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Image Pro Set B

The document is a test for radiologic technologists containing 40 multiple choice questions about various topics in radiology such as: 1. Components of film emulsion and the purpose of intensifying screens. 2. The stages of film processing including developing, fixing, and washing as well as the purpose of solutions used in each stage. 3. Factors that affect radiographic image quality like mA, kVp, filtration, and grid design. 4. Characteristics of screen-film systems like film speed and sensitivity. The test covers both the technical and scientific aspects of producing and processing radiographic images.

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Andrea Gevela
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
199 views9 pages

Image Pro Set B

The document is a test for radiologic technologists containing 40 multiple choice questions about various topics in radiology such as: 1. Components of film emulsion and the purpose of intensifying screens. 2. The stages of film processing including developing, fixing, and washing as well as the purpose of solutions used in each stage. 3. Factors that affect radiographic image quality like mA, kVp, filtration, and grid design. 4. Characteristics of screen-film systems like film speed and sensitivity. The test covers both the technical and scientific aspects of producing and processing radiographic images.

Uploaded by

Andrea Gevela
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 9

Seat No: _____

Republic of the Philippines


PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGY

RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGY Licensure Examination


May 17, 2013 11:30 a.m. – 2:00 p.m.

IMAGE PRODUCTION & EVALUATION SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Which of the following ingredients is NOT normally found in the film emulsion?
A. Silver iodide C. Silver halide
B. Silver nitrate D. Silver bromide
 
2. What stage of processing involves a synergistic reaction?
A. Washing C. Drying
B. Fixing D. Developing

3. Its function is to increase the efficiency of the IS, nearly doubling the number of light photons reaching
the film.
A. Protective coat C. Reflective layer
B. Adhesive layer D. Film

4. It only transmits light having wavelengths longer than about 550 nm.
A. Amber C. Red
B. Blue D. Green

5. Which of the following is constructed so as to absorb much of the primary radiation that would expose
the low-tissue-density area, while allowing the primary radiation to pass unaffected to the high-tissue-
density area?
A. Filter C. Collimator
B. Grid D. Intensifying screen

6. Quantum mottle is MOST obvious when using:


A. Slow- speed screens C. Fine- grain film
B. Rare earth screens D. Minimal filtration

7. A criteria for viewing satisfactory radiographic quality would be:


A. Full usage of dense spot viewers C. Sight development
B. Variable intensity view – box D. Proper and adequate illumination
 
8. Aerial oxidation is controlled by the:
A. Fixer C. Restrainer
B. Activator D. Preservative

9. Which of the following is the LEAST important characteristic of screen film?


A. Sensitivity C. Cost
B. Contrast D. Light Absorption

1
10. Artifacts caused by wet pressure sensitization usually occur
A. Before processing C. In the fixing tank
B. In the drying chamber D. In the developing tank
 
11. What stage of processing is recommended to neutralize the alkaline developer?
A. Stop bath C. Developing
B. Fixing D. Washing

12. What is the solution that provides acidic pH and stops reduction?
A. Activator C. Preservative
B. Hardener D. Neutralizer

13. Which of the following would principally reduce the production of scatter radiation?
A. A decrease in KVP C. A decrease in SID
B. Use of a grid D. Use of a filter

14. Why does the manufacturer pack x-ray film in metal foil?
A. Protect it from moisture C. Prevent static
B. Eliminate the risks of radiation fog D. Keep film clean

15. Which of the following do NOT affect the speed of an intensifying screen?
A. Thickness of active layer of phosphor C. Screen contact
B. Reflectance of cardboard D. Size of phosphor crystal

16. What is the most common practice being used, in designing radiographic techniques.
A. Linear moving grid C. Focused moving grid
B. Linear stationary grid D. Focused stationary grid
 
17. When producing comparable radiographs, which of the following combinations will result in the lowest
patient dose?
A. Low kVp and low ratio grids C. Low kVp and high ratio grids
B. High kVp and high ratio grids D. High kVp and low ratio grids

18. What terms refers to the ability to accurately image an object?


A. Speed C. Latitude
B. Resolution D. Contrast

19. What equipment is required to provide an accurate reading of the amount of light transmitted through
the film?
A. Step wedge C. Sensitometer
B. Penetrometer D. Densitometer

20. The speed of an emulsion is governed by its


A. Average grain size C. Average shape
B. Grain distribution D. Emulsion thickness

21. A blue-sensitive film emulsion is


A. Panchromatic C. Orthochromatic
B. Monochromatic D. Polychromatic

22. Decreasing the developer temperature will


A. Increase contrast C. Lower oxidation
B. Decrease contrast D. Lower the density

23. Which of these is / are activator agent in the developer solution


1. Sodium theosulafate
2. Potassium hydroxide
3. potassium aluminum
A. 2 & 3 only C. 2 only
B. 1 & 2 only D.1, 2 & 3

24. Which reduces sulphurization of the fixing agent to a minimum?


A. Preservative C. Acid
B. Solvent D. Hardener

2
 
25. Which causes a brownish stain on the film due to inadequate washing?
A. Thiosulfate C. Ammonium
B. Potassium D. Carbon

26. Assuring good screen-film contact also assures reduced in:


A. Radiographic noise C. Magnification
B. Patient dose D. Blur
 
27. Which of the following is NOT a required characteristic of base for an intensifying screen?
A. Translucent C. Rugges
B. Chemically inert D. Flexible

28. If we wish to double the density of a given film we can


A. Half the distance factor C. Double mA factor
B. Double the kVp factor D. Double the distance factor

29. What is the flexible support of the emulsion?


A. Gelatin C. Base
B. Silver halide D. Protective coating

30. What beam restricting device which flares or diverges, with the upper diameter smaller than the bottom
flared end?
A. Cylinders C. Collimator
B. Cones D. Aperture diaphragms
 
31. After predetermined processing period, which one is holted when the film is place in the fixer:
A. Developing C. Development
B. Developer D. Developed

32. Which of the following DOES NOT greatly affect imaging quality but is expensive?
A. Over replenishment of the developer C. Over replenishment of the fixer
B. Replenishment of the fixer D. Under replenishment of the developer
 
33. What is the primary purpose of the circulation system?
A. Replenish the chemistry C. Control the chemistry system
B. Agitate the film D. Agitate the chemistry

34. What developing agent helps to provide upper scale density?


A. Hydroquinone C. Phenidone
B. Metol D. Gluteraldehyde
 
35. What developing agent helps to provide intermediate densities?
A. Hydroquinone C. Gluteraldehyde
B. Phenidone D. Potassium bromide
 
36. What developer solution is used to maintain uniform film thickness and to assist in transport through
an automatic processor?
A. Hardener C. Preservative
B. Restrainer D. Activator
 
37. What is advisable time / period change processing solutions in an automatic processor?
A. Every three months C. Every week
B. Every month D. Every year
 
38. What device is used to evaluate the sensitometric readings from the processed image?
A. Sensitometer C. Step - wedge
B. Densitometer D. Monitoring
 
39. What artifacts caused by raised dirt on roller sensitizing film as it passes by?
A. Guide shoe scratches C. Pi lines
B. Temperature fluctuations D. Film fog

3
40. Which of the following is the LEAST important indicator of grid performance?
A. Contrast improvement C. Grid ratio
B. Grid frequency D. Grid – strip height
 
41 What equipment is designed to expose reproducible, uniform, optical step-wedge onto film?
A. Penetrometer C. Step - wedge
B. Densitometer D. Sensitometer

42. The sharpness of detail in a radiograph is best increased by the use of?
A. Medium speed screens C. Large effective focal spot
B. High speed screens D. Small effective focal spot
 
43. What is the color of the radiographic film base to minimize the effect of ambient light passing through
large unexposed areas of the radiograph?
A. Tinted blue C. Tinted blue - green
B. Tinted green D. Tinted yellow – orange

44. Orthochromatic emulsions are sensitive to wavelength:


A. Less than 620 nm C. More than 620 nm
B. Less than 610 nm D. More than 610 nm

45. Substratum also refers to:


A. Protective coating C. Gelatin
B. Polyester D. Adhesive material
 
46. Panchromatic emulsions are sensitive to which of the following wavelengths:
1. Whole visible spectrum
2. Shorter wavelength
3. Wavelength less than 620 nm
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3

47. What is the active ingredient of the radiographic film emulsion?


A. Polyester C. Silver nitrate
B. Gelatin D. Silver halide
 
48. What is/are the primary agent(s) of the developer?
1. Reducing
2. Phenidone
3. Hydroquinone
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 1 only D. 2 and 3

49. What do you call the invisible change in a radiographic film that is caused either by light or x- radiation?
A. Exposure C. Visible image
B. Latent image D. Processing

50. Which of the following can cause oxidation of the developer and diminishing its chemical activity?
A. Evaporation C. Exhaustion
B. Contamination D. Replenishment
 
51. According to the ANSI standards, the maximum amount of hyporetention allowed is ________µg/cm3
A. 2 C. 8
B. 5 D. 10

52. Which of the processing chemical is responsible for creating optical densities above 1.2 on a diagnosis
image?
A. Phenidone C. Elon
B. Hydroquinone D. Metol

53. Which system of the automatic processor consumes the greatest amount of electrical power?
A. Transport C. Circulation
B. Replenishment D. Dryer

4
54. Which of the following is located at the bottom of each processing tank?
A. Entrance rack C. Turnaround rack
B. Vertical rack D. Crossover rack

55. Which of the following materials are used in the construction of an entrance roller?
A. Acrylic plastic (Plexiglas) C. Polyester
B. Stainless steel D. Rubberized plastic

56. Hydrogen ions (H+) that constitute 1/10,000 of a molar of a liquid would have which of the following
pH values?
A. 2 C. 6
B. 4 D. 8

57. Which of the following units is used for measurement of precious metal such as silver?
A. Standard ounce C. Troy ounce
B. Avoirdupois ounce D. None of the above

58. Which of the following is the largest worldwide consumer of silver?


A. Photographic industry C. Sterlingware industry
B. Electronics industry D. Space program

59. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1987 limits liquid waste to a toxic level of
no more than _____________ ppm
A. 2 C. 10
B. 5 D. 100

60. From which of the following components do most silver recovery systems reclaim the silver?
A. Developer solution C. Wash water
B. Fixer solution D. Dryer section

61. Problems with steel wool metallic replacement cartridges include (1) channeling, (2) rusting, and (3)
drain stoppage:
A. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

62. When electrolytic silver recovery units are used, the silver is deposited on which of the following?
A. Anode C. Both anode and cathode
B. Cathode D. Neither anode and cathode

63. The oldest form of silver recovery is the _______________ method.


A. Metallic replacement C. Chemical precipitation
B. Electrolytic D. Resin

64. Which of the following are factors that affect the efficacy of silver reclamation systems: (1) dwell time,
(2) agitation, or (3) surface area?
A. 1 and 2 only C. 1and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

65. What percentage of silver is normally dissolved in the fixer solution during film processing?
A. 10% C. 50%
B. 25% D. 90%

66. What is the margin of error for the specific gravity of processing solutions?
A. 0.002 C. 0.006
B. 0.004 D. 0.1

67. Which of the following cannot be determined by an H and D curve or a processor control chart?
A. Film sensitivity C. Recorded detail
B. Film Contrast D. B + F

68. What type of films does the presence of bromide drag produce?
A. Overdeveloped C. Underfixed
B. Underdeveloped D. Overfixed

5
69. When is the best time to process sensitometric films?
A. Morning, after the processor is warmed up
B. Late morning or midday, after peak-demand period
C. Late afternoon, during the lowest-demand period
D. Evening, during the lowest-demand period

70. Which of the following terms best describes a device designed to give precise, reproducible and
graded light exposures to a film?
A. Densitometer C. Sensitometer
B. Photometer D. Penetrometer

71. Which of the following values is the maximum variation allowed for the contrast indicator in daily
sensitometricfilms.
A. + 0.01 C. + 0.15
B. + 0.05 D. + 0.2

72. Which of the following characteristics explains why daily quality control activities are normally required
for film processing systems?
A. High degree of complexity C. High degree of consistency
B. High degree of variability D. None of the above

73. What is the principal purpose of the washing process?


A. Stoppage of the fixation C. Maintenance of the solution activity
B. Stoppage of the development process D. Removal of fixer solution

74. Temperature variation in older models of automatic processors are often related to changes in which
of the following variables?
A. Temperature of the dryer section C. Replenisher rate
B. Incoming water supply D. Film transportation rate

75. Which of the following terms defines the relationship between the intensity of radiation absorbed by
the film and the optical density produced?
A. Densitometer C. Sensitometer
B. Dosimeter D. Sensitivity

76. Poor screen film contract will result in loss of


A. Speed C. Contrast
B. Detail D. Density

77. A decrease in kilovoltage by 15% will reduce the film blackening by


A. One half C. Itself
B. One D. Fifteen

78. Grid is placed between the patient and the film in order to:
A. Decreased primary exposure factor C. Reduced scattered radiation
B. Increased the technique D. Add primary radiation

79. In the geometric aspects of image formation magnification will increase if


A. SID increased C. Definition is constant
B. MAS will added D. OFD will increase

80. Increase in KVP will __________ the production of scatter radiation


A. Zeroing C. Decrease
B. Add D. Increase

81. The difference in radiographic density on a processed image is


A. Photographic density C. Processing chemicals
B. Radiographic contrast D. Radiographic density
 
82. Misrepresentation of the image shape is called
1. Foreshortening
2. Elongation
3. Magnification
4. Distortion

6
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, and 3 only

83. The long – scale radiographic contrast produces


1. A small difference between adjacent densities
2. Low kilovoltage
3. Many shades of gray
A. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

84. The emulsion consists of approximately how many percent of silver chloride or silver iodide?
A. 95% C. 20%
B. 5% D. 60%
 
85. What process is conducted automatically by automatic film processors?
A. Exhaustion C. Developing
B. Fixing D. Replenishment

86. Which of the following does not affect patient dose during diagnostic radiography?
A. Inherent filtration C. Focal spot size
B. Added filtration D. Source-to-image distance (SID)

87. Which of the following is the main reason to prohibit food and drink in a film darkroom?
A. Avoid contamination of processor solutions C. Prevent pressure marks on the film
B. Prevent artifacts D. Prevent static artifacts

88. Which of the following terms best describes the amount of light that is emitted from or by scattered by
surface?
A. Photometry C. Illuminance
B. Luminance D. Optical density

89. Which of the following names a device that can be used to measure darkroom humidity levels?
A. Sensitometer C. Hydrometer
B. Densitometer D. Psychrometer

90. Proper darkroom ventilation should include _____________________ room changes of air per hour?
A. 3 to 5 C. 8 to 10
B. 6 to 8 D. 10 to 12

91. Which of the following terms refers to the amount of light emitted by a screen for a given amount of x-
ray exposure?
A. Speed C. Lag
B. Sensitivity D. Resolution

92. Which of the following terms best describes the ability of a screen material to convert x-ray energy into
light energy?
A. Screen speed C. Conversion
B. Quantum Detection Efficiency (QDE) D. Resolution

93. Why should boxes of film and containers of developer solution not be stored near each other?
A. Developer contains naturally occurring radioactive material.
B. Pressure marks can occur on the film
C. Static electricity is more common.
D. None off the above are correct

94. Photometric readings from each quadrant of the angle box panel should not vary by more than + ___ %.
A. 2 C. 10
B. 5 D. 20

95. Which of the following terms best describes the ability of an imaging system to create separate images
of closely spaced high-contrast objects?
A. Screen speed C. Contrast resolution
B. Spatial resolution D. Quantum mottle

7
96. Which of the following terms is the unit most commonly used to measure luminance?
A. Lux C. Foot-candle
B. Nit D. Lumen

97. When mixing developer solution from concentrate, which part should be placed into the tank first?
A. Part A C. Part C
B. Part B D. Water

98. What would cause ammonia –like odor in a darkroom?


A. Contamination of the fixer C. Improper mixing of the developer
B. Oxidation of the developer D. Over replenishment of the developer

99. In an automatic processor, which of the following is not considered part of the three principal
subsystems of the film transport system?
A. Microswitch C. Transport racks
B. Rollers D. Drive motor

100. If the developer temperature is set at 96oF, then the water wash temperature should be set at ___of?
A. 86 C. 96
B. 91 D. 101

*** END ***

SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR
WATCHERS

8
IMAGE PRODUCTION & EVALUATION ----SET B
KEY ANSWER

1. B 26. D 51. A 76. B


2. D 27. A 52. B 77. A
3. C 28. C 53. D 78. C
4. A 29. C 54. C 79. D
5. A 30. B 55. D 80. D
6. B 31. C 56. B 81. B
7. D 32. C 57. C 82. A
8. D 33. D 58. A 83. C
9. C 34. A 59. B 84. B
10. D 35. B 60. B 85. D
11. A 36. A 61. D 86. C
12. D 37. C 62. B 87. B
13. A 38. B 63. C 88. C
14. A 39. C 64. D 89. D
15. C 40. D 65. C 90. C
16. C 41. D 66. B 91. A
17. D 42. D 67. C 92. C
18. B 43. A 68. B 93. A
19. D 44. C 69. A 94. C
20. A 45. D 70. C 95. B
21. B 46. D 71. C 96. B
22. D 47. D 72. B 97. D
23. C 48. B 73. D 98. B
24. A 49. B 74. B 99. A
25. A 50. A 75. C 100. B

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