be the largest public offering
in the Indian market so far.

Question No. 49

A penalty of ______ crore has been imposed on the ATM Manager of Tata Communications

Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL) by the Reserve Bank of India?

Options :

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1. 5 crore

2. 1 crore

3. 2 crore

4. 4 crore

5. 3 crore

Answer : 2 crore

RBI imposed Rs 2 crore penalty on TCPSL and Rs 54.93 lakh on ATPL for non compliance with the
directions issued by RBI on White Label ATM deployment targets and net-worth requirement and
also on not maintaining of escrow account balance and net-worth requirement.

Question No. 50
_______ and _______ beach of India has got the Blue Flag Certification in the month of September
2021.
Options :
1. Eden and Kovalam
2. Rishikonda and Colva Beach
3. Vagator and Calangute Beach
4. Vodarevu and Mypad
5. None of these
Answer : Eden and Kovalam
Two of India‟s pristine beaches, Eden in Pondicherry, and Kovalam in Tamil Nadu have received the
coveted Blue Flag certification. It is given by the Foundation for Environment Education in Denmark
(FEE) to eco-friendly destinations.

Direction:- Read the passage given below and fill in the blanks with the suitable option.

China‟s fast-growing logistical and scientific capability in Antarctica and more active participation in
Antarctic affairs continue to draw attention and scrutiny. In recent years, China has notably spoken

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about _____________ (51) a balance between protection and use in the Commission for the
Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources and the Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meetings.
Vagaries in China‟s Antarctic policy have led to ____________ (52) about the country‟s long-term
ambition on the continent, with some worried about the potential for destabilisation of the Antarctic
Treaty System regime caused by China‟s ______________ (53) for mineral resources. Much of this
____________ (54) rests on the fate of the Madrid Protocol, which this month marked its 30th
anniversary. Known formally as the Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty, the
great achievement of this agreement is in ____________ (55) Antarctica‟s unique and vulnerable
environment under a prohibition of mineral resource activities, widely known as a mining ban.
However, Article 25 does provide an opportunity to _____________ (56) the mining ban 50 years
from the date of its entry into force of the Madrid Protocol, which is 2048. While that date might
appear distant, there is ___________ (57) speculation about Beijing‟s intentions.

Question No. 51
Which of the following options is appropriate for blank 51?
Options :
1. maintain
2. striking
3. revealing
4. put
5. mentioning
Answer : striking

Here, „striking‟ is the correct word to be used.

Other words are inappropriate.

Question No. 52
Which of the following options is appropriate for blank 52?

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Options :
1. complained
2. notifications
3. attacks
4. position
5. suspicions
Answer : suspicions
Only „suspicions‟ is appropriate here.

Question No. 53
Which of the following options is appropriate for blank 53?
Options :
1. desire
2. declare
3. deposit
4. development
5. direction
Answer : desire
Here, „desire‟ is correct.

Question No. 54
Which of the following options is appropriate for blank 54?
Options :
1. contentment
2. pleasure
3. connection
4. concern
5. gaiety
Answer : concern
From the passage, we can understand that there is a concern among nations. The words
„contentment‟, „pleasure‟ and „gaiety‟ are inappropriate. Also, there is no „connection‟ mentioned.

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Question No. 55

Which of the following options is appropriate for blank 55?

Options :

1. protecting

2. devastating

3. develop

4. ensure

5. eradicating

Answer : protecting
Here, „protecting‟ is the correct word.
Since the treaty is the Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty, it‟s aim is
protection/development. Nut „develop‟ is the wrong form. Option 1 is correct.

Question No. 56

Which of the following options is appropriate for blank 56?

Options :

1. revives

2. repeat

3. review

4. recorded

5. receive

Answer : review
Here, „review‟ is the correct word.
Question No. 57

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Which of the following options is appropriate for blank 57?

Options :

1. supposition

2. continual

3. disrupted

4. amazing

5. persistent

Answer : persistent
The word „persistent‟ means „lasting for a long time or difficult to get rid of‟. It is the correct word.

China‟s fast-growing logistical and scientific capability in Antarctica and more active participation in
Antarctic affairs continue to draw attention and scrutiny. In recent years, China has notably spoken
about striking a balance between protection and use in the Commission for the Conservation of
Antarctic Marine Living Resources and the Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meetings. Vagaries in
China‟s Antarctic policy have led to suspicions about the country‟s long-term ambition on the
continent, with some worried about the potential for destabilisation of the Antarctic Treaty System
regime caused by China‟s desire for mineral resources. Much of this concern rests on the fate of
the Madrid Protocol, which this month marked its 30th anniversary. Known formally as the Protocol
on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty, the great achievement of this agreement is
in protecting Antarctica‟s unique and vulnerable environment under a prohibition of mineral
resource activities, widely known as a mining ban. However, Article 25 does provide an opportunity
to review the mining ban 50 years from the date of its entry into force of the Madrid Protocol, which
is 2048. While that date might appear distant, there is persistent speculation about Beijing‟s
intentions.

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Direction:- Given below are 5 sentences which are arranged in any random order. Arrange
the sentences and answer the question given below.

Question No. 58

Which of the following is the correct order of the sentences after rearrangement?

P. We lived in very small groups, about 50 people, groups that never really got larger than 150.

Q. They can cheat on the group with impunity.

R. So when you start having anonymous strangers in groups, what that means is that people can

free ride on the group.

S. Azim Shariff, a psychology professor and author, says, “For the vast history of our species, we

didn't live in large groups.

T. And the reason for that is because from a genetic standpoint, we‟re only built to be able to

cooperate with so many people as we can know well.

Options :

1. PRTQS

2. RSPTQ

3. QPRST

4. TRQSP

5. SPTRQ

Answer : SPTRQ
The correct order of the sentences is SPTRQ.
Here, S gives the introduction, hence is t he first sentence. P is the continuation of the first sentence.
So, it comes second. T gives the reason for the fact mentioned in S and P. It is the third sentence. Q
comes after R because „they‟ in Q refers to „anonymous strangers in groups‟ in R.

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Question No. 59

In the sentences, there is an error. Pick the option containing error as the answer.

P. We lived in very small groups, about 50 people, groups that never really got larger than 150.

Q. They can cheat on the group with impunity.

R. So when you start having anonymous strangers in groups, what that means is that people can

free ride on the group.

S. Azim Shariff, a psychology professor and author, says, “For the vast history of our species, we

didn't live in large groups.

T. And the reason for that is because from a genetic standpoint, we‟re only built to be able to

cooperate with so many people as we can know well.

Options :
1. P
2. Q
3. R
4. S
5. T
Answer : T
Here, „so many people as we can…‟ is incorrect. „so‟ should be changed to „as‟.
And the reason for that is because from a genetic standpoint, we‟re only built to be able to cooperate
with as many people as we can know well.

Direction:- In the following questions two columns are given containing three phrases
each. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the
second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. From the
options, choose the correct combination of phrases that make a grammatically and

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contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after
combination, mark (E), I.e. “None of these” as your answer.

Question No. 60

Column (1) Column (2)

(A) The number of fresh cases of COVID-19 in the

.
Column (1) Column (2)
(A) The number of fresh cases of COVID-19 in (D) clinical changes are there in the new
the country variants, and how we treat them.
(B) What we also know is that (E) have been going up steadily in Delhi and
Maharashtra.
(C) Ultimately, we have to be worried about (F) it has a very rapid growth and high
whether transmissibility.

Options :

1. A-E and B-D

2. B-F and C-D

3. Only C-E

4. A-D and C-F

5. None of these

Answer : B-F and C-D

A does not form a correct sentence with any other phrase in Column 2. A- E is incorrect because

„has been‟ should be used instead of „have been‟.

B forms a perfect pair with F.

C forms a perfect pair with D.

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Question No. 61

Column (1) Column (2)

(A) The doodle, divided into two halves, depicts(D) and the fresco technique of making mural

Ms. Salim with paintings while in Paris.

(B) Having an affinity for creating her own art (E) Ms. Salim enrolled herself at the Baghdad

since childhood Fine Arts Institute to study painting.

(C) She fixed her focus on honing (F) her brush on one side and a combination of

the subjects of her artwork on the other.

Options :
1. A-E and C-F
2. B-D and C-E
3. Only B0F
4. A-F and B-E
5. None of these
Answer : A-F and B-E
A pairs perfectly with F.
B pairs perfectly with E.
C does not have a pair.

Question No. 62

Column(1) Column (2)

(A) Security forces launched a cordon and (D) search operation in Pulwama of south

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Kashmir on Wednesday.
(B) He said the search operation turned into a (E) encounter after the hiding militants fired
upon the forces who retaliated.
(C) After the initial firing, the operation (F) were halted to evacuate civilians.

Options :
1. A- E and B- D
2. B-E and C-F
3. Only A-D
4. Only C-E
5. None of these
Answer : Only A-D

A pairs perfectly with D.

B does not have a pair. B-D does not make any sense and B-E is incorrect because „a encounter‟ is
incorrect. It should be „an encounter‟.

C does not have a pair. C-F is incorrect because „the operation‟ is singular and „was‟ should be used
instead of „were‟.

Question No. 63

Column (1) Column (2)

(A) As Sri Lanka witnesses a severe economic (D) the ruling coalition begins to fall apart.
crash
(B) Governance has come to a virtual halt (E) a political deadlock at the helm is
threatening to delay any action for recovery.
(C) Early in April, the government lost its (F) some 40 MPs sat separately in the
formidable parliamentary majority legislature.
.

Options :

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1. Only A-E
2. B-F and C-E
3. A-D and C-D
4. Only C-F
5. None of these
Answer : Only A-E

B and C do not form Pirs with any other phrase.

Only A-E is correct.

Direction:- In the following question two sentences are given with blanks in them and you

have to choose the appropriate combination of words from the given options that can fill

both the sentences respectively, making them grammatically and meaningfully complete.

Question No. 64

I. Under the Digital Services Act, tech companies will be _____________ to limit the use of personal

data for targeted advertising based on ethnicity, political views, or sexual orientation.

II. The agreement also empowers users by providing them with ____________ opportunities to

challenge content moderation decisions and transparency measures.

(a) decided (b) required (c) enhanced

Options :

1. I-c, II- a

2. I-a, II- b

3. I-b, II-c

4. I-b, II-a

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5. None of these

Answer : I-b, II-a

In I, the word „required‟ is correct.

In II, both b and c are correct, but since in I, b is correct, we can go with option 4.

Question No. 65
I. Even though the Constitution allows the Government to _____________ a residential criterion for
employment to public posts, it is doubtful whether such a measure can be extended to the private
sector.
II. The industry may feel ______________ that the residential requirement may adversely affect the
hiring of talent from outside Haryana.
(a) prescribe (b) aggrieved (c) issued
Options :
1. I-c, II-b
2. I-b, II-c
3. I-a, II-b
4. I-b, II-a
5. None of these
Answer : I-a, II-b
In I, after „to‟, the base form of the verb should be used. So, „prescribe‟ is correct. In II, only
„aggrieved‟ is correct.

Question No. 66
I. Canada and the U.S. closely monitor virtual currency activity to ___________ they do not run afoul
of laws on financial crimes.
II. Simultaneously, it should expedite the RBI‟s pilot of the Central Bank Digital Currency so as to
____________ an alternative to cryptocurrencies.

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(a) offer (b) deny (c) ensure

Options :
1. I- a, II-b
2. I-c, II-a
3. I-b, II-c
4. I-a, II-c
5. None of these
Answer : I-c, II-a
In I, „ensure‟ is correct.
„offer‟ is the most appropriate word in II.
Question No. 67

I. The pace and the discipline with which the parties announced the coalition ___________ that they

are serious about forming a stable government.

II. His success as an administrator would __________ on his ability to balance the competing

agenda of the three parties.

(a) depend (b) suggest (c) reports

Options :

1. I-c, II-b

2. I-a, II-c

3. I- b, II-a

4. I-c, II-a

5. None of these

Answer : I- b, II-a

In I, „depend‟ and „reports‟ are incorrect. „suggest‟ is correct.

In II, „depend‟ is correct.

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Question No. 68

I. The uncertainty induced by the pandemic, coupled with reduced or lost incomes, ___________ to

depress demand and is mirrored in consumer spending still remaining 3.5% shy of the pre-COVID

level.

II. Policy makers need to ramp up demand-supportive measures including increasing government

spending to ensure that the recovery ___________ and gains traction.

(a) continues (b) sustains (c) pertain

Options :

1. I-a, II-b

2. I-c, II-a

3. I-b, II-c

4. I-a, II-c
5. None of these
Answer : I-a, II-b
In I and II, the singular form of the verb should be used. So, „pertain‟ cannot be used.

In I, „continues‟ and in II, „sustains‟ is correct.

Question No. 69

I. It is the most efficient method ever.

II. It is still highly inefficient, and this inefficiency inspires hope.

(a) Despite

(b) Having

(c) As much as

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Options :
1. Only a
2. Both a and c
3. Both b and c
4. Both b and c
5. None of these
Answer : Only a
Only „despite‟ connects these two sentences.
Despite being the most efficient method ever, it is still highly inefficient, and this inefficiency inspires
hope.

Question No. 70

I. The news media industry, which invests in journalists, has struggled to stay afloat.

II. The big tech platforms have become more and more powerful.

(a) In addition to

(b) While

(c) Therefore

Options :

1. Only a

2. Both a and c

3. Only b

4. Both b and c

5. None of these

Answer : Only b

Here, two opposite situations are mentioned. Only „while‟ connects those two.

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While the news media industry, which invests in journalists, has struggled to stay afloat, the big tech

platforms have become more and more powerful.

Direction:- Select the phrase/connector (it must be at the start) from the given three

options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below,

implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.

Question No. 71
I. There is no absolute speed limit on most of the Tideway downstream of Wandsworth Bridge.
II. Boats are not allowed to create undue wash.
(a) Furthermore
(b) Although
(c) Even though
Options :
1. Only a
2. Both a and b
3. Both b and c
4. a, b and c
5. None of these
Answer : Both b and c
Here, it is said that even though there is no speed limit, boats are not allowed to create undue was.
So, b and c are correct.
Although there is no absolute speed limit on most of the Tideway downstream of Wandsworth
Bridge, boats are not allowed to create undue wash.
Even though there is no absolute speed limit on most of the Tideway downstream of Wandsworth
Bridge, boats are not allowed to create undue wash.

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Question No. 72

In the field of education, AI can and is being used in fabulous ways to traitor learning materials and

pedagogical approaches to the child‟s needs.

Options :

1. train

2. tailor

3. trial

4. tactful

5. No replacement required

Answer : tailor
The word „traitor‟ is incorrect here. It means „a person who is not loyal or stops being loyal to their
own country, social class, beliefs, etc.‟.
The correct word is „tailor‟. The verb „tailor‟ means „to make or prepare something following
particular instructions‟.
In the field of education, AI can and is being used in fabulous ways to tailor learning materials and
pedagogical approaches to the child‟s needs.

Question No. 73
Of the Greek authors who at the Renaissance fought a new life into the world Plato has had the
greatest influence.
Options :
1. bought
2. brought
3. thought
4. ought
5. No replacement required
Answer : brought

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Here, „bringing a new life‟ is correct. All other words are inappropriate.
Of the Greek authors who at the Renaissance brought a new life into the world Plato has had the
greatest influence.

Question No. 74
On each occasion, they had agreed to uneasy power-sharing arrangements with the army, only for
the army to subsequently engineer their unceremonious downfall.
Options :
1. arranged
2. related
3. proven
4. counted
5. No replacement required
Answer : No replacement required

The word „agreed‟ is correct there.

On each occasion, they had agreed to uneasy power-sharing arrangements with the army, only for
the army to subsequently engineer their unceremonious downfall.

Question No. 75
Whenever a doubt raises in regard to the fitness of any word, and a better one is not readily
suggested, let the writer turn to this word in its alphabetical place.
Options :
1. rise
2. races
3. surprises
4. arises
5. No replacement required
Answer : arises

The word „raises‟ is incorrect because someone has to raise something.

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The correct word here is „arises‟.

Whenever a doubt arises in regard to the fitness of any word, and a better one is not readily
suggested, let the writer turn to this word in its alphabetical place.

Question No. 76
Sure web space is not free space, but you'd think a website especially devoted to descending
opinions would tend to obey its own principles.
Options :
1. dissenting
2. discuss
3. devastating
4. demolishing
5. No replacement required
Answer : dissenting

The word „descending‟ does not make sense in the sentence.

The correct word is „dissenting‟, which means „showing a strongly different opinion on a particular
question‟.

Sure web space is not free space, but you'd think a website especially devoted
to dissenting opinions would tend to obey its own principles.

Question No. 77
(A) From the Alexas they converse with, to their robot playmates, to the YouTube wormholes they
disappear into, the children and adolescents of today are born into a world increasingly powered by
virtual reality and artificial intelligence (AI).
(B) Like all fundamental technological change, AI is not only changing what humans can do, it is
shaping our behaviours, our preferences, our perceptions of the world and of ourselves.
(C) But one of the most pressing concerns is that not everyone can tap into the opportunities offered
by this transformation offered by AI, as two-thirds of the world‟s children do not have access to the
Internet at home.

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(D) Since most of the training of AI models occurs at a central location, developers and IT
professionals have to move large volumes of data back and forth from repositories and this constant
data exchange is further slowed by data privacy and data ownership requirements.
(E) Unless we take rapid and concerted action to close this digital divide, AI will radically amplify
societal inequalities among children of different races, socio-economic background, genders, and
regions.
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Answer : D
Sentences in option 1, 2, 3 and 5 refers back to AI and digital divide.
Sentence in option 4 talks about data privacy and data repositories, which does not relate to the
other sentences. Hence it is the odd statement.
Question No. 78

What does the book Employment in India primarily portray?

Options :

1. How the economy of India changed after independence.

2. How can employment be categorised in India.

3. How the employment scenario changed in India since Independence.

4. The rise of the agricultural sector as the largest employer in India.

5. Indian Independence and how it affected the world employment rate.

Answer : How the employment scenario changed in India since Independence.

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In the passage, it is stated that “Employment in India by Professor Ajit Kumar Ghose is a primer to

understanding the Indian employment scenario since Independence. The book is divided into five

chapters.”

Question No. 79
What was India‟s growth strategy since Independence?
Options :
1. What was India‟s growth strategy since Independence?
2. Industrial sector was given a boost as it could employ more people.
3. The strategy was inclined towards service sector and domestic demand was given importance.
4. India‟s growth was strategically planned and all three sectors were given importance, with an
increased push towards exports.
5. None of these
Answer : The strategy was inclined towards service sector and domestic demand was given
importance.
In the passage, it is stated that “The author begins by outlining the growth strategy since
Independence, which has been more inclined towards the service sector and is driven more by
domestic demand than exports.”

Question No. 80

What does the second chapter of the book mainly contain?

Options :

1. India‟s employment rate since Independence.

2. Statistical data and figures on how employment has been on the increase.

3. How economic growth and employment are related.

4. How rate of employment has been on the decline since Independence.

5. Explanation of various terms used in the book.

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Answer : Explanation of various terms used in the book.

In the passage, it is stated that “Before delineating the employment patterns using data, the second

chapter discusses the various terms often used in labour studies and this book,…”

Question No. 81
Low unemployment figures, which are considered as a positive reflection of the labour market, may
not represent a positive scenario in a developing country like India.
According to the passage, this statement is –
Options :

1. Definitely true

2. Definitely false

3. Probably true

4. Probably false

5. Cannot be determined.

Answer : Definitely true

In the passage, it is mentioned that “… it is highlighted that the low unemployment figures, which are
often taken to be a positive reflection of the labour market, do not present a bright scenario in a
developing country like India as it does not indicate full employment.”
Question No. 82

Which of the following can be analysed from the sentence “Being unemployed is a luxury here, and

only a few can afford it; the rest take up whatever employment is available to them.”

(i) the unemployed people in India are more educated and less poor.

(ii) the rate of unemployment and education level are directly proportional to each other.

(iii) the rate of unemployment decreases with age.

(iv) with increase in education level, the unemployment rate decreases.

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Options :
1. Only ii
2. i, ii and iii
3. iii and iv
4. ii, iii and iv
5. All of these
Answer : i, ii and iii
In the passage, it is stated that “Three pieces of information emerge from the analysis; the
unemployed in India are less poor and more educated; the rate of unemployment increases with
education level; and it decreases with age as some individuals get employed while others leave the
workforce altogether.”

Question No. 83
According to the roadmap given by the author to achieve development via employment generation,
whom should we focus on?
Options :
1. highly skilled workers
2. farmers
3. industrialists
4. low-skilled workers
5. All of these
Answer : low-skilled workers
In the passage, it is stated that “India needs to create 12.5 million jobs per annum with a focus on
low-skilled workers in order to enable the economy to reach the point where there are no surplus
workers. While research often highlights the significance of employment creation for the educated
and the skilled, the author places emphasis on low-skilled employment.”

Question No. 84
Why did some countries vote down on a resolution on climate change drafted by the UNSC?
Options :
1. Because the terms stated in the resolution were against the policies of those countries.

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2. Because they thought that the UNSC has engaged on issues outside of its bounds.
3. Because climate change has been discussed time and again and there were more relevant issues
to discuss.
4. Because those countries have already taken action that was mentioned in the resolution.
5. Because the resolution was highly biased and favoured developed countries.
Answer : Because they thought that the UNSC has engaged on issues outside of its bounds.
In the passage, it is stated that “Their position is that the UNSC‟s primary responsibility is
“maintenance of international peace and security” and climate change-related issues are outside its
ambit.”

Question No. 85
What did the supporters of the resolution of UNSC argue?
Options :
1. No other council has actively discussed the plans mentioned in the resolution.
2. The resolution will affect the way every country contributes towards climate change.
3. Climate change is a topic that could be discussed in every council, even though it is not related to
security, because of its urgency.
4. Climate is causing security risks in the word and climate change should be mitigated to prevent
future risks like water shortage.
5. Climate change is one of the agendas of the UNSC.
Answer : Climate is causing security risks in the word and climate change should be
mitigated to prevent future risks like water shortage.
In the passage, it is stated that “But the supporters of the resolution argue that the climate is
creating security risks in the world, which will exacerbate in the future with water shortage, migration
and a destruction of livelihoods.”

Question No. 86
What unintended consequence will bringing climate issue under UNSC have?
Options :
1. It will give UNSC, the complete autonomy to take decisions related to climate change.
2. The attempts of the developed countries to mitigate climate change would be futile.

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3. The future of climate-related decisions would lie with inexperienced people.

4. The security-related issues will get delayed and many terrorists groups would carry out their
operations swiftly.
5. The countries which hold a veto power will gain more powers to decide on climate-related security
issues in the future.
Answer : The countries which hold a veto power will gain more powers to decide on climate-
related security issues in the future.
In the passage, it is stated that “While the urgency to take action to tackle climate change is
appreciated, the attempt to securitise the climate agenda could have unintended consequences.
Bringing the issue under the UNSC will also give more powers to the world‟s industrialised countries,
which hold a veto power, to decide on future action on climate-related security issues.”

Question No. 87
According to the passage, what has led to the Kyoto Protocol, the Paris Agreement and the recent
COP26 summit?
Options :
1. The interference of UNSC in climate-related issues.
2. UNFCCC‟s framework that has made progress in tackling climate change.
3. The inability of the countries to follow regulations set by the UNFCCC.
4. The intervention of industrialised countries on climate-related security issues.
5. None of these
Answer : UNFCCC’s framework that has made progress in tackling climate change.
In the passage, it is stated that “And with over 190 members, its framework has made progress in
tackling climate change. It is this process that led to the Kyoto Protocol, the Paris Agreement and
the recent COP26 summit, and has put in place an international approach to combat global climate
change.”

Question No. 88
The author is satisfied that the UNSC has made a timely intervention to draft a resolution related to
the climate-related issues.
According tot eh passage, this statement is –

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IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Options :
1. Definitely true
2. Probably true
3. Definitely false
4. Probably false
5. Cannot be determined.
Answer : Definitely false
Throughout the second paragraphs, the author mentions why it is not proper for UNSC to engage in
matters related to UNFCCC. So, the statement is definitely false.

Question No. 89
According to the passage, which of the following is incorrect?
Options :
1. China abstained from voting against the resolution put forward by the UNSC.
2. With the support from the Biden administration, the developed world is pushing to include climate
security in the agenda of the UNSC.
3. Because there is valid criticism that decision making at UNFCCC conferences is slow,
outsourcing decision making to the five permanent members of the UNSC is a welcome move.
4. It is not appropriate to look at climate change through the prism of security.
5. The least developed and developing countries should be encouraged to keep the promises they
made with financial assistance.
Answer : Because there is valid criticism that decision making at UNFCCC conferences is
slow, outsourcing decision making to the five permanent members of the UNSC is a welcome
move.
In the passage, it is stated that “Sure, there is valid criticism that decision making at UNFCCC
conferences is slow and there has to be faster collective action to tackle climate change and
associated challenges. But the solution is not outsourcing decision making to the five permanent
members of the UNSC.”

Question No. 90
Which of the following is a near synonym of the word „associated‟?

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IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Options :
1. aggravated
2. aggregated
3. coincided
4. connected
5. cornered
Answer : connected
The word „associated‟ here means „connected‟.

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are students of class IX. They got different position in the class i.e. First,
Second and Third. Not more than three students got same position. Each of them secured highest
marks in different subject, viz Hindi, Physics, English, History, Mathematics, Chemistry, Biology and
Computers, But not necessarily in the same order.

B doesn‟t get second position in the class. E and A got the same position in the class but not as B. C
and F got the same position in the class. The students who got the first position in the class do not
secured highest marks in Biology and Mathematics. F secured highest marks in Physics. D secured
highest marks in Chemistry and got third position only with H. C does not secured highest marks in
Hindi. A secured highest marks in History. G does not secured highest marks in Biology. The one
who got third position secured highest marks in English.

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Solution:-

Question No. 91
In which of the following subjects G secured the highest marks?
Options :
1. Computers
2. Mathematics
3. English
4. Physics
5. None of these
Answer : Mathematics

Question No. 92
Which of the following groups of students got second position in the class?
Options :
1. A, E, F
2. F, C, B
3. G, D, H
4. A, E, G
5. None of these

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Answer : A, E, G
Question No. 93
C secured highest marks in which of the following subjects?
Options :
1. Computers
2. Biology
3. English
4. Physics
5. None of these
Answer : Computers

Question No. 94
Which of the following combinations is true?
Options :
1. C - Computers - Second
2. F - Physics - Third
3. E - Biology - Second
4. D - Chemistry - First
5. None of these
Answer : E - Biology – Second

Question No. 95
Which of the following statements is true?
Options :
1. G secured highest marks in Maths and got second position.
2. H does not secured highest marks in English.
3. A got first position and secured highest marks in History.
4. None is true
5. None of these
Answer : G secured highest marks in Maths and got second position.

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Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve singers are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is
equal distance between adjacent persons. In row -1 Jagjeet, Sonu, Zubin, Udit, Arijit and Armaan
are seated and all of them are facing south. In row -2 Toshi, Nadeem, Ankit, Kailash, Kishore and
Alka are seated and all of them are facing north. The members in both the rows are facing each
other.

(i) Udit sits third to the right of Sonu. Either Sonu or Udit sits at the extreme end of line.

(ii) The one who faces Sonu sits second to the right of Kishore.

(iii) Two people sit between Nadeem and Alka. Neither Nadeem nor Alka sits at the extreme ends.

(iv) The immediate neighbour of Nadeem faces the person who sits third to the left of Jagjeet.

(v) Zubin and Arijit are immediate neighbours of each other.

(vi) Ankit sits second to the left of Toshi. Arijit does not face the immediate neighbour of Kailash.

Solution:-

From (i) & (ii) , we get the two possibilities: case (a) and case (b).

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From (iii), case (a) will get discarded. We will go further with case (b).

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Question No. 96
Who among the following is facing Kishore?
Options :

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IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

1. Arijit
2. Armaan
3. Sonu
4. Udit
5. None of these
Answer : Arijit

Question No. 97
Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence forms a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
Options :
1. Jagjeet–Ankit
2. Toshi – Udit
3. Kailash – Sonu
4. Sonu – Ankit
5. None of these
Answer : Sonu – Ankit

Question No. 98
Who among the following sits third to the left of Armaan?
Options :
1. Jagjeet
2. Zubin
3. Sonu
4. Toshi
5. None of these
Answer : Zubin

Question No. 99
What is the position of Alka with respect to Nadeem?
Options :

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1. Second to the right

2. third to the left
3. Immediate right
4. Second to the left
5. None of these
Answer : third to the left

Question No. 100

Who among the following is sitting between Kishore and Kailash?
Options :
1. Ankit
2. Toshi
3. Alka
4. Nadeem
5. None of these
Answer : Nadeem

Direction:- Study the following information and answer the given questions:

If,

Q < R – R is the son in law of Q.

Q / R – Q is the child of R.

Q + R – Q is the parent of R.

Q = R – R is wife of Q.

Q ? R – R is the daughter-in-law of Q.

Q * R – R is the husband of Q.

Q > R – R is sister of Q.

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Question No. 101

If A * S / R + B = K, then how K is related to R?

Options :

1. Daughter

2. Son in law

3. Daughter in law

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Answer : Daughter in law

Question No. 102

If G ? U * W + D > T, then how T is related to G?

Options :

1. Grandmother

2. Grandson

3. Granddaughter

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Answer : Granddaughter

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IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 103

If Y < W = V > K + D, then how W is related to D?

Options :

1. Uncle

2. Niece

3. Aunt

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Answer : Uncle

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

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(i)A$ B means A is to the right of B at a distance of 2m.

(ii)A% B means A is to the left of B at a distance of 3m.

(iii)A @ B means A is to the north of B at a distance of 5m.

(iv)A * B means A is to the south of B at a distance of 1m.

In each of the following questions all persons face north.

Question No. 104

If P $ Q @ R % S, what is the direction of S with respect to P?

Options :

1. Southwest

2. West

3. Southeast

4. Can‟t be determined

5. None of these

Answer : Southeast

Question No. 105

If L @ M $ N * O, then L is how far from O?

Options :

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1. √20 m
2. √35
3. √10 m
4. Can‟t be determined
5. none of these
Answer : √20 m

L²= 4² + 2²

OL² = 16 + 4

OL² = 20

OL = √20 m

Question No. 106

E * F % G @ H, H is in which direction with respect to E?
Options :
1. Southeast
2. Northeast
3. East
4. Can‟t be determined
5. None of these
Answer : Southeast

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Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it
arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.

And step 4 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out
the appropriate step for the given output.

Input: Gather 3 Shine 70 umbrella 80 Ear 79 Rich 99

Solution

How words are arranged : Firstly, the word which starts with vowel arranges in increasing

order according alphabetical series then the word which starts with consonant arranges in

decreasing order.

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How numbers are arranged: Numbers are also arranged in each step, in decreasing order

firstly even number and then odd number and then followed by Prime number (in

decreasing order).

Question No. 107

Which step is penultimate step?

Options :

1. Step 4

2. Step 2

3. Step 5

4. Step 3

5. None of these

Answer : Step 3

Question No. 108

What is exactly between 70 and 3, in step 2?

Options :
1. Rich

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2. Gather
3. Shine
4. 99
5. 3
Answer : Gather

Question No. 109

What is the position of „Shine‟ in Step 4?

Options :

1. Fourth from left end

2. Third from Right end
3. Second from left end
4. Fifth from left end
5. None of these
Answer : Fifth from left end

Question No. 110

Which step number would be the following output? „Ear 80 Shine 99 Umbrella 70 Gather 3 79 Rich‟

Options :

1. Step 3rd
2. Step 4th
3. Step 2nd
4. No such Step
5. None of these
Answer : No such Step
Question No. 111

In Step 3, what is the sum of the elements which are third and second from right end?

Options :

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1. 82
2. 77
3. 89
4. 95
5. None of these
Answer : 82
79 + 3 = 82

Direction:- In the information given below consists of a question and a statement with two

assumptions. You have to decide which of the assumptions implicits on the basis of

statement provided.

Question No. 112

STATEMENT : “If you are Information technology engineer, we want you as our web developer”- an

advertisement by company A.

ASSUMPTIONS: I Company A needs web developer

II Information technology engineers are expected to be better performers by company A

Options :

1. If only assumption I is implicit

2. If only assumption II is implicit
3. If either I or II is implicit
4. If both I and II are implicit
5. If neither I nor II are implicit
Answer : If only assumption I is implicit
Question No. 113

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STATEMENT : An information for the employees in the office- “you have to bear your expense on

travel”

ASSUMPTIONS: I Many offices reimburse expenses on travel to employees

II If not clarified, all the employees may claim reimbursement of expenses.

Options :

1. If only assumption I is implicit

2. If only assumption II is implicit

3. If either I or II is implicit

4. If both I and II are implicit

5. If neither I nor II are implicit

Answer : If both I and II are implicit

Question No. 114

STATEMENT : Repo Rate increased to decrease liquidity in the market.

ASSUMPTIONS: I The present rates are very low.

II If rates are not increased liquidity cannot be decreased

Options :

1. If only assumption I is implicit

2. If only assumption II is implicit

3. If either I or II is implicit

4. If both I and II are implicit

5. If neither I nor II are implicit

Answer : If only assumption II is implicit

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Direction:- Read the instructions and answer the following questions:

8AB ⇒ A is not greater than B

AB15 ⇒ A is not smaller than B

AB23 ⇒ A is neither greater than nor smaller than B

14AB ⇒ A is neither greater than nor equal to B

AB27 ⇒ A is neither smaller nor equal than B

Question No. 115

Statement:

CE15, 8FG, 14GH, EF27

Conclusions:

I. 14CF

II. HF27

III. EG27

Options :

1. Only statement I is true.

2. Only statements II is true.

3. Either I or II and III are true.

4. None statement is true.

5. All statements I, II and III are true.

Answer : Only statements II is true.

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Statement:-

CE15, 8FG, 14GH, EF27

C ≥ E, E > F, F ≤ G, G < H

On combining, C ≥ E > F ≤ G < H

Conclusions:-

I. 14CF → C < F → clearly false.

II. HF27 → H > F → clearly true.

III. EG27 → E > G → clearly false.

Hence, only statement II is true.

Direction:- In the information given below consists of a question and a statement with two

assumptions. You have to decide which of the assumptions implicits on the basis of

statement provided.

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Question No. 116

STATEMENT : Redmi mobiles – the largest selling mobile phones with largest range.

ASSUMPTIONS: I Redmi mobile is the only one with wide variations.

II There is a demand for redmi mobiles in the market.

Options :

1. If only assumption I is implicit

2. If only assumption II is implicit

3. If either I or II is implicit

4. If both I and II are implicit

5. If neither I nor II are implicit

Answer : If only assumption II is implicit

Question No. 117

STATEMENT : The central government imposes Rs. 500 fine on people for not wearing mask.

ASSUMPTIONS: I Wearing of mask is necessary.

II Poor people can‟t afford the fine

Options :

1. If only assumption I is implicit

2. If only assumption II is implicit

3. If either I or II is implicit

4. If both I and II are implicit

5. If neither I nor II are implicit

Answer : If only assumption I is implicit

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Question No. 118

STATEMENT : To buy a Company A policy, contact B, the sole agent of Company A
ASSUMPTIONS: I People generally prefer to buy policies through agents.
II Company A do not sell their policies directly.
Options :
1. If only assumption I is implicit
2. If only assumption II is implicit
3. If either I or II is implicit
4. If both I and II are implicit
5. If neither I nor II are implicit
Answer : If only assumption I is implicit

Direction:- Read the instructions and answer the following questions:

8AB ⇒ A is not greater than B

AB15 ⇒ A is not smaller than B

AB23 ⇒ A is neither greater than nor smaller than B

14AB ⇒ A is neither greater than nor equal to B

AB27 ⇒ A is neither smaller nor equal than B

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Solution

Question No. 119

Statements:

GI27, 8HK, GH15,14HJ

Conclusions:

I. IJ23

II. GK15

III. GH27

Options :

1. Only statement I is true.

2. Only statements II and III are true.

3. Only statements I and II are true.

4. None statement is true.

5. All statements I, II and III are true.

Answer : None statement is true.

Statements:-

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GI27,8HK, GH15, 14HJ

I < G, H ≤ K, G ≥ H, H < J

On combining, I < G ≥ H < J, I < G ≥ H ≤ K

Conclusions:-

I. IJ23 → I = J → Not true because no clear relation between I and J can be established.

II. GK15 → G ≥ K → Not true because no clear relation between G and K can be established.

III. GH27 → G > H → Not true because no clear relation between G and H can be established.

Hence, none statements are true.

Question No. 120

Statement:

8PQ, RS23, 14QR, SV15

Conclusions:

I. QL15

II. 14QS

III. 14QL

Options :

1. Only statement I is true.

2. Only statements II and III are true.

3. Either I or III and II are true.

4. None statement is true.

5. All statements I, II and III are true.

Answer : Either I or III and II are true.

Statement:-

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8PQ, RS23, 14QR, SV15

P ≤ Q, R = S, Q < R, S ≥ V

On combining, P ≤ Q < R = S ≥ V

Conclusions:-

I. QL15 → Q ≥ L → false because there is no any L.

II. 14QS → Q < S → clearly true.

III. 14QL → Q < L → false because there is no any L.

By combining I and II conclusion we get either I or III is true.

Hence, either I or III and II are true.

Question No. 121

If in the word „MOBILE‟, all the vowels are changed to the next letter and all the consonants are
changed to the previous letter. Which of the following letter is third from the left end?
Options :
1. L
2. P
3. A
4. J
5. None of these
Answer : A

M O B I L E

L P A J K F

Direction:- Read the instructions carefully and answer the questions below.

There are twelve seats in row facing north. Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are the ten people sitting
in the row and two seats are vacant. These people like to visit different places namely Uttarakhand,

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UP, Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Goa, Chandigarh, Sikkim, Darjeeling, Guwahati but not
necessarily in the same order. The seats on the extreme ends are not vacant.

X is sitting fifth to the left of W. The person who likes Chandigarh is sitting fifth to the left of the
person who likes Tamil Nadu but to the immediate right of the person who likes Sikkim. Z is sitting
second to the right of S. The person who likes Gujarat is sitting second to the left of person who
likes UP. X is sitting next to T. Three people are sitting between U and Q. R is sitting immediate right
of Y. The seat that is third to the right of the person who likes Goa is vacant. T is sitting second to
the left of the person who likes Uttarakhand. V is sitting sixth to the left of the person who likes
Guwahati. W likes either Chandigarh or Darjeeling. U is sitting seventh to the left of the person who
likes Goa. Four seats are there between Q and the person who likes Uttarakhand.

Solution:-

1) U is sitting seventh to the left of the person who likes Goa.

2) The seat that is third to the right of the person who likes Goa is vacant. (Implies, at least
three people are sitting to the right of person who likes Goa. Also, as seats at extreme ends
are not vacant, implies, at least four persons are sitting to the right of person who likes Goa.
Thus, seven people are sitting to the left of person who likes Goa. Hence, U is sitting on the
leftmost end and the second seat from the right end is vacant.)

1) Three people are sitting between U and Q. (Implies, Q is sitting fourth to the right of U.)

2) Four seats are there between Q and the person who likes Uttarakhand. (As there are only
four people to the left of Q, implies, the person who likes Uttarakhand fifth to the right of Q.)

1) T is sitting second to the left of the person who likes Uttarakhand. (Implies, T likes Goa.)

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1) X is sitting fifth to the left of W.

2) X is sitting next to T. (It is only possible if we place X to the immediate left of T. Also, it
means that W is sitting to the rightmost end.)

1) V is sitting sixth to the left of the person who likes Guwahati.

2) W likes either Chandigarh or Darjeeling. (implies, W does not like Guwahati. Also, we
know that the seat to the immediate left of W is vacant, implies, the person sitting to the
right of T likes Guwahati and V is sitting second to the left of Q)

1) R is sitting to the immediate right of Y. (It is only possible if R likes Uttarakhand and Y
likes Guwahati as there are no other pair of consecutive seats left to be mapped.)

1) The person who likes chandigarh is sitting fifth to the left of the person who likes
Tamilnadu but to the immediate right of the person who likes Sikkim. (As the who person
who likes Chandigarh is sitting to the left of someone, implies, W does not like Chandigarh.
Hence, W likes Darjeeling. Also, now it is only possible if X likes Tamilnadu, U likes Sikkim
and the person sitting to the immediate right of U likes Chandigarh.)

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1) Z is sitting second to the right of S. (It is clear that either S or Z likes Chandigarh. As Z is
sitting second to the right of S, implies S likes Chandigarh and Z is sitting between V and Q.
It further implies that the seat between X and Q is vacant.)

1) The person who likes Gujarat is sitting second to the left of the person who likes UP.
(Implies, V likes Gujarat and Q likes UP as it is the only possibility. Also, now that only Z is
left to be mapped to his place, implies, Z likes Kerala.)

Question No. 122

Who is sitting to the immediate left of the person who likes UP?
Options :
1. X
2. W
3. U
4. Z
5. Y
Answer : Z

Question No. 123

What does the person who is sitting at the third seat from the right end likes to visit?
Options :
1. Uttarakhand

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2. UP
3. Sikkim
4. Kerala
5. Chandigarh
Answer : Uttarakhand

Question No. 124

Who likes to visit Tamil Nadu?
Options :
1. Q
2. W
3. X
4. U
5. T
Answer : X

Question No. 125

What is the position of the nearest vacant seat from the seat on which the person who likes UP is

sitting?

Options :

1. Second to the right

2. Fifth to the right

3. Third to the left

4. Second to the left

5. Immediate right

Answer : Immediate right

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Question No. 126

Who is sitting second to the right of T?

Options :

1. U

2. Z

3. Y

4. R

5. X

Answer : R

Direction:- The questions given below has one question and three statements marked I, II and
III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question. Read both the statements and give answer :

Question No. 127

1. How many of them has given the lecture before C?

Six lecturers have to given lectures in the same week starting from Monday to Saturday each on one

day.

I D has given the lecture before at least one lecturer. A has given lecture on Thursday.

II E has given before at least four of them. C has given immediately after E.

III At least five has given lecture before B.

Options :

1. If the data in the statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

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2. If the data in the statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question.

3. If the data in the statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question.

4. If all the statements I, II and III are necessary to answer the question.

5. If the data in all the statements I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer : If the data in the statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: Option 1

So, from statement I and II it is clear two lecturers have given lecture before C.

Question No. 128

How many persons are standing in a line, if all of them are facing south?

Some person are standing in a straight line.

I Only one person is standing to the right of A. Only two persons are standing between A and B. B is

standing to the immediate left of C. C is standing exactly in the middle.

II Only three person are standing to the right of C. Only two persons are standing between C and D.

D is standing at the extreme left end.

Options :

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1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II

alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I

alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

5. If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer : If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.

From statement I-

From statement II-

Question No. 129

How is A related to B?
I C has only two kids A & B and is father-in-law of D who is brother-in-law of B
II R is brother-in-law of A and is son-in-law of F, who has only two kids A & B
Options :
1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
2. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

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3. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5. If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer : If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement I

From statement II

Direction:- 10 people Ashish, Adesh, Abha, Ajay, Achal, Alok, Adarsh, Aditya, Ankur, and Adi
sit around a hexagonal table. Some of them sit at the corner and others sit at the middle of
the edges. Everyone face towards the centre.

Alok and Abha sit immediate to one of the vacant seats, Abha is right to Alok. Adarsh sits on second
seat to the right of Abha. No one sits between Adarsh and Adesh, who is to the right to Adarsh. Not
more than one seat lies between Adarsh and Adesh. Ashish sits third to the left of Alok. Ankur and

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Aditya are neighbours of Ashish. Adi sits immediately between Adesh and Aditya. Achal is not an
immediate neighbour of Ankur. The two vacant seats are neither continuous nor at the corner.

Solution:-

Abha and Alok sits next to a vacant seat.

Adarsh is second to right of Abha.

Nobody sits between Adarsh and Adesh, who is right of Adarsh and one seat lies between
Adarsh and Adesh. (Implies, there is vacant seat between Adarsh and Adesh)

Ashish sits third to the left of Alok and Ankur and Aditya are immediate neighbours of
Ashish.

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Adi sits between Adesh and Aditya and Achal is not an immediate neighbour of Ankur

Question No. 130

Whose seat is fourth to the right of Adarsh‟s seat?
Options :
1. Ajay
2. Alok
3. Abha
4. Vacant
5. Aditya
Answer : Aditya

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Question No. 131

How many person sits between Achal and Aditya, from right of Achal?
Options :
1. 4
2. 3
3. More than 4
4. 2
5. None of these
Answer : 3

Question No. 132

What is the position of Adi with respect to left of Ajay?
Options :
1. Third to the right
2. Fourth to the right
3. Fourth to the left
4. Fifth to the left
5. None of these
Answer : Fourth to the left

Question No. 133

Who sits opposite to Alok?
Options :
1. Adi
2. Aditya
3. Adarsh
4. Adesh
5. None of these
Answer : Adesh

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Question No. 134

If seats are arranged according to dictionary starting from right of Abha, then how many members
seats will remain unchanged?
Options :
1. 3
2. 6
3. 5
4. 4
5. 7
Answer : 6

Direction:- In the information given below consists of a question and a statement with two
assumptions. You have to decide which of the assumptions implicits on the basis of
statement provided.

Question No. 135

STATEMENT : Opening a cyber cafe in Buxar will be a wastage.

ASSUMPTIONS: I People in Buxar are illiterate.

II People living there don‟t believe in online services.

Options :

1. If only assumption I is implicit

2. If only assumption II is implicit

3. If either I or II is implicit

4. If both I and II are implicit

5. If neither I nor II are implicit

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Answer : If neither I nor II are implicit

Direction:- Eight singers i.e. Pratyush, Vishesh, Aman, Anant, Priyanshu, Yash, Achal and
Nitin who have their concert on different dates i.e. 17th and 24th of different months
January, April, July and September but not necessarily in the same order. Each of the
concerts was attended by different number of people and the total of number of people
who attended these concerts is 142k (where K is constant).

Three concerts were held between the concert of singer Yash and the one whose concert is
attended by 10k people. Yash‟s concert held in the month having 30 days. The concert which
held last was attended by 12k people. Three concerts were held between the concerts of singer
Aman and singer Vishesh, whose concert was attended by 1k people less than the people who
attended Pratyush‟s concert. The number of people who attended Pratyush‟s concert is 6k more
than the number of people who attended Nitin‟s concert. Pratyush and Nitin have their concerts in
the same month. The one whose concert was held immediately after Nitin was attended by 20k
people. More than three concerts were held between Aman and the one whose concerts was
attended by 20k people. Pratyush‟s concerts was attended by more than 20k people. Total
number of persons who attended the concert of Achal and Aman is 27k. Vishesh and Achal have
concerts on the same date. Total number of people who attended the concerts of Anant and
Achal is 32k. Only one concert held between the concerts of Anant and Priyanshu. Total number
of people who attended the concerts of singers Pratyush, Yash and Vishesh is 69k. The
difference between the number of people who attended the concerts of singers Nitin and Anant is
2k.

Solution:-

Three concerts were held between the concert of singer Yash and the one whose concert is
attended by 10k people. Yash’s concert held in the month having 30 days. The concert which
held last was attended by 12k people.

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The number of people who attended Pratyush’s concert is 6k more than the number of
people who attended Nitin’s concert. Pratyush and Nitin have their concerts in the same
month. The one whose concert was held immediately after Nitin was attended by 20k people.
More than three concerts were held between Aman and the one whose concerts was
attended by 20k people. Pratyush’s concerts was attended by more than 20k people.

Total number of people who attended the concerts of singers Pratyush, Yash and Vishesh is
69k. Three concerts were held between the concerts of singer Aman and singer Vishesh .So,
case 2 and case 3 gets eliminated. Vishesh concert was attended by 1k people less than the
people who attended Pratyush’s concert. Vishesh and Achal have concerts on the same date.

Total number of people who attended the concerts of Anant and Achal is 32k. Only one
concert held between the concerts of Anant and Priyanshu. The difference between the
number of people who attended the concerts of singers Nitin and Anant is 2k.Total number of
persons who attended the concert of Achal and Aman is 27k.

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Question No. 136

Who among the following singer has his concert on 24th July?

Options :

1. Priyanshu
2. Achal
3. Pratyush
4. Anant
5. None of these
Answer : Achal

Question No. 137

How many singers concert held between Achal and Yash?

Options :

1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4
5. None of these
Answer : 2

Question No. 138

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Vishesh‟s concert was held on which of the following date?

Options :
1. 24th January
2. 17th July
3. 17th September
4. 24th September
5. None of these
Answer : None of these

Question No. 139

Which of the following pair of singers have concert in the same month?

Options :

1. Achal and Pratyush

2. Anant and Priyanshu

3. Yash and Priyanshu

4. Aman and Priyanshu

5. None of these

Answer : Aman and Priyanshu

Question No. 140

What is the total number of people who attended concert in July?

Options :

1. 35k

2. 69k

3. 32k

4. 44k

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5. None of these

Answer : 32k

Direction:- A set of 2 equations is given below. Answer the questions based on it using
information given below:

x2- px + q = 0--------1)

x2 - (p -2)x + (q - 4) = 0-----------2)

Equation 1) has 'm' and 3 as its roots while equation 2) has 'm' and 1 as its roots.

Question No. 141

Find the value of 'm'

Options :

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1
5. None of these
Answer : 2
From equation 1:
Product of roots:
3m = q
Sum of roots:
m+3=p
From equation 2:
Sum of roots:
m + 1 = (p – 2 )
Product of roots:
m=q–4

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Now, putting the value of m = q – 4 in 3m = q, we get

m=2

Question No. 142

Find the value of „2p + q‟

Options :

1. 12
2. 10
3. 16
4. 11
5. 14
Answer : 16

we know the value of m = 2

now,

m=q–4

2=q–4

q=6

From, m + 1 = (p – 2 )

2 + 1 = (p – 2)

=> p = 5

Value of 2p + q = 2 × 5 + 6 = 16

Question No. 143

Another equation z2 – 7z + 10 = 0 is given. Which of the following is / are correct about it ?

1. Roots are less than that of equation 2)

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2. It has one root equal to value of 'm'

3. It has roots greater than (q - p)

Options :

1. only 1 and 2

2. only 1 and 3

3. only 2 and 3

4. All 1, 2 and 3

5. none of these

Answer : only 2 and 3

z2 – 7z + 10 = 0

=> z2 – 5z – 2z + 10 = 0

=> z2 – 5z – 2z + 10 = 0

=> z(z – 5) – 2(z – 5) = 0

=> (z – 2)(z – 5) = 0

=> z = 2 and 5

comparing with the roots of equation 2, we can clearly see that roots of this equation is
greater. Hence statement 1 is false.

From 2nd statement:

we know that m = 2

so statement 2 is true.

From 3rd statement:

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we know that q = 6 and p = 5

q–p=1

Hence, statement 3 is also true.

Direction:- Read the following data and answer the following questions:

In a class, students study at least one of three subjects - Maths, Science and Hindi. No student
studies both Science and Maths but not Hindi. 4 students‟ study all of these subjects. Sum of
number of students who study only Hindi and only Maths is 11. 40% of number of students who
study only Science is equal to the number of students who study only Hindi. Number of students
who study both Hindi and Science but not Maths is equal to thrice the number of students who study
all these subjects. Number of students who study Hindi and Maths but not Science is 33.33% less
than number of students who study Hindi and Science but not Maths. There is total 50 students in
class.

Solution:-

Let the number of students who study Hindi be ‘x’.

so, number of students who study Maths = 11 – x

Number of students who study all the subjects = 4

Number of students who study Science be ‘y’.

x = 2/5y

y = 5x/2

Number of students who study both Hindi and Science but not Maths = 3 × 4 = 12

Number of students who study Hindi and Maths but not Science = 12 of {1-1/3} = 12 × 2/3 = 8
(33.33% means 1/3)

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Total number of students = 50

Therefore,

11 – x + 5x/2 + x + 8 + 4 + 12 = 50

=> 35 + 5x/2 = 50

=> 5x/2 = 15

=> x = 6

Therefore, final data

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Question No. 144

Find the number of students who study Maths only.
Options :
1. 4
2. 7
3. 6
4. 3
5. 5
Answer : 5
Number of students who study Maths = 11 – x = 11 – 6 = 5

Question No. 145

Find the number of students who study Science only.

Options :

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1. 10

2. 11

3. 15

4. 12

5. 13

Answer : 15

Number of students who study Science = 15

Question No. 146

Find the ratio of the number of students who study all the subjects to the number of students who

study both Hindi and Maths.

Options :

1. 1 : 3

2. 1 : 4

3. 1 : 7

4. 1 : 2

5. 2 : 1

Answer : 1 : 2

Required ratio = 4 : 8 = 1 : 2

Question No. 147

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Number of students who study Maths is what percent more/less than the number of students who

study Science only.

Options :

1. 61.66%

2. 66.66%

3. 63.66%

4. 65.66%

5. 60.66%

Answer : 66.66%

Required% = (15 – 5)/15 × 100 = 66.66%

Direction:- There are two villages A and B. Ratio of population of A and B is 3: 2. Ratio of
male to female in village A is X: Y and that in village B is Y: X. Difference between the number
of males of city A and that of female of city B is 880.

Question No. 148

Find the number of males in city A.

Options :

1. 2040

2. 2645

3. 2640

4. 2600

5. 2660

Answer : 2640

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Given that, Ratio of population of A and B is 3: 2

Then, total number of males in village A = 3X

Total number of females in village A = 3Y

Total population in village A = 3(X + Y)

Total number of males in village B = 2Y

Total number of females in village B = 2X

Total population in village B = 2(X + Y)

Difference between number of males of city A and the females in city B = 880

3X – 2X = 880

X = 880

Therefore,

Total number of males in village A = 3X = 3 × 880 = 2640

Total number of females in village B = 2X = 2 × 880 = 1760

Required number = 2640

Question No. 149

Find the female in city B.

Options :

1. 1760

2. 1700

3. 1060

4. 1750

5. 1730

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Answer : 1760

Given that, Ratio of population of A and B is 3: 2

Then, total number of males in village A = 3X

Total number of females in village A = 3Y

Total population in village A = 3(X + Y)

Total number of males in village B = 2Y

Total number of females in village B = 2X

Total population in village B = 2(X + Y)

Difference between number of males of city A and the females in city B = 880

3X – 2X = 880

X = 880

Therefore,

Total number of males in village A = 3X = 3 × 880 = 2640

Total number of females in village B = 2X = 2 × 880 = 1760

Required number = 1760

Question No. 150

Number of females in city B is how much percent more/less than that of city A.

Options :

1. Cannot be determined

2. 25%

3. 12%

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4. None of these

5. 33.33%

Answer : Cannot be determined

Given that, Ratio of population of A and B is 3: 2

Then, total number of males in village A = 3X

Total number of females in village A = 3Y

Total population in village A = 3(X + Y)

Total number of males in village B = 2Y

Total number of females in village B = 2X

Total population in village B = 2(X + Y)

Difference between number of males of city A and the females in city B = 880

3X – 2X = 880

X = 880

Therefore,

Total number of males in village A = 3X = 3 × 880 = 2640

Total number of females in village B = 2X = 2 × 880 = 1760

Required % = Cannot be determined

Question No. 151

If population of female in village A is 120 more than that of males in same village. Then find the total

population of village A.

Options :

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1. 5400
2. 5000
3. 5500
4. 5600
5. 5450
Answer : 5400

Given that, Ratio of population of A and B is 3: 2

Then, total number of males in village A = 3X

Total number of females in village A = 3Y

Total population in village A = 3(X + Y)

Total number of males in village B = 2Y

Total number of females in village B = 2X

Total population in village B = 2(X + Y)

Difference between number of males of city A and the females in city B = 880

3X – 2X = 880

X = 880

Therefore,

Total number of males in village A = 3X = 3 × 880 = 2640

Total number of females in village B = 2X = 2 × 880 = 1760

Number of males in city A = 2640

Number of females in city A = 2760

Total population in city A = 5400

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Direction:- A set of 2 number series is given below. Both series follow a similar pattern.
Answer the questions based on it using information given below:

I: 5, 6, 13, 40, 161, 806

II: 2, p, q, r, s

Question No. 152

Find the value of „s‟

Options :

1. 89

2. 90

3. 56

4. 77

5. 63

Answer : 89
From series I:
5×1+1=6
6 × 2 + 1 = 13
13 × 3 + 1 = 40
40 × 4 + 1 = 161
161 × 5 + 1 = 806
Same pattern we will follow in second series
2 × 1 + 1 = 3 (p)
3 × 2 + 1 = 7 (q)
7 × 3 + 1 = 22 (r)
22 × 4 + 1 = 89 (s)
Value of s = 89

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 153

If the nth term of series II) is 2677, then, find the value of „n‟

Options :

1. 5
2. 6
3. 3
4. 2
5. 7
Answer : 6
From series I:
5×1+1=6
6 × 2 + 1 = 13
13 × 3 + 1 = 40
40 × 4 + 1 = 161
161 × 5 + 1 = 806
Same pattern we will follow in second series
2 × 1 + 1 = 3 (p)
3 × 2 + 1 = 7 (q)
7 × 3 + 1 = 22 (r)
22 × 4 + 1 = 89 (s)
Therefore,
2×1+1=3
3×2+1=7
7 × 3 + 1 = 22
22 × 4 + 1 = 89
89 × 5 + 1 = 446
446 × 6 + 1 = 2677
n=6

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 154

Find the value of (r – pq)

Options :

1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4
5. 2
Answer : 1

From series I:

5×1+1=6

6 × 2 + 1 = 13

13 × 3 + 1 = 40

40 × 4 + 1 = 161

161 × 5 + 1 = 806

Same pattern we will follow in second series

2 × 1 + 1 = 3 (p)

3 × 2 + 1 = 7 (q)

7 × 3 + 1 = 22 (r)

22 × 4 + 1 = 89 (s)

Therefore,

=> 22 – (3 × 7)

=> 22 – 21 = 1

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Direction:- There are 3 vessels named - A, B and C. All contain mixture of milk, water and

juice. Vessel B contains mixture of volume 150 liters. Ratio of juice and water in vessel B is

3: 2 while that of milk and water is 1: 2. Water in vessel B is 66.67% more than juice in vessel

C. Juice in vessel A is 80% of total juice in vessels B and C taken together. Water in vessel C

is 20% less than juice in vessel B. In vessel A, ratio of water and juice is 5: 6. Ratio between

milk and water in vessel C is 5:4. Milk in vessel A is 2% less than total milk in vessels B and

C together.

Solution
Ratio of juice and water in vessel B = 3 : 2
Ratio of milk and water in vessel B = 1 : 2
Therefore,
Ratio of milk, water and juice = 1 : 2 : 3
Milk in vessel B = 1/6 × 150 = 25 L
Water in vessel B = 2/6 × 150 = 50 L
Juice in vessel B = 3/6 × 150 = 75 L
Water in vessel B = (2/3 + 1) × Juice in vessel C
Juice in vessel C = (50 × 3)/5 = 30 L
Juice in vessel A = 80% of (75 + 30) = 0.8 × 105 = 84 L
Water in vessel C = 80% of Juice in vessel B = 0.80 × 75 = 60L
Ratio of water and juice in vessel A = 5:6
Juice in vessel A = 84 L
Therefore,
Water in vessel A = 5/6 × 84 = 70L
Ratio between milk and water in vessel C = 5 : 4
Milk in vessel C = 60 × 5/4 = 75 L
Milk in vessel A = 98/100 × (25 + 75) = 98 L
Therefore,

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 155

Find the ratio between total milk in vessel A and B together and water in vessel B and C together.

Options :

1. 123 : 111

2. 110 : 111

3. 123 : 110

4. 110 : 123

5. 103 : 110

Answer : 123 : 110

required ratio = (98 + 25) : (50 + 60) = 123 : 110

Question No. 156

If 36 liters mixture from vessel A is taken out, then, find the difference between juice of vessel A and
vessel B.
Options :
1. 2
2. 1
3. 5
4. 4
5. 3
Answer : 3

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Ratio of mixture in vessel A = 98 : 70 : 84 = 7 : 5 : 6

36 liters of mixture is taken from vessel

18 ( = 7 + 5 + 6) => 36

1 => 2

6 => 12

Therefore, 12 liters of Juice is taken by vessel A = 84 – 12 = 72

Therefore, required difference = 75 – 72 = 3

Question No. 157

Find the sum of amount of milk of vessel B and vessel A together.

Options :

1. 113 liters

2. 103 liters

3. 123 liters

4. 120 liters

5. 125 liters

Answer : 123 liters

Required sum = 25 + 98 = 123 liters

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 158

From vessel B, 9 litres mixture is taken out, then, in next step, 18 litres mixture is again taken out

from same vessel. In final step, 27 litres mixture is taken out from same vessel, then, find the

difference between amount of milk and juice remained finally in this vessel.

Options :

1. 30 liters

2. 32 liters

3. 35 liters

4. 33 liters

5. 31 liters

Answer : 32 liters

Total amount of mixture taken out in three steps = 9 + 18 + 27 = 54

Ratio of mixture in vessel B = 25 : 50 : 75 = 1 : 2 : 3

6( = 1 + 2 + 3) = 54

1=9

3 = 27 and 1 = 9

Therefore,

Juice remaining in vessel B = 75 – 27 = 48

Milk remaining in vessel B = 25 – 9 = 16

Therefore, required difference = 48 – 16 = 32 liters

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 159

There are two trains A and B. A start from point X at 8 AM towards point Y. Another train B starts at

9 AM from point X.

If they meet at 11 AM and speed of A is 24km/hr, while that of B is 36 km/hr. Find distance between

X and Y.

Options :

1. 104 km

2. 144 km

3. 140 km

4. 141 km

5. 143 km

Answer : 144 km

Speed of train A = 24 kmph

Speed of train B = 36 kmph

Time taken by train A to meet train B at 11 AM = 3 hrs

Time taken by train B to meet train A at 11 AM = 2 hr

Distance travelled by train A = 3 × 24 = 72 km

Distance travelled by train B = 2 × 36 = 72 km

Therefore, total distance between X and Y = 72 + 72 = 144 km

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 160

Average age of A, B and C is 20 years. Average age of B and C was 12 years when A was born. If B

is 21 years old, then, find the age of C, 6 years hence.

Options :

1. 28 years

2. 22 years

3. 27 years

4. 23 years

5. 25 years

Answer : 27 years

A + B + C = 60---------(i)

(B + C) - A = 24 --------(ii) (since A was born)

B = 21 years

Now, substituting the value of B + C in equation I, we get

=> A + 24 + A = 60

=> 2A = 36

=> A = 18

so, B + C = 24 + 18 = 42

B = 21 years

C = 21 years

Age of C, 6 years hence = 21 + 6 = 27 years

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 161

A boat covers a certain distance upstream in 6 hrs and comes back to starting point with current in 2

hrs, If boat's upstream speed is 15 km/hr, then, find the distance travelled by boat in downstream in

7 hours?

Options :

1. 200 km

2. 211 km

3. 230 km

4. 110 km

5. 210 km

Answer : 210 km

Time taken by boat upstream (u) = 6 hrs

Time taken by boat downstream (v) = 3 hrs

Speed of boat in upstream = 15 km/h

Distance travelled by boat in upstream = 15 × 6 = 90 km

we know that,

u + v = 90/3 = 30

u – v = 15

Distance travelled by boat downstream = 7 × 30 = 210 km

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 162

An article is marked up by P% above the cost price. If shopkeeper offers discount of 25% and still

earns a profit of 35%. For earning a profit of 71%, how much discount should be offered by

shopkeeper?

Options :

1. 6%

2. 4%

3. 5%

4. 9%

5. 10%

Answer : 5%

Let MP = 100x, then SP = 75x

CP × (135/100) = 75x

CP = 500x/9

Now, 71% of profit is given in new CP.

(500x/9) × (171/100) = SP

new SP = 95x

Therefore,

D% = (100x – 95x)/100 × 100 = 5%

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 163

À two-digit number decreases by 18 when its both digits are written in reverse order. If unit digit of

original number is equal to the unit digit of 226. Find the product of both digits of the number?

Options :

1. 24

2. 14

3. 28

4. 30

5. 22

Answer : 24

Let the number be x and y and for two digits = 10x + y

so, ATQ

=> (10x + y) – (10y – x) = 18

=> 9x – 9y = 18

=> x – y = 2

unit digit of 226 = 4

so, y = 4

x–y=2

so, x = 6

Therefore, product of x and y = 4 × 6 = 24

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 164

Average weight of 5 students in a class increases by 4 kg when weight of teacher is also included. If

sum of average weight of 5 students and weight of teacher is 104 kg. Find the weight of teacher?

Options :

1. 64

2. 60

3. 63

4. 65

5. 59

Answer : 64

Let the average weight of class be x.

and weight of teacher be t.

so, Total weight of 5 students = 5x

Now, average weight is also included then,

(5x + t)/6 = x + 4

5x + t = 6x + 24

t – x = 24

t = x + 24------(i)

AQT,

x + t = 104

2t – 24 = 104

t = 64

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 165

x men can finish a work in y days. 0.9x women can finish 1/3rd of the same work in (y - 8) days. If

0.8x women can complete 1/3rd work in 36 days. Find 0.5x men can finish one-fourth of the same

work in how many days?

Options :

1. 22 days

2. 23 days

3. 20 days

4. 21 days

5. 27 days

Answer : 20 days

We can see that x is common in this question, so we will take x = 1

Now according to question,

1 M = y days---------(i)

0.9 W = 3 (y – 8) days -------(ii)

0.8 W = 36 × 3 = 108 days--------(iii)

Now, equating equation (ii) and (iii)

=> 0.9 W × 3(y – 8) = 0.8 × 108

=> y – 8 = 32

=> y = 40

1 man can do a piece of work in 40 days

0.5 men can complete 1/4th of the work in 80/4 = 20 days

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 166

A man spends 25% of his monthly salary on Rent and 32% on Groceries. He invest remaining
monthly salary in the ratio of 11: 5 in Mutual Funds and Fixed Deposits, If difference between his
yearly mutual funds and fixed deposit amount is Rs 77400, then, find the amount he spends each
month on Groceries products.
Options :
1. Rs. 12800
2. Rs. 12000
3. Rs. 12300
4. Rs. 12500
5. Rs. 12820
Answer : Rs. 12800

Let the monthly income be 100%

Total monthly salary spends on rent and groceries = 57%

Remaining salary = (100 – 57)% = 43%

ratio between mutual fund and fixed deposit = 11 : 5

Monthly income = 77400/12 = 6450

difference between mutual fund and fixed deposit ratio = 6

Therefore,

6 ≡ 6450

1 ≡ 1075

1075 × 16(11 + 5) ≡ 43%

(1075 × 16)/43% ≡ 32%

1 ≡ {(1075 × 16)/43%} × 32% = Rs. 12800

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 167

A bag has balls of three colours. It has 8 red balls, x green balls and y blue balls, If probability of
picking one green ball and that of picking one blue ball out of bag is equal. Then, find the number of
blue balls if probability of picking one red ball is 1/2.
Options :
1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 5
5. 1
Answer : 4
Number of green balls and y balls are same in the bag
8
C1/(x+y+8)C1 = ½
here x = y
8/(2x + 8) = ½
x=4
so, number of blue balls = 4

Direction:- In each of the following questions, read the given statements and compare the
two given quantities on its basis.

Give answer:

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I < Quantity II

3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established.

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 168

Quantity I: x(2x- 1) =3

Quantity II: y-2=√625

Options :

1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 5

5. 4

Answer : 5

Quantity I: x(2x- 1) =3

2x2 – x – 3 = 0

=> 2x2 -3x + 2x – 3 = 0

=> x (2x -3) + 1(2x – 3) = 0

=> (x + 1)(2x – 3) = 0

=> x = -1, 3/2

Quantity II: y-2=√625

1/y2 = 25

y = +1/5, -1/5

Hence, Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established.

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 169

A man invests Rs X in a scheme at 12% rate of interest for 8 years. After 8 years he reinvests the

amount received at same rate of interest for same time duration. If interest received from

reinvestment is Rs 5730.40 more than Rs X. Find the value of X?

Options :

1. 6000

2. 6700

3. 6500

4. 6800

5. 6550

Answer : 6500

Let the principal be Rs. 100x.

SI = (100x × 12 × 8)/100 = 96x

Amount = 100x + 96x = 196x

Therefore, ATQ

(196x/100) × (96/100) – X = 5730.40

x{(196 × 96 – 10000)/10000} = 5730.40

so, x = 6500

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Direction:- In each of the following questions, read the given statements and compare the
two given quantities on it basis.

Give answer:

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I < Quantity II

3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established.

Question No. 170

A's age x years ago is equal to B's age after x years, Present age of C is twice the present age of B.

Age of C before X years is equal to A's age after 2x years.

Quantity I: 6 years

Quantity II: Difference between present age of A and C.

Options :

1. 1

2. 2

3. 5

4. 4

5. 3

Answer : 5

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

ATQ,

A–x=B+x

A – B = 2x-----(i)

C = 2B------(ii)

C – x = A + 2x

C – A = 3x-------(iii)

We have four variables A, B, C and x, but we have only 3 equations. So, answer cannot be
determined.

so, Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established.

Question No. 171

A person took a loan of Rs 1500 from an investor for at 20% p.a. on compound interest for 2 years.
But he paid only 80% of amount after 2 years. And investor put some penalty on remaining amount.
He paid Rs 520 with penalty amount after some time. Hence, find the value of penalty amount?
Options :
1. Rs. 80
2. Rs. 81
3. Rs. 82
4. Rs. 83
5. Rs. 84
Answer : Rs. 80
P = Rs. 1500
R = 20%
Therefore, total amount which has to be paid = 1500 × 144/100 = Rs. 15 × 144
Actual amount paid = 15 × 144 × 4/5 = Rs. 432
But after penalty amount paid = Rs. 520
Therefore, penalty given by person = 520 – 432 = Rs. 80

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Direction:- In each of the following questions, read the given statements and compare the
two given quantities on it basis.

Give answer:

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I < Quantity II

3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established.

Question No. 172

A person offers same discount percent on two articles X and Y. if he marks up articles by 40% and

15% respectively above the cost price and selling price of both articles is Rs 280 and Rs 276

respectively.

Quantity I: Cost Price of Article Y.

Quantity II: Marked price of Article X.

Options :

1. 5

2. 2

3. 1

4. 3

5. 4

Answer : 2

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

CP of article x = 100x

CP of article y = 100y

MP of article x = 140x

MP of article y = 115y

Discount % is same for both, therefore

=> 280 (SP) = 140x x {(100-d)/100}

=> {(100-d)/100} = 2/x--------(i)

=> 276 (SP) = 115y x {(100-d)/100}

=> {(100-d)/100} = 12/5y--------(i)

equate i and ii

2/x = 15/5y

y/x = 6/5

Quantity I:

CP of article y = Rs. 600

Quantity II:

MP of article x = Rs. 700

Quantity I < Quantity II

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 173

Ratio of area of a circle and a rectangle is 11: 15. If Breadth of rectangle is twice the radius of circle.

Sum of length and breadth of rectangle is 58 cm.

Quantity I: 600 cm2.

Quantity II: Area of rectangle.

Options :

1. 5

2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
5. 4
Answer : 2

Given that,

πr2/lb = 11/15

22/7 × b2/4 × 1/lb = 11/15

b/l = 14/15

14x + 15x = 58

29x = 58

x=2

Therefore, b = 28, l = 30 and r = 14

Area of rectangle = 28 × 30 = 840

Therefore, Quantity I < Quantity II

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 174

Pipe A can fill half of the tank in 6 hrs 2 min- Pipe B can fill the same tank completely in 18 hrs 5 min

while pipe C can empty the fully filled tank in 9 hrs, If all pipes are opened simultaneously then in

how much time 80% of tank will be filled? (approximately)

Options :

1. 27

2. 26

3. 23

4. 25

5. 29

Answer : 29

A can fill half of the tank in 6 hrs

so, A can fill the full tank in 12 hrs

B can fill the tank in 18 hrs

C can empty the tank in 9 hrs

Total capacity of tank = 36 unit (LCM of 12, 18 and 9)

A can fill the tank in 1 hr = +3

B can fill the tank in 1 hr = +2

C can empty the tank in 1 hr = -4

Total tank filled in 1 hr = 3 + 2 – 4 = 1 unit

1% ≡ 36 unit

80% ≡ 36 × 80/100 = 29 units

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 175

A and B invest in a business in the ratio of 2:3, B left the business after X months, C joins the

business with twice investment as compared to that of B. C invests for 2 months more than as

compared to B. After a year, C receives 5/9th share of total profit. Find the time for which B was there

in the business

Options :

1. 10

2. 12

3. 7

4. 8

5. 6

Answer : 8

According to question:

Ratio of investment of A, B and C = 2 × 12 : 3x : 6(x + 2)

C receives 5/9th of total shares, means shares of C = 5 and that of A + B = 4

Therefore,

=> 6(x + 2)/(24 + 3x) = 5/4

=> 24(x + 2) = 120 + 15x

=> 24x + 48 = 15x + 120

=> 9x = 72

=> x = 8

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 176

A, B and C invest in a business, A invests twice as compared to B and C invests 90% more than A's
investment, if all invest for same time duration, then, find the profit share of A, out of total profit,
which is Rs 2109.
Options :
1. Rs. 620
2. Rs. 600
3. Rs. 625
4. Rs. 650
5. Rs. 625
Answer : Rs. 620

Let the investment of B be Rs. 5

Investment of A = Rs. 10

Investment of C = Rs. 19 (1.9 × 10)

Total profit Rs. 2109

Share of A = 2019/34 × 10 = Rs. 620

Direction:- In each of the following questions, read the given statements and compare the
two given quantities on it basis.

Give answer:

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I < Quantity II

3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 177

I: 2(3x + y) = √32
II: 2(2x + 3y/2) = √32
Quantity I: x + y
Quantity II: 2
Options :
1. 2
2. 1
3. 5
4. 3
5. 7
Answer : 2
From equation I:
=> 2(3x + y) = √32
=> 2(3x + y) = (2)5/2
=> 3x + y = 5/2
=> 6x + 2y = 5------(1)
From equation II:
=> 2(2x + 3y/2) = √32
=> 2(2x + 3y/2) = (2)5/2
=> 2x + 3y/2 = 5/2
=> 4x + 3y = 5----------(2)
6x + 2y = 4x + 3y
2x = y
x = y/2
6 × y/2 + 2y = 5
y=1
x=½
Quantity I:
x + y = 1/2 + 1 = 3/2
Quantity I < Quantity II

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 178

Cost price of an article is Rs X and marked price is 400% more than cost price. To gain profit of

100%, what percent of discount should be offered on this particular article.

Options :

1. 65%

2. 63%

3. 60%

4. 62%

5. 61%

Answer : 60%

CP = x

MP = 5x

SP = 2x

D% = (5x – 2x)/5x × 100 = 60%

Question No. 179

A cylinder of radius 7 cm is surmounted completely by a cone of same radius. Height of cylinder is 6
cm. Find the height of cone if volume of entire shape 1078 cubic cm.
Options :
1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 9
5. None of these
Answer : 3

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Volume of cylinder = πr2h

Volume of cylinder = 1/3 × πr2h

Total volume given = 1078

=> πr2h + 1/3 × πr2h = 1078

=> 22/7 × 49 × (6 + 1/3 × h) = 1078

=> (6 + 1/3 × h) = 1078/154

=> h = 3

Question No. 180

√100.19 × √25.21 + (3.13)3

Options :

1. 77
2. 72
3. 70
4. 71
5. None of these

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Answer : 77

=> √100.19 × √25.21 + (3.13)3

=> √100 × √25 + (3)3

=> 10 × 5 + 27 = 77

Direction:- What approximate value should come in the following question.

Question No. 181

(1/3.94) × (6.08/18.13) × 21.09 + 8.12 = ?

Options :

1. 10

2. 19

3. 15

4. 20

5. 11

Answer : 11

=> (1/3.94) × (6.08/18.13) × 21.09 + 8.12 = ?

=> (1/4) × (6/18) × 21 + 8 = ?

=> 7/4 + 8 = 11

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 IBPS Clerk Mains 2021 Memory Based Paper

Question No. 182

3 √216.68 + 3√343.8 + 3√625.66 = ?

Options :

1. 38

2. 36

3. 37

4. 32

5. 35

Answer : 38

=> 3√216.68 + 3√343.8 + 3√625.66 = ?

=> 3√216 + 3√343 + 2√625 = ?

=> 6 + 7 + 25 = 38

Direction:- In the following questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve
both the equations and give answer.

(i) if x > y

(ii) if x ≥ y

(iii) if x < y

(iv) if x ≤ y

(v) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established

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Question No. 183

I. 2x2 – 17x + 36 = 0
II. y2 – 3y – 10 = 0
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Answer : 5
From I:
=> 2x2 – 17x + 36 = 0
=> 2x2 – 9x – 8x + 36 = 0
=> x(2x – 9) – 4(2x – 9) = 0
=> (x – 4)(2x – 9) = 0
=> x = 4, 4.5
From II:
=> y2 – 3y – 10 = 0
=> y2 – 5y + 2y – 10 = 0
=> y(y – 5) + 2(y – 5) = 0
=> (y + 2)(y – 5) = 0
=> y = -2, 5
Therefore, the relationship cannot be established
Alternate Method:
if signs of quadratic equation is - ve and +ve respectively then the roots of equation will be
+ve and +ve.
So, roots of first equation = x = 4, 9/2
if signs of quadratic equation is - ve and -ve respectively then the roots of equation will be
+ve and -ve. (note: +ve sign will come in larger root)
So, roots of second equation = y = -2, 5
After comparing we can conclude that no relationship can be establish in x and y.

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Question No. 184

Atul and Brijesh started a business by investing Rs 16,000 and Rs 20,000 respectively. At the end of

4th month of the business, Chetan joins with Rs 18,000. At the end of 6th month, Brijesh quits and

withdraws all his invested amount and Chetan invests Rs 2,000 more. At the end of 10th month,

Brijesh rejoins with the same amount of investment. If profit at the end of the year is Rs 25,400, what

is Brijesh‟s share in the profit?

Options :

1. Rs 10,000

2. Rs 8,000

3. Rs 12,000

4. Rs 16,000

5. None of these

Answer : Rs 8,000

Ratio of Atul : Brijesh : Chetan’s investments =

(16,000 x 12) : (20,000 x 6 + 20,000 x 2 ): (18,000 x 2 + 20,000 x 6) = 1,92,000 : 1,60,000 :

1,56,000 = 48 : 40 : 39

Net profit after a year = Rs 25,400(given)

Brijesh’s share = 40/(48 + 40 + 39) x 25,400 = 40/127 x 25,400 = Rs 8,000

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Question No. 185

There are two container of different colour Blue and Black. Both contain a mixture of petrol and
water. In the Blue container the ratio of petrol and water is 8:3 and in the Black container the ratio is
5:1. A 35 litre cask is filled from these containers so as to contain a mixture of petrol and water in the
ratio 4:1. Find how many litres are taken from the Blue container.
Options :
1. 15 litre
2. 11 litre
3. 25 litre
4. 13 litre
5. None of these
Answer : 11 litre

11 : 24

Total unit = 11 + 24 = 35

35 unit = 35 litre

1 unit = 1 litre

Therefore, required answer = 11 × 1 = 11 litres

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Question No. 186

The speed of the boat in still water is 10 km/h and the speed of the stream is 5 km/h. A boat goes
240 km downstream with its usual speed but at the time of returning the speed of the boat in still is
doubled. Find the total time taken by boat to cover the whole distance.
Options :
1. 4 hours
2. 9 hours
3. 10 hours
4. 12 hours
5. None of these
Answer : None of these
According to the question,
Required time = 240/(10 + 5) + 240/(20 – 5)
= 240/15 + 240/15
= 16 + 16 = 32 hours

Direction:- In a chess match between two players, player A and player B, the probability that
player A wins the first game is 0.5. If player A wins any game, the probability that he wins the
next game is 0.9; otherwise the probability is 0.3.

Question No. 187

Find the probability that player A wins the first two games.
Options :
1. 0.35
2. 0.45
3. 0.43
4. 0.25
5. 0.55
Answer : 0.45
P(Win first game) x P(Win second game)= 0.5 x 0.9 = 0.45

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Question No. 188

Find the probability that player A wins exactly one of the first two games.
Options :
1. 0.2
2. 0.1
3. 0.7
4. 0.3
5. 0.5
Answer : 0.2

Part 1= Won first x Lost Second= 0.5* (1-0.9)= 0.5*0.1 = 0.5

Part 2= Lost First x Won second = (1-0.5)*0.3= 0.5*0.3=0.15

P = 0.5+0.15 = 0.2

Direction:- In a bag there are three types of colored pens of Green, Blue and Black colors.
The probability of selecting one green pen out of the total pen is 1/3 and the probability of
selecting one black pen out of the total pen is 2/5.The number of blue pens in the bag is 4.

Question No. 189

What are the total number of pens in the bag?
Options :
1. 28
2. 30
3. 15
4. 40
5. None of these
Answer : 15

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Let the total number of pens be ‘x’.

1/3 + 2/5 + 4/x = 1

11x + 60 = 15x

x = 60/4

= 15

Direction:- In each of the following questions, a question is followed by three statements

numbered I, II and III. Read all the statements and answer accordingly.

Question No. 190

What is the principal amount?
Statement I: The Simple Interest after 2 years on a certain sum at 10% p.a is Rs. 1200.
Statement II: The sum becomes double in 5 years in simple interest.
Statement III: The difference between simple & compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years is
Rs. 500
Options :
1. Only I
2. All I, II and III together
3. II and III together
4. only I and either I or II
5. I or II and III
Answer : only I and either I or II
From I: SI = 1200, here R & T are given. So Principal can be found.
From II: P(100) →200
So interest % = 100% in 5 years
So rate = 20%
But we cannot find Principal by alone II.
From III: Difference between Si & CI for 2 years= PR × R/100 × 100
By using II &III , we can get the P.

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