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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography

Chapter 1 – Resources

1. Answer the following questions.

(i) Why are resources distributed unequally over the earth?


Answer: Earth has different topography, climate and altitude at different places. The difference in these
factors has resulted in the unequal distribution of resources over the earth. Also, all these factors are
different from place to place on the earth. Moreover, the level of development and technological levels
determine the distribution.

(ii) What is resource conservation?


Answer: Saving resources for future generations is called conservation. It is the protection and ethical
use of valuable resources, such as minerals, water, trees, wildlife, and others. Resources conservation
basically focuses on maintaining the natural world in order to protect the sources of resources.

(iii) Why are human resources important?


Answer: Humans as a resource are important because they have the ability to extract value from all
other resources. They can make the best use of nature to create more resources as they have the
knowledge, skill and technology to do so. Education and health help in making humans a valuable
resource.

(iv) What is sustainable development?


Answer: Balancing the need to use resources and also conserving them for the future is called
sustainable development. The future of our planet and its people is linked with our ability to maintain
and preserve the life support system that nature provides. When all renewable resources are used
sustainably, the diversity of life on the earth is conserved and the damage to the natural environmental
system is minimised and saved for our future generation, then it is sustainable development.

2. Tick the correct Answer


(i) Which one of the following does NOT make the substance a resource?

1. Utility
2. Value
3. Quantity

Answer: 3 Quantity

(ii) Which one of the following is a human-made resource?

1. Medicines to treat cancer


2. Springwater
3. Tropical forest
Answer:1 Medicine to treat cancer

(iii) Complete the following statement:

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography
Biotic resources are ..............

1. Derived from living things


2. Made by human beings
3. Derived from non-living things

Answer:1 Derived from living things

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography

Chapter 2 - Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife


Resources

1. Answer the following questions.

(i) Which are the two main climatic factors responsible for soil formation?
Answer: Two main climatic factors responsible for soil formation are Temperature and Rainfall wherein
rainfall influences the rate of weathering and humus formation.

(ii) Write any two reasons for land degradation today.


Answer: Overuse of chemical fertilizers and deforestation are two reasons for land degradation.
Growing population and their ever-growing demand has led to large scale destruction of forest cover
and arable land and has created a fear of losing this natural resource.

(iii) Why is land considered an important resource?


Answer: Land is considered an important resource because it can be put to use for various purposes
like agriculture, forestry, mining, building, houses, roads and setting up of industries.

(iv) Name any two steps that the government has taken to conserve plants and animals.
Answer: Two major steps taken by Government to protect and conserve plants, animals and natural
vegetation are:
 National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves are made to protect our natural
vegetation and wildlife.
 Awareness programmes like social forestry and tree plantation- Vanamahotsava are organised
to conserve forest a valuable natural resource.

(v) Suggest three ways to conserve water.


Answer: two ways for water conservation are: Increasing forest and other vegetation covers to slow the
surface runoff and replenish underground water and rain Water harvesting is another method to save
surface runoff and conserve water.

2. Tick the correct answer.

(i) Which one of the following is NOT a factor of soil formation?


(a) time
(b) soil texture
(c) organic matter

Answer: b. Soil Texture

(ii) Which one of the following methods is most appropriate to check soil erosion on steep
slopes?
(a) shelterbelts
(b) mulching
(c) terrace cultivation

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography

Answer: c Terrace cultivation

(iii) Which one of the following is NOT in favour of the conservation of nature?
(a) switch off the bulb when not in use
(b) close the tap immediately after using
(c) dispose of polypacks after shopping

Answer: c Dispose of polypacks after shopping

3. Match the following

Column A Column B

Land use prevent soil erosion

Humus The narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and
atmosphere

Rock productive use of land


Dams

Biosphere organic matter deposited on topsoil

contour ploughing

Answer:
Column A Column B

Land use productive use of land

Humus organic matter deposited on topsoil

Rock prevent soil erosion


Dams

Biosphere The narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and
atmosphere

4: State whether the given statement is true or false.If true, give the reasons.
(i). Ganga–Brahmaputra plain of India is an overpopulated region.
True: river valley and plains offer suitable land for agriculture hence, they are densely populated.

(ii) Water availability per person in India is declining.


True: Increasing population, increasing urbanisation, rising standards of living and rising demands for
food and cash crops, are leading to shortages in the supply of fresh water either due to drying up of
water sources or water pollution.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography

(iii) Rows of trees planted in the coastal areas to check the wind movement are called
intercropping.
False: Rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover is called shelterbelts

(iv). Human interference and changes in climate can maintain the ecosystem.
False: Changes in climate and human interferences can cause the loss of natural habitats, hence
destroy the ecosystem.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography

Chapter 3 - Mineral and Power Resources

1. Answer the following questions.


(i) Name any three common minerals used by you every day?
Answer: Salt, petroleum and gold are the common minerals that are used by humans on a regular
basis.

(ii) What is an ore? Where are the ores of metallic minerals generally located?
Answer: Ores are the rocks which are mined to extract minerals from them. Minerals occur in different
types of rocks. Some are found in igneous rocks, some in metamorphic rocks while others occur in
sedimentary rocks. The ores of metallic minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rock
formations that form large plateaus.

(iii) Name two regions rich in natural gas resources?


Answer: The United Kingdom and the Netherlands are the major producers of natural gas. Natural gas
is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface. It is used as a
domestic and industrial fuel.

(iv) Which sources of energy would you suggest for (a) rural areas (b) coastal areas (c) Arid
regions?
Answer:
a. In rural areas Coal Solar energy, Biogas and Firewood can be used as sources of energy.
b. In Coastal areas wind power, petroleum and tidal power can be used.
c. In arid areas geothermal powers and solar energy are most suitable to be used.

(v) Give five ways in which you can save energy at home.
Answer:
1. Switch off Light, TV, and fan when not in use.
2. Close tap properly so that it do not drip
3. Use pressure cooker for cooking
4. Prefer walking or using bicycle for short distance
5. Minimize the use of refrigerator, air conditioner and lifts.

2. Tick the correct answer.


(i) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of minerals?
a. They are created by natural processes.
b. They have a definite chemical composition.
c. They are inexhaustible.
d. Their distribution is uneven.
Answer: C they are inexhaustible

(ii) Which one of the following is a leading producer of copper in the world?
a. Bolivia
b. Ghana
c. Zimbabwe
d. Chile

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography
Answer: D Chile

(iii) Which one of the following practices will NOT conserve LPG in your kitchen.
a. Cooking food in an open pan kept on low flame.
b. Soaking the dal for some time before cooking it.
c. Cooking food in a pressure cooker.
d. Keeping the vegetables chopped before lighting the gas for cooking.
Answer: A Cooking food in an open pan kept on low flame

3. Give reasons.
(i) Environmental aspects must be carefully looked into before building huge dams.
Answer: Construction of a huge dam creates large scale destruction of natural vegetation and wildlife
in those areas which get submerged. This is not good for the ecosystem. Hence, environmental
aspects must be carefully looked into before building huge dams.

(ii) Most industries are concentrated around coal mines.


Answer: Coal is an important source of energy and hence most of the industries are located around
coal mines.

(iii) Petroleum is referred to as “black gold”.


Answer: Petroleum is a thick black liquid and is a valuable resource for the industry. Hence it is also
known as “Black Gold”.

(iv) Quarrying can become a major environmental concern.


Answer: Quarrying creates many problems. Fine dust particles spread in air around a quarrying site.
Dust particles from quarry can cause respiratory problems. Quarrying also destroys natural vegetation
and thus the home of many wild animals.

4. Distinguish between the following.


(i) Conventional and non conventional sources of energy
Answer: Conventional sources of energy are those which have been in common use for a long time.
Firewood and fossil fuels are the two main conventional energy sources. Whereas, Non-Conventional
sources of energy are much sorted form of energy used in modern times. The use of renewable energy
sources like organic waste, tide and wind energy.

(ii) Biogas and natural gas


Answer: The gaseous fuel formed from the conversion of organic waste such as dead plant and animal
material, animal dung and kitchen waste is called biogas. Biogas is a mixture of methane
and carbon dioxide and produces a huge amount of organic manure each year. Whereas, Natural gas
is extracted with petroleum deposits when crude oil is brought to the surface.

(iii) Ferrous and nonferrous minerals


Answer: Ferrous minerals contain iron such as iron ore, manganese and chromites, on the other hand
non-ferrous minerals do not contain iron like gold, silver, copper or lead.

(iv) Metallic and nonmetallic minerals


Answer: Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form bauxite,manganese are some examples of
metallic minerals. While, Non-metallic minerals do not contain metals such as Limestone, mica and
gypsum.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography

Chapter 4 – Agriculture

1. Answer the following questions.


(i) What is agriculture?
Answer: Agriculture is a primary activity that includes growing crops, vegetables, fruits, flowers and
rearing of livestock. Agriculture is a primary activity as it is connected with the extraction and production
of natural resources.

(ii) Name the factors influencing agriculture?


Answer: the factors that influence agriculture include soil, climate, topography, population etc.

(iii) What is shifting cultivation? What are its disadvantages?


Answer: Shifting cultivation also known as Slash-and-burn cultivation is a type of farming activity which
involves clearing of a land plot by cutting down trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with
the soil and crops are grown. After the land has lost its fertility, it is abandoned. The farmers then move
to a new place.

Disadvantages of shifting cultivation:

 Leads to deforestation
 Loss of fertility of a particular land
 Leads to Soil erosion
 Burning of trees causes air pollution
 Insufficient cultivation of crops for a large population.

(iv) What is plantation agriculture?


Answer: Plantations are a type of commercial farming where single crops of tea, coffee, sugarcane,
cashew, rubber, banana or cotton are grown. Large amounts of capital and capital are required. The
produce may be processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories. The development of a transport
network is thus essential for such farming. Major plantations are found in the tropical regions of the
world. Rubber in Malaysia, coffee in Brazil, tea in India and Sri Lanka are some examples.

(v) Name the fibre crops and name the climatic conditions required for their growth.
Answer: Jute and Cotton are fibre crops. The climatic conditions necessary for the growth of Jute are
high temperature, Heavy rainfall and Humid climate. Similarly, for growth of cotton high temperature,
light rainfall, bright sunshine are required.

2. Tick the correct answer.


(i) Horticulture means
(a) growing of fruits and vegetables
(b) primitive farming
(c) growing of wheat
Answer: A Growing of fruits and vegetables

(ii) Golden fibre refers to


(a) tea
(b) cotton
(c) jute

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography
Answer: C Jute

(iii) Leading producers of coffee


(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Russia
Answer A Brazil

3. Give reasons.
(i) In India agriculture is a primary activity.
Answer: Agriculture is primary activity because many regions in India have fertile land that is
favourable for agriculture. Two-thirds of the Indian population still depends on agriculture. This is mainly
because of lack of literacy among the people, they prefer agriculture. Hence, India being a densely
populated country requires large scale production of food to fulfil the people needs.

(ii) Different crops are grown in different regions.


Answer Different crops are grown in different regions because growing of the crops depends on factors
such as favourable topography of soil, Demand of produce, type of Climate, amount of rainfall,
technology and labour.

4. Distinguish between the following.


(i) Primary activities and tertiary activities
Answer: Primary activities are related to production and extraction of natural resources such as fishing,
agriculture, mining whereas Tertiary activities that provide support to primary and secondary sectors in
carrying out their activities like transportation, banking etc.

(ii) Subsistence farming and intensive farming.


Answer: Subsistence farming is a type of farming that farmer practises to meet the needs of his family.
The cultivation of crops is done for personal consumption. It involves the use of low levels of technology
and household labour to produce on small output. While, In intensive subsistence agriculture the farmer
cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour. Rice, wheat, maize, pulses and
oilseeds are the crops grown in this type of farming. Intensive subsistence agriculture is prevalent in the
thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography

Chapter 5 – Industries

1. Answer the following questions.


(i) What is meant by the term ‘industry’?
Answer: Industry refers to an economic activity that is concerned with production of goods like iron and
steel industry, extraction of minerals like coal mining industry and the provision of services like tourism
industry.

(ii) Which are the main factors which influence the location of an industry?
Answer: Setting up an industry leads to development and growth of that location. The factors that
affect the location of industries are the easy availability of raw material and land, adequate supply of
water and labour, access to power and transport, presence of market and good amount of
capital.Sometimes, the government also provides incentives like subsidised power, lower transport cost
and other infrastructural facilities so that industries may be located in backward areas.

(iii) Which industry is often referred to as the backbone of modern industry and why?
Answer: Steel is called the backbone of modern industry because almost everything we use is either
made of steel or has been made with machinery or tool made out of steel. Steel industry is basically the
feeder industry whose products are the raw materials for other industries.

(iv) Why has the cotton textile industry rapidly expanded in Mumbai?
Answer: The warm and moist climate, proximity to port, easy availability of raw material and skilled
labour helped in rapid expansion of the cotton textile industry in Mumbai.

2. Tick the correct answer.


(i) Fort Gloster is located in
(a) West Bengal
(b) California
(c) Gujarat
Answer: a) West bengal

(ii) Which one of the following is a natural fibre?


(a) nylon
(b) jute
(c) acryclic
Answer: b Jute

3. Distinguish between the following.


(i) Agro-based and mineral based industry
Answer: Agro based industries use plant and animal based products as their raw materials. It is a
source of employment for people in rural areas. Food processing, vegetable oil, cotton textile, dairy
products and leather industries are examples of agro-based industries. Whereas, Mineral based
industries are primary industries that use mineral ores as their raw materials. It is a source of
employment for both rural and urban populations. Steel and Iron Industries and Heavy Machinery
industries are examples of Mineral based industries.

(ii) Public sector and joint sector industry

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography
Answer: Industries owned and operated by the government are public sector industries. Steel Authority
of India Limited and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited are examples of Public sector industries. On the
other hand, Joint sector industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals or a group of
individuals. Maruti Udyog Limited is an example of joint sector industry.

4. Give two examples of the following in the space provided :


(i) Raw Materials: _____________ and _____________________
Answer: Iron ore and Cotton
(ii) End products: _______________ and _________________________
Answer: Steel and Cloth
(iii) Tertiary Activities: ________________ and __________
Answer: Transport and banking
(iv) Agro-based Industries: ____________ and ____________
Answer: Dairy and Sugar
(v) Cottage Industries: ___________ and ________________
Answer: pottery and basket weaving
(vi) Co-operatives: ______________________ and _____________
Answer: Mother Dairy and Anand Milk Union Limited (Amul)

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography

Chapter 6 - Human Resources

1. Answer the following questions.


(i) Why are people considered a resource?
Answer: People are the greatest resource of the nation. All other resources of nature become
significant only when people extract its usefulness. It is people with their demands and abilities that turn
them into resources. Hence, human resource is the ultimate resource.

(ii) What are the causes for the uneven distribution of population in the world?
Answer: Population distribution in the world is uneven because of the two factors Geographical and
Social factors.
Geographical factors include.
1. Topography: People prefer to live on plains rather than mountains and plateaus because these
areas are suitable for farming, manufacturing and service activities. The Ganga plains are the
most densely populated areas of the world while mountains like Andes, Alps and Himalayas are
sparsely populated.
2. Water: People prefer to live in the areas where freshwater is easily available. The river valleys
of the world are densely populated while deserts have spare population.
Social Factors include:
3. Social: Areas of better housing, education and health facilities are more densely populated for
example Pune.
4. Economic: Industrial areas provide employment opportunities. Large number of people are
attracted to these areas. Osaka in Japan and Mumbai in India are two densely populated areas.

(iii) The world population has grown very rapidly. Why?


Answer: The world population has not been stable and has increased manifold due to advancements
in science and technology that has increased the food production and development in healthcare
facilities has helped in reducing death rate.

(iv) Discuss the role of any two factors influencing population change.
Answer: Two factors influencing change in population are birth rate and death rate. Birth rate is the
number of live births per 1,000 people and death rate is the number of deaths per 1,000 people. Births
and deaths are the natural causes of population change. Birth rate more than death rate means
population increase and vice-versa. The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a
country is called the natural growth rate.

(v) What is meant by population composition?


Answer: Population composition refers to the structure of the population. The composition of
population helps us to know how many are males or females, which age group they belong to, how
educated they are and what type of occupations they are employed in, what their income
levels and health conditions are. An interesting way of studying the population composition of a country
is by looking at the population pyramid, also called an age-sex pyramid.

(vi) What are population pyramids? How do they help in understanding about the population of
a country?
Answer: The graphical representation used to study the composition of a country’s population is called
the population pyramid. It shows the total population divided into various age groups, percentage of the
total population subdivided into males and females, and how many dependents there are in a country.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Geography
The population pyramid of a country in which birth and death rates both are high is broad at the base
and narrow towards the top.

2. Tick the correct answer.


(i) Which does the term population distribution refer to?
a. How the population in a specified area changes over time.
b. The number of people who die in relation to the number of people born in a specified area.
c. The way in which people are spread across a given area.
Answer c The way in which people are spread across a given area

(ii) Which are three main factors that cause population change?
a. Births, deaths and marriage
b. Births, deaths and migration
c. Births, deaths and life expectancy
Answer b Births, deaths and migration.

(iii) In 1999, the world population reached


a. 1 billion
b. 3 billion
c. 6 billion
Answer c 6 billion

(iv) What is a population pyramid?


a. A graphical presentation of the age, sex composition of a population.
b. When the population density of an area is so high that people live in tall buildings.
c. Pattern of population distribution in large urban areas.
Answer a A graphical presentation of the age, sex composition of a population

3. Complete the sentences below using some of the following words.


(sparsely, favourable, fallow, artificial, fertile, natural, extreme, densely)
When people are attracted to an area it becomes ....................... populated, Factors that influence this
include ....................... climate; good supplies of ....................... resources and ....................... land.

Answer: When people are attracted to an area it becomes densely populated, Factors that influence
this include favourable climate; good supplies of Natural resources and fertile land.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History

Chapter 1 How, When and Where


1. State whether true or false:
(a) James Mill divided Indian history into three periods – Hindu, Muslim, Christian.
(b) Official documents help us understand what the people of the country think.
(c) The British thought surveys were important for effective administration.

Answer 1.
a. False
b. False
c. True

2. What is the problem with the periodisation of Indian history that James Mill offers?
Answer.
The problem with the periodisation of Indian History that James Mill offers is the superiority of British
shown over Hindu and Muslim. James Bill periodized Indian History into Hindu, Muslim and British
claiming that it was necessary to introduce European manners, arts, institutions and laws in India.
James Mill’s views have several defects given below:
a. He thought that all Asian societies were at a lower level of civilisation than Europe.
b. According to his telling of history, before the British came to India, Hindu and Muslim despots
ruled the country.
c. Religious intolerance, caste taboos and superstitious practices dominated social life before the
British came to India

3. Why did the British preserve official documents?


Answer.
British had preserved official documents as they thought if they write and record everything, it will later
be easier for them to study them and debate. According to British, they needed official records of all
what they thought was right so that in future, these can serve as proofs of all the decisions they had
taken.

4. How will the information historians get from old newspapers be different from that found in police
reports?
Answer.
The difference in the information historians get from old newspapers and that found in the police report
is due to the source of information and the tool of reporting. While the information found in old
newspapers shows the new editors and reporters’ point of views, the police reports were based on
facts. The newspaper might not also show the entire story about the incident happened whereas police
reports will be detailed and will show the entire society as it is.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History

Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory - The Company Establishes


Power
1. Match the following:

Diwani Tipu Sultan

“Tiger of Mysore” Right to collect land revenue

Faujdari Adalat Sepoy

Rani Channamma Criminal Court

Sipahi Led an anti-British movement in Kitoor

Answer.

Diwani Right to collect land revenue

“Tiger of Mysore” Tipu Sultan

Faujdari Adalat Criminal Court

Rani Channamma Led an anti-British movement in Kitoor

Sipahi Sepoy

2. Fill in the blanks:


(a) The British conquest of Bengal began with the Battle of ___________.
(b) Haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan were the rulers of ___________.
(c) Dalhousie implemented the Doctrine of ___________.
(d) Maratha kingdoms were located mainly in the ___________ part of India.

Answer.
(a) The British conquest of Bengal began with the Battle of Plassey
(b) Haidar Ali and Tipu Sultan were the rulers of Mysore.
(c) Dalhousie implemented the Doctrine of Lapse
(d) Maratha kingdoms were located mainly in the South-western part of India.

3. State whether true or false:


(a) The Mughal empire became stronger in the eighteenth century.
(b) The English East India Company was the only European company that traded with India.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History
(c) Maharaja Ranjit Singh was the ruler of Punjab.
(d) The British did not introduce administrative changes in the territories they conquered.

Answer.
(a) The Mughal empire became stronger in the eighteenth century - False
(b) The English East India Company was the only European company that traded with India - False
(c) Maharaja Ranjit Singh was the ruler of Punjab - True
(d) The British did not introduce administrative changes in the territories they conquered - False

4. What attracted European trading companies to India?


Answer.
European trading companies were looking for new lands from which they could buy goods at a cheap
price, and carry them back to Europe to sell at higher prices. The fine qualities of cotton and silk
produced in India had a big market in Europe. Pepper, cloves, cardamom and cinnamon too were in
great demand. Therefore, these reasons attracted European trading companies to India.

5. What were the areas of conflict between the Bengal nawabs and the East India Company?
Answer.
After the British first factory was set up in 1651 on the banks of river Hugli, East India company
started allowing more of its merchants and traders to come and settle in to the city of Bengal. The
reasons that led to conflicts between Bengal nawabs and East India Company were:
a. Nawabs denied concessions to the East India Company on many occasions
b. Nawabs also demanded large tributes from the company
c. The company denied paying taxes
d. Company officials wrote insulting letters to the nawabs

6. How did the assumption of Diwani benefit the East India Company?
Answer.
Diwani right are the rights that the British acquired to collect its own revenues and also decide the civil
cases. This right benefitted East India Company in several ways:
a. It allowed the Company to use the vast revenue resources of Bengal.
b. The monopoly of the East India Company on the trade started
c. Revenue of Bengal was used to export Indian goods out of the country

7. Explain the system of “subsidiary alliance”.


Answer.
The system of the subsidiary alliance made Indian rulers let go of their armed forces and come under
the protection of East India Company. The following changes occurred when this system came into
being:
a. East India Company became the guardian of the territories it took under the alliance
b. An English resident who is the EIC’s personnel was appointed in the territory to keep a check
on the ruler
c. The Indian rules were asked to not allow any other European companies to trade with them and
enter their territory
d. Indian rulers were told to pay for the subsidiary armed forces of EIC disobeying which that part
of the territory was forfeited by the company.

8. In what way was the administration of the Company different from that of Indian rulers?
Answer.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History
The difference in the administration of the company and that of the Indian rulers is given below:

Company Administration Indian Rulers Administration

Company divided the territories into Indian rulers divided the territories into district,
presidencies pargana, tehsil and parishad

Governor ruled the administrative units Zamindar or Peasants were responsible for their
units

Governor-General was the head of the King or Nawab was the head of the state
state

The introduction of several acts: Indian rulers brought no such acts but used to rule
 Regulating Act with their farmans.
 Indian Council Acts
 Montague-Chelmsford
Reforms

9. Describe the changes that occurred in the composition of the Company’s army.
Answer.
The army of EIC was known as Sepoy Army. Main participants of the army were the peasant of India
who EIC trained to become the professional soldiers. The major change in the EIC army was the
domination of infantry over cavalry with the introduction of muskets, matchlocks to guard them. The
company also introduced a uniform military culture where soldiers were given European training
through drills and other exercises.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History

Chapter 3 Ruling the Countryside

1. Match the following:

Ryot Village

Mahal Peasant

Nij Cultivation on ryot’s lands

Ryoti Cultivation on planter’s own land

Answer.

Ryot Peasant

Mahal Village

Nij Cultivation on planter’s own land

Ryoti Cultivation on ryot’s land

2. Fill in the blanks:


(a) Growers of woad in Europe saw __________ as a crop which would provide competition to
their earnings.
(b) The demand for indigo increased in late eighteenth-century Britain because of __________.
(c) The international demand for indigo was affected by the discovery of __________.
(d) The Champaran movement was against __________.
Answer.

Answer.
(a) Growers of woad in Europe saw Indigo as a crop which would provide competition to their earnings.
(b) The demand for indigo increased in late eighteenth-century Britain because of the expansion of
cotton production.
(c) The international demand for indigo was affected by the discovery of synthetic dyes.
(d) The Champaran movement was against indigo planters.

3. Describe the main features of the Permanent Settlement.


Answer.
The Permanent Settlement System was a land revenue system introduced in 1793 by East India
Company. Rajas and taluqdars were recognized as Zamindars to collect rent from the peasants and
pay revenue to the Company. The main features of the Permanent Settlement system are:
a. The amount paid by the zamindars to the company was fixed permanently
b. The Rajas were made the zamindars
c. Zamindars lost their right over the lands whenever they fail to make payments to the company

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d. Exorbitant prices of land which zamindars had to pay to the company (which they failed.)

4. How was the mahalwari system different from the Permanent Settlement?
Answer.
Difference between Mahalwari System and Permanent Settlement are given below:

Mahalwari System Permanent Settlement

Holt Mackenzie devised it and it came into effect in Permanent Settlement was brought by
1822 Lord Cornwallis in 1793

The epicentre of the system was a village There was no such epicentre

Villages were called ‘Mahal’ -

The estimated revenue of each plot within a village The revenue was fixed that each
was added up to calculate the revenue that each zamindar had to pay to the company
village (mahal) had to pay

The revenue was to be revised periodically Revenue was fixed

The charge to collect the revenue was on the village The charge to collect the revenue was
headman on the village zamindar
(rajas/taluqdars)

5. Give two problems which arose with the new Munro system of fixing revenue.
Answer.
The new Munro system of fixing revenue posed two problems:
a. The revenue demand was fixed way too high for peasants to pay
b. Peasants were unable to pay the rent which culminated into villages getting deserted.

6. Why were ryots reluctant to grow indigo?


Answer.
The ryots were reluctant to grow indigo for the below-given reasons:
a. They were paid very low-prices for it
b. The ryots never saw any profit accruing from the indigo plantation
c. Ryots were asked to grow indigo on the fertile parts of their land by the planters which they were
apprehensive about

7. What were the circumstances which led to the eventual collapse of indigo production in
Bengal?
Answer.
The collapse of indigo production in Bengal was caused by the following circumstances:
a. Ryots’ denied producing the indigo anymore
b. Protests started taking place by the peasants/ ryots supported by the zamindars
c. Following the protests, the Indigo Commission was constituted by the government which
accepted the faults of the planters and asked the planters to stop the cultivation.

d. Planters eventually moved out of the city

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Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age

1. Fill in the blanks:


(a) The British described the tribal people as ____________.
(b) The method of sowing seeds in jhum cultivation is known as ____________.
(c) The tribal chiefs got ____________ titles in central India under the British land settlements.
(d) Tribals went to work in the ____________ of Assam and the ____________ in Bihar.

Answer.
(a) The British described the tribal people as wild and savage.
(b) The method of sowing seeds in jhum cultivation is known as broadcasting.
(c) The tribal chiefs got land titles in central India under the British land settlements.
(d) Tribals went to work in the tea plantations of Assam and the coal mines in Bihar.

2. State whether true or false:


(a) Jhum cultivators plough the land and sow seeds.
(b) Cocoons were bought from the Santhals and sold by the traders at five times the purchase
price.
(c) Birsa urged his followers to purify themselves, give up drinking liquor and stop believing in
witchcraft and sorcery.
(d) The British wanted to preserve the tribal way of life.

Answer.
(a) Jhum cultivators plough the land and sow seeds - False
(b) Cocoons were bought from the Santhals and sold by the traders at five times the purchase price -
True
(c) Birsa urged his followers to purify themselves, give up drinking liquor and stop believing in witchcraft
and sorcery - True
(d) The British wanted to preserve the tribal way of life - False

3. What problems did shifting cultivators face under British rule?


Answer.
British always had problems with shifting cultivators as they were always moving for pasture lands.
Shifting cultivators were wanted to become peasant cultivators. The British thought it is easier to control
and administer peasant cultivators than shifting cultivators. Hence, shifting cultivators faced problems
when the company planned the land revenue system.

4. How did the powers of tribal chiefs change under colonial rule?
Answer.
Under British rule, the functions and powers of the tribal chiefs changed considerably. They were
allowed to keep their land titles over a cluster of villages and rent out lands, but they lost much of their
administrative power and were forced to follow laws made by British officials in India. They also had to
pay tribute to the British, and discipline the tribal groups on behalf of the British. They lost the authority
they had earlier enjoyed amongst their people and were unable to fulfil their traditional functions.

5. What accounts for the anger of the tribals against the dikus?

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Answer.
Tribals were not happy with dikus who were considered as ‘outsiders’ by them. Tribals wanted to be
shifting cultivators and not peasant cultivators. The dikus were settling in the tribals’ lands wanting the
latter to sell their lands or rent their lands on very high-interest rates. This made tribals unhappy. Also,
the tribal chiefs lost their administrative powers under British rule. Later, tribals were evacuated from
their lands and they had to look for another livelihood.

6. What was Birsa’s vision of a golden age? Why do you think such a vision appealed to the
people of the region?
Answer.
Birsa’s vision of golden age was to have their land free of dikus. He considered that age to be the age
of truth. According to Birsa, in golden age, the tribal sirdars will be able to rule among themselves and
no one will be there to dictate terms to them. His golden age vision was to have an age with no vices
like liquor, witchcraft, sorcery and uncleanliness. He wanted to no role of outsider participants like
missionaries, Hindu landlords, moneylenders, traders and Europeans.

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Chapter 5 When People Rebel - 1857 and After

1. What was the demand of Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi that was refused by the British?
Answer.
Rani Lakshmibai was the queen of Jhansi. She had adopted a son. Hence, she wanted her son to be
the ruler of Jhansi. However, according to Lord Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse policy, an adopted heir
will not be allowed to acquire the kingdom once the father dies and the same will be annexed by the
British. Hence, Rani Lakshmibai’s demand for recognizing her adopted son as the male heir of the
kingdom was refused by the British.

2. What did the British do to protect the interests of those who converted to Christianity?
Answer.
After 1830, the Company allowed Christian missionaries to function freely in its domain and even own
land and property. In 1850, a new law was passed to make the conversion to Christianity easier. This
law allowed an Indian who had converted to Christianity to inherit the property of his ancestors. Many
Indians began to feel that the British were destroying their religion, their social customs and their
traditional way of life.

3. What objections did the sepoys have to the new cartridges that they were asked to use?
Answer.
The new cartridges were unaccepted by the Indian sepoys as they had the belief that these have been
coated by the fat of the cow and pigs. The sepoys have to bite the cartridges but the religion of Indian
sepoys did not allow them to touch these cartridges. Hence they denied using the new cartridges.

4. How did the last Mughal emperor live the last years of his life?
Answer.
The last Mughal emperor was Bahadur Shah Zafar. His title of the Mughal emperor was the symbolic
one as, after the death of Aurangzeb, the Mughal rulers lost their power and led only symbolic stature.
Zafar was also the symbolic head of the 1857 revolt. However, once the revolt was crushed, Bahadur
Shah Zafar was tried in court. He was blinded by the British and imprisoned. Later in 1858, he along
with his wife was sent to Rangoon where he died in 1862.

5. What could be the reasons for the confidence of the British rulers about their position in India
before May 1857?
Answer.
The British became confident about their position in India because of the following reasons:
a. The Mughal rulers after the death of Aurangzeb were not strong and powerful hence it was
easier for them to annex states
b. The disunity among nawabs and the Mughal ruler helped the British have a firm stronghold in
the Indian society, starting from Bengal.
c. The policies, like Subsidiary Alliance, helped British annexe territories one after another without
the use of any military power.
d. The revolt of 1857 though was unique however was crushed by the British leading to their
supremacy over the Indian society.

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6. What impact did Bahadur Shah Zafar’s support to the rebellion have on the people and the
ruling families?
Answer.
However, after the death of Aurangzeb, considered as the last strong and powerful Mughal ruler of
India, the Mughal ruler still had a symbolic presence. Hence, even after Aurangzeb, Mughal rulers had
their presence. The revolt of 1857 started only when Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last ruler of Mughals,
gave his permission. His support for the revolt made leaders from various places confident. Zafar asked
all the leaders to form a confederacy to fight the British. Many small, large kingdoms, rulers and
chieftains supported the revolt after Bahadur Shah Zafar’s support to the revolt. Hence, his support for
the rebellion had a widespread effect on the people and the ruling families.

7. How did the British succeed in securing the submission of the rebel landowners of Awadh?
Answer.
British followed a two-pronged approach to suppress the rebel landowners of Awadh:
a. The first approach was to hang the rebel landowners who had killed British personnel to
threaten the people of Awadh for consequences of their revolts in future.
b. The second approach was to reward the loyal landowners of Awadh stating that if they have not
killed British personnel and they submit before British, they will be safe and they can have their share of
lands.

8. In what ways did the British change their policies as a result of the rebellion of 1857?
Answer.
After the revolt of 1857, the British Crown took over the Indian administration. The powers of the East
India Company were transferred to the Crown. The following changes were made:
a. Doctrine of Lapse policy was abolished
b. The number of Indian sepoys was reduced in the army so that in future they can’t rebel against
the British
c. Zamindars and landowners’ right were further enhanced
d. Crown promised that it will not interfere with the religion of the people.
e. Viceroy and Secretary of the state were appointed for the administration of Indian society.

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Chapter 6 Weavers, Iron Smelters and Factory Owners

1. What kinds of cloth had a large market in Europe?


Answer.
Cotton and Silk had a large market in Europe. Different varieties of Indian textiles were sold in
European markets:
a. Chintz
b. Cossaes or Khasa
c. Bandanna
d. Jamdani
Indian printed cotton textiles were also famous in England for their exquisite floral designs, fine textures
and cheapness.

2. What is jamdani?
Answer.
Jamdani is a fine muslin on which decorative motifs are woven on the loom, typically in grey and white.
Often a mixture of cotton and gold thread was used, as in the cloth in this picture. The most important
centres of jamdani weaving were Dacca in Bengal and Lucknow in the United Provinces

3. What is bandanna?
Answer.
Any brightly coloured and printed scarf for the neck or head. Originally, the term derived from the word
“bandhna” (Hindi for tying) and referred to a variety of brightly coloured cloth produced through a
method of tying and dying

4. Who are the Agaria?


Answer.
A group of men and women forming a community of iron smelters.

5. Fill in the blanks:


(a) The word chintz comes from the word _________.
(b) Tipu’s sword was made of_________ steel.
(c) India’s textile exports declined in the _________ century.

Answer.
(a) The word chintz comes from the word chhint.
(b) Tipu’s sword was made of wootz steel.
(c) India’s textile exports declined in the nineteenth century.

6. How do the names of different textiles tell us about their histories?


Answer.
The different textiles like ‘muslin’, ‘chintz’, ‘calico’ and ‘bandanna’ have a history to their names:
a. Muslin - The cloth was named after the European traders saw five types of cotton textiles
carried by the Arab traders in Mosul. They named all woven textiles as muslin after that.
b. Chintz - This name is derived from a Hindi name called Chhint which is a small piece of cloth
with floral designs.

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c. Calico - Portuguese came to Calicut first in search of spices. However, the cotton textile they
took back from Calicut to Spain was called Calico.
d. Bandanna - The term was derived from the Hindi word ‘Bandhna’. It is a scarf with prints. It is
made for head or neck.

7. Why did the wool and silk producers in England protest against the import of Indian textiles
in the early eighteenth century?
Answer.
The wool and silk producers in England protested against the import of Indian textiles in the early
eighteenth century because due to fame of Indian textiles in the European markets due to their designs
and their prices, they were unable to compete with them. The English wool and silk producers wanted a
ban on Indian textiles so that they could grow in England. Following this, the spinning jenny was also
introduced in the European markets.

8. How did the development of cotton industries in Britain affect textile producers in India?
Answer.
There were several challenges for textile produces in India:
a. They had to compete with English cotton industries both in England and in India
b. British cotton industries expanded which led to shrinkage of Indian textile producers.
c. Thousands of Indian textile producers were out of employment because the British took over the
market with their industries.

9. Why did the Indian iron smelting industry decline in the nineteenth century?
Answer.
There are following reasons that led to the decline of the iron smelting industry in the nineteenth
century:
a. Indian smelters could not get Charcoal which is an essential ingredient in the iron smelting
process, due to the forest laws imposed on them. The forest laws banned their movement in the
reserved forests.
b. Iron smelters were asked to pay high taxes to the forest authorities.
c. Post-1950s, the English started importing iron from England to India. This discouraged Indian
iron smelters from pursuing the same profession.
d. In late-nineteenth-century, many famines destroyed dry tracts for iron smelters.
e. Iron industries posed the biggest challenge for the local iron smelters who were not able to
compete with the big industries.

10. What problems did the Indian textile industry face in the early years of its development?
Answer.
The problems are given below:
a. Competition - They had to face large British industries who were already there in the market
b. Export - It was a challenge for them to export to England due to the huge export prices
c. Failure - English cotton textiles ousted Indian textiles from its parent markets like America,
Africa and Europe.
d. No Buyers - Europeans started avoiding weavers of Bengal and did not buy from them which
make Bengal weavers the worst-hit

11. What helped TISCO expand steel production during the First World War?
Answer.
The following reasons led to TISCO expansion:

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a. World War-I - The war demanded a huge amount of iron and steel for the production of
ammunition which Britain had to entertain.
b. Indian markets turned to TISCO for rail work to supply iron and steel.
c. TISCO built shells and carriage wheels for World War-I
d. By 1919, the British government started buying 90 per cent of the steel manufactured by the
TISCO

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Chapter 7 Civilising the “Native”, Educating the Nation

1. Match the following:

William Jones Promotion of English education

Rabindranath Tagore Respect for ancient cultures

Thomas Macaulay Gurus

Mahatma Gandhi Learning in a natural environment

Pathshalas Critical of English education

Answer.

William Jones Respect for ancient cultures

Rabindranath Tagore Learning in a natural environment

Thomas Macaulay Promotion of English education

Mahatma Gandhi Critical of English education

Pathshalas Gurus

2. State whether true or false:


(a) James Mill was a severe critic of the Orientalists.
(b) The 1854 Despatch on education was in favour of English being introduced as a medium of
higher education in India.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi thought that the promotion of literacy was the most important aim of
education.
(d) Rabindranath Tagore felt that children ought to be subjected to strict discipline.

Answer.
(a) True
(b) True
(c) False
(d) False

3. Why did William Jones feel the need to study Indian history, philosophy and law?
Answer.
William Jones shared a deep respect for ancient cultures, both India and the West. Indian civilisation,
they felt, had attained its glory in the ancient past, but had subsequently declined. In order to
understand India, it was necessary to discover the sacred and legal texts that were produced in the

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ancient period. For only those texts could reveal the real ideas and laws of the Hindus and Muslims,
and only a new study of these texts could form the basis of future development in India.

4. Why did James Mill and Thomas Macaulay think that European education was essential in
India?
Answer.
James Mill and Thomas Macaulay felt that knowledge of English would allow Indians to read some of
the finest literature the world had produced; it would make them aware of the developments in Western
science and philosophy. The teaching of English could thus be a way of civilising people, changing their
tastes, values and culture. They also felt that the aim of education ought to be to teach what was useful
and practical. So Indians should be made familiar with the scientific and technical advances that the
West had made, rather than with the poetry and sacred literature of the Orient.

5. Why did Mahatma Gandhi want to teach children handicrafts?


Answer.
According to Mahatma Gandhi, education should be like an all-round drawing out of the best in child
and man-body, mind and spirit. His beliefs were that literacy is not the end of education nor even the
beginning. He thought that literacy is only one of the means whereby man and woman can be
educated. Therefore he thought that the child’s education should begin by teaching him/her a useful
handicraft and enabling it to produce from the moment it begins its training. “I hold that the highest
development of the mind and the soul is possible under such a system of education. Only every
handicraft has to be taught not merely mechanically as is done today but scientifically, i.e. the child
should know the why and the wherefore of every process,” quotes Gandhi.

6. Why did Mahatma Gandhi think that English education had enslaved Indians?
Answer.
Mahatma Gandhi argued that colonial education created a sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians. It
made them see Western civilisation as superior and destroyed the pride they had in their own culture.
Gandhi thought that there was poison in English education and it was sinful, it enslaved Indians, it cast
an evil spell on them. Charmed by the West, appreciating everything that came from the West, Indians
educated in these institutions began admiring British rule. Mahatma Gandhi wanted an education that
could help Indians recover their sense of dignity and self-respect. During the national movement, he
urged students to leave educational institutions in order to show to the British that Indians were no
longer willing to be enslaved.

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Chapter 8 Women, Caste and Reform

1. What social ideas did the following people support?


a. Rammohun Roy
b. Dayanand Saraswati
c. Veerasalingam Pantulu
d. Jyotirao Phule
e. Pandita Ramabai
f. Periyar
g. Mumtaz Ali
h. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Answer.
a. Rammohun Roy - Ban of Sati
b. Dayanand Saraswati - Widow Remarriage
c. Veerasalingam Pantulu - Widow Remarriage
d. Jyotirao Phule - Equality amongst castes
e. Pandita Ramabai - Women’s education
f. Periyar - Equality to untouchables
g. Mumtaz Ali - Women’s education
h. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar - Widow remarriage

2. State whether true or false:


(a) When the British captured Bengal they framed many new laws to regulate the rules regarding
marriage, adoption, the inheritance of property, etc.
(b) Social reformers had to discard the ancient texts in order to argue for reform in social
practices.
(c) Reformers got full support from all sections of the people of the country.
(d) The Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed in1829.
Answer.
(a). True
(b). False
(c). False
(d). False

3. How did the knowledge of ancient texts help the reformers promote new laws?
Answer.
Rammohun Roy was well versed in Sanskrit, Persian and several other Indian and European
languages. He tried to show through his writings that the practice of widow burning had no sanction in
ancient texts. The strategy adopted by Rammohun was used by later reformers as well. Whenever they
wished to challenge a practice that seemed harmful, they tried to find a verse or sentence in the ancient
sacred texts that supported their point of view. They then suggested that the practise as it existed at
present was against early tradition. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar used the ancient texts to suggest that
widows could remarry.

4. What were the different reasons people had for not sending girls to school?

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Answer.
There were the following reasons for people to not send their girls to school:
a. They feared that schools would take girls away from home
b. Schools will prevent them from doing their domestic duties.
c. Girls had to travel through public places in order to reach school.
d. Travelling to schools would have a corrupting influence on them.
e. They felt that girls should stay away from public spaces.

5. Why were Christian missionaries attacked by many people in the country? Would some
people have supported them too? If so, for what reasons?
Answer.
The Christian missionaries were attacked by the people as they were involved in the religious
conversion of poor and tribal people that is, converting a Hindu into a Christian. These missionaries had
also set up schools for tribal and poor kids to learn however the larger section of people who looked
down upon the poor people and tribal people did not like the idea of exposing tribal people towards
education. Hence, the attacks on Christian missionaries started.

6. In the British period, what new opportunities opened up for people who came from castes
that were regarded as “low”?
Answer.
The poor from the villages and small towns, many of them from low castes, began moving to the cities
where there was a new demand for labour. Some also went to work in plantations in Assam, Mauritius,
Trinidad and Indonesia. The poor and the people from low castes saw this as an opportunity to get
away from the oppressive hold that upper-caste landowners exercised over their lives and the daily
humiliation they suffered.

7. How did Jyotirao, the reformer justify his criticism of caste inequality in society?
Answer.
Jyotirao Phule who stood against the caste inequality believed that the upper caste being the ‘Aryans’
does not belong to his land. He put forward his opinions by telling people that the land has always
belonged to the low-caste people and the Aryans came from outside. He looked forward to the golden
age where low-caste people live peacefully without the intrusion of upper caste.

8. Why did Phule dedicate his book Gulamgiri to the American movement to free slaves?
Answer.
Jyotirao Phule wrote his book, ‘Gulamgiri’ in 1873. The book title means ‘Slavery.’ From 1861 to 1865,
the American Civil war was fought. The Civil War began primarily as a result of the long-standing
controversy over the enslavement of black people. Phule dedicated his book to all those Americans who had
fought to free slaves, thus establishing a link between the conditions of the “lower” castes in India and the
black slaves in America.

9. What did Ambedkar want to achieve through the temple entry movement?
Answer.
In 1927, Ambedkar started a temple entry movement, in which his Mahar caste followers participated.
Brahman priests were outraged when the Dalits used water from the temple tank. His aim was to make
everyone see the power of caste prejudices within society.

10. Why were Jyoti Rao Phule and Ramaswamy Naicker critical of the national movement? Did their
criticism help the national struggle in any way?
Answer.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History
Jyoti Rao Phule and Ramaswamy Naicker both were critical of the national movement as they thought that
there were no differences between anti-colonialists and the colonialists. Phule thought that the upper-caste
people who want to fight against the Britishers will want to rule once the Britishers leave. Phule was always
against the upper caste people as he called them the ‘outsiders.’
Naicker was apart of Congress party and his experiences led him to believe that when a party who is fighting
against Britishers is not free from the taint of casteism, how can any national movement lead to casteless
society.
Their criticism helped to strengthen the national struggle where reformists started restructuring their
thoughts to get rid of the differences between the upper caste and lower caste. The national struggle
became the tool to eradicate caste differences, religious and gender inequality.

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Chapter 9 The Making of the National Movement: 1870s-1947

1. Why were people dissatisfied with British rule in the 1870s and 1880s?
Answer.
The people were dissatisfied with British rule because of the following reasons:
a. British were exercising control over the resources of India
b. British were exercising control over the lives of its people, and until this control was ended India
could not be for Indians.
c. The Arms Act was passed in 1878, disallowing Indians from possessing arms.
d. Vernacular Press Act was also enacted in 1879 in an effort to silence those who were critical of
the government.
e. In 1883, there was a furore over the attempt by the government to introduce the Ilbert Bill. The
bill provided for the trial of British or European persons by Indians, and sought equality between British
and Indian judges in the country.

2. Who did the Indian National Congress wish to speak for?


Answer.
The Congress was composed of the representatives, not of any one class or community of India, but of
all the different communities of India. Hence, the party wished to speak for the masses to fight for the
freedom struggle.

3. What economic impact did the First World War have on India?
Answer.
The First World War altered the economic and political situation in India. It led to a huge rise in the
defence expenditure of the Government of India. The government in turn increased taxes on individual
incomes and business profits. Increased military expenditure and the demands for war supplies led to a
sharp rise in prices which created great difficulties for the common people. On the other hand, business
groups reaped fabulous profits from the war. The first world war caused a decline in imports from other
countries into India.

4. What did the Muslim League resolution of 1940 ask for?


Answer.
In 1940 the Muslim League had moved a resolution demanding “Independent States” for Muslims in the
north-western and eastern areas of the country. The resolution did not mention partition or Pakistan.

5. Who were the Moderates? How did they propose to struggle against British rule?
Answer.
The Moderate leaders wanted to develop public awareness about the unjust nature of British rule. They
published newspapers, wrote articles, and showed how British rule was leading to the economic ruin of
the country. They criticised British rule in their speeches and sent representatives to different parts of
the country to mobilise public opinion. They felt that the British had respect for the ideals of freedom
and justice, and so they would accept the just demands of Indians. What was necessary, therefore, was
to express these demands, and make the government aware of the feelings of Indians.

6. How was the politics of the Radicals within the Congress different from that of the
Moderates?

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Answer.
To fight for swaraj, the radicals advocated mass mobilisation and boycott of British institutions and
goods. Some individuals also began to suggest that “revolutionary violence” would be necessary to
overthrow British rule. Moderates, on the other hand, wanted to follow the rules and law and order
posed by the British. They followed the ‘practise of prayers’ which radicals totally opposed.

7. Discuss the various forms that the Non-Cooperation Movement took in different parts of
India. How did people understand Gandhiji?
Answer.
The places in the country showed different reactions, given below:
a. In Kheda, Gujarat, Patidar peasants organised non-violent campaigns against the high land
revenue demand of the British.
b. In coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu, liquor shops were picketed.
c. In the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, tribals and poor peasants staged a number of “forest
satyagraha”, sometimes sending their cattle into forests without paying grazing fee.
d. In Sind (now in Pakistan), Muslim traders and peasants were very enthusiastic about the
Khilafat call.
e. In Bengal too, the Khilafat-Non-Cooperation alliance gave enormous communal unity and
strength to the national movement.
f. national movement. In Punjab, the Akali agitation of the Sikhs sought to remove corrupt
mahants – supported by the British – from their gurdwaras.
People thought of Gandhiji as a kind of messiah, as someone who could help them overcome their
misery and poverty. Gandhiji wished to build class unity, not class conflict, yet peasants could imagine
that he would help them in their fight against zamindars, and agricultural labourers believed he would
provide them with the land. At times, ordinary people credited Gandhiji with their own achievement.

8. Why did Gandhiji choose to break the salt law?


Answer.
The Salt March related the general desire of freedom to a specific grievance shared by everybody and
thus did not divide the rich and the poor. Hence, in 1930, Gandhiji declared that he would lead a march
to break the salt law.

9. Discuss those developments of the 1937-47 period that led to the creation of Pakistan.
Answer.
The developments of 1937-47 which led to the creation of Pakistan are given below:
a. A two-nation theory - Initially the Muslim league never mentioned Pakistan to be the nation of
Muslims however, since the 1930s, it started demanding a separate country for Muslims.
b. Provincial elections of 1937 - The elections were a decisive factor for Muslim league to decide
that Muslims are a minority in India and they have to have a separate nation for them for their just
representation in the politics.
c. Rift between congress and Muslim league - When congress rejected the Muslim league’s offer
for a joint congress-league government in united provinces, the league decided to part ways forever.
d. Failed talks - No discussion could turn out to be successful where both Congress and Muslim
league come to a conclusion of only one nation. British too at the end of 2nd world war opened
negotiation talks with both congress and league however it turned futile.
e. Provincial elections of 1946 - Muslim league’s spectacular victory on the seats reserved for
Muslims gave the confidence to create a separate nation.
f. Mass agitation - The failure of cabinet mission 1946 led to the mass agitation led by the Muslim
league.
g. Partition was finalised and Pakistan was born.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History

Chapter 10 India After Independence

1. Name three problems that the newly independent nation of India faced.
Answer.
When India became independent in August 1947, it faced a series of very great challenges:
a. 8 million refugees had come into the country from what was now Pakistan. These people had to
be found, their homes and jobs.
b. The problem of the princely states, almost 500 of them, each ruled by a maharaja or a nawab,
each of whom had to be persuaded to join the new nation.
c. Challenge of refugees and of the princely states had to be addressed immediately.

2. What was the role of the Planning Commission?


Answer.
In 1950, the government set up a Planning Commission to help design and execute suitable policies
for economic development. The commission has to design the roles played by the private players and
the government in a system which was to be called a mixed economy system.

3. Fill in the blanks:


(a) Subjects that were placed on the Union List were _________, _________ and _________.
(b) Subjects on the Concurrent List were _________ and _________.
(c) Economic planning by which both the state and the private sector played a role in
development was called a _________ _________ model.
(d) The death of _________ sparked off such violent protests that the government was forced to
give in to the demand for the linguistic state of Andhra.
Answer.
(a). Subjects that were placed on the Union List were taxes, defence and foreign affairs.
(b). Subjects on the Concurrent List were forest and agriculture.
(c). Economic planning by which both the state and the private sector played a role in development was
called a mixed economy model.
(d). The death of Potti Sriramulu sparked off such violent protests that the government was forced to
give in to the demand for the linguistic state of Andhra.

4. State whether true or false:


(a) At independence, the majority of Indians lived in villages.
(b) The Constituent Assembly was made up of members of the Congress party.
(c) In the first national election, only men were allowed to vote.
(d) The Second Five Year Plan focused on the development of the heavy industry.
Answer.
(a). True
(b). False
(c). False
(d). True

5. What did Dr Ambedkar mean when he said that “In politics, we will have equality, and in
social and economic life we will have inequality”?
Answer.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science History
B.R Ambedkar believed that political democracy should be followed by economic and social
democracy. When he said the above-given words, he meant to eradicate the inequality in the social and
economic spheres of life. He wanted no discrimination between rich and poor or upper-caste or lower-
caste. According to him, only when the democracy touches all the spheres of people’ lives, only then
we can call it true democracy.

6. After Independence, why was there a reluctance to divide the country on linguistic lines?
Answer.
Both Prime Minister Nehru and Deputy Prime Minister Vallabhbhai Patel were against the creation of
linguistic states. After the Partition, Nehru said, “disruptionist tendencies had come to the fore”; to
check them, the nation had to be strong and united for India had been divided on the basis of religion:
despite the wishes and efforts of Mahatma Gandhi, freedom had come not to one nation but to two.

7. Give one reason why English continued to be used in India after Independence.
Answer.
Many Congress members believed that the English language should leave India with the British rulers.
According to them, Hindi; language should English’s place. However, those who did not speak Hindi
were of a different opinion. Speaking in the Assembly, T.T. Krishnamachari conveyed “a warning on
behalf of people of the South”, some of whom threatened to separate from India if Hindi was imposed
on them. A compromise was finally arrived at: namely, that while Hindi would be the “official language”
of India, English would be used in the courts, the services, and communications between one state and
another.

8. How was the economic development of India visualised in the early decades after
Independence?
Answer.
There is a free press, as well as an independent judiciary. The people of India speak different
languages or practise different faiths has not come in the way of national unity. Some parts of India
and some groups of Indians have benefited a great deal from economic development. They live in large
houses and dine in expensive restaurants, send their children to expensive private schools and take
expensive foreign holidays. At the same time, many others continue to live below the poverty line.
Housed in urban slums, or living in remote villages on lands that yield little, they cannot afford to send
their children to school.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 1 - The Indian Constitution

1. Why does a democratic country need a Constitution?


Answer: There are various reasons why a democratic country needs a Constitution:
1. The basic ideals on the basis of which we as citizens aspire to live in our country are mentioned
in the Constitution.
2. It tells the fundamental nature of society
3. To define the nature of the political system of the country
4. It states a set of rules based on which people belonging to different religions and communities
are can peacefully co-exist with each other.

2. Look at the wordings of the two documents given below. The first column is from the 1990
Nepal Constitution. The second column is from the more recent Constitution of Nepal.

1990 Constitution of Nepal Part 7: Executive 2015 Constitution of Nepal Part 7: Federal
Executive

Article 35: Executive Power: The executive Article 75: Executive Power: The Executive
power of the Kingdom of Nepal shall be Power of Nepal shall, pursuant to this
vested in his Majesty and the Council of Constitution and law, be vested in the Council
Ministers of Ministers

What is the difference in who exercises ‘Executive Power’ in the above two Constitutions of
Nepal?
Answer: In Article 35 of the 1990 Constitution of Nepal, the powers to rule the country, to set rules and
to manage the country are all vested in the King of the country and the Ministers appointed under him.
However, Article 75 of the 2015 Constitution of Nepal states that the rules, governance and
management of the country will be based on the laws mentioned in the Constitution of the country
under the supervision of the Ministers.

3. What would happen if there were no restrictions on the power of elected representatives?
Answer: In a democracy, the citizens of the country are responsible for electing their leaders. However,
there is always a possibility that the leaders might misuse their authority and use it for wrong purposes.
Hence the constitution has provided measures to safeguard against such misuse of powers.

4. In each of the following situations, identify the minority. Write one reason why you think it is
important to respect the views of the minority in each of these situations.
(a) In a school with 30 teachers, 20 of them are male.
Answer: The minority here is the 10 female teachers teaching in the school. It is important to keep the
point of view of the female teachers in mind because despite being a minority their opinions are of great
importance and no decision made keeping the majority views in mind should be of any discomfort for
the female teachers.

(b) In a city, 5 per cent of the population are Buddhists.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics
Answer: Here the minority is the 5 per cent Buddhist population in the city. Their views should be
respected because they have certain religious believes which should not be disrespected because they
are in a minority. Any decision taken must be taken keeping in mind the religious feelings of the
Buddhist population.

(c) In a factory mess for all employees, 80 per cent are vegetarians.
Answer: The minority here is the 20 per cent non-vegetarians having food at the factory mess. It is
important that the food prepared in the factory mess must be prepared for both vegetarians and non-
vegetarians.

(d) In a class of 50 students, 40 belong to more well-off families.


Answer: In this case, the minority is the 10 students who do not belong to the well to do families. It is
important to keep their views in mind because they may not be able to contribute to various expenses
asked for in the school and they should not feel humiliated for the same.

5. The column on the left lists some of the key features of the Indian Constitution. In the other
columns write two sentences, in your own words, on why you think this feature is important:

Answer:
Key Feature Significance

Federalism It is important because in a country like India there are people living at different
levels and only one level of government cannot govern them. Hence to form a
government for different levels for important. Hence, to govern a village
Panchayati Raj is responsible for states, the state government is responsible and
for the entire country, the Central Government is responsible for governance.

Separation of There are three organs of governance: legislature, executive and judiciary. Each of
Powers these organs serves different powers and functions. In order to prevent the misuse
of power by any one branch of government, the Constitution says that each of
these organs should exercise different powers.

Fundamental The Fundamental Rights are a set of rights that the Constitution allows every
Rights citizen of the country to follow. These rights include Right to Freedom, Right to
Equality, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of religion, Cultural and
Educational Rights and Right to Constitutional remedies. These rights give every
citizen of the country the right to be considered as an equal, to not get
discriminated based on caste, culture or religion, to get equal educational
opportunities and to be equal in front of the law.

Parliamentary A democratic government is one where the citizens of the country have the right to
Form of elect their representatives. When the Constitution was being made, it was made
Government sure that every citizen of the country irrespective of caste, colour, creed and
religion will have the right to elect their leaders and universal adult suffrage, i.e. the
right to vote will be given to all.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 2 - Understanding Secularism

1. List the different types of religious practice that you find in your neighbourhood. This could
be different forms of prayer, worship of different gods, sacred sites, different kinds of religious
music and singing etc. Does this indicate freedom of religious practice?
Answer: The different types of religious practices that we can see in our neighbourhood are as follows:
1. A Sikh person worships in Gurudwara to Guru Nanak using Guru Granth Sahib
2. A Muslim worships in a mosque and their sacred book is the Quran.
3. A Christian worships Jesus Christ in a Church and their religious book is the Holy Bible.
4. A Hindu worships in a Temple to the idols of Gods and Goddess.

This shows that the people in India have the freedom to practise the religion of their choice and yet live
together in peace and harmony.

2. Will the government intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to
practise infanticide? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer: Yes, the Government can intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows
them to practise infanticide. This is because the Indian Constitution clearly states that the Government
has the right to intervene if there is a threat to social harmony. Also, killing an infant is a crime and the
judiciary is the only authority that can punish a person to death and no other religion or person can
commit the crime of killing someone.

3. Complete the following table:

Objective Why is it Example of a violation


important of this objective

One religious community does not dominate another

The state does not enforce any particular religion nor


take away the religious freedom of individuals

That some members do not dominate other members


of the same religious community

Answer:

Objective Why is it important Example of a violation of this


objective

One religious It is important because the Stopping the people of a


community does not Constitution gives the right to particular religion to celebrate
dominate another religious freedom to all and if it is not their festival
provided there may be chances of
riots and disturbance of harmony in
the country.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics
The state does not It is important so that every individual India is a country where
enforce any particular in a country has the right to follow people from different castes
religion nor take away the religion of their choice. This is and religion reside. However,
the religious freedom what makes the nation a secular Pakistan has declared itself
of individuals country. as an Islamic Nation

That some members Religion cannot be divided on the Distinguishing between


do not dominate other basis of wealth or creed. Hence it is upper-class Hindus and the
members of the same important that no member dominates Dalits
religious community other members from the same
religion. Following their religion is the
right of every individual.

4. Look up the annual calendar of holidays of your school. How many of them pertain to
different religions? What does this indicate?
Answer: The annual calendar of our school marks holidays like Eid, which is celebrated by Muslims.
Diwali, which is a Hindu festival, Christmas, which is celebrated by Christians and Guru Nanak Jayanti
which is a Sikh festival. This proves that India is a secular country and every individual has the right to
religious freedom.

5. Find out some examples of different views within the same religion.
Answer: Some examples of different views within the same religion are as follows:
1. Hindus worship different idols of Gods and Goddesses.
2. Muslims are divided into Shia and Sunni
3. Follows of Lord Mahavir are called Jains
4. Buddhist followers are divided into Mahayan and Hinyan

6. The Indian State both keeps away from religion as well as intervenes in religion. This idea can
be quite confusing. Discuss this once again in class using examples from the chapter as well as
those that you might have come up with.
Answer: The Indian state both keeps away from religion as well as intervenes in religion because if a
person with a majority religious group gets the state power he may use the power to discriminate and
persecute the people of other religions. The majority may even deprive the minority of practising their
religion. For example, untouchability still exists in the Hindu community. If the state power is handed
over to a person belonging to an upper-caste Hindu majority, he may use it as a weapon against the
lower-class people of the society or that state.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 3 - Why Do We Need A Parliament

1. Why do you think our national movement supported the idea that all adults have a right to
vote?
Answer: The freedom struggle was fought by the people belonging to different backgrounds and they
were inspired by the ideas of freedom, equality and participation in decision making. The reason to fight
for the freedom of the nation was to live in a country governed by the leaders who were sensitive to
people’s needs and demand and who could completely abolish the inequalities that existed under the
British rule. The dreams and aspirations of people to live a free and respectful live and laid down the
principle of Universal Adult Franchise, i.e. the right to vote.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 4 Understanding Laws

1. Write in your own words what you understand by the term the ‘rule of law’. In your response
include a fictitious or real example of a violation of the rule of law.
Answer: The rule of law is a provision of the Indian Constitution that states that all people in
independent India are equal before the law. Every law is equal for every citizen in the country. Neither
the President or any other high official is above the law. The punishment for any crime committed will
be the same for every person irrespective of post or power. For example if a Clerk is punished for
corruption, the same punishment needs to be given to a higher Official or Miniter for committing the
crime of corruption.

2. State two reasons why historians refute the claim that the British introduced the rule of law in
India.
Answer: Two reasons why historians refute to claim that the British introduced the rule of law in India
are:
1. The colonial law was arbitrary
2. The Indian Nationalists played a prominent role in the development of the legal sphere in British
India

3. Re-read the storyboard on how a new law on domestic violence got passed. Describe in your
own words the different ways in which women’s groups worked to make this happen.
Answer: The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005 was passed with an aim to
protect women against any kind of violence, be it physical or verbal. Various women’s groups worked to
make this happen by reporting multiple cases of domestic violence to the to various forums. A group of
lawyers, law students and activists worked together for drafting the Domestic Violence (Prevention and
Protection Bill). Other than this, various Women organisations, National Commission for Women made
submissions to the Parliamentary Standing Committee. All these actions taken by women together
made the Government pass the bill against domestic violence.

4. Write in your own words what you understand by the following sentence on page 44-45: They
also began fighting for greater equality and wanted to change the idea of law from a set of rules
that they were forced to obey, to the law as including ideas of justice.
Answer: India before independence was forced to follow the rules set by the British Government.
These set of rules were arbitrary and not authorised by the Indian nationalists. Hence the freedom
struggle against the Britishers also aimed at making a set of rules that were fair and just for all and
were not just imposed on the Indians to follow. The Indian Nationalists began to fight for their rights and
wanted a set of rules that were equal for all.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 5 Judiciary

1. You read that one of the main functions of the judiciary is ‘upholding the law and Enforcing
Fundamental Rights’. Why do you think an independent judiciary is necessary to carry out this
important function?

Answer An independent judiciary is necessary to carry out the function of 'upholding the law and
enforcing Fundamental Rights'. It intends to shield the judicial process from external influences and
provide full legal protection to all individuals going to court for whatever reason.
Anyone can approach the courts if they believe that their rights have been violated. If any law passed
by the Parliament violates anyone's Fundamental Rights, the judiciary has power to declare such law
null and void.

2. Re-read the list of Fundamental Rights provided in Chapter 1. How do you think the Right to
Constitutional Remedies connects to the idea of judicial review?
Answer The Right to Constitutional Remedies connects to the idea of judicial review in its capacity of
protecting the rights of an individual against the working of the State legislature or executive. It allows
citizens to move the court if they think that their Fundamental Rights are being violated by the State
administration. Judicial review implies invalidation of legislative or executive action if it is seen to violate
Fundamental Rights. Hence, judicial review and the Right to Constitutional Remedies are inter-
connected because the judicial review is practiced when any fundamental Right is violated by the State.
In this case, a higher court can repeal the judgments of a lower court based on its own investigation.

3. In the following illustration, fill in each tier with the judgments given by the various courts in
the Sudha Goel case. Check your responses with others in class.

Answer
1. Lower Court (Trial Court): Laxman, his mother Shakuntala and his brother-in-law Subhash
Chandra were sentenced to death.
2. High Court: Laxman, Shakuntala and Subhash Chandra were acquitted.
3. Supreme Court: Laxman and Shakuntala were given life imprisonment, while Subhash Chandra
was acquitted for lack of sufficient evidence.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics
4. Keeping the Sudha Goel case in mind, tick the sentences that are true and correct the ones
that are false.
a. The accused took the case to the High Court because they were unhappy with the
decision of the Trial Court.
b. They went to the High Court after the Supreme Court had given its decision.
c. If they do not like the Supreme Court verdict, the accused can go back again to the Trial
Court.
Answer
a. True
b. False. They went to the High Court after the Trial Court had given its decision.
c. False. If they do not like the Supreme Court verdict, the accused cannot go back again to the
Trial Court because the Supreme Court is the highest court in the judiciary pyramid.

5. Why do you think the introduction of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the 1980s is a
significant step in ensuring access to justice for all?
Answer The Supreme Court in the early 1980s devised a mechanism of Public Interest Litigation or PIL
to increase access to justice. It allowed any individual or organisation to file a PIL in the High Court or
the Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights were being violated. The legal process was greatly
simplified and even a letter or telegram addressed to the Supreme Court or the High Court could be
treated as a PIL. In the early years, PIL was used to secure justice on a large number of issues such as
rescuing bonded labourers from inhuman work conditions; and securing the release of prisoners in
Bihar who had been kept in jail even after their punishment term was complete.
Thus, the introduction of Public Interest Litigation is a significant step in ensuring access to justice for
all.

6. Re-read excerpts from the judgment on the Olga Tellis vs Bombay Municipal Corporation
case. Now write in your own words what the judges meant when they said that the Right to
Livelihood was part of the Right to Life.
Answer In the Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation case, the judges stated that the Right to
Livelihood was part of the Right to Life. They stated that life does not merely means an animal
existence, it cannot be lived without the means of livelihood. In the above mentioned case people were
poor and lived in slums they had small jobs and no other place to live. For them the eviction of their
slum means deprivation of their livelihood which consequently means deprivation of life. This is how
judges connected right to life means the need of basic requirement of livelihood i.e. Food, Clothes and
shelter.
7. Write a story around the theme, ‘Justice delayed is justice denied’ .
Answer Students have to do this by themselves.

8. Make sentences with each of the glossary words given on the next page.
Acquit, To appeal, Compensation, Eviction, Violation.
Answer
Acquit: The jury decided to acquit the defendant on grounds of lack of sufficient evidence to convict
him of the crime.

To Appeal: The defendant decided to appeal to the High Court after his lawyer said the court's
decision was not correct.

Compensation: In compensation for the trouble caused due to flight delay, the airlines awarded the
victim fifty thousand rupees.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics
Eviction: The couple faced eviction because they failed to pay the monthly instalments to the bank.

Violation: The office staff protested the company for the violation of their rights.

Answer
1. Lower Court (Trial Court): Laxman, his mother Shakuntala and his brother-in-law Subhash
Chandra were sentenced to death.
2. High Court: Laxman, Shakuntala and Subhash Chandra were acquitted.
3. Supreme Court: Laxman and Shakuntala were given life imprisonment, while Subhash Chandra
was acquitted for lack of sufficient evidence.

4. Keeping the Sudha Goel case in mind, tick the sentences that are true and correct the ones
that are false.
a. The accused took the case to the High Court because they were unhappy with the
decision of the Trial Court.
b. They went to the High Court after the Supreme Court had given its decision.
c. If they do not like the Supreme Court verdict, the accused can go back again to the Trial
Court.
Answer
a. True
b. False. They went to the High Court after the Trial Court had given its decision.
c. False. If they do not like the Supreme Court verdict, the accused cannot go back again to the
Trial Court because the Supreme Court is the highest court in the judiciary pyramid.

5. Why do you think the introduction of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the 1980s is a
significant step in ensuring access to justice for all?
Answer The Supreme Court in the early 1980s devised a mechanism of Public Interest Litigation or PIL
to increase access to justice. It allowed any individual or organisation to file a PIL in the High Court or
the Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights were being violated. The legal process was greatly
simplified and even a letter or telegram addressed to the Supreme Court or the High Court could be
treated as a PIL. In the early years, PIL was used to secure justice on a large number of issues such as
rescuing bonded labourers from inhuman work conditions; and securing the release of prisoners in
Bihar who had been kept in jail even after their punishment term was complete.
Thus, the introduction of Public Interest Litigation is a significant step in ensuring access to justice for
all.

6. Re-read excerpts from the judgment on the Olga Tellis vs Bombay Municipal Corporation
case. Now write in your own words what the judges meant when they said that the Right to
Livelihood was part of the Right to Life.
Answer In the Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation case, the judges stated that the Right to
Livelihood was part of the Right to Life. They stated that life does not merely means an animal
existence, it cannot be lived without the means of livelihood. In the above mentioned case people were
poor and lived in slums they had small jobs and no other place to live. For them the eviction of their
slum means deprivation of their livelihood which consequently means deprivation of life. This is how
judges connected right to life means the need of basic requirement of livelihood i.e. Food, Clothes and
shelter.
7. Write a story around the theme, ‘Justice delayed is justice denied’ .
Answer Students have to do this by themselves.

8. Make sentences with each of the glossary words given on the next page.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics
Acquit, To appeal, Compensation, Eviction, Violation.
Answer
Acquit: The jury decided to acquit the defendant on grounds of lack of sufficient evidence to convict
him of the crime.

To Appeal: The defendant decided to appeal to the High Court after his lawyer said the court's
decision was not correct.

Compensation: In compensation for the trouble caused due to flight delay, the airlines awarded the
victim fifty thousand rupees.

Eviction: The couple faced eviction because they failed to pay the monthly instalments to the bank.
Violation: The office staff protested the company for the violation of their rights.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 6 Understanding Our Criminal Justice System

1. In a town called Peace Land, the supporters of the Fiesta football team learn that the
supporters of the Jubilee football team in the nearby city about 40 km away have damaged the
ground on which the Final between both teams is to be held the following day. A crowd of Fiesta
fans armed with deadly weapons attacks the homes of the supporters of the Jubilee football
team in the town. In the attack, 10 men are killed, 5 women are gravely hurt, many homes are
destroyed and over 50 people injured.

Imagine that you and your classmates are now part of the criminal justice system. First divide
the class into the following four groups of persons:

1. Police 2. Public Prosecutor 3. Defence lawyer 4. Judge

The column on the right provides a list of functions. Match these with the roles that are listed on
the left. Have each group pick the functions that it needs to perform to bring justice to those
who were affected by the violence of the Fiesta fans. In what order, will these functions be
performed?

Roles Functions

Police hear the witnesses,


record the statements of witnesses,
cross examine the witnesses,
Public Prosecutor
take photographs of burnt homes,
record the evidence,
Defense Lawyer arrest the Fiesta fans,
writes the judgment,
argue the case for the victims,
Judge decide for how many years the accused will be put in jail,
examine the witnesses in court,
pass the judgment,
get the assaulted women medically examined,
conduct a fair trial,
meet the accused persons

Now take the same situation but ask one student who is a supporter of the Fiesta Club to
perform all the functions listed above. Do you think the victims would get justice if only one
person performed all of the functions of the criminal justice system? Why not?
State two reasons why you believe that different persons need to play different roles as part of
the criminal justice system.

Answer

Role Functions

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics
Police Records the statements of witnesses
Takes photographs of burnt homes
Arrests the Fiesta fans
Gets the assaulted women medically examined

Public Prosecutor Cross examines the witnesses


Argues the case for the victims

Defence Lawyer Meets the accused persons


Examines the witnesses in court

Judge Hears the witnesses


Records the evidence
Writes the judgement
Decides for how many years the accused will be put in jail
Passes the judgement
Conducts a fair trial

The victim would not get justice if only one person would perform all the functions of the criminal justice
system because he could get influenced by various prejudice and separation of power is necessary in
within a judicial system too since absolute power can lead to unfairness.

Two reasons why different persons need to play different roles as part of the criminal justice system
are:
1. Because all the aspects of trial and investigation cannot be conducted by a single person all
alone as it entail diverse kind of work including arresting, recording the statements of witnesses,
defence of victim and accused parties, passing a fair trial and judicially correct judgement.
2. Because if all the powers are vested on one person alone, it might be misused and thereby
violate the laws based on just and equal decision.

A single ideology may not be the right one as it can affect the trial and the result of the case.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 7 Understanding Marginalisation

1. Write in your own words two or more sentences of what you understand by the word
‘marginalisation’ .

Answer A social process of being confined to lower social standing is marginalisation. It involves
people being denied their fundamental rights that result in lowering their social and economical status.
It is a situation when a particular social group is forced to live on the fringes rather than in the
mainstream. A marginalized section of the society does not get proper opportunity of socio-economic
development.

2. List two reasons why Adivasis are becoming increasingly marginalised.

Answer Adivasis are being increasingly marginalised for the following two reasons:
1. Changes in forest laws have deprived the Adivasis from access to forest produce.
2. Construction of factories and other projects in tribal areas has forced many tribal people to
migrate to other places in search of livelihood.

3. Write one reason why you think the Constitution’s safeguards to protect minority
communities are very important?

Answer The safeguards to protect minority communities are necessary because the majority
community may culturally dominate the minority communities and minority community may become
marginalised.

4. Re-read the section on Minorities and Marginalisation. What do you understand by the term
minority?

Answer Minority is the community that is numerically small in relation to the rest of the population. A
particular religious section which has a low percentage in population compared to the major religious
community is called minority.
The constitution of India provides safeguards to linguistics and religious minorities as a part of its
fundamental rights and ensures that minorities do not face any disadvantage or discriminated. In India;
Christians, Sikhs, Muslims, etc. are included in the minority.

5. You are participating in a debate where you have to provide reasons to support the following
statement: ‘Muslims are a marginalised community’. Using the data provided in this chapter, list
two reasons that you would give.

Answer As per the data provided in the chapter, the literacy rate of muslim population in India is only
59% which is the lowest compared to 65% among Hindus, 70% among Sikhs, 73% among Buddhists,
80% among Christians, and 94% among Jains.
Also, only 3% of muslim represent the esteemed Indian Administrative Service Cadre.
The above stats support that muslims are a marginalised community in India.
6. Imagine that you are watching the Republic Day parade on TV with a friend and she remarks,
“Look at these tribal people. They look so exotic. And they seem to be dancing all the time”. List
three things that you would tell her about the lives of Adivasis in India.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Answer Adivasis have deep knowledge of forests, they were hunter and gatherers and lived like
nomads. They practised shifting agriculture and also cultivated in one place. Their deep knowledge of
forest made them indispensable to the rulers of various empires during the pre-colonial period in india.
They have their own language and have influenced the formation of various Indian languages, bengali
being one of them.

7. In the storyboard you read about how Helen hopes to make a movie on the Adivasi story. Can
you help her by developing a short story on Adivasis?

Answer Students have to do this by themselves.

8. Would you agree with the statement that economic marginalisation and social marginalisation
are interlinked? Why?

Answer Social marginalisation and economic marginalisation are interlinked because


Social marginalization forces a social group out of the mainstream resulting in lack of opportunities for
skill development and education. This means that the people from marginalized sections will not have
proper access to quality healthcare, which in turn means that a child from the marginalized section
does not develop into an adult who otherwise is capable enough to ensure better income. Thus, the
individual who is left behind in socio-economic development becomes economically marginalized.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 8 Confronting Marginalisation

1. List two Fundamental Rights in the Constitution that Dalits can draw upon to insist that they
be treated with dignity and as equals. Re-read the Fundamental Rights listed on page 14 to help
you answer this question.

Answer The two fundamental rights that Dalits can draw upon to insist that they be treated with dignity
and as equals are:
1. Right to Equality: All persons are equal before the law. No citizen can be discriminated against
on the basis of his or her socioeconomic background, caste, religion etc. Every person has
equal right of access to all public places.
2. Right to Freedom: This includes the right to freedom of speech and expression, the right to
move freely, the right to form associations, the right to reside in any part of the country and the
right to practise any kind of profession, occupation or business.

2. Re-read the story on Rathnam as well as the provisions of the 1989 Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. Now list one reason why you think he used this
law to file a complaint.

Answer The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes Prevention of Atrocities Act, 1989 seeks to
punish those who humiliates or ill-treats the member of dalit or tribal groups. Rathnam sought the
support of law, failing his complaint under the above Act to protect against the domination and violence
of the powerful castes in his village.

3. Why do Adivasi activists, including C.K. Janu, believe that Adivasis can also use this 1989
Act to fight against dispossession? Is there anything specific in the provisions of the Act that
allows her to believe this?
Answer The Adivasi activists including C.K. Janu believes that Adivasis can also use this 1989 Act to
fight against dispossession because this Act guarantees the tribals not to be dispossessed from the
land resources forcibly. They pointed specifically that this Act merely confirms what has already been
promised to the tribal people in the Constitution that the land owned by any tribal people can not be
sold to or bought by non-tribal people. In cases where this has happened, the constitution also
guarantees that the right of the tribal people to repossess their land.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 9 Public Facilities

1. Why do you think there are so few cases of private water supply in the world?
Answer: Water is a basic necessity, hence, universal access to safe drinking water is necessary for
quality of life. It needs to be provided to all either free of charge or at affordable rates. But, as private
companies work for one objective that is maximum profits, in cases where the responsibility for water
supply was handed over to private companies, there was a steep rise in the price of water, making it
unaffordable for many. Cities saw huge protests, with riots breaking out, forcing the government to take
back the service from private hands. Therefore, only a few cases of private water supply exist in the
world.

2. Do you think water in Chennai is available to and affordable by all? Discuss.


Answer: Water is not equally available to all the citizens in chennai. Water in Chennai is supplied by
the municipality which fails to meet 100% of demand. Some areas get regular water supply while many
areas get erratic supply of water. People from the middle class and upper class buy packaged drinking
water or water from tankers. The burden of water supply shortage falls mostly on the poor as they
cannot afford the expense of tanker or packaged water. Those who live close to the storage points get
more water while colonies further away receive less supply.

3. How is the sale of water by farmers to water dealers in Chennai affecting the local people? Do
you think local people can object to such exploitation of groundwater? Can the government do
anything in this regard?
Answer: Due to shortage of water, private companies have got an opportunity and are providing
water to cities by buying it from places around the city. In Chennai, water is taken from nearby towns
like, Karungizhi Palur, and Mamandur from villages to the north of the city using a fleet of over 13,000
water tankers. Every month the water dealers pay an advance to farmers for the rights to exploit water
sources on their land. This way the water that is taken away is not just creating a deficit for agriculture
purpose but also increasing the shortage of drinking water supplies of the villagers. As a result, the
level of Ground water have dropped drastically in all these towns and villages.

4. Why are most of the private hospitals and private schools located in major cities and not in
towns or rural areas?
Answer Most of the private schools and hospitals are located in the cities rather than in towns or
villages because their sole motive is maximum profit, the services they offer are costly and are
affordable only by the affluent dwellers of the city.

5. Do you think the distribution of public facilities in our country is adequate and fair? Give an
example of your own to explain.
Answer While there is no doubt that public facilities should be made available to all, in reality we see
that there is a great shortage of such facilities. The distribution of public facilities in our country is
neither adequate nor fair. For example, the Delhites avail all public facilities like healthcare and
sanitation, water, electricity, schools and colleges, public transport. But if we go to places a few
kilometers away such as Mathura or Aligarh people have to face grave crises for these facilities. Water
shortages and Electricity cut-off are the normal routine of life. Public transport is also not properly
developed. Compared to the metros and large cities, towns and villages are under-provided.
Compared to wealthy localities, the poorer localities are under-serviced. Handing over these facilities to
private companies is not an answer. The important fact is that every citizen of the country has a right to
these facilities which should be provided to all in an equitable manner.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

6. Take some of the public facilities in your area, such as water, electricity, etc. Is there scope to
improve these? What in your opinion should be done? Complete the table.

Is it available? How can it be improved?

Water

Electricity

Road

Public Transport

Answer

Is it How can it be improved?


available?

Water yes Constructing separate water tanks and making available water supply 24
hour.

Electricity yes Making available 24 hours electricity supply by keeping a check on


electricity theft and its conservation

Road yes No improvement needed but if there is no proper roads then construction
of new roads, more flyovers, and highways will be of help

Public yes Public transport is good, but better connectivity with some more areas of
Transport the city can be done by introducing new buses and increasing the
frequency of running buses

7. Are the above public facilities shared equally by all the people in your area? Elaborate.
Answer No the above mentioned facilities are not shared equally in the areas. Water supply is not
shared equally by all the people. The slum dwellers have to manage with a single water tap where each
house in a middle class locality has separate connection for water. When people of middle class homes
buy water from tankers to meet their needs, those in slums cannot afford it. However, other facilities,
like electricity, road and public transport are shared equally by all.

8. Data on some of the public facilities are collected as part of the Census. Discuss with your
teacher when and how the Census is conducted.

Answer Students have to do this under the guidance of their teacher.

9. Private educational institutions – schools, colleges, universities, technical and vocational


training institutes are coming up in our country in a big way. On the other hand, educational
institutes run by the government are becoming relatively less important. What do you think
would be the impact of this? Discuss.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics
Answer Education is a basic need and there should be universal access to education. But, as the main
motive of private education institutes is earning profits, they charge high fees which are affordable only
by the affluent section of the society, thus the right to quality education is the right only for the rich
class. Similarly if government education institutes are not upto the mark then weaker sections are again
deprived of quality education. This in turn results in disparity of quality education between rich and
poor.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

Chapter 10 Law & Social Justice

1. Talk to two workers (For example, construction workers, farm workers, factory workers,
workers at any shop) to find out if they are receiving the minimum wages laid down by law.
Answer: Students have to do this by themselves.

2. What are the advantages to foreign companies in setting up production in India?

Answer: The advantages to foreign companies in setting up their production in India is as follows:
1. foreign companies come to India because of cheap labour. Wages that the companies pay to
workers in foreign countries are far higher than what they have to pay to workers in India.
2. Low wages and longer hours of work.
3. Minimum additional expenses such as for housing facilities for workers Thus, companies can
save costs and earn higher profits.
4. Cost cutting can also be done by other more dangerous means like lower working conditions
including lower safety measures are used as ways of cutting costs

3. Do you think the victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy got justice? Discuss.
Answer: The victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy got some monetary compensation but justice. It was
caused due to gross neglect of safety measures by the factory management. The government
represented people to claim compensation for affected ones. The government demanded 3 billion dollar
as compensation of which the company compensated only 470 million dollars. Today, after so many
tears of the tragedy, there are people seeking justice. They still fail to avail safe drinking water,
healthcare facilities and jobs for the people. Many people who were maimed for life have no use for the
compensation money. Hence, it can be said that the victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy did not get
justice.

4. What do we mean when we speak of law enforcement? Who is responsible for enforcement?
Why is enforcement so important?
Answer: Law enforcement means implementation of law. Government is responsible for enforcement.
Enforcement is important when the law seeks to protect the people belonging to the weaker section
from those who are strong and powerful, to ensure that every worker gets fair wages, when workers are
poor or powerless, the fear of losing future earnings or facing reprisals forces them to accept low
wages. Employers use this as a tool to pay workers less than the fair wage. In such cases, it is crucial
that laws are enforced.

5. How can laws ensure that markets work in a manner that is fair? Give two examples to
support your answer.
Answer: Laws ensure that markets work in a fair manner by protecting the people from unfair
practises. The two examples are

Child Labour Prevention Act: This law states that no child below the age of 14 years shall be employed
to work in any factory or mine or engage in any other hazardous employment.
Right against Exploitation: This law states that no one can be forced to work for low wages or under
bondage.
The government has also passed laws to make sure that essential products such as kerosene, food
grain, sugar etc are not highly priced. It is imperative to impose such restrictions on people who are
marketing these types of products so that people of low strate can afford these goods.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 8 Social Science Civics

6. Imagine yourself to be a worker working in a chemical factory, which has received orders
from the government to move to a different site 100 kms away from the present location. Write
about how your life would change? Read out your responses in the classroom.
Answer:

7. Write a paragraph on the various roles of the government that you have read about in this
unit.
Answer: The government plays following roles:
1. Providing public facilities like healthcare, sanitation and water supply and ensures that these are
not overtaken by the private enterprises.
2. Enforcing law against child labour.
3. Fixing minimum wages for workers and revising it from time to time.
4. Enforcing laws regarding safety at the workplace.
5. Enforcing laws regarding the safety of environment.
6. Protecting the interests of consumers against overpricing and standard products.
7. Punishing organisations who do not follow policies to protect environment against pollution.

8. What are the sources of environmental pollution in your area? Discuss with respect to (a) air;
(b) water and (c) soil. What are the steps being taken to reduce the pollution? Can you suggest
some other measures?
Answer: The various sources of environment pollution in our area are as follow:

(a) Smoke of factories petrol and diesel vehicles is the main reason due to which air gets polluted.
(b) The main cause of water pollution is chemical fertilizers and garbage from factories, farms and
houses.
(c) Soil is polluted by the pesticides and fertilisers used to grow crops or by garbage dumped by human
and factory waste.
Steps taken to reduce these pollution are:
various laws have been enforced to keep a check on the environment pollution.
Promotion of CNG vehicles to reduce air pollution.
Strict actions against companies who violate environmental laws.

No rules or laws can help make our environment clean and free of pollution until and unless every
individual of the society takes the responsibility on his part to keep their environment clean. Only
voluntary actions can make our environment pollution free.

9. How was environment treated earlier? What has been the change in perception? Discuss.
Answer: The environment was treated as a 'free' entity and any industry or individual could pollute the
environment without any restrictions. There were very few laws to protect and conserve the
environment in India. Government also paid no attention to safeguarding the environment.
Now there has been a change in perception. Government has introduced various laws to protect and
conserve the environment such as Swachh Bahrat Abhiyan. The courts have given a number of
judgments upholding the right to a healthy environment as intrinsic to the fundamental right to life.
Various laws and procedures check pollution, clean rivers. The government can also impose fine to
those who pollute our precious environment.

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