Mock 2
Mock 2
As per SEBI regulations , a mutual funds scheme should have at least _________
Investor
● 10
● 15
● 20
● 25
CORRECT ANSWER
20
Explanation
As per SEBI, a Mutual Fund Scheme/Plan shall have minimum of 20 investor shall account for
more than 25 percent of the corpus of the Scheme/Plan (s).
Q2. Mutual fund units issued against purchase transactions would be subject to levy of stamp
duty at ______ of the amount invested
● 0.5%
● 0.05%
● 0.005%
● 0.01%
CORRECT ANSWER
0.005%
Explanation
With effect from July 1, 2020, mutual fund units issued against purchased transactions
(whether through lump-sum investment or SIP or STP or switch-ins or divided reinvestment)
would be subject to levy of stamp duty @0.005% of the amount invested.
Q3. To whom does the profits or losses made by mutual fund belongs?
● The investors
● The Asset Management Company
● Fund Managers
● Trustees
CORRECT ANSWER
The Investors
Explanation
The money received from investors is invested by the mutual fund scheme in a portfolio of
securities as per the stated investment objective .Profits or losses, as the case might be ,belong
to investors or unitholders.
No other entity involved in the mutual fund in any capacity participates in the schemes profts
and losses . They are all paid a free or commission for the contributions they make to launching
and operating the schemes.
Q4 What action has to be taken before deleting a default bank account from the registered
bank account in a mutual fund folio?
● A new folio will have to be opened with the same joint holding as the new default
account
● Another account has to be designated as the default bank account
● All the nominess of the mutual fund scheme have to sign on the change from
irrespective of the mode of holding .
CORRECT ANSWER
Another account has to be designated as the default bank account
Explanation
If the default bank account is being deleted from the list of registered accounts , than before
that ,another account has to be designated as the default bank account .
Q5 . The Asset Management Companies have to disclose the Total Expnese Ratios (TER) of the
various schemes on their websites on a _____ basis.
● Daily
● Weekly
● Montly
● Annual
CORRECT ANSWER
Daily
Explanation:
One of the important factors that impacts the scheme’s NAV is the Total Expense Ratio (TER),
charged to the scheme. Through, the same is very tightly regulated through SEBI regulations,
the investor should know about the scheme expense ratio
SEBI has mandated that the Asset Management Companies (AMCs) should prominently
disclosed on a daily basis , the Total expense ratio (scheme- wise , date- wise ) of all schemes on
their website .The same must also be published on AMFI website.
Q6. Financial goals have to be defined in terms of ________
● Time horizon and external funds required
● Cost and economics policies
● Aspiration and desires
● Time horizon and money needed
CORRECT ANSWER
Time horizon and money needed
Explanation:
The first step in goal setting is to identify events in life which will require funding like- marriage,
education, buying a vehicle etc.
The next step is to assign priorities-which of these events are more important than the others
After that one needs to assing a timline as well as amount of funding required at the time of
such events
Q7. If the sale and purchase transactions for year amounted to Rs .10,000 crore, and the
average size of net assets is Rs 5.000 core , this means that investment are held in the portfolio
on an average for ______ .
● 2 months
● 3 months
● 6 months
● 12 months
CORRECT ANSWER
6 months
Explanation:
Portfolio Turnover Ratio is calculated as Value of Purchase and Sale of Securities during a period
divided by the average size of net asset of the scheme during the period.
=Rs. 10,000 crore + Rs 5,000 crore = 2 or 200 percent
This means that investment are held in the portfolio, on an average for 12 montss + 2 i.e, 6
months.
Q8 . Investors tend to extrapolate the current event into the future and expect a repeat. This is
an example of _____ bias
● Overconfidence
● Recency
● Heard Mentality
● Familiarity
CORRECT ANSWER
Recency
Explanation:
Recency bias : The impact of recent events on decision making can be very strong . This applies
equality to positive and negative experiences . Investors tend to extrapolate the event into the
future and expect a repeat.
A bear market or a financial crisis lead people to prefer safe assets . Similarly,a bull market
makes people allocate more than what is advised for risky assets .The recent experience
overrides analysis in decision making.
Q9 . ______ is a proper benchmark for a balanced hybrid scheme.
● CRISIL Hybrid 75 + 25 , Conservative Index
● CRISIL Hybrid 25 + 75 , Aggressive Index
● CRISIL Hybrid 50 + 50 , Moderate Index
Correct answer
CRISIL Hybrid 50 + 50 , Moderate Index
Explanation:
CRISIL blended indices for hybrid funds:
Aggressive Hybrid Fund – CRISIL Hybrid 25+75 , Aggressive Index
Balanced Hybrid Fund – CRISIL Hybrid 50 + 50 , Moderate Index
Conservative Hybrid Fund – CRISIL Hybrid 75+25, Conservative Index.
Q 10 . Long Duration debt scheme invests in debt instruments with Macaulay duration _____.
● between 1 year and 3 years
● below 1 year
● greater than 7 years
● 6 months and 12 months
CORRECT ANSWER
greater than 7 years
Explanation:
Macaulay Duration is the weighted average of the time to receive the cash flows from a bond.
Long Duration Fund : An open – ended debt scheme investing in debt and money market
instruments with Macaulay duration greater than 7 years.
Q 11. When the asset allocation is maintained as a constant ratio by regular rebalancing of
portfolio , it is know as _____ .
● Dynamic asset allocation
● Flexible asset allocation
● Fixed asset allocation
● Variable asset allocation
CORRECT ANSWER
Fixed asset allocation
Explanation :
For eg – If a fund has a fixed asset allocation of 50:50 for Debt and Equity and if equity valuation
rises by 10 % then as per the fixed asset allocation strategy, 10 % of equity portfolio will be sold
and debt will be bought so that the debt equity valuation will be 50 :50
CORRECT ANSWER
Both for Application form/transaction slip and payment instrument
Explanation:
Time stamping is mandatory for all financial transactions in mutual funds like purchase,
redemption etc. The application form, the payment instrument etc. have to be time and date
stamped.
Q 15 . Banks and NBFC’s can lend money against ________ of mutual fund units
● Nomination
● Redemption
● Pledge
● All of the above
CORRECT ANSWER
Pledge
Explanation:
Banks ,NBFC’s and other financiers often lend money against pledge of Units by the Unitholder.
This is effected through a Pledge Form executed by the unit-holder (pledger).The form has a
provision for specifying the party in whose favour the units are pledged (pledgee)
Q 16 . Whom should the investor approach if his complaint is not resolved by the Asset
Management Company (AMC)?
● Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
● Custodian
● Company Law Board
● Ombudsman
CORRECT ANSWER
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Explanation :
In the event of any issue with the AMC of mutual funds scheme , the investor can first approach
the AMC investor Service Centre . If the issues is not redressed , even after taking it up at
senior levels in the AMC, then the investor can write to SEBI (through SCORES) with the
complaint details.
SEBI complaint Redress System (SCORES) is a web based centralized grievance redress system of
SEBI SCORES enables investors to lodge, follow up on the complaints and tracks the status or
redressal of such complaints online.
CORRECT ANSWER
As the purchase and re-purchase is done with the mutual fund , the investor does not have to
pay any capital gain tax
Explanation :
Infalation, or price inflation is the general rise in the prices of various commonodities ,product
and services that we consume .
Inflation erodes the purchasing power of the money.
Infaltion risk is also reffered to as purchasing power risk , is the risk that inflation will
undermine the real value of cash flows made from and investment.
(Long –term is define as holding period of more than three years in case of non-
equityoriented funds like debt funds, whereas the same is more than 1 year in
case of equity –oriented funds)
Q19. Long term capital gains is Not taxed in which of these funds?
A. Balanced Advantage Funds
B. Balanced Funds
C. Diversified Equity Funds
● Both A and B
● Only C
● Only A
● Capital gains from all types of mutual funds are taxed subject to certain conditions
CORRECT ANSWER
Capital gains from all types of mutual funds are taxed subject to certain conditions
Explanation:
Capital gains form Equity, Debt and Hybrid funds are taxed to certain conditions like the holding
period etc.
Q 21 . The loss booked from a debt investment of 15 months can be set off against ______
● Long term capital loss
● Short term capital loss
● Short term capital gain or long term capital gain
● It cannot be set-off
CORRECT ANSWER
Short term capital gain or long term gain
Explanation
A capital gain or loss from an investment of less than 3 years in a debt instruments is
considered as Short term .
Short term capital loss is to be set off against short term capital gain or long term capital
gain.
Long term capital loss can only be set off against long term capital gain.
Q 22 . Which if these statement are false?
A. While evaluating scheme , the Exqpense Ratio will matter much more in Debt Funds
than Equity mutual funds.
B. A mutual fund with a long track record is always better for investment as it would
give higher returns in the future
C. Ultra short term debt fund always invest in high credit quality debt securities
● A and B are false
● B and C are false
● A and C are false
● All A ,B and C are false
CORRECT ANSWER
B and C are false
Explanation:
1. Any cost is a drag on investor’s returns.Investors neeed to be particularly
careful about the cost structure of debt scheme’s because in the normal
course, debt returns can be much lower than equity schemes. So expense
ratio is more critical for debt funds.
2. The mutual fund advertisements use the disclaimer. “ Past performance may
or may not be sustained in future .”There is a reason for that . As expected
has shown time and again ,the top performers during one period may not
neccesarily remain as a top performer forever or near the other top
performaers or near top performers and vice versa . In such case , Simply
buying into a scheme due to good returns in the recent past may not be wise
approach .
3. When the limits are not tightly defined , the fund manager may assume an
active role in managing the risk ,e.g. an ultra –short term debt fund may take
credit risk since the SENI regulation only define the permitted maturity
profile ,which indicates how much interest risk the scheme can take.
Q 23 . Ultra –short –term debt scheme invests in debt and money market
instruments with Macaulay duration between ______
● 1 to 3 months
● 3 to 6 months
● 6 to 12 months
● 1 year to 3 years
CORRECT ANSWER
3 to 6 months
Explanation:
Macaulay Duration is the weighted average of the time to receive the cash flows
form a bond.
An open ended ultra-short-term debt scheme invests in debt and ,oney market
intruments with Macaulay duration between 3 month to 6 months
CORRECT ANSWER
Date the dividend is announced till it is paid out
Explanation:
When a dividend is announced , and until it is paid out ,it is referred to as cum –
Dividend NAV.
CORRECT ANSWER
SEBI
Explanation :
The expenses which can be charged and the expense ratio etc . are mentioned in the
SEBI Mutual Funds Regulation , 1996 which the AMC have to adhere to .
CORRECT ANSWER
While calculating scheme returns for an investors , if there is an entry load , then the
intial value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) Is taken as NAV minus Entry Load.
Explanation:
If there is an entry load on a scheme then while calculating the scheme returns, the
intial value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV plus the Entry load as the
cost of purchase increases due to the entry load . So entry load has to be added to
the NAV and not subtracted.
For redemption , Instead of the later value of NAV ( which is used to calculating
scheme returns) , the amount actually received/receivable by the investors (i.e NAV
minus Exit Load , If any ) would need to be used.
CORRECT ANSWER
:
Explanation :
ETF’s are passive funds whose portfolio replicates an index or benchmark such as
an equity market index or a commodity index.
The units of the EFT are traded at a real time prices that are linked to the
changes in the underlying index. The market price also tracks the NAV very
closely.
CORRECT ANSWER
Explanation:
SID has information on relevant NFO dates (opening,closing,re-opening),
KIM is essentially a summary of the SID and SAi.It contains the key points of the
offer document including the dates of Issue Opening,Issue Closing & Re-opening
for Sale and Re-purchase
.CORRECT ANSWER
Explanation:
ETFs are passive funds whose portfolio replicates an index or benchmark such as
an equity market index or a commodity index.
The units of the ETF are traded at real time prices that are linked to the changes
in the underlying index. The market price also tracks the NAV very closely.
A. Investment Pattern
B.Annual portfolio turnover
C. Annual securities transactions
CORRECTANSWER:
A and B
Explanation:
Asset Management Company (AMC) shall disclose to unit holders investment
pattern, portfolio details, ratios of expenses to net assets and total income
and portfolio turnover wherever applicable in respect of schemes on annual
basis.
Q 33. In which of these options can an investor expect a cash flow in his
bank account?
● Bonus
● Dividend Payout
● Dividend Reinvestment
● Growth
CORRECTANSWER:
Dividend Payout
Explanation:
Only if the investor chooses Dividend Pay-out option in his mutual fund
investments, the money will flow into his bank account whenever the mutual
fund pays the dividend.
In a bonus issue, the investor does not pay anything. The fund allots new
units for free.
CORRECTANSWER:
People of same age will have same risk appetite
Explanation:
One of the common factors that many people use to evaluate the investor's
risk profile is the investor's age. It is popularly believed that younger
investors have the potential for taking higher risks compared to old people.
CORRECT ANSWER
:
Explanation:
Holding period returns is calculated for a fixed period such as one month,
three months, one year , three years or since inception. Holding period
returns may not present an accurate picture of the returns from a fund if the
initial value or the end value used for calculator was too high or low.
To eliminate this impact rolling returns are calculated. Rolling returns is the
average annualized return calculated for multiple consecutive holding period
in an evaluation period.
CORRECT ANSWER
Explanation:
Asset Allocation is a process of allocating money across various asset
categories in line with a stated objective.
Explanation:
The sector funds invest in stocks belonging to just one sector of the
economy,in order to take advantages within the said sector. The examples of
such funds are:Pharma fund or Banking fund.
Sector funds are very risky because of the concentration in one sector. If the
sector underperforms then the scheme's returns is likely to be poor.
Explanation:
The difference betweena scheme's actual return and its optimal return isits
Alpha-a measure of the fund manager's performance.
Q43. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) functions does not include
which of the following?
● Regulation of Stock Exchanges Enforcing compliance of its regulations
● Making regulations for the MutualFund industry
● Approving the fund managers which have been appointed by the
AMC
CORRECTANSWER:
Approving the fund managers which have been appointed by the AMC
Explanation:
An approval of SEBI is not required by the AMC while appointing the fund
managers.
CORRECTANSWER:
Encouraging the churning of investments
Explanation:
Churning means frequent buying and selling.
● Only A Only B
● Both A and B
CORRECTANSWER:
Only A
Explanation:
Q 46 . Once a New Fund Offer closes , an open ended mutual fund is open for
Purchase _______
● By an existing investors only
● By existing investors on the stock exchange platform only
● By both existing and new investors
CORRECT ANSWER :
By both existing and new investors
Explanation:
An Open Ended mutual fund can be purchased by both new and existing
investors through the traditional way or through stock exchages.
Q 47. An investor in India is investing in US Dollar based funds. He/ She will
benefit when _____
● The US Dollar becomes weaker
● The US Dollar becomes stronger
● The US Dollar reamins steady
CORRECT ANSWER
The US Dollar becomes stronger
Explanation:
If the investor invests in the US, and the US Dollar becomes stronger during
the period of his investment, he/she will benefit.
For eg. •An investor buys USO 1000 worth of units in a US mutual fund
when the exchange rate was Rs 75 for 1 USO. So his investment is Rs 75000
If USO becomes stronger against India Rupee and rises to Rs. 77 and he
sells USO 1000 worth of units, his realisation in Indian rupees is 1000 x 77 =
Rs 77000. So he earns Rs 2000
(This is assuming all other factors like the NAV of the mutual fund
remaining the same)
CORRECTANSWER:
NAV minus exit load
Explanation:
Schemes are permitted to keep the re-purchase Price lower than the NAV.
The difference between the NAV and re-purchase Price is called the "exit
load".
If the NAV of a scheme is Rs. 11.00 per unit,and it were to charge exit load
of 1 percent,the re-purchase Price would be Rs. 11- 1 percent on Rs. 11i.e.
Rs. 10.89.
● Only A is true
● Only B is true
● Both A and B are true
CORRECTANSWER:
Only A is true
Explanation:
Tracking error is a measure of the consistency of the out-performance of
the fund manager relative to the benchmark.The tracking error has to be
low for a consistently out-performing fund.
CORRECT ANSWER
Explanation:
Investments are taken at their market value. This is done, to ensure that
sale and re-purchase transact ions are effected at the true worth of the
unit, including the gains on the investment portfolio.